SAQs
in
ANATOMY
SAQs
in
ANATOMY
Third Edition
VG Sawant MS (Anatomy)
Professor and Head
Department of Anatomy
Padmashree Dr DY Patil Medical College
Nerul, Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Former Professor of Anatomy
Terna Medical College
Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Grant Medical College, Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
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SAQs in Anatomy
First Edition: 2003
Second Edition: 2005
Reprint: 2009
Third Edition: 2013
ISBN 978-93-5025-180-5
Typeset at JPBMP typesetting unit
Printed at
Dedicated to
My Parents
Wife Rekha
Daughter Kshittja
Son Viresh
Preface to the Third Edition
I have great pleasure in presenting the third edition
of this book.
I am thankful to all the students for their
response to the second edition of the book.
In the third edition, about 130 new SAQs,
especially in Brain and Genetics Section have been
added.
It is pleasure to thank all those who have written
letters of encouragement and have made useful
suggestions. Suggestions and comments are
welcome from teachers and students. I also wish
to thank Mr Tarun Duneja (Director-Publishing)
and Mr KK Raman (Production Manager),
M/s Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd,
New Delhi, India, for their help to publish the book.
I would also like to thank Mr Chandra Shekhar
Gawde and Mr Ramesh Krishnamachari of
M/s Jaypee Brothers Medical Publisher (P) Ltd,
Mumbai branch, India, for their help.
VG Sawant
Preface to the First Edition
The changing trend in evaluation, i.e. from essay
type questions to objective type questions is
adapted by Medical Council of India (MCI) and most
of the medical universi-ties. Objective type of
questioning gives equal opportunity to all students
and covers wider syllabus.
Short answer questions (SAQs) are objective type
of questions which require answer in words or in
shorter manner. SAQs are useful in measuring
learning outcomes in the lower and middle level
cognitive domains, i.e. knowledge comprehension,
application and analysis. Therefore, in a medical
curriculum, where a student is required to be well
aware of facts of life, disease and treatment, the
SAQs can become a helpful tool to test their learning
outcome.
While framing a SAQ, one should remember the
following things:
1. Use simple language
2. Use any one of the following formats:
a. Question type.
b. Enumerate the structures.
c. Definition type.
d. Draw and label the diagram.
e. Reasoning type.
f. Comparison between two.
3. Do not ask SAQ in one or two words like a title
of short note, i.e. biceps brachii.
This is a wrong SAQ as it is neither in question
format nor in any one of formats which are
mentioned here. The student does not know
what specific answer he has to write. Instead,
the SAQ on the same topic can be framed in
the following way:
a. Specify the joints at which biceps brachii
acts.
b. What are the movements produced by biceps
brachii at these joints?
4. Avoid use of negative beginning.
x SAQs in Anatomy
The SAQs are asked in theory examination for
2 marks. So, the answers should be written in
shortest manner (in some of the clinically-oriented
SAQs, answers are little lengthy for understanding
purpose, but students can write in shortest
manner).
The SAQs included in this book, besides being
asked in theory examination, are also most
frequently asked in viva voce during practicals. In
addition, answers to these SAQs will also help the
students to answer MCQs on the same topic.
Though this book is essentially for undergraduate students, it can be useful for the students
preparing for postgraduate entrance examination.
Constructive suggestions, healthy criticism and
comments to improve this book are welcome from
Anatomy teachers and students.
I thank Mr Tarun Duneja (Director-Publishing),
M/s Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd,
New Delhi, India, for his help to publish the book.
VG Sawant
Contents
1. General Anatomy ...................................... 1
2. Superior Extremity ................................ 17
3. Inferior Extremity .................................. 37
4. Thorax ........................................................ 53
5. Abdomen ................................................... 67
6. Head, Face and Neck ............................... 97
7. Brain ........................................................ 134
8. Histology ................................................. 157
9. Embryology ............................................ 184
10. Genetics ................................................... 210
11. Radiology ................................................ 222
1
GENERAL ANATOMY
Q. 1. Define anatomical position of the body.
What are supine and prone positions of
the body?
Ans. Anatomical position—The body is erect, the
eyes look straight to the front, the upper limbs
hang by the side of the trunk with the palms
directed forwards and the lower limbs are
parallel with the toes pointing forwards.
Supine position—Lying down position with the
face directed upwards.
Prone position—Lying down position with the
face directed downwards.
Q. 2. Give examples of three classes of levers
in the body.
Ans. I class lever—Triceps bringing about extension
at the elbow joint
R
E
↑
Δ
F

II class lever—Rising on the toes.
↑
E

R
D
F
III class lever—Biceps bringing about flexion
at the elbow joint.
Δ
F
↑
E

R
Q. 3. What is superficial fascia? Mention its two
functions.
Ans. Superficial fascia is a general coating of the
body beneath the skin made up of loose areolar
tissue with varying amount of fat.
2 SAQs in Anatomy
Functions:
1. It facilitates movement of the skin.
2. Conserves body heat.
Q. 4. What is deep fascia? Mention its two
functions.
Ans. Deep fascia is a fibrous sheet which invests
the body beneath the superficial fascia and is
devoid of fat.
Functions:
1. Keeps the underlying structures in position.
2. Provides extra surface for attachment of
muscles.
Q. 5. Give any four modifications of deep fascia.
Ans. 1. Aponeurosis.
2. Retinaculum.
3. Bursa.
4. Capsules of joint.
5. Sheaths around arteries—carotid sheath.
Q. 6. Give functions of articular capsule.
Ans. 1. It binds the articular bones together.
2. It supports the synovial membrane on the
inner surface.
3. Due to numerous sensory nerves supplying
capsule, it acts as a ‘watch’ dog by producing
reflex contraction of muscles thus protecting the joint.
Q.7. Give functions of synovial membrane.
Ans. 1. The synovial fluid secrected by the synovial membrane provides nutrition to the
articular cartilage.
2. It liberates hyaluronic acid which maintains viscosity of the fluid.
3. It removes particulate matters and worn
out cartilage cells by the phagocytic activity.
Q. 8. Define terms origin and insertion of a
muscle.
Ans. 1. Origin of a muscle—It is the proximal
attachment of a muscle, which is relatively
fixed during its contraction.
2. Insertion of a muscle—it is the distal
attachment of a muscle, which is relatively
movable during its contraction.
General Anatomy 3
Q. 9. What is isotonic or concentric action of a
muscle? Give one example.
Ans. Isotonic—Iso-means same. Tone of the muscle
remains same. Length of the muscle is reduced
by 1/3 or more during contraction and tone
remains same.
Example—lifting a load by contraction of
biceps and brachialis at the elbow joint.
Q. 10. What is isometric contraction of a muscle?
Give one example.
Ans. Isometric—Iso-means same, metric-means
length. Length of the muscle remains same.
During isometric contraction, the tension is
same as load and length of the muscle does
not change.
Example—holding the arm outstretched.
Q. 11. What is excentric action or paying out of a
muscle? Give one example.
Ans. In excentric action the tension is less than the
load and the muscle lengthens while active
thus paying out gradually to control the speed
and force of a movement in the direction
opposite to that normally produced by the
muscle when it is shortening.
Example—lowering the arm to the side.
Q. 12. Give peculiarities of sesamoid bones.
Ans. 1. Develop in the tendon of a muscle
2. Ossify after birth
3. Devoid of periosteum
4. Absence of Haversian system.
Q. 13. Give classification of cartilaginous joints
mention one example of each.
Ans. 1. Primary cartilaginous jointthe bones are connected by hyaline cartilage and the joint is temporary.
Example—Spheno-occipital joint.
2. Secondary cartilaginous jointunited by a disc of fibrocartilage
Example—Symphysis pubis.
Q. 14. What are the swing and the shunt components of a muscle?
Ans. A swing component of a muscle produces
angular movement of the joint.
A shunt component of a muscle tends to draw
the bones along the shaft towards the joint
and compress the articular surface.
4 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 15. What is bursa? Give its function.
Ans. A bursa is a closed sac of synovial membrane
containing a capillary film of synovial fluid
lying between two mobiles but tightly opposed
surfaces.
A bursa reduces friction between two mobiles
but tightly opposing surfaces permit complete
freedom of movement within limited range.
Q. 16. Name any four types of normal bursae.
Ans. 1. Subcutaneous 2. Submuscular
3. Subfascial
4. Subtendinous
5. Communicating 6. Noncommunicating.
Q. 17. Name any four adventitious bursae.
Ans. 1. Student’s elbow
2. Porter’s shoulder
3. Housemaid’s knee
4. Clergyman’s knee
5. Weaver’s bottom
6. Bunion
Q. 18. Give examples of sesamoid bones.
Ans. 1. Patella
2. Pisiform
3. Two segamoid bones beneath the head of
Ist metatarsal in flexor hallucis brevis
4. Fabella in the lateral head of gastrocnemius
5. Rider’s bone in the Adductor longus.
Q. 19. What is active insufficiency of a muscle?
Give one example.
Ans. When a tendon of muscle crosses several joints
it cannot work with efficiency at all joints
simultaneously. This is called as active insufficiency of a muscle. As Flexor digitorum, profoundus crosses wrist metacorpophalangeal
interphalangeal joints, the fingers cannot be
fully flexed when the wrist is also flexed.
Q. 20. What is closed-packed and loose-packed
position of a joint? Give one example.
Ans. A. Closed-packed position—when the joint
surfaces become completely congruent, their
area of contact is maximal and they are
tightly compressed, no further movement
is possible, e.g. knee-full extension,
shoulder-abduction and lateral rotation.
General Anatomy 5
B. Loose-packed position—when the joint
surfaces are not congruent, i.e. least packed
position.
For example, knee-semiflexion, shouldersemiabduction.
Q. 21. Define posture. Name any two postural
muscles.
Ans. Posture is defined as the relation of the segments of the body, i.e. head, trunk and limbs
to each other.
Postural muscles-soleus, gastrocnemius
quadriceps femoris, gluteus maximus erector
spinac.
Q. 22. Specify the line of gravity and centre of
gravity in standing position.
Ans. The line of gravity passes anterior to the ankle
and knee joints, posterior to the hip joints,
behind the lumbar vertebrae, anterior to the
thoracic and lower cervical vertebrae and
through dens of the axis vertebra.
The centre of gravity in standing position lies
2-3 cm in front of the first sacral vertebra.
Q. 23. Name the synovial joints in which articular
surfaces are covered by white fibrocartilage.
Ans. 1. Sternoclavicular joint
2. Acromioclavicular joint
3. Temporomandibular joint.
Q. 24. Name intra-articular structures.
Ans. Tendons—
1. Long head of biceps brachii
2. Popliteus
Cartilages—Intra-articular disc of TM and
sternoclavicular joints, menisci, labrum
glenoidule labrum acetabulum.
Ligaments—Cruciate ligaments of knee joint
Fat—Haversion pad of fat.
Q. 25. Enumerate membranocartilaginous
bones.
Ans. 1. Clavicle
2. Occipital
3. Temporal
4. Mandible
5. Sphenoid.
6 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 26. Give functions of bones.
Ans. 1. They give shape and support to the body
2. They provide surfaces for the attachment
of muscles, tendons and ligaments
3. They form joints where movements take
place
4. Protection of viscera like lungs, heart brain
spinal cord
5. Bone marrow manufactures blood cells
6. Bones store body calcium and phosphorus.
Q. 27. Enumerate the factors which limit the
movements of a joint.
Ans. 1. Reflex contraction of antagonistic muscles.
2. Approximation of soft parts
3. Tension of the ligaments
4. Stimulation of mechanoreceptors in articular tissue.
Q. 28. Name different types of sutural joints.
Ans. 1. Serrate
2. Denticulate
3. Squamous
4. Limbous
5. Plane
6. Schindylesis
Q. 29. Name different types of epiphysis giving
one example of each.
Ans. 1. Pressure epiphysis—head of femur
2. Traction epiphysis—trochanter of femur
3. Compound epiphysis (Pressure + traction)—ischial tuberosity
4. Composite epiphysis—upper end of
humerus
5. Atavistic epiphysis—coracoid process of
scapula
6. Aberrant epiphysis—at the bases of
metacarpal bones.
Q. 30. Name uniaxial synovial joints giving one
example of each.
Ans. 1. Hinge joint—elbow joint
2. Pivot joint—superior radioulnar joint.
Q. 31. Name biaxial synovial joints giving one
example of each.
Ans. 1. Condylar joint—temporomandibular joint
2. Ellipsoid joint—wrist joint.
Q. 32. Name multiaxial synovial joints giving one
example of each.
Ans. 1. Saddle joint—first carpometacarpal joint
2. Ball and socket joint—shoulder joint.
General Anatomy 7
Q. 33. Give any four examples of skeletal muscles with parallel fasciculi.
Ans. 1. Quadrilateral—thyrohyoid
2. Straplike—sartorius
3. Straplike with tendinous intersections—
Rectus abdominis
4. Fusiform—biceps brachii.
Q. 34. Give any four examples of skeletal muscles with oblique fasciculi.
Ans. 1. Triangular—Temporalis.
2. Unipennate—flexor pollicis longus
3. Bipennate—rectus femoris
4. Multipennate—deltoid
5. Circumpennate—Tibialis anterior.
Q. 35. Give any four characteristics of synovial
joint.
Ans. 1. The articular ends are covered by articular
hyaline cartilage.
2. The joint is covered by joint capsule
3. The inner aspect of joint capsule and intracapsular non-articular parts of the bone are
covered by synovial membrane
4. The joint cavity contains synovial fluid
secreted by synovial membrane
5. The joint is strengthened by ligaments
6. Some degree of movement is always possible.
Q. 36. Name the arteries supplying a long bone.
Ans. 1. Nutrient artery
2. Epiphyseal artery
3. Metaphyseal arteries
4. Periosteal arteries.
Q. 37. Give morphological classification of
bones.
Ans. 1. Long bones
2. Short bones
3. Flat bones
4. Irregular bones
5. Pneumatic bones
6. Sesamoid bones
7. Accessory bones.
8 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 38. Give developmental classification of
bones mentioning one example each.
Ans. 1. Membranous bones—parietal
2. Cartilaginous bones—humerus
3. Membranocartilaginous bones-clavicle,
mandible.
Q. 39. Define a bone. Give its two functions.
Ans. A bone is highly vascular, constantly changing,
mineralized living connective tissue.
Functions:
1. Gives shape and support to the body
2. Provides surface for the attachment of
muscles and tendons.
Q. 40. Give medicolegal importance of bones.
Ans. 1. Estimation of age
2. Estimation of sex
3. Estimation of height
4. Cause of death.
Q. 41. Enumerate the areas of the body where
lymph capillaries are absent.
Ans. Epidermis, cornea, articular hyaline cartilage,
splenic pulp, bone marrow, liver lobule, brain,
spinal cord.
Q. 42. Name the areas of the body where sebaceous glands do not open into hair follicle but open directly on the skin surface.
Ans. Lips, nipple and areola of breast, tarsal glands
of the eyelids, glans penis, inner surface of prepuce, labia minora.
Q. 43. Name the areas of the body where sweat
glands are absent.
Ans. Nipple, inner surface of prepuce, labia minora,
glans penis, glans clitoris, margins of lips, nail
bed.
Q. 44. Name the areas of the body where apocrine sweat glands are present.
Ans. Axilla, prepuce, scrotum, monspubis, labia
minora, areola of the breast and perianal
regions.
Q. 45. Enumerate the areas of the body where
fat is absent in the superficial fascia.
Ans. Eyelids, external ear, penis, scrotum.
General Anatomy 9
Q. 46. Name the structures present in the
superficial fascia.
Ans. Cutaneous nerves and vessels, lymph nodes,
deeply situated sweat glands, mammary
glands, subcutaneous muscles in the face, neck
and scrotum.
Q. 47. Name any of the four end arteries in the
body.
Ans. 1. Central artery of retina
2. Arteries of spleen, kidney, lung
3. Central branches cerebral arteries
4. Vasa recti of small intestine.
Q. 48. Give examples of actual anterial anastomosis.
Ans. 1. Palmar arches
2. Plantar arches
3. Circle of willis
4. Labial branches of facial arteries
5. Intestinal arcades
6. Uterine and ovarian arteries.
Q. 49. Name the organs where portal systems of
vessels are found.
Ans. 1. Liver
2. Pituitary
3. Kidney
4. Suprarenal.
Q. 50. Name the areas where capillaries are
absent.
Ans. 1. Epidermis
2. Hair
3. Nails
4. Articular hyaline cartilage
5. Cornea.
Q. 51. Classify nerve cells according to polarity
giving example of each.
Ans. 1. Unipolar—mesencephalic nucleus of
trigeminal nerve.
2. Bipolar—olfactory cells of nasal mucosa
3. Psuedounipolar—Dorsal root ganglia
4. Multipolar—most of the neurones in the
body.
Q. 52. Enumerate the sites where smooth
muscles are present.
Ans. 1. Iris
2. All blood vessels
3. Pulmonary tree
10 SAQs in Anatomy
4. Walls of gastrointestinal tract from the
lower portion of the esophagus to the
internal anal sphincter
5. Walls and tubes of genitourinary tract
6. Piloerector muscles.
Q. 53. What is a dermatome? Give its clinical
importance.
Ans. The area of skin supplied by one spinal nerve
is called a dermatome. The area of sensory
loss of the skin following injuries of the spinal
cord or of the nerve roots can be determined by
examining the dermatomes for touch, pain, and
temperature.
Q. 54. Enumerate the curvatures of the vertebral column and mention the age at which
they develop.
Ans. A. Primary curvatures-concave anteriorly
thoracic and sacral appear before birth.
B. Secondary curvatures-convex anteriorly
1. Cervical-3 to 4 months when the child
starts holding its neck
2. Lumbar-6 to 9 months when the child
starts sitting (according to some authors
about 1 year i.e. when the child starts
standing).
Q. 55. Enumerate the abnormal curvatures of
the vertebral column.
Ans. A. Kyphosis-exaggerated thoracic curvature
B. Scoliosis-lateral bending
C. Kyphoscoliosis-Kyphosis + scoliosis
D. Lordosis-exaggerated lumbar curvature.
Q. 56. Define a joint. Enumerate three main
varieties of joints.
Ans. A joint is a junction between two or more bones
or cartilage with or without movement.
Structural classification
a. Fibrous joints
b. Cartilaginous joints
c. Synovial joints.
Q. 57. Mention the dermatomes at the following
levels.
1. Sternal angle 2. Xiphoid process
3. Umbilicus
4. Pubis.
Ans. 1. Sternal angle-T2
2. Xiphoid process-T7
General Anatomy 11
3. Umbilicus-T10
4. Pubis-L1
Q. 58. Draw and label a typical synovial joint.
Q. 59. Enumerate the functions of the intervertebral discs.
Ans. 1. They form secondary cartilaginous joints
2. They give shape to the vertebral column.
3. They act as shock absorbers
4. They take part in weight transmission
5. Because of their elasticity they allow slight
movements of vertebral bodies on each
other.
Q.60. Draw and label a diagram showing
distribution of a typical spinal nerve.
Ans. Typical spinal nerve.
12 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.61. Give functional classification of blood
vessels. Mention one example of each.
Ans. 1. Conducting vessel – Aorta (Elastic Artery)
2. Distributing vessel – Brachial (Muscular
Artery)
3. Resistance vessel – Arteriole
4. Exchange vessel – Capillary
5. Capacitance vessel – Vein
Q.62. What are venae comitants? What are their
functions?
Ans. Below the knee and the elbow joints most of
the deep veins are arranged in pairs along the
sides of the arteries, which are called as venae
comitants.
Functions
1. Venae comitants help in the return of blood
towards the heart by the transmitted
pulsations of the arteries.
2. They help in countercurrent heat exchange
between arteries and veins.
Q.63. Enumerate the valve less veins.
Ans. 1. Venae Cavae
2. Hepatic
3. Ovarian
4. Renal
5. Spinal
6. Cerebral
7. Umbilical
8. Pulmonary
9. Emissary
10. Veins having less than 2 mm diameter.
Q.64. What are cavernous tissues? Name any
three cavernous tissues.
Ans. Cavernous tissues are blood filled spaces lined
by endothelium and surrounded by trabeculae
containing smooth muscle fibres. Arterioles
and venules open directly into these spaces.
Cavernous tissues
1. Erectile tissue of penis
2. Erectile tissue of clitoris
3. Nasal mucous membrane
4. Cavernous sinus
General Anatomy 13
Q.65. Give differences between red and white
muscles fibres.
Ans.
Red Muscles
White Muscles
1. They are red in
1. They are paler
colour due to more
in colour due to
myoglobin and
less myoglobin
rich capillary
and poor capillary
plexus around
plexus around
each muscles
each muscle
fiber.
fiber.
2. They show slow 2. They show fast
tonic contraction.
phasic contraction.
3. They are rich in 3. They are poor in
mitochondria and
mitochondria but
oxidative enzymes. rich in glycolytic
enzymes.
4. They have less
4. They have more
cross striations
cross striations and
more sarcoplasm.
less sarcoplasm.
5. As they show
5. As they show
well developed
anaerobic
aerobic metabometabolism,
lism, they are
they are quite
highly resistant
easily fatigued.
to fatigue.
Q.66. Enumerate tortuous arteries in the body
Ans. 1. Facial
2. Occipital
3. Splenic
4. Uterine
5. Nutrient
Q.67. Enumerate the surfaces of the body
without hair.
Ans. 1. Palms
2. Soles
3. Glans penis
4. Labia minora
5. Umbilicus
6. Inner surface of labia majora
Q.68. Name the arteries formed by fusion of
other arteries.
Ans. 1. Basilar artery – vertebral arteries
2. Anterior spinal artery – anterior spinal
branches of vertebral arteries.
3. Azygous arteries of vagina – branches of
uterine and vaginal arteries.
.
14 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.69. Enumerate hyaline cartilages.
Ans. 1. Articular
2. Thyroid
3. Cricoid
4. Tracheal rings
5. Costal
6. Nasal
7. Bronchial
8. Lower part of arytenoid
Q.70. Enumerate elastic cartilages.
Ans. 1. Cartilage of epiglottis
2. Cartilage of pinna
3. Corniculate
4. Cuneiform
5. Apex of arytenoid
6. Cartilage of auditory tube
7. Cartilage of external acoustic meatus.
Q.71. Enumerate fibrocartilages.
Ans. 1. Intervertebral disc
2. Inter-pubic disc
3. Articular discs of temporomandibular,
sternoclavicular, and inferior radioulnar
joints
4. Labrum glenoidale and acetabulare
5. Mensci of knee joint
Q.72. A skeletal muscle is sometimes referred
to as voluntary muscle. However, it is an
unsatisfactory term. Explain.
Ans. The skeletal muscle is sometimes referred to
as voluntary muscle because the movements
in which it participates are often initiated
under conscious control. However, this is an
unsatisfactory term since it is involved in
many movements – breathing, blinking,
swallowing and the actions of muscles of the
perineum and the middle ear are examples—
that are usually or exclusively driven at an
unconscious level.
Q.73. What are synergists? Give one example.
Ans. When the prime movers cross more than one
joint, the undesired actions at the proximal
joints are prevented by certain muscles called
as synergists. During making a tight fist the
flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus
General Anatomy 15
flex the fingers. The wrist joint is fixed in slight
extension by extensors of wrist. These are
called as synergists.
Q.74. Define terms (a) Prime mover (b) Antagonist. Give one example of each.
Ans. a. Prime mover—When a muscle is a chief
muscle or a member of a chief group of
muscles in producing a particular movement is called a prime mover. Brachials is
a prime mover in the movement of flexion
of the elbow joint.
b. Antagonist—The muscle which opposes the
action of the prime mover is called the
antagonist. The treeps brachii opposes the
action of brachialis in flexing the elbow
joint. Antagonist actually help the prime
mover by active controlled relaxation due
to recprocal innervation.
Q.75. Mention the factors maintaining stability
of joints.
Ans. 1. Bony configuration
2. Ligaments
3. Tone of the muscles
4. Atmospheric pressure
Q.76. Mention functions of articular discs.
Ans. 1. Divide the joint cavity
2. Lubrication
3. Prevent wear and tear of the articular
cartilage
4. The upper compartment shows gliding
movement and lower compartment shows
angular movements.
Q.77. Why the shaft of a long bone is hollow?
Ans. The hollow shaft of the long bone confers high
strength in bending, minimizes bone mass and
increases the speed of the movement.
Q.78. Name the skeletal muscles with no bony
attachments.
Ans. Frontalis, bulbospongiosus, risorius, palmaris
brevis, intrinsic muscles of the tongue,
subcutaneous part of external anal sphincter.
16 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.79. Name unpaired muscles in the body.
Ans. Diaphragm, trachealis, posterior cricoarytenoid, external urethral sphincter, internal anal sphincter.
Q.80. Name elastic ligaments in the body.
Ans. Ligamentum nuchae, ligamentum flavam,
spring ligament.
Q.81. Name commonly ruptured tendons in the
body.
Ans. Tendon of quadriceps femoris, tendocalcaneus,
biceps brachii, supraspinatus, external
pollicius longus.
Q.82. Name the prevertebral muscles.
Ans. Longus capitis, longus colli, scalenus anterior,
medius and posterior, psoas major, quadratus
lumborum, piriformis.
2
SUPERIOR EXTREMITY
Q. 1. Name the nerves arising from the roots
and trunks of brachial plexus.
Ans. A. Branches of roots
1. Long thoracic (Nerve to serratus anterior)
2. Dorsal scapular
B. Branches of upper trunk
1. Suprascapular nerve C5, C6
2. Nerve to subclavius C5, C6
Q. 2. Name the branches of medial cord of
brachial plexus.
Ans. 1. Medial pectoral C8, T1
2. Medial root of median C8, T1
3. Ulnar C7, C8, T1
4. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm C8, T1
5. Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm C8,T1.
Q. 3. Name the branches of lateral cord of
brachial plexus.
Ans. 1. Lateral pectoral C5, C6, C7
2. Musculocutaneous C5, C6, C7
3. Lateral root of median nerve C5,C6, C7.
Q. 4. Name the branches of posterior cord of
brachial plexus.
Ans. 1. Upper subscapular C5, C6
2. Lower subscapular C5, C6
3. Nerve to Latissimus dorsi C6, C7, C8
4. Axillary C5, C6
5. Radial C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
Q. 5. Name the branches of axillary artery.
Ans. I part—Superior thoracic
II part—
1. Acromio-thoracic artery
2. Lateral-thoracic artery.
III part—
1. Subscapular
2. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
3. Posterior circumflex humeral artery.
18 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 6. Name the branches of brachial artery.
Ans. 1. Profunda brachii
2. Superior ulnar collateral
3. Inferior ulnar collateral
4. Nutrient artery to humerus
5. Muscular branches
6. Radial
7. Ulnar.
Q. 7. Name the arteries taking part in the anastomosis around the scapula.
Ans. A. Around body of scapula
1. Suprascapular artery (branch of thyrocervical trunk)
2. Deep branch of transverse cervical artery
3. Circumflex scapular (branch of subscapular).
B. Anastomoses over the acromial process
1. Acromial branch of thoraco-acromial
artery.
2. Acromial branch of suprascapular
artery
3. Acromial branch of posterior circumflex
humeral artery.
Q. 8. Name the arteries taking part in the
anastomosis around elbow joint.
Ans. A. In front of lateral epicondyle
1. Anterior descending
2. Radial recurrent.
B. Behind lateral epicondyle
1. Posterior descending
2. Interosseous recurrent.
C. In front of medial epicondyle.
1. Inferior ulnar collateral
2. Anterior ulnar recurrent.
D. Behind medial epicondyle
1. Superior ulnar collateral
2. Posterior ulnar recurrent.
E. Just above olecrenon fossa.
A branch from posterior descending anastomosis with branch from inferior ulnar collateral.
Q. 9. Give the boundaries and contents of
quadrangular space.
Ans. Boundaries:
Superior:
1. Subscapularis in front
2. Capsule of shoulder joint
Superior Extremity 19
3. Teres minor behind.
Medial:—Long head of triceps
Lateral:—Surgical neck of humerus
Inferior:—Teres major.
Contents:
1. Axillary nerve
2. Posterior circumflex humeral artery.
Q. 10. Give boundaries and structures passing
through upper triangular space.
Ans. Boundaries
Medial—Teres minor
Lateral—Long head of triceps
Inferior—Teres major
Contents: Circumflex scapular artery.
Q. 11. Give boundaries and structures passing
through lower triangular space.
Ans. Boundaries
Superior—Teres major
Medial—Long head of triceps
Lateral—Medial border of humerus
Contents:
1. Radial nerve
2. Profunda brachii vessels.
Q. 12. Give boundaries of cubital fossa.
Ans. a. Laterally—medial border of brachioradialis
b. Medially—lateral border of pronator teres
c. Base—is directed upwards represented by
an imaginary line joining epicondyles of the
humerus.
d. Apex—directed downwards, formed by
meeting point of lateral and medial
boundaries
Floor:
i. Brachialis
ii. Supinator muscles.
Q. 13. Give contents of cubital fossa.
Ans. 1. Median nerve
2. Termination of brachial artery and beginning of radial and ulnar arteries
3. Tendon of biceps with bicipital aponeurosis
4. Radial nerve between the brachioradialis
and extensor carpi radialis longus.
20 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 14. Name the branches of axillary nerve.
Ans. A. Muscular
1. Deltoid
2. Teres minor.
B. Cutaneous—Upper lateral cutaneous nerve
of arm
C. Articular—shoulder joint
D. Vascular—To posterior circumflex humeral
artery.
Q. 15. Name the branches of musculocutaneous
nerve.
Ans. A. Muscular
i. Bisceps brachii
ii. Brachialis
iii. Coracobrachialis
B. Cutaneous—Lateral cutaneous nerve of
forearm.
Q. 16. Name the branches of median nerve in
the forearm and palm.
Ans. A. Forearm—
1. Muscular
i. Pronator teres
ii. Flexor carpi radialis
iii. Palmaris longus
iv. Flexor digitorum superficialis
2. Anterior Interosseous
i. Flexor pollicis longus
ii. Pronator quadratus
iii. Lateral half of flexor digitorum profundus
It supplies distal radioulnar and
wrist joint.
3. Palmar cutaneous branch
4. Articular branch
i. Elbow joint
ii. Superior radioulnar joint.
5. Vascular: radial and ulnar artery.
6. Communicating branch to ulnar nerve.
B. Palm: Muscular: Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis
Apponens pollicis
Ist and 2nd lumbrical
Cutaneous: lateral 3½ digits.
Q. 17. Name the branches of ulnar nerve in the
forearm and palm.
Ans. A. Forearm: Muscular
Superior Extremity 21
i. Flexor carpi ulnaris
ii. Medial half of flexor digitorum profundus.
Cutaneous: Palmar cutaneous branch
Dorsal cutaneous branch
Articular: Elbow joint.
B. Palm: Muscular:
i. Palmaris brevis
ii. Flexor digiti minimi
iii. Abductor digiti minimi
iv. Apponens digiti minimi
v. Medial two lumbricals (3rd and 4th
lumbricals)
vi. Palmar and dorsal interossei
vii. Adductor pollicis.
Cutaneous: Medial 1½ fingers
Articular: Wrist joint.
Q. 18. Name the branches of radial nerve.
Ans. Muscular
i. Before entering the spiral groove, long and
medial heads of triceps
ii. In the spiral groove, lateral, medial head of
triceps and anconeous
iii. Below radial groove in front of arm Brachialis, Brachioradialis and Extensor carpi
radialis longus.
Cutaneous:
i. Above radial groove, posterior cutaneous
nerve of arm.
ii. In the radial groove, lower lateral cutaneous
nerve of arm and posterior cutaneous nerve
of forearm.
Articular branch: Elbow joint.
Q. 19. Name the branches of posterior interosseous nerve.
Ans. Muscular
i. Supinator
ii. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
iii. Extensor digitorum
iv. Extensor digiti minimi
v. Extensor carpi ulnaris
vi. Abductor pollicis longus
vii. Extensor pollicis brevis
viii. Extensor pollicis longus and indices.
Articular: Wrist and distal radioulnar joint.
22 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 20. Name different types of grips of hand.
Ans. 1. Power grip
2. Precision grip
3. Hook grip
4. Power + precision grip
5. Complex manipulation.
Q. 21. Name the muscles inserted in the dorsal
digital expansion.
Ans. 1. Extensor digitorum
2. Palmar Interossei
3. Dorsal Interossei
4. Lumbricals
Q. 22. Name the rotator cuff muscles.
Ans. 1. Subscapularis 2. Supraspinatus
3. Infraspinatus 4. Teres minor
Q. 23. Name the structures passing through
bicipital groove.
Ans. 1. Tendon of long head of biceps brachii
2. Synovial sheath of above tendon
3. Ascending branch of anterior circumflex
humeral artery.
Q. 24. Give functions of interosseous membrane.
Ans. 1. Binds radius and ulna (syndesmosis joint)
2. Provides attachment to muscles
3. Separates flexor and extensor compartments
4. Takes part in weight transmission from
radius to ulna.
Q. 25. What is carpal tunnel? Name the structures passing through it.
Ans. It is an osseofibrous tunnel formed by flexor
retinaculum and carpal bones. Structures
passing through carpal tunnel are:
1. Flexor digitorum superficialis
2. Flexor digitorum profundus
3. Tendon of flexor pollicis longus
4. Median nerve
5. Radial and ulnar bursae.
Q. 26. Name the structure passing in front of the
flexor retinaculum.
Ans. 1. Tendon of palmaris longus.
2. Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve.
3. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve
4. Ulnar nerve
5. Ulnar artery.
Superior Extremity 23
Q. 27. Enumerate the structures piercing clavipectoral fascia.
Ans. 1. Lateral pectoral nerve.
2. Thoracoacromial vessels (artery and vein)
3. Cephalic vein
4. Lymphatics (from breast and pectoral
region to apical axillary lymph nodes).
Q. 28. Name the muscles producing pronation.
Ans. 1. Pronator teres
2. Pronator quadratus
3. Flexor carpi radialis ⎫⎬
assisted by
⎭
4. Palmaris longus.
Q. 29. Define Pronation and Supination.
Ans. Pronation: The head of the radius rotates
within annular ligament, and the lower end of
radius rotates forwards, medially across the
lower end of ulna and the palm faces posteriorly.
Supination: It is reverse of pronation. The head
of the radius rotates within the annular
ligament and the lower end of radius rotates
laterally and backwards regaining its original
position lateral to ulna and the palm faces
anteriorly.
Q. 30. Enumerate the movements of pectoral or
shoulder girdle.
Ans. 1. Elevation
2. Depression
3. Protraction
4. Retraction
5. Forward rotation 6. Backward rotation.
Q. 31. Name the joints of the shoulder girdle.
What type of joints are they?
Ans. Shoulder girdle consists of
1. Sternoclavicular joint—saddle joint
2. Acromioclavicular joint—plane synovial
joint.
Q. 32. Enumerate movements at the shoulder
joint.
Ans. 1. Flexion
2. Extension
3. Adduction
4. Abduction
5. Medial rotation 6. Lateral rotation
7. Circumduction.
24 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 33. Analyse briefly the abduction at the
shoulder.
Ans. Abduction takes place partly at the shoulder
joint and partly at the shoulder girdle. The
humerus and the scapula move in the ratio of
2:1. Throughout abduction, for every 15°
elevation, 10° occurs at the shoulder joint and
5° are due to movements scapula.
Q. 34. Name the muscles involved in the abduction of shoulder.
Ans. Ist 15° supraspinatus
15 to 90° Acromial fibres of deltoid
Above 90° Upper and lower fibres of Trapezius
with lower 5 digitations of serratus anterior.
Q. 35. Enumerate movements produced at the
metacarpophalangeal joint and muscles
causing them.
Ans. 1. Flexion—Interossei and Lumbricals
2. Extension—Extensors of fingers
3. Adduction—Palmar interossei
4. Abduction—Dorsal interossei.
Q. 36. Give nerve supply and actions of lumbricals of hand.
Ans. The 1st and 2nd lumbricals are supplied by
the median nerve
The 3rd and 4th lumbricals are supplied by
the ulnar nerve
Actions—Lumbricals flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint of the digit into which they are
inserted.
Q. 37. Specify the joints at which biceps brachii
acts. Name the movements produced at
these joints.
Ans. Biceps brachii acts at shoulder joint and elbow
joint
Shoulder joint—Flexion
Elbow joint—Flexion
Powerful supination in mid flexed position.
Q. 38. Enumerate the palmar spaces.
Ans. 1. Pulp spaces of the fingers
2. The digital synovial sheaths
3. The ulnar bursa
Superior Extremity 25
4. The radial bursa
5. The midpalmar space
6. The thenar space
Q. 39. Give boundaries of triangle of auscultation. Give its clinical importance.
Ans. Boundaries of triangle of auscultation.
Below—upper border of Latissimus dorsi
Medially—lateral border of trapezius
Laterally—medial border of scapula
Floor—6th intercostal space and rhomboideus
major.
By the use of stethoscope breath sounds can
be heard better in the triangle of auscultation
as compared to the remaining part of the back
which is covered by thick musculature.
Q. 40. Specify the nerve supply and actions of
lumbricals. Which position the hand will
adopt due to their paralysis.
Ans. Medial two lumbricals—ulnar nerve
Lateral two lumbricals—median nerve
Actions: lumbricals produce flexion at the
metacarpopharyngeal joints and extension at
the interphalangeal joints.
Paralysis of lumbricals produces claw hand in
which there is hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the
interphalangeal joints.
Q. 41. Give boundaries of the axilla.
Ans. Apex—Anteriorly–clavicle
Posteriorly–superior border of scapula
Medially–outer border of 1st rib
Base—Skin and fascia
Anterior wall
i. Pectoralis major
ii. Clavipectoral fasica enclosing pectoralis
minor and subclavius
Posterior wall—subcapularis above teres
major and Latissimus dorsi below
Lateral wall—Coracobrachialis and short head
of biceps brachii. Upper part of shaft of
humerus.
Q. 42. Enumerate contents of the axilla.
Ans. Contents of the axilla:
1. Axillary artery and its branches
2. Axillary vein and its tributaries
26 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Axillary lymph nodes and associated
lymphatics
4. Infraclavicular part of brachial plexus
5. The long thoracic and intercostobrachial
nerves
6. Axillary fat and areolar tissue.
Q. 43. What is anatomical snuff box? Give
boundaries of anatomical snuff box.
Ans. It is a skin depression that lies distal to the
styloid process of the radius.
Boundaries—medially-tendon of extensor
pollicis longus.
Laterally–tendons of abductor pollicis longus
and extensor pollicis brevis
Q. 44. Give clinical findings in injury to median
nerve at the elbow.
Ans. Clinical findings in injuries to median nerve
at the elbow:
The forearm is kept in the supine position
wrist flexion is weak and is accompanied by
adduction. No flexion is possible at the interphalangeal joints of the index and middle
fingers. The muscles of the thenar eminence
are paralyzed and wasted, so that the
eminence is flattened. The thumb is laterally
rotated and adducted. The hand looks flattened and apelike. Sensory—There is loss of
skin sensation of the lateral half of the palm
of the hand and palmar aspect of the lateral
three and half fingers and the skin is warmer
and drier than normal.
Q. 45. What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Ans. Carpal tunnel syndrome is produced by compression of median nerve in the carpal tunnel.
It consists of burning pain or ‘pins and needles’
along the distribution of the median nerve to
the lateral three and half fingers and weakness of thenar muscles.
Q. 46. Give the clinical findings in injury to the
radial nerve in axilla.
