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A330 TYPE TECH QUESTIONNAIRES
No R.R. Engine question will be asked. If you find R.R. Q&A below. Please change to PW
Study real hard for this one.
1. What is the maximum Taxi Weight?

233,900kgs.
2. What is the maximum Zero Fuel Weight?

170,000kgs.
3. What are the maximum APU EGT ranges?

650°C (normal operations) & 1250°C (APU start).
4. What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff?

32kts with gusts up to 45kts (demonstrated) CAD answer (FCOM 40kts including gusts).
5. What is the maximum altitude for flap lowering?

20,000ft.
6. Maximum Fuel Imbalance with Outboard tanks empty?

1,730kgs (7,500kgs for Inner Tanks).
7. Mmo/Vmo?

M0.86 / 330kts.
8. Maximum FULL flaps speed?
 180kts.
9. Minimum Engine Oil pressure?
 70psi P&W (25psi RR).
10.What is the maximum altitude to start the APU using aircraft electrical supply?
 41,450ft.
11.What is the cooling period for the APU after manual shutdown?
 105secs cooling period (+ 15secs for No Break Power Transfer).
12.How do you crank the engines?
 ENG Start SEL, select to CRANK & MAN START pushbutton “ON”.
13.What does the accessories gearbox drive?
 IDG, HYD Pumps, FADEC Generators, Oil pumps, LP & HP Fuel Pumps and Air/Oil
Separators.
14.Which tank supplies fuel to the engines?
 Inner tanks
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15.Which types of IDLE thrust exist?
 REV, Minimum & Approach Idle (in flight at CONF2, 3 or FULL or LDG Extended).
16.Which hydraulic systems power the left elevator?
 BLUE & GREEN HYD SYS.
17.What pumps are available on Yellow Hydraulic system?
 EDP, ELEC Pump & Manual Hand Pump.
18.What system normally powers the pressurisation of the Hydraulic Reservoirs?
 No.1 Engine, HP Bleed Air.
19.How is the landing gear gravity extension mechanised?
 Electromechanically.
20.What does the red arrow in the gear warning handle area mean?
 Three situations
o LDG not Downlocked and RA <750ft and Flaps at FULL.
o LDG not downlocked and RA <750ft and both ENG’s not at TO power and Flaps at 2
or 3.
o LDG not downlocked, Flaps at 2 or 3 or FULL and both RA’s failed and both ENG’s
not at TO power.
21.What does selection of Auto-brake PB do?
 Arms the required deceleration rate to provide this predetermined deceleration rate.
22.Under what conditions are servo (rudder, elevator, THS & ailerons) operating slow?
 When the RAT is supplying the Green HYD system, as RAT flow varies between
15%~45% of EDP flow capability according to the aircraft speed (RAT is auto deployed
in event of both ENG failure, Low level in GRN + YLW or GRN + BLU reservoirs).
23.What does a Battery “Fault” light indicate?
 Charging current increases at an abnormal rate (excessive charging rate).
24.Which batteries are used on the ground to start the APU?
 APU Battery is dedicated for APU start (BAT 1+2  DC ESS BUS).
 APU requires APU BAT and ECB to start, so due to the fact that on ground if no EXT
PWR is available, BAT 1 + 2 ONLY supply the DC ESS BUS.
25.How is DC power supplied?
 By two main TRs, plus one ESS TR and batteries.
26.What is the basic fuel feed?
 CAD - INR tanks 4,000kgs, Trim tank, OUTR tank, INR tank (3,500kgs).
o INR tanks to ENGs.
o CTR TK to INR TKs (INR TK Qty between Full & 2,000kgs below full).
o INR TKs empties down to 4000 kg, then TT to INR TKs.
o INR TK Qty down to 3500kg, then OTR TKs transfer to INR TKs.
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27.What is the purpose of the Inner tank split valve?
 It allows isolation of part of the Inner tank in the event of tank damage.
28.How is the Engine LP valve controlled?
 By ENG Master switch (LP & HP) & FIRE PB (LP).
29.How are LOC and G/S displayed on PFD?
 By selection of LS PB.
30.When does the Fuel Cross Feed valve open automatically?
 During Emergency Electrical Configuration.
31.What is displayed on the second column of the FMA?
 AP/FD Vertical Modes.
32.What does DMC 3 provide?
 ECAM - Upper & Lower DUs.
33.When does the engine bleed fault light extinguish?
 When the PB is at “OFF”, provided the failure has disappeared.
34.Where does engine anti-ice come from?
 Its own HP compressor.
35.With one engine running on the ground, which probes are heated?
 All except the TAT probes.
36.Which sections are affected by WAI operation?
 Four outboard slats (#4, 5, 6 & 7).
37.When is the rain repellent system inhibited?
 On the ground with engines OFF.
38.What normally powers the DC ESS bus?
 The ESS TR (ACB1→ESS TR→ DC ESS Bus).
39.How is a DMC failure recognized?
 Corresponding DU displays the INVALID DATA message.
40.What are the control modes for flight surfaces servo jacks?
 Active, Damping and Centering.
41.What happen if hydraulic power to a spoiler fails?
 Stays in the same position, or reduced by airflow.
42.When do FDs engage?
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 Auto engages whenever FMGC powers up.
43.How is smoke warning for lavatories presented?
 On ECAM & at CIDS.
44.What actions are taken if an escape slide fails to inflate?
 Direct passengers to another exit. (remember a manual inflation handle is provided if the
slide fails to inflate automatically).
45.When do the cabin oxygen masks automatically drop?
 14,000ft, +250ft / -750ft.
46.What happens if both hot air valves failed closed?
 The trim valves fully close and temperature is regulated by the packs (Optimised
regulation is lost, Trim air valves are driven to full closed position).
47.How many zones are there for air conditioning?
 3 Cabin zones + 1 Cockpit zone (2 trim-air valves per cabin zone, a total of 6 trim-air
valves for the 3 cabin zones + 1 trim-air valve for the cockpit zone = Total 4 zones & 7
trim-air valves).
48.In EMER ELEC CONF, what happens to fuel cross-feed and why?
 Crossfeed valve opens as only the L2 pump is supplied in EMER ELEC CONF.
49.How many electric motors control the outflow valves?
 3 (two for auto operations and one for manual operations).
50.One pack fails, with a ΔP >4psi, what happens?
 The Aft outflow valve closes and the FWD outflow valve controls the cabin pressure.
51.What conditions are required for Auto Brake arming?
 Green HYD pressure + Anti-skid electrically powered (ON) + No failure in the braking
system + at least 2 PRIMS & 1 ADIRU available.
