DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY
*all items were from different sources, I just compiled them*
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1. According to Piaget's theory of Cognitive Development, at
what age do children develop the ability for deferred
imitation?
a. 8-12 months
b. 12-18 months
c. 18-24 months
d. 24-36 months
2. Which of the following is NOT regarded as a
disadvantage
of
the case
study approach
to
developmental psychology research?
a. Fails to generate hypotheses for future research
b. Risks error due to individual’s recall inaccuracy
c. Tends to be expensive and time-consuming
d. Prone to confirmatory biases
3. During Piaget's Sensorimotor stage, what is the ability to
flexibly altering existing schemas into new schemas
called?
a. Accocamodation
b. Assimilation
c. Adaptation
d. Equilibrium
4. According to Freud's theory of Psychosexual
Development, during which stage is children's
developmental focus on gender identity and morality?
a. Anal (1-3 years)
b. Phallic (3-6 years)
c. Latency (6-12 years)
d. Genital (12+ years)
5. Evelyn watches her mother bang a pegboard with a toy
hammer. Evelyn has never played with this toy, and she
makes no effort to do so after watching her mother.
However, a week later, Evelyn's mother walks by a room
and notices that Evelyn has picked up the toy hammer
and is trying to bang the pegboard. Evelyn is displaying:
a. deferred imitation
b. echolalia.
c. a tertiary circular reaction.
d. mirror neurons.
6. What is the fact that findings from controlled experimental
studies cannot always be applied outside the laboratory
into everyday life referred to as?
a. Limited transferability
b. Limited reliability
c. Limited generalizability
d. Limited applicability
7. Which of the following is the focus of the informationprocessing approach to cognitive development?
a. The information that is related to children's
physiological growth and other physical traits
b. The manipulation and processing of information
coming in from the environment or already stored in
the mind by children
c. The physiological changes that occur in the fetus
from conception till birth
d. The behavior of children during their puberty and
adolescence
8. Which of the following is NOT regarded as an important
area of personality development in the first 3 months of
life?
a. Developing a balance between optimism and
pessimism
b. Developing gender identity
c. Developing self-efficacy
d. Avoiding learned helplessness
9. Self-report questionnaires…
a.
Are easy to administer and are therefore make for
an efficient research method
b. Withstand the problems of miscommunication and
participants’ inaccurate recall
c. Tap into thoughts and feelings which could easily be
observed using a naturalistic observation
d. Allow researchers to overcome desirability bias
10. According to Piaget's theory of Cognitive Development,
during which stage do children develop the capacity for
conservation?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Pre-operational
c. Concrete Operational
d. Formal Operational
11. “Play is for children what work is for adults.” Which of the
following is NOT an important developmental outcome of
the play?
a. Cognitive mastery (e.g. Concepts of reversibility and
conservation)
b. Emotional development and regulation (e.g. “cooling
down” by venting socially unaccepted emotions)
c. Overcoming
negativism
(e.g.
reducing
noncompliance to adult requests)
d. Language development (e. g. giving labels)
12. A father wants his son to help his mother wash the dishes
every night. According to social learning theory,. the
father should:
a. Give his son a time out if he doesn’t help with the
dishes
b. Promise the boy a new basketball if he helps wash
the dishes
c. Help out with the dishes himself
d. Tell his son that he can’t have desert unless he
helps with the dishes
13. What is the difference between a child's capacity to
perform a task independently and the potential to perform
it with assistance known as?
a. Zone of proximal development
b. Social learning dissonance
c. Heteronomity-autonomity difference
d. Scaffolding discrepancy
14. What is the knowledge that one's biological gender
cannot be altered by superficial transformations, such as
wearing a wig (achieved by around 5-7 years), known as?
a. Gender Schema Theory
b. Gender Stability
c. Gender Constancy
d. Gender Consistency
15. In naturalistic observation research, which of the following
is NOT an effective way of ensuring objectivity of
individuals' behavior?
a. Train as observers people who are a normal part of
the individual’s natural environment
b. Use one-way glass observation rooms to hide
observers from the participant
c. Use video cameras to film participants without them
knowing.
d. Have several observers confer on what they should
be looking for before watching the same events
16. What does current research tell us about the resolution of
nature-nurture controversy?
a. Nature is proving to be dominant over nurture in the
understanding of human behavior
b. We can no longer attribute behavior to one of the
other since virtually all human behaviours result from
a complex interaction between nature and nurture
c.
