Banking
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200 MCQs with Answers
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200 Questions for Banking
Exams
Q1) What percent of a day in 6 hours?
A. 25%
B. 52%
C. 50%
D. 5%
Correct Answer: “A”
Q2) The population of of a town is 176000. If it increases at the rate of 5% per annum,
what will be it’s population 2 years hence?
A. 194000
B. 194040
C. 190440
D. 194104
Correct Answer: “B”
Q3) The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 20% and 30%. The area of
the resulting rectangle exceeds the area of the original rectangle?
A. 50%
B. 65%
C. 56%
D. 156%
Correct Answer: “C”
Q4) Sugar contain 5% water. What quantity of pure Sugar should be added to 10 litres
of water to reduce this to 2%.
A. 5 lit
B. 6 lit
C. 10 lit
D. 15 lit
Correct Answer: “D”
Q5) The price of a fan is decreased by 20%. As a result of which the sale increased by
40%. What will be the effect on the total revenue of the shop?
A. 12%
B. 10%
C. 20%
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D. 30%
Correct Answer: “A”
Q6) 45% of ? = 25% of 355
A. 195
B. 176
C. 127
D. 197.22
Correct Answer: “D”
Q7) Out of 500 students of a school 35% students plays football, 25% plays cricket
and 20% neither play football nor cricket. How many students play football and cricket
?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 50
D. 94
Correct Answer: “A”
Q8) Fresh fruits contains 70% of water and dry fruits contain 20% of water. How much
dry fruit can be obtained from 100kg of fresh fruits?
A. 35
B. 37
C. 37.5
D. 40
Correct Answer: “C”
Q9) If Harish height is 30% less than that of Yogesh. How much percentage Yogesh
height is more than that of Harish?
A. 42.58%
B. 42.8%
C. 42.83%
D. 42.85%
Correct Answer: “D
Q10) The population of a city is increased 5% ,7% and 11% in the last three years.
What will be the present population if the population of a town is 2,40,000 three years
ago?
A. 2,99,600
B. 2,99,500
C. 2,99,400
D. 2,99,300
Correct Answer: “D”
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Q11) 500 pencils were distributed equally among children in such a way that the
number of pencils received by each child is 20% of the total number of children. How
many pencils did each child receive?
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 43
Correct Answer: “B”
Q12) One type of liquid contains 20% water and the second type of liquid contains
35% water. A glass filled with 8 parts of the first liquid and 5 parts of the second
liquid. The water percentage in the new mixture is
A. 25.75
B. 25.76
C. 25.67
D. 25.56
Correct Answer: “B”
Q13) If the radius of the circle is increased by 5% then the area is increased by
A. 10.20
B. 10.22
C. 10.24
D. 10.25
Correct Answer: “D”
Q14) In an election a candidate who got 25% of the total votes polled was defeated by
his rival by 270 votes. Assuming that there were only 2 candidates in the election, the
total number of votes polled was
A. 400
B. 500
C. 440
D. 540
Correct Answer: “D”
Q15) The population of a town is 16500. During the last 3 years, the population
increased at the rate of 20% per year. The population 3 years ago was
A. 9546
B. 9547
C. 9548
D. 9549
Correct Answer: “D”
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Q16) The passing marks in an examination is 40%. If Ashok gets 88 marks and is
declared failed by 10 marks, then the maximum mark in the examination is
A. 240
B. 242
C. 245
D. 246
Correct Answer: “C”
Q17) From the salary, Akhilesh spent 15% for house rent, 5% for children’s education
and 15% for Entertainment. Now he left with Rs.13,000. His salary is
A. 19,000
B. 20,000
C. 18,000
D. 15,000
Correct Answer: “B”
Q18) In an examination 30% of the students failed in Science, 45% of the students
failed in Maths and 25% of the students failed in both subjects. Find the % of the
students passed?
A. 60%
B. 30%
C. 45%
D. 50%
Correct Answer: “D”
Q19) The salary of a workers increased by 15% and decreased by 7%, What % change
rises in his salary?
A. 10%
B. 7%
C. 5%
D. 8%
Correct Answer: “B”
Q20) In an examination, 30% of the maximum marks required to pass. A student get
120 marks and failed by 90marks. Find the maximum marks
A. 800
B. 720
C. 650
D. 700
Correct Answer: “D”
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Q21) P’s income is 20% more than Q’s income. How much % Q’s income less than P’s
income?
A. 18.54%
B. 16.67%
C. 17.76%
D. 15.75%
Correct Answer: “B”
Q22) The value of commodity depreciated 20% annually. If the value of commodity
3yrs ago was Rs.10,500. Find it’s present value?
A. 3678
B. 5700
C. 4567
D. 5376
Correct Answer: “D”
Q23) In an alloy, there is 15% of brass, to get 90 kg of brass, how much alloy is
needed?
A. 400 kg
B. 500 kg
C. 600 kg
D. 700 kg
Correct Answer: “C”
Q24) In an examination if a person get 20% of the marks then it is fail by 30 marks.
Another person who gets 30% marks gets 30 marks more than the passing marks.
Find out the total marks and the passing marks.
A. 600 and 150
B. 600 and 180
C. 500 and 150
D. 500 and 180
Correct Answer: “A”
Q25) In an election the votes between the winner and loser candidate are in the ratio
5:1. If total number of eligible voters are 1000, out of which 12% did not cast their vote
and among the remaining vote 10% declared invalid. What is the number of votes the
winner candidate get?
A. 620
B. 630
C. 640
D. 660
Correct Answer: “D”
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Q26) 1000 sweets need to be distributed equally among the school students in such a
way that each student gets sweet equal to 10% of total students. Then the number of
sweets, each student gets.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Correct Answer: “A”
Q27) The income of a person is 10000 and its expenditure is 6000 and thus saves
4000rs. In the next year his income is increased by 10% and its expenditure increased
by 20%. Now his saving is what percent lower than the previous saving.
A. 5%
B. 7.5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Correct Answer: “A”
Q28) 0% of the students like Mathematics, 50% like English and 10% like both
Mathematics and English. What % of the students like neither English nor
Mathematics?
A. 25%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 60%
Correct Answer: “C”
Q29) If the price of wheat is reduced by 2%. How many kilograms of wheat a person
can buy with the same money which was earlier sufficient to buy 49 kg of wheat?
A. 58 kg
B. 60 kg
C. 52 kg
D. 50 kg
Correct Answer: “D”
Q30) The monthly salary of A is 30% more than B’s monthly salary and B’s monthly
salary is 20% less than C’s. If the difference between the monthly salaries of A and C
is Rs 800, then find the annual salary of B.
A. Rs 14,500
B. Rs 16,800
C. Rs 15,000
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
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Q31) 3 years ago the population of a town was 1,60,000. In the three respective years
the population increased by 3%, 2.5% and 5% respectively. What is the population of
town after 3 years?
A. 1,77,366
B. 1,66,733
C. 1,76,736
D. 1,80,766
Correct Answer: “A”
Q32) There are 2500 students who appeared for an examination. Out of these, 35%
students failed in 1 subject and 42% in other subject and 15% of students failed in
both the subjects. How many of the students passed in either of the 2 subjects but not
in both?
A. 1925
B. 1175
C. 1275
D. 1100
Correct Answer: “B”
Q33) A bucket is filled with water such that the weight of bucket alone is 25% its
weight when it is filled with water. Now some of the water is removed from the bucket
and now the weight of bucket along with remaining water is 50% of the original total
weight. What part of the water was removed from the bucket?
A. 2/5
B. 1/4
C. 2/3
D. 1/2
Correct Answer: “C”
Q34) There are 5000 students in a school. The next year it was found that the number
of boys and girls increased by 10% and 15% respectively making the total number of
students in school as 5600. Find the number of girls originally in the school?
A. 4500
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “B”
Q35) A solution contains 10% of salt by weight. On evaporation 15 litre of water
evaporates and now concentration of salt becomes 20 percent. Find the initial
quantity of solution
A. 20 ltr
B. 30 ltr
C. 40 ltr
D. 50 ltr
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Correct Answer: “B”
Q36) The number of seats in a cinema hall is decreased by 12 percent and the price of
tickets also decreased by 4 percent. Find the change in the collection of revenue.
A. decrease 15.52%
B. decrease 16.52%
C. decrease 17.52%
D. decrease 14.325%
Correct Answer: “A”
Q37) The population of a town is 15000. It increases by 10 percent in the first year and
20 percent in the second year. But in the third year it decreases by 10 percent. What
will be the population after 3 years.
A. 16820
B. 15820
C. 17820
D. 19820
Correct Answer: “C”
Q38) Rajeev buys good worth Rs. 6650. He gets a rebate of 6% on it. After getting the
rebate, he pays sales tax @ 10%. Find the amount he will have to pay for the goods.
