DUMALIAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION
TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION 7
NAIL CARE
Name:______________________________________
Section: ____________________________________
I. Direction: Label the nail structure below. Choose your answers inside the box.
Free Edge
Nail Matrix
Cuticle
Nail Groove
Nail Wall
Nail Bed
Mantle
Lunula
Nail Plate
Hyponychium
II. Direction: Read the questions carefully. Write the letter of your answer in the blank beside each number.
_____11. It is a tool used to trim or cut the cuticle.
A. Nail File
B. Emery Board
C. Cuticle Pusher
D. Cuticle Nipper
_____12. A process that physically removes contamination, including some microorganisms.
A. Cleaning Agent
B. Decontamination
C. Sterilization
D. Cleaning
_____13. It is made of metal or sandpaper with a rough file on one side to remove calluses and a fine file on the other to
smoothen the feet.
A. Foot File
B. Foot Scrub
C. Foot Spa Basin
D. Callus Remover
C. Cuticle Nipper
D. Nail Pusher
_____14. A tool used to push back and loosen the cuticles.
A. Nail Brush
B. Nail Clipper
_____15. A hand tool made of metal used to trim fingernails and toenails.
A. Nail File
B. Nail Cutter
C. Nail Pusher
D. Cuticle Nipper
_____16. It is used to shape the free edges of the nail with the coarse side and level the nail with the finer side.
A. Nail File
B. Nail Buffer
C. Emery Board
D. Cuticle Nipper
C. Emery Board
D. Cuticle Nipper
_____17. It is used to cut the cuticles.
A. Nail File
B. Nail Buffer
_____18. It is used to shape the free edge of the fingernails with the coarse side and level the nail on the fine side.
A. Tweezer
B. Nail File
C. Emery Board
D. Orangewood Stick
_____19. It is a handheld device made from gritty, exfoliating material like metal or emery that removes tough, dead skin
from the feet.
A. Foot Spa
B. Foot File
C. Nail Buffer
D. Nail Polish Remover
____20. The implement with pointed and rounded ends to remove excess polish.
A. Emery Board
B. Nail Buffer
C. Nail File
D. Orangewood Stick
____21. The electronic gadget is used to soothe the pain of arthritis, muscle spasms, and dry skin of the hands.
A. Sterilizer
B. Manicure Table
C. Foot Spa Machine
D. Hand Spa Machine
____22. The equipment used to sanitize or kill bacteria or microorganisms in metal implements.
A. Alcohol
B. Sterilizer
C. Sanitizer
D. Antiseptic
____23. The equipment used in drying creative nail art and saves time in drying decorated nails.
A. Nail Art Machine
B. Nail Dryer Machine
C. Nail Printer Machine
D. Manicure Art Machine
____24. This is used to soften the dead cuticle around the nails.
A. Cuticle Remover
B. Cuticle Cream
C. Nail Polish
D. Base Coat
_____25. What lacquer is applied on fingernails and toenails to decorate and protect the nail plate?
A. Cuticle Remover
B. Cuticle Cream
C. Nail Polish
D. Base Coat
_____26. What liquid is applied over the nail polish?
A. Top Coat
B. Cuticle Cream
C. Nail Polish
D. Base Coat
_____27. A process that physically removes contamination, including some microorganisms.
A. Cleaning Agent
B. Decontamination
C. Sterilization
D. Cleaning
_____28. What would most likely be the result of using uncleaned tools?
A. Healthy nail care service
C. Getting nail fungus and nail diseases
B. It won't be harmful at all
D. None of these
____29. Why does the equipment need cleaning before disinfection?
A. Disinfection contact is maximized
C. Surface debris reduces the effectiveness of the disinfectant
B. Maximum result of cleaning is achieved
D. All of the above
____30. Why do manicurists need to familiarize themselves with the nail structure?
A. To develop nail disorder.
C. To be able to face the client confidently.
B. To properly clean the nails.
D. To avoid injury that may lead to nail disorder.
____31. Its edge is the lunula.
A. Nail Root
B. Nail Plate
C. Free Edge
D. Nail Groove
C. Nail Groove
D. Hyponychium
____32. It is the skin beneath the nail plate.
A. Nail Bed
B. Nail Matrix
____33. This part of the nail is where you can trim or cut and file and shape.
A. Nail Root
B. Nail Plate
C. Free Edge
D. Nail Groove
C. Free Edge
D. Hyponychium
____34. It is located around the base part of the nail.
A. Cuticle
B. Nail Bed
_____35. It is slightly rounded at the base and slightly pointed at the fingertips.
A. Oval Nail
B. Round Nail
C. Square Nail
D. Pointed Nail
For items 36 – 40, identify the shape of the nails. Write the letter of your answer in the blank beside each number.