Nurture is far more important in understanding
behavior than is nature
d. It is clear that some behaviours are driven solely by
nature and some are driven solely by nurture
17. The _____ is a view of cognitive development that
focuses on how children manipulate sensory information
and/or information stored in memory.
a. psychoanalytic theory
b. object permanence approach
c. information-processing approach
d. psycholinguistic theory
18. According to Freud, who is most likely to be in the genital
stage?
a. A 6-month old girl
b. A 1-year old boy
c. A 7-year old girl
d. A 16-year old boy
19. Which of the following tasks activates mirror neurons?
a. Writing a letter
b. Solving an equation
c. Reading a poem
d. Seeing a person cough
20. Monique contracted rubella early on in her pregnancy.
Damage is most likely to affect the embryos:
a. Eyes
b. Breathing
c. Arms and legs
d. Bloodstream
21. The concept of the zone of proximal development
suggests that the parent or teacher:
a. Dictate the childs’ interest and abilities
b. Urge the child far beyond his or her current skill level
c. Hold the child back until he or she can perform the
skills independently
d. Provide support as the child takes on new
challenges
22. Which of the following is true of the Bayley test?
a. It is used to test only children who are more than
three years of age.
b. It seldom tests for behavior rating.
c. It is one of the most important tests of intellectual
development among infants.
d. It consists of only mental-scale items, and the infants
must undergo a separate test for motor-scale items.
23. The gene is recessive when:
a. Its influences skips a generation
b. Its influence can be hidden by a more powerful gene
c. It is smaller than the other genes
d. It does not appear in the genotype
24. The set of moral principles used by each academic
discipline and professional society to protect the integrity
of research is referred to as their:
a. Policies and procedures
b. Participant rules
c. Code of ethics
d. Conditions and liabilities
25. Which of the following is true of testing infants?
a. When infants are tested, their intelligence quotient
improves.
b. Testing infants can screen them for handicaps.
c. If the eating habits of infants are poor, then testing
improves their appetite.
d. Testing infants cures them of any genetic disorders.
26. In Erikson’s psychosocial theory, resolutions to
developmetal crisis depend on the interaction between
the individual and:
a. Her genetic predisposition
b. The social environment
c. Her ability to learn from experience
d. The area of her body where sexual urges are
centered
27. In an experiement, the group of participants who receive
the imposed treatment or special condition is referred to
as the __________ group
a. Independent
b. Dependent
c. Experimental
d. Comparison
28. What is replication of a study?
a. The repetition of a study using different participants
b. The repetition of study using the same participants
c. Designing a new study based on information from a
previous study
d. Designing a new study using new ideas and
information
29. Henry was adopted and is genetically predisposed toward
alcoholism. However, his adoptive family does not drinik;
they actively avoid alcohol for religious reasons. Given
Henry's genetic potential:
a. He will most certainly become an alcoholic later in
life
b. He may drink without worry as an adult because of
his early upbringing
c. Alcoholism might not appear in Henry’s phenotype
d. Alcoholism may alter his genotype
30. The term for the environmental influences that affect
development after conception is:
a. Proteins
b. Nature
c. Nurture
d. Amino acids
31. Brain cells that respond to actions performed by someone
else are called"
a. Motor neurons
b. Mirror neurons
c. Sensory neurons
d. Glial cells
32. The germinal period ends approx.:
a. Two days after conception
b. Two months after conception
c. Two weeks after conception
d. Twelve weeks after conception
33. A genome is:
a. The full set of genes for a particular organism
b. A molecule of DNA
c. The basic unit for a particular organism
d. The manufacturer of protein
34. Chromosomal abnormalities occur when a zygote’s cells
have:
a. The usual 46 chromosomes
b. Gametes with 46 chromosomes
c. More or fewer than the usual 46 chromosomes
d. The usual 46 chromosomes with damage to the
gametes
35. The sperm and the ovum are:
a. Chromosomes
b. Gametes
c. Eggs
d. Zygotes
36. One difference between sperm cells and ova is that
a. Ova carry an X chromosome, whereas sperm carry
either an X or Y chromosome
b. Ova carry two X chromosomes, whereas sperm
carry two Y chromosomes
c. Sperm carry more genetic material than ova do
d. Sperm carry two X chromosomes, whereas ova
carry an X and a Y chromosome
37. Which of the following is the correct pairing of the four
bases that make up amino acids?
