Certified Fitness Trainer
UNIT QUIZZES
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Contents
Section One: Anatomy and Physiology (Units 1–3)
Section Two: Kinesiology and Biomechanics (Units 4–7)
Section Three: Health and Physical Fitness (Units 8–11)
Section Four: Program Development (Units 12–16)
Section Five: Nutrition (Units 17–20)
Section Six: Fitness For All (Units 21–31)
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Course Requirements:
• Submission of all course quizzes
• A score of 75% or better on all sections of the final examination
• Proof of current Adult CPR/AED
• All fees paid in full
Directions for submitting your CFT Unit Quizzes and
accessing your Final Examination
To help you organize your studies, your unit
quizzes have been grouped according to the six
sections found in the course text. Though you must
submit all quizzes as part of the course completion
requirements, your quiz scores will not factor into
your final score.
You may complete the quizzes at your own pace,
but you must submit the quizzes in order. You may
submit any number of answer forms at a time (a
single answer form or a group of answer forms).
Once you have completed and submitted all unit
quizzes, you will be able to access your
final examination.
Complete your quizzes online at ISSAtrainer.com or
make a copy of your completed answer sheet(s) for
your records and mail to:
ISSA
Attn: Quiz Processing
1015 Mark Avenue
Carpinteria, CA 93013
Section One: Anatomy and Physiology (Units 1– 3)
Section Two: Kinesiology and Biomechanics (Units 4–7)
Section Three: Health and Physical Fitness (Units 8–11)
Section Four: Program Development (Units 12–16)
Section Five: Nutrition (Units 17–20)
Section Six: Fitness for All (Units 21–31)
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
Section One: Anatomy and Physiology (Units 1–3)
Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section.
Unit 1: Metabolism
1. Muscular, cardiopulmonary, and metabolic
adaptations to exercise are known as the
training effect.
a. true
b. false
2. The body’s automatic tendency to maintain
a constant internal body environment
through various processes is called:
a. body relativity
b. cerebral equilibrium
c. homeostasis
d. metabolic set point
e. none of the above
3. BMR stands for:
a. basic memory retention
b. bad muscle recovery
c. bone myofascial release
d. basal metabolic rate
e. none of the above
4. Anabolism and catabolism occur at the
same time throughout the body.
a. true
b. false
5. Which of the following statements is/are
true?
a. A calorie is a unit of heat.
b. One Calorie is the energy required to
raise 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
c. The preferred unit in metabolic studies
and nutrition labels is the kilocalorie
(kcal).
d. A and B
e. A and C
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6. The primary (not the “initial”) fuel during
endurance exercise is:
a. liver glycogen
b. fatty acids
c. muscle glycogen
d. electrolytes
e. none of the above
7. The molecule used for storing and
transferring energy in the body is called:
a. micronutrients
b. carbohydrates
c. carbon dioxide (CO2)
d. adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
e. none of the above
8. The ATP/CP pathway is the primary
pathway used for activities lasting two
minutes or greater.
a. true
b. false
Unit 2: Basic Anatomy and Physiology
1. About 98% of the human body is
composed of only six elements: oxygen,
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and
phosphorous.
a. true
b. false
2. The respiratory system is responsible for:
a. supplying oxygen to the body
b. eliminating carbon dioxide in the body
c. helps regulate the body’s pH balance
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
3. The circulatory system consists of:
a. lungs, mouth, throat, trachea, and
bronchi
b. mouth, esophagus, stomach, and
gallbladder
c. heart, arteries, and veins
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
4. The nervous system is made up of the:
a. peripheral nervous system
b. central nervous system
c. proximal nervous system
d. A and B
e. A and C
5. Excretion is one function of the digestive
system.
a. true
b. false
6. Hormones are classified as:
a. steroids
b. amino acid derivatives
c. peptides
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
7. Hemoglobin is an oxygen transporting
protein in red blood cells.
a. true
b. false
8. The main purpose(s) of hormones is/are to:
a. alter the rate of synthesis of your cellular
protein
b. change the rate of enzyme activity
c. change the rate of transport of nutrients
through the cell wall
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Unit 3: Musculoskeletal Anatomy and Physiology
1. Tendons connect bone to bone.
a. true
b. false
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2. The average human adult skeleton has:
a. 80 bones
b. 126 bones
c. 206 bones
d. over 400 bones
e. none of the above
3. Tendons:
a. are extensions of muscle fibers
b. connect bone to bone
c. connect muscle to bone
d. A and B
e. A and C
4. The anatomical terms for front and back
are:
a. superior and inferior
b. proximal and distal
c. anterior and posterior
d. lateral and medial
e. none of the above
5. Type I muscle fibers are predominantly
aerobic.
a. true
b. false
6. Cardiovascular/aerobic exercise results in:
a. contractile protein adaptations
b. mitochondrial adaptations
c. nuclei capacity adaptations
d. all of the above
e. B and C
7. Type II muscle fibers are entirely aerobic.
a. true
b. false
8. Muscular hypertrophy is a(n):
a. increase in muscle fiber size
b. decrease in muscle fiber size
c. increase in the number of muscle fibers
d. decrease in the number of muscle fibers
e. none of the above
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
Section Two: Kinesiology and Biomechanics (Units 4–7)
Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section.