____36.
A. Square Nail
B. Round Nail
C. Squoval Nail
D. Oval Nail
____37.
A. Square Nail
B. Round Nail
C. Squoval Nail
D. Oval Nail
____38.
A. Pointed Nail
B. Round Nail
C. Squoval Nail
D. Oval Nail
____39.
A. Square Nail
B. Round Nail
C. Squoval Nail
D. Oval Nail
____40.
A. Square Nail
B. Round Nail
C. Squoval Nail
D. Oval Nail
DUMALIAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION
TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION 8
CAREGIVING
Name:______________________________________
Section: ____________________________________
I. Directions: Read the questions carefully. Write the letter of your answer in the blank beside each number.
____1. What tool is used to provide hot compress?
A. Basin
B. Hand Towel
C. Hot Water Bag
D. Ice Bag
____2. What device is used to measure blood pressure?
A. Glucometer
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Stethoscope
D. Thermometer
C. Lotion
D. Facial Cream
C. Hammock
D. Stroller
____3. Which of the following is NOT a skincare supply?
A. Anti-bacterial Soap
B. Bandage
____4. What specialized bed is for infants or toddlers?
A. Carrier
B. Crib
____5. The following equipment is for food preparation, EXCEPT:
A. Blender
B. Hospital Bed
C. Food Processor
D. Juicer
C. Commode
D. Urinal
____6. Which of the following equipment aid patient mobility?
A. Blender
B. Cane
____7. Which of the following is NOT a function of a stethoscope?
A. Listening to lung sounds
C. Listening to the abdominal sound
B. Counting rate of blood pressure
D. Listening and counting heartbeat
____8. Which of the following is NOT included in wound care supplies?
A. Bandage scissor
B. Gauze
C. Pulse Oximetry
D. Plaster
____9. The following tools are used to get the patient's basic vital signs, EXPECT:
A. Band-Aid
B. Stethoscope
C. Thermometer
D. Sphygmomanometer
____10. A sphygmomanometer is a device used to assess a patient’s _________.
A. Blood Pressure
B. Oxygen Saturation
C. Pulse Rate
D. Respiratory Rate
____11. Which of the following devices is used to measure human body temperature?
A. Glucometer
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Stethoscope
D. Thermometer
____12. What equipment is used to help a patient with an illness, injury, or disability access a toilet?
A. Cane
B. Commode
C. Walker
D. Wheelchair
____13. What personal protective equipment will you wear to protect your skin from contamination while caring for a
patient, such as wound care or dealing with human waste?
A. Disinfectant
B. Disposable Gloves
C. Face Mask
D. Forceps
____14. All of the following are used in cleaning the stethoscope, EXCEPT;
A. 2% bleach
B. 70% alcohol
C. Hand sanitizer
D. Mild soap and water
____15. What is the most critical thing to watch for when cleaning caregiving electrical tools and equipment?
A. Prepare the cleaning agents ahead of time.
B. Gather the tools and equipment to be cleaned beforehand.
C. Read and follow carefully the manufacturer’s manual instructions for correct cleaning.
D. Ensure all tools and equipment are turned off and unplugged from the socket.
____16. What is the correct mixture for cleaning the coffee maker?
A. 1-part white vinegar and 1-part water
C. 2 parts white vinegar and 1-part water
B. 1-part white vinegar and 2 parts water
D. 2 parts white vinegar and 2 parts water
____17. The following caregiving tools and paraphernalia are used for washing and cleaning, EXCEPT;
A. Bedpan
B. Blender
C. Vacuum cleaner
D. Washing machine
____18. All of the following is used in scrubbing caregiving tools and equipment, EXCEPT;
A. Old toothbrush
B. Sponges
C. Soft-bristled brush
D. Steel brush
____19. Why is the bleach not suitable for cleaning the refrigerator?
A. It has a pungent odor that won’t come off.
B. It does not remove the dirt and the smell.
C. It is highly corrosive to the refrigerator’s delicate surface.
D. It has a lingering residue that may come in contact with the food.
____20. It pertains to an event that may cause harm to an individual, such as chemicals, electricity, open drawers, and
inadequate ventilation.
