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What are the walls of the heart made of?Cardiac muscle
Why do many animals need a heart?To generate pressure to pump blood around the body to allow mass transport/flow<div>To overcome the limitations of diffusion to ensure fast enough delivery of oxygen to all body cells since many body cells are far from the gas exchange surface</div>
Function of valvesTo stop backflow of blood into the heart
Function of coronary arteriesTo provide heart muscle with blood containing oxygen
What ventricle is thicker and why?The left ventricle has thicker muscle because it needs to generate more pressure to pump blood all around the body, but if the right ventricle made high pressure blood then it would damage the capillaries in the lungs
What type of blood does the vena cava carry and where to?Deoxygenated to the right atrium
What type of blood does the pulmonary artery carry and where to?Deoxygenated blood to the lungs
What type of blood does the aorta carry and where to?Oxygenated blood to the body
What type of blood does the pulmonary vein carry and where to?Oxygenated blood to the left atrium
What chambers does the heart have and where are they?Right and left atria at the top of the heart<div>Right and left ventricles at the bottom of the heart</div><div>(Rights and lefts and switched because it's the perspective of looking down into someone's heart)</div>
What valves does the heart have and where are they?Atrioventricular valves are between atria and ventricles<div>Semilunar valves are between ventricles and arteries</div>
What separates the 2 sides of the heart and what is the function?Septum because oxygenated and deoxygenated blood shouldn't mix so gas exchange is more efficient and blood can be pumped at different pressures depending on where it is being pumped to
Define the cardiac cycleThe sequence of events from one heartbeat to the next heartbeat, involving relaxation (heart fills with blood) and contraction (heart empties), with 3 phases, atrial systole, ventricular systole and diastole
What is the difference between systole and diastole?Systole is contraction, diastole is relaxing
Describe diastoleAtria and ventricles relax<div>Atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves shut</div><div>Blood moves from veins to atria and passively into ventricles</div>
Describe atrial systoleAtria contract<div>Atrioventricular valves open</div><div>Blood moves from atria to ventricles</div>
Describe ventricular systoleVentricles contract<div>Atrioventricular valves shut, semilunar valves open</div><div>Blood moves from ventricles to arteries</div>
How is heart rate measured?60/cycle time
What are the units for heart rate?bpm, beats per minute
What happens to blood pressure during systole?Increases
What do valves determine in the cardiac cycle?Flow of blood
What is the function of an outer collagen coat?Makes vessels strong
What is the function of elastic fibres?Allows vessels to stretch and recoil
What is the function of smooth muscle?Allows vessels to constrict and dilate
Which has a wider lumen; veins or arteries?Veins
Which has a thicker smooth muscle and elastic fibre layer; veins or arteries?Arteries
What is the purpose of an outer collagen coat for arteries?Strength to withstand high blood pressure
What is the purpose of a thick smooth muscle layer for arteries?Muscle contraction allows vasoconstriction (narrowing of vessel) to control blood flow and maintain high blood pressure
What is the purpose of a thick elastic fibre layer for arteries?Allows artery to stretch and recoil to push blood forward and maintain high blood pressure
What is the purpose of a smooth endothelium for arteries?Reduces resistance to blood flow
What is the purpose of a narrow lumen for arteries?Maintain high blood pressure
What is the function of an outer collagen coat for veins?Strength
What is the function of valves for veins?Prevent backflow of blood
What is the function of a thin smooth muscle layer for veins?Less vasoconstriction is needed
What is the function of a thin elastic fibre layer for veins?Less elastic recoil needed as blood is moved by the contraction of skeletal muscles
What is the function of a smooth endothelium for veins?Reduces resistance to blood flow
What is the purpose of a wide lumen for veins?Reduces resistance to blood flow, to prevent low pressure blood slowing down
What is the width of a capillary wall?One-cell thick
Why is a capillary wall very thin?To reduce diffusion distance which speeds up exchange of substances between blood and tissue fluid/cells
Why do capillaries have pores in the walls?To allow molecules through, aiding formation of tissue fluid
Why do capillaries have a very narrow lumen?Decreases rate of blood flow so there's more time for exchange of oxygen and glucose between blood and cells
Which arteries have valves?Pulmonary artery and aorta
Define diffusionMovement of molecules or ions from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration, down a concentration gradient
What organisms don't need a circulatory system?Unicellular/single-celled (amoeba)<div>Some multicellular (jellyfish, flatworms)</div>
What type of surface area to volume ratio do small organisms have?Large
How does a large surface area to volume ratio impact diffusion?Short diffusion distance since all cells are close to the body surface
Do organisms without a circulatory system have a high or low metabolic rate and what does this mean for their oxygen demand?Low which means they have a low demand for oxygen
Where is the blood held in an open circulatory system and how do organs get it?Body cavity where the organs are in and diffusion takes place between them
What organisms have an open circulatory system?Insects
Is the blood pressure low or high in an open circulatory system?Low
Where is blood held in a closed circulatory system and what is the pressure?Blood vessels, high pressure
Give an example of an organism with a single closed circulatory systemFish
What is the difference between a single and double closed circulatory system?Blood flows through heart once during each complete circuit of a single and twice in a double
Where and how does gas exchange occur in a fish?Gills, carbon dioxide diffuses from blood to water and oxygen diffuses from water to blood
What are the steps in a fish's blood circulation?Heart pumps deoxygenated blood to gills where gas exchange occurs then oxygenated blood flows to rest of body before returning to heart
Is blood pressure high when reaching body capillaries in a double or single closed circulatory system?Double, low blood pressure in a single
Give examples of organisms with a double closed circulatory systemBirds and mammals
Do oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in a double closed circulatory system and why?No so tissues can receive maximum oxygenated blood
What is repressurisation and its advantage to double circulatory systems?When blood gets an extra boost when it returns from the lungs which allows the heart to pump oxygenated blood at higher pressure (faster) to the body
Why is blood pumped at high pressure to the body?For more efficient oxygen delivery to tissues
Why is blood pumped at low pressure through the lungs and tissues?To enable efficient gas exchange and to prevent damage to lung capillaries
What is a variable?Anything that varies
In an experiment what is a researcher looking for?A difference between two conditions
In a correlation what is the researcher looking for?A relationship between two variables
What are co-variables?The two variables in a correlation that vary in association with one another and are both measured, neither are controlled
What is an independent variable?Variable which is manipulated by experimenter
What is a dependent variable?Outcome which is measured by the experimenter
What does operationalising a variable mean?Giving precise terms on how we will measure or manipulate it
What is an extraneous variable?Any variable apart from the independent variable that might have an effect on the dependent variable
What is a confounding variable?Uncontrolled extraneous variables that have had an effect on the results
What is the definition of situational variables?Variables in the research situation that can have an effect on the dependent variable
What is standardisation?Participants must use the exact same materials so they can experience the same conditions
What is a pilot study?A smaller version of the actual study which identifies any issues and modification of materials
What are standardised procedures?Set of events that occur in the same way every time data is collected for a study
What are participant variables?Variables from individual participants that affect their performance
What are order effects?The order in which participants carry out tasks will have an effect on the outcome
What are demand characteristics?Cues that the participant might receive that indicate the purpose of the research
What are researcher effects?When a researcher knows the aims and expected outcome of the study and struggles to remain objective which influences the results
Give an example of a situational variableBackground noise
Give an example of order effectsDoing a test twice
Give an example of participant variablesHigh IQ
Give an example of demand characteristicsQuestionnaire questions are obvious to what the aim of the research is
Give an example of researcher effectsMis-recording results
What does the word significant mean in a hypothesis?Results are not due to chance/statistically meaningful
What is an alternate hypothesis?A prediction in the form of a testable statement
What is the abbreviation for an alternate hypothesis?Ha
What does a directional/one-tailed hypothesis predict?The direction of the difference or correlation
What does a non-directional/two-tailed hypothesis predict?That there will be a difference or correlation in either direction
What does a null hypothesis predict?Results that the researcher gets are due to chance/not significant
What is the abbreviation for a null hypothesis?Ho
What is the target population?Particular group of people we are interested in studying from and which we draw our sample
What is a representative sample?A group of participants drawn from the target population that is typical of it
What is a random sample?A sample which every member of the target population has an equal chance of being selected
What methods can be used to select a random sample?Manual selection/lottery method and computers using random number generators
Disadvantages of random samplesBiased by chance<div>Legal restrictions on gathering names</div>
Advantage of random samplesUnbiased representative sample
What is sampling bias?When a sample becomes weighted because of over-representation of one group
What is generalisation?The application of the results from a study to the wider target population
Disadvantage of large samplesData collection and analysis is time consuming
Disadvantages of small samplesMore likely to be biased because participant variables have a stronger effect<div>Less representative</div>
Advantage of small samplesLess time consuming
Advantages of large samplesMore representative<div>Participant variables have a weaker effect</div>
What are the 3 non-random sampling techniques?Opportunity sampling, volunteer samples and stratified samples
What is a niche market?A smaller segment of a larger market, where customers have specific needs and wants
What is a mass market?The largest part of a market, where there are many similar products sold by competitors
Does a niche or mass market have less competition?Niche
Which can charge higher prices and have higher profit margins; niche or mass market?Niche
Which customers are more loyal; niche or mass market and why?Niche because the business builds up specialist skill and knowledge which gives them a clear focus to target particular customers
Define market sizeThe total volume or value of sales in a market
Define market growthThe percentage rate of growth in market size&nbsp;
How is market growth calculated?(current market size - original market size) / (original market size) x 100
Define market shareThe proportion of market size held by each competitor in a market
How is market share calculated?Sales for one business / total market sales x 100
What is a dynamic market?A market that is changing rapidly
What are the 4 key sources of change in a dynamic market?Impact of technology on what and how customers buy<div>Customer tastes and preferences</div><div>Innovation and market growth</div><div>Changes in legislation</div>
What is competition?The rivalry that exists between businesses in a market
How does competition affect businesses?Forces them to lower prices, improving quality and customer service and product differentiation
How are customers benefited from competition?Lots of choice as many businesses sell similar products
How does competition affect the market?Battle for market share, price wars and battle for competitive advantage
What is competitive advantage?Ability of a business to add more value for its customers than its rivals
What will happen if businesses don't adapt to change?Likely to lose market share or collapse
How can businesses adapt to change?Become more flexible, carry out market research, invest in new product development and develop a niche
Why should businesses carry out market research?To be aware of changing customer needs or tastes
What will investing in new product development do to sales?Boost sales
Define riskPossibility that things will go wrong
Give an example of a riskInvesting in a new product
Define uncertainty&nbsp;Unpredictable and uncontrollable events that affect a business
Give examples of uncertaintyNew technology, change in consumer tastes and recession
Which is taking actions where the outcomes are unknown; risk or uncertainty?Risk
Which are external influences that are hard to predict; risk or uncertainty?Uncertainty
Why should ethics be considered in psychological research?To safeguard participants and maintain the reputation of psychology
What is the BPS?British Psychological Society
What is the aim of the BPS code?To provide ethical standards which apply to all
What philosophical approach can summarise the BPS code?"""Do unto others as you would be done by"""
What are the 4 ethical principles of the BPS code?Respect, competence, responsibility and integrity
Summarise respectShow equal respect to everyone
Summarise competenceUsing knowledge, skills, training and experience to a professional standard
Summarise integrityBeing honest and consistent with your actions
Summarise responsibilityAccepting blame for what is in your control
What are the 11 ethical issues of the BPS code?General respect, informed consent, deception, confidentiality, giving advice, right to withdraw, observations, debriefing, colleagues' research, competence, and protection of participants
Give 5 reasons why animals should be used in psychological researchEthical reasons, similarities to humans, practical application, theoretical knowledge, and animals are good participants
What is meant by ethical reasons?Some experiments are too unethical to be conducted on humans but important enough to be justified for animal testing (brain surgery and trial testing of drugs)
What is meant by similarities to humans?Humans have evolved from other animals therefore their brain structures are similar so we can generalise results from animals to humans (rats)
What is meant by animals are good participants?They don't try to understand the purpose of the experiment and they are more controllable so results are more reliable
What is meant by theoretical knowledge?Animal studies have contributed to the understanding of many topics in psychology like learning theories
What is meant by practical application?Treatments and therapies based on the principles of operant conditioning (guide dogs)
State the 8 ethical guidelines in the BPS guidelines for psychologists working with animalsChoice of species, number of animals used, legislation, animal care, procurement of animals, disposing of animals, replacing the use of animals, and procedures
What does the animal scientific procedures act 1986 regulate?Use of protected animals in experiments from pain, suffering and distress
What are the 3Rs?Refinement = minimise suffering<div>Replacement = use non-animal alternatives</div><div>Reducement = use smallest amount of animals</div>
What 3 licences are required before testing animals?Personal = for researcher<div>Project = for research study</div><div>Establishment = for where research is done</div>
What are the 4 steps in risk management?Identify the risk<div>Assess the risk</div><div>Plan response</div><div>Implement response</div>
What does risk management mean?Forecasting and evaluation of ethical risks and identification of procedures to minimise their impact
What is cost-benefit analysis?Comparing the benefits (positive consequences) and costs (negative consequences) of an ethical decision - whether the ends justify the means
Define reliabilityThe extent to which research findings are produced consistently over a number of investigations
Define validityThe extent to which a study measures what it claims to measure
Define replicationRepeating a study to check its reliability
Define standardised proceduresA set of events that occur in the same way every time data is collected for a study
What is inter-observer reliability?The extent to which different observers produce the same records when observing the same behaviour
Describe the test-retest methodA group of participants complete a test twice and their first and second results are correlated
Describe the split-half methodParticipants take the test once and their scores on one half of the test are compared with their scores on the other half of the test
How is a variable operationalised?The researcher needs to give precise terms on how it will be measured
What is the difference between observable actions and mental processes?Observable actions can be directly seen, mental processes cannot be directly observed
What is objectivity?Ability to carry out research without allowing personal interpretations or bias to influence the process
What is subjectivity?Tendency to allow personal opinions and beliefs to influence how data is collected and interpreted
What is generalisability?The extent to which findings of a piece of research can be applied beyond the research itself
Define internal validityThe extent to which a measure of human behaviour accurately measures what it is supposed to
What are 2 ways internal validity can be judged?Concurrent and predictive validity
What is concurrent validity?Testing participants with your experiment and an already existing one to see how far the results agree
What is predictive validity?How well a test predicts future behaviours
Define ecological validityThe extent to which a research findings in one environment/situation can be generalised to another environment/situation
What are the 3 types of generalisability?Other age groups, animals to humans and to other cultures
Define quantitative dataData that can be counted
Define qualitative dataDetailed descriptions of how people think and feel
Advantages of quantitative dataMore objective<div>Easier to analyse</div><div>Research is easier to replicate</div>
Advantages of qualitative dataDetailed information about behaviour studied so true complexities of human behaviour are represented<div>Information about meaning of behavior is provided</div>
Disadvantages of quantitative dataLacks detail<div>Doesn't give a full picture of what we are studying</div><div>Reductionism (simplifying complex behaviour into a set of numbers)</div>
Disadvantages of qualitative dataDifficult to analyse<div>More subjective</div>
What is the difference between primary and secondary data?Primary data is gathered by the researcher themselves (observations, experiments and interviews) and secondary data is gathered from already existing sources (books, articles and case files)
Advantage of primary data compared to secondary dataResearcher is in control of data quality because they design the research then collect and analyse the data themselves
Define empiricismThe only dependable sources of knowledge come to us directly through our senses (John Locke)
Define falsificationAct of providing empirical evidence that a theory/hypothesis is incorrect (Karl Popper)
Arguments supporting psychology as a scienceScientific research methods (experimental methods), research is reliable and replicable (standardised procedures), falsifiable procedures and reductionism is widespread
Arguments against the idea of psychology being a scienceIsn't empirical, some research methods aren't scientific, not objective, not always truly falsifiable and lacks reliability because research is limited
Define opportunity samplingSelecting participants available to you at the time of the study
Define volunteer samplesMade up of individuals who have consciously decide to take part in the study
Define stratified samplingDividing the target population into categories the researcher wants to be represented in the sample
Advantages of opportunity samplingEthical because the researcher can judge whether participant will be upset by the study<div>Quick/convenient</div>
Disadvantage of opportunity samplingBiased because researcher may choose who looks most helpful
Advantages of volunteer samplesEthical because volunteer wants to be involved&nbsp;<div>Will be cooperative</div>
Disadvantages of volunteer samplesSampling bias - volunteers' personalities and motivation may differ from non-volunteer participants<div>Not everyone in the target population will see the advert</div>
Advantage of stratified samplesSelects most important characteristics of target population which makes the sample fairly representative
Disadvantage of stratified samplesBiased because the researcher may have preconceived ideas about the relevant characteristics and may exclude categories
Explain the difference between product and market orientationProduct orientation is based on what the business is good at whereas market orientation responds to customer needs and wants
Why is market orientation linked to success?Markets are more dynamic<div>Customers are becoming more demanding</div><div>Barriers to market entry are lower</div>
Explain the difference between primary (field) and secondary (desk) researchPrimary research is data collected first-hand for a specific research purpose whereas secondary is already existing data collected for a different purpose
Examples of primary researchObservations, surveys and experiments
Examples of secondary researchGoogle, ONS, media reports
Benefits of primary researchDetailed insights focused to research objectives<div>Kept private</div><div>Up-to-date</div>
Drawbacks of primary researchTime-consuming and costly<div>Risk of survey bias</div><div>Sampling may not be representative</div>
Benefits of secondary researchFree<div>Easy and quick to access</div><div>Good source of market insights</div>
Drawbacks of secondary researchBecomes out of date<div>Not tailored to business needs</div><div>Expensive</div><div>Could be biased</div>
Define market researchThe process of collecting and analysing data to inform marketing decisions
What is sampling?Choosing a proportion of the whole population as representative of the population for market research
Explain the difference between a mass and niche marketMass markets target their products to a wide range of consumers whereas niche markets have a small segment of a large market
Define market segmentationSplitting market into subgroups of consumers with similar characteristics or needs
What are examples of market segments?Age, gender, location, income
Why is market segmentation used?To help businesses identify different types of consumers and different wants and needs
What is research concerned with data?Quantitative data
What is research based on opinions, beliefs and intentions?Qualitative research
What are the forms of collecting quantitative research?Surveys - online, postal, telephone, face-to-face
What are the forms of collecting qualitative research?Focus groups and interviews
Benefits of quantitative research"Easy to analyse<div>Can be compared to other data</div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Provides insights into trends</span></div>"
Drawbacks of quantitative researchDoesn't explain trends<div>May lack reliability if sample size and method is not valid</div>
Drawbacks of qualitative researchExpensive to collect and analyse - requires specialist research skills<div>Difficult to analyse - subjective information</div><div>Risk of unrepresentative sample</div>
Benefits of qualitative researchHighlights issues<div>Focuses on customer needs, wants and expectations</div><div>Essential for new product development and launching</div>
Benefits of samplingFlexible and quick<div>Even a small representative sample can provide useful research insights</div><div>Using sampling before making marketing decisions can reduce risks and costs</div>
Drawbacks of samplingSampling can be unrepresentative<div>Risk of bias in questions</div><div>Less useful in market segments where customer tastes and preferences change frequently</div>
What is the biggest risk in research and why?Sample not being representative of population which leads to inaccurate results
Why is IT good for market research?Data mining is quick and automated so huge sets of data can be analysed without sampling<div>Social media can quickly highlight what customers are saying</div>
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What is the nature of water?Dipolar
Why is water an unusual small molecule?It is liquid at room temperature
What atoms does a water molecule contain?1 oxygen and 2 hydrogen
What are the charges of hydrogen and oxygen atoms?Hydrogen slightly +<div>Oxygen slightly -</div>
Why is water a dipolar molecule?Because of the unevenly distributed electric charge (slightly positive H, slightly negative O)
How do water molecules join together?Slightly positively charged end is attracted to the slightly negatively charged end which forms a hydrogen bond
Are hydrogen bonds weak or strong?Weak but many of them together are strong
What is specific heat capacity?The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1g of a water by 1'C
Does water have a high or low specific heat capacity?High
Why does water have a high specific heat capacity?A large amount of energy is required to break hydrogen bonds, therefore a large input of energy causes a small increase in temperature so water cools down and warms up slowly
What is a solvent?A liquid that many substances can be dissolved in
Describe polar moleculesHave a charge and can be dissolved in water (hydrophilic)
Describe non-polar moleculesDon't have a charge and can't be dissolved in water (hydrophobic)
Give an example of polar and non-polar moleculesPolar - amino acids<div>Non-polar - lipids</div>
State 4 properties of waterGood solvent, high latent heat of vaporisation, high specific heat capacity, cohesive
How is water a good solvent?Opposite charges attract then polar ions get surrounded by water molecules, form hydrogen bonds and dissolve
Why is a high latent heat of vaporisation good?Water absorbs a lot of energy before becoming a gas (high boiling point) so there is mass transport in the blood and plant xylem
Why is a high specific heat capacity good?Avoids rapid changes in temperature/maintains a stable temperature
What is cohesion?Bonding between like molecules
Why is cohesion good?Allows water to move up xylem and creates surface tension&nbsp;
How does cohesion create surface tension?Cohesion attracts the water molecules together and hydrogen bonds hold them together because water molecules are dipolar
What are the 4 segmentation methods and explain each oneDemographic - age, gender, income, ethnicity, social class, religion<div>Geographic - where you live</div><div>Psycho-graphic - attitudes, opinions and lifestyles</div><div>Behavioural - how often purchases are made</div>
What are 2 main types of research methods?Experimental and non-experimental methods
Give examples of experimental methodsLaboratory experiments and field experiments
Give examples of non-experimental methodsObservations, questionnaires, interviews and case studies
What is the fundamental difference between the experimental and non-experimental methods?The amount of control of variables involved (less in non-experimental methods)
What is a disadvantage of non-experimental methods?It tends to be difficult to establish cause and effect links between variables
What are disadvantages of self-report methods?Demand characteristics and social desirability
What is an advantage of self-report methods?Researchers get first-hand information about what participants are thinking and feeling
What are questionnaires?Self-report data collection method consisting of carefully structured questions about participants' attitudes and beliefs given in a standardised manner
What are 2 ways questionnaires are used in an experiment?Overall research method and data collection technique
Explain researcher effectsWhen the researcher knows the aims of the study and an expected outcome, they may struggle to remain objective and influence the results to reflect their expectations intentionally or unintentionally which lowers the validity
Why are principles of questionnaire design put in place?To ensure that the data collected from questionnaires is valid and objective
Name the 6 principles of questionnaire designFit for purpose<div>Filler questions</div><div>Sequence of questions</div><div>Standardised procedures</div><div>Pilot studies</div><div>Ethical issues</div>
What does the principles fit for purpose mean?Questions should be to the point and as few as possible so respondents don't lose patience
What does the principle filler questions mean?Irrelevant questions that hide the main purpose of the questionnaire to reduce demand characteristics but it raises ethical issues (deception)
What does the principle sequence of questions mean?Begin the questionnaire with easy questions and end with sensitive
What does the principle standardised procedures mean?All questions are exactly the same and administered in the exact same way to all participants so they all have the same experience
What does the principle pilot studies mean?A practice run of the questionnaire on a small group of people to allow the researcher to refine the questions
What does the principle ethical issues mean?An ethical questionnaire should only ask about what the researcher needs to know, sensitive and personal issues should be handled with care and confidentiality and privacy must be respected
How are appropriate questions written?Clarity and avoiding bias
What does clarity mean and how can it be achieved in questionnaires?Clear and concise - short questions without technical terms or double negatives
Define objectivity in questionnairesResearcher has not allowed preconceived ideas and opinions to influence the way questions have been designed, administered and analysed
What are leading questions?Questions where the correct answer is prompted by the wording of it
What are socially desirable answers?Where respondents give an answer that reflects what they ought to say to present themselves in a positive light
What is response bias?The tendency to stick to an answer throughout the questionnaire
What are open questions?Respondents express themselves freely in their own words
What are closed questions?Set range of answers to choose from with a fixed response
Advantages of open questionsRich information<div>Complex account of what people think or feel</div>
Advantage of closed questionsEasy to analyse objectively
Disadvantages of open questionsDifficult to identify trends in the data<div>Answers can be long and rambling</div>
Disadvantages of closed questionsIndividuals' answers might not fall into the given categories<div>Can't find out why a particular answer has been given</div><div>Complex human attitudes and feelings are oversimplified to a set of numbers</div>
What are the 6 examples of closed questions?Categories of response<div>Identifying characteristics</div><div>Likert scale</div><div>Ranked scale item</div><div>Semantic differential scales</div><div>Questions for children</div>
Describe categories of responseTicking boxes
Describe the likert scaleHow strongly you agree or disagree with a statement
Why is internal reliability a problem on likert scales?Several items on the questionnaire may be measuring the same variable
Describe ranked scale itemsGiving a number to represent your views
Describe semantic differential scalesPlacing a mark on a line to indicate feeling/opinions
Strengths of questionnairesStandardised procedures - high reliability, controls extraneous variables<div>Researchers don't need to be present</div><div>Allow data to be collected from a large number of people quickly and cheaply</div><div>Gains access to what people actually think</div>
Weaknesses of questionnairesParticipants may misunderstand questions<div>Demand characteristics</div><div>Socially desirable answers</div><div>Set procedures may be administrated slightly differently by different members of the research team</div>
Define internal validityWhether the questionnaire measures what it intends to measure
Why is it important for water to be a good solvent?So dissolved substances can be transported around organisms - in the blood in animals and through xylem in plants
What is blood pressure a measure of?Hydrostatic force of blood against the walls of a blood vessel
What is elevated blood pressure known as?Hypertension
What are the units for blood pressure?mmHg (millimetres of mercury)
What piece of equipment is used to measure blood pressure?Sphygmomanometer
What is peripheral resistance?Contact between blood and the walls of blood vessels causing friction which impedes flow of blood
When is blood pressure highest and is this systolic or diastolic pressure?Ventricular systole - systolic
When is blood pressure lowest and is this systolic or diastolic pressure?Ventricular diastole - diastolic
What are the ranges for a healthy blood pressure?Systolic = 100 - 140<div>Diastolic = 60 - 90</div>
Put the blood vessels in order from highest to lowest blood pressureArteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
What are the fluctuations of pressure in the arteries caused by?&nbsp;Diastole and systole<div>As blood is expelled from the heart in ventricular systole the pressure is higher</div><div>During diastole the pressure is slightly lower but maintained due to elastic recoil in the arteries which helps keep the blood flowing<br></div>
Why does mean pressure decrease through the blood vessels?Changes in peripheral resistance due to higher surface areas (arterioles and capillaries) resisting the flow more and reducing pressure
What is oedema?Fluid building up in the tissues
Symptom of oedemaSwelling
What is oedema a sign of?Hypertension
How is tissue fluid formed?When plasma is forced out of the capillaries by the high hydrostatic pressure
Where is the net movement of water to in the arteriole and why?Out - high blood pressure
Where is the net movement of water to in the venule and why?In - tissue fluid pressure and osmosis
How is an experimental alternate non-directional hypothesis written?There will be a significant difference in the (DV) between (IV 1) and (IV 2)
How is an experimental alternate directional hypothesis written?(IV 1) will get better/worse scores in the (DV) than (IV 2)
How is an experimental null hypothesis written?There will be no significant difference in the (DV) between (IV 1) and (IV 2)
How is a correlational alternate non-directional hypothesis written?There will be a significant correlation between (V1) and (V2)
How is a correlational alternate directional hypothesis written?There will be a significant positive/negative correlation between (V1) and (V2)
How is a correlational null hypothesis written?There will be no significant correlation between (V1) and (V2)
What is correlational research?Collection of data to investigate the extent to which 2 variables are associated
Is data quantitative or qualitative in correlational research?Quantitative
What are co-variables?Two variables in a correlational study which have been measured
Can cause and effect be inferred from correlations and why?No because there is no control of other variables that might be involved
What is correlational analysis?A data analysis technique that describes the relationship between co-variables in statistical terms
What are the main types of correlational relationships?Positive and negative correlations
What is a positive correlation?High / (low) values on one variable are associated with high / (low) values on the other variable
What is a negative correlation?High values on one variable are associated with low values on the other variable
What is a scatter diagram?A visual representation on a graph of a correlational relationship
How is the strength of a correlation indicated?Straightness of the dots<div>Very straight = strong</div><div>Not straight = weak</div>
How is the direction of a correlation indicated?Slope of the line of dots<div>/ = positive</div><div>\ = negative</div>
What is a correlational coefficient?A number between -1 and +1 that tells us the strength and direction of a correlation
What are the ranges for a weak, moderate, strong, perfect and no correlation?Weak = 0.1 - 0.3<div>Moderate = 0.4 - 0.6</div><div>Strong = 0.7 - 0.9</div><div>Perfect = 1</div><div>No = 0</div>
How many pieces of data does each participant have and what is it referred as?2 - data pairs
What methods are used to collect data for a correlational study?Observation and questionnaires
Strengths of correlational researchAllows identification of relationships between variables when it's unethical to manipulate variables<div>Starting point for future research</div><div>Objective</div><div>Easily replicable</div>
Weaknesses of correlational researchDoes not allow cause and effect links to be established<div>Co-variables may not be measured in a valid manner</div><div>Correlations may be misused</div>
What is a blood clot known as?Thrombus
What is a platelet?A cell fragment that releases thromboplastin when the endothelium is damaged
What does thromboplastin do?Catalyses the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin
What does thrombin do?Catalyses the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin
What does fibrin do?Forms a mesh of insoluble fibres which traps red blood cells and platelets, forming a blood clot
Is fibrin soluble or insoluble?Insoluble
Is fibrinogen soluble or insoluble?Soluble
Which artery becomes blocked which leads to a heart attack?Coronary artery
What happens to the blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle when the coronary artery is blocked?Reduces
How is magnification calculated?Magnification = image size / actual size
How many mm in 1cm?10
"How many<span style=""color: rgb(32, 33, 34); font-family: sans-serif; font-size: 14px;"">&nbsp;μm</span>&nbsp;in 1mm?"1000
"How many nm in 1<span style=""color: rgb(32, 33, 34); font-family: sans-serif; font-size: 14px;"">&nbsp;μm</span>?"1000
"How many&nbsp;<span style=""color: rgb(32, 33, 34); font-family: sans-serif; font-size: 14px;"">μm&nbsp;</span>in 1cm?"10,000
What are the 2 types of biological drawings?Low-power plans and high-power detailed drawings
Which type of biological drawing should include details of individual cells?High-power detailed drawings
Which type of biological drawing should concentrate on a small area of the slide?High-power detailed drawing
What does the coarse focus do?Raises and lowers the stage for focusing
What does the fine focus do?Slightly moves the stage to sharpen the image
Descirbe the measuring steps in calculating the magnification of your drawing from the specimen"Measure a part of your drawing in&nbsp;<span style=""color: rgb(32, 33, 34); font-family: sans-serif; font-size: 14px;"">μm</span><div>Measure the same part on your slide using an eyepiece graticule in epu's</div>"
Describe how to calibrate the eyepiece graticlePlace a stage micrometer slide on the stage and line up the divisions on the eyepiece graticule with the stage micrometer
How many micrometers is 1 stage micrometer unit?1000
How do you calculate the length of the specimen in micrometers?Multiply the length in epu's by the calibration value
How do you work out the calibration value?Find out how many stage micrometers are equal to 1 epu by dividing them
What is market positioning?The view customers have about the quality, value for money and image of a product compared to those of competitors
What is product differentiation?When customers perceive a distinct difference between your product and alternatives provided by competitors
What difference do customer perceive in product differentiation?Quality, performance, aesthetic and price
What does effective product differentiation allow a business to do?Compete effectively<div>Protect and build a brand</div><div>Add value</div>
What is a USP?Unique selling point, sets a product apart from its competitors in the eyes of customers
Will a highly differentiated product be price elastic or inelastic and what does this mean?Inelastic, demand is less sensitive to the price of the product
Why are price inelastic products good for a business?Allow the business to charge a high price
Advantages of positioning mapsSpots gaps in the market<div>Useful for analysing competitors</div><div>Encourages market research</div>
Disadvantages of positioning mapsGap doesn't equal demand<div>Not a guarantee of success</div>
What is market mapping?Process of positioning competition within a market by plotting key variables
What variables are commonly used in market positioning?Quality and price
What is competitive advantage?An advantage that enables a business to perform better than rivals in the market
What is adding value?Taking resource inputs and transforming them into goods and services (transformation process)
How is added value calculated?Price of product - cost of making product
What are the steps in oedema forming?Tissue fluid is formed when plasma is forced out of the capillaries, carrying nutrients and oxygen with it<div>Cells absorb nutrients and oxygen from tissue fluid and give out waste</div><div>Tissue fluid moves back in capillaries via osmosis</div><div>20% of tissue fluid drains into blind-ended lymph capillaries, flows through lymph vessels and returns to the lymph fluid to the blood via the thoracic duct in the neck</div>
What are the steps in blood clotting?1. Damage to the endothelium<div>2. Thromboplastin is released from platelets and damaged tissue</div><div>3. In the presence of calcium ions and vitamin K thromboplastin catalyses the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin</div><div>4. Thrombin catalyses the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin which forms a mesh of insoluble fibres</div><div>5. The mesh traps red blood cells and platelets</div>
What type of blood vessel does atherosclerosis usually occur in and why?Arteries - high pressure blood is more likely to damage endothelium
What are the 2 main risk factors for atherosclerosis?High blood pressure and high cholesterol levels
What is atherosclerosis?Hardening of the arteries
What happens when the artery wall hardens?Becomes less elastic
What makes atherosclerosis a self-perpetuating/positive feedback process?Narrow lumen causes a further increase in blood pressure which can cause further damage to the arteries endothelium
What drugs help prevent clotting?Aspirin and warfain
What does observational research focus on?Observing a person's freely chosen behaviour
Do observations have an independent variable?No, only experiments do
How can observations be used?Overall research method and data collection technique
What is the difference between overall research methods and data collection techniques?Data collection techniques have an independent variable
What are the two main types of observational research methods?Naturalistic and structured
What are naturalistic observations?Recording spontaneous behaviour in the setting it would normally happen in
What are structured observations?Recording spontaneous behaviour under conditions selected by the researcher
Advantages of structured observationsStandardised procedures<div>Easier replication</div><div>Control over confounding variables</div>
Advantages of naturalistic observationsNatural setting = normal behaviour<div>High ecological validity and generalisability</div><div>Can lead to further experimental studies</div>
Disadvantages of structured observationsLower ecological validity<div>Unfamiliar setting may affect behaviour</div>
Disadvantages of naturalistic observationsEthical concerns over invasion of privacy and consent<div>Lower replication</div><div>Difficult to remain hidden</div>
What are participant observations?Observer is part of the group being studied
What are non-participant observations?Observer is not part of the group being studied
Advantages of participant observationsMore understanding of what is happening<div>High ecological validity as people behave in an everyday manner</div>
Disadvantages of participant observationsDifficult to record observations at the time it happens - some information might be forgotten/distorted<div>Researcher may influence natural behaviour of group</div><div>Deception and invasion of privacy</div>
Advantages of non-participant observationsFocus more on data collection - high validity<div>Observer has no stake in activities being observed - high objectivity</div>
Disadvantages of non-participant observersMay have little understanding of what is happening - lower validity<div>Ethical issues of privacy, invasion of privacy, consent and right to withdraw</div>
What is the difference between covert and overt observations?Covert - unaware they're being observed<div>Overt - aware they're being observed</div>
Advantage of covert observationsNatural behaviour is observed
Disadvantage of covert observationsEthical issues around consent and invasion of privacy
Advantage of overt observationsFull informed consent is gained&nbsp;
Disadvantage of overt observationsParticipants may alter behaviour
What are the 3 sampling techniques?Continuous, time, event
What is continuous sampling?The observer records every instance of behaviour
When is continuous sampling useful?When the behaviour of interest does not occur very often
Disadvantage of continuous samplingTime consuming
What is time sampling?Recording target behaviour for set lengths of time at set intervals
Advantage of time samplingReduces amount of time spent observing behaviour
Disadvantage of time samplingImportant behaviour might be missed during intervals
What is event sampling?Recording certain behaviour every time it occurs in a group of individuals over an observation period
Advantage of event samplingReduced chance that the behaviour of interest will be missed
Disadvantage of event samplingDifficult to observe all events if there are a large number of people to observe
What is the difference between quantitative and qualitative data collection?Quantitative = recording how many times behaviour happens<div>Qualitative = describing observations of behaviour</div>
What is content analysis?Research technique for the systemic quantitative description of the content in written, spoken or visual human communication
What two main sources does content analysis analyse?Media and primary research data
Briefly explain the 5 steps in the content analysis processResearch question and hypothesis - creation of research question and hypothesis<div>Sampling - sample of material of interest is selected and how much of the available information will be analysed</div><div>Coding units - making categories relevant to research question</div><div>Pilot studies - becoming familiar with material and improving the system for categorising data</div><div>Collecting data - record number of occurrences in particular coding category or rank items</div>
Advantages of content analysisEasy replication because of standardised procedures<div>High external validity as it's investigating something that's seen/heard/read by ordinary people in the real world</div>
Disadvantages of content analysisCannot show cause and effect<div>Choosing codes/categories is subjective</div>
What is thematic analysis?Research technique for the analysis of qualitative data
How are conclusions drawn in thematic analysis?By identifying and assessing patterns in qualitative data
Briefly explain the 6 phases of thematic analysisFamiliarisation of data - reading data many times and noting initial observations<div>Coding - grouping main ideas into categories relevant to the research question</div><div>Searching for themes - identifying similarities in data and linking codes to themes</div><div>Reviewing themes - checking themes accurately reflect coded extracts and all data set</div><div>Defining and naming themes - conduct and write a detailed analysis of each theme</div><div>Writing-up - weaving together main themes and data to tell a coherent story about the data</div>
What is a theme?Coherent and meaningful pattern in data relevant to the research question
Advantages of thematic analysisEnables reduction of complex qualitative data into a summary for conclusions to be drawn<div>Themes are derived from data rather than researchers imposing their preconceived ideas</div><div>Can be turned into quantitative data</div>
Disadvantages of thematic analysisLow reliability as different researchers may look at the same data and identify different themes<div>Researcher effects from themes in mind when doing coding and not from data (subjectivity)</div><div>Time consuming and highly skilled task</div>
What is risk?Probability of the occurrence of some unwanted event or outcome
What is a risk factor?Anything that increases the chance of harm
What is a correlation?A change in one variable is accompanied by a change in another variable
What is a positive correlation?An increase in one variable is accompanied by an increase in the other
What is a negative correlation?An increase in one variable is accompanied by a decrease in the other
What is causation?A change in one variable is responsible for a change in another variable
What is an interview?Verbal questioning of the participant
What are the 3 types of interviews?Structured, unstructured and semi-structured
What is the difference between structured and unstructured interviews?Structured interviews have predetermined questions that are given in a set order, unstructured interviews are not in a set format
What are semi structured interviews?Mixture of set questions and a chance for the interviewer to explore answers further
What type of data do semi structured interviews produce?Quantitative and qualitative data
What type of data do structured interviews produce?Quantitative and qualitative data if necessary
What type of data do unstructured interviews produce?Qualitative and quantitative data if necessary
What are open questions?Allow respondents to express themselves freely in their own words which produces rich information
What are closed questions?"Limited range of answers to choose from ""fixed response"""
What is quantitative data?Form of numbers
What is qualitative data?Form of words and aims to give a complete description of what people think
What is a good rapport?Friendly relationship between interviewer and interviewee so they will be more open and honest
What are leading questions?Desired answer is prompted by the wording of the question
Identify good practice in interviewsEstablish rapport, clear wording, non-judgemental, avoid leading questions and ethical issues
Advantage and disadvantage of structured interviewsStandardised procedures = high replicability, quantitative data is easy to analyse<div>Closed questions restrict detail, oversimplifies complex behaviour by reducing to a number</div>
Advantage and disadvantage of unstructured interviewsHighly rich data qualitative data, informal environment = more relaxed = more valid<div>Hard to replicate, qualitative data is hard to analyse</div>
Advantage and disadvantage of semi structured interviewsAllows interviewer to explore answers further, provides qualitative and quantitative data<div>Qualitative data is hard to analyse and quantitative data may oversimplify behaviour</div>
What is a case study?An in-depth investigation which gathers highly detailed information from an individual or a small group
Why are case studies useful?Unique/valuable examples of human behaviour may provide insights into psychological functions
Why are case studies used by psychologists?To intervene and help an individual but collect research data at the same time
Give and describe an example of a famous case studyPhineas Gage (19th century)<div>Accidental damage to pre-frontal lobes in a railway accident when a bolt went through his cheek and up through his eye into his brain<div>He recovered well physically but changed psychologically - became aggressive</div></div>
What are possible sources of information for a case study?Interviews and observations of participant<div>School and medical records</div><div>Psychometric tests (personality/intelligence test)</div><div>Tests of clinical symptoms</div>
Strengths of case studiesUnique individuals/groups which allow collection of rich and detailed data<div>Unusual cases which can trigger further research and challenge established theories</div>
Weaknesses of case studiesSubjectivity due to researcher relationship with participant which lowers validity<div>Reduced validity if participant is asked to recall information from the past</div><div>Unique studies cannot be generalised so the replicability and reliability is low</div><div>Cannot establish cause and effect links due to lack of control over variables</div><div>Ethical issue of invasion of privacy</div>
Which ways can risk be calucated?Ratio, decimal, percentage
How is a ratio calculated?Population number/incidence
How is a decimal calculated?1/ratio
How is a percentage calculated?1/ratio x 100
What is the difference between controllable and non-controllable risk factors?Controllable can be changed, non-controllable cannot be changed
What are non-controllable risk factors for CVD?Age, gender, genetic predisposition
What are controllable risk factors of CVD?High LDL blood cholesterol levels, high saturated fat and salt intake, excessive alcohol intake, lack of exercise, high blood pressure, stress, smoking, obesity
What are the 3 types of brain scanning techniques?CAT, fMRI, PET
What does CAT stand for?Computerised Axial Tomography
What does fMRI stand for?Functional magnetic resonance imaging
What does PET stand for?Positron emission tomography
How does fMRI measure brain activity?By showing metabolic changes that take place in an active part of the brain
What does a powerful magnetic field do in a fMRI?Allows a computer to produce detailed pictures of structures in the brain
What do coils do in fMRI?Send and receive radio waves, producing digital signals that are detected by magnetic coils
What does a magnetic field make molecules do in fMRI?Move in a different way and release radio waves which the scanner detects
What does fMRI measure the rate of and what is this technique called?Oxyhaemoglobin becoming deoxyhaemoglobin<div>Blood-Oxygen-Level-Dependent (BOLD) contrast imaging</div>
What is the difference between oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyghaemoglobin?Oxyhaemoglobin are red blood cells with oxygen attached, deoxyhaemoglobin has oxygen released
What can fMRI scans provide information on?Which part of the brain is handling critical functions (thought, speech, movement) by brain mapping<div>The effects of stroke, trauma or degenerative disease (Alzheimer's) on brain function</div>
Strengths of fMRI scansNon-invasive = more ethical<div>No radiation exposure</div><div>Sensitivity to blood flow is very precise - valid</div><div>Provides exact locations of increased neural activity during tasks</div>
Weaknesses of fMRI scansCannot look at receptor activity<div>Image analysing is a high skilled task and misinterpretation is possible</div><div>Brain is constantly active, difficult to get baseline measurements</div><div>High quality images are only produced if participant is perfectly still - head brace</div><div>Implanted medical devices may malfunction due to magnetic field strength</div>
Define experimental methodsOverall type of experiment
What are the 2 experimental methods?Lab and field
What do experiments begin with?Experimental hypothesis generation
What is the aim of an experiment?To identify cause and effect links between an independent variable and a dependent variable
What are the main characteristics of an experiment?Researchers manipulate the independent variable, measure the effect on the dependent variable and control as many extraneous variables as possible so they don't have a confounding effect
What are extraneous variables?Any variable apart from the independent variable that might have an effect on the dependent variable
What are confounding variables and give examplesUncontrollable extraneous variables that have had an effect on the results<div>Situational and participant variables, experimenter effects, demand characteristics</div>
What are situational variables?Variables in the research situation that can have an effect on the dependent variable
What are participant variables?Variables from individual participants that affect their performance
What are experimenter effects?If experimenters know the aims of the study and an expected outcome, they may struggle to remain objective and influence the results (intentionally or unintentionally) to reflect their expectations
Give examples of experimenter effectsOperationalising the dependent variable in a way that desired results are more likely, misrecording results, influencing participants' behaviour, failing to follow procedures correctly
What are demand characteristics?Cues that participants might receive that indicate the purpose of the research
Give examples of demand characteristicsFacial gestures and materials used in the experiment
What do demand characteristics make participants do?Unconsciously change their behaviour as a result of the cues which become alternative IV
What is the Hawthorne effect?When the participant knows they are being observed and they change their behaviour to please observer, be socially acceptable or be anxious from taking part in psychological research
What is the difference between a single and double blind?Double blind participants and experimenters don't know the aim of the experiment, single blind only participants don't know the aim of the experiment
What do standardised procedures do?Help control experimenter effects
What is an ethical issue that may happen in experiments?Participants may see experimenters as being in authority and forget the right to withdraw
Describe a laboratory experimentExperiment conducted in a controlled setting that allows the researcher to deliberately manipulate the independent variable while maintaining strict control over extraneous variables
Describe a field experimentResearcher deliberately manipulates the independent variable in the natural environment of the participant where the behaviour would normally be seen and control of extraneous variables is attempted where possible
What is internal validity?The extent to which the measure used of human behaviour accurately measures what it is supposed to
What is internal validity in experiments?Whether the IV actually produced the changes seen in the DV
Strengths of laboratory experimentsControl over extraneous variables, strict manipulation of IV and precise measurement of DV so cause and effect links can be measured<div>Standardised procedures make replicability easier and higher reliability</div><div>Scientific research method allowing systematic controlled collection of objective quantitative data</div>
Weaknesses of laboratory experimentsArtificial settings may produce artificial behaviour<div>Experimenter effects can be high because researcher is present and may influence behaviour</div><div>Results are more likely to be affected by demand characteristics since participants know they are being studied</div><div>Ethical issues of deception and informed consent</div>
Strengths of field experimentsGreater ecological validity because behaviour is studied in its natural setting<div>Control of variables and systematic collection of objective quantitative data</div><div>Lower demand characteristics because participants may not know they are being studied</div>
Weaknesses of field experimentsHarder to control all aspects which reduces internal validity<div>More difficult to replicate so reliability is low</div><div>Ethical problems of informed consent, deception, invasion of privacy, right to withdraw if participants are unaware they are being studied so they should be debriefed</div>
What is established in experiments?The effect the IV has given the DV
Why are 2 conditions of the IV needed?To compare the results of one condition to the other to see if the IV really has had an effect on the DV
What are the 2 types of experimental conditions?Experimental and control
What is the experimental condition?Participants experience the main condition of the IV
What is the control condition?Gives the researcher a baseline for comparison so any effects on the DV of the experimental condition of the IV can be clearly seen
What is experimental design?The way that participants are grouped into experimental and control groups
What are the 3 types of experimental designs?Independent groups, matched pairs and repeated measures
Outline independent groupsUsing different participants in each condition of the experiment
Outline repeated measuresUsing the same participants in each condition of the experiment
Outline matched pairsUsing different participants with the same relevant participants variables in each condition of the experiment
Advantages of independent groupsNo order effects because each participant only does one condition<div>Less demand characteristics because only one condition is done so the participants receives less cues</div><div>Same test can be used in both conditions</div>
Disadvantages of independent groupsParticipant variables may affect results<div>More participants required as you are only using each participant once</div>
Advantages of repeated measuresParticipant variables are kept constant<div>Fewer participants required as you are using each participant more than once</div>
Disadvantages of repeated measuresDemand characteristics are more obvious since participants are exposed to more cues<div>Order effects may confound results</div>
Advantages of matched pairsParticipant variables are controlled since similar participants are used in each condition<div>Order effects are not present</div><div>Less demand characteristics</div><div>Same test can be used in both conditions</div>
Disadvantages of matched pairsMatching participants is difficult and process may be biased by experimenter effects<div>More participants required as you are only using each person once</div>
Which approaches are there to investigating the relationship between genetics and human behaviour?Twin and adoption studies
What are monozygotic twins?100% genetically identical
What are dizygotic twins?Non-identical with 50% DNA in common
What are concordance rates?The degree of which members of a twin pair display the same characteristics
How are concordance rates expressed?Percentage
If each member of a twin pair has a roughly identical environment, what will differences in similarity of twins be due to?Genetic influence
Strength of twin studiesOnly ethical way of studying behaviour of people who are 100% genetically identical
What should be taken account of in twin studies?Effect of the environment on behaviour
Weaknesses of twin studiesNo twin study has ever found 100% concordance rates<div>MZ twins may be treated more alike than DZ twins</div>
In an adoptive study, what does it mean if genetics have a strong influence on behaviour?The adoptee will share more characteristics with their biological parents than their adoptive parents
In an adoptive study, what does it mean if environmental influence have a strong influence on behaviour?The adoptee will share more characteristics with their adoptive parents, assuming the upbringing environment is very different from the biological parents
Strength of adoptive studiesOnly ethical way of studying just the genetic influence of parents on children as they have been away from their parents influence during their upbringing
Weaknesses of adoptive studiesAdoptive and biological parents' environments may be similar<div>Sample is not typical of target population and only certain types of family are accepted to adopt certain children = less generalisable</div>
What is a case study?An in-depth investigation of a single individual/small group which gathers highly detailed information
Why are case studies useful?They collect unique or valuable examples of human behaviour which may provide insights into psychological functions
Why are case studies used by psychologists?To intervene and help an individual but collect data at the same time
What is a famous case study in cognitive psychology?HM (Henry Molaison)<div>Large parts of his two hippocampi had been removed in an attempt to cure his severe epilepsy</div><div>Surgery was successful in curing his epilepsy but he suffered from severe amnesia</div><div>HM case gave new knowledge about memory impairment and amnesia and how particular areas of the brain may be linked to memory function</div>
What are some sources of information for a case study?Interviews and observations of the participant<div>School and medical records</div><div>Attitude questionnaires</div><div>Psychometric tests (personality, intelligence)</div><div>Physiological measures (MRI scans, EEG traces)</div>
Strengths of case studiesInvestigation of people with unique characteristics/experience<div>Qualitative data, in-depth</div><div>Conclusions will be highly valid for the sample being studied as the focus is on real life</div><div>Variety of methods used to gather information which is then triangulated to draw conclusions</div>
Weaknesses of case studiesRelationship between researcher and participant may lead to subjectivity and reduced validity<div>Validity is reduced if past information is asked to be recalled</div><div>Unique studies are not generalisable beyond the participant</div><div>Difficult to replicate, low validity</div><div>Cannot establish cause and effect links</div><div>Invasion of privacy</div>
What is demand?The quantity that customers are willing and able to buy at a given price in a given period of time
What is the basic law of demand?Demand varies inversely with price
What causes a movement along the demand curve?Change in price
What causes a shift in the demand curve?Change in any other factor
What are causes of change in demand?Price<div>Income</div><div>Fashion/tastes/preferences</div><div>Advertising &amp; branding</div><div>External shocks</div><div>Seasonal factors</div><div>Substitutes and complementary goods</div>
What does a shift to the right indicate?An increase in demand
What does a shift to the left indicate?A decrease in demand
How does consumer incomes affect the demand for necessities?Stays the same (inelastic)
How does consumer incomes affect the demand for luxuries?Higher income = more demand for luxuries (elastic)
How does consumer incomes affect the demand for inferior goods?Higher incomes = lower demand because customers may switch to better quality products
What is a complementary good and give an exampleBought alongside a good/service, fish and chips
What type of correlation is there for complementary goods?Negative, price of good A increases = demand for good B decreases
What is a substitute product and give an exampleAlternative which creates competition, Coca Cola and Pepsi
What type of correlation is there for substitute products?Positive, price of good A increases = demand of good B increases
What is supply?The quantity of a good or service that a producer is willing and able to supply onto the market at a given price in a given time period
What is the basic law of supply?Supply varies directly with price
What causes a movement along the supply curve?Change in price
What causes a shift of the supply curve?Change in any other factor
What does a shift to the right indicate?Increase in supply
What does a shift to the left indicate?Decrease in supply
What are the causes of change in supply?Costs of production<div>External shocks<br>New technology<div>Indirect taxation<div>Subsidies</div></div></div>
What are subsidies?Finance provided by the government to encourage suppliers to produce goods and services by making it cheaper to make a product
What is the difference between taxation and indirect taxation?Taxation is a charge placed on individuals or firms, indirect is placed on goods and services
What is a market?Where buyers and sellers interact with the aim of purchasing and selling goods and services
What is market equilibrium?When there is a balance between demand and supply in a market
What is the difference between market demand and market supply?Market demand is the total quantity (volume) demanded for a product in a market by all customers and market supply is the total quantity supplied to a market by suppliers
How is market equilibrium seen on a supply and demand diagram?The point where the supply and demand curve cross
What is equilibrium price known as?Market clearing price - all products will be sold at this price
What will a change in demand or supply do to the equilibrium price?Make a new one
How does an increase in demand affect equilibrium price and quantity?Higher equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity
How does a decrease in demand affect equilibrium price and quantity?Lower equilibrium price and quantity
How does an increase in supply affect equilibrium price and quantity?Lower equilibrium price and higher equilibrium quantity
How does a decrease in supply affect equilibrium price and quantity?Higher equilibrium price and lower equilibrium quantity
What will excess supply force businesses to do and why?Lower prices because it is better to sell at a lower price than not at all
What will excess demand signal businesses to do?Raise prices to generate more profit
What is the structure of a CAT scan machine?Large doughnut shape with one x-ray source and many detectors
In a CAT scan, what do the detectors measure?Amount of radiation being absorbed through the brain
How are images formed in a CAT scan?Detectors are rotated around the patient which takes a large number of images
How is a composite detailed 3D image of the brain formed by a CAT scan?Large number of images are combined by computer software
What do CAT scans detect?Bleeding, brain injury and tumours, enlarged brain cavities and diseases, malformations or fractures of the skull
Strengths of CAT scansNot painful and non-invasive<div>Very detailed images of physical structures of the brain</div><div>Less sensitive to patient movement</div><div>Can be performed with an implanted medical device</div>
Weaknesses of CAT scansExposure to radiation, slight chance of cancer<div>Precise details of soft tissue is less visible - less sensitive</div>
What is injected into the body in PET scans and why?Radiotracer - radioactive glucose<div>Accumulates in areas where glucose is being used (active parts of the brain)</div>
What type of energy does radiotracer give off and how is it sensed?Gamma rays are sensed by multiple rings of detectors
How are coloured images created in PET scans?By special cameras and computer software
What details do the coloured images in PET scans give?Tissue function at a cellular level
What processes do PET scans focus on showing?Physiological (rates of metabolism)
What are hotspots?Areas of greater intensity where large amounts of radiotracer have accumulated which means there is a high level of chemical or metabolic activity, they are yellow and red
What are coldspots?Areas of lower intensity where smaller amounts of radiotracer have accumulated which means there is a low level of chemical or metabolic activity, they are green and blue
What are PET scans performed to do?Evaluate brain abnormalities (tumours, memory disorders, seizures) and map normal human brain function
Strengths of PET scansValid measures of important brain functions (blood flow, oxygen use, metabolism)<div>Replicable results, high reliability</div><div>Painless expect from injection</div><div>Small amounts of radiotracer decay naturally</div>
Weaknesses of PET scansDoesn't tell us exactly which parts of brain are active - low resolution and validity<div>Complex images are open to bias/error in interpretation, low validity</div><div>Radiation risk</div>
What is a multifactorial disease?When many factors contribute to its development
What are risk factors of CVD?Genetic predisposition<div>Stress<br><div>High salt intake</div><div>High saturated fat intake</div><div>Excessive alcohol intake</div><div>Age</div><div>Gender</div><div>High blood pressure</div><div>Smoking</div><div>Inactivity</div><div>Obesity</div></div>
How does genetic predisposition increase the risk of developing CVD?Mutations in apoliprotein gene cluster and LDLR gene
How does high salt intake increase the risk of developing CVD?Kidneys retain water which increases blood fluid levels, higher blood pressure = damage to artery endothelium = atherosclerosis
How does excessive alcohol intake increase the risk of developing CVD?Raises blood pressure, contributes to obesity, damage to liver which impairs the ability to remove glucose and lipids from blood, converted into ethanal which can be incorporated into very low density lipoproteins which increases the risk of plaque formation
How does high saturated fat intake increase the risk of developing CVD?Increases LDL blood cholesterol levels, which increases the risk of cholesterol being deposited in artery walls, risk of atherosclerosis
How does age increase the risk of developing CVD?Loss of elasticity and easier damage to arteries, higher blood pressure = atherosclerosis
How does gender increase the risk of developing CVD?Lower risk in females before menopause due to protective mechanism caused by a woman's reproductive hormones (especially oestrogen)
How does high blood pressure increase the risk of developing CVD?Increases risk of damage to endothelium of artery wall which increases the risk of atherosclerosis
How does smoking increase the risk of developing CVD?Carbon monoxide is carried by haemoglobin instead of oxygen, reducing oxygen supply to cells, increasing heart rate<div>Nicotine stimulates adrenaline production which increases heart rate and vasoconstriction which lead to higher blood pressure = damage to artery endothelium = atherosclerosis</div><div>Chemicals in smoke damage artery lining = atherosclerosis</div><div>Reduces HDL cholesterol level and antioxidants</div>
How does inactivity increase the risk of developing CVD?Leads to energy imbalance, causing weight gain and obesity which can lead to high blood pressure, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis
How does obesity increase the risk of developing CVD?Increases blood pressure - damage to artery endothelium<div>Increases blood cholesterol levels - formation of atheromas</div><div>Increases risk of type II diabetes</div>
What is the title of this experiment?The effect of caffeine on the heart rate of Daphnia
What is the independent variable?Caffeine concentration
What are the suitable ranges for the independent variables?0.1% and 0.5%
What is used as a control?Pond water and distilled water
Why are control variables used?For comparison
What is the dependent variable?Heart rate of the Daphnia
How do you measure the dependent variable?Count the number of beats in 15 seconds (dots on paper) and x 4 to get beats per minute<div>Use a microscope to see the heart</div>
Which organism (Daphnia) variables should be controlled and how?Age - from eggs hatched at the same time<div>Species - from same parent</div>
Which environmental variables should be controlled and how?Temperature - use heat shield
Which procedural variables should be controlled and how?Volume of caffeine solution - 0.25cm3 using a graduated pipette<div>Acclimatisation time - 5 minutes using stop clock</div>
What repeats should be carried out and how many?We did 3 repeats for each caffeine concentration - ideally you should do 5
How is the investigation made reliable?Repeats were carried out to identify anomalies and calculate a mean - anomalies should be discarded and repeated
How is the investigation made valid?Repeats were carried out and variables were controlled<div>We could also improve validity by using smaller intervals and a larger sample size</div>
Ethical issues surrounding use of DaphniaUnethical to use any living organisms in an experiment<div>Undeveloped nervous system so they don't feel pain - how can we be sure what the Daphnia feel</div><div>Absolutism - promote the use of invertebrates under any or no circumstances</div><div>Relativism - acceptable to use invertebrates under certain circumstances</div>
Why is Daphnia a good organism to use?Transparent = heart is visible<div>Invertebrate with simple nervous system = may not feel pain</div>
State each step of the method1) Heart rate determined in pond water before treatment<div>2) Daphnia put into caffeine solution on slide and allowed to acclimatise</div><div>3) Place on cavity slide with cotton wool strands under microscope</div><div>4) Count heart rate/beats in 15 seconds by putting a dot on paper each time the heart beats and x 4 to give bpm</div><div>5) Carry out for different caffeine concentrations</div><div>6) Repeat 5 times for each caffeine concentration</div>
Why is heart rate determined before treatment?To give a resting heart rate to allow for comparison to see if caffeine has an effect
Why is Daphnia allowed to acclimatise?To allow time for caffeine to diffuse from solution into Daphnia, in order for it to have an effect on heart rate
Why is Daphnia placed on a cavity slide with cotton wool strands under a microscope?Cavity slide - depression helps drop of solution stay on slide<div>Cotton wool strands - restrict Daphnia movement</div><div>Microscope - heart can be seen more clearly so counting can be more accurate</div>
Why is heart rate counted in 15 seconds instead of 1 minute?Very high heart rate makes it difficult to count - less chance of error if counted in 15 seconds
Why are different caffeine concentrations used?To allow a trend to be established
Why should you repeat 5 times for each caffeine concentration?To identify anomalies and calculate mean heart rate - increase reliability
What does standard deviation tell us?How far on average any data point is from the mean
What does a small standard deviation indicate?The scores are closer on average to the mean
What does a large standard deviation indicate?The scores are more widely spread out on average from the mean
What is more reliable and valid; a small or large standard deviation?Small
What does it mean if the standard deviation range bars overlap?The data sets may not be significantly different which affects the validity of the conclusion, results may be due to chance
How is standard deviation calculated?Calculate the mean and write down the number of values (n)<div>Subtract the mean from each value</div><div>Square each one</div><div>Add them all together</div><div>Divide it by the degrees of freedom (n-1) = variance</div><div>Square root the variance</div>
What are lipids?Organic molecules found in every type of cell
Are lipids insoluble or soluble in water?Insoluble
What are lipids soluble in?Organic solvents (ethanol)
What is the most common form of lipid that we eat?Triglycerides
How are triglycerides used?As energy stores in plants and animals
What 2 molecules are triglycerides made up from?Fatty acids and glycerol
What is the structure of glycerol?Saturated hydrocarbon chain with OH groups on one side<div>C3H8O3</div>
What is the structure of a fatty acid?Hydrocarbon chain (hydrogen and carbon) with a carboxyl group/carboxylic acid group on one end (COOH)
Outline fMRI scans methodDetects the change in blood oxygen levels in specific areas of the brain via radio signals to determine neural activity
Outline CAT scans methodScans the brain using x-rays on a rotating system to produce a 3D structural image of the brain
Outline PET scans methodUses a radioactive tracer which binds to glucose and can be detected using a scanner that detects radioactive emission to determine neural activity
Name the independent variableType of juice
How is the independent variable varied?Orange and grapefruit juice
Name the dependent variableVitamin C concentration
Which organism variables should be controlled?Freshly squeezed/from concentrate juice<div>Storage time and temperature before investigation</div>
Which environmental variables should be controlled and how?Temperature - solutions taken out of fridge at same time
Which procedural variables should be controlled and how?Volume of DCPIP - 5cm3 with graduated pipette<div>Concentration of DCPIP - 0.05%</div>
How many repeats should be carried out?For titrations only, repeat until concordant results are obtained (results are within 0.01cm3 of each other)
How is the investigation made reliable?Repeats were carried out to identify anomalies and calculate a mean<div>Anomalies should be discarded and repeated</div><div>Repeat until concordant results are obtained</div>
How is the investigation made valid?Repeats were carried out and variables were controlled<div>We could improve the validity by using more vitamin C concentrations on calibration curve</div>
What is a safety hazard and a procedure taken to minimise it?DCPIP may irritate eyes - wear safety goggles
State the steps in the method1) Extract the juice from the fruit<div>2) Titrate juice into DCPIP</div><div>3) Look for colour change e.g. from blue to colourless and record volume of juice used</div><div>4) Repeat 2 more times and calculate mean volume of juice used</div><div>5) Use a calibration (standard) curve to determine vitamin C concentration</div>
Why is juice extracted from the fruit?Juice can be titrated but fruit cannot
Why is juice titrated into DCPIP?Vitamin C in juice provides electrons which reduce DCPIP
Why is a colour change looked for and volume of juice used recorded?Gives volume of juice used to decolourise DCPIP, so that this volume can be read off a standard curve
Why is the experiment repeated then a mean calculated?Improves reliability and allows anomalies to be identified
Why is a calibration curve used to determine vitamin C concentration?Calibration curve has been constructed using solutions with a known vitamin C concentration
What is DCPIP?An indicator which changes from blue (oxidised) to colourless (reduced)
Describe OILRIGOxidation<div>Is</div><div>Loss</div><div>Reduction</div><div>Is</div><div>Gain</div><div>of electrons</div>
What does vitamin C in fruit juice provide the DCPIP?Electrons for the reduction of DCPIP so a colour change from blue to colourless can occur
How is vitamin C content of juice indicated?Looking at how much juice it takes to decolourise a known volume of DCPIP
What does it mean if there is more vitamin C present in a sample of fruit juice?More electrons are provided and a lower volume of juice is needed to reduce the DCPIP&nbsp;