Unit 4: Kinesiology of Exercise
1. In a concentric contraction, the muscle
lengthens to produce movements.
a. true
b. false
6. Adduction is movement of a body part
away from the midline of the body.
a. true
b. false
2. Kinesiology is:
a. the science or study of human movement
and the active and passive structures
involved
b. the science of the morphology or
structure of organisms
c. the science concerned with the normal
vital processes of animal and vegetable
organisms
d. the science with the action of forces—
internal and external—on the living
body
e. none of the above
7. An example of flexion is the:
a. concentric action of a bicep curl
b. eccentric action of a bicep curl
c. lateral movement of a jumping jack
d. medial movement of a jumping jack
e. none of the above
3. An isometric contraction is when:
a. a muscle shortens as it contracts
b. a muscle lengthens as it contracts
c. a muscle does not lengthen or shorten as
it contracts
d. a movement is performed using a single,
isolated muscle
4. True synergy occurs when a muscle
contracts to stop the secondary action of
another muscle.
a. true
b. false
5. An example of an antagonist muscle is:
a. biceps during the biceps curl
b. internal and external obliques during a
crunch
c. triceps during a biceps curl
d. pronator teres during pronation
e. none of the above
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8. Flexion mainly occurs in which plane?
a. frontal plane
b. sagittal plane
c. orbital plane
d. transverse plane
e. none of the above
Unit 5: Biomechanics of Exercise
1. Newton’s second law of motion deals
with force and its relationship to mass and
acceleration.
a. true
b. false
2. Biomechanics is the study of:
a. body structure
b. how our body functions
c. movement
d. the normal vital process of organisms
e. none of the above
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
3. Muscular force is broken down into the
components of:
a. magnitude
b. direction
c. point of application
d. line of action
e. all of the above
4. Inertia can be categorized as:
a. resting inertia
b. moving inertia
c. dynamic inertia
d. A and B
e. A and C
5. A first-class lever is similar to a seesaw.
a. true
b. false
6. The ability to perceive your position and
movement of the body or limbs in space is
known as:
a. tonus
b. perception
c. kinesthesis
d. hand-eye coordination
e. none of the above
7. A second-class level is similar to a
wheelbarrow.
a. true
b. false
8. The faster the work is done during a
movement, the lesser the amount of power.
a. true
b. false
Unit 6: Musculoskeletal Deviations
1. Posture is solely viewed in static positions,
such as sitting, standing, or lying down.
a. true
b. false
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2. “Flatback” can be identified by a:
a. anterior pelvic tilt
b. posterior pelvic tilt
c. lateral pelvic tilt
d. lateral curvature of the spine
e. none of the above
3. Excessive lateral curvature of the spinal
column is known as:
a. lordosis
b. kyphosis
c. scoliosis
d. spondylosis
e. none of the above
4. Kyphosis is an exaggerated anteriorposterior curvature of the spinal column.
a. true
b. false
5. When the superior iliac crest of the pelvis
moves forward and downward from the
normal anatomical position, it is known as:
a. lordosis
b. kyphosis
c. scoliosis
d. spondylosis
e. none of the above
6. Intradiscal pressure is up to 11 times greater
when seated versus lying down.
a. true
b. false
7. Exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of
the spinal column is known as:
a. lordosis
b. kyphosis
c. scoliosis
d. spondylosis
e. none of the above
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
8. Even though sitting can be unavoidable for
many people, it is best to limit time spent
sitting as much as possible, and design your
workplace according to correct ergonomics.
a. true
b. false
Unit 7: Muscle Mechanics
1. The major movements that are possible at
the knee joint are adduction and abduction.
a. true
b. false
2. The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by
which muscle?
a. soleus
b. hamstrings
c. quadriceps
d. gluteus
e. tensor fasciae latae
3. The semimembranosus and semitendinosus
attach on what side of the knee?
a. lateral
b. medial
c. anterior
d. posterior
e. none of the above
5. The hamstring muscles are a two-joint
muscle that acts at the knee and hip.
a. true
b. false
6. What muscle is located directly beneath the
gastrocnemius and has similar functions to
the gastrocnemius?
a. anterior tibialis
b. extensor digitorum longus
c. extensor brevis
d. soleus
e. posterior tibialis
7. The wrist joint consists of the ends of the
radius and ulna bones of the forearm with
the carpal bones of the hand.
a. true
b. false
8. The shoulder girdle is made up of the
clavicle and what other bone?
a. humerus
b. sternum
c. scapula
d. femur
e. ulna
4. The ankle joint is made up of which
bone(s)?
a. tibia
b. talus
c. femur
d. A and B
e. B and C
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
Section Three: Anatomy and Physiology (Units 8–11)
Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section.