A. Disease
B. Disorder
C. Hazard
D. Risk
____21. What refers to the chance of being harm by different kinds of hazard?
A. Disease
B. Disorder
C. Hazard
D. Risk
____22. What hazard comes from exposure to animals, people, or infectious materials?
A. Biological
B. Chemical
C. Physical
D. Psychological
____23. Which of the following is NOT an effect of chemical hazards?
A. Allergic reactions
C. Skin irritation
B. Depression
D. Skin or eye burns
____24. Which of the following is a life-threatening effect of a psychosocial hazard?
A. Depression
C. Skin Irritation
B. Deterioration of performance
D. Loss of self-confidence
____25. The following are physical hazards, EXCEPT;
A. Poor lighting
B. Noise
C. Chemical spills
D. Radiation
____26. What kind of hazard when a worker is exposed to substances like cleaners and disinfectants?
A. Biological
B. Chemical
C. Physical
D. Psychological
____27. Which of the following is NOT a biological hazard?
A. Awkward and repetitive movements
C. Blood and Body Fluids
B. Bacteria and viruses
D. Contaminated wastes
____28. What type of hazard can affect an employee’s mental health or well-being?
A. Biological
B. Chemical
C. Physical
D. Psychological
____29. Which of the following is an effect of physical hazards?
A. Falls
B. Fatigue
C. HIV
D. Skin allergy
____30. Which of the following is an example of a physical hazard?
A. Spills on the floor
C. Standing for a long period
B. Workplace aggression
D. Fatigue
____31. Which of the following physical hazards may cause a fire?
A. Clutters on the floor
B. Faulty wirings
C. Loud noise
D. Wet floors
____32. Which of the following PPE is used to protect the eyes from any hazards?
A. Apron
B. Face mask
C. Gloves
D. Goggles
____33. The following are personal protective equipment used by caregivers, except:
A. Apron
B. Face mask
C. Medical Bonnet
D. Welding shield
C. Contaminated Wastes
D. Poor Lighting
____34. These are biological hazards, EXCEPT:
A. Bacteria and Viruses
B. Blood Fluids
____35. Which of the following will most likely cause depression?
A. Workplace Abuse
C. Supportive management
B. Appreciative patients
D. Safe working environment
DUMALIAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION
TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION 9
AGRICULTURAL CROP PRODUCTION
Name:______________________________________
Section: ____________________________________
I. Directions: Read the questions carefully. Write the letter of your answer in the blank beside each number.
____1. This is a plot of land dedicated to propagating plants, providing initial nutrients, growing young seedlings,
and eventually selling them.
A. Nursery
B. Plantation
C. Rice Field
D. Residential Land
____2. What is the purpose of a nursery?
A. Selling mature plants
C. Providing landscaping services
B. Growing young seedlings
D. Harvesting crops
____3. In what industry would a nursery typically sell its plants for transplanting?
A. Construction
B. Fashion
C. Agriculture
D. Technology
____4. This type of nursery is developed only to fulfill the season's requirement or a targeted project.
A. Temporary Nursery B. Plant Nursery
C. Flower Nursery
D. Permanent Nursery
____5. Which of the following is an example of a temporary nursery?
A. Permanent greenhouse for year-round cultivation
B. Nursery for raising plants for a botanical garden
C. Nursery established to grow tree seedlings for reforestation project
D. Garden center selling various plats to customers
____6. This type of nursery is placed permanently to produce plants continuously.
A. Temporary Nursery B. Plant Nursery
C. Flower Nursery
D. Permanent Nursery
____7. Which type of nursery specializes in developing seedlings and grafts of fruit crops?
A. Fruit Plant Nursery
C. Flower Plant Nursery
B. Vegetable Plant Nursery
D. Forest Plant Nursery
____8. Which type of nursery specializes in developing seedlings like cabbage, tomato, and other vegetables?
A. Fruit Plant Nursery
C. Flower Plant Nursery
B. Vegetable Plant Nursery
D. Forest Plant Nursery
____9. Which type of nursery specializes in developing seedlings like eucalyptus and other trees?
A. Fruit Plant Nursery
C. Flower Plant Nursery
B. Vegetable Plant Nursery
D. Forest Plant Nursery
____10. Which type of nursery would be the best choice for someone looking to grow flowering plants like roses and
carnations?
A. Fruit Plant Nursery
C. Flower Plant Nursery
B. Vegetable Plant Nursery
D. Forest Plant Nursery
____11. In selecting the best site for plant nursery, the availability and adequacy of _______ is the most important factor
to consider.