52.How does the yellow hand pump work?
 Through the Yellow System Accumulator.
53.Which HYD systems have electric pumps?
 All three systems.
54.What happens to NWS and brakes following gravity extension?
 NWS is lost, normal brakes are available.
55.When AP/FD controls vertical speed path, what does Auto-Thrust control?
 SPEED or MACH mode.
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56.When is MLA available?
 Above 250kts, Flaps 0 & NORMAL / ALTN Law.
57.Which fuel valve does FIRE PB control?
 LP fuel valve.
58.What are the generator overload indications?
 108% for >10secs.
59.What is the effect of no Blue hydraulic system?
 Slats are slow.
60.Why do Inner tank controls pulse?
 L & R INR TK fuel imbalance (same applies to the Outer tanks). L & R INR tank
quantity difference greater than 3000kgs.
61.What do the LDG GEAR “red” UNLK light means?
 LDG is not locked in the selected position.
62.Does the mechanical control of THS override AP and Sidestick?
 YES
63.When does bleed air cross-bleed valve close automatically?
 When ENG Bleed air is supplied (opens automatically when APU BLEED is ON).
 When PYLON Leak is detected.
 When WING Leak is detected.
 When APU leak is detected (except during ENG start).
64.What does the DITCHING PB do?
 Closes the Outflow Valves + Emergency RAM air inlet + Avionics Ventilation Overboard
Valve and Pack Flow control valves (cargo recirculation fan stops automatically).
65.What happen when IGN switch is selected to CRANK and the Manual start PB is
pressed?
 Start valve opens but there is no ignition.
66.What is the normal supply for AC ESS?
 AC BUS 1.
67.What is the maximum differential pressure?
 9.25psi.
68.What TAT probe supplies ADIRU3?
 Capt’s TAT.
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69.Where does the DDRMI received its information?
 ADIRU 1 (normal) or ADIRU 3 if selected.
70.What warnings are given for excess cabin altitude?
 CRC, Master Warning light & ECAM Warning.
71.When does the start valve close?
 43%~48% N2 (50% N2).
72.What causes the FAULT light in the fuel pumps to illuminate?
 Low delivery pressure.
73.What does LVR ASYM on FMA means?
 A/THR active, both engines running but one thrust lever out of CL/MCT detent.
74.What are the FMA annunciations for the go-around?
 MAN TOGA | SRS | GA TRK.
75.How are backup NAV aids tuned?
 Via RMP 1 & 2 (onside tuning only, except for ILS).
76.What does a flashing LOC & G/S indicate?
 Excessive deviation.
77.How does fuel transfer from Outer to Inner tanks?
 Gravity.
78.What does the ground electric control switch do?
 Allows ground servicing without energising the entire aircraft electrical network.
79.What are the flight envelope limits for the APU generator?
 Non – Full envelope.
80.In what modes is the weather radar not available?
 PLAN & ENG.
 When the radar is operating, and when the ND is not in PLAN mode, the ND displays the
weather radar picture.
81.What happens in case of air cycle machine failure?
 A bypass valve allows the bleed air to be cooled by the associated heat exchanger only.
82.What powers the Green HYD system?
 2 Engine Driven Pump (EDP), 1 ELEC pump and the RAT.
83.What is the maximum operating altitude?
 41,450ft.
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84.How are thrust reverser door actuated?
 Hydraulically (ENG#1 /BLU & ENG#2 / YLW).
85.What is the maximum N1?
 P&W ENG 100% N1 (RR ENG 99% N1).
86.What is the maximum N2?
 P&W ENG 100% N2 (RR ENG 103.3% N2).
87.What is the maximum altitude for APU start on batteries?
 25,000ft.
88.Emergency APU shutdown is accomplished from?
 Refuel panel.
89.In A/THR and normal flight, what is the max thrust?
 Thrust lever angle (TLA, Blue donut on EPR & N1 gauge).
90.What does the APU fire pushbutton isolate when it is released?
 Fuel, air and electrics.
91.When is the ECB electrically supplied?
 When the APU Master switch is selected ON.
92.What is the manual refuelling order?
 Inner = 3,000kgs, Outer = Full, Inner = Full & Trim tank = Full.
93.Where is the refuelling panel located?
 On the fuselage below the right wing.
94.When can a second Aft fuel transfer take place?
 If CG is forward of target by 2% and trim tank has less than 3,000kgs.
95.When does the light on the trim tank mode PB illuminate?
 Excess Aft CG detected by FMGS or
 FCMC is unable to carry out forward transfer or
 FUEL LO TEMP warning is triggered
96.When does the RAT deploy?
 In the event of low level indication of G+Y or
 G+B reservoir or
 Both engine failure.
97.How can the parking brake accumulator be pressurised on ground?
 Activating the Blue HYD system electric pump.
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98.How is the parking brake applied?
 Pull up and turn the handle clockwise.
99.When is NWS self-centered?
 After TO, internal cam mechanism center the NWS.
 Steering hand-wheel provide NWS control <100kts and up to 72⁰ left or right.
 Rudder pedals provide NWS control up to 150kts for TO and below 100kts for landing.
100. When does ECAM generator voltage indication becomes amber?
 <110v or >120v (115v +/-5v).
101. When does ECAM generator frequency indication become amber?
 Below 390Hz or above 410Hz (400Hz +/- 10Hz).
102. What does the wind indication in ND use?
 Digital is indication is True and arrow direction is depending on reference selected, True
or Magnetic .
103. What is the maximum radio altimeter height indicated?
 2500ft AGL.
104. When does the wing anti-ice valve close automatically?
 Electrical failure or leak detection.
105. How are the evacuation slides illuminated?
 By their own integral system, automatically illuminate when slide is armed and door is
opened. They have same supply as the cabin EMERG lighting.
106. How are cabin doors opened in an emergency?
 Automatic by pneumatic damper actuator assistance (in normal opening mode this
actuator limits door travel).
107. How are cabin doors opened normally?
 Manually with hydraulic damping and gust lock mechanism.
108. Where are evacuation slides fitted?
 Cabin doors and Emergency exits.
109. How is CVR manually energized on the ground?
 By RCDR GND CTL PB switch.
110. In automatic mode, each outflow valve is powered by?
 1 of 2 electric motors – 3rd motor for manual backup.
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111. With cabin pressurisation in automatic mode, what happens if SYS 1 fails?
 ECAM page is called up with system fault indication and control is transferred
automatically to system 2.
112. What is the effect of an engine bleed valve malfunction?
 FAULT light illuminated and ENG bleed & HP bleed valves close, fault light illuminates
in case of:
o Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve or
o Bleed overheat or Wing (124⁰C) or
o ENG leak (>204⁰C) on the related side.