Unit 8: Strength
1. A pronated grip would be palms up.
a. true
b. false
2. Which of the following is a major factor that
affects strength?
a. structural
b. physiological
c. psychoneural
d. environmental
e. all of the above
3. The angle of Q represents:
a. acceleration
b. starting strength
c. explosive strength
d. limit strength
e. none of the above
4. What is a basic grip used in weight training?
a. supinated
b. pronated
c. neutral
d. all of the above
5. A supinated grip would be palms down.
a. true
b. false
6. Dumbbells are an example of what type of
training equipment?
a. constant resistance device
b. variable resistance device
c. accommodating resistance device
d. static resistance device
e. none of the above
7. A neutral grip would be thumbs up.
a. true
b. false
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8. New trainees should ____ through the
sticking point and _____ during the less
strenuous portion of the lifts.
a. inhale, exhale
b. exhale, inhale
c. hold their breath, exhale
d. inhale, hold their breath
e. none of the above
Unit 9: Cardiovascular Training
1. Aerobic means “in the presence of oxygen.”
a. true
b. false
2. Maximum oxygen consumption is also
known as:
a. MET max
•
b. VO2 max
c. aerobic training threshold
d. one-repetition maximum (1RM)
e. none of the above
3. Maximal heart rate is estimated by
subtracting your age from:
a. 180
b. 200
c. 220
d. 100
e. none of the above
4. For aerobic training, ISSA recommends that
individuals train at what percentage of the
maximum heart rate?
a. 80% to 100%
b. 50% to 70%
c. 55% to 85%
d. 40% to 70%
e. none of the above
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
5. A watt is a measure of power involving a
known force, distance, and time frame.
a. true
b. false
6. A unit of measurement that refers to the
relative energy demands of an activity in
comparison to your energy demands in a
resting state is known as a:
a. watt
b. calorie
c. BMR
d. MET
e. none of the above
7. Anaerobic means “in the presence of
oxygen.”
a. true
b. false
8. Using several modes of training to develop
a specific component of fitness is known as:
a. high-altitude training
b. high-intensity interval training
c. peripheral heart action training
d. cross-training
e. none of the above
Unit 10: Flexibility Training
1. Flexibility is the ability to flex, extend, or
circumduct the joints through their full
intended range of motion.
a. true
b. false
2. The Golgi tendon organ, the muscle
spindle, and the Pacinian corpuscle make up
the three primary:
a. inhibitory proprioceptors
b. static receptors
c. regulatory proprioceptors
d. static proprioceptors
e. functional receptors
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3. Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping
strands of protein polymers called:
a. tropin and tropomyosin
b. actin and tropomyosin
c. tropin and myosin
d. actin and myosin
e. tropoactin and tropomyosin
4. Joint range of motion can be assessed with a:
a. goniometer
b. sit and reach test
c. shoulder flexibility test
d. trunk extension test
e. all of the above
5. The muscle spindle detects excessive stretch
within the muscle.
a. true
b. false
6. If your goal is to improve range of motion,
stretch to the point:
a. just short of discomfort
b. of extreme discomfort
c. of mild or moderate discomfort
d. of slight discomfort
e. none of the above
7. Which of the following is a benefit of a
proper warm up and dynamic stretch prior
to exercise?
a. improved metabolic adjustment to heavy
work
b. greater strength/power output
c. increased muscle temperature
d. increased velocity of nerve conduction
e. all of the above
8. This type of stretching facilitates an increase
in muscle length through a maximum
isometric contraction of the antagonist:
a. static stretching
b. fascial stretching
c. contract-relax (CR) method
d. dynamic stretching
e. contract antagonist-relax (CA) method
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
Unit 11: Body Composition
1. Endomorphs are slim body types.
a. true
b. false
2. Ectomorphs are classified as:
a. muscular body types
b. slim or linear body types
c. round types
d. none of the above
3. Body mass index (BMI) is used to assess:
a. overall body composition
b. body fat percentage
c. fitness level
d. relative weight to height ratio and as a
predictor of future disease risk
e. none of the above
4. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) is one
method to determine body composition.
a. true
b. false
6. All of the following are methods to assess
body composition except:
a. DEXA
b. body mass index (BMI)
c. skinfold thickness
d. hydrostatic weighing
e. bioelectrical impedance (BIA)
7. When taking skinfold measurement
readings, only one attempt per site is
recommended for an accurate reading.
a. true
b. false
8. The somatotype system classifies the human
body into how many categories?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. none of the above
5. The body is composed of lean body mass
(LBM) and body fat.
a. true
b. false
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
Section Four: Program Development (Units 12–16)
Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section.
Unit 12: Drawing-In Phase
1. As future ISSA professionals, we must first
seek to understand our clients before we
make recommendations.
a. true
b. false
2. The ISSA drawing-in phase is a process
which:
a. insures a high level of client motivation
b. distinguishes you as a professional
c. has five stages
d. all of the above
e. A and C
3. Stage One of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
a. data collection
b. establishing an integrated training
process
c. establishing yourself as a professional
d. guided discovery tour
e. feeling the water before jumping in
6. Stage Three of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
a. data collection
b. establishing an integrated training
process
c. establishing yourself as a professional
d. guided discovery tour
e. feeling the water before jumping in
7. Motive is defined as an impulse or
physiological need acting as incitement to
action.
a. true
b. false
8. A trainer should facilitate learning by using
which sensory channel(s)?
a. visual
b. auditory
c. kinesthetic
d. all of the above
e. A and B
4. Stage Two of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
a. data collection
b. establishing an integrated training
process
c. establishing yourself as a professional
d. guided discovery tour
e. feeling the water before jumping in
Unit 13: Basic Assessment of Training
Participants
5. Client rapport is a key characteristic in
establishing a relationship with your clients.
a. true
b. false
2. GXT is an acronym for:
a. good exercise time
b. gradual exercise test
c. graded exercise test
d. guaranteed exercise time
e. none of the above
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1. Blood pressure is the force exerted by the
blood against the walls of the blood vessels.