a. A-T, T-C, C-G, G-T
b. T-A, G-T, T-G, C-G
c. C-T, G-A, T-C, A-G
d. A-T, T-A, C-G, G-C
38. The most advanced stage of cognitive development
according to Piaget is the:
a. Concrete operational
b. Abstract operational
c. Formal operational
d. Symbolic operational
39. Which of the following is true of prelinguistic vocalization?
a. It closely resembles the sounds of adult speech.
b. It occurs toward the end of the first year of infants.
c. It is a primitive form of language.
d. It is the beginning stage of language development.
40. Piaget’s theory of development focused primarily on:
a. How our thinking changes as we grow older
b. Biological and physical changes
c. Our unconscious changes
d. The ways in which our environment influences our
physical development
41. Social learning theory emphasizes:
a. Cooperation with others
b. Observation and imitation
c. Reinforcers
d. Understanding how one’s behavior affects other
people
42. Lars is playing with his two-month-old baby, making silly
faces and blowing on her stomach. He is delighted when
she responds with "ooh" and ''ahh'' and happy
expressions. Lars's baby is:
a. Babbling
b. Cooing
c. Overextending
d. holophrasing
43. Which period begins three weeks after conception?
a. The embryonic period
b. The fetal period
c. The gestational period
d. The germinal period
44. _____ is the number of words one understands.
a. Intonation
b. Echolalia
c. Receptive vocabulary
d. Telegraphic speech
45. Genetic disorders that are dominant are:
a. Never expressed
b. Always expressed
c. Usually hidden
d. Frequently expressed
46. The process by which humans adapt and adjust to their
environment is known as
a. Evolution
b. Survival
c. Selective adaptation
d. Humanism
47. _____ is the number of words one can use in the
production of language.
a. Overextension
b. Echolalia
c. Expressive vocabulary
d. Telegraphic speech
48. According to Piaget's theory of Cognitive Development,
as part of a child's development of object permanence,
what does perseverance error refer to?
a. The mistake of referring to caregivers as possessing
the object which is lost
b. The mistake of using only the imagination to track an
object
c. The mistake of believing only what is seen can exist
d. The mistake of looking in the place the object was
previously found
49. Jeff's genome contains a recessive gene for cystic
fibrosis. Jeff is said to be a ______ of the gene for cystic
fibrosis.
a. Carrier
b. Transporter
c. Vector
d. Harbinger
50. You and your high school classmates are part of the
same
a. Social construction
b. Context
c. Socioeconomic status
d. Cohort
51. The final stage of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is:
a. Safety and security
b. Respect and esteem
c. Self-actualization
d. Physiological
52. Any birth which occurs 35 or fewer weeks after
conception is considered to be:
a. Preterm
b. Very low birthweight
c. Pregestational
d. Nonviable
53. When something is said to be “empirical” it is based on:
a. Theories
b. Facts
c. Inferences
d. Opinions
54. The idea that the study of development involves several
academic fields defines the ________characteristics of
development.
a. Multidisciplinary
b. Multicontextual
c. Plasticity
d. Multidirectional
55. A teratogen is:
a. Damages sustained to the placenta
b. A substance or condition that can increase the risk
of prenatal abnormalities
c. A cell with extra chromosomes
d. Waste products from the embryo
56. Which of the following is true of tertiary circular reactions?
a. In this substage, infants start developing simple
reflexes but make no effort to grasp objects that they
visually track.
b. It lasts from two to six months of age in infants.
c. It focuses on infants' own bodies rather than on the
external environment.
d. In this substage, infants engage in purposeful
adaptations of established schemes to specific
situations.