Ans. In injury to the radial in axilla, the patient is
unable to extend the elbow joint, the wrist
joint, and the fingers. Wrist drop or flexion of
the wrist occurs.
Superior Extremity 27
There is a small loss of skin sensations down
the posterior surface of the lower part of the
arm and down a strip on the back of the
forearm. There is also a variable area of sensory loss on the lateral part of the dorsum of
the hand and dorsal surface of the roots of the
lateral three and half fingers.
Q.47. What is Erb’s paralysis? Give clinical
findings of Erb’s paralysis.
Ans. Injury to the upper trunk (mainly C5 partly
C6) of brachial plexus causes Erb’s paralysis.
The deformity is known as policeman’s tip
hand or porter’s tip hand. The upper limb
hangs limply by the side, medially rotated and
adducted forearm extended and pronated.
There is loss of sensation along the lateral
side of the arm.
Q. 48. What is Klumpke’s paralysis? Give clinical
findings of Klumpke’s paralysis.
Ans. Injury to the lower trunk (mainly T1 partly C8)
of brachial plexus causes Klumpke’s paralysis.
The deformity is known as clawhand. There is
hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal
joints and flexion of the interphalangeal joints.
There is cutaneous anesthesia and analgesia
in a narrow zone along the ulnar border of the
forearm and hand.
Q. 49. What is Dupuytren’s contracture? Which
structures are involved in Dupuytren’s
contracture and what is the position
taken up by them?
Ans. Dupuytren’s contracture is localised thickening and contracture of Palmar aponeurosis.
It starts near root of the ring finger, flexing it
at metacarpophalangeal joint and later
involving little finger in the same manner. In
long-standing cases there is flexion at the
proximal interphalangeal joints.
Q. 50. What is Volkmann’s ischemic contracture? Involvement of which structure
causes this contracture? Which muscles
are mainly affected?
Ans. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture is a contracture of muscles of the foreman following
28 SAQs in Anatomy
fractures of the lower end of the humerus or
fractures of the radius and ulna.
Localised segment of brachial artery goes into
spasm reducing the arterial flow to the flexor
and extensor muscles so they undergo ischaemic necrosis.
Flexor muscles are longer than the extensor
muscles and they are, therefore, the ones
mainly affected.
Q. 51. Give clinical findings in injury to the ulnar
nerve at elbow.
Ans. The hand assumes characteristic claw deformity (man en griff).
Motor—Flexion at the wrist joint will result
in abduction. Medial border of the front of
forearm will show flattening.
The patient is unable to adduct or abduct
fingers. It is impossible to adduct the thumb.
The metacorpophalangeal joint becomes
hyper extended. Interphalangeal joints of the
4th and 5th fingers are flexed and wasting of
the hypothenar eminence.
Sensory loss of skin sensations over anterior
and posterior surfaces of the medial third of
the hand and medial one and half fingers.
Vasomotor—The skin areas involved in sensory loss are warmer and drier than normal.
Q. 52. Give clinical findings in injury to ulnar
nerve at the wrist. What is ulnar paradox?
Ans. Clinical findings in injury to the ulnar nerve
at the wrist—
Flattening of the hypothenar eminence. Metacarpophalangeal joints are hyperextend. Interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th fingers
are markedly flexed.
Usually higher the lesion more obvious is the
deformity, but in injury to ulnar nerve at the
wrist joint flexor digitorum profundus is not
involved which actively produces marked
flexion at the interphalangeal joints of the 4th
and 5th fingers as compared to that produced
due to injury to ulnar nerve at the elbow. This
is called as ulnar paradox.
Superior Extremity 29
Q. 53. Name any four structural changes at the
middle of the arm.
Ans. 1. Cross-sectional changes of the humeral
shaft from upper cylindrical to lower triangular
2. Median nerve crosses the front of brachial
artery from lateral to medial
3. Entry of radial nerve and profunda brachii
into spiral groove
4. Basilic vein pierces deep fascia.
Q. 54. Name the bones to which flexor retinaculum of superior extremity is attached.
Ans. 1. Scaphoid.
2. Pisiform
3. Hook of hamate 4. Trapezium.
Q. 55. Give functions of palmar aponeurosis.
Ans. 1. Provides firm attachment to the overlying
skin to improve grips
2. Protects palmar vessels and nerves and
prevents flexor tendons from bowstringing
3. Provides origin to the palmaris brevis
4. Palmar septa attached to aponeurosis subdivide palm into potential spaces.
Q. 56. The movements of thumb, test radial,
median and ulnar nerves. Explain.
Ans. The flexion of the thumb is brought about by
flexor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis longus
which are supplied by median nerve.
The extension of the thumb is brought about
by extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis
brevis and abductor pollicis longus which are
supplied by radial nerve.
The adduction of thumb is brought about by
adductor pollicis which is supplied by ulnar
nerve.
Q. 57. List the groups of axillary lymph nodes.
What does the anterior group drain?
Ans. Axillary lymph nodes
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Lateral
4. Central
5. Apical
The anterior group of axillary lymph nodes
drain about 75% of lymphatics from the mammary gland.
30 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 58. Enumerate the factors which maintain
the stability of the shoulder joint.
Ans. 1. Coracoacromial arch
2. Rotator cuff muscles
3. Glenoid labrum
4. Long head of biceps brachii
5. Long head of triceps brachii.
Q. 59. Sternoclavicular joint is synovial, saddle,
compound, and complex joint. Explain.
Ans. Sternoclavicular joint:
A. Synovial—The joint cavity is lined by synovial membrane
B. Saddle—The medial end of clavicle has
concavo-convex shape and the clavicular
notch of manubrium sterni also has
concavo-convex shape.
C. Compound—Three elements taking part in
joint, i.e. medial end of clavicle clavicular
notch of manubrium sterni and Ist costal
cartilage
D. Complex—Intra-articular disc divides
joint cavity.
Q.60. Enumerate the muscles of thenar
eminence and specify their nerve supply.
Ans. The abductor pollicis brevis, the flexor pollicis
brevis and the oppones pollicis form the thenar
eminence. All these muscles are supplied by
the median nerve.
Q.61. Name the movements of the wrist joint
and the muscles producing them.
Ans. 1. Flexion – Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi
ulnaris, palmaris longus
2. Extension – Extensor carpi radialis longus,
extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor
carpi ulnaris
3. Abduction – Flexor carpi radialis, extensor
carpi radialis longus and brevis, abductor
pollicis, longus
4. Adduction – Flexor carpi ulnaris, extensor
carpi ulnaris.
Q.62. Give venous drainage of the breast.
Mention its applied importance.
Ans. Veins form a plexus beneath the areola. From
this plexus the veins radiate to the periphery
Superior Extremity 31
and drain into the axillary, internal thoracic
and intercostals veins.
The veins draining the breast communicate
with the vertebral venous plexus. Through
these communications breast cancer can
spread to the vertebrae and to the brain.
Q.63. Specify the boundaries of the mid palmar
space.
Ans. The mid palmar space is bounded by
1. Anteriorly – palmar aponeurosis
2. Posteriorly – 3rd, 4th, 5th metacarpals and
the fascia covering the interossei of the 3rd
and 4th space and the medial part of the
transverse head of the adductor pollicis
3. Medially – medial palmar septum
4. Laterally – intermediate palmar septum
Q.64. Specify the contents of the mid palmar
space.
Ans. The mid palmar space contains
1. The flexor tendons of 3rd, 4th and 5th
fingers.
2. 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbrical muscles
3. Superficial palmar arch
4. The digital nerves and vessels of the medial
three and half fingers.
Q.65. Enumerate the arteries supplying the
breast.
Ans. 1. Lateral thoracic, superior thoracic and
acromiothoracic branches of the axillary
artery.
2. Internal thoracic – perforating branches to
the 2nd, 3rd and 4th intercostal spaces.
3. Lateral branches of 2nd, 3rd and 4th
intercostal arteries.
Q.66. What is superficial palmar arch? Which
arteries take part in its formation?
Ans. Superficial palmar arch is important
anastomoses between the ulnar and radial
arteries.
Superficial palmar arch is formed as the direct
continuation of the ulnar artery beyond the
flexor retinaculum (i.e. by the superficial
palmar branch). On the lateral side the arch
is completed by one of the following branches
of the radial artery –
32 SAQs in Anatomy
1. Superficial palmar branch
2. The radialis indicis
3. The princeps pollicis
Q.67. Specify boundaries of the thenar space.
Ans. The thenar space is bounded by
1. Anteriorly – palmar aponeurosis
2. Posteriorly – fascia covering the transverse
head of the adductor pollicis and first dorsal
interosseous muscle.
3. Medially – intermediate palmar septum
4. Laterally – lateral palmar septum.
Q.68. What is rotator cuff? What is its function?
Ans. Rotator cuff is musculotendinous cuff formed
by the flattened tendons of the subscapularis,
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor
which blend with the capsule of the shoulder
joint.
The cuff gives strength to the capsule of the
shoulder joint all around except inferiorly.
Q.69. Specify the contents of the thenar space.
Ans. The thenar space contains
1. The tendon of the flexor pollicis longus with
its synovial sheath
2. The flexor tendon of the index finger
3. The first lumbrical muscle
4. The palmar digital vessels and nerves of
the lateral side of the index finger and of
the thumb.
Q.70. Enumerate branches of the radial artery.
Ans. Branches of radial artery.
1. Muscular
2. Radial recurrent branch
3. Palmar carpal branch
4. Superficial palmar branch
5. First dorsal metacarpal artery
6. Radialis indicis
7. Princeps pollicis
Q.71. Enumerate branches of the ulnar artery.
Ans. Branches of the ulnar artery
1. Muscular
2. Anterior and posterior ulnar recurrent
branches
3. Palmar and dorsal carpal branches
Superior Extremity 33
4. Common interosseous artery
5. Superficial palmar branch (which is the
main continuation of the artery)
6. Deep palmar branch
Q.72. Give lymphatic drainage of the breast.
Ans. A. Lymphatics draining the parenchyma of the
breast and skin of areola and nipple.
75% Drain into axillary nodes. Majority to
anterior axillary group and few to posterior
group → central → apical → supraclavicular nodes.
20% Parasternal nodes (internal mammary)
5% Posterior Intercostal Nodes
From deep surface of the breast through
pectoralis major and clavipectoral fascia
to the apical nodes.
B. From overlying skin excluding areola and
nipple.
From outer part – axillary nodes
From upper part – supraclavicular nodes
From inner part – parasternal (bilateral)
From lower part – sub peritoneal, subdiaphragmatic
Q.73. What is Mallet finger?
Ans. Mallet finger (cricket or baseball finger) results
from the distal interphalangeal joints
suddenly being forced into extreme
(hyperflexion). This avulses the attachment
of the terminal tendon of the extensor
digitorum from the base of the distal phalanx.
As a result the patient is unable to extend the
distal interphalangeal joint.
Q.74. What is tennis elbow?
Ans. Tennis elbow or elbow tendinitis is painful
musculoskeletal condition that may follow
repetitive forceful pronation and supination
of the forearm. It is characterized by pain and
point tenderness at or just distal to the lateral
epicondyle of the humerus and appears to be
resulting from premature degeneration of the
common extensor attachment of the
superficial extensor muscles of the forearm.
The pain is aggravated by activities that put
tension on the common extensor tendon. It is
commonly seen in tennis and golf players and
those using screwdrivers and shoveling snow.
34 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.75. What is painful arc syndrome? How it is
caused?
Ans. Painful arc syndrome or subacromial bursitis
or supraspinatus tendinitis is characterised
by pain between 60 and 120 degrees of
abduction of the shoulder.
During abduction of the shoulder joint the
supraspinatus tendon is exposed to friction
against the acromion. Normally the amount
of friction is reduced to minimum by subacromial bursa.
Degenerative changes in the bursa followed
by degenerative changes in the supraspinatus
tendon, which may extend into other tendons
of the rotator cuff cause this syndrome.
Q.76. Give clinical findings in injury to the
axillary nerve. How it is damaged?
Ans. Damage to the axillary nerve results in
paralysis of the deltoid and teres minor
muscles. There is loss of power of abduction of
the shoulder joint and rounded contour of the
shoulder is lost. There is sensory loss over the
lower half of the deltoid.
The axillary nerve may be damaged by
dislocation of the shoulder or by the fracture
of the surgical neck of the humerus.
Q.77. Give clinical findings that in injury to the
musculocutaneous nerve.
Ans. Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve leads to
paralysis of the biceps brachi and coracobrachialis and the brachialis muscle is
weakened (as it is also supplied by radial
nerve). There is sensory loss along the lateral
side of the forearm.
Q.78. Give any four characteristics of the
clavicle.
Ans. 1. It is the first bone to ossify in the body
2. It ossifies from two primary and one
secondary center
3. It is the only long bone placed horizontally
in the body
4. Though it is a long bone it ossifies in
membrane (According to some authorities–
partly membrane, partly cartilage).
5. The shaft is curved
Superior Extremity 35
6. It is subcutaneous
7. It is pierced by nerves (supraclavicular).
8. Its articular ends are covered by fibrocartilage
9. It has no medullary cavity
10. It is the only link between upper limb and
axial skeleton
11. It is commonly fractured at the junction of
medial 2/3 and lateraly 1/3
12. It acts like a strut.
Q.79. Give differences between metacarpals
and metatarsals.
Ans. Metacarpals
1. The head is rounded, larger than the base
and is directed below
2. The shaft is of uniform thickness
3. The dorsal surface of the shaft has an
elongated flat triangular area
4. The base is irregular
Metatarsals
1. The head is flattened from side to side,
smaller than the base and is directed in
front
2. The shaft trapers distally
3. The dorsal surface of the shaft uniformly
convex
4. The base is set obliquerly and projects
backwards and laterally
Q.80. Name the muscles having double nerve
supply and mention the nerves supplying
them.
Ans. 1. Pectoralis major—Medial and lateral pectoral nerves
2. Brachialis—Musculocutaneous and radial
nerves
3. Flexor digitorium profundus—Median and
ulnar nerves.
Q. 81. Which is the only bone having three types
of epiphyses?
Ans. Scapula is the only bone having three types of
epiphyses
a. Glenoid- Pressure
b. Acromion- Traction
c. Coracoid process- Atavistic
36 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.82. Why clavicle is fractured commonly at the
junction of medial two-third and lateral
one-third?
Ans. Junction of medial two-third and lateral one
third of clavicle is a weak point due to
a. Medial two-third is cylindrical and lateral
one-third is flattened making this point
weak.
b. Two curves of the clavicle meet at this point
c. This junction is devoid of muscular
attachment.
d. Two primay centers appear quite close to
each other at this junction.
3
INFERIOR EXTREMITY
Q. 1. Enumerate the branches of the femoral
nerve.
Ans. Branches of femoral nerve (L2, 3, 4)
A. Anterior division
a. Muscular–sartorius
b. Cutaneous–medial and intermediate
Cutaneous nerve of thigh
B. Posterior division
a. Muscular-rectus femoris vastus
medialis, lateralis and intermedius,
anticularis genu
b. Cutaneous-saphenous
c. Articular- knee joint and hip joint.
Q. 2. Enumerate branches of the sciatic nerve.
Ans. A. Articular—Hip joint
B. Muscular—
1. Tibial part of sciatic—semitendinosus,
semimembranous, long head of biceps
femoris, ischial head of adductor magnus
2. Common, peroneal part—short head of
biceps femoris.
C. Terminal-tibial and common peroneal.
Q. 3. Enumerate branches of the tibial nerve.
Ans. A. Muscular—gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, popliteus, tibilalis posterior, flexordigitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus.
B. Genicular—Superior medial genicular
–Inferior medial genicular
–Middle genicular
C. Cutaneous—sural, medial calcanean
D. Articular—ankle joint
E. Terminal—Medial and lateral plantar
Q. 4. Enumerate branches of deep peroneal
nerve.
Ans. A. Muscular—Tibialis anterior, extensor
hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus,
extensor digitorum brevis, peroneus tertius.
38 SAQs in Anatomy
B. Cutaneous branch supplies adjacent sides
of 1st and 2nd toes.
C. Articular-ankle joint, tarsal joint, and tarsometatarsal and metatarsophalangeal
joints of the big toe.
Q. 5. Enumerate tributaries of great saphanous
vein.
Ans. 1. Medial marginal vein
2. Posterior arch vein
3. Anterior leg vein
4. Few veins from calf which communicate
with the small saphenous vein.
5. Anterolateral vein
6. Posteromedial vein
7. Superficial epigastric
8. Superficial circumflex iliac
9. Superficial external pudendal
10. Deep external pudendal.
Q. 6 Give boundaries of Popliteal fossa.
Ans. Superolaterally—tendon of biceps femoris
Superomedially—semitendinosus and semimembranosus.
Inferolaterally—Lateral head of gastrocenmius and plantaris
Inferomedially—medial head of gastrocnemius
Roof—popliteal fascia
Floor—popliteal surface of femur, capsule of
knee joint, oblique popliteal ligament, posterior part of upper end of tibia, fascia covering
popliteus muscle.
Q. 7. Enumerate contents of popliteal fossa.
Ans. 1. Popliteal artery and its branches
2. Popliteal vein and its tributaries
3. Tibial nerve
4. Common peroneal nerve
5. Termination of small saphenous vein
6. Posterior cutaneous nerves of thigh
7. Genicular branch of obturator nerve
8. Popliteal lymph nodes
9. Fat
Inferior Extremity 39
Q. 8. Why the medial meniscus is damaged
more frequently than the lateral meniscus?
Ans. The tibial collateral ligament is firmly
attached to the medial meniscus, which
restricts its mobility. During sudden locking
of the knee joint, as in kicking the football, the
medial meniscus is subjected to sudden grinding force and gets torn.
The lateral meniscus is less frequently
damaged because it is not attached to the
fibular collateral ligament and the tendon of
the popliteus which sends few of its fibres to
the lateral meniscus pulls it into more favourable position.
Q. 9. Give the clinical findings in an injury to
the common peroneal nerve.
Ans. Common peroneal nerve may be severed
during fracture of the fibular neck.
It results in the paralysis of all the muscles in
the anterior and lateral compartment of the
leg (dorsiflexors of the ankle and evertors of
foot). The loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle and
eversion of foot causes foot drop. The foot drops
and the toes drag on the floor while walking.
Q. 10. Give functions of menisci of the knee joint.
Ans. 1. Menisci increase the concavity of the tibial
condyles for better adaptation with femoral
condyles
2. They serve as shock absorbers
3. They act as swabs to lubricate the joint
cavity
4. Because of their nerve supply they have an
additional sensory function for better
stability of the knee joint.
Q. 11. Name the muscles under cover of Gluteus
maximus.
Ans. 1. Gluteus medius.
2. Gluteus minimus.
3. Reflected head of rectus femoris.
4. Piriformis.
5. Obturator internus with 2 gemelli.
6. Quadratus femoris.
7. Obturator externus.
40 SAQs in Anatomy
8. Origin of 4 hamstrings from ischial tuberosity
9. Insertion of the upper (Pubic) fibres of
adductor magnus.
Q. 12. Name the vessels under cover of Gluteus
maximus.
Ans. 1. Superior gluteal vessels
2. Inferior gluteal vessels
3. Internal pudendal vessels
4. Trochanteric anastomosis
5. Cruciate anastomosis
6. First perforating artery.
Q. 13. Name the nerves under cover of Gluteus
maximus.
Ans. 1. Superior gluteal
2. Inferior gluteal
3. Sciatic
4. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
5. Nerve to quadratus fernoris
6. Pudendal nerve
7. Nerve to obturator internus
8. Perforating cutaneous nerves.
Q. 14. Name the structure passing through the
Greater sciatic foramen.
Ans. A. Piriformis
B. Structures passing above the piriformis
i. Superior gluteal nerve
ii. Superior gluteal vessels
C. Structures passing below the piriformis are
i. Inferior gluteal nerve
ii. Inferior gluteal vessels
iii. Sciatic nerve
iv. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
v. Nerve to quadratus femoris
vi. Pudendal nerve
vii. Internal pudendal vessels
viii. Nerve to obturator internus.
Q. 15. Name the structures passing through the
lesser sciatic foramen.
Ans. 1. Tendon of obturator internus
2. Pudendal nerve
3. Internal pudendal vessels
4. Nerve to obturator internus. The upper and
lower parts of the foramen are filled up by
the origin of two gemelli muscles.
Inferior Extremity 41
Q. 16. What are the boundaries of the femoral
triangle?
Ans. Boundaries of the femoral triangle
Laterally: Medial border of sartorius
Medially:
Medial border of adductor longus
Base:
Formed by the inguinal ligament
Apex:
Point where medial and lateral
borders meet
Floor:
Iliacus, psoas major, pectineus,
adductor longus
Roof:
Fascia lata
Q. 17. Name the contents of the femoral triangle.
Ans. 1. Femoral artery and its branches
2. Femoral vein and its tributaries
3. Femoral sheath
4. Femoral nerve
5. Nerve to pectineus
6. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
7. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
8. Deep inguinal lymph nodes.
Q. 18. Name the intra-articular structures of the
knee joint.
Ans. 1. Medial and lateral menisci
2. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
3. Tendon of popliteus
4. Intra-articular pad of fat.
Q. 19. Name the bones forming the medial and
lateral longitudinal arches of foot.
Ans. Bones forming the medial longitudinal arch
are:
1. Medial half of the calcanium
2. Talus
3. Navicular
4. Three cuneiforms
5. First three metatarsals
Bones forming lateral longitudinal arch are:
1. Lateral part of calcanium
2. Cuboid
3. Fourth and fifth metatarsals.
Q. 20. Name the branches of the obturator nerve.
Ans. Branches of the obturator nerve:
A. Anterior division—
a. Muscular—
42 SAQs in Anatomy
i. Pectineus
ii. Adductor longus
iii. Gracilis
iv. Adductor brevis.
b. Cutaneous—Branch to sub-sartorial
plexus
c. Articular- Hip joint.
B. Posterior division—
a. Muscular—
i. Obturator externus
ii. Adductor magnus
iii. Adductor brevis, if not supplied by
anterior division.
b. Articular—knee joint.
Q. 21. Name the hamstring muscles.
Ans. 1. Semitendinosus
2. Semimembranous
3. Long head of biceps femoris
4. Ischial head of adductor magnus.
Q. 22. What is femoral sheath? What are its
contents?
Ans. The femoral sheath is a funnel- shaped sleeve
of fascia enclosing the upper three to four cms.
of the femoral vessels. It is formed by downward extension of the abdominal fascia i.e.the
anterior wall of the sheath is formed by fascia
transversalis and the posterior wall by the
fascia iliaca.
Contents of the femoral sheath:
a. Lateral compartment-1) femoral artery and
femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve.
b. Intermediate compartment-femoral vein.
c. Medial compartment-(femoral canal)
lymph node of cloquet, lymphatics and areolar tissue.
Q. 23. Enumerate branches of femoral artery.
Ans. 1. Superficial epigastric
2. Superficial circumflex iliac
3. Superficial external pudendal
4. Deep external pudendal
5. Muscular branches
6. Profunda femoris
7. Descending genicular
Inferior Extremity 43
Q. 24. Enumerate branches of popliteal artery.
Ans. 1. Cutaneous-skin of the back of the leg
2. Muscular branches
3. Superior medial genicular
4. Superior lateral genicular
5. Inferior medial genicular
6. Inferior lateral genicular
7. Middle genicular
Q. 25. Trace the pathway a cardiac catheter
takes when introduced into femoral artery
up to left ventricle of the heart.
Ans. Femoral artery—external iliac artery—
common iliac artery—abdominal aorta—
thoracic aorta—arch of aorta—left ventricle
of the heart.
Q. 26. Trace the pathway a cardiac catheter
takes when introduced into femoral vein,
up to right atrium of the heart.
Ans. Femoral vein—external iliac vein—common
iliac vein—inferior vena cava—right atrium
of the heart.
Q. 27. Enumerate the arteries which anastomose at the anterior superior iliac spine.
Ans. 1. Superficial circumflex iliac artery
2. Deep circumflex iliac artery
3. Deep branch of superior gluteal artery
4. Ascending branch of lateral circumflex
femoral artery.
Q. 28. Specify the pathway of the femoral hernia.
Ans. The hernial sac first passes downward through
the femoral canal then forwards through the
saphenous opening and finally upwards along
the superficial epigastric and superficial
circumflex iliac vessels.
Q. 29. Enumerate the coverings of the complete
femoral hernia.
Ans. 1. Peritoneum of the hernial sac
2. Femoral septum
3. Anterior wall of femoral sheath
4. Cribriform fascia
5. Superficial fascia and skin.
44 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 30. Specify the type, of ankle joint. Enumerate the bones taking part in the ankle
joint. In which position is the ankle most
stable? In which position is the ankle least
stable?
Ans. The ankle joint is a hinge variety of synovial
joint.
The bones taking part in the ankle joint are
lower end of tibia with its medial malleolus of
fibula and lateral malleolus and body of talus.
The ankle joint is most stable in dorsiflexed
position and least stable in planter flexed
position.
Q. 31. What is porta pedis? Name the structures
passing through it.
Ans. Porta means gate, pedis means foot. The
interval between the flexor retinaculum and
the calcaneus forms the main gate of the sole
hence it is called as porta pedis.
The structures passing through the Porta pedis
are:
1. Tibialis posterior tendon
2. Flexor digitorum longus tendon
3. Posterior tibial artery with a pair of venae
comitants
4. Tibial nerve
5. Flexor hallucis longus tendon.
Q. 32. Give functions of plantar aponeurosis.
Ans. 1. It maintains the longitudinal arches of foot
acting as tie beam.
2. It provides origin to the superficial groups
of plantar muscles.
3. It protects plantar vessels and nerves from
compression.
Q. 33. What type of epiphysis is ischial tuberosity and what are the structures attached
to it?
Ans. Ischial tuberosity is a compound type of
epiphysis—pressure and traction.
Structures attached to it are:
1. Superolateral area—Semimembranosus
2. Inferomedial area—
a. Semitendinosus
b. Long head of biceps femoris
3. Inferolateral area—adductor magnus
Inferior Extremity 45
4. Sharp medial margin—attachment to
sacrotuberous ligament.
5. Lateral border—ischiofemoral ligament.
Q. 34. What are the peculiarities of fibula and
why does it not obey the law of ossification?
Ans. The fibula violates the law of ossification
because the secondary centre which appears
first does not fuse last. The reasons for this
violation are:
1. The secondary centre appears first in the
lower end because it is a pressure epiphysis.
2. The upper epiphysis fuses last because this
is the growing end of the bone.
Peculiarities of fibula are:
1. Does not take part in knee joint formation.
2. Does not take part in weight transmission
3. Does not obey the law of ossification
4. Decalcified fibula can be knoted.
Q. 35. Enumerate structures piercing the femoral sheath.
Ans. 1. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve.
2. Superficial epigastric, superficial circumflex iliac and superficial external pudendal
branches of femoral artery
3. Great saphenous vein.
Q. 36. Enumerate structure passing through
saphenous opening.
Ans. 1. Great saphenous vein
2. Superficial external pudendal and superficial epigastric arteries.
3. Few lymph vessels connecting the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes.
4. Few branches of medial femoral cutaneous
nerve.
Q. 37. Enumerate the structures piercing the
oblique popliteal ligament.
Ans. Middle genicular vessels, middle genicular
nerve, genicular branch of the posterior
division of obturator nerve.
Q. 38. What is conjunct and adjunct, medial and
lateral rotations at the knee joint?
Ans. Conjunct rotation takes place automatically
during extension-flexion movements of the
46 SAQs in Anatomy
joint duc to geometry of the articular surfaces
and tension of the ligaments. Its range is
about 20°. Adjunct rotation takes place in
semiflexed knee by the active contraction of
muscles and its range varies between 50° and
70°.
Q. 39. Name any four of arteries taking part in
the anastomoses around the knee joint.
Ans. The arteries taking part in the anastomoses
around the knee joint:
1. Five genicular branches of popliteal artery
2. The descending genicular branch of femoral
artery
3. The descending branch of lateral circumflex femoral artery
4. Two recurrent branches of anterior tibial
artery.
Q. 40. Name the ligaments of the hip joint. Why
iliofemoral ligament is the strongest
ligament?
Ans. The ligaments of the hip joint are:
1. The fibrous capsule
2. The iliofemoral ligament
3. The pubofemoral ligament
4. The ischiofemoral ligament
5. The ligament of the head of the femur
6. The acetabular labrum
7. The transverse acetabular ligament
The iliofemoral ligament is one of the strongest
ligaments because it prevents the trunk from
falling backwards in the standing posture.
Q. 41. What is inversion? Name two inverters of
the foot.
Ans. Inversion is a movement in which the medial
border of the foot is elevated, so that the sole
faces medially. Inverters of the foot are:
1. Tibialis anterior
2. Tibialis posterior.
Q. 42. What is eversion? Name two evertors of
the foot. What is the axis of inversion and
eversion?
Ans. Eversion is a movement in which the lateral
border of the foot is elevated so that the sole
faces laterally. Evertors of foot are:
1. Peroneus longus
2. Peroneus brevis
Inferior Extremity 47
Axis of inversion and eversion is oblique axis
which runs forwards, upwards and medially,
passing from the back of the calcaneum
through the sinus tarsi to emerge at the
superomedial aspect of the neck of the talus.
Q. 43. Name the contents of adductor canal.
Ans. Contents of adductor canal are:
1. Femoral artery
2. Femoral vein
3. The saphenous nerve
4. The nerve to vastus medialis
Q. 44. Name any four bursae around the knee
joint.
Ans. Bursae around the knee joint are:
1. Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa
2. Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursa
3. Deep infrapatellar bursa
4. Suprapatellar bursa.
Q. 45. What is fascia lata? Mention its modification.
Ans. The fascia lata is a tough fibrous sheath that
envelops the whole of the thigh like a sleeve.
Its two modifications are:
1. Iliotibial tract
2. Cribriform fascia.
Q. 46. Specify root value of tibial part of sciatic
nerve and name any two muscles supplied
by it in the thigh?
Ans. The root value of tibial part of sciatic nerve is
L4,5, and 1,2,3
The muscles supplied by the Tibial part of
sciatic nerve are semimembranosus, semitendinosus and the long head of biceps femoris.
Q. 47. Give boundaries of femoral ring. Why
femoral hernia is more common in
females?
Ans. Femoral ring is bounded
Anteriorly by—Inguinal ligament
Posteriorly by—Pectineus and its covering
fascia
Medially by—Concave margin of the lacunar
ligament
Laterally by—septum separating it from
femoral vein.
48 SAQs in Anatomy
Femoral hernia is more common in females
because:
1. Fermoral canal is wider in females than in
males.
2. Wider pelvis in females
3. Smaller size of femoral vessels
Q. 48. Give functions of arches of foot.
Ans. 1. They help in proportional distribution of
body weight.
2. Arched foot acts as segmental lever
3. Plantar concavity of the arches protects
vessels and nerves from compression
4. Arched foot is dynamic and pliable. Therefore, the foot acts as spring board which
helps jolting and jumping from height.
Q. 49. Give the differences between medial and
lateral longitudinal arches of foot?
Ans.
Medial longitudinal arch
Lateral longitudinal arch
1. It represents big arc of a
It represents small arc
small circle.
of a big circle
2. This arch is formed by
This arch is formed by less
more bones and more joints. bones and less joints
3. It is more mobile
Regidity is the characResiliency is the
teristic
characteristic
4. It acts as shock absorber.
It commonly bears body
weight.
Q. 50. Define iliotibial tract. Specify its role
on the knee joint.
Ans. Iliotibial tract is a thick band of fascia lata
which runs vertically on the lateral side of the
thigh from iliac crest to the lateral condyle of
the tibia.
The tract maintains the knee in extended
position in the erect posture because the tract
lies in front of the axis of flexion.
In semi flexed knee the tract passes behind
the axis of flexion and exerts an antigravity
force to support the knee joint in walking and
running.
Q. 51. Enumerate the antigravity muscles of the
lower limb.
Inferior Extremity 49
Ans. 1. Gluteus maximus (extensor of the hip)
2. Quadriceps femoris (extensor of the knee)
3. Gastrocnemius } (plantar flexors of the
ankle)
4. Soleus
Q. 52. Give characteristics of the hamstring
muscles.
Ans. 1. They take origin from the ischial tuberosity.
2. They are inserted beyond the knee joint to
the tibia, fibula or both bones.
3. They are supplied by the tibial division of
the sciatic nerve.
4. They act as flexors of knee joint and
extensors of hip joint.
Q. 53. What is reverse muscular action? Explain
with a suitable example.
Ans. During muscular contraction when the
proximal end of a muscle (origin) moves
towards the distal end (insertion). It is called
as reverse muscular action.
The distal end (insertion) of the muscles of
lower limb move only when the feet are off the
ground, i.e. action from above but when the
feet are supporting the body weight the
muscles act in reverse (from below) i.e.
proximal end moves (origin) towards the distal
end. This is typically seen while rising up from
sitting posture and in going upstairs.
Q. 54. What is oblique popliteal ligament? Which
blood vessel and nerve pierce it? Name
structures supplied by the vessel and the
nerve.
Ans. Oblique popliteal ligament is an expansion
from the tendon of the semimembranosus
muscle. The middle genicular vessels and
nerve pierce it. Middle genicular vessels and
nerve supply cruciate ligaments and synovial
membrane of the knee joint.
Q. 55. Name the structures which are
represented by the following ligaments.
1. Tibial collateral ligament
2. Fibular collateral ligament
3. Long plantar ligament
4. Plantar aponeurosis
50 SAQs in Anatomy
Ans. 1. Tibial collateral ligament – degenerated
tendon of adductor magnus.
2. Fibular collateral ligament – femoral
attachment of peroneus longus
3. Long plantar ligament – tendon of gastrocnemius.
4. Plantar aponeurosis – distal part of plantaris.
Q. 56. What is sciatica? What are the causes?
Ans. Sciatica is a condition in which patients have
pain along the sensory distribution of the
sciatic nerve. The pain is experienced in the
posterior aspect of the thigh, the posterior and
lateral sides of the leg and the lateral part of
the foot.
Sciatica can be caused by prolapse of an
intervertebral disc (L4 - L5) with pressure on
one or more roots of the lower lumbar and sacral
spinal nerves, pressure on the sacral plexus or
sciatic nerve by an intrapelvic tumour or
inflammation of the sciatic nerve.
Q. 57. How sciatic nerve is injured? Give clinical
findings in injury to the sciatic nerve.
Ans. Penetrating wounds injure the sciatic nerve.
Fractures of pelvis, dislocations of the hip joint
or by badly placed intramuscular injections in
the gluteal region.
In 90 percent of the sciatic nerve injuries
common peroneal part is the most affected
because common peroneal nerve fibres lie
most superficial in the sciatic nerve.
Clinical features - motor – hamstring muscles
and all the muscles below the knee are
paralysed causing ‘foot drop’.
Sensory – sensory loss on the back of the thigh,
the whole of the leg and the foot except area
innervated by the saphenous nerve.
Q. 58. Give boundaries of the adductor canal.
Ans. The adductor canal extends from the apex of
the femoral triangle above, to the tendinous
opening in the adductor magnus below. The
canal is triangular in cross-section and has
anterior, posterior and medial walls. Anteriorvastus medialis. Posterior – adductor longus
above and adductor magnus below. Medial
Inferior Extremity 51
(roof) a strong fibrous membrane joining the
anterior and posterior walls. The roof is
overlapped by the sartorius.
Q. 59. Enumerate ligaments of the knee joint.
Ans. 1. Articular capsule
2. Ligamentum patellae
3. Tibial collateral ligament
4. Fibular collateral ligament
5. Oblique popliteal ligament
6. Arcuate popliteal ligament
7. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
8. Medial and lateral menisci
9. Transverse ligament.
Q. 60. A patient of fracture neck femur presents
with affected limb shortened and laterally
rotated. Explain it on the anatomical basis.
Ans. In a fracture neck femur, rectus femoris, the
adductors and the hamstring muscles pull the
distal fragment upwards so that the leg is
shortened. The gluteus maximus piriformis,
obturator internus, gamelli, quadratus
femoris and psoas major rotate the distal
fragment laterally.
Q. 61. Give differences between pectoral and
pelvic girdles.
Ans.
Pectoral girdle
Pelvic girdle
1. Dermal and
Entirely
endochondral
endochondral
2. Two principal
Three components,
components
pubis, ischium and
clavicle and
ilium, which fuse
scapula remain
into a single
separate
hip bone.
3. No articulation
Articulates with
with the vertebral the sacrum
column
4. No direct ventral Direct ventral
articulation
articulation at
symphysis pubis.
5. Comparatively
Massively constructed
lightly built for
for resistance
mobility
to stress
6. Shallow joint
Deep joint with
with limb,
limb, limiting
allowing wide
range of movements.
range of movements.
52 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 62. Give differences between medial and
lateral meniscus of the knee joint.
Ans. Medial meniscus
1. Nearly semicircular
2. Peripheral margin is attached to the deep
part of the tibial collateral ligament
3. More vulnerable to injury due to fixity to
the tibial collateral ligament.
Lateral meniscus
1. Nearly circular
2. The tendon of the popliteus is attached to
the lateral meniscus
3. It is protected by the popliteus which pulls
it backwards.
Q. 63. What is plantar aponeurosis? What it
represents? Give it’s functions.
Ans. The thickened central part of the deep fascial
covering of the sole is called as plantar
aponeurosis. It represents the distal part of
the plantaris which has become separated
from the rest of the muscle during evolution
because of the enlargement of the heel.
It fixes the skin of the sole, protects deeper
structures, helps in maintaing longitudinal
arches of the foot and gives origin to muscles
of the first layer of the sole.
Q. 64. What is piriformis syndrome?
Ans. The sciatic nerve is compressed due to spasm
or hypertrophy of piriformis muscle at the
greater sciatic notch.
THORAX
4
Q. 1. Define bronchopulmonary segments.
Name the bronchopulmonary segments of
right and left lung.
Ans. Bronchopulmonary segments are well-defined
sectors of lung, pyramidal in shape, apex
directed towards hilum base directed towards,
periphery aerated by tertiary bronchus having
their own arterial supply but venous drainage
is shared by adjacent segments.
Upper lobe
Right lung
Left lung
Apical
Apical
Posterior
Anterior
Middle lobe
Lower lobe
Posterior
Upper lobe
Anterior
Lateral
Upper lingual
Medial
Lower lingual
Apical
Apical
Medial basal
Anterior basal
Anterior basal Lower lobe
Medial basal
Lateral basal
Posterior basal
Posterior basal
Lateral basal
Q. 2. Give boundaries of transverse sinus of
the pericardium.
Ans. Anteriorly—ascending aorta and pulmonary
trunk
Posteriorly—intrapericardial part of superior
vena cava and upper margin of left atrium.
Above—bifurcation of pulmonary trunk
Below—upper surface of left atrium. It is an
intervisceral space.
Q. 3. Give boundaries of oblique sinus of
pericardium.
Ans. It is a parietovisceral space
Anteriorly—left atrium
Posteriorly—parietal layers of pericardium
54 SAQs in Anatomy
Above—upper margin of left atrium
Right side—Right pair of pulmonary veins and
inferior vena cava
Left side—Left pair of pulmonary veins.
Q. 4. Enumerate tributaries of superior vena
cava.
Ans. 1. Right and left brachiocephalic veins
2. Azygous vein
3. Pericardial veins
4. Mediastinal veins.
Q. 5. Enumerate the four normal constrictions
of oesophagus.