What is an epidemiologist?Scientists who study patterns in the occurrence of disease and look for and investigate correlations between a disease and risk factors
What are the two types of study?Cohort and case-control
Is a cohort study prospective or retrospective and why?Prospective because none of the participants had the disease at the start
Is a case-control study prospective or retrospective and why?Retrospective because we identify what could have contributed to the disease by looking back in time
What are the 7 things needed when designing a good study?Clear aim<div>Representative sample</div><div>Large sample size</div><div>Validity</div><div>Relaibility</div><div>Control variables</div><div>Control group</div>
Why is a clear aim needed?To design the study to be able to answer the hypothesis and produce reliable and valid results
Why is a representative sample important?Must come from wider population for who the results of the study will be applied to, avoid selection bias
Why is a large sample size important?Must be large enough to produce results that could not have occurred by chance<div>Makes data more reliable, allowing better statistical analysis</div><div>Higher probability of identifying a rare risk factor</div>
What is validity and how is it achieved?If the study measures what it set out to measure<div>Control variables were included and a large sample size was used</div>
What is reliability and how is it achieved?The results are repeatable and reproducible - low standard deviation<div>Larger sample size provides better reliability as it reduces difference due to genetic variation in the sample</div>
Why are control variables needed?So the independent variable being investigated in the study (the risk factor) is the only variable contributing to the development of the disease
Why is a control group needed?For comparison
What is a monosaccharide?Monomer of carbohydrates, single sugar unit
What is the general formula of a monosaccharide?(CH2O)n
Name the 3 elements that make up carbohydratesCarbon, hydrogen and oxygen
What is a hexose sugar?A monosaccharide with 6 carbons
Name the 3 monosaccharidesGlucose, galactose and fructose
Function of glucoseImmediate energy source which is released in respiration
What can glucoses be joined to form?Starch and glycogen
Function of galactoseA component of the disaccharide lactose which is found in milk
Function of fructoseVery sweet sugar which attracts animals to eat the fruit to help with seed dispersal
Why do monosaccharides provide a rapid source of energy?Readily absorbed - require little/no change before being used in cellular respiration
Are monosaccharides soluble or insoluble and why?Soluble because hydroxyl groups (OH) can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules
What is a disaccharide composed of?2 single sugar units joined together with a glycosidic bond formed by a condensation reaction
How are disaccharides formed?Condensation reactions
Describe a condensation reactionA water molecule is released when 2 sugar molecules combine and a glycosidic bond is formed
Name the 3 disaccharidesMaltose, sucrose and lactose
What monosaccharides is maltose made up from?Glucose + glucose
What monosaccharides is sucrose made up from?Glucose + fructose
What monosaccharides is lactose made up from?Glucose + galactose
Function of maltoseFound in germinating seeds (when starch is broken down by the enzyme amylase)
Function of sucroseUsed for transporting energy in plants (transport sugar in phloem)
Function of lactoseSugar in milk for energy
Describe a hydrolysis reactionReverse of condensation, water is added to the glycosidic bond and the disaccharide splits into 2 monosaccharides
What is a polysaccharide?Many single sugar units joined together with glycosidic bonds formed in condensation reactions
Are polysaccharides soluble or insoluble in water?Not very soluble
Name the 3 polysaccharides and where they are foundStarch - plants<div>Cellulose - plants</div><div>Glycogen - animals</div>
What polysaccharide is an energy storage molecule in animals?Glycogen
What polysaccharide is an energy storage molecule in plants?Starch
Which polysaccharides are made from alpha or beta glucose?Alpha - starch and glycogen<div>Beta - cellulose</div>
Is glycogen branched or unbranched?Branched
Which type of glycosidic bonds join glucoses in glycogen?1,4 and 1,6
Which type of glycosidic bonds join glucoses in cellulose?1,4
Is cellulose branched or unbranched?Unbranched
What is the function of cellulose?Provides strength in plant cell wall
What 2 polysaccharides is starch made up from?Amylose and amylopectin
Is amylose branched or unbranched?Unbranched but helical
Is amylopectin unbranched or branched?Branched
Which type of glycosidic bonds join glucoses in amylopectin?1,4 and 1,6
Which type of glycosidic bonds join glucoses in amylose?1,4
What is responsible for the amylose chain coiling to form a spiral?The position of the glycosidic bonds between adjacent glucose molecules
Why are side branches important?Allows polysaccharide to be rapidly hydrolysed, giving quick access to stored energy
What reaction and bond joins fatty acids and glycerol?Condensation reaction, ester bond
How many bonds and water molecules are created to make a triglyceride?3
Benefits of market segmentationMost and least profitable customers can be identified<div>Advertising can be targeted at specific market segments</div><div>Least profitable markets can be avoided</div><div>Easier to identify new products</div>
What is cellulose known as in terms of diet?Dietary fibre
What are the 3 main structural features of saturated fatty acids?Long &amp; straight<div>Maximum number of hydrogen atoms</div><div>No carbon to carbon double bonds</div>
Are saturated fats solid or liquid at room temperature?Solid because chains can pack tightly together which makes strong intermolecular bonds
What are sources of saturated fatty acids?Animal fats from meat and dairy
What are the two main types of unsaturated fatty acids?Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated
What is the difference between monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats?Monounsaturated fats have one double bond between between 2 of the carbon atoms in a hydrocarbon chain whereas polyunsaturated fats have a larger number of carbon-carbon double bonds in the hydrocarbon chain
What do double bonds cause?A kink in the hydrocarbon chain
Are unsaturated fatty acids liquid or solid at room temperature?Liquid because kinks prevent unsaturated hydrocarbon chains packing closely together therefore an increased distance weakens the intermolecular forces
What are sources of unsaturated fatty acids?Olive and vegetable oil, nuts and fish
Is cholesterol soluble or insoluble in water and why?Insoluble because C-H bonds are non-polar so no hydrogen bonding can take place (hydrophobic)
How can cholesterol be transported in the bloodstream?Combine with proteins to form soluble lipoproteins
What are the two forms of lipoproteins?LDL (low density lipoprotein) and HDL (high density lipoprotein)
What 3 molecules combine to form LDL?Triglycerides, cholesterol and protein
What 3 molecules combine to form HDL?Triglycerides, cholesterol and protein (higher % protein, lower % cholesterol)
Which type of fat in triglyceride does LDL have?Saturated
Which type of fat in triglyceride does HDL have?Unsaturated
What is the role of LDL in cholesterol transport?Transport cholesterol from liver to body tissues where cholesterol binds to LDL receptors on cell membranes to be taken up by cells
What is the role of HDL in cholesterol transport?Transport cholesterol from body tissues to the liver where it is broken down
What is the effect of LDL on atherosclerosis?Excess LDLs in blood overload LDLRs so blood cholesterol levels increase<div>Cholesterol may be deposited in artery walls forming atheromas</div>
What is the effect of HDL on atherosclerosis?Helps remove lipid from atherosclerotic plaques
What two events may happen when there is an excess of LDL in the blood?Overload LDLR (low density lipoprotein receptors) resulting in high blood cholesterol levels<div>May be deposited in the artery wall forming atheromas</div>
What is the consequence of having saturated fat in your diet?Increases LDL and HDL cholesterol, greater increase in LDL<div>Decreases LDLR activity</div>
What is the consequence of having polyunsaturated fat in your diet?Decreases LDL and HDL cholesterol, greater decrease in LDL
What does elasticity measure?The responsiveness of demand to a change to price or income
What relationship is there between price and demand?Inverse
What does price elasticity of demand measure?The extent to which the quantity of a product demanded is affected by a change in price
How is PED calculated?% change in quantity demanded / % change in price
Why will the PED always be a negative value?Price and demand are in an inverse relationship
If the PED is between 0 and -1, is the demand elastic or inelastic?Inelastic
What does price inelastic demand mean?Change in price will lead to a less than proportional change in demand (demand is not sensitive to price changes)
If PED is greater than 1, is the demand price elastic or inelastic?Elastic
What does price elastic demand mean?Change in price will lead to a more than proportional change in demand (demand is sensitive to price changes)
What is it called when the PED is exactly -1?Unitary price elasticity (change in demand = change in price)
Explain the factors that affect PEDBrand strength - strong brand loyalty = inelastic<div>Amount of competition there is for the same type of products - lots of competition = elastic</div><div>Necessity - more necessary = inelastic</div><div>Habit - more of a habit = inelastic</div><div>Availability of substitutes - lots of alternatives = elastic</div><div>Time - short term price changes = less elastic than long term</div><div>The proportion of income spent on a product - small proportion of income = inelastic</div>
How do you convert decimals to fractions?By using place value
How do you convert decimals to percentages?x 100
How do you simplify ratios?Divide all numbers by the same value until they are at their smallest
How do you round numbers?Look at the number to the right of the degree of accuracy then decide whether to round up or down<div>5 or more round up, 4 or less stays the same</div>
When is 0 a significant figure and not?Significant figure after other significant figures because its a place holder (30594)<div>Not a significant figure when its the before other significant figures (0.0598)</div>
How do you write standard form?A x 10^n<div>A is between 1 and 10</div><div>n tells us how many places to move the decimal point (negative is to the left, positive is to the right)</div>
How do you add and subtract numbers in standard form?Convert into normal numbers then do the calculation
How do you multiply and divide numbers in standard form?Multiply powers you add, divide powers you subtract
What do descriptive statistics do?Describe main trends in the data
Define measures of central tendencyValue in a group of values which is the most typical for the data set
What are the 3 types of measures of central tendency?Mean, median and mode
What is the mean and how is it calculated?Average<div>Sum of values / number of values</div>
What is the median and how is it calculated?Central value<div>Put numbers in order from lowest to highest and select the middle value (if there are 2 find the mean)</div>
What is the mode?Most frequently occurring value or category
Strengths of the modeNot distorted by skewed data<div>Can be used in frequency counts with mutually exclusive categories</div>
Strength of medianNot distorted by skewed data - more representative
Strength of meanAll information in a data set is used - most sensitive, representative and powerful
Limitations of modeNot sensitive to the exact value of each item in the data set - less representative<div>Not useful when data has many modes</div><div>Small changes in the data set can radically alter the mode if there are only a few scores representing each value</div>
Limitations of medianLess sensitive to the exact value of each item in the data set<div>Less meaningful with very small sets of data</div><div>Not meaningful in frequency counts with mutually exclusive categories</div>
Limitations of meanSensitive to the exact value of item in the data set - distorted when an extreme score is presented<div>Cannot be used in frequency counts with mutually exclusive categories</div><div>Doesn't reflect real life</div>
Define measures of dispersionMeasure whether scores are clustered closely around the mean or scattered widely
What are the 2 types of measures of dispersion?Range and standard deviation
What is the range?Difference between highest and lowest value
What is standard deviation?How much on average each of the scores in a set of data deviate from the mean
Strength of rangeQuick and easy to calculate
Limitation of standard deviationNot quick and easy to calculate
Limitations of rangeLess effective with skewed data<div>Rough estimate of dispersion - doesn't tell us much about the spread of data</div>
Strengths of standard deviationMost sensitive, representative and powerful measure of dispersion - all data is used<div>Less distorted by skewed data</div>
Why are tables, graphs and charts used?To provide a visual summary of patterns/trends in data
What is raw data?The original data that has had nothing done to it
Which axis does the dependent variable go on?Y-axis
Which axis does the independent variable go on?X-axis
When are frequency tables used?When lots of data needs to be sorted into categories - observations
What does a frequency diagram show?Frequencies for different groups
What are bar charts used for?Comparing data that falls into categories
How is a pie chart made?(Score / total) x 360
What is a scatter diagram used for?To show a relationship between two variables
Do points on a scatter diagram join up?No, only plotted
What do histograms do?Summarise data that is measured on an interval scale by representing frequency with the area of the rectangles
What is on the y-axis of a histogram?Frequency density
Are there gaps between histograms?No
How is frequency density calculated?Frequency / class width
What is the base length of a histogram equal to?Range of values in class interval
Describe a normal distributionBell shaped curved<div>Perfectly symmetrical</div><div>Mean, median and mode are all in the middle</div>
Describe a positively skewed distributionMode &lt; median &lt; mean
Describe a negatively skewed distributionMean &lt; median &lt; mode
Advantage of continuous samplingRecords every instance of behaviour
Where is cholesterol found?In cell membranes
What is the function of cholesterol?Regulate fluidity
What was energy traditionally measured in?calories
Define calorieQuantity of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1cm^3 of water by 1'C (specific heat capacity)
What is 1000 calories equal to?1 kilocalorie or 1 Calorie
What is the scientific unit for energy?J
How many joules is 1 calorie equal to?4.18J
How many joules are equal to 1 Calorie?4180
What are the 2 obesity indicators?BMI and waist-to-hip ratio
How is BMI calculated?Mass (kg) / height^2 (m^2)
What are the units for BMI?kg/m^2
What is the lowest boundary for being overweight?25.0
When is BMI not accurate?For athletes, children and people over 60
What is the basal metabolic rate?Energy needed for essential body processes (pumping of heart, breathing)
When is BMR higher?For males, younger people, heavier people and more active people
When can someone become underweight?Eating fewer kJ per day than used (negative energy balance)<div>Input: illness, eating disorder</div><div>Use: excessive exercise, stress, high BMR</div>
When can someone become overweight?Eating more kJ per day than used (positive energy balance)<div>Input: overeating/drinking</div><div>Use: low exercise</div>
What will excess energy be stored as?Glycogen or fat
How is waist-to-hip ratio calculated?Waist circumference (cm) / hip circumference (cm)
What should waist-to-hip ratio be for men and women?&lt;0.90 for men<div>&lt;0.85 for women</div>
List 5 conditions that obesity leads toCoronary heart disease<div>Stroke</div><div>Type II diabetes</div><div>Hypertension</div><div>Higher blood cholesterol levels</div>
Describe coronary heart diseaseNarrowing of coronary arteries, increased risk of blood clot blocking them and reducing blood flow and oxygen to heart muscle
Describe a strokeReduced blood flow and oxygen to brain tissue as a result of the narrowing of arteries
Describe type II diabetesReduced sensitivity of insulin receptors
Describe hypertensionDamage to endothelium of artery wall, increases risk of atherosclerosis
Describe higher blood cholesterol levelsIncreased risk of atheromas forming leading to atherosclerosis and narrow lumen
When are antihypertensive drugs prescribed?Blood pressure exceeding 160/100
What do antihypertensive drugs do?Reduce high blood pressure
What are the 3 main types of antihypertensive drugs?ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers and diuretics
How do ACE inhibitors work?Inhibits synthesis of angiotensin II from angiotensin I which reduces vasoconstriction and blood pressure
What are side effects of ACE inhibitors?Dry cough &amp; dizziness
How do calcium channel blockers work?Block entry of calcium ions into smooth muscle cells of artery so muscles can't contract and vasoconstriction can't occur so blood pressure is lowered
What are side effects of calcium channel blockers?Headaches &amp; swollen ankles
How do diuretics work?Increase volume of urine produced by kidneys which decreases blood plasma volume and cardiac output which lowers blood pressure
What are side effects of diuretics?Muscle cramps &amp; nausea
What do statins do?Lower blood cholesterol
How do statins work?Inhibit an enzyme called HMG-CoA which is involved in the production of LDL cholesterol by the liver
What are side effects of statins?Tiredness &amp; muscle weakness
What do anticoagulants do?Prevent blood clots forming which reduces the risk of an artery becoming blocked
Give an example of an anticoagulantWarfarin
How does warfarin work?Interferes with the production of vitamin K which inhibits the blood clotting process
What is the side effect of warfarin?Serious bleeding
Give examples of platelet inhibitorsAspirin &amp; clopidogrel&nbsp;
How do aspirin and clopidogrel work?Reduce stickiness of platelets which prevents blood clots (they can be used in combination)
What are the side effects of aspirin and clopidogrel?Stomach bleeding &amp; serious bleeding
Define the design mixRange of features that are important when designing a product
What are the 3 features of the design mix?Aesthetics, function and cost
What is the difference between goods and services?Goods are physical/tangible and services are non-physical/intangible
Describe functionIf the product/service fulfilled the primary purpose for which the consumer purchased, including additional features that add value and develop a USP
Describe aestheticsLook and feel of the product
Describe costsIf the design allows the product to be made and sold profitably
Which changes are made to the design mix to reflect social trends?Concern over resource depletion<div>Waste minimisation, re-use and recycling</div><div>Ethical sourcing</div>
Define resource depletionUse of natural resources quicker than their rate of replenishment
Describe the difference between renewable and non-renewable resourcesRenewable can be replenished<div>Non-renewable are in finite supply and will run out</div>
Give an example of a renewable resourceWood
Give examples of non-renewable resourcesOil and natural gas
Define ethical sourcingBuying materials from suppliers that are behaving in a morally correct manner
Give examples of ethical sourcingFair trade, sustainable sources and organic farming
What is a brand?A product that is easily distinguished from other products and can be easily communicated and effectively marketed
What is branding?Promotional method that involves the creation of an identity of a business that distinguishes that firm and its products from other firms
What are the key benefits of strong branding?Adds value - higher prices<div>Builds customer loyalty - repeat purchases</div><div>Inelastic price elasticity of demand</div>
What are the 7 types of branding?Product<div>Multiple</div><div>Umbrella</div><div>Corporate</div><div>Own label</div><div>Personal</div><div>Global</div>
Give examples and describe product brandingSingle product that is recognised by that name (Jacuzzi, Marmite, Pot Noodle)
Give examples and describe multiple brandingBusiness uses a range of different brand names for its products (VW owns Audi, SEAT, Bentley and Skodia)
Give examples and describe umbrella brandingBusiness that uses the same brand name for a range of different but related products (Hoover, Dyson, Cadbury)
Give examples and describe corporate brandingName of the business is the brand (Microsoft, Facebook)
Give examples and describe own label brandingCommon amongst supermarkets to compete with 'name' brands (Tesco Finest, Waitrose Essentials)
Give examples and describe personal brandingIndividuals who have become their own brand (Stella McCartney, Victoria Beckham, Bobbi Brown)
Give examples and describe global brandingEasily recognisable and operating worldwide (Ikea, McDonalds, Coca-Cola)
How can a brand be built?Create a USP<div>Promotional mix</div>
What is promotion designed to do?Inform customers and potential customers about the product or service and convince them to buy it
What is the promotional mix?Combination of promotional activities that a firm uses in order to create customer awareness and generate sales
What factors affect the choice of promotional mix?Type and size of business and market<div><div>Promotional budget</div><div>Mass or niche market</div><div>Profile of target customers</div></div>
What are the 6 types of promotion?Advertising<div>Sales offers</div><div>Digital</div><div>Sponsorship</div><div>Direct sales</div><div>Public relations</div>
Give examples and describe advertisingInforms and persuades, designed to increase sales (TV, radio, billboards)
Give examples and describe sales offersShort term sales techniques designed to lower the price to encourage consumers to buy (BOGOF, free samples, discounts)
Give examples and describe digital advertisingAimed at users of the internet (social media, online advertising, viral marketing)
Give examples and describe sponsorshipsFinancially supporting an event, activity or person (sport events)
Give examples and describe direct salesDirect contact between a sales person and consumers (door to door, telephone, leaflets)
Describe public relationsProviding press and media with information about the company
Advantage of advertisingLikely to be seen by a large number of people
Disadvantages of advertisingDifficult to know if it's effective<div>Expensive to produce</div><div>Can be skipped</div>
Advantage of sales offersReduced prices are a powerful incentive to purchase
Disadvantage of sales offersConsumers may take advantage of cheaper prices and wait for next sales offer
Advantages of digital advertisingCheap<div>Reach large numbers of people</div><div>Quickly go viral</div>
Disadvantages of digital advertisingLots of competition<div>Using social media to advertise products can be viewed as unethical</div>
Advantages of sponsorshipCan reach a wide range of people<div>Raises image and reputation of business</div>
Disadvantage of sponsorshipCan be very expensive
Advantage of direct salesMessage can be adapted to suit different types of consumers
Disadvantage of direct salesViewed as junk mail or nuisance phone calls
Advantage of public relationsCheaper than adverts
Disadvantage of public relationsDifficult to control what is said
What are examples of designing for waste minimisation, re-use and recycling?<div>Refillable packs<br></div><div>Recyclable packaging<br></div>
What are proteins made up from?Amino acids
How many different amino acids are there?20
How do plants and animals differ in the amino acids they can each make?Plants can make all amino aids but animals can only make some
What are the amino acids that animals have to obtain from their diet know as?Essential amino acids
Describe the structure of an amino acidCentral carbon<div>Hydrogen atom above the central carbon</div><div>Carboxylic acid group beside the central carbon (COOH)</div><div>Amine group beside the central carbon (NH2)</div><div>Residual group (R group/side chain) below the central carbon</div>
Which part of an amino acid changes for each different one?R group/side chain
Which reaction joins 2 amino acids?Condensation reaction
What is formed when 2 amino acids are joined?Dipeptide
What bond is formed between 2 amino acids?Peptide bond
Where does the condensation reaction happen between amino acids?Amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another
What is released during a condensation reaction?Water molecule
What is a protein made up of and how is it formed?One or more polypeptide chains<div>Several amino acids joining together</div>
What are the structures of a protein?Primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary
What is the primary structure?Specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
What bonds are formed in the primary structure?Peptide
What is the secondary structure?Interactions between amino acids form an alpha helix or a beta pleated sheet
What type of bond is formed in the secondary structure and what between?Hydrogen, between slightly negative C=O and slightly positive N-H which lie above and below each other
What is the tertiary structure?Further folding of the secondary structure into a precise/specific 3D shape
What type of bonds can be formed in the tertiary structure and what between?Disulphide or ionic or hydrogen, between R groups
What type of bonds can be formed in the quaternary structure and what between?Disulphide or ionic or hydrogen, between R groups
What is the quaternary structure?Three-dimensional arrangement involving more than one polypeptide chain
Why is the secondary structure stable?Cumulative effect of hydrogen bonds makes it stable
Where are disulphide bonds formed between?Two cysteine R groups
Where are ionic bonds formed between?Positively and negatively charged R groups
Where are hydrogen bonds formed between?Every fourth amino acid
When is a molecule described as a protein?When the three-dimensional structure is functional
Where would polar R groups be found in a protein and why?On surface because they are hydrophilic and attract other polar molecules
Where would non-polar R groups be found on a protein and why?Inside because they are hydrophobic and repel polar molecules
What are conjugated proteins?Protein with another non-protein chemical (prosthetic) group associated with their polypeptide chain/s
Give examples of conjugated proteinsGlycoproteins<div>Lipoproteins</div><div>Haemoglobin</div>
Function of glycoproteinsAct as receptors on cell membranes
Function of lipoproteinsTransport cholesterol
Function of haemoglobinBinds oxygen in red blood cells
What is the shape of fibrous proteins?Polypeptide chain/s made up of many amino acids remains as a long chain
What is the shape of globular proteins?Polypeptide chain/s made up of many amino acids are folded into a compact spherical shape
Do fibrous proteins have tertiary structure?No or a little bit
Do globular proteins have tertiary structure?Yes and some have quaternary structure
Which type of protein has repetitive sequences of amino acids?Fibrous
Are fibrous proteins soluble or insoluble and why?Insoluble because they have hydrophobic R groups on outside
Are globular proteins soluble or insoluble and why?Soluble because they have hydrophobic R groups on inside and hydrophilic on outside
What is the important role of fibrous proteins?Structure in organisms
What is the important role of globular proteins?Metabolic reactions
Give examples of fibrous proteinsCollagen<div>Fibrin</div><div>Keratin</div>
Give examples of globular proteinsEnzymes<div>Thrombin</div><div>Fibrinogen and prothrombin</div><div>Haemoglobin</div>
Function of collagenStrengthens the walls of arteries and veins
Function of fibrinForms the insoluble mesh which traps red blood cells and platelets to form a blood clot
Function of keratinIn hair, skin and horns
Function of enzymesIncrease the rate of chemical reactions in cells
Function of thrombinEnzyme which converts fibrinogen into fibrin
Function of fibrinogen and prothrombinPlasma proteins needed for the blood clotting process
What are the 3 types of levels of measurement?Nominal, ordinal and interval
What happens when interval level of data is converted to ordinal or nominal level of data?Information is lost
What is the most informative level of measurement?Interval
What is the least informative level of measurement?Nominal
Describe nominal level of dataFrequency counts in mutually exclusive categories
Give an example of nominal level of dataTally chart from observation
Describe ordinal level of dataData is put into an order and the exact difference between each point on the scale is unknown
Give an example of ordinal level of dataRanking scales
Describe interval level of dataScale of units with equal intervals
Give an example of interval level of dataReaction time
What are mutually exclusive categories?Categories that don't overlap so data is put into one category or another
What is ratio level of measurement and give an exampleInterval scale in which it is impossible to get a negative value, reaction time
What 2 things are written at the start of research?Alternate and null hypothesis
What does an alternate hypothesis predict?Results will be significant
What does a null hypothesis predict?Results will be due to chance (not significant)
What is the purpose of inferential statistical tests?To help researchers assess the probability that the difference or correlation observed in the results is statistically significant or not
What are the 4 inferential statistical tests?Chi - Squared<div>Wilcoxon Signed ranks</div><div>Mann - Whitney U</div><div>Spearman's rho correlation coefficient</div>
What is the traditional level of significance?"5% level (p<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Arial, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 20.16px;"">≤0.05)</span>"
"What does p<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Arial, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 20.16px;"">≤0.05 mean?</span>"The probability of the results having occurred by chance is less than or equal to 5%
What will have to be accepted if the probability of the results occurring due to chance is greater than the level of significance?Null hypothesis - any difference or correlation seen in the results was due to chance
What is the observed value?Statistical tests turn all of the results into one value
What is the critical value?Pre-calculated value in a table of values that represents the value of the statistical test we are doing which the observed value is compared to in order to accept significance
When is a statement of significance written?Once the researcher has interpreted results of the inferential statistics
What does a statement of significance explain?Whether the null hypothesis was accepted or rejected and a justification for the decision
What do statements of significance include?The observed and critical values used and which was bigger<div>The sample size</div><div>The significance level used</div><div>Whether the one or two tailed test was used</div><div>Which hypothesis was accepted</div>
What is the significance level?Probability of results having occurred by chance
"What does p<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Arial, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 20.16px;"">≤0.1 mean?</span>"The probability of the results having occurred by chance is less than or equal to 10%
"What does p<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Arial, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 20.16px;"">≤0.01 mean?</span>"The probability of the results having occurred by chance is less than or equal to 1%
"Which is more strict; p<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Arial, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 20.16px;"">≤0.1 or p</span><span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Arial, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 20.16px;"">≤0.01?</span>""p<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Arial, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 20.16px;"">≤0.01</span>"
"What does p<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Arial, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 20.16px; line-height: 1;"">≥0.05 mean?</span>"Probability of the results being due to chance is greater than or equal to 5%
What is a type 1 error?Accepting alternate hypothesis when results are actually due to chance (false positive)
What is a type 2 error?Accepting null hypothesis when results were not due to chance (false negative)
When using a 10% level of significance, which type of error is more likely?Type 1 error
When using a 1% level of significance, which type of error is more likely?Type 2 error
Which three questions need to be answered to choose the appropriate test?Difference or correlation<div>Nominal or ordinal level data</div><div>Related or unrelated data</div>
What should interval/ratio data be treated as?Ordinal level
What counts as related data?Repeated measures, matched pairs and correlational studies
What counts as unrelated data?Independent groups
Which level of measurement should be used with nominal level and unrelated data?Chi-squared
Which level of measurement should be used with ordinal level and unrelated data?Mann-Whitney U
Which level of measurement should be used with ordinal and related data?Wilcoxon Signed Ranks
Which level of measurement should be used with ordinal level and related data from a correlational study?Spearman's rho correlation coefficient
What points do you need to make when justifying your choice of test?If a test of difference or correlation is required<div>Which level of measurement was the data</div><div>If the design produced related or unrelated data</div>
What does a cell membrane look like under a light microscope?A single line
What does a cell membrane look like under a high power electron microscope?Bilayer which is 7mm wide, appearing as 2 distinct lines
What is the structure of a phospholipid?Glycerol joined to 2 fatty acids by ester bonds and a phosphate group
What is the property of the head of a phospholipid?Hydrophilic, polar, attracts water and associates with it
What is the property of the tail of a phospholipid?Hydrophobic, non-polar, repels water, insoluble
How is a phospholipid different from a triglyceride?A phospholipid only has 2 fatty acids, a negatively charged phosphate group replaces the 3rd fatty acid
What are the properties of cell membranes?Fluidity - gives membrane flexibility<div>Partially permeable membrane - regulates substances going in and out of cell</div>
What 3 structures can phospholipids arrange themselves into?Monolayer, micelle and bilayer
Describe the structure of a monolayerLayer on the surface with hydrophobic tails directed out of water
Describe the structure of a micellleSpherical clusters
Describe the structure of a bilayerHydrophobic fatty acid tails have no contact with the water<div>Hydrophilic phosphate heads remain in contact with the aqueous environment on both sides of the membrane</div>
What is the most stable arrangement of phospholipids and why?Bilayer - two fatty acids are too bulky to fit into the interior of a micelle
Why is the formation of bilayers by phospholipids of critical biological importance?It will close in on itself so that there are no ends with exposed hydrocarbon chains thus forming compartments as happens around and within cells
What are cells filled with?Aqueous cytoplasm
What are cells surrounded by?Aqueous tissue fluid or blood
What components does a cell surface membrane contain?Phospholipid bilayer<div>Channel protein</div><div>Proteins</div><div>Glycolipids</div><div>Glycoproteins</div><div>Cholesterol</div>
Where are glycolipids and glycoproteins on the cell surface membrane?Outside
What is the function of the phospholipid layer?Forms bilayer
What is the function of channel proteins?Control entry and removal of specific molecules from cell (carbohydrates and ions)
How do channel proteins sit in the membrane?Completely span the bilayer
What are the functions of cholesterol?Regulates fluidity of the membrane<div>Disturbs close packing of phospholipids</div>
What are the functions of proteins?Stabilise membrane structure<div>Cell signaling pathways</div>
What are proteins that span the membrane referred to?Transmembrane proteins<div>Intrinsic/integral</div>
What are proteins that are found only within the inner or outer layer referred to?Extrinsic/peripheral
What are the functions of glycolipids?Stabilise membrane structure<div>Act as receptors</div>
What are the functions of glycoproteins?Stabilise membrane structure<div>Receptors for hormones and neurotransmitters</div><div>Cellular recognition and immune response</div>
Why is the membrane known as the fluid mosaic model?Fluid - phospholipids are moving which causes proteins to move<div>Mosaic - proteins randomly inserted throughout bilayer</div>
What is the effect on membrane fluidity if some phospholipids are made from unsaturated fatty acids?More unsaturated fatty acids = more fluid membrane because kinks in hydrocarbon tails of unsaturated phospholipids prevent them from packing closely together so more movement is possible
What evidence did Gorter and Grendel produce in 1924 and which feature of the cell membrane fluid mosaic model is supported by the evidence?Red blood cell membranes contain enough phospholipids to cover the red blood cell twice<div>The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer</div>
What evidence did Davson and Danielli produce in 1954 and which feature of the cell membrane fluid mosaic model is supported by the evidence?Electron microscope images showed more detailed images of the cell membrane<div>Different layers could be seen in cell membrane - darker outer layers = proteins, lighter inner layer = lipid</div>
What evidence did freeze fracture produce in 1960 and which feature of the cell membrane fluid mosaic model is supported by the evidence?Showed bumps in the centre of the membrane<div>Proteins are found embedded in the bilayer rather than in layers on either side of the phospholipid bilayer</div>
What evidence did Frye and Edinin produce in the 1970s and which feature of the cell membrane fluid mosaic model is supported by the evidence?Proteins of a mice cell (green) and human cell (red) were labelled with fluorescent markers and fused, the coloured markers intermixed<div>The membrane is fluid which allows many proteins to move as the phospholipids move</div>
What evidence did Unwin and Henderson produce in 1984 and which feature of the cell membrane fluid mosaic model is supported by the evidence?Some proteins can only be released from the cell membrane using strong detergents which dissolve the membrane, others can be released more easily by increasing ionic strength<div>Integral/intrinsic proteins are fully embedded in the cell membrane whereas peripheral/extrinsic proteins are loosely associated with the cell membrane</div>
What evidence did lectins produce in the 1980s and which feature of the cell membrane fluid mosaic model is supported by the evidence?Lectins (molecules which bind to carbohydrate) only bound to the outside (tissue fluid side) of the cell membrane<div>Carbohydrate is only found on the outer surface of the cell membrane</div>
What are the 6 types of pricing strategies?Cost plus<div>Price skimming</div><div>Penetration</div><div>Predatory</div><div>Competitive</div><div>Psychological</div>
What is cost plus?When a percentage mark-up is added to the cost of producing a good or service to calculate the selling price
What is the formula for cost plus?Unit cost x percentage mark-up = price
Benefits of cost plus pricingPrice increases can be justified when costs rise<div>Each product will be sold at a profit</div>
Problems of cost plus pricingIgnores market conditions, competitor's pricing and elasticity of demand<div>Less incentive to control costs</div>
What is price skimming?Setting a high initial price when a product is launched to attract early adopters then lower the price
What is penetration pricing?Setting a low initial price when a product is launched to get a foothold in the market then raise the price
What is predatory pricing?Prices are set very low for a short period of time to force competitors out of market then raise prices
What is competitive pricing?Prices are similar to competitors prices
What is psychological pricing?A tactic designed to make the consumer think a product is cheaper than it actually is
Which factors determine the choice of pricing strategy?Number of USPs/amount of differentiation<div>Price elasticity of demand</div><div>Level of competition</div><div>Strength of brand</div><div>Stage in product life cycle</div><div>Costs and need to make a profit</div>
What are pricing methods?Methods used to calculate the actual price set
What are pricing tactics?Adopted in the short run to suit particular situations
What are pricing strategies?Adopted over the long term to achieve marketing objectives
What type of pricing have online sales led to and what does it mean?Dynamic pricing - prices change frequently and quickly in response to changes in demand
What do price comparison websites force businesses to do?Be more competitive
What pricing strategy would a highly differentiated product use?Price skimming
What pricing strategy would an elastic product use?Competitive pricing
What pricing strategies would businesses in lowly/highly competitive markets use?Low = competitive pricing<div>High = predatory pricing</div>
How many polypeptide chains are present in a haemoglobin molecule?4
How many polypeptide chains are present in a collagen molecule?3
What is a hydrogen bond?Attraction between dipoles, a weak electrostatic force between H and O
What is the difference between controlling a variable and a control?Controlling the variable = keeping a variable the same<br>A control = variable to control for comparison
Describe how the structure of glycogen is related to its function as a storage moleculeBranched molecule = more rapid hydrolysis<br>Compact = more energy can be stored in a smaller space
What are the 2 processes of membrane transport?Passive and active
What are the passive transport processes?Diffusion<div>Facilitated diffusion</div><div>Osmosis</div>
What are the active transport processes?Active transport<div>Exocytosis</div><div>Endocytosis</div>
Which particles will use diffusion?Small, lipid soluble, non-polar, hydrophobic
Which substances will use facilitated diffusion and why?Larger, lipid insoluble, polar, hydrophilic<div>Hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids provide an impenetrable barrier</div>
Define diffusionNet movement of molecules or ions from a region of their higher concentration to a region of their lower concentration (down a concentration gradient) until equilibrium is reached
When does diffusion stop?When equilibrium is reached
Define facilitated diffusionMovement from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration (down a concentration gradient through channel or carrier proteins)
Which direction is facilitated diffusion in?Either direction - dependent on concentration
What do channel proteins contain and what does it allow them to do?Water-filled pores that polar molecules and ions may diffuse through which span the membrane
How do channel proteins work?Each type of channel protein has a specific shape that permits the passage of only one type of particular molecule or ion
How do gated channels work?Open or close depending on the presence or absence of a signal like a specific molecule (hormone) or a change in potential difference across the membrane
How do carrier proteins work?Molecule or ion binds onto a specific site on the protein and the protein changes shape as a result the molecule or ion crosses the membrane
Which direction do carrier proteins allow movement?Either direction, net movement dependent on the concentration difference across the membrane
What is passive transport?No metabolic energy is needed for the transport, process is driven by the concentration gradient itself
Define osmosisNet movement of free water molecules from a solution with a low concentration of solute (higher concentration of free water molecules) to a solution with a high concentration of solute (lower concentration of free water molecules) through a partially permeable membrane
What membrane is needed for osmosis?Partially permeable
When does osmosis stop?When solutions on either side are equally concentrated, isotonic
When does active transport occur?When substances need to be moved across a membrane against a concentration gradient
Define active transportMovement from a region of low concentration of the substance to a region of high concentration against a concentration gradient through a carrier protein using ATP energy
What 2 things are needed for active transport?Energy and specific carrier proteins
How is energy supplied for active transport?Energy transport molecule ATP
What is ATP?Immediate source of energy for all biological processes
How is ATP formed?During respiration and breakdown of energy storage molecules (carbohydrates and fat)
What is the difference between exocytosis and endocytosis?Exocytosis is bulk transport out of a cell and endocytosis is into a cell
Describe exocytosisMembrane-bound vesicle with the substance inside fuses with the cell membrane and the vesicle membrane becomes part of the cell membrane, releasing the substance
What do exocytosis and endocytosis rely on?The fluid nature of the cell membrane
Describe endocytosisSubstance attaches to a receptor on the membrane and the cell membrane invaginates (bulges inwards) to form a vesicle which pinches off, enclosing the solid or liquid material
Give examples when active transport is usedTransport of ions across epithelial, muscle and nerve cells and between compartments within a cell (mitochondria and cytoplasm)
Give examples when exocytosis is usedInsulin and neurotransmitters
Give examples when endocytosis is usedCholesterol and white blood cells (phagocytosis)
Where is glycerol in a phospholipid?Between fatty acids and phosphate
Where is DNA found in cells?Nucleus
Where is DNA found in cells without nucleus?Cytoplasm
What does DNA contain to dictate the inherited characteristics of an organism?Genetic code
Define geneSequence of bases on a DNA molecule that codes for a specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
What are all the genes in an individual collectively known as?Genome
What is in a DNA mononucleotide?Pentose sugar - deoxyribose<div>Organic base containing nitrogen - adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine</div><div>Phosphate group</div>
What bonds are DNA mononucleotides joined together by?Phosphodiester bonds
How are phosphodiester bonds formed?Condensation reactions
What do the DNA mononucleotides joined together form?2 long polynucleotide chains (DNA strands)
What is formed when the DNA strands twist around each other?Double helix
What bond holds the 2 DNA strands together and what is it between?Hydrogen bonds between the bases
What type of acid is DNA?Nucleic acid
What does DNA stand for?Deoxyribonucleic acid
What is the term for the pairing of bases in DNA?Complementary base pairing
What are the complementary base pairs?Adenine &amp; thymine<div>Cytosine &amp; guanine</div>
How many hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine?2
How many hydrogen bonds form between cytosine and guanine?3
Which bases have a 2 ring structure and what are they called?Adenine and guanine<div>Purines</div>
Which bases have a 1 ring structure and what are they called?Thymine and cytosine<div>Pyrimidines</div>
How do the bases pair to make DNA a uniform width across its whole length?They pair so that there are 3 rings forming each rung of the DNA molecule
How do glycoplipids and glycoproteins help stabilise membrane strcuture?Some are able to form hydrogen bonds with water molecules surrounding the cell
Which enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands in the DNA molecule and what happens?DNA helicase makes the DNA strands separate
What do the 2 separated DNA strands act as?Templates for the formation of new DNA strands
What lines up along the DNA template strands?Free DNA mononucleotides
What type of pairing occurs between bases?Complementary base pairing
Which bonds form between bases and what happens?Hydrogen bonds make the 2 DNA strands join
What does the enzyme DNA polymerase do?Joins adjacent mononucleotides with phosphodiester bonds in condensation reactions
What process is DNA replication?Semi-conservative replication
Who carried out experiments to find out the way DNA replicates?Meselson and Stahl
What were the 3 ways hypothesised that DNA could replicate by?Fragmentary<div>Semi-conservative</div><div>Conservative</div>
Describe what fragmentary replication would look likeAll DNA strands are made up of a mixture of original parents nucleotides and new nucleotides
Describe what semi-conservative replication would look likeEach DNA molecule contains one original parent DNA strand and one new DNA strand
Describe what conservative replication would look likeOne DNA molecule has two original parent DNA strands, the other molecule has two new DNA strands
What did Meselson and Stahl do to bacterial cells in their experiment?Grow them for many generations in a growth medium containing heavy nitrogen (15N)
What was formed for bacterial cells grown in a growth medium containing heavy nitrogen?One single band of DNA at the bottom of the tube
What were bacterial cells transferred to after being in heavy nitrogen?A growth medium containing light nitrogen (14N)
What happened after bacterial cells were in a growth medium of light nitrogen?Allowed to undergo 2 cycles of replication
What does DNA ligase do?Closes any gaps in the DNA at the end of replication
What happens to the DNA after one and two cycles of replication?It is extracted and separated by the process of centrifugation
What was formed for DNA extracted after one cycle of replication?One band of medium DNA in the middle of the tube
What theory do the results of the first replication refute and why?Conservative replication - it was expected to produce some light and some heavy DNA molecules
What was formed for DNA that was extracted after two cycles of replication?One band of medium DNA in the middle of the tube and one band of light DNA at the top of the tube
What theory do the results of the second replication refute and why?Fragmentary replication - it was expected to produce one medium band of DNA
What is distribution?The process of getting the firm's product to the end user
What are distribution channels?Routes to market that a product takes from producers the final customer
What are the 2 distribution channels available to firms?Direct/short<div>Traditional/long</div>
What are direct/short distribution channels?Producer sells to the customer or through a retailer
What are traditional/long distribution channels?When there is more than one intermediary between the producer and customer
What is an intermediary?Middle person between producer and customer
Which factors affect the choice of distribution channel?Nature of the product<div>The market</div><div>The cost</div><div>Amount of control</div><div>Speed of distribution</div><div>Distance</div>
What is the most important new trend in distribution?Online distribution
What is online distribution often known as?E-commerce
What is e-commerce?Buying and selling of goods and services through the use of electronic systems
What can e-commerce take place between?Businesses to consumers (B2C)<div>Businesses to businesses (B2B)</div>
Benefits to consumers of online distributionPrices are lower - lower fixed costs<div>Can shop 24/7 from any location</div><div>Wider choice of products available</div><div>Easier to make price comparisons</div><div>Can use click and collect or deliveries</div>
Drawbacks to consumers of online distributionNot able to inspect goods before purchase<div>Risk of internet fraud</div><div>Problems of taking delivery</div><div>Inconvenience and cost to return goods&nbsp;</div>
Benefits to businesses of online distributionLess fixed costs<div>Lower start-up costs</div><div>Payments received online - Paypal or credit cards</div><div>Access to a global market 24/7</div>
Drawbacks to businesses of online distributionIncreased global and national competition<div>Delivery and technical costs and problems</div><div>Traditional physical retailers have had to adapt to online services - travel agents, banks</div>
What is the product life cycle?The stages that a product will go through in its lifetime
Name the stages of the product life cycleDevelopment<div>Introduction</div><div>Growth</div><div>Maturity</div><div>Decline</div>
Why is cash flow negative in the development stage?Market research<div>Research and development</div><div>No sales revenue before launch</div>
What are production and promotion costs like in the introduction stage?High
When are there economies of scale in the product life cycle?Growth stage
When do sales revenue increase but as more units are sold production costs also increase in the product life cycle?Growth stage
When do sales stabilise and the product acts as a cash cow in the product life cycle?Maturity stage
What happens in the decline stage?Product loses sales
What are extension strategies?Products are adapted and given a new lease a life
Give examples of extension strategiesChanging the product<div>Increasing promotion/changing promotional methods</div>
Advantages of using the product life cycle when making marketing decisionsAllows a business to identify the life cycle stages of the various products that it has in its portfolio<div>Ensures they have a balanced product portfolio by allowing them to plan when to release new products</div><div>Allows the business to know when to launch extension strategies to ensure sales are maximised</div><div>Helps plan other elements of the marketing mix to ensure sales are maximised</div>
Disadvantages of using the product life cycle when making marketing decisionsDifficult to estimate in advance the life cycle of each of its products if a business sells a wide range of products<div>External influences can affect the life cycle of products</div><div>High percentage of new products fail and don't go through all the stages of the product life cycle</div>
What is the Boston Matrix?Model that analyses each product within a product portfolio in relation to its market share and the rate of market growth
What is a product portfolio?Collection of products a business is currently making
What are the 4 things in the Boston Matrix?Cash cow<div>Rising star</div><div>Dog</div><div>Problem children/question mark</div>
What has a high market share in a low growth market?Cash cow
What has a high market share in a high growth market?Rising star
What has a low market share in a low growth market?Dog
What has a low market share in a high growth market?Problem child/question mark
What is the independent variable?Temperature
How do you vary the independent variable?Water bath
What are suitable ranges for the independent variable?"0, 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60 and 70<span style=""color: rgb(32, 33, 36); font-family: arial, sans-serif; font-size: 16px;"">°C</span>"
What is the dependent variable?Absorbance at 490nm of solution beetroot pieces have been in, indicating membrane permeability
How do you measure the dependent variable?Colorimeter to measure absorbance at 490nm of solution beetroot has been in
Which organism (beetroot) variables should be controlled and how?Surface area - measured using cork borer and ruler<div>Same beetroot source, age, variety, growth conditions and part</div><div>Storage conditions - same temperature</div>
Which procedural variables should be controlled and how?Volume of water in boiling tube - 5cm3 with graduated pipette<div>Incubation time - 30 mins using stop clock</div><div>Same filter - colorimeter set to 490nm</div>
What repeats should be carried out?5 repeats for each temperature
How is the investigation made reliable?Repeats carried out to identify anomalies and calculate a mean, anomalies should be discarded and repeated
How is the investigation made valid?Control of variables, calibration of colorimeter using distilled water
State 2 safety hazards and the precaution taken to minimise each one"Using a knife to cut beetroot may cut skin - cut away from body<div>Hot water baths at 60 and 70<span style=""color: rgb(32, 33, 36); font-family: arial, sans-serif; font-size: 16px;"">°C</span>&nbsp;may scold skin - hold the top of test tubes</div>"
State each step of the method"1) Cut 8 1cm length sections of beetroot from a single beetroot and soak in distilled water overnight<div>2) Place 8 labelled boiling tubes, containing 5cm3 distilled water into water baths and leave for 5 mins, place 1 beetroot section into each boiling tube and leave for 30 mins</div><div>3) Remove beetroot sections from boiling tube (do not squeeze) and discard</div><div>4) Switch on colorimeter, set it to read absorbance and the filter to blue/green at 490nm</div><div>5) Fill a cuvette with distilled water, place in colorimeter, make sure light is shining through the smooth side and calibrate colorimeter to read 0 absorbance for clear water</div><div>6) Fill a cuvette with the solution from the boiling tube incubated at 0<span style=""color: rgb(32, 33, 36); font-family: arial, sans-serif; font-size: 16px;"">°C</span>&nbsp;and take a reading for absorbance, pour the solution back into the boiling tube and repeat for the other solutions</div>"
Why should you cut 8 1cm length sections of beetroot from a single beetroot and soak in distilled water overnight?Same surface area of each beetroot core/membrane<div>Wash off excess dye</div>
Why should you place 8 labelled boiling tubes containing 5cm3 distilled water into water baths and leave for 5 mins before placing 1 beetroot section into each boiling tube and leaving for 30 mins?For water in boiling tubes to reach the same temperature as water bath
Why when you remove beetroot sections from boiling tubes should you not squeeze them?More betalains may be released if you squeeze it
Why is the colorimeter set to read absorbance and the filter is set to blue/green at 490nm?This is the wavelength that pink absorbs the most therefore increasing accuracy of results
Why is the colorimeter calibrated?Increases accuracy and validity of results
Why are readings for absorbance taken?To measure the absorbance of solution which gives an indication of membrane permeability
How does temperature affect membrane permeability?Increasing temperature increases kinetic energy which increases the movement of molecules so phospholipids move more<div>Channel proteins denature so they can't control what enters and leaves the cell</div>
What happens when the membranes are disrupted?Betalains move by diffusion through the vacuole membrane and the cell membrane<div>Eventually there will no longer be a concentration gradient so there is not net movement by diffusion</div>
What is the membrane surrounding the vacuole called?Tonoplast
What is a betalain?Red pigments
What does alcohol do to the lipids in the cell membrane?Dissolves them so the membrane loses its structure
Define geneSequence of bases on a DNA molecule coding for a specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
Where is the DNA and the genetic code it contains in cells?Nucleus
Where are proteins made?Cytoplasm
What can't DNA pass through?Membranes surrounding the nucleus into the cytoplasm
What is the first stage of protein synthesis?Transcription
Where does transcription take place?In the nucleus
Which environmental variables should be controlled and how?pH of solution - use buffer (solution of a known pH)
Is RNA a double or single strand?Single
What sugar is RNA made from?Ribose
Which base replaces thymine in RNA?Uracil
What is bigger RNA or DNA?DNA
What is the role of RNA?To leave the nucleus, carrying genetic information to the cytoplasm where it is used in manufacturing proteins
What type of RNA is made in transcription?Messenger RNA (mRNA)
What is the second stage of protein synthesis?Translation
What bonds break so part of the DNA can unwind and the 2 strands can separate so that a gene can be transcribed?Hydrogen bonds between bases
Which strand of DNA is used as a template?Antisense strand
What lines up against what on the exposed antisense strand of DNA?Free RNA mononucleotides line up against their complementary base pairs
Which enzyme joins the RNA mononucleotides?RNA polymerase
Which bonds are formed between the RNA mononucleotides?Phosphodiester bonds
How are phosphodiester bonds formed?In condensation reactions
What is formed when RNA mononucleotides join together?mRNA
What is mRNA a complementary copy of?DNA antisense strand
What happens after mRNA detaches from DNA?It exits the nucleus through a nuclear pore into the cytoplasm (carries the copy of the genetic code out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm)
Where in the cell does translation take place?On ribosome
What is the coding strand also known as?Sense strand
What is the template strand also known as?Antisense strand
Does mRNA have the same base sequence as the DNA sense or antisense strand?Sense
Describe the biological meaning of translationTurning the sequence of bases in the genetic code into a sequence of amino acids
When mRNA leaves the nucleus what attaches to it?A ribosome
Where does a ribosome attach to mRNA?At a start codon
What does each tRNA attach to and what does it do?A specific amino acid and carries it to the ribosome
What is tRNA?Transfer RNA
What is the 3 base sequence on tRNA called?Anticodon
What is on the opposite end to the anticodon on tRNA?Binding site for an amino acid
What takes place between the anticodon on tRNA and the codon on mRNA?Complementary base pairing
What reaction and bond forms between amino acids?Condensation reaction, peptide bond
When does the ribosome detach from mRNA?At a stop codon
What detaches from the ribosome at the end of translation?Completed polypeptide chain
Describe the nature of the genetic codeTriplet - 3 bases code for 1 amino acid<div>Degenerate - more than 1 triplet code can code for the same amino acid</div><div>Non-overlapping - each base is only part of 1 triplet, distinct</div>
What is a gene mutation?A change in the base sequence of DNA in a gene
How do mutations arise?Random errors in the process of DNA replication
How is the risk of mutations in DNA increased?Exposure to ionising radiation or carcinogenic chemicals
What are the types of mutations?<div>Point mutation</div><div>Insertion</div><div>Duplication</div><div>Deletion</div><div>Inversion</div>
Which mutations cause a frameshift?Addition or deletion of a base
What is the effect of a frameshift?Every DNA triplet after the mutation will change, changing the mRNA codons and the amino acid sequence
What is the effect on CFTR protein of addition or deletion of a base?CFTR protein may not be made, especially if the mutation is at the start of the gene
What is the effect of a substitution of a base?Changed DNA triplet will cause a change in 1 mRNA codon and a changed amino acid
What happens if an amino acid involved in bonding is missing or a polar amino acid is changed for a non-polar one?CFTR protein may not fold correctly and its structure may change
What happens if the CFTR protein cannot fold at all?Hydrolysed quickly after it is made
What happens when the changed DNA triplet is transcribed to produce a stop codon earlier in the mRNA than normal?Results in a shorter polypeptide which may not be able to fold to form a functional CFTR protein
What is a germ cell/line mutation?Mutations in the DNA of an ovary or testis cell that is dividing to form an egg or sperm which may be passed onto future generations (inherited genetic disorder)
What is a somatic/acquired mutation?Mutations after conception
Why might a substitution mutation not change the CFTR protein structure and function?Degenerate nature of genetic code means that the changed mRNA codon may code for the same amino acid so the primary structure remains unchanged so the polypeptide folds normally so the CFTR is functional and has a normal structure
What type of protein is the CFTR protein?Channel protein
Where is the CFTR protein found?Between mucus and epithelial cells in the apical cell membrane of the respiratory, digestive and reproductive systems<div>In cell surface membrane of mucus producing cells</div>
Where is mucus produced?Epithelial cells
What is the function of the CFTR protein?Transports chloride ions into mucus through cell membrane
What will a change in a DNA triplet change?The bases in the corresponding mRNA codon which may add a different amino acid to the polypeptide chain
What is the impact on the CFTR protein if a stop codon is produced?A shorter polypeptide chain is produced so the CFTR protein is not formed
What is changed if there is a different sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide?Sequence of R groups
What happens if the sequence of R groups is changed?The bonding between them is changed which changes the tertiary structure and the 3D shape of the protein, resulting in a faulty CFTR protein
How do CFTR proteins maintain the viscosity of the mucus?Transport chloride ions out of the epithelial cells into the mucus<div>Then sodium ions move out of cells and into the mucus</div><div>Then water moves out of cells into the mucus by osmosis</div>
How do faulty CFTR proteins make mucus thicker and stickier?Can't transport chloride ions out of the epithelial cells into the mucus<div>Then sodium ions don't move out of cells and into the mucus</div><div>Then water can't move out of cells into the mucus by osmosis</div>
What is the impact of thicker and stickier mucus?Blocks parts of the body which impairs the functioning of the respiratory, digestive and reproductive systems
What is the equation for Fick's Law of Diffusion?Rate of diffusion&nbsp;∝ (surface area x difference in concentration) / thickness of surface
What is the relationship between rate of diffusion and surface area?Directly proportional<div>As the surface area increases, the rate of diffusion increases</div>
What is the relationship between rate of diffusion and difference in concentration?Directly proportional<div>As the difference in concentration increases, the rate of diffusion increases</div>
What is the relationship between rate of diffusion and the thickness of surface (diffusion distance)?Inversely proportional<div>As the thickness increases, the rate of diffusion decreases</div>
What are cilia?Hair-like structures that beat and move mucus up and out of lungs<div>They continuously remove mucus by a wave-like beating</div>
What do goblet cells do?Produce mucus which is released into the airway
What are the airways known as?Bronchioles
What is the role of mucus in the lungs?Traps dust, debris and microorganisms that enter the airway
What are 2 ways mucus can be removed?Coughed up<div>Swallowed - pathogens are killed by stomach acid</div>
Name the 5 adaptations of the mammalian lung that allows rapid gaseous exchangeMany alveoli<div>Alveoli walls are thin (one cell thick)</div><div>Capillary walls are thin (one cell thick)</div><div>Ventilation of alveoli</div><div>Blood flow in capillaries/circulation</div>
How do many alveoli allow rapid gaseous exchange?Large surface area for gas exchange
How does alveoli and capillary walls being thin allow rapid gaseous exchange?Short diffusion distance
How does ventilation of alveoli and blood flow in capillaries allow rapid gaseous exchange?Maintains a steep concentration gradient
What are the 2 effects of cystic fibrosis on the respiratory system?Reduced gas exchange<div>Persistent lung infections</div>
Can thicker and stickier mucus be moved by cilia and what is the impact?No<div>Mucus remains in the lungs and blocks the bronchioles, restricting airflow through them and preventing the ventilation of the alveoli below the blockage</div>
What are the impacts of blockages in the bronchioles to the alveoli below the blockage?Reduces the number of alveoli involved in gas exchange - reduces surface area = reduced gas exchange<div>Reduces concentration gradient for oxygen and carbon dioxide diffusion = reduced gas exchange</div><div>Over-inflation of alveoli = damage to elasticity of lungs</div>
Why do people with CF get short of breath?Reduction in gas exchange results in a lower oxygen supply to cells and tissues<div>During exercise muscle cells receive less oxygen which is needed for aerobic respiration for energy</div>
How is a lung infection caused?Anaerobic bacteria which enter the lungs rapidly multiply in the mucus due to the lack of oxygen in the mucus
How do white blood cells make the mucus even stickier?Die and breakdown, releasing DNA
What do repeated lung infections do?Damage lung tissue
What are the 2 effects of cystic fibrosis on the digestive system?Digestion and absorption of digested food<div>Pancreas function</div>
What does thicker stickier mucus do to the pancreatic duct?Blocks it
What are the impacts of a blocked pancreatic duct?Pancreatic digestive enzymes cannot leave the pancreas and enter the small intestine<div>Pancreatic enzymes become trapped in the pancreas behind the mucus</div>
What does a lower concentration of pancreatic enzymes cause?Less efficient digestion of food so less products of digestion are absorbed into the blood (malabsorption syndrome)
What does the lack of glucose delivered to body cells for aerobic respiration result in?Lack of energy for cell activity = tiredness
What happens when pancreatic enzymes become trapped in the pancreas behind mucus?Damage to pancreas and cysts of hard fibrous tissue are produced
What is produced if cells that produce the hormone insulin are damaged?A form of diabetes
What are the 2 effects of cystic fibrosis on the reproductive system?Male and female reproductive system
What 2 things can happen to men with CF?Thicker stickier mucus blocks the vas deferens<div>Lack the vas deferens</div>
What are the vas deferens?Sperm duct
What happens to females with CF?Thicker stickier mucus forms a mucus plug which blocks the cervix
What is the impact of a mucus plug blocking the cervix?Stops sperm deposited in the vagina reaching the ovum (egg) in the oviduct/fallopian tube which reduces the chance of fertilisation and pregnancy
What does social psychology investigate?Aspects of human behaviour that involve the individual's relationship to other persons, groups and society, including cultural influences on behaviour
What are the 4 key assumptions of social psychology?1. Other people can affect our behaviour, thought processes and emotions<div>2. The social situation can affect our behaviour, thought processes and emotions</div><div>3. Being in groups in society affects our behaviour since we respond differently to people depending on the group that they are in and we tend to favour people who are members of groups to which we belong</div><div>4. The roles that we play in society affect our behaviour</div>
What is the social situation?The environment that we are in
What are some examples of groups?Gender, ethnicity, nationality, religion
What are social roles?Expectations, responsibilities and behaviours we adopt in certain situations
What are social influences?When an individual's behaviour, attitudes or emotions are affected by someone else
What is obedience?A form of social influence<div>Obeying direct orders from someone in authority</div>
What is compliance?Part of obedience, going along with what someone says while not necessarily agreeing with it
What is dissenting?Orders are rejected, the person does not do what they are told to do
What is internalising?Obeying with agreement
What is conformity?Adopting the behaviours and attitudes to those around you
How many template strands are there in transcription?1
Which reaction joins RNA mononucleotides together in transcription?Condensation
What bond forms between the base of a codon and the complementary base of an anticodon?Hydrogen
How many bases does a codon consist of?<div>3</div>
Which molecule would you find codons on?mRNA
Which cell organelle is made of rRNA?Ribosomes
Which level of protein folding is achieved by the end of translation?Primary
What are some negative consequences of obedience?WW2 - concentration camp guards followed instructions to murder innocent people<div>Vietnam war - US soldiers followed order to massacre civilians&nbsp;</div>
What idea did Milgram want to test?That Germans were different to other people in that they were obedient to orders to kill millions of Jews and other minority groups in concentration camps in WW2
Where did Milgram carry out his experiments?Yale University - very prestigious university in the northeast of USA
Who did Milgram explain his experimental situation to in his pilot study?A sample of psychiatrists, students and middle-class adults
What did the people have to predict in Milgram's pilot study?How 100 hypothetical participants would behave in relation to the experiment
What were the results of Milgram's pilot study?Predicted that most Americans would stop before 150 volt shock level<div>No more than 4% of participants would continue to 450 volts</div>
What is the aim of Milgram's study?To see if people would be obedient to inhumane orders; how far they would go in giving electric shocks to someone who they believed was just another participant
What sampling technique was used?Volunteer
How were volunteers collected?Through an advertisement and direct mail
Describe Milgram's sample40 men<div>From the New Haven area of Connecticut</div><div>Mix of ages, occupations and educational levels</div>
How much did Milgram pay his participants?$4 plus 50 cents for travel expenses
What were the participants told the experiment's aim was?To see how punishment affects learning
How were the teacher and learner chosen?The drawing was rigged so that the participant was always the teacher and the confederate was always the learner
How many volts of a sample shock was given to the teacher at the start and why?45 volts<div>To convince the teacher that the shock machine was genuine</div>
During the experiment did the learner receive electric shocks?No
What did the teacher read to the learner?A series of word pairs and then the first word of the pair along with four terms
What did the learner have to identify from what the teacher read out to them?Which of the 4 terms was correct
Were the teacher and learner in the same room?No the teacher couldn't see the learner but he could hear him
What happens when the learner gets an answer wrong?The teacher was told to give them an electric shock
What did the shocks start at?15 volts
What was the maximum shock?450 volts
How did the teacher know if the shocks were painful?"The voltages had labels like ""slight shock"" ""danger"" and ""XXX"""
How much were the shocks increased by each time a wrong answer was given?15 volts
Were the responses given by the learner real or preset?Preset
At what voltage did the learner protest and how?300 volts - pounded on the wall
When did the learner pound on the wall again?315 volts
When did the learner stop responding?At 300 volts
What was the teacher told to treat silence as?Wrong answer
What did the experimenter reply with if the teacher asked for advice?Standardised prods
What was prod 1?"""Please continue"""
What was prod 4?"""You have no other choice, you must go on"""
What did the experimenter say if the teacher asked whether the learner might suffer harm?"""Although the shocks may be painful, there is no permanent tissue damage, so please go on"""
What did the experimenter say if the teacher said that the learner wanted to stop?"""Whether the learner likes it or not, he must continue until he has learned all the word pairs. So please go on"""
What were the participants interviewed with after the procedure?Open questions and attitude scales
What was undetaken after the interviews?Procedures to ensure that the participant would leave the laboratory in a state of well-being
What was included as part of the debriefing process?A friendly reconciliation with the interviewer
Did most participants think that the study was real or fake?Real
"What did most of the participants rate the shocks on a scale where 14 meant ""extremely painful""?"14
How many participants obeyed to 300 volts?100%
How many participants stopped before 450 volts?14
How many participants continued to the maximum voltage?65%
Describe the 2 ways participants actedMost showed distress - protesting, twitching and laughing nervously<div>Some remained calm throughout</div>
Summarise Milgram's conclusionThere are several social factors which would influence the participants being obedient
Name some of the features that led to obedienceStudy seems to be for a worthy cause<div>The victim agreed to take part</div><div>Yale University is a prestigious institution so nothing unethical would happen</div><div>It was thought that the shocks were painful, not dangerous</div><div>Participant had volunteered and was paid so it felt like an obligation</div>
What does biological psychology aim to explain?Behaviour by looking at physical causes; it seeks to use biology as a means of understanding human behaviour
What are the key assumptions of biological psychology?1. All behaviour is determined by biological factors<div>2. The central nervous system is a major influence on behaviour</div><div>3. Behavioural &amp; psychological development is assumed to be based on changes in the brain and general biology</div><div>4. The process of evolution can explain the existence of much human behaviour. Behaviour has evolved so that behaviours that help us survive are more likely to be passed onto future generations</div><div>5. Genes influence behaviour</div><div>6. There is behavioural continuity between species so it makes sense to study animals and make generalisation to humans</div>
What is the CNS made up of?Brain<div>Nerves in the spinal cord</div>
What does the brain do in the CNS?Draws together information from all over the body and sends information back out to the body in response
What does the spinal cord do in the CNS?Contains the nerves that carry messages between the brain and the body
What is the CNS?A central processor of information and the control centre for human behaviour
What is the peripheral nervous system?A web of branches that branches out from the spinal cord carrying information to and from the CNS to the rest of the body
What does the CNS act as for information we receive and responses that we make in our environment?An information processing and control centre
What happens when the body receives information from the senses?The PNS sends it to the CNS<div>The brain processes and integrates all of the information from the senses and generates a response</div>
What are the 4 lobes of the brain and describe where they areFrontal - front<div>Temporal - bottom</div><div>Parietal - top</div><div>Occipital - back</div>
Where is the cerebellum?Under the temporal and occipital lobe
What is the cerebellum important for?Balance, movement and coordination
What is the function of the occipital lobe?Vision
What is the function of the frontal lobe?Decision making, problem solving and planning
What is the function of the parietal lobe?Reception and processing of sensory information
What is the function of the temporal lobe?Hearing, learning and memory
Describe where the prefrontal cortex isPart of the frontal lobe<div>Sits right behind the forehead</div>
When does the PFC fully develop and is fully functioning?20s
What is the function of the prefrontal cortex?Executive functions - inhibiting inappropriate responses, decision making and motivational behaviour
Define a biological catalystA molecule produced by an organism/cell that speeds up the rate of a biological reaction by reducing activation energy without being used up
Define activation energyEnergy needed for a reaction to occur by causing bonds to break/form which is reduced by enzymes
What type of protein are enzymes?Globular
What level of protein structure do enzymes have?Tertiary
What do the bonds between R groups make enzymes have?Three dimensional structure
Are enzymes soluble or insoluble and why?Soluble<div>Hydrophilic amino acids outside, hydrophobic amino acids inside</div>
What is an active site?A specific shape to fit the shape of a specific substrate
What happens between the substrate and the enzyme active site?The substrate fits into and binds to it
What do the lock and key theory and the induced fit theory describe?How the shape of the active site fits the shape of the substrate
What forms when the enzyme and substrate bind together?A enzyme-substrate complex
What is the function of the enzyme-substrate complex?Holds the substrate in the correct position for bonds to be broken or formed and a product to be made which lowers the activation energy for the reaction
What is released from the active site?Product
How is the enzyme after the reaction?Unchanged and free to accept another substrate molecule
What are the 4 factors that affect the rate of reaction?Temperature<div>pH</div><div>Enzyme concentration</div><div>Substrate concentration</div>
What happens as the enzyme concentration increases?The initial rate of reaction increases
What happens as the substrate concentration increases?The initial rate of reaction increases
Why does the initial rate of reaction increase as the enzyme concentration increase?More available active sites<div>More frequent successful collisions between the enzyme and substrate</div><div>More enzyme-substrate complexes</div><div>More products</div>
Why does the initial rate of reaction increase as the substrate concentration increases?More frequent successful collisions between the enzyme and the substrate<div>More enzyme-substrate complexes</div><div>More products</div>
What is the limiting factor when substrate concentration increases, initial rate of reaction increases?Substrate concentration
What is the limiting factor at high substrate concentrations?Enzyme concentration - every active site will be occupied so substrate molecules cannot enter an active site until one becomes free again, increasing substrate concentration has no further effect = saturation point
What is meant by the saturation point?When increasing substrate concentration has no further effect on the rate
Why is the initial rate of reaction used to compare the rate of enzyme-catalysed reactions?<div>Initial rate has fastest rate</div>No limiting factors - there is enough substrate or enzymes, enough substrate to saturate the enzyme and enough active sites available to form enzyme-substrate complexes
Why is the rate of reaction fastest at the start then decreases?As the reaction proceeds substrate concentration decreases as the substrate gets used up by the enzyme in the reaction
Why is the rate of reaction slow&nbsp;at low temperatures?Enzymes are inactive because they have low kinetic energy so there are fewer collisions between enzyme and substrate
What is optimum temperature?When the rate of reaction is at its highest as there are maximum successful collisions between enzyme and substrate