A. Rs. 6876.10
B. Rs. 6999.20
C. Rs. 6654
D. Rs. 7000
Correct Answer: “A”
Q39) Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If X is
paid 120 percent of the sum paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?
A. Rs. 200
B. Rs. 250
C. Rs. 300
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q40) In an election contested by two parties A and B, party A secured 25 percent of
the total votes more than Party B. If party B gets 15000 votes. By how much votes
does party B loses the election?
A. 8000
B. 10000
C. 12000
D. 15000
Correct Answer: “B”
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Q41) 40% of the women are above 30 years of age and 80 percent of the women are
less than or equal to 50 years of age. 20 percent of all women play basketball. If 30
percent of the women above the age of 50 plays basketball, what percent of players
are less than or equal to 50 years?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
Correct Answer: “C”
Q42) 60 percent of the employees of a company are women and 75% of the women
earn 20000 or more in a month. Total number of employees who earns more than
20000 per month in the company is 60 percent of the total employees. What fraction of
men earns less than 20000 per month?
A. 5/8
B. 5/7
C. 1/5
D. 3/4
Correct Answer: “A”
Q43) A got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks.
However, B who took the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15
marks more than the passing marks. What were the passing marks in the
examination?
A. 65
B. 75
C. 80
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q44) A reduction of 20% percent in the price of rice enables a housewife to buy 5 kg
more for rupees 1200. The reduced price per kg of rice
A. 36
B. 45
C. 48
D. 60
Correct Answer: “C”
Q45) 12 percent of the voters in an election did not cast their votes. In this election
there are only two candidates. The winner by obtaining 45% of the total votes and
defeated his rival by 2000 votes. The total number of votes in the election
A. 50000
B. 75000
C. 100000
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D. 125000
Correct Answer: “C”
Q46) A man spends 60% of his income. His income is increased by 20% and his
expenditure also increases by 10%. Find the percentage decrease in his saving?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Correct Answer: “A”
Q47) The marked price of an article is 20% higher than the cost price. A discount of
20% is given on the marked price. In this transaction the seller
A. bears no loss no profit
B. losses 4%
C. gain 4%
D. losses 1%
Correct Answer: “B”
Q48) When the price of rice is increased by 30 percent, a family reduces its
consumption such that the expenditure is only 20 percent more than before. If 50 kg
of rice is consumed by family before, then find the new consumption of family
(approx.)
A. 43kg
B. 44kg
C. 45kg
D. 46kg
Correct Answer: “D”
Q49) In a class of 60 students, 40% of the students passed in Reasoning, 5% of the
students failed in Quants and Reasoning, and 20% of the students passed in both the
subjects. Find the number of students passed only in Quants?
A.17
B. 33
C. 23
D. 37
Correct Answer: “B”
Q50) In an examination, 50% of the students passed in Science and 75% passed in
Social, while 20% students failed in both the subjects. If 270 students passed in both
subjects, find the total number of students who appeared in the exam?
A. 400
B. 540
C. 600
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D. 750
Correct Answer: “C”
Q51) The Economic Survey (F) ______________ the effect of labour reforms in
Rajasthan, suggesting that the growth rates of firms employing more than 100
workers increased at a higher rate than the rest of the country after labour reforms.
But worker organisations claim that the implementation of such stringent labour laws
in most States is generally (G) __________. Clearly, a cross State analysis of labour
movement and increase in employment should give a better picture of the impact of
these rules.
(F)
A. Emphasized - highlighted
B. Separated - spewed
C. Relieved - participated
D. Purchased - carved
E. Underscored – wrought
Correct Answer: “A”
(G)
A. Counted - weaken
B. Structure - slowly
C. Parted - demand
D. Remiss - lax
E. Class - created
Correct Answer: “D”
Q52) From the options given below, select the option which states the set of incorrect
sentences
A.It was around noon on a sun autumn weekday when I first walked into the town, hoping to
get directions to a nearby winery.
B. Almost five centuries ago, an 11-year-old Irish girl pleaded with her father to allow her to
board the ship and go on the journey with him.
C. The joint statement issued after the meeting makes it clear that both countries want to
work towards normalizing ties and keeping in touch with each other on critical global issues.
A. B and C
B. A and C
C. A only
D. B only
E. A and B
Correct Answer: “C”
Q53) From the options given below, select the option which states the set of correct
sentences A. We're going to need to deal with these climate issues, and so let's
develop new mines while solving this problem out as slowly as possible.
B. Scientists keep a close eye on the sun's temperament because solar outbursts can
wreak havoc on our power grids and communication systems.
C. Until now, scientists strong suspected that radio waves were produced by some of
the youngest compact objects yet observed.
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A. A only
B. B only
C. A and B
D. C only
E. B and C only
Correct Answer: “B”
Q54) From the options given below, select the option which states the set of correct
sentences
I. In contrast, malicious envy leads to wholly destruction actions, such as hostile
thoughts and behaviour intended to harm the other person.
II. One of the joys of parenthood is the discovery that there is always more to give,
that love is a deep, deep well, and that any concept of balance is bogus.
III. The patterns often symbolised their affectionate for loved ones of the maker and
were also thought to protect the wearer or user from the evil eye.
IV. Kantha also often represented a family's hopes and aspirations, from weddings
and happiness to family and fertility.
A. All except I and III
B. Only I and IV
C. Only III and IV
D. Only I, III and IV
E. All I, II, III, and IV
Correct Answer: “A”
Q55) In the question below a sentence is given followed by four different statements
with one phrase in bold in each statement. Four different phrases A/B/C/D, which may
or may not replace the phrases in bold to make the statement(s) similar in meaning to
the original sentence, is given. From the given options select the one that suggests
the correct pair(s) of statement(s) and replacement phrase(s) resulting in sentences
that are similar in meaning to the original sentence.
An average pilgrim spends three or four days, arriving mostly by flight in Srinagar or
Jammu, and then travelling by road to the base camps.
I. A typical pilgrim spends three to four days on their journey, arriving hardly by plane in
Srinagar or Jammu before continuing by road to the base camps.
II. A typical pilgrim spends three to four days getting to Srinagar or Jammu by plane and
follows a car trip to the base camps.
III. The traditional pilgrim travels to the base camps after three or four days, arriving mostly
by plane in Srinagar or Jammu.
IV. All travellers had to spend three to four days on the flight to travel to Srinagar or Jammu
and then hit the road to the base camps.
a. A regular pilgrim has to spend
b. preceded by a car trip
c. with difficult journey after plane
d. over the course of three or four days
A. Only II-b and III-d
B. Only I-c and IV-a
C. Only IV-c and II-b
D. Only IV-a and III-d
E. Only III-c and I-d
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Correct Answer: “C”
Q56) From the options given below, select the option which states the set of incorrect
sentences.
A. It do not appear that they bear any testimony on either side of the question.
B. "Do all your people grow on bushes?" asked the boy.
C. Players of both sides and members of the local security club were required to
prevent the possibility of his assaulting the referee.
D. The vacation slipped by quickly and life returned to normal.
A. Only A
B. Both A and D
C. B, C and D
D. Both A, and C
E. Both B and C
Correct Answer: “A”
Q57) From the options given below, select the option which states the incorrect set of
sentences
1. Can our planet afford to have any great thinkers become discouraged or
intimidated and give up?
2. A measles outbreak centre in Romania and Italy is spreading across Europe.
3. Outbreaks will continue until every country reaches the level of immunization
needed to fully protect its population.
4. A deluge of rain caused devastating flash floods and landslides in a Colombian city
overnight.
5. For years, dieticians have warned us to steer clear from fat and cholesterol.
A. Only 4
B. Both 1 & 2
C. Both 2 & 5
D. Only 1, 3 & 5
E. All incorrect
Correct Answer: “C”
Q58) In the following question, three sentences (I, II and III) are divided into four parts
(A), (B), (C) and (D). There is an error in one part of each of these sentences. Select
the option with the parts containing errors in all three sentences and mark it as your
answer:
I.
Then, after what seemed like an eternal, (A) he was able to untie his tongue
- at which (B) point he delivered not just his own (C) lines but the entire
play, non-stop (D).
II.
Cobbe, who had been preaching in a (A) chapel in Bombay Fort, proposed
to (B) the bishop of London that a church (C) be build to cater to the
English community (D).
III.
A massive vaccination campaign mobilised 2 million (A) volunteers,
community leaders, and frontline (B) health workers who improvised and
innovated, (C) refusing to live a single child behind (D).