Ans. 1. At the commencement of oesophagus opposite C6
2. Where it is crossed by arch of aorta opposite
T4
3. Where it is crossed by the left bronchus
opposite T6
4. At the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm opposite T10.
Q. 6. Give arterial supply of oesophagus.
Ans. 1. Inferior thyroid artery
2. Descending aorta
3. Bronchial arteries
4. Left gastric
5. Left inferior phrenic.
Q. 7. Give venous drainage of oesophagus.
Ans. 1. Inferior thyroid vein
2. Azygous vein
3. Hemiazygous vein
4. Left gastric.
Q. 8. Give lymphatic drainage of oesophagus.
Ans. 1. Cervical part—jugulo-omohyoid lymphnodes
2. Thoracic part—paratracheal, tracheobronchial, posterior and mediastinal lymphnodes.
3. Abdominal part—pre-aortic lymph-nodes.
Q. 9. At what level and which part of the diaphragm, vena caval opening lies? Name
the structures passing through it.
Ans. Inferior vena caval opening lies at the level of
8th thoracic vertebra. It passes through
central tendon of diaphragm. It transmits:
Thorax 55
1. Inferior vena cava
2. Branches of right phrenic nerve.
Q. 10. At what level and which part of the diaphragm oesophageal opening lies? Name
the structures passing through it.
Ans. The oesophageal opening lies at the level of
10th thoracic vertebra. It transmits:
1. Oesophagus
2. Vagus
3. Oesophageal branches of left gastric artery
4. Oesophageal veins accompanying arteries.
Q. 11. At what level the aortic opening lies in the
diaphragm? Name the structures passing
through it.
Ans. Aortic opening lies at the level of 12th thoracic
vertebra. The structures passing through it
are:
1. Aorta
2. Thoracic duct
3. Sometimes azygous vein.
Q. 12. Give nerve supply of the thoracoabdominal diaphragm.
Ans. Motor—phrenic nerve C3 C4 C5
Sensory—central part—phrenic nerve
—peripheral part–lower 6 or 7 intercostal nerves.
Q. 13. Give arterial supply of the diaphragm.
Ans. 1. Musculophrenic and pericardiophrenic
arteries—branches of internal thoracic
artery.
2. Lower 5 or 6 posterior intercostal arteries.
3. Superior phrenic artery—branch of thoracic
aorta
4. Inferior phrenic artery—branch of abdominal aorta.
Q. 14. Name the structures supplied by phrenic
nerve.
Ans. 1. Motor—diaphragm
2. Sensory—mediastinal and central part of
diaphragmatic parietal pleura, fibrous
pericardium, parietal layer of serous
pericardium, part of parietal peritoneum
lying below the central part of diaphragm.
56 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 15. Trace the pathway, a cardiac catheter
takes when introduced into the basilic
vein up to right atrium?
Ans. Basilic vein—Axillary vein
Subclavian vein—brachiocephalic vein
Superior vena cava—right atrium.
Q. 16. Draw and label the hilum of right and left
lung.
Q. 17. Name any four contents of posterior
mediastinum?
Ans. 1. Oesophagus
2. Descending thoracic aorta and its branches
3. Azygous vein, hemiazygous vein and accessory hemiazygous vein.
4. Thoracic duct.
Q. 18. Give the nerve supply of pleura and
explain it on the basis of development.
Ans. Parietal pleura is supplied by intercostal and
phrenic nerves. Visceral pleura is supplied by
pulmonary plexus, i.e. sympathetic nerves
derived from spinal segments T4 and T5 and
vagus.
The parietal pleura develops from the somatopleuric layer of the mesoderm and the visceral
pleura develops from the splanchnopleuric
layer of mesoderm.
Q. 19. Give the formation and termination of
azygous vein and enumerate 2 tributaries
of it.
Ans. The azygous vein is formed by union of the
lumbar azygous, right subcostal and right
ascending lumbar veins.
Thorax 57
It ends by joining the posterior aspect of the
superior vena cava.
Two tributaries of it are:
1. Hemiazygous vein
2. Accessory hemiazygous vein.
Q. 20. Specify the level of commencement and
termination and branches of arch of aorta.
Ans. The arch of aorta begins behind the upper
border of 2nd right sternochondral joint and
ends at the lower boder of 4th thoracic vertebra.
Branches of arch of aorta:
1. Brachiocephalic artery
2. Left common carotid artery
3. Left subclavian artery.
Q. 21. What is pericardium? Name two layers of
pericardium.
Ans. The pericardium is a fibroserous sac which
encloses the heart and the roots of great
vessels. It is situated in the middle mediastinum
Two layers of pericardium are:
1. Serous Pericardium
Parietal
Visceral.
2. Fibrous pericardium
Q. 22. Give arterial supply of trachea.
Ans. Arterial supply of trachea
1. Inferior thyroid arteries
2. Bronchial arteries at its bifurcation.
Q. 23. Give arterial supply of oesophagus.
Ans. Cervical part—Inferior thyroid arteries.
Thoracic part—Oesophageal branches of Aorta
Abdominal part—Oesophageal branches of
left gastric artery.
Q. 24. Give branches of descending thoracic
aorta.
Ans. Branches of descending thoracic aorta
1. Nine posterior intercostal arteries on each
side from 3rd to 11th intercostal spaces
2. Subcostal artery on each side
3. Two left bronchial arteries (the upper left
artery may give rise to the right bronchial
artery which usually arises from the 3rd
right posterior intercostal artery).
58 SAQs in Anatomy
4. Oesophageal branches
5. Pericardial branches
6. Mediastinal branches
7. Superior phrenic arteries.
Q. 25. Name the branches of internal thoracic
artery.
Ans. Branches of internal thoracic artery
1. Pericardiophrenic artery—Pericardium and
pleura
2. Mediastinal artery—Thymus, front of
pericardium, fat in mediastinum.
3. Anterior intercostal arteries—each upper
six intercostal spaces.
4. Perforating branches
5. Superior epigastric arteries.
6. Musculophrenic artery.
Q. 26. Name the structures opening into right
atrium.
Ans. 1. Superior vena cava
2. Inferior vena cava
3. Coronary sinus
4. Anterior cardiac veins
5. Venae cordis minimi.
Q. 27. Bronchial arteries are the branches of
which arteries?
Ans. 1. On right side there is one bronchial artery
which arises either from the 3rd posterior
intercostal artery or from the upper left
bronchial artery.
2. On the left side there are two bronchial
arteries, both of which arise from descending thoracic aorta.
Q. 28. Name the contents of pericardium.
Ans. 1. Heart
2. Ascending aorta
3. Pulmonary trunk
4. Lower half of superior vena cava
5. Terminal part of inferior vena cava
6. Terminal parts of pulmonary veins.
Q. 29. Give boundaries of outlet (Inf. Aperture)
of thorax.
Ans. 1. Anteriorly—Infrasternal angle between
two costal margin
Thorax 59
2. Posteriorly—Infrasternal surface of the
body of 12th thoracic vertebra.
3. On each side—
i. Costal margin formed by the cartilages
of the 7th 8th 9th and 10th ribs.
ii. 11th and 12th ribs.
Q. 30. Enumerate diaphragms in the body.
Ans. 1. Diaphragm of inlet of Thorax (Suprapleural
membrane) Sibson’s Fascia
2. Diaphragm of outlet of thorax (Thoracoabdominal)
3. Pelvic diaphragm
4. Urogenital diaphragm
5. Oral diaphragm (Mylohyoid muscle)
6. Diaphragma sellae.
Q. 31. Enumerate changes occurring at the level
of sternal angle–(T4).
Ans. 1. Ascending aorta ends at this level
2. Arch of aorta begins and ends at this level
3. Descending aorta begins at this level
4. Trachea divides into two principal branches
5. Azygous vein arches over root of right lung
and opens into superior vena cava.
6. Pulmonary trunk divides into two pulmonary arteries just below this level.
7. Thoracic duct crosses from right to the left
side.
Q. 32. Give boundaries of the inlet (superior
aperture) of thorax.
Ans. Boundaries of Inlet (Sup Aperture) of thorax
Anteriorly—Upper border of manubrium
sterni
Posteriorly—Superior surface of body of 1st
thoracic vertebra.
On each side—First rib with its cartilage.
Q. 33. Enumerate any four arteries passing
through the inlet of thorax.
Ans. 1. Brachiocephalic
2. Left common carotid
3. Left subclavian
4. Internal thoracic arteries
5. Superior intercostal arteries.
Q. 34. Name the viscera passing through the
inlet of thorax.
Ans. 1. Trachea
2. Oesophagus
60 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Apices of lungs
4. Remains of thymus.
Q. 35. Name the various anatomical structures
penetrated by a needle in pleural tapping.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. Serratus anterior
4. External intercostal
5. Internal intercostal
6. Innermost intercostal
7. Parietal pleura.
Q. 36. Foreign body in the trachea is usually
aspirated into which lung? Why?
Ans. The foreign body in the trachea is usually
aspirated in to the right lung; because the right
bronchus is shorter (2.5 cm) wider and more
vertical (makes an angle of 250 off the median
plane) than the left bronchus.
Q. 37. Which segments of the lung are common
sites of lung abscess by aspiration? Why?
Ans. The apical segment of the lower lobe and
posterior segment of the upper lobe are the
common sites of lung abscess, because these
segments are most dependent in recumbent
position.
Q. 38. Give blood supply of the lungs.
Ans. Arterial supply – Bronchial arteries supply
nutrition to the bronchial tree and to the
pulmonary tissue. On the right side – one
bronchial artery which arises from third
posterior intercostal artery.
On the left side there are two bronchial arteries
branches of thoracic aorta.
Venous drainage—
The two right bronchial veins drain into
azygous vein
The two left bronchial veins drain either into
left superior intercostal vein or in to the
hemiazygous vein.
Q. 39. Enumerate the veins draining the heart.
Ans. A. About 60% of the venous blood of the heart
is drained into coronary sinus. Tributaries–
1. great cardiac vein
2. small cardiac vein
Thorax 61
3. middle cardiac vein
4. posterior vein of the left ventricle
5. oblique vein of the left ventricle
6. right marginal vein
B. 40% of the venous blood by—
1. anterior cardiac veins directly drain into
infundibulum of the right ventricle and
right atrium.
2. venae cordis minimae open into different
chambers of the heart directly.
Q. 40. Enumerate the parts of the body from
which the right lymphatic duct receives
afferents.
Ans. 1. The right half of the head and neck
2. The right upper limb
3. The right half of the thorax
4. Right lung
5. The right half of the heart.
Q. 41. Specify the nerves taking part in the
formation of deep cardiac plexus. Where
it is situated?
Ans. The nerves taking part in the formation of deep
cardiac plexus are preganglionic sympathetic
fibres from the middle cervical ganglia of both
sides and right superior cervical ganglion, the
upper four thoracic ganglia. The superior
cervical cardiac branch of both vagi and
inferior cervical cardiac branch of right vagus
convey the preganglionic parasympathetic
fibres.
Deep cardiac plexus is situated in front of the
bifurcation of the trachea and behind the arch
of the aorta.
Q. 42. Specify the commencement termination
and areas of drainage of the thoracic duct.
Ans. Thoracic duct commencement—It begins as a
continuation of the upper end of the cisterna
chyli near the lower border of the 12th thoracic
vertebra.
Termination – It opens into the angle of
junction between the left subclavian and left
internal jugular vein.
Areas of drainage – It drains both halves of
the body below the diaphragm and the left
62 SAQs in Anatomy
side of the head and neck, left upper limb left
lung and thoracic wall, left half of the heart.
Q. 43. Name the terminal branches of the
internal thoracic artery. Specify the
arteries with which they anastomose.
Ans. A. Superior epigastric artery anastomoses
with inferior epigastric artery, a branch of
external iliac artery.
B. Musculophrenic artery
i. Two anterior intercostals arteries for
each of the seventh to ninth intercostal
spaces which anastomose with posterior
intercostal and their collateral branches.
ii. The artery pierces the diaphragm and
anastomoses with the neighbouring
arteries.
Q. 44. What is thoracic inlet syndrome?
Ans. The subclavian artery and first thoracic nerve
arch over the first rib, these structures may be
pulled by a cervical rib causing vascular, neural
or both symptoms. This is called as thoracic
inlet syndrome.
Q. 45. Specify Pleural recesses. Mention their
function.
Ans. 1. Costodiaphragmatic recesses – These are
the slit like spaces between the lower limit
of costal and diaphragmatic parietal
pleura and the lower border of the corres
ponding lungs, separated by a capillary
layer of pleural fluid.
2. Costomediastinal recesses – These are slit
like spaces between the costal and media
stinal parietal pleurae and anterior
borders of the lungs separated by a capillary
layer of pleural fluid.
These recesses allow expansion of lungs in full
inspiration.
Q. 46. Enumerate parts of the body from which
thoracic duct receives afferents?
Ans. 1. Lower limbs
2. The abdominal viscera
3. Left half of the thoracic wall
4. Left lung and left half of the heart
5. Left upper limb
6. Left half of head and neck.
Thorax 63
Q. 47. Give peculiarities of the twelfth rib.
Ans. The twelfth rib is short and has pointed end.
In the twelfth rib the neck, tubercle, angle and
costal groove are absent; it presents a single
facet on its head.
Q. 48 Which ribs show pump handle movements
during respiration. Mention the axis
around which this movement takes place.
Which diameter is increases during this
movement?
Ans. Pump handle movements occur from second
to sixth ribs. The anteroposterior diameter is
increased by the elevation of the ribs around
an oblique axis, which passes through the
centers of costovertebral and costotransverse
joints along the neck of the ribs.
Q. 49. Which ribs show bucket handle movements during respiration? Mention the
Axis around which this movement takes
place. Which diameter is increased during
this movement.
Ans. Bucket handle movement is observed in the
seventh to tenth ribs. The movement takes
place around an anteroposterior axis from the
costovertebral to costosternal joints. This
produces elevation of the middle of the rib by
outward twist increasing transverse diameter.
It resembles lifting of the handle of a bucket,
hence called bucket handle movement.
Q. 50. Give differences between right and left
lungs.
Right Lung
Left lung
Ans.
1. Shorter
2. Wider
3. More capacious
4. Absence of
cardiac notch
5. Cardiac impression
shallow
6. Absence of lingula
7. Arrangement at
hilum from above
downwards-bronchus, artery,
bronchus vein.
8. Three lobes separated by two fissures
Longer
Narrower
Less capacious
Presence of
cardiac notch
Cardiac impression
deep
Presence of lingula
Arrangement at
hilum from above
downwards-artery,
bronchus vein
Two lobes separated
by one fissure.
64 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 51. What is transverse pericardial sinus? What
is its development?
Ans. Transverse pericardial sinus is a passage
between two tubular reflections of serous
pericardium. It is an intervisceral space.
Transverse sinus is developed after degeneration of the central cells of the dorsal
mesocardium.
Q. 52. Give peculiarities of the first rib.
Ans. The first rib is the shortest, broadest and most
curved rib. The shaft is not twisted and the
tubercle coincides with the angle of the rib. It
is flattened from above downwards and has
no costal groove. The upper surface near the
inner border is marked by the scalene tubercle.
Q. 53. Specify the formation course and termination of the superior vena cava. Mention
its tributaries.
Ans. Superior vena cava is formed by the union of
the right and left brachiocephalic veins.
It begins behind the lower border of the sternal
end of the first right costal cartilage. It pierces
the pericardium opposite second right costal
cartilage and terminates by opening in to the
upper part of the right atrium.
Tributaries of the superior vena cava—
Azygous vein
Several small pericardial and Mediastinal
vein.
Q. 54. Define a typical intercostal space. Which
are the typical intercostal spaces?
Ans. The space intervening a between typical ribs
and traversed by vessels and nerves which are
confined to the thoracic wall are called as
typical intercostal space.
Third, fourth, fifth and sixth intercostal spaces
are the typical intercostal spaces.
Q. 55. Specify boundaries and contents of a
typical intercostal space.
Ans. Boundaries of a typical intercostal space Superiorly – sharp lower margin of the upper
rib and its cartilage.
Inferiorly – blunt upper margin of the lower
rib and its cartilage
Anteriorly – lateral border of the sternum
between the costal notches.
Thorax 65
Posteriorly – body of the corresponding thoracic
vertebra
Contents – Muscles – external, internal and
innermost intercostals
Vessels – anterior and posterior intercostal
arteries and veins.
Nerves – intercostal nerves
Q. 56. What is Sibson’s fascia (suprapleural
membrane)? Give its attachments.
Morphologically which structure is
represented by it? Give its functions.
Ans. Suprapleural membrane (Sibson’s Fascia) is
the diaphragm of the inlet of the thorax, which
is in two halves, right and left with a cleft in
between.
It is triangular in shape. Its apex is attached
to the tip of the transverse process of the
seventh cervical vertebra and the base to the
inner border of the first rib and its cartilage.
Morphologically it represents the flattened
tendon of the scalenus minimus (pleuralis)
muscle.
It partly separates the thorax from the neck.
It provides rigidity to the thoracic inlet, so that
the root of the neck is not puffed up and down
during respiration.
Q. 57. What is costal element (Pleurapophysis).
Mention costal and transverse elements
of all vertebrae.
Ans. The costal element is a component of the
vertebral arch in the embryos and develop as
independent ribs only in the thoracic region.
In other regions they fuse with the transverse
process.
Region
1. Cervical
2. Thoracic
3. Lumbar
4. Sacrum
Costal element
Transverse element
(Pleurapophysis)
(Diapophysis)
Anterior root and
lateral half of posterior root of the transverse process, inter
tubercular lamella
Rib
Transverse process
Ventral part of the
lateral mass
Medial half of the
posterior root of
the transverse
process
Transverse process
Accessory process
Dorsal part of the
lateral mass
66 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 58. Give nerve supply of the pericardium.
Ans. Fibrous and parietal pericardium—phrenic
nerve
Visceral pericardium—superficial and deep
cardiac plexus
Q. 59. Give arterial supply of the pericardium.
Ans. 1. Internal thoracic artery
2. Musculophrenic artery
3. Descending thoracic aorta
5
ABDOMEN
Q. 1. Name the structures in the porta hepatis.
Ans. Structures in porta hepatis
1. Hepatic artery 2. Portal vein
3. Bile duct
4. Lymphatics
Q. 2. Give boundaries of epiploic foramen.
Ans. Boundaries of epiploic foramen. Following are
the boundaries of epiploic foramen.
Anteriorly—Right free margin of the lesser
omentum containing the portal vein, hepatic
artery and bile duct.
Posteriorly—The inferior vena cava, the right
suprarenal gland and vertebra T12.
Superiorly—Caudate process of the liver.
Inferiorly—First part of the duodenum and the
horizontal part of the hepatic artery.
Q. 3. Name the structures lying in the free
border of lesser omentum.
Ans. Structures lying in the free border of lesser
omentum are:
1. The hepatic artery
2. Portal vein
3. Bile duct
4. Lymph node and lymphatics
5. Hepatic plexus of nerves
Q. 4. Enumerate subphrenic spaces.
Ans. A. Intraperitoneal subphrenic spaces
1. The left anterior space (left subphrenic)
2. The left posterior space (lesser sac)
3. The right anterior space (right subphrenic)
4. The right posterior space (right subhepatic or hepatorenal pouch)
B. Extraperitoneal spaces.
1. The right extraperitoneal space
2. The left extraperitoneal space.
68 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 5. Give blood supply to prostate gland.
Ans. Arterial supply
1. Inferior vesical
2. Middle rectal
3. Internal pudendal
Venous—Prostatic plexus of veins which drains
into vesical and internal iliac veins. The plexus
communicates with vesical plexus, internal
pudendal veins and vertebral venous plexus.
Q. 6. Name the supports of rectum.
Ans. 1. Pelvic floor
2. Fascia of waldeyer
3. Lateral ligaments of the rectum
4. Rectovesical fascia
5. Pelvic peritoneum and related vascular
pedicles.
Q. 7. Give relations of anal canal.
Ans. A. Anteriorly—
i. In both sexes-perinial body
ii. In males-membranous urethra, bulb of
penis
iii. In females-lower end of vagina
B. Posteriorly—
i. Anococcygeal ligament
ii. Tip of coccyx.
C. Laterally—Ischiorectal fossa.
Q. 8. Enumerate the structures forming extrahepatic biliary apparatus.
Ans. 1. The right and left hepatic ducts
2. The common hepatic duct
3. The gallbladder
4. The cystic duct
5. The bile duct.
Q. 9. Macroscopic differences between jejunum and ileum?
Ans.
Features
Jejunum
Ileum
Location
Upper and left part
of intestinal area
Thicker and more
vascular
Wider and often,
empty
Lower and right part
of intestinal area
Thinner and less
vascular
Narrow and often
loaded
Walls
Lumen
contd...
Abdomen
69
contd...
Features
Jejunum
Ileum
Mesentery Windows present,
fat less abundant,
Arterial arcades
1 and 2, vasa recti
longer and fewer
Circular
Larger and more
mucosal
closely set.
folds
No windows, fat more
abundant, arterial
arcade 3 to 5, vasa
recti shorter and
numerous
Smaller and sparse
Q. 10. Give macroscopic differences between
small intestine and large intestine.
Ans. Features of small intestine and large intestine:
Features
SI
LI
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Absent
Absent
Absent
Smaller
Longer
Present
Present
Present
Larger
Shorter
Appendices epiploicae
Taenia coli
Sacculations
Calibre
Length
Q. 11. Enumerate the contents of spermatic
cord.
Ans. Contents of spermatic cord:
1. Ductus deferens
2. Testicular and cremasteric arteries, artery
of ductus deferens
3. Pampiniform plexus of veins
4. Lymph vessels from testis
5. Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve;
plexus of sympathetic nerves around the
artery to ducts deferens.
6. Remains of processus vaginalis.
Q. 12. Name the structures crossed by the roots
of mesentery.
Ans. Structures crossed by the root of mesentery:
1. Third part of duodenum where the superior
mesenteric vessels enter into it.
2. Abdominal aorta
3. Inferior vena cava
4. Right ureter
5. Right psoas major muscle.
Q. 13. Name the structures which form anterior
wall of lesser sac.
Ans. Structures which form anterior wall of lesser
sac:
1. Caudate lobe of liver
2. Lesser omentum
70 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Stomach
4. Anterior layers of Greater Omentum
Q. 14. Give lymphatic drainage of stomach?
Ans. Lymphatic drainage of stomach
1. Pancreaticosplenic area drains into pancreaticosplenic nodes—lying along splenic
artery.
2. Area B—Left gastric nodes—drain into
cocliac nodes
3. Area C—Right gastroepiploic nodes—in
angle between Ist and 2nd parts of duodenum.
4. Hepatis nodes—Coeliac nodes
5. Area D—Pyloric, hepatic, left gastric coeliac
nodes
Q. 15. Enumerate the supports of uterus.
Ans. A. Primary supports:
1. Muscular
a. Pelvic diaphragm
b. Perineal body
c. Urogenital diaphragm
2. Fibromuscular
a. Pubocervical ligament
b. Transverse cervical ligament
c. Uterosacral ligament
d. Round ligament of uterus.
3. Mechanical—uterine axis.
B. Secondary supports
a. Broad ligament
b. Uteroversical fold of peritoneum
c. Rectovaginal fold of peritoneum.
Q. 16. Give the contents of deep perineal pouch.
Ans. Contents of deep perineal pouch:
1. Membranous urethra
2. Muscles
a. Sphincter urethrae
b. Deep transversus perinei
3. Nerves
a. Dorsal Nerve of penis
b. Muscular branches from the perineal
nerve.
4. Vessels
a. Artery of penis
b. Stems of origin of four arteries from the
artery of penis passing to the superficial
perineal space.
Abdomen
71
5. Glands
a. Bulbourethral glands in males.
Q. 17. Name any of the four contents of broad
ligament of uterus.
Ans. Contents of broad ligaments of uterus
1. Uterine tube
2. Round ligament of uterus
3. Ligament of ovary
4. Uterine vessel near its attachment to the
uterus.
5. Ovarian vessels in infundibulopelvic ligament
6. Uterovaginal and ovarian nerve plexus.
Q. 18. Enumerate contents of rectus sheath.
Ans. Contents of Rectus Sheath
1. Muscles
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Pyramidalis
2. Arteries
a. Superior epigastric artery
b. Inferior epigastric artery
3. Veins
a. Superior epigastric vein
b. Inferior epigastric vein
4. Nerves
Terminal part of lower six thoracic nerves
lower five intercostal nerves and subcostal
nerves.
Q. 19. Name coverings (capsules) of the kidney.
Ans. Coverings (Capsules) of kidney
1. Fibrous Capsule
2. Perirenal (Perinephric ) fat
3. Renal fascia—Anterior layer (fascia of Toldt)
—Posterior layer (fascia of zuckerkandl)
4. Pararenal (paranephric ) body (fat).
Q. 20. Give blood supply of ureter.
Ans. Blood supply of ureter
Upper part—renal artery and branches from
gonadal or colic vessels
Middle part—Aorta, gonadal or iliac vessels
Lower part (pelvic part)—Vesical, middle
rectal, uterine vessels (in females)
72 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 21. Give blood supply of suprarenal gland.
Ans. Blood supply of suprarenal gland.
Arterial Supply
Superior suprarenal artery—branch of inferior
phrenic artery
Middle suprarenal artery—branch of abdominal aorta.
Inferior suprarenal artery—branch of renal
artery.
Venous Drainage
Each gland is drained by one vein. Right suprarenal drains into inferior vena cava, left
suprarenal drains into left renal vein.
Q. 22. Name tributaries of inferior vena cava.
Ans. Tributaries of inferior vena cava
1. Common iliac veins
2. Third and fourth lumbar veins
3. Right testicular (or ovarian) vein
4. Renal veins
5. Right suprarenal vein
6. Hepatic veins.
Q. 23. Give boundries of perineum.
Ans. Boundaries of perineum
Superficial boundaries
Anteriorly—Scrotum in males, mons pubis in
females
Posteriorly—buttocks
On each side—upper part of medial side of
thigh.
Deep boundaries—(Similar to pelvic outlet)
Anteriorly—Upper part of pubic arch and
arcuate (inferior) pubic ligament.
Posteriorly—tip of the coccyx
On each side—conjoined ischiopubic rami,
ischial tuberosity, sacrotuberous ligaments.
Q. 24. What is perineal body? What is its function? Give its applied anatomy.
Ans. Perineal body or central part of perineum, is a
fibromuscular node, situated in the median
plane, about 1.25 cm in front of the anal
margin and close to the bulb of penis.
It is very important in females for support of
pelvic organs. It may be damaged during
parturition (childbirth). This may result in
prolapse of the urinary bladder, the uterus,
the ovaries and even the rectum.
Abdomen
73
Q. 25. Enumerate muscle attached to the perineal body.
Ans. Muscles attached to the perineal body
Bulbospongiosus
Superficial transversus perinei
Deep transverse perinei
Sphincter urethrae
External anal sphincter.
Q. 26. Name the branches of pudendal nerve.
Ans. Branches of pudendal nerve
1. Inferior rectal nerve
2. Perineal nerve
3. Dorsal nerve of the penis
Q. 27. Name the branches of internal pudendal
artery.
Ans. Branches of internal pudendal artery
1. Inferior rectal artery
2. Perineal artery
3. Artery of penis-runs in deep perineal space
and gives:
a. Artery to the bulb
b. Urethral artery
c. Deep artery of penis
d. Dorsal artery of penis
Q. 28. Name the structures forming urogenital
diaphragm.
Ans. a. Deep perineal muscles (sphincter urethrae
and deep transversus perinei) which form
a triangular sheet of voluntary muscles
around membranous urethra.
b. Superior fascia of urogenital diaphragm.
c. Inferior fascia of urogenital diaphragm
(perineal membrane).
Q. 29. Name the structures piercing perineal
membrane in males.
Ans. Structures piercing perineal membrane;
in males
1. Urethra (in the midline)
2. Ducts of bulbourethral glands, one on each
side of urethra.
3. Artery and nerve to the bulb.
4. Urethral artery
bila5. Deep artery of penis
teral
6. Dorsal artery of penis
7. Posterior Scrotal nerves and vessels
8. Branches of perineal nerve to superficial
perineal muscles.
⎫
⎬
⎭
74 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 30. Name the structures piercing perineal
membrane in females.
Ans. In females
1. Urethra
2. Vagina
3. Artery and nerve to vestibule
4. Deep artery of clitoris
5. Dorsal artery of clitoris
6. Posterior labial arteries and nerves
7. Branches of perineal nerve to superficial
perineal muscles.
Q. 31. Give contents of pelvic cavity.
Ans. Sigmoid colon and rectum ⎫
In both sexes
Urinary bladder-ureters ⎬⎭
In males—ductus deferens, seminal vesicles,
prostate.
In females—uterus, uterine tubes, round ligaments of uterus, ligaments of ovaries, ovaries,
vagina
Q. 32. Mention different positions of vermiform
appendix.
Ans. Different positions of vermiform appendix
1. Paracolic or 11 o’clock position
2. Retrocaecal or 12 o’clock position
3. Splenic or 2 o’clock position (Preileal/ postileal)
4. Promonteric or 3 o’clock position
5. Pelvic or 4 o’clock
6. Subcaecal /midinguinal or 6 o’clock
Q. 33. Name the branches of superior mesenteric
artery.
Ans. Branches of superior mesenteric artery
1. Interior pancreaticoduodenal artery
2. Jejunal and ileal 3. Ileocolic
4. Right colic
5. Middle colic.
Q. 34. Name the tributaries of portal vein.
Ans. Tributaries of portal vein
1. Splenic
2. Superior mesenteric
3. Left gastric
4. Right gastric
5. Superior pancreaticoduodenal
6. Cystic
7. Paraumbilical
Abdomen
75
Q. 35. Give visceral relations of spleen?
Ans. Visceral relations of spleen
Diaphragmatic surface—Diaphragm
Visceral surface—Fundus of stomach, anterior
surface of left kidney, splenic flexure of colon,
tail of pancreas.
Q. 36. Name peritoneal folds attached to the liver.
Ans. Peritoneal folds attached to liver
1. Falciform ligament
2. Left triangular ligament
3. Right triangular ligament
4. Coronary ligament
5. Lesser omentum
Q. 37. Give lymphatic drainage of uterus.
Ans. Lymphatic drainage of uterus
Upper lymphatics—mainly aortic nodes (from
fundus and upper part of body) partly superficial inguinal nodes.
Lower lymphatics—Ext. iliac, interior iliac,
Sacral nodes (from cervix).
Middle lymphatics—Ext. iliac nodes (lower
part of body).
Q. 38. Enumerate unpaired branches of abdominal aorta.
Ans. 1. Coeliac axis
2. Superior mesenteric
3. Inferior mesenteric
4. Median sacral
Q. 39. Enumerate paired branches of abdominal aorta.
Ans. 1. Inferior phrenic 2. Middle suprarenal
3. Renal
4. Testicular or ovarian
5. Lumbar
6. Common iliac
Q. 40. Enumerate the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery.
Ans. 1. Lateral sacral
2. Ilio-lumbar
3. Superior gluteal
Q. 41. Enumerate the branches of anterior
division of internal iliac artery.
Ans. 1. Superior vesical
2. Obturator
3. Middle rectal
76 SAQs in Anatomy
4. Inferior vesical/vaginal
5. Inferior gluteal
6. Internal pudendal
7. Uterine (in females)
Q. 42. Enumerate the various anatomical layers
traversed by a needle inserted through
anterior abdominal wall in the midline to
withdraw excessive collection of peritoneal fluid.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. Linea alba
4. Fascia transversalis
5. Extraperitoneal fat
6. Parietal peritoneum.
Q. 43. Enumerate the various anatomical layers
traversed by a needle inserted through
anterior abdominal wall lateral to inferior
epigastric antery to withdraw excessive
collections of peritoneal fluid.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. External oblique muscle
4. Internal oblique muscle
5. Transversus abdominis muscles
6. Fascia transversalis
7. Extraperitoneal fat
8. Parietal peritoneum.
Q. 44. Give nerve supply of parietal peritoneum.
Ans. The parietal peritoneum lining the anterior
abdominal wall is supplied by lower six
thoracic and first lumbar nerves.
The central part of diaphragmatic peritonium—phrenic nerves. The peripheral part
of diaphragmatic peritoneum-lower six
thoracic nerves, the parietal peritoneum in the
pelvis-obturator nerve.
Q. 45. Enumerate branches of the lumbar
plexus.
Ans. 1. Iliohypogastric
2. Ilioinguinal
3. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
4. Genitofemoral
5. Femoral
Abdomen
77
6. Obturator
7. Branches to quadratus lumborum and
psoas major
8. Lumbosacral trunk.
Q. 46. Enumerate the arteries supplying the
anterior abdominal wall.
Ans. 1. Superior epigastric
2. Inferior epigastric
3. Musculophrenic
4. 9th to 12th intercostal
5. Superficial epigastric
6. Deep circumflex iliac arteries.
Q. 47. Enumerate the actions of anterior abdominal wall muscles.
Ans. 1. Flexion
2. Abduction
3. Rotation
4. Respiration
5. Fixation.
Q. 48. List the ligaments of vertebral column.
Ans. 1. Supraspinous ligament (ligamentum
nuchae in cervical region)
2. Interspinous ligaments
3. Ligamentum flavum
4. Anterior longitudinal ligament
5. Posterior longitudinal ligament.
Q. 49. Name muscles present in the superficial
perineal pouch.
Ans. 1. Ischiocavernosus
2. Bulbospongiosus
3. Superficial transversus perinei.
Q. 50. Name the structures a gynaecologist
would palpate during pervaginal examination of a normal female.
Ans. Anteriorly—urinary bladder, urethra
Posteriorly—loops of ileum, sigmoid colon
rectal ampulla. Perineal body.
Laterally—ureters, levator ani and urogenital
diaphragm
Q. 51. Name the structures palpated by a
surgeon’s gloved index finger inserted
into the anal canal and rectum of a normal
male.
Ans. Anteriorly—posterior surface of urinary
bladder, seminal vesicles, vas deferens,
prostate, perineal body, urogenital diaphragm,
bulb of penis.
78 SAQs in Anatomy
Posteriorly—Sacrum, coccyx, anococcygeal
body.
Laterally—ischiorectal fossa, ischial spines.
Q. 52. Name the structures palpated by a
surgeon’s gloved index finger inserted
into the anal canal and rectum of a normal
female.
Ans. Anteriorly—rectoutrine pouch, vagina, cervix,
urogenital diaphragm, and perineal body.
Posteriorly—sacrum, coccyx, anococcygeal
body.
Laterally—ischiorectal fossa, ischial spines.
Q. 53. Name the various anatomical structures
traversed by trocar and cannula when a
hydrococele (tunica vaginalis distended
with fluid) is tapped.
Ans. 1. Scrotal skin
2. Dartos muscle and membranous layer of
superficial fascia
3. External spermatic fascia
4. Cremateric fascia
5. Internal spermatic fascia
6. Parietal layer of tunica vaginalis.
Q. 54. Name the various anatomical structures
traversed by a lumbar puncture needle
for giving spinal anaesthesia.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. Supraspinous ligament
4. Interspinous ligament
5. Ligamentum flavum
6. Internal vertebral plexus
7. Dura mater
8. Arachnoid mater.
Q. 55. Name the nerves present in the superficial
perineal pouch.
Ans. 1. Posterior scrotal
2. Nerve to the bulb
3. Muscular branches
4. Long perineal nerve.
Q. 56. Enumerate the contents of Ischiorectal
fossa.
Ans. 1. Ischiorectal pad of fat
2. Inferior rectal nerves and vessels
Abdomen
79
3. Posterior scrotal or labial nerves and
vessels
4. Perineal branch of the 4th sacral nerve
5. Perforating cutaneous branches of nerves
S2,3
6. Pudendal canal with its contents.
Q. 57. Enumerate the muscles supplied by
pudendal nerve.
Ans. 1. External anal sphincter
2. Superficial transversus perinei
3. Deep transversus perinei
4. Bulbospongiosus
5. Ischiocavernosus
6. Levator ani
7. Sphincter urethrae
Q. 58. Enumerate the structures supplied by
pelvic splanchnic nerve.
Ans. 1. Motor to muscles of rectum and urinary
bladder
2. Inhibitory to the vesical sphincter
3. Vasodilator to the penile and clitoridic
erectile tissue
4. Vasodilator to the testes and ovaries.
Q. 59. Name the structures forming stomach
bed.
Ans. 1. Diaphragm
2. Left kidney
3. Left suprarenal
4. Pancreas
5. Transverse mesocolon
6. Splenic flexure of colon
7. Splenic artery.
Q. 60. Give the arterial supply of pancreas.
Ans. 1. Pancreatic branches of splenic artery.
2. Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
3. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
Q. 61. A paediatrician is doing umbilical artery
catheterisation in a newborn child for
administration of fluids. Enumerate the
blood vessels through which the catheter
passes.
Ans. 1. Umbilical artery
2. Internal iliac artery
80 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Common iliac artery
4. Aorta.
Q. 62. A paediatrician is doing umbilical vein
catheterisation in a newborn child for
exchange transfusion. Enumerate the
blood vessels through which the catheter
passes.
Ans. 1. Umbilical vein
2. Ductus venosus
3. Inferior vena cava.
Q 63. Name the structures supplied by pudendal nerve.
Ans. 1. External anal sphincter
2. Skin around anus
3. Anal canal below pectinate line
4. Skin of scrotum or labia majora
5. Urogenital muscles
6. Levator ani
7. Corpus spongiosum
8. Corpus cavernosum
9. Skin of the body of the penis and of the
glans.
Q. 64. Enumerate the various anatomical structures traversed by a needle for liver biopsy
in the 9th intercostal space in the
midaxillary line.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. External intercostal muscle
4. Internal intercostal muscle
5. Innermost intercostal muscle
6. Endothoracic fascia and parietal pleura
7. Costopherenic space
8. Pleura covering diaphragm
9. Diaphragm
10. Peritoneum over under surface of diaphragm, peritoneal recess between diaphragm and liver, peritoneum over liver
11. Liver.
Q. 65. Enumerate the various anatomical structures traversed by a needle for splenic
venography in the 9th intercostal space
in the midaxillary line.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
Abdomen
81
3. External intercostal
4. Internal intercostal
5. Innermost intercostal
6. Edothoracic fascia and parietal pleura
7. Costophrenic space
8. Pleura covering diaphragm
9. Diaphragm
10. Peritoneum over under surface of diaphragm,
peritoneal recess between diaphragm and
spleen, peritoneum over spleen
11. Spleen.
Q. 66. What are internal haemorrhoids (piles)?
Why are they painless?
Ans. Internal haemorrhoids is a fold of mucous
membrane and submucosa containing a
varicosed tributary of the superior rectal vein
and a terminal branch of the superior rectal
artery.
The internal haemorrhoids are painless
because they occur in the upper half of the anal
canal where the mucous membrane is
innervated by autonomic afferent nerves.
Q. 67. Enumerate the vascular segments of
kidney.
Ans. 1. Apical
2. Upper
3. Middle
4. Lower
5. Posterior
Q. 68. Enumerate the contents of the lienorenal
ligament.
Ans. 1. Tail of pancreas
2. Splenic vessels
3. Pancreatic splenic lymph nodes
4. Lymphatics and sympathetic nerves.
Q. 69. Specify the parts of peritoneal cavity
separating the spleen from the stomach
and the stomach from the kidney.
Ans. The spleen is separated from the stomach by
the greater sac.
The stomach is separated from the kidney by
the lesser sac.