Why does rate of reaction decrease at high temperatures?The enzyme becomes denatured
What happens to the active site when the enzyme is denatured?Changes shape since bonds between R groups break so the substrate cannot fit into the active site and enzyme-substrate complexes and products cannot form
What are the two halves of the brain called?Hemispheres
What is the right hemisphere concerned with?Creativity, intuition and movement of the left hand side of the body
What is the left hemisphere of the brain concerned with?Logic, language and movement of the right hand side of the body
What is meant by contra-lateral control?The right hemisphere of the brain controls the left hand side of the body and the left hemisphere of the brain controls the right hand side of the body
What are the hemispheres joined by?A bundle of nerves called the corpus callosum
What is the main function of the corpus callosum?Ensure that the hemispheres are able to communicate with each other
What are ventricles?A linked system of cavities (spaces) that are filled with cerebrospinal fluid
What fluid do the ventricles produce?Cerebrospinal fluid
What does cerebrospinal fluid do?Bathes and cushions the brain<div>Ensures chemical stability of the brain and provision of nutrients</div>
What is the limbic system?A complex system of structures and nerve networks deep inside the brain
What is the limbic system linked to?Instinct and controlling emotions
What are the 4 components of the limbic system?Thalamus<div>Hippocampus</div><div>Amygdala</div><div>Hypothalamus</div>
What does the amygdala do?It's stimulated when our senses perceive a threat, fight/flight response
What does the thalamus do?Relays information from the 5 senses to relevant parts of the cortex
What does the hypothalamus do?Regulates bodily functions via stimulating the release of hormones
What does the hippocampus do?Key role in memory formation (converting STM to LTM)
Define geneA sequence of bases on a DNA molecule that codes for a specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
Define alleleA different form of the same gene
Define genotypeThe alleles in an organism, for a particular gene
Define phenotypeThe observable characteristics, due to the expression of a genotype/alleles, which may be affected by the environment
Define recessive alleleBoth alleles need to be present in order for the recessive phenotype to be observed - only expressed if the dominant allele is not present
Define dominant alleleOnly one allele needs to be present for the dominant phenotype to be observed
Define incomplete dominanceWhere there are 2 different alleles in the genotype and both alleles are expressed in the phenotype of an organism
Define homozygousGenotype where both alleles present at a gene locus are the same
Define heterozygousGenotype where both alleles present at a gene locus are different
Define homologous chromosomesA pair of chromosomes, similar in length, with the centromere and genes in the same position
Define gene locusThe position of an allele on a chromosome
Define carrierAn organism with a heterozygous genotype<div>They have one allele for a condition/characteristic but it is not expressed in the phenotype</div>
Define monohybrid inheritanceInheritance of one gene is responsible for the expression of the genotype
What are the 2 approaches to staffing?Staff as an asset<div>Staff as a cost</div>
Which approach of staffing treats their staff as a resource to be valued and developed over time and in response to changing market conditions?Staff as an asset
Which approach to staffing obtains employees as cheaply as possible and disposes of them when necessary?Staff as a cost
Which approach to staffing provides training and development opportunities?Soft HRM
Is internal promotion encouraged in soft or hard HRM?Soft HRM
Does soft or hard HRM empower employees with delegation and opportunities for responsibility?Soft HRM
Which approach to staffing suits autocratic leadership style?Hard HRM
Which approach to staffing suits democratic leadership style?Soft HRM
Which approach to staffing works with flatter organisational structures?Soft HRM
Which approach to staffing works with tall organisational structures?Hard HRM
Give advantages of soft HRMCompany seen as good employer - can attract the best employees<div>Employees are better trained and skilled and lower labour turnover</div><div>More consultation improves motivation and more creative ideas are generated</div>
Give disadvantages of soft HRMCan be very expensive (wages and training)<div>Can be inefficient in times of falling or increasing demand as less flexible working</div>
Which approach to staffing has more flexible working?Hard HRM
Give advantages of hard HRMCan meet changes in demand more effectively - flexible workers<div>Lower costs (wages and training)</div><div>Decisions are made quicker - no consultation</div>
Give disadvantages of hard HRMHigh labour turnover - increased recruitment costs<div>Lower levels of motivation - pay is only motivator</div><div>Harder to recruit best employees</div>
Define flexible workingRange of employment options designed to help employees balance work and home life
What are some methods of flexible working?Multi-skilled workers, part time and temporary workers, flexible hours and home working
What is meant by multi-skilling?Process of enhancing skills of employees
How can multi-skilling be achieved?Training<div>More responsibilities</div><div>Job rotation</div>
Benefits of multi-skillersCost effective - don't need to hire new staff<div>Availability of skills if staff leave</div><div>Covering shifts</div><div>Frees up time for other employees to do more demanding tasks</div><div>Improved work performance</div>
Problems of multi-skillersExpected to work harder without extra pay<div>Workers may not be trained adequately for new roles</div><div>Overwhelmed workers</div><div>Training costs</div>
Describe the induced fit theoryThe enzyme changes shape slightly when the substrate binds to the active site so that it fits more closely around the substrate<div>Only a specific substrate will induce the change in shape of an enzyme's active site</div>
Describe the lock and key theoryThe substrate and active site of the enzyme have specific shapes, they are complementary to each other<div>The substrate fits the shape of the active site of the enzyme exactly to create an enzyme-substrate complex</div>
Does breaking bonds require or release energy?Require
Does making bonds require or release energy?Release
What is the difference between intracellular and extracellular enzymes?Intracellular enzymes catalyse reactions inside cells and extracellular enzymes catalyse reactions outside cells
Give an example of a reaction that involves an intracellular enzymeRespiration
Give examples of reactions that involves an extracellular enzymeIn the tissue fluid or blood
What is the difference between catabolic, anabolic and isomerase?Catabolic is breaking down substrates, anabolic is adding to substrates and isomerase is substrate molecules are altered
What are the 2 types of enzymes?Intracellular and extracellular
What are the 3 types of enzyme reactions?Catabolic, anabolic and isomerase
Give an example of a catabolic reactionHydrolysis of starch to maltose
What are the 2 ways of measuring the rate of an enzyme reaction?Quantity of substrate used in a given time<div>Quantity of product formed in a given time</div>
How is the rate of reaction calculated on a graph?Change in Y / change in X
What is the initial rate of reaction used for?Comparing rates of enzyme-controlled reactions
Which cells do not contain 2 copies of each gene? (one from each parent)Sex cells<div>Red blood cells</div>
What does the normal allele code for and how is it represented?Functioning CFTR protein, F
What does the mutated allele code for and how is it represented?Non-functional CFTR protein, f
What genotype are the FF and ff combinations known as?Homozygous
What genotype is the Ff combination known as?Heterozygous
Which allele is represented by a capital letter?Dominant
When gametes are produced how many alleles does each egg or sperm contain?Only 1
Draw a Punnet Square to work out the probability of producing a child with ff, FF or Ff genotypes and state their phenotypes when both parents are heterozygousff = 0.25 - has CF<div>FF = 0.25 - does not have CF</div><div>Ff = 0.5 - carrier of CF</div>
What disease do heterozygous carriers of CF have some protection against?Typhoid
Is CF a recessive or dominant disease and what does this mean?Recessive - a person must have a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene to have CF
GENERALISABILITY<div>Why is Milgram's study not representative of people in general?</div>All participants were from New Haven, Connecticut, male and volunteers (may differ from other people - more likely to think scientific research is important)
GENERALISABILTY<div>Why can Milgram's study be generalised to American men?</div>Mix of ages, educational levels and occupations
RELIABILITY<div>What things make the research replicable (repeatable in a consistent way?)</div>Controlled setting<div>Same person played role of learner</div><div>Same instructions given</div><div>Standardised prods</div>
APPLICATION<div>What ways can Milgram's study be applied to real life situations?</div>Understand previous events (Nazi's in WW2)<div>Aware of people's tendency to obey authority figures</div>
VALIDITY<div>What decreases the validity of Milgram's study?</div>Artificial setting (laboratory) not natural environment<div>Artificial task, not an everyday activity</div>
VALIDITY<div>What increases the validity of Milgram's study?</div>High experimental realism, situation felt real<div>Laboratory is similar to social situation with an authority figure (police interview room)</div><div>Good controls and standardisation</div>
ETHICS<div>What was ethical about Milgram's study?</div>Confidential<div>Consent to take part</div><div>Full debriefing</div><div>Psychometric tests and counselling</div>
ETHICS<div>What was unethical about Milgram's study?</div>No right to withdraw<div>Deception (told aim was the effect of punishment on learning and given impression that learner was in immense pain)</div><div>No protection of participants - psychological damage</div>
What made Milgram's study fairly objective?Standardised procedures<div>Collection of quantitative data</div>
What increases the scientific credibility of Milgram's variation studies?Standardised procedures = replicated in different circumstances = keeping everything the same and manipulating one variable = cause &amp; effect can be inferred
Why did Milgram carry out variation studies?To see what situational factors might have affected the participants
What is variation 10?Rundown Office Block study
What was the aim of variation 10?To see if the setting of the original research (Yale University) might have influenced obedience
What was Milgram's evidence for the aim of variation 10?When interviewing participants from the original study many of them said that they trusted and obeyed the experimenter because he was associated with a prestigious university
What did Milgram change the setting to in variation 10?From Yale University to a rundown office building
Where was the rundown office builiding?Industrial part of Bridgeport town
What was the room used as the lab like?Clean but very sparsely furnished
Who were participants told that the research was being by?Research Associates of Bridgeport
What were the Research Associates of Bridgeport conducting research for?Commercial industry
What were the results for variation 10?47.5% went to maximum voltage
What was the conclusion for variation 10?Less reputable setting reduced the legitimacy of study - supported by debriefing when participants questioned the credibility of the company conducting the research
Give 2 strengths of variation 10Only 1 variation in procedure for each study and all other variables remained the same which makes it possible to compare the effects of the manipulating the IV so we can show cause and effect between the setting and levels of obedience<div>Use of office block instead of university may have increased mundane realism - higher ecological validity</div>
Define mundane realismThe extent to which a study is similar to everyday life
Give 2 weaknesses of variation 10The set-up is still scientific - we don't know if people will be similarly obedient in a non-scientific situation<div>Despite more natural setting, mundane realism is still low because of the shock generator and controlled verbal prods</div>
What is the independent variable?Enzyme (trypsin) concentration
How do you vary the independent variable and what are suitable ranges?Range of 5 trypsin concentrations<div>0.5%, 0.4%, 0.3%, 0.2% and 0.1%</div>
What could be used as a control?0.0% trypsin concentration (distilled water)
What is the dependent variable?Initial rate of reaction
How do you measure the dependent variable?Measure initial rate of reaction by measuring a % transmission - measure every 10 seconds in a colorimeter for 3 minutes then calculate rates using equation dy / dx&nbsp;
What are other ways initial rate of reaction can be measured for different reactions?Change in temperature - thermometer<div>Change in pH - pH probe</div>
Which procedural variables should be controlled and how?Volume of enzyme (trypsin) - 2cm3 using graduated pipette<div>Volume of substrate (milk) - 2cm3 using graduated pipette</div><div>Same wavelength - 440nm filter on colorimeter</div><div>Substrate concentration - 1% milk solution</div>
Which environmental variables should be controlled and how?pH of solution - use buffer<div>Temperature - use a water bath</div>
Which organism variables should be controlled (if you are using an organism)?Age<div>Mass</div>
What repeats should be carried out?5 repeats for each trypsin concentration<div>Calculate a mean and identify, discard and repeat anomalies</div>
How is the investigation made reliable?Repeats carried out<div>Control of variables</div>
How is the investigation made valid?Repeats were carried out<div>Control of variables</div><div>Calibrated colorimeter using distilled water</div>
How could the investigation be more valid?Using more concentrations between ones we used
State each step of the method1. Using serial dilution create 4 concentrations of the enzyme trypsin<div>2. Using a colorimeter with a 440nm filter and set to % transmission, zero the colorimeter with distilled water in a cuvette by pressing 'R'</div><div>3. Collect a stop clock. Pipette 2cm3 of protein solution (milk) into a 10cm3 beaker. Pipette 2cm3 of the 0.5% trypsin solution into another 10cm3 beaker. Mix thoroughly and immediately transfer to cuvette, place in colorimeter and press 'T' for test</div><div>4. Record % transmission every 10 seconds and stop recording after 3 minutes or no further change</div><div>5. Discard the solution from the cuvette and wash 10cm3 beaker and cuvette with distilled water and dry</div><div>6. Repeat for other concentration</div><div>7. Repeat the experiment 5 times for each trypsin concentration and calculate mean rate</div><div>8. Plot results on a graph&nbsp;</div>
Why is serial dilution used to create different concentration of the enzyme?Creates different concentrations to investigate from the same stock solution
Why is the colorimeter calibrated with distilled water?It is a reference point to improve validity
Why is a 2cm3 pipette used to measure trypsin and milk?Accurately measure the volume
Why must the trypsin and milk be put into the cuvette in the colorimeter immediately after being mixed?They will start reacting once mixed
What does the colorimeter measuring % transmission quantify?The breakdown of the substrate
Why is % transmission recorded every 10 seconds for 3 minutes?To gain sufficient data to calculate the initial rate of reaction
Why do the cuvette and 10cm3 beaker need to be washed with distilled water each time?To prevent contamination with the next enzyme concentration
Why does the investigation need to be repeated for different concentrations?To establish a trend so a conclusion can be drawn on the effect of enzyme concentration on the initial rate of reaction
Why does the experiment need to be repeated 5 times?To improve reliability and allow anomalies to be identified
Why are results plotted on a graph?To calculate the initial rate of reaction
How does initial rate of reaction change as enzyme concentration increases and why?It increases because there are more active sites available so there are more successful collisions between enzyme and substrate so more enzyme-substrate complexes and product can be formed = faster breakdown of substrate
How do you do serial dilution?<div>Label boiling tubes 0.5%, 0.4%, 0.3% and 0.2%</div>Start off with 12cm3 of 0.5% trypsin<div>Pour 8cm3 into 0.4% boiling tube and add 2cm3 water</div><div>Pour 6cm3 into 0.3% boiling tube and add 4cm3 water</div><div>Pour 4cm3 into 0.2% boiling tube and add 6cm3 water</div>
How many hours do part time employees work per week?Less than 30
Advantages of part time staffBetter to match supply to demand<div>Keep valued workers that don't want to work full time</div><div>Increases number of applicants</div>
Disadvantages of part time staffHard to schedule meetings together<div>Requires more employees to take on work load</div><div>May lack commitment</div>
Describe what temporary employees areEmployed for a limited time only
When are temporary employees mainly used?Christmas
Advantages of temporary employeesBetter to match supply to demand<div>Not tied into paying workers when they are not being used to their full potential</div>
Disadvantages of temporary employeesRecruitment and training costs may be high<div>May lack commitment</div><div>More transient - difficult to create culture</div>
What are flexible hours?Employees choose their own hours of work within certain boundaries
Describe a zero hours contractEmployers hire staff with no guarantee of work<div>Only work when needed often at short notices</div><div>Pay depends on how many hours worked</div><div>No sick pay but there is holiday pay</div>
What is homeworking?Working at home rather than travelling into the workplace
Advantages of homeworkingIncreases flexibility of employee<div>Reduced costs for employer</div><div>Made easier by advances in technology</div>
Disadvantages of homeworkingDecision making and communication is slower<div>Difficult to see whether employees are working properly and whether they deserve promotion</div>
Advantages of zero hour contractsFlexibility for employee<div>Response to fluctuating demand in dynamic markets or seasonal businesses</div>
Disadvantages of zero hour contractsDo not offer enough financial stability<div>Don't have same employee rights (sick pay not included)</div>
What is outsourcing/subcontracting?Finding an external business to carry out a part of the production process
Why is outsourcing/subcontracting used?Cut costs<div>Achieve better level of service</div>
Give examples of outsourcing/subcontractingCleaning<div>Call centres</div>
Advantages of outsourcing/subcontractingFlexibility in supply<div>Buy in expertise</div><div>Increase capacity without high capital expenditure</div>
Disadvantages of outsourcing/subcontractingQuality must be controlled<div>Sub-contractor will also want to be making profit</div>
Define dismissalWhen an employee's contract is terminated due to a breach of terms of that contract by the employee
Define redundancyEmployee's contract of employment is terminated because the job no longer exists
When would dismissal be used?Incompetence<div>Misconduct</div>
When would redundancy be used?No work/insufficient work<div>Relocation</div>
How does redundancy affect a business?Decreases motivation
How does dismissal affect a business?Affects reputation of business when looking for new candidates
What was variation 7?Telephonic instructions study
What was Milgram's aim for variation 7?To see if changing the proximity of the experimenter to not being physically present in the room would affect the level of obedience
How was proximity changed?The experimenter initially gave instructions to the participant face to face then left the room and gave instructions over the phone
What were the results of variation 7?22.5% went to maximum voltage
What did some participants lie about to the experimenter?Increasing the shock level
Would the participants become obedient again when the experimenter returned to the same room as them?Yes
Strengths of variation 7Only 1 variation in procedure for each study, all other variables remain the same which makes it possible to compare the effects of manipulating the IV so we can show cause and effect between proximity and obedience<div>Milgram's results are supported in other variations when he altered proximity</div>
Weaknesses of variation 7Participants may not have believed shocks were real - reputable university would protect participants - low validity<div>Not a natural setting - participants were 'helper' of experiment rather than acting independently</div>
Define employer/employee relationsHow employers and employees interact with each other on a day to day basis
What systems are put into place to aid communication between employers and employees?Employee representation
Give 2 methods of collective bargainingTrade unions and work councils
How is a voice given to employees?Through a recognised body that represents them
What are trade unions?National organisations with with a remit to protect its members and improve their economic and working conditions
What are the key objectives of trade unions?Securing jobs<div>Maximising pay</div><div>Ensuring safe and acceptable conditions</div><div>Fair treatment of members by employers</div>
How do trade unions represent their members?Through collective bargaining
What is the partnership approach?When unions work with employers to achieve industrial democracy
Define collective bargainingEmployee representation through negotiation of employment issues
What can unions work with employees and employers to do?Enhance business performance<div>Decrease labour turnover</div><div>Increase motivation</div>
What is labour turnover?People leaving
Why is lower labour turnover good?Lower cost of recruitment
What is industrial dispute?Disagreement between employer and employee/employee representative
What does industrial dispute lead to?Industrial action
What is industrial action?Employees take sanctions to try and impose pressure on the employer
Give examples of industrial actionStrikes<div>Overtime ban</div><div>Go slow</div>
When is it best to avoid disputes?Before they become troublesome
What do trade unions do about industrial disputes?Solve them to avoid industrial action
What is an independent body that can be called in to help avoid/resolve disputes?ACAS
Advantages of collective bargainingLess risk of industrial disputes<div>Effective way of communication</div><div>Employers have understanding of employee perceptions</div><div>Improved motivation</div>
Disadvantages of collective bargainingOpportunity cost of time<div>Slows down decision making</div><div>Employer may not be able to respond to employee wishes</div>
What is a work council?A group made up of managers and representative employees who meet regularly to discuss issues affecting the workforce
Which issues do work councils discuss?Pay and working conditions<div>Proposed/planned changes to business activities</div>
When do employees have a legal right to request a work council?In a business with over 50 employees
How must representatives be chosen in work councils?Election
How many representatives should there be per employees in a work council?1 representative per 50 employees
What is the individual approach?Each employee negotiates individually with management for their own interest<div>Decisions are made on a 1-to-1 basis rather than for the workforce as a whole</div>
How many neurons is the human brain made up of?85 billion
What is a neuron?A specialised cell within the nervous system
What is the function of a neuron?To communicate with 1000s of other cells at a time in huge networks (pathways)
When do networks adapt?When we have new experiences
When are new networks formed?When we learn something new
Name the 9 features in a neuronCell body<div>Nucleus</div><div>Dendrites</div><div>Axon hillock</div><div>Nodes of Ranvier</div><div>Axon</div><div>Myelin sheath</div><div>Synapse</div><div>Axon terminal buttons</div>
What is plasticity?The brain's ability to change and adapt as a result of experience
What direction does action potential travel in?From main cell body down long axon to synaptic terminals
What is a long branch from the cell body that passes electrical impulses down to the end of the neuron to allow it to communicate with others?Axon
What are branches at the top end of a neuron that receive information from other neurons?Dendrites
What is the main part of the cell where the neuron sits and contains mitochondria?Cell body
What stores DNA?Nucleus
What is the area that connects the cell body to the axon and generates electrical impulse down the axon?Axon hillock
What is a fatty deposit that provides electrical insulation for an axon and allows electrical nerve impulses to be passed along faster?Myelin sheath
What are the gaps between adjacent myelin sheaths that speed up the action potential?Nodes of Ranvier
Where does the communication between one neuron and the next take place?Synapse
What is a synapse?A small gap where neurotransmitters are released so communication between neurons can take place
What are the 3 main elements of a synapse?Presynaptic neuron<div>Synaptic cleft</div><div>Postsynaptic neuron</div>
Where does the action potential start?Presynaptic neuron
What is the tiny space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neuron?Synaptic cleft
Where does the action potential message travel to?Postsynaptic neuron
How do neurons play a fundamental role in human behaviour?Any time we think, feel or do something thousands of neurons are communicating with each other
What does a chain of neurons form?A passageway that allows messages to be sent from one part of the brain to another, keeping the brain and body working properly
Do neurons make contact?No - the presynaptic neuron fires neurotransmitters across the synapse
What do action potentials (electrical impulses) allow?Information to be sent around the brain
What are neurotransmitters?Chemical messengers that take information around the brain
When are neurotransmitters released?After an action potential
Where are neurotransmitters released from and to?Presynaptic neuron to synaptic cleft
What do neurotransmitters stimulate?Postsynaptic neuron which creates an action potential
What is the function of neurotransmitters?To allow neurons to communicate with one another
Why is communication between neurons important?It allows our brains to think and feel and our bodies to do things
What are the 3 main neurotransmitters?<div>Serotonin</div>Dopamine<div>Noradrenaline</div>
What are some neurotransmitters linked to?Behaviour
Which neurotransmitter is involved in the fight/flight response?Noradrenaline
Which neurotransmitter is involved in lifting mood and inhibiting violent tendencies?Serotonin
Which neurotransmitter is involved in motivation and pleasure?Dopamine
Advantages of mass marketsMore customers<div>Economies of scale</div><div>Can build strong market presence</div>
Advantages of niche marketsLess competition<div>Customer loyalty - specific market and expertise</div><div>Higher profit margins</div>
Disadvantages of mass marketsHigh levels of competition<div>Lower profit margins</div>
Disadvantages of niche marketsNo economies of scale<div>Vulnerability because of undiverse product portfolio</div>
What does tissue fluid supply to cells?Oxygen and glucose for respiration<div>Amino acids for growth</div>
Where are elastic fibres and smooth muscle in arteries and veins?Middle layer of wall of vessel
Describe the function of the semilunar valvesTo prevent backflow of blood into the heart during diastole
How is damage/rupturing of arteries prevented?Strong outer collagen coat
Define recruitmentThe steps undertaken by a business to identify a vacancy and attract suitable candidates
What are the 2 types of recruitment?Internal and external
What does the recruitment process involve?Identifying a vacancy<div>Job description</div><div>Person specification</div><div>Advertising the vacancy</div><div>Receiving applications</div>
What is the difference between a job description and a person specification?Job description outlines the tasks and responsibilities of a job<div>Person specification outlines the characteristics of the person required to do the job</div>
What could be in a person specification?Qualifications and experience
What is selection?The actions taken by a business to help identify the best candidate for a job
What does the selection process involve?Short listing<div>Assessing candidates</div><div>Offering the position</div>
What is internal recruitment?When candidates for a position are recruited from within the organisation
What is external recruitment?When candidates for a position are recruited from outside the organisation
Advantages of internal recruitmentLower recruitment costs - shorter induction period, reduced training costs<div>Quicker process</div><div>Abilities of candidates are already known</div>
Disadvantages of internal recruitmentLeaves a vacancy to be filled<div>Can cause friction between internal candidates</div><div>Doesn't bring in new ideas</div>
Advantages of external candidatesMay be more experienced<div>Increases number of applicants to choose from</div><div>New sources of ideas</div>
Disadvantages of external recruitmentHigh recruitment costs - longer induction and training period<div>May upset internal candidates that have been overlooked</div>
Is job description, person specification and advertisement part of recruitment or selection?Recruitment
Are interviews, assessment centre and CV part of recruitment or selection?Selection
What are the 2 main methods of selection?Interviews and assessment centres
What happens in assessment centres?Candidates carry out a range of tasks, exercises and meetings over 2 days where they are measured against a set of competencies
Describe the 3 things that psychometric testing involvesAptitude - ability to develop skills and acquire knowledge<div>Attainment - levels of understanding</div><div>Personality - aspects of behaviour</div>
Why must businesses select the best employees?To not waste time and money
What are some costs of recruitment?Time drawing up job descriptions and person specifications<div>Placing advertisements in newspapers or journals</div><div>Fees paid to a recruitment consultancy</div>
What are some costs of selection?Managers time shortlisting and interviewing<div>Candidate expenses if reimbursed for interviews</div><div>Fees paid to assessment centres</div>
Define trainingProcess of equipping employees with the skills and knowledge necessary to carry out their job effectively
Describe the 3 methods of trainingOn-the-job = employee learns in the workplace from experienced employees<div>Off-the-job = any form of education that takes place outside of the workplace</div><div>Induction = introductory training for employees new to an organisation</div>
Advantages of on-the-job trainingMost cost effective<div>Opportunity to learn whilst doing</div><div>Training alongside real colleagues</div>
Advantages of off-the-job trainingWider range of skills/qualifications can be obtained<div>Learning from experts</div><div>Feel more confident when starting job</div>
Disadvantages of on-the-job trainingQuality depends on ability of trainer and time available - bad habits may be passed on<div>Potential disruption to production</div><div>Learning environment may not be conductive</div>
Disadvantages of off-the-job trainingMore expensive<div>New employees may still require induction training</div><div>Employees now have new skills/qualifications and may leave for better jobs</div>
Benefits of trainingIncreases range and level of skills - improved production and quality<div>Increases degree of flexibility - can respond to changes in technology or demand</div><div>More motivated workforce - opportunities for development and promotion</div>
Drawbacks of trainingProductivity time lost - employee and trainer<div>Costly - external training provider and transport</div>
What is a mass transport system?When substances are moved rapidly around the body in a transport medium (blood)
Why is mass transport needed?To move molecules quickly between gas exchange surfaces and cells
What method of transport is used by chloride ions to move through CFTR?Facilitated diffusion
What bonds are there between R groups in an enzyme?Hydrogen, disulphide and ionic
Define organisational designThe way in which jobs in a business are arranged in order for it to carry out its activities
What does the structure define?Workforce roles of employees and their job titles<div>Who is responsible and accountable to who and for what</div><div>Relationships between positions</div><div>Route through which decisions are made<br></div><div>How employees communicate with each other</div><div>How information is passed on</div>
What does a hierarchy show?Levels of management in a business from lowest to highest rank
How can a hierarchy be organised?Departments<div>Products</div><div>Geographical area</div>
What does a chain of command show?The way authority is organised
Do orders pass up or down the levels of a chain of command?Down
Does information pass up or down the levels of a chain of command?Up
Will a flat structure have a short or long chain of command?Short - few layers of management
Will a tall structure have a short or long chain of command?Long - many layers of management
What is the span of control?Number of subordinates directly reporting to a manager/superior
How many people does a manager have directly reporting to them in a narrow span of control?1-6
How many people does a manager have directly reporting to them in a wide span of control?7+
Advantages of a narrow span of controlTight control<div>Close supervision</div><div>Improved communication&nbsp;</div>
Disadvantages of a narrow span of controlWorkers feeling over supervised and not trusted - loss of initiative and creativity<div>Slow decision making - normally has many layers of hierarchy</div>
Should a narrow or wide span of control be used with complex tasks and why?Narrow because it gives managers time to think, plan and communicate more easily with subordinates
Advantages of a wide span of controlGreater decision making authority for subordinates<div>Improved job satisfaction - delegated responsibility</div>
Disadvantage of a wide span of controlHarder communication between managers and subordinates
Define responsibilityBeing accountable for someone/thing
Define authorityAbility to carry out the task
What is delegation?Passing authority and responsibility for tasks down the hierarchy
Advantages of delegationMotivates employees<div>Helps to identify employees with the potential for promotion</div><div>Gives boss time for planning rather than doing</div>
Disadvantages of delegationEmployees may not be trained adequately<div>Employees may feel overburdened</div><div>May make mistakes</div>
What is the difference between centralisation and decentralisation?Centralisation is when responsibility for decision making is maintained by senior managers at the top of the hierarchy whereas decentralisation it's delegated to middle managers throughout the hierarchy
Which has more bureaucracy (rules and procedures that must be followed); centralisation or decentralisation?Centralisation
Advantages of decentralisationFrees up management time<div>Provides motivation</div>
Advantages of centralisationSpeeds up decision making<div>Maintains tight control</div>
What are the 3 types of organisational structures?Tall<div>Flat</div><div>Matrix</div>
What is meant by a tall structure?Long chain of command<div>Narrow span of control</div><div>Many levels in hierarchy</div><div>Tends to be autocratic</div>
What is meant by a flat structure?Short chain of command<div>Wide span of control</div><div>Few levels in hierarchy</div><div>Tends to be democratic</div>
What is meant by a matrix structure?Gets people together from different areas in the business to form a project team
Advantages of tall structuresMotivation - promotion<div>Clear accountability</div>
Disadvantages of tall structuresSlower communication<div>Higher cost</div>
Advantages of flat structuresFaster communication<div>Save money on salaries</div><div>Engagement</div>
Disadvantages of flat structuresLittle/no progression<div>Reduced motivation</div><div>Power struggles</div>
Advantages of matrix structuresUtilises skills within organisation<div>Effective communication</div><div>Increased morale</div>
Disadvantages of matrix structuresPotential loss of control and conflict<div>Takes time to feel like a team to work together effectively</div><div>Dependent upon effective delegation</div>
What is it called when layers of management are removed and managers are made redundant?Delayering
What is the impact of delayering?Makes the organisational structure flatter
Advantages of delayeringReduced labour costs<div>Better communication and motivation - employees empowered and allowed to make own decisions</div><div>Greater responsibility</div>
Disadvantages of delayeringIncreased workload - wider span of control<div>Greater responsibility - stressful and unfair</div><div>Loss of key skills and talent</div><div>Pay claims for managers made redundant</div>
What is variation 13?Ordinary man giving instructions
What is the aim of variation 13?If authority and status of the experimenter influences obedience
Why were there 2 confederates?One was the learner and the other recorded times from the experimenter's desk
Which part of the procedure did the experimenter miss out?Telling the teacher which levels of shock to give
When did the experimenter leave the room?After receiving a rigged phone call
What did the second confederate suggest?To increase the shock level every time an incorrect answer was given
How did the confederate repeat his idea throughout the experiment?In an insistent and persuasive way
Did the confederate have any scientific authority?No
What were the results of variation 13?20% obeyed to the maximum shock level
What decreases the credibility of variation 13?Withdrawal of experimenter may have seemed staged and artificial
Strengths of variation 13Only one variation in procedure for each study and all other variables remain the same which makes it possible to compare the effects of manipulating the IV so we can show cause and effect between the authority/status and the level of obedience<div>The participants saw the confederate learner draw lots, just as they had done which reinforces the idea that he is just an ordinary man and therefore increases the validity of the study</div>
Weaknesses of variation 13Participants may not have believed that the shocks were real because they would expect a reputable university to protect participants - lowers validity<div>Participants may have still felt that the overall authority lay with the prestigious Yale University</div>
What made it possible to investigate the effect of specific variables in the variation studies?Good controls and standardised procedures in original experiment
How do the variation studies give Milgram's original study credibility?They support his original conclusions
What is surface tension?Net inwards force on the surface of water
What happens to gas exchange when tissue fluid accumulates and what is the effect?It is prevented so patients will feel more breathless due to less oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide removal
What is excess tissue fluid absorbed by?The lymphatic system
Where does the lymphatic system drain into?Veins
Which type of intermolecular force explains many of the important properties of water?Hydrogen bonding
Which reading is on top for blood pressure; systolic or diastolic?Systolic
Which end of the capillary is tissue fluid released from?Arteriole end
Why does tissue fluid have a lower protein content than blood plasma?Plasma proteins are too large to pass out of capillary
Why does tissue fluid have a less dissolved oxygen than blood plasma?Oxygen diffuses into cells and tissues
Describe step 1 of synaptic transmissionAn action potential moves down the presynaptic neuron and causes the vesicles filled with neurotransmitters to move close to the terminal membrane
Describe step 2 of synaptic transmissionVesicles fuse with the terminal membrane (exocytosis) which causes the neurotransmitter to be released into the synaptic cleft
Describe step 3 of synaptic transmissionThe neurotransmitter binds with protein receptors on the postsynaptic neuron and the presynaptic neuron
What does the activation of receptors on the postsynaptic neuron do?Causes the postsynaptic neuron to increase the probability of producing an action potential
What does the activation of the auto-receptors on the presynaptic neuron do?Causes the neuron to stop releasing neurotransmitter
Describe step 4 of synaptic transmissionOnce the neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft it is removed by reuptake, being broken down/degraded or by diffusion
Why is it important that neurotransmitters are removed from the synaptic cleft at the end of synaptic transmission?So they don't keep stimulating the postsynaptic neuron to produce an action potential
What is reuptake?Neurotransmitters are taken back up into the presynaptic neuron via reuptake transporter
How are neurotransmitters broken down/degraded?By enzymes in the synaptic cleft
What is meant by when neurotransmitters are removed by diffusion?Disperse away from the synaptic cleft
Benefit of synaptic transmission as an explanation of how messages move around the brainResearch on the processes of synaptic transmission is from research using brain scanning like PET scans which provide objective, reliable evidence of brain functioning = high scientific credibility
Drawbacks of synaptic transmission as an explanation of how messages move around the brainPET scans do not give microscopic detail on synaptic transmission<div>Much of the evidence comes from studying animals but generalising cat and rat brains to human brains may not be valid due to the differences like size and sensory and cognitive abilities</div><div>Individual differences are not taken into account as it is assumed that everyones brains uses synaptic transmission in the same way</div>
What is an experience of intense well-being reported by many users of recreational drugs called?Euphoria
How is euphoria achieved by drugs?They target the reward pathways of the brain
What are reward pathways?Circuits of structures and nerves that are linked to the activities of specific neurotransmitters, especially dopamine
What are dopamine pathways activated by?Natural rewarding behaviours (sex, eating food)
What do rewarding behaviours stimulate the release of?Normal levels of dopamine
Where is dopamine released?Nucleus accumbens and ventral tegmental area in the limbic system
After dopamine is released where are messages sent to and what happens?Frontal cortex and we experience pleasurable feelings
What does it mean if the feelings are rewarding?We are more likely to repeat the behaviour
Why do reward systems exist in our brains?Adaptive purpose - encourage behaviours that help us survive
How do the majority of recreational drugs work?Altering neurotransmission in the dopamine system
What do recreational drugs share the ability to do to the levels of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens and ventral tegmental area?Increase them
What is the impact of increased dopamine levels?Rewarding and pleasurable effects
Which structures in the limbic system are associated with pleasurable experiences and part of the reward systems of the brain?Nucleus accumbens and ventral tegmental area
Give examples of drugs that target the dopamine systemCocaine and heroin
How do recreational drugs change the way dopamine works in the synapses of the brain?By altering the communication between neurons that is enabled by dopamine
How do drugs prolong and intensify the activity in the reward system?They increase dopamine levels which continually excites the postsynaptic neurons within the system so they keep firing
What is motivation?Reasons for acting or behaving in a particular way<div>Desire to achieve a result</div>
What are the 2 types of motivation?Extrinsic and intrinsic
What is extrinsic motivation?Behaviour driven by external rewards or punishments (promotion, pay rise)
What is intrinsic motivation?Doing an activity for its inherent satisfaction (fun, passion)
What does motivation lead to?Higher labour productivity<div>Improved customer service</div><div>Lower labour turnover</div><div>Lower absenteeism</div>
How will motivated workers work?Work harder and produce higher levels of output with higher level of quality
What is the impact of higher quality?Increased customer loyalty
How do motivated workers reduce recruitment costs?Happier in their jobs and less likely to leave
What are the 4 motivational theories?Taylor's motivational theory<div>Mayo's motivational theory</div><div>Herzberg's two factor theory</div><div>Maslow's hierarchy of needs</div>
What type of workers can businesses with motivated workers attract and what does this lead to?Best employees - gain competitive advantage from a talented workforce
Summarise Taylor's motivational theoryScience is used to assign correct job and training
Summarise Mayo's motivational theoryWorkers have social needs which are more motivating than money
Summarise Maslow's hierarchy of needsHumans needs are put into an order of basic needs being most important then psychological and self fulfilment needs
Summarise Herzberg's two factor theoryMotivators (increase employee satisfaction) and poor hygiene factors (decrease employee satisfaction)
What are the 5 levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?Physiological<div>Safety</div><div>Love and belonging</div><div>Self esteem</div><div>Self fulfilment</div>
Benefits of Taylor's motivational theoryIncreased productivity<div>Reduced cost of production</div><div>Managers in control of workforce</div>
Drawbacks of Taylor's motivational theoryAlienation<div>Reduces creativity</div>
Benefits of Mayo's motivational theoryIncreased freedom, morale and communication
Drawbacks of Mayo's motivational theoryLess control<div>Could make them distracted</div>
Benefits of Maslow's hierarchy of needsTakes human nature into account<div>Simple to understand</div><div>Relevant in all fields</div>
Drawbacks of Maslow's hierarchy of needsNo way to measure satisfaction<div>Self fulfilment is different for each person</div><div>Cultural differences</div>
Benefits of Herzberg's two factor theoryEmphasis on intrinsic motivation<div>Money is treated as secondary</div><div>Focus on problems</div>
Drawbacks of Herzberg's two factor theoryIgnores external factors<div>Doesn't consider social and cultural differences</div><div>Can be subjective</div>
What are prothrombin and fibrinogen?Soluble globular plasma proteins
What type of enzymes are thromboplastin and thrombin?Soluble and globular
Why are incidences normally presented per 1000?Number of people in each group may be different<div>Allows for standardisation or comparison</div>
What does market research provide insights into?Dimensions of market (size, structure, growth)<br>Competitor strategies (market share, positioning)<br>Needs, wants and expectations of customers<br>Market segments
Is qualitative or quantitative data used to identify and anticipate customer needs and wants?Qualitative
Is qualitative or quantitative data used to find out the likely demand for a product?Quantitative
Is qualitative or quantitative data used to provide an insight into consumer behaviour?Both
How can businesses add value?USP<div>Branding</div><div>Quality</div><div>Design</div><div>Convenience</div>
What are the 2 methods of motivation?Financial and non-financial
What are the 5 methods of financial motivation?Piecework<div>Commission</div><div>Bonus</div><div>Profit sharing</div><div>Performance related pay</div>
What is called when payment is based on the number of items produced by an employee?Piecework
What is it called when payment is based on the number of units sold?Commission
What is an additional one off payment for an employee meeting targets called?&nbsp;Bonus
What is called when the proportion of employee pay varies with company profits?Profit sharing
What is called when employees receive a bonus due to their performance measured against a pre agreed range of criteria?Performance related pay
Advantages of pieceworkTime and production efficient
Disadvantages of pieceworkOnly suitable for jobs where it is easy to identify the contribution of each worker<div>May encourage workers to take dangerous shortcuts</div>
Advantages of commissionEnables high performing sales people to earn high amounts<div>Payroll cost is related to the value of the business rather than the amount</div>
Disadvantages of commissionSales people may cut corners to make sales<div>Once payments have been made sales force may lose motivation</div>
Advantages of bonusesAttract quality new employees<div>Clearer targets</div>
Disadvantages of bonusesEmployee competition<div>Taxation of bonuses</div>
Advantages of profit sharingIncreased employee loyalty<div>Lower recruitment and salary costs</div>
Disadvantages of profit sharingNegative focus on profits<div>Issues with entitlement and inequality</div>
Advantages of performance related payDefined framework for setting goals<div>Assists in retaining staff</div>
Disadvantage of performance related payToo much of the process relies on quality of employees
How does being small help glucose to be an immediate source of energy for respiration?It doesn't need to be hydrolysed so it can quickly and easily absorb into the blood and diffuse into cells
What structure do 1,6 glycosidic bonds form?Branched
What is the impact of starch and glycogen being insoluble?No osmotic effect
Why did Milgram suggest that people's tendency to obey people has useful functions?It helps to keep society running smoothly since people abide by rules rather than acting independently
What 2 states does Milgram's agency theory suggest that people have?Autonomous&nbsp;<div>Agentic</div>
Describe the autonomous statePerson believes they have power<div>Freely chooses their own behaviour</div><div>Takes control for their actions</div><div>Guided by their own moral code</div>
Describe the agentic statePerson allows someone else to direct their behaviour<div>Assume other person is responsible for the consequences of their behaviour</div><div>May act against their own moral code</div><div>Give up their free will</div>
What does Milgram suggest that the agentic state can be explained by?Evolution
How could the agentic state be a survival strategy?Following leaders obediently rather than acting independently can increase the chance of survival in a threatening situation
What does the agentic state do in modern times?Helps society to run smoothly
Where does Milgram suggest that acting agentically is learned?In childhood from parents and schools - children are taught to put aside their own wishes so that order can be maintained
How is the agentic state reinforced in adulthood?Through the legal system
When is moral strain experienced?When a person feels that their obedient behaviour is wrong and goes against their moral values
Give 2 sources of moral strain for the participants in Milgram's studyHearing the cries of the victim<div>Going against their own moral values</div>
How do people shift into an agentic state?By displacing their responsibility onto an authority figure
Which 2 ways can moral strain be reduced?Displacing their responsibility onto an authority figure (shifting into an agentic state)<div>Choosing not to obey (dissenting)</div>
APPLICATIONS<div>Which applications have arisen from this theory?</div>Explains real life events - obedience to authority shown by US soldiers in the Vietnam War when Lieutenant Calley instructed his division to massacre old men, women and children, justifying this by saying he was just following orders<div>Studies from different cultures support agency theory - Meeus and Rajmaker found that Dutch participants would harass a job applicant because they were told to do so for a research study</div><div>Can be applied to real life - Hofling et al. (1966) showed how nurses obey doctors orders</div>
APPLICATIONS<div>How can this theory not be applied?</div>It doesn't explain individual differences - why some people obey and others do not<div>Ignores factors like personality type</div>
METHODOLOGY<div>What is good about the methodology used in developing the theory?</div>Milgram's studies used standardised procedures = can be replicated in different circumstances or change a variable to see what has an impact on obedience levels - can manipulate the independent variable and see how it impacts the dependent variable so cause and effect can be inferred which increases the scientific credibility of the theory
METHODOLOGY<div>What is bad about the methodology used in developing the theory?</div>Methods Milgram used in his studies lacked mundane realism<div>Tasks that participants were asked to do (shocking someone because they couldn't learn a word pair) were not something people would be expected to do in everyday life</div><div>Lacks ecological validity and doesn't generalise to life outside the laboratory</div>
EVIDENCE<div>What is evidence for Milgram's agency theory?</div>Milgram's study supports the concept of moral strain - participants showed distress when ordered to harm an innocent person<div>Milgram's study supports the concept of displacement of responsibility - in debriefing some participants reported that their behaviour was the responsibility of the experimenter and they had not wanted to shock the learner</div><div>The theory is supported by other research - Hofling et al. (1966) showed how nurses obey doctors</div>
EVIDENCE<div>What is evidence against Milgram's agency theory?</div>Lacks direct evidence - agency is an internal mental process so it cannot be directly observed and Milgram's theory about evolutionary development of agency theory cannot be directly tested so it has low validity<div>Description rather than an explanation</div>
ALTERNATIVE THEORY<div>What are alternative theories?</div>French and Raven (1990) - identified 5 bases of power which are said to motivate and influence behaviour which explain Milgram's finding better than agency theory<div>Social Impact Theory</div>
What are the 5 bases of power that French and Raven identified in 1990?Legitimate power<div>Reward power</div><div>Referent power</div><div>Expert power</div><div>Coercive power</div>
Describe Hofling et al. (1966) studyNurses would follow a doctors' orders to give twice the daily dose of a drug to patients<div>95% displaced their responsibility</div>
What is a lipoprotein?Cholesterol combined with protein and triglycerides
What is formed from the complete hydrolysis of a triglyceride?3 fatty acids and glycerol
What happens to pH when a triglyceride is hydrolysed and why?Decreases because fatty acids are produced
Which 3 ways can drugs affect synaptic transmission?Increasing the amount of dopamine released into the synaptic cleft<div>Blocking the presynaptic transporters so that reuptake of the neurotransmitter is stopped and more remains in the synaptic cleft</div><div>Stopping the action of enzymes that would normally breakdown the neurotransmitter so more dopamine is left in the synaptic cleft</div>
What does more dopamine in the synaptic cleft lead to?More activity in the postsynaptic neurons
What plant is cocaine extracted from?Leaves of the coca plant
What is cocaine?A highly addictive CNS stimulant
What does cocaine disrupt the normal functioning of?Dopamine pathways
What does cocaine block?The transporter receptors on the presynaptic dopamine neurons in the ventral tegmental area
What happens if the transporter receptors on the presynaptic dopamine neurons are blocked?They cannot reuptake dopamine therefore dopamine remains in the synaptic cleft for longer
What happens if dopamine remains in the synaptic cleft for longer?Prolongs and intensifies the stimulation of the postsynaptic neuron
What part of the brain does the VTA activate that is associated with euphoric feelings?Nucleus accumbens
What is one of the most important factors driving continued drug use and addiction?Their ability to alter dopamine neurotransmission
What does it mean if the brain is a self-regulating system?It reacts to the overproduction of dopamine by reducing how much dopamine it naturally produces
What happens when the high subsides and the brain has less dopamine than it needs for normal functioning?Causes feelings of dysphoria
How are the feelings of dysphoria reduced?The person feels overpowered to self-administer the drug again to re-experience the euphoria
What does repeated use of drug cause the brain to do?Further down-regulate the production of dopamine
What happens to the natural baseline level of dopamine in the brain when a tolerance is built up for the drug?It becomes so low that the user must take even greater doses of the drug to get high
How do addicted people avoid the experience of withdrawal?Become physically dependent on the drug
Define withdrawalLack of dopamine which leads to addiction
Advantages of how drugs affect brain functioning and synaptic transmissionWell-controlled, scientific evidence using animals to support conclusions which would not be possible on humans due to ethical constraints<div>Brain scanning techniques have provided important data on how the brain works whilst using drugs</div><div>The discovery of how drugs influence brain functioning and synaptic transmission may enable scientists to develop medications to help addicts give up using drugs</div>
Disadvantages of how drugs affect brain functioning and synaptic transmissionScanning techniques are not sophisticated enough to show everything that happens in the brain when drugs are taken - tiny changes in synapses<div>Evidence from animals may not be straightforwardly generalised to humans</div>
Who made the Agency Theory and when?Milgram - 1973
Who made the Social Impact Theory and when?Bibb Latane - 1981
What does the Social Impact Theory suggest?The presence of others causes behavioural, cognitive and emotional changes in a person
Who is the person being impacted known as?The target
Who is the person doing the influencing known as?The source
What is social influence becoming stronger up to a point known as?Multiplication of impact
What is social influence becoming weaker known as?Division of impact
What are the 3 laws of the Social Impact Theory?Social force<div>Psychosocial law</div><div>Division of impact</div>
Describe the 3 factors that come under social forceStrength - status, authority and age<div>Immediacy - space and time</div><div>Numbers - how many sources v.s. targets in a group</div>
How is magnitude of impact calculated?Function (strength of sources x immediacy of sources x number of sources)
What is the equation for magnitude of impact?i = f(SIN)
What does the magnitude of impact equation predict?How likely people are to behave
What is good about the magnitude of impact equation?It is reliable which makes it credible
Describe the psychosocial lawThe first source of influence has the most impact and the next ones have a less dramatic impact on social force
Describe division of imapctImpact of source is reduced if the person has an ally/group of allies due to the diffusion of responsibility
APPLICATIONS<div>Good things about the application</div>Theory is useful because it can predict how people will behave under certain conditions by using the mathematical formula<div>Reliable - same measurements put into formula = same predictions will emerge</div>
APPLICATIONS<br>Bad things about the applicationStatic rather than dynamic - doesn't take interactions between target and source into account and ignores what the target brings to the situation<div>Limited in the type of social situation it is able to explain and cannot predict what might happen when 2 equal groups impacts on one another</div>
ALTERNATIVE THEORY<div>What is the alternative theory?</div>Agency Theory
METHODOLOGY<div>What is good about the methodology?</div>Both laboratory and field experiments were used to develop the Social Impact Theory which increases scientific credibility of the theory as standardised procedures and controls were used, allowing cause and effect to be inferred
METHODOLOGY<div>Describe the experiments that were used to develop the Social Impact Theory</div>Asch - conformity<div>Milgram's variation studies - obedience</div><div>Latane - bystander behaviour</div>
EVIDENCE<div>Evidence for the Social Impact Theory</div>Supported by research from Asch, Milgram and Latane - evidence on the impact of strength, immediacy and number on observable human responses in social situations<div>One of Milgram's variation studies where the presence of a dissenting peer lowered obedience to 10%</div><div>Milgram's variation 7 - proximity is an important factor in obedience</div><div>Sedikides &amp; Jackson</div>
Describe Sedikides &amp; Jackson (1990) experimentPeople tended to obey a uniformed zoo keeper when he told them not to lean on the railings compared to a casually dressed zoo keeper in a birdhouse in a zoo
EVIDENCE<div>Evidence against the Social Impact Theory</div>Ignores individual differences - doesn't explain why some people are more resistant to social impact and some are more affected by it<div>Does not explain why people are influenced by others, just under what conditions they are more likely to be influenced</div>
What are the 8 non-financial methods of motivation?Delegation<div>Consultation</div><div>Empowerment</div><div>Team working</div><div>Flexible working</div><div>Job enrichment</div><div>Job rotation</div><div>Job enlargement</div>
Describe delegationPassing of authority further down the hierarchy - manager passes a more complex task to a subordinate to complete
Describe consultationListening to the views of employees before making decisions that affect them
Describe empowermentGiving employees the authority to make decisions and control their own activities
Describe team workingEmployees work in small groups with common aims
Describe flexible workingPart time, temporary, home working, self employed and zero hours
Describe job enrichmentGiving employees greater responsibility and recognition within their job role
Describe job rotationChanging an employee's job or tasks from time to time
Describe job enlargementGiving an employee more work to do of a similar nature
In traditional/long distribution channels, how does the product get from the manufacturer to the consumer?Through a wholesaler then retailer
What is heavier; muscle or fat?Muscle
What happens to the body if you take in more energy than you use?Excess energy is stored as fat (and glycogen)<div>BMI increases, leading to obesity</div>
Advantage of delegationMotivation from a feeling of trust due to being selected to complete more complex work than usual
Disadvantage of delegationFeeling of resentment if extra work over burdens the subordinate - must have correct knowledge and skills and the time to do it
Advantages of consulationPositive feelings as employees are being listened to<div>Changes are easier to be implemented</div>
Disadvantages of consulationDemotivating if managers ignore their employees<div>Time consuming to make decisions</div>
Advantage of empowermentHigh levels of productivity
Disadvantage of empowermentCost involved with training employees to have greater levels of authority
Advantages of team workingHigher productivity<div>Shared skills</div><div>Better ideas</div>
Disadvantages of team workingDisputes between team members<div>Time and cost needed for training</div>
Advantage of flexible workingMotivation from being able to choose when you work
Disadvantages of flexible workingNot knowing when you will work and get paid<div>Lack of commitment and quality</div>
Advantage of job enrichmentMotivates employees by giving them the opportunity to use their abilities to their fullest
Disadvantages of job enrichmentTraining is needed<div>Some people may be reluctant to take on jobs with extra responsibility</div>
Advantage of job rotationEmployees can cover for absent colleagues
Disadvantage of job rotationSome employees may not like the changing nature of their work
Advantage of job enlargementWidens variety of tasks and reduces repetition and boredom
Disadvantages of job enlargementDoesn't enable progression<div>Reduces productivity as employees are trying to complete a number of tasks rather than concentrating on one specialised task</div>
How can a blood clot lead to heart disease?If it blocks the coronary artery, the flow of blood and supply of oxygen to the heart tissue is prevented, resulting in a heart attack
What are the 3 main categories of factors that affect obedience?Individual differences<div>Situational variables</div><div>Culture</div>
What are the 2 factors within individual differences that affect obedience?Personality and gender
What are the 3 aspects of personality that affect obedience?Locus of control<div>Authoritarianism</div><div>Empathy</div>
Who came up with the idea of locus of control and when?Rotter, 1966
What is locus of control?The extent people feel that they are in control of their own situation and lives
What do people with an external locus of control believe?That their behaviour is largely beyond their control
What do people with an internal locus of control believe?That they are responsible for their own actions
How is locus of control consistent with Milgram's research?Many of those who obeyed said that they obeyed because the experimenter had the final responsibility, not themselves having responsibility
Why is research to do with locus of control mixed?There's only tentative evidence that those with an internal locus of control resist and an external locus of control obey
Define authoritarianismA personality trait characterised by hostility to people of a different race, social group, age, sexuality or other minority
How does someone with an authoritarian personality act towards authority?Submissive
How does someone with an authoritarian personality act towards those seen as subordinate?Harsh
What was created by who to measure authoritarianism?F-scale questionnaire by Theodor Adorno
What are the 2 pieces of evidence supporting the idea that authoritarian personalities are linked to obedience?Milgram and Elms (1966)<div>Dambrun &amp; Vatine (2010)</div>
How many participants from Milgram's experiments did Milgram and Elms (1966) compare each of their F-scale scores to?20 obedient and 20 defiant
What did Milgram and Elms (1966) find?Higher F-scale score = obedient<div>Defiant group showed more social responsibility</div>
How did Dambrun &amp; Vatine (2010) conduct a simulation of Milgram's experiment?Using a virtual computer simulation
What did Dambrun &amp; Vatine (2010) find?High authoritarian scores = more likely to be obedient
What are the 2 possible reasons why those with high authoritarian scores had increased obedience?Wanted to punish the subordinate learner<div>Submissive to authority</div>
What is empathy?Ability to understand other people's feelings
What would seem logical that someone with high levels of empathy do when asked to harm someone?Be less obedient
Who investigated empathy and when?Burger, 2009
What did Burger (2009) find in his empathy investigation?Higher empathy = more likely to protest against giving electric shocks<div>But this did not translate into lower levels of obedience</div>
Why would people predict that women would be less obedient?More empathetic and less likely to inflict pain
Why would people predict that women would be more obedient?Stereotypically more likely to comply with male authority
How many female teachers did Milgram use in one of his variation studies?40
What were Milgram's findings about female vs male obedience?Virtually identical (65% obedience)
What was different between males and females in Milgram's study?Females reported much higher anxiety than males
Who also found that females had higher anxiety levels than males?Burger (2009) when replicating Milgram's study
What were Blass' (1999) findings on obedience between females and males?Consistent between them across 9 out of 10 studies
Where did Kilham &amp; Mann (1974) replicate Milgram's study?Australia
What did Kilham &amp; Mann (1974) find out about obedience between females and males?Women were far less obedient (16%) than men (40%)
Why might have females been less obedient than males in Kilham &amp; Mann's (1974) study?Males teachers were paired with male learners and female teachers were paired with female learners<div>Female teacher may have felt solidarity with the female learner and felt more inclined to dissent</div>
How many studies did Blass (1991) conduct a meta-analysis on?9
What is meta-analysis?A study which uses the results from a number of different studies to come up with an overall set of results
What did Blass (1999) find?Only Kilham &amp; Mann found gender differences
What are the overall findings about gender and obedience?Gender makes little difference to obedience but there are differences in emotional responses
What is leadership?The ability to influence and direct people in order to meet the goals of a group
What is management?Process through which company resources are used and decisions are made in order to meet the objectives of the firm
Who will inspire and motivate people to meet objectives; a leader or manager?Leader
Who will set objectives and decide how to go about achieving them; a leader or manager?Manager
What are the 4 leadership styles?Autocratic<div>Democratic</div><div>Paternalistic</div><div>Laissez-Faire</div>
Describe an autocratic leadership styleLeader makes a decision without consultation
Describe a democratic leadership styleLeader consults the team but makes the final decision
Describe a paternalistic leadership styleLeader acts in a fatherly way towards the workforce<div>Make decisions based on the needs of the workforce and the business</div>
Describe a laissez-faire leadership styleLeader allows the team to make decisions
Advantages of an autocratic leadership styleBoosts productivity<div>Faster decision making</div><div>Better communication</div><div>Effective handling of crisis</div>
Disadvantages of an autocratic leadership styleLow employee morale<div>Lack of trust</div><div>Leads to resentment</div><div>Dependence system</div>
Advantages of a democratic leadership styleLess absenteeism<div>Greater innovation</div><div>Team cohesion and trust</div><div>Job satisfaction and commitment</div>
Disadvantages of a democratic leadership styleSlow decision making<div>Struggles to offer clear definition of leadership</div><div>Performance may falter</div><div>Leader may feel overwhelmed</div>
Advantages of a paternalistic leadership styleReduced absenteeism and labour turnover<div>High loyalty</div><div>Good behaviour rewarded</div>
Disadvantages of a paternalistic leadership styleReliant on employer<div>Staff motivation isn't high if they don't get on with the manager</div>
Advantages of a laissez-faire leadership styleBoosts employee morale<div>Departments decide faster</div><div>Employees use expertise</div><div>Employee leadership and independence</div>
Disadvantages of a laissez-faire leadership styleTake advantage of low supervision<div>Conflict may increase</div><div>Lowers role awareness</div>
What is heroin made of?Morphine
What is morphine extracted from?Opium poppy
What was opium originally used for?Treating pain, sleeplessness and diarrhoea
When morphine is made into heroin is it stronger or weaker than morphine or opium?Stronger
What are some positive effects of heroin?Relaxed<div>Happy</div><div>Sleepy</div>
What are some negative effects of heroin?Drowsy<div>Dry mouth</div><div>HIV from needle sharing</div>
When is a sudden rush of pleasure felt after taking heroin?Immediately for a minute or two as heroin bathes the brain&nbsp;
What happens when heroin is distributed by the bloodstream?It is changed into a more usable form of morphine
How long does the high last for (after the rush)?4 or 5 hours
How does the high make users feel?Warm, drowsy, cozy and a sense of apathy towards their environment
What does it mean if heroin is highly addictive and tolerance develops quickly?Increased doses are needed in order to achieve the same effect<div>After a period of use many addicts no longer experience the euphoria - they only use heroin for relief of painful withdrawal symptoms</div>
What does overdosing lead to?Respiratory failure = coma/death
When is an overdose more likely?When heroin is taken with other drugs
How does heroin cause death due to inhaling vomit?Heroin sedates you and stops you from coughing properly<div>Vomit remains in airways so you can't breathe</div>
What does damage to veins and arteries caused by injecting heroin lead to?Gangrene = death of body tissue - usually a finger, toe or limb
What infections does sharing needles put you at risk of?Hepatitis B/C and HIV/AIDS
What is relapse?Resuming the use of a drug after one or more periods of abstinence
What is the compulsion to get the next hit known as?Drug-seeking behaviour
During periods of abstinence do drug addicts experience drug-seeking behaviour?No, however something in the environment can trigger this compulsion and lead the person to relapse
What is the key cause for relapse?When people experience stimuli in their environment that are associated with when they used to take heroin (drug-associated cues)
Give examples of drug-associated cuesParaphernalia (needles)<div>Music</div><div>Social situations</div>
How can Milgram's research tell us that situational variables can affect obedience?Setting, proximity and authority affected obedience in his variation studies
What are the 4 situational variables?Momentum of compliance<div>Proximity</div><div>Status of the authority</div><div>Personal responsibility</div>
Describe momentum of complianceExperimenter starts off with making small and trivial requests which don't cause any anxiety<div>These initial requests commit the participant to the experiment so they feel duty-bound to continue</div>
Give an example of momentum of complianceThe voltage on the shock machine increases gradually by 15V increments
How does obedience change when the authority figure is closer?Increases
How does obedience change when the victim is closer?Decreases
What does Milgram refer to proximity as and why?Buffer - reduces obedience
When is obedience strongest in reference to status of the authority figure?When the authority figure is seen as legitimate
In one of Milgram's variation studies, what happened to obedience when the teacher had to physically place the hand of the learner onto a shock plate?Decreased
In Milgram's experiments, what happened to obedience when the learner was in a different room and could not be seen or heard at all?Increased to 100%
In Milgram's experiments, what happened to obedience when they were conducted at the prestigious Yale University?Increased
In Milgram's variation studies, what happened to obedience when they were conducted at a less prestigious institution or when instructions were given by an ordinary man, not a high-status researcher?Decreased
What happened to obedience when participants felt that someone else (the experimenter) was responsible for harming the learner?Increased
In one of Milgram's variation studies where participants had to sign a contract that stated that they were taking part of their own free will and that Yale University was not responsible for any legal consequences, what happened to obedience?Decreased to 40%
Why does reduced DCPIP contain more hydrogen than oxidised DCPIP?Because it gains hydrogen from the vitamin C
What do skinner boxes allow researchers to control?All extraneous variables
How do rats self-administer heroin?When a light appears and a tone is heard the rat pokes its nose through a hole<div>This breaks a laser beam and will automatically release some heroin into the catheter has been surgically inserted into the rat's bloodstream</div>
What act as the drug associated cues?Light and auditory tone
What is the title of the experiment?Prefrontal cortex AMPA receptor plasticity is crucial for cue-induced relapse to heroin seeking
What neurotransmitter is AMPA receptors for?Glutamate
What does glutamate do?Excites other areas of the brain including reward pathways
What is the study concerned with?The causes of relapse in heroin addiction
Which changes in the brain was Van de Oever concerned with relating to when heroin addicts experience drug associated cues in their environment and relapse?Biological
Where were the changes in the synapses that the researchers focused on?Medial prefrontal cortex
What is the aim of Van den Oever study?To investigate acute changes in the molecular composition and function of synapses in the medial prefrontal cortex upon re-exposure to heroin cues after long-term abstinence from self-administration
What is stage 1?Self administration of heroin
What is stage 2?Abstinence (forced &amp; extinction)
What is stage 3?Re-exposure to drug associated cues
What is stage 4?Analysis of composition and function of synapses in the medial prefrontal cortex
What were the experimental rats trained to self-administer?Heroin
What were the control rats trained to self-administer?Sucrose solution (sweet drink)
Why is there a control group?To ensure that any neurobiological changes were due to heroin and not just any reward
What happened to the experimental and control groups after becoming addicted?They got split into 2 groups
How many days did abstinence last for?21
How was forced abstinence achieved?Being kept in a normal cage
How was extinction achieved?Being in the self-administration box but not receiving heroin when nose poking
What happened to the 2 groups after 21 days of abstinence?Split into another 2
Describe what happened to one half of the abstinence rats and one half of the extinction rats in stage 3Re-exposed to the drug-associated cues for 60 mins in the original self-administration boxes but they did not receive any heroin
Describe what happened to the other half of the abstinence rats and the other half of the extinction rats in stage 3Placed in the self-administration boxes for 60 mins but were not exposed to any drug-associated cues
How was drug-seeking behaviour recorded as?A measure of relapse
Why were one half of the rats not exposed to drug-associated cues in stage 3?For it to be a control in order to confirm that any synaptic changes were due to the drug-associated cues
What happened straight after stage 3?The rats were decapitated and their brains were frozen
How were the rats' brains analysed?Using the mass spectrometry technique
What is the mass spectrometry technique?Analytical technique to identify the amount and types of chemicals present in a microscopic sample
What does mass spectrometry allow the detection of?Subtle changes in receptor proteins in the synapses of the medial prefrontal cortex
Summarise result 1; behavioural evidence of relapseCues = more drug seeking (relapse)<div>No cues = less seeking (relapse)</div>
Summarise conclusion 1; behavioural evidence of relapseAfter abstinences exposure to drug associated cues can trigger a relapse
Summarise result 1 practical application; behavioural evidence of relapseDrug addicts must be removed from drug associated cues to avoid relapse - rehab in extreme cases
Summarise result 2; composition of synapses in the medial prefrontal cortexCues = lower than normal levels of AMPA receptors in medial prefrontal cortex
Summarise conclusion 2; composition of synapses in the medial prefrontal cortexSynaptic transmission process for glutamate in medial prefrontal cortex was inhibited for rats exposed to cues = lower levels of excitation in dopamine reward systems
Summarise result 2 practical application; composition of synapses in the medial prefrontal cortexTherapists must understand that addicts' molecular brain changes as a result of re-exposure to drug-associated cues making relapse more likely
Summarise result 3; drug treatmentNot injected with drug to prevent endocytosis = greater amount of relapse
Summarise conclusion 3; drug treatmentReduction in AMPA receptors is causing relapse back into drug seeking behaviour
Summarise result 3 practical application; drug treatmentA similar injection to prevent endocytosis should be developed for humans to aid with relapse prevention
What is culture?Values, ideas, customs and behavioural norms of a particular group of people or a society
What are the 2 categories of culture?Individualistic and collectivist
Describe individualistic culturesBehave more independently, resisting conformity and compliance with their culture, emphasise individualism within the group
Describe collectivist culturesBehave more interdependently, co-operation and compliance is important for the stability of the group&nbsp;
Give examples of individualistic culturesBritain and America
Give examples of collectivist culturesChina and Israel
Which country did Ancona &amp; Pareyson (1968) conduct their study in?Italy
What was Ancona and Pareyson's (1968) study?Replicated Milgram's studies using students
What was the obedience rate for Ancona &amp; Payerson (1968)?80%
Which country did Slater (2006) conduct his study in?UK
Which country did Meuss &amp; Rajjmakers (1986) conduct their study in?Netherlands
Which country did Schurz (1985) conduct his study in?Austria
Which 9 countries of studies did Blass (1991) review?US<div>India</div><div>Austria</div><div>Italy</div><div>South Africa</div><div>Puerto Rico</div><div>Scotland</div><div>Holland</div><div>Canada</div>
Describe Schurz (1985) studyReplicated Milgram's study but ultrasound shocks were given instead
What were the obedience rates for Blass (1991)?Average in US = 60.94%<div>Average elsewhere = 65.94%</div>
What was the obedience rate for Schurz (1985)?80%
Describe Meuss &amp; Rajjmakers (1986) studyDiscovered whether people would obey orders to psychologically abuse job interviewees
What was the obedience rate of Meeus &amp; Rajjmakers (1986) study?92%
Describe Slater (2006) studyVirtual reality replication of Milgram's study
What was the obedience rate for Slater (2006) study?73.9%
What does developmental psychology combine?Gender and culture
What might developmental psychology predict about women?They would be more compliant because according to gender role schemas they have been socialised to be quiet and compliant
What might developmental psychology predict about children growing up in an individualistic culture?Less likely to be obedient than children growing up in a collectivist culture
What two things suggest that nurture is important in shaping people's behaviour?Socialisation where children learn appropriate gender roles<div>Cultural influences&nbsp;</div>
What did Blass show about obedience across cultures?It's one of the universals of social behaviour
How does acid reduce the rate of reaction?H+ ions affect the ionic bonding of the enzyme which changes the shape of the active site so the substrate doesn't fit
Who done the contemporary study and when?Burger (2009)
What is the title of the contemporary study?Replicating Milgram: Would People Still Obey Today?