57. A researcher in human development who takes an
eclectic approach:
a. Emphasized the role of ecosystems
b. Believes that social learning is the best descriptor of
human behavior
c. Uses part of several theories rather than sticking to
one particular theory
d. Does not use any theories
58. The concept of a cohort is important because individuals
in the same cohort experience the same ______
circumstances
a. Educational
b. Socioeconomic
c. Historical
d. Familial
59. To study change over time, researchers use three basic
research designs:
a. Observation, experiments, survey
b. Cross-sectional, longitudinal, cross-sequential
c. Biological, social, cognitive
d. Significance, odds ratio, factor analysis
60. _____ is the decrease in frequency of a response due to
absence of reinforcement.
a. Shaping
b. Extinction
c. Syntax
d. morpheme
61. An organism’s entire genetic inheritance is referred to as
its:
a. Gamete
b. Genome
c. Zygote
d. Genotype
62. Monozygotic twins are produced when
a. Two ova are fertilized by a single sperm
b. One ovum is fertilized by one sperm, and then splits
to form two clusters
c. Two ova are fertilized by two different sperm
d. One ovum is fertilized by two sperms and splits to
form two clusters
63. _____ is the gradual building of complex behavior
through reinforcement of successive approximations to
the target behavior.
a. Shaping
b. Extinction
c. Syntax
d. morpheme
64. A correlation is considered positive if:
a. Both variables increase or decrease together
b. One variable increases while the other variable
decreases
c. No connection between the two variables is seen
d. There is no instance of a positive correlation
65. Brain damage, loss of vision, and mental retardation
which may be caused by eating undercooked meat and
handling cat feces or garden dirt is attributable to:
a. Lead or mercury pollution
b. German measles
c. Syphilis
d. Toxoplasmosis
66. According to the principle of cephalocaudal development,
which area of the body matures the earliest?
a. Spinal cord
b. Feet
c. Brain
d. fingers
67. According to Piaget's theory of Cognitive Development,
during which stage do children develop animistic
conceptions, expressed in ways such as "Don't hurt the
grass. It will be sad?"
a. Sensorimotor
b. Pre-operational
c. Concrete Operational
d. Formal Operational
68. Which of the following is true of proximodistal
development?
a. It involves the development of hips and upper legs
before the development of lower legs and feet.
b. It involves the development of the sucking reflex of
an infant.
c. It involves the development of arms and hands
before the development of the trunks and shoulders.
d. It involves the development of the head rather than
other parts of the body.
69. A dog learns to shake paws on command because it has
been given dog biscuits for doing so. This is an example
of
a. Classical conditioning
b. Operant conditioning
c. Cognitive conditioning
d. Stimulus conditioning
70. Research on SIDS has shown that babies should be:
a. Put to sleep on their backs
b. Swaddled tightly before being put to bed
c. Kept in a warm bedroom
d. Fed right before being put to bed
71. The neural tube will become the:
a. Reproductive organs
b. Intestinal tract
c. Brain and spinal cord
d. Backbone, legs and arms
72. Which of the following is a difference between primary
and secondary circular reactions?
a. In primary circular reactions, infants begin to show
intentional, goal-directed behavior, while in
secondary circular reactions, they begin to respond
to reflexes.
b. Primary circular reactions happen when infants are
four to eight months old, while secondary circular
reactions happen when they are nine to twelve
months old.
c. In primary circular reactions, infants gain the
capability to imitate gestures and sounds, while in
secondary circular reactions, they begin mental
exploration.
d. In primary circular reactions, infants are focused on
their own bodies, while in secondary circular
reactions, the focus shifts to objects and
environmental events.