Q. 70. Trace the path of extravasated urine in
case of rupture of bulbar urethra.
Ans. The extravasated urine in case of rupture of
the bulbar urethra may pass into the loose
82 SAQs in Anatomy
connective tissue in the serotum, around the
penis, and superiorly deep to the membranous
layer of the subcutaneous connective tissue of
the lower anterior abdominal wall.
Q. 71. Trace the path of extravasated urine and
blood in case of rupture of membranous
urethra.
Ans. The extravasated urine and blood in case of
rupture of membranous urethra pass into deep
perineal pouch and then superiorly and
extraperitoneally around prostate and urinary
bladder.
Q. 72. What is McBurney’s point? What is its
applied importance?
Ans. McBurney’s point lies at the junction of the
lateral 1/3 and medial 2/3 of the line joining
the umbilicus to the right anterior superior
iliac spine.
It is the site of maximum tenderness in appendicitis.
Q. 73. What is varicocele? Why it is common on
the left side?
Ans. Varicocele is a condition in which veins of the
pampiniform plexus are elongated and
dilated.
Varicocele is common on left side possibly
because:
1. Left testicular veins is longer than the right
testicular vein.
2. Left testicular vein enters left renal vein at
right angle.
3. Right testicular vein joins low pressure
inferior vena, whereas left testicular vein
joins left renal vein in which venous pressure is higher.
4. Left testicular vein is crossed by colon which
is often loaded.
5. The left renal vein passes anterior to the
aorta and posterior to the superior
mesenteric artery. The angle between these
two arteries which may be too narrow and
can cause compression of he left renal vein.
6. The left testicular vein is put into spasm
by adrenalin rich blood entering the left
renal vein from the left suprarenal vein.
Abdomen
83
Q. 74. Give boundaries of hepatorenal pouch.
Ans. A. Anteriorly
i. Inferior surface of right lobe of liver
ii. Gallbladder.
B. Posteriorly
i. Right suprarenal gland
ii. Upper part of right kidney
iii. 2nd part of duodenum
iv. Hepatic flexure of colon
v. Transverse mesocolon
C. Superiority—Inferior layer of coronary
ligament
D. Inferiority—Opens into general peritoneal
cavity.
Q. 75. Draw and label interior of the anal canal.
Q. 76. Enumerate the sites of portacaval anastomoses and name the blood vessels
taking part in the anastomoses.
Ans. 1. Umbilicus—left branch of the portal vein
and paraumbilical veins.
2. Lower end of oesophagus—oesophageal
tributaries of left gastric vein and oesophageal tributaries of the accessory hemiazygous vein
84 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Anal canal—superior rectal vein and
middle and inferior rectal vein.
4. Bare area of liver—hepatic venules and
phrenic and intercostal vein.
5. Posterior abdominal wall—veins of retroperitoneal organs like duodenum, ascending
and descending colon anastomose with
retroperitoneal veins of abdominal wall.
Q. 77. Enumerate the sphincters of the alimentary canal.
Ans. 1. Sphincter of the mouth—orbicularis oris
2. Sphincters of the pharynx
a. Nasopharyngeal
b. Cricopharyngeal
3. Sphincters of the stomach
a. Cardiac
b. Pyloric
4. Sphincters of the small intestine
a. Duodenojejunal flexure
b. Ileocaecal valve
5. Sphincters of the large intestine
a. Internal anal sphincter
b. External anal sphincter
Q. 78. A nurse is introducing a nasogastric tube
in a patient. Enumerate three sites of
oesophageal narrowing, which may offer
resistance to the nasogastric tube and
their approximate respective distances
from the nostrils.
Ans. 1. At the beginning of the oesophagus behind
the cricoid cartilage—18 cm.
2. Where the left bronchus and the arch of
aorta cross the front of oesophagus—
28 cm.
3. Where oesophagus enters the stomach—
44 cm.
Q.79. Enumerate ligaments of the liver.
Ans. I. False or peritoneal folds
a. Falciform ligament
b. Lesser omentum
Abdomen
85
c. Coronary ligament – Superior layer,
Inferior layer
d. Right triangular ligament
e. Left triangular ligament
II. True ligaments a. Ligamentum teres hepatis
b. Ligamentum venosum
Q. 80. Summarise circulation of blood within the
liver.
Ans. The liver receives double blood supply form
the portal vein and the hepatic artery.
Q. 81. Mention supports of the liver.
Ans. Supports of the liver
1. Hepatic veins
2. Surrounding viscera
3. Intra-abdominal pressure
4. Peritoneal ligaments
Q. 82. Mention the vertebral levels of the
following structures.
1. Xiphoid process (infrasternal or subcostal angle)
86 SAQs in Anatomy
2. Highest point of iliac crest
3. Anterior superior iliac spine
4. Intertubercular plane
5. Pubic symphysis
6. Posterior superior iliac spine.
Ans. 1. Xiphoid process – ninth thoracic vertebra
2. Highest point of iliac crest – L3-L4 junction
3. Intertubercular plane – fifth lumbar
vertebra
4. Anterior superior iliac spine – sacral promontary
5. Posterior superior iliac spine – S2
6. Pubic symphysis – coccyx
Q. 83. Name parts of the male urethra mentioning the shapes of the lumen of each
part in cross-section.
Ans. 1. Prostatic part – crescentric with the
convexity in front.
2. Membranous part – stellate
3. Spongy part –
i. At the bulb of the penis – trapezoid
ii. At the body of the penis – transverse
slit
iii. At the external orifice – sagittal slit
Q. 84. Draw and label anterior and posterior
relations of the right kidney.
Ans.
Right Kidney
Abdomen
87
Q. 85. Draw and label anterior and posterior
relations of the left kidney.
Ans. Left kidney
Q. 86. What is inguinal ligament? Mention its
length, attachment and expansions.
Ans. Inguinal ligament is the thickened lower border
of the aponeurosis of the external oblique of
the abdomen which is folded backwards
presenting a grooved upper surface. It is about
12 to 14 cm in length and is attached laterally
to the anterior superior iliac spine and
medially to the public tubercle.
From the medial end inguinal ligament
presents three expansions 1) lacunar ligament
2) reflected part of inguinal ligament and 3)
pectineal ligament.
Q. 87. Enumerate structures attached to the
inguinal ligament
Ans. Grooved upper surface 1. Lateral two-third – origin of the internal
oblique muscle.
2. Lateral one-third – origin of the transverse
abdominis muscle.
3. Middle one-third – origin of cremaster
muscle in males.
Lower surface of inguinal ligament gives
attachment to the fascia lata.
Q. 88. Enumerate structures crossing the pelvic
brim.
Ans. 1. Median sacral artery
2. Sympathetic chain
3. Lumbosacral trunk
4. Iliolumbar artery
88 SAQs in Anatomy
5. Obturator nerve
6. Ureter
7. Internal iliac artery
8. Internal iliac vein
9. Vas deference in males
10. Ovarian artery and round ligament of
uterus in females
11. Coils of small intestine
12. Median umbilical ligament
13. Medial umbilical ligament
14. Lateral umbilical ligament
15. Sigmoid colon
16. Appendix, if pelvic in position
Q. 89. Enumerate the tributaries of the internal
iliac vein.
Ans. A. Veins arising in and outside the pelvic wall
1. Superior gluteal
2. Inferior gluteal
3. Internal pudendal
4. Obturator
5. Lateral sacral veins
B. Veins arising from the plexuses of the pelvic
viscera
1. Rectal
2. Prostatic
3. Vesical
4. Uterine
5. Vaginal
Q. 90. What is inguinal canal? Mention its
contents.
Ans. The inguinal canal is musculoaponeurotic
canal about 4 cm in length extending from the
deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal
ring. It is directed downwards forwards and
medially above and parallel with the medial
half of he inguinal ligament.
Contents – spermatic cord in males, round
ligament of uterus in females, ilioinguinal
nerve (partial content).
Q. 91. Give the classification of pelvis according
to the shape of the inlet.
Ans. 1. Gynaecoid – the shape of the inlet is round,
transverse diameter is widest.
2. Android – the shape of the inlet is like a
heart of playing card. Sacral promontory
projects much forwards.
Abdomen
89
3. Anthropoid – the shape of the inlet is
sagittally oval. The anteroposterior
diameter is more than the transverse
diameter
4. Platypoid – the shape of the inlet is
transversely oval. The transverse diameter
is disproportionately wider than anteroposterior diameter.
Q.92. What is sacral index? How much is the
sacral index in males and in females?
Ans. The quantitative expression of the
relationship between the length and breadth
of the sacrum is called sacral index. It is
calculated as follows:
Breadth across the base × 100
Length from promontory to the apex
Sacral index - Male-105, Female-115
Q. 93 What is umbilicus? What it represents?
Give its characteristics.
Ans. The umbilicus is a depressed scar on the
anterior abdominal wall. It represents the site
of attachment of the umbilical cord to the
ventral surface of the foetus.
Characteristics of umbilicus are absence of
hair, sebaceous glands, sweat glands and fat,
as it is a scar. Umbilicus has upper sharp
margin due to contraction of left umbilical vein
(ligamentum teres), it is a natural watershed
line for arteries, veins and lymphatics.
Q. 94. Enumerate the structures from which
pain may be referred to the umbilicus.
Give reasons.
Ans. The structures from which pain may be referred
to the umbilicus are
1. Appendix
2. Ureter
3. Testis
4. Ovary
5. Kidney
The umbilicus is supplied by tenth intercostal
nerve. The sympathetic nerves from the lateral
cell column of the tenth segment of the spinal
cord supply above mentioned structures.
Therefore the pain is referred to the umbilicus.
90 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 95. Give boundaries of the inguinal canal.
Ans. 1. Anterior wall – skin, superficial fascia,
aponeurosis of the external oblique, lateral
one third by fleshy fibres of the internal
oblique.
2. Posterior wall – fascia transversalis, in the
medial half by conjoint tendon, reflected
part of the inguinal ligament.
3. Roof – arched fibres of the internal and
transverses abdominis muscles.
4. Floor – grooved upper surface of the
inguinal ligament, medially by the lacunar
ligament
5. Inlet – deep inguinal ring
6. Outlet – superficial inguinal ring.
Q. 96. Define transpyloric plane. Mention the
structures situated at this level.
Ans. The transpyloric plane is an imaginary
transverse plane passing through tip of the
9th costal cartilage anteriorly and lower part
of the body of the first lumbar vertebra
posteriorly.
Structures situated at the level of transpyloric
plane are:
1. Pyloric end of the stomach
2. Fundus of the gallbladder
3. Hila of both kidneys
4. Origin of superior mesenteric artery
5. Lower end of the spinal cord
6. Cisterna chyli
Q. 97. What is watershed line?
Ans. It is a transverse line drawn at the level of the
umbilicus which demarcates the direction of
flow of subcutaneous lymphatics from the
upper area of the abdominal wall bilaterally
into axillary lymph nodes and those from the
lower area drain bilaterally in to superficial
inguinal lymph nodes.
Q. 98. What is lesser sac? Why it is called omental
bursa?
Ans. Lesser sac is a large recess of peritoneal cavity
or greater sac. It is situated behind the
stomach. It is closed on all sides except at the
epiploic foramen through which it communicates with the greater sac.
Abdomen
91
Omentum means fatty membrane and bursa
means purse.
The lesser sac acts as a bursa to allow
expansion of the stomach therefore, it is called
as omental bursa.
Q.99. What is cisterna chyli? Mention its
dimensions and situation. Name its
tributaries. Which one of these brings
chyle and from which organ?
Ans. Cisterna chyli is a dilated lymph sac about 5
to 7 cm long situated in front of the first and
second lumbar vertebrae. Cisterna chyli
receives intestinal lymph trunks, right and left
lumbar lymph trunks. It receives chyle from
the intestinal lymph trunk. The intestinal
trunk brings lymph from the stomach, intestines, pancreas, spleen and anteroinferior part
of the liver.
Q.100. Specify the layers of superficial fascia in
the lower part of the anterior abdominal
wall. What is Holden’s line? Mention its
importance.
Ans. Below the level of umbilicus the superficial
fascia of the anterior abdominal wall is divided
into superficial fatty layer (fascia of camper)
and a deep membranous layer (fascia of
scarpa).
The membranous layer is firmly attached to
the deep fascia of thigh along a horizontal line,
which begins little lateral to the pubic tubercle
and extends laterally for about 8 cm. This line
is called as Holden’s line.
The extravasated urine in the superficial
perineal pouch is prevented from descending
in to the thigh beyond Holden’s line due to the
firm attachment of scarpa’s layer and deep
fascia of the thigh.
Q.101. What is renal angle? What is its clinical
importance?
Ans. Renal angle is an angle between the lower
border of the twelfth rib and the lateral border
of erector spinae muscle.
Posterior surface of the lower part of kidney
lies beneath the renal angle, which is not
encroached by the costodiaphragmatic recess
92 SAQs in Anatomy
of the pleura. Renal colic pain usually radiates
downwards and forwards from the renal angle
to the groin. Surgically the kidney is exposed
retroperitoneally by an oblique incision, which
extends downwards and forwards commencing
from the renal angle.
Q.102. Through which veins collateral venous
circulation is established between
superior and inferior vena cavae in
thrombosis of inferior vena cava.
Ans. In thrombosis of inferior vena cava collateral
venous circulation between the superior and
inferior vena cavae is established through
superficial or deep veins or both.
The participating superficial veins include
epigastric, circumflex iliac, lateral thoracic,
thoracoepigastric, internal thoracic, posterior
intercostal, external pudendal and lumbar
vertebral veins.
The deep veins are the azygous, hemiazygous
and lumbar veins. The vertebral venous plexus
may also provide an effective collateral
circulation between the two vena cavae.
Q.103. Give characteristics of the male pelvis.
Ans. Characteristics of the male pelvis are:
1. The subpubic angle is 50° to 60°
2. Ischiopupic rami markedly everted and
rough
3. Ischial tuberosities are not everted
4. Greater sciatic notch 50°
5. Sacral promontory is more projecting
forwards, pelvic inlet is heart shaped.
6. Transverse diameter is placed nearer the
promontory
7. Body of the first sacral vertebra forms more
than one-third of the base
8. The pelvic cavity is longer and more conical.
The walls converge inferiorly so that outlet
is smaller than the inlet.
9. Sacral part of chilotic line is longer than
the pelvic part.
10. Pelvis is heavier and thicker and bony
markings are more prominent.
Q.104. Give characteristics of the female pelvis.
Ans. Characteristics of the female pelvis are:
1. The subpubic angle is wider 80 to 85°
Abdomen
93
2. The ischiopubic rami are thinner and not
everted
3. The ischial tuberosities are more everted
4. The greater sciatic notch is wider 75°
5. Preauricular sulcus is deeper (in parous
women)
6. Ischial spines are wider apart
7. Pelvic in let is larger and more circular.
Transverse diameter is placed well forward
from the promontory
8. The body of the first sacral vertebra forms
one-third or less of the base.
9. The pelvic cavity is shorter and more
cylindrical (wide and roomy)
10. The pelvic part of the chilotic line is longer
than the sacral part.
Q.105. Mention the factors which cause obliteration of the inguinal canal preventing
inguinal hernia.
Ans. 1. Obliquity of the inguinal canal.
2. Deep inguinal ring is guarded from the front
by the fleshy fibres of the internal oblique
3. Superficial inguinal ring is guarded from
behind by the conjoint tendon
4. Arching fibres of the internal oblique and
transverse abdominis form shutter
mechanism
5. Contraction of the cremaster muscle plugs
the superficial inguinal ring (Ball valve
mechanism)
6. Contraction of the external oblique results
in approximation of the two crura of the
superficial inguinal ring (Slit valve mechanism).
Q.106. What is dartos muscle? Give it’s nerve
supply and functions.
Ans. The dartos is an involuntary thin muscle in
the superficial fascia of the scrotum. It is
supplied by sympathetic fibres passing
through the genital branch of genitofemoral
nerve. It is responsible for keeping scrotal
temperature at an optimum level through thin
fat free skin. An essential prerequisite for
normal spermatogenesis. In cold weather it
contracts and the area of scrotal skin is
94 SAQs in Anatomy
reduced by wrinkhing, to prevent loss of heat.
In hot weather the muscle relaxes. The area of
scrotal skin is increased to promote loss of
heat.
Q.107. Give morphology of coeliac ganglia.
Ans. Coeliac ganglia are the largest ganglia in the
body. They are situated on each side of the
coeliac trunk adjacent to the suprarenal
glands, anterior to the crura of the diapragm.
They are connected by coeliac plexus. Each
ganglion is irregular in shape and divided into large upper part which receives greater
splanching nerve and a smaller lower part
which receives lesser splanchnic nerves.
Q.108. Give morphology of the coeliac plexus or
the solar plexus.
Ans. The coeliac or solar plexus is the largest
autonomic plexus in the body. It is a dense
network situated at the level of T12 and L1 on
the aorta around coeliac axis artery and the
root of the superior mesenteric artery.
Connecting two coeliac ganglia. The plexus is
joined by greater and lesser splanchnic nerves
and branches from the vagus and phrenic
nerves.
Q.109. Name various secondary plexuses to
which the coeliac plexus is connected or
name various plexuses which the coeliac
plexus gives rise to?
Ans. The coeliac plexus is connected to or gives rise
to phrenic, splenic, hepatic, superior mesenteric, suprarenal, renal and gonadal plexuses.
Q.110. Give morphology and connections of the
superior hypogastric plexus (presacral
nerve).
Ans. The superior hypogastric plexus lies, in front
of the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta, the
body of the vertebra L5, the promontory of the
sacrum and between the two common iliac
arteries. Though it is called presacral nerve, it
is neither a single nerve nor presacral in
position.
The plexus is formed by:
A. Sympathetic nerves – (1) Descending fibres
from the aortic plexus, (2) Third and fourth
lumbar splanchnic nerves.
Abdomen
95
B. Parasympathetic nerves – Fibres from the
pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2 3 4), reach
through inferior hypogastric plexus.
Q.111. Give nerve supply of the scrotum. Mention
it’s clinical importance.
Ans. The anterior one-third of the scrotum is
supplied by L1 through ilioinguinal nerve and
genital branch of genitofemoral nerve. The
posterior two-thirds of the scrotum are
supplied by S3 through posterior scrotal and
perineal branch of posterior cutaneous nerve
of thigh. The areas supplied by segments L1
and S3 are separated by the ventral axial line.
As the scrotum is supplied by widely separated dermatomes L1 and S3 spinal anaesthesia of the whole scrotum is difficult to
achieve.
Q.112. What is conjoint tendon? What is it’s
function?
Ans. The conjoint tendon or falx inguinalis is formed
by fusion of the lowest aponeurotic fibres of
the internal oblique and of the transverse
abdominis muscles and is attached to the
pubic crest and to the medial part of the pectan
pubis.
The conjoint tendon guards the superficial
inguinal ring from behind.
Q.113. What is nervus furcalis? Why it is called
so?
Ans. The ventral ramus of fourth lumbar nerve is
called as nervus furcalis. The upper branch of
the fourth lumbar ventral ramus joins with
the branches of the first to third to form the
lumbar plexus, while it’s lower branch joins
the fifth lumbar ventral ramus to form the
lumbosacral trunk which descends to the
sacral plexus. Because it divides to send nerve
fibres to both plexuses, the fourth lumbar
ventral ramus is called the nervus furcalis.
Q.114. Which nerves may be damaged in injuries
to the transverse process of the fifth
lumbar vertebra?
Ans. The roots of the obturator and femoral nerves
and the contribution from the fourth lumbar
96 SAQs in Anatomy
ventral rami to the lumbosacral trunk all run
anterior to the fifth lumbar transverse process.
Any or all of them may be damaged in injuries
of this process.
Q.115. Which nerves may be involved in disease
of the sacroiliac joint, and in which region
the pain will be felt?
Ans. 1. Obturator nerve
2. Femoral nerve
3. Lumbosacral trunk
4. First sacral ventral ramus
The pain will be felt along anteromedial and
posteromedial aspect of the thigh and the leg
and not at the site of involvement.
Q.116. What are the weak spots in the abdomen
through which hernia may occur?
Ans. Deep inguinal ring
Superficial inguinal ring
Umbilicus
Greater and lesser sciatic foramina
Femoral ring
Lumbar triangle
6 HEAD, FACE AND NECK
Q. 1. Name the structures underlying a line
joining the nasion to the external occipital
protuberance over the superior aspect of
the head.
Ans. 1. Falx cerebri
2. Superior sagittal sinus
3. Longitudinal cerebral fissure.
Q. 2. Enumerate the peripheral superficial
cervical lymph nodes.
Ans. 1. Occipital
2. Posterior auricular (mastoid)
3. Parotid (preauricular)
4. Buccal and mandibular
5. Submandibular
6. Submental
Q. 3. Enumerate unpaired bones of the cranium.
Ans. 1. Frontal
2. Occipital
3. Sphenoid
4. Ethmoid
Q. 4. Enumerate paired bones of the cranium.
Ans. 1. Parietal
2. Temporal
Q. 5. Name paired bones of the facial skeleton.
Ans. 1. Zygomatic
2. Maxilla
3. Nasal
4. Lacrimal
5. Palatine
6. Inferior chonca
Q. 6. Name unpaired bones of facial skeleton.
Ans. 1. Vomer
2. Mandible
Q. 7. Give dental formula for permanent teeth.
Ans. 2, 1, 2, 3
2- Incisors
1-Canine
on each side of each arch
2-Premolars
3-Molars
⎫
⎬
⎭
98 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 8. Enumerate the anatomical structure cut
by a scalpel to perform cricothyroidectomy to establish adequate airway.
Ans. The incision is taken between cricoid cartilage
and thyroid cartilage.
The layers encountered are:
1. Skin
2. Superfical fascia
3. Investing layer of deep cervical fascia
4. Pretracheal fascia
5. Cricothyroid ligament.
Q. 9. Enumerate the anatomical structures
encountered by a scalpal while performing a tracheostomy operation.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. Investing layer of deep cervical fascia
4. Pretracheal fascia
5. 2nd tracheal ring.
Q. 10. Name the muscles attached to the body of
hyoid bone.
Ans. 1. Geniohyoid
2. Mylohyoid
3. Part of hyoglossus
4. Genioglossus
5. Sternohyoid
6. Omohyoid.
Q. 11. Give the nerve supply and actions of
stapedius.
Ans. Stapedius is supplied by facial nerve. Stapedius draws the stapes laterally. It exerts
damping effect of sound vibrations to protect
the internal ear from loud sounds.
Q. 12. Give the nerve supply and actions of
tensor tympani.
Ans. Tensor tympani is supplied by mandibular
nerve.
Tensor tympani draws the handle of malleus
medially and tightens the tympanic membrane.
Q. 13. Enumerate prevertebral muscles of the
neck.
Ans. 1. Longus coli
2. Longus capitis
Head, Face and Neck 99
3. Rectus capitis anterior
4. Rectus capitis lateralis
Q. 14. What are arachnoid granulations? What
is their function?
Ans. Arachnoid granulations are normal enlargement of arachnoid villi which are protrusions
of arachnoid through dura in the dural venous
sinuses, especially superior sagittal sinus.
Arachnoid granulations are valvular structures, which permit cerebrospinal fluid to pass
into venous system but prevent the reflux of
blood.
Q. 15. Name the contents of temporal fossa.
Ans. 1. Temporalis muscle
2. Deep temporal vessels and nerves
3. Auriculo temporal nerve
4. Superior temporal artery.
Q.16. Name the contents of infratemporal fossa.
Ans. 1 Lateral pterygoid muscle
2. Medial pterygoid muscle
3. Branches of mandibular nerve
4. Otic ganglion
5. Chorda tympani nerve
6. Pterygoid venous plexus
7. Branches of maxillary artery.
Q. 17. Name the muscles which bring about elevation of hyoid bone.
Ans. 1. Anterior belly of diagastic
2. Posterior belly of diagastic
3. Stylohyoid
4. Mylohyoid
Q. 18. Name the muscles which bring about
depression of hyoid bone.
Ans. 1. Sternohyoid
2. Omohyoid
3. Thyrohyoid
4. Sternothyroid
Q. 19. Name the muscles which bring about
protraction and retraction of hyoid bone.
Ans. Protraction—Geniohyoid
Retraction—Middle constrictor of pharynx
stylohyoid
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Q. 20. Enumerate the muscles which bring
about flexion of the neck.
Ans. 1. Sternocleidomastoid
2. Longus coli
3. Longus capitis
4. Rectus capitis anterior.
Q. 21. What are fontanelles? Enumerate the
fontanelles?
Ans. Fontanelles are unossified membranous gaps
at the four angles of the parietal bones in foetal
and neonatal skull.
Anterior fontanelle–1
Posterior fontanelle–1
Anterolateral (sphenoid)–2
Posterolateral (mastoid)–2.
Q. 22. Give functions of fontanelles.
Ans. 1. Fontanelles cause moulding of the skull
during parturition.
2. Fontanelles allow growth of the brain.
Q. 23. Give applied anatomy of fontanelles.
Ans. 1. In dehydration anterior fontanelle is
depressed.
2. In hydrocephalous, anterior fontanelle is
buldging and closure of the fontanelle is
delayed.
3. Venous blood can be collected through
anterior fontanelle from the superior sagittal sinus.
Q. 24. Enumerate paranasal air sinuses.
Ans. 1. Maxillary
2. Sphenoid
3. Ethmoid
4. Frontal
Q. 25. What are the functions of paranasal air
sinuses?
Ans. Exact functions of paranasal air sinuses are
not known, but they are thought to:
1. Lighten the skull
2. Add resonance to the voice
3. Conditioning of the air.
Q. 26. Give blood supply of the dura mater.
Ans. Blood supply of dura mater.
1. Vault—middle meningeal artery
2. Anterior cranial fossa—meningeal branches of—
Head, Face and Neck 101
a. Anterior ethmoidal
b. Posterior ethmoidal
c. Ophthalmic.
3. Middle cranial fossa—
a. Middle meningeal
b. Accessory menigeal
c. Internal carotid
d. Meningeal branches of ascending pharyngeal.
4. Posterior cranial fossa—meningeal branches of
a. Vertebral
b. Occipital
c. Ascending pharyngeal.
Q. 27. Name the branches of mandibular nerve.
Ans. Branches of mandibular nerve are
A. Main Trunk
1. Meningeal branch
2. Nerve to medial pterygoid
– Tensor palati
–Tensor tympani
B. Anterior trunk
1. Sensory branch: the buccal nerve
2. Motor branch: masseteric, deep temporal
nerve.
3. Nerve to lateral pterygoid.
C. Posterior trunk
1. Auriculotemporal
2. Lingual
3. Inf. Alveolar
Q. 28. Name the branches of vagus nerve in the
head and neck.
Ans. Branches of vagus nerve in the head and neck
are:
A. In the jugular foramen the superior ganglion gives off
1. Meningeal
2. Auricular branches
The ganglion gives off communicating
branches to the 9th and 11th cranial and
to the superior cervical sympathetic
ganglion
B. The branches arising in the neck are:
1. Pharyngeal
2. Carotid
3. Superior laryngeal
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SAQs in Anatomy
4. Rt. recurrent laryngeal
5. Cardiac.
Q. 29. Name the branches of maxillary nerve.
Ans. 1. Orbital branches
2. Palatine branches
– greater palatine nerve
– lesser palatine nerve.
3. Nasal branches
– the lat post sup. nasal nerve
– The medial post sup. nasal nerve
– Nasopalatine nerve.
4. Pharyngeal branch
Q. 30. Central artery of retina is a branch of
which artery? What is its clinical importance?
Ans. Central artery of retina is a branch of
ophthalmic artery
Clinical Importance:
1. Central artery of retina is an end artery.
2. Occlusion of the artery results in blindness.
3. The intraocular part of the artery can be
seen in the living, through an ophthalmoscope
Q. 31. Name two sites where branches of
internal and external carotid artery
anastomose?
Ans. The two sites where the branches of internal
and external carotid artery anastomoses are
1. At the medial angle of the eye, terminal
branches of the facial artery anastomose
with dorsal nasal branches of the
ophthalmic artery.
2. On the scalp where the superficial temporal and supra-orbital artery anastomose.
Q. 32. Give boundaries of the suboccipital
triangle.
Ans. Superomedially – rectus capitis posterior
major, rectus capitis posterior minor muscle.
Superolaterally – superior oblique muscle
Inferiorly – inferior oblique muscle
Roof- medially dense fibrous tissue covered
by semispinalis capitis, laterally longissimus
capitis.
Floor – posterior arch of atlas, posterior atlanto
occipital membrane.
Head, Face and Neck 103
Q. 33. Give boundaries of the carotid triangle.
Ans. Superiorly – posterior belly of the diagastric
and stylohyoid muscles
Anteroinferiorly—superior belly of the
omohyoid.
Posteriorly-anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid
Roof – skin, superficial fascia, investing layer
of deep cervical fascia
Floor – it is formed by parts of the thyrohyoid,
the hyoglossus and the middle and inferior
constrictors of the pharynx.
Q. 34. Give boundaries of the diagastric triangle.
Ans. Anteroinferiorly – anterior belly of diagastric
Posteroinferiorly – posterior belly of diagastric
and stylohyoid muscle.
Superiorly – base of the mandible and a line
joining the angle of the mandible to the
mastoid process.
Roof – skin, superficial fascia containing
platysma, deep fascia.
Floor – mylohyoid muscle anteriorly and
hyoglossus posteriorly.
Q. 35. Give the secretomotor nerve supply of submandibular salivary gland.
Ans. The secretomotor pathway begins in the
superior salivatory nucleus. Preganglionic
fibers pass through the sensory root of the
facial nerve, the geniculate ganglion, the facial
nerve, the chorda tympani and the lingual
nerve to reach the submandibular ganglion,
the fibers relay in ganglion. The postganglionic fiber re-enter in the lingual nerve
and supply the submandibular gland.
Q. 36. Name any 4 congenital anomalies of teeth.
Ans. 1. Abnormally sized teeth-Macrodontia;
microdontia
2. Fused teeth
3. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
4. Discoloured teeth
5. Supernumerary teeth
6. Adontia
Q. 37. Name the changes occurring at C6 level.
Ans. 1. Larynx ends
2. Trachea begins
3. Pharynx ends
4. Oesophagus begins.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 38. Name the structures passing through
foramen magnum.
Ans. A. Through the wider post-part
1. Lower part of medulla
2. Meninges
B. Through the subarachnoid space
1. Spinal accessory nerve
2. Vertebral arteries.
3. Sympathetic plexus around vertebral
arteries
4. Posterior spinal arteries
5. Anterior spinal artery
C. Through the narrow anterior part
1. Apical ligament of dens
2. Membrana tectoria
Q. 39. Name suprahyoid muscles and give their
nerve supply.
Ans. 1. Anterior and posterior belly of diagastric.
2. Stylohyoid
3. Mylohyoid
4. Geniohyoid
The anterior belly of diagastric is supplied by
mylohyoid nerve. The posterior belly of diagastric and stylohyoid are supplied by facial
nerve.
The mylohyoid is supplied by mylohyoid nerve.
The geniohyoid is supplied by separate
branches from 1st cervical nerve through
hypoglossal nerve.
Q. 40. Name the infrahyoid muscles and give
their nerve supply.
Ans. The infrahyoid muscles are:
1. Sternohyoid
2. Sternothyroid
3. Thyrohyoid
4. Omohyoid (superior and Inferior belly)
The sternohyoid and sternothyroid are
supplied by ansa cervicalis.
The thyrohyoid is supplied by 1st cervical
nerve through hypoglossal nerve.
The superior belly is supplied by superior root
of ansa cervicalis and inferior belly by ansa
cervicalis.
Head, Face and Neck 105
Q. 41. Name the branches of external carotid
artery.
Ans. Branches of external carotid artery:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Lingual artery
3. Ascending pharyngeal artery
4. Facial artery
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular
7. Superficial temporal
8. Maxillary.
Q. 42. Name the branches of internal carotid
artery.
Ans. The branches of internal carotid artery are:
1. Cervical part—no branch
2. Petrous part—
i. Caroticotympanic
ii. Pterygoid
3. Cavernous part—
i. Cavernous branch
ii. Hypophyseal branch
iii. Meningeal
4. Cerebral part—
i. Ophthalmic
ii. Anterior cerebral
iii. Middle cerebral
iv. Posterior communicating
v. Anterior choroidal.
Q. 43. Name the branches of maxillary artery.
Ans. The branches of maxillary artery are:
1. 1st part—
i. Deep auricular
ii. Anterior tympanic
iii. Middle meningeal
iv. Accessory meningeal
v. Inferior alveolar
2. IInd part—
i. Deep temporal
ii. Pterygoid
iii. Masseteric
iv. Buccal
3. IIIrd part—
i. Infraorbital
ii. Posterior superior alveolar
iii. Greater palatine
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SAQs in Anatomy
iv. Pharyngeal
v. Artery of pterygoid canal
vi. Sphenopalatine.
Q. 44. Name the branches of subclavian artery.
Ans. The branches of subclavian artery are:
1. Vertebral
2. Internal thoracic
3. Thyrocervical trunk
– Inf. thyroid
– Suprascapular
– Transverse cervical (superficial cervical)
4. Costo-cervical trunk
– superior intercostal
– deep cervical
5. Dorsal scapular.
Q. 45. Name the branches of facial artery.
Ans. Branches of facial artery are:
1. Ascending palatine
2. Tonsillar
3. Glandular
4. Submental
5. Inferior labial
6. Superior labial
7. Lateral nasal.
Q. 46. Enumerate diaphragms in the body.
Ans. The diaphragms in the body are:
1. Diaphragma sellae
2. Oral diaphragm (mylohyoid muscle)
3. Supra-pleural membrane (Sibson’s fascia)
4. Thoraco abdominal diaphragm
5. Pelvic diaphragm
6. Urogenital diaphragm.
Q. 47. Name the nerves passing through the
triangular area formed by the crossing of
free and attached margins of tentorium
cerebelli.
Ans. The nerves passing through the triangular area
are:
1. Oculomotor nerve
2. Trochlear nerve.
Head, Face and Neck 107
Q. 48. What is ansa cervicalis? Name the muscles
supplied by it.
Ans. This is a thin nerve loop that lies embedded in
the anterior wall of the carotid sheath over
the lower part of the larynx.
It mainly supplies the infrahyoid muscles.
Its distribution is as follows:
1. Superior root—to the superior belly of
omohyoid
2. Ansa cervicalis—to the Sternohyoid
Sternothyroid
Inferior belly of
omohyoid
Q. 49. Enumerate paired dural venous sinuses.
Ans. Paired dural venous sinuses are:
1. Cavernous sinus
2. Superior petrosal sinus
3. Inferior petrosal sinus
4. Transverse sinus
5. Sigmoid sinus
6. Sphenoparietal sinus
Q. 50. Enumerate unpaired dural venous sinuses.
Ans. Unpaired dural venous sinuses are:
1. Superior sagittal sinuses
2. Inferior sagittal sinus
3. Straight sinus
4. Occipital sinus
5. Anterior intercavernous sinus
6. Posterior intercavernous sinus.
Q. 51. Enumerate the structures which constitute the lacrimal apparatus.
Ans. 1. Lacrimal gland and its ducts
2. Conjuctival sac
3. Lacrimal puncta and lacrimal canaliculi
4. Lacrimal sac
5. Nasolacrimal duct.
Q. 52. Enumerate the branches of ophthalmic
division of trigeminal nerve which supply
skin of the face.
Ans. 1. Supratrochlear
2. Supraorbital
3. Lacrimal
4. Infratrochlear
5. External nasal.
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Q. 53. Give boundaries of suprameatal triangle.
What is its surgical importance?
Ans. Above: Supramastoid crest
In front: Postero-superior margin of external
acoustic meatus.
Behind: Vertical tangent to the posterior
margin of meatus.
In operation of mastoid process, a surgeon
approaches through suprameatal triangle.
Care must be taken by the surgeon not to approach above supramastoid crest as he may
enter cranial cavity.
Q. 54. What is pterion? Give its surgical importance.
Ans. Pterion is the meeting point of frontal, squamous part of temporal, greater wing of
sphenoid and parietal bones. In fractures of
skull if middle meningeal artery, is ruptured
it causes extradural haematoma, which can
be drained by trephining at the pterion.
Q. 55. Specify the formation course and
termination of the external jugular vein.
Ans. The external jugular vein is formed by union
of the posterior auricular Vein with the
posterior division of the retromandibular vein.
It begins with in the lower part of the parotid
gland, crosses the sternocleidomastoid
obliquely, pierces the anteroinferior angle of
the roof of the posterior triangle of the neck
and opens into the subclavian vein.
Q. 56. Specify the situation formation and continuation of the straight sinus.
Ans. The straight sinus lies in the median plane
with in the junction of the falx cerebri and
tentoruim cerebelli.
The union of the inferior sagittal sinus with
great cerebral vein forms the straights sinus.
It ends at the internal occipital protuberance
by continuing as the transverse sinus (usually
left).
Q. 57. Enumerate branches of the vertebral
arteries.
Ans. A. Cervical branches—
1. Spinal branches
2. Muscular branches
Head, Face and Neck 109
B. Cranial branches—
1. Meningeal
2. Anterior spinal
3. Posterior inferior cerebellar
4. Medullary
Q. 58. Osteomyelitis of the jaw following dental
extractions is confined to the lower jaw
and occurs only with the permanent teeth.
Explain on the anatomical basis.
Ans. The lower jaw is supplied only by the inferior
alveolar artery which runs with the nerve in
the mandibular canal. Damage to this artery
during extraction of teeth or it’s thrombosis in
subsequent infection produces bone necrosis.
The upper jaw on the other hand receives
segmental vertical branches of the superior
alveolar vessels, and ischaemia does not follow
injury to an individual artery.
The deciduous teeth of the lower jaw are placed
well clear of the mandibular canal which is
protected by unerrupted permanent teeth.
Damage to the artery can not therefore occur
during their removal.
Q. 59. Enumerate the movements of the temporomandibular joint and mention the
muscles producing them.
Ans. 1. Depression – Lateral pterygoid mainly
The diagastric, geniohyoid and mylohyoid
muscles help when the mouth is opened wide
or against resistance.
2. Elevation – The masseter, medial pterygoid and temporalis.
3. Side to side movements – Lateral and
medial pterygoids of each side acting
alternately.
4. Protraction – Lateral and medial pterygoids acting together.
5. Retraction – Posterior fibres of temporalis.
Q. 60. Name the muscles attached to the poste
rior border of the lamina of the thyroid
cartilage.
Ans. 1. Stylopharyngeus
2. Palatopharyngeus
3. Salpingopharyngeus
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Q. 61. Name the muscles attached to the oblique
line of the lamina of the thyroid cartilage.
Ans. 1. Thyrohyoid
2. Sternothyroid
3. Thyropharyngeus part of inferior constrictor.
Q. 62. Give differences between cranial and
spinal dura mater.
Ans.
Carnial dura
Spinal dura
1. It has two
It has only
layers-endosteal
one layer
and meningeal
i.e. meningeal
2. Meningeal layer
It does not
forms various folds form any fold
of dura mater viz
falx cerebri
3. Venous sinuses
Venous sinuses
are present
are absent.
between two
layers
4. No Epidural
Epidural space
space is present.
is present.
Q. 63. Give nerve supply of the pharyngotympanic tube.
Ans. 1. At the ostium – pharyngeal branch of the
pterygopalatine ganglion.