What was the aim of Burger's study?To partially replicate Milgram's study
What 2 things did partially replicating Milgram's study allow Milgram to do?Compare the studies to find out whether obedience levels would be different between a 45 year gap<div>Protect participants better</div>
What did Burger predict that obedience levels would be in his study compared to Milgram's?Similar
At which voltage level did Burger stop the study?150V
Give 2 reasons why Burger stopped the study at 150VMakes it less distressing and more ethical than going up to 450V<div>It wouldn't affect the findings since in Milgram's study only 7 people who went beyond 150V stopped before 450V (point of no return)</div>
Describe variation 5Learner pretended to have a heart condition
What were the results for variation 5?82.5% obedience
How did Burger advertise his study?Flyers in a local paper, local establishments (libraries and businesses) and online
How much were participants paid for taking part?$50
Which participants were immediately excluded and why?Those who had studied more than 2 psychology classes at university<div>Ensures that no participants who were familiar with Milgram's study took part which controls extraneous variables</div>
What were participants asked about in the first stage of the screening process?Their physical and psychological health and whether they had suffered any traumatic childhood experiences
How many participants were excluded due to the first stage of the screening process?30%
What 4 questionnaires did participants do in the second stage of the screening process?Interpersonal Reactivity Index (empathy)<div>Beck Anxiety Inventory</div><div>Desirability of Control Scale</div><div>Beck Depression Inventory</div>
Who was the second screening process led by?2 clinical psychologists
Which structured interview did clinical psychologists use to interview participants?Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview
What does the MINI interview identify?Anyone who might be negatively affected by the study
Of the 123 people who were interviewed, how many were excluded from the study?38.3%
Did the people who were excluded after the interview receive money?Yes
What is good about the screening process?Helps make the study more ethical
What is bad about the screening process?Reduces generalisability
How many participants remained after the screening processes were completed?76
Of the 76 remaining participants, how many dropped out?6
Of the 6 who dropped out, how many indicated that they were aware of Milgram's study?5
How many people made up the final sample?70
How many males and females were there?29 males and 41 females
What was the age range?20-81
What was the age range?20-50
What was experiment one called?The baseline condition
Which variation of Milgram's study did Burger replicate?5
Why were participants split into 2 groups?To keep the ratios of each gender the same
What were the participants told that would happen if they withdrew?They could keep the $50
What was different about Burger's procedure compared to Milgram's?The confederate and learner were asked to sign consent forms
What did the teacher witness the experimenter doing to the learner?"Putting an electrode onto their wrist and explaining that the paste ""would prevent blisters or burns"""
How many word pairs were read out?25
When did the learner reveal he had a heart problem?When the experimenter explained what the teacher has to do
What sample shock was given?15V
When were pre-recorded grunts heard?75V
What did the learner say at 150V?"""Ugh. That's all. Get me out of here, please. My heart's starting to bother me. I refuse to go on. Let me out."""
If the teacher was resistant to continuing, when would the experiment end?After all 4 of the verbal prods were used
If the teacher wasn't resistant to continuing, when would the experiment end?When the teacher read out the next instruction following the administration of 150V
What did the debriefing include?Admitting that the shocks were not real and the teacher meeting the learner to see that he was fine
When was the debriefing carried out?Immediately
What was experiment two called?The Modelled Refusal condition
What is the aim of experiment two?To see if people would be less likely to be obedient if there was social support for the idea of exiting the study sooner
How is the modelled refusal condition different to the baseline condition?Two confederates were used instead of one
What was the purpose of the second confederate?To be another teacher
Was the confederate teacher 1 or teacher 2?Teacher 1
Were teacher 1 and teacher 2 the same or different gender?Same
Did teacher 1 or teacher 2 take the lead of asking questions and administrating shocks?Teacher 1
What did teacher 1 do at 75V when the learner grunted?Hesitated
What did teacher 1 say at 90V?"""I don't know about this"""
"What did teacher 1 do when the experimenter said ""please continue""?"Refused to carry on and pushed their back from the table
When teacher 1 refused to continue what did the experimenter do?Asked teacher 2 to continue
Experiment one results for stopping at 150V or earlier30%
Experiment one results for prepared to continue after 150V70%
Experiment two results for stopping at 150V or earlier36.7%
Experiment two results for prepared to continue after 150V63.3%
How can neurons reduce the number of receptors?Endocytosis
Did researchers use the same or new set of rats in the follow up procedure?New set of rats
What was different about the follow up procedure?Both groups self-administered heroin and both were exposed to drug-associated cues in the period of abstinence/extinction
What were one group of rats injected with in the follow up procedure?A drug that prevented endocytosis in the medial pre-frontal cortex
GENERALISABILITY - strengthCrucial areas of brain for drug addiction are similar in rats and humans
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessSample of male Wistar rats is not a representative sample of target population (drug addicted humans)
RELIABILITY - strengthStandardised procedures makes study more replicable
RELIABILITY - weaknessHave to keep getting new rats - BPS won't approve after a certain point
VALIDITY - strengthsControl group<div>Control over extraneous variables</div>
VALIDITY - weaknessReductionist - doesn't include social factors
ETHICS - strengthRats instead of humans
ETHICS - weaknessHarms rats
Was there any statistical difference between the baseline and modelled refusal condition?No which goes against Burger's prediction that modelled refusal would decrease obedience
Was there any statistical difference between the baseline condition and the similar condition in Milgram's study?No
What are some conclusions?Time and changes in society's culture did not affect obedience<div>There were no significant gender differences</div><div>Lack of empathy did not explain obedience</div><div>Modelled refusal did not affect obedience</div>
GENERALISABILTY - strengthsUsed males and females<div>Wide age range 20-81</div><div>Range of occupations and ethnicities</div>
GENERALISABILTY - weaknessesSmall sample 70 people<div>Can't generalise to people with emotional issues since they were excluded in the screening process</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthsReplicable - standardised procedures and control over extraneous variables
APPLICATION - strengthMirrors real life situations where an authority figure is telling you what to do
VALIDITY - strengthExtraneous variables like personality are controlled
VALIDITY - weaknessesArtificial lab setting - less ecological validity<div>Screening process</div>
ETHICS - strengthsGave right to withdraw and experiment would be stopped if signs of severe stress are presented<div>Procedures approved by the Santa Clara University Review Board</div>
Do alleles have the same locus?Yes
Do alleles have the same base sequence?No, they are slightly different
Which diagram shows the occurrence of disease in a family?Pedigree
Which diagram calculates the probability of genotype of offspring?Punnet Square
Do dominant or recessive disease have carriers?Recessive only
Give an example of a homozygous dominant genotype for CFFF
Give an example of a homozygous recessive genotype for CFff
How is diffusion distance reduced in alveoli and capillaries?Flattened cells form alveoli and capillary walls
How does a gene mutation affect the sequence of amino acids and the function of a protein?Changes the primary sequence which changes the protein function
Describe some mutations which would lead to no CFTR protein being madeStop codon too early<div>Frame shift</div><div>Transcription or translation does not occur</div><div>Protein or mRNA too short</div><div>Different protein made</div>
Where are peptide bonds formed between?The carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amine group of an adjacent amino acid
What does adjacent mean?Next to
Which molecules found in cell membranes have hydrophilic regions?Phospholipids, channel proteins and cholesterol
Describe how a faulty opening of the CFTR protein would affect its functionIt is a channel protein<div>Fewer/no chloride ions will be able to enter the CFTR protein</div><div>Fewer chloride ions will leave the cell</div>
How is the CFTR protein broken down?Hydrolysis of peptide bonds by enzymes
Define hormoneChemical substances produced in a specialised gland and transported in blood to stimulate specific cells or organs into action
What are hormones secreted by?Glands
What is the endocrine system made up of?Glands
What and where is the command centre of the endocrine system?Hypothalamus<div>In the brain in the limbic system</div>
What does the hypothalamus have direct control of?The pituitary gland
What hormones does the pituitary gland secrete?Oxytocin and growth hormones
Name the main glandsHypothalamus<div>Pituitary gland</div><div>Thyroid</div><div>Adrenal gland</div><div>Testes</div><div>Ovaries</div>
What do hormones pass through after being secreted by a gland?The bloodstream
What do hormones bind to?Receptors on target cells specific to it
What happens when a hormone binds to a target cell?It responds according to its function
What type of physical processes do hormones regulate?Growth<div>Sexual development</div><div>Metabolism</div>
Do hormones tend to have a short term or long term effect?Long term
What do hormones change the probability of?A particular behaviour happening in a certain situation
What 3 interacting processes is human behaviour made up of?Sensory input<div>Integration</div><div>Motor output</div>
Describe how hormones affect sensory inputHormones can change how we perceive our environment
Describe how hormones affect integrationHormones can influence the CNS by making neurons more or less sensitive
Describe how hormones affect motor outputHormones affect the way the body develops
What are the main hormones associated with agression?Testosterone and cortisol
Which 3 ways can differences in hormone levels affect development and behaviour throughout life?In the womb<div>During early childhood</div><div>Puberty and adulthood</div>
Which reproductive hormones cause female and male brains to develop slightly differently?Progesterone and oestrogen<div>Testosterone</div>
What happens if a child constantly experiences high cortisol levels?It will impact their brain
In cases of severe chronic abuse during early sensitive periods of brain development, which parts of the brain will have neural connections overproduced?Regions of the brain involved in fear, anxiety and impulsive responses
In cases of severe chronic abuse during early sensitive periods of brain development, which parts of the brain will have neural connections underproduced?Regions involved in reasoning, planning and behavioural control
What do hormones influence during puberty?Changes in our bodies and mood
What do hormonal imbalances in adulthood result in?Brain changes which make a person more susceptible to depression, anxiety, alcoholism and drug use
Benefits of using hormones to explain human behaviourResearch has high levels of scientific credibility<div>Standardised objective measurements of hormone levels</div><div>Extensive supporting evidence linking hormones to human behaviour = highly reliable as findings have been replicated</div>
Drawbacks of using hormones to explain human behaviourLimited by ethical issues so correlational research has to be used which means cause and effect links can't be inferred<div>Other variables like diet, relationships and exercise have to be controlled</div><div>Oversimplified</div><div>Reductionist</div><div>Environment and social interactions may be overlooked</div><div>Longitudinal research to see how hormones influence human development over a lifetime is rarely carried out due to high costs of time and money</div>
How do neurotransmitters and hormones both affect behaviour?They can both influence mood
How do neurotransmitters and hormones both affect neural activity in the brain?Neurotransmitters ensure that messages pass across the synaptic cleft<div>Hormones can change the structure and function of target cells including neurons</div>
How can neurotransmitters and hormones both lead to abnormal behaviours?Low levels of neurotransmitters such as serotonin have been linked with depression<div>High levels of hormones such as testosterone have been linked with aggression</div>
What is the difference between neurotransmitters and hormones of where they are released from?Neurotransmitters are released by vesicles in the axon terminal buttons<div>Hormones are released by glands</div>
What is the difference between neurotransmitters and hormones of their speed of action?Neurotransmitters work in split seconds<div>Hormones influence the brain in a gradual way</div>
What is the difference between neurotransmitters and hormones of their function in the human body?Neurotransmitters are responsible for allowing neurons to communicate with one another<div>Hormones are responsible for affecting physical processes in the body</div>
Define evolutionGradual development of different kinds of living organisms from earlier forms throughout the history of the earth through a process of natural selection
Define natural selectionGradual process by which hereditable traits become more or less common in an environment
How do individuals in a species show a wide range of variation?Random genetic mutations
What has a wide range of variation as well as genetics?Environment
Describe survival of the fittestIndividuals with characteristics most well adapted to the environment are more likely to survive and reproduce and pass on their genes
How does evolutionary psychology explain human behaviour?In terms of how any particular behaviour has aided our survival and successful reproduction to allow the species to survive
What is the assumption in evolutionary psychology?Our brain has evolved to allow behaviours to be inherited by offspring that serve an adaptive function in the environment of evolutionary adaptation
How do evolutionary psychologists find out how behaviour is genetically determined?Speculate on what behaviours would have allowed our distant ancestors to survive in hostile environments<div>Try to find similar behaviours that are seen universally in modern times</div>
How can language be explained?In terms of genes and brain function
What explains the prolonged childhood and adolescence of humans compared to other organisms in evolutionary terms?&nbsp;Brain growth model
Summarise the brain growth modelHumans complete very complex tasks that involve vast memory, language, planning etc<div>High level of competence is needed for adulthood</div><div>Long time is needed for brain development and human brain demand for energy is very high</div><div>Humans have evolved to use less energy on growth of body which prolongs pre-adult physical growth period</div>
Benefits of using evolution by natural selection to explain human behaviourAssumptions that theory of evolution makes are directly observable and falsifiable<div>Lots of supporting evidence (Darwin's finches beaks in Galapagos Islands, fossil records, similarity in embryos of different species and anatomy of animals)</div><div>Evidence from twin and adoption studies that human behaviours could be influenced by genetics</div>
Drawbacks of using evolution by natural selection to explain human behaviourEvidence is limited (no fossil record of behaviour, evidence is correlational, no way of testing how early environments directly caused behavioural changes as we cannot access them)<div>Reductionism</div>
What does it mean to be prejudiced?To prejudge somebody before knowing anything about them as an individual
What are the 3 negative components to prejudice?Cognitive<div>Affective</div><div>Behavioural</div>
What is meant by the cognitive component of prejudice?Stereotyping
What is meant by the affective component of prejudice?Prejudice
What is meant by the behavioural component of prejudice?Discrimination
Define stereotypeOvergeneralised belief about someone or something, usually based on limited information
Define prejudiceAn unfavourable extreme attitude towards someone or something
What are common forms of prejudice?Racism and sexism
Define discriminationUnfair treatment of categories of people
Define genetic screeningConfirming the results of convential tests, to identify carriers and also to diagnose CF in an embryo or fetus
What possible sources of DNA can be used?Samples of cheek cells or white blood cells
What is the DNA screened for?Whether it contains the known base sequences for the most common mutations that cause CF
What are the 4 methods of prenatal testing?Amniocentesis<div>Chorionic villus sampling</div><div>Non-invasive prenatal diagnosis</div><div>Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis</div>
What is meant by prenatal testing?Testing before birth
When is amniocentesis carried out?When the fetus is in the uterus<div>15 - 17 weeks</div>
When is chorionic villus sampling carried out?When the fetus is in the uterus<div>8 - 12 weeks</div>
When is non-invasive prenatal diagnosis carried out?When the fetus is in the uterus<div>7 - 9 weeks</div>
When is pre-implantation genetic diagnosis carried out?At the 8 cell embryo stage - during IVF
How is amniocentesis carried out?Fetal cells are collected from the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus using a needle into abdomen
What happens to DNA in order to detect gene mutation?It is extracted and analysed
How is chorionic villus sampling carried out?Fetal cells are collected from the placenta using a needle into abdomen or vagina
How is non-invasive prenatal diagnosis carried out?Analyses cell free fetal DNA from the mother's blood plasma
How is pre-implantation genetic diagnosis carried out?One cell is taken from the embryo
What are the 2 main implications for prenatal testing?False positive could result in abortion of healthy fetus<div>Emotional and physical stress of choosing an abortion</div>
What is the risk of miscarriage for amniocentesis?0.5% - 1%
What is the risk of miscarriage for chorionic villus sampling?1% - 2%
What are disadvantages of pre-implantation genetic diagnosis?False negative result means parents may still have a baby with CF and are unprepared<div>Could be used to discover other characteristics (eye colour, gender)</div><div>IVF is expensive, stressful and has a low success rate</div>
When is identifying carriers carried out?From birth onwards - normally adults
How is identifying carriers carried out?White blood cells collected from blood sample or check cells from a mouth swab
What are the disadvantages of identifying carriers?Emotional stress of finding out you are a carrier or due to other abnormalities found<div>False positive/negative results (tests are not 100% accurate)</div><div>Screening does not test for all possible mutations that cause CF</div>
What are the social and ethical issues related to genetic screeening?Fetus is living = abortion is wrong<div>Who has the right to decide if test is performed? = disagreement over next step</div><div>Not fully understanding risks of testing = miscarriage/harm</div>
Who created the realistic conflict theory and when?Sherif, 1966
What is prejudice a result of in the realistic conflict theory?Conflict between groups
How does conflict arise?Due to competition between the groups
What do 2 different social groups compete for which causes prejudice and hostility?Scarce resources
What did Ember &amp; Ember (1992) observe?In tribal societies intergroup hostility increases when competition for natural resources increases<div>During famine warfare was more likely to ensure access to scarce resources</div>
What did Aronson et al. (1978) show?Removal of competition in a classroom and working towards a shared goal could reduce conflict
How can hostility be reduced and harmony amongst groups be produced?When groups are required to work towards shared goals
Define intergroup conflictReal conflict experienced between different groups
Define superordinate goalsGoals that can only be achieved by cooperation of all group members together
EVIDENCE - supportingSherif et al.'s Robbers Cave study - competition between boys increased hostility, superordinate goals made them friendlier<div>Cross-cultural relevance - Ember &amp; Ember (1992) - in tribal societies inter-group hostility increases when there is competition for limited resources</div>
EVIDENCE - againstIgnores individual differences - does not explain why some of the boys in Sherif's study were more prejudiced than others<div>In the Robbers Cave study the boys were hostile towards the other group before any competition was introduced</div>
METHODOLOGY - strengths<div>(Robber's Cave study)</div>Field study - high ecological validity<div>Tug of war, softball - high mundane realism</div>
APPLICATIONS - strengthPrejudice and hostility can be reduced between groups if they have superordinate goals
What is the title?Intergroup conflict and co-operation: The Robber's Cave experiment
Who carried out the Robber's Cave experiment?Sherif et al.
Where was it carried out?Oklahoma
What is the aim?To investigate inter-group relations over a period of time when various experimentally induced situations were introduced
What was the study particularly interested in?Group formation<div>Effect of competition</div><div>Conditions under which conflict could be resolved</div>
Was it a field or lab experiment?Field
How many boys were there?22
How old were the boys?11
What race, ethnicity, social class and religion were the boys?White<div>American</div><div>Lower-middle</div><div>Protestant</div>
What variables were the boys matched upon?Educational and sporting ability
What 4 data collection methods were used?Observation<div>Sociometric analysis</div><div>Experiment</div><div>Tape recording</div>
What is sociometric data?Quantitative data gathered about personal/social relationships<div>Shows patterns of like and dislike between participants</div>
What was stage 1 known as?In-group formation
What was stage 2 known as?Inter-group relations - friction phase
What was stage 3 known as?Inter-group relations: integration phase
Outline stage 1 procedureFirst 5/6 days<div>2 groups kept seperate</div><div>Each group carried out tasks to help bonding and group norm development</div><div>Given group names to strengthen group identity</div><div>Made aware of other group at the end of this stage</div>
What data collection methods were used in stage 1?Sociometric analysis and experimental judgements
Outline stage 2 procedureNext 4/6 days<div>Expressed hostility as soon as they knew other group existed</div><div>Experimenters encouraged conflict with competitions with desirable prizes to be won</div><div>Every member has to contribute to gain points and win</div>
What were the 2 groups called?Eagles<div>Rattlers</div>
What data collection methods were used in stage 2?Recording adjectives and phrases and observing behaviour
Outline stage 3 procedureFinal 6/7 days<div>Reduce tension and conflict resolution through superordinate goals by working together<br></div><div>Watched films together and joint problem solving activities like unblocking water supply, sleep over and freeing food truck stuck in the mud</div>
What data collection methods were used in stage 3?Measures of derogatory terms and rating of stereotyping
Outline stage 1 resultsBonded with groups, worked cooperatively and developed group norms<div>Came up with group names and a leader</div><div>Groups disliked each other - us and them attitude</div>
Outline stage 2 resultsCompetition = immediate hostility<div>Refused to eat together, insults, close to physical violence, raided each other's huts and burned flags</div><div>Strong sense of in-group favouritism - 93% of friends were from in-group</div><div>Negative out-group bias</div>
Outline stage 3 resultsGetting groups together without competition didn't reduce hostility, only joint problem solving tasks<div>Groups chose to share a bus ride home and Rattlers spent $5 prize on drinks for all</div><div>More friendships between groups</div>
Outline the conclusionsStrong in-group identities formed initially<div>Introduction of competition led to negative out-group bias</div><div>Hostility arised as groups were aware of each other, some prejudice arises without competition but it becomes more intense with competition</div><div>Contact is not enough to reduce hostility, cooperation more than once is needed</div>
GENERALISABILITY - strengthMatched on variables - reduces participant variables
GENERALISABILTY - weaknessesBiased sample<div>Small sample</div><div>Not generalisable to other populations or times</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthsUsed standardised procedures as much as possible<div>Some controls - matching participants age, socio-economic status, ethnicity and religion</div>
RELIABILITY - weaknessesUncontrolled extraneous variables in real world surroundings - interactions between boys and staff<div>Difficult to repeat consistently</div>
APPLICATIONS - strengthsUsing superordinate goals to reduce prejudice and hostility between groups<div>Can link extremist views</div>
APPLICATION - weaknessNot relevant to real life situations because the way that the boys were randomly divided into 2 groups was artificial as well as the competition between them
VALIDITY - strengthsHigh internal validity - low demand characteristics due to staff at camp being participant observers, several data collection methods used and finding agreed, boys were matched so participant variables were controlled<div>High ecological validity - conducted in a real world environment, field experiment, mundane realism</div>
ETHICS - strengthParents consented
ETHICS - weaknessesDeceived about aim of study - told it was about leadership<div>Prejudice and conflict were deliberately induced - psychological harm</div><div>No right to withdraw</div><div>Parents couldn't check on boys during study</div>
What type of hormone is testosterone?An androgen
What is an androgen?A chemical that develops or maintains male characteristics
Who has a greater degree of testosterone; males or females?Males
Describe the research from rodents that supports that antenatal exposure to testosterone has an effect on the brain which leads to increased competitive aggression<div>Wagner et al. (1979)</div>Male rodents are castrated (testicles removed) and their behaviour will be compared to a control group of rodents (those with testicles)<div>Results showed that castrated rodents show little or no aggressive behaviour - indicates that testosterone is linked to aggressive behaviour</div>
What behaviour does testosterone link with?Aggressive behaviour
Describe what Mazur (1983) found in his studyThroughout the teenage years of males their testosterone increases<div>Strong positive correlation with aggressive behaviour and inter-male fighting</div>
Why is there not a lot of research into humans?Ethical restrictions
What is the aim of the study?Investigate, using a correlational method, whether testosterone levels can be linked to aggression levels
What are the 2 co-variables?Testosterone levels<div>Aggression levels</div>
Operationalise testosterone levels4D (ring finger) and 2D (index finger) averaged across both hands, measured in millimetres<div>Indicates testosterone levels in the womb</div>
Operationalise aggression levelsAggression rating using the Buss Perry Association Questionnaire (1992)<div>5 point scale; 1 being extremely uncharacteristic of me, 5 being extremely characteristic of me</div><div>Self rated</div>
Strengths of testosterone levels measurementEthical<div>Precise</div><div>Quantitative data - objective</div>
Weaknesses of testosterone levels measurementMistakes made when measuring - human error<div>Accuracy lowered by human conditions (birth defects)</div><div>Distorted by skewed data</div>
Strengths of aggression levels measurementQuantitative data - objective and easy to analyse<div>Quick and convenient</div><div>Valid if participants understand</div><div>Reliable - standardised procedures</div>
Weaknesses of aggression levels measurementParticipants may not answer truthfully - socially desirable answers and demand characteristics<div>Participants may not understand questions</div><div>Ordinal data</div>
What is the Ha?There will be a significant correlation between testosterone levels (operationalised by the 4D and 2D length in millimeters averaged across both hands) and aggression levels (operationalised by the Buss Perry Association Questionnaire 1992 which is a 5 point scale with 5 being extremely characteristic of me and 1 being extremely uncharacteristic of me)
What is the Ho?There will not be a significant correlation between testosterone levels (operationalised by the 4D and 2D length in millimeters averaged across both hands) and aggression levels (operationalised by the Buss Perry Association Questionnaire 1992 which is a 5 point scale with 5 being extremely characteristic of me and 1 being extremely uncharacteristic of me)
Which sampling technique was used?Opportunity sample
Why was an opportunity sample used?We were working on a tight deadline with only 4 lessons to collect our data and write our report<div>Opportunity sampling is a quick and convenient method in these circumstances</div>
Describe the sample18 psychology students in my lower sixth class at a sixth form college in Surrey<div>17 females and 1 male</div><div>Aged between 16 and 17 years</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for general respectLow risk<div>Class practical</div><div>Students and teacher treat each other with respect</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for informed consent and deceptionLow risk<div>All participants were psychology students from the class, all knew the aims of the study and were given details of how co-variables would be measured</div><div>No information was withheld apart from the individual scores of each participant</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for debriefingLow risk<div>All participants were psychology students from same class - will receive extensive debriefing over 3 lessons on results and conclusions</div><div>Participants will be monitored for any unforeseen harm</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for right to withdrawModerate risk<div>All participants were psychology students from same class, may not feel they have a right to withdraw, may feel obliged to take part</div><div>Costs are heavily outweighed by the benefits of developing a clear understanding of the practical for exam purposes</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for confidentiality and protection of participantsModerate risk<div>Participants may not want their aggression/testosterone levels seen by all members of the class (embarrassed or shy)</div><div>This was addressed by ensuring that all data was collected anonymously by the teacher and each participant was given a number</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for competenceLow risk<div>Class practical - teacher took the lead so ethical guidelines were followed at all times</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for giving advice to participants and colleagues' researchLow risk<div>Class practical - teacher dealt with all requests from participants</div>
What is the appropriate test of significance?Spearman's correlation coefficient
Give 3 reasons why spearman's correlation coefficient was usedCorrelational research<div>Ordinal level of measurement</div><div>Related data</div>
What was the correlation coefficient for the data and what type of correlation is it?0<div>No correlation</div>
Write the statement of significanceThe calculated value of rs (0.0) was less than the critical value of rs (0.317) when N=18 at p&lt;0.05 (5%) level of significance for a one tailed test<div>Therefore the results were not significant so the null hypothesis was accepted</div>
Why is this a one tailed test?The hypothesis was directional
Who was the social identity theory developed by and when?Tajfel &amp; Turner (1970)
How does the social identity theory explain prejudice?Through group membership
Is a direct competition needed to cause conflict?No, being in a group is enough to cause conflict
What do we do to people who are in other groups?Discriminate against them even if there is no logical reason to do so
What is an in-group?Any group to which a person has membership
What is an out-group?Any group to which a person does not have membership
Which group do people tend to favour?Their own group
What is personal identity?Our own unique qualities, personality and self-esteem
What is social identity?Attributes of the group to which we belong
How is social identity formed?Through membership of social groups
How does social identity affect personal identity?People identify themselves by their group memberships
What are the 3 processes involved in becoming prejudiced?Social categorisation<div>Social identification</div><div>Social comparison</div>
What is in-group favouritism?Seeing your own group and members in a positive light and as unique
What is negative out-group bias?Seeing members of a different group as all the same and in a negative light
Which word refers to all different?Heterogeneous
Which word refers to all the same?Homogeneous
Describe what happens during social categorisationWe categorise ourselves and others as part of particular social groups
Describe what happens during social identificationPeople take on the norms and values of the groups that they have categorised themselves as belonging to
Describe what happens during social comparisonSelf-esteem becomes bound up with group membership<div>If our self-esteem is to be maintained, our group needs to compare well against other groups (this is done by in-group favouritism and negative out-group bias)</div>
What did Lalonde (1992) study?A hockey team that was not doing very well
In Lalonde (1992) study, what did the supporters of the hockey team that was not doing well claim?"That the other team were ""dirtier"" in their tactics (they actually weren't)<div>This allowed them to claim moral superiority = in-group favouritism</div>"
Which 3 variables contribute to in-group favouritism?The extent to which individuals identify with the in-group<div>The extent to which there are grounds for making comparisons with the out-group</div><div>The relevance of the comparison group in relation to the in-group</div>
Which 2 features of prejudice did Tajfel note?Attitudes of discrimination towards an out-group<div>Discriminatory behaviour towards an out-group</div>
EVIDENCE - supporting"Tajfel's study - people favour the in-group even where the in-group is artificially created<div>Lemyre &amp; Smith (1985) - replicated Tajfel, discriminating group participants had higher self-esteem after the study = personal identity is linked to social identity</div><div>Cialdini (1976) - university students were more likely to wear the football team sweatshirt after winning a match and referred to the team as ""us"" when they won and ""them"" when they lost = personal identity is affected by social identity</div><div>Jane Elliott (1980) - when students were socially categorised in brown eyes and blue eyes groups prejudice and discrimination arised</div>"
EVIDENCE - againstTajfel's results could be explained by competition rather than favouritism - realistic conflict theory may be a better explanation<div>May not apply cross-culturally - Weatherell (1982) found that New Zealand Polynesians were more likely to favour the out-group than to show bias towards their own in-group, collectivist cultures are less likely to show group prejudice</div><div>Does not explain individual differences</div><div>Lack of completeness - only focuses on groups and doesn't take any other factors into account</div><div>Postmes et al. (2005) argues that individual characteristics create a social identity, not the other way round</div>
METHODOLOGY - strengthTajfel's study was well controlled with an IV (matrices) and DV (how money was allocated to which group) so cause and effect can be inferred
METHODOLOGY - weaknessTajfel's study was a laboratory experiment so demand characteristics were present and the task was artificial so the results can't be applied to everyday life
APPLICATIONS - strengthsExplains conflict between football teams, religions and races<div>Can help to reduce prejudice in society</div>
How would the social identity theory suggest prejudice can be reduced?Encouraging people to see themselves as a larger social identity to combat out-group discrimination
Describe Deutsch &amp; Collins (1951) studyStudied a desegregated housing project in New York and compared it to a segregated one in New Jersey<div>Desegregated = held each other in higher regard and more in favour of inter-racial housing</div><div>Segregated = more likely to hold stereotypical views&nbsp;</div>
What does the minimal group theory suggest?That merely dividing people into groups is sufficient to cause prejudice between them
Who was the study conducted on?64 Bristol school boys
What type of groups were the participants assigned to?Meaningless ones
What were the boys asked to do?Allocate points (money) to boys in their own group or another group using a matrix
How does the study provide evidence for in-group favouritism?The boys tended to allocate more points to people in their own group
How does the study provide evidence for discrimination against an out-group?Ensure that the out-group got much less than the in-group even if the in-group got less overall
Does this study have cross-cultural confirmation?Yes
What is bad about this study in terms of validity?Artificial and lacking mundane realism
What is bad about this study in terms of generalisability?Can't be applied to other populations as it uses 64 Bristol school boys
How is this study high in internal validity?Well-controlled lab experiment
How is this study reliable?It can be repeated because it uses standardised procedures
What real world applications does this study have?Demonstrates how segregation can lead to in-group favouritism and out-group prejudice and discrimination
Who carried out the minimal group experiments and when?Tajfel et al. (1971)
Why is a full evaluation needed?In order to understand if there was something in our research that contributed to the results not supporting the hypothesis
Why can't the results be generalised to the wider population?Sample is made up of 16 and 17 year olds only and testosterone fluctuates throughout life
Who suggested that openness to experience and agreeableness are negatively associated with prejudice and when?Cohrs (2012)
Is Social Dominance Orientation associated with agreeableness or openness to experience?Agreeableness
Is Right Wing Authoritanism associated with agreeableness or openness to experience?Openness to experience
Describe openness to experienceWhether a person is open to experiences, ideas and adventures
Describe agreeablenessMeasure of temper as whether a person is willing to cooperate or compete
Give some traits of Right Wing AuthoritarianismRigid and inflexible thinking and behaviour<div>Aggressive to subordinates and submissive to authority</div><div>Not willing to consider opinions and values of others</div>
Give some traits of Social Dominance OrientationRuthless and tough minded<div>Competitive and work towards their own interests</div><div>Desire superiority and dominance</div>
What is similar between Right Wing Authoritarianism and Social Dominance Orientation personalities?They both tend to have an ideology of prejudice
Who suggested that having an authoritarianism personality might explain why some people are prejudiced and when?Adorno et al. (1950)
When and how does authoritarianism develop?During childhood<div>Strict and unloving parents produce negative feelings in child = negative feelings repressed and displaced onto weaker member of society</div>
Is authoritarianism thought to be due to nature or nurture?Nurture
Describe evidence for authoritarianism linking to prejudiceHigh F-scale score = high authoritarianism and correlated with prejudice
Describe an authoritarian personalityHostile to those who they see as inferior to themselves - minority groups and out-groups<div>Obedient to authority</div>
Which 3 factors combine to measure authoritarianism?Ethnocentrism<div>Conservatism</div><div>Anti-democratic</div>
Define ethnocentrismBelief that one's own ethnic group is superior to another
Define conservatismBelief in traditionalism and social order with a dislike for change
Define anti-democraticViews that oppose the fair election of government and majority rule
Define cultureValues, ideas, customs and behavioural norms of a particular group of people or a society
What is the difference between individualistic and collectivist cultures?Individualistic cultures (Britain and America) behave independently and resist conformity and compliance with their culture while putting an emphasis on individualism within the group whereas collectivist cultures (China and Israel) behave as a collect group based on interdependence which means that cooperation and compliance is important for the stability of the group
Describe Al-Zahrani and Kaplowitz (1993) studySocial comparison of Saudi (collectivist) and American (individualistic) people<div>Saudi's self reported more in-group favouritism and negative out-group bias than Americans</div>
What did Kleugel (1990) find?Collectivism is associated with greater tolerance and lower racism
What is multiculturism?Diversity of all cultures is accepted within a society and one group is not considered to be superior, viewing other cultures as positive
Describe Ember &amp; Ember (1992) studyIn tribal societies intergroup hostility increases when competition for natural and social resources increase - warfare was more likely during famine<div>Supports RCT</div>
Describe Weatherell (1982) studyNew Zealand Polynesians were more likely to favour the out-group than to show bias against their own in-group<div>Cultures who emphasise collectivism and cooperation are less likely to show group prejudice</div><div>Against SIT</div>
Describe Guimond et al. (2013) studyPro diversity policy and multiculturalism = lower prejudice (Canada)<div>Assimilation = higher prejudice (Germany)</div>
Describe Katz and Brady (1933) studyQuestionnaire on American students investigating the national stereotypes they had about other cultures<div>Given a list of ethnic groups where they had to pick 5-6 traits from a list of 84 personality traits</div><div>African Americans = superstitious and ignorant</div><div>Jews = shrewd</div>
Describe Karlins et al. (1969) studyReplicated Katz and Brady (1933) study<div>Some national stereotypes had changed, others persisted</div><div>Culture influences prejudice beliefs, as cultures change so do the prejudices they hold</div>
What is Aronson's (1997) definition of aggression?An intentional action aimed at doing harm or causing pain<div>This action might be physical or verbal; it might succeed in its goal or not</div>
Which side of the nature/nurture debate is biological psychology on?Nature
How can aggressive behaviour be explained?Hormone levels<div>Abnormalities in the structure of the brain</div><div>Genetics</div>
What 2 things can aggression result from?Brain damage or innate (natural)
Why are there a number of brain structures implicated in aggressive behaviour?Because the brain is massively interconnected
What is the limbic system responsible for?Emotions<div>Forming memories</div><div>Motivation</div>
What are the 4 main components of the limbic system?Hippocampus<div>Amygdala</div><div>Hypothalamus</div><div>Thalamus</div>
What is involved with learning and memory?Hippocampus
What is involved in emotions and aggression?Amygdala
What is involved with hunger, thirst and temperature control?Hypothalamus
What is the relay centre for sensory information?Thalamus
What is the role of the hypothalamus?To maintain homeostasis<div>Keeps the body in balance</div>
Which physical experiences does the hypothalamus regulate?Hunger, thirst and temperature
Which behavioural responses does the hypothalamus regulate?Pain, threats and sexual satisfaction
How does the hypothalamus maintain homeostasis?Controlling hormonal levels
Define homeostasisProcess that maintains the stability of the human body in response to changes in external conditions
Describe the shape and location of the amygdalaSmall almond-like structure deep in the limbic system
How does the amygdala enable our instinctive reactions to the environment?With emotions like happiness, anxiety and anger
What connection from the amygdala leads to the expression of aggression?To the prefrontal cortex
What happens when we are exposed to threatening stimuli?Amygdala is activated = increased emotional arousal
What response is linked to the amygdala?Fight/flight response
Does the amygdala produce or initiate aggression?Initiate
What wouldn't we experience without the amygdala?Immediate emotional reaction associated with aggression
Define reactive aggressionAggression shown in response to a provocative stimulus with little planning
What 2 things give evidence of the role of the limbic system in aggression?Case studies<div>fMRI scans</div>
Benefit and drawback of case studiesTriggers future research<div>No control of variables = no cause and effect</div>
Describe Charles Whitman's caseStudent at University of Texas and ex-marine<div>Killed his wife and mother and 14 others</div><div>Wounded 32 people</div><div>Shooting rampage on and around the campus</div><div>August 1 1966</div><div>After his death he was found to have a cancerous tumour in the hypothalamus and near the amygdala</div>
Who did Coccaro et al. (2006) study?A group of people with Intermittent Explosive Disorder
What did Coccaro et al. (2006) want to show?Overactive amygdala is associated with high levels of reactive aggression
What was Coccaro et al. (2006) procedure?Showed patients threatening stimuli (e.g angry face) and measured brain activity using fMRI scans
Describe Coccaro et al. (2006) resultsCompared to a control group the patients with IED had a greater amount of activity in their amygdala when they saw the threatening stimuli and a smaller amount of activity in their prefrontal cortex
Where is the prefrontal cortex?In the frontal lobe
What are the functions of the prefrontal cortex?Executive functions - planning, problem solving, social judgement, decision making and regulation of emotional responses
What does the prefrontal cortex allow us to control?Reactive aggressive impulses that stem from the amygdala
How does the prefrontal cortex inhibit us from reacting to threats and allows us to think about an appropriate course of action?By controlling reactive aggressive impulses that stem from the amygdala
What is proactive aggression?When we stop and think and still decide to act aggressively
What 3 things give evidence of the role of the prefrontal cortex in aggression?Case studies<div>CAT scans</div><div>PET scans</div>
Describe Phineas Gage's caseRailway worker who suffered accidental damage to his prefrontal lobes when a bolt went through his cheek and up through his eye into his brain<div>He recovered well physically but not psychologically</div><div>Sober, quiet family man to an aggressive, irritable drunk with poor social judgement</div><div>One of the earliest cases (19th century) that suggested that prefrontal cortex is involved in the moderation of our aggressive behaviour</div>
Who did Grafman et al. (1966) study?Veterans of the Vietnam War
What did Grafman et al. (1966) find?Veterans with structural damage to their prefrontal cortex were more aggressive than veterans with structural damage to other areas of their brain<div>Frontal lobes are an important structure in the brain for inhibiting aggression</div>
Who did Raine et al. (1997) study?41 violent murderers
What did Raine et al. (1997) find?The violent murderers had brain dysfunction in areas that had previously been implicated in violent behaviour such as the amygdala and prefrontal cortex
What functions do serotonin pathways regulate?Psychological and biological<div>Mood, anger, aggression, sleep, arousal and appetite</div>
What have low levels of serotonin found to be associated with?Increased tendency towards impulsive and reactive aggressive behaviour
Where do the serotonin pathways pass through?Prefrontal cortex
What do low levels of serotonin in the prefrontal cortex part of the serotonin pathway result in?Prefrontal cortex no longer inhibiting the fight/flight response of the amygdala = increasing likelihood of reactive impulsive aggression
What does serotonin inhibit the firing of?The amygdala
What 2 things give evidence of the role of neurotransmitters in aggression?Clinical drug studies<div>Lab experiments with rodents</div>
Name a drug that increases serotonin levelsAntidepressants
How do antidepressant drugs suggest that increased serotonin levels lead to reduced aggression?They increase serotonin levels and reduce irritability and impulsive aggression
What did Ferrari et al. (2003) study?The link between neurotransmitters and aggression in rats
In Ferrari et al. (2003) study how many days did the test rat and the intruder rat fight for?Every day for 10 days
In Ferrari et al. (2003) study what happened on the 11th day?No intruder rat was introduced<div>Researchers measured levels of serotonin and dopamine levels in rats' brains</div>
What did Ferrari et al. (2003) study find?Rats' serotonin levels decreased because they were anticipating a fight = brain plasticity since rats' brain chemistry changed to adapt to what it experienced
Benefits and drawbacks of animals in lab experimentsStandardised procedures = high reliability<div>Low generalisability</div>
Which individual differences might affect brain damage?Neurotransmitter and hormone levels<div>Life experiences before and after the damage</div>
What does fMRI measure the rate of?Oxyhaemoglobin becoming deoxyhaemoglobin
What does fMRI stand for?Functional magnetic resonance imaging
What technique is fMRI?BOLD (blood oxygen level dependent contrast imaging)
What can be inferred if a particular area of the brain has a high BOLD contrast during a specific behaviour?That specific area has a role in producing the behaviour
What does the MRI machine produce around the patient?A strong magnetic field
What does the magnetic field cause molecules within the body to do?Move in a slightly different way and release different types of radio waves
Do different types of tissues and molecules release different types of radio waves?Yes
Advantages of fMRIProvides exact locations of increased neural activity during tasks as sensitivity to blood flow changes is very precise, therefore increasing validity and reliability<div>Non-invasive as it does not involve exposure to radiation like PET and CAT scans, therefore more ethical</div>
Disadvantages of fMRIUnable to detect activity of individual neurons so gives limited information on functioning<div>Analysis and interpretation of images can be subjective, therefore lowering validity</div><div>Scanning participants that have metal implants can be troublesome due to the magnetic fields</div><div>Participants need to remain extremely still during the scan</div>
How does the CAT scan machine move around the patient?It rotates around the axis of their body
What is made when the hundreds of x-ray images are combined?Three-dimensional image of the structure of the brain
What does a CAT scan show?Tumours and physical deformities in a brain
Advantages of CAT scansProvides detailed structural images of the brain which is useful for detecting structural abnormalities<div>Less sensitive to movement of the patient compared to fMRI</div><div>Scanning participants with metal implants does not produce difficulties</div><div>Not as harmful as PET scans as it does not involve an injection of radioactive material</div>
Disadvantages of CAT scansNot sensitive enough to detect precise details of soft tissue in brain<div>Participants are exposed to a small amount of radiation</div>
What does CAT scan stand for?Computer Axial Tomography
What does PET scan stand for?Positron Emission Tomography
What do PET scans show?Areas of the brain that are activated whilst performing specific tasks
What is injected into patients for PET scans?A small amount of harmless radioactive material
How does glucose tracing work?The radioactive material bonds to the glucose in the bloodstream and as the glucose moves around the body it takes the radioactive material with it
What happens as the brain uses glucose as energy?The areas of the brain which are most active absorb it
What does the remaining radioactive material emit?Positively charged particles called positrons
What images are produced in PET scans?Coloured images of the level of activity occurring throughout the brain
Advantage of PET scansShown to be a reliable and valid technique for measuring the activity of the brain as it detects blood flow, oxygen use and metabolism in the brain
Disadvantages of PET scansLower resolution than fMRI, therefore it is less precise and valid<div>Interpretations of the images could be biased</div><div>Participants are exposed to radiation</div>
What is the title of the study?Brain abnormalities in murderers indicated by positron emission tomography
What was evident from brain injury patients prior to Raine et al.'s study?Prefrontal cortex was involved in regulating aggression
What was known about violent murderers before Raine et al.'s study?They had poorer brain functioning than normal controls<div>Imbalance in activity between the right and left hemisphere due to abnormalities in the corpus callosum</div>
What did Raine et al. carry out before their study and why?A preliminary report on a pilot sample of 22 offenders compared to 22 normal participants<div>Provided initial support for the notion of prefrontal dysfunction in this group</div><div>1994</div>
Describe what NGRI meansNot guilty by a reason of insanity<div>Defendant is not responsible for their actions due to an episodic or persistent psychiatric disorder at the time of the criminal act</div>
What is the aim?To discover, using PET scans, whether there are brain abnormalities in murderers who plead NGRI
What was their hypothesis?Participants pleading NGRI would show brain dysfunctions in areas of the brain previously associated with violence (prefrontal cortex, amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus and corpus callosum)
Describe the experimental group used in this study41 people (39 males and 2 females)<div>Charged with murder or manslaughter</div><div>Called 'seriously violent individuals' by the researchers</div><div>Mean age of 34.3</div><div>All being tried in California and hoping their plea of NGRI would be supported</div>
What variables were the control group matched to the experimental group by?Age<div>Sex</div><div>Psychiatric illnesses e.g schizophrenia</div>
What is the experimental design?Matched pairs
What were the control group screened for and how?Their mental and physical health<div>Underwent a physical examination and a psychiatric interview</div><div>Researchers had access to their medical history</div>
What is the research method?Laboratory experiment using matched pairs
What is the independent variable?Whether the participant had committed murder/manslaughter or not
What is the dependent variable?Results of the PET scans
Why is this study's design referred to as a quasi or natural experiment?Researchers do not have total control over the independent variable<div>Participant groups are pre-existing so participants cannot be randomly placed in the conditions of the experiment</div>
What are 2 controls in this study?All participants in the experimental group remained medication free for 2 weeks before the PET scan<div>All participants were scanned using the same PET scanner</div>
Describe the task participants had to performContinuous Performance Task<div>Participants stare at a screen while various blurred symbols appear</div><div>Have to press a button when a particular symbol appeared</div>
How long did participants do the CPT as a practice trial?10 minutes
How long did participants do the CPT as the real trial?32 minutes
What was injected into the patient after the practice trial of the CPT?A radioactive glucose tracer<div>Fluorodeoxyglucose</div>
How is using matched pairs a benefit in this study?Controls participant variables<div>Allows confounding variables which may have influenced violent behaviour to be eliminated</div><div>E.g murderers who had a psychiatric illness like schizophrenia were matched with a person who also had it</div>
Describe what the experimenter looked like31 year old stern biology teacher<div>Wears a grey lab coat</div><div>Made to look authoritarian</div>
Describe what the learner looked like47 year old accountant<div>Mild mannered and likeable</div>
What is a confederate?Someone working secretly with the experimenter
Why were standardised prods used?To encourage the teacher to be obedient
Define what recreational drugs areDrugs used in the absence of medical grounds for personal enjoyment
Define dysphoriaAn intense dissatisfaction, discomfort, anxiety
Describe what endocytosis isReceptors are engulfed in a membrane and taken into the neuron
What does it mean if structured interviews are standardised?All participants are asked the same questions in the same way
What is human resource data?Quantifiable information that can be used to measure workforce performance
What is labour productivity?Measure of workforce performance that looks at output per employee
What is labour turnover?Rate of change in a firm's labour force
What is labour retention?Measure of a firm's ability to keep its workforce within the business normally for more than one year
What is absenteeism?Number of staff who miss work as a proportion of the total number of staff
How is labour productivity calculated?Total output / number of workers
How is labour turnover calculated?Number of staff leaving / average number of staff x 100
How is labour retention calculated?Number of employees serving for more than one year / average number of staff x 100
How is absenteeism calculated?Number of staff absent per time period / total number of staff days worked per time period x 100
What does higher output per employee lead to?Lower labour costs per unit
Which factors influence labour productivity?The extent and quality of fixed assets (equipment, IT systems) that a business uses to increase the productivity of its workers<div>The skills, ability and motivation of the workforce</div><div>The use of capital or labour intensive production methods</div>
How can labour productivity be improved?Measure worker performance and set targets<div>Invest in capital equipment (automation and computerisation)</div><div>Invest in employee training</div><div>Improve working conditions</div><div>Use financial and non-financial methods of motivation</div>
What are some problems when trying to increase labour productivity?Potential 'trade-off' with quality<div>Potential for employee resistance (introduction of new technology)</div><div>Employees may demand higher pay for their improved productivity</div>
Which factors affect staff turnover?The type of business (seasonal and temporary staff)<div>Poor working conditions</div><div>Lower pay than competitors</div><div>Few opportunities for promotion</div><div>Ineffective recruitment (choosing wrong person for the job)</div><div>Economic conditions (recession = lower staff turnover, booming economy = staff likely to leave for higher paid job)</div><div>Employee loyalty</div>
What are some problems of high staff turnover?Higher recruitment and training costs<div>Increased pressure on remaining staff</div><div>Disruption to productivity</div><div>Harder to maintain required standards of quality and customer service</div>
What is a potential benefit of staff turnover?Allows fresh ideas to be introduced when recruiting externally
How can staff turnover be improved?Effective recruitment and training<div>Provide competitive pay and other incentives</div><div>Job enrichment and empowerment</div><div>Reward staff loyalty (service awards, extra holiday, bonus payments)</div>
What are some problems of high absenteeism?Increased costs due to bringing in temporary staff to cover absent employees<div>Productivity will suffer if workers are expected to cover for absent employees</div><div>May lose customers if orders are not fulfilled on time or customer service levels fall</div><div>High rates of absenteeism may become a culture with more and more staff taking days off&nbsp;</div>
What are some ways to resolve high absenteeism?Understand the causes<div>Set targets and monitor trends</div><div>Have a clear sickness and absence policy</div><div>Provide rewards for good attendance</div><div>Consider the wider issues of employee motivation</div>
Which human resource strategies can be used to increase productivity and retention and to reduce turnover and absenteeism?Financial rewards<div>Employee share ownership</div><div>Consultation</div><div>Empowerment</div>
What are the 2 main types of cells?Prokaryotic and eukaryotic
Which features do the cells of all living organisms share?Cytoplasm, cell surface membrane, ribosomes and DNA
Which two main features do prokaryotic cells not have?Nuclei and membrane bound cell organelles
What does prokaryotic mean?Before the nucleus
What does eukaryotic mean?True nucleus
What are two types of examples of eukaryotic cells?Animal and plant cells
What are two types of examples of prokaryotic cells?Bacteria and cyanobacteria
Name the 9 eukaryotic organellesRough endoplasmic reticulum<div>Smooth endoplasmic reticulum</div><div>Ribosomes</div><div>Mitochondria</div><div>Centrioles</div><div>Golgi apparatus</div><div>Lysosomes</div><div>Nucleus</div><div>Nucleolus</div>
Name the 8 prokaryotic organellesCell wall<div>Capsule</div><div>Plasmid</div><div>Flagellum</div><div>Pili</div><div>Ribosome</div><div>Mesosome</div><div>Circular DNA</div>
Do eukaryotic or prokaryotic cells have small (70s) ribosomes?Prokaryotic
Does a eukaryotic or prokaryotic cell have a diameter of 20 micrometers or more?Eukaryotic cell
Describe the rough endoplasmic reticulumA system of interconnected membrane-bound flattened sacs<div>Ribosomes are attached to the outer surface</div><div>Proteins made on ribosomes transported through this organelle to other parts of the cell</div>
Describe smooth endoplasmic reticulumA system of interconnected membrane-bound flattened sacs<div>No ribosomes are attached</div><div>Makes lipids and steroids</div>
Describe ribosomes in eukaryotic cellsMade of RNA and protein<div>Found free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough ER</div><div>Site of protein synthesis</div>
Describe mitochondriaHas a double membrane; the inner membrane is folded to form finger like projections called cristae<div>Inside is the matrix</div><div>Site of aerobic respiration</div>
Describe centriolesHollow cylinders made up of a ring of 9 microtubules<div>Animal cells have one pair</div><div>Involved in formation of the spindle during nuclear division</div>
Describe golgi apparatusModifies proteins and packages them into vesicles<div>Stacks of flattened membrane-bound sacs formed by fusion of vesicles from the ER</div>
Describe lysosomesSpherical sacs bound by a single membrane<div>Contain digestive enzymes</div><div>Involved in the breakdown of unwanted structures within the cell and apoptosis (cell death)</div>
Describe nucleusEnclosed by an envelope composed of 2 membranes perforated by pores<div>Contains chromosomes and a nucleolus</div><div>Chromosomes made of DNA contains genes that control the synthesis of proteins</div>
Describe nucleolusA dense body within the nucleus<div>Makes ribosomes</div>
Describe cell wallContains peptidoglycan<div>Provides strength and rigidity</div>
Describe capsuleSlimy layer on surface<div>Prevents dehydration and protects from attack against cells of the immune system</div>
Describe plasmidSmall circle of DNA that is not part of the main circular DNA molecule<div>Plays a role in exchanging DNA between bacterial cells</div>
Describe flagellumHollow cylindrical thread-like structure<div>Rotates to move the cell</div>
Describe piliThin protein tubes that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces
Describe ribosome in prokaryotic cellsSite of protein synthesis
Describe mesosomeInfolding of the cell surface membrane<div>Site of respiration</div>
Describe circular DNAOne long coiled up strand of DNA<div>Not attached to histone proteins</div><div>Floats free in the cytoplasm</div>
How do you convert from mm to micrometeres?x 1000
How do you convert from nm to micrometers?/ 1000
Where are amino acids joined together and what do they form?On a ribosome attached to the rough ER<div>Form a polypeptide</div>
Where does the polypeptide pass through in the rough ER where it folds into its 3D shape (protein)?Cisternae membrane and into the lumen
What does the rough ER package proteins into?ER vesicles
What do the ER vesicles do?Transport the protein to the Golgi apparatus
How do the ER vesicles become part of the Golgi apparatus?Fuse with its membrane
What happens to the protein as it moves through the Golgi apparatus?It gets modified
What are modified proteins packaged into?Golgi secretory vesicle for transport through the cell cytoplasm
How do Golgi secretory vesicles make the proteins exit the cell?By moving to the cell surface membrane and fusing with it so the proteins exit the cell by the process of exocytosis
What is the key question?What makes people commit acts of terrorism against fellow human beings?