A. II C, I B, III C
B. I A, III B, II D
C. II C, III A, I C
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D. I A, II D, III D
E. III D, II B, I A
Correct Answer: “D”
Q59) The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts,
with grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an
error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts
from the three options given below each question to make the sentence
grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the sentence and none of the
alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose (d) i.e. 'None of the (I), (II) and
(III)' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require
any correction, choose (e) i.e. 'No correction required' as your answer.
This isn't to downplay the artist's obvious dedication to the history of painting, but to highlight
how (I)/ he moved away from the established principles of painterly modernism to mine the
relatively (II)/ sideline cultural histories of the decorative arts, textile design and craft. (III)
I. This isn't to downplay the artist's sincere dedication to the history of painting, but to
highlight how
II. he moved away from the established principles of painterly modernism to explore the
relatively
III. sidelined cultural histories at the decorative arts, textile design and craft
A. Both (II) and (III)
B. Both (I) and (III)
C. All (I), (II) and (III)
D. None of the (I), (II) and (III)
E. No correction required
Correct Answer: “D”
60) The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when
logically ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the
most logical order.
A. There's an inherent tension here that laws may delay the development of
technology and hence hurt the competitive advantage of an entrepreneur or even a
state.
B. Technological developments, on the other hand, are often oriented toward profit
and change. C. Take the case of nanotechnology regulation in the European Union
versus in the United States, European law so mitigates risks that it may end up
limiting the technology's potential, losing its competitive edge against the US.
D. Positive law prescribes behaviour and penalises non-compliance, it can
encapsulate the normative ideal that a respective government seeks to achieve,
demonstrate an ethical vision for society or reify the power structure of the current
regime.
E. If blockchain technologies are ever to go mainstream, governments will have to set
up new legal frameworks to accommodate its complexities.
A. EDBAC
B. ACDEB
C. BAECD
D. BDAEC
E. ABCDE
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Correct Answer: “A”
Q61) The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when
logically ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the
most logical order.
A. Open dialogue between scientists and the societies in which they live and work is,
of course, an essential ingredient of democracy.
B. Critics of the March for Science have noted that the march's program is
dangerously close to scientism, the adoption of science as a worldview or a religion
to the exclusion of other viewpoints.
C. It's not a good sign that few are reflecting on the power asymmetries that taints
what science is used in policy and evidence has become a currency used by lobbies
to purchase political influence.
D. The March for Science that took place in cities around the world was intended to
speak for science, defending evidence-based policies, the strength of peer-reviewed
facts and government-funded research.
E. But insisting that science operate under a mandate of consensus, which is the
timbre of numerous debates, from vaccines to climate change to genetically modified
organisms, is not.
A. EDACB
B. DAEBC
C. BAECD
D. BDAEC
E. ABCDE
Correct Answer: “B”
Q62) In the question given below, a word (or a set of words) is marked bold in a
sentence. An idiom/phrase is given in each of the five options. Find the one that can
replace the word given in bold and mark it as your answer The employee union was
forced to capitulate and settle their bitter dispute with the company.
A. lick their wounds
B. throw in the towel
C. proud as a peacock
D. groan inwardly
E. kick the bucket
Correct Answer: “B”
63) In the question given below, a sentence is given with three blanks. Choose the
correct combination of words that fit in the corresponding blank
If they believed they were expected to go beyond __________ rules and maximizing
performance, United employees would have stepped in to __________ the situation
once they realized something was going __________ wrong on that flight.
A. Minimizing, relegate, technically
B. Creating, counter, ghastly
C. Breaking, aggravate, forcibly
D. Following, de-escalate, horribly
E. Modifying, freeze, stupendously
Correct Answer: “D”
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Q64) In the question given below, a sentence is given with three blanks. Choose the
correct combination of words that fit in the corresponding blank Instagram is known
for its ______________ content moderation, via such methods as ____________ the
hashtags for groups and communities that share ___________ harmful content.
A. Strict, moderating, obscurely
B. Heavy-handed, blocking, potentially
C. Stern, forbidding, supremely
D. Straightforward, limiting, prospective
E. Effortless, de-linking, budding
Correct Answer: “B”
Q65) In the following question, a sentence is given which has been divided into four
parts. The error may be in one or more parts of the sentence. Identify the part(s) with
error and mark your answer accordingly. If the sentence is free from errors, choose
'No error' as your answer. From the fiscal deficit standpoint, disinvestment proceeds
(A)/ will being key to bridge the revenue shortfall, given (B)/ the lower-than-expected
collections in goods and (C)/ services tax and the cut into corporate tax (D).
A. Only A & C
B. Only D
C. Only C
D. Only B & D
E. No error
Correct Answer: “D”
Q66) In the following question, a sentence is given which has been divided into four
parts. The error may be in one or more parts of the sentence. Identify the part(s) with
error and mark your answer accordingly. If the sentence is free from errors, choose
'No error' as your answer.
The law of supply and demand is an economic (A)/ theory that explains how supply
and demand (B)/ are related to one other and how that relationship (C)/ affects the
price off goods and services (D).
A. Only A
B. Only C & D
C. Only B
D. Only A & D
E. No error
Correct Answer: “B”
Q67) In the following question, three statements revolving around the same idea or
theme are given. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically correct and
meaningful and mark your answer accordingly.
I. Washington finds it hard to resist the temptation to promote regime change in the
Middle East. II. Temptation for the Washington is hard to resist to promote the Middle
East in the regime change.
III. The temptation to promote regime change in the Middle East is hard to resist for
Washington.
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A. Only II
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. Only III
E. All I, II and III
Correct Answer: “B”
Q68) In the following question, three statements revolving around the same idea or
theme are given. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically correct and
meaningful and mark your answer accordingly.
I. Mahathir Mohammed must go beyond fighting corruption, he must push for political
and social liberalisation.
II. Mahathir Mohammed must go beyond political and social liberalisation, but not
fight corruption. English Practice Questions
III. Going beyond fighting corruption, Mahathir Mohammed must liberalise and
politicalising society.
A. Only I
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. Only III
E. All I, II and III
Correct Answer: “A”
Q69) Directions : In the following question, a set of five sentences is given, which
when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence has three
highlighted words which may or may not be at their correct places and you might
have to rearrange the two words to make a meaningful sentence. Arrange the
sentences in the correct sequence and answer the questions that follow.
A. Property prices in India have increasing remained constant or either a fall, but
rentals have been witnessed year-onyear.
B. However, the most region finding was that Delhi-NCR went against the trend, by
being the only fell among the surveyed cities where rent surprising year-on-year.
C. The Chennai cities which were a part of the other were Delhi-NCR, Bangalore,
Hyderabad, survey and Pune.
D. This has been portal by a report, named 'India Real Estate Report 2019', made by
Nobrokers.com, a broker free real estate suggested.
E. According to it, "rent being was at an all-time high, with 10% and above inflation
key cities, highest across Mumbai with 18%."
Which of the following is the correct order of the highlighted words in the FIFTH
sentence of the final rearrangement?
A. made - suggested - portal
B. other - Chennai - survey
C. increasing - witnessed - either
D. inflation - across - being
E. surprising - region - fell
Correct Answer: “E”
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Q70) In the given question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which
the word has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the
sentences have correctly used the given word, and mark that as your answer. School
1. The school was closed on Tuesday, as one of the teachers had passed away the
night before.
2. A school of fish swam past the diver, startling him out of his wits.
3. There are several schools of thought regarding how the universe began.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: “D”
Q 71) In each of these questions, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is
given.
These are numbered (A), (B), (C) & (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be
either wrongly spelled or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word
which is wrongly spelled or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your
answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelled and also appropriate in
the context of the sentence, mark E. All correct as your answer.
The protestors at Marina were an inchoate group of young people without any
leaderships when protests began last Tuesday.
A. Protestors
B. Inchoate
C. Leaderships
D. Began
Correct Answer: “C”
Q72) In each of the questions below, four statements are given which may or may not
contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct.
A. It was indeed a battle for the fittest and reputations may take a severe beating once the
competitions gained momentum.
B. It was indeed a battle for the fittest and reputations did take a severe beating once the
competitions gained momentum.
C. It was indeed a battle for the fittest and reputations will take a severe beating once the
competitions gain momentum.
D. It was indeed a battle for the most fittest and reputations did take a severe beating once
the competitions gained momentum.
Correct Answer: “B”
Q73) The sentence below has a portion in bold text. From the options, choose the
option that improves the given sentence For ages, a deadly conflict has been waged
amid a few brave men and women of thought and genius upon the one side, and the
great ignorant religious mass on the other.
A. deadly conflict was waged between
B. deadly conflict has been waged across
C. deadly conflict has been waged among
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D. deadly conflict has been waged between
Correct Answer: “D”
Q74) In each of the questions below, four statements are given which may or may not
contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct.