a. true
b. false
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
3. According to the ISSA and the ACSM,
exercise intensity should be at what
•
percentage of your VO2 max in order
to maintain an adequate level of
cardiorespiratory fitness?
a. 20% to 60%
b. 10% to 50%
c. 55% to 85%
d. 75% to 100%
4. Using the Karvonen method and an exercise
intensity of 55% will determine the heart
rate corresponding to what percentage of
•
VO2 max?
a. 55%
b. 60%
c. 80%
d. 85%
e. none of the above
5. The ISSA recommends that the intensity
•
level of exercise be 85% to 95% of VO2
max.
a. true
b. false
6. Muscular endurance can be assessed by
which of the following method(s)?
a. push-up test
b. sit-up test
c. upper body test
d. lower body test
e. A and B
7. The resting level of oxygen consumption is
referred to as 1.0 MET.
a. true
b. false
8. According to the Push-up Norms chart,
what is the rating of a 38-year-old male that
can perform 24 push-ups?
a. excellent
b. good
c. fair
d. poor
e. none of the above
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Unit 14: Training Principles
1. The principle of individual differences states
that the rate and magnitude of adaptations
to training will be limited by our differing
genetics.
a. true
b. false
2. Which principle states that in order for
gains to continue, the intensity of the stress
imposed must be progressively increased?
a. SAID principle
b. principle of individual differences
c. overload principle
d. specificity principle
e. GAS principle
3. Which principle states that we all undergo
stress in three stages: the “alarm stage,”
the “resistance stage,” and the “exhaustion
stage?”
a. SAID principle
b. principle of individual differences
c. overload principle
d. specificity principle
e. GAS principle
4. Which principle states that our bodies will
physiologically adapt according to whether
we are training aerobically or anaerobically?
a. SAID principle
b. principle of individual differences
c. overload principle
d. specificity principle
e. GAS principle
5. The specificity principle states that we must
move from general training to specific and
highly specialized training as it relates to our
intended goals.
a. true
b. false
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
6. HIT is an acronym for:
a. hard interval training
b. healthy integrated training
c. high intensity training
d. humanly impossible training
e. hyper-integrated technique
7. “FITT,” in terms of the FITT principle, stands
for fully integrated training technique.
a. true
b. false
8. The principles to help you plan your
training cycle, arrange your exercises in
each workout, and perform each exercise
are known as the:
a. Hatfield principles
b. Kazmeyer principles
c. Weider principles
d. Platz principles
e. none of the above
Unit 15: Periodization
1. Periodization refers to how a training
program is broken down into discreet time
periods called macrocycles, mesocycles, and
microcycles.
a. true
b. false
2. The ISSA recommends that an individual
performs single-joint movements before
multiple-joint movements.
a. true
b. false
4. The two most common physiological
markers of overtraining are sympathetic
overtraining and parasympathetic
overtraining.
a. true
b. false
5. Which of the following is a symptom of
overtraining?
a. decrease in performance
b. increase in body weight
c. chronic fatigue
d. all of the above
e. A and C
6. DOMS stands for:
a. deadlifts on a machine seated
b. delayed onset muscle soreness
c. double-leg machine squats
d. downward oblique muscle striation
e. none of the above
7. The connective tissue damage hypothesis is
one of three leading hypothesis of DOMS.
a. true
b. false
8. Which of the following is one way to avoid
overtraining?
a. little to no movement between sets
b. decreasing your rest time between
workouts
c. varying your training method using
periodization
d. increasing exercise intensity
3. What are the three predictable stages of
stress in the GAS principle?
a. alarm, excitement, and fight
b. shock, compensation, and exhaustion
c. anticipation, excitement, and exhaustion
d. alarm, fight, and flight
e. none of the above
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
Unit 16: Determining Training Loads
1. Maximum power will occur somewhere
between 55% and 85% of 1RM.
a. true
b. false
2. If you can perform a maximum of eight
repetitions using a certain weight, then that
weight is approximately what percentage of
your one-repetition max?
a. 55%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 100%
e. none of the above
3. High repetition resistance training (of 15 or
more repetitions):
a. does not innervate high threshold motor
units
b. innervates high threshold motor units
c. limits the potential
d. A and C
e. B and C
4. Why do new trainees typically experience a
higher rate of strength gains?
a. neural adaptations
b. increased protein intake
c. overtraining
d. excess body fat
e. none of the above
5. Training, using roughly 6 to 12 repetitions,
is most effective for achieving muscular
hypertrophy.
a. true
b. false
6. How much rest time is required/
recommended between sets (three sets of
8 to 10 at 75% of the 1RM) to maximize
serum testosterone levels and growth
hormone levels?
a. 10 seconds
b. no more than 30 seconds
c. no more than one minute
d. no more than two minutes
e. time does not matter
7. Training at 55% to 65% of 1RM is most
effective for muscular endurance.
a. true
b. false
8. Which principle states that motor units
are recruited in order according to their
recruitment thresholds and firing rates?
a. size principle
b. FITT principle
c. HITT principle
d. use/disuse principle
e. none of the above
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Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
Section Five: Nutrition (Units 17–20)
Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section.