Define terrorismThe use or threat of action to influence a government or intimidate the public for a political or religious cause
Why is this an important key question for today's society?Terrorism affects our public safety<div>Terrorism affects our quality and enjoyment of life</div>
What was believed about terrorists in the 1960s?They had a disposition as a psychopath or had some psychological abnormality
Briefly outline Milgram's agentic state of obedienceAgentic - displace responsibility<div>Autonomous - responsible for own actions, follow own moral code</div><div>Moral strain - decide whether to dissent or move into agentic state</div>
What does more recent research suggest that the causes of terrorism are?In the wider situation in which terrorists live and act
Briefly outline the Social Identity Theory by TajfelCategorisation - identification - comparison<div>In group/out group</div>
Briefly outline Realistic conflict theory by SherifCompetition for valued resources = hostility
In Social Identity Theory what group might terrorists believe they are in and categorise themselves to?In-group
In Social Identity Theory what may happen when terrorists start to identify with one group?May start to take on the identity of the group<div>Dressing a particular way, using particular language and developing common beliefs</div>
In the Social Identity Theory why is in-group favouritism to the terrorists' own country/religion/cause important?So the group can uphold their self-esteem and may lead to discrimination against other groups
How can Social Identity Theory be applied to reduce terrorism?Aiming to resolve/reduce terrorism at a point before they commit to cause/early in life<div>Exposing them to multiple viewpoints/cultures/life experiences and identifying similarities</div>
What would the Realistic conflict theory suggest about terrorists?There may be social/political competition between the terrorist and anti-terrorist group which can lead to discrimination
What would Milgram's agentic theory of obedience suggest who terrorists are obeying and why?Terrorists may be following a leader in a position in a position of authority who may make them obey their commands to carry out atrocities<div>When they are obeying their leader they are in the agentic state</div><div>More likely to be obedient when responsibility for their actions lies with someone else</div>
How was prejudice reduced in the Robber's Cave Study by Sherif?Superordinate goals - had to pull a food delivery truck out of the mud
What did Aronson et al. (1978) argue helped reduce prejudice?Jigsaw technique - people work together to ensure the success of a whole group project
How can the Realistic Conflict theory be applied to reduce terrorism?Superordinate goals<div>Would need to big and terrorists would need to see it as more important than sticking to their current plans e.g response to global pandemic</div>
How can the Agency theory be applied to reduce terrorism?By having an awareness of how we go into an agency state when we obey authority figures helps us understand this process and shows us situations where this may happen<div>Having an understanding of this can help us make better choices</div>
What is a strength of Social Identity Theory in explaining terrorism?It shows how people begin to identify with their group and eventually start seeing their in-group as better than the out-group in order to maintain their own self esteem<div>Tajfel et al. (1970) demonstrated in a lab experiment how boys favoured their in group and would actively discriminate against the out group</div>
What is a weakness of Social Identity Theory in explaining terrorism?Tajfel's results cannot be generalised beyond young boys in a lab setting so they can't necessarily be applied to the complex factors involved in terrorist activities
What is a strength of Milgram's Agency Theory in explaining terrorism?Explains that people obey authority figures and can commit atrocious acts on other human beings<div>Terrorist goes into an agentic state where they don't act from their free will but place the responsibility of the act on the authority figure</div>
What is a weakness of Milgram's Agency Theory in explaining terrorism?Milgram's studies lacked ecological validity because they were carried out in a laboratory environment at Yale University so it can't be assumed that these results would apply to people in the real-life world with many other factors acting on them
What is an entrepreneur?An individual who spots an opportunity for a business idea<div>Shows initiative and a willingness to take risks when setting up a business in order to benefit from the potential rewards</div>
What is an intrapreneur?An employee who uses entrepreneurial skills without having to risk their own money to find and develop initiatives that will have financial benefits for their employer
What are the roles of an entrepreneur?Creating and setting up a business<div>Running and expanding/developing a business</div><div>Providing or arranging the finance to fund a business</div><div>Leading innovation within a business</div><div>Overcoming barriers to entrepreneurship</div><div>Anticipating risk and uncertainty in the business environment</div>
Which ways can business ideas be generated?Personal interest or lifestyle choices<div>Expertise or personal skills</div><div>Business experience</div>
What activities do entrepreneurs carry when the business is expanding/developing?Financial management<div>Administration</div><div>Marketing</div><div>Purchasing</div><div>Managing people</div><div>Production</div>
What are barriers to entrepreneurship?Reasons which prevent people from starting up their own business<div>Prefer to work for someone else</div><div>Lack of confidence and skills</div><div>Don't have a profitable idea</div><div>Lack of finance</div><div>Risk adverse</div>
When does risk occur?When the likelihood of a problem arising is estimated and can be anticipated and planned for
Where can risks come from?Losing money<div>Failure of the business</div><div>Loss of free time</div>
Where can rewards come from?Profit<div>Being your own boss</div><div>Sense of achievement</div>
What must rewards do for entrepreneurs?Justify the risks involved
What is uncertainty caused by?Unexpected, often external, factors outside of the entrepreneur's control
What is uncertainty?A risk that is not measurable and arises when you do not know whether something will happen or not
What are examples of factors which cause uncertainty?Natural disasters<div>Change in interest or exchange rates</div><div>Health scares</div><div>Changes in legislation</div>
What are the 6 characteristics of entrepreneurs?Self confidence<div>Creativity</div><div>Hard working</div><div>Resilience</div><div>Initiative</div><div>Risk taking</div>
Which 6 skills are seen by successful entrepreneurs?Organisation<div>Financial management</div><div>Communication</div><div>Managing people &amp; team working</div><div>Decision making &amp; problem solving</div><div>IT skills</div>
What are 2 financial motives of setting up a business?Profit maximisation<div>Profit satisficing</div>
Explain profit maximisationAn attempt to make as much profit as possible in a given time period
Explain profit satisficingMaking enough profit to satisfy the needs of the business owners
What are non-financial motives?Ethical reasons<div>Social enterprise/not for profit</div><div>Independence</div><div>Able to work from home</div>
What characteristic is described by having the belief that you will succeed and the ability to persuade other people to buy your product or finance the business?Self confidence
What characteristic is described by being able to work independently and imaginatively to make decisions without being told what to do?Creativity
What characteristic is described by being able to work hard and cope with stress of running your own business?Hard working
What characteristic is described by the ability to get through the bad times and the setbacks and cope with the element of risk that their business could perform poorly or even fail?Resilience
What characteristic is described by the ability to make decisions and have ideas which can be developed into action?Initiative
What characteristic is described by being willing to take a course of action without knowing whether it will be successful?Risk taking
Which skill involves planning, giving instructions, prioritising, setting up and monitoring systems, meeting deadlines and sorting out problems?Organisation
Which skill involves managing cash flow, budgeting, keeping accurate financial records, chasing debts, arranging loans and overdrafts to make sure the business has enough money?Financial management
Which skill involves interacting with a wide range of stakeholders verbally and in writing?Communication
Which skill is important to recruit the right people and show leadership skills and direction but also to work well within a team and learn from others ideas?Managing people &amp; team working
Which skill involves being able to make decisions and solve problems quickly and with consideration by processing, analysing and evaluating information?Decision making &amp; problem solving
Which skill would help to set up a website?IT skills
Did the results support the hypothesis?Yes; the NGRI group had brain dysfunction in areas that had previously been implicated in violent behaviour
What was found out about the prefrontal cortex?Lower levels of brain activity in both hemispheres compared to the control group in the prefrontal cortex (lateral and medial)
What does lateral mean?Sides
What does medial mean?Middle
What was found out about the corpus callosum?Lower levels of brain activity compared to the control group in both hemispheres in the corpus callosum
What was found out about the parietal cortex?Lower levels of brain activity compared to the control group in various areas of the parietal cortex
What are the cortical areas of the brain?Prefrontal cortex<div>Parietal cortex</div>
What are the subcortical areas of the brain?Corpus callosum<div>Thalamus</div><div>Amygdala</div><div>Hippocampus</div><div>Temporal lobe</div>
What was found out about the limbic system?Abnormal asymmetrical levels of activity compared to the controls
What was found out about the thalamus, amygdala and hippocampus?Thalamus = right hemisphere higher than controls, left hemisphere same<div>Amygdala = right hemisphere higher than controls, left hemisphere lower</div><div>Hippocampus = right hemisphere higher than controls, left hemisphere lower</div>
What was the main conclusion?Reduced activity in certain areas of the brain such as the prefrontal cortex and corpus callosum, together with abnormal asymmetries of activity in structures of the limbic system such as the amygdala and hippocampus could predispose a person towards violent behaviour
What does the lack of functioning in the prefrontal cortex result in?Reduced ability to regulate the activity of the limbic system<div>Less able to control impulsiveness and aggressive responses to threatening stimuli</div>
What does the abnormal functioning of the amygdala lead to?Fearlessness could result in the increased chance of acting violently since the amygdala is responsible for emotional processing
What does abnormal activity in the hippocampus and thalamus lead to?Criminals being unable to modify their own behaviour by learning from the consequences of their actions since the hippocampus and thalamus have been related to learning
What does a less active corpus callosum lead to?Criminals being unable to regulate the negative mood and be more violent due to the low mood since the right hemisphere is implicated in generating negative mood and the left hemisphere regulates it
What can the findings not be taken as evidence of?Violence is determined by biology alone<div>Murderers in the study are not responsible for their actions</div><div>PET scans could be used to identify potential murderers</div>
What type of risks do entrepreneurs take?Calculated risks
Do prokaryotes have a double membrane?No
What is an example of how proteins are modified?Carbohydrate to glycoprotein
How can you tell the difference between the golgi apparatus and smooth endoplasmic reticulum?Golgi apparatus is more curved and has more vesicles surrounding it
What is a strength of the Realistic Conflict Theory in explaining terrorism?Shows competition between a terrorist group and anti terrorist group due to political or religious beliefs which can lead to attacks as Sherif et al. (1954) found in the Robbers Cave experiment that competition between groups led to hostility
What is a weakness of the Realistic Conflict Theory in explaining terrorism?The way that that boys were randomly divided into 2 groups in Sherif et al.'s (1954) Robbers Cave experiment was artificial as well as the competition between them so it can't be applied to real life situations
What do business aims outline?What it wants to achieve in the long term
What are goals or targets that need to be met in order to achieve the long term aim called?Business objectives
Why do businesses create objectives?Common sense of purpose<div>Motivate employees</div><div>Create reward systems</div><div>Measure and review performance</div>
What does SMART stand for?Specific<div>Measurable</div><div>Achievable</div><div>Realistic</div><div>Time bound</div>
What are financial business objectives?Survival<div>Profit maximisation</div><div>Sales maximisation</div><div>Increase market share</div><div>Increase cost efficiency</div>
What are non-financial business objectives?Improve employee welfare<div>Improve customer satisfaction</div><div>Social objectives</div>
What is meant by the objective of survival?To continue to exist as a business
How can a business achieve its objective of survival?Set a cash flow objective to ensure sufficient cash is available to meet expenses
What is meant by the objective of profit maximisation?Surplus
What is meant by the objective of sales maximisation?Achieve highest amount of sales either by volume or value
What is market share?Proportion of total market sales that a firm has
How can a business meet its objective of increasing cost efficiency?Control costs so maximum value of outputs is achievable with the lowest value of inputs
What is meant by the objective of improving employee welfare?Looking after physical and economic well being<div>Positive employee/employer relations</div>
What is meant by the objective of improving customer satisfaction?Customer loyalty and repeat purchases
What is meant by social objectives?Behave in a way that benefits society
How can the objective of improving customer satisfaction be met?Ensure goods and services meet customer needs and expectations
Which 3 adjectives describe an ovum?Few<div>Fat</div><div>Fixed</div>
Which 3 adjectives describe a sperm?Many<div>Mini</div><div>Mobile</div>
What are the 2 gametes?Sperm and ovum
What is the proper name for sex cells?Gametes
Define haploidHalf the number of chromosomes found in a somatic cell
What is a somatic cell?Body cell
How many chromosomes are present in a sperm and an ovum?23 in each
What features does an ovum contain?Cytoplasm<div>Haploid nucleus</div><div>Follicle cells from ovary</div><div>Zona pellucida (jelly-like coating)</div><div>Lipid droplets</div><div>Cell surface membrane</div><div>Lysosomes</div>
What lysosomes does an ovum have?Cortical granules
What features are in a sperm cell?Acrosome<div>Haploid nucleus</div><div>Flagellum</div><div>Mitochondrion</div>
Why is it important that ovums are large?Many sperm able to fit around it, so increased chance of fertilisation<div>Contains more lipid droplets, so more energy for developing embryo</div>
What is the function of the zona pellucida?Hardens when one sperm enters to prevent polyspermy
What is the function of cortical granule lysosomes?Release enzymes which cause the zona pellucida to harden to prevent polyspermy
What is polyspermy?More than one sperm entering the ovum
Why is the cytoplasm with proteins and lipid droplets important for an ovum?Food source to supply energy for cell division of the fertilised ovum until implantation
Why is it important that gametes have a haploid nucleus?Contain half the number of chromosomes<div>Diploid chromosome number is restored at fertilisation</div><div>Mixing of alleles allows for genetic variation</div>
Why is important for sperm to have a flagellum?Allows sperm to swim to reach the ovum in the oviduct
Why do sperm need many mitochondria?Carry out aerobic respiration to release energy in the form of ATP so the tail can move so the sperm can swim to the ovum
What is the function of acrosome in sperm cells?Specialised lysosome which contains and releases digestive enzymes which hydrolyse the zona pellucida enabling the sperm to enter the ovum
What aids the sperm to get to the ovum in the oviduct?Muscular contractions of uterus walls
How many chromosomes in total are present in a human zygote?46
What happens to the zygote after it has been formed?Divides into 16 cells forming a ball shaped structure called a morula
What is the purpose of the acrosome reaction?To digest the zona pellucida to allow sperm to enter the ovum
What is the purpose of the cortical reaction?To harden the zona pellucida to prevent polyspermy
Which occurs first; the acrosome or cortical reaction?Acrosome
What chemicals does the ovum release to attract sperm in the acrosome reaction?Chemokines
In the acrosome reaction what do receptors on the head of the sperm bind to?The zona pellucida of the ovum
What happens when the acrosome in the head of the sperm swells?The acrosome membrane fuses with the sperm cell membrane and digestive enzymes are released from the acrosome by exocytosis
What happens when the zona pellucida of the egg is digested by the digestive enzymes released from the acrosome?The sperm head can reach, bind to and fuse with the ovum membrane<div>Genetic material in the nucleus of the sperm passes through the ovum cell membrane and enters it</div>
When does the cortical reaction take place?After genetic material from the sperm head enters the ovum
What moves towards and fuses with the egg cell surface membrane in the cortical reaction?Cortical granules
What do cortical granules release into the zona pellucida in the cortical reaction?Enzymes by exocytosis
What happens when enzymes released by the cortical granules enter the zona pellucida?It thickens and hardens
What is there a change in at the end of the cortical reaction across the egg cell membrane?The charge
When is fertilisation complete?When the sperm nucleus fuses with the ovum nucleus
GENERALISABILITY - strengthLarge sample of a rare category of violent offenders used
GENERALISABILTY - weaknessesMainly consisted of men<div>Atypical - only consisted of a certain group of violent offenders</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthsStandardised procedures and equipment<div><div>PET scans produce quantitative data about glucose levels in brain</div></div>
APPLICATIONS - strengthPredisposition for violent acts could be identified and prevented
APPLICATIONS - weaknessCause and effect not established so it cannot be used as a diagnostic tool
VALIDITY - strengthsVariables well controlled (no medication and matched pairs)<div>Reductionism is a characteristic of science</div>
VALIDITY - weaknessesNot all variables were controlled - no control over upbringing<div>Reductionist</div><div>PET scans resolution is lower than fMRI</div>
ETHICS - strengthsApproved by ethics committees<div>Problems outweighed by NGRI plea being accepted</div>
ETHICS - weaknessesParticipants with psychiatric disorders may not be fully aware when giving consent<div>Some costs for participants like being off medication and getting injected with radioactive tracer</div>
Describe some key issues and debates relating to this studySocially sensitive research - prejudice towards criminals, lead to pressure to get PET scans<div>Nature/nurture - ignores individual differences</div>
Describe the strengths in brain structure and function as an explanation of aggressionScientific credibility is high - theories are falsifiable, brain scanning techniques = objective information<div>Supporting evidence is extensive and wide ranging - well controlled lab based experiments with animals, replicable research = reliable</div><div>Useful practical applications - treatments for aggression based on the link to brain structures</div>
Describe the weaknesses in brain structure and function as an explanation of aggressionScientific credibility is limited - ethical constraints on manipulating brain structure so cause and effect cannot be established<div>Generalisability of scientific evidence from animals is limited - humans have more complex brains</div><div>Reductionism - reducing complexities of human aggression down to specific brain structures under emphasises the complex biological interactions and ignores other causes of aggression such as social learning</div>
Strength of the sampleOpportunity sample<div>Tight deadline with only 4 lessons to complete our research</div><div>Efficient way to collect data</div>
Weakness of the sampleStudents between 16 and 17 years old<div>Correlation found between testosterone and aggression levels may not be generalisable to the wider target population since testosterone fluctuates throughout life</div>
How many chromosomes do human cells have?46
How many pairs of chromosomes do human cells have?23
Define haploidHalf the number of chromosomes as a somatic cell
Define diploidFull number of chromosomes found in a somatic cell, two copies of each chromosome
What are the 2 important roles of meiosis?Results in haploid cells which are necessary to maintain the diploid number after fertilisation<div>Creates genetic variation in gametes and therefore among offspring</div>
Is meiosis cell division or nuclear division?Nuclear
How many divisions are there in meiosis?2
What separates during the first division of meiosis (meiosis I)?Homologous chromosomes
What separates during the second division of meiosis (meiosis II)?Sister chromatids
How many daughter cells (gametes) are produced from one parent cell?4
Are the daughter cells (gametes) produced haploid or diploid?Haploid
Are the daughter cells (gametes) produced genetically identical to each other?No
Are the daughter cells (gametes) produced genetically identical to the parent cell?No
Where does meiosis take place in a human male?Testes
Where does meiosis take place in a human female?Ovaries
What happens before division?Each chromosome replicates
After each chromosome replicates, how many strands of genetic material does each one contain?2 chromatids
How do the homologous chromosomes line up?In pairs
Describe meiosis IHomologous chromosomes separate from each other as the spindle fibres contract
Describe meiosis IISister chromatids separate from each other, producing 4 gametes
What is independent assortment of chromosomes?Random aligning of maternal and paternal chromosomes along the equator of the cell producing new combinations of alleles
What is crossing over?Breaking and rejoining of non-sister chromatids on the same chromosome pair, exchange alleles, recombination of alleles between chromatids
What is the title?A questionnaire to investigate whether people with an internal or external locus of control are more likely to be obedient
What is the aim of the study?Use self-report in the form of a questionnaire to investigate whether people with an internal or external locus of control were more obedient
Who came up with the idea of locus of control and when?Rotter, 1966
What does locus of control refer to?The extent to which people feel they are in control of their own situation and lives
Who would believe that their behaviour is largely beyond their control?People with an external locus of control
Who would believe that they are responsible for their actions?People with an internal locus of control
Why may people with an external locus of control be more obedient?More willing to displace responsibility because they believe that someone else is in control of their actions
What did participants in Milgram's (1963) study say when asked why they continued with the shocks?"They were ""just following orders"" because the experimenter specifically stated that he was responsible to any harm to the learner"
What did Blass' (1991) review of obedience research find?Results varied related to locus of control
What did Miller (1975) find?Participants with an external locus of control were more likely to obey an authority figure with a higher status
Why is Miller's (1975) research limited?Used an unusual and unrealistic measure of obedience (self-inflicted pain)
What did Holland (1967) find?Locus of control did not predict obedience levels
What did Schurz (1985) find?Locus of control was not predictive of obedience levels<div>Disobedient participants had a greater tendency to accept responsibility for their actions than the obedient participants</div>
Why are further and updated investigations needed to determine whether those with an internal or external locus of control are more obedient?Evidence regarding the effect of locus of control on obedience is mixed and unclear
What is the independent variable?Locus of control
What is the dependent variable?Levels of reported obedience
How is the independent variable operationalised?Are you Internal or External Locus of Control (self-report)
How is the dependent variable operationalised?Scores on self-report questionnaire
What is the Ha?There will be a significant difference in obedience (measured by scores on a self-report questionnaire) between participants with an internal and those with an external locus of control (self-report)
What is the Ho?Any difference in obedience (measured by scores on a self-report questionnaire) between participants with an internal and those with an external locus of control (self-report) will be due to chance
Which sample was used?Opportunity sample
Assess the level of risk in this study for general respectLow risk<div>College students were used in the sample, and the students treated each other with respect</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for informed consentLow risk<div>All participants were informed of the purpose of the research</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for deceptionLow risk<div>All participants knew the aims of the study</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for debriefingLow risk<div>All participants will be informed of the outcome of the research and monitored for any unforeseen harm</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for right to withdrawLow risk<div>All respondents were given the right to withdraw and knew that they could abandon the questionnaire if they felt at all uncomfortable</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for confidentialityLow risk<div>Questionnaires are anonymous</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for protection of participantsLow risk<div>Questions carefully chosen to avoid provoking anxiety, distress, or embarrassment in the participants</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for competenceLow risk<div>As it was a class practical the teacher took the lead and so ethical guidelines were followed at all times</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for giving advice to participantsLow risk<div>Students were instructed to consult their teacher if any requests were received</div>
Assess the level of risk in this study for colleagues' researchLow risk<div>Ethical guidelines were clear to researchers</div><div>Students worked in groups so that any ethical issues could easily be discussed</div>
What is the acrosome?A lysosome
Where in a sperm cell are mitochondria found?Middle section
When does crossing over occur?Meiosis I
When does independent assortment occur?Meiosis I
What does crossing over occur between?Non-sister chromatids
What does the acrosome contain?Enzymes
Are mitochondria found in an egg?Yes
What is a stem cell?An undifferentiated (unspecialised) cell that can give rise to other specialised cell types with no limit to division
What are the 3 types of potency?Totipotent<div>Pluripotent</div><div>Multipotent</div>
How many cell types are there in humans?216
Describe totipotencyWhen an undifferentiated stem cell can give rise to all specialised cell types<div>No limit to division</div><div>All genes switched on</div>
Describe pluripotencyWhen an undifferentiated stem cell can give rise to most specialised cell types (except totipotent embryonic stem cells)<div>No limit to division</div><div>Some genes switched off</div>
Describe multipotencyWhen an undifferentiated cell can give rise to only specialised cell types of a closely related family<div>Many genes switched off</div>
What potency do umbilical cord stem cells have?Pluripotent
What potency do adult stem cells have?Multipotent
What potency do embryonic stem cells from a zygote or 8 cell embryo have?Totipotent
What potency do embryonic stem cells from an inner cell mass of blastocyst have?Pluripotent
What are sources of embryonic stem cells?Zygote (fertilised egg)<div>8 cell embryo</div><div>Inner cell mass of blastocyst</div>
What are sources of umbilical cord stem cells?Umbilical cord blood<div>Placenta</div>
What are sources of adult stem cells?Bone marrow<div>Brain/connective/skin/liver cells</div>
Which potency are plant cells?Totipotent throughout life
What can be used to grow a complete plant?A fragment (explant) of a leaf, stem, root or single cell by plant tissue culture
Which technique is used to place an explant of plant tissue on sterile agar?Aseptic
What does the sterile agar contain?Nutrients and growth regulators
How long are the explants kept under a light bank for?Around 4 weeks
When cells differentiate to form a whole plant are they genetically identical to it?Yes, they are a clone of the original plant
What can plant tissue culture be used to do?Improve plant and food crop species<div>Produce increased quantities of plant chemicals used in drugs</div><div>Produce commercial plants that are difficult to grow from seeds</div><div>Conserve endangered plant species</div>
Give an example of how plant tissue culture can be used to improve plant and food speciesCreate disease resistant plants
Give an example of how plant tissue culture can be used to produce increased quantities of plant chemicals used in drugsTaxol from yew trees
Give an example of how plant tissue culture can be used to produce commercial plants that are difficult to grow from seedsOrchids
When stem cells are injected into the body to give rise to specialised cells, what can they replace/repair?Replace dead/damaged cells<div>Repair damaged tissue</div>
What can tissues or organs produced by stem cells be used for?Transplants
What diseases caused by damaged or faulty cells can be treated with stem cells?Heart disease<div>Type 1 diabetes</div><div>Spinal cord injuries</div>
What research can stem cells be used in?Drug testing<div>Differentiation</div><div>Cancer</div>
In therapeutic cloning, which cell gets the nucleus removed and placed into an egg cell which has had its nucleus removed?Diploid somatic cell (from patient)
In therapeutic cloning, how is the new cell stimulated to divide by mitosis and what does it form?Electricity<div>Blastocyst</div>
In therapeutic cloning, what happens after the pluripotent stem cells are removed?Encouraged to develop into tissue/organs which are genetically identical to the patient which can be used for transplantation
What are the advantages of therapeutic cloning?The transplanted tissue is not rejected by the patient, as the cells are genetically identical to the patient's own cells so there is no need for the patient to take immunosuppressant drugs
Describe what induced pluripotent stem cells areMultipotent somatic stem cells which have been genetically reprogrammed to become like embryonic stem cells, by being forced to express genes and factors important for maintaining the defining properties of embryonic stem cells
What does HFEA stand for?Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority
What does HFEA decide about embryos which are allowed to be used for research?Maximum age
What issues about the use of human embryos does HFEA consider?Ethical issues
What does HFEA check about the source of stem cells?If they are acceptable
What does HFEA stop?Human cloning<div>Unnecessary repetition of research</div>
What does HFEA ensure research institutions have before carrying out research?A licence
What are the 3 uses of stem cells in medical therpaies?To inject into the body to give rise to specialised cells to replace dead or damaged cells to repair damaged tissue<div>Producing tissues or organs for transplant</div><div>To treat a wide range of diseases that are caused by faulty or damaged cells (heart disease, type 1 diabetes, spinal cord injuries)</div>
What are the 6 roles of HFEA?Decide maximum age of an embryo allowed to be used for research<div>Consider ethical issues for the use of human embryos</div><div>Check that the source of stem cells is acceptable</div><div>To stop human cloning</div><div>To stop unnecessary repetition of research</div><div>Ensure research institutions have a licence to carry out research</div>
Disadvantages of adult stem cellsMultipotent - can only give rise to a limited range of different tissues<div>Difficult to extract from some parts of the body e.g brain</div>
Disadvantages of embryonic stem cellsEthical issues (as cells are obtained from spare embryos in IVF)<div>Risk of rejection, infection or cancer when used in treatments</div>
Disadvantages of induced pluripotent stem cellsDifficult to create<div>Difficult to control differentiation - may lead to cancer</div>
Ethical arguments for the use of embryonic stem cellsOffers treatment to many people who are suffering from a disease e.g Parkinson's, Alzheimer's<div>Research using adult stem cells is progressing more slowly</div><div>If we ban it in the UK it will still happen in other countries</div><div>Spare IVF embryos would be destroyed anyway</div><div>Research with embryonic stem cells is needed to develop use of adult stem cells</div><div>An embryo is not considered to be a new human until it is viable (can survive outside the womb)</div>
Ethical arguments against the use of embryonic stem cellsEmbryonic stem cells are from embryos which are considered to be unborn children, so using them is effectively murder - an embryo becomes a new human at the moment of conception<div>Much embryonic stem cell treatment may be badly regulated/exploits suffering/encourages IVF clinics to create more spare embryos</div><div>If we wait a few years longer we may have the same benefits through adult stem cells</div><div>Diverts funding away from alternatives e.g adult stem cells</div>
Which hormone is most closely linked with aggression?Testosterone
What type of hormone is testosterone?A male sex hormone, androgen = develops and maintains male characteristics
What are high levels of testosterone linked with?High levels of aggressive behaviour
What is a possible reason why testosterone is linked with aggression?Testosterone may influence serotonin levels in areas of the brain that are involved in aggressive reactions e.g amygdala and prefrontal cortex
What link is there with serotonin and high levels of aggression?Low levels of serotonin and high levels of aggression
Who investigated testosterone and gender differences in aggression and when?Maccoby and Jacklin (1974)
What did Maccoby and Jacklin (1974) conclude?Boys are consistently more aggressive than girls<div>Men are far more frequently charged with violent offences than women, whereas women are usually charged with offences against property</div>
What might provide an explanation for the finding that males are more aggressive than females on average?Males producing more testosterone than females<div>Boys have more exposure to testosterone in the womb and postnatally</div>
What is alpha-bias?Exaggerating differences
What is beta-bias?Minimising differences
What are the 3 correlational research with humans about the evidence of the role of testosterone in aggression?Dabbs et al (1987)<div>Dabbs et al (1995)</div><div>Olweus (1980)</div>
Describe Dabbs et al (1987) studyMeasured testosterone levels in the saliva of 89 male prisoners - some had been involved in violent crime and some in non-violent crime<div>More violent prisoners tended to have high levels of testosterone and were rated by their peers as 'tough'</div><div>Non-violent prisoners tended to have lower levels of testosterone</div>
Describe Dabbs et al (1995) studyTestosterone levels are higher in both male and female prisoners who had been convicted of violent crimes, compared with prisoners who have been convicted of non-violent offences
Describe Olweus (1980) studyBoys who had higher levels of testosterone were more impatient and irritable<div>Aware that they were more likely to respond aggressively to being provoked or threatened</div>
What is determinism?View that your behaviour is predetermined by your biological makeup<div>You have no free will as to how you behave</div>
How does determinism link to Raine's study?Could provide an excuse for some people to engage in violence<div>May limit their willingness in treatments</div>
What is the lab based experiment with rodents about the evidence of the role of testosterone in aggression?Wagner et al. (1979)
Describe Wagner et al.'s (1979) studyObserved aggression levels (measured by biting attacks on other mice) of male mice<div>After castration aggression levels dropped</div><div>When castrated mice are injected with testosterone (150mg a day) their aggression levels rose back to pre-castration levels</div>
What else does testosterone link to other than aggression and violence in humans?Competitiveness and motivation to win<div>Risk taking thrill</div><div>Male bonding, motivation to protect their own group and attack other groups</div>
What hormone other than testosterone is linked to aggression?Cortisol
Where is cortisol produced?Adrenal glands
What is cortisol responsible for managing?Stress levels
What do normal cortisol levels inhibit?Aggressive behaviour
What do low cortisol levels do to aggression?Increase it
How does cortisol inhibit aggressive behaviour?By having an effect on other hormones related to aggression e.g testosterone
What do high levels of cortisol do to aggression?Inhibit it
Why do high cortisol levels inhibit aggression?Cortisol increases anxiety levels so risk taking behaviours like those associated with aggression are less likely
Which research supports evidence of the role of cortisol in aggression?Barzman et al. (2013)
Describe Barzman et al. (2013) studyLooked at hormones in saliva of 17 7-9 year old boys in a psychiatric hospital and measured testosterone and cortisol levels<div>Obtained aggression ratings of the boys from nurses</div><div>Negative correlation - low levels of cortisol were linked to higher number of aggressive incidents</div>
What issue in social control links to hormones and aggression?Developing treatments like drugs to control undesirable behaviours like excessive aggression
Describe an example of drugs to treat undesirable behavioursMedroxyprogesterone acetate<div>Violent sexual offenders</div><div>Reduced levels of testosterone = reduction in sexual fantasies and impulses</div><div>Chemical castration</div>
Give two strengths of this studyInternal validity increased due to using self report methods so there is access to people's true feelings<div>Quantitative data is objective which makes the study reliable</div>
Give two weaknesses of this studyResults cannot be generalised to the target population because the sample is not representative<div>Some participants may not understand questions which lowers validity</div>
Give an example of one of the questions usedSome of my friends think I am a hothead
Give 2 examples of the closed questionsI feel I have little influence over the things that happen to me (1 = strongly disagree, 10 = strongly agree)<div>If a teacher tells you to stop chewing gum at college/school, would you obey? Yes/No</div>
Give an example of one of the open questionsGive an example of a time when you have disobeyed orders and explain why you disobeyed
Strengths of hormones as an explanation for aggressionScientific credibility is high - hormones travel through bloodstream so they are directly observable and measurable in an objective, quantitative way, reductionist techniques and controls<div>Supporting evidence is extensive and wide ranging - many animal and human studies, replicable research</div><div>Practical applications - individual differences in levels of testosterone may be a useful finding in reducing aggression</div>
Weaknesses of hormones as an explanation for aggressionScientific credibility is lowered - correlational research in human studies can't produce cause and effect links which lowers validity, animal research isn't generalisable to humans<div>Reductionism - only provides a partial biological explanation of what causes aggression</div><div>Overemphasises the role of nature and overlooks other factors like social learning</div>
What is cognitive psychology concerned with?Internal mental processes like language, memory, problem solving and thinking
Why is the brain a computer metaphorically?It's a storage system receiving information from the environment<div>It processes the information and gives an output</div><div>Computer hardware = structure of brain</div><div>Computer software = experiences we have that write into the system</div>
Where does most cognitive psychology research come from?Experimental research
Where and how is the study of human mental functioning carried out?In a controlled laboratory setting, using experimental tests to determine functioning
What is cognitive science concerned with?Mimicking human cognition in a computer program<div>Modelling computer simulations</div><div>Using computational models for various aspects of cognition</div>
What is cognitive neuropsychology the study of?Patients with brain damage to determine the impact of the damage on capacity and functioning
What other fields has cognitive psychology helped to shape?Neuroscience<div>Education</div><div>Economics</div>
What type of therapy uses cognitive ideas?Cognitive behavioural therapy<div>Used for depression and anxiety</div>
How would someone be on the nature side of the nature/nurture debate in cognitive psychology?By believing that our thoughts and cognitions are determined by our make-up and our inherited characteristics
How would someone be on the nurture side of the nature/nurture debate in cognitive psychology?By believing that our thoughts and cognitions are learned
What are the key assumptions of cognitive psychology?1. Thoughts influence behaviour and act as mediational processes between stimulus and behavioural response<div>2. Humans are information processors</div><div>3. The mind operates in a similar way to a computer</div><div>4. Internal mental processes can and should be investigated scientifically</div>
What is memory?The capacity to retain and retrieve information
When was Henry Molaison born?1926
What happened to Henry Moslain at the age of 7?He was knocked down by a pedal bicycle
When did Henry Molaison begin to have minor epileptic seizures?10 years old
When did Henry Molaison's seizures turn from minor to major?After the age of 16
What is epilepsy?A neurological condition that affects the brain and causes repeated seizures
How common is epilepsy?1/100 people
What happens during a seizure?Abnormal bursts of neurons fire off electrical impulses in the brain
How can the severity of seizures differ?Odd feeling with no loss of awareness<div>Trance-like state for a few seconds or minutes</div><div>Loss of consciousness</div><div>Convulsions (uncontrollable shaking of the body)</div>
When did Henry Molaison's seizures become so severe that he could no longer work or lead a normal life?27 years old
Who did HM live with?His parents, he was very socially isolated
Who was HM's neurosurgeon?William Scoville
What procedure did HM have?A bilateral mesial temporal lobe resection<div>Removed about 5cm of the bilateral mesial temporal cortex including the para-hippocampal gyrus and 2/3 of his hippocampus</div>
What was the result of HM's procedure?Successfully controlled his epilepsy - number and severity of his seizures reduced<div>Serious effects on his memory</div>
What was the aim of studying HM?To find out the effects of his brain surgery on his functioning, in particular, his memory
Which methods were used to study HM?Observations<div>Interviews</div><div>Experimental tasks</div><div>Standardised IQ and memory tests</div><div>MRI scans of his brain - during life and after his death</div>
Which memories were intact for HM?Memories up to the age of 16<div>Sensory memory</div><div>Spatial memory</div>
What sort of new information could HM not remember?Where he lived<div>Who cared for him</div><div>What he ate at his last meal</div><div>What year it was</div><div>Who the president was</div><div>How old he was</div>
What does it mean if HM lost recent memories and was unable to form new ones?He was unable to encode temporary short term memory into stable long term memory
Give some examples of how HM's memory was affectedHe forgot daily events almost straight away<div>He underestimated his age</div><div>He forgot names of people he had just been introduced to</div><div>He could not learn new words</div>
What did HM say what his life felt like?"""Like waking from a dream ... every day is alone in itself"""
How was HM's amygdala affected?It was damaged in the surgery<div>Lack of fear</div><div>Reduced pain</div><div>No change in hunger or thirst after a meal</div>
How were HM's intelligence, personality and perceptual functions affected?Remained the same
How can it be seen that HM's short term memory was not impaired?Intact digit span (ability to repeat back a string of 6 or 7 digits)<div>Information remained available so long as it could be actively maintained by rehearsal</div>
When does HM's short term memory not work?When material was not easy to rehearse (non-verbal stimulus like faces or designs)
Could HM acquire new motor skills?Yes, but he could not remember learning the task
What is declarative memory?"""Knowing what""<div>Memory of facts and events</div>"
What is procedural memory/nondeclarative memory?"""Knowing how""<div>Unconscious memory of skills and how to do things</div>"
Which conclusions on memory can be drawn from studying HM?Memory is a distinct cerebral function, separate from other brain functions such as perception and cognition<div>The medial temporal lobe is important for memory</div><div>Memory is not a single faculty of the mind; instead there are multiple memory systems in the brain</div><div>There is a distinction between short term memory and long term memory (HM could hold information in his short term memory but could not transfer that information to his long term memory)</div><div>There is a distinction between declarative and nondeclarative memory (HM could acquire new motor skills but not new facts)</div>
What type of data do case studies tend to produce and why?Qualitative data<div>Describe what brain functioning is intact and what is impaired</div><div>Gives us detailed accounts of a person's experiences, beliefs and feelings</div>
What are case studies of brain damaged patients used to understand?Aspects of cognitive psychology
What does qualitative research aim to understand?How people perceive their world and make sense of it
What does qualitative data result in?Rich descriptions based on what people disclose about themselves, the connections they make between events that happen and the meanings they attribute to them and how they feel
What are the steps used in the qualitative research process?Create research question<div>Collect data</div><div>Transcribe data</div><div>Look for themes and ideas</div><div>Reach conclusions based on themes and answer research question</div><div>Explain and justify conclusions using evidence from analysis</div>
Strengths of the use of case studies of brain damaged patients to inform our understanding of how memory worksDeliberate damage to memory/brains of humans is unethical - insight into how memory works while remaining ethical<div>Gathers rich detailed data about memory - deep understanding of how memory works</div><div>Takes a long time - can see the development of memory over time</div>
Weaknesses of the use of case studies of brain damaged patients to inform our understanding of how memory worksCase studies only based on one person/small group - cannot generalise findings<div>Subjective interpretation - findings may lack validity if different researchers read differently into them</div><div>Takes a long time - participants may drop out of the study</div>
How does the issue of individual differences relate to the use of case studies in cognitive psychology?Unique cases - extent of brain damage and response to individual patients to the damage<div>Not generalisable to whole population about our overall understanding of memory</div>
What are the 4 business forms?Sole trader<div>Partnership</div><div>Private limited company</div><div>Public limited company</div>
What is a sole trader?An individual who owns and runs their own business
What is a partnership?Two or more people share the costs, risks and responsibilities of being in business together
Does a sole trader have limited or unlimited liability?Unlimited liability
Does a partnership have limited or unlimited liability?Unlimited
What does unlimited liability mean?The owner is personally responsible for all debts of the business<div>Their home and assets might be used to pay off any debts that they incur and are unable to pay</div>
What do sole traders have to register as?Self-employed with His Majesty's Revenue and Customs (HMRC)
What are sole traders legally required to keep a record of?All income and expenses and at the end of the tax year to fill in a self-assessment tax return for HMRC
What are profits made by sole traders classed as?Income so it's taxable through income tax
Benefits of sole tradersCheap and easy to set up<div>All profits go to the sole trader</div><div>Autonomy in decision making</div><div>Financial records remain private</div><div>Motivation is high as the success of the individual and the business are one and the same</div>
What is the difference between unincorporated and incorporated businesses?Incorporated businesses have a legal difference between the business and the owner (limited liability) and unincorporated businesses are the opposite
Disadvantages of being a sole traderOwner has unlimited liability<div>Limited finance for investment</div><div>Little specialist skills as the owner is a 'jack of all trades' or will have to buy in specialists</div><div>Difficult to find cover when ill - although sole traders employ people</div>
What do people in partnerships have to register as?Self-employed with HMRC
What is needed in a partnership?Deed of partnership (contract)
What are sleeping partners?Partners who invest in but do not manage the business
What does each partner share in partnerships?Equally responsible for debts incurred<div>Will take a share of profit made by business</div><div>Has a share in decision making</div><div>Contributes to the management of the business but can delegate responsibility</div>
Benefits of partnershipsRisks, costs and responsibilities are shared<div>More scope for specialist skills</div><div>Simple and flexible</div><div>Financial records remain private</div><div>More finance can be raised than a sole trader</div>
Disadvantages of partnershipsPartners have unlimited liability<div>Arguments can occur with decision making</div><div>If a partner dies, resigns or goes bankrupt the partnership is dissolved</div><div>Trust becomes a significant element between partners - a written agreement between the partners should be drawn up</div>
What are the 3 sectors of businesses?Public sector<div>Private sector</div><div>Charity</div>
What is profit and loss called in public sector and charity?Surplus and deficit
Who are limited companies run by?Board of directors
What does it mean if limited companies exist in their own right?Owner and company are separate legal entities<div>Company's finances are separate from the owner's personal finances</div>
What does it mean if shareholders of limited companies have limited liability?They are not responsible for the company's debts<div>They can only lose the money that they have invested in the business in the form of shares</div>
What are the 2 types of limited companies?Public limited company (Plc)<div>Private limited company (Ltd)</div>
Who owns private limited companies?Shareholders who are known to the company, often family and friends
Can shares be sold on a stock market in private limited company?No, they can only sell shares on to other shareholders
Why are shares often sold at a discount to the real value of the shares?Because shareholders are 'locked in' and either sell at the price that they are offered or do not sell at all
Advantages of private limited companiesShareholders have limited liability - company has separate legal identity from the owners<div>More flexible than a public limited company</div><div>Financial records remain relatively private</div><div>More finance can be raised through the sale of shares</div>
Disadvantages of private limited companiesMore complex to set up due to increased legal requirements<div>Some loss of control as shareholders have voting rights</div><div>Unable to sell shares to the public</div>
Advantages of public limited companiesShareholders have limited liability - company has separate legal identity from its owners<div>More finance can be raised through the sale of shares - able to grow through the finance raised from share capital rather than relying on loans</div>
Disadvantages of public limited companiesLack of privacy as financial performance is available for all to view<div>More complex to set up due to increased legal requirements and ongoing administrative costs</div><div>Some loss of control as shareholders have voting rights</div><div>Risk of hostile takeovers</div>
How can shares be sold to the public in public limited companies?Through a stock exchange
What percentage of shares is considered as a takeover?51%
What is open to more public scrutiny; private or public limited companies?Public limited companies
What is the process of becoming a public limited company known as and why?Floatation - the business floats itself on the stock market so it can sell shares to the public
How do public limited companies have access to greater amounts of finance?By raising share capital that can be used for rapid expansion
What is required to become a public limited company?Minimum of 2 shareholders<div>Issued at least £50,000 of shares to the public before they can trade</div>
What is the maximum amount of partners in a partnership?20
Describe divorce between ownership and controlShareholders own the company and directors/managers control the company<div>In a public limited company shareholders and managers are usually different people with their own objectives</div><div>Can cause conflict because shareholders want profit taken out of the business and paid to them as dividends whereas the managers may want to invest in long term profits and retain the profit</div>
What are dividends?Payments to shareholders
What is a franchise?When one business (the franchisor) gives another business (the franchisee) permission to trade using the franchisors name and selling the franchisors goods or services
What is a franchisee?A business that is given permission from another business to trade using its name or goods/services in return for a fee and share of the profits
What is a franchisor?A business that sells a licence giving permission to another business to trade using its name or good/services
How is franchising a two-way relationship?Franchisee pays an initial and annual fee to the franchisor<div>Franchisee often has to buy supplies from the franchisor</div><div>Franchisee can use a well recognised name and brand</div>
How does the franchisor retain control?Over the way in which products and services are marketed and sold and controls the quality and standards of the business
Which areas must the franchisor support the franchisee?Advertising<div>Training</div><div>Recruitment</div><div>Suppliers</div>
Benefits of franchising for the the franchisorRapid expansion - maximum profitability<div>Less investment as franchisee buys capital equipment/physical store</div><div>Economies of scale as creating a larger business by using franchising - buying power, mass advertising</div><div>Franchisees are more motivated than employees</div><div>Receive share of franchisee's sales or profit</div>
Problems of franchising for the franchisorLoss of control - must have good systems and a tight contract<div>Poor franchises may damage the brand's reputation</div><div>Cost of supporting franchises may reduce profit levels</div>
Benefits of franchising for the franchiseeLower risk as they use an idea that has already been tried and tested by an established business<div>Brand awareness</div><div>Assistance from franchisor at start-up, management, financial, marketing, training, supplier management/negotiation</div>
Problems of franchising for the franchiseeMust share profit with the franchisor (royalties)<div>Lack of control and independence - must follow franchisor's rules, cannot sell without the franchisor's permission, must buy supplies from the franchisor</div><div>Higher than expected costs - start-up, royalties, supplies and franchise renewals can be expensive</div>
Which businesses do not have an objective for profit, but to do good for society and any surplus made is ploughed back into achieving that goal?Social enterprises<div>Charities</div>
What are examples of social enterprises?Co-operatives<div>Charities</div>
Define social enterpriseA business with primarily social objectives<div>Surpluses are principally reinvested for that purpose in the business or in the community rather than being driven by the need to maximise profit for shareholders and owners</div>
What are lifestyle business?When entrepreneurs run a business to suit and meet the needs of their own life styles
What are lifestyle business objectives likely to be based around?Profit satisficing<div>Independence</div><div>Work life balance</div>
Where do online businesses trade?In a virtual market place
What are online businesses also known as?E commerce
What advances have led to the increase of online businesses?In technology and internet
Which factors affect the choice of business form?Liability<div>Amount of finance available</div><div>Set up costs</div><div>Objectives</div>
What is an entrepreneur?A person who spots an opportunity and shows initiative and a willingness to take risks in order to benefit from the potential rewards
What is a leader?A person that can inspire others and motivate them to meet objectives
What will a successful start-up business experience?Rapid growth
When do entrepreneurs have to make a transition to a leader?When their start-up begin to rapidly grow
Which difficulties may entrepreneurs have when moving to a leader?Reluctance to hand over control making it difficult to delegate since many entrepreneurs are emotionally and financially attached to the success of the business<div>Loss of autonomy in decision making - learning to listen to and accept the opinions of others</div><div>Learning to trust others and not feel a need to constantly oversee everything or micro manage</div>
What are the problems of rapid growth?High demand can lead to pressure on production or sales staff as take on more work so mistakes might be made and there may be a shortage of stock as demand outstrips supply<div><div>It takes time for capacity to be increased</div></div>
What is overtrading?When a business expands at a rate that cannot be sustained by its capital base
What happens when a business overtrades?They cannot get enough cash to pay for capital goods required (stock, equipment, machinery, employees wages)
When does overtrading occur?Selling goods using trade credit, therefore there is a delay in receiving cash from customers
What happens to communication when a business grows?Number of employees grows<div>Entrepreneur will not be able to communicate effectively with everyone effectively</div>
How will the shape of the organisation change?More layers of management will be added due to delegation being needed
Why don't all entrepreneurs make great leaders?If they fail to let go of all decision making and insist on being the person in charge<div>They dislike or are not good at overseeing the direction of the business, too focused on the next idea and ignore the demands of the current business</div><div>They neglect to get to know their employees and don't take an interest in morale and motivation</div>
Define opportunity costBenefit lost from the next best alternative when making a choice
What are trade offs?The alternatives of an opportunity cost
Define trade-offAccepting less of one thing to achieve more of another
Why should a successful entrepreneur have lower opportunity costs?They should earn more satisfaction and eventually more money from their business
What are the 3 main stages of the cell cycle?Interphase<div>Mitosis</div><div>Cytokinesis</div>
What are the 3 phases within interphase?Gap 1/G1 phase<div>S phase</div><div>Gap 2/G2 phase</div>
What happens during G1 phase?The cell grows larger<div>New organelles are made</div><div>Enzymes are made for DNA replication</div>
What happens during S phase?Cell replicates its DNA by semi-conservative replication<div>DNA content of the cell doubles to ensure that there is enough DNA for making new cells</div>
What happens during G2 phase?Cell keeps growing<div>Proteins needed for mitosis are made i.e. centrioles</div>
What is mitosis the division of?Nucleus
What are the 4 phases of mitosis?Prophase<div>Metaphase</div><div>Anaphase</div><div>Telophase</div>
Describe each stage of mitosis using PMATProphase = prepare<div>Metaphase = middle</div><div>Anaphase = apart</div><div>Telophase = two</div>
What happens during prophase?Chromosome condense (become shorter and thicker)<div>Centrioles move to opposite poles of the cell</div><div>The spindle forms, ready for the chromosomes to attach to it</div><div>The nucleolus and nuclear envelope break down</div>
What happens during metaphase?The chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) attach to the spindle fibres by their centromeres and line up along the equator of the cell
What happens during anaphase?Centromeres split, separating the two sister chromatids<div>Spindle fibres contract and shorten, pulling the two chromatids to opposite poles of the cell</div>
What happens during telophase?Chromosomes decondense (become long and thin again)<div>Nuclear envelope forms around each group of chromosomes - cell has 2 nuclei at the end of telophase</div><div>Two nucleoli reform (one in each nucleus)</div><div>Spindle fibres break down</div>
What is cytokinesis the division of?Cytoplasm
What happens during cytokinesis in animal cells?A ring of protein filaments on the inside of the cell surface membrane contract and constrict to divide the cell
What happens during cytokinesis in plant cells?Synthesise a new cell plate down the middle of the cell
What is mitosis?A stage in the cell cycle where nuclear division occurs to form 2 genetically identical diploid nuclei daughter cells which are produced from one parent diploid nucleus
What is the role of mitosis?To produce 2 daughter cells with a diploid number of chromosomes that are genetically identical to the parent cell<div>Growth - increase cell numbers for growth</div><div>And repair - replace damaged/dead cells to repair damaged tissue</div><div>Asexual reproduction in some organisms (plants, fungi e.g yeast)</div>
How does mitosis ensure genetic consistency?Daughter cells are genetically identical to each other and the parent cell (contains exactly the same number and type of chromosomes)
How is genetic consistency achieved in 2 ways in mitosis?DNA replication prior to nuclear division<div>Arrangement of the chromosomes on the spindle and the separation of chromatids to the poles</div>
Which stage of interphase varies most in length?G1 phase
Why is there no interphase for the first few divisions in the developing human embryo?The zygote already contains the materials needed to form the first 16 cells
How does an evolutionary perspective on human behaviour look at explaining our behaviour?In terms of how it had aided our survival and reproduction
Which features have our brains evolved to be passed onto offspring?Psychological
Why is it assumed that the evolution of aggressive behaviour has occurred over generations?Because it would be useful for survival of both the individual and the species
According to the theory of natural selection, why have human adapted to be aggressive?Aggression is well adapted to a hostile environment<div>Aids survival</div><div>Increase the individual's fitness to reproduce - survival of the fittest</div><div>Aggression is needed to defend oneself from attacks and to protect one's mate and offspring to ensure they reach sexual maturity</div><div>Non-aggressive individuals would be less likely to survive and reproduce so their genes would not be passed on</div>
Which study provides a summary of evolutionary explanations for aggression?Buss et al (1997)
Describe Buss et al (1997) studyCollected evidence to see if there was any support for the theory of natural selection as an explanation of why humans have evolved to be aggressive<div>1. Humans want resources valuable for survival and reproduction and may use aggression to get other people's resources</div><div>2. Victims of aggression lose valuable resources and status</div><div>3. Same-sex rivals will fight each other for resources</div>
Which studies support that evolution can be used to explain gender differences in aggressive behaviour?Dr. David P. Barash<div>Wilson and Daly (1985)</div>
Describe Dr. David P. Barash's studyProfessor of Psychology at University of Washington<div>Research on evolution of male violence</div><div>Found that professions that involved violence e.g soldiers and hunters were overwhelmingly male</div><div>Males would have provided for and protected the females and offspring so had to display violence to obtain survival necessities</div><div>Evolutionary nature of females is to be nurturing to ensure the survival of their offspring</div>
Describe Wilson and Daly's (1985) study about gender differences in aggressive behaviourEvolutionary advantage of male aggression is due to status competition<div>Males will participate in risky activities such as violence even if serious injury or death is possible</div><div>Females will be attracted to aggressive risk takers as they are displaying willingness to take risks in competition for food etc.</div><div>By engaging in aggressive behaviours they compete for higher status than other males</div><div>Increases their chance of winning a high value mate</div><div>Increases their chance of successfully reproducing</div>
Which evidence supports Status Competition?Wilson and Daly (1985)
Describe Wilson and Daly's (1985) research on Status CompetitionAnalysed data from police homicide records on Detroit during 1972<div>Age and sex of perpetrators and victims were analysed</div><div>Data was categorised into a type of homicidal crime</div><div>Far more homicides were committed by young unmarried males than any other group</div><div>Most victims of homicides were also young unmarried males</div><div>Most homicides involved conflict caused by retaliation, show off and jealousy</div>
How does the key issue and debate of reductionism link to evolution and aggression?Argues that human behaviour can be simplified to evolutionary pressures that operate thousands of years ago<div>Overlooks social learning and cultures</div>
How does the key issue and debate of gender link to evolution and aggression?Overemphasises male and female differences in aggressive behaviour
Strengths of evolution as an explanation of aggressionScientific credibility is high - research is falsifiable<div>Supporting evidence is extensive and wide ranging - a lot of evidence for Darwin's theory of evolution and natural selection, Galapago Island finches beaks adapted to different food sources on different islands</div>
Weaknesses of evolution as an explanation of aggressionHard to find evidence for behavioural characteristics<div>Scientific credibility when the theory of evolution is applied to behaviour is lowered - cannot empirically test an idea that depends on environment in the past and much aggressive behaviour could be more easily explained by social learning</div><div>Reductionism - lowers validity since it's not a complete explanation of the complexities of human aggression</div><div>Determinism - humans don't have free will against being aggressive, could be an excuse for criminals</div>
What ribosomes do eukaryotic cells have?80S
Where is DNA in prokaryotic cells vs eukaryotic cells?Prokaryotic - cytoplasm<div>Eukaryotic - nucleus</div>
Do animal cells have cell walls?No
What are plant cell walls made of?Cellulose
What are fungi cell walls made of?Chitin
Which organelles have double membrane?Nucleus<div>Mitochondria</div><div>Chloroplasts</div>
Which organelles have single membrane?<div>Rough &amp; smooth endoplasmic reticulum</div><div>Golgi apparatus</div><div>Lysosomes</div>
Which organelles have no membrane?Centrioles<div>Nucleolus</div><div>Ribosomes</div>
What is the difference between SEM and TEM?Scanning electron microscopy - shows surface detail<div>Transmission electron microscopy - shows inside of specimen</div>
Which face of the Golgi apparatus membrane does the vesicle from rER fuse with?Cis face
Which face of the Golgi apparatus membrane is the modified protein packaged into a secretory vesicle?Trans face
What happens first; crossing over or independent assortment?Crossing over
What are the contact points where chromatids break and rejoin exchanging sections of DNA called?Chiasmata
Describe the process of DNA replication1. The enzyme DNA helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands in the DNA molecule and the DNA strands separate<div>2. Both DNA strands act as templates for formation of new DNA strands</div><div>3. Free DNA mononucleotides line up along both DNA strands</div><div>4. Complementary base pairing between bases</div><div>5. Hydrogen bonds form between bases to join the 2 DNA strands</div><div>6. The enzyme DNA polymerase joins adjacent mononucleotides with phosphodiester bonds in condensation reactions</div>
Describe the process of transcription1. Part of the DNA unwinds, hydrogen bonds between the bases break and the 2 strands separate so that a gene can be transcribed<div>2. The antisense strand of DNA only is used as a template</div><div>3. Free RNA mononucleotides line up against their complementary base pairs on the exposed antisense strand of DNA</div><div>4. The enzyme RNA polymerase joins the RNA mononucleotides together with phosphodiester bonds in condensation reactions to form mRNA</div><div>5. mRNA detaches from the DNA and exits the nucleus through a nuclear pore into the cytoplasm</div>
Describe the process of translation1. mRNA leaves the nucleus and a ribosome attaches to it at a start codon<div>2. Each tRNA attaches to a specific amino acid and carries it to the ribosome</div><div>3. Complementary base pairing takes place between the anticodon on tRNA and the codon on mRNA</div><div>4. Peptide bonds form between amino acids in condensation reactions</div><div>5. The ribosome moves along mRNA and detaches from mRNA at a stop codon</div><div>6. The completed polypeptide chain detaches from the ribosome</div>
Describe the protein transport process1. Amino acids are joined together to form a polypeptide chain on a ribosome attached to the rough ER<div>2. The polypeptide passes through the cisternae membrane and into the lumen of the rough ER where the polypeptide folds into its 3D shape (protein)</div><div>3. Rough ER packages protein into ER vesicles which transport the protein to Golgi apparatus</div><div>4. ER vesicles fuse with Golgi apparatus membrane to become part of the Golgi apparatus</div><div>5. Protein enters the Golgi apparatus and is modified as the protein moves through the Golgi apparatus</div><div>6. The proteins are packaged into a Golgi secretory vesicle for transport through the cell cytoplasm</div><div>7. The vesicle moves to the cell surface membrane, fuses with it and the proteins exit the cell by the process of exocytosis</div>
Describe the acrosome reaction1. The ovum releases chemicals called chemokines which attract sperm<br>2. Receptors on the head of the sperm bind to the zona pellucida of the ovum<br>3. The acrosome in the head of the sperm swells then the acrosome membrane fuses with the sperm cell membrane<br>4. Hydrolytic/digestive enzymes are released from the acrosome by exocytosis<br>5. The zona pellucida of the egg is hydrolysed/digested by the enzyme allowing the sperm head to reach, bind to and fuse with the ovum membrane. Genetic material in the nucleus of one sperm passes through the ovum cell membrane and enters the ovum
Describe the cortical reaction1. Genetic material from the sperm head enters the ovum after the sperm cell fuses with egg cell membrane<br>2. Cortical granules in the cytoplasm of the ovum move towards and fuse with egg cell surface membrane, releasing enzymes by exocytosis into the zona pellucida<br>3. The zona pellucida hardens/thickens which prevents polyspermy<br>4. There is a change in charge across egg cell membrane
What do the spindle fibres attach to?Centromere
In which stage of the cell cycle do cells not have visible chromosomes?Interphase
State each step of the method1. Cut off 4mm of onion root tip<div>2. Place in acid (1M HCl)</div><div>3. Place in water for 5 minutes</div><div>4. Transfer to a microscope slide</div><div>5. Macerate with a mounted needle on microscope slide</div><div>6. Stain with Toluidine blue</div><div>7. Place coverslip on slide and gently squash</div><div>8. Observe cells under a microscope at x400 magnification</div>
Why is 4mm of the onion root tip cut off?Site of cell division/mitosis/actively dividing cells/meristem
Why is the onion root tip placed in acid?To soften the tissue and break down the middle lamella<div>Can be macerated to separate cells/form a single cell layer which light can pass through</div>
Why is the onion root tip placed in water for 5 minutes after being placed in acid?To dilute/wash off HCl
Why is the onion root tip transferred to a microscope slide?To prepare for viewing
Why is the onion root tip macerated with a mounted needle on a microscope slide?Breaks open root tip to separate cells, to help obtain a single layer of cells which light can pass through
Why is the onion root tip stained with Toluidine blue?To make chromosomes visible<div>Stages of mitosis can be identified - toluidine blue binds to DNA so chromosomes appear blue under the microscope</div>
Why is a coverslip placed on top of the slide and gently squashed?To help obtain a single layer of cells
Why are cells observed under a microscope at x400 magnification?To magnify cells to enable cell detail/chromosomes to be seen
What are the 3 safety risks?Risk of cuts when using sharp scalpel<div>Skin/eye damage from hydrochloric acid and Toluidine blue stain</div><div>Coverslip can break when squashing, cutting skin</div>
What precaution can be taken against the risk of cuts when using sharp scalpel?Cut away from yourself
What precaution can be taken against skin/eye damage from hydrochloric acid and Toluidine blue stain?Wear a lab coat, safety goggles and gloves
What precaution can be taken against coverslip breaking when squashing, cutting skin?Press down on coverslip with paper towels
What is the mitotic index?Percentage of cells undergoing mitosis in a tissue
How is mitotic index calculated?Number of cells with visible chromosomes / total number of cells in the field of view
What did Hammerling do experiments on?Acetabularia - a single-celled algae that contains cytoplasm and cell organelles
What was Hammerling's 1st experiment?Hats cut off each of the two species of Acetabularia<div>Stalks swapped over</div>
What were the results of Hammerling's 1st experiment?Both species developed hats with mixed features - disc shaped but branched
Explain Hammerling's 1st experiment resultsMessenger molecule is made in the rhizoid and moves through the cell cytoplasm to the stalk tip where it initiates hat development<div>Messenger molecule is different in each species so different hats develop</div><div>When the hats were first cut off some of the original messenger molecules were still present in each of the stalks and different messenger molecules were also made by the original rhizoid - both moved up to the stalk tip</div><div>The two types of messenger molecules mixed causing mixed feature hats to develop</div>
"<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: arial; text-align: center;"">What was Hammerling's 2nd experiment?</span>"The mixed feature hats were cut off and the hats developed again
"<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: arial; text-align: center;"">What were the results of Hammerling's 2nd experiment?</span>"Hats developed which were the same as the ones originally present
"<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: arial; text-align: center;"">Explain Hammerling's 2nd experiment results</span>"No messenger molecules left in the stalk so the only messenger that can affect hat development is the messenger made by the rhizoid<div>Hats develop which match the rhizoid</div><div>Nucleus in rhizoid controls hat development</div>
What were Hammerling's experiments evidence for?Nucleus controlling cell development
How do Dawid and Sargent's experiments show differential gene expression?Undifferentiated cell and a more differentiated cell are expressing some of the same genes but also some different genes<div>Different genes are switched on and expressed in different cells</div>
In Dawid and Sargent's experiments what shows that the genes are expressed in both cells?Where cDNA and mRNA bind
In Dawid and Sargent's experiments what shows that the genes are expressed in one cell?When there is free cDNA (that has no mRNA from undifferentiated cell to bind to)
What does the creation of Dolly the sheep demonstrate?All genetic information for making a complete organism is present in the nucleus of every single cell in an organism<div>Every cell contains the same DNA and the same genes even adult cells that have differentiated</div><div>No genetic information is lost when a cell differentiates - the genes are all still there, however some genes are switched off and are not expressed, and other genes are switched on and are expressed</div>
How is the DNA transcribed?DNA of a gene is uncoiled, exposing the DNA
What attach to the promoter region on DNA?A regulator protein (transcription factor)<div>Enzyme RNA polymerase</div>
Describe the process of how a gene can be switched on and expressed1. The DNA of a gene is uncoiled, exposing the DNA to be transcribed<div>2.&nbsp; A regulator protein (transcription factor) and the enzyme RNA polymerase both attach to the promoter region on DNA</div><div>3. The gene is switched on, so is expressed</div><div>4. The gene is transcribed to make mRNA</div><div>5. The mRNA is translated to make the protein</div>
How can a gene be expressed?When it is switched on
What is the gene transcribed to make?mRNA
What is the mRNA translated to make?Protein
How can a gene be switched off and not expressed?Protein repressor molecules can attach to the DNA of the promoter region, blocking the attachment site for RNA polymerase and regulator protein, cannot bind to DNA<div>Attach to regulator proteins themselves preventing them from attaching to DNA</div>
How does regulator proteins not being able to attach to DNA cause a gene to be switched off and not expressed?Transcription cannot take place<div>No mRNA made</div><div>No mRNA to be translated</div><div>No protein made</div><div>Gene not expressed</div>
Describe the differential gene expression process1. The correct chemical stimulus is required<div>2. Some genes are 'switched on' and other genes are 'switched off'</div><div>3. mRNA is made during transcription only from 'switched on' genes and this mRNA is translated to produce proteins, so different proteins are made in different cells</div><div>4. Proteins determine the structure and function of cells, as different proteins produced permanently modify a cell in different ways, resulting in different types of specialised cells being produced</div>
What is needed to begin the differential gene expression process?Correct chemical stimulus
What do proteins determine about cells?Structure and function
What genes is mRNA made from during transcription?Switched on genes
What is the result of proteins permanently modifying cells in different ways?Different types of specialised cells being produced
What do twin and adoption studies investigate?The relationship between genetics and behaviour
Describe what monozygotic twins areIdentical - share all genes<div>Single egg fertilized by single sperm, then splits in two</div>
Describe what dizygotic twins areNon-identical - share only about half their genes<div>Separate eggs fertilized by separate sperm</div>
If each member of a twin pair has a roughly identical environment, what must differences between the similarities of MZ twins compared to the similarities of DZ twins must be due to?Genetic influence
If there is a genetic contribution to a specific behaviour, which type of twins would be expected to be more similar on that trait?MZ
What is a concordance rate?Degree to which members of a twin pair display the same characteristics, expressed as a percentage
What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?Symptoms additional to normal behaviour<div>Hallucinations, delusions and thought disorder</div>
What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?A reduction in normal experiences or behaviour<div>Flattened affect (lack of emotion) and lack of motivation</div>
What percentage of the population will experience episodes of schizophrenia during their lifetime?1%
What are the prevalence rates like for men and women with schizophrenia?Similar but it tends to show earlier in men, often between 15 and 24
How is schizophrenia treated?Antipsychotic medication
How successful is antipsychotic medication?Fairly successful in reducing the positive symptoms<div>Less successful with the negative symptoms</div>
What are some side effects of antipsychotic medication?Tardive dyskinesia (abnormal facial movements) and weight gain
What is better about adoption studies compared to twin studies?Better controls for environmental influences
Why might MZ twins be more likely to behave in the same way?They may be treated more similarly than DZ twins
Why can't researchers be sure that the environment isn't influencing behaviour in twin studies?Because they share the same environment when growing up
What does a higher concordance rate in the adoptee-biological parents indicate about a trait?Affected by genetics
What does a higher concordance rate in the adoptee-adoptive parents indicate about a trait?Affected by environment
What is the twin study?Gottesman &amp; Shields (1966)
What is the adoption study?Ludeke et al. (2013)
What was the aim of Gottesman and Shields (1966) study?To see whether schizophrenia had a genetic basis
What was the aim of Ludeke et al. (2013) study?To determine whether people's attitudes could be influenced by genes
Describe Gottesman and Shields (1966) sample57 schizophrenic patients that were one member of a twin<div>Tracked down the other twin for each participant</div><div>24 twin paris were MZ and 33 were DZ</div>
Which ways did Gottesman and Shields collect data?Hospital notes<div>Self-report questionnaires and interviews</div><div>Personality testing</div><div>Tests to measure disordered thinking</div>
In Gottesman and Shield's study what was the patient who was initially admitted to the hospital referred to as?Proband
In Gottesman and Shield's study what were the 4 categories?1 - Both the proband and co-twin had been hospitalised and diagnosed with schizophrenia<div>2 - Both had hospitalisation but the co-twin had been given another diagnosis related to schizophrenia</div><div>3 - The co-twin had some psychiatric abnormality but nothing related to schizophrenia</div><div>4 - The co-twin was clinically normal</div>
Describe some results for Gottesman and Shields' studyConcordance rates for schizophrenia were higher in females compared to males for both MZ and DZ twins<div>Concordance rates were higher for both MZ and DZ twins for severe schizophrenia compared to mild schizophrenia</div><div>Concordance rates for severe schizophrenia was much higher in MZ twins (75%) compared to DZ twins (22%)</div>
Describe some conclusions for Gottesman and Shields' studySchizophrenia has a biological basis as the chance of developing schizophrenia appears to be influenced by a person's genes<div>Schizophrenia is not totally controlled by genes as the concordance rates for MZ twins was not 100% therefore genes are a risk factor for developing schizophrenia but environmental triggers may be necessary also</div>
What does traditionalism include?Authoritarianism<div>Conservatism</div><div>Religiousness</div>
What is authoritarianism?Expecting or requiring people to obey rules or laws whilst minimizing personal freedom
What is conservatism?A general preference for the existing order of society and an opposition to efforts to bring about sharp change
What is religousness?A way of life dedicated to religion and the vows associated within it
Who did Ludeke et al. study?66 MZ twins and 53 DZ twins who had been separated at infancy and reunited later in life<div>Part of the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart group</div>
How did Ludeke et al. collect their data?Self-report measures about attitudes towards authoritarianism, conservatism and religiousness
What were Ludeke et al.'s results?Strong positive correlations were found across all scales in the MZ twins while only the conservatism measure scored strongly for DZ twins
What was Ludeke et al.'s conclusion?Genes do have an influence on people's attitudes towards traditionalism<div>Researchers are confident that this is not due to the twins sharing the same experiences growing up as they grew up in different environments</div>
Strengths of twin studiesScientific credibility is high - empirically study the influence of nature/nurture on human behaviour because of objective, quantitative data<div>Usefulness/practical applications - information about treatments and preventions</div>
Weaknesses of twin studiesScientific credibility is lowered by confounding variables of environmental influences<div>Generalising from the results of twin studies is difficult as samples are small and atypical since most people aren't twins</div>
Strength of adoption studiesScientific credibility is high - clear isolation of environmental influences since twins were separated and grew up in different environments
Weaknesses of adoption studiesScientific credibility is lowered by confounding variables - adoptive families are similar to biological family and adoptee may have spent time with biological family before adoption<div>Generalising to target population is difficult - small samples and atypical since most people aren't adopted</div>
When did HM die?December 2nd 2008 aged 82
How long was HM studied for?51 years (1957 until his death in 2008)
How many neurosurgeons was HM studied by?Over 100
Generalisability of H.M's case studyLow generalisability<div>Done on 1 participant who is different from other people due to his epilepsy</div><div>Therefore findings about memory may not generalise to others</div>
Reliability of H.M's case studyLow reliability<div>Cannot be replicated as HM was studied over a long period of time (51 years)</div><div>Much of the data gathered was qualitative, from observations and interviews</div>
Applicability of H.M's case studyFirst study to show that there are distinct memory functions<div>Gives insight into the experiences of people suffering memory loss</div><div>Helps psychologists to develop strategies to help people with memory loss</div>
Validity of H.M's case studyHigh validity<div>HM was studied through a variety of methods, rich detailed understanding of his memory issues</div><div>Low validity</div><div>Case study, no control over extraneous variables</div>
Ethics of H.M's case studyNo memory, could not give informed consent<div>Never gave permission for his brain being preserved, nor were any of his closest relatives approached</div><div>Exploited by being over-studied</div>
What is the key question?Can the use of animals in psychological research be justified?