A. The stealing of small, almost insignificant stuff is different from kleptomania, which is a
recurrent urge to steal, typically without regard for need or profit.
B. Psychologists believe an employee indulges in an errant or ethical behaviour because he
or she was promised certain things - a pay hike, a more flexibility schedule or even more
holidays during the year.
C. Most individuals seek more than just the task they are suppose to perform at their
workplace in the role assigned to them.
D. We have all had colleagues who don’t think twice after taking home pens, post-its and
staple pins from the office.
Correct Answer: “A”
Q75) In each of the questions below, four statements are given which may or may not
contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct.
A. At its time, the Trans-Siberian railroad was a ground-breaking step towards a more
globalized world.
B. The Trans-Siberian railroad was a revolutionary step towards a more globalized world, at
it’s time.
C. A revolutionary step towards a more globalized word was the Trans-Siberian railroad. 4)
The Trans-Siberian railroad, at its time, were a revolutionary step towards a more globalized
World.
Correct Answer: “A”
Q76) In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given with three words in
bold. Three answer choices are given, giving replacements to the words in bold.
Select the option that gives the correct combination of the answer choices. In case,
the sentence is correct as it is, select No Improvement required.
From the instructions gathered from 2012 and 2013, they homed in on two stations
with high quality data and removed out any interfering sounds from loud waves and
regulated glitches.
1. facts, cut, device
2. data, divided, computerised
3. information, sliced, electronic
A. Only 2
B. Only 3
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Both 1 and 3
Correct Answer: “D”
Q77) Which of the following phrases (1), (2), and (3) given below each sentence
should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically
correct? Choose the option which reflects the correct usage of phrase contextually
and grammatically.
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The event will kick up the 105-day legislative session that will begin Monday, when
legislators will get to work in Olympia with a focus of creating the budget for the 201113 biennium.
1. start up
2. start out
3. kick off
A. Only 2 and 3
B. Only 1
C. Only 2
D. Only 3
Correct Answer: “D”
Q78) Which of the following phrases (1), (2), and (3) given below each sentence
should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically
correct?
Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use
of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is
correct as it is, mark (e) i.e No correction required as the answer.
The Centre’s actions should not amount to undermining the finality of the highest
court’s judgment and should be unwaveringly in aid of its implementation.
1. should undisputed carry out
2. should without hesitate further
3. should unflinchingly assist out
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. No Improvement
Correct Answer: “D”
Q79) In each question, a sentence is given, followed by three choices. From the given
options, choose the one that provides the correct combination of choices that talk
along the same lines, and/ or contain information that is mentioned or implied by the
original statement.
Picture yourself in the rarefied atmosphere of the Atacama Desert’s Moon and Mars Valleys,
or on the vista-filled trails of La Campana National Park, a World Biosphere Reserve, or in
the dozens of stunning national parks and reserves in Patagonia, with its colour-saturated
mountains, lakes, and extreme landscapes.
I. Picture yourself in the Atacama Desert’s Moon and Mars Valleys, a World Biosphere
Reserve. II. Picture yourself in the reserves in Patagonia, with its extreme landscapes.
III. Picture yourself in one of the World Biosphere Reserves - the vista-filled trails of La
Campana National Park.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Both II & III
Correct Answer: “D”
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Q79) In each of the following questions, a sentence is given with the phrase or idiom
highlighted in bold. Select the option given below that cannot replace the phrase in
bold and mark that as your answer. Scientists have solved relative uncomplicated
problems and moved on to harder ones, like the mind-body problem and unification of
physics.
A. somewhat easy issues
B. relatively easy problems
C. more or less simple problems
D. All can replace
Correct Answer: “D”
Q80) In the question below, two sentences I and II are given. Select the option which
contains the sentence that combines I & II without bringing any changes in the
meaning of the given sentences.
I. I find insects to be one of the best things about summer.
II. It's also the worst thing
A. For me, one of the hardest things about summer is the insects but it's also the worst
thing.
B. For me, one of the worst things about summer is the insects but it's also the bad thing.
C. For me, one of the best things about summer is the insects but it's also the excellent
thing.
D. For me, one of the worst things about summer is the insects but it's also the best thing.
Correct Answer: “D”
Q81) In the given question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which
the word has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the
sentences has/have correctly used the highlighted word, and mark that as your
answer.
I. Mature Humans take longer to mature than most other animals.
II. The composition of the mature given to the plants influences the production.
III. He is not mature enough to be given too much responsibility for taking care of a
child.
A. Only II
B. Only III
C. Only I and II
D. Only I and III
Correct Answer: “D”
Q82) In the question given below, four statements are given that may or may not
contain error(s). Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully incorrect.
A. Spirulina is thought to be the first form of plant life
B. It is considered as the powerhouse of nutrition
C. It is also a rich source of protein
D. It has enzymes and minerals that are essential to our bodies.
Correct Answer: “B”
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Q83) In the question given below, four statements are given that may or may not
contain error(s). Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully incorrect.
A. There are so many people who are suffering from inferiority complexes.
B. There are several factors in our society that could contribute it.
C. Too many rely on these factors as excuses for not being all that they could be.
D. Others are hurt and they just say that there is no point in Trying
Correct Answer: “B”
Q84) When people think about catastrophes that cause loss of life, they almost always
think only of the immediate harm caused. Over 50 million people died in WWII, around
15 million in World War One, and around 160,000 in the 2010 Haiti earthquake. But
these figures leave out the long-term effects of catastrophes - the people who never
had a chance to live, the ways that our world would be different. These ramifications
can be harder to document. But that does not make them less important.
A. The most catastrophic disasters of the world like world war I or II recount only the
immediate damage incurred by humanity.
B. Accounting for the long-term impact of catastrophes is as important as considering the
immediate damage.
C. The long-term impacts of catastrophic disasters are inevitable and are always factored in
while calculating the overall damage to humanity.
D. The facts and figures after a disaster present only the surface reality, and the actual loss
of life and property is never accounted for in these figures.
Correct Answer: “B”
Q85) Read the following passage carefully and select the option which gives the
central idea of the given passage.
Working together to insist that governments and corporations take climate action requires a
willingness to acknowledge that there is a serious climate problem, to face it and discuss it.
But it seems extremely difficult for many people to even think or talk about the climate crisis.
Why is this? Some don't believe the crisis is real, or at least downplay its importance. This
denialism is not due to a lack of available, accurate information. The facts about climate
change are available on the internet and are covered regularly in many media outlets.
A. Acknowledging the climate crisis allows us to take action and adopt practices individually
to combat climate change.
B. Lack of information on the subject of climate change and crisis results in denial of climate
crisis which leads to a lack of action on the part of governments and corporations.
C. Lack of action towards climate change stems from various factors like denial of the
climate crisis or undermining its importance.
D. Climate change is largely denied by first-world nations because these nations do not face
the brunt of the climate crisis. An idiom/phrase is given below in bold.
Correct Answer: “B”
Q86) Following this idiom/phrase are given three sentences, which use the given
idiom/phrase. The idiom phrase may or may not be used correctly in one or more
sentences. Identify the sentence(s) that use(s) the idiom/phrase correctly, either in
terms of grammar or context. To put it mildly
I. He's a troubled youngster, to put it mildly.
II. He's not very musical, to put it mildly.
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III. Bob's response was not really adequate to the task, to put it mildly.
A. All are correct
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and III
Correct Answer: “A”
Q87) An idiom/phrase is given below in bold. Following this idiom/phrase are given
three sentences, which use the given idiom/phrase. The idiom/phrase may or may not
be used correctly in one or more sentences. Identify the sentence(s) that use(s) the
idiom/phrase incorrectly, either in terms of grammar or context. Beat around the
bush
I.
Radhika asked her team members to not beaten around the bush and start the
presentation.
II.
You better not beat around the bush and get to the point.correction required', as
the answer. The chief, with all his men, were massacred.
A. All are correct
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and III
Correct Answer: “D”
Q88) In the following question, a sentence is given with a phrase highlighted in bold.
Select the option given below that can replace the phrase in bold to make the
sentence grammatically and contextually correct and mark that as your answer. If the
sentence is correct as it is, mark 'No correction required', as the answer.
Then one of the fishermen said, "Let I follow the command the governor about it and
do as he shall bid us."
A. we talk to
B. us ask
C. we think about
D. he talks to the
Correct Answer: “B”
Q89) Beat around the bush
I. Radhika asked her team members to not beaten around the bush and start the
presentation. II. You better not beat around the bush and get to the point
III. She keeps trying to get her book published, but I think she's beating around the
bush.
A. Only I and III
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and II
D. Only I
Correct Answer: “A”
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Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it.
Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some
of the questions. The outside world has pat answers concerning extremely Impoverished
countries, especially those in Africa. Everything comes back, again and again, to corruption
and misrule. Western officials argue that Africa simply needs to behave itself better, to allow
market forces to operate without interference by corrupt rulers. Yet the critics of African
governance have it wrong. Politics simply can’t explain Africa’s prolonged economic crisis.
The claim-that Africa’s corruption is the basic source of the problem does not withstand
serious scrutiny. During the past decade I witnessed how relatively well governed countries
in Africa: such as Ghana, Malawi Mali and Senegal, failed to prosper, whereas societies in
Asia perceived to have extensive corruption such as Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan,
enjoyed rapid economic growth. What is the explanation? Every situation of extreme poverty
around the world contains some of its own unique causes, which need to be diagnosed as a
doctor would a patient. For example. Africa is burdened with malaria like no other part of the
world, simply because it is unlucky in providing the perfect conditions for that disease; high
temperatures, plenty of breeding sites and particular species of malaria-transmitting
mosquitoes that prefer to bite humans rather than cattle.
Another myth is that the developed world already gives plenty of aid to the world’s poor.
Former U.S. Secretary of the Treasury, Paul O’Neil expressed a common frustration when
he remarked about aid for Africa : “We’ve spent trillions of dollars on these problems and we
have damn near nothing to show for it”. O’Neil was no foe of foreign aid. . Indeed, he wanted
to fix the system so that more U.S. aid could be justified. But he was wrong to believe that
vast flows of aid to Africa had been squandered. President Bush said in a press conference
in April 2004 that as “the greatest power on the face of the earth, we have an obligation to
help the spread of freedom. We have an obligation to feed the hungry”. Yet how does the
U.S. fulfill its obligation? U.S. aid to farmers in poor countries to help them grow more food
runs at around $200 million per year, far less than Si per person per year for the hundreds of
millions of people living in subsistence farm households.
From the world as a whole, the amount of aid per African per year is really very small, just
$30 per subSaharan African in 2002. Of that modest amount, almost $5 was actually for
consultants from the donor countries, more than $3 was for emergency aid, about $4 went
for servicing Africa’s debts and $ 5 was for debt-relief operations. The rest, about $12, went
to Africa. Since the “money down the drain” argument is heard most frequently in the U.S.,
it’s worth looking at the same calculations for U.S. aid alone. In 2002, the U.S. gave $3 per
sub-Saharan African. Taking out the parts for U.S. consultants and technical cooperation,
food and other emergency aid, administrative costs and debt relief, the aid per African came
to a grand total of 6 cents. The U.S. has promised repeatedly over the decades, as a
signatory to global agreements like the Monterrey Consensus of 2002, to give a much larger
proportion of its annual output, specifically upto 0.7% of GNP, to official development
assistance. The U.S. failure to follow through has no political fallout domestically, of course,
because not one in a million U.S. citizens even knows of statements like the Monterrey
Consensus. But no one should underestimate the salience that it has around the world. Spin
as American might about their nation’s generosity, the poor countries are fully aware of what
the U.S. is not doing.
Q90) The passage seems to emphasize that the outside world has
A. correct understanding about the reasonable aid provided by the USA to the poor countries
B. definite information about what is happening in under developed countries
C. stopped extending any financial aid to under developed countries
D. misconceptions about the aid given to the poor nations by developed countries 5. None of
these
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Correct Answer: “D”
Q92) According to the Westerners the solution to eradicate poverty of African nations
lies in
A. corruption
B. improving their own national behavior
C. misrule
D. prolonged economic crisis
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q93) The author has given the example of Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan in
support of his argument that
A. corruption is the major culprit in the way of prosperity
B. mis-governance hampers the prosperity of nations
C. despite rampant corruption, nations may prosper
D. developed nations arrogantly neglect under developed countries
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
Q94) The author has mentioned Ghana as a country with
A. reasonably good-governance
B. corrupt leadership
C. Plenty of natural resources
D. rapid economic growth
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “A”
Q95) The cases of malaria in Africa are mainly due to
(a)high temperature
(b) climatic conditions Conducive for breeding.
(c)malaria carriers liking for human blood in preference to that of cattle
A. None of these
B. Only B and C
C. Only A and C
D. Only A and B
E. All the three
Correct Answer: “E”
Q96) The remark of former U.S. Secretary of the treasury, Paul O’Neil, is according to
the author
A. a statement of fact
B. not factually correct
C. an underestimation of U.S. aid
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D. a ruthless remark by an arrogant bureaucrat
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q97) President Bush’s statement in a Press Conference in April 2004 indicates that
A. the aid given by the U.S. to the poor countries is substantial and sufficient
B. the spread of freedom cannot be achieved through financial aid
C. feeding the hungry millions outside the U.S. is not possible
D. the U.S., on its own, assumes the obligation of helping the poor countries
E. U.S. has spent trillions of dollars on aid
Correct Answer: “D”
Q98) Which of the following statements is TRUE about U.S. aid to the sub-Saharan
African countries?
A. The U.S. aid meant for per capita African does not reach the incumbent
B. The U.S. aid to African countries is more than that for any other developing or
underdeveloped nation
C. The U.S. aid for fanners in African countries is $ 200 m. per year
D. The donor country charges $5 per individual as the consultancy charges
E. U.S. has been contributing more than 0.7% of its GNP for development assistance
Correct Answer: “A”
Q99) The purpose of the author in writing this passage seems to.
A. criticize USA for not providing adequate financial help
B. Make Africans realize their own problems
C. analyze the actual quantum of aid against the perceived one
D. highlight how American leaders are power-hungry
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
Q100) Choose the word/group of words. Which is most nearly the same in meaning to
the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
OBLIGATION
A. lip sympathy
B. true empathy
C. self pity
E. conditional responsibility
F. moral binding
Correct Answer: “E”
Directions for Questions 101-105: Answer the questions on the basis of the following
information
There are five persons Sarthak, Prachi, Rohan, Kanika and Gagan. Two of them are
Doctors, while other three are Engineer, Architect and Chartered Accountant. A doctor and
the Chartered Accountant own a same car Superb. The other three own different cars viz.
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City, Innova and Verna. Two of the five persons stay in Mumbai, while the other three
persons live in three different cities viz. Delhi, Pune and Bangalore. The Chartered
Accountant is the tallest, while the doctor who is an ENT is the shortest. The other doctor is
an eye specialist and lies between the Engineer and Chartered Accountant height wise.
Kanika is an eye specialist and owns Superb while Gagan lives in Delhi and owns a Verna.
The engineer lives in Pune and owns a City. Prachi lives in Bangalore, while Sarthak lives in
Mumbai and is an ENT.
Q101) What is Prachi by profession?
A. Engineer
B. Chartered Accountant
C. Architect
D. Doctor
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “B”
Q102) What is Gagan by profession?
A. Engineer
B. Chartered Accountant
C. Architect
D. Doctor
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “C”
Q103) What is Rohan by profession?
A. Engineer
B. Chartered Accountant
C. Architect
D. Doctor
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “A”
Q104) Height-wise, who among the following lies between Sarthak and Rohan?
A. Chartered Accountant
B. Engineer
C. Eye Specialist
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “E”
Q105) Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Gagan lives in Mumbai
B. Sarthak owns a Verna
C. Rohan is a Chartered Accountant
D. Kanika lives in Mumbai
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E. Prachi is an Engineer
Correct Answer: “D”
Directions for Questions 106 - 108: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
P and Q are two boys and R and S are two girls. There are four adults, out of which A and B
are two men and C and D are two women. There are two cars - Swift and Jazz - each of
which can accommodate four persons only. Two children and two adults must be in one car.
P and B cannot be in one car. A and S cannot go in one car. C and D cannot go in one car.
There must be two males and two females in each car.
Q106) If A and P go in one car, then who can be the other two members in the car?
A. B and Q
B. D and R
C. B and C
D. D and C
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q107) Which of the following statements is definitely true?
A. A, D, P and R is not a correct combination
B. B, C, Q and S is not a correct combination
C. A, B, P and R can go in one car
D. A, D, P and R can go in one car
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q108) Which of the following can be acceptable combinations of the people in Swift
and Jazz cars respectively?
A. A, B, Q, S and D, R, P, C
B. A, D, P, R and B, C, Q, S
C. D, C, P, R and A, B, Q, S
D. A, D, P, Q and B, C, R, S
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Directions for questions 109-113: These questions are based on the following
information.
In Neo India Private Limited, a team of six trainers - Mr. Raj, Mr. Neeraj, Mr. Himansh, Mr.
Aniket, Mr. Reddy and Mr. Roy are scheduled to train newly appointed employees. Each of
the trainers train the employees about different functions among - Marketing, Finance,
Production, Distribution, Human Resource and Capital Management in a different month
among January, February, March, April, May and June of a year. The following information is
available about the schedule.