113. What does a pack fault light indicate?
 Pack flow valve disagree with selected position or
 Compressor outlet overheat (>260°C) or
 Pack outlet overheat (>95°C).
114. When does FADEC automatically supply ignition?
 Inflight ENG flameout or ENG surge detected.
 EAI selected.
 Actual N2 < APP Idle N2 & TO Mode or APP idle mode selected.
 Severe Rain or Hail ingestion detected by FADEC.
115. What controls APU bleed air?
 IGV (controls air flow) and ECB (controls the bleed valve actuator).
116. What does the accessory gearbox drive?
 IDG, HYD pumps, Oil pumps, Air/Oil separator, LP & HP fuel pumps and FADEC
generator.
117. How is FADEC supplied with power?
 By aircraft ELEC system via PCU when N2 is <5%.
 Otherwise self-powered by own generator if N2 is >5%.
118. When does hydraulic system pressure on ECAM page turn amber?
 When the pressure is ≤1,450psi.
119. Which elevator is powered by BLUE HYD system?
 Left (Blue & Green).
120. When does the hydraulic pump number turn from white to amber?
 When N2 of the corresponding ENG is below IDLE.
121. How many aileron servo modes are there?
 Two (active & damping).
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122. What does amber “F Locked” message mean?
 Flaps, Wing tip brake applied.
123. What does amber “F” message mean?
 Flaps system failure or
 Y + G HYD system low pressure.
124. What does amber “S Locked” message mean?
 Slats, Wing tip brake applied.
125. What does amber “S” message mean?
 Slat system failure or
 B + G HYD system low pressure.
126. What happens to “F” indication on Upper ECAM?
 Turns amber if Flap fails or Y+G HYD system low pressure.
127. When do the pack valves close during engine start?
 When ENG START selector is selected to IGN/START.
128. What happens if AP is selected ON with FD’s OFF?
 AP engages in HDG-V/S or TRK/FPA mode.
129. If the emergency slide is armed and the door is opened, but the slide fails to inflate,
what action must be taken?
 Attempt manual inflation of the slide (if manual inflation fails, direct passengers to
another exit).
130. Pneumatic assistance, door opening?
 In an emergency.
131. If both FMGC’s fail, how are the Navaids tuned?
 Via RMP 1 + 2.
132. Principles of antiskid?
 The speed of each main gear wheel (given by a tachometer) is compared with the aircraft
speed (reference speed from ADIRU 1, 2 or 3).
133. What does L/G CTL amber indication on the Wheel ECAM page indicate?
 Appears amber after 30secs time delay when position of any LDG disagrees with lever
position and associated ECAM Caution is triggered?
134. With both AP engaged and TOGA engaged?
 Both AP’s remain engaged, until another mode selected.
135. During descent preparation, where is landing elevation displayed?
 On CRUISE page and CAB PRESS page.
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136. What dictates A/THR mode?
 Engaged pitch mode.
137. How is Backup NAV mode selected?
 On MCDU menu page, only if FM selector is in NORM position (MCDU 3 is not
available for backup Nav).
138. What happens during independent FM operation?
 MCDU’s do not exchange data.
139. What is the function of the SDAC?
 Collect data from system sensors and sends it to FWC and DMC.
140. What happens if you lose the ECAM part of DMC3?
 Auto transfer to DMC1, provided that ECAM switching is at AUTO.
141. What happens if MCDU1 or 2 fails?
 Switch faulty unit brightness control OFF to allow MCDU3 to take over.
142. When do FMGS perform their first update?
 At the time of setting TO power.
143. How is a lateral revision performed on the MCDU?
 By means of left-hand side line select keys.
144. How many spoilers are used for roll control?
 5 spoilers (2~6 spoilers inclusive).
145. What does ENG MAST switch do?
 Controls HP & LP fuel valves.
146. How is A/THR arming or active mode displayed?
 Blue=Armed & White=Active.
147. From where is the FWD APU fuel pump supplied?
 From left INR tank.
148. From where is the AFT APU fuel pump fed?
 Trim tank fuel line.
149. What happens to IGN if EAI PB is pressed?
 CONT IGN activated.
150. What happens when WAI is selected ON, on the ground?
 It goes through a 30sec BIT and then closes until the aircraft is airborne.
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151. What does oxygen half-frame amber on ECAM DOOR page mean?
 Oxygen bottle pressure is below 1,000psi, operational limitations must be checked.
152. In which ND modes can weather radar not be displayed?
 In PLAN & ENG modes.
153. Is it possible to restore normal L/G operation following gravity extension?
 Yes, if GRN HYD pressure is available and by using reset setting on LDG panel
154. What does the anti-skid use for its speed reference?
 Normally determined by BSCU from ADIRU 1 or 2 or 3. If all ADIRU fail, reference
speed equals the max of either main LDG wheel speeds.
155. When Green & Yellow hydraulic systems fail, which PRIM is master?
 PRIM 2, allows most surfaces to run from one HYD system.
156. How are the ailerons controlled?
 By two electrically controlled servojacks, each controlled by one of the three hydraulic
system.
157. When is slat retraction inhibited?
 If alpha exceeds 8.5° or if speed is below 148kts
158. Which ECMU control the EXT Power supplies?
 ECMU 1 = EXT PWR B &
 ECMU 2 = EXT PWR A
159. What does the “END” flashing light signify on the refueling panel?
 Imbalance of >3000kg after refueling,
 or if refueling is aborted,
 or failure is detected during high level test
 *not flashing – refueling complete
160. What does a partial box around FOB mean?
 Fuel partially unusable
161. What is the effect of losing one FCMU?
 Fuel quantity indication is degraded and CG has moved 1.5% fwd.
162. What is the function of Air Data Modules?
 8 ADMs convert pneumatic data from the pitot and static probes into numerical data for
the 3 ADIRUs.
163. What do the Standby Probes and the Standby Air Data Modules do?
 Send data to Standby Instruments and ADIRU3.
 Two Static STBY data to STBY ASI + STBY ALTI + ADM / ADIRU3.
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 One Pitot STBY data to STBY ASI + ADM / ADIRU3.
164. Where does the active CPC get its landing data from?
 FMGEC (MCDU and FMGS!).
 CPC receives signal from various sources, ADIRS, FMGS, EIU, LGCIU, PSCU & Pack
Flow Control Valves.
165. When is the aircraft depressurized after landing?
 80secs after landing the outflow valves are controlled fully open to ensure there is no
residual ΔP in the aircraft.