73. In an experiment, the group of participants who do not
receive the independent variable is called the:
a. Dependent group
b. Significant group
c. Control group
d. Experimental group
74. In an uncomplicated birth, the position of presentation is:
a. Head first
b. Knees first
c. Buttock first
d. Feet first
75. What did Lev Vygotsky conclude from observing the
behaviors of the diverse people of the former Soviet
Union>
a. Culture influences how a person learns
b. Diversity itself contributes to learning
c. People learn new behaviours by working with
mentors
d. New behaviours can only be learned in new contexts
76. Trisomy-21 is called
a. Fragile X syndrome
b. Down syndrome
c. Muscular dystrophy
d. Klinefelter syndrome
77. Once a fetus has developed to a point that it can survive
outside the uterus, it has reached the age of:
a. Survival
b. Viability
c. Neurogenesis
d. Longevity
78. One of the surprising findings of the Human Genome
Project is that
a. Humans have about 1 million genes
b. All living creatures share genes
c. Humans and chimpanzees share about 25 percent
of their genes
d. Human genes are not shared by any other species
79. In order, Freud’s first three stages of development are
a. Mouth, body, eyes
b. Trust, autonomy, identity
c. Oral, anal, phallic
d. Anal, genital latent
80. An XX pattern in the 23rd pair of chromosomes indicates
the fetus will
a. Have down syndrome
b. Be female
c. Be male
d. Be homosexual
81. Which of the following statements is true of children
placed in day care?
a. Children in high-quality day care are less likely to
share their toys than home-reared children.
b. They are more peer oriented and play at higher
developmental levels than do home-reared infants.
c. They are less likely to interrupt in class and bully
other children than children cared for in the home.
d. They are less aggressive toward peers and adults
than children who are reared in the home.
82. Behaviourism focuses on which of the following
a. Observable behavior
b. Unconscious urges
c. Thoughts
d. Emotions
83. In the context of cephalocaudal development, the head is
about half the length of the body in the _____ stage.
a. Adult
b. Fetal
c. Neonatal
d. embryonic
84. Which layer of embryo primarily produces internal body
parts?
a. Endoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Ectoderm
85. Which of the following is a limitation of breast-feeding?
a. It increases the likelihood of developing allergic
responses and constipation in infants.
b. It increases the likelihood of developing serious
cases of diarrhea in infants.
c. It increases the likelihood of transmitting alcohol or
drugs to an infant.
d. It increases the likelihood of developing obesity in
later life.
86. sac with clear fluid where embryo floats; its fluid provides
a shockproof environment with controlled temperature
and humidity
a. amnion
b. umbilical cord
c. placenta
87. Which of the following is a characteristic of neurons?
a. They are generally of the same length throughout
the body.
b. They are usually tightly wrapped with myelin
sheaths.
c. They are primarily located around the spinal cord.
d. They are mainly involved in receiving messages.
88. Which layer of embryo primarily produces the parts
surrounding the internal areas?
a. Mesoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Ectoderm
89. This is the outer layer of the blastocyst, providing the
embryo with nutrition and support.
a. Placenta
b. Trophoblast
c. Ectoderm
90. Contains 2 arteries and 1 vein; connects the baby to the
placenta
a. Amnion
b. Umbilical cord
c. Placenta
d. embryo
91. _____ is a form of autism spectrum disorder
characterized by a range of physical, behavioral, motor,
and cognitive abnormalities that begin after a few months
of normal development.
a. Rett's disorder
b. Childhood disintegrative disorder
c. Reactive attachment disorder
d. Asperger's disorder
92. This is a single cell formed after the union of sperm and
egg cells
a. Zygote
b. Trophoblast
c. blastocyst
93. The embryonic period begins as the blastocyst attaches
to the fallopian tube.
a. True
b. false
94. Which of the following is true of victims of child abuse?
a. They are more securely attached to their parents
than other children.
b. They have lower self-esteem and perform more
poorly in school than other children.
c. They are less aggressive, angry, and noncompliant
than other children.
d. They are more intimate with peers than other
children.
95. disk-shaped group of tissues where small blood vessels
from the mother and offspring intertwine but never join
a. amnion
b. umbilical cord
c. embryo
d. placenta
96. Organogenesis is the process of organ formation during
the first two months of prenatal development.
a. True
b. false
97. pear-shaped that develops out of the ectoderm after 1824 days of conception process
a. neural tube
b. neurogenesis
c. neuronal migration
d. neural connectivity
98. Who among the following infants is a victim of physical
neglect?
a. Aman's parents do not hospitalize him when he
sustains a severe burn injury.
b. Mia's father beats her with a belt for disobeying his
instructions.
c. Kathy's neighbor rapes her when her parents are not
at home.
d. Wendy's mother does not admit her into a school
despite her father's protests.