I. Training in Production is scheduled in February but it is not by Mr. Aniket.
II. Mr. Raj’s session is scheduled in March but not in Finance.
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III. The session on Human Resource and Capital Management are scheduled in two
consecutive months.
IV. Mr. Aniket’s session is scheduled in the month immediately after the month in which Mr.
Neeraj’s session is scheduled.
V. Mr. Himansh’s session is on Distribution but it is scheduled neither in January nor in
June.
Q109) Whose session is scheduled in May?
A. Mr. Reddy
B. Mr. Roy
C. Mr. Aniket
D. Mr. Neeraj
E. Mr. Himansh
Correct Answer: “D”
Q110) On which function the training is scheduled in January?
A. Finance
B. Production
C. Capital Management
D. Distribution
E. Human Resource
Correct Answer: “A”
Q111) If Mr. Aniket's session is on Human Resource then in which month of the year
is the session on Capital Management scheduled?
A. January
B. March
C. April
D. May
E. June
Correct Answer: “D”
Q112). In which month of the year is Mr. Himansh's session scheduled?
A. February
B. May
C. April
D. March
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “C”
Q113) Training on how many functions is conducted after Marketing?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 5
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E. 2
Correct Answer: “A”
Directions for Questions 114-118: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
Six persons Chetan, Gaurav, Jatin, Karan, Sahil and Tarun who are wearing Black, White,
Red, Green, Blue and Yellow coloured t-shirts are driving different cars - Verna, City, SX4,
Vento, Optra and Civic not necessarily in that order. These persons had participated in a car
racing competition at the end of which each of them secured different ranks. It is also known
that:
(i) Tarun secured 4th position and was driving City
(ii) The person wearing blue coloured t-shirt was driving Vento and didn’t secure 2nd position
(iii) Karan wearing white coloured t-shirt was not driving Verna or Optra and he was not
ranked 1st
(iv) The person wearing green coloured t-shirt was ranked 6th and he was driving Optra
(v) The person who secured 3rd position was driving Civic
(vi) The person who secured 1st rank was driving SX4 and he was not wearing black or red
coloured t-shirt
(vii) Chetan was wearing yellow coloured t-shirt while Tarun was not wearing red coloured
tshirt
Q114) What is the colour of Tarun's t-shirt?
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Red
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “B”
Q115) Who secured the 1st rank?
A. Chetan
B. Jatin
C. Sahil
D. Gaurav
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “A”
Q116. If the t-shirts of the persons are arranged in the increasing order of ranks (rank
6 to 1), then which of the following is true?
A. Yellow, Red, White, Black, Blue, Green
B. White, Red, Yellow, Black, Green, Blue
C. Green, Blue, Black, White, Red, Yellow
D. Blue, Green, Black, Yellow, Red, White
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
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Q117) If Jatin was not driving Vento or Optra, then who was wearing Red coloured
tshirt?
A. Karan
B. Sahil
C. Tarun
D. Jatin
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “D”
Q118. Which car is driven by Chetan?
A. Verna
B. Vento
C. Optra
D. SX4
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q118) Correct Answer – Option D
Directions for Questions 119 – 122: Use the following information to answer the given
questions:
Ashutosh, Dhanya, Gagan, Manya, Harshit, Pratiksha and Saksham are seven persons who
travel to office everyday by Virar fast local train which stops at five stations - Borivali, Malad,
Andheri, Dadar and Church Gate respectively after it leaves the base station i.e. Virar. Three
among them get in at the base station. Harshit gets down at the next station at which
Pratiksha gets down. Dhanya does not get down with either Ashutosh or Manya. Saksham
alone gets in at Andheri station and gets down with Gagan after one station. Ashutosh
travels between only two stations and gets down at Church Gate station. None of them gets
in at Malad station. Gagan gets in with Pratiksha but does not get in with either Dhanya or
Harshit. Manya gets in with two others and gets down alone after Harshit. Dhanya and
Harshit work in the same office and get down together at Andheri station. None of them gets
down at Borivali station.
Q119) At which station does Manya get down?
A. Malad
B. Andheri
C. Dadar
D. Data Inadequate
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
Q120) At which station do Gagan and Pratiksha get in?
A. Borivali
B. Malad
C. Andheri
D. Data Inadequate
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E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q121) After how many stations does Manya get down?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five
Correct Answer: “C”
Q122) Manya gets down after how many stations at which Pratiksha gets down?
A. Next station
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Directions for Questions 123 - 125: Read the following information to answer the
questions that follow Six persons
A, B, C, D, E and F are to be allotted a room in a hotel. There are six rooms numbered 601,
602, 603, 604, 605 and 606 (from left to right) and one person is to be alloted one room.
Moreover, A cannot be in a room immediately to the left or immediately to the right of that of
B. C must be in a room immediately to the left of D’s room. F cannot be in room no. 606.
Q123) Who among the following cannot be in room no. 601?
A. B
B. A
C. C
D. D
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q124) If D is in room no. 603, then C should be in which room?
A. 602
B. 601
C. 604
D. 605
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “A”
Q125) If A is allotted room no. 605, then who must be in room no. 606?
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A. C
B. B
C. D
D. E
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Directions for Questions 126 – 130: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below. Five persons: Anubhav, Rahul, Aniket, Vivek and Saksham joined five banks viz. PNB, SBI, BoB, OBC and
BoI, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them were posted in different locations
among Delhi, Lucknow, Chandigarh, Kolkata and Hyderabad and were attached to various
functions viz. Retail banking, SME banking, Risk management, Forex business and Treasury
operations not necessarily in this order. It is also known that:(i) Anubhav was not working in PNB.
(ii) Rahul, Aniket and Vivek were engaged in Retail banking, Treasury operations and SME
banking respectively.
(iii) The persons who joined PNB, OBC and BoB were posted in Hyderabad, Lucknow and
Kolkata respectively.
(iv)The persons who are attached with Risk management and Forex business are working in
PNB and OBC respectively.
(v) Aniket and Rahul were not posted in Kolkata and Chandigarh respectively.
(vi)The person who is attached with Retail banking is not posted in Delhi.
Q126) Who is working in BoB?
A. Anubhav
B. Rahul
C. Vivek
D. Saksham
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “B”
Q127) The person who is posted in Delhi is working in which bank?
A. BoI
B. SBI
C. PNB
D. OBC
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “E”
Q128) The person attached with Retail banking is posted in which city?
A. Lucknow
B. Chandigarh
C. Kolkata
D. Either b or c
E. Cannot be determined
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Correct Answer: “C”
Q129) Who is posted in Chandigarh?
A. The person working in OBC
B. The person working in BoI
C. The person working in SBI
D. Either b or c.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q130) Who is attached with Risk Management?
A. The person working in BoB.
B. The person posted in Lucknow.
C. The person working in OBC.
D. The person posted in Hyderabad.
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “D”
Directions for questions 131-135: Read the following information carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
Nine friends Amit, Bimal, Charu, Dhiraj, Ena, Farah, Gourav, Harshit and Jay stay in a
building having nine floors. Only one person stays on one floor. All of them are from different
schools i.e. Delhi Public School, GD Goenka World School, KR Manglam World School,
Amity International School, Birla Vidya Niketan, St. Columbus School, Modern School and
Pathways International School, not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is
numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on and the topmost floor is numbered
9. Harshit studies in KR Manglam World School and stays on an even numbered floor. Amit
stays on any even numbered floor below the floor on which Harshit stays. The one, who
studies in Modern School, stays on the fourth floor. Ena stays on the second floor and
studies in GD Goenka World School. The one, who studies in Pathways International
School, stays on the third floor. Amit does not study in Birla Vidya Niketan. There are two
floors between the floors on which children going to St. Columbus School and KR Manglam
World School stay. Charu studies in Delhi Public School. There are three floors between the
floors on which Charu and Gourav stay. Dhiraj stays on a floor immediately above Jay’s
floor. There is one floor between floors on which Farah and Gourav stay. Farah does not go
to Pathways International School. The one who goes to Gyan Bharati School stays on the
topmost floor. Farah does not stay on the ground floor.
Q131) Who amongst the following studies in Birla Vidya Niketan?
A. Dhiraj
B. Jay
C. Gourav
D. Farah
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q132) Who amongst the following stays on the topmost floor?
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A. Farah
B. Gourav
C. Dhiraj
D. Charu
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “E”
Q133) Amit studies in which of the following schools?
A. Modern School
B. Pathways International School
C. Amity International School
D. Gyan Bharati School
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
Q134) Who stays on the floor which is exactly between the floor on which Harshit
stays and the floor on which Amit stays?