166. How many aileron servo modes are there?
 Two control modes, active & damping.
167. When do the pack valves close during an auto start?
 Engine mode selector to “IGN/START”
168. If the emergency slide is armed, the door is opened but the slide fails to inflate, what
do you do?
 Pull manual inflation handle.
169. Emergency slide fails to inflate, what action do you take?
 Direct all passengers to serviceable exit.
170. Pneumatic assist for door opening is available?
 Only in an emergency.
171. What happens to F indication on upper ECAM?
 Turns amber if FLAP system fails or Y+G HYD system low press.
172. What does “L/G CTL” amber on WHEEL page mean?
 Any LDG position disagrees with lever position, L/G CTL amber appears after a 30secs
time delay,
173. What is the Yellow hydraulic hand pump used for
 To operate the cargo door when no electrical power is available.
174. When is Maneuver Load Alleviation Inhibited?
 When speed below 250kts, Flaps > 0, and in direct law.
175. When does the HYD pump no. indicate white?
 ENG N2 is above idle.
176. What detects an “APU low oil level” message after APU shutdown?
 ECB.
177. Engine FIRE PB controls?
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 LP Fuel valve closes, ENG bleed valve closes, Squibs armed, IDG deactivated, HYD
FSOV closes, Pack flow control closes, Cuts off FADEC, Silences aural fire warning.
178. What do PRIM computer controls?
 Normal, ALTN & DCT flight control laws, SPD BRK &
 Ground Spoiler control, Speed Protection computation and Rudder Travel limit.
179. What do SEC computer controls?
 Direct control laws including Yaw Damper function and Rudder Trim & Rudder Travel
limit.
180. What is the indication of a flight crew oxygen bottle system thermal discharge?
 Absence of green discharge indicator on fuselage.
181. The red “UNLK” light on the gear indicator panel means?
 LDG not locked in selected position.
182. What does the red arrow adjacent to landing gear selector lever indicate?
 LDG not downlocked in landing configuration.
183. The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for?
 HYD reservoir pressurisation, Water pressurisation, Air conditioning, ENG start, WAI
and Pack bay ventilation turbofan actuation.
184. What Selected modes appear on FMA?
 OP CLIMB & OP DES, TRK/HDG, FPA & V/S.
185. What does STS prompt on E/WD mean?
 Status needs to be reviewed again.
186. What decides Auto thrust mode?
 Engaged Pitch mode.
187. When does the ECAM CLR PB light extinguish during ECAM actions?
 When Status page is reviewed and cleared.
188. How is Backup NAV mode selected?
 Via the MCDU menu page, but only if FM selector NORM is selected.
 MCDU3 not available for Backup NAV.
189. How are navaids tuned if both FMGC fail?
 Through RMP1 & RMP2 by selecting NAV key and tuning of onside aids only, except for
ILS where each RMP controls both ILSs.
190. What happens during independent FM operations?
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 Independent entries required on both MCDUs.
191. What is the function of the SDAC (system data acquisition concentrator)?
 Two SDAC acquire data, then generate signals, which are supplied to three DMCs to
generate displays of system pages and ENG parameters. Other signals go to the FWCs
which uses them to generate ECAM messages and aural alerts.
192. What happen if you lose the ECAM part of DMC3?
 Auto transfer to DMC1, provided ECAM switching is in AUTO.
193. What happens if MCDU1 and 2 fails
 Switch faulty unit brightness to OFF, to enable MCDU3 to takeover.
194. When do FMGC perform their first update?
 At the setting of Takeoff power.
195. How is a lateral revision performed on the MCDU?
 By left-hand side line select keys.
196. How many spoilers are used for roll control?
 5 per wing (spoilers #2~6 inclusive).
197. When does the F/CTL ECAM page appear?
 On manual selection or during Sidestick movement on the ground.
198. What does the rudder trim tab push button do?
 It’s a momentary switch which resets the rudder trim to zero at 3⁰/sec.
199. When is the FADEC powered?
 ENG mode selector to IGN/START position or for 15mins on initial aircraft ELEC power
up.
200. What does engine master switch do?
 Control HP & LP fuel shutoff valve and controls IGN supply (on GND during AUTO
start one IGN supplied, in MAN start both IGN’s supplied and in air both IGN’s
supplied).
201. How do you know if the auto thrust is armed or active?
 White tag on FMA (active) Blue (armed).
202. Where is fuel onboard displayed during descent preparation?
 E/WD.
203. From where is the FWD APU fuel pump supplied?
 Left Inner tank.
204. What happens if EAI PB is pressed?
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 PB switch light comes on Blue, “ENG A-ICE” displayed on ECAM page, EAI valves
open and continuous IGN auto activated if EIU is inoperative.
205. What happens to window heat in flight?
 Automatically changes from low power to normal power in flight.
206. What happens if wing anti-ice is selected on ground?
 WAI valves open for only 30secs (test sequence).
207. What happens when “No Smoking” sign is at AUTO?
 Signs illuminate when LDG is extended and go OFF when LDG is retracted.
 Sign will come ON, regardless of switch position, when EXCESS CAB ALT warning is
triggered (CAB ALT exceeds 9550ft +/-350ft).
208. What happens to “Runway Turn-off lights” when gear is retracted?
 Extinguish automatically.
209. Where is EAI pressure tapped from?
 Each engine HP compressor.
210. When can the APU start?
 When the air-inlet flap is open and start switch is ON.
211. How many fuel pumps for APU?
 Two.
212. What is the max APU EGT on start?
 1250°C.
213. How is APU start sequenced?
 MAST switch ON, START PB pressed, Air intake flap fully open, then starter engages.
214. How long after bleed air is shut off, would you wait before switching APU off?
 2mins.
215. Above what height does trim tank transfer occurs?
 AFT transfer climbing out of FL255, FWD transfer descending out of FL245 or if time to
destination is less than 35mins.
216. What is minimum fuel for takeoff?
 5,200kgs.
217. What is maximum useable fuel?
 109,186kgs.
218. Outer wing tanks do what?
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 Gravity feed fuel to Inner tanks.
219. What does the Trim-tank Fuel PB do?
 Transfer fuel forward to the Inner tanks.
220. What happens when internal lights are at storm?
 Both dome lights and instruments panel floodlights are set to high intensity.
221. When do the logo lights come on?
 When landing gear compressed or flaps at 15⁰ or >.
222. Can the IDG be reconnected in the air?
 No, ground reset only.
223. Following dual engine failure, how is fuel fed for subsequent relight?
 L2 pump is powered by RAT and X-feed valve opens automatically.