99. This begins with fertilization and ends with birth which
lasts for about 266-280 days (38-40 weeks)
a. Prenatal devt
b. Fetal period
c. Postpartum blues
d. development
100. The inner mass of cells of the blastocyst will become
the ____________
a. Germinal period
b. Embryonic period
c. Fetal period
101. cells move from their point of origin to their
appropriate locations to create the different parts of the
brain
a. neural tube
b. neurogenesis
c. neuronal migration
d. neural connectivity
102. At the peak of neurogenesis, 200,000 neurons are
generated per minute.
a. True
b. false
103. Digestive and respiratory systems
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. endoderm
104. Which of the following statements is true of the
ethological view of attachment?
a. It describes the caregiver as a conditioned
reinforcer.
b. It perceives attachment as an inborn or instinctive
response to a specific stimulus.
c. It outlines the relationship between attachment and
an infant's perception of object permanence.
d. It establishes that the need for contact comfort is the
motive for attachment.
105. at week 23, connections between neurons begin to
occur and continues postnatally
a. neural tube
b. neurogenesis
c. neuronal migration
d. neural connectivity
106. Fertilization occurs in the upper half of the fallopian
tube within 24 hours after ovulation
a. True
b. false
107. Eight-month-old Ethan is not making much progress
on his coordination and motor skills. Which part of the
brain is his physician most likely to examine first?
a. Auditory cortex
b. Cerebrum
c. Cerebellum
d. medulla
108. After 11-15 days, the next process that occurs is
_______ which is the attachment of the zygote to the
uterine wall.
a. Implantation
b. Fertilization
c. Conception
d. mitosis
109. Nervous system and sensory receptors
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. endoderm
110. Which of the following is true of the cerebrum?
a. It is concerned with the development of memory.
b. It is concerned with the maintenance of a body's
balance.
c. It is concerned with the control of motor behavior.
d. It is concerned with functions like heartbeat and
respiration.
111. This is a hollow ball of 64-128 cells after 4 days of cell
division.
a. Blastocyst
b. Zygote
c. trophoblast
112. Which of the following is true of the first major growth
spurt in the brain?
a. It occurs between the 25th week of prenatal
development and the end of the second year after
birth.
b. It occurs due to the proliferation of axon terminals.
c. It occurs during the fourth and fifth months of
prenatal development.
d. It occurs due to the proliferation of dendrites.
113. This is the process of cell specialization to perform
various tasks which begins 1 week after conception.
a. Differentiation
b. Mitosis
c. fertilization
114. Circulatory/Reproductive/Excretory
systems,
muscles, bones
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. endoderm
115. Grasping objects between the fingers and the palm is
called the _____ grasp.
a. Fisted
b. Pincer
c. Ulnar
d. palmer
116. which one of these is not a major domain of human
development?
a. Physical
b. Cognitive
c. Emotional
d. psychosocial
117. Which layer of embryo primarily produces surface
parts?
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. mesoderm
118. This term refers to the chances of the fetus to survive
outside the womb. It begins at the end of the second
trimester.
a. Viability
b. Teratogen
c. Fetal vitality
119. The goals of human development do not include:
a. Observe
b. Predict
c. Intervene
d. describe
120. This is the process of rapid cell division of a zygote.
a. Mitosis
b. Differentiation
c. fertilization
121. A concept or practice that may appear natural and
obvious to those who accept it, but in reality is an
invention of a particular culture or society is defined as
a. Psychosocial development
b. Social construct
c. Individual differences
122. The harm done by poverty may be indirect, through
its impact on parent's emotional state and parenting
practices and on the home enviornment. This is an
example of ___________________
a. Culture
b. Race
c. Risk factor
d. punishment
123. The _____ holds that attachment conduct is
conditioned.
a. behavioral view of attachment
b. cognitive view of attachment
c. ethological view of attachment
d. psychoanalytic view of attachment
124. ______________: Inborn traits or characteristics
inherited from the biological parents
a. Maturation
b. Environment
c. Culture
d. heredity
125. What is a cohort?
a. Overgeneralization about an ethnic or cultural group
that obscures differences within the group
b. Instinctive form of learning
c. A group of people strongly influenced by a major
historical event during their formative period
d. A group of people born at about the same time
126. begins at week 5 throughout the prenatal period
a. neural tube
b. neurogenesis
c. neuronal migration
d. neural connectivity
127. When looking at the psychoanalytic learning
perspective, two important theorists are
a. Pavlov and skinner
b. Freud and erikson
c. Vygotsky and piaget
d. Bandura and Bowlby
128. Karen is seven months old and cries fiercely when
her mother leaves her with her babysitter. She refuses to
eat or sleep until she is back with her mother. In this
scenario, Karen is most likely to be in the _____.