A. Bimal
B. Gourav
C. Charu
D. Farah
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q135) How many floors are there between the floor on which Jay stays and the floor on
which Charu stays?
A. One
B. Two
C. None
D. Three
E. More than three
Correct Answer: “A”
Directions for questions 136 – 140 : These questions are based on the following
information.
A family of eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are going to three different places
Shillong, Shimla and Manali in three different airlines Indigo, Jet Airways and Spice Jet.
There are three couples in the family and each couple is going to a different place. Only
those persons who are going to the same place travel by the same airline and at most three
persons are in an airline. U, a male is going with only P and they are not going to Shimla. W
is going to Shillong by Jet Airways. Q is not going with T and W. S, a female and T are going
to the same place. V is not going by Indigo.
Q136) Which of the following group of persons is going to Shimla?
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A. U,P
B. Q,R,W
C. Q,R,V
D. T,W,V
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “C”
Q137) Who among the following is/are not going along with R?
A. Q
B. V
C. T
D. Both Q and V
E. Both V and T
Correct Answer: “C”
Q138) Which of the following is true based on the given information?
A. P is a female and going by Spice Jet.
B. S is going by Indigo.
C. V is a male and going to Shimla.
D. U is going to Manali. E) None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q139) Who is/are going along with T?
A. W
B. R
C. S
D. Either W or S
E. Both W and S
Correct Answer: “E”
Q140) Who are going to the vacation by Spice Jet?
A. Q,R,S
B. Q,V,S
C. T,W,R
D. Q,R,V
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Directions for questions 141 – 145: Answer the questions on the basis of following
information.
Each of the seven persons, Agamya, Bimal, Chirag, Dhiraj, Eshaan, Farhan and Gourav
plays a different sport among Basketball, Baseball, Cricket, Ice Hockey, Soccer, Badminton
and Tennis. Basketball, Baseball and Soccer are called American sports. Cricket and Ice
Hockey are called European sports and Badminton and Tennis are called Asian sports. Each
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of these seven persons won an award among National Award, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Award and Arjuna Award. At least two persons won each of these awards.
(i) No two persons who play the same kind of sport won the same award.
(ii) A person who won Arjuna Award plays Cricket and a person who won National Award
plays Tennis.
(iii) Bimal does not play Baseball. Eshaan plays an American sport but it is not Baseball.
(iv) Bimal, Dhiraj and Farhan won the same award. Gourav plays Soccer but did not win
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.
(v) Chirag won National Award but he does not play a European sport.
(vi) Agamya and a person who plays an American sport won Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Award. Neither Bimal nor Dhiraj plays an Asian sport.
Q141) Who plays Badminton?
A. Chirag
B. Dhiraj
C. Farhan
D. Agamya
E. Bimal
Correct Answer: “C”
Q142) What kind of sport does Bimal play?
A. An American sport
B. The kind of sport which Chirag plays
C. A European sport
D. The kind of sport which Eshaan plays.
E. The kind of sport which Dhiraj plays.
Correct Answer: “C”
Q143) Which of the following groups of persons won the same award?
A. Agamya, Bimal, Chirag
B. Bimal, Chirag
C. Dhiraj, Eshaan
D. Agamya, Eshaan
E. Chirag, Eshaan
Correct Answer: “D”
Q144) Which of the following is the correct combination of the name of the person,
the sport that he plays and the award won by him?
A. Dhiraj-Baseball-Arjuna Award
B. Bimal-Ice Hockey-Arjuna Award
C. Gourav-Soccer-Arjuna Award
D. Chirag-Badminton-National Award
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “A”
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Q145) Which of the following is a pair of persons who play different kind of sports and
won different awards?
A. Bimal, Dhiraj
B. Agamya, Bimal
C. Agamya, Eshaan
D. Bimal, Chirag
E. Chirag, Gourav
Correct Answer: “D”
Directions for questions 146-148: Answer the questions on the basis of following
information.
Six persons Param, Karan, Rohan, Sohan, Taman, and Utkarsh, stay in a building which
consists of six floors. Ground floor is named as the first floor; the floor above the ground floor
is named as the second floor and so on. Rohan stays neither on the odd numbered floor nor
on the second floor. Taman stays either on the first floor or on the top floor. Sohan and
Param do not stay on consecutive floors, and not above Rohan’s floor. Karan and Utkarsh
stay in alternate floors in that order from the top to the bottom but not on even numbered
floors.
Q146) Who stays on the fourth floor?
A. Param
B. Karan
C. Rohan
D. Sohan
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “E”
Q147) How many floors are there between Rohan's floor and Taman's floor?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
E. Four
Correct Answer: “E”
Q148) Who stays immediately above Param's floor?
A. None
B. Utkarsh
C. Rohan
D. Karan
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “E”
Directions for Questions 49 - 53: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
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Friends P, Q, R, S, X, Y and Z are travelling to three different places. There are at least two
friends travelling to each place – Goa, Mumbai, Pune – and only one of them is a male.
There are two doctors, two bankers and three teachers among them. Further,
(i) R is a lady banker and she does not travel with the pair of sisters P and Y.
(ii) Q, a male doctor, travels with only Z, a teacher in Goa.
(iii) S is a male banker.
(iv) Two friends from the same profession do not travel to the same place.
(v) P is not a doctor and travels to Mumbai.
Q149) Which of the following is Y?
A. Doctor
B. Banker
C. Teacher
D. Doctor or Banker
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “A”
Q150) To which place does R travel?
A. Goa
B. Mumbai
C. Pune
D. Goa or Mumbai
E. Mumbai or Pune
Correct Answer: “C”
Q151) Which of the following represents the three teachers?
A. ZXY
B. ZXP
C. ZQY
D. ZPY
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q152) How many females are among them?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Three or Four
D. Five
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q153) Which of the following is not correct?
A. X-Male-Teacher
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B. Q-Male-Doctor
C. P-Female-Teacher
D. All are correct
E. All are incorrect
Correct Answer: “D”
Directions for Questions 154- 159: Answer the questions on the basis of the following
information
Nine people, Suhani, Sohan, Vimal, Kriti, Prina, Punit, Suman, Sumit and Pragati stay in a
building, but not necessarily in the same order. The building has nine floors and only one
person stays on one floor. All of them work work in different companies, i.e. Google,
Microsoft, IBM, IHM, Samsung, TATA Steel, GAIL, Wipro and LG Electronics, but not
necessarily in the same order. The Ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is
numbered 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 9. Sumit works in IHM and stays
on an evennumbered floor. Suhani stays on any even-numbered floor below the floor on
which Sumit stays. The one who works in Wipro stays on the fourth floor. Prina stays on the
second floor and works in IBM. The one who works at LG Electronics stays on the third floor.
Suhani does not work at TATA Steel. There are two floors between the floors on which the
people working in GAIL and the IHM stay. Vimal works in Microsoft. There are three floors
between the floors on which Vimal and Suman stay. Kriti stays on a floor immediately above
Pragati's floor. There is one floor between the floors on which Punit and Suman stay. Punit
does not work in LG Electronics. The one who works at Google stays on the topmost floor.
Punit does not stay on the ground floor.
Q154) How many floors are there between the floor on which Pragati stays and the
floor on which Vimal stays?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. More than Four
Correct Answer: “A”
Q155) Which of the following is correct as per the given information?
A. Sohan stays on the floor immediately below the floor on which Sumit stays
B. Suman stays on a floor immediately above the floor on which Suhani stays
C. Punit stays on the eighth floor
D. Kriti works at Wipro
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Q156) Who amongst the following stays on the top most floor?
A. Punit
B. Suman
C. Kriti
D. Vimal
E. None of these
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Correct Answer: “E”
Q157) Which company does Suhani work for?
A. Wipro
B. LG Electronics
C. Samsung
D. Google
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
Q158) Sohan is related to Vimal in the same way as Sumit is related to Prina as per the
given information. Following the same pattern Punit is related to which of the
following?
A. Pragati
B. Kriti
C. Suhani
D. Suman
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “A”
Q159) Which company does the person who lives on ground floor work for?
A. GAIL
B. TATA Steel
C. Samsung
D. Microsoft
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “D”
Directions for Questions 160 - 164: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
Each of the six actors – Meena, Seema, Kiran, Shilpa, Archana and Kavita acts on exactly
one day of a week starting from Monday to Saturday. Each actor acts for different number of
hours in a day up to a maximum of 10 hours. It is also known that:(i) Meena & Shilpa act on Tuesday and Thursday respectively.
(ii) The number of hours for which Kiran acts is more than that of Archana, and the number
of hours for which Seema acts is less than that of Kavita.
(iii) The number of hours for which acting is done by any of the actors on every alternate day
starting from Tuesday consists of multiples of three in decreasing order.