224. What does the fourth TR do?
 Supplies power for APU starting and APU BAT charging.
225. What is the general principle of airbus generator operation?
 Independent operation, supplying their own loads.
226. Is there any TR reconfiguration for over-current detection?
 No, if TR is lost due to overcurrent detection, reconfiguration does not occur and related
DC BUS is lost.
227. Is autopilot available in ALT 2 law?
 Yes, if 2 IRS are working.
228. How many autopilots are required for LWMO operations?
 Only one, unless CAT III-B.
229. How is ILS information called up on PFD?
 By LS pushbutton.
230. When does autothrust disengages during autoland?
 At 10ft - retard callout and after thrust levers set to IDLE.
231. How is independent FMGS noticed?
 By annunciation on both FMGS and scratchpad.
232. What happens if a spoiler fault occurs?
 Symmetric pair retract, except #4 & 6.
233. What happens if both servo jacks on a surface lose electrical power?
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 On ailerons, they go into damping mode and the same is applicable to elevators.
 But if 4 servojacks are not electrically supplied, they automatically go into centering
mode and are not electrically controlled (elevators).
234. With AP engaged, does rudder TRIM feedback through pedals?
 Yes, (when AP is ON during engine failure, you can feel the rudder moving).
235. What is the effect of one SFCC being U/S?
 FLAP/SLATS operate at half speed.
236. When does backup yaw damper unit operate?
 In case of total electrical failure or loss of rudder control due to FCC (PRIM & SEC)
failure.
237. What controls are available for manual backup flight?
 THS, Rudder & Manual trim.
238. What happens to rudder travel following SEC 1 & 2 failure?
 Maximum rudder deflection remains at the value reached before the failure, then
maximum deflection available when slats are extended.
239. What does it mean if the SEC fault light flashes and PRIM light illuminates when
electrical power is first applied?
 Normal during FCC power up test, the SEC light flashes at the end of SEC test and PRIM
light goes out at the end of PRIM power-up test, provided it is satisfactory.
240. What does it mean if the PRIM Fault light flashes?
 Normal indication during FCC power-up test.
241. What happens if all PRIM fail, but SEC are OK?
 Each SEC is its own master and controls its associated servoloop in direct law.
 Individual control, i.e. no master/slave.
242. What protections are available in direct law?
 None – only stall and overspeed warnings.
243. What happens to Green HYD system electric pump if #1 engine fails on T/O?
 Electric pump runs automatically for 25 seconds to ensure gear retraction.
244. What happens to HYD RSVR overheat caption when pump is selected OFF? (ENG
1/2 pump switch)
 Fault light remains on as long as overheat condition is present.
245. What are the priorities of the hydraulic system?
 In event of low HYD pressure, a priority valve cuts off HYD power to heavy load users
(EMRG GEN, N/W Steering, LDG) in order to preserve pressure for flight controls and
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normal braking.
246. What is/are capabilities of electrical pump in hydraulic system?
 Flow is about 18% of the EDP. They can be used to retract surfaces but should not be
used to replace the EDP.
247. What is the function of the hydraulic hand pump?
 It is used to pressurise the yellow system to operate the cargo doors.
248. What happens if a Green reservoir low level occurs?
 Both engine HYD fire shutoff valves are auto closed. If the BLU & YLW reservoir levels
are normal, 150secs after initial closure of the fire shutoff valves, the GRN EDPs are auto
depressurised and the fire shutoff valves are reopened to lubricate and avoid damage to
the EDPs.
 In case of further BLU or YLW reservoir low level, the GRN shutoff valves remain
closed enabling the GRN system to be restored by using the RAT system.
249. What does N/W STRG amber caution mean on the wheel page?
 N/W STRG is inoperative, NWS failure detected by BSCU.
250. What indicates a DMC 1 failure?
 INVALID DATA message displayed.
251. Which standby instrument has a fail flag?
 ATT, SPD, M, ALT, G/S, LOC (Total 11 flags).
252. What happens if both FD flag flashes after LOC & GS capture?
 ILS information is lost.
253. What hydraulic system power trailing edge flaps?
 YELLOW and GREEN.
254. When is speed brake inhibited?
 Speed brake inhibited with loss of PRIM.
255. What happens to the cross bleed valve when the APU is ON, on normal operations?
 Cross bleed valve opens.
256. What happens if BMC1 is lost?
 APU bleed leak warning are lost.
257. What happens to outflow valves if one pack shut down?
 With ΔP is >4psi and one pack OFF, the AFT outflow valve closes and the FWD outflow
valve controls cabin pressure.
258. What is the maximum positive differential pressure?
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 9.25psi.
259. What happen if a pack ventilation lubricator fails?
 ECAM warning and external horn.
260. After start, when do the pack valves open?
 Both engines running and doors fully closed.
261. What air does the flight deck receive?
 Fresh air from PACK 1!
262. What happens to used cabin air?
 Avionics cooling and then remixing and recirculation.
263. How is the bulk cargo bay heated and ventilated?
 Air from cabin, driven by the electrical fan, goes into the compartment through a heating
element. (ELEC FAN heater).
264. When do the cabin pressure controllers (CPC) changeover?
 80secs after each landing or if the operating system fails.
265. What is the APU TR used for?
 Fourth TR is dedicated for APU battery charging and APU start.
266. How can the IDG reconnected?
 Only on the ground.
267. Following an ECMU failure, why must the generators be left ON?
 They cannot be reconnected after being switched OFF.
268. Are the generators in parallel?
 No, they are normally operated individually and supply its associated AC Bus.
 IDG 1 – AC Bus 1→ AC ESS Bus + (ESS TR→ DC ESS Bus) and TR1→ DC Bus 1 &
(DC BAT Bus → Two Batteries if they require charging).
 IDG 2 – AC Bus 2→ (APU TR→ DC APU → APU BAT) + TR2→ DC Bus 2.
269. When does EMER GEN come on?
 Both ACB 1 & 2 are lost , the EMER GEN runs (provided GRN HYD system is
pressurised) and supplies the DC ESS Bus and the AC ESS Bus.
270. APU bleed has priority over ENG bleed?
 Yes.
271. How can you review the proceeding part of STS page?
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 By pressing STS PB key.
272. With overflow Green Arrow on STS page, what must you do to see the remaining
information?
 Press CLR PB key.
273. When does AFT fuel transfer normally begin?
 FL255 during climb.
274. From which tanks can fuel be fed directly into the engine?
 Inner Tanks.
275. What is the purpose of the EIU?
 ENG Interface Unit (EIU) transmits via ENG Relay Unit (ERU) to FADEC the data it
uses for engine management.