Unit 17: The Big Picture of Nutrition
1. Good nutrition should be more theoretical
and not based on outcomes.
a. true
b. false
2. Which of the following food(s) has the
highest nutrient density?
a. lean beef
b. spinach
c. soda
d. low fat milk
e. none of the above
3. Which of the following is a common
limiting factor when it comes to achieving
fitness-related goals?
a. genetics
b. exercise
c. mindset
d. nutrition
e. all of the above
4. What is the best and most effective diet for
every individual?
a. paleo
b. low carb diet
c. intermittent fasting
d. Atkins
e. none of the above
5. Which factor(s) should you take into
account when deciding on a nutrition
strategy?
a. life demands
b. work situation
c. physical activity
d. culture
e. all of the above
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6. Which of the following food labels does not
actually tell you much about the food itself?
a. “organic”
b. “free-range”
c. “fair-trade certified”
d. “certified organic”
e. none of the above
7. The body cannot function properly without
an adequate presence of key vitamins and
minerals.
a. true
b. false
8. If a food is labeled “organic,” it is always
safe to assume that the food is healthy,
nourishing, and not processed.
a. true
b. false
Unit 18: Nutritional Physiology
1. Which of the following represents a “role”
that the liver plays in the body?
a. helps control blood pressure
b. extracts waste from blood
c. synthesizes protein from amino acids
ingested through food
d. removes carbon dioxide (CO2) from the
body
e. none of the above
2. Glucose can be:
a. used for ATP production
b. stored as muscle glycogen
c. excreted to lower pH balance
d. A and B
e. none of the above
15
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
3. Some of the energy in macronutrients are
lost through the digestive process.
a. true
b. false
4. Which of the following is an “issue” with
the caloric values contained on food labels?
a. cost of the food
b. preparation/method of cooking
c. does not specify the type of protein
d. none of the above
e. all the above
5. Which of the following is not a metabolic
pathway involving carbohydrates?
a. gluconeogenesis
b. glyconolisthesis
c. glycogenolysis
d. glycolysis
e. none of the above
6. A summation of all things your body does
both actively and passively to burn calories
in a 24-hour period is called:
a. metabolic rate
b. total daily energy expenditure
c. basal metabolic rate
d. metabolic set point
e. A and B
7. Which factor(s) affects energy balance?
a. food intake
b. exercise activity
c. genetic factors
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
8. When caloric intake is lower than the
amount needed to maintain normal
function, RMR increases.
a. true
b. false
16
Unit 19: Nutritional Science
1. Which of the following is not a form of
carbohydrates found in the diet?
a. sugar
b. insulin
c. starch
d. dietary fiber
e. all of the above
2. Animal-based fats contain a higher ratio of
unsaturated fats than plant-based oils.
a. true
b. false
3. Which of the following chemical
component(s) does protein contain that is
not found in carbohydrates or fats?
a. carbon
b. hydrogen
c. oxygen
d. nitrogen
e. none of the above
4. What is the recommended minimum
protein intake for sedentary, generally
healthy individuals?
a. 0.8g per pound of body mass
b. 1g per pound of body mass
c. 0.8g per kilogram of body mass
d. 1g per kilogram of body mass
e. none of the above
5. Which of the following is an example of a
micronutrient?
a. carbohydrates
b. insoluble fiber
c. vitamin C
d. omega 3
e. none of the above
cft_cq_160114
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
6. While having too little water relative to
other solutes is bad, having too much water
can also have severe consequences.
a. true
b. false
7. For most people, drinking approximately
two liters of water per day is sufficient.
a. true
b. false
8. Fish oil is rich in:
a. DHA
b. EPA
c. omega-36
d. A and B
e. all of the above
Unit 20: Nutritional Coaching
1. Which of the following is not an appropriate
characteristic of a goal?
a. goals are specific and measurable
b. goals have a timeline
c. goals are unrealistic
d. goals are written down
e. none of the above
2. Limiting factors are the choices an individual
makes that prevent him/her from reaching
goals.
a. true
b. false
4. Outcome goals are the steps that you must
take to accomplish your behavior goal.
a. true
b. false
5. Which of the following is not a common
limiting factor regarding nutrition?
a. sugar-sweetened beverages
b. lack of sleep and recovery
c. cost of food
d. not eating satisfying meals
e. none of the above
6. Calorie counting is a foolproof method to
accurately determine your dietary needs.
a. true
b. false
7. For women, what is the average portion size
of protein dense foods with each meal?
a. half a portion
b. two portions
c. one palm portion
d. two palm portions
e. none of the above
8. An advanced nutrition technique is to eat
according to your body type.
a. true
b. false
3. For men, what is the average portion size of
protein dense foods with each meal?
a. half a portion
b. two portions
c. one palm portion
d. two palm portions
e. none of the above
cft_cq_160114
17
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
Section Six: Fitness For All (Units 21–31)
Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section.