(iv) The number of hours for which acting is done on every alternate day starting Monday
consists of three prime numbers in increasing order.
(v) Kiran & Seema act on two consecutive days
Q160) Which of the following is a correct combination of the day, actor and number of
hours for which acting is done?
A. Tuesday - Archana – 2
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B. Saturday - Seema – 7
C. Monday - Archana – 5
D. Tuesday - Meena – 9
E. Saturday - Kiran - 3
Correct Answer: “D”
Q161) For how many hours does Seema act?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q162) Which of the following actor acts for more number of hours than Kavita?
A. Only Meena
B. Only Kiran
C. Only Meena & Shilpa
D. Only Meena & Seema
E. Meena, Kiran & Shilpa
Correct Answer: “E”
Q163) On which two days of the week do Archana & Seema act respectively?
A. Monday & Friday
B. Monday & Saturday
C. Tuesday & Friday
D. Tuesday & Saturday
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q164) What is the sum of hours for which acting is done on Wednesday, Thursday
and Friday?
A. 19 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 14 hours
D. 20 hours
E. 18 hours
Correct Answer: “E”
Directions for questions 165-169: These questions are based on the following
information.
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are studying in three different colleges among Glory
College, Elite College and Imperial College of Arts and using three different brands of mobile
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phones among Samsung, Blackberry and Apple but not necessarily in the same order. The
maximum number of persons using any brand of mobile phone is three. For each brand of
mobile phone there are at least one male and one female user. Each brand of mobile phone
user studies in only one college. Only V and U’s sister are studying in Imperial College of
Arts. Q and T are using the same brand of mobile phone but it is not Samsung. R who is a
female and P are studying in the same college, but not in Glory College. P and P’s brother W
are using different brand of mobile phones. Two females are using Blackberry. S does not
use Samsung. P is a female.
Q165) How many females are there among the eight persons?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. Either 3 or 4
E. Either 4 or 5
Correct Answer: “C”
Q166) Which of the following group of persons is using Samsung mobile phone?
A. RU
B. UV
C. PRU
D. PUV
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
Q167) In which college is U studying?
A. Glory College
B. Elite College
C. Imperial College of Arts
D. Either (a) or (b)
E. Either (b) or (c)
Correct Answer: “B”
Q168) Four of the following five are alike based on the given information in the
arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one which does not belong to that
group.
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
E. U
Correct Answer: “E”
Q169) Which of the following is true based on the given information?
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A. P is studying in Glory College and using Samsung mobile phone.
B. Q is studying in Elite College and using Blackberry mobile phone.
C. Two females use Samsung mobile phone.
D. S is studying in Elite College and using Apple mobile phone.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
Directions for questions170: Study the following information carefully to answer the
given questions.
Five friends Farzan, Manish, Karan, Neha and Yogesh are working in 5 different companies
Cement Ltd., Paragon Ltd., Oswald and Company, Street Art Ltd. and Universal Studios and
they earn different salaries i.e. Rs. 9000, Rs. 13000, Rs. 16000, Rs. 18000 and Rs. 22000
and they all are of different ages i.e. 24, 25, 28, 31 and 33 years. All this information is not
necessarily in same order. Person who is 31-year-old earns highest salary but does not work
in Cement Ltd. or Paragon Ltd. Company. Yogesh does not work in Street Art Ltd. or
Universal Studios Company and his age is not 33. The salary of Neha is less than Rs.
16000. The person who is 25 years old earns Rs. 18000 per month. Farzan earns Rs. 13000
per month but does not work in Paragon Ltd. or Street Art Ltd. Manish works in Cement Ltd.
and earns more than Rs. 16000. Person who is 28 years old works in Universal Studio. The
33-year-old person earns at least Rs. 16000.
Q170) In which company does Farzan work?
A. Universal Studios
B. Cement Ltd.
C. Paragon Ltd.
D. Street Art Ltd.
E. Oswald and Company
Correct Answer: “A”
Simplification
Q171) 1/4 × (4856 × 0.5) × 12 = ?
A. 7624
B. 7425
C. 7512
D. 7284
Correct Answer: “D”
Q172) 6156 ÷ √? × 53 = 4028
A. 6731
B. 6561
C. 6741
D. 6531
Correct Answer: “B”
Q173) 70% of 1680 + ?% of 1750 = 55% of 2820 – 886
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A. 5671
B. 5765
C. 5461
D. None of these Correct
Correct Answer: “D”
Q174) 326 × 14 – 12 × 88 + (49)^2 = ?
A. 5909
B. 5431
C. 9021
D. 6542
Correct Answer: “A”
Q175. (5.25 × 6 × 4) ÷ 7 – 2 = ?^2
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: “C”
Q176) [(√2401+√625) ) – (29 + 5)] ÷ 4 = ?^1/2
A. 100
B. 105
C. 102
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “A”
Q177) ?^2 – 18.75 – 11.25 = 9.09% of 396 + 295
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
Correct Answer: “B”
Q178) 36^3 * √4096 * 72 * 18 / (9^3*72^2) = 4^2
A. 9
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
Correct Answer: “C”
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Q179) 333.44 + 33.4444 + 3.444 + 3333.4 = ?
A. 3703.245
B. 3709.265
C. 3701.234
D. 3703.7284
Correct Answer: “C”
Q180) (3469.24 + 1209.53 – 2046.27) = ?^2 + 2551.5
A. - 2
B. 10
C. 4
D. -9
Correct Answer: “D”
Q181) (913+ 329 + 522 + 343) / (18 + 24 – X + 18) = 43
A. 3
B. 11
C. 8
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q182) 323.46 + 23.04 – 43.17 – ? = 303
A. 4.33
B. 1.33
C. 2.33
D. 0.33
Correct Answer: “C”
Q183) ? % of (152 ÷ 19 × 45) = 126
A. 35
B. 31
C. 45
D. d)21
Correct Answer: “A”
Q184) (12121 ÷ 100) + (42424 ÷ 50) = ?
A. 965.21
B. 901.23
C. 978.21
D. 969.69
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Correct Answer: “C”
Q185) 145% of 342 – 684% of 22.5 =?
A. 314
B. 342
C. 213
D. 382
Correct Answer: “B”
Q186) (455.678 + 246.895 – 111.87) = ?1/3 + 500.703
A. 80
B. 23008
C. 729000
D. 12
Correct Answer: “C”
Q187) (7770 ÷ 70) + (1500 ÷ 25) + (1008 ÷ 28) + 2152 = ?
A. 2378
B. 212
C. 2189
D. 2359
Correct Answer: “D”
Q188) (474552)^1/3 – (6084)^1/2 + 68 – 7.8 = ?
A. 60.2
B. 23.90
C. 61.21
D. 60.6
Correct Answer: “A”
Q189) 22.5% of 754 – 17.5% of 884 = ? + √676– 19.65
A. 8.6
B. 2.3
C. 7.1
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “A”
Q190) 13 2/3 % of 3300 + 25% of 184 = 40% of ?
A. 671
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B. 321
C. 1321.4
D. 1242.5
Correct Answer: “D”
Q191) 8125 ÷ 13 ÷ 2 1/2 × 102 = ?2
A. 12500
B. 25000
C. 50000
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “B”
Q192) 6992 ÷ 19 – ?% of 652 = – 4196
A. 800
B. 320
C. 700
D. 210
Correct Answer: “C”
Q193) 20% of 27 + 40% of 64 – ? = 0
A. 25
B. 51.20
C. 21.90
D. 35
Correct Answer: “C”
Q194) (4.5 × 4.5 × 4.5 × 4.5) ÷ 225 ÷ 25 + 3 3 = ?
A. 2707.29
B. 277.29
C. 27.0729
D. 277.092
Correct Answer: “C”
Q195) 38.4% of 1450 + 78.2% of 240 – ?2 = 20% of 77.4
A. 27
B. 26
C. 23
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “A”
Q196) (2.89)4 ÷ (4913 ÷ 1000)3 × (0.17 × 10)3 = (1.7)?–3
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A. 6
B. 10
C. 3
D. 5
Correct Answer: “D”
Q197) 47.008 – 20.998 + √256.01 = ? * 2.0001
A. 21
B. 38
C. 40
D. 10
Correct Answer: “A”
Q198) 1.980*4.059 + 14.0101*3.009 – 4.003*6.001 = ?
A. 45
B. 26
C. 21
D. 36
Correct Answer: “B”
Q199) 396÷33×15+670 = ?(33) + 454
A. 80
B. 341
C. 12
D. None of these
Correct Answer: “C”
Q200) 221 ÷ 23.6 × 94.4 ÷ 169 ÷ 17 = ? ÷ 91
A. 241
B. 10
C. 21
D. 28
Correct Answer: “D”
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