2. Cartilaginous Part – nervous spinosum
(mandibular nerve)
3. Bony Part – tympanic plexus (Glossopharyngeal nerve)
Q. 64. Specify the blood supply of the tympanic
membrane.
Ans. The deep auricular branch of the maxillary
artery supplies outer surface of the tympanic
membrane.
The inner surface of the tympanic membrane
is supplied by the anterior tympanic branch of
the maxillary and posterior tympanic branch
of the stylomastoid branch of the posterior
auricular artery.
Venous drainage – Veins from outer surface
drain into external jugular vein and those from
inner surface brain in to the transverse sinus.
Head, Face and Neck 111
Q. 65. Mention the situation, tributaries drainage and communications of the pterygoid
plexus of veins.
Ans. The pterygoid plexus of veins lies around and
with in the lateral pterygoid muscle.
The tributaries of the plexus correspond to the
branches of the maxillary artery. The maxillary
vein drains the plexus.
The plexus communicates with
1. Inferior ophthalmic vein
2. Cavernous sinus
3. Facial vein.
Q. 66. Name the dural folds in the cranial cavity.
Specify dural Venous sinuses in any one
of them.
Ans. Dural folds in the cranial cavity are
1. Falx cerebri
2. Falx cerebelli
3. Tentorium cerebelli
4. Diaphragma sellae
The Falx Cerebri contains superior sagittal
sinus, inferior sagittal sinus and straight
sinus.
Q. 67. Name the movements of the eyeball and
specify their axes.
Ans. Movements of the eyeball
1. Elevation
Axis
2. Depression
Transverse
3. Adduction (medial
rotation)
4. Abduction (lateral
Vertical
rotation)
5. Intorsion
Anteroposterior
6. Extorsion
Q. 68. Enumerate the arteries supplying the
palatine tonsil.
Ans. The main arterial supply of the palatine tonsil
is the tonsillar branch of the facial artery.
Additional supply is by
1. Ascending palatine branch of facial artery
2. Dorsal lingual branches of the lingual
artery.
3. Ascending pharyngeal branch of the
external carotid artery.
4. Greater palatine branch of maxillary
artery.
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Q.69. Enumerate the structures supplied by the
auriculotemporal nerve.
Ans. 1. Auricular part supplies – upper 2/3 of the
lateral surface of the auricle, skin lining
the anterior half of the external acoustic
meatus, anteroinferior part of the outer
surface of the tympanic membrane.
2. Temporal part supplies the skin of the
temple. In addition auriculotemporal nerve
also supplies the parotid gland and the
temporomandibular joint.
Q.70. Give boundaries of lateral pharyngeal
space.
Ans. Base lies above and is formed by the base of
the skull and auditory tube.
Apex is directed down wads and extends up to
the level of hyoid bone.
Medially – pharynx with palatine tonsil
Posterolaterally – parotid gland
Anterolaterally – medial pterygoid muscle
with ramus of the mandible.
Posteriorly – Carotid sheath with it’s contents.
Q.71. Give boundaries of the retropharyngeal
space.
Ans. It is a dead space behind the pharynx
Boundaries
1. Anteriorly – buccopharyngeal fascia
2. Posteriorly – prevertebral fascia
3. Superiorly – base of the skull
4. Inferiorly – space is open and is continuous
with the superior mediastinum.
Q.72. Give types of mastoid processes on the
basis of distribution of mastoid air cells.
Ans. 1. Pneumatic type – complete air cells
2. Sclerotic type – mastoid process - solid
mass
3. Mixed type – air cell and bone marrow.
Q.73. Define following terms.
1. Basion
2. Prosthion
3. Gnathion
4. Menton
Ans. 1. Basion – median point on anterior margin
of foramen magnum
Head, Face and Neck 113
2. Prosthion – center point on upper incisor
alveolus
3. Gnathion – mid point of lower mandibular
border
4. Menton – most inferior midline point on
the mandibular symphysis.
Q.74. What is the modiolus of the mouth? Which
muscles interlace in the Modiolus?
Ans. The modiolus is a palpable modular mass
situated just lateral to the angle of the mouth
opposite the second upper premolar tooth.
The muscles which interlace to form the
modiolus are
1. Levator anguli oris
2. Zygomaticus Major
3. Risorius
4. Depressor anguli oris.
Q.75. Name the facial muscles causing following
facial expressions
1. Surprise
2. Doubt
3. Grinning
4. Laughing
5. Anger
6. Horror
7. Irony
8. Frowning
Ans. 1. Surprise – frontalis
2. Doubt – mentalis
3. Grinning – risorius
4. Laughing – zygomaticus major
5. Anger – dilator naris, depressor septi
6. Horror – platysma
7. Irony – depressor labi inferioris
8. Frowning – vertical wrinkles – corrugator
supercilli, transverse wrinkles – procerus.
Q.76. Specify the nerve supply of the lateral
nasal wall.
Ans. A. General sensory –
1. Anterior ethmoidal nerve
2. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
3. Posterior superior lateral nasal
branches from the pterygopalatine
ganglion.
4. Greater palatine branch from the ptery
gopalatine ganglion
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B. Special Sensory – olfactory nerves from
cribriform plate of ethmoid to superior
concha.
Q. 77. Enumerate cranial bones which are
completely formed in membrane.
Ans. 1. Frontal
2. Parietal
3. Zygomatic
4. Palatine
5. Nasal
6. Lacrimal
7. Vomer
8. Maxilla (Excluding Premaxilla)
Q. 78. Enumerate cranial bones those are (A)
completely formed in cartilage (B) partly
formed in cartilage and partly in
membrane.
Ans. A. Cranial bones completely formed in
cartilage
1. Ethmoid
2. Inferior nasal concha
B. Cranial bones partly formed in cartilage
and partly formed in membrane.
1. Occipital
2. Sphenoid
3. Temporal
Q. 79. Give nerve supply of the dura mater.
Ans. A. Dura of the Vault – Ophthalmic nerve
B. Dura of the floor–
i. Anterior cranial fossa- anterior
ethmoidal nerve and maxillary nerve
ii. Middle cranial fossa – maxillary Nerve,
mandibular nerve, trigeminal ganglion.
iii. Posterior cranial fossa – meningeal
braches of 9th and 10th cranial nerves,
recurrent branches of C1,2,3.
C. Tentorium Cerebelli – Recurrent branch of
ophthalmic nerve
Q. 80. In case of (a) Subdural (b) Subarachnoid
and (c) Extradural haemorrhages which
blood vessels are involved?
Ans. a. Subdural haemorrhage – in head injuries
due to tearing of veins.
b. Subarachnoid haemorrhage – is arterial
due to rupture of an aneurysm.
Head, Face and Neck 115
c. Extradural haemorrhage – due to torn
meningeal vessels associated with fracture
of the skull.
Q. 81. Enumerate the structures passing
through the cavernous sinus.
Ans. A. Structures passing through the center of
the cavernous sinus. Internal carotid artery,
abducent nerve
B. Structures in the lateral wall of the sinus i. Oculomotor nerve
ii. Trochlear nerve
iii. Ophthalmic nerve
iv. Maxillary nerve
Q. 82. Give characteristics of dural venous
sinuses.
Ans. 1. The dural venous sinuses lie between the
endosteal and meningeal layers of dura
meter.
2. They have an inner lining of endothelium.
3. There are devoid of muscular coat
4. They have no valves
5. They absorb the CSF through the arachnoid
granulations.
6. They receive valve less emissary veins to
keep the venous pressure with in and
outside the skull, constant.
Q. 83. Enumerate the factors, which regulate the
flow of blood from the cavernous sinus.
Ans. a. Expansile pulsations of the internal
carotid artery with in the sinus.
b. Change of position of the head
c. Gravity.
Q. 84. What are emissary veins? What are their
functions? Mention their clinical importance.
Ans. The word emissary means ambassador. The
emissary veins pass through some cranial
foramina to communicate the intracranial
with the extracranial veins. These veins are
valve less and they maintain an equilibrium
of intracranial and extracranial venous
pressure constant. Clinically, emissary veins
may carry infected thrombus from the exterior
to the interior of the cranial cavity.
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Q. 85. Enumerate any two emissary veins and
their connections.
Ans. 1. Mastoid emissary vein – passes through
mastoid foramen and connects posterior
auricular vein with sigmoid sinus.
2. Parietal emissary vein – Passes through
parietal foramen-connects veins of the scalp
with superior sagittal sinus.
Q. 86. Enumerate the contents of the orbit.
Ans. 1. Orbital and bulbar fascia
2. Eyeball
3. Extraocular muscles
4. Lacrimal gland
5. Ophthalmic artery, superior and inferior
ophthalmic veins
6. Optic, oculomotor, trochlear, abducent,
branches of ophthalmic nerve, ciliary
ganglion
7. Orbital fat.
Q. 87. Give nerve supply of extraocular muscles
Ans. Superior oblique
Trochlear nerve
Lateral Rectus
Abducent nerve
Superior rectus
Inferior rectus
Medial rectus
Oculomotor nerve
Inferior rectus
Inferior oblique
Q. 88. Give the nerve supply and actions of
superior oblique muscle of the eyeball.
Ans. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by the
trochlear nerve.
Superior oblique brings about depression,
lateral rotation and intortion of the eyeball.
Q. 89. Enumerate the arteries, which supply the
scalp.
Ans. 1. Supratrochlear artery
2. Supraorbital artery
3. Superficial temporal artery
4. Posterior auricular artery
5. Occipital artery
Q. 90. Enumerate the sensory nerves of the
scalp.
Ans. 1. Supratrochlear nerve
2. Supraorbital nerve
Head, Face and Neck 117
3. Zygomaticotemporal nerve
4. Auriculotemporal nerve
5. Posterior branch of great. Auricular nerve
6. Lesser occipital nerve
7. Greater occipital nerve.
Q. 91. Give the nerve supply of the larynx.
Ans. Nerve supply of the larynx
A. Motor – All the intrinsic muscles of the
Larynx are supplied by recurrent laryngeal
nerve except cricothyroid, which is supplied
by the external laryngeal nerve.
B. Sensory – Mucous membrane above the
level of the vocal cords – internal laryngeal
nerve
Below the level of vocal cords – recurrent
laryngeal nerve.
Q. 92. Give the nerve supply of the tongue.
Ans. Motor- all the muscles of the tongue are
supplied by hypoglossal nerve except
palatoglossus, which is supplied by the cranial
part of accessory nerve through the pharyngeal
plexus.
Sensory – Anterior 2/3
i. General sensory – lingual nerve
ii. Special sensory – chorda tympani.
Posterior 1/3 – both general and special
sensory by glossopharyngeal nerve.
Posterior most part – both general and special
sensory by vagus nerve.
Q. 93. Give the nerve supply of the tympanic
membrane.
Ans. A. Outer surface – anteroinferior partauriculotemporal nerve.
Posterosuperior part – auricular branch of
vagus nerve.
B. Inner surface – tympanic branch of the
glossopharyngeal nerve through the
tympanic plexus.
Q. 94. Trace the secretomotor pathway of the
lacrimal gland.
Ans. The secretomotor fibres begin in the lacrimatory nucleus (lower pons) pass through
nervus intermedius – the geniculate ganglion
– the grater petrosal nerve – the nerve of the
pterygoid canal – pterygopalatine ganglion,
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fibres relay in the ganglion postganglionic
fibres pass through zygomatic nerve –
zygomaticotemporal nerve – communicating
branch to lacrimal nerve – lacrimal gland.
Q.95. Trace the secretomotor pathway of the
parotid gland.
Ans. The secretomotor fibres begin in the inferior
salivatory nucleus, pass through glossopharyngeal nerve – it’s tympanic branch –
tympanic plexus – lesser petrosal nerve, fibres
relay in the otic ganglion – postganglionic
fibres pass through the auriculotemporal
nerve to the parotid gland.
Q. 96. What is bulbar fascia (Tenon’s capsule)?
What is its function? Name the structures
piercing it.
Ans. Bulbar Fascia (Tenon’s capsule) is a thin
membranous sheath around the eyeball and
extends from the optic nerve to the sclerocorneal junction. It is separated from the sclera
by episcleral space and it separates eyeball
from the orbital fat.
The Bulbar Fascia is pierced by
i. Ciliary Vessels and Nerves
ii. The tendons of two oblique and four recti
muscles of the eyeball.
Q. 97. Enumerate branches of the ophthalmic
artery.
Ans. 1. Central artery of retina
2. Posterior ciliary
3. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal
4. Supraorbital and supratrochlear
5. Medial palpebral
6. Dorsal nasal
7. Muscular – anterior ciliary branches
8. Lacrimal – lateral palpebral, Zygomatic
Recurrent meningeal
Q. 98. Enumerate the muscles of the tongue.
Ans. Muscles of the tongue
A. Extrinsic—
1. Genioglossus
2. Hyoglossus
3. Styloglossus
4. Palatoglossus
Head, Face and Neck 119
B. Intrinsic—
1. Superior longitudinal
2. Inferior longitudinal
3. Transverse
4. Vertical
Q. 99. Give Lymphatic drainage of the tongue.
Ans. 1. The tip of the tongue – bilaterally to the
submental lymph nodes.
2. The right and left halves of the remaining
part of the anterior two-thirds unilaterally
to the submandibular lymph nodes.
3. The posterior one-third of the tongue –
bilaterally to jugulo-omohyoid lymph
nodes.
Most of the lymph from the tongue ultimately
drains into jugulo-omohyoid nodes.
Q.100. Enumerate the Muscles of the soft palate.
Ans. Muscles of the soft palate.
1. Tensor palati
2. Levator palati
3. Palatoglossus
4. Palatopharyngeus
5. Musculus uvulae
Q.101. Give nerve supply of the palate.
Ans. All muscles of the soft palate are supplied by
the cranial part of accessory nerve through the
pharyngeal plexus, except the tensor palati,
which is supplied by the mandibular nerve.
Secretomotor – greater and lesser palatine
nerves.
General sensory – greater and lesser palatine
nerves, nasopalatine nerve
Special sensory – lesser palatine and
glossopharyngeal nerve.
Q.102. Give blood supply of the palate.
Ans. Arterial supply—
1. Greater palatine branch of maxillary
artery.
2. Ascending palatine branch of facial artery
3. Palatine branch of ascending pharyngeal
artery.
Veins – pterygoid and tonsillar plexus of veins.
Q.103. Enumerate the structures attached and
related to the spine of the sphenoid.
Ans. Structures attached to the spine of the
sphenoid
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Sphenomandibular ligament
Anterior ligament of malleus
Tensor palati and tensor tympani muscle.
Structure related to the spine of the sphenoid
Laterally auriculotemporal nerve
Medially chorda tympani nerve
auditory tube
Q.104. Name the bones taking part in the
formation of nasal septum.
Ans. 1. Vomer
2. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
3. Nasal spine of frontal
4. Rostrum of sphenoid
5. Nasal crests of nasal, palatine and maxillary bones.
Q.105. Which is the common site of bleeding
(Epistaxis) from the nose? What is this
area called as? Which blood vessels are
involved?
Ans. Anteroinferior part of the nasal septum is the
common site of bleeding (epistaxis) from the
nose. It is called as little’s area. This area
contains anastomoses between the septal
branch of superior labial artery (branch of
facial artery) and the sphenopalatine artery.
Q.106. Name the bones taking part in the
formation of lateral nasal wall.
Ans. 1. Nasal
2. Frontal process of maxilla
3. Lacrimal
4. Labyrinth of ethmoid with superior and
middle conchae.
5. Inferior nasal concha
6. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone
7. Medial pterygoid plate
Q.107. Name the structures opening into middle
meatus of the lateral nasal wall.
Ans. Opening of the frontal air sinus – in the anterior
part of the hiatus semilunaris.
Opening of the maxillary air sinus – in the
posterior part of the hiatus semilunaris.
Opening of the anterior ethmoidal air sinus in
the middle part of the hiatus semilunaris.
Opening of the middle ethmoidal sinus on the
bulla ethmoidalis.
Head, Face and Neck 121
Q.108. Give blood supply of the lateral nasal wall.
Ans. Arterial Supply—
Anterosuperior Quadrant – anterior and
posterior ethmoidal arteries
Antero inferior quadrant – alar branches of
facial and terminal branches of greater
palatine arteries.
Postero superior quadrant – Sphenonpalatine
artery.
Postero inferior quadrant — greater palatine
arteries.
Venous Drainage – anteriorly into facial vein,
posteriorly into pharyngeal plexus of veins and
from middle part to the pterygoid plexus of
veins.
Q.109. Give boundaries of the middle ear (tympanic cavity).
Ans. 1. Roof – A thin plate of bone, i.e. tegmen
tympani
2. Floor – A thin plate of bone separating
middle ear from the superior bulb of the
internal jugular vein (jugular wall)
3. Anterior wall – Opening of the canal for
tensor tympani, Opening of the auditory
tube, A thin plate of bone forming posterior
wall of the carotid canal (carotid wall)
4. Posterior wall (mastoid wall) – aditus to
mastoid antrum, fossa incudis, pyramid,
posterior canaliculus for the chorda
tympani nerve
5. Lateral wall- tympanic membrane sqamous temporal bone
6. Medial wall (labyrinthine wall) - promontary, fenestra vestibuli, fenestra cochleae,
facial canal
Q.110. Enumerate the contents of the middle
ear.
Ans. Ossicles – Malleus, Incus and Stapes
Ligaments of the ossicles
Muscles – Tensor tympani and stapedius
Nerves – Chorda tympani, tympanic plexus
Blood vessels, Air
Q.111. Draw and label movements of vocal cord
a) During quiet breathing, b) During force
full breathing, c) During speech, d) During
Whispering.
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Ans. a. During quiet breathing
b. During forceful breathing
c. During speech
d. During whispering
Q.112. Enumerate intrinsic muscles of larynx.
Ans. 1. Cricothyroid
2. Posterior cricoarytenoid
3. Lateral cricoarytenoid
4. Transverse arytenoid
5. Oblique arytenoid
6. Aryepiglotticus
7. Thyroarytenoid
8. Vocalis
9. Thyroepiglotticus
Q.113. Give boundaries of the cavernous sinus.
Ans. Floor and medial – endosteal dura mater.
Roof and Lateral wall – meningeal dura mater
Anteriorly – medial end of superior orbital
fissure
Posteriorly – apex of petrous temporal bone
Q.114. Give relations of the cavernous sinus.
Ans. Superiorly – optic tract, internal carotid artery,
anterior perforated substance
Inferiorly – foramen lacerum, junction of the
body and greater wing of the sphenoid bone.
Medially – hypophsis cerebri, sphenoidal air
sinus
Head, Face and Neck 123
Anteriorly – superior orbital fissure, apex of
orbit
Posteriorly – apex of petrous temporal bone,
crus cerebri of mid brain.
Q.115. Give characteristics of the facial muscles.
Ans. 1. Facial muscles are subcutaneous
2. They are supplied by facial nerve
3. Embryologically they develop from the
mesoderm of he second baranchial arch.
4. Morphologically they represent the
remnants of the panniculus carnosus
muscle sheet seen in some animals.
5. They are inserted in to dermis of the skin
6. Functionally they are sphincters and
dilators of the three openings situated on
the face i.e. palpebral fissure, the nostrils
and the oral fissure.
Q.116. Enumerate muscles of the pharynx.
Ans. Outer circular layer
Inner Longitudinal
Layer
1. Superior constrictor 1. Stylopharyngeus
2. Middle constrictor 2. Salpingopharyngeus
3. Inferior constrictor 3. Palatopharyngeus
Q.117. Give attachments of the investing layer of
the deep cervical fascia.
Ans. Superiorly – External occipital protuberance,
superior nuchal line, mastoid process, base of
the mandible, between the angle of mandible
and mastoid process the fascia splits to
enclose parotid gland and deep lamina forms
stylomandibular ligament.
Inferiorly – spine of scapula, acromion process,
clavicle, manubrium.
Posteriorly – ligamentum nuchae, Spine of the
7th cervical vertebra
Anteriorly – symphysis menti, hyoid bone.
Q.118. Enumerate the structures enclosed by the
investing layer of deep cervical fascia
Ans. Investing layer of deep cervical fascia encloses
1. Muscles – trapezius and Sternocleidomastoid
2. Salivary glands – parotid and submandibular
3. Spaces – suprasternal and supraclavicular
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Q.119. Enumerate the contents of the carotid
sheath. Mention its two relations.
Ans. Contents of the carotid sheath
1. Common carotid artery
2. Internal carotid artery
3. Internal jugular vein
4. Vagus nerve
Relations – anasa cervicalis lies anterior to
the sheath and sympathetic chain posterior
to it.
Q.120. Specify nerve supply of the auricle.
Ans. Sensory – upper 2/3 of the lateral surface of
the auricle by the auriculotemporal nerve.
Upper 2/3 of the medial surface of the auricle
by the lesser occipital nerve.
Lower 1/3 both medial and lateral surface by
great auricular nerve
The auricular branch of the vagus nerve
supplies the root of the auricle.
Motor – the branches of facial nerve supply
auricular muscles.
Q.121. While examination of external acoustic
meatus and tympanic membrane, a
physician pulls the auricle of the patient
upwards, backwards and slightly laterally.
Explain it on the anatomical basis.
Ans. The external acoustic meatus is ‘s’ shaped. The
outer part is directed medially forwards and
upwards, middle part medially backwards
and upwards, the inner part medially
forwards and downwards. The tympanic
membrane is also placed obliquely at an angle
of 55° with the floor of the meatus. It faces
downwards forwards and laterally. Therefore,
the physician straightens the auricle by
pulling it upwards backwards and slightly
laterally.
Q.122. Spread of infection from which structures
can cause thrombosis of superior sagittal
sinus. What are the symptoms produced
due to thrombosis of superior sagittal
sinus?
Ans. Spread of infection from the nose, scalp and
diploe can cause thrombosis of the superior
sagittal sinus. The symptoms are:
Head, Face and Neck 125
1. Increased intracranial tension, due to
defective absorption of CSF
2. Delirium and convulsions due to congestion
of the superior cerebral veins.
3. Paraplegia due to involvement of the para
central lobule of the cerebrum.
Q.123. Give boundaries of the posterior triangle
of the neck.
Ans. Anterior – posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
Posterior – anterior border of trapezius
Inferior – middle third of the clavicle.
Apex – lies on the superior nuchal line where
the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid meet.
Roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia.
Floor – prevertebral layer of deep cervical
fascia covering splenius capitis, levator
scapulae, scalenus posterior, scalenus medius,
first digitations of serratus anterior muscle.
Q.124. Give contents of the posterior triangles of
the neck.
Ans. Nerves - spinal accessory, supraclavicular part
of brachial plexus, lesser occipital, great
auricular, transverse cutaneous nerve of the
neck, supraclavicular, dorsal scapular,
suprascapular, nerve to subclavius.
Vessels – third part of subclavian artery and
vein.
Transverse cervical artery and vein.
Supra scapular artery and vein
Lower part of external jugular vein
Lymph nodes – supraclavicular and occipital
nodes.
Q.125. What is cephalic index?
Ans. It is an index of the relative length and breadth
of the skullCephalic index =
Breadth × 100
Length
The length is measured from glabella to the
occiput point
The breadth is measured a little below the
parietal tuber.
The cephalic index approximately ranges
between 70 and 85.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q.126. How skulls are classified on the basis of
cephalic index? Mention two abnormal
crania.
Ans. 1. Dolicocephalic (long head) up to 74.9
2. Mesaticephalic 75 to 79.9
3. Brachycephalic (short or round headed)
above 80
Abnormal crania
1. Oxycephaly (acrocephally, tower or steeple
skull) abnormally tall skull.
2. Scaphocephaly (boat shaped skull) Skull
is very narrow form side to side, but is
greatly elongated.
Q.127. What is torticollis? Mention two common
types.
Ans. Torticollis or wryneck is a deformity in which
the head is bent to one side, and the chin
points to the other side. This is a result of
spasm or contracture of the muscles supplied
by spinal accessory nerve. (sternocleidomastoid and trapezius)
Common types
1. Congenital torticollis due to birth injury
2. Spasmodic torticollis due to central irritation
3. Reflex torticollis due to inflamed or
suppurating cervical lymph nodes, which
irritate the spinal accessory nerve.
Q.128. Mention the structures involved and
symptoms produced due to malignant
growth of the maxillary air sinus.
Ans. 1. Invasion of the orbit causes proptosis and
diplopia. If the infraorbital nerve is
involved there is facial pain and anaesthesia of the skin over the maxilla.
2. Invasion of the floor may produce a bleeding
and ulceration of the palate.
3. Growth in medial direction produces nasal
obstruction, epistaxis and epiphora.
4. Forward growth obliterates the canine fossa
and produces a swelling of the face.
5. Backward growth may involve the palatine
nerves and produce severe pain referred to
the upper teeth.
Head, Face and Neck 127
6. Growth in the lateral direction produces a
swelling on the face and a palpable mass
in the labiogingival groove.
Q.129. Mention factors preventing cranial
fractures.
Ans. Factors preventing cranial fractures are
elasticity, round shape and construction from
secondary elastic arches, each derived from a
single bone. Where bone is thin, the overlying
muscles may cushion blows, for example the
temporal squama and inferior occipital fossa.
Q.130. What is Bell’s palsy? How the patient
presents?
Ans. Paralysis of the facial nerve for no obvious
reasons is known as Bell’s palsy. It may occur
after exposure to a cold draft. The most
common cause of Bell’s palsy is inflammation
of the facial nerve near the stylomastoid
foramen. Muscles of on the affected side are
paralysed, therefore the affected side is
motionless. The eye cannot be closed. Any
attempt to smile draws the mouth to the
normal side. During mastication, food accumulates between the teeth and the cheek.
Q.131. Enumerate branches of the facial nerve.
Ans. a. With in facial canal
1. Greater petrosal nerve
2. The nerve to the stapedius
3. The chorda tympani
b. At it’s exit from the stylomastoid foramen
1. Posterior auricular
2. Diagastric
3. Stylohyoid
c. Terminal branches within the parotid gland
1. Temporal
2. Zygomatic
3. Buccal
4. Mandibular
5. Cervical
d. Communicating branches with trigeminal
and glossopharyngeal.
Q.132. Enumerate branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
Ans. 1. Tympanic nerve
2. Carotid branch
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3. Pharyngeal
4. Muscular branch supplying stylopharyngeus
5. Tonsillar
6. Lingual
Q.133. What type of ganglion is pterygopalatine
ganglion? Mention it’s situation, topographical and functional connections and
structures supplied through it.
Ans. The pterygopalatine ganglion is a the largest
parasympathetic peripheral ganglion. It is
situated in the pterygopalatine fossa below
the maxillary nerve in front of the pterygoid
canal. Topographically, it is connected to the
maxillary nerve but functionally it is connected
to the facial nerve. It serves as a relay station
for secretomotor fibres to the lacrimal gland
and to mucous glands of the nose, the
paranasal sinuses, the palate and the
pharynx.
Q.134. What type of ganglion is otic ganglion?
Mention its situation, topographical and
functional connections and structures
supplied through it.
Ans. The otic ganglion is a peripheral parasympathetic ganglion. It is situated in the
infratemporal fossa just below the foramen
ovale. Topographically it is related to the
mandibular nerve but functionally, it is
connected to the glossopharyngeal nerve.
It relays secretomotor fibres to the parotid
gland.
Q.135. What type of ganglion is submandibular
ganglion? Mention it’s situation, topographical and functional connections and
structures supplied through it.
Ans. The submandibular ganglion is a parasympathetic peripheral ganglion. It is situated
on the hyoglossus muscle just above the deep
part of the submandibular gland suspended
from the lingual nerve by two roots.
Topographically it is related to the lingual
nerve and functionally it is connected to the
facial nerve.
Head, Face and Neck 129
It relays secretomotor fibres to the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands.
Q.136. Give morphology connections and
branches of the superior cervical ganglion.
Ans. The superior cervical ganglion is largest of the
three cervical sympathetic ganglion situated
in front of the transverse processes of C2 and
C3 vertebrae. It is spindle shaped and about 1
inch in length. It is formed by fusion of upper
four cervical sympathetic ganglion. The
preganglionic fibres arise in the lateral grey
column of the spinal cord from segments T1 to
T4 and then ascend in the neck.
Communication—with 9th, 10th and 12th
cranial nerves and with exetrnal and internal
laryngeal nerves.
Branches:
1. Grey rami Communicantes to the ventral
rami of the upper four cervical nerves.
2. External carotid branches
3. Internal carotid branches
4. Pharyngeal branches
5. Superior cervical cardiac branches
Q.137. Give morphology connections and
branches of the inferior cervical ganglion.
Ans. The inferior cervical ganglion is formed by
fusion of 7th and 8th cervical sympathetic
ganglia. It lies between the transverse process
of vertebra CT and the neck of the first rib. It
is also called the stellate ganglion because it
is star shaped. It is often fused with first
thoracic ganglion and is then known as the
cervicothoracic ganglion.
The preganglionic fibres arise in the lateral
grey column of the spinal cord from segment
T1 to T4 and then ascend in the neck.
Branches:
1. Grey rami communicantes are given to the
ventral rami of nerves C7 and C8.
2. Vertebral branches
3. Subclavian branches
4. Inferior cervical cardiac branch.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q.138. Give morphology, connections and
branches of the middle cervical ganglion.
Ans. The middle cervical ganglion is a very small
sympathetic ganglion formed by fusion of the
5th and 6th cervical ganglia. It lies at the livel
of C-6 vertebra in close relation to the inferior
thyroid artery behind the carotid sheath. It is
connected to the inferior cervical ganglion
directly as well a loop, the ansa subclavia. The
preganglionic fibres arise in the the lateral
grey column of the spinal cord from segments
T1 to T4 and then ascend in the neck.
Branches:
1. Grey rami communicantes to the ventral
rami of the 5th and 6th cervical nerves.
2. Thyroid branches
3. Tracheal and oesophageal branches
4. Middle cervical cardial branch.
Q.139. Enumerate lymph nodes of head and
neck.
Ans. 1. Deep cervical lymph nodes
i. Anterosuperior group (Jugulodiagastric)
ii. Posteroinferior (Juguloomohyoid)
2. Peripheral cervical lymph nodes - are
arranged in two circles
a. Superficial circle
i. Submental
ii. Submandibular
iii. Buccal and mandibular
iv. Preauricular
v. Postauricular
vi. Occipital
vii. Anterior cervical
viii. Superficial cervical.
b. Inner circle
i. Prelaryngeal and pretracheal
ii. Paratracheal
iii. Retropharyngeal
Q.140. What type of ganglion is ciliary ganglion?
Mention it’s situation connections and
structures supplied through it.
Ans. The ciliary ganglion is a peripheral
parasympathetic ganglion. It is situated near
the apex of the orbit between the optic nerve
and the tendon of the lateral rectus muscle.
The motor root arises from the nerve to the
Head, Face and Neck 131
inferior oblique carrying preganglion fibres
beginning in the Edinger Westphal nucleus.
The postganglionic fibres pass through through
short ciliary nerves.
It serves as a relay station to the sphincter
pupillae and the ciliaris muscle.
Q.141. Specify the distribution of the fourth
cranial nerve. Justify it’s nomenclature.
Ans. Fourth cranial nerve supplies following
extraocular muscles.
1. Superior rectus
2. Inferior rectus
3. Medial rectus
4. Inferior oblique
5. Levator palpebrae superioris
Oculus means eyeball and motor means move.
As most of the extraocular muscles which move
the eyeball are supplied by fourth cranial nerve
it’s name oculomotor is justified.
Q.142. Give characteristics of mandible in old
age.
Ans. 1. The teeth are shed and the alveolar border
is worn out.
2. The angle between the ramus and the body
is 140° to 150°.
3. The mental foramen is close to the upper
border of the body.
4. Coronoid process projects above the level
of condyle.
Q.143. Compare and contrast male and female
skulls.
Male
Female
Ans.
1. Superciliary arches
and glabella
2. Mastoid process
nuchael lines
3. Frontal and
parietal tubers
4. Capacity
5. Angle of mandible
6. Skull
Prominent
Very
prominent
Less
prominent
More
Everted
Heavier
Lagrer
Thick
walled
Not
prominent
Not
prominent
Prominent
Less
Not everted
Lighter
Smaller
Thin
walled
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q.144. Mention changes taking place in the skull
due to old age.
Ans. The skull usually becomes lighter and thinner
with age. There is reduction in the size of the
mandible and maxillae due loss of teeth and
absorption of their alveolar processes. This
results in decrease in the vertical height of the
face. The angle of mandible becomes more
obtuse and the mental foramen lies near upper
border of the body.
Q.145. Mention characteristics of the foetal skull.
Ans. 1. Bones are unilamellar
2. Presence of fontanelles and metopic suture
3. Small face due to nondevelopment of the
maxillary sinus and non-eruption of the
teeth
4. Mastoid process is absent
5. Basiocciput and basisphenoid not fused
6. Body of the mandible is in two halves
7. Ramus of the mandible is short and makes
an angle of 140° to 150°.
Q.146. Give characteristics of the foetal mandible.
Ans. 1. The body consists of two halves united by
fibrous tissue in the median line.
2. Mental foramen is close to the lower border
of the body.
3. Angle between the ramus and the body is
about 140° to 150°.
4. Teeth are not erupted.
5. The coronoid process is large and projects
above the level of the condyle.
Q.147. Give characteristics of an adult mandible.
Ans. 1. The body is united at sympysis menti.
2. The mental foramen is mid way between
the upper and lower borders of the body.
3. The angle between the ramus and the body
is about 110° to 120°.
4. The teeth are present.
5. The coronoid process is more or less at the
same level of the condyle.
Q.148. What are the functions of rimma vestibuli?
Ans. Rimma vestibuli permits air entry in
inspiration and prevents air exit in expiration.
Head, Face and Neck 133
It acts as an exit valve. Holding breath at the
end of inspiration by apposition of vetibular
folds, increases intra-abdominal or
intrathoracic pressure during micturation,
defecation, coughing or parturation in females.
Q.149. What are the functions of rimma glotitdis?
Ans. Rima glottidis permits air exit in expiration
and prevents air entry during inspiration. It
acts as an entry valve. One can hold breath at
the end of expiration and prevents next inspiration, necessary for free arm movements. It
acts in phonation as a voice box.
Q.150. At what age fontanelles close?
Ans. Posterior and sphenoidal fontanelle close at 2
to 3 months. Mastoid fontanelle at one year.
Anterior fontanelle at one and half year.
Q.151. Why dural venous sinuses present in a
skull although duramater has its own
veins?
Ans. The dural venous sinuses are composed of
tightly stretched layers of duramater and
therefore do not collapse.The inflexibility of
the walls of the dural venous sinuses provides
free drainage of venous blood in changes of
intracranial pressure for the uninterrupted
activity of the brain.
Q.152. Why oculomotor nerve is called as the
nerve of the near (close) vision?
Ans. All muscles which play role in close vision, i.e.
ciliary muscles, sphincter pupillae, medial
rectus are supplied by oculomotor nerve,
therefore it is called as nerve of close vision.
7
BRAIN
Q. 1. What are the factors which protect the
spinal cord?
Ans. 1. Bony case of vertebral canal
2. Spinal meninges
3. Hydrostatic cushion of cerebrospinal fluid.
Q. 2. What are the factors which keep the spinal
cord in position?
Ans. 1. Rostral continuity with medulla oblongata
2. Caudal fixation with filum terminale and
cauda equina
3. Ligamentum denticulatum.
Q. 3. Name the arteries supplying spinal cord.
Ans. 1. Anterior spinal artery
2. Posterior spinal artery
3. Segmental spinal branches from
a. Deep cervical
b. Ascending cervical
c. Intercostal
d. Lumbar
Segmental spinal branches form one anterior
trunk and two posterior spinal trunks and
which along the roots of spinal nerves give rise
to anterior and posterior radicular arteries.
Q. 4. Name the nuclei of cerebellum.
Ans. – Nucleus fastigii
– Globosus
– Emboli-formis
– Dentatus
Q. 5. Name the nuclei of facial nerve.
Ans. – Motor nucleus
– Nucleus of tractus solitarius
– Superior salivatory nucleus
– Lacrimatory nucleus.
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135
Q. 6. Name the nuclei of trigeminal nerve.
Ans. – Motor nucleus
– Main sensory
– Mesencephalic nucleus
– Spinal nucleus.
Q. 7. Name nuclei of glossopharyngeal nerve.
Ans. – Nucleus ambiguous
– Inferior salivatory nucleus
– Nucleus of tractus solitarius
Q. 8. Name nuclei of vagus nerve.
Ans. – Nucleus ambiguous
– Dorsal nucleus of vagus
– Nucleus of tractus solitarius.
Q. 9. Name the basal nuclei of the cerebrum.
Ans. 1. Corpus striatum
a. Caudate nucleus
b. Lentiform nucleus-globus pallidus
putamen
2. Amygdaloid body
3. Claustrum.
Q. 10. What is the peculiarity of the vertebral
venous plexus? Give its applied importance.
Ans. The vertebral venous plexus is made up of
valveless network of veins which communicate
above with the intracranial venous sinuses and
below with the pelvic veins, the portal vein
and the caval system of veins.
As the veins are valveless and blood can flow
in either direction, cells from pelvic abdominal, thoracic and breast tumours entering the
venous system may ultimately lodge in the
vertebrae, the spinal cord, the skull or the brain,
thus making it possible the spread of tumours
or infections.
Q. 11. Specify the origin and termination of the
medial lemniscus.
Ans. The second order neurones lying in the nucleus
gracilis or nucleus cuneatus give off internal
acute fibres which cross to the opposite side
through the sensory decussation and run
upwards as the medial lemniscus. The medial
lemniscus ends in the posterolateral ventral
nucleus of the thalamus.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 12. Enumerate the contents of the vertebral
canal.
Ans. 1. Epidural space
2. Dura mater
3. Subdural space
4. Arachnoid mater
5. Subarachnoid space
6. Pia mater
7. Spinal cord.
Q. 13. Enumerate the contents of the epidural
space.
Ans. 1. Loose areolar tissue
2. Semiliquid fat
3. Spinal arteries
4. Internal vertebral venous plexus.
Q. 14. Enumerate the contents of the intervertebral foramen.
Ans. 1. End of nerve roots
2. Dorsal root ganglion
3. The nerve trunk
4. The beginning of dorsal and ventral rami
5. Spinal arteries
6. Intervertebral vein.
Q. 15. Name the three intercommunicating
subdivisions of vertebral venous plexus.
Ans. 1. Epidural plexus
2. Plexus within the vertebral bodies
3. External vertebral plexus—
a. Anterior part
b. Posterior part.
Q. 16. What are Ligamentum denticulatum?
What is their function?
Ans. Ligamentum dunticulatum are coronally
oriented plial sheet extending bilaterally from
the side of the spinal cord between the ventral
and dorsal roots of spinal nerves.
They are attached to the dura mater for better
anchorage of the spinal cord.
Q. 17. What is filum terminale? Mention its
beginning, termination and parts.
Ans. Filum tuminale is a non-nervous filamentous
thread basically composed of pia mater.
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137
It begins from the tip of the conus medullaris
of the spinal cord and finally blends with the
periosteum of the dorsal surface of the first
coccygeal vertebra.
Proximal 15 mm of filum terminale within
the dural sheath is known as filum terminale
internum and distal 5 mm outside the dural
sheath is called as flum terminale externum.
Q. 18. Enumerate the arteries taking part in the
formation of circle of Willis.
Ans. 1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Anterior cerebral arteries
3. Internal carotid arteries
4. Posterior communicating arteries
5. Proximal segments of both posterior cerebral atteries.
Q. 19. Name the veins of the cerebrum.
Ans. 1. Superficial veins
a. Superior cerebral veins
b. Superficial middle cerebral veins
c. Inferior cerebral veins.