Why is this issue important in today's society?Important issue currently debated in the scientific community<div>Number and types of animals that are used on an annual basis in psychological research</div>
Which arguments about using animals in psychological research are debated by the scientific community?Using animals provides a more ethical way to conduct vital research into neurological disease like Alzheimer's and Parkinson's but animals are harmed during this<div>Use of animals increases the scientific credibility of psychology as researchers can empirically observe neuronal changes in the brain that are unable to be done with humans but a rat brain is not generalisable to human brains which are much more complex</div>
Why is the number and types of animals used on an annual basis in psychological research an issue for the scientific community?They have to justify the use of these animals when it is not yet known how significant a piece of research will be in terms of positive benefits to society until the results are gained and it is hard to compare the benefits of the research to the ethical costs of using animals
How did the British House of Lords underline the issue of the number and types of animals used in psychological research?By pledging commitment to the 3 Rs; Reduction (smallest number of animals should be used), Refinement (procedures should minimise harm) and Replacement (using computer simulations instead)
What did Kilkenny et al. (2009) find in an analysis of animal research in 271 US and UK studies?Only 59% of these studies mentioned the number of animals they had used
How many rats and monkeys are used in research labs around the world every year?Hundreds of thousands
What is the main value of using animals?It allows procedures that would not be possible in humans
What is an example of a therapeutic advance in psychology that could not have happened without the use of preceding animal research?The treatment of Parkinson's disease
What is Parkinson's disease?A degenerative disorder that affects the Basal Ganglia - an area of the brain which controls movement
Describe how Parkinson's disease is treated<div>Deep brain stimulation</div>Inserting an electrode into the patient's brain in the area that has the neuronal damage<div>Electrical impulse is sent there to compensate for the damaged neurons</div><div>Decrease in shaking symptoms</div>
What animals are commonly used to test deep brain stimulation?Monkeys
Describe Benazzouz et al. (1993) studyInduced Parkinson's disease in monkeys<div>Reversed the shaking symptoms by stimulating a specific area in the basal ganglia</div>
When was the first ever patient treated for Parkinson's disease?1998
Why would it have been unethical to test deep brain stimulation on humans and what is a counterargument?Due to the uncertainty of the impact<div>A monkey's life is just as important as a human's life</div>
How are animals harmed in research?Physically and psychologically (clearly in distress)<div>Killed after the study</div>
What are justifications for using animals?Humans and animals have enough similarities in their physiology and evolutionary past in common to justify conclusions drawn from animals being generalised to humans<div>Animals used in psychological research have shorter lifespans than humans</div><div>The use of animals allows better science</div>
Why do some psychologists like learning theorists claim that animal research is justified?Because humans have evolved from other animals<div>Humans are just more complex animals so it makes sense to study more simple organisms first and then generalise the results to humans</div>
What does it mean if animals have shorter lifespans than humans?Developmental processes are easier to observe
How are animals good participants?They don't try to understand the purpose of the experiments = low demand characteristics
Why does research with animals tend to be highly reliable?Use of standardised lab experiments which are easily replicated<div>Great deal of consistency in the results of studies using animals</div>
How are animals more controllable than humans?The research is well controlled lab experiments
How is research with animals more empirical?Neurobiological changes can be seen in animal brains in response to controlled manipulations
What are characteristics of good scientific research and what do they lead to?Controlled, reliable, empirical experiments, lead to important practical applications
Which studies support the use for animals in psychological research?Van den Oever et al. (2008)<div>Wagner et al. (1979)</div>
What are justifications against using animals?The physiology and behaviour of animals may be similar to humans<div>Environment and stress the animals endure in labs can affect their behaviour</div><div>Alternatives to animal research are improving with technology</div>
Which technology can be used instead of animals?Computer models<div>Virtual reality</div>
What is good about alternative technology used in research?Better way of isolating and controlling variables
What does it mean if the environment and stress animals endure can affect their behaviour?The results obtained are not a good reflection of the animal's natural behaviours making the results meaningless
What is the problem if animals are not similar enough to humans?Research results can't be generalised validly
What is similar about rats and humans?Brain structure and neurotransmitters
What is different about rats and humans?Different genetic structure<div>Different balance in senses so perceive the world differently</div><div>Different complexity of behaviour</div><div>Different motivations</div><div>Different cognitive abilities</div>
Describe Ferrari et al. (2003) studyStudied link between neurotransmitters and aggression in rats<div>Test rats fought with an intruder rat every day for 10 days at approximately the same time</div><div>On the 11th day no intruder rat was introduced</div><div>Measured serotonin and dopamine levels in test rats' brains</div><div>Test rats' serotonin levels decreased because they were anticipating a fight</div>
Why may Ferrari et al. (2003) study results may not be generalisable to humans?Humans have much more complex social and cognitive functions than rats<div>If the study was replicated with humans they probably wouldn't fight, instead they would work out the best course of action</div>
Describe Van den Oever et al. (2008) studyFound neurobiological changes in the medial prefrontal cortex as a result of exposing rats to heroin associated cues after previously training the rats to self administer heroin<div>Other rats that were not exposed to the heroin associated cues or were trained to self administer sucrose did not have the same neurobiological changes</div>
How does Van den Oever et al. (2008) study show empirical neurobiological changes?Precise manipulation<div>Tight control over extraneous variables</div>
Why was Van den Oever et al. (2008) study not able to be done on humans?Required decapitation and removal of the rats' brains in order to analyse the neurobiology
How does Van den Oever et al. (2008) study benefit society?Offers a potential target for drug therapy for heroin addicts who are prone to relapse
Describe Wagner et al. (1979) studyObserved aggression levels (measured by biting attacks on other mice) of male mice over a number of sessions<div>After castration aggression levels dropped</div><div>When castrated mice are injected with testosterone (150mg a day) with aggression levels gradually rose back to pre-castration levels</div>
What practical application does Wagner et al. (1979) study suggest?Drugs that reduce testosterone levels may reduce aggression since they found that testosterone is a cause of aggression
What is an example of the use of drugs to treat undesirable behaviours?Medroxyprogesterone acetate<div>Violent sexual offending</div><div>Reduces testosterone = reduction in sexual fantasies and impulses</div><div>Chemical castration&nbsp;</div>
How long are short term sources of finance for?Under one year
What are short term sources of finance?Bank overdraft<div>Trade credit</div>
How long are medium term sources of finance for?2-4 years
What are medium term sources of finance?Bank term loan<div>Leasing</div>
How long are long term sources of finance for?5+ years
What are long term sources of finance?Owners' savings<div>Sale of shares</div><div>Reinvested profits</div><div>Venture capital loans</div>
What are sources of finance?The options available to a business when seeking to raise funds to support future business actions
What does a start-up business need finance for?To buy equipment, raw materials and obtain premises
What does an established business need finance for?To expand<div>Funding the purchase of additional equipment, raw material and premises</div>
Define internal sources of financeMoney provided by the business or its owners
What are internal sources of finance?Owner's capital<div>Retained profit</div><div>Sale of assets</div>
Where will most start up businesses require to get their start up capital from?Owner's capital
Where does owner's capital come from?Their own personal resources like personal savings, redundancy payments, inheritance and re-mortgaging their home
What is retained profit?Profit after tax that is put back into the business and not returned to the owners
Is retained profit available for start up businesses?No
What is sale of assets?Where established businesses sell unwanted assets to raise finance
Which assets can be sold?Property/buildings<div>Machinery</div><div>Land</div><div>Obsolete stock</div><div>Part of a business</div>
What does sale and leaseback of assets involve?A business selling assets but leasing them back from the person who purchased the assets
When would sale and leaseback of assets happen?Where cash is needed but the business still needs to use the asset
What does leasing mean?Renting
Advantages of internal sources of financeThe money is available immediately<div>It is cheap - there are no interest payments so costs are lower and profits higher, very important for new start up businesses/small businesses</div>
Disadvantages of internal sources of financeThe amount of money available may be limited - retained profit levels can be low in new businesses, there may be no suitable assets to sell, owners may have no spare funds<div>Shareholders may resist the use of retained profit to fund business investment, as they want higher dividends</div>
Which 2 molecules must bind to a gene to switch it on?RNA polymerase and transcription factor (regulator protein)
What is a regulator protein known as?Transcription factor
Which enzyme is needed for transcription?RNA polymerase
Which molecule is produced when a gene is transcribed?mRNA
Where does RNA polymerase bind to the DNA?Promoter region
What is the name of the molecule that switches off genes?Repressor
What is a measure of similarity between twins known as?Concordance rates
How do you calculate standard deviation?Calculate the mean and write down the number of values (n)<div>Subtract the mean from each value</div><div>Square each one</div><div>Add them all together</div><div>Divide it by the degrees of freedom (n-1) = variance</div><div>Square root the variance</div>
What is variation?Differences that exist between individuals
What are the 2 types of variation?Continuous and discontinuous
What are features of continuous variation?There are a range of phenotypes<div>The frequency distribution will be normal (bell shaped curved)</div>
What are features of discontinuous variation?Phenotypes fall into discrete groups
What are characteristics in continuous variation controlled by?Genes at many different loci and also the environment
What are characteristics in discontinuous variation controlled by?Genes at one single locus but not affected by the environment
What are examples of continuous variation?Height and weight
What are examples of discontinuous variation?Blood groups and sex
Define polygenic inheritanceMore than one gene for a single characteristic, with each gene at a different locus<div>Genes interact with each other, and have additive effects to produce a phenotype</div><div>Polygenic inheritance contributes to continuous variation</div>
What happens when genes interact with other?They have additive effects to produce a phenotype
How do polygenic inheritance and the environment lead to continuous variation within a phenotype?Many genes are involved at more than one locus and each gene has a small effect<div>The genes interact and the additive effect of the alleles of many genes produces many different genotypes (the more genes involved, the greater the number of genotypes)</div><div>The effects of the environment can cause even more variation, resulting in a continuous range of phenotypes with many intermediates</div>
Which conditions/diseases arise where the alleles may confer a susceptibility, but environmental factors also contribute to the condition?Diabetes<div>Coronary heart disease</div><div>Alzheimer's</div><div>Schizophrenia</div><div>Some cancers</div>
Define cellThe basic unit from which living organisms are built<div>Can be specialised for a particular function</div>
Define tissueA group of one type of specialised cell which work together to carry out a specific function
Define organA group of different tissues (each made of a different specialised cell type) which work together to carry out one or more functions
Define organ systemA group of different organs (each made up of different specialised cell types) working together for the same function
How do cells form tissues (cell recognition)?Similar specialised cells recognise each other using recognition molecules which are proteins or glycoproteins found on the cell membranes<div>These molecules have complementary shapes and can bind to each other through the tissue fluid which surrounds the cells</div><div>The cells form a tissue</div>
How do similar specialised cells recognise each other?Using recognition molecules
What are recognition molecules and where are they found?Proteins or glycoproteins found on the cell membranes
How do recognition molecules bind to each other through the tissue fluid which surrounds cells?Because they have complementary shapes
What fluid surrounds cells?Tissue fluid
What change does the epigenome help control?The change from a zygote to an adult
During development what changes will bring about specialisation of the cell?Epigenetic changes
What do signals from inside and outside the cell resulting in changes to the epigenome alter?Genes transcribed at specific times and locations
What do master genes control the development of?<div>Early embryo</div>Segments of an organism
How do master genes work?Produce mRNA that is translated into signal proteins<div>These proteins switch on the genes responsible for producing the proteins needed for specialisation of cells in each segment</div>
How is apoptosis involved in development?Apoptosis is programmed cell death - the process in which healthy animal cells die during the normal development of an organism, in particular places such as between the fingers
What is an example of gene expression in the bacterium E. coli?Lac operon
What is the chemical stimulus for switching on the B-galactosidase gene?Lactose
Explain what happens when lactose is not present in the bacteria's environmentA repressor molecule binds to the operator gene<div>The enzyme RNA polymerase cannot bind to promoter region</div><div>The B galactosidase gene is switched off so the gene is not expressed</div><div>Transcription cannot take place so no mRNA is made</div><div>No B galactosidase is made by translation on ribosomes</div>
Explain what happens when lactose is present in the bacteria's environmentLactose binds to the repressor molecule<div>The repressor molecule cannot bind to the operator gene</div><div>The enzyme RNA polymerase can bind to promoter region</div><div>Transcription occurs which makes mRNA</div><div>Translation produces the enzyme B galactosidase which breaks down the lactose into glucose and galactose</div>
What does the B galactosidase experiment use?E. coli plus a chemical called ONPG
Describe ONPGSimilar structure to lactose<div>Not similar enough to bind to the repressor protein</div><div>But similar enough to be broken down by B galactosidase enzyme into ONP (yellow) and galactosidase</div>
What colour change will occur if the lac operon genes are expressed and the B galactosidase enzyme is made?Colourless (ONPG) to yellow (ONP)
What is the method of the B galactosidase experiment?Set up four tubes with different contents<div>Add 5 drops of methylbenzene to each tube to break open bacterial cells</div><div>Shake and leave for 10-20 minutes in a water bath at 35'C</div>
What are the 4 solutions in the B galactosidase experiment?E. coli bacteria, ONPG<div>E. coli bacteria, ONPG + lactose</div><div>Distilled water + ONPG</div><div>B galactosidase enzyme solution + ONPG</div>
Explain what colour prediction can be made for the test tube with E. coli bacteria, ONPGColourless<div>Repressor molecule binds to operator gene, RNA polymerase can't bind, gene not transcribed, no mRNA made, no B galactosidase made, ONPG not broken down into ONP</div>
Explain what colour prediction can be made for the test tube with E. coli bacteria, ONPG + lactoseYellow<div>Lactose binds to repressor molecule, RNA polymerase can bind to promoter region, transcribed to make mRNA, B galactosidase made, ONPG broken down</div>
Explain what colour prediction can be made for the test tube with distilled water + ONPGColourless<div>Negative control for comparison to show that ONPG does not break down on its own</div>
Explain what colour prediction can be made for the test tube with B galactosidase enzyme solution + ONPGYellow<div>Positive control for comparison to show that enzyme breaks down ONPG</div>
Define external sources of financeMoney that comes from outside a business
What are external sources of finance?Family and friends<div>Banks</div><div>Peer to peer lending</div><div>Business angels</div><div>Crowdfunding</div><div>Other businesses</div>
What are methods of finance?Loans<div>Share capital</div><div>Venture capital</div><div>Overdrafts</div><div>Leasing</div><div>Trade credit</div><div>Grants</div>
Describe family and friendsSuitable for start-up or small businesses<div>Could be in the form of a gift or a loan</div><div>Interest rates likely to be low</div><div>Problems occur if amount available is too small or difficulties in repaying the amount borrowed as relationships can suffer</div>
Describe banksProvide loans, overdrafts and mortgages to businesses<div>A formal application must be provided usually with the addition of a business plan for start-up businesses</div><div>Banks offer advisory services to businesses which can be very helpful for start-ups</div>
Describe peer-to-peer lendingInvolves lending money without the use of a bank<div>Transactions take place online through specialists such as Zopa and Funding Circle</div><div>Loans are unsecured which means there is no protection for lenders therefore they may lose the amount lent if the borrower defaults on the repayments</div><div>Interest rates tend to be lower than those offered by a bank</div>
Describe business angelsIndividuals who typically invest between £10,000-£100,000 in exchange for a stake in the business<div>This source of finance tends to be used by start-ups or small businesses as they expand</div><div>Business advice is provided</div><div>The finance may or may not be repaid but it is usual for business angels to want a say in the running of the business as they are a part owner</div><div>This can lead to problems if the entrepreneur wants to go in a different direction or doesn't want to share profit</div>
Describe crowdfundingOnline platform where individuals invest in a business<div>Funds are donated through a crowdfunding platform such as Kickstarter or Crowdcube</div><div>A business needing finance posts a video, details of the business and the monetary target needed on the crowdfunding platform</div><div>Donations from individuals can be given without conditions or in return for gifts or monetary rewards</div><div>If the target amount isn't raised the business doesn't receive any money from the donations</div>
Describe other businessesPurchasing shares in another business in order to benefit from dividends or with a view to purchasing enough shares to have a controlling interest in that business<div>Forming a joint venture with another business in order to share the finance, costs and profit from a business venture</div><div>Common when setting up in a new country</div>
Describe loansBanks typically provide loans to businesses<div>They may be secured or unsecured</div><div>A secured loan means the borrower has provided some assets as collateral/security in the event that they default on the repayments of the loan, the lender can sell the assets and use the cash to repay the loan</div><div>Advantage = the lender has no ownership of the business</div><div>Disadvantage = loan must be repaid with interest over a set period of time, the interest charged can be fixed or variable</div>
Describe share capitalThe money raised from the sale of shares<div>Only available to limited companies and can be used to raise large amounts of money</div><div>Advantage = share capital is not repaid, therefore there is no interest to pay</div><div>Disadvantage = shareholders expect dividends (share in the profit) and hold voting rights which entitles them to vote to re-elect the existing board of directors or replace them</div><div>In a PLC the shareholders can put pressure on the directors to reduce retained profit in order for higher dividends, this creates a short-term focus on maximising profit rather than a long term focus on growing the business</div>
Describe venture capitalFinance raised from venture capitalists<div>Specialist businesses who invest in high risk but potentially very profitable businesses</div><div>They will take a stake in the business therefore profits and control must be shared</div><div>They are often used when a business is unable to obtain a loan from a bank</div>
Describe overdraftsShort term, flexible loan from a bank<div>Business can spend more money than it has in its account</div><div>Agreed overdraft limit and interest is charged when the overdraft is used</div><div>Interest rates tend to be much higher on overdrafts than loans therefore an overdraft is a short term method of finance</div><div>Overdrafts can be called in by the bank at short notice</div>
Describe leasingA lease is a contract to acquire the use of resources such as property or equipment in return for regular payments<div>The business leasing resources does not own them and is not responsible for the maintenance or repair costs</div><div>Typically used for vehicles and small equipment</div><div>Long term use of leasing can be very expensive</div>
Describe trade creditUsed to purchase raw materials and pay for them at a later date, usually within 30-90 days<div>Short term method of finance used by businesses buying from other businesses</div><div>Discounts can be gained by paying earlier than the specified term</div>
Describe grantsProvided by government for certain types of businesses and circumstances<div>Grants do not have to be repaid but they can be difficult for most businesses to qualify for</div>
Which finance is suitable for unlimited liability businesses?<div>Retained profit</div><div>Grants<br></div><div>Bank overdraft<br></div><div>Mortgage</div><div>Unsecured bank loans</div><div>Peer-to-peer lending</div><div>Crowdfunding</div><div>Personal savings<br></div>
Which finance is suitable for limited liability businesses?<div>Retained profit</div><div>Grants</div><div>Bank overdraft</div><div>Secured and unsecured loans<br></div><div>Trade credit</div><div>Leasing</div><div><div>Venture capital</div><div>Business angels</div></div><div>Share capital<br></div>
Describe unlimited liabilityA legal status which means that business owners are liable for all business debts<div>Also known as unincorporated businesses</div>
Describe limited liabilityA legal status that means shareholders can only lose the original amount they invested in a business<div>Also known as incorporated businesses</div>
Which types of business ownership have unlimited liability?Sole trader<div>Partnership</div>
Which types of business ownership have limited liability?Ltd<div>Plc</div>
Implications of unlimited liabilityHave to pay business debts from their own personal resources<div>This may involve selling private assets such as a house or car to pay off debts</div><div>However it may be easier to raise finance due to the fact that any loan or debt will be the responsibility of the business owner therefore owners tend to be more careful as their personal assets are at risk</div>
Implications of limited liabilityThe owners of businesses with limited liability are shareholders<div>If a limited company collapses the owners' private assets are fully protected because the legal identity is separate to its owners</div><div>Able to raise large sums of money from the sale of shares as investors know their private assets are protected and their liability is limited to the size of their investment</div><div>However in the case of small private limited companies the directors who are also shareholders may have to give personal guarantee to lenders so they will then be liable for those debts in the event that the company cannot pay</div>
Who was Sigmund Freud?A Viennese neurologist and physician
In the course of treating psychiatric patients over many years, what did Freud become convinced about their symptoms?They could not be explained purely in terms of biology
What way did Freud develop for thinking about human behaviour?One which focuses on the crucial role of the unconscious mind
What is Freud's way of explaining behaviour known as?The psychodynamic approach
What does psychodynamic refer to?Psychological forces that underlie human behaviour, feelings, emotions and how they might relate to early experience
What is a key assumption that runs through Freud's theories?Our awareness is in layers, so much of what we think and feel and what motivates us is in the unconscious mind<div>Mental processes drive behaviour rather than the physical brain</div>
What did Freud also emphasise is a motivating force in human behaviour?Sex
What happens to things that we find upsetting or distasteful?Repressed and hidden in our unconscious<div>May still cause dysfunctional behaviours</div>
Which techniques did Freud develop for therapists to reveal their unconscious mind to deal with the problems that were causing them psychological distress?Free association<div>Dream analysis</div>
What are the three important areas of Freud's psychodynamic theories?The structure of the mind<div>The structure of the personality</div><div>Defence mechanisms</div>
How can the metaphor of an iceberg help us to understand Freud's ideas about how the mind is structured?Most of an iceberg is hidden from view, so we are not aware of most of our mind
According to Freud, how many levels of consciousness are there?3
What are the 3 levels of consciousness?Conscious<div>Preconscious</div><div>Unconscious</div>
Describe the conscious structure of the mindSmallest part of the mind<div>Only part that you are aware of</div><div>You can talk about your conscious experiences and think about it in a logical fashion</div>
Describe the preconscious structure of the mindThings stored here are not in the conscious, they may readily be brought into consciousness<div>Corresponds to the ordinary memory</div><div>Acts as a gatekeeper between the conscious and unconscious</div>
Describe the unconscious structure of the mindBiggest area of the mind<div>Not directly accessible to us</div><div>Storage area for urges and feelings and ideas that are tied to anxiety, conflict and pain</div><div>These thoughts and feelings have not disappeared and they are exerting influence on our actions and our conscious awareness</div><div>Most of the work of our personality (Id, Ego and Superego) takes place here</div><div>Truly unconscious material cannot be made available voluntarily, you need a psychoanalyst to do this</div>
What are the 3 aspects of personality?Id<div>Ego</div><div>Superego</div>
Describe IdBorn with it<div>Pleasure seeking desires</div><div>Wants immediate gratification</div>
Describe EgoControls desires of Id by maintaining balance between Id and Superego
Describe SuperegoEthics from other people<div>Morality principle</div>
What do defence mechanisms do?Help the ego keep the id and superego balanced
What are the defence mechanisms?Displacement<div>Denial</div><div>Repression</div><div>Projection</div><div>Regression</div>
Describe displacementDivert emotions from their original target towards a more acceptable one
Describe denialCompletely reject painful thoughts or feelings
Describe repressionPush information out of consciousness, preventing unacceptable desires or emotions or traumatic memories from becoming conscious, but they are still expressed through dreams or neurotic behaviour
Describe projectionAttribute your own unacceptable faults or wishes to someone else
Describe regressionEngage in behaviour characteristic of an earlier stage of development
What does Freud think aggression comes from?Product of psychodynamic forces/drives
Describe ErosInborn unconscious drive<div>Motivates us to live, love and create new experiences</div><div>Includes libido which is associated with the sex drive that leads to sexual behaviour</div>
Describe ThanatosInborn destructive drive deep within the unconscious<div>Death instinct</div><div>Destructive drive to return us to an inorganic state</div><div>Causes aggressive behaviour</div>
What forms the first part of our personality, the Id?The two innate drives, Eros and Thanatos
What are humans driven by for the first 2 years of life?Eros and Thanatos<div>No thought to consequences</div>
How does aggressive behaviour arise?Eros is in direct conflict with Thanatos<div>This tension builds up inside us until we can no longer control it</div>
Why is aggression unavoidable?Innately in us in the form of the death drive Thanatos
When does the ego develop?Around 2 years old
How is the ego formed?By learning some norms and rules of our parents and society<div>Understanding that aggressive behaviour is only appropriate some of the time</div>
How does the ego control the urges of the id?Makes sure unacceptable thoughts are kept in the unconscious part of our mind by using defence mechanisms
Describe sublimationChanneling our aggression into other acceptable activities
What would issues in the development of ego or superego lead to?Aggressive behaviour
How can aggression be regulated?Through catharsis
Define catharsisThe process of releasing negative energy from the mind
How did Freud suggest catharsis can take place?Find a safe activity that would require aggression (sublimation)<div>Reduces the build up of our aggressive behaviour instinct</div>
Describe how aggression is like when it is released in small dosesManageable
Describe how aggression is like when it is blocked from being releasedBuild up and eventually will be released in the form of extreme violence and aggression
Which evidence supports the explanation of catharsis for controlling aggression?Megargee and Mendelsohn (1970s)<div>Verona and Sullivan (2008)</div>
Which evidence challenges the explanation of catharsis for controlling aggression?Bushman (2002)
Determinism key issues and debates relating to FreudHe would consider that whether a person became aggressive or not is down to internal factors that are beyond control
Nature/nurture key issues and debates relating to FreudNature - Freud considered the role of Thanatos and Eros which are innate elements of personality<div>Nurture - Freud suggested that the id, ego and superego can be affected by early experience during the first 6 years of life</div>
What are the 5 stages of psychosexual developement?Oral stage<div>Anal stage</div><div>Phallic stage</div><div>Latency stage</div><div>Genital stage</div>
What age is the oral stage?0-15 months
What age is the anal stage?1-3 years old
What age is the phallic stage?3-5 years old
What age is the latency stage?5 years old to puberty
What age is the genital stage?Puberty onwards
Which aspect of personality is present with the oral stage?Id
Which aspect of personality is present with the anal stage?Ego
Which aspect of personality is present with the phallic stage?Superego
Which aspect of personality is present with the latency stage?Superego
Which aspect of personality is present with the genital stage?Superego
What is the focus of libido in the oral stage?Mouth
What is the focus of libido in the anal stage?Anus
What is the focus of libido in the phallic stage?Genitals
What is the focus of libido in the latency stage?Other aspects of life<div>Learning, adjusting to the social environment outside their home, absorbing the culture and developing same-sex friendships</div>
What is the genital stage marked by?Renewed focus on the genitals, sexual interest and desire and pursuit of sexual relationships
What do infants get pleasure from in the oral stage?Sucking and biting
What is the main task that parents and child must achieve in the oral stage?Weaning
What can psychological fixation in the oral stage lead to because of problems with weaning?Smoking, chewing, overeating and sarcasm
What do children gain pleasure from in the anal stage?Achieving control over their bodies<div>Retaining and eliminated faeces</div><div>Developing other physical skills</div>
What is the main task that parents and child must achieve in the anal stage?Toilet training
What does overindulgence fixation in the anal stage lead to?Messy, disorganised people
What does underindulgence fixation in the anal stage lead to?Overly tidy, obsessive people
What does pleasure come from in the phallic stage?Playing with the genitals
What happens to children in the phallic stage?Take interest in the differences between boys and girls<div>Develop a strong attachment to the opposite sex parent</div>
What is the strong attachment to the opposite sex parent known as?Oedipus complex
What is the main task that parents and child must achieve in the phallic stage?Successful resolution of the Oedipus complex<div>A child must successfully identify with the same sex parents</div><div>Allows the development of the superego</div>
What does fixation in the phallic stage lead to?Repression of sexuality
Describe Megargee and Mendelsohn (1970s) researchAimed to see if there is a link between aggression and personality types<br>People who had committed brutally aggressive crimes were interviewed and given personality tests<br>These criminals seemed to have been over controlled and repressed their anger until it built up to such an extent it just exploded following something really trivial<br>Concluded that if people do not let their aggression instinct out in small amounts from time to time, the build up will be so great they will not be able to control it
Describe Verona and Sullivan (2008) studyPeople who reacted in aggressive way to being frustrated in a task had a reduced heart rate compared with those who did not react aggressively
Describe Bushman (2002) studyParticipants who had engaged in catharsis and vented their anger and aggression after they had been deliberately angered by another person were more aggressive than those who did nothing<div>Many researchers have found that the reduction of tension after an aggressive outburst seems to increase the likelihood of later aggressive outbursts which goes against the idea of catharsis or suggests the effects do not last long</div>
How are the psychodynamic and biological explanations of aggression similar in that they both can be considered as a deterministic view of aggression meaning that aggressive behaviour is beyond the control of the individual?The psychodynamic explanation explains aggression by proposing that because of the death drive aggression builds up in us and must be released by catharsis<div>In the same way the biological explanation explains aggression by suggesting that humans have evolved to be aggressive because such behaviour helped early humans to adapt and survive their environment therefore aggression is built into behaviour patterns</div><div>Both explanations don't take into account the idea that people might have free will</div>
How are the psychodynamic and biological explanations of aggression similar in that they can both be considered as an innate explanation of aggression, both supporting the nature side of the nature/nurture debate?The psychodynamic explanation suggests that we are born with an innate unconscious death drive, Thanatos, that is driven to self-destruction and to return us to an inorganic state<div>Similarly the biological explanation suggests that genetically inherited biological factors like hormone levels and brain structure can make us more likely to act aggressively</div>
How are the psychodynamic and biological explanations of aggression different in terms of the biological explanation has much scientific evidence to support it whereas the psychodynamic explanation does not have much scientific support?Psychodynamic explanation is based on the existence of theoretical structures that are not directly observable such as Thanatos, the death instinct which is part of personality in our unconscious mind so it is difficult to know if it exists<div>Biological explanation has many ideas about aggression that can be directly tested using valid measuring instruments</div>
How are the psychodynamic and biological explanations of aggression different in what their assumptions of the main drive of aggressive behaviour is?Psychodynamic explanation suggests that aggression is a result of unconscious mental mechanisms and drives including the conflicts between the death drive and the life energy and libido of Eros<div>Biological explanation suggests that aggression can be explained by physical properties of the brain</div>
Strengths of the psychodynamic explanation of aggressionSupporting evidence - case studies provided qualitative in depth analysis of each individual e.g Little Hans who was aggressive towards his father due to Oedipus complex which made him have unconscious jealousy of his father's relationship with his mother<div>Useful practical applications of psychotherapy and catharsis to reduce aggression</div>
Weaknesses of the psychodynamic explanation of aggressionLow scientific credibility because of qualitative data which is open to subjectivity and only one participant in case studies which makes it hard to generalise<div>Not falsifiable because ideas are not directly observable or measurable</div><div>Deterministic which suggests people don't have free will over aggression so violent criminals cannot be held responsible for their behaviour</div>
Define locusThe position of a gene/allele on a chromosome
Where are linked genes found?On the same chromosome, but at different gene loci
Why do linked genes have a high chance of being inherited together?When chromatids separate in meiosis II all the genes on the chromatid move as one unit and enter the same gamete
What does a greater distance between the loci of two linked genes lead to?Greater likelihood of crossing over happening between them and separating them
Define sex-linked genesAn allele or gene responsible for a trait is located on a sex chromosome (either the X or Y chromosome - not both)<div>Expression of the trait is linked to gender</div>
When a gene is found on the X chromosome, how many copies do females have of the gene?2
When a gene is found on the X chromosome, how many copies do males have of the gene?1
What are autosomal chromosomes?Chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes
How many autosomal chromosomes do humans have?22 pairs, 44 in total
Give examples of sex-linked conditionsColour blindness<div>Haemophilia</div><div>Eye colour in Drosophila</div>
What is colour blindness caused by?A recessive allele on the X chromosome
Why are men more likely to be colourblind than women?Males (XY) inherit only one X chromosome so have only one copy of the gene<div>If the recessive mutated allele which causes colour blindness (Xn) is found on the male chromosome it will always be expressed as the male has the genotype Xn Y</div>
Why are women less likely to be colourblind than men?Females (XX) inherit 2 X chromosomes<div>If they inherit an X chromosome with a dominant allele for colour vision (XN) and an X chromosome with the recessive allele for colour blindness (Xn) they will have the genotype XN Xn and the colour blindness allele will not be expressed</div><div>For a female to be colour blind she would need to inherit 2 recessive alleles, one from each parents giving them the genotype Xn Xn which is rare</div>
What is a business plan?A document which describes how an entrepreneur plans to set up a new business
What information does a business plan include?The nature of the business<div>The founder's details and skills</div><div>Legal ownership</div><div>The products/services being offered</div><div>The business objectives</div><div>A forecast of sales, profit and cash flow</div>
Who needs a business plan?Entrepreneurs and potential investors
Why do entrepreneurs need a business plan?It carefully sets out what they are planning to do<div>It helps identify any issues and how they plan to overcome them</div>
Why do potential investors need a business plan?It outlines the amount of investment needed and what the entrepreneur plans to do with the money
How can you make the business plan work?Use relevant secondary data that exists - useful and cost effective<div>Carry out some valid primary research to establish demand</div><div>Use expert advice e.g. banks</div><div>Talk to others in the industry</div><div>Look at similar products/businesses and learn from their mistakes</div>
Benefits of a business planForces an entrepreneur to have a logical and detailed breakdown of the business idea<div>Can identify weaknesses or a gap in knowledge or experience</div><div>Helps secure funding from a bank or other investors</div><div>Progress can be viewed against the initial plans</div>
Limitations of a business planVery difficult to make accurate forecasts<div>Success is not guaranteed</div><div>Opportunity cost of time spent planning instead of starting to sell</div><div>May need help from an advisor which can cost money</div><div>Can restrict creativity if too much is planned</div>
Who developed the MSM and when?Atkinson &amp; Shiffrin (1968)
What does MSM stand for?Multi-store model of memory
What type of model is the MSM and why?An information processing model<div>Describes memory like a computer</div><div>There are memory stores (computer hardware) and control processes (computer software)</div>
What does memory involve?Encoding information<div>Storage of information</div><div>Retrieval</div>
What is encoding information?Keeping it in a particular form
What is retrieval?Remembering information
What might different types of memory vary in?Their duration (the time they last for)<div>Their capacity (the amount of information that can be stored)</div>
What are the 3 memory stores in the MSM?Sensory memory<div>Short term memory</div><div>Long term memory</div>
What is short term memory sometimes also known as?Working memory
How is sensory memory forgotten?Decay
How is short term memory forgotten?Decay<div>Displacement</div>
How is long term memory forgotten?Decay<div>Interference</div>
What store does information first enter in?Sensory form
How is information encoded in sensory memory?Through one of five sensory registers (one for each of the senses - sight, hearing, touch, taste or smell)
How many items can be held in sensory memory?Up to 3 or 4 items
How long can items be held in sensory memory?For about half a second
After half a second what happens to sensory memory?It decays
How does information in sensory memory move to short term memory?If attention is paid to information in the sensory memory
How is short term memory encoded?Acoustic (sound) and auditory (hearing) forms
What is the capacity of short term memory?Between 5 and 9 items
How long can information be held in short term memory?Up to 30 seconds
How do we retrieve information in our sensory memory?By scanning through our sensory memory
How is information retrieved from short term memory?Through a sequential search (search in order)
How can information from short term memory be transferred to long term memory?Must be rehearsed
What happens if rehearsal does not occur?The information is forgotten<div>Lost from short term memory through the processes of displacement or decay</div>
What does it mean if information held in long term memory doesn't affect short term memory?It is a linear model - information travels in one way only
How is information transferred from short term to long term memory?By rehearsal
How does long term memory encode information?Semantically (meaning something has for you) and temporally (order in time)
How do we retrieve information from long term memory?By doing a semantic or temporal search
How long can information be stored for in long term memory?Potentially a lifetime
What is the capacity of long term memory?Potentially limitless
What research shows that the long term memory capacity is potentially limitless?Brady et al. (2008)
Describe Brady et al. (2008) studyShowed participants 2,500 objects over 5.5 hours<div>Shown pairs of objects and asked to identify which of the 2 objects they had seen</div><div>When the original object was paired with a very different object 92% identified</div><div>When the original object was paired with a similar object 88% identified</div>
How can information be forgotten from the long term memory store?Interference with other information<div>Failure when retrieving it</div>
Describe Sperling's (1960, 1963) studyVisual array was presented via a tachistoscope for a brief moment<div>The sensory register can hold only a limited amount of information (4.32 letters) for less than one second before it is lost</div>
What is the phonological similarity effect?Phenomenon that letters and words of a similar sound are more difficult to recall than those that sound different
How do Atkinson &amp; Shiffrin explain the phonological similarity effect?Short term memory encodes information acoustically so it is confused by words that sound similar
What is the research on rehearsal and duration of STM?Peterson and Peterson (1959)
Describe Peterson and Peterson (1959) studyUsed an interference task to stop people being able to rehearse information to transfer it to LTM<div>Participants had to remember a single trigram (set of 3 letters/numbers) of 3 consonants for intervals of 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 and 18 seconds</div><div>Trigram was read out and participants had to count backwards in threes from a given number</div><div>After a short time correct recall was likely but performance dropped rapidly after 15-18 seconds</div><div>Concluded that decay occurs in the short term memory store over a period of 15 seconds</div>
Who investigated very long term memory?Bahrick et al. (1975)
Describe Bahrick et al. (1975) study400 participants 17-74 years old completed a series of memory tests on the names and faces of students in their high school yearbooks<div>Within 15 years of leaving school, identification of names and faces was 90% correct</div><div>Within 48 years of leaving school, accuracy was 70-80%</div><div>Shows that the duration of LTM is potentially limitless</div>
What did Butler and Roediger (2007) find?Rehearsal of information presented in a lecture increased recall of information 1 month later
EVIDENCE - forCase studies of brain damaged patients support the model - HM was unable to transfer new information from his short term to long term memory suggesting that there are 2 separate stores for STM and LTM<div>Primacy recency effect Glanzer &amp; Cunitz (1966) - we can remember things at the beginning and end of a list very well but we forget things in the middle - we remember the beginning due to LTM and rehearsal and the end due to STM</div>
EVIDENCE - againstResearch has shown that rehearsal does not necessarily transfer information to LTM, Bekerian and Baddeley (1980) found that people did not know that the BBC radio wavelengths were changing despite hearing the information around 1000 times on the radio - model may overemphasise rehearsal and there may be other processes involved in transferring information from STM to LTM<div>Model comes from research that suggests the model is not necessarily linear as people use their prior knowledge (LTM) to help their STM e.g. Morris et al. (1985) found that people who were interested in football made up scores more accurately than those who were not interested in football - those interested used their previous knowledge to impose meaning on the information to help with their recall</div>
METHODOLOGY - strengthLaboratory experiments are often used to provide supporting evidence<div>Standardised procedures means they can be replicated in different circumstances</div><div>Researcher is able to manipulate the independent variable and see how it impacts the dependent variable allowing us to infer cause and effect - increases the scientific credility of the theory e.g. Baddeley's research investigates the effect of acoustic and semantic similarity on memory for word sequences</div>
METHODOLOGY - weaknessesLaboratory experiments are in an artificial laboratory setting and artificial tasks are carried out which may not reflect how memory works in everyday life<div>Reductionist as it gives a limited understanding of memory</div>
What is the alternative theory?Working memory model
APPLICATIONS - strengthThe idea that rehearsal helps memory has been widely accepted and used in educational practice such as revising for exams
What is cash flow?The money coming into and going out of the business
Why is cash flow not profit?Because a profitable business can have a negative cash flow
How can businesses keep cash in?By delaying paying business they owe (creditors/payables) for as long as possible
How can businesses put more cash into the business?Collect any outstanding money owed to them (debtors/receivables) as quickly as possible
What does a cash flow forecast support?Applications for loans
What do cash flow forecasts help businesses do?Predict periods where they will be short of cash and make arrangements to cover this shortfall
What are some reasons for cash flow problems?A start-up business may give customers (receivables) time to pay for goods<div>Suppliers (payables) often demand immediate payment</div><div>New businesses often spend large amounts on marketing, reducing the amount of cash available</div><div>Start-up businesses do not have access to retained profits</div>
What are inflows?Money received from customers and other sources like sales of products, capital from the owners, bank loans and grants
What are outflows?Money paid for suppliers, rent, salaries and advertising
Why is cash flow important?A business cannot survive without cash<div>A business must make sure that there is always enough cash available</div>
Does a negative closing balance mean a business is bankrupt?No
How is net cash flow calculated?Cash inflow - cash outflow
How is closing balance calculated?Net cash flow + opening balance
How is opening balance calculated?It is the closing balance from the previous month
Why do businesses prepare cash flow forecasts?To identify timing of cash shortages and surpluses, so that they can take action such as arrange an overdraft or loan, buy some new equipment<div>To obtain more finance - banks require cash flow information</div><div>To monitor the flow of cash through the business and identify problem areas and plan for the future</div>
Limitations of a cash flow forecastPrediction of future cash flow, likely to be inaccurate<div>Difficult for start-up businesses to have accurate estimates as there is no previous data</div><div>Difficult to estimate future sales due to many factors inside and outside of the business's control</div><div>Only looks at cash, profit is ignored</div>
When do all learning theories suggest human behaviour is learnt?After birth
What do all learning theories suggest all individuals are born as?Blank slate (tabula rasa)<div>Every experience teaches an individual a new behaviour which in turn shapes and forms who they are</div>
Do learning theories suggests that nature or nurture is responsible for causing behaviour?Nurture (environmental factors)
What are all three learning theories based upon?Scientific research which used the experimental method to try and establish cause and effect<div>Gives scientific credibility and support psychology as a science</div>
Which practical applications do learning theories have?Develop therapies<div>Enhance educational practices</div><div>Prevent crime</div><div>Develop social policies which can be helpful in society</div>
Define classical conditioningSuggests that learning involves the associating of 2 stimuli to produce a new response
Who was classical conditioning discovered by?Ivan Pavlov, a Russian physiologist
What experiment did Ivan Pavlov initially carry out?Scientific tests into how dogs digest their food
How did Pavlov investigate the dog's digestion?By externalising the saliva of the dogs<div>Allowed precise measurement of digestion</div><div>Dogs underwent a small operation which involved securing a tube from the dog's salivation gland which externalised the flow of saliva to outside their mouths</div>
How did Pavlov specifically measure how much saliva the dogs were giving off in numerical form?By measuring the saliva in millitres
What discovery and hypothesis did Pavlov make in his initial experiment whenever he or his lab assistants entered the room, even when they were not bringing them food?The dogs salivated<div>Hypothesised that the dogs had learnt a new behaviour which they previously did not have</div><div>Learned to associate the labs coats of the people feeding them with food</div>
How did Pavlov create experimental test conditions?Soundproof lab<div>No direct contact between dog and experimenter</div>
What hypothesis did Pavlov propose in his main experiment?The dogs would salivate (unconditioned response)<div>When they see food (unconditioned stimulus)</div><div>Could be paired with another stimulus of a noise (conditioned stimulus)</div><div>New behaviour (conditioned response)</div>
What was Pavlov's sample?35 dogs of a variety of breeds raised in kennels in the lab
How did Pavlov control other stimuli (extraneous variables) from making the dogs salivate?Placing each dog in a sealed room that didn't allow them to see, smell or hear anything
Describe Pavlov's careful set up which enabled him to count how much saliva the dogs producedDog strapped into a harness to stop it moving about<div>Mouth was linked to a tube that drained saliva into a measuring bottle</div>
What does the neutral stimulus always change to become?Conditioned stimulus
Why does food (UCS) automatically lead to a salivation response (UCR)?It is a reflex response which is innate
What did Pavlov do in the control condition?Presented the dog with food (meat powder) through a hatch<div>The dog salivated</div>
In the experimental condition, how did Pavlov show that the Neutral Stimulus sound was a neutral stimulus?The dog did not salivate when presented with the sound
How did Pavlov condition the dog?By pairing the neutral stimulus sounds with the presentation of food
How many times did Pavlov have to present the sound with the food to condition the dog?About 20
What did Pavlov do after the dog was conditioned?Presented the dog with the sound but no meat
What sounds did Pavlov use as neutral stimuli?Metronome<div>Electrical buzzer</div><div>Tuning fork</div>
What did Pavlov confirm over a series of experiments?Dogs learned to associate the sound (conditioned stimulus) with the food (unconditioned stimulus) and therefore would begin to salivate when they heard the sound
Describe Pavlov's results in the experiment where the metronome was usedSalivation started 9 seconds after hearing the metronome<div>By 45 seconds 11 drops of saliva had been produced</div>
Were all the dogs the same?No because the same experiment done on two different dogs would give different results
Describe Pavlov's conclusionEnvironmental stimuli that previously had no relation to the reflex action could trigger a salivation response through repeated pairings<div>Through a process of associative learning (conditioning) the conditioned stimulus leads to a conditioned response = new behaviour learnt</div>
Define stimulusAn external factor/event which is interpreted through the senses and can bring about a behaviour (response)
Define unconditioned stimulusA stimulus that elicits an unconditioned response
Define conditioned stimulusA previously neutral stimulus that after repeated association with an unconditioned stimulus elicits the response produced by the unconditioned stimulus itself
Define unconditioned responseBehaviour that occurs naturally due to a given stimulus
Define conditioned responseAn automatic response established by training to an ordinarily neutral stimulus
Define neutral stimulusA stimulus which initially produces no specific/desired response other than perhaps focusing attention
Describe stage 1 of classical conditioning (before conditioning)Unconditioned stimulus produces an unconditioned response in an organism<div>Stimulus in the environment has produced a behaviour or response which is unlearned and therefore is a natural response which has not been learnt</div>
Describe stage 2 of classical conditioning (before conditioning)Involves another stimulus which has no specific effect on an organism and is called the neutral stimulus
Describe stage 3 of classical conditioning (during conditioning)A stimulus which produced no specific response (neutral stimulus) is presented with the unconditioned stimulus<div>During this stage the unconditioned stimulus must be associated with the conditioned on a number of occasions/trials for learning to take place</div>
When might one trial learning happen?When it is not necessary for an association to be strengthened over time (being bitten by a dog)
Describe stage 4 of classical conditioning (after conditioning)The conditioned stimulus has been associated with the unconditioned stimulus to create a new conditioned response
What are the 3 other aspects of classical conditioning?Extinction - how does conditioning disappear?<div>Spontaneous recovery - if the conditioning has disappeared can it reappear?</div><div>Stimulus generalisation - tendency for the conditioned stimulus to evoke similar responses after the response has been conditioned</div>
Describe extinctionAssociation can simply disappear between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response<div>Can happen when the paired stimulus is separated so the learned response is no longer carried out</div>
Describe spontaneous recoveryAfter extinction sometimes the association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response recurs for no specific reason
Describe stimulus generalisationTendency for the conditioned stimulus to produce the same behaviour to a similar situation after the response that has been conditioned
Describe the issues and debates relating to classical conditioningPsychology as a science - Pavlov's research was carried out in experimental conditions which recorded quantitative data<div>Reductionism - classical conditioning is reductionist since Pavlov implied behaviour can be explained by stimulus-response links which overlooks the complexities of behaviour</div>
EVIDENCE - supportingPavlov (1927) showed how classical conditioning could be used to make a dog salivate to the sound of a tuning fork and other auditory neutral stimuli<div>Watson and Rayner (1920) demonstrated that classical conditioning could explain emotional responses in a human child</div>
EVIDENCE - againstDeterministic theory - does not allow for any degree of free will in the individual, underestimates the uniqueness of human beings and their freedom to choose their own behaviours
METHODOLOGY - forScientifically credible explanation of human learning based on empirical evidence carried out in controlled experiments<div>Much of it is with animals which allows strict controls of extraneous variables</div><div>Every step in the conditioning process is discernible since the theory only concerns itself with directly observable behaviours</div><div>Reductionism allows complicated behaviours to be broken down to small parts so they can be more easily scientifically tested</div>
METHODOLOGY - againstGeneralising findings and conclusions from animals to humans is not straightforward<div>Reductionist methodology lacks validity because it can lead to incomplete explanations of human behaviour</div>
APPLICATIONS - forSystematic desensitisation - associating a troubling CR like a phobia with the CS in a relaxing, safe environment so the patient stops associating fear with their phobia<div>Aversion therapy - associating a dysfunctional behaviour like excessive drinking with a UCR like vomiting to produce a new CS so the CS will produce a nauseous CR whenever alcohol is presented</div>
ALTERNATIVES - againstReductionist theory<div>Focuses entirely on observable behaviour and ignores the role of cognitive processes like decision making, motivation and memory</div><div>Other learning theories are better at explaining how humans learn complex behaviours like the Social Learning Theory which includes cognitions as well as observable behaviours in its explanation of human behaviour</div>
What are the 2 types of epigenetic changes?DNA methylation<div>Histone modification</div>
What happens when methyl groups attach to DNA bases?Stop the enzyme RNA polymerase binding to DNA<div>Gene is switched off, transcription cannot take place, no mRNA formed, no protein made, gene not expressed</div>
Describe the DNA methylation process<div>Methyl groups attach to DNA bases</div>Stop the enzyme RNA polymerase binding to DNA<div>Gene is switched off</div><div>Transcription cannot take place</div><div>No mRNA formed</div><div>No protein made</div><div>Gene not expressed</div>
What do methyl or acetyl groups that attach to histone tails affect?How tightly DNA winds around histones
What happens when DNA winds loosely around histones?Gene is accessible<div>Can transcribed and expressed</div>
What happens when DNA winds tightly around histones?Gene is inaccessible so it is switched off<div>Cannot be transcribed to form mRNA</div><div>No protein formed</div><div>Gene not expressed</div>
How can the environment result in changes to the epigenome which can affect the phenotype?Effect of diet<div>Effect of behaviour</div>
Explain how a mouse which expresses the agouti gene (yellow and obese) can have offspring where the agouti gene is not expressed (slim and brown)The mother who expresses the agouti gene is fed a methyl-rich diet during pregnancy<div>DNA methylation of the agouti gene takes place which switches off the gene so it is not expressed</div><div>The offspring do not overeat so are slim and make melanin so are brown</div>
"What happens when a ""bad mother"" looks after offspring from a ""good mother""?"Low licking and grooming leads to methylation of GR gene<div>GR gene not expressed, no GR receptor protein produced</div><div>High glucocorticoid levels when offspring exposed to stress</div><div>No GR receptor so hormone levels remain high which leads to high anxiety and low licking and grooming</div>
What are epigenetic modifications?Modifications to histones/DNA
What happens in the skin in high UV light to protect the DNA in skin cells from mutations?High UV light causes more MSH to be produced by the brain and more MSH receptors to form on melanocytes<div>MSH binds to MSH receptors on melanocytes causing gene activation, tyrosinase synthesis and melanin being made</div><div>Melanocytes make more melanosomes which are transferred to skin cells where they gather around the cell nucleus to screen it from UV light which protects DNA from sun damage - skin darkens</div>
What does high UV light cause more of to be produced by the brain?MSH and MSH receptors to form on melanocytes
What happens when MSH binds to MSH receptors on melanocytes?Gene activation<div>Tyrosinase synthesis</div><div>More melanin made</div>
What does more melanin being made lead to?Melanocytes making more melanosomes
Where are melanosomes transferred to and why?Skin cells where they gather around the cell nucleus<div>To screen it from UV which protects DNA from skin damage</div>
Why does hair not appear darker when exposed to the sun?UV light causes chemical and physical changes to melanin and other proteins in hair cells causing hair to lighten
How does the arctic fox change its coat colour?The white winter coat grows under the brown summer coat<div>Summer coat moults in autumn, revealing white winter coat</div><div>Foxes produce fewer MSH receptors in summer (when making white coat) so MSH has no effect and no melanin is made</div>
Which enzyme is used by many animals to make melanin?Tyrosinase
What are examples of animals that have a mutation in their tyrosinase gene?Himalayan rabbits<div>Siamese cats</div>
What does the mutation in the tyrosinase gene result in?The enzyme is made but it is inactive at normal body temperature
Why are the extremities of some animals black?They are colder<div>Gene is switched on and expressed</div><div>Tyrosinase enzyme is active and melanin is made</div>
Why is the main part of some animals' bodies white?It is warmer<div>Tyrosinase enzyme is inactive so melanin is not made</div>
Define multifactorial diseaseMany factors contribute to the risk of developing a disease e.g. cancer
What is cancer?A disease resulting from uncontrolled cell division which forms a malignant tumour which invades and destroys surrounding tissue
What is a malignant tumour?A mass of abnormal unspecialised cells
Which environmental mutagens increase the risk of cancer arising?UV light<div>Ionising radiation</div><div>Carcinogens</div>
What mutations can occur which control the cell cycle?Mutations in tumour suppressor genes or protooncogenes
How does the cell cycle become disrupted?When there are no stops on the cell cycle
What is the result of a disrupted cell cycle?Uncontrolled cell division<div>Shorter interphase</div><div>Faster cell cycle</div><div>No Hayflick limit</div><div>Lack of apoptosis</div><div>Tumour forms</div>
What is the impact of a lack of apoptosis?Rate of cell multiplication by mitosis is greater than the rate of cell death
What is a tumour?An abnormal mass of unspecialised cells
What can a tumour do?Invade surrounding tissues
What is the impact of cells not becoming specialised?Growth cannot be controlled
Describe how cancer arisesEnvironmental mutagens increase the risk<div>Mutations occur in DNA of tumour suppressor genes or protooncogenes which control the cell cycle</div><div>Cell cycle is disturbed as there are no stops on the cell cycle leading to uncontrolled cell division, shorter interphase, faster cell cycle, no Hayflick limit, lack of apoptosis and a tumour forming</div>
Describe the role of protooncogenesCode for proteins which stimulate cycle progression/regulate cell cycle
What do mutations in protooncogenes lead to?Oncogenes which cause the cell cycle to be continually active
Describe the role of tumour suppressor genesCode for proteins which halt the cell cycle<div>E.g. p53 gene produced p53 protein which halts cell cycle at G1/S checkpoint</div>
What do mutations in tumour suppressor genes result in?Inactivation of genes<div>Genes not expressed</div><div>No stops on cell cycle</div>
How do cancer cells spread to other tissues?Some cancer cells break off a tumour and travel to other parts of the body in the lymph or the blood, where they cause secondary/metastatic tumours in other parts of the body
How can carcinogens in cigarette smoke lead to cancer?Carcinogens in tar may cause mutations in DNA in lung cells
How can ultraviolet radiation lead to cancer?UV radiation may cause mutations in DNA in skin cells<div>Tumours can develop from an established mole</div>
How can free radicals and a diet low in antioxidants lead to cancer?Free radicals from smoke, UV light and cell metabolism may cause mutations in DNA<div>A lack of antioxidants to neutralise free radicals increases risk</div>
How can a viral infection lead to cancer?A virus's RNA may contain an oncogene which it has picked up from one of its hosts and it can transfer it to the cell it infects<div>This affects the cell cycle</div><div>Examples are liver cancer from hepatitis and cervical cancer from the human papilloma virus (HPV)</div>
What can lead to cancer?Carcinogens in cigarette smoke<div>Ultraviolet radiation</div><div>Free radicals and a diet low in antioxidants</div><div>Viral infection</div>
Who was the participant in Watson and Rayner's study?Little Albert
What was the aim of Watson and Rayner's study?Whether classical conditioning occurs in humans<div>Whether they could condition fear of an animal by simultaneously presenting the animal and striking a steel bar to make a loud noise to frighten the child</div><div>Whether the fear would be transferred to other animals and objects</div><div>The effect of time on the conditioned response</div>
Why did Watson and Rayner think carrying out their experiment on Little Albert would cause him 'relatively little harm'?He had a normal life<div>He was healthy from birth and was one of the most developed youngsters ever brought to the hospital, weighing 21 pounds at 9 months old</div><div>Calm and unemotional</div>
When did Watson and Rayner carry out emotional tests to assess his fear reactions?9 months old
What was Little Albert presented with in the emotional tests and what were his reactions?White rat, rabbit, cotton wool = showed no fear whatsoever<div>Banged a hammer against a steel bar which made a loud noise = had a fear response, lips puckered and trembled and suddenly had a crying fit (first tine he had cried in the lab where the tests took place)</div>
At 11 months and 3 days what was Little Albert's response when a white rat was presented?He reached for it with his left hand and showed no fear
How were Little Albert's reactions recorded?By filming
At 11 months and 3 days what was Little Albert's response when just as his right hand touched the rat the bar was struck again?Jumped violently, fell forward and whimpered
What happened at 11 months and 10 days?Albert was presented the rat with and without sounds<div>He reached tentatively but did not touch it</div><div>He was given blocks to play with which he played with without a problem</div><div>They concluded that there had been some effect from the conditioning</div>
What was a control for this research?Blocks
At 11 months and 10 days what was Little Albert's response when he was presented a white rat and sound?Albert started to fall over immediately; he did not cry
At 11 months and 10 days what was Little Albert's response when presented the rat alone?Started to cry immediately, turned and started to crawl away
Why did Watson and Rayner continue with the study at 11 months and 15 days?To see whether Little Albert's fears had been transferred to different stimuli; stimulus generalisation
At 11 months and 15 days what was Little Albert's response when shown the blocks?Played well and energetically
At 11 months and 15 days what was Little Albert's response when shown santa mask?Negative
What happened at 11 months and 20 days?The researchers introduced the rat alone and Little Albert's response was less marked than previously<div>The researchers decided that the association had weakened so they renewed it</div>
At 11 months and 20 days what was Little Albert's response when shown the rat and sound?Violent reaction
At 11 months and 20 days what was Little Albert's response when shown the rat alone?Fell to left side and strong reaction
At 11 months and 20 days what was Little Albert's response when shown the blocks?Played well
At 11 months and 20 days when Watson and Rayner tried to condition the fear to the dog and rabbit, what was Little Albert's reaction to the rabbit/dog and sound?Violent negative reaction
At 11 months and 20 days when Watson and Rayner tried to condition the fear to the dog and rabbit, what was Little Albert's reaction to the rabbit alone?Whimpered and leaned over
At 11 months and 20 days when Watson and Rayner tried to condition the fear to the dog and rabbit, what was Little Albert's reaction to the dog alone?Whimpered and held hands away from dog
Why was the experiment moved from the dark room where the previous studies had taken place to a lecture room in the presence of four people?To study the effect of different surroundings
What was Little Albert's reaction to the rat alone in the lecture room?Began whimphering as rat brought near
What was Little Albert's reaction to the dog alone in the lecture room?Turned away and cried
What was Little Albert's reaction to the blocks alone in the lecture room?Played well
What did Watson and Rayner conclude at the age of 11 months that Little Albert had developed?A fear response that could be conditioned<div>A fear response that could be transferred to different stimuli</div><div>A fear response to different situations</div>
When was the follow up procedure carried out?One month later when Little Albert was 1 year and 21 days
Why was a follow up procedure carried out?To see whether the conditioned emotional fear reaction had lasted longer than one month
What was Little Albert's response to a santa claus mask 1 month later?Negative
What was Little Albert's response to a fur coat 1 month later?Negative
What was Little Albert's response to the blocks 1 month later?Played
What was Little Albert's response to a dog 1 month later?Cried
Overall conclusion for the studyA conditioned response of fear in humans can occur after even only a few pairings of stimuli however the pairings might have to be repeated<div>The conditioned response can be transferred to other similar objects and settings</div>
Why is there no means of seeing if the responses can be extinguished?Because Albert was removed from the study
At 11 months and 3 days did Little Albert show any fear response to any of the objects?No
What colour was the rat?White
What are some reasons to use animals in experiments?No demand characteristics<div>Faster breeding cycles</div><div>More ethical than using humans</div><div>Control extraneous variables</div><div>Easy to handle</div><div>Animals can learn something new which is fairly certain that they haven't experienced before</div><div>Strict controls = high validity</div><div>Easy to repeat = high reliability</div>
What are some problems with using animals in experiments?Not generalisable to humans due to brain differences<div>Animals are different from each other and will always respond differently</div><div>Laboratory experiments are always carried out in artificial environments therefore findings always lack ecological validity</div>
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessInvolved a case study of one individual - Little Albert<div>Study was only representative of one person and results are not generalisable to a wider population</div><div>Also he was a young child of 9 months so it is not clear that adults would respond to the classical conditioning in the same way</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthHigh reliability<div>Methodology used was simple and well documented step by step = easily replicated</div><div>E.g Little Albert was exposed to the loud noise and the rat in a set of standardised procedures based on Pavlov's theory of classical conditioning</div><div>However it would be unethical to replicate it today due to the BPS guidelines since it wouldn't allow psychological harm to babies</div>
What are applications of this study?Gives an explanation of how a fear response is learnt so if it can be learnt it can also be unlearnt through treatments based on classical conditioning<div>Therapies for phobias like systematic desensitisation</div>
VALIDITY - strengthHigh validity<div>Scientific and carried out in laboratory conditions with high levels of control</div><div>E.g the use of blocks as a baseline to show Albert played normally when given objects that had not been conditioned</div><div>Cause and effect links are made showing that fear responses can be learnt therefore this study provides evidence to support psychology being a science</div>
VALIDITY - weaknessesLow ecological validity because study was done in very controlled conditions<div>Took place in a quiet small room but was moved into more normal conditions towards the end of the study using a lecture hall with people in it</div><div>Most babies learn in far more complex environments</div><div>Controlled stimuli that Little Albert was exposed to throughout the study made the procedure artificial</div>
ETHICS - weaknessesAlthough ethical guidelines did not exist at the time of the study it can still be criticised<div>Before the experiment Little Albert was not easily frightened but throughout the experiment he became more fearful of many situations so he was not protected from psychological harm</div><div>E.g he was crying and whimpering in response to the rat and dog</div><div>Not clear how much his mother/father knew about what would happen to him when they gave consent to the study</div>
What did Baddeley want to find out?Whether long term memory and short term memory were different or whether memory was more of a continuum
Why did Baddeley think previous research made it impossible to tell whether short term and long term memory were different?They had used different research techniques for short term and long term memory
What is the aim of this study?To investigate the influence of acoustic and semantic word similarity on learning and recall in short term and long term memory
What sample was used?72 men and women from the Applied Psychology Unit subject panel at Cambridge University
Describe the 4 word lists used in this experimentA - acoustically similar words e.g. man, can<div>B - acoustically dissimilar words e.g. few, pen (these words were matched for frequency of occurrence in the English language to words in list A and this list was a control condition)</div><div>C - semantically similar words e.g. large, huge</div><div>D - semantically dissimilar words e.g. safe, deep (these words were matched for frequency of occurrence in the English language to words in list C and this list was a control condition)</div>
How many participants were in each condition?A - 15<div>B - 20</div><div>C - 16</div><div>D - 21</div>
For each condition how many words were presented to participants on a projector and for how long?10 words<div>3 seconds each (2 second slide changeover time between)</div>
Describe the first interference taskSix sequences of eight digits read out at a 1 second rate<div>Participants were given 8 seconds to write out each sequence</div>
Describe the test of memory after the 1st interference taskGiven 1 minute to write out the 10 word list in order
What happened after the participants done the STM procedure 4 times?<div>2nd interference task put between the encoding and retrieval of words - to minimise the effect of short term memory during learning</div>Completed a task involving 15 minutes of copying eight digit sequences at their own pace
Describe the LTM procedureRecall the word list in order
When was the list of words visible in the experiment?At learning, testing and retesting
Describe the results for acoustic similaritySimilar list was harder during early learning<div>Neither group showed any evidence of forgetting between test 4 and the retest</div>
Describe the results for semantic similaritySimilar list showed slower learning, as by trial 4 scores were significantly higher on list D than list C<div>Neither list showed any forgetting</div><div>On the retest, performance on the semantically similar list was poorer than the control list - learning word sequences was impaired by semantic similarity</div>
How long was what was learnt in all groups retained for?15 minutes
What do the results suggest that LTM may be based on?Either the meaning of the words (semantic) or the sound of the words (acoustic)
What does STM have an influence on?Acoustic encoding - shown by the difficulty of learning the list of acoustically similar words
What does STM rely very largely on?Acoustic encoding
What is STM relatively unaffected by?Semantic content of the message
What coding does LTM extensively use?Semantic coding
What is LTM vulnerable to the effects of in the learning stage?Acoustic similarity
What does it suggest if participants found it harder to recall list A (acoustically similar words) in the initial learning phase?Short term memory is largely acoustic
What does it suggest if at retest, list C (semantically similar) was the one that was most impaired?Encoding in LTM is largely but not exclusively semantic
What did Baddeley conclude about the study overall?Although in STM acoustic cues are important whereas in LTM semantic cues may be used instead, the difference between the 2 stores needs further research
RELIABILITY - strengthsStandardised procedures of same word lists for each participant in each condition, same equipment used (projector showing words on wall) and same timings (each word shown for 3 seconds, given 1 minute to write the list in order)<div>Laboratory setting - control of extraneous variables</div>
VALIDITY - strengths<div>High internal validity - matching frequency of the words in experimental variables to control lists and getting participants to recall word order rather than actual words reduced risk of some words being easier to recall than other so cause and effect link between the IV and DV can be established</div>Well controlled lab experiment<div>Control extraneous variables and isolate the variable he wanted to measure</div>
What are applications of this study?Finding that we encode semantically in LTM and acoustically in STM helped other researchers investigate LTM in greater depth<div>The use of interference tasks to control STM has been useful in further research - helped develop the WMM</div><div>Use this to suggest the best learning strategies to improve memory</div>
VALIDITY - weakness<div>Low ecological validity</div>Tasks lack mundane realism<div>Remembering the sequence of word lists is artificial and not an everyday task people would ordinarily do</div>
Why can Baddeley's study be thought to be reductionist?Reduced memory to recall the order of a list of 10 words and doesn't really take into account the complex workings of memory
Who made the Working Memory Model and when?Baddeley and Hitch, 1974
What is working memory?A system for holding things in mind while you are thinking about them and doing something with them
What is the role of working memory?To temporarily store and manipulate information being used
What can working memory be used for?Remembering phone numbers and lists<div>Understanding the sequence of words in a sentence</div><div>Mental maths</div><div>Thinking of an answer to a question</div>
Why is working memory fragile?Because things can go wrong like distraction, overload and overwork
What problems did Baddeley and Hitch have with the MSM?It was too simplistic<div>Emphasis on rehearsal being critical to learning was incorrect</div><div>STM is not a unitary (single) store</div>
Describe how the case study of KF supports WMMKF suffered brain damage to his parietal lobe from a motorcycle accident which damaged his STM<div>KF's impairment was mainly to the phonological store since he had a digit span of 1, his memory for visual information was unaffected = there are separate STM components for visual and verbal information</div>