Unit 21: Exercise and Older Adults
1. The past surgeon general has estimated that
close to what percent of our most dreaded
diseases could be prevented with lifestyle
changes such as diet and exercise?
a. 50%
b. 100%
c. 85%
d. 75%
e. none of the above
6. What are the recommended strength
program guidelines for an older adult?
a. low intensity with low repetitions
b. low to moderate intensity with high
repetitions
c. low to moderate intensity with low
repetitions
d. low intensity with high repetitions
e. moderate intensity with high repetitions
2. Most older adults fear losing their
independence more than they fear death.
a. true
b. false
7. How frequent should an older adult be
trained in conjunction with a cardiovascular
program?
a. once per week
b. 2-3 times per week
c. 3-4 times per week
d. 4-5 times per week
e. every day
3. While exercise may be an option of the
young, it is imperative for older adults.
a. true
b. false
4. Dr. DeVries of USC has shown that men and
women in their 70s and 80s can achieve
levels of vigor associated with people:
a. 5 years younger
b. 10 years younger
c. 20 years younger
d. 25 years younger
e. 30 years younger
5. What is the approximate guideline duration
of a workout program for an older adult?
a. 40 minutes total (20 minutes CV, 20
minutes of resistance training)
b. 50 minutes total (20 minutes CV, 30
minutes of resistance training)
c. 60 minutes total (30 minutes CV, 30
minutes of resistance training)
d. 70 minutes total (40 minutes CV, 30
minutes of resistance training)
e. none of the above
18
8. Medical doctors may perform what
assessment(s) on older adults before
clearing them for exercise?
a. EKG
b. blood panel
c. neurological assessment
d. all of the above
e. A and B
Unit 22: Exercise and Adaptive Fitness
1. The goal of an adaptive fitness session for
a client with a disability is improved fitness,
mobility, and self-efficacy.
a. true
b. false
2. Which component(s) should be addressed
in a sound APF program?
a. balance
b. flexibility
c. power
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
cft_cq_160114
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
3. The role of an exercise intervention for
chronic conditions in adaptive fitness
is to increase ______________ without
exacerbating existing conditions.
a. inflammation
b. functional fitness
c. limit strength
d. PES
e. none of the above
4. The goal of an adaptive fitness session for a
client with a disability is improved ______,
______, and ______.
a. fitness, intelligence, communication
b. fitness, mobility, self-efficacy
c. running, jumping, strength
d. communication, self-efficacy, self-worth
e. none of the above
5. What is generally defined as anything that
prevents the attainment of one’s goals?
a. disability
b. handicap
c. impairment
d. all the above
e. none of the above
Unit 23: Exercise and Our Youth
1. Children should be trained like adults.
a. true
b. false
2. Children are natural markets for personal
trainers.
a. true
b. false
3. Obesity does not affect our children.
a. true
b. false
4. Neurological factors as opposed to
hypertrophic factors are primarily
responsible for strength gains in children.
a. true
b. false
cft_cq_160114
5. Children ages 5-12:
a. have a lower tolerance to the demands of
exercise
b. should not perform high-resistance
exercises
c. need repetitions of 10-15 at all times
d. all of the above
e. B and C
6. How frequently should a youth work out?
a. once per week
b. 2-3 times per week
c. 3-4 times per week
d. at least 5 days per week
e. every other day regardless of the workout
7. How many days of rest does a youth need
between workouts?
a. no days
b. 1-2 days
c. 2-3 days
d. 3-4 days
e. at least 5 days
8. Children are:
a. not miniature adults
b. susceptible to heat exhaustion and heat
stroke
c. more susceptible to cold injury
d. particularly vulnerable to Osgood
Schlatter’s disease
e. all of the above
Unit 24: Exercise and Hypertension
1. Hypertension is the medical condition of a
chronically elevated level of arterial blood
pressure.
a. true
b. false
2. Smoking has no effect on hypertension.
a. true
b. false
19
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
3. Maintaining an appropriate bodyweight can
help prevent hypertension.
a. true
b. false
4. Hypertensive individuals should be
encouraged to exercise at least _______
times per week.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. none of the above
5. Individuals with hypertension should
moderate their intake of _______?
a. fruit
b. salt
c. nuts
d. water
e. none of the above
6. Statistics indicate that an estimated
__________ Americans suffer from a
chronically elevated level of arterial blood
pressure, a medical condition known as
hypertension.
a. 300,000
b. 60,000,000
c. 1,000,000
d. 5,500,000
e. none of the above
7. The recommended RPE range for individuals
with hypertension would be ___ to ___.
a. 6 to 7
b. 10 to 13
c. 5 to 8
d. 12 to 13
e. none of the above
8. Regular exercise can have a positive effect
on both preventing and treating chronic
high blood pressure.
a. true
b. false
20
Unit 25: Exercise and Diabetes
1. The body of a diabetic does not produce
enough insulin or it cannot properly use the
insulin it does make.
a. true
b. false
2. Type II diabetes is known as insulindependent diabetes.
a. true
b. false
3. Type I diabetes is known as non-insulin
dependent diabetes.
a. true
b. false
4. Type II diabetes is known as non-insulin
dependent diabetes.
a. true
b. false
5. Exercise:
a. lowers blood sugar levels
b. strengthens your heart
c. improves circulation
d. reduces Stress
e. all the above
6. Diabetics should be instructed to always
carry a form of fast-acting carbohydrate
(e.g., juice, soft drinks, etc.) in case of a
______ emergency.
a. trueglycemic
b. superglycemic
c. hypoglycemic
d. hyperglycemic
e. none of the above
7. Diabetes increases your likelihood of
suffering from:
a. heart disease
b. stroke
c. gangrene
d. kidney disease
e. all of the above
cft_cq_160114
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
8. How many Americans die annually from
diabetes and its complications?
a. over a million
b. more than 500,000
c. more than 150,000
d. more than 100,000
e. none of the above
Unit 26: Exercise and Arthritis
1. Arthritis refers to a disease that causes pain
or stiffness in skeletal joints.