2. Deep veins
a. Internal cerebral veins
b. Basal veins
c. Great cerebral vein.
Q. 20. Enumerate subarachnoid cisterns.
Ans. 1. Cerebellomedullary cistern
2. Cisterna ambiens
3. Interpeduncular cistern
4. Pontine cistern
5. Chiasmatic cistern.
Q. 21. Give the peculiarities of olfactory system.
Ans. 1. Bipolar primary olfactory neurones undergo
continuous turnover by cell division from
stem cells of olfactory epithelium.
2. Second order of sensory neurones in olfactory system reaches the cerebral cortex
without relay in the thalamus.
3. The olfactory system is projected to the
highest cortical centre ipsilaterally (except
minor decussation through the anterior
commissure)
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 22. Give the peculiarities of optic nerve.
Ans. 1. It is not a peripheral nerve but a prolongation of white matter of the brain
2. It is covered by the three meninges of the
brain with subdural and subarachnoid
spaces.
3. Myclination of the optic nerve is derived
from the oligodentroglia and not from
Schwann cells.
4. Plial sheath projects into the substance of
the nerve as numerous septa.
Q. 23. What are the manifestations of complete
unilateral lesion of the oculomotor nerve?
Ans. 1. Ptosis
2. External squint
3. Dilated and fixed pupil
4. Loss of accommodation
5. Exophthalmos
6. Diplopia.
Q. 24. Enumerate the commissural fibres of
the cerebrum.
Ans. 1. Corpus callosum
2. Anterior commissure
3. Posterior commissure
4. Hippocampal commissure
5. Habenular commissure.
Q. 25. Enumerate association fibres of cerebrum.
Ans. 1. Long association fibres
a. Cirgulum
b. Uncinate fasciculus
c. Superior longitudinal fasciculus
d. Inferior longitudinal fasciculus
e. Fronto-occipital fasciculus
2. Short association fibres
Q. 26. Enumerate the fibres entering the
inferior cerebellar peduncle.
Ans. 1. Posterior spinocerebellar tract
2. Cuneocerebellar tract
3. Olivocerebellar fibres
4. Recticulocerebellar fibres
5. Vestibulocerebellar fibres
6. Anterior external arcuate fibres.
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139
Q. 27. Enumerate the fibres leaving the inferior
cerebellar peduncle.
Ans. 1. Cerebelloolivary fibres
2. Cerebellovestibular fibres
3. Cerebelloreticular
4. Cerebellospinal.
Q. 28. Enumerate the fibres entering the superior cerebellar peduncle.
Ans. 1. Ventral spinocerebellar tract.
2. Superior spinocerebellar tract
3. Tectocerebellar fibres
4. Rubrocerebellar fibres
5. Trigeminocerebellar
6. Hypothalamocerebellar.
Q. 29. Enumerate the fibres leaving the superior
cerebellar peduncle.
Ans. 1. Cerebellorubral fibres
2. Cerebellothalamic fibres
3. Cerebelloreticular fibres
4. Cerebelloolivary fibres
5. Cerebellonuclear fibres.
Q. 30. Give the boundaries of the central part of
the lateral ventricle of the brain.
Ans. A. Roof—Trunk of the corpus callosum
B. Medial wall—septum pellucidum and the
body of the fornix
C. Floor—superior surface of thalamus medially and caudate nucleus laterally. Between
the two structures, there are the stria terminalis and the thalamostriate vein.
Q. 31. Give the boundaries of the anterior horn
of the lateral ventricle of the brain.
Ans. A. Roof—Anterior part of the trunk of the
copus callosum
B. Floor—mainly by the head of the caudate
nucleus, partly by upper surface of the
rostrum of the corpus callosum.
C. Medial wall—septum pellucidum.
Q. 32. Enumerate the cranial nerve nuclei of the
special visceral efferent (Branchial
efferent) column.
Ans. 1. Motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
2. The nucleus of facial nerve
3. The nucleus ambiguous (composite nucleus
of the 9th 10th 11th cranial nerves).
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 33. Enumerate the cranial nerve nuclei of the
general visceral efferent column.
Ans. 1. Westphal-Edinger nucleus
2. Superior salivatory nucleus
3. Inferior salivatory nucleus
4. Lacrimatory nucleus
5. Dorsal nucleus of the vagus.
Q. 34. Enumerate the descending tracts in the
spinal cord.
Ans. 1. Anterior corticospinal tract
2. Lateral corticospinal tract
3. Rubrospinal tract
4. Olivospinal tract
5. Vestibulospinal tract
6. Tectospinal tract
7. Reticulospinal tract.
Q. 35. Enumerate the ascending tracts in the
spinal cord.
Ans. 1. Fasciculus gracilis
2. Fasciculus cuneatus
3. Lateral spinothalamic tract
4. Anterior and posterior spinocerebellar
tracts.
5. Spinoolivary tract
6. Spinotectal tract
7. Anterior spinothalamic tract.
Q. 36. Give boundaries of the posterior horn of
the lateral ventricle of the brain.
Ans. A. Roof and lateral wall are formed by the
tapetum
B. The medial wall shows the bulb of the
posterior horn and the calcar avis.
Q. 37. Give the boundaries of the inferior horn
of the lateral ventricle of the brain.
Ans. A. Roof—medial part is formed by the tail of
the caudate nucleus and the stria terminalis
The lateral part is formed by the fibres of
the tapetum.
B. Floor—hippocampus along with the alveus
and fimbria and collateral eminence.
Q. 38. Enumerate the seven functional nuclear
components of the cranial nerves.
Ans. 1. Somatic efferent
2. Branchial efferent
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141
3. General visceral efferent
4. General visceral afferent
5. Special visceral afferent
6. General somatic afferent
7. Special somatic afferent.
Q. 39. Enumerate the cranial nerve nuclei of the
somatic efferent column.
Ans. 1. Oculomotor nucleus
2. Trochlear nucleus
3. Abducens nucleus
4. Hypoglossal nucleus.
Q. 40. Enumerate different types of sulci of
cerebrum giving one example of each.
Ans. Types of sulci
1. Limiting sulcus—central sulcus
2. Axial sulcus—postcalcrine sulcus
3. Operculated sulcus—lunate sulcus
4. Secondary sulcus—lateral and parietooccipital
5. Complete sulcus—collateral and precalcrine.
Q. 41. Where is the situation of mesencephalic
nucleus of trigeminal nerve? What is its
peculiarity?
Ans. The mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal
nerve is situated in the central grey matter of
the entire midbrain on each side of the aqueduct. It contains the cell bodies of the unipolar
first sensory neurones for proprioceptive
sensations conveyed by the 5th nerve. This is
an exception to the general rule because here
the first sensory neurone lie within the central
nervous system instead of lying outside it.
Q. 42. Thrombosis of which artery causes lateral
medullary syndrome? Which part of the
medulla oblongata is damaged? What are
the characteristics of the lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg’s syndrome)?
Ans. Thrombosis of posterior inferior cerebellar
artery causes lateral medullary syndrome. In
this syndrome posterolateral part of the
medulla oblongata is damaged.
Characteristics of the lateral medullary
syndrome:
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SAQs in Anatomy
1. Involvement of vestibular nuclei – severe
giddiness
2. Involvement of nucleus ambiguous –
dysphagia, dyarthria
3. Involvement of
Contralateral loss of
the lateral
sensation of
Spinothalamic
pain and temperature
tract
4. Involvement of
Ipsilateral loss of pain
spinal nucleus
and temperature of
and tract of
the face.
trigeminal nerve
5. Involvement of sympathetic pathway –
Horner’s syndrome.
Q. 43. Specify the commencement and termination of the tracts in the posterior
funiculus of the spinal cord.
Ans. The tracts in the posterior funiculus are
fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus.
They are formed by central processes of
neurons located in the dorsal nerve root
ganglion. The fasciculus gracilis which lies
medially is composed of fibres from sacral.
Lumbar and lower thoracic ganglia. The
fasciculus cuneatus which lies laterally
consists of fibres from upper thoracic and
cervical ganglia. These fibres terminate by
synapsing with neurons in the nucleus gracilis
and nucleus cuneatus respectively in the lower
part of medulla oblongata.
Q. 44. Thrombosis of which artery causes medial
medullary syndrome? Which part of the
medulla oblongata is damaged? What are
the characteristics of the medial medullary syndrome?
Ans. Thrombosis of the anterior spinal artery causes
medial medullary syndrome. In this syndrome
ventral and medial part of the medulla is
damaged.
Characteristics of medial medullary syndrome.
1. Involvement of corticospinal fibres –
contralateral hemiplegia
2. Damage to the hypoglossal nucleus –
ipsilateral paralysis of muscles of the
tongue.
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3. Involvement of the medial lemniscus – loss
of sensation of fine touch, sense of movement and sense of position.
Q. 45. Specify the origin and termination of the
fibres of the optic nerve.
Ans. The optic nerve is made up of axons of the
ganglion cells of the retina. The fibres from
the nasal half of each retina cross the midline
in the optic chiasma and enter the optic tract
of the opposite side. While the fibres from the
temporal half of each retina pass posteriorly
in the optic tract of the same side most of the
fibres terminate in the lateral geniculate body
and few of the fibres pass to the pretectal
nucleus and the superior colliculus.
Q. 46. Name the nuclei of inferior olivary
complex. Mention their location.
Ans. Inferior olivary complex contains
1. Principal inferior olivary nucleus situated
in the anterolateral part of the medulla
oblongata at the level of olive.
2. Medial accessory olivary nucleus lies medial
to the inferior olivary nucleus.
3. Dorsal accessory olivary nucleus lies dorsal
to the inferior olivary nucleus.
Q. 47. Enumerate the gyri present in the
occipital lobe of the cerebrum.
Ans. 1. Superior occipital gyrus
2. Inferior occipital gyrus
3. Gyrus descendens
4. Cuneus
5. Parieto-occipital arcus
6. Temporo-occipital arcus
Q. 48. Enumerate functions of the neuroglial
cells
Ans. 1. Support
2. Protection of neurons
3. Participate in neural activities
4. Neural nutrition
5. Defense process of central nervous system.
Q. 49. Enumerate the nerves having psuedoganglia
Ans. 1. Nerve to teres minor
2. Posterior interosseous nerve
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3. Median nerve at the wrist
4. Lateral terminal branch of deep peroneal
nerve
Q. 50. Enumerate structures in the visual
pathway.
Ans. 1. Retina
2. Optic nerve
3. Optic chiasma
4. Optic tract
5. Lateral geniculate body
6. Optic radiation
7. Visual cortex.
Q. 51. Enumerate the fibres present in the crus
cerebri.
Ans. The crus cerebri consists of descending fibres
from the cerebral cortex. It’s medial one sixth
is occupied by frontopontine fibres and lateral
one sixth by temporopontine, occipitopontine
and parietopontine. The intermediate twothirds of the crus cerebri are occupied by
corticospinal and corticonuclear fibres.
Q. 52. Specify the sites of communication between the ventricular system and subarachnoid space. What is interventricular
foramen?
Ans. Ventricular system communicates with the
subarachnoid space at three sites.
1. In the lower part of the roof of the fourth
ventricle there is median aperture (foramen
of magendi)
2. Two lateral apertures (foramina of luschka)
on either side of fourth ventricle.
Inter ventricular foramen (of Monro) is the
site of communication between lateral
ventricles and third ventricle.
Q. 53. Enumerate the sites where bipolar
neurons are found.
Ans. 1. Retina
2. Cochlea
3. Vestibular ganglion
4. Olfactory mucosa
Q. 54. Enumerate the cranial nerve nuclei
present in the midbrain.
Ans. 1. Oculomotor nucleus
2. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
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3. Trochlear nucleus
4. Mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal
nerve.
Q. 55. Enumerate the cranial nerve nuclei
present in the pons.
Ans. 1. Main sensory nucleus of the trigeminal
nerve
2. Motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
3. Nucleus of facial nerve
4. Abducent nucleus
5. Superior salivatory nucleus
6. Inferior salivatory nucleus
7. Lacrimatory nucleus.
Q. 56. Enumerate the cranial nerve nuclei
present in the medulla oblongata.
Ans. 1. Hypoglossal nucleus
2. Nucleus ambiguous
3. Nucleus of tractus solitarius
4. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
5. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
6. Vestibular nuclei
7. Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei
Q. 57. Enumerate the gyri present on the
tentorial surface of the cerebrum.
Ans. 1. Parahippocampal gyrus
2. Medial occipitotemporal gyrus
3. Lateral occipitotemporal gyrus
4. Lingual gyrus.
Q. 58. Specify the boundaries of the inter peduncular fossa. Mention the structures seen
in the fossa.
Ans. The interpeduncular fossa is bounded, in front
by optic chiasma. On the sides by right and
left optic tracts and posteriorly by the crus
cerebri.
The structures seen in the interpeduncular
fossa are tuber cinerum, mamillary bodies and
posterior perforated substance.
Q. 59. Specify the ascending and descending
fibres passing through the genu and the
posterior limb of the internal capsule.
Ans. A. Ascending fibres – superior thalamic
radiations (from ventral posterior nucleus
of thalamus to post central gyrus).
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SAQs in Anatomy
Thalamoparietal fibres
B. Descending Fibres –
1. Corticonuclear
2. Corticospinal
3. Frontopontine
4. Corticorubral
5. Corticoreticular
6. Parietothalamic
Q. 60. Name the arteries supplying the internal
capsule.
Ans. 1. Medial and lateral striate branches of the
middle cerebral artery.
2. Recurrent branch of anterior cerebral artery
3. Anterior choroidal artery
4. Direct branches from internal carotid and
posterior communicating arteries.
Q. 61. Give Anatomical differences between
sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
Ans.
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
Out flow
T1 – T 2
Preganglionic
fibres
Postganglionic
fibres
Ganglia
Short
Cranial – 3,7, 9 and
10 nerves
Sacral – S 2,3,4
Long
Long
Short
Paravertebral
Prevertebral
Small ganglia
close to viscera
(e.g. otic ganglion)
Ganglion cells in
plexuses
(e.g. cardiac)
Q. 62. How are cranial nerves and spinal nerves
similar? How are they different?
Ans. Cell bodies of the motor, spinal and cranial
nerves are located with in the spinal cord and
brain respectively, while cell bodies of sensory
nerves are located outside CNS i.e. cell bodies
of sensory spinal nerves lie in the dorsal root
Ganglia and Cell bodies of cranial nerves lie
in the sensory ganglia associated with the
nerves. Thus, organisation of cranial nerves is
similar to that of spinal nerves.
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Spinal nerves contain both sensory and motor
fibres. But not all cranial nerves contain both
motor and sensory fibres.
Q. 63. Draw and label transverse section of the
spinal cord showing the main ascending
and descending tracts.
Ans.
Q. 64. What is Frey’s syndrome?
Ans. Frey’s syndrome is a complication following
penetrating wounds of parotid gland. During
process of healing the postganglionic parasympathetic secretomotor fibres traveling in
the auriculotemporal nerve grow out and join
the distal end of the great auricular nerve,
which supplies the sweat glands of the
overlying facial skin. By this means, a
stimulus intended for saliva production,
instead produces sweat secretion.
Q. 65. Give characteristics of Horner’s syndrome. How it is caused?
Ans. Characteristics of Horner’s syndrome
1. Ptosis
2. Moisis
3. Anhydrosis
4. Anophthalmos
5. Loss of ciliospinal reflex.
Injury to cervical sympathetic trunk produces
Horner’s syndrome. It can also be caused by a
lesion within the central nervous system
anywhere at or above the first thoracic segment
of the spinal cord involving sympathetic fibres.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 66. What is cauda equina syndrome? What are
its characteristics?
Ans. Compressin of the cauda equina give rise to
cauda equina syndrome.
Its characteristics are
1. Flaccid paraplegia
2. Saddle anaesthesia
3. Sphincter disturbances.
Q. 67. What is the cause of Froin’s syndrome?
What are its characteristics?
Ans. Obstruction in the vertebral canal produces
Froin’s syndrome or loculation syndrome.
It is characteristics by
1. Yellowish discolouratin of CSF (xanthochromia) below the level of obstruction
2. Spontaneous coagulation of CSF after
withdrawal due to high protein content
3. Protein content is raised but cell content is
normal (albuminocytologic dissociation).
Q. 68. What is Weber’s syndrome? What is its
cause?
Ans. In Weber’s syndrome there is ipsilateral
paralysis of the third nerve and contralateral
hemiplegia. Third nerve paralysis produces
ptosis, lateral squint, dilatation of pupil and
loss of accommodation, diplopia, slight proptosis. In contralateral hemiplegia, there is
paralysis of lower part of the face, the tongue
and the arm and the leg.
Weber’s syndrome is produced by occlusion of
a branch of posterior cerebral artery that
supplies the midbrain, results in the necrosis
of brain tissue involving the oculomotor nerve
and the crus cerebri.
Q.69. Give anatomical, morphological and
functional subdivisions of the cerebellum.
Ans. 1. Anatomical
a. Flocculonodular lobe
b. Anterior lobe
c. Posterior lobe
2. Morphological (Transverse subdivision)
a. Archi cerebellum
b. Paleocerebellum
c. Neocerebellum
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3. Functional (Longitudinal subdivision)
a. Vermal or median zone
b. Paravermal or intermediate zone
c. Lateral zone.
Q.70. What is archi-cerebellum? Mention it’s
inputs and functions.
Ans. The archi-cerebellum (vestibular cerebellum)
is the first to appear in evolution. In aquatic
vertebrates. It includes the flocculonodular
lobe and the lingula. It receives input from the
vestibular nerve and the medial and the
inferior vestibular nuclei.
The archi-cerebellum is concerned with the
maintenance of equilibrium, tone and posture
of trunk muscles.
Q.71. What is paleocerebellum? Mention it’s
inputs and function.
Ans. The paleocerebellum (spinal cerebellum)
appears in terrestrial vertebrates with the
appearance of the limbs. The paleocerebellum
consists of the anterior lobe minus lingula and
the pyramid and uvula of the vermis. It
receives the proprioceptive and exteroceptive
inputs from the spinocerebellar, cuneocerebellar tracts. It plays important role in
muscle tone and posture of the limbs.
Q.72. What is neocerebellum? Mention it’s
inputs and functions.
Ans. The neocerebellum (Cerebropontocerebellum)
develops last and reaches maximum development in mammals. The neocerebellum
includes posterior lobe minus pyramid and
uvula. It receives input from the pontine nuclei,
inferior olivary nucleus and from visual and
auditory senses. It is concerned with
coordination of voluntary movements.
Q.73. What is corpus callosum? Mention it’s
parts and fibres.
Ans. The corpus callosum is the largest commissure
connecting right and left cerebral hemispheres.
Parts of corpus callosum.
1. Genu
2. Rostrum
3. Trunk
4. Splenium
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SAQs in Anatomy
Fibres of corpus callosum:
1. Forceps minor
2. Forceps major
3. Tapetum.
Q.74. What is internal capsule? Mention it’s
parts.
Ans. The internal capsule is a thick curved band of
white matter made of projection fibres. It
consists of both ascending and descending fibre
tracts. Superiorly the corona radiata fibres
converge into internal capsule and inferiorly
the fibres descend into the crus cerebri.
The parts of the internal capsule are:
1. Anterior limb
2. Genu
3. Posterior limb
4. Retro-lenti form part
5. Sublenti-form part.
Q.75. Enumerate parts of diancephalon.
Ans. 1. Thalamus
2. Hypothalamus
3. Subthalamus (ventral thalamus)
4. Metathalamus
5. Epithalamus
Q.76. What is thalamus? Mention it’s parts.
Ans. Thalamus is a large mass of grey matter that
lies immediately lateral to the third ventricle
and in the floor of the central part of the lateral
ventricle.
Thalamus has anterior and posterior ends and
four surfaces i.e. superior, inferior, medial and
lateral.
Q.77. Enumerate nuclei of the thalamus.
Ans. 1. Anterior nucleus
2. Medial dorsal nucleus
3. Ventral anterior
4. Ventral intermediate
5. Ventral posterolateral
6. Ventral posteromedial
7. Lateral dorsal
8. Lateral posterior
9. Pulvinar
10. Intralaminar
11. Midline nuclei
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Q.78. What is medial geniculate body? Mention
it’s connections.
Ans. Medial geniculate body is a part of metathalamus. It is an oval elevation of grey
matter situated below the pulvinar of the
thalamus and lateral to the superior colliculus. It is a relay station for auditory
pathway. The inferior brachium connects the
medial geniculate body to the inferior
colliculus.
Connections - Afferents:
1. Lateral lemniscus
2. Inferior colliculi
Efferents:
1. Acoustic radiation to auditory area in the
temporal lobe, through sublenti form part
of the internal capsule.
Q.79. What is epithalamus? Mention it’s parts.
Ans. Epithalamus is a part of diancephalon which
lies in relation to the posterior part of the roof
of the thrid ventricle and in the adjoining part
of it’s lateral wall.
Parts of the epithalamus are as follows:
1. Pineal body
2. Paraventricular nuclei
3. Habenular nuclei
4. Stria medularis thalami
5. Posterior commissure
Q.80. What is lateral geniculate body? Mention
it’s connections.
Ans. Lateral geniculate body is a part of metathalamus. It is a small oval elevation of grey
matter situated anterolateral to the medial
geniculate body below the thalamus. It is a
relay station for visual pathway. It is connected
to the superior colliculus by the superior
brachium.
Connections - Afferents - Retinae of both eyes
through the optic tract.
Efferents - Form optic radiations passing
through retrolentiform part of the internal
capsule to visual area in the occipital lobe.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q.81. What is hypothalamus? Mention it’s
boundaries.
Ans. Hypothalamus is a part of diancephalon,
designated as head ganglion of autonomic
nervous system. It lies in the floor and lateral
wall of the 3rd ventricle. It is bounded
anteriorly by lamina terminalis, inferiorly by
floor of third ventricle, and posterosuperiorly
by the hypothalamic sulcus.
Q.82. Mention subdivisions or parts of the
hypothalamus.
Ans. According to some authorities hypothalamus
is divided into three zones (From medial to
lateral)
1. Paraventricular zone
2. Intermediate zone
3. Lateral zone
Hypothalamus is also divided anteroposteriorly into four parts.
1. Preoptic region
2. Supraoptic
3. Tuberal
4. Mamillary
Q.83. Mention the hypothalamic nuclei.
Ans. 1. Preoptic nucleus
2. Paraventricular
3. Anterior
4. Supraoptic
5. Suprachiasmatic 6. Arcuate
(Infundibular)
7. Dorsomedial
8. Ventromedial
9. Posterior
10. Lateral
11. Premamillary
12. Mamillary
13. Lateral tuberal
Q.84. Name the areas of brain and related
structures which are devoid of blood brain
barrier.
Ans. 1. Pineal body
2. Hypophysis cerebri
3. Choroid plexus
4. Median eminence
Q.85. Give differences between white and grey
rami communicantes.
Ans. White rami
1. Lateral in position
2. Convey preganglionic motor and viscerosensory fibres
3. Connected to the lateral ganglia from T1 to
L2 spinal nerves
4. Intersegmental in distribution
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Grey rami
1. Medial in position
2. Convey pre ganglionic motor fibres only
3. Connected to all 31 pairs of spinal nerves
from the lateral ganglia
4. Segmental in distribution.
Q.86. Draw and label following cells.
1. Purkinje, 2. Pyramidal, 3. Stellate,
4. Fusiform, 5. Martinotti, 6. Horizontal
cell of cajal
Ans.
Q.87. What are basal ganglia (Nuclei)? Name
basal ganglia.
Ans. The basal ganglia are the large masses of
grey matter situated with in each cerebral
hemisphere and form essential constituents
of the extrapyramidal system.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Basal Ganglia:
1. Corpus striatum
i. Caudate nucleus
ii. Lentiform nucleus
a. Globus pallidus
b. Putamen
2. Claustrum
3. Amygdaloid body
Q.88. What are tanycytes? Mention their
functions.
Ans. The tanycytes are tall, columnar, ciliated
ependymal cells found in the walls of the third
and fourth ventricles.
Functions:
1. Secretion of neurochemical substances into
CSF
2. Secretion of CSF itself
3. Transport of substances from CSF to
underlying neurons or blood vessels
4. They may act as chemoreceptors.
Q.89. Name the anatomical structures which
constitute the blood brain barrier.
Ans. a. Capillary endothelium
b. Basement membrane of the endothelium
c. Processes and cell bodies of astrocytes
d. Cell bodies and processes of neurons.
Q.90. What are the special features of the dura
mater in relation to the optic nerve? Give
it’s clinical importance.
Ans. In optic nerves meningeal dura along with
arachnoid and pia maters envelop the entire
course of the nerves and extend up to eyeballs,
conveying subdural and subarachnoid spaces.
In increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure the
retinal veins are dilated and the optic disc is
pushed forward above the level of the retina
such condition is called as papilledema.
Q.91. Increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure
does not affect adversely the functions of
pituitary gland. Explain.
Ans. In the pituitary fossa all the three meninges
blend intimately with one another and with
the fibrous capsule of the pituitary gland thus
subarachnoid and subdural spaces are absent
around gland. Therefore increased CSF
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pressure does not affect adversely the functions
of the pituitary gland.
Q.92. Give characteristic features of venous
drainage of the brain.
Ans. 1. The venous return in the brain does not
follow the arterial pattern.
2. The veins of the brain are extremely thin
walled due to absence of muscular tissue
in their walls.
3. The veins of the brain possess no valves.
4. The veins of the brain run mainly in the
subarachnoid space.
5. The cerebral veins generally enter obliquely
into dural venous sinuses, against the flow
of blood in dural venous sinuses to avoid
their possible collapse following an
increased intracranial pressure as they are
thin walled.
Q.93. Why abducent nerve palsy is common
manifestation of increased intracranial
pressure?
Ans. Abducent nerve palsy is commonly seen in
increased intracranial pressure because
1. It’s long course through the cisterna pontis.
2. Sharp bending at the upper border of
petrous part of temporal bone.
3. Downward shift of the brainstem through
the foramen magnum due to increased
intracranial pressure with consequent
stretching of the nerve.
Q.94. What are striae medullaris? Mention their
origin, course and termination.
Ans. Striae medullaris are a few strands of nerve
fibres lying beneath the ependymal floor of
the fourth ventricle which wind round the
inferior cerebellar peduncle and extend across
vestibular and medial eminence up to the
median sulcus.
The striae medullaris are derived from the
arcuate nucles (displaced pontine nuclei) which
pass dorsally through the medulla to approach
the median sulcus of the floor of the fourth
ventricle where the fibres decussate and pass
laterally beneath the ependyma to enter the
cerebellum through the inferior cerebellar
peduncle.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q.95. Classify the cranial nerves.
Ans. a. Olfactory, optic, vestibulocochlear –
entirely sensory
b. Trochlear, abducent, accessory and
hypoglossal – entirely motor
c. Facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus – motor,
sensory and parasympathetic
d. Oculomotor – motor and parasympathetic
e. Trigeminal – motor and sensory
8
HISTOLOGY
Q. 1. Draw and label a unit membrane.
Q. 2. Draw and label a cell membrane.
Q. 3. What is unit membrane? How cell membrane differs from unit membrane?
Ans. All the biological membranes including the
cell membrane and internal membranes of the
cell organelles have common trilaminar
structure which is about 7.5 nm thick made
up of lipids and proteins and called as unit
membrane.
The cell membrane separates the cytoplasm
of the cell from the surrounding structures and
it is made up of trilaminar unit membrane
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SAQs in Anatomy
and in addition its external surface shows glycocalyx coat (glycoproteins and glycolipids).
Q. 4. Classify the cell contacts.
Ans. A. Unspecialized contacts—Cell adhesion
molecules (CAM) occupy the entire thickness of the cell membrane.
i. Ca dependent
ii. Ca independent
B. Specialised Contacts
i. Zonula occludens
⎫ Junctional
ii. Zonula adherens
⎬ complex
iii. Macula adherens
⎭
(desmosome)
iv. Gap junctions
v. Hemidesmosomes
Q. 5. Draw and label a Golgi complex.
Q. 6. Draw and label a nucleus.
Histology
159
Q. 7. Draw and label junctional complex.
Q. 8. Draw and label rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Q. 9. Draw and label smooth endoplasmic
reticulum.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 10. Draw and label transverse section of a
centriole.
Q. 11. Draw and label a transverse section of a
cilium.
Q. 12. Draw and label a transverse section of an
osteon.
Histology
161
Q. 13. Draw and label a diagram to show the
concept of hepatic lobule, portal lobule
and portal acinus.
Q. 14 Draw and label a serous and mucous
acinus.
Q. 15. Draw and label sections of thyroid follicles
at the following levels of activity (a)
Inactive, (b) moderate, (c) highly active.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 16. Draw and label transverse section of.
(a) Continuous capillary, (b) Fenestrated
capillary.
Q. 17. Draw and label a thymic lobule.
Histology
163
Q. 18. Draw and label a sarcomere.
Q. 19. Draw and label structure of a spermatozoon as seen under electron microscope.
Q. 20. Draw and label a mature ovarian follicle.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 21. Classify glands on the basis of development and give an example of each.
Ans. 1. Ectodermal—mammary gland
2. Mesodermal—suprarenal cortex
3. Endodermal—Thyroid.
Q. 22. What is cytoskeleton? Give any two functions of cytoskeleton.
Ans. Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm
constitute cytoskeleton.
Functions:
1. They give support and form framework of
the cells thus maintaining the structure of
the cell.
2. They bring about various movements of cell
organelles within the cell.
Q. 23. Draw and label structure of a mitochondrium and specify its functions?
Ans. Functions:
1. ATP and GTP are formed in mitochondria
which provide energy for various cellular
functions.
2. It is concerned with fatty acid metabolism.
Q. 24. Specific any four functions of plasma
membrane.
Ans. 1. Acts as a boundary for physiologically distinct compartments within the cells.
2. Transports electrolytes and other molecules.
3. Serves as a receptor for hormones and other
chemical stimuli.
4. Generates bioelectric potentials across the
membrane.
Histology
165
Q. 25. What is nucleolus? What are the parts of
nucleolus?
Ans. Nucleolus is a dense body present in the
nucleus that stains well with basic dyes. It
consists of:
i. Pars chromosoma
ii. Pars filamentosa
iii. Pars granulosa
iv. Pars amorpha.
Q. 26. Name any four glands of endodermal
origin?
Ans. i. Thyroid
ii. Parathyroid
ii. Thymus
iv. Liver
v. Pancreas.
Q. 27. Name any four glands of ectodermal
origin?
Ans. 1. Mammary gland
2. Lacrimal gland
3. Sweat gland
4. Sebaceous gland
5. Pituitary gland.
Q. 28. Name any four glands of mesodermal
origin
Ans. 1. Suprarenal cortex
2. Kidney
3. Spleen
4. Testis
5. Ovary.
Q. 29. Name any four white fibrocartilages in the
body.
Ans. 1. Intervertebral disc
2. Articular disc of temporomandibular joint
3. Menisci of knee joint
4. Labrum glenoidale.
Q. 30. Name the structures containing sinusoids.
Ans. 1. Liver
2. Spleen
3. Suprarenal gland
4. Parathyroid gland
5. Bone marrow.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 31. Name the cells of general connective
tissue.
Ans. 1. Fibroblasts
2. Macrophages
3. Plasma cells
4. Mast cells
5. Lymphocytes
6. Monocytes
7. Pigment cells
8. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
9. Fat cells.
Q. 32. How cartilage gets its nourishment? Why
collagen fibres in a hyaline cartilage are
not seen?
Ans. A cartilage is an avascular structure. It gets
its nourishment by way of diffusion through
the matrix from the capillaries of the perichondrium.
The collagen fibers in hyaline cartilage are not
seen because they are submicroscopic and their
refractive index is very close to that of the
surrounding ground substance.
Q. 33. Name the proteins present in a muscle.
Ans. 1. Myosin
2. Actin
3. Troponin
4. Tropomyosin
5. Titin
6. Desmin.
Q. 34. What are myoepithelial cells? Give their
function.
Ans. Myoepithelial cells are contractile cells
present in close relation to secretory elements
and ducts of some of the glands.
They help to squeeze the secretions out of the
secreting elements and ducts.
Q. 35. Name the glands in which myoepithelial
cells are present. From which germ layer
they are derived? Give their nerve supply.
Ans. Myoepithelial cells are seen in:
1. Salivary glands
2. Mammary glands
3. Sweat glands
Myoepithelial cells are derived from ectoderm.
Myoepithelial cells are innervated by autonomic nerves.
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167
Q. 36. Give two peculiarities of olfactory cells.
Ans. 1. Olfactory cells are unique in being the only
neurons that have cell bodies located in an
epithelium.
2. Olfactory cell is the only example of regeneration of neurones in mammals.
Q. 37. Enumerate the cells seen in the epithelium linning the air passages.
Ans. 1. Ciliated columnar cells
2. Goblet cells
3. Non-ciliated serous cells.
4. Basal cells
5. Cells of Clara.
Q. 38. Enumerate the layers of cornea.
Ans. 1. Anterior epithelium
2. Anterior limiting membrane (Bowman’s
membrane)
3. Corneal stroma (substatia propria)
4. Posterior limiting membrane (Descemet’s
membrane)
5. Posterior epithelium.
Q. 39. Enumerate the layers of retina.
Ans. 1. Pigment cell layer
2. Layer of rods and cones
3. Outer limiting membrane
4. Outer nuclear layer
5. Outer plexiform layer
6. Inner nuclear layer
7. Inner plexiform layer
8. Ganglion cell layer
9. Layer of optic nerve fibres
10. Inner limiting membrane.
Q. 40. Enumerate the layers of cerebral cortex.
Ans. 1. Molecular layer
2. Outer-granular layer
3. Layer of medium-sized pyramidal cells
4. Inner granular layer
5. Layer of large sized pyramidal cells
6. Multiform layer.
Q. 41. Enumerate the neuroglia.
Ans. A. Macroglia
1. Astrocytes
a. Fibrous astrocytes
b. Protoplasmic astrocytes
2. Oligodentrocytes
B. Microglia
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Q. 42. Give functions of the neuroglia.
Ans. 1. They provide mechanical support to neurones
2. They serve as insulators and prevent
neuronal impulses from spreading in
unwanted directions.
3. Repair of damaged areas of nervous tissue
4. Oligodendrocytes provide myelin sheath to
nerve fibres within central nervous system.
5. They may play a role in maintaining blood
brain barrier.
Q. 43. Enumerate the neurons present in the
cerebral cortex.
Ans. 1. Pyramidal cells
2. Cells of martinotti
3. Horizontal cells
4. Basket cells
5. Neurogliaform.
Q. 44. Enumerate the neurons present in the
cerebellar cortex.
Ans. 1. Purkinje cells
2. Granule cells
3. Basket cells
4. Stellate cells
5. Golgi cells.
Q. 45. Classify the glands based on the their
nature of secretion.
Ans. MEROCRINE: No change in cell structure.
Secretion by diffusion, e.g.
salivary glands.
APOCRINE:
Apical portion is lost and
secretions are poured, e.g.
mammary gland.
HOLOCRINE: Whole cell bursts to give
secretions, e.g. sebaceous
glands.
Q. 46. Name the organic components of bones.
Ans. i. Osteocollagenous fibres
ii. Cementing substance—Glycosaminoglycans
iii. Ground substance containing chondroitin
sulfate, sialoproteins phosphoproteins
iv. Cells—osteoblast, osteocytes, osteoclasts
osteoprogenitor cells.
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169
Q. 47. Enumerate different types of T lymphocytes.
Ans. a. Cytotoxic
b. Memory T cells
c. Suppressor
d. Helper T-cells
e. Natural killer cells.
Q. 48. Give physical properties of collagen fibres.
Ans. 1. Collagen fibres are seen in thick wavy
bundles.
2. They resists considerable tensile forces but
are pliable and can bend easily.
3. Collagen fibres swell and become soft when
treated with weak acids.
4. With polarised light they show birefringence
5. On boiling collagen is converted into gelatin.
Q. 49. Enumerate the cells present in the
thymus.
Ans. 1. Epithelial cells
2. Thymocytes (lymphocyte)
3. Macrophages
4. Hassall’s corpuscles.
Q. 50. Give differences between skeletal and
Cardiac muscles?
Ans.
Skeletal Muscle
Cardiac Muscle
a. Each muscle fibre is an
a. Each cell is about 100 μm
elongated cell few mm
in length and 15 μm in
to 40 cms in length and
diameters.
10 to 100 μm in diameters.
Each fibre is linear unit
composed of several
cardiac muscle cells
b. Multinucleated
b. Single nucleus
c. Nuclei peripherally placed c. Nucleus centrally placed
d. Intercalated disc absent
d. Intercalated disc present
e. No branching
e. Branch and anastomose
f. Triads are present at AI
f. Diads are present at Z
junctions
line.
g. Voluntary
g. Involuntary
Q. 51. Enumerate the cells of bone?
Ans. 1. Osteoblast
2. Osteocyte
3. Osteoprogenitor cells
4. Osteoclast.
Q. 52. Give properties of elastic fibres.
Ans. Elastic fibres are long, thin (1 to 4 μm diameters) cyclindrised threads or flat ribbons.
Elastic fibres branch.
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They are made up of protein elastin. Elastic
fibre can be stretched (like a rubber band) and
return to its original length when tension is
released.
They are digested by enzyme elastase.
Q. 53. Give properties of reticular fibres.
Ans. Reticular fibres are very thin fibres (collagen
type III fibres)
They are arranged in the form of reticulum or
network
They cannot be seen with routine H and E
staining
They can be demonstrated by AgNO3
These are present in basal lamina, lymph
node, liver, spleen, etc.
Q. 54. Name the specializations that increase the
surface area of the intestinal mucosa.
Ans. A. Plica circularis (valves of kerckring) × 3
times
B. Villi and crypts × 10 times
C. Microvilli × 20 times.
Q. 55. Name the cells having two or more than
two nuclei.
Ans. 1. Hepatocytes
2. Skeletal muscle cells
3. Osteoclast
4. Syncytiotrophoblast
Q. 56. Enumerate the cells present in the epidermis of skin.
Ans. 1. Keratinocytes 2. Pigment cells
3. Merkel cells
4. Langerhans’ cells
Q. 57. Enumerate epithelial cells of stomach.
Ans. 1. Surface epithelial cells (mucous)
2. Chief (zymogenic) cells
3. Parietal (oxyntic) cells
4. Mucous neck cells
5. Enteroendocrine cells
Q. 58. Enumerate the layers of epidermis of
thick skin.
Ans. 1. Stratum basale
2. Stratum spinosum
3. Stratum granulosum
4. Stratum lucidum
5. Stratum corneum
Q. 59. Name surface specialization in epithelia.
Ans. 1. Microvilli
2. Stercocilia
3. Cilia
4. Basal infoldings.
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171
Q. 60. Enumerate simple epithelia.
Ans. 1. Simple squamous
2. Simple cuboidal
3. Simple columnar
4. Psuedostratified
5. Olfactory
6. Gustastory
7. Statoacoustic
8. Myoepithelial cells.
Q. 61. Explain following terms giving one example of each.
Ans. 1. Holocrines
2. Apocrine
3. Merocrine
i. Holocrine—the entire cell breaks down
to release its secretion e.g. sebaceous
gland
ii. Apocrine—release of secretory products
involves loss of apical cytoplasm e.g.
mammary gland.
iii. Merocrine—secretory product discharged by exocytosis, no loss of cytoplasm-most of the glands.