A. Compost
B. Soil
C. Microclimate
D. Water
____12. What is referred to when choosing a relatively flat area with at least a 1-2% slope?
A. Accessibility
B. Soil type
C. Location
D. Topography
____13. Which of the following must be removed because it will compete with plant nutrients?
A. Diseases
B. Stray animals
C. Insects
D. Weeds
____14. Which of the following is NOT considered the best location for a nursery site?
A. Flat land
B. Gently slope
C. Hilltop
C. Rugged terrain
____15. Which is the best location for a nursery site?
A. Near a riverbank
C. Kilometer away from a road
B. Close to the growing area
D. Far from people in the community
____16. What percentage of plants are made of water?
A. Less than 50%
B. Approximately 70%
C. More than 90%
D. Exactly 100%
____17. The amount of water seedlings require depends upon the following, EXCEPT:
A. Seedling Age
B. Amount of Sunlight
C. Soil Type
D. Type of Crop
____18. Why does sandy soil need more frequent watering?
A. It retains water well.
C. It loses water faster.
B. It has a high clay content.
D. It cracks when it dries out.
____19. What do weeds compete with seedlings for?
A. Sunlight
B. Nutrients
C. Water
D. All of the above
____20. Why is it important to remove weeds around seedlings?
A. To improve soil drainage
C. To avoid competition for resources
B. To prevent diseases
D. To attract beneficial insects
____21. What can happen if the soil is full of weeds?
A. Plants will grow taller.
C. Plants will lack nitrogen.
B. Weeds will die off on their own.
D. Weeds will provide additional nutrients.
____22. What is the purpose of hardening off seedlings?
A. To make them grow faster
C. To increase their water intake
B. To make them stronger and more resilient to harsh conditions
D. To decrease their exposure to sunlight
____23. When should the shade be removed from seedlings during the hardening process?
A. As soon as the seedlings sprout
C. When the seedlings are still small
B. When the seedlings reach the planting size
D. When the seedlings are ready to be harvested
____24. How often should the watering frequency be reduced during the hardening process?
A. Every day
B. Twice a week
C. Once a month
D. Only during full moon nights
____25. What should be done before planting out to help seedlings adapt to stress?
A. Increase watering density
C. Keep the seedlings in the shade
B. Avoid root pruning
D. Perform root pruning
____26. How long before planting out should the hardening off process ideally be carried out?
A. 1 week
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 6 months
____27. Why is root pruning necessary for seedlings in containers?
A. To promote growth of foliage
C. To enhance flower production
B. To control root system development beyond the container
D. To increase soil fertility
____28. When do seedlings typically require root pruning?
A. When they are first planted in a container
C. When they are watered too frequently
B. When their roots exceed the depth of the pots
D. When they are exposed to direct sunlight
____29. What is the primary purpose of cutting roots during root pruning?
A. To reduce the need for watering
C. To control the spread of diseases
B. To prevent the growth of leaves
D. To manage root system development
____30. How can you protect your seedlings from adverse weather conditions?
A. By cleaning the nursery
C. By regulating water intake or shading
B. By making a fence around the nursery
D. By spraying insecticide
____31. “This is the stealing and/or intentional damaging of seedlings by human beings.” This statement pertains to ___.
A. Humans
B. Weather Conditions
C. Wild Animals
D. Insects
____32. This insect causes the yellowing of leaves from tip to downwards.
A. Paddy Stemborer
B. Rice Case Worm
C. Swarming Caterpillar
D. Thrips
____33. What insect feeds on green tissues of the leaves and the leaves become whitish papery?
A. Paddy Stemborer
B. Rice Case Worm
C. Swarming Caterpillar
____34. What is the damage caused by swarming caterpillar?
A. It causes drying of the central shoot.
B. It cuts the seedlings in large scale and transfer from one filed to another.
C. It feeds on green tissues of the leaves and leaves become whitish papery.
D. Young seedlings show yellow silvery streaks on the leaves.
____35. How can you control pest infestation on your farm?
A. By spraying fertilizer
C. By removing weeds
B. By spraying pesticides
D. By increasing plant water intake
D. Thrips
DUMALIAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION
TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION 10
AGRICULTURAL CROP PRODUCTION
Name:______________________________________
Section: ____________________________________
I. Directions: Read the questions carefully. Write the letter of your answer in the blank beside each number.
___1. What is the term for the male and female sex cells in plants?
A. Zygotes
B. Gametes
C. Embryos
D. Spores
___2. This is the process where the genetic material from the male and female gametes combines to produce
offspring.
A. Pollination
B. Fertilization
C. Reproduction
D. Photosynthesis
___3. What is the product of sexual reproduction in plants?
A. Flowers
B. Leaves
C. Seeds
D. Stems
___4. This type of reproduction requires genetic material from two parents.
A. Asexual Reproduction
C. Uniparental Reproduction
B. Hybrid Reproduction
D. Sexual Reproduction
___5. Which type of reproduction only requires DNA from one parent?
A. Sexual reproduction
C. Uniparental reproduction
B. Asexual reproduction
D. Multigenetic reproduction
____6. What is a characteristic of offspring produced through asexual reproduction?
A. They have genetic diversity.
C. They lack genetic diversity.
B. They are genetically different from their parents.
D. They exhibit hybrid vigor.
____7. What is a cutting in terms of plant propagation?
A. A tool used for pruning plants
C. A type of fertilizer for plant growth
B. A method of asexual reproduction in plants
D. A plant disease caused by fungal infection
____8. How does a cutting regenerate itself to form a new plant?
A. By producing seeds
C. By forming roots and shoots
B. By undergoing sexual reproduction
D. By attracting pollinators
____9. What is budding?
A. A gardening technique
C. A method of planting flowers
B. An asexual reproduction method
D. A type of tree growth
____10. What happens to the new organism in budding until it matures?
A. It remains attached to the parent organism.
C. It seeks its food source
B. It moves away from the parent organism.
D. It grows independently from the parent.
____11. What is another term for shield budding?
A. T-budding
B. Rootstocking
C. Shoot Budding
D. Propagating
____12. What part of the plant is attached to the rootstock in shield budding?
A. Shoot
B. Leaf
C. Branch
D. Bud
____13. How many buds are needed to make a new plant using shield budding?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. One