What is the word length effect?The capacity of the phonological loop is determined by the length of time it takes to say the words<div>If the word is polysyllabic it is harder to remember</div><div>Hard to store a long list of words because the rehearsal of the word takes longer than 2 seconds</div>
Describe the key issue of change in psychological understanding over time relating to the WMMThe WMM builds on and develops the idea of STM from the MSM<div>Through the development of theories and testing hypothesis, new theories and models were developed</div>
What did Baddeley and Hitch suggest are the three components for working memory?Central executive<div>Phonological loop</div><div>Visuospatial sketchpad</div>
How did Baddeley and Hitch say the working memory could work?With only a small amount of information for a short time<div>Each component works relatively independently of each other</div>
What is the most important component and deals with the running of the memory system?The central executive
What are the 2 slave systems?Phonological loop<div>Visuospatial sketchpad</div>
Describe the role of the central executiveIt decides what information to pay attention to and what to ignore<div>It then allocates information to the slave systems</div><div>It also deals with cognitive tasks such as problem solving</div><div>It relates all of the information to long term memory</div>
What metaphor did Baddeley use to describe how the central executive operates?A company boss
What is the role of the phonological loop?It processes spoken and written information
What are the 2 parts to the phonological loop?Phonological store<div>Articulatory rehearsal system</div>
What is the role of the phonological store?Inner ear<div>Linked to speech perception</div><div>Holds information in speech-based form for 1-2 seconds</div><div>Any written words have to be converted into a spoken code before they enter this store</div>
What is the role of the articulatory rehearsal system?Inner voice<div>Linked to speech production</div><div>Used to rehearse and store verbal information by repeating it over and over and the information is held in working memory for longer than usual</div><div>Written material is converted into a spoken code</div>
What is the role of the visuospatial sketchpad?Stores and processes visual and spatial information (images, positions and locations)<div>Helps us with navigation and stops us bump into things as we walk</div><div>As well as observing images it also displays and manipulates visual and spatial information that is held in our LTM</div><div>Picturing a route when someone asks directions</div>
Describe the issues and debates of psychology as a science relating to the WMMExperimental lab based research, testing hypotheses, controls, objective, reliable but central executive is largely theoretical with limited experimental support because it is abstract and not directly testable
What is evidence for the WMM?Dual-task experiments - participants perform 2 tasks that involve one or more of the slave systems in the WMM simultaneously - offer support for separate visual and verbal slave systems<div><div>Neurophysiological evidence - PET scans have shown that different areas of the brain are used while undertaking verbal and visual tasks, these areas may correspond to components of the WMM giving the model validity</div></div><div>Evidence from case studies like K.F.</div>
Describe Baddeley &amp; Hitch (1976)&nbsp;dual task experimentAsked participants to track the location of a moving light on a screen whilst imagining the capital letter F<div>They had to mentally follow the areas of the letter and say out loud whether the angles they imagined were at the top or bottom of the image</div><div>Struggled to do both at the same time</div><div>Supports idea of VSSP as it suggests that both tasks were competing for the resources of the VSSP which gives the model validity</div>
Describe Robbins et al. (1996) dual task experimentTested participants ability to remember and replicate chess positions using the VSSP and found that when completing a task simultaneously that also used the VSSP, performance was worse<div>However when participants simultaneously completed a task that used the phonological loop, ability to replicate chess positions was unaffected</div>
Strengths of the methodologyLaboratory experiments are used as supporting evidence<div>Standardised procedures - can be replicated in different circumstances</div><div>Researcher is able to manipulate the independent variable and see how it affects the dependent variable so cause and effect can be inferred</div><div>Increases scientific credibility of the theory</div>
Weaknesses of the methodologyArtificial tasks and setting may not reflect how memory works in everyday life and reductionist as it gives a limited understanding of memory<div>Model is criticised for being incomplete as there is little evidence for how the central executive works and the model does not explain sensory or long term memory</div>
What was added to the model in 2000 to explain how the working memory communicated with long term memory?Episodic buffer
Which practical applications does the WMM have?Suggests strategies to improve memory such as not attempting to do 2 tasks that use the same slave system simultaneously
What is the alternative theory to the WMM?MSM
How are the MSM and WMM different in describing STM?MSM - suggests that STM is just a holding zone for information<div>WMM - suggests that STM is a complex and active working memory</div>
How are the MSM and WMM different in keeping information active in memory?MSM - attention needs to be paid and rehearsal has to occur<div>WMM - working memory is a system that keeps information active in memory while you are thinking and doing something with it</div>
How are the MSM and WMM different in what they emphasise?MSM - emphasis on the need of rehearsal for learning<div>WMM - emphasis on rehearsal being critical for learning is incorrect</div>
How are the MSM and WMM different in how they link to LTM?MSM - suggests that information from STM can be transferred to LTM if rehearsal occurs<div>WMM - doesn't link to LTM but in 2000 an episodic buffer was added to link working memory to LTM</div>
How are the MSM and WMM similar in their supporting evidence?Both use case studies<div>MSM - H.M</div><div>WMM - K.F</div>
How are the MSM and WMM similar in useful applications?Both suggest strategies to help improve memory
How are the MSM and WMM similar in having low ecological validity?Evidence supporting theories are laboratory experiments which use artificial tasks and are conducted in an artificial setting so it can't be applied to how memory works in real life situations
GENERALISABILTY - strengthUsed males and females = generalises to both sexes
GENERALISABILTY - weaknessCambridge University Applied Psychology subject panel - may have better memory than average population so less generalisable to wider population
What is a control that increases validity in this study?Investigating the sequential recall because it eliminates the participants being able to recall more common words
What is the IV?Type of word list
What is the DV?Accuracy of sequential recall
Explain the differences between encoding in STM and LTM that were found in the studySTM is largely acoustically encoded - harder to recall acoustically similar list in initial learning phase<div>LTM is largely semantically encoded - at retest semantically similar list was impaired the most</div>
What did George Miller find?STM capacity is 7 +- 2 items
Define interference taskA task used to prevent rehearsal of information
What does income elasticity of demand measure?The extent to which the quantity of a product demanded is affected by a change in income
What is the formula for YED?% change in quantity demanded / % change in income
For most normal products what will a rise in consumer income result in?A rise in demand
For most normal products what will a fall in consumer income result in?Fall in demand
What is the YED value for luxuries?More than 1
What is the YED value for necessities?Less than 1, but more than 0
Describe the relationship between income and luxuriesAs income grows, proportionally more is spent on luxuries
Describe the relationship between income and necessitiesAs income grows, proportionally less is spent on necessities
Describe the relationship between income and inferior goodsAs income rises demand falls because substitute products become affordable and consumers switch to better alternatives
Which products have a YED of less than 1?Inferior goods
What is the range for inelastic YED?0 to 1
What is the range for elastic YED?1+
What are limitations of using elasticities?Difficult to get reliable data on how demand changes in relation to price/income<div>Other factors may affect demand</div><div>Many markets are subject to rapid technological change which makes previous data less reliable</div>
What factors affect YED?Necessity or luxury<div>Level of income (poorer = more income spent on necessities, wealthier = more income spent on luxuries)</div>
What is fear?One of the six universal emotions which every human has
What are the universal emotions?Happiness, sadness, disgust, anger, surprise and fear<div>They are instictive and are emotions that we are all born with</div>
How did the six universal emotions develop?Through evolutionary needs (nature) and environmental factors (nurture)
What is the purpose of the fear emotion?Serves a protective purpose and activates the fight or flight response
Why is the fight or flight response in evolution?Effective for keeping individuals alive when they encountered a dangerous situation which required a response<div>With our bodies and minds alert and ready for action, we are able to respond quickly and protect ourselves</div>
What are natural fears at the age of 0-2 years?Loud noises<div>Strangers</div><div>Separation from parents</div>
What are natural fears at the age of 3-6 years?Imaginary things: monsters, the dark, ghosts
What are natural fears at the age of 7-16 years?Realistic things: school performance, death, illness
What happens when normal fears escalate?Can develop into a phobia
Are phobias and fears the same thing?No, they are distinctively different
What 4 things need to be present for a phobia to be diagnosed?The fear of the object, item or situation has to be marked and persistent which affects the person's functioning in everyday life<div>Exposure to the phobic stimulus almost invariably provokes an immediate anxiety response e.g. crying, panic attack, freezing or running away</div><div>The object, item or situation is excessively avoided by the individual</div><div>These symptoms must be present for at least 6 months</div>
What theory can explain how a phobia is acquired?Classical conditioning
How does classical conditioning explain the acquisition of a phobia?The pairing of an unconditioned stimulus and a neutral stimulus can bring about a conditioned emotional response which can be a fear response and turn into a phobia over time
How does classical conditioning explain the maintenance of a phobia?Once a phobia has been established it can also be maintained (continued by classical conditioning)<div>It is likely that the pairing between the unconditioned stimulus and the neutral stimulus would have to be renewed occasionally</div>
Give an example of how classical conditioning explains the maintenance of a phobiaLittle Albert had been conditioned to fear the rat but at 11 months and 20 days they found the fear of the rat (NS) was less marked<div>So they paired the rat with the loud noise (UCS) again and renewed the conditioned fear response (CR) to the rat (CS)</div>
What are the 2 treatments for phobias?Systematic desensitisation and flooding
How many people in the UK have a phobia?10 million
How does classical conditioning explain that phobias can be learnt and unlearnt?Classical conditioning research confirmed that phobias are learnt through a paired association between two stimuli<div>Learning theories imply that phobias are learnt and therefore caused by nurture so can be unlearnt and this process is carried out through the breaking of the association between the pairing of the stimulus</div>
Who was systematic desensitisation developed by?Wolpe, a South African psychiatrist
What is the focus of systematic desensitisation therapy?Works on the assumption that a phobia is learnt through the pairing of a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus until the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus
How does systematic desensitisation work?Provides a methodical way to introduce an individual to their feared stimulus in a graduated manner
How is systematic desensitisation a step by step process?An individual with a phobia becomes more and more familiar with the feared object, item or situation over a period of time with the goal of an individual being able to face their feared stimulus in a calm manner
Which 2 ways can individuals be gradually re-introduced to their feared stimulus in systematic desensitisation?In vivo or in vitro
What happens prior to the desensitisation and exposure to the feared stimulus?<div>Progressive muscle relaxation</div>Individuals are taught how to relax their muscles and how to deal with situations if they occur<div>Learning to relax all your muscles through tensing and releasing muscle contractions</div>
Define systematicGradually facing up to a phobic object
Define desensitisationBrought about by relaxation techniques
Define in vivoBeing exposed to a real object
Define in vitroBeing exposed to an imaginary object
Define progressive muscle relaxationRelaxation technique used to calm the muscles
What happens over the weeks to the individual's anxiety levels during systematic desensitisation?At the start the individual's anxiety increases sharply when presented with the stimulus and takes a long time to calm down<div>At the end the individual still becomes slightly anxious however they calm down at a much quicker rate</div><div>Overall their anxiety reduces and they become less fearful of the stimulus since the learnt stimulus and response links will be broken</div>
Effectiveness of systematic desensitisationEffective method to treat phobias and is generalisable to many kinds of specific phobias which is demonstrated by research by Capafons et al (1998) who found that it is effective for treating fear of flying<div>Scientific evidence to indicate that the treatment is effective when treating individuals with phobias e.g. McGrath et al (1990) found that 75% of individuals with phobias respond to this therapy</div><div>It is the preferred treatment within the NHS</div>
Limitations of systematic desensitisationIndividual differences must be taken into account - this therapy does not suit everyone<div>Cannot be applied to people with more generalised anxiety disorders as situations/objects must be clearly identifiable for it to work</div><div>Reductionism - limited view that all phobias are caused by classical conditioning</div><div>Ineffective in treating evolutionary phobias</div>
Ethics of systematic desensitisationEthical because the exposure to the feared stimulus is gradual and agreed with the individual prior to exposure<div>Individual is involved in how the treatment is carried out which enables them to feel empowered and involved</div>
Alternatives to systematic desensitisationFlooding<div>CBT</div><div>Virtual reality therapy</div>
How does aversion therapy link to the issue and debate of social control?Has been used to try and convert homosexuals to heterosexuality<div>In the 1960s a gay man Billy Clegg-Hill died from coma and convulsions caused by injections from aversion therapy</div><div>In 1994 the American Psychological Association said that aversion therapy is dangerous and does not work</div><div>From 2006 the APA stated that the use of aversion therapy to treat homosexuality violates their ethical code and it is now illegal</div>
Who was flooding therapy developed by and when?Thomas Stampfl, 1967
What does flooding involve?Phobic person being placed in a situation with their feared object/situation for a prolonged period of time with no means of removing themselves from the situation
How is flooding therapy similar to systematic desensitisation?Based upon the idea that phobias are learnt through the principles of classical conditioning
How is flooding therapy different to systematic desensitisation?Involves exposing an individual to their feared stimulus all at once
What idea does flooding therapy use?Phobia response is caused by an alarm reaction and that these emotions only have certain longevity before they subside
What is the alarm reaction?A biological reaction giving the organism energy to flight from the situation<div>Blood sugar is made available and other activities in the body such as digestion tend to cease as the body goes into a high alert stage</div><div>As the body uses up all the blood sugar then it will start to calm</div><div>As the body calms the parasympathetic nervous system begins to work and this in turn will calm the sympathetic nervous system&nbsp;</div>
Summarise flooding therapyPhobic individual is placed in a feared but harmless situation for a prolonged period<div>They are prevented from the normally rewarding pattern of escape</div><div>With enough exposure to the feared stimulus, extinction of the fear response should occur because the feared stimulus does not cause any harm</div>
Define floodingDirect, prolonged exposure to a fearful situation or experience
Define implosionProlonged exposure to the phobic situation or experience by imagining the feared stimuli
Effectiveness of flooding therapyEffective method to reduce individual's fears and can be used with a number of different phobias<div>Much faster than other therapies e.g Wolpe (1973) carried out an experiment with a girl who was afraid of cars - he drove her around for just a few hours before she become calm</div>
Limitations of flooding therapyTreatment is not useful for other mental health difficulties - some clients acquire more anxiety
Ethics of flooding therapyNot ethical as it involves trauma for the patient, phobic is purposefully out into a situation of great distress e.g. in Wolpe's 1973 experiment although the girl eventually calmed down, she was hysterical for a large part of the journey but he kept driving her around<div>Issues of social control as therapist is in control of the client and they are not allowed to leave the fearful situation</div>
Alternatives of flooding therapySystematic desensitisation<div>CBT</div><div>Virtual reality therapy</div>
What features do plant cells have?Mitochondria<div>Ribosomes</div><div>Chloroplasts</div><div>Cell membrane</div><div>Large central vacuole</div><div>Tonoplast</div><div>Rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum</div><div>Amyloplasts</div><div>Pit</div><div>Plasmodesmata</div><div>Middle lamella</div><div>Nucleus</div><div>Cytoplasm</div><div>Rigid cellulose cell wall</div><div>Golgi apparatus</div>
What is the function of chloroplasts?Where the process of photosynthesis takes place
What is the function of amyloplasts?Stores starch
What is the function of the tonoplast?Separates the contents of the cytoplasm from the contents of the vacuole
What is the function of plasmodesmata?Transfers substances between two adjacent cells
What is the function of the cell wall?Strength, rigidity and support
What are the 3 main differences between the structure of animal and plant cells?Plant cells contain chloroplasts, animal cells do not<div>Plant cells contain a cellulose cell wall, animal cells do not</div><div>Animal cells contain centrioles, plant cell do not</div>
What is the function of cellulose?Structural component of plant cell wall providing strength and support
Is cellulose made of alpha or beta glucose?Beta
What bond joins two beta glucose molecules?Beta 1, 4 glycosidic bond
What reaction joins two beta glucose molecules?Condensation reaction
What is the orientation of every alternate beta glucose in cellulose?Inverted
Is cellulose branched or unbranched?Unbranched because it only contains 1, 4 glycosidic bonds
How many cellulose molecules do microfibrils contain?60-70 bundles of cellulose molecules
How are cellulose microfibrils formed?When hydrogen bonds form between the -OH of many bundles of adjacent cellulose molecules
What is the arrangement of microfibrils around the cell?Helical
Describe the structure of a plant cell wallMade of cellulose molecules - made of beta glucose joined by beta 1, 4 glycosidic bonds with every alternate glucose inverted, forming an unbranched chain<div>Bundles of many cellulose molecules are held together by hydrogen bonds between adjacent molecules to form a cellulose microfibril</div><div>Layers of microfibrils are laid down at different angles to each other to form a mesh which is then embedded in a matrix of hemicelluloses and pectins to form the primary cell wall</div><div>Secondary thickening is when lignin is added to form the secondary cell wall</div>
What is secondary thickening?When lignin is added to form the secondary cell wall
What is the middle lamella of a plant cell made from?Calcium pectate
Where would the middle lamella be found?Between the cell wall of adjacent cells
How is the primary cell wall formed?Layers of microfibrils are laid down at different angles to each other to form a mesh<div>Embedded in a matrix of hemicelluloses and pectins</div>
What is cellulose?A polysaccharide
Describe niche marketingWhen a firm targets a small subsection or previously unexploited gap in a larger market<div>May give a business an advantage to allow them to charge a premium price</div>
Describe mass marketingWhen a firm targets the whole of a market rather than a particular segment<div>Can give a business a high volume of sales but often at a low price</div>
What is the difference between industrial markets and consumer markets?Industrial markets are B2B whereas consumer markets are B2C
How can customer loyalty be built?Good customer service and physical environment<div>Loyalty schemes</div>
What type of treatments are systematic desensitisation and flooding therapy?Exposure therapy
Describe the differences between the structure of starch and celluloseCellulose is made up of beta glucose whereas starch is made up of alpha glucose<div>Cellulose is straight/unbranched whereas starch is branched</div><div>Starch has alpha 1, 4 and 1, 6 glycosidic bonds whereas cellulose only has beta 1, 4 glycosidic bonds</div><div>Starch has no hydrogen bonds between chains whereas cellulose has hydrogen bonds between chains</div>
What is cohesion?The attraction between like molecules to stick together
Draw a triglycerideGlycerol attached to 3 fatty acids<div>Glycerol: CHO between CH2O with bonds between carbons, O attached to C of fatty acid</div><div>Fatty acids: C with double bond to O and a hydrocarbon chain&nbsp;</div>
Describe staffing as an assetOrganisations believe that employees are the most important asset in the business<div>Employees are seen as a resource to be valued and developed over time in response to changing market conditions</div>
Describe staffing as a costOrganisations believe employees are a resource to be used cost effectively<div>Employees are obtained cheaply as possible, controlled and disposed of when necessary</div>
What did Tulving say about LTM represented in the MSM?Too simplistic and inflexible
Describe what declarative long term memory isConscious recall
What 2 things make up declarative LTM?Semantic and episodic memory
Describe what semantic memory isFacts, general knowledge, language
Describe what episodic memory isPersonally experienced events
What are semantic and episodic memory different in terms of?Nature of stored memories<div>Time referencing</div><div>Nature of retrieving/recalling memories</div><div>Independence of each store</div>
Describe semantic memory in term of its natureRepresents a mental encyclopedia<div>Stores words, facts, rules, meanings and concepts as an organised body of knowledge</div><div>Memories are associated with other facts and concepts - get linked together</div>
Describe episodic memory in terms of its natureRepresents a mental diary<div>Receives and stores information about events or experiences that occur at a time in our life</div><div>Memories are linked to a time and a context</div>
Describe semantic memory in terms of its time referencingMemories are detached from any time reference<div>Factual information can be recalled without linking it to when it was learned</div>
Describe episodic memory in terms of its time referencingMemories are dependent on time referencing<div>Memories about events that happen to you are linked to the time they happened</div>
Describe semantic memory in terms of its retrievalRetrieval does not depend on the context in which the information was learned<div>Can be based on inferences, generalisation and rational, logical thought</div><div>Leaves the memory trace relatively unchanged so we can recall a fact without interfering that knowledge</div>
Describe episodic memory in terms of its retrievalRetrieval depends on the context in which the event was initially learned/experienced<div>We mentally re-experience a moment in the past to retrieve information about it</div><div>Leaves memory trace transformed in some way</div>
Describe semantic memory in terms of its independenceSemantic memory can operate independently of episodic memory
Describe episodic memory in terms of its independenceEpisodic memory is unlikely to operate without semantic memory as we need to be able to draw on previous knowledge of objects, people and events to understand them
Describe semantic memory in terms of forgetting itMemory trace more robust and less susceptible to being changed
Describe episodic memory in terms of forgetting itMemory trace can be transformed/changed when we retrieve it
Describe semantic memory in terms of spatial referencingCan be fragmented
Describe episodic memory in terms of spatial referencingContinuous
What did Tulving say about the two systems possibly overlapping?Even though there is some possible overlap they can be treated as separate stores
Evidence forCase studies of brain damaged patients - K.C and H.M<div>Brain scans</div>
Describe how the case study of K.C supports Tulving's LTMFollowing a motorcycle accident, K.C's episodic memory was damaged (couldn't recall personal events from his life) but his semantic memory (recollection of facts) was intact
Describe how the case study of H.M supports Tulving's LTMAs a result of brain damage H.M's episodic memory was severely impaired (he had difficulty recalling events from his past) but his semantic memory was relatively intact
Describe how brain scans support Tulving's LTMShow that different parts of the brain are involved in episodic and semantic memory<div>Semantic retrieval uses left hemisphere, whereas episodic retrieval uses right hemisphere</div><div>Neuroimaging evidence supports the idea that there are 2 different types of LTM</div>
Evidence against<div>Original theory is limited - Tulving added procedural memory in 1985</div>Research has shown that LTM may include more than semantic and episodic memories<div>H.M and Clive Wearing both had brain damage that affected the ability to retain and recall episodic memories but could remember how to perform tasks such as playing piano and could learn new skills</div>
What is the alternative theory?Bartlett's theory of reconstructive memory
Benefit of the methodologyBrain scanning techniques increase the scientific credibility of the theory by showing that different areas of the brain were used when the different memories were working
Disadvantages of the methodolgyMethods of testing semantic and episodic memory may lack validity because they cannot be studied in absolute isolation from each other<div>Using case studies lack control of variables - there is little knowledge of the person's memory before the damage so they can't make meaningful comparisons which reduces validity</div>
What practical applications are there?Knowing the relationship between semantic and episodic memory can be useful for aiding memory recall to help exam revision for students<div>Strong episodic memories are easy to retrieve so semantic knowledge can be encoded as episodic memories by using a mnemonic that attaches semantic knowledge into an imaginary story</div><div>Help people with specific memory problems to lead more normal lives at old age</div>
Describe what Belleville et al (2006) doneWorked with older people who had mild memory impairments<div>Participants undertook a training programme to improve their episodic memories</div><div>Compared with a control group, these participants performed better on a test for episodic memory after the training</div>
What is the independent variable?Type of plant extract
How is the independent variable varied?Mint, lemon and garlic
What is used as a control?Ethanol (solution plants were prepared in)
What is the dependent variable?Area of zone of inhibition
How is the dependent variable measured?Soak paper discs in plant extracts<div>Place disc on agar plate seeded with bacteria (E. coli) using aseptic technique</div><div>Incubate plates for 24 hours at 25'C</div><div>Measure diameter of zone of inhibition using a ruler</div><div>Calculate area</div>
Which organism variables should be controlled and how?Variety/species/genotype of plant - use same parent plant/used cloned plants so they are genetically identical<div>Age of plant the extract was from - germinate plants at same time</div><div>Species/strain/culture of bacteria - use E. coli</div>
Which environmental variables should be controlled and how?Incubation temperature - set incubator at 25'C<div>Incubation time - use incubator for 24 hours</div>
Which procedural variables should be controlled and how?Surface area of paper discs - 5mm diameter discs<div>Mass of plant extract in solution - use same mass e.g. 3g using mass balance</div><div>Volume of plant extract solution used - use same volume e.g. 20 microlitres using micropipette</div><div>Volume of bacteria - use same volume e.g. 1cm^3 using pipette</div>
What repeats should be carried out?5 repeats for each plant extract
How is the investigation made reliable?Repeats were carried out to identify anomalies and calculate a mean<div>Anomalies should be discarded and repeated</div>
How is the investigation made valid?Variables should be controlled and repeats carried out<div>Use aseptic technique to prevent contamination with other species of bacteria</div><div>Use negative control as a comparison (so we know it's not ethanol inhibiting the growth of bacteria)</div>
How is the investigation made safe?Use aseptic technique: disinfect the bench with Virkon before and after working, pass necks of bottles/tubes through a blue Bunsen burner flame, work in updraught of a blue Bunsen burner flame, use sterile forceps and pipettes, keep lids off for minimum time, autoclave used on plates and equipment
State each step of the method1. Prepare sterile agar plates (using aseptic technique) - spread E. coli uniformly over the surface of set agar or mix E. coli with molten agar, pour into plate and allow to set<div>2. Soak microbiology discs of same size with the same volume of plant extract and allow to dry</div><div>3. Soak one disc in ethanol (the solution used to prepare plant extracts) and allow to dry</div><div>4. Secure the plate lid with two small pieces of sticky tape</div><div>5. Incubate for 24 hours at 25'C (not 37'C)</div><div>6. Measure diameter of zones of inhibition and calculate area for each disc/plant extract</div><div>7. Carry out 5 repeats for each plant extract</div>
Why should you prepare sterile agar plates using aseptic technique?Prevents contamination of plate with microbes from other sources e.g. air<div>For safety - prevent microbial contamination of laboratory workers</div>
Why should you soak microbiology discs of same size with the same volume of plant extract and allow to dry?To allow the plant extract to impregnate the paper disc
Why should you soak one disc in ethanol (the solution used to prepare plant extracts) and allow to dry?Acts as a negative control; to allow a comparison with the other discs<div>Shows that any difference between the discs is due to the treatment given to those discs and not the paper disc</div>
Why should you secure the plate lid with two small pieces of sticky tape?Reduces contamination of culture; allows aerobic conditions; reduces growth of pathogenic anaerobic bacteria being cultured
Why should you incubate for 24 hours at 25'C (not 37'C)?25'C allows growth of bacterial culture<div>37'C is human body temperature so would allow rapid growth of pathogenic bacteria that are harmful to humans</div>
Why should you measure diameter of zones of inhibition and calculate area for each disc/plant extract?Extract which gives the largest zone of inhibition has the most effective antibacterial properties
Why should you carry out 5 repeats for each plant extract?So anomalous results can be identified and repeated and so a mean can be calculated to improve reliability
When will a zone of inhibition be produced?If the plant extract has antibacterial properties
What does the zone of inhibition look like?A clear circle around the disc
Why does a plant extract with antimicrobial properties produce a zone of inhibition?The plant extract diffuses out of the disc and kills the bacteria/inhibits bacterial growth so bacteria can't grow
What can be inferred about the extract which gives the largest area of zone of inhibition?It has the most effective antibacterial properties
Explain the importance of a protein's primary structure in determining its 3D shapeThe primary structure (specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain) determines the position of R groups<div>Hydrogen, ionic and disulphide bonds can form between these R groups</div><div>These bonds determine how a polypeptide chain folds into a specific 3D shape, forming a protein</div><div>The specific 3D shape of a protein gives the protein specific properties and allows it to carry out a specific function</div>
Write a conclusion for the quantitative dataPeople with an internal locus of control are slightly more obedient than people with an external locus of control due to agreeing more on average that children should always obey their parents
Write a conclusion for the qualitative dataThe general themes concluded from the open questions in the self report questionnaire were obedience due to own moral code and obedience due to consequences
Describe how bacteria reproduceBy binary fission which is a type of asexual reproduction which produces 2 genetically identical cells
What are the 5 conditions required for bacterial growth?Optimum temperature<div>Optimum pH</div><div>Optimum oxygen concentration</div><div>Optimum concentrations of glucose and nitrogen</div><div>Moisture/water</div>
What is the optimum temperature needed for?Optimum enzyme activity, rate of reaction and growth/metabolism
What is the optimum pH needed for?For optimum enzyme activity, rate of reaction and growth/metabolism
What is the optimum oxygen concentration needed for?Respiration to release energy for growth
What is the optimum concentration of glucose needed for?For respiration to release energy
What is the optimum concentration of nitrogen needed for?Making amino acids to make proteins for growth and to make DNA
What are the 4 phases of growth of a bacterial culture?Lag phase<div>Log/exponential phase</div><div>Stationary phase</div><div>Death phase</div>
Describe what happens in lag phaseNo increase in number of cells<div>Cells adjust to conditions</div>
Describe what happens in log/exponential phaseNumber of cells increases<div>Cell divide at fastest rate possible for the conditions, doubling each time</div>
Describe what happens in stationary phaseNo increase in number of cells<div>Glucose is depleted, toxic products build up, change in pH</div>
Describe what happens in death phaseNumber of cells decreases<div>Number of cells dying is greater than number of new cells formed</div>
Describe the structure of starchPolysaccharide made up of alpha glucose - amylose (unbranched &amp; spiraled) and amylopectin (branched)<div>Amylose is held together by 1,4 alpha glycosidic bonds, amylopectin is held together by 1, 4 and 1, 6 alpha glycosidic bonds which are formed in condensation reactions</div>
What are the uses of starch from seeds and give examplesStiffening agents e.g. fabric, paper<div>Thickening agents e.g. custard, wallpaper paste</div><div>Super absorbents e.g. nappies</div><div>Starch foam e.g. packaging</div><div>Biofuels e.g. biodiesel&nbsp;</div>
Define sustainableA resource that can be renewed, so will not run out and is therefore available for future generations<div>No net change in CO2 concentration in atmosphere and biodegradable so it doesn't contribute to waste problems</div>
Why are plastics/petrol not sustainable?Plastic/petrol comes from crude oil which is a fossil fuel, so is non-renewable and will run out, so will not be available for future generations<div>Burning fossil fuels releases CO2 into the atmosphere which contributes to climate change and global warming and these products are non-biodegradable so they add to waste problems&nbsp;</div>
Why are starch products/plant products/jute fibres/bioplastic sustainable?They are made from plants, which are a renewable resource which will not run out, as more plants can be grown to replace those used, so will be available for future generations<div>They biodegrade/decompose more quickly, so will not contribute to landfill</div>
Describe the 4 steps of William Withering's drug testingPotentially useful plant chemical identified<div>Trial on small group of patients with the disease - side effects recorded</div><div>Trial on larger group of patients to discover the most effective dose</div><div>Results recorded and published for general use</div>
What are the 5 main stages of the contemporary drug testing protocol?Pre-clinical trials<div>Clinical trials - phase 1</div><div>Clinical trials - phase 2</div><div>Clinical trials - phase 3</div><div>After licensing</div>
What is drug testing done on in the pre-clinical trials?Lab testing on animals or cells/tissue cultures
What is the aim of pre-clinical trials?To assess safety/side effects and determine if the drug is effective against disease
Who are the clinical trials - phase 1 conducted on?Small group of healthy human volunteers
Who are the clinical trials - phase 2 conducted on?Small group (100-300) volunteer human patients who have the disease
Who are the clinical trials - phase 3 conducted on?A larger group (1000-3000) patients
What is the aim of the clinical trials - phase 1?To look for side effects in humans<div>Different variations are trialled to find one which is both safe and effective</div><div>To see if the drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolised and excreted as expected</div>
What is the aim of the clinical trials - phase 2?To see if the drug works
What is the aim of the clinical trials - phase 3?Checks for effectiveness (efficacy) and side effects
What happens in clinical trials - phase 3?A double-blind randomised controlled trial<div>Patients are assigned randomly to either a test group, who are given the test drug or a control group, who are given the existing drug or a placebo if no existing drug is available</div>
Why is a control group needed in a double-blind randomised controlled trial?For comparison with the test group, to prove that any improvement is due to the new drug which improves validity
Why is statistical analysis of data carried out in the clinical trials - phase 3?Checks if the drug is effective by seeing if there is a significant difference/improvement in patients taking it compared to those taking the existing drug or placebo
What happens after licensing?Drug licenced<div>Data on efficacy and safety continues to be collected and monitored</div>
What is a placebo?An inactive substance which does not contain the drug<div>Used as a control to compare the actual drug<div>Removes psychological effect of taking a drug</div></div>
What is a double-blind trial?Some people are given the drug and some are given a placebo (or existing drug)&nbsp;<div>Neither the doctor nor the patient know who has been given the actual drug and who has been given the placebo</div><div>This removes bias from the trial</div>
Put the plant tissues in order from outside to inside<div>Epidermis</div><div>Collenchyma</div>Sclerenchyma<div>Phloem</div><div>Cambium</div><div>Xylem</div>
What tissue is on the inside layer of the plant stem?Parenchyma
Describe the structure of the xylem vesselsCellulose microfibrils in cell walls<div>Walls lignified with lignin (in spirals or rings)</div><div>Continuous column made of hollow, dead cells with no end walls and no cell contents</div><div>Have pits in their walls</div><div>Vessels have open ends</div>
Describe the structure of the phloemHas a cellulose cell wall<div>Sieve tube elements have thin peripheral cytoplasm and very few organelles</div><div>Have sieve plates with sieve pores</div><div>A companion cell is linked to each sieve tube element by plasmodesmata</div><div>Living tissue</div>
Describe the structure of the sclerenchyma fibresFibres/cells have cellulose cell walls which are thickly lignified<div>Dead and hollow cells when mature</div><div>Often have pits in their walls</div><div>Long, narrow and usually pointed at both ends</div>
What are the functions of the xylem vessels?Transport of water and dissolved mineral ions from roots to leaves (transpiration)<div>Structural support</div>
What is the function of the phloem?Transport of organic solutes (sucrose, amino acids) from source to sink in a process called translocation
What is the function of the sclerenchyma fibres?Structural support only
What is the function of lignin and cellulose microfibrils in walls of the xylem vessels?For strength and to prevent vessel collapsing
What is the function of lignin in walls of the xylem vessels?Makes it waterproof
What is the function of lignin in rings or spirals in the xylem vessels?To allow stretching/flexibility as the plant grows
What is the function of no end walls in the xylem vessels?Forms a continuous, dead, hollow tube with no cell cytoplasm - reduces obstruction and resistance to water flow
What is the function of pits in walls of the xylem vessels?Allows lateral movement of water between xylem vessels
What is the function of a large cross-sectional area in the xylem vessels?Allows a larger volume of water to be transported
Describe the process of water transport in a plant from the roots to the leaves1. Water evaporates from the surface of the leaf cells into the air spaces and exits the leaf by the process of transpiration (water vapour diffuses out of the leaves through stomata, down a diffusion gradient)<div>2. This creates a low hydrostatic pressure in leaves which draws water out of the xylem vessels by osmosis</div><div>3. A continuous column of water molecules (transpiration stream) is pulled, under tension, up the xylem by capillary action due to cohesion and adhesion</div><div>4. Water moves into roots by osmosis - creating a high hydrostatic pressure</div><div>5. Water moves along a hydrostatic pressure gradient, from high pressure in roots to low pressure in leaves by mass flow</div>
Describe cohesionHydrogen bonding between polar water molecules in xylem
Describe adhesionHydrogen bonding between water and cellulose in the xylem walls
What are the 4 reasons why water is important in plants?As a reactant in the process of photosynthesis<div>To keep plants turgid to support the plant</div><div>Needed for hydrolysis reactions e.g. breaking down starch</div><div>As a solvent to dissolve and transport plant mineral ions</div>
What are the 3 inorganic ions needed in plants?Calcium ions<div>Magnesium ions</div><div>Nitrate ions</div>
Why do plants need calcium ions?To make calcium pectate (joins with pectin) for making the middle lamella which holds the plant cells together<div>Also has a role in membrane permeability</div>
Why do plants need magnesium ions?To make chlorophyll which is needed for the process of photosynthesis<div>Also needed for nucleic acid synthesis and activation of some plant enzymes</div>
Why do plants need nitrate ions?To make amino acids for the synthesis of proteins (some of which are enzymes) for growth<div>Also needed in chlorophyll, nucleic acids e.g. DNA and RNA, ATP and growth hormones</div>
What are deficiency symptoms of calcium ions?Young leaves turn a yellow colour and go crinkly<div>Growing points die back</div><div>Stunted growth</div>
What are deficiency symptoms of magnesium ions?Less chlorophyll leads to less photosynthesis so less glucose being made and stunted growth<div>Yellowing of leaves between the veins</div>
What are deficiency symptoms of nitrate ions?Older leaves turn yellow and die<div>Lack of side shoots (spindly plants)</div><div>Stunted growth due to lack of enzymes/proteins</div>
What is the function of the transfer cell in the phloem?Loading sucrose into the sieve tube at source, or unloading at sink
What is the function of the sieve tube having sieve plates which have sieve pores in the phloem?So fluid can flow through
What is the function of the companion cell having organelles in the phloem?Provides metabolic support for the sieve tube element cells
What is the function of the peripheral cytoplasm of the sieve tube having very few organelles in the phloem?Less resistance to fluid flow
Describe the process of translocation in the phloem1. At the source e.g. leaf sucrose is produced from glucose and fructose<div>2. Transfer cells actively pump sucrose into phloem sieve tubes against a concentration gradient using energy in the form of ATP from respiration</div><div>3. There is a high sucrose concentration in sieve tube at the source</div><div>4. This draws water into sieve tube by osmosis from adjacent xylem vessels, increasing the hydrostatic pressure at the loading end of the sieve tube</div><div>5. Fluid in sieve tube flows from high to low hydrostatic pressure by mass transport</div><div>6. Sucrose is actively unloaded (using ATP) in sinks (where sugars are needed) therefore solute concentration decreases in the sieve tube at the sink</div><div>7. Water moves back into the xylem by osmosis, decreasing the hydrostatic pressure</div>
Describe the mechanism of enzyme actionThe substrate fits into and binds to the active site<div>The shape of the active site fits the shape of the substrate - lock and key theory or induced fit theory</div><div>An enzyme-substrate complex forms and the substrate is held in the correct position for bonds to be broken or formed which lowers the activation energy for the reaction</div><div>The product is released from the active site and the enzyme is unchanged and is therefore free to accept another substrate molecule</div>
What is the equation for magnification?Image size / actual size
How many micrometers are in 1 millimeter?1000
How many micrometers are in 1 centimeter?10,000
How many nanometers are in 1 micrometer?1000
Describe how to calculate the size of an electron micrograph imageMeasure the length of the image in mm<div>Convert this length to micrometers (x1000)</div><div>Calculate the actual size of the by image by dividing the length of the image in micrometers by the magnification</div>
Describe how to calculate the magnification of an electron micrograph image using a scale barMeasure the length of the scale bar in mm<div>Convert the length into micrometers</div><div>Work out the magnification by dividing the measured length of the scale bar by the number written on the scale bar</div>
What is the independent variable?Plant species
How do you vary the independent variable?Flax and celery
What is the dependent variable?Tensile strength
How do you measure the dependent variable?Extract fibres from flax and celery<div>Suspend masses from hanging fibre</div><div>Add masses until fibre breaks and use to calculate force</div><div>Use micrometer to measure diameter of fibre and use to calculate cross sectional area</div><div>Force / cross sectional area = tensile strength</div>
Which organism variables should be controlled and how?Source/variety - same plant, fibres taken from same part of plant<div>Length of fibres - cut with scalpel/scissors</div>
Which environmental variables should be controlled and how?Humidity - use humidity controlled room, measure with hygrometer<div>Temperature - use temperature controlled room, measure with thermometer</div>
Which procedural variable should be controlled?Hanging fibres horizontally or vertically
What repeats should be carried out?5 repeats for each plant species
How is the investigation made reliable?Repeats were carried out to identify anomalies and calculate a mean<div>Anomalies should be discarded and repeated</div>
How is the investigation made valid?Variables controls<div>Repeats carried out</div>
How could the investigation be made more valid?By using smaller mass intervals between the ones used<div>Could measure force directly using a force meter, which would be more accurate</div>
How is the investigation made safe?Danger from falling masses - place a carpet tile on the floor to cushion masses if they fall
Describe the process of synaptic transmission<div>1. An action potential moves down the presynaptic neuron and causes the vesicles filled with neurotransmitters to move close to the terminal membrane</div><div>2. Vesicles fuse with the terminal membrane (exocytosis) which causes the neurotransmitter to be released into the synaptic cleft</div><div>3. The neurotransmitter binds with protein receptors on the postsynaptic neuron and the presynaptic neuron</div><div>4. Once the neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft it is removed by reuptake, being broken down/degraded or by diffusion</div>
Describe how cocaine disrupts the normal functioning of the dopamine pathways in the brain1. Cocaine blocks the transporter receptors on the pre-synaptic dopamine neurons in the VTA<div>2. Pre-synaptic neurons do not reuptake dopamine, therefore dopamine remains in the synaptic cleft for longer</div><div>3. This prolongs and intensifies the stimulation of the post-synaptic neuron</div><div>4. VTA activates the nucleus accumbens and the user experiences euphoria</div>
What changes does epigenetic modification lead to?Changes that affect gene expression/activation
Describe epigenetic modificationMethylation of DNA base - expression of the gene is changed<div>Histones modified - affect binding of other proteins to DNA because DNA is wrapped around histones</div><div>Therefore genes may become activated or repressed</div>
What types of aggression does the Buss Perry Association questionnaire measure?Physical<div>Verbal</div><div>Hostility</div><div>Anger</div>
What is the independent variable?Presence/absence of mineral ion
How do you vary the independent variable?Solution lacking one mineral ion (all others present in sufficient concentrations)
What is used as a control?Distilled water (negative control)<div>A complete medium, solution with all mineral ions present in sufficient concentrations (positive control)</div>
What is the dependent variable?Plant growth
How do you measure the dependent variable?Plant mass measured with mass balance (best measure of plant growth)<div>Colour of plant</div><div>Number of leaves</div><div>You should measure them at the start and end of the investigation or everyday for 2 weeks</div>
Which organism variables should be controlled and how?Variety/genotype of seedlings - use cloned seedlings so they are genetically identical<div>Age of seedlings - germinate seedlings at same time</div><div>Growing conditions at germination</div>
Which environmental variables should be controlled and how?Temperature - heat shield between light source and plants<div>Light intensity - use light bank</div><div>Wavelength of light - use white light</div>
Which procedural variables should be controlled and how?Volume of mineral ion solution - measuring cylinder<div>Length of time plants grow for - measure at same time of day, everyday for 2 weeks</div>
What repeats should be carried out?5 repeats for each solution
How is the investigation made reliable?Repeats were carried out to identify anomalies and calculate a mean<div>Anomalies should be discarded and repeated</div>
How is the investigation made valid?Variables should be controlled<div>Repeats carried out</div>
State each step of the method<div>1. Half fill 5 beakers with Perlite granules (not soil)</div><div>2. Add 40cm3 of mineral solution to each of the 3 beakers (beaker 1 = no nitrate, beaker 2 = no magnesium ions, beaker 3 = no calcium ions)</div><div>3. Add 40cm3 of water to beaker 4 and all mineral solution to beaker 5</div><div>4. Place a mung bean seedling into the Perlite using forceps with the root pointing downwards. Cover beakers with cling-film rather than a metal lit and place under a light bank</div><div>5. Measure initial height/mass/number of leaves/colour and measure everyday for 2 weeks</div><div>6. Add the same volume of the correct solution to each beaker on a regular basis</div><div>7. Repeat the experiment 5 times for each solution</div>
Why should you half fill 5 beakers with Perlite granules rather than soil?Granules support seedling roots as it grows<div>Soil cannot be used as it contains mineral ions</div>
Why should you&nbsp;add 40cm3 of mineral solution to each of the 3 beakers (beaker 1 = no nitrate, beaker 2 = no magnesium ions, beaker 3 = no calcium ions)?To investigate the effect of deficiency of each mineral
<div>Why should you add 40cm3 of water to beaker 4 and all mineral solution to beaker 5?<br></div>As controls<div>Plant growth for other beakers can be compared to them</div>
Why should you cover beakers with cling-film rather than a metal lit and place under a light bank?Allows light to reach plant seedling in tube which is required for photosynthesis
Why should you&nbsp;measure initial height/mass/number of leaves/colour and measure everyday for 2 weeks?As a measure of growth to assess how the mineral deficiency has affected the plant
Why should you add the same volume of the correct solution to each beaker on a regular basis?To ensure there is sufficient water for photosynthesis and access to mineral ions
Why should you repeat the experiment 5 times for each solution?To identify anomalous results and calculate mean height/mass/number of leaves
What is the title of their study?Developmental patterns of digit span in Spanish population
What is the aim of the first part of their study?To investigate the development of the phonological loop in children between the ages of 5 and 17 years using digit span as a measure of phonological capacity
What is the aim of the second part of their study?To compare the findings to their previous research of adult aged and dementia patients
Describe the sample used in the first part of their study570 volunteers selected from public and private preschools, primary schools and secondary schools in Madrid<div>None had hearing impairments, reading/writing difficulties or any other cognitive difficulties</div>
Describe the procedure used in the first part of the studyThe task was given to participants individually<div>Started with 3 sequences of 3 digits which were read out by experimenters at a rate of 1 per second and an additional digit was added each round</div><div>Participants were asked to listen carefully to them and recall them in the same order as they were presented and an example was given to ensure they understood what to do</div>
What was digit span taken as?The maximum length that participants could recall at least 2 out of 3 series with no errors
Describe the procedure used in the second part of the studyDigit span for the older patients and patients with dementia was measured using the same procedure as for part 1<div>The data was compared with the digit span data gathered on children aged between 5 and 17 years</div>
What was the mean digit span for 5 year olds?3.76
What was the mean digit span for 6-8 year olds?4.34
What was the mean digit span for 9-11 year olds?5.13
What was the mean digit span for 12-14 year olds?5.46
What was the mean digit span for 15-17 year olds?5.83
What do the results from part 1 show?Digit span increases with age<div>Very young children (5 years) have significantly lower digit span than other ages - mean of 3.76</div><div>Digit span rises steadily between the ages of 5 and 11 years</div><div>The increase in digit span slows around 11 years</div><div>The digit span between 15 and 17 years is fairly stable</div><div>Spanish speaking children have a lower digit span than English speaking children</div>
What are the conclusions for part 1?Digit span increases with age, especially from when children are able to sub-vocalise at around the age of 7<div>Digit span in Spanish children is lower than found in English studies. This could be due to the word length effect - the longer the word, the longer it takes to perform the rehearsal and the fewer words can be held. The longer it takes to utter a word, the greater the chance that the stored information will fade before fully recalling the complete sequence of words. Spanish numbers are longer than English ones (most are two syllables e.g. cinco rather than English one syllable numbers like five)</div><div>Support for the idea that the word length effect is related to the process of sub-vocal rehearsal which appears around age 7 comes from the fact that there is no significant difference between Spanish and English children before the age of 7</div>
What do the results from part 2 show?"The elderly group had a higher digit span than than 5 and 6 year olds but it did&nbsp;<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">not differ significantly from the other year groups</span><div>Patients with Alzheimer's disease had a higher digit span than the 5 year olds but it did not differ significantly from other year groups</div><div>Patients with another type of dementia (frontotemporal dementia) had a digit span that was similar to the youngest group (5 and 6 year olds)</div>"
What are the conclusions for part 2?The phonological loop is affected by age in general, not so much by dementia<div>We know this because healthy elderly controls had a digit span similar to 7 year olds whereas dementia patients similar to 6 year olds</div>
Define phonological loopPart of the working memory model that processes verbal information
Define digit spanWay of measuring the capacity of the phonological loop (remembering a sequence of numbers in order)
Define sub-vocalisationInternal speech made when reading, it provides the sound of the word as it is read
Define word length effectThe length of time it takes to say/rehearse a word
How many participants were used in part 2?59
GENERALISABILITY - strengthsLarge sample size - 570<div>Public &amp; private school students</div><div>Wide age range (5-17 years)</div><div>Males and females</div>
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessesSmall sample size - 59, may not generalise to all elderly people and mainly females used<div>Not generalisable to people with learning difficulties, hearing impairments or any other cognitive difficulties</div><div>Only from Madrid - can't generalise beyond this area</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthStandardised procedures - same order of tasks, same numbers, numbers read out at 1 second rate
APPLICABILITY - strengthsHelps us understand how the phonological loop works and what effect it gives<div>Shows development of WMM and helps understand Alzheimer's and how to help people with it</div>
VALIDITY - strengthsUsing digits is a clear measure of digit span<div>Example of procedure given to ensure that participants understood what to do</div><div>Participants put into groups based on age</div><div>Excluded participants with hearing impairments/cognitive difficulties = reduces extraneous variables</div>
ECOLOGICAL VALIDITY - strengthSet in school = familiar setting
ECOLOGICAL VALIDITY - weaknessRemembering digits is not an everyday task = low mundane realism, artificial task
ETHICS - strengthsUnder 18s got parents consent<div>Tasks not distressing</div>
What is the limbic system responsible for?Emotions, forming memories and motivation
What are the most important features in the xylem?Lignin and cellulose microfibrils in walls<div>Lignin in walls</div><div>Large cross-sectional area</div><div>Pits in walls</div><div>No end walls</div><div>Lignin in rings</div>
What are the most important features in the pholem?Transfer cell<div>Sieve tube has sieve plates which have sieve pores</div><div>Companion cell has organelles</div><div>Peripheral cytoplasm of sieve tube has very few organelles</div>
What is moisture/water needed for?Cell function e.g. hydrolysis reactions
How does Bandura's Social Learning Theory (1977) explain how people learn new behaviours through observations of others?A behaviour is modelled by a role model, the observer identifies with the role model, they note and observe the behaviour and they imitate the behaviour so it becomes learnt
Why is it important to study road safety and crossing the road behaviour?In 2020, 1 child died per week when crossing the road and 10,457 children were injured
What is the aim of this investigation?Naturalistic observation to investigate the difference in behaviour of adults with and without children whilst crossing the road at a set of traffic lights
What is the title of this practical?An observation to investigate the differences of safe and unsafe behaviours between adults' behaviour with and without children when crossing the road
What did Muir et al. (2017) find?77% of adults felt that they were their child's primary learning source for road safety
Describe B.F Skinner's psychological theory of Operant Conditioning (1938)Learning through reinforcements and punishments<div>A reinforcer increases the probability of a behaviour being repeated</div><div>A punishment is doing something unpleasant to stop the behaviour</div>
What is the Ha?There will be a significant difference between the number of adults crossing the road with and without children and the number of safe vs unsafe behaviours they display operationalised by the Green Cross Code
What is the Ho?There will be no significant difference between the number of adults crossing the road with and without children and the number of safe vs unsafe behaviours they display operationalised by the Green Cross Code
What sampling technique was used?Opportunity sample
Describe the sample used in the studyAdult men and women with and without children in Reigate town centre, Surrey at midday
Give one strength of the sample in this studyFast, easy and convenient - people who were available in Reigate town at the time of the study
Give one weakness of the sample used in this studyBased in Reigate so it may be unrepresentative of other towns
Assess the level of risk for general respect in this studyModerate - followed instructions
Assess the level of risk for informed consent in this studyMedium - no informed consent but no personal information was collected and it was a public place
Assess the level of risk for deception in this studyModerate - participants didn't know that they were taking part but not deceived
Assess the level of risk for debriefing in this studyHigh - no debriefing
Assess the level of risk for right to withdraw in this studyMedium - no right to withdraw but no private data was collected
Assess the level of risk for confidentiality in this studyLow - public place, anonymous and no personal data collected&nbsp;
Assess the level of risk for protection of participants in this studyLow - natural, non-participant observation, no variables manipulated
Assess the level of risk for observational research in this studyLow - public place
Assess the level of risk for competence in this studyLow - teacher gave instructions and co-researchers were present
Assess the level of risk for giving advice to participants in this studyLow - participants didn't make contact
Assess the level of risk for colleagues' research in this studyLow - class research
Which materials were used?Data collection sheet for quantitative and qualitative data for observations of safety of road crossing behaviour of adults with and without children
Which test was used to test the significance of the results and why?Chi-squared because it was a test of difference producing nominal unrelated data
Write the statement of significance for this studyDue to the observed value being 5.74 it is higher than the critical value of 3.84 when the degrees of freedom was 1 at 0.05% level of significance for a 2 tailed test. Therefore the results were significant and the alternate hypothesis is accepted
What conclusion can be made from the qualitative data?Adults with children tend to follow the green cross code - they are cautious, patient and instructive<div>Adults without children tend to be more distracted, impatient and reckless when crossing the road</div>
What conclusion can be made from the quantitative data?There is a significant difference between the number of adults crossing the road with and without children and the number of safe/unsafe behaviours
Strengths of the studyHigh in validity - qualitative data<div>High ecological validity - naturalistic setting</div>
Weaknesses of the studyLow generalisability - adults in Reigate town centre<div>Ethics - consent not gained</div>
Describe the whole procedure10 words presented to participants on a projector for 3 seconds each with a 2 second slide changeover time<div>Six sequences of 8 digits read out at a 1 second rate then given 8 seconds to write it out</div><div>Participants given 1 minute to write out the 10 word list in order</div><div>Repeat 3 more times</div><div>15 minutes of copying 8 digit sequences at own pace</div><div>Recall word list in order</div>
Briefly describe each stage of the whole procedure9 months - emotional baseline tests<div>11 months 3 days - checked for fear responses again</div><div>11 months 10 days - see if there were effects from conditioning to rat</div><div>11 months 15 days - testing stimulus generalisation</div><div>11 months 20 days - renewing fear in rat, conditioning fear in rabbit and dog, lecture room</div><div>1 year 21 days - follow up</div>
What are the 2 main ways that schemas influence memory?What you encode and store - if new info conflicts with your schema of that subject, it may fail to encode or the existing schema may manipulate how the info is encoded based on previous experiences and memories<div>What you retrieve - you might only recall those elements that fit in with the relevant schema, other elements that don't fit are either distorted or forgotten altogether</div>
What did Bartlett argue that memory was like?Not like a tape recorder<div>Can be changed and transformed</div><div>Our previous and current experiences affect the way information is perceived, stored and retrieved</div>
Which story was shown to British participants in Bartlett's study?The War of the Ghosts - a folk tale from a different culture
Why did Bartlett choose the War of the Ghosts story for his study?It was culturally unfamiliar to participants<div>It lacked any rational order</div><div>The dramatic nature of the story would encourage visual imaging</div><div>The conclusion was supernatural and Bartlett wanted to see how participants would perceive this</div>
What did Bartlett find when participants reproduced the story?The story changed over time
What did Bartlett conclude about memory being rarely accurate?It is prone to omissions, rationalisation and transformation<div>Memory is reconstructive</div>
Define omissionsLeaving out parts that didn't make sense
Define rationalisationMake the story more logical to the participant
Define transformationPutting part of the story in a different order or changing words to more familiar words
Give an example of transformation in Bartlett's study"Using the word ""boat"" instead of ""canoe"""
Describe what Bartlett found in his study overallThe story became much shorter<div>Used phrases from modern life</div><div>The story had more of an order</div><div>Changed many words to more familiar words e.g. canoe to boat, hunting seals to fishing</div><div>Left out the part about ghosts because they did not understand the role of them in the story or they rationalised their presence in some way</div>
What does it mean if memory is reconstructive?The perception of something involves an active construction of what we think we see using what we already know<div>Previous knowledge is used to interpret information so that it can then be stored and recalled</div>
What did Bartlett mean by 'effort after meaning'?We spend time trying to connect something to a memory or some previous knowledge or experience
What did Bartlett argue about that we don't remember everything that we perceive?We need to draw on the schemata that we have to fill in the gaps in our knowledge - links back to the idea that recall of memory is an active reconstruction of an event influenced by stored knowledge
What idea does Bartlett use to explain reconstructive memory?Schemas
What 2 types of information does every schema have?Fixed and variable
Describe the procedure of Bartlett's study20 participants read the story twice and recalled it after several minutes, weeks, month and years (longest time was 6.5 years)
What are schemas?Mental constructs that form the structural/hardware components of the human memory system<div>Parcels of stored knowledge</div><div>Mental representation of information about a specific event or object</div>
Why are ink blots important in reconstructive memory research?How you see the ink blots is largely determined by your own experiences, interests, thoughts and moods<div>We use 'effort after meaning' - we spend time trying to connect a neutral stimulus with some previous knowledge or experience</div><div>When we do this, it means that the stimulus can be assimilated and stored far easier</div>
EVIDENCE - forBrewer &amp; Treyens (1981)<div>Loftus &amp; Palmer (1974)</div><div>Allport &amp; Postman (1947)</div>
Describe Brewer &amp; Treyens (1981) studyParticipants waited in an office then asked them to recall items they had seen in the office<div>Recalled expected items like desk and stapler</div><div>Did not recall unexpected items like a pair of pliers</div><div>Some people also recalled expected items like a telephone that weren't actually there</div>
Describe Loftus &amp; Palmer (1974) studyParticipants memories could be altered through leading questions which indicates that memory is reconstructive
Describe Allport &amp; Postman (1947) studyShowed participants a drawing of an argument on a subway<div>Asked to describe it to another participant through serial reproduction</div><div>Black character was better dressed and more respectable than the white character but after serial reproduction, white participants tended to reverse their appearances and some even described the black character as holding a knife</div>
EVIDENCE - againstThe theory may be incomplete because schema is a very vague concept since Bartlett offers no explanation of how schemas are acquired in the first place which lowers validity
METHODOLOGY - forBartlett's research is more similar to real life than a lot of memory research that involves people remembering artificial materials such as trigrams
METHODOLOGY - againstBartlett's experiments lacked control and standardisation in their procedures - his findings were also qualitative which leaves results open to subjective interpretation, lowering validity<div>The War of the Ghosts story has been criticised for not being relevant to everyday memory due to being an unfamiliar folk story which lowers validity</div>
APPLICATIONS - forCan explain why eyewitness testimony can be unreliable because if people are drawing on a schema to try and remember a crime, they may add in or miss out vital information
APPLICATIONS - against"Not all memories are inaccurate or affected by schemas e.g. in Bartlett's War of the Ghosts study, people often remembered the phrase ""something black came out of his mouth"" because it was unusual therefore people may not always actively reconstruct memories"
What is the alternative theory to Bartlett's Theory of Reconstructive Memory?Tulving's model of long term memory
What are the 3 main individual differences in memory?Processing speed<div>Schemas</div><div>Episodic memory</div>
Why do some people take longer to write notes from a whiteboard than others?Due to the speed at which they can process the information and their short-term store capacity
Why might different people have different schemas?Because they are heavily influenced by experience
Why does everyone have different episodic memories?They are individual to each person as it is a collection of memories of their own life (similar to an autobiography)
What is autobiographical memory?Like episodic memory, it is a memory for personal events
What did Daniela Palombo and her colleagues investigate in 2012?Individual differences in naturalistic autobiographical memory - personal memories in natural settings
What 4 domains did Palombo (2012) subdivide autobiographical memory into?Episodic memory (memory for events)<div>Semantic memory (memory for facts)</div><div>Spatial memory (memory for places)</div><div>Prospective memory (imagination for future events)</div>
Describe Palombo's (2012) procedureGave 598 volunteers a Survey of Autobiographical Memory (SAM) which was 102 items that participants scored on a 5 point Likert scale
Describe the results from Palombo's (2012) studyPeople who scored high or low on episodic memory also scored high or low on semantic memory, so we either have a good or poor memory overall<div>Men scored higher on spatial memory which backs up other research showing that men have stronger spatial abilities than females</div><div>People who self reported having depression scored low on episodic and semantic memory</div>
Describe Loftus (1992) procedure1989 people who attended a science museum watched a brief film clip of assault and later answered questions about it<div>Approximately half received misinformation about some crucial items</div>
What did Loftus (1992) find?Recollection of other concrete details gets better up to the 26-35 age range and then begins to fall<div>In the over 65 group, females significantly outperformed the males</div><div>In general, the youngest and oldest subjects were the most inaccurate and subject to misinformation</div><div>The more education someone had, the more accurate their accounts - college (university) students were more accurate in general</div><div>Occupation affected how influenced by misinformation people were, with artists/architects being more affected</div><div>Males were more subject to misinformation than females overall</div>
What are the 2 main topics of developmental psychology in memory?Dyslexia and Alzheimer's Disease
What does developmental psychology investigate?Normal and abnormal behaviour as we age
What do people with dyslexia struggle with?Learning how to recognise and decode printed words<div>They cannot read as accurately or fluently as others</div><div>However they do understand the same amount as anyone else</div>
Who does dyslexia affect?3-6% of children<div>More prevalent in boys than girls</div>
What are the first signs that a child has dyslexia?If a child finds it difficult to learn letter sounds and names, due to a problem learning to associate a word with speech sounds, which leads to spelling and reading problems
Describe how studies show that those with dyslexia have a poor verbal short-term memoryUsing the phonological similarity effect - they have difficulty remembering similar sounding sounds<div>Word length effect - they find it hard to remember sequences of long words than short words</div>
Describe McDougall et al. (1994) procedureDivided 90 children into 3 different reading ability groups
Describe McDougall et al. (1994) resultsPoor readers had significantly lower memory spans for words and a slow reading rate<div>Good readers can articulate words quickly, leading to a greater number of words being represented phonologically in short-term memory</div><div>Poor readers sound out words more slowly, leading to fewer words being held in short-term memory - this basic inefficiency in phonological processing and storage may explain dyslexia</div>
What did Alloway et al. (2009) suggest about children with dyslexia?They have difficulty in processing and remembering speech sounds because of poor working memory<div>They cannot hold all of the speech sounds for long enough in working memory to be able to bind them together to form a word</div>
Describe Alloway et al. (2009) sample46 children aged 6-11 years with a reading disability
Describe Alloway et al. (2009) resultsShort-term working memory deficits could be the cause of their reading problems<div>There is an underlying cognitive impairment in dyslexia which leads to a shorter memory span and difficulty processing and storing verbal information in short term memory</div>
Why can't we be sure exactly what role verbal memory plays in causing dyslexia?There are often comorbid conditions such as ADHD, specific learning impairments and hearing issues which makes it hard to isolate phonological issues leading to reading difficulties
What is the most common form of dementia?Alzheimer's disease
What type of disorder is Alzheimer's disease?A progressive, degenerative, neurological disorder - it affects around 1 in 20 people and risk increases with age
What is Alzheimer's disease characterised by?Memory and concentration loss, confusion and changes in mood<div>All of these things will get worse as the disorder develops</div>
What cognitive systems does Alzheimer's disease impair?Deteriorates memory for new events/information (older information is safe)<div>Working memory</div><div>Central executive functioning - making complex tasks more difficult to coordinate</div><div>Visuospatial processing</div>
What is a major characteristic of Alzheimer's disease and what does it show?Inability to recall autobiographical information from episodic memories which shows that it affects short term and long term memory recall
What is the memory loss in Alzheimer's disease associated with?Depletion of brain matter, particularly in the hippocampus and temporal lobe<div>The more damage, the more significant the impairment</div>
What does a loss of executive functioning lead to in Alzheimer's disease?Lack of coordination and difficulty with attention
What did Baddeley et al. (2001) conduct experiments to investigate?Attentional control in patients with Alzheimer's disease
Describe Baddeley et al. (2001) procedureParticipants had to look for the letter Z among both easy and difficult distractor letters (they either looked like Z or didn't)<div>Dual-task procedure - crossing out a chain of boxes with repeating span-length sequences of random digits read out by the experimenter</div>
Describe Baddeley et al. (2001) resultsThose with Alzheimer's disease performed worse on the difficult version and were more impaired on the dual task than a control group of people without Alzheimer's disease, suggesting tasks where attention is needed on more than one thing are specifically impaired by the disease
What is the title?Systematic desensitisation in the treatment of fear of flying
What is the aim?Investigate the effects of systematic desensitisation as a treatment programme to treat fear of flying
How many participants were there and how were they recruited?41 - media campaign which was set up by the research team which informed them of personal intervention programmes free of charge aimed at treating fear of flying&nbsp;
What were the 2 groups?Treatment group - 20 participants<div>Waiting list group (control) - 21 participants</div>
What 4 materials were used?A) General diagnostic information on fear of flying<div>B) Fear of flying scales and scales of expectations of danger and anxiety</div><div>C) Videotape of a plane trip</div><div>D) Psychophysical recording instruments</div>
What are psychometrics?Measuring behaviour through the use of questionnaires which obtain quantitative data
What was the general diagnostic information on fear of flying used for?To obtain data about patients' life history and aspects of their fear of flying
What did the fear of flying scales measure?Degree of anxiety perceived in relation to different flight situations
What did the scales of expectations of danger and anxiety measure?The frequency of various catastrophic thoughts and the occurence of different physiological manifestations that may present themselves in a flight situation
Describe the videotape of a plane tripMade from a subjective perspective about a trip by plane, which begins with the traveller packing their bag and ends with the plane touching down at its destination
Describe the psychophysical recording instrumentsHeart rate, muscular tension, palm temperature - used to assess physiological arousal<div>Objective measurements of the dependent variable</div>
Describe step 1 of the procedureParticipants interviewed individually<div>Completed the general diagnostic test</div><div>In subsequent sessions the rest of the measures were taken using self-report</div>
Describe step 2 of the procedureParticipants individually watched the videotape of the plane visit whilst undergoing the psychophysical measurement<div>Room temperature was maintained at 22.5'C</div><div>Participant sat in an armchair positioned 1.8 meters from a television</div><div>Before viewing the video there was a habituation session where the participant became acquainted with the application conditions of the psychophysical recording instruments</div><div>Participants' responses were measured for 3 minutes in the absence of phobic stimulus</div><div>Participant proceeded to watch the video and told to feel as involved as possible</div>
Describe step 3 of the procedureAt the end of the video another appointment was made for the presenting treatment (in the case of the treatment group) or for the next assessment session (for the control group)<div>In either case the interval between the first and second was approximately 8 weeks for all the measures</div>
Describe step 4 of the procedureParticipants which were receiving the treatment had two 1 hour sessions per week as part of a standardised individual desensitisation programme of minimum 12 and maximum 15 sessions<div>In addition to training in techniques of breathing, progressive relaxation and imagination, the treatment combines in vitro and in vivo elements</div>
Describe step 5 of the procedureAfter 8 weeks the treatment and control groups came back to retake the questionnaires and simulated video test to see if their fear had declined
Describe the results for intragroup analysis of the waiting list control groupShowed no reductions in fear levels<div>The passing of time does not lead to quantitative changes in any of the dependent measures</div>
Describe the results for intragroup analysis of the treatment groupSelf-report scales carried out before and after for the same dependent variables indicate significant changes and reduction in fear responses<div>Treatment is effective for those with a fear of flying</div>
Describe the results for intergroup analysis before therapyThe waiting control group and the treatment group were similar on the self-reported levels and the psychophysical measures before treatment
Describe the results for intergroup analysis after therapyScores are significantly different for each group for practically all variables analysed with only two maintaining non-significant differences: fear without involvement and palm temperature