Q. 62. What is diffuse neuroendocrine system
(DNES)? Name any two cells of DNES and
hormones secreted by them.
Ans. Diffuse neuroendocrine system (DNES)
consists of endocrine cells interspersed among
non-endocrine system. The cytoplasm of these
cells contain either polypeptide hormones or
biogenic amines (e.g. epinephrine, nor-epinephrine, 5 HPT).
G cells (Stomach, duodenum)—gastrin
I cells (Duodenum, jejunum) cholecystokinin
S cells (Duodenum, jejunum) secretin
B cells (Pancreas) insulin.
Q. 63. Name the structures containing microtubules.
Ans. 1. Cilia
2. Centrioles
3. Flagellum
4. Basal bodies.
Q. 64. Enumerate cytoplasmic deposits.
Ans. 1. Melanin
2. Lipofuscin
3. Lipid droplets
4. Proteins as secretory granules
5. Glycogen.
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Q. 65. Classify protein synthesizing cells by
giving two examples of each.
Ans. Group one where proteins remain free within
cytoplasm and protein synthesis mainly occurs
on free ribosomes.
Example—erythroblasts, embryonic cells,
malignant tumors cells.
Group two where synthesized proteins are in
rough endoplasmic reticulum
Example—fibroblast, plasma cells, pancreatic
acinar cells.
Q. 66. Name the structures where continuous
capillaries are present.
Ans. 1. Muscle
2. Connective tissue
3. Exocrine glands 4. Nervous tissue.
Q. 67. Give pecularities of lymphatic capillaries.
Ans. 1. They originate as thin blind ended vessels
2. No fenestrations in their endothelial cells
3. No zonula occludens between neighbouring
cells
4. Almost no basal lamina.
Q. 68. Name the structures which constitute red
pulp of the spleen.
Ans. 1. Splenic sinusoids
2. Splenic cords containing
a. Reticular fibres
b. Reticular cells
c. Macrophages
d. Plasma cells
e. Erythrocytes platelets, etc.
Q. 69. What are the characteristics of cells
concerned with ion transport from apical
to basal surfaces? Give any two examples.
Ans. The cells that are concerned with ion transport
from the apical to basal surface show basal in
folding accompanied by mitochondria.
Example—epithelial cells of proximal and
distal renal tubules, striated ducts of salivary
glands.
Q. 70. What is muscularis mucosa? What is its
function?
Ans. Muscularis mucosa is a thin layer of smooth
muscle that separate the connective tissue of
the lamina propria from the submucosa. It
consists of an inner circular and outer longitudinal muscles.
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173
The muscularis mucosa can alter the surface
configuration of the mucosa locally.
Q. 71. Enumerate the cells of the lining epithelium of the small intestine.
Ans. 1. Columnar cells with brush border
2. Coblet cells
3. Undifferentiated cells
4. Paneth cells
5. Neuroendocrine cells.
Q. 72. Differentiate between proximal and distal
convoluted tubules of the kidney?
Ans.
Proximal convoluted
tubule
Distal convoluted
tubule
Diamater – 40-60 mm
Lumen – small
⎫ cuboidal with
Lining
⎬
epithelium⎭ brush border
Staining – cytoplasm stains pink.
20-50 mm
Large
cuboidal, no brush
border
Less intensely pink.
Q. 73. Enumerate the functions of Sertoli cells
(substentacular cells).
Ans. 1. Sertoli cells support developing germ cells
2. They provide nutrition to the germ cells
3. They probably secrete fluid that helps to
move spermatozoa along the seminiferous
tubules
4. They act as macrophages.
Q. 74. Specify the microscopic structure of the
juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Ans. A part of the distal convoluted tubule near
vascular pole of the renal corpuscle between
afferent and efferent arterioles is modified at
the site of contact with the afferent arteriole.
The cells of the distal convoluted tubule are
columnar and closely packed together. This
area is called as macula densa.
The smooth muscle cells in the tunica media
of the adjacent afferent anteriole are replaced
by highly modified epithelial cell with cytoplasmic granules. These are juxtaglomerular
cells.
The juxtaglomerular cells and macula densa
lie in close contact together forming juxtaglomerular apparatus.
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Q. 75. Differentiate between the proliferative
and secretory phases of uterine endometrium.
Ans.
Proliferative phase
Thickness
Glands
Coiledarteries
Secretory phase
2 to 3 mm
Long tubular,
usually straight
5 to 7 mm
highly tortuous,
lumina dilated and
filled with secretions
Seen in the
Extend in to the upper
deeper regions
portion of the endomeof the endometrium trium
Q. 76. Enumerate the cells present in the adenohypophysis.
Ans. A. Chromophil cells
1. Acidophils (alpha cells)
Somatotrophs and mammatrophs
2. Basophils (beta cells)
Corticotrophs, thyrotrophs, gonadotrophs
B. Chromophobe cells
C. Folliculostellate cells.
Q. 77. Draw and label a diagram illustrating
changes in the mammary gland A) In nonpregnant, B) During pregnancy, C) During
lactation.
Ans.
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175
Q. 78. What are the characteristics of primary
bone tissue? Enumerate the sites where
the primary bone tissue is present in the
adults?
Ans. The first bone tissue to appear is primary
bone, it is temporary and is replaced in adults
by secondary bone tissue. It has irregular array
of collagen fibres, lower mineral content and
higher portion of osteocytes.
The sites where primary bone is present in
adults are
1. Near the sutures of the flat bone of the
skull.
2. In tooth sockets, and
3. In the insertions of the some tendons.
Q. 79. Enumerate the structures, which constitute the alveolar septum or blood air
barrier?
Ans. Alveolar septum is formed by
1. Alveolar epithelium
2. Basement membrane of alveolar epithelium
3. Basement membrane of capillary endothelium
4. Capillary endothelium
Alveolar macrophages or dust cells are present
in the alveolar septum.
Q. 80. Enumerate the different histological
zones of the suprarenal cortex and
mention the hormones produced by each
zone.
Ans. The three histological zones and hormones
produced by suprarenal cortex are as follows:
1. Zona glomerulosa – mineral corticoids,
mainly aldosterone
2. Zona fasciculata – glucocorticoid, mainly
cortisol and corticosone.
Androgens in small amounts.
3. Zona reticulosa - androgens and probably
glucocorticoids.
Q. 81. Give the characteristics of mucus secreting cells.
Ans. Mucus secreting cell is characterised by the
presence of numerous large lightly staining
granules containing mucin in the apical region
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of the cell. The nucleus is flattened and
situated near the base, rough endoplasmic
reticulum and golgi complex is well developed.
Q. 82. Give characteristics of steroid secreting
cells.
Ans. The cell are polyhedral or rounded, acidophilic
with a central nucleus and the cytoplasm is
usually rich in lipid droplets. The cytoplasm
contains rich smooth endoplasmic reticulum,
in the form of anastomosing tubules. The
mitochondria are spherical or elongated
having tubular cristae.
Q. 83. Give the characteristics of protein
secreting cells.
Ans. The cells are polyhedral or pyramidal with
central, rounded nucleus. The apical region
shows well-developed Golgi complex, the basal
infranuclear region shows rough endoplasmic
reticulum in the form of parallel arrays of
cisternae. Mitochondria are interspersed
among endoplasmic reticulum. The rest of the
cytoplasm is filled with secretary granules.
Q. 84. Enumerate the constituents of the ground
substance of the connective tissue.
Ans. A. Glycosaminoglycans and hyaluronic acid
glycosaminoglycans + protein = proteoglycans
i. dermatan sulphate
ii. chondroitin sulphate
iii. keratan sulphate
iv. heparan sulphate
B. Glycoproteins i. fibronectin
ii. laminin
iii. chondronectin
Q. 85. Enumerate the sites where mucussecreting cells are present.
Ans. 1. Stomach
2. Mucus acini of salivary glands
3. Respiratory tract
4. Goblet cells of small and large intestine
Q. 86. Name the parts of the male urethra and
specify the lining epithelium of each part.
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177
Ans. 1. Prostatic urethra
2. Membranous urethra
3. Spongy (penile) urethra
The upper half of the prostatic urethra is lined
by transitional epithelium.
The lower half of prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra except in the
glans penis i.e. navicular fossa are lined by
pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
In the navicular fossa it is lined by stratified
squamous nonkeratinised epithelium.
Q. 87. Enumerate cells present in the dental
pulp.
Ans. 1. Odontoblasts
2. Fibroblasts
3. Macrophages
4. Mast cells
Q. 88. Define a gland.
Ans. A gland is a modified epithelial structure,
which is specialized to manufacture, release
and transport macromolecules, ions and water
in to its surrounding environment. This fluid
is called the secretion of the gland. The
secretion of the gonads i.e. testis and ovary is
in the form of cells. Therefore, these glands
are called as cytogenic glands.
Q. 89. What is mucous membrane or mucosa?
What are its constituents and name the
sites where it is present?
Ans. The mucous membrane or mucosa is a
functional unit formed by epithelium and its
underlying connective tissue lining those
cavities which connect with the outside of the
body. It consists of surface epithelium (with
or without glands) a supporting connective
tissue i.e. lamina propria, a basal lamina and
sometimes muscularis mucosa as the deepest
layer.
Mucosa limes the alimentary canal, the
respiratory tract and the genitourinary tract.
Q. 90. What is serous membrane or serosa? What
are its constituents and name the sites
where it is present?
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SAQs in Anatomy
Ans. The serous membrane or the serosa is a
functional unit formed by epithelium and its
underlying connective tissue lining closed
cavities. (except peritoneal cavity in females
which communicates with the exterior by way
of uterine tubes). Structurally it consists of a
lining epithelium, called mesothelium, a
supporting connective tissue and a basal
lamina between them. The serous membranes
do not contain glands and the fluid on their
surface is watery.
The serosa lines the peritoneal, pleural and
pericardial cavities.
Q. 91. Enumerate the cells that transport ions.
Ans. A. The cells transporting ions in which the flow
of ions is from the apex of the cell to its
basal region—epithelial cells of intestine,
proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney,
striated ducts of salivary glands, gallbladder.
B. The cells transporting ions in which the flow
of ions is from the basal region of the cell to
its apex—epithelial cells of the choroid
plexus and ciliary body.
Q. 92. Give classification of chemical messenger
producing cells based on the mode of
delivery of the messenger. Give one
example of each and mention one messenger secreted by it.
Ans. 1. Neurocrine – neurone - acetylcholine
2. Paracrine – mast cell - histamine
3. Endocrine – islets of Langerhans – insulin.
Q. 93. What is epithelioid tissue? Give examples.
Ans. Epithelioid tissue is an aggregation of cells in
close opposition with each other (like
epithelium) but lacking a free surface.
Examples of epithelioid tissue.
1. Interstitial cells of leydig in the testis
2. The luteal cells of the ovary
3. The parenchyma of the adrenal gland
4. The epithelioreticular cells of the thymus.
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179
Q. 94. Explain blood supply of the arteries.
Ans. The large arteries (of more than 1mm diameter) are supplied with nutrient vessels
called vasa vasorum (vessels of vessel) form a
dense capillary network in the tunica adventitia and supply the adventitia and outer part
of tunica media. The rest of the vessel wall i.e.
tunica intima and inner part of media and
small arteries (of less than 1mm diameter)
are nourished directly by diffusion from the
luminal blood. Fenestrations in the elastic
laminae facilitate this diffusion.
Q. 95. Give morphological classification of
glands. Mention one example of each.
Ans. Morphological classification of glands
A. Exocrine –
a. Unicellular – goblet cells
b. Multicellular –
1. Simple i. Simple tubular—glands of small
intestine
ii. Simple coiled tubular—sweat
glands
iii. Simple alveolar—tarsal glands
2. Compound
i. Compound tubular—kidney
ii. Compound alveolar—glands of
respiratory tract
iii. Compound tubuloalveolar— salivary glands and lacrimal glands
B. Endocrine –
a. Unicellular – cells of DNES (Diffuse
Neuroendocrine System) G cells of
stomach
b. Multicellular –
1. Follicles – thyroid
2. Cords – suprarenal
Q. 96. What is Kartagener’s syndrome?
Ans. Kartagener’s syndrome or immotile cilia
syndrome is a disorder that causes infertility
in males and chronic respiratory tract
infections in both sexes. It is caused by
immobility of cilia and flagella induced by
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SAQs in Anatomy
deficiency of dynein, a protein normally present
in the cilia. This protein is responsible for the
sliding of the microtubules, a process that is
necessary for ciliary movements.
Q. 97. What are bronchioles? Mention their
characteristics.
Ans. Bronchioles are intralobular airways with
diameter of 1 mm or less. They have neither
cartilage nor glands in their mucosa. Goblet
cells are scattered in their mucosa. In the
larger bronchioles the epithelium is ciliated
psuedostratified columnar. In smaller terminal bronchioles the epithelium becomes
ciliated simple columnar.
Q.98 What is apoptosis? What is it’s significance? Give one example.
Ans. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death (Physiological cell death). It is an active regulatory
mechanism in shaping and maintaining tissue
size, and effective mechanism for eliminating
unwanted cells which die without rupture or
the lysosomes and autolysis.
It is seen in developing limbs where cells die
along the pre and post axial limits of the apical
ectodermal ridge so limiting it’s extent and
similarly between the digits allowing their
separation.
Q.99. What are lymphatic nodules or primary
lymph follicles? Mention the sites where
lymphatic nodules are present.
Ans. Lymphatic nodule or primary lymph follicle is
a collection of B and T lymphocytes which are
supported by reticular fibres. The centre of the
nodule is known as germinal centre which is
lightly stained as it contains lymphoblasts.
The periphery is darkly stained containing
lymphocytes and plasma cells.
Sites where lymphatic nodules are present—
1. Lymph node
2. Tonsil
3. Spleen
4. Underneath the mucosa of gut, i.e. Gut
associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
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181
5. Underneath the mucosa of the bronchus,
i.e. Bronchus associated lymphoid tissue
(BALT).
Q.100. Give pecularities of the lymphatic nodules.
Ans. 1. Definite fibrous capsule is absent
2. The lymphatic nodule filter tissue fluid
3. They do not have afferent vessels but are
provided with efferent vessels.
Q.101. Give differences between blood capillaries and lymph capillaries.
Ans. Blood capillaries
1. Basal lamina and pericytes are present
2. Permeable to crystalloids
3. Increased pressure of the tissue fluid
collapses the blood capillaries
Lymph capillaries
1. Basal lamina and pericytes are absent
2. Permeable to macromolecules of colloids
and particulate matter
3. Increased pressure of tissue fluid the lymph
capillary lumen remains patent.
Q.102. What is lymphoid tissue? What are it’s
constituents?
Ans. Lymphoid tissue is a modified connective
tissue consisting of supporting structures and
cells.
Supporting structure—Network of reticular
fibres cells:
1. Fixed cells—Reticular cells which are
attached to reticular fibres and phagocytic
in function. They act as stem cells from
which free cells are derived.
2. Free cells—Lymphoblasts, lymphocytes
and plasma cells. They occupy the interstices between the reticular fibres.
Q.103. Why in a section of ground bone haversian
system appear black in color?
Ans. During grinding of bone air gets trapped in
the haversian canals, lacunae, canaliculi and
volkman’s canal. During microscopic
examination light is refracted through air
trapped in the parts of haversian system,
hence they appear black in color.
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Q.104. Why skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated and nuclei are peripherally placed?
Ans. The skeletal muscle fibers are elongated cells
formed by fusion of many myoblasts. Therefore
they are multinucleated. The skeletal muscle
fiber contraction is with great power and speed.
If nuclei are in the center of the fiber they can
cause obstruction during contraction and would
get compressed.
Q.105. What is canal of schlemm? What is it’s
function and its clinical importance?
Ans. Canal of schlemm (scleral venous sinus) is a
circular canal lined by endothelium present
at sclerocorneal junction. It is connected externally to anterior ciliary veins and internally to the anterior chamber through spaces of
fontana. The aqueous humor is continuously
drained through the canal into blood stream.
[Aqueous humor serves as a medium for exchange of metabolites to and from the avascular lens and the cornea and maintaining intraocular pressure]. Obstruction to the drainage of aqueous humor leads to increased intraocular pressure causing glaucoma.
Q.106. Name the microglia.
Ans. Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Müller’s cells of retina
Pituicytes
Ependymal cells
Q.107. How enamel and dentin formation differs
from the bone formation?
Ans. During bone formation bone forming
osteoblasts are surrounded by bony plates.
Incase of enamel and dentine formation
ameloblasts and odontoblasts move away
from the site of calcification.
Q.108. What are dense bodies and dense plaques
present in the visceral (smooth) muscle?
Ans. The cytoplasmic dense bodies and
semimembranous dark plaques are
equivalent to Z discs of striated muscle cells.
They contain alpha actin protein and anchor
actin filaments and intermediate filaments.
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183
Q.109. Draw and label a diagram of smooth
muscle cell showing dense bodies, dense
plaques, actin and myosin filaments and
intermediate filaments.
9
EMBRYOLOGY
Q. 1. What is the normal site of implantation?
What type of implantation takes place in
human beings?
Ans. Normal site of implantation is in the endometrium of the posterior uterine wall at the
junction of fundus and body. In human beings
type of implantation is interstitial type.
Q. 2. Enumerate ectopic (abnormal) sites of
implantation.
Ans. 1. Fallopian tube
2. Abdominal cavity
3. Ovary.
Q. 3. What is notochord? Give its functions and
fate.
Ans. Notochord is a cellular rod that develops by
transformation of notochordal process
Functions:
1. It defines the primordial axis of the embryo
and gives it some rigidity
2. It serves as a basis for development of axial
skeleton
3. It induces the embryonic ectoderm to form
the neural tube.
Fate: It persists as the mucleus pulpous of
intervertebral discs.
Q. 4. What is allantois? Give its functions and
fate.
Ans. Allantois is a small sausage-shaped deverticulum appearing on about 16th day from the
caudal wall of the yolk sac, that extends into
the connecting stalk.
Functions: The allantois is involved with early
blood formation in human embryo and is
associated with development of urinary
bladder.
Embryology
185
Fate: As the urinary bladder enlarges the
allantois becomes urachus which is represented in adults, by the median umbilical ligament
Q. 5. What is primitive streak? What are its
functions and fate?
Ans. Primitive streak is a thickened linear band,
which appears caudally in the median plane
on the dorsal aspect of the embryonic disc
resulting from proliferation and migration of
cells of epiblast.
Function: It actively forms mesoderm from the
beginning of 3rd week to the early part of 4th
week.
Fate: Normally primitive streak undergoes
degenerative changes and disappears by the
end of the 4th week. Remnants of primitive
streak may persist and give rise to a large
tumour known as sacrococcygeal teratoma.
Q. 6. What is capacitation of sperms? How
much time is required for it? What are the
changes taking place during capacitation?
Ans. Freshly ejaculated sperms are unable to
fertilize oocytes. They undergo a period of
conditioning called as ‘capacitation’. It lasts
for about seven hours. During capacitation
glycoprotein coat and seminal proteins are
removed from the surface of the sperm’s
acrosome. Capacitated sperms show no morphological changes but they are more active.
Q. 7. Give the three phases of human embryonic development.
Ans. First phase—Growth, it involves cell division.
Second phase—Morphogenesis. The movement of cells allows them to interact with each
other during the formation of tissues and
organs.
Third phase—Differentiation. It results in the
formation of tissues and organs that are
capable of performing specialized functions.
Q. 8. What is a teratogen? Give examples of any
two teratogens.
Ans. A teratogen is any agent that can produce a
congenital anomaly or raise the incidence of
an anomaly in the population.
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Example: Alcohol, drugs-like androgens, and
progestogens, antibiotics like tetracycline, and
streptomycin.
Q. 9. What is critical period of human development? What is its clinical importance?
Ans. Critical period of human development is third
to eighth week of intrauterine development.
The tissues and organ systems are developed
rapidly during this period. Exposure of
embryos to teratogens during this period, may
cause major congenital anomalies.
Q. 10. Enumerate the functions of placenta.
Ans. 1. Protection
2. Nutrition
3. Respiration
4. Excretion
5. Hormone production.
Q. 11. What is decidual reaction? What is the
significance of decidual reaction?
Ans. The various decidual cellular and vascular
changes resulting from pregnancy are called
as decidual reaction. The stromal cells of
decidua enlarge as glycogen and lipids accumulate in their cytoplasm.
Together with maternal blood and uterine
secretion they provide a rich source of nutrition for the embryo. It is suggested that they
protect the maternal tissue against the uncontrolled invasion by the syncytiotrophoblast
and may be involved in hormone production.
Q. 12. What are the results of fertilization?
Ans. 1. Diploid number of chromosomes in zygote
is restored
2. Results in variation of human species
3. Determines chromosomal sex of the
embryo.
4. Initiation of cleavage.
Q. 13. Enumerate the stages of normal spermatogenesis.
Ans. Spermatogonia
↓ Mitosis
Primary spermatocyte
↓ Ist meiotic division
Secondary spermatocytcs
↓ IInd meiotic division
Spermatids
↓ Spermiogenesis
Spermatozoa.
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Q. 14. Enumerate the stages of normal oogenesis.
Ans. Oogonia
↓ Mitosis
Primary oocyte
↓ Ist meiotic division
Secondary oocyte + Ist polar body
↓ IInd meiotic division
Mature ovum + IInd polar body.
Q. 15. What are foetal membranes? Name them.
Ans. Foetal membranes are structures which
develop from zygote but do not form part of
the foetus.
Following are foetal membranes:
1. Chorion
2. Amnion
3. Yolk sac
4. Allantois.
Q. 16. What is decidua? Name regions of decidua.
Ans. The decidua is the functional layer of endometrium in a pregnant woman.
Following are the regions of decidua:
1. Decidua basalis—part deep to conceptus
2. Decidua capsularis—part overlying the
conceptus
3. Decidua parietalis—remaining part.
Q. 17. What is placenta? Name its two components.
Ans. The placenta is a foetomaternal organ, which
functions as transport mechanism between
the mother and the foetus.
The two components of placenta are:
1. The foetal portion—develops from chorion
frondosum
2. The maternal portion—develops from
decidua basalis.
Q. 18. What is oligohydramnios? In which condition is it found?
Ans. Low volumes of amniotic fluid is called as oligohydramnios e.g. 400 ml in the 3rd trimester.
It is found in:
1. Renal agenesis
2. Obstructive uropathy.
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Q. 19. What is polyhydramnios? In which conditions is it found?
Ans. High volumes of amniotic fluid is called as
polyhydramnios. The fluid is in excess of
2000 ml
It is found in:
1. Oesophageal atresia
2. Meroanencephaly or anencephaly.
Q. 20. Give functions of amniotic fluid.
Ans. Following are the functions of amniotic fluid:
1. Permits symmetrical external growth
2. Acts as a barrier to infections
3. Permits foetal lung development
4. Prevents adherence of the amnion to the
embryo and foetus.
5. Cushions the embryo and foetus against
injuries
6. Helps to control embryo’s body temperature
7. It aids muscular development in the limbs
so that foetus can move freely.
8. Maintains homeostasis of fluid and electrolytes.
Q. 21. What is somite period of development?
How many pairs of somites are formed
during this period?
Ans. Somite period extends from 20 to 30 days. In
this the paraaxial mesoderm differentiates
and divides into paired cuboidal bodies, giving
rise to somites.
About 38 pairs of somites are formed during
somite period of development.
Q. 22. Name the derivatives of neural crest.
Ans. Derivatives of neural crest are:
1. Spinal ganglia
2. Ganglia of autonomic nervous system
3. Schwann cells
4. Meningeal coverings (pia mater and
arachoid)
5. Pigment cells
6. Cells of suprarenal medulla
7. Several skeletal and muscular components
of head.
Q. 23. Give functions of yolk sac.
Ans. Following are functions of yolk sac:
1. Transfer of nutrients during 2nd and 3rd
week of intrauterine life.
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189
2. Development of blood in the 3rd week.
3. The endoderm of primitive gut which is
incorporated into the embryo as yolk sac
gives rise to epithelium of trachea, bronchi
lungs and digestive tracts.
4. Primordial germ cells appear in the 3rd
week and migrate to the developing sex
glands.
Q. 24. What are congenital anomalies? What are
the causes of congenital anomalies?
Ans. Development defects present at the birth are
called as congenital anomalies.
The causes of congenital anomalies:
1. Genetic—Chromosomal aberrations
i. Numerical
ii. Structural
2. Environmental
i. Chemical
ii. Drugs
iii. Radiations
iv. Viruses.
3. Genetic and environmental factors acting
together.
Q. 25. Name the derivatives of the surface ectoderm.
Ans. 1. Epidermis
2. Hair
3. Nails
4. Cutaneous glands
5. Mammary glands
6. Anterior part of pituitary
7. Enamel of teeth
8. Internal ear
9. Lens of eye.
Q. 26. Name derivatives of the neural tube.
Ans. 1. Central nervous system
2. Retina
3. Pineal body
4. Posterior part of pituitary gland.
Q. 27. Name derivatives of the endoderm.
Ans. Epithelium of:
1. Gastrointestinal tract
2. Liver
3. Pancreas
4. Urinary bladder.
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5. Trachea
6. Bronchi
7. Lungs
8. Pharynx
9. Thyroid
10. Tympanic cavity
11. Pharyngotympanic tube
12. Tonsils
13. Parathyroid glands.
Q. 28. Enumerate the four embryonic components from which the diaphragm develops.
Ans. 1. Septum transversum
2. Pleuroperitoneal membranes
3. Dorsal mesentery of esophagus
4. Muscular ingrowth from lateral body walls.
Q. 29. Name the derivatives of the first pharyngeal Arch Cartilages.
Ans. 1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Anterior ligament of the malleus
4. Sphenomandibular ligament
5. Primordium of the mandible.
Q. 30. Name the derivatives of the second
pharyngeal Arch Cartilages.
Ans. 1. Stapes
2. Styloid process
3. Stylohyoid ligament
4. Lesser cornu and superior part of the body
of the hyoid bone.
Q. 31. Name the derivatives of the fourth and
sixth pharyngeal arch cartilages.
Ans. 1. Thyroid cartilage
2. Cricoid cartilage
3. Arytenoid cartilage
4. Corniculate cartilage
5. Cuneiform cartilage.
Q. 32. Name the derivatives of the first pharyngeal Arch muscles.
Ans. 1. Masseter
2. Temporalis
3. Lateral pterygoid
4. Medial pterygoid
5. Mylohyoid
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191
6. Anterior belly of diagastric
7. Tensor tympani
8. Tensor veli palatini.
Q. 33. Name the derivatives of the second
pharyngeal arch muscles.
Ans. 1. Muscles of face
2. Stapedius
3. Stylohyoid
4. Posterior belly of digastric.
Q. 34. Name the derivatives of third pharyngeal
arch cartilage, muscle and nerve?
Ans. A. Cartilage:
i. Greater cornu of hyoid bone
ii. Lower part of body of hyoid bone
B. Muscle: Stylopharyngeus
C. Nerve: Glossopharyngeal.
Q. 35. Give derivatives of third pharyngeal
pouch.
Ans. A. Solid, dorsal bulbar part—inferior parathyroid gland
B. Hollow elongate ventral part—thymus.
Q. 36. Give derivatives of fourth pharyngeal
pouch.
Ans. A. Solid, dorsal bulbar part—superior parathyroid gland.
B. Hollow elognate ventral part—ultimobranchial body, which fuses with thyroid
gland and gives rise to parafollicular cells
or C cells.
Q. 37. Enumerate congenital anomalies of thyroid gland.
Ans. 1. Agenesis of thyroid gland
2. Lingual thyroid
3. Lingual thyroglossal duct cyst
4. Cervical thyroglossal duct cyst
5. Absence of one lobe thyroid
6. Absence of isthmus.
Q. 38. Enumerate congenital anomalies of the
tongue.
Ans. 1. Microglossia
2. Macroglossia
3. Ankyloglossia 4. Bifid tongue
5. Cleft tongue
6. Congenital lingual
cyst.
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Q. 39. What are the derivatives of intermaxillary
segment (fused medial nasal prominences)?
Ans. 1. Philtrum of the upper lip
2. Premaxillary part of the maxilla and its
associated gingiva (gum)
3. The primary palate.
Q. 40. Enumerate congenital anomalies of the
trachea.
Ans. 1. Tracheo-oesophageal fistulas
2. Tracheal atresia
3. Tracheal stenosis
4. Tracheal diverticulum.
Q. 41. What are the major changes occurring in
the 3rd week of embryonic development.
Ans. The major changes occurring in the 3rd week
of embryonic development are, formation of:
1. Primitive streak
2. Intraembryonic mesoderm
3. Notochord
4. Neural tube
5. Somites
6. Intraembryonic coelom
7. Blood vessels and blood
Q. 42. What is gastrulation? In which week of
embryonic development it takes place?
Ans. Gastrulation is the process by which the
bilaminar embryonic disc in converted in to
trilaminar embryonic disc
Gastrulation occurs in the 3rd week of embryonic development.
Q. 43. What are the stages of maturation of lung
development?
Ans. 1. Pseudoglandular period (5 to 17 weeks)
2. Canalicular period ( 16 to 25 weeks)
3. Terminal sac period (24 weeks to birth)
4. Alveolar period (Late foetal period to childhood).
Q. 44. What are the derivatives of the foregut?
Ans. 1. Oral cavity, pharynx, tongue, tonsils,
salivary glands
2. Respiratory system
3. Stomach, duodenum proximal to the
opening of the bile duct
4. Liver, biliary apparatus and pancreas.
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Q. 45. What are the derivatives of the mid gut?
Ans. 1. Duodenum distal to the opening of the bile
duct
2. Jejunum, ileum
3. Caecum appendix, right half or two-third
of transverse colon.
Q. 46. Enumerate congenital anomalies of midgut.
Ans. 1. Congenital omphalocoele
2. Umbilical hernia
3. Non-rotation of midgut
4. Mixed rotation
5. Reversed rotation
6. Stenosis and atresia of intestine
7. Sub-hepatic caecum.
Q. 47. Enumerate the derivatives of the hindgut.
Ans. 1. Left one-third of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, the rectum
superior part of anal canal.
2. Epithelium of the urinary bladder and most
of the urethra.
Q. 48. Enumerate congenital anomalies of the
hindgut.
Ans. 1. Congenital megacolon
2. Imperforate anus
3. Anal agenesis
4. Anal stenosis
5. Rectal atresia
Q. 49. Metanephric diverticulum is an outgrowth
of which structure? What are the derivatives of metanephric diverticulum?
Ans. Metanephric diverticulum or ureteric bud is
an outgrowth from mesonephric duct. Metanephric diverticulum is the primordium of
ureter, renal pelvis, calices, and collecting
tubules.
Q. 50. Enumerate the congenital anomalies of
kidneys.
Ans. 1. Renal agenesis—unilateral or bilateral
2. Polycystic kidney
3. Horseshoe kidney
4. Pancake kidney
5. Pelvic kidney
6. Malrotation of kidney
7. Supernumerary kidney.
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Q. 51. Enumerate the derivatives of the mesonephric duct in males.
Ans. 1. Appendix of epididymis
2. Duct of epididymis
3. Ductus deferens
4. Ureter, pelvis, calices and collecting tubules
5. Ejaculatory duct and seminal vesicles.
Q. 52 . Name the derivatives of urogenital sinus
in males.
Ans. 1. Urinary bladder
2. Urethra ( except navicular fossa)
3. Prostatic utricle
4. Prostate gland
5. Bulbourethral glands.
Q. 53 . Enumerate congenital anomalies of penis.
Ans. 1. Hypospadias
2. Epispadias
3. Micropenis
4. Bifid penis
5. Double penis
Q. 54. Enumerate congenital anomalies of
uterus.
Ans. 1. Double uterus
2. Bicornuate uterus
3. Bicornuate uterus with one horn rudimentary
4. Septate uterus
5. Unicornuate uterus.
Q. 55. Enumerate congenital anomalies of the
hymen.
Ans. 1. Imperfonate hymen
2. Septate hymen
3. Cribriform hymen
4. Stenotic hymen
5. Incomplete perforation of hymen
Q. 56. What are the derivatives of gubernaculum
of gonad?
Ans. Gubernaculum of Gonad:
In males—Gubernaculum of testis
In females—
1. Ovarian ligament
2. Round ligament of uterus
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195
Q. 57. Which is the first major system to function
in the embryo? When it starts functioning?
Why it starts functioning so early?
Ans. The cardiovascular system is the first major
system to function in embryo. It starts functioning at the beginning of fourth week of
intrauterine life. The early functioning of
cardiovascular system is necessary because
the rapidly growing embryo can no longer
satisfy its nutritional and oxygen requirements by diffusion alone.
Q. 58. Enumerate the structures from which
right atrium of the heart develops.
Ans. 1. Smooth part—right horn of sinus venosus
2. Rough part—right half of primitive atrium
3. Interatrial septum—septum primum
septum secondum.
Q. 59. What is tetralogy of Fallot?
Ans. The tetralogy of Fallot consists of classic
groups of four cardiac defects:
1. Pulmonary stenosis
2. Ventricular septal defect
3. Over riding of aorta
4. Right ventricular hypertrophy.
Q. 60. Name the derivatives of the sixth pair of
aortic arches.
Ans. Left sixth aortic arch—
Proximal part—left pulmonary artery
Distal part—ducts arteriosus
Right sixth aortic arch
Proximal part—right pulmonary artery
Distal part—degenerates.
Q. 61. Explain on the embryological basis why
the course of recurrent laryngeal nerves
differs on the two sides?
Ans. Recurrent laryngeal nerves supply the sixth
pair of pharyngeal arches and hook around the
sixth pair of aortic arches on their way to the
developing larynx. It is on the right side because
the distal part of the right sixth aortic arch
degenerates, the right recurrent laryngeal
nerve moves superiorly and hooks around the
proximal part of the right subclavian artery,
the derivative of the fourth aortic arch.
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On the left, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
hooks around the ductus arteriosus formed by
the distal part of the sixth aortic arch. When
this vessel involutes after birth the nerve hooks
around the ligamentum arteriosum and the
arch of the aorta.
Q. 62. Enumerate congenital anomalies of aorta.
Ans. 1. Preductal coarctation of aorta
2. Post-ductal coarctation of aorta
3. Double aortic arch
4. Right aortic arch.
Q. 63. Enumerate the veins from which portal
vein develops.
Ans. A. The left vitelline vein between the entry of
the superior mesenteric and splenic veins
and the dorsal anastomosis
B. The dorsal anastomosis itself
C. The right vitelline vein between the dorsal
anastomosis and the cranial ventral anastomiosis.
Q. 64. Enumerate the veins from which the
inferior vena cava develops.
Ans. 1. The lowest part of the right posterior cardinal vein
2. The lower part of the right supracardinal
vein
3. The right supracardinal subcardinal
anastomosis
4. The subcardinal vein
5. The subcardinal hepatocardiac anastomosis
6. The right hepatocardiac channel
Q. 65. Mention the remnants of the following
vessels in the adults.
1. Umbilical arteries
2. Left umbilical vein
3. Ductus venosus
4. Ductus arteriosus
Remnant
Ans. Vessel
1. Umbilical arteries
2. Left umbilical vein
3. Ductus venosus
4. Ductus arteriosus
Medial umbilical
ligament
Ligamentum teres of
the liver
Ligamentum venosum
Ligamentum
arteriosum
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Q. 66. Explain on the developmental basis why
left gonadal vein and left suprarenal vein
drain into left renal vein.
Ans. Left suprarenal vein is the remnant of the part
of subcardinal vein above the intersubcardinal anastomosis and left gonadal vein is the
remnant of the part of subcardinal vein below
the intersubcardinal anastomosis. As the
middle part of the left subcardinal vein forms
part of the left renal vein, left suprarenal and
left gonadal veins open into left renal vein.
Q. 67. Give the development of male urethra.
Ans. A. The part of male urethra from urinary
bladdar upto the opening of the ejaculatory
ducts—caudal part of vesicourethral canal
B. The rest of prostatic urethra and membranous urethra—pelvic part of the definitive
urogenital sinus.
C. The penile part of the urethra (except the
terminal part)—epithelium of the phallic
part of the definitive urogenital sinus.
D. The terminal part of the penile urethra—
ectoderm.
Q. 68. Enumerate the congenital anomalies of
urinary bladder.
Ans. 1. Ectopia vesicae
2. Hour glass bladder
3. Congenital diverticula
4. Sphincter vesicae may be absent
5. Urinary bladder may be absent
6. Urinary bladder may communicate with
the rectum.
Q. 69. Enumerate the four degrees of incomplete descent of the testis.
Ans. 1. In the abdominal cavity close to the deep
inguinal ring.
2. In the inguinal canal
3. At the superficial inguinal ring
4. In the upper part of scrotum.
Q. 70. Enumerate the four types of the mal
descent of the testis.
Ans. 1. In the superficial fascia of the anterior
abdominal wall above the superficial
inguinal ring.
2. At the root of the penis
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3. In the perineum
4. In the thigh.
Q. 71. Enumerate the derivatives of the prosencephalon.
Ans. Prosencephalon—
A. Telencephalon-cerebral cortex and corpus
striatum
B. Diencephalon—
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Optic stalk
d. Pars nervosa of hypophysis cerebri
Q. 72. Enumerate congenital anomalies of the
limbs.
Ans. 1. Amelia
2. Meromelia
3. Cleft hand, cleft foot
4. Brachydactyly
5. Polydactyly
6. Syndactyly
7. Congenital club foot
Q. 73. Give development of pituitary gland.
Ans. A. Rathke’s pouch from oral ectoderm anterior
wall proliferates greatly to form pars anterior of hypophysis, posterior wall remains
thin, and forms pars intermedia. Some cells
along the stalk move upwards to form pars
tuberalis.
B. Neurohypophyseal bud from the floor of
diencephalon grows downwards and comes
in contact with posterior aspect of the
Rathke’s pouch and forms pars nervosa,
infundibular stem and median eminence.
Q. 74. Enumerate the congenital anomalies of
the eye.
Ans. 1. Microphthalmos
2. Anophthalmos
3. Cyclopia
4. Coloboma of retina
5. Congenital detachment of retina.
Q. 75. Enumerate auricular abnormalities.
Ans. 1. Auricular appendages
2. Anotia
3. Microtia
4. Preauricular sinuses.
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199
Q. 76. Give development of the middle ear.
Ans. 1. The epithelial lining of the middle ear is
derived from the tubotympanic recess, i.e.
from dorsal part of its pharyngeal pouch.
2. Malleus, incus from Meckel’s cartilage (1st
arch) stapes—from 2nd arch cartilage.
3. Tensor tympani—mesoderm of Ist arch
Stapedius-mesoderm of IInd arch.
Q. 77. Define chorion. Which part of the chorion
forms the placenta?
Ans. The extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and
the two layers of the trophoblast constitute
the chorion.
The villous chorion or the chorion faundosum
forms the foetal component of the placenta.
Q. 78. Specify the changes that occur in the
embryo due to head folding.
Ans. 1. Developing brain becomes cranial part of
the embryo
2. Primordial heart, pericardial coelom, oropharyngeal membrane move to the ventral
surface of the embryo
3. Septum transversum lies caudal to the
heart
4. Part of endoderm of the yolk sac is incorporated as the foregut.
Q. 79. Name the structures developed from the
optic cup.
Ans. 1. The outer wall of the posterior part of the
optic cup—pigmented layer of the retina.