____14. On what type of tree is patch budding particularly useful?
A. On thin-barked trees
C. On thick-barked trees
B. On fruit trees
D. On small shrubs
____15. What is grafting?
A. The act of joining two plants together
B. Growing plants from seeds
C. Pruning plants for better growth
D. Watering plants daily
____16. On the side of grafting, where is the scion placed in relation to the rootstock?
A. On top of the rootstock
B. On the side of the rootstock
C. Underneath the rootstock
D. Inside the rootstock
____17. What is the purpose of inarching?
A. To increase fruit production on established trees
B. To repair physical damage or animal damage to the trunk
C. To improve the root system of seedlings
D. To protect trees from pests and diseases
___18. Inarching is a technique used to ___.
A. Increase the height of trees
C. Enhance the color of leaves
B. Repair damage to the trunk
D. Decrease the lifespan of trees
____19. Chemicals such as pesticides can cause injuries such as burns, respiratory illness and _____.?
A. Poisoning
B. Roll-Over
C. Run-Over
D. Salmonella
___20. Which farm hazard includes faulty switches, cords and overhead power lines?
A. Animals
B. Chemicals
C. Electricity
D. Heights
___21. The following are effects of chemical exposure EXCEPT ________.
A. Leptospirosis
B. Nausea
C. Poisoning
D. Skin rashes and irritation
___22. Electrical systems in barns, especially in older structures, are often the cause of a ___________.
A. Falls
B. Fire
C. Flood
D. Illness
___23. The following suggestions can help to avoid tractor accidents EXCEPT _____.
A. Fit a falling object protective structure on the front-end loader
B. Keep a well-stocked, up-to-date first aid kit in an accessible area
C. Read and follow the manufacturer's instructions for operation
D. Remove or modify safety features
____24. What is a hazard in the context of workplace safety?
A. The likelihood of an accident occurring
B. The potential for harm to employees’ health
C. The number of safety regulations in place
D. The level of employee satisfaction in the workplace
____25. Which farm hazard includes falling objects, tripping, and slippery surfaces?
A. Biological
B. Chemicals
C. Physical
D. Mechanical
____26. Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical hazard?
A. Electricity
B. Lifting Heavy Objects
C. Floors, Stairs, Ladder
D. Heat and Cold
____27. This occurs when a person comes into contact with a hazard.
A. Exposure
B. Risk
C. Assessment
D. Hazard
____28. It includes bacteria, viruses, mold, mildew, insects and animals.
A. Mechanical
B. Physical
C. Chemical
D. Biological
____29. When does exposure occur in the context of workplace safety?
A. When a hazard is identified
C. When risk assessment is conducted
B. When a person comes into contact with a hazard
D. When safety training is provided
____30. What falls under the category of mechanical hazards?
A. Exposure to bacteria and viruses
C. Machinery and farm equipment
B. Use of cleaning agents and pesticides
D. Poor lighting and ventilation
____31. How can we best minimize hazards in the workplace?
A. Increase the severity of identified hazards
B. Reduce the frequency of exposure to hazard
C. Ignore low-risk hazards to focus on high-risk ones
D. Promote open communication about hazards to take preventive actions
____32. What is the potential effect if farmers consistently experience accidents on the farm?
A. Increased job satisfaction
C. Higher production efficiency
B. Improved crop yield
D. Decreased farm production and increased healthcare costs
____33. What is the first step in reducing the cause of an accident?
A. Hazard Prevention
B. Hazard identification
C. Hazard Response
____34. Why is it important to anticipate all possible hazards at the workplace?
A. To increase workplace efficiency
D. Hazard Assessment
B. To improve employee morale
C. To reduce the risk of injury or illness
D. To create a challenging work environment
____35. What is one of the primary purposes of wearing a hard hat in a work environment?
A. To protect against foot injuries
C. To prevent head impact and penetration injuries
B. To shield the eyes from harmful UV rays
D. To keep the body warm in cold weather
____36. What PPE is recommended for protection against objects, particles, sand, dirt, mists, dust, and glare/
A. Face Shields
B. Respirators
C. Reflective Jackets
D. Work Gloves
____37. What potential consequences can exposure to high noise levels have on individuals?
A. Increased muscle strength
C. Irreversible hearing loss or impairment
B. Enhanced cognitive function
D. Improved emotional well-being
____38. Why is hand protection important for workers exposed to various hazards?
A. To improve manual dexterity
C. To prevent injuries such as cuts, burns, and chemical exposure
B. To enhance grip strength
D. To keep hands warm in cold environments
____39. What specific injuries can hand protection help prevent?
A. Eye injuries
C. Foot injuries
B. Back injuries
D. Severe cuts or abrasions
____40. How do respirators prevent illness and injury?
A. By improving physical strength
C. By reducing the inhalation of harmful contaminants
B. By enhancing mental agility
D. By promoting teamwork and collaboration
DUMALIAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION
MAPEH 8
Name:______________________________________
Section: ____________________________________
I. Directions: Read the questions carefully. Write the letter of your answer in the blank beside each number.
___1. Which of the following features characterize the music of the Middle East?
A. Emphasis on harmony and chord progressions
B. Melodic complexity, ornamentation, and rigorous rhythmic development
C. Minimalistic melodies with sparse ornamentation
D. Random improvisations without adherence to rhythmic patterns
___2. It is described as the most sensuous form of art – appealing to the senses and erotic – with images about
sexuality.