a. true
b. false
2. Heredity is one potential cause of arthritis.
a. true
b. false
7. Individuals with arthritis should exercise at
least ___ times per day?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. none of the above
8. One of the seven major warning signals for
arthritis is _________.
a. redness in the eyes
b. dry mouth
c. puss
d. lock jaw
e. none of the above
Unit 27: Exercise and Coronary Heart Disease
3. Osteoarthritis is an age-related condition.
a. true
b. false
1. Cigarette smoking does not affect coronary
heart disease.
a. true
b. false
4. Swelling in one or more joints is one
warning sign of arthritis.
a. true
b. false
2. Age and family history are confirmed risk
factors for coronary heart disease.
a. true
b. false
5. A disease, which causes pain or stiffness in
your skeletal joints, is referred to as _______.
a. arthritis
b. inflammation
c. cancer
d. diabetes
e. none of the above
3. Age has no relevance to CHD.
a. true
b. false
6. One major component of an exercise
program for arthritis sufferers is ____.
a. powerlifting
b. aerobic
c. nutrition
d. meditation
e. none of the above
cft_cq_160114
4. The most serious form of heart disease is
coronary heart disease.
a. true
b. false
5. Research has shown that the predominate
contributing factor(s) to heart disease is:
a. too much saturated fat
b. too much alcohol
c. too much smoking
d. not enough exercise
e. all of the above
21
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
6. High HDL cholesterol increases risk of
coronary heart disease.
a. true
b. false
7. Research has shown that the beneficial
effect(s) of exercise for hypertensives:
a. lower blood pressure
b. normalize kidney function
c. decrease insulin secretion
d. increase in high density lipoprotein
cholesterol
e. all of the above
Unit 28: Exercise and Pregnancy
1. Sensible exercise can be a safe and
productive undertaking for both a pregnant
woman and her fetus.
a. true
b. false
2. If a pregnant woman did not exercise
prior to pregnancy, then it’s important to
increase weight-bearing activities to lower
the risk of injury.
a. true
b. false
3. Excessive fatigue, palpitations, and chest
pain are reasons to discontinue exercise for
a pregnant woman.
a. true
b. false
4. Pregnant women should avoid prolonged
bouts of exercise in what position?
a. prone
b. supine
c. standing
d. sitting
e. none of the above
22
5. Pregnant women should avoid exercising
over ____________ minutes.
a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90
e. none of the above
6. Pregnant women should avoid wearing
which type of clothing?
a. shorts
b. clothes impermeable to water
c. leotards
d. clothes permeable to water
e. none of the above
7. Reasons for stopping an exercise routine for
a pregnant woman includes which of the
following?
a. dizziness
b. severe headaches
c. excessive fatigue
d. all of the above
e. A and C
Unit 29: Exercise and Asthma
1. The primary method for controlling asthma
involves taking drugs: inhaled and oral.
a. true
b. false
2. Asthma sufferers should medicate 30
minutes prior to exercise.
a. true
b. false
3. Asthma is a term derived from the Greek
word that means “to pant.”
a. true
b. false
cft_cq_160114
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
4. How many Americans are afflicted by
asthma?
a. 500,000
b. 1,000,000
c. 25,000,000
d. more than 50,000,000
e. none of the above
5. What triggers asthma?
a. respiratory infection
b. exercise
c. sudden changes in either humidity or
temperature
d. air pollution
e. all of the above
6. In order to help strengthen their lungs,
asthmatics should:
a. perform specific breathing exercises
b. train at an increased intensity
c. breathe through the mouth
d. spend 5-10 minutes daily in a sauna
e. all of the above
7. At some time in their life, at least what
percent of all Americans will experience the
symptoms of asthma?
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%
e. none of the above
8. Asthma suffers should do what while
exercising?
a. breathe through the nose
b. control breathing rate
c. keep inhaler close by
d. avoid very intense exercise
e. all of the above
cft_cq_160114
Unit 30: Sports Medicine in the Trenches
1. Sports medicine is concerned with the
diagnosis, treatment, rehabilitation, and
prevention of athletic injuries, as well as
dealing with the enhancement of athletic
performance.
a. true
b. false
2. Sports medicine is restricted only to the
medical field.
a. true
b. false
3. Sports medicine also involves athletic
trainers, coaches, and personal trainers.
a. true
b. false
4. Normal oral temperature ranges between
__________ degrees Fahrenheit.
a. 96.8 and 99.3
b. 102.3 and 103.6
c. 68.1 and 75.9
d. 90 and 96.8
e. all of the above
5. What is cryotherapy?
a. the thermogenic effect of cold water
b. massage technique utilizing
electrostimulation
c. the application of heat to body tissues
d. the application of cold to body tissues
e. none of the above
6. To reduce inflammation in the back, ice
should be applied for at least ______
minutes.
a. 30
b. 15
c. 45
d. 60
e. none of the above
23
Certified Fitness Trainer Course Quizzes
7. Improper biomechanical motion between
two vertebrae is best referred to as:
a. subluxation
b. vertebral stiffness
c. spinal stenosis
d. spine freeze
e. none of the above
Unit 31: Basic First Aid
1. CPR stands for cardiopulmonary
resuscitation.
a. true
b. false
2. The RICE principle helps reduce pain and
inflammation.
a. true
b. false
3. The “A” of the primary survey stands for
“airway.”
a. true
b. false
5. The very first thing one should do in an
emergency situation is:
a. open the victim’s airway and begin CPR
b. assess the scene to ensure safety
c. call for emergency medical services
d. determine if the victim has life
threatening conditions
e. none of the above
6. Signs and symptoms of a stroke can include:
a. difficulty speaking
b. weakness and numbness, often on one
side of the body
c. loss of bowel control
d. all of the above
e. A and B
7. The Good Samaritan Law states that
the helping person cannot be sued for
additional injuries caused during a rescue
attempt even if it is less than perfect.
a. true
b. false
4. RICE stands for rest, ice, compression, and
elevation.
a. true
b. false
24
cft_cq_160114
Answer Form for Units in Section One
Unit 1
1.