276. When does FADEC limit the EGT?
 During auto-start on ground.
277. What is the minimum acceptable air pressure?
 25psi.
278. How is thrust lever angle displayed?
 A blue circle on EPR & N1 indicator.
279. When does the APU auto shutdown if fire occurs?
 On the ground.
280. What is the engine fire detection logic?
 AND logic when both loops A+B are operating and OR logic when either loop is
operating
281. What fire protection is available in cargo compartment
 Smoke detection and Fire extinguishing.
o Smoke detectors (ionisation type), 2 cavities each in FWD & AFT cargo compartment
and 1 cavity in BULK cargo compartment, each cavity has 2 smoke detectors with
AND & OR logic.
o 2 fire extinguishing bottles, each with 2 discharge heads, one for each compartment.
The contents can be discharged into either FWD or AFT (including BULK) cargo
compartment. Pressing AGENT PB associated to the compartment, ignites the squib of
the two bottles and bottle 1 is discharged in 60secs and bottle 2 is discharged slowly
through a metering flow system to ensure sufficient agent concentration for 155mins.
282. What happens if two fire loops detect a fault within 5 seconds?
 A break in both loops occurring within 5secs of each other (flame effect) a Fire warning is
triggered.
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283. Brake pressure indication?
 Blue HYD pressure delivered to left & right brakes, measured upstream of alternate servo
valves and displayed on the BRK ACCU indicator.
284. What are the oil temperature ranges?
 Max Conti = 163⁰C, Max Transient (20mins) = 177⁰C, Min for TO = 50⁰C.
285. What is the maximum TWC?
 15kts for TO & 14kts for Landing.
286. What is the maximum speed for LDG gravity extension?
 200kts.
287. What is the maximum altitude for LDG extension?
 21,000ft.
288. What powers the clock?
 HBB & DC ESS BUS.
289. How would you determine if a CB has tripped?
 By the pressing the CB PB on the ECAM control panel, the last CB tripped and the
location will be displayed in white at the top of the page.
290. ENG FIRE PB controls?
 LP fuel valve, ENG bleed valve, HYD FSOV, GEN deactivates, Pack FCV, FADEC
power, silences audio warning and squib arming.
291. What do PRIM computer control?
 All flight control laws, Speed brakes & GND spoiler control, Speed protection
computation and Rudder travel limit.
292. What do SEC’s control?
 Direct law with Yaw damper function, rudder trim and rudder travel limit.
293. Pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for?
 HYD reservoir, water system pressurization, air conditioning, ENG start and WAI.
294. When is SPD BRK inhibited?
 With loss of PRIM.
295. With GRN + YLW HYD system failure, which PRIM is master?
 PRIM 2, allows most surfaces to run from one HYD system.
296. What is the effect of losing one FMCU?
 Fuel quantity indication is degraded and CG is moved 1.5% forward.
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297. What do air data modules do?
 AMD’s collect pitot and static information an convert to numerical data for ADIRU’s.
298. What do STBY probes and STBY air data modules supply?
 Information to STBY instruments and ADIRU3.
299. When is the aircraft depressurized?
 At a controlled rate on landing.
300. What does the anti-skid use for its speed reference?
 Determined by BSCU from ADIRU 1, 2 and 3.
301. How are ailerons controlled?
 By two electrically controlled servo jacks, each controlled by one of the three HYS
systems.
302. When does the AUTOLAND Red light illuminate?
 Both AP’s OFF below 200ft RA.
 Excessive deviation in LOC, ¼ dot above 15ft RA (scale flashes).
 Excessive deviation in GS, 1 dot above 100ft RA (scale flashes).
 Loss of LOC signal above 15ft (FD bars flash, LAND mode remains engaged).
 Loss of GS signal above 100ft (FD bars flash, LAND mode remains engaged).
 Difference between both RA indications greater than 15ft.
303. When is MAL inhibited?
 Speed <250kts, Flaps >0 and in DCT law.
304. When are the SPD BRK’s inhibited?
 All PRIM failure.
 MLA active.
 AoA protection active.
 Low speed stability active.
 At least one THR LVR is above MCT.
 Alpha floor is activated.
305. What drives the IDG?
 Accessory gearbox via the HP (N2) shaft.
306. In case of all PRIM failure, what controls the THS?
 SEC 1.
307. When is the aircraft fully depressurized after landing?
 80sec after landing.
308. Fuel feed through which fuel valves on ground and inflight?
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 LPFSOV → LP pump → HP pump →HPFSOV →ENG
309. Slats Alpha / Speed Lock function?
 Slat retraction inhibited at high AoA and /or low speeds, SFCC uses information from
ADIRU’s, if alpha exceeds 8.5⁰ or speeds goes <148kts, retraction from 1 to 0 is
inhibited.
310. Windshear detection range?
 At TO, 3secs after liftoff, up to 1,300ft RA.
 At landing, from 1,300ft RA to 50ft RA.
 With at least CONF 1 selected.
311. Low energy function?
 Available in CONF 2, 3 & FULL, between 100ft and 2000ft, computed by PRIM.
Inhibited when TOGA selected, Alpha floor or GPWS triggered, in ALTN and DCT law,
if both RA’s fail, <100ft & >2,000ft.
312. MLA function?
 Utilises spoilers 4, 5 & 6 and the ailerons and has priority over the Speedbrakes.
313. Turbulence Damping Mode?
 Available when aircraft in air, speed >200kts, AP engaged or Normal law active and
aircraft within the normal flight envelope.
314. Low speed stability?
 At low speed, a nose down demand is introduced in reference to IAS, instead of AoA and
ALTN law changes to DCT law and is available in any slats/flaps configuration and
active from about 5kts up to 10kts above stall warning speed, depending on aircraft’s
weight and slats/flap configuration.
315. ENG bleed fault lights?
 Valve not closed during ENG start.
 Valve not closed when APU bleed ON.
 Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve.
 Bleed overheat.
 Wing or ENG leak on the related side.
316. APU bleed fault light?
 Leak detected.
317. Bleed cross-bleed valve light operation?
 Valve disagrees in closed position.
 Valve disagrees in open position.
 Valve in transit.
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318. All 3 PRIM failure?
 Each SEC is its own master and controls its associated servoloop in DCT law.
319. Fuel cross-bleed valve operation?
 Opens auto in electrical emergency configuration, amber display means valve jammed
open or closed (subject to cross-line or in-line display).
320. HYD EDP fault light?
 Reservoir low level.
 Reservoir low air pressure.
 Reservoir overheat.
 Pump low pressure (inhibited on ground when ENG’s are stopped).