A. Indian art
B. Kazakhs art
C. Persian art
D. Turkish art
___3. What kind of music is commonly used during communal worship in mosques and life passage events in Israel?
A. Central Asian Music
B. East Asian Music
C. Middle East Music D. Western Music
___4. What is the primary reason for the absence of figurative representations in Islamic art?
A. Lack of skilled artists
C. Prohibition of idol worship
B. Emphasis on simplicity
D. Cultural preference for abstract art
___5. What roles does Indian music play in the lives of its people?
A. Spiritual inspiration
B. Cultural expression
C. Entertainment
D. All of the above
___6. What significance does Indian music hold for its people?
A. It serves primarily as a form of entertainment.
C. It has minimal cultural significance
B. It plays a fundamental role in spiritual rituals.
D. None of the above
___7. What is the primary focus of Carnatic music?
A. Entertainment
B. Spiritual devotion
C. Cultural expression
D. Political activism
___8. Why is Carnatic music often called "temple music"?
A. It is primarily performed in temples.
C. It originated from temple rituals.
B. It is directed to a Hindu god.
D. None of the above
___9. Which region of India is known for Carnatic music?
A. Northern India
B. Eastern India
C. Southern India
D. Western India
___10. What is considered one of the oldest known Vedic Sanskrit texts associated with Hindustani music?
A. Bhagavad Gita
B. Ramayana
C. Rigveda
D. Mahabharata
___11. Which geographical region of India is known for Hindustani music?
A. Southern India
B. Eastern India
C. Northern India
D. Western India
___12. What is one of the distinguishing features of Pakistani music?
A. Instrumental complexity
C. Emphasis on classical dance forms
B. Unique vocal style
D. Minimalist compositions
___13. What is an essential ingredient of worship as practiced by Sufis?
A. Qawwali
B. Ghazal
C. Nasheed
D. Tarana
___14. Which musical tradition stretches back over 700 years and involves singing Sufi verses?
A. Tarab
B. Taarab
C. Qawwali
D. Ghazal
___15. Which art form is used to design, create, and cultivate techniques that provoke emotion?
A. Qawwali
B. Ghazal
C. Sufi poetry
D. Calligraphy
___16. In which of the following settings is Middle Eastern music commonly used?
A. Classical concerts in Western countries
C. Communal worship in mosques, synagogues, and churches
B. Political rallies and protests
D. Scientific conferences and seminars
___17. What is the term for special call to prayer and repentance on high holidays in Israel?
A. Devotional
B. Hazan
C. Secular
D. Yom Kippur
___18. What do you call a musician who helps lead the congregation in a songful prayer?
A. Devotional
B. Hazzan
C. Secular
D. Shofar
___19. Which country in Central Asia is known for its unique vocal styles known as Ghazal and Qawwali?
A. India
B. Israel
C. Pakistan
D. Philippines
___20. Which category of musical instruments primarily produces sound by vibrating air through blowing?
A. Chordophone
B. Idiophone
C. Aerophone
D. Membranophone
___21. Which instruments are classified under which sound category is primarily produced by strings' vibration?
A. Chordophone
B. Membranophone
C. Aerophone
D. Idiophone
___22. If an instrument produces sound primarily by striking with sticks or mallets, which category does it belong to?
A. Aerophone
B. Idiophone
C. Membranophone
D. Chordophone
___23. Which type of instrument primarily produces sound using bare hands without the need for striking devices?
A. Membranophone
B. Idiophone
C. Aerophone
D. Chordophone
___24. Which of the following is NOT a plucked stringed instrument?
A. Ektar
B. Gopichand
C. Sarangi
D. Rubab
___25. The following are significant musical instruments of Israel EXCEPT _______.
A. Jewish Lyre
B. Psalterion (Harp)
C. Shofar
D. Shankh
___26. Who founded Buddhism, also known as the "Enlightened One"?
A. Prince Siddhartha
B. Mahavira
C. Ashoka the Great
D. Chandragupta Maurya
___27. What are the structures called where the mortal remains of Buddha were placed within relic mounds?
A. Temples
B. Mosques
C. Stupas
D. Shrines
___28. How is Indian art often described in terms of its appeal?
A. Stoic and reserved
C. Rational and logical
B. Sensuous and erotic
D. Aesthetic and abstract
___29. What is the primary purpose of a stupa in Buddhist architecture?
A. Meditation retreat
C. A shrine or temple
B. Housing for monks
D. Education center
___30. This Indian architecture is considered a masterpiece of Indo-Islamic architecture.
A. Taj Mahal
B. Sanchi Stupa
C. Vesara
D. Dravida
___31. What are rangoli patterns primarily made of?
A. Cement and sand
C. Rice flour, chalk, fine quartz powder, flower petals, or seeds
B. Glass and metal
D. Plastic and synthetic materials
___32. What is another term for the artistic pattern commonly used by Islamic artists, known for using leaves and
flowers?
A. Arabesque
B. Calligraphy
C. Fresco
D. Mosaic
___33. What is another name for Arabesque Art, indicating its organic and flowing nature?
A. Cubism
B. Realism
C. Impressionism
D. Biomorphic Art
___34. What is the significance of the stitching technique, shyryk, in shyrdak carpets?
A. It enhances the colors of the carpet.
C. It adds texture to the carpet.
B. It increases the carpet's longevity.
D. It decreases the weight of the carpet.
___35. Which region is commonly regarded as the birthplace of arts associated with Islamic culture?
A. East Asia
B. South Asia
C. West Asia
D. Central Asia
DUMALIAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION
MAPEH 9
Name:______________________________________
Section: ____________________________________
I. Directions: Read the questions carefully. Write the letter of your answer in the blank beside each number.
___1. What impact did the vast changes in politics, society, and economy during the 19th century have on the arts?
A. They led to a decline in artistic creativity.
B. They caused a great shift in how composers created music.
C. They did not influence artistic development.
D. They resulted in the complete cessation of artistic endeavors.
___2. What work of art, such as paintings, sculptures, and architecture, typically depicted Roman history that exalted
the ancient heroes?
A. Neoclassicism
B. Romanticism
C. Medieval Art
D. Baroque Period
___3. This Romantic period composer became a court conductor for the Grand Duke of Weimar when he was thirty-six
years old.
A. Niccolo Paganini
B. Frederic Chopin
C. Franz Liszt
D. Robert Schumann
___4. A marble sculpture portraying the relationship of Psyche and Cupid.
A. The Apotheosis of Homer
C. Psyche Awakened by Cupid’s Kiss
B. Napoleon Crossing the Alps
D. White House
___5. What kind of program music is commonly written for orchestra inspired by ideas or scenes from stories, poems,
and even sceneries?