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2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
CFT Section One
Unit 2
Section number
1.
Name
2.
3.
Address
City
4.
State
ZIP
5.
6.
7.
Email address
8.
Unit 3
1.
2.
3.
Submit your quiz answers by mail to:
ISSA, Attn: Section Processing, Carpinteria, CA 93013;
by fax to 1.805.745.8119, Attn: Section Processing;
or scan your answer sheet and email it to educational-support@issaonline.edu.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
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Date received
AK/Exam issued
Date filed
Entered by
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Answer Form for Units in Section Two
Unit 4
1.
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2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
CFT Section Two
Unit 5
Section number
1.
Name
2.
3.
Address
City
4.
State
ZIP
5.
6.
7.
Email address
8.
Unit 6
1.
2.
3.
Submit your quiz answers by mail to:
ISSA, Attn: Section Processing, Carpinteria, CA 93013;
by fax to 1.805.745.8119, Attn: Section Processing;
or scan your answer sheet and email it to educational-support@issaonline.edu.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Unit 7
1.
2.
3.
4.
Office Use Only. Please do not write in gray boxes.
Date received
AK/Exam issued
5.
6.
Date filed
Entered by
7.
8.
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Answer Form for Units in Section Three
Unit 8
1.
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2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
CFT Section Three
Unit 9
Section number
1.
Name
2.
3.
Address
City
4.
State
ZIP
5.
6.
7.
Email address
8.
Unit 10
1.
2.
3.
Submit your quiz answers by mail to:
ISSA, Attn: Section Processing, Carpinteria, CA 93013;
by fax to 1.805.745.8119, Attn: Section Processing;
or scan your answer sheet and email it to educational-support@issaonline.edu.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Unit 11
1.
2.
3.
4.
Office Use Only. Please do not write in gray boxes.
Date received
AK/Exam issued
5.
6.
Date filed
Entered by
7.
8.
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Answer Form for Units in Section Four
Unit 12
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CFT Section Four
1.
1.
2.
2.
3.
3.
4.
4.
5.
5.
6.
6.
7.
7.
8.
8.
Unit 13
Section number
Name
Address
City
Unit 15
State
ZIP
Email address
1.
1.
2.
2.
3.
3.
4.
4.
5.
5.
6.
6.
7.
7.
8.
8.
Unit 14
1.
2.
3.
Submit your quiz answers by mail to:
ISSA, Attn: Section Processing, Carpinteria, CA 93013;
by fax to 1.805.745.8119, Attn: Section Processing;
or scan your answer sheet and email it to educational-support@issaonline.edu.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Office Use Only. Please do not write in gray boxes.
Date received
AK/Exam issued
Date filed
Entered by
Unit 16
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Answer Form for Units in Section Five
Unit 17
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CFT Section Five
1.
1.
2.
2.
3.
3.
4.
4.
5.
5.
6.
6.
7.
7.
8.
8.
Section number
Unit 18
1.
Name
2.
3.
Address
City
4.
State
ZIP
5.
6.
7.
Email address
8.
Unit 19
1.
2.
3.
Submit your quiz answers by mail to:
ISSA, Attn: Section Processing, Carpinteria, CA 93013;
by fax to 1.805.745.8119, Attn: Section Processing;
or scan your answer sheet and email it to educational-support@issaonline.edu.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Office Use Only. Please do not write in gray boxes.
Date received
AK/Exam issued
Date filed
Entered by
Unit 20
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Answer Form for Units in Section Six
Unit 21
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CFT Section Six
1.
1.
2.
2.
2.
3.
3.
3.
4.
4.
4.
5.
5.
5.
6.
6.
6.
7.
7.
7.
8.
8.
8.
Unit 22
Name
Address
State
ZIP
Unit 26
1.
1.
2.
2.
2.
3.
3.
3.
4.
4.
4.
5.
5.
5.
6.
6.
1.
7.
7.
2.
8.
3.
Submit your quiz answers by mail to:
ISSA, Attn: Section Processing, Carpinteria, CA 93013;
by fax to 1.805.745.8119, Attn: Section Processing;
or scan your answer sheet and email it to educational-support@issaonline.edu.
1.
2.
5.
2.
3.
6.
3.
4.
7.
4.
5.
8.
5.
6.
6.
7.
7.
2.
AK/Exam issued
Date filed
Entered by
1.
4.
1.
Date received
Unit 31
Unit 27
Unit 24
Office Use Only. Please do not write in gray boxes.
Unit 30
1.
Unit 23
Email address
Unit 29
1.
Section number
City
Unit 25
Unit 28
3.
1.
4.
2.
5.
3.
6.
4.
7.
5.
8.
6.
7.