321. Fuel fault light?
 Displayed when delivery pressure drops.
322. Pack fault light?
 Valve position disagrees.
 Compressor outlet overheat.
 Pack outlet overheat.
323. HSMU function?
 HYD SYS Monitoring Unit, monitors the HYD system function and processes –
o Control of ELEC pumps.
o RAT extension.
o Closure of both ENG GRN HYD FSOV’s, in case of GRN reservoir low level.
o HYD quantity indication correction for fluid temperature.
o Tank overheat warning.
o FAULT light illumination logic.
o LEAK MEASUREMENT VALVE control (closure inhibited in flight, closure of
yellow valve during cargo door operation).
324. High AoA function?
 Under normal law, when AoA becomes greater than “α prot”, the system switches
elevator control from normal mode to protection mode in which the AoA is proportional
to the sidestick deflection. This protection, against stall and WS, has priority over all
other protections
325. High Speed Protection?
 It is activated at/or above VMO/MMO (VMO +4kts / MMO +0.006M).
326. Upper ECAM screen DU failure?
 Blank screen with an “F” letter in amber or distorted display or blank screen with
“INVALID DISPLAY UNIT” message in amber.
327. DMC 3 failure?
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 DMC 1 auto takes over and supplies the ECAM DU’s, provided the ECAM
SWITCHING selector is in the AUTO position.
328. Clock time information?
 Time info sent to CMC, FDIU and FMGC (SFCC & LGCIU). Clock powered by two
sources and one is a direct connection to the BAT Hot Bus.
329. PLAN mode reference?
 Display oriented to True North.
330. Oxygen pressure, amber half frame indication?
 Pressure less than 1000psi.
331. APU red disc?
 RED DISC outside rear fuselage, indicates the status of the extinguishing agent bottle
pressure. Overpressure in the bottle will result in overboard discharge of the agent and
ejection of the red disc.
332. ENG Oil cooling?
 By Fuel / Oil and Air (bleed air) / Oil heat exchangers
333. IDG oil cooling?
 Air (bleed air) / Oil heat exchangers.
334. Fuel heating?
 Fuel / Oil cooler (fuel heated and oil cooled).
335. Static inverter operation?
 Activated auto when only BAT’s supplying electrical power and transforms DC power
from DC ESS Bus into 2.5KVA of single-phase 115v 400Hz AC power to part of AC
ESS Bus.
336. Pitch control by which PRIM?
 Elevators and THS are normally controlled from the PRIM 1, in which case the left &
right elevator surface are driven by GRN HYD jacks. The THS is controlled by No.1 of
the three electrical motors.
 PRIM 1 failure, then PRIM 2 takeover the elevator control via BLU & YLW HYD jacks
and THS via motor No.2
 PRIM 1 & 2 failure, SEC 1 controls the elevator and PRIM 3 for THS via motor No.3
 3 PRIM failure –
o SEC 1 controls the elevator,
o Electrical function of THS is lost, THS still available through manual pitch trim
wheel control.
337. BAT fault?
 Charging current rate for corresponding battery is outside limits and battery contactor
opens.
Page 27 of 32
338. After ENG start, start valve indication?
 After ENG start NAC temperature indication display replaces IGN + Start valve position
+ ENG Bleed pressure indications.
339. <400ft LAND mode disengagement?
 Upon engagement of GA mode.
340. Accessory gearbox driven by?
 Horizontal HP rotor drive shaft.
341. Accumulator indication?
 ACCU PRESS, indicates pressure stored in the accumulator, supplied by the BLU HDY
system.
 BRAKE pressure, indicates blue pressure delivered to left & right brakes measured
upstream of the alternate servovalves.
342. APU Shutdown options?
 APU Master PB for normal shutdown.
 Shutdown by use of FIRE PB.
 Shutdown by APU SHUT OFF switch on the EXT power panel.
 APU emergency shutdown triggered by using APU EMER SHUT DOWN switch on the
REFUEL/DEFUEL panel.
343. NWS Towing PB Fault light?
 Illuminates Red on ground when NWS has exceeded 93⁰, associated over-steer warning
light on the nose LDG also illuminates.
344. In flight crew action in case of Cross-bleed valve fault light illumination?
 X-Bleed manual control and select to OPEN when required.
345. When does the “Red Light” on the cabin door flash?
 When ENG’s are shutdown and
 Slide disarmed and
 Δ pressure >2HPA (0.029psi).
346. How is ENG cooling achieved?
 Bleed air is used for cooling of ENG compartment, fan air is used to cool the nacelle core
compartment during TO, CLB and idle descent through the nacelle core compartment
cooling valve which is controlled by FADEC depending on altitude and EPR.
 Turbine cooling, Turbine Vane & Blade Cooling (TVBC) system controls cooling air
flow from the 12th stage compressor to the high and low pressure turbine areas for optimal
engine performance during cruise, controlled by FADEC.
 Cooling the ENG, exterior surface of the high & low pressure turbine cases are cooled
with ENG fan discharge air to control turbine clearance, controlled by FADEC.
Page 28 of 32
347. What happens on the FMA when new modes are selected?
 White box displayed for 10secs around each new annunciation.
348. What happens when LAND RECOVERY PB is selected ON?
 When pressed and EMERG GEN is running, the AC LAND RECOVERY & DC LAND
RECOVERY buses are recovered and the following equipment is restored –
o LGCIU 1
o SFCC 1 (flap channel is not recovered, if the EMERG GEN is powered by the RAT).
o BSCU channel 1 (not recovered, if the EMERG GEN is powered by the RAT).
o LH windshield anti-ice (not recovered, if the EMERG GEN is powered by the RAT).
o LH landing light (not recovered, if the EMERG GEN is powered by the RAT).
System lost –
o Remaining fuel pump lost at 260kts (if the EMERG GEN is powered by the RAT or
upon LAND RECOVERY selection, whichever occurs first).
o Upon LAND RECOVERY selection in EMERG ELEC configuration, ADR3 is lost
and consequently AP1 is lost.
349. Primary means of NAV aid tuning?
 FMGC tunes navaids automatically, with each FMGC controlling its own receiver. If one
FMGC fails, the remaining one controls both side receivers, after activation of the FM
selector switch.
350. ENG bleed valve electrical closure?
 BLEED PB, when switched OFF.
 ENG FIRE PB, when pushed.
 BMC, in following cases –
o Over temperature.
o Over pressure.
o Leak detection.
o APU Bleed ON (for ENG 2, provided the crossbleed valve is not closed).
o Starting sequence.