A. Symphonic Poem
B. Orchestra
C. Opera
D. Concerto
___6. How is a virtuoso defined in the context of music during the Romantic era?
A. A composer who writes highly complex and intricate compositions
B. A conductor who leads large orchestras with great precision
C. One who is highly skilled in arts, particularly in performance
D. A music theorist who analyzes and interprets musical works
___7. What instrument did Niccolò Paganini become famous for playing?
A. Piano
B. Cello
C. Violin
D. Flute
___8. What was Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky's significant contribution as a Russian composer?
A. He was the first to introduce jazz elements into classical music.
B. He was the first to combine classical and electronic music.
C. He was the first to make a lasting impression internationally.
D. He was the first to write purely atonal compositions.
___9. This painting shows a portrayal of a revolutionary martyr.
A. The Death of Marat
C. Insane Woman
B. The Raft of Medusa
D. Liberty Leading the People
___10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic associated with Romanticism?
A. Emphasis on individualism
C. Focus on rationality and logic
B. Preference for emotional expression
D. Celebration of nature
___11. This Romantic period composer stands out primarily for his “rockstar performances.”
A. Niccolo Paganini
B. Frederic Chopin
C. Franz Liszt
D. Robert Schumann
___12. Neoclassicism refers not only to decorative and visual arts but also to other forms of expression.
A. Folk music
C. Literature, theater, music, and architecture
B. Jazz
D. Contemporary dance
___13. What nickname is Frederic Chopin commonly known by?
A. Maestro of the Melody
C. Poet of the Piano
B. Virtuoso of the Violin
D. Master of the Mandolin
___14. Who is known for “Symphonie Fantastique”?
A. Hector Berlioz
B. Frederic Chopin
C. Franz Liszt
D. Robert Schumann
___15. This painting depicts Napoleon in his decadent coronation costume, seated upon his golden-encrusted throne,
hand resting upon smooth ivory balls.
A. The Apotheosis of Homer
C. Portrait of Napoleon on the Imperial Throne
B. Napoleon Crossing the Alps
D. White House
___16. At what age did Camille Saint-Saëns start composing his first piano piece?
A. Two years old
B. Three years old
C. Four years old
D. Five years old
___17. Which ancient civilizations inspired Neoclassical art and culture?
A. Ancient Egypt and Mesopotamia
C. Ancient China and Japan
B. Ancient Greece and Rome
D. Ancient India and Persia
___18. What period in history is often associated with Neoclassicism?
A. The Renaissance
C. The Age of Enlightenment
B. The Middle Ages
D. The Industrial Revolution
___19. He was considered a composer who created elegant, neat, polished, and never-excessive music.
A. Camille Saint-Saens
C. Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky
B. Robert Schumann
D. Hector Berlioz
___20. Which instrument became the favorite for professional and amateur musicians during this period?
A. Violin
B. Flute
C. Cello
D. Piano
___21. During which musical era did the concept of the virtuoso rise and become notable?
A. Baroque era
B. Classical period
C. Romantic era
D. Renaissance
___22. Robert Adam’s White House and United States Capitol are examples of _______.
A. Photography
B. Painting
C. Sculpture
B. Eugene Delacroix
D. Architecture
D. Jacques-Louis David
___23. This artwork is an image of the resurrected Christ at the Thorvaldsen Museum.
A. Christ
B. White House
C. Insane Woman
D. Washington
___24. What was emphasized by the Romanticism trend?
A. Rationality and logic
C. Traditionalism and conformity
B. Sentiments or emotions and individualism
D. Materialism and consumerism
___25. Which of the following concepts were often promoted in Romantic art works?
A. Industrialization and urbanization
B. Social hierarchy and aristocracy
C. Historical ambition, supernatural elements, social justice, and nature
D. Technological advancements and scientific discoveries
___26. Antonio Canova’s Psyche Awakened by Cupid’s Kiss is an example of _____.
A. Photography
B. Painting
C. Sculpture
D. Architecture
___27. The following are Romantic Period artists, EXCEPT:
A. Jean Louis Theodore Gericault
C. Francisco Goya
___28. One of several portraits Gericault made of the mentally disabled that has a peculiar hypnotic power.
A. Christ
B. White House
C. Insane Woman
D. Washington
___29. A woman holding the flag of French Revolution personifies Liberty and leads the people forward over the bodies
of the fallen.
A. Liberty Leading the People
C. The Raft of Medusa
B. Insane Woman
D. Christ
___30. Which of the following is exemplifies Neoclassicism?
A. The Raft of Medusa
C. The Third of May
B. Liberty Leading the People
D. Portrait of Napoleon on the Imperial Throne
DUMALIAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION
MAPEH 10
Name:______________________________________
Section: ____________________________________
I. Directions: Read the questions carefully. Write the letter of your answer in the blank beside each number.
___1. Who founded the Bayanihan Folk Arts Center?
A. Jose Maceda
B. Ramon Santos
C. Josefino Toledo
D. Lucrecia Kasilag
___2. What does Josefino Toledo fuse in his music compositions?
A. Classical and folk music
C. Rock and jazz elements
B. Western and Southeast musical traditions
D. Electronic and experimental sounds
___3. The following are examples of print media, EXCEPT:
A. Newspaper
B. Magazines
C. E-book
D. Books
___4. How is Digital 2D Animation typically created?
A. By sculpting characters out of clay
C. By using digital technologies in a 2-dimensional space
B. By drawing in a 3-dimensional space
D. By capturing real-life actors' movements
___5. Which elements of art refer to the use of lightness or darkness of color, shading, and highlighting in an
artwork?