2. The inner wall of the posterior part of the
optic cup—remaining nine layers of the
retina
3. Anterior part of the optic cup—epithelial
covering for the ciliary body and iris.
4. Sphincter and dilator papillae.
5. Vitreous humour is believed to be partly
derived from optic cup.
Q. 80. What is Induction? Give one example.
Ans. The interaction of tissues leading to a change
in the course of development of at least one of
the interactants is called induction.
During development of the eye, the optic vesicle
induces the development of the lens from the
surface ectoderm of the head. When the optic
vesicle is absent the lens fails to develop.
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During development of the kidney the
metanephric deverticulum (ureteric bud)
induces the formation of tubules in the
metanephric mesoderm. This mesoderm in
turn induces branching of the diverticulum
that results in the development of the
collecting tubules and calices of the kidney.
Q. 81. What are neural tube defects? Mention
any two neural tube defects.
Ans. Most defects of the spinal cord result from
abnormal closure of the neural folds in the
third and fourth week of development. The
resulting abnormalities are known as neural
tube defects.
1. Spina Bifida Occulta
2. Spina Bifida Cystica
3. Meningolocoele
4. Meningo Myelocoele
Q. 82. Enumerate congenital anomalies of the
brain.
Ans. 1. Anencephaly
2. Microcephaly
3. Agenesis of corpus callosum
4. Meningoencephalocoele
5. Meningohydroencephalocoele
6. Hydrocephalus
Q. 83. Enumerate congenital anomalies of the
breast.
Ans. 1. Athelia
2. Polythelia
3. Amastia
4. Polymastia
5. Inverted Nipple
Q. 84. Give development of the skin. Enumerate
congenital anomalies of the skin.
Ans. Epidermis of the skin develops from the
ectoderm.
Dermis of the skin develops from the mesoderm.
Congenital anomalies of the skin.
1. Absence of skin
2. Albinism
3. Ichthyosis – Excessive keratinization
4. Angiomas of the skin
5. Hypetrichosis
6. Alopecia
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Q. 85. Enumerate the Zones of the Neural Tube
and mention their derivatives.
Ans. The Neural tube shows three zone.
Ventricular zone, Intermediate (Mantle) zone
and Marginal zone.
The ventricular zone gives rise to all neurons
and macroglial cells. Intermediate zone gives
rise to neurons. The marginal zone becomes
the white matter of the spinal cord.
Q. 86. Mention the position of the caudal end of
the spinal cord in relation to the vertebral
column at various stages of development.
Ans. In the embryo (8th week) the spinal cord
extends entire length of the vertebral canal.
24th week – Lower border of first sacral
vertebra
Newborn – Lower border of third lumbar
vertebra
Adult – Lower border of first lumbar vertebra
Q. 87. Draw and label primary, secondary and
tertiary chorionic villi.
Ans. Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Villus
Villus
Villus
Q. 88. What is Yolk Sac? What is its fate?
Ans. The yolk sac or endodermal vesicle is a
vestigial structure, which hardly contains any
yolk. The primary yolk sac is a cavity enclosed
by exocoelomic membrane and roofed by
hypoblast cells. As extra embryonic coelom is
formed the primary yolk sac decreases in size
and a smaller secondary yolk sac is formed.
At 32 days the yolk sac is large. By 10 weeks
the yolk sac shrinks to a pear shaped remnant
about 5 mm in diameter and is connected to
the midgut by a narrow yolk stalk. After 20th
week it is usually not visible.
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Q. 89. Enumerate the contents of the umbilical
cord of an 8 weeks embryo.
Ans. 1. Midgut loop
2. Allantois
3. Extra embryonic coelom
4. Two umbilical arteries
5. Left umbilical vein
6. Extra embryonic mesoderm
Q. 90. Enumerate the contents of the full term
umbilical cord.
Ans. 1. Wharton’s jelly
2. Two umbilical arteries
3. Single left umbilical vein
4. Vitellointestinal duct
5. Allantois
The last two are found at the foetal end of the
cord and are usually obliterated before birth.
Q. 91. Specify the derivatives of the rombencephalon.
Ans. The rombencephalon is divided by pontine
flexure in cranial metencephalon and caudal
myelencephalon. Metencephalon forms pons
and cerebellum and myelencephalon forms
medulla oblongata.
Q. 92. Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis.
Mitosis
Meiosis
Ans.
1. Site
2. Duration
Somatic cells
and Gametes
Less than 3
hours
3. Resulting Cells
4. Chromosome
Identical
Diploid
Number
5. Stages
One
6. Duration
of Prophase
Very Brief
7. Crossing-
Nil
over
Split
8. Centromeres
Gametes
Males – 60 to 64
days
Female – 13 to 48
years
Not so – genetic
variation
Haploid
Two – meiosis I
(m1)
meiosis II (m2)
m1 – very long
Male – days
Female – years
Usual and
essential
M1 – no splitting
M2 – split
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203
Q. 93. Define growth. Mention its types?
Ans. Growth is the creation of more of an element
already present e.g. a cell leads to increase in
size, number and weight.
Types of growth.
1. Multiplicative – Increase in the number of
cells by mitosis.
2. Auxentic – Increase in the size of cells
3. Accretionary – Increase in the intercellular
substance.
Q. 94. Enumerate the important events (milestones) of the first week of intrauterine
life.
Ans. 1. Cleavage
2. Passage through fallopian tube
3. Morula
4. Blastocyst
5. Zona pellucida disappears
6. Beginning of implantation
Q. 95. Enumerate the important events (milestones) of the second week of intrauterine life.
Ans. 1 Trophoblast differentiates in to cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast.
2. Bilaminar embryonic disc is formed –
epiblast and hypoblst layers.
3. Amniotic cavity and yolk sac are formed.
4. Extra embryonic somatopleuric and
splanchnopleuric mesoderm is formed.
5. Implantation is completed.
6. Primitive uteroplacental circulation is
established.
Q. 96. Define fertilization. What is In vitro
fertilization?
Ans. Fertilization is a sequence of coordinated
events that begins with contact between a
sperm and an oocyte and ends with the
intermingling of maternal and paternal
chromosomes at metaphase of the first mitotic
division of the zygote.
In vitro fertilization – mature oocytes are
aspirated from mature ovarian follicles during
laproscopy and are placed in a Petri dish
containing a special culture medium and
capacitated sperms. Thus, fertilization takes
place in a Petri dish.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 97. Compare and contrast the sperma togenesis and oogenesis.
Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
Ans.
1. Commence
ment
2. Duration
3. Number of
4. Gamete
production
In adult life
Puberty
Early embryonic
life
60-65 days
10-50 years
4–Spermat1 Ovum (2 polar
gametes
oza bodies)
300-500 million 1 Ovum per
per ejaculate
menstrual
cycle
Q. 98. Name the sources from which the ovary
develops. Why do the ovaries not descend
in to the labia majora?
Ans. Ovary develops from
1. Gonadal ridge (mesothelium)
2. Underlying mesoderm
3. Primordial germ cells migrating from the
yolk sac
The gubernaculum of ovary presents an
intermediate attachment to the angle of the
development uterus. This additional attachment of the gubernaculums drags the ovary
into the pelvic cavity. Thus preventing its
descent into the labia majora.
Q. 99. What are somites? Specify their fate.
Ans. Somites are paired cuboidal bodies of paraxial
mesoderm located on each side of the
developing neural tube, which start differentiating towards the end of 3rd week. Till the end
of 5th week, 42-44 pairs of somites are formed.
Somites differentiate in to sclerotomes
forming vertebrae, dermatomes forming
dermis of the back and myotomes forming
muscles of the back.
Q. 100. Draw and label the structure of chorionic
villi in the second trimester and the third
trimester.
Ans.
Embryology
205
Q. 101. Name the processes (prominences) that
take part in the development of face.
Ans. 1. Frontonasal Prominence – 1
2. Maxillary Prominences – 2
3. Mandibular Prominences – 2
Q. 102. Compare and contrast male and female
Gametes
Ans.
Spermatozoa
Ovum
1. Size
2. Cytoplasm
3. Shape
4. Motility
5. Types
Small
Very Scanty
Cell with a tail
A Specialty
Two-Y- Bearing
X- Bearing
Large
Abundant
Round
Nil
One – X- Bearing
only
Q. 103. Give differences between Monozygotic
and Dizygotic twins.
Monozygotic
Dizygotic
Ans.
1. Origin
2. Proportion
of genes in
common
3. Foetal
membranes
4. Sex
5. Physical
appearance
Single ovum
fertilized
by a single
sperm
100%
Two ova,
each fertilized
by a single sperm
70% monochorionic and
diamniotic
30% dichorionic
and diamniotic
Same
Identical
Always
dichorionic and
diamniotic
50%
Same or different
Different
Q. 104. Name the elements that form the male
gonads (testes) and mention their fate.
Ans. The elements forming testis:
1. Primordial germ cells
2. Coelomic epithelium
3. Mesenchyme
The primordial germ cells give rise to
spermatogonia. The coelomic epithelium forms
primary (medullary) cords which give rise to
seminiferous tubules.
The mesenchyme gives rise to interstitial cells
of Leydig and general connective tissue.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 105. Name the elements that form the female
gonads (ovary) and mention their fate.
Ans. The elements forming ovary
1. Primordial germ cells
2. Coelomic epithelium
3. Mesenchyme.
The primordial germ cells give rise to oogonia.
The coelomic epithelium forms secondary
(cortical) cords, which give rise to granulosa
cells. The mesenchyme gives rise to theca
externa, theca interna and general connective
tissue.
Q. 106. Enumerate the derivatives of the septum
transversum.
Ans. 1. Central tendon of the diaphragm
2. The fibrous pericardium
3. The kuffer’s cell, fibrous stroma and capsule
of the liver.
4. Lesser omentum, falciform and other
peritoneal ligaments of the liver.
Q. 107. From which artery the axis artery of the
upper limb develops? Which arteries
repesent the axis artery in adults?
Ans. The axis artery of the upper limb develops from
the seventh cervical intersegmental artery in
adults. It persists as the axillary, brachial,
anterior interosseous and deep palmar arch.
Q. 108. From which artery the axis artery of the
lower limb develops? Which arteries
persist as the axis artery in adults?
Ans. The axis artery of the lower limb develops from
the fifth lumbar inter- segmental artery. In
adults it persists as the inferior gluteal,
companian artey of the sciatic nerve, popliteal
artery above the popliteus muscle, distal part
of the plantar arch.
Q. 109. Classify congenital anomalies giving one
example of each.
Ans. 1. Agenesis – absence of kidney
2. Hypogenesis – cleft up
3. Duplications – polythelia
4. Ectopia – ectopic testis
5. Tumours – teratoma
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207
Q. 110. Specify the sources from which the arch
of Aorta develops.
Ans. The arch of aorta develops from
1. Ventral part of aortic sac
2. Left horn of aortic sac
3. Left fourth arch artery
4. Left dorsal aorta up to origin of 7th intersegmental artery.
Q. 111. Specify the sources from which the
subclavian arteries develop.
Ans. 1. Right subclavian artery develops from—
a. Right fourth arch artery
b. Part of right dorsal aorta
c. Right 7th intersegmental artery
2. Left subclavian artery develops from—
Left 7th intersegmental artery.
Q. 112. The second week of development is
known as the week of twos. Formation of
which, structures support this statement.
Ans. In the second week of development the
trophoblast differentiates into two layerscytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast. The
embryoblast forms two layers, the epiblast
and hypoblast. The extraembryonic mesoderm
splits into two layers, the somatopleuric and
splachnopleuric. The two cavities formed are
amnion and yolk sac. Therefore, the second
week of development is known as the week of
twos.
Q.113. Give morphology of full term placenta.
Ans. A full term placenta is discoid in shape. It is
15 to 20 cm in diameter and approximately
3 cm thick weighing about 500 to 600 gm. The
maternal side shows 15 to 20 slightly buldging
areas, the cotyledons, covered by a thin layer
of decidua basalis. The foetal surface is covered
by the amnion. The umbilical cord is attached
centrally or eccentrically.
Q.114. Give principles of teratology.
Ans. Factors determining the capacity of an agent
to produce birth defects are set forth as
principles of teratology. They are as follows:
1. Susceptibility to teratogen depends on the
genotype of the conceptus.
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SAQs in Anatomy
2. Developmental stage at the time of
exposure to teratogen. Most sensitive period
is 3rd to 8th weeks of gestation.
3. Dose and duration of exposure to a teratogen.
4. Teratogens act in specific mechanisms, i.e.
inhibition of a specific biochemical or
molecular process.
5. Manifestations of abnormal development
are death, malformation, growth retardation and functional disorder.
Q.115. The epiblast, through the process of
gastrulation is the source of all of the germ
layers in the embryo. Explain.
Ans. In the third week of development the cells of
the epiblast migrate toward the primitive
streak detach from the epiblast and invaginate beneath it. Some of the cell displace the
hypoblast, between the epiblast and newly
created endoderm to form mesoderm. Cells
remaining in the epiblast then form ectodem.
Thus the epiblast, through the process of
gastrulation is the source of all of the germ
layers in the embryo.
Q.116. Mention anomalies of placenta.
Ans. 1. Bidiscoid
2. Lobed
3. Diffuse
4. Placenta succenturiata
5. Fenestrates
6. Circumvallate.
Q.117. Give development of the muscles of the
iris.
Ans. The sphincter pupillae and dilator pupillae
muscles are derived from ectoderm. The ciliary
muscles are derived from the mesoderm.
Q.118. Give development of the cornea.
Ans. The anterior non keratinized stratified
sqamous epithelium of the cornea develops
from the surface ectoderm and the substantia
propria and posterior epithelium are develops
from mesenchyme.
Embryology
209
Q.119. Give development of the external ear.
Ans. The external acoustic meatus develops from
the dorsal end of the first pharyngeal groove.
The tympanic membrane develops from the
first pharyngeal membrane. The pinna
(auricle) develops from six mesenchymal
swelling derived from the first and second
pharyngeal arches called as auricular hillocks
around the margin of the first pharyngeal
groove.
Q.120. Give development of the internal ear.
Ans. Internal ear is the first of three anatomical
divisions of the ear to develop in the 4th week
as a thickening of the surface ectoderm, i.e.
otic placode which forms otic vesicle giving rise
to membranous labyrinth. The surrounding
mesenchyme around the otic vesicle condenses
and differentiate into cartilagenous otic
capsule which later ossifies to form the bony
labyrinth.
Q.121. Give development of the hyoid bone.
Ans. The upper half of the body and the lesser cornu
of the hyoid bone develop from the second
pharyngeal arch cartilage. The lower half of
the body and the greater cornu of the hyoid
bone develop from the third pharyngeal arch
cartilage.
Q.122. Give development of the vertebra.
Ans. Vertebrae developed from the sclerotome of
the somites. The sclerotome appears as paired
condensations of mesenchymal cells around
the notochord. Each sclerotome consists of
loosely arranged cells cranially and densely
packed cells caudally. Some of the densely
packed cells move cranially and form the
intervertebral disc. The remaining densely
packed cells fuse with the loosely arranged
cells of immediately caudal sclerotome to form
mesenchymal centrum, i.e. body of the vertebra.
Notochord degenerates and forms nucleus
pulposus. Mesenchymal cells surrounding the
neural tube form vertebral arch. Mesenchymal
cells into body wall form costal process which
form ribs in thoracic region.
10
GENETICS
Q. 1. Give any four clinical features of Down
syndrome.
Ans. 1. Mental retardation: (IQ 25 to 50)
2. Brachycephaly
3. Presence of epicanthal folds
4. Oblique palpebral fissure
5. Speckled iris
6. Low bridge of nose
7. Protruding furrowed tongue lacking a
central fissure
8. Small stature.
9. Karyotype – Trisomy 21
Q. 2. Give any four clinical features of Turner’s
syndrome.
Ans. 1. Short stature with webbing of the neck
2. Low hairline at the nape of the neck
3. Wide chest with broadly spaced nipples
4. Poorly developed breasts
5. Juvenile external genitalia and female
internal sexual organs
6. Primary amenorrhoea.
7. Karyotype – 45XO, Barr body –ve
Q. 3. Give any four clinical features of Klinefelter’s syndrome?
Ans. 1. Patients are tall and eunuchoid
2. Gynaecomastia
3. Small testes showing hyalinization of the
seminiferous tubules
4. Secondary sexual characters are poorly
developed.
5. Karyotype – 47XXY, Barr body +ve
Q. 4. Each chromosome is supercoiled package
of DNA and several proteins. List the levels
of packaging of DNA and proteins:
Ans. 1. DNA double helix
2. Nucleosome and nucleosome fibre
3. Solenoid and chromatin fibre
Genetics
211
4. Chromomere
5. Chromosome.
Q. 5. List the characteristics of mitochondrial
chromosomes:
Ans. 1. The mitochondrial chromosome is a small
circular molecule.
2. The DNA molecule is 16 kb long and
encodes 13 structural genes and numerous
RNA genes.
3. They show maternal inheritance.
Q. 6. Define the following terms and give one
example of each (a) codominant (b) intermediate inheritance.
Ans. a. Codominant When both members of an
allelic pair are able to express themselves
fully in the phenotype, the inheritance is
called codominant e.g. ABO blood groups.
A and B genes are fully expressed in AB
blood group.
b. Intermediate inheritance When the trait is
the result of a sharing of or a partial
expression of both alleles it is called intermediate inheritance, e.g. sickle cell trait.
Q. 7. What is Barr body or sex chromatin? From
which structure it is derived?
Ans. Barr body or sex chromatin is a small chromatin body detected in the nuclei of the cells in
interphase of female mammals when stained
with basic dyes.
Barr body is derived from one of the X-chromosomes, which is condensed and inactive.
Q. 8. Enumerate structural chromosomal
abnormalities.
Ans. 1. Deletion
2. Duplication
3. Translocation 4. Inversion
5. Isochromosome 6. Ring chromosome.
Q. 9. Enumerate numerical chromosomal
aberrations.
Ans. 1. Triploid 3N
2. Tetraploid 4N
3. Aneuploid
a. 2 N–1-Monosomy
b. 2 N+1-Trisomy.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 10. State the Lyon’s hypothesis:
Ans. 1. In the somatic cells of female mammals,
only one X-chromosome is active.
2. The second X-chromosome is condensed
and inactive which appears as sex chromatin.
3. The inactivation of X-chromosome occurs
in embryonic life.
4. The inactivation is random, i.e. inactive X
can be paternal or maternal.
Q. 11. Give uses or medical applications of
chromosomal analysis.
Ans. 1. Clinical diagnosis
2. Linkage and mapping
3. Cancer cytogenetics
4. Prenatal diagnosis.
Q. 12 Explain role of phytohaemagglutinin and
colchicine in karyotyping.
Ans. 1. Phytohaemagglutinin—It is a nutrient
medium and it stimulates leukocytes to
divide.
2. Colchicine—colchicine prevents the formation of the spindle and stops mitosis at the
stage of metaphase.
Q. 13. What are nucleolar chromosomes? What
is their characteristic?
Ans. Chromosome number 13,14,15,21,22, are
called as nucleolar chromosomes.
The secondary constrictions present on them
are related to the formation of the nucleoli
and DNA sequence have codes for RNA.
Q. 14. Classify chromosome on the basis of their
position of centromere.
Ans. 1. Metacentric
2. Submetacentric
3. Acrocentric
4. Telocentric
Q. 15. Enumerate the stages of prophase of
meiosis-I:
Ans. 1. Leptotene
2. Zygotene
3. Pachytene
4. Diplotene
5. Diakinesis
Q. 16. What are genetic consequences of meiosis?
Ans. 1. Reduction of chromosome number from
diploid to haploid.
2. Segregation of alleles
Genetics
213
3. Shuffling of the genetic material by random
assortment
4. Additional shuffling of the genetic material
by crossing over.
Q. 17. Classify genetic disorders by giving one
example of each.
Ans. 1. Single gene disorders—Haemophilia,
phenylketonuria.
2. Chromosome disorders—Down’s syndrome,
Turner’s syndrome.
3. Multifactorial disorders—Cleft lip, diabetes mellitus.
Q. 18. Give criteria for autosomal dominant
inheritance.
Ans. 1. The phenotype appears in every generation.
Normally there is no skipping of generation.
2. The phenotype is transmitted by an
affected person to half his children on an
average.
3. Unaffected persons do not transmit the
trait to their children.
4. Males and females have equal chance of
having the phenotype and transmitting it.
Q. 19. Give criteria for autosomal recessive
inheritance.
Ans. 1. Autosomosal recessive phenotype is
typically seen in siblings. It is not seen in
the parents, offsprings or other relatives.
2. The recurrence risk for each sib of the
proband is 1 in 4.
3. The parents of the affected person may be
consanguineous.
4. Males and females are equally likely to be
affected.
Q. 20. Give criteria for X-linked recessive inheritance.
Ans. 1. The X-linked recessive trait is much higher
in males, uncommon in females
2. The trait is transmitted from an affected
man through all his daughters to half his
grandsons
3. The trait is never transmitted from father
to son, i.e. male to male.
4. The trait is transmitted through a series of
carrier females.
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SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 21. Give criteria for X-linked dominant inheritance.
Ans. 1. Affected females are twice as common as
affected males.
2. Affected males pass on the trait to all their
daughters but to none of their sons.
3. Affected heterozygous females transmit
the trait to half their children of both sexes
4. Affected homozygous females transmit the
trait to all their children.
Q. 22. Draw a pedigree chart of autosomal dominant inheritance for three generations.
Q. 23. Draw a pedigree chart of autosomal recessive inheritance for four generations.
Q. 24. Draw a pedigree chart of X-linked recessive inheritance for four generations.
– Carrier female
– affected male
Genetics
215
Q. 25. Draw a pedigree chart of X-linked dominant inheritance for three generations.
Q. 26. What are the indications for genetic
counselling?
Ans. 1. Prenatal diagnosis for late maternal age
2. The risk of recurrence of a hereditary
disease in a family
3. The risk of attending a progeny from consanguineous marriage
4. Cases of disputed paternity
5. Infertility
6. Child adoption
7. Recurrent abortions.
Q. 27. Give indications for prenatal diagnosis.
Ans. 1. Late maternal age
2. Previous child with a chromosomal abnormality
3. Presence of structural chromosomal
abnormality in one of the parents
4. Family history of some genetic defect that
may be diagnosed or ruled out by biochemical or DNA analysis
5. Risk of neural tube defect.
Q. 28. Enumerate different techniques used for
prenatal diagnosis.
Ans. 1. Trans-abdominal amniocentesis.
2. Chorion villus sampling
3. Cordocentesis
4. Ultrasonography
5. Alpha fetoprotein measurement in amniotic fluid and maternal serum.
Q. 29. What are the characteristics of genetic
code?
Ans. 1. Most amino acids are specified by more than
one codon hence the code is said to be
degenerate.
216
SAQs in Anatomy
2. There is no overlapping of bases in the code
3. There are no spaces between successive
codes of a gene.
4. The code is universal.
Q. 30. Give classification of DNA.
Ans. A. Unique sequence DNA (Non-repetitive)
75% of genome
B. Repetitive DNA 25% of the genome
↓
Dispersed repetitive DNA
↓
Satellite DNA
↓
Short interspersed elements
(SINE)
↓
Long interspersed
elements (LINE)
Q. 31. What is holandric inheritance? Give one
example.
Ans. Holandric inheritance is also known as Ylinked inheritance. Y-linked genes are only
found in males and the trait is transmitted
from the father to all his sons but none of his
daughters.
Hairy pinna is an example of holandric
inheritance.
Q. 32. What are the criteria of cells to be used in
chromosome analysis? Name the most
commonly used cells in karyotyping.
Ans. The cells, which grow and divide rapidly are
chosen for chromosome analysis. The most
commonly used cells for karyoptyping are:
1. Skin fibroblasts
2. Bone marrow cells
3. Peripheral blood cells
4. Amniotic fluid cells.
Q. 33. At which stage of cells division chromosomes are best suited for detailed karyotyping? Why they are studied at this stage?
Ans. Chromosomes are best suited for detailed
karyotyping during metaphase. Chromosomes
are best seen when they are maximally coiled.
This takes place during metaphase of mitosis
and meiosis.
Genetics
217
Q. 34. Define (1) genotype (2) phenotype:
Ans. 1. Genotype—Genotype of an individual is his
genetic constitution
2. Phenotype—The phenotype is the expression of any of these genes as physical, biochemical or physiological trait.
Q. 35. What are genes? What are their functions?
Ans. Genes are segments of DNA of varying lengths.
Functions:
1. Formation of all RNAs
2. Through RNA genes regulate protein
synthesis
3. Genes regulate activity of other genes
4. Genes regulate mitotic activity, cell growth
and cell differentiation as in embryogenesis
5. They are suspected to play an important
role during the cancerous change of a cell or
tissue.
Q. 36. Give any four examples of autosomal
dominant inheritance.
Ans. 1. Achondroplasia
2. Brachydactyly
3. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
4. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Q. 37. Give any four examples of Autosomal
recessive inheritance.
Ans. 1. Phenylketonuria
2. Albinism
3. Haemoglobinopathies
4. Wilson’s disease.
Q. 38. Give any four examples of X-linked
recessive inheritance.
Ans. 1. Haemophilia
2. Partial colour blindness
3. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6PD) deficiency
4. Duschene muscular dystrophy.
Q. 39. Give characteristics of mitochondrial
inheritance.
Ans. 1. Transmission only by females, never by
males
2. Occurrence not influenced by sex
218
SAQs in Anatomy
3. Trait transmitted to all children of affected
female
4. Trait seen in every generation.
Q. 40. Define mutation. What are the causes of
mutation?
Ans. Mutation is any sudden heritable change in
DNA or the process by which a gene undergoes a structural change.
Causes of mutation:
A. Spontaneous
B. Induced by exogenous agents
1. Ionising radiations
2. Chemicals like mustard gas
3. Some viruses.
Q. 41. Enumerate the causes of chromosomal
aberrations.
Ans. 1. Ionising radiations
2. Viruses
3. Chemical carcinogens
4. Late maternal or paternal age
5. A few specific genes themselves.
Q. 42. Define numerical chromosomal aberration. What is the main cause of numerical
chromosomal aberration?
Ans. When the number of chromosomes is abnormal
it is called as numerical aberration.
Aneuploid – chromosome number differs by
one or more from an exact multiple of the
haploid number e.g. 2N- 1 (45) or 2N + 1 (47)
where N is the haploid number of chromosomes.
3N-triploid
4N-tetraploid
The main cause of numerical chromosomal
aberrations is non-disjunction, during Meiosis
I and /or Meiosis II or Mitosis.
Q.43. Give differences between DNA and RNA.
Ans.
DNA
RNA
1. It contains
It contains
sugar deoxy
sugar ribose
ribose
2. It is found
It is found in
mainly in
nucleolus and
chromosomes
cytoplasm.
(except mitochondrial DNA)
Genetics
3. It has double
helix strands.
4. DNA has
pyramidine
base – thymine
219
It has single
strand
It has pyramidine
base - uracil
Q. 44. Define deletion. Give two examples.
Ans. Deletion is the loss of a part of chromosome.
Terminal deletion – single break in the chromosome and terminal part of the chromosome is
lost. Interstitial deletion—there are two
breaks in the chromosome and the interstitial
portion between the two breaks is deleted.
Example-1. Cri du chat syndrome – deletion of chromosome - 5
2. Pradder Willi syndrome – deletion of
chromosome - 15
Q. 45. Draw and label the Barr body in any two
types of tissues.
Ans.
Q. 46. Specify the role of ultrasonography in
prenatal diagnosis.
Ans. Ultrasonography is an important non-invasive
tool in prenatal diagnosis. It is useful in
a. Determining gestational age
b. Verifying whether the foetus is alive
c. Diagnosing multiple gestations
d. Detecting gross foetal malformations such
as anencephaly
e. Determining foetal and placental positions
f. Performing effective amniocentesis, chorion
villus sampling.
Q. 47. Specify the role of amniocentesis in prenatal diagnosis.
Ans. Amniocentesis is an important tool in
prenatal diagnosis.
220
SAQs in Anatomy
a. Biochemical studies of amniotic fluid
can detect open neural tube defects like
spinabifida, anencephaly (increased levels
of alphafoeto proteins)
b. Karyotyping (cytogenetic studies) of amniotic fluid can diagnose numerical and
structural chromosomal aberrations (deletion, translocation, trisomy, monosomy,
etc.)
c. If genetic condition is severe enough parents
are informed and choice of medical termination of pregnancy can be given to them.
Q. 48. Chorion villous biopsy would be better
choice than amniocentesis in prenatal
diagnosis. Explain.
Ans. a. Amniocentesis is undertaken between 14
and 16 weeks, whereas CVS (chorion villous
sampling) is performed between 8 and 10
weeks.
b. As the chorion villi cells undergo mitosis
they permit chromosome analysis without
culture, thus faster result is available.
c. If the results indicate abnormality in CVS,
then termination of pregnancy is safer and
simpler in first trimester than after
amniocentesis (around 18 weeks).
Q.49. Mention steps involved in karyotyping.
Ans. 1. 20 ml of blood is collected in a heparinised
syringe with aseptic precautions.
2. Leucocytes are separated by centrifugation
and added to a small volume of nutrient
medium containing phytohemagglutinin
which stimulates leucolytes to divide, and
antibiotics, to prevent infection.
3. The cells are cultured under sterile conditions at 37°C for about 72 hours.
4. During this period the cell divide and small
amount of colchicine is added which stops
mitosis at metaphase.
5. After an hour hypotonic solution is added,
which swells the cells and spreads the
chromosomes.
6. The chromosomes are stained and high
power photomicrographs are taken.
7. Individual chromosomes are cut out from
the photomicrograph and arranged in
standard manner.
Genetics
221
Q.50. State Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
Ans. 1. Law of unit inheritance - genetic characters
are controlled by unit factors that exist in
pairs in individual organisms.
2. Law of segregation: During gametogenesis
the two members of a single pair of genes
(Alleles) are never found in the same
gamete. But instead always segregate and
pass to different gametes.
3. Law of independant assortment - During
gametogenesis members of different gene
pairs assort independantly of one another.
Q.51. Mention important genes present on the
following chromosomes 1, 6, 9, X and Y.
Ans. Chromosome No.:
1 - Short arm - Rh blood group
Long arm - coagulation factor
6 - Short arm - Major histocompatibility
complex (HLA)
9 - Long arm - ABO blood group
Nail patella syndrome
X - Short arm - Xd blood group
Ocular albinism
Duchenne muscular
dystrophy
- Long arm - G-6 PD
Colour blindness
Haemophilia A
Y - Testis determinig factor
HY Antigen
Hairy pinna
11
RADIOLOGY
Q. 1. What is radiological anatomy? Give principles of radiography.
Ans. The study of anatomy by using X-rays is called
as radiological anatomy. Radiography is based
on penetrating and photographic effects of Xrays. Substances with low atomic weight are
penetrated by X-rays (radiolucent) and cast a
black shadow on photographic film, whereas
substances with higher atomic weight are
penetrated by X-ray with difficulty or not at
all (radiopaque) casting white shadow on
photographic film.
Q. 2. Give properties of X-rays.
Ans. Properties of X-rays.
1. Penetrating effect – X-rays penetrate
elements with lower atomic weights,
whereas substances with higher atomic
weight absorb them.
2. Photographic effects – X-rays affect photographic emulsions like light.
3. Fluorescent effect – light waves are
produced if X-rays strike certain metallic
salts.
4. Biological effect – X-rays can destroy
abnormal cells (e.g. in malignant tumours)
Q. 3. Give types of radiographs with examples.
Ans. 1. Plain radiographs – when radiographs are
taken by allowing the X-ray to pass through
a subject without the use of any medium
e.g. plain radiography of thorax.
2. Contrast radiographs – when radiographs
are taken after filling a cavity or space with
a contrast medium in order to visualise the
lumen of the viscus or extent of the cavity.
The contrast media are two types: - (a)
Opaque – barium sulphate, iodine
compounds (b) Translucent – air or oxygen.
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Q. 4. Which radiological procedure is used to
study female genital tract? During which
days of menstrual cycle the procedure is
done? How much quantity of dye is used?
Give one indication.
Ans. The radiological procedure used to study the
female genital tract is hysterosalpingography.
Between 6th and 12th days of menstrual cycle
approximately 6 ml of contrast medium
(lipiodal) is injected into cervical canal. It is
indicated in cases of infertility and to see
patency of the fallopian tubes. If the tubes are
patent peritoneal spill is seen on the
radiograph.
Q. 5. Which radiological procedure is used to
assess structure and function of the
urinary system? How much quantity of
contrast medium is used and how it is
introduced?
Ans. Descending pyelography or intravenous
pyelography is performed to assess the
structure and function of the urinary tract. 20
to 40 ml of iodine containing dye (conray 420)
is injected intravenously and radiographs are
taken at 5,10,15 and 30 minutes of interval.
As the kidneys exceret the contrast medium
renal function is also assessed.
Q. 6. What is aortography? Mention two
commonly used techniques of abdominal
aortography. Which is more preferred and
why?
Ans. Aortography is a radiological procedure to
visualize the entire aortic circulation and its
branches, especially renal architecture.
Two commonly used techniques of abdominal
aortography are:
1. Transabdominal aortography – about 40
ml of dye is injected by introducing a needle
below 12th rib about 5 cms to the left of
midline.
2. Retrograde transfemoral aortography – an
arterial catheter is introduced through the
femoral artery and is advanced into the
aorta up to the desired level.
The transfemoral route is preferred than
the translumbar route because with the
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catheter in position the bolus of the dye can
be injected at selected levels and the
injection of the dye can be repeated at
intervals if necessary.
Q.7. Which radiological procedure is done to
study carotid blood vessels? Give one
indication. How much quantity of dye is
injected and at how much time interval
pictures are taken?
Ans. Carotid angiography is done to visualise the
carotid blood vessels. It is indicated in lesions
above the tentorium cerebelli.
About 10 ml of contrast medium (conray 280)
is injected in the common carotid artery. The
radiograph is taken when the last 2 ml of
medium is to be injected then next pictures
are taken at 1 ½ and 2 seconds interval.
Q. 8. Give principles of ultrasonography.
Ans. Ultrasonography employs sound waves whose
frequency is higher (from 2 × 105 to over 10 ×
106 hertz) than can be registered by the human
ear.
A small transducer, placed in contact with the
area of the body being investigated, produces
ultrasonic waves, which travel through human
tissues and are reflected back to the surface
where these echoes are received back by the
transducer. These waves are changed to faint
signals, which are processed by a computer
into a video image.
It is a noninvasive, rapid and safe technique.
Therefore, it is the only body scanning
technique recommended for pregnant women.
Q. 9. Give principles of CT (Computed Tomography) or CAT (Computerised Axial
Tomography) scanning.
Ans. CT scan employs an X-rays tube on the yoke
that allows 360° rotation. A thin fan shaped
X-ray beam penetrates the body and produces
a cross-sectional view of tissues within, by
revolving the X-ray tube around the body. CT
machines view thin slices of the body from
many angles. The X-rays fall on hundreds of
crystal chip detectors on the opposite side of
the tube. The detectors record multiple data
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concerning all tissues in to a digital computer,
which compares many views, which is
displayed on a screen. The bones appear white,
while radio lucent tissues appear in shades of
gray.
Q. 10. Give principles of Magnetic Resonance
Imaging (MRI).
Ans. In MRI a combination of radio waves and
magnetic field is used. MRI relies on the
principle that hydrogen atoms when subjected
to a magnetic field line up. If a radio frequency
is aimed at these atoms it changes the
alignment of their nuclei. When the radio
waves are turned off the nuclei realign
themselves, transmitting a small radio signal.
Since the body is primarily composed of water
containing hydrogen atoms and image can be
generated from the returning pulses showing
tissues having higher water content like brain,
spinal cord appear brightest and teeth and
bones, which contain little water do not appear
at all in MRI.
Q. 11. Why in angiographic studies Iodine based
radioopaque dyes are used?
Ans. Iodine based radioopaque dyes are used
because they have relatively high atomic mass.
Therefore they absorb X-rays to a large extent
and they are naturally excreted via urinary
system.
Q. 12. Why barium sulphate is used as contrast
medium in radiological studies of
gastrointestinal tract and not other salts
of barium?
Ans. Barium sulphate is stable, non toxic, insoluble
in water or gastric juice, therefore cannot be
absorbed by gastrointestinal tract. Other
barium salts are soluble (ionized) hence
poisonous and therefore cannot be used in
radiological studies.
Q. 13. Which radiological procedure is used to
visualize the esophagus? What are the
three normal indentations of esophagus
observed in the radiograph?
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Ans. The radiological procedure used to visualize
the esophagus is barium swallow or
esophagograph. The patient is kept nil by
mouth for eight hours prior to the procedure.
200 ml of barium sulphate in water
suspension is given to the patient orally and
radiograph is taken. The normal concave
indentations of esophagus seen on radiograph
are due to arch of aorta, left bronchus and left
atrium.
Q. 14. Which radiological procedure is used to
visualize the stomach? What are the
structures seen in radiograph? Why there
is gas shadow seen in the fundus of the
stomach?
Ans. The radiological procedure used to visualize
the stomach is barium meal. The patient is
kept nil by mouth for eight hours prior to the
study. 200 ml of barium sulphate in water
suspension is given to the patient orally and
the radiograph is taken. The radiograph shows
shadow of the stomach-lesser and greater
curvatures, incisura angularis, pylorus, fundus
of the stomach with gas shadow. The gas in
the fundus is due to aerophagy (ingestion of
air while speaking or swallowing). The gas
being lighter occupies highest position, i.e
fundus of stomach.
Q. 15. Explain the following radiological terms
in barium studies (a) Duodenal cap (b)
Feathery appearance.
Ans. a. Duodenal cap—in the first part of the
duodenum the walls are smooth in outline
and owing to protrusion of the pyloric end
into the lumen of the first part of the
duodenum it assumes the form of a solid
triangular appearance.
b. Feathery appearance is seen in the small
intestine due to intestinal folds.
Q. 16. Which radiological procedure is used to
study the large intestine. Explain the procedure and the radiological appearance.
Ans. The radiology procedure used to visualize the
large intestine is called barium enema. A
suitable laxative is given previous night. Light
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meal is given 12 hours before the procedure.
In the morning plain water enema is given.
300 gms of barium sulphate added to 1000 ml
of water and the suspention is slowly run into
the rectum through anus at a pressure of about
one foot of water. The radiograph shows cecum,
ascending, transverse and descending, sigmoid
colon, hepatic and splenic flexure, rectum
(appendix may be seen) haustrations
(sacculations) are seen.
Q. 17. Which radiological procedure is used to
visualize biliary tract? Explain the
procedure.
Ans. The radiological procedure used to visualize
biliary tract is cholecystography. Commonly
used procedure is oral cholecystography: Fat
free meal is given previous night. Twelve
telepaque tablets 4 gms (iodine compound)
are given immediately after meal. Nothing by
mouth after the meal. The film is taken 14
hours after the meal. Immediately after the
radiograph is taken the patient is given a fatty
meal (2 slices of bread with butter). After 1
hour next radiograph is taken.
Q. 18. Which radiological procedure is used to
visualize the bronchial tree? Explain the
procedure.
Ans. The radiological procedure used to visualize
the bronchial tree is bronchography. Nothing
is given orally. Injection atropine is given to
reduce secretions. The throat is sprayed with
2% local anesthetic. 10 cc of dionosil aqueous
dye (an iodine preparation) is injected on each
side of bronchial tree through bronchoscope.