351. When are the ENG Bleed valve closed with APU running?
 When APU bleed PB is selected ON and APU N>95%, the crossbleed valve will open
and ENG bleed valves will close and the APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system.
352. What is the purpose of the INR TK split valve?
 It allows isolation of the part of the INR TK, in event of tank damage.
353. Where does DDRMI receive its information from?
 ADIRU 1 (normal) & ADIRU 3 if selected.
354. What does APU FIRE PB isolate when released?
 Fuel, Air & Electrics.
355. When is the ECB electrically supplied?
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 When the APU Master switch is turned ON.
356. What is the effect of losing one FCMU?
 Fuel quantity indication is degraded and the CG is moved 1.5% FWD.
357. What detects an “APU Low Oil Level” message after APU shutdown?
 ECB.
358. When can APU start?
 When flap inlet door is open and start switch is ON.
359. How long after APU bleed air is shutoff, would you wait before switching OFF the
APU?
 2mins.
360. What is the indication that the flight crew oxygen system bottle has thermally
discharged?
 Absence of Green discharge indicator disc on the fuselage (right, forward side).
361. What happens when internal lights are selected to Storm position?
 Both dome lights and instrument panel floodlights are set to high intensity.
362. When do Logo lights come ON?
 When the LDG is compressed or Flaps at 15⁰ or more.
363. What does the fourth TR do?
 Supplies power to APU for starting and APU BAT charging.
364. What is the general principal of Airbus generator operation?
 Independent operation, supplying their own loads.
365. Is there any TR reconfiguration for over current detection?
 No, if the TR is lost due to overcurrent detection, reconfiguration does not occur and
related DC Bus is lost.
366. What happens of both FD flags flash after LOC & GS capture?
 ILS information lost.
367. What HYD system powers the TE Flaps?
 YLW & GRN system.
368. What happens if BMC1 is lost?
 APU bleed leak warning are lost.
369. What happens if a Pack ventilation lubricator fails?
 ECAM warning and external horn sounds.
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370. What happens to used cabin air?
 Used for avionics cooling and then remixed and recirculated.
371. How is bulk cargo compartment heated and ventilated?
 ELEC fan heater and cabin air via inlet valve driven by an extraction fan.
372. When do CPC changeover?
 On each landing or upon CPC failure.
373. Is AP available in ALTN2 Law?
 Yes, if two IRS’s are working.
374. When do A/THR disengage on autolanding?
 At 10ft retard callout and after THR levers are set to idle.
375. How is independent FMGS operation noticed?
 Annunciation on both FMGS and scratchpad.
376. What happens if a spoiler fault occurs?
 The symmetric pair retract except spoiler #4 & 6.
377. What happens if both servo jacks on a surface lose electrical power?
 They go into damping mode and they go into centering mode if 4 servo jacks for elevator
are not electrically controlled.
378. With AP engaged, does rudder trim feedback through the pedals?
 Yes, (when an AP is engaged during ENG failure, you can feel the rudder move).
379. What is effect of one SFCC being U/S?
 FLAP / SLATS operate at half speed.
380. When does backup yaw damper unit operate?
 In case of total electrical failure to rudder or total loss of flight computer.
381. What happens to rudder travel following SEC1 & 2 failure?
 Travel limited to failure point, unless slats extended, thereafter full travel.
382. What does it mean if the PRIM fault light flashes?
 Normal indication during FCC power up test.
383. What protections are available in Direct Law?
 None, only stall and overspeed protection.
384. What happens to HYD RSVR overheat caption when pump is selected OFF (EDP)?
 Fault light remains ON as long as overheat condition prevails.
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385. What does a NWS amber caution mean on the Wheel page?
 NWS is inoperative, NWS failure detected by BSCU, failure of both BSCU channels.
386. How is fuel feed to APU?
 Via Trim Tank Transfer Line.
387. Gravity LDG extension, how is the uplock released?
 Electrically unlocked.
388. During GA, what vertical & lateral modes are engaged?
 SRS & GA TK.
389. Both pilots push their side-stick takeover PB, which one has the priority?
 The pilot who pushes the PB last, has priority.
390. Both pilots move their side-stick simultaneously?
 Both command inputs are added.
391. Yellow system supplies?
 ENG REV 2.
392. Three HYD system function and operation?
 Green system is master, Blue & Yellow systems are in STBY.
 All systems supply simultaneously.
393. IN case of AC Bus 1 failure, AS ESS Bus is fed by/
 AC Bus 2.
394. The White “F” on the EWD indicates?
 Becomes amber when the flaps fail.
395. Switching EAI results in?
 Decrease in N1 limit & increase in Ni idle.
396. In case of zone controller channel 1 & 2 failure?
 The packs deliver a fixed pack outlet temperature of 20⁰C.
397. Pressurisation, descent in external mode?
 Cabin varies according to FMGS estimated time.
398. Green HYD system electric pump auto operation?
 In case of an ENG failure in flight, the pump runs for 25secs, when LDG lever is selected
UP.
399. Yellow HYD system electric pump auto operation?
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 Pump auto runs in flight, if #2 ENG fails and if flaps are not a 0 position.
400. Blue HYD system electric pump auto operation?
 In flight, in the event of an ENG 1 failure, in addition to a PRIM 1 or PRIM 3 loss, the
pump runs automatically to ensure sufficient authority on the electrical rudder, thereby
counteracting the yaw sideslip induced by assymetrical thrust.
401. In event of Upper ECAM DU failure?
 The EWD page auto replaces the SYS/STS page on the lower ECAM DU.
402. In event of Lower ECAM DU failure?
 Flight crew can select display on ND unit, by means of ECAM//ND XFR switch or
 Pushing and holding related system page PB on the ECAM control panel, for maximum
of 3mins for temporary display on the Upper ECAM DU.
403. In event of both ECAM DU failure?
 Flight crew can select display on ND unit, by means of ECAM//ND XFR switch, to
display EWD page or
 Pushing and holding related system page PB on the ECAM control panel, for maximum
of 3mins for temporary display SYS/STS page on the ND.
404. How long does the LOC/GS flag flash for, in case of data failure?
 Flashes for 9secs and then remains steady.
405. LOC & GS excessive deviation indication?
 LOC scale flashes if LOC deviation is ¼ dot for 2secs between 15ft and 1,000ft.
 GS scales flashes and continues to flash if GS deviation is 1 dot for 2secs above 100ft
RA.
 LOC & GS scale half index symbol flash and continue to flash when deviation exceeds 2
dots for 2secs.
406. How are HYD reservoir’s normally pressurised?
 By HP air from ENG #1.
407. What is the maximum Landing Weight?
 182,000kgs.