A. Form
B. Motion
C. Space
D. Value
___6. These are the famous works of Francisco Santiago, EXCEPT:
A. Kumukutikutitap
B. Pilipinas Kong Mahal
c. Kundiman
C. Hibik ng Pilipinas
___7. How does Stop-Motion Animation differ from traditional animation?
A. It uses digital tools instead of hand-drawn frames.
B. It involves capturing sequential photos of real-life objects instead of drawings.
C. It relies on computer-generated imagery instead of physical models.
D. It requires animators to manipulate 3D models instead of 2D drawings manually.
___8. What inspired Jose Maceda's transformation in musical style?
A. Encountering the music of indigenous groups of Mindoro in 1953
B. Studying classical European music
C. Listening to jazz and blues recordings
D. Attending music festivals in Latin America
___9. What is the main goal of Digital 3D Animation?
A. To create animations using hand-drawn frames
B. To make unreal characters appear realistic
C. To simulate motion using photographs
D. To produce animations in a 2-dimensional space
___10. This refers to the distances or areas around, between, or within components of a piece.
A. Color
B. Form
C. Space
D. Texture
___11. The art of practice of creating images by recording or capturing light by using an image sensor or camera.
A. Digital Media
B. Print Media
C. Photography
D. Film
___12. He is considered the “Father of Kundiman.”
A. Francisco Santiago
B. Levi Celerio
C. Lucio San Pedro
D. Ryan Cayabyab
___13. Mutya ng Pasig, Bituing Marikit, and Kundiman ng Luha are famous works of _____.
A. Nicanor Abelardo
B. Levi Celerio
C. Lucio San Pedro
D. Ryan Cayabyab
___14. With compositions like Kayumangging Malaya, Lahing Kayumanggi, and Sa Mahal Kong Bayan, he is a composer
regarded as a Romantic Nationalist.
A. Francisco Santiago
B. Levi Celerio
C. Lucio San Pedro
D. Ryan Cayabyab
___15. Which of the following best defines animation?
A. Creating still images for print media
B. Capturing live-action footage for documentaries
C. Creating the illusion of motion through the rapid display of sequential images
D. Producing audio recordings for podcasts
____16. This composer is known for love songs, Christmas songs, and nationalistic songs composition.
A. Jose Maceda
B. Ramon Santos
C. Josefino Toledo
D. Levi Celerio
____17. What distinguishes Motion Graphics from other types of animation?
A. It primarily focuses on character-driven stories.
B. It utilizes advanced motion capture technology.
C. It involves moving graphic elements such as texts or shapes.
D. It exclusively uses hand-drawn frames for animation.
____18. How did Lucrecia Kasilag compose her music to stand out uniquely?
A. By exclusively using indigenous Filipino instruments
B. By incorporating only Western orchestral instruments
C. By blending Western orchestral instruments with indigenous Filipino instruments
D. By focusing solely on vocal compositions
____19. He is the composer of “Kay Ganda ng Ating Musika”.
A. Ryan Cayabyab
B. Lucio San Pedro
C. Levi Celerio
D. Francisco Santiago
____20. How is Josefino Toledo's approach to music composition described?
A. Complex and chaotic
C. Pure and powerful
B. Simple and delicate
D. Esoteric and obscure
____21. Which statement best describes the nature of Motion Graphics?
A. It is solely focused on storytelling through characters and plots.
B. It is an artistic form of animation that relies on traditional techniques.
C. It involves creating animations using live-action footage.
D. It is the art of moving graphic elements such as texts or shapes without character.
___ 22. What is the name of Mike Velarde’s band?
A. Mike Velarde’s Jazztocrats
C. Mike Velarde’s Jazz Ensem
B. Mike Velarde’s Just Jazz
D. Mike Velarde’s Jazz Muzik Band
____23. Which of the following arts elements refers to the different hues and shades applied in arts and designs?
A. Color
B. Form
C. Sound
D. Texture
C. Photography
D. Film
____24. This is the oldest means of sharing information.
A. Print Media
B. Animation
____25. What is another name for Digital 2D Animation?
A. Raster Animation
C. Vector Animation
B. Pixel Animation
D. Bitmap Animation
____26. Which among the choices is not a form of Digital Media?
A. E-book
B. Newspaper
C. Apps
D. Webnovel
____27. What are the techniques and styles commonly used in creating animation?
A. Painting and sculpture
C. Stop motion, 2D, and 3D animation
B. Calligraphy and typography
D. Acting and improvisation
____28. Which technique of animation involves animators drawing each frame by hand?
A. Digital 2D Animation
C. Traditional Animation
B. Digital 3D Animation
D. Stop-motion Animation
____29. What is the primary method used in Stop-Motion Animation?
A. Capturing live-action footage
C. Capturing realistic photos of an object
B. Drawing frames by hand
D. Generating images using computer algorithms
____30. A form of media that uses electronic devices for distribution.
A. Digital Media
B. Print Media
C. Photography
D. Film