a. initial-preattachment phase
b. indiscriminate attachment phase
c. attachment-in-the-making phase
d. clear-cut-attachment phase
129. Bronfenbrenner's bioecological theory states that
human development occurs through interaction between
a developing person and five surrounding, interlocking
contextual systems of influences, from microsystem to
chronosystem
a. True
b. false
130. Which perspective maintains that development
results from a long-lasting change in behavior based on
experiences or adaptations to the environment?
a. Psychoanalytic
b. Learning
c. Cognitive
d. evolutionary
131. In Balte's life span developmental approach, some
periods of life are more important than others
a. True
b. false
132. Which ones are a part of Baltes's developmental
approach
a. Development is lifelong, development is
multidimensional, development is multidirectional,
relative influences of biology and culture shift over
the life span, development involves changing
resource allocations, development shows plasticity,
development is influenced by the historical and
cultural context
b. Development is lifelong, development is
multifunctional, development has sensitive and
critical periods, development involves keeping
resource allocations, development shows plasticity,
development is normative and nonnormative,
development is multidirectional
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
133. Baby Lucy is sitting in her high chair when she grasps
a grape between her fingers and thumb. Her mother is
excited because this is the first time she has seen Lucy
display the _____ grasp
a. Fisted
b. Pincer
c. Ulnar
d. palmer
134. Which is not one of the 5 learning perspectives?
a. Psychoanalytic
b. Learning
c. Cognitive
d. Evolutionary
e. None of the above
135. Infants begin to walk by themselves by the age of
_____.
a. 15-18 months
b. 12-15 months
c. 6-9 months
d. 9-12 months
136. Learning based on association of behavior with its
consequences is operant conditioning
a. True
b. false
137. What are the five levels of environmental influence,
from intimate to broad?
a. Microsystem,
mesosystem,
exosystem,
macrosystem, chronosystem
b. Exosystem,
microsystem,
chronosystem,
macrosystem, mesosystem
c. Chronosystem,
mesosystem,
microsystem,
exosystem, macrosystem
d. Microsystem,
mesosystem,
macrosystem,
exosystem, chronosystem
138. Jaden, a nine-month-old infant, is placed face down at
the edge of a table. In the context of depth perception,
how will Jaden respond in this situation?
a. Jaden's heart rate will decrease
b. Jaden's heart rate has no change
c. Jaden will roll off the table
d. Jaden's heart rate will increase
139. According to Eleanor Gibson, which of the following
changes do infants experience as they grow?
a. Relevant information is ignored, and irrelevant
information gains attention.
b. Attention becomes less selective and more
indiscriminate.
c. Unsystematic search replaces systematic search.
d. Intentional action replaces automatic responses to
stimulation.
140. _____ refers to the phenomenon of becoming used to
a stimulus and therefore paying less attention to it.
a. Habituation
b. Integration
c. Perceptual constancy
d. canalzation
141. Learning based on association of a stimulus that does
not ordinarily elicit a particular response with another
stimulus that does elicit the response is operant
conditioning
a. True
b. false
142. Piaget's term for organized patterns of thought and
behavior used in particular situations
a. Organization
b. Schemes
c. Adaptation
d. Assimilation
e. accommodation
143. The initial-preattachment phase in infants is
characterized by:
a. the development of the concept of object
permanence.
b. intensified dependence on the primary caregiver.
c. the display of attachment behavior toward any
person.
d. fear of separation from a target of attachmen
144. View of human development that sees the individual
as inseparable from the social context
a. Psychoanalytic
b. Learning
c. Cognitive
d. Contextual
e. evolutionary
145. who identified the three phases of attachment in
infants?
a. Erik erikson
b. Mary ainsworth
c.
d.
Claire kopp
John Bowlby
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