What is the overall conclusion?No significant decrease in fear of flying in control group<div>Significant decrease in fear of flying in treatment group</div><div>Systematic desensitisation is an effective treatment for reducing fear of flying</div>
Describe how individual differences relate to this studySystematic desensitisation may not be suitable for everyone - 10% showed no reduction in fear<div>Individual differences affect usefulness of fear of flying programmes</div>
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessesSmall sample of 41 participants<div>Self-selected sample may be biased as people who volunteered may have really wanted to cure their phobia so responded well to the treatment</div><div>Sample is not representative of all people who have phobias of flying and findings may not be easily generalisable to a larger target population of people with a phobia of flying</div><div>Questionable whether this study can tell us anything about the effectiveness of systematic desensitisation in treating phobias other than fear of flying</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthStandardised procedures - room temperature 22.5'C, armchair positioned 1.8 meters from TV, same psychometrics used on each participant - easily replicated and tested for consistency of findings, ensuring reliability and increasing scientific credility
APPLICATIONS - strengthShows that systematic desensitisation is an effective therapy in helping people who have a fear of flying so it could be widely applied to help individuals with this phobia
APPLICATIONS - weaknessIndividual differences are important and it should be noted that systematic desensitisation does not work on everyone since 10% of the treatment group showed little improvement in their fear
VALIDITY - strengthsHigh internal validity, uses scientific method, experiment carried out using strict controls in a lab<div>Control of extraneous variables</div><div>Use of control group gives a baseline against in which to compare any differences in treatment group's fear of flying so researchers can accurately see the differences that therapy made</div><div>Objective quantitative measures such as heart rate and muscle tension allowed precise and accurate physiological measurements of fear</div><div>Concurrent validity can be seen in that both the physiological measures and self-report measures both show that the fear of flying treatment group changed whereas the control group remained the same</div>
VALIDITY - weaknessesUse of self-report allows only fixed responses - participant may not have always given true and fully accurate responses<div>Ecological validity lowered by using controlled conditions - even though participants were told to feel as involved as possible in the video test it is still and artificial phobic stimulus, a real plane flight may have resulted in very different measures but cost and ethics are a constraint</div>
ETHICS - strengthParticipants gave consent to take part in the experiment and were supported through the study by a team of researchers
ETHICS - weaknessResearchers made the control group wait some time for the treatment
How can managers ensure that delegation is effective?Employees are trained and have access to resources required to complete delegated tasks<div>They do not interfere with delegated tasks, but are available for support and advice</div><div>Must take time to explain delegated tasks clearly so employees don't make mistakes</div><div>Don't overburden employees with extra tasks that they don't have time to complete their own jobs because this could lead to resentment, stress and time off work</div>
How does the structure of glucose relate to its function?Function - immediate energy source for respiration<br>Small - doesn't need to be hydrolysed, so can be quickly and easily absorbed into blood and diffuse into cells<br>Soluble - polar molecule with hydrophilic OH groups on outside - these can form hydrogen bonds with water making glucose soluble in water so it dissolves in blood for transport<br>Carried to tissues - quickly absorbed into cells and can be immediately used for repsiration to release energy
What is sales forecasting?Predicting future sales volume and trends
What are the 4 purposes of sales forecasting?Finance<div>Marketing</div><div>People</div><div>Resource management</div>
How does sales forecasting help with finance?Inform cash-flow forecasts<div>Predicts sales volume and sales revenue</div><div>Assess ability to break-even</div><div>Help set budgets</div>
How does sales forecasting help with marketing?Identify when promotional activity is needed<div>Plan distribution</div>
How does sales forecasting help with people?Plan workforce needs for the:<div>Sales team<div>Seasonal staff in stores or distribution</div><div>Peak times</div><div>Operatives to ensure supply meets demand</div></div>
How does sales forecasting help with resource management?Ensure there are sufficient products to match demand - can suppliers match demand<div>Required levels of output</div><div>Stock management</div>
Which 3 factors affect sales forecasts?Consumer trends<div>Economic variables</div><div>Actions of competitors</div>
How do consumer trends affect sales forecasts?Goods come in and out of fashion - it is difficult to predict what the next trend will be, a business could follow experts<div>Shopping habits - online sales, how will this affect who buys what, where and when</div><div>Demographics - UK has an ageing population with high net migration</div>
How do economic variables affect sales forecasts?Interest rates - if interest rates are low this encourages consumers to spend as the reward for saving is low<div>Employment - the amount of people employed in an economy directly influences spending power, those in employment will have an income to purchase goods and services with</div><div>Consumer confidence - if consumers are confident in the future of the economy they are more likely to spend, however if the economy is in decline they are more cautious</div><div>Stage in economic cycle - if the economy is recovering then consumer confidence will be higher and employment will rise</div>
How do actions of competitors affect sales forecasts?Competitors entering or exiting the market - this will impact on market share and therefore sales<div>Changes in price and promotion</div><div>Greater flexibility and speed of response to changes in consumer wants</div>
What are the difficulties of completing accurate sales forecasts?The future is unknown and therefore uncertain<div>Changing external environment and unpredictable events</div><div>Time frame - short term vs long term</div><div>Past is not a clear indication of the future - lack of perfect information</div>
What is the formula for total revenue?Total revenue = quantity sold (output) x price
What is the formula for total cost?Total cost = fixed costs + variable costs
What is the formula for total variable costs?Total variable costs = variable cost for 1 unit x output (amount sold/made)
What is the formula for average or unit cost?Average or unit cost = total costs / output
What is the formula for profit?Profit = total revenue - total costs
What can fixed costs also be known as?Indirect costs, overheads, expenses
What can variable costs also be known as?Direct costs
What are examples of fixed costs?Rent, insurance, heating bills, salaries, advertising
What are examples of variable costs?Raw materials, packaging, wages
What is the difference between salary and wages?Salary is yearly pay whereas wages are hourly pay
If no products are made, will fixed costs still have to be paid?Yes
If no products are made, how much variable costs still have to be paid?Zero
What is the difference between fixed costs and variable costs?Fixed costs are costs which do not change as a result of a change in output in the short run whereas variable costs are costs that vary directly with the amount of products made (output)
Define outputThe finished goods or services which are achieved by the transformation of inputs
Define fixed costsThose that do not change as the number of sales change
Define piece-rate labourPaying workers per item they make i.e. without regular pay
Define sales revenueThe number of units sold in a time period multiplied by the average selling price of those units
Define sales volumeThe number of units sold in a time period e.g. 1 year
Define total costsAll the costs of producing a specific output level i.e. fixed costs plus total variable costs
Define total variable costsAll the variable costs of producing a specific output level i.e. variable costs per unit multiplied by the number of units sold
Define variable costsThose that change in line with the amount of business
What is contribution?The amount of money left over after variable costs have been subtracted from revenue<div>The money contributes towards fixed costs and profit</div>
What is the formula for contribution per unit?Contribution per unit = price per unit - variable cost per unit
What are the formulas for total contribution?Total contribution = contribution per unit x number of units sold<div>Total contribution = total revenue - total variable costs</div>
What is the formula for profit?Profit = total contribution - fixed costs
Define break-evenWhere a business sells just enough to cover its costs
What is break-even output?The output produced so that total revenue and total costs are the same
What is break-even point?When total revenue = total costs
What is the margin of safety?Amount of output between break-even output and current level of output
What is the formula for the margin of safety?Margin of safety = current level of output - breakeven output
What is the formula for break-even?Break-even = fixed costs / contribution per unit
Strengths of breakeven analysisFocuses entrepreneur on how long it will take before a start-up reaches profitability i.e. what output or total sales is required, therefore estimate the future level of output needed to produce and sell to meet given objectives in terms of profit<div>Calculations are quick and easy - great for giving quick estimates</div><div>Assess the impact of planned price changes/fixed or variable costs on profit and level of output needed to breakeven</div><div>Illustrates the importance of a start-up keeping fixed costs down to a minimum (higher fixed costs = higher break-even output)</div><div>Support applications for loans from banks and other financial institutions - use of break-even analysis may indicate good business sense and forecast profitability in the long term</div>
Limitations of breakeven analysis"Products are not sold at the same price at different levels of output - may offer discounts to get rid of stock<div>Sales are unlikely to be the same as output -<span style=""color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align); background-color: var(--bs-body-bg);"">&nbsp;may have excess supply if overproduced or low demand</span><br><div>Fixed costs do vary when output changes - cheaper if bought in bulk<div>Variable costs do not always stay the same e.g. as output rises, the business may benefit from being able to buy inputs at lower prices (buying power) which would reduce variable cost per unit</div><div>Most businesses sell more than one product, so break-even for the business becomes harder to calculate</div><div>Only as good as the data which it is based on - data may be inaccurate</div><div>Break-even analysis should be seen as a planning aid rather than a decision-making tool</div><div>Doesn't take PESTLE factors into account</div></div></div>"
What does PESTLE stand for?Political<div>Economic</div><div>Social</div><div>Technological</div><div>Legal</div><div>Environment</div>
Define habitatThe environment with a distinct set of conditions where a species or a group of species live
Define populationA group of interbreeding organisms of the same species living together in the same area at the same time
Define communityPopulations of living things interacting with each other in a habitat or ecosystem
Define ecosystemA community of living organisms and their physical environment in an area, which is self-sustaining
Define abioticNon-living/physical factors of the environment
Define bioticLiving factors of the environment
Which factors are usually density-dependent?Biotic as their effects are related to the population density of the organism concerned
Define autotrophAn organism that builds up the organic molecules it requires from small inorganic molecules such as carbon dioxide and water<div>In order to do this a source of energy is necessary e.g. in photoautotrophs, the source of energy is light, in chemoautotrophs, this energy comes from another chemical reaction</div><div>These are also known as producers in food chains</div>
Define heterotrophAn organism that gains its nutrients by feeding on other organisms<div>The complex organic molecules in its food are broken down by enzymes into simpler soluble substances before being built up again to form the complex organic substances that the organism requires</div><div>These organisms are the consumers in food chains</div>
Define producerAn organism that can make its own organic compounds from inorganic compounds either by photosynthesis or by using the energy released from chemical reactions<div>These organisms are at the start of all food chains</div>
Define primary consumerAn organism that consumes plant material for its food, also called a herbivore
Define secondary consumerAn organism that feeds on primary consumers, also called a carnivore
Define predatorAn organism that kills another organism before eating it
Define trophic levelThe position an organism occupies in a food chain<div>Energy is transferred through these in a food chain</div><div>Since energy is lost to the environment at each stage in the food chain, it is rare for food chains to have more than these</div>
Define decomposerA microorganism that lives by breaking down organic compounds in dead material or other waste products into carbon dioxide, water and mineral ions<div>These organisms play a very important part in the cycling of chemical elements such as carbon</div>
Define detritivoreA primary consumer that feeds on dead organic matter called detritus
Define food chainA sequence that represents the way in which energy is transferred from one organism in a community to another<div>These can be linked to each other to from food webs</div><div>The position each species occupies is called its trophic level</div>
Give examples of abiotic factorsRainfall<div>Temperature (air, soil or water)</div><div>Solar energy input (light intensity)</div><div>Edaphic factors (relating to soil - pH, moisture, composition, compaction)</div><div>Pollution</div><div>Natural catastrophes</div><div>Topography</div><div>Salinity</div><div>Water oxygen content</div><div>Altitude</div><div>Aspect</div><div>Gradient</div><div>Wind speed and direction</div><div>Mineral ion concentration</div><div>Wave action</div>
Give examples of biotic factors<div>Inter/intra specific competition</div><div>Mutualism</div><div>Grazing</div><div>Predation</div><div>Parasitism</div><div>Trampling</div>
What is the difference between interspecific and intraspecific competition?Intraspecific is within a species and interspecific is between different species
What type of relationship is mutualism?A relationship in which both partners benefit
What types of relationships are grazing, parasitism, predation and disease?A relationship between 2 organisms where one benefits at the other's expense
What are anthropogenic factors?Abiotic or biotic factors arising from human activity e.g. grazing and trampling
What is meant by the term niche?The role that an organism plays in a habitat<div>If 2 individuals/species share the same niche they will compete until one out-competes the other</div>
Define successionThe sequence of changes in a community over a period of time
Define climax communityThe final stage of succession<div>It is normally stable, self-sustaining and sometimes has one or two dominant species</div>
What are the 3 stages of succession?Pioneer phase - colonisation<div>Development</div><div>Climax community</div>
Where does the pioneer phase begin?The process starts on newly formed habitats where there have never been a community before i.e. bare rock
What are examples of pioneer species that start to grow?Lichens and algae
What types of conditions can pioneer species live in?Harsh conditions e.g. no soil, little water and minerals, wind exposure, extremes of temperature
What do pioneer species add during colonisation?Organic matter (humus), and with the substrate e.g. rock, start to produce a thin soil - change in the abiotic conditions
Describe the pioneer phase - colonisationThe process starts on newly formed habitats where there have never been a community before i.e. bare rock<div>Pioneer species, such as lichens and algae start to grow</div><div>These species can live in harsh conditions - no soil, little water and minerals, wind exposure, extremes of temperature</div><div>They add organic matter (humus), and with the substrate e.g. rock, start to produce a thin soil - change in the abiotic conditions</div>
What do mosses add during development?More organic matter to the soil - the soil can now hold more water and mineral ions - change in the biotic conditions
What do small, shallow-rooted plants add during development?Further organic material to soil
What happens as abiotic conditions in the habitat improves during development?Larger, taller plants can grow<div>These out-compete the shorter plants - they replace the previous community</div>
Describe the development stageMosses can now grow - change in the biotic conditions, they add more organic matter to the soil - the soil can now hold more water and mineral ions<div>Small, shallow-rooted plants can now grow - further organic material added to soil</div><div>As abiotic conditions in the habitat improves, larger, taller plants can grow, these out-compete the shorter plants - they replace the previous community</div>
What is a climax community usually dominated by?Trees
When would a climax community not remain stable?When abiotic or biotic conditions in the habitat change
Describe the climax community stageA community normally dominated by trees is established<div>Remains unchanged/stable unless abiotic or biotic conditions in the habitat change</div><div>It is self-sustaining</div><div>Many different types of species and niches - high biodiversity (however this depends on the climatic conditions and species available)</div>
When/where does secondary succession take place?On bare soil where an existing community has been cleared<div>This can be after events such as fires, volcanoes, flooding or if grazing has been stopped</div>
What is deflected succession?A community that remains stable only because human activity prevents succession from running its course e.g. grazing sheep, mowing of grassland, pond dredging and managed fires
What is a budget?A target for sales, costs and profit that a firm or department must aim to reach over a given period of time
What can budgets be set for?Sales (income)<div>Costs (expenditure)</div><div>Profit</div>
What is the purpose of setting budgets?Provides a quantifiable target that can be communicated to interested parties, against which actual outcomes can be measured<div>Helps with planning and forecasting to inform decision making</div><div>Motivates budget holders due to increased responsibility</div>
Describe what the sales/income budget isA target set for the amount of sales revenue to be achieved in a set time period<div>Informed by market research and sales forecasts</div><div>Informs predicted cash inflows in the cash flow forecast</div>
Describe what the cost/expenditure budget isA limit placed on the amount to be spent in a given period of time<div>Informs predicted cash outflows in the cash flow forecast</div><div>Allows for monitoring of underspending as well as overspending</div>
Describe what a profit budget isA target set for the surplus between income and expenditure in a given period of time<div>Calculated based upon the income and expenditure budget</div><div>Informs decision making on products to include in the business product portfolio and where cuts may need to be made</div>
What are the 2 ways to set a budget?Historical budgeting<div>Zero budgeting</div>
What is zero budgeting?Setting all future budgets to £0, to force manager to have to justify the spending levels they say they need in future
What is historical budgeting?When the budget is based on previous year's budgets
Advantage of historical budgetingUses last year's figure as the basis for the budget, therefore it is realistic as it is based on actual results
Disadvantage of historical budgetingCircumstances facing the business may have changed therefore last year's budget is not accurate
Advantages of zero budgetingForces managers to justify every £ they ask for and helps to avoid budgets creeping upwards each year<div>Budgets tend to be more realistic</div>
Disadvantages of zero budgetingMakes budgeting more complicated and time consuming
What are limitations and problems of using budgets?They are only as good as the data being used to create them - inaccurate or unrealistic assumptions can quickly make a budget unrealistic<div>Can lead to inflexibility in decision making if managers are too scared to make changes in case it impacts negatively on the budgets</div><div>A budget must be changed as circumstances change</div><div>Can take significant time to prepare</div><div>They can be a source of stress if the budget becomes impossible to achieve due to circumstances outside of a manager's control</div>
How can a budget be used to measure performance?By comparing the budget amount to the actual amount achieved - any difference is known as a variance
How do you calculate variance?Variance = actual - budget
What is an adverse variance?A difference between budgeted and actual figures that is damaging to the firm's profit (bad for the business)
What is a favourable variance?A difference between budgeted and actual figures that boosts a firm's profit (good for the business)
Give examples of when adverse variance would occurExpenditure higher than budget<div>Income lower than budget</div><div>Profit lower than budget</div>
Give examples of when favourable variance would occurExpenditure lower than budget<div>Income higher than budget</div><div>Profit higher than budget</div>
What are some possible causes of variance?Action of competitors<div>Action of suppliers</div><div>Changes in the economy</div><div>Internal inefficiency</div><div>Internal decision making</div>
Define biodiversityThe variety of species and the range of taxa (species diversity), the variety of alleles within a species (genetic diversity) and the variety of ecosystems (ecosystem diversity) of which organism are a part of
Define biodiversity hotspotAn area with very high biodiversity
Define endemic speciesWhen a species is only found in one geographical location
Define habitatThe place where a species lives
Define speciesA group of organisms with homologous features (similar anatomy, physiology and behaviour), which can interbreed to produce fertile offspring and are reproductively isolated from other species in time, place or behaviour
Define species richnessThe number of different species present in a habitat at any one time
Define species evenessThe number of individuals/organisms (population size) of each species in a habitat
What are the 4 ways that biodiversity can be measured?Measure species richness<div>Measure the number of individuals in a species (population size/abundance) to assess species evenness</div><div>Calculate a diversity index</div><div>Measure genetic diversity</div>
How do you measure species richness?Count the number of species in a given area<div>The higher the number, the greater the biodiversity</div>
How do you measure the number of individuals in a species (population size/abundance)?Count the number of individuals of each species (to assess species evenness)
What is genetic diversity?The number of different alleles present in a population/gene pool of a species
How do you measure genetic diversity?Carry out DNA profiling and calculate a heterozygosity index<div>The higher the value of H, the higher the biodiversity</div>
How can biodiversity be compared in different habitats?By using a diversity index
How do you calculate the diversity index?D = N(N-1) /&nbsp;Σn(n-1)<div>N is the total number of organisms of all species</div><div>n is the total number of organisms of one particular species</div><div>The higher the value of D, the higher the biodiversity<br></div>
Why it is important to conserve rare and endangered plants?Risk of extinction<div>Conservation of biodiversity</div><div>For aesthetic reasons</div><div>Plants may be useful e.g. as medicine</div><div>Other species depend on them as a food source or habitat</div>
What happens as plants die?Organic matter/humus is released so soil is able to hold water and mineral ions
Briefly describe successionLichens and mosses as pioneer community are able to grow in little/no soil<div>They break up rock fragments and form thin/shallow soil</div><div>Plants with small/shallow roots are able to grow in thin/shallow soil</div><div>Changes in soil structure enables trees and shrubs to grow</div>
Define habitatThe place where a species/organism lives<div>Has a particular set of conditions which supports a distinctive combination of organisms</div>
Define ecosystemAll the organisms living in a particular area as well as the non-living features of their environment
Define competitionThe struggle between two organisms for the same limited resources within the environment
Define nicheThe role of a species/organism in its habitat/community/ecosystem
What are examples of niches that an organism could have?Be a producer which converts light energy to chemical energy which can be passed along a food chain<div>Be a decomposer which breaks down organic matter, recycling nutrients</div><div>Be a food source for another animal/herbivore/carnivore</div><div>Provide shelter/protection for other organisms that live in it</div><div>Be a pollinator which transfers pollen between flowers</div>
What happens if two organisms occupy the same niche?Two organisms cannot occupy the same niche<div>If two organisms compete for a niche, the organism which is better adapted will outcompete the other</div>
What is adaptation?Adaptation is when organisms have specialised features that increase their chance of survival and reproduction in the environment in which they live. This means they can then pass alleles for these advantageous characteristics on to their offspring in the next generation
What are the 3 types of adaptations?Behavioural<div>Physiological</div><div>Anatomical</div>
Describe and give an example of behavioural adaptationHow an organism acts to increase its chance of survival or reproduction<div>Example: wolves hunting in packs</div>
Describe and give an example of physiological adaptationProcesses inside an organism that increase its chance of survival or reproduction<div>Example: venom made by a snake</div>
Describe and give an example of anatomical adaptationStructural features of an organism that increase its chance of survival or reproduction<div>Example: white coloured fur of a polar bear</div>
What is co-adaptation?When two different species evolve together in tandem and become dependent on each other, making them more closely adapted
What is the statement of comprehensive income used for?To show the income and expenditure of the business for a period of time (usually one year)<div>To calculate the profit made by the business</div>
Which businesses are legally required to produce the statement of comprehensive income at least once a year?Public limited companies
What is revenue/turnover/sales?Money received from selling goods and services
What is cost of sales?Refers to the production costs of a business, this means the direct costs such as raw materials (stock) and labour
How do you calculate gross profit?Gross profit = revenue - cost of sales
What are selling &amp; administrative expenses/overheads?The indirect costs of the business (fixed costs)
How do you calculate operating profit?Operating profit = gross profit - expenses
What are finance costs/interest?The interest paid to lenders or interest received on bank accounts held in the business' name
What is tax?Corporation tax paid by the business on the profit it has made
How do you calculate profit for the year (net profit)?Net profit = operating profit +/- interest - tax
What is profit for the year (net profit)?Profit after interest has been added/taken off and tax has been paid<div>This profit can be distributed to the shareholders of the business in the form of dividends and retained by the business</div>
What does profitability measure?The financial performance of a business by comparing profit as a percentage of revenue
How do you calculate gross profit margin?Gross profit margin = gross profit / sales revenue x 100
How do you calculate operating profit margin?Operating profit margin = operating profit / sales revenue x 100
How do you calculate profit for the year margin?Profit for the year margin = profit for the year / sales revenue x 100
Put the statement of comprehensive income in orderRevenue<div>Cost of sales</div><div>Gross profit</div><div>Expenses</div><div>Operating profit</div><div>Interest and taxation</div><div>Profit for the year</div>
How can a business increase profit?Increase revenue and decrease costs
How can a business increase revenue?By considering its marketing mix<div>Changes to the product may make it more appealing to customers</div><div>Better distribution may make it more available</div><div>Changes to promotion may make customers more aware of the product</div>
How can a business reduce costs?By looking for ways of making the product more efficiently e.g. with better technology, by using fewer inputs and reducing waste or paying less for the inputs being used by switching suppliers possibly
What is a disadvantage of reducing costs?The quality may reduce which might lead to a fall in sales and revenue<div>Therefore manager must weigh up the consequence of any decision to reduce costs</div>
How can a business increase profit margins?Increase price and cut costs
What is an advantage and disadvantage of increasing prices to increase profit margins?It would boost the profit per sale but the sales overall may fall so much that the overall profits of the business are reduced
What will the impact of any price increases depend on?Price elasticity of demand - a way of measuring how sharply demand changes when the price of a product is changed<div>The more price elastic demand is, the greater fall in demand will be and the less likely it is that a firm will want to put up its prices</div><div>On the other hand, a price elastic demand may mean it is worth cutting prices because although less profit may be made per item (lower profit margin) the overall profits may increase due to the boost in sales</div>
How can costs be cut to get high profits per sale?By bargaining to get the supply prices down or by finding better ways of producing
What does a business need to be careful with when reducing costs?That it does not lead to a deterioration of the service or quality of the product, as this may damage sales
What are the 2 main ways in which net cash flow differs from net profit?Timing differences<div>The way that fixed assets are accounted for</div>
How do timing differences make net cash flow differ from net profit?A business may not receive cash straight away from a customer and it may also delay payment for its costs
How does the way that fixed assets are accounted for make net cash flow differ from net profit?Fixed assets are assets that a business means to keep<div>They are treated as capital expenditure in the financial statements, which means that the cost of those assets are not treated as an operating cost</div><div>Payment for fixed asset = cash outflow</div><div>Cost of fixed asset = treated as an asset not a cost</div><div>Depreciation is charged as a cost when the value of fixed assets is reduced</div>
What is a statement of financial position also known as?Balance sheet
What is a balance sheet?A snapshot of what a business owns and owes on a particular date
What can a balance sheet be used to assess?A business' overall worth
What does a balance sheet list?The resources that a business owns (its assets) and the amounts it owes (its liabilities)<div>Also includes the capital provided by owners, who in the case of a limited company will be shareholders</div>
How do shareholders provide capital?By the purchase of shares or by their agreement to allow the company to retain profit in the business rather than pay it out as dividends (known as reserves and retained earning)
Why is capital or total equity (share capital + reserves) treated as a liability on the balance sheet?Because it is owed to the shareholders
What happens if a business stops trading?It goes into liquidation<div>Shareholders receive the value of the company's assets after the liabilities have been paid in full to its creators</div>
What are assets?What a business owns
What are liabilities?What a business owes
What are non-current assets (fixed assets)?Items that are purchased and kept usually for more than one year<div>They wear out (depreciate)</div><div>Examples: machinery, vehicles and buildings</div>
What are current assets?Items which are easily turned into cash within one year<div>Examples: inventories (stock), trade and other receivables (debtors - customers who owe the business money) and cash</div>
What are non-current liabilities (long term liabilities)?Loans not due for payment for more than one year<div>Examples: mortgage, long term loan, debentures</div>
What are current liabilities?Debts that need to be repaid within a short period of time, usually within one year<div>Examples: trade and other payables (other businesses you have bought stock from), bank overdraft, unpaid taxes, dividends due for payment</div>
How are net assets calculated?Net assets = (non-current assets + current assets) - current liabilities - non-current liabilities
How are liabilities usually shown?In brackets as they are a liability and are owed
What are net assets equal to?Net assets = total equity
What does shareholders' equity provide a summary of?What is owed to the owners of the company - the shareholders
What are funds provided by the shareholders known as and how are they provided?Share capital - provided through purchase of shares
What are retained earnings &amp; reserves?Retained profit that has been kept back for the company to use as a source of funds<div>It is still owed to the shareholders therefore it is a liability</div>
How is total equity calculated?Total equity = share capital + reserves and retained earnings
Put the balance sheet into order"<div>Non-current assets</div><div>Current assets</div><div>Total current assets</div><div>Total assets</div><div>Current liabilities</div><div>Total current liabilities</div><div>Non-current liabilities</div><div>Net assets</div><div>Shareholder's equity (s<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">hare capital and</span><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">&nbsp;reserves &amp; retained earnings)</span></div><div>Total equity</div>"
What does liquidity measure?Whether a business has enough current assets to pay its short-term debts (immediate bills)
What are the 2 ratios which are used to work out a business' liquidity?Current ratio<div>Acid test ratio</div>
How is current ratio calculated?Current ratio = current assets / current liabilities
How is acid test ratio calculated?Acid test ratio = (current assets - inventories) / current liabilities
What should the current ratio value be?Between 1.5:1 and 2:1
What should the acid test ratio value be?Between 0.75:1 and 1:1
What is the most illiquid current asset?Inventories because they take the longest time to turn into cash
How can a business improve liquidity?Selling under used non-current assets<div>Raising more share capital</div><div>Increasing long-term borrowings</div>
Define working capitalThe finance available for the day to day running of the business<div>A business' working capital is the amount left over after all current debts (liabilities) have been paid</div>
What is expenditure on non-current assets known as and how is it funded?Capital expenditure<div>Funded by selling sales, taking out a loan or using retained profit</div>
How is working capital calculated?Working capital = current assets - current liabilities
What is working capital needed by the business for?To pay suppliers and other creditors<div>To pay employees</div><div>To pay for stock</div><div>To allow for customers who are allowed to buy now, but pay later</div>
What happens if a business allows working capital to get too low?Banks may not lend further funds for fear that the business is about to fail
How can a business improve working capital and liquidity?Keep stock levels to a minimum (use just in time stock control)<div>Keep customer credit as low as possible by reducing the number of days customers have to settle their invoices</div><div>Use suppliers that give long credit periods</div><div>Give incentives to customers to pay in cash or take a deposit on orders</div><div>Introduce fresh capital by selling shares or small business owners putting more capital in</div>
How can a business improve cash flow?Increase the overdraft limit<div>Take out a short term loan</div><div>Reduce stock levels</div><div>Delay payments to suppliers</div>
Why must a business actively manage working capital?Because it is the timing of cash flows which can be vital to the success of the business<div>Just because a business is making a profit does not necessarily mean that there is cash coming into and out of the business</div>
Why is managing working capital often referred to as a cycle?Because it centers around two important aspects:<div>Ensuring the business has enough finance at the start and during growth periods to meet its needs</div><div>To keep cash moving rapidly through the cycle, so there is enough to meet future orders, at times a business will need to have access to an overdraft when working capital is not sufficient</div>
What must a business do if it is experiencing liquidity problems?Raise currents assets<div>Reduce current liabilities
What must a business do if it is experiencing cash flow problems?Switch to survival rather than profit maximisation<div>Focus on cutting costs and improving cash</div>
Define evolutionA change in allele frequency in a population over time (generations)
Define allele frequencyThe relative frequency with which an allele is found in a population
Define selection pressureA change in the environment that can affect the organism's ability to survive in a given environment
Define struggle for existenceCompetition between members of a species of resources for survival and reproduction
Why is there genetic variation in the population?Due to a random mutation
What does a change in the environment provide?A selection pressure
Which individuals have an advantageous characteristic in the changed environment?Individuals who possess an advantageous allele which may have resulted from a mutation
What are individuals with the advantageous allele more likely to do and why?Survive to adulthood and breed, passing on the advantageous allele to their offspring - they have a selective advantage
What does the increase in the advantageous allele frequency in the population lead to?A change in allele frequency over generations indicates evolution<div>This can allow a species to become better adapted to the environment</div>
Describe the process of natural selection1. There is genetic variation in a population - often due to a random mutation<div>2. A change in the environment provides a selection pressure</div><div>3. Some individuals possess an advantageous allele which may have resulted from a mutation, which gives them an advantageous characteristic in the changed environment</div><div>4. There is competition for survival</div><div>5. Individuals with the advantageous allele have a selective advantage so are more likely to survive to adulthood and breed, passing on the advantageous allele to their offspring</div><div>6. The advantageous allele frequency in the population increases - a change in allele frequency over generations indicates evolution</div><div>7. This can allow a species to become better adapted to the environment</div>
How do you calculate the allele frequencies?Frequency of the dominant allele (p) + frequency of the recessive allele (q) = 1<div>p + q = 1</div>
What is the Hardy-Weinberg equation?Frequency of homozygous dominant individuals (p^2) + frequency of heterozygous individuals (2pq) + frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (q^2) = 1<div>p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1</div><div>(Genotype frequency)</div>
What is p?Frequency of the dominant allele
What is q?Frequency of the recessive allele
What is p^2?Frequency of homozygous dominant individuals
What is 2pq?Frequency of heterozygous individuals
What is q^2?Frequency of homozygous recessive individuals
When does the Hardy-Weinberg principle state that allele frequencies do not change from one generation to the next?The population size is large enough for genetic drift to not occur<div>Mating is random</div><div>There is no gene flow (which can result from immigration or emigration) - the population is isolated</div><div>No mutations/mutation are rare</div><div>No natural selection</div><div>(If any of these conditions are not met, a change in allele frequencies can occur)</div>
What can the Hardy-Weinberg equation be used to see?Whether there has been a change in allele frequencies over time<div>This can be done by comparing the allele frequencies at two points in time - if they have changed, this indicates that evolution has occurred</div>
Describe the method of using the Hardy-Weinberg equation1. Calculate the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals in the population (q^2) - divide the number of individuals with that genotype by the total number of individuals in the population<div>2. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele (q) - square root of q^2</div><div>3. Calculate the frequency of the dominant allele (p) - 1 - q</div><div>4. Calculate the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals (p^2) - p x p</div><div>5. Calculate the frequency of heterozygous individuals (2pq) - 2 x p x q</div>
What is insolvency?Failure to survive
Define business failureFailure to continue trading under existing ownership and/or financial structure
What is the difference between internal and external causes of business failure?Internal causes are within the business's control whereas external causes are outside the business's control
What are some internal causes of business failure?Cash flow problems (including high gearing)<div>Failure to reach break-even level of output</div><div>Ineffective marketing</div><div>Inefficiency</div><div>Failure to innovate</div><div>Poor management/business decisions &amp; strategy</div>
What are some external causes of business failure?Economic shocks<div>Increased competition/new entrant</div><div>Sudden change in legislation and/or regulation</div><div>Longer term social change</div>
What are some financial causes of business failure?Cash flow management<div>Failure to reach break-even output (making losses)</div><div>External shocks (drop in demand)</div>
What are some non-financial causes of business failure?Poor management<div>Inefficiency (operations)</div><div>Ineffective marketing</div>
What are internal financial causes of business failure?Cash flow problems<div>High cost of sales</div>
What are external financial causes of business failure?High interest rate<div>Increased raw material prices</div>
What are internal non-financial causes of business failure?Poor management<div>Demotivated workforce</div>
What are external non-financial causes of business failure?Bad publicity<div>Consumer preferences</div>
What is the income statement?Measures the business' performance (income, costs and profit) over a given period of time, usually a year
What is the balance sheet?A snapshot of the business' assets (what it owns or is owed) and its liabilities (what it owes) on a particular day
Put the income statement into orderRevenue<div>Cost of sales</div><div>Gross profit</div><div>Operating expenses</div><div>Operating profit</div><div>Tax</div><div>Profit for the year (net profit)</div>
Put the balance sheet into orderNon-current assets<div>Current assets</div><div>Total assets</div><div>Current liabilities</div><div>Non-current liabilities</div><div>Total liabilities</div><div>Net assets</div><div>Shareholders equity</div><div>Total equity</div>
What is total equity equal to?Net assets
What comes under non-current assets?Intangible assets<div>Property and equipment</div><div>Land and buildings</div><div>Vehicles</div><div>Machinery</div>
What comes under current assets?Inventories<div>Trade and other receivables</div><div>Cash and cash equivalents</div>
What comes under current liabilities?Trade and other payables<div>Borrowings</div><div>Current tax liabilities</div><div>Overdraft</div>
What comes under non-current liabilities?Borrowings<div>Pensions</div><div>Payments due in over a year</div>
What comes under shareholders equity?Share capital<div>Other reserves</div><div>Retained earnings</div>
Who is interested in the income statement?Shareholders<div>Competitors</div><div>Government</div><div>Employees</div>
Who is interested in the statement of financial position?Creditors<div>Banks &amp; other lenders</div><div>Employees</div>
What are shareholders interested about in the income statement?How much profit is our business making?<div>How much profit can be distributed to us in dividends?</div>
What are competitors interested about in the income statement?What is the profit and profitability?<div>Is the business more efficient and does it add more value?</div>
What are the government interested about in the income statement?How much tax should this business pay on its profits
What are employees interested about in the income statement?How secure is the business in terms of profit or loss<div>If bonuses are based on profit, has it been achieved?</div>
What are creditors interested about in the statement of financial position?What is the liquidity position of the business?<div>Is the business able to pay its debts as they fall due?</div>
What are banks &amp; other lenders interested about in the statement of financial position?How much debt does the business have (gearing)?<div>Is it able to finance its debt?</div><div>What cash and other liquid balances does it have?</div>
What are employees interested about in the statement of financial position?Is the business solvent?<div>Does the business have a suitably strong liquidity position?</div>
What is the formula for the gross profit margin?Gross profit / sales revenue x 100
What is the formula for the operating profit margin?Operating profit / sales revenue x 100
What is the formula for the profit for the year margin?Profit for the year / sales revenue x 100
What is the formula for the current ratio?Current assets / current liabilities
What is the benchmark ratio for the current ratio?1.5:1 - 2:1
What is the benchmark ratio for the acid test ratio?0.75:1 - 1:1
What is the formula for the acid test ratio?Current assets - inventories / current liabilities
What is the formula for gearing?Non-current liabilities / capital employed x 100
What is the percentage for being high geared?Higher than 50%
What is the percentage for being low geared?Lower than 50%
What is the formula for ROCE?Operating profit / capital employed x 100
What does ROCE stand for?Return on capital employed
What is capital employed?Total equity + non current liabilities
What does gearing measure?The proportion of a business' financial capital provided by debt
What is the gearing ratio used to show?The relationship between loans on which interest is paid and shareholders' equity on which dividends might be paid
What does the capital of a business represent?The finance provided to it to enable it to operate over the long-term
What are the two parts to the capital structure?Equity and debt
What is equity?Amounts invested by the owners of the business:<div>Share capital</div><div>Retained profits</div>
What is debt?Finance provided to the business by external parties:<div>Bank loans</div><div>Other long-term debt</div>
What does it mean if a business has high gearing?There is a higher proportion of long term finance in loans than share capital<div>This can be risky as interest payments may rise if interest rates rise</div>
What does it mean if a business has low gearing?There is a higher proportion of long term finance from share capital than long term loans<div>This is seen as less risky</div>
What are the benefits of high gearing?Less reliance on shareholders to provide share capital<div>Debt can be a relatively cheap source of finance compared with dividends when interest rates are low</div><div>Easy to pay interest if profits and cash flows are strong</div>
What are the benefits of low gearing?"Less risk of defaulting on debts<div>Shareholders rather than debt providers (banks) ""call the shots""</div><div>Business has the capacity to add debt if required (take out a loan)</div>"
What type of ratio is ROCE?A profitability ratio
What is ROCE used for?To compare the operating profit with the amount of financial capital invested in the business
Describe how to interpret ROCEFor every £1 in capital employed, the business is making x pence in operating profit<div>The higher the ratio the better</div><div>ROCE will vary between industries, therefore must compare ROCE with businesses in the same industry</div><div>ROCE is often compared with bank savings account interest rates (opportunity cost) however shareholders would want to see a higher return from money invested in shares due to the risk involved compared to a bank savings account</div>
What don't ratios tell us?Competitive advantage/brand value<div>Quality</div><div>Ethical reputation</div><div>Future prospects</div><div>Changes in the external environment (economic threats)</div>
What are limitations of ratio analysis?Inaccurate unless comparisons are made with firms who are very similar (same size, same products and in the same industry)<div>Must compare ratios over a number of years (at least 2 years)</div><div>The data used is from the past, analysis does not predict the future</div><div>Ratios based on the balance sheet may be inaccurate as the balance sheet is a 'snap shot' of one day's assets and liabilities. The liquidity position is likely to change dramatically at different times of the year due to seasonality, trends and other external influences</div>
What is criminological psychology?Criminological psychology refers to the application of psychological knowledge to understand crime and anti-social behaviour
What is crime?An act (or omission of an act) that is against the law<div>Also implies punishment - or at least some treatment (probation) to reduce the likelihood of them returning to crime</div>
What happens when individuals fail to respond to punishment and reoffend?Persistent reoffending - recidivism
What is anti-social behaviour?Acting in a manner that caused or was likely to cause harassment, alarm or distress<div>Behaviour that affects other people negatively</div>
What are CBOs?Criminal Behaviour Orders<div>Used for behaviour that might cause harassment, distress or alarm to others</div><div>They deal with apparently minor incidents which would not ordinarily lead to criminal prosecution, illustrating how close anti-social behaviour is to criminal activity</div><div>Anyone over the age of 10 can receive a CBO and if someone has one it can prohibit them from going into certain areas such as town centres and shopping centres</div><div>A breach in a CBO can result in a fine or in some cases a stint in prison</div>
What are examples of behaving anti-socially?Being drunk and disorderly<div>Threatening behaviour</div><div>Playing loud music at night</div><div>Taking drugs</div>
Who carries out more criminal and anti-social behaviour; males or females?Males
What did the 'Statistics on Women in The Criminal Justice System' (2013) published by the Ministry of Justice in the UK find?Approximately 80% of all offenders are male whilst 20% are female
Describe the issues &amp; debates relating to genderPrevalence of data regarding male offending as they represent the highest proportion of convicted criminals in the UK<div>Explanations of offending are often geared towards males e.g. elevated levels of testosterone or XYY syndrome however these explanations don't account for why females offend</div><div>Structured treatment programmes have been designed with men in mind and may not reflect the needs of female offenders</div><div>Less is known about the factors influencing female offenders &amp; how to address these treatment needs</div>
Describe the male age crime curveMale criminal behaviour mostly occurs between the ages of 14-25, peaking at 17<div>This pattern is repeated internationally</div><div>Males commit more criminal acts than females</div>
Describe biological explanations of gender differences in criminal behaviourTestosterone - has been linked to aggressive and violent behaviour, generally men have higher levels of testosterone than females<div>Evolution - males have evolved to be violent risk takes; females to be carers</div>
Describe social explanations of gender differences in criminal behaviourSocial learning theory (Bandura et al. 1961) - showed children are more likely to imitate same sex role models and gender appropriate behaviour therefore boys are more likely than girls copy aggressive/criminal male role models
What are the areas of interest within criminological psychology?<div>What causes an individual to commit crime</div><div>How a crime is analysed and how a case is put together</div><div>Behaviour in the courtroom with particular reference to juries and witnesses</div><div>Developing treatment options for offenders in order to reduce the chances of a crime occurring again<br></div>
Can the Hardy-Weinberg equation be used when there are 2 or more alleles for a gene?No
Define gene poolAll the alleles of all the genes present in a population of a species
How do you calculate the heterozygosity index?Number of heterozygotes / number of individuals in the population
What are the 4 methods of production?Job production<div>Batch production</div><div>Flow production</div><div>Cell production</div>
What does job production involve?The production of a single product at a time
Describe the key features of job productionOne-off or small number of items produced<div>Normally made to customers specifications e.g. wedding cake</div><div>Often undertaken by small, specialist businesses</div>
Advantages of job productionQuality is high because workers are skilled<div>Workers are well motivated because work is varied</div><div>Products can be custom made</div><div>Production is easy to organise</div>
Disadvantages of job productionHigh labour costs due to skilled workers<div>Production may be slow - long lead times</div><div>A wide range of specialist tools may be needed</div><div>Generally an expensive method of production</div>
What does batch production involve?Completing one operation at a time on all units before performing the next
Describe the key features of batch productionSimilar items are produced together<div>Each batch goes through one stage of production process before moving onto next stage</div><div>The products made in each batch are identical but there can be variations between batches</div><div>Production can be done using machinery which lowers unit cost and finished off by hand</div>
What are the aims of batch production?Concentrate skills<div>Achieve better use of equipment and so produce good quality products more economically than manufacturing them individually</div>
Advantages of batch productionWorkers are likely to specialise in one process<div>Unit costs are lower because output is higher</div><div>Production is flexible since different orders can be met</div><div>More use of machinery is made</div>
Disadvantages of batch productionMore complex machinery may be needed<div>Careful planning and co-ordination is needed</div><div>Less motivation because workers specialise</div><div>If batches are small costs will be high</div><div>Money may be tied up in work-in-progress</div>
What is flow production also known as?Mass production
Describe the key features of flow productionAssociated with making high volumes of the same product<div>Products tend to be standardised (all the same)</div><div>Product moves continuously through production process</div><div>When one task is finished the next task must start immediately</div><div>Time taken on each task must be the same</div><div>Production process uses large amounts of machinery and specialist equipment meaning less need for human labour which lowers unit costs</div>
Advantages of flow productionVery low unit costs due to economies of scale<div>Output can be produced very quickly</div><div>Modern plant and machines can allow some flexibility</div><div>Production speed can vary according to demand</div>
Disadvantages of flow productionProducts may be too standardised<div>Huge set up costs before production</div><div>Worker motivation can be very low - repetitive tasks</div><div>Breaks in production can be very expensive</div>
What does cell production involve?Producing a family of products in a small self-contained unit (a cell) within a factory
Describe the key features of cell productionWork is organised into teams who work together in a cell<div>Each cell is given responsibility of doing a part of production process as product moves through assembly line</div><div>Cell production often leads to improved productivity due to increased motivation (team spirit and added responsibility) and specialisation</div>
Advantages of cell productionLess floor space used because cells use less space than a production line<div>Product flexibility is improved meaning a degree of personalisation can be achieved which results in higher added value</div><div>More motivated workforce as team work is used</div>
Disadvantage of cell productionHigh level of training is required to ensure the cells are able to perform more specialised tasks
What factors does choosing the right method of production depend on?Target market - do customers demand product options?<div>Technology - can some or all production be automated?</div><div>Resources - does the business have finance &amp; people to be able to use flow production?</div><div>Standards - what quality is required?</div>
What are the 3 approaches to assessing how efficiently a business operates?Productivity<div>Unit costs</div><div>Non-productive 'idle' resources</div>
What are some examples of non-productive 'idle' resources?When employees are often left with nothing to do<div>When machines are only used for part of available times</div>
What is too many idle resources a common sign of?Inefficiency in production
Define productivityOutput in relation to units of input in a given time period
Which factors influence productivity of machinery?Age of machinery and maintenance<div>Training of operatives</div><div>Quality of inputs</div><div>Hours used v.s. down time</div><div>Efficiency of programming</div><div>Unforeseen events e.g. power cuts</div>
What does labour productivity measure?Output per worker
How is labour productivity measured?Labour productivity = total output / number of employees
What factors is labour productivity influenced by?Training and skills of the workforce<div>Motivation</div><div>Complexity of the product</div>
What does increasing labour productivity do to costs?Lowers labour cost per unit and hence unit cost
How can labour productivity be increased?Training<div>Increasing motivation</div><div>Implement new technology</div><div>Better working practises</div><div>Improved recruitment and selection</div>
What are the difficulties in increasing labour productivity?Stress and demotivation<div>May impact negatively on quality and customer satisfaction which may damage long term reputation and increase waste, effecting unit cost</div><div>Employees may feel exploited as working harder for the same pay, may work with unions to negotiate higher wages</div>
What does operational efficiency involve?Maximising the output achieved from given inputs including machinery, materials and people<div>Making the best possible use of all a business's resources for the lowest cost</div>
How can efficiency be improved?Increasing labour productivity<div>Using technology</div><div>Choosing the optimal resource mix, labour v.s. capital intensive</div>
What does operations management involve?Combining the four factors of production or resource inputs: land, labour, capital, enterprise<div>Firms will attempt to minimise the cost of using these resources whilst maximising the quality of the product and the customer service</div><div>The optimal resource mix is the best way of combining the factors of production in order to meet these requirements within financial constraints</div>
What are unit costs a key indicator of?Efficiency and productivity
What are unit costs crucial for to a business?The profitability and competitiveness
What does unit cost measure?The average cost per unit produced, as measured over a particular time period
When will unit costs vary?Over time and as the scale of a business' operation changes<div>Unit costs are particularly sensitive to the effect of significant operational scale and to the relationship between fixed and variable costs</div>
Is efficiency and productivity the same thing?No<div>Productivity is output per worker and it ignores problems such as waste</div><div>An efficient worker is one who produced as much as possible for the least cost</div><div>The most efficient production level is the one at which total unit costs are as low as possible</div>
How is unit cost calculated?Unit cost = total production costs in period (£) / total output in period (units)
Define economies of scaleThe effect of unit costs falling as output rises
Where does internal economies of scale arise from?The growth of the business itself
What are examples of internal economies of scale?Technical economies of scale<div>Specialisation of the workforce</div><div>Marketing economies of scale</div><div>Managerial economies of scale</div>
Describe what technical economies of scale isLarge-scale businesses can afford to invest in expensive and specialist capital machinery
Describe what specialisation of the workforce isLarger businesses split complex production processes into separate tasks to boost productivity<div>By specialising in certain tasks or processes, the workforce is able to produce more output in the same time</div>
Describe what marketing economies of scale isA large business can spread its advertising and marketing budget over a large output and it can purchase its inputs in bulk at negotiated discounted prices if it has sufficient negotiation in the market
Describe what managerial economies of scale isLarge-scale manufacturers employ specialists to supervise production systems, manage marketing systems and oversee human resources
Where do external economies of scale occur?Within an industry
What are examples of external economies of scale?Development of research and development facilities in local universities that several businesses in an area can benefit from<div>Spending by a local authority on improving the transport network for a local town or city</div><div>Relocation of component suppliers and other businesses close to the main centre of manufacturing are also an external cost saving</div>
What is the difference between labour-intensive and capital-intensive businesses?A labour-intensive business has a relatively high proportion of its costs related to the employment of people<div>A capital-intensive business has relatively low labour costs, but high costs arising from the extensive use of equipment</div>
What are the key implications for unit costs of labour intensity?Labour costs are higher than capital costs<div>Costs are mainly variable = lower breakeven output</div><div>Firms benefit from access to sources of low-cost labour</div>
What are the key implications for unit costs of capital intensity?Capital costs are higher than labour costs<div>Costs are mainly fixed = higher breakeven output</div><div>Firms benefit from access to low-cost, long-term financing</div>
Benefits of labour intensityUnit costs may still be low in low-wage locations<div>Labour is a flexible resource - through multi-skilling and training</div><div>Labour at the heart of the production process - can help continuous improvement</div>
Benefits of capital intensityGreater opportunities for economies of scale<div>Potential for significantly better productivity</div><div>Better quality &amp; speed (depending on product)</div><div>Lower labour costs</div>
Drawbacks of labour intensityGreater risk of problems with employee/employer relationship<div>Potentially high costs of labour turnover</div><div>Need for continuous investment in training</div>
Drawbacks of capital intensitySignificant investment<div>Potential for loss of competitiveness due to obsolescence</div><div>May generate resistance to change from labour force</div>
Define genetic diversityThe number of different alleles in a population/gene pool and the frequency of different alleles in a particular species
How does genetic diversity arise?Crossing over which takes place in meiosis<div>Independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis</div><div>Random fertilisation</div><div>Mutations which change the DNA base sequences</div>
How can we measure genetic diversity?Can be observed in the external phenotype<div>DNA sequencing can determine which alleles are present</div><div>Gel electrophoresis can be used to produce DNA fragments and a heterozygosity index can be calculated</div>
How is the heterozygosity index calculated?H = number of heterozygotes / number of individuals in the population
Why is genetic diversity important?The more genetically diverse the population is the more likely the population can adapt to changing conditions therefore be able to survive and reproduce<div>E.g. it is more likely that an advantageous allele will exist in the gene pool that could code for a characteristic that gives the organisms a selective advantage in the new environmental conditions</div>
Define speciesA group of closely related individuals with similar morphology, physiology and behaviour that interbreed to produce fertile offspring and are not reproductively isolated by time, place or behaviour
What must there be for speciation to occur?An isolating mechanism
What does an isolating mechanism prevent?Successful interbreeding between populations of a species
What is the prevention of successful interbreeding between populations of a species termed as?Reproductive isolation
What does reproductive isolation prevent?Gene flow between populations of a species
What are the 2 types of speciation?Allopatric and sympatric
Describe what allopatric speciation isWhen populations are geographically isolated which prevents a group of individuals from breeding with each other<div>Over time they will be subject to different selection pressures and accumulate different random mutations</div><div>Allele frequencies in each population will become different</div><div>The two populations become reproductively isolated and there is no gene flow between them</div><div>If the populations meet again they will not be able to interbreed to produce fertile offspring</div>
Describe what sympatric isolation isWhen populations become reproductively isolated without a geographical barrier<div>They become isolated in the same habitat due to another isolating mechanism</div><div>This results in reproductive isolation and there is no gene flow</div>
What types of isolating mechanisms could occur in sympatric speciation?Ecological isolation<div>Temporal isolation</div><div>Behavioural isolation</div><div>Physical incompatibility</div><div>Hybrid inviability</div><div>Hybrid sterility</div>
What is ecological isolation?Individuals occupy different parts of the same habitat e.g. different soil type
What is temporal isolation?Individuals reproduce at different times
What is behavioural isolation?Individuals do not recognise another's courtship behaviour e.g. mating calls, dances, gifts
What is physical incompatibility?There are physical reasons to prevent mating e.g. incompatible genitalia
What is hybrid inviability?Offspring are produced but do not survive to reproductive age
What is hybrid sterility?Offspring survive to reproductive age but are infertile
Define brain injuryAny impact on the brain structure that can affect its functionality
What are the 2 categories of brain injury?Acquired Traumatic Brain Injury (ABI)<div>Non-Traumatic Brain Injury</div>
What is an Acquired Traumatic Brain Injury?Brain injury as a result of an external force such as a blow to the head from an accident
What is a Non-Traumatic Brain Injury?Brain injury that results from illness such as a brain tumour, meningitis or a stroke
What does studying brain injuries enable an understanding of?About what parts of the brain manage cognitions and in turn behaviours
What are the behavioural consequences of brain injury dependent on?The area of the brain injured as different parts of the brain can be linked to different behaviours
What are the functions of the pre-frontal cortex?Higher order decision making<div>Regulation of fight/flight response</div><div>Personality</div><div>Memory</div>
What happens if the pre-frontal cortex is impaired?Poor judgement<div>Poor impulse and aggression control</div><div>Personality changes</div><div>All of these could lead to crime</div>
Describe the case study of Phineas GageFirst documented case of a person who survived an acquired brain injury that affected their behaviour in a negative way<div>Prior to the accident, Phineas was described as a likeable man with an even temperament<br><div>Phineas worked as a railroad construction worker and he was preparing an area where dynamite would be placed to break up the land and when the dynamite had been placed Phineas used the iron tamping rod to push the explosive down, however the dynamite exploded earlier than planned</div></div><div>The explosion resulted in the rod passing through his skull and destroying the majority of his left frontal lobe</div><div>Phineas survived the accident but was left with noticeable changes to his personality e.g. he became more irritable, drinking excessive amounts of alcohol, vulgar and rude</div><div>His behaviour was monitored and these difficulties reduced over time</div>
Describe Williams et al (2010) first studyInvestigated whether there was any link between head injuries and criminal and antisocial behaviour acts<div>60% of 196 prisoners investigated had received some form of brain injury due to falling, car accidents or sporting activities - however, no clear cause and effect link established</div><div>Adults with brain injury were relatively younger at entry into prison systems and reported higher rates of repeat offending than those without brain injury</div><div>Injuries affect development of temperament, social judgement and the ability to control impulses</div><div>Brain injury may also contribute to a greater level of risk taking behaviour, making it more likely an individual may become involved in antisocial activity</div><div>Therefore impairment in areas such as the frontal lobe could contribute towards the development of criminality</div>
Describe Williams et al (2010) second studyTried to see if there was a link between acquired brain injury and crime in youth offenders<div>Interviewed 192 young males in a prison</div><div>65% reported a history of brain injury</div><div>46% of those brain injury losing consciousness for over 10 minutes</div>
What is the link to developmental psychology with William's sutdy?Brain injury impacts negatively on behavioural and psychological development
Describe the applications of Williams' findingsBiological research may lead to new ways to assess criminal culpability and ways to help people who have committed crimes<div>Williams argues that there needs to be an increased awareness of the effects of head injuries throughout the criminal justice system including standard screening of young people when they first offend</div><div>They recommend that neural injury should be treated in the same way as mental health in court and taken into account as part of their sentencing</div><div>They argue that in some cases a more rehabilitative approach might be more appropriate than punishment</div><div>(This application has links with Raine et als. study and shows that biological explanations may come to have an important influence on decision making during criminal trials)</div>
Describe Brower and Price (2001) studyCarried out an extensive review of many case studies that had investigated the link between frontal lobe damage and criminal behaviour<div>Frontal lobe injury is associated with increased impulsive aggression</div><div>However they did not find clear evidence that showed that frontal lobe damage could predict violent crime</div>
What is the link to individual differences with Brower and Price (2001) study?Even when the brain injury is very similar, it is not the case that every individual will experience the same change in behaviour
Describe Grafman et al (1996) studyStudied 279 men that sustained brain injuries whilst fighting in the Vietnam War<div>Used brain scanning techniques</div><div>Those veterans with brain damage to the frontal lobe were more likely to be aggressive, getting into fights and arguments, than those with damage in other areas of the brain</div>
What is an advantage and disadvantage of studies that use brain scanning techniques?Allow researchers to look at the brains of living human beings<div>However, there is often little evidence of whether behaviour of the participants was aggressive before the study</div>
Describe Kreutzer et al (1991) studyStudied 74 brain injury patients<div>Most arrests occurred after the use of alcohol</div><div>Some criminals behaviour might be the result of TBI due to poor judgement</div><div>Alcohol/substance abuse, TBI and crime were interconnected</div><div>But rather than TBI causing crime it was more likely that substance abuse led to legal difficulties and TBI</div>
Describe Kreutzer (1995) studyFurther research concluded that without the presence of alcohol use, TBI was not a risk factor for criminal behaviour
Why are males more prone to head injuries than females?Testosterone - more aggression/fights = higher risk of ABI<div>Evolutionary theory - males have evolved to compete with other males in order to impress females, males may be more likely to get a head injury since they are showing off and risk taking to impress females</div><div>If males are more prone to brain injuries this could be one of the reasons why more males carry out criminal and anti-social behaviour than females</div>
Describe how evolution can be an explanation for gender differences in brain injuryWilson and Daly (1985)<div>Status competition</div><div>Males participate in risky activities such as violence to compete for higher status than other males</div><div>Increasing their chances of winning a high value mate and successfully reproduce</div><div>Such risky behaviour patterns put males more at risk of accidental brain injury</div>
Strengths of brain injury as an explanation of criminal and anti-social behaviourThere is evidence that supports the link between brain injury and violent crime which gives the theory validity<div>Different methodologies have been used to study this and come to similar conclusions about frontal lobe damage and anti-social behaviour, both case studies and studies using brain scans have contributed to this evidence</div><div>Linking TBI to criminal behaviour can have useful applications, as it can help understand the negative impacts of brain injury on behaviour and potentially lead to developing rehabilitation</div>
Weaknesses of brain injury as an explanation of criminal and anti-social behaviourThe relationship between brain injury and crime is not necessarily causal, other variables may have an influence. Individuals who have sustained serious head injury may also experience mental illness, alcohol &amp; drug abuse and it may be these factors that contribute to criminal behaviour<div>Brain scanning studies have shown a link between damage to frontal lobes and aggression, however there was no brain scanning evidence showing these participants brains before the study took place</div><div>Studies that look at brain damage alone for criminal behaviour can often be considered reductionist, as they don't take into account other factors that may affect criminal behaviour, such as being young &amp; male, witnessing family violence, having PTSD. It is hard to pinpoint brain injury alone as a cause for crime</div>
How does individual differences link to brain injury as an explanation of criminal and anti-social behaviour?In case studies of brain damaged patients we might assume that all brains are similar<div>In fact, damage to the brain may be affected by individual differences such as differing levels of neurotransmitters and hormones in an individual and life experiences before and after the damage takes place</div>
What is reductionism?This idea argues that human behaviour can be broken down into its component parts to better understand it
What are benefits and drawbacks of reductionism?It is useful to help isolate variables that can contribute to the cause of a behaviour and it is a characteristic of science<div>However it leads to oversimplification since the brain is very complex and social and environmental factors are overlooked</div>
What is capacity?A measure of how much output a business can achieve in a given period - therefore it is a measure of potential output
Why is capacity important?How capacity is managed has a direct effect on the performance of a business<div>In order for a business to be able to meet demand from customers, it needs to have the capacity to do so, having capacity enables orders to be met and revenues generated</div><div>However, a lack of capacity can have a damaging effect on business performance</div>
What are the key costs of capacity?Equipment e.g. production line<div>Facilities e.g. building rent, insurance</div><div>Labour e.g. wages and salaries of employees involved in production or delivering a service</div>
What does capacity utilisation measure?The extent to which capacity is used during a specific period
How is capacity utilisation calculated?Capacity utilisation = actual output / potential output x 100
Why is capacity utilisation an important concept?Useful measure of productive efficiency since it measures whether there are idle resources in the business<div>Average production costs tend to fall as output rises so higher utilisation can reduce unit costs making a business more competitive</div><div>Businesses usually aim to produce as close to full capacity (100% utilisation) as possible in order to minimise unit costs</div><div>A high level of capacity utilisation is required if a business has a high break-even output due to significant fixed costs of production</div>
What are some reasons why business operate below full capacity?Lower than expected market demand<div>A loss of market share</div><div>Seasonal variations in demand</div><div>Recent increase in capacity</div><div>Maintenance and repair programmes</div>
What do consistently low levels of capacity utilisation lead to?Indicates potentially serious issues especially if production costs are mainly fixed and the business has a high break-even output<div>Results in the business having higher unit costs than other competitors that may result in the business being less competitive</div>
Drawbacks of high capacityLess time for productive equipment and facilities to be maintained and repaired, which may increase the likelihood that they break down in the future<div>Employees involved in production are put under greater stress and pressure which can be counter-productive since they become demotivated and there would be an increase in absenteeism</div><div>Customer service may deteriorate if customers have to wait longer to be served or to receive their product</div><div>A business is less likely to be able to respond to sudden or unexpected increases in demand</div>
How can a business operate at higher than 100% normal capacity if it finds itself with excess demand?Increase workforce hours - extra shifts, encourage overtime, employ temporary staff<div>Sub-contract some production activities e.g. assembly of components</div><div>Reduce time spent maintaining production equipment</div>
How is capacity utilised efficiently with under utilisation?Increase demand<div>Downsize - sell off assets or rationalise the workforce</div><div>Lease off spare capacity</div>
How is capacity utilised efficiently with over utilisation?Reduce demand<div>Outsource parts of the business' operations</div><div>Increase capacity by investing in more resources</div>
What will the actions taken to utilise capacity efficiently depend upon?Business objectives<div>Whether the issue is seen as short term or long term</div><div>Ease with which options could be implemented</div>
Advantages of working at full capacityLower unit costs<div>Efficient use of all resources (employees, machinery, factory/retail space)</div><div>Gives employees a sense of job security to motivated to work harder</div><div>Improved profitability as long as there is demand</div>
Problems of working at full capacityPuts a strain on all resources which can lead to more accidents and breakdowns<div>Might have to turn away new orders</div><div>No time for training or maintenance</div><div>Maintaining quality can be an issue</div>
What should a business do in order to maintain efficiency by maximising capacity utilisation?Use its resources to their full potential even when demand falls
What is spare (excess) capacity?Where actual output is less than capacity
What is excess demand?Where demand for a business' products or services is greater than the business capacity
What is downtime?Any period when machinery is not being used in production<div>Some downtime is necessary for maintenance, but too much suggests incompetence</div>
What is rationalisation?Reorganising in order to increase efficiency<div>This often implies cutting capacity to increase the percentage utilisation</div>
What is subcontracting?Where another business is used to perform or supply certain aspects of a firm's operations
Describe the binomial system of nomenclature for naming speciesMade by Carolus Linnaeus<div>Gave every species a unique two-part Latin name</div><div>The first part of the name indicates the genus and is given an upper-case letter</div><div>The second part of the name indicates the species and is given a lower-case letter</div><div>Both parts of the name should be written in italics</div>
What is taxonomy?The science of classifying living organisms
Name each part of the taxonomic hierarchyKingdom<div>Phylum</div><div>Class</div><div>Order</div><div>Family</div><div>Genus</div><div>Species</div>
What is a taxonomic hierarchy?A series of nested groups (taxa) where organisms share one or more common features and a common ancestor<div>Organisms are first divided into larger groups, then sub-divided into increasingly smaller groups</div>
What happens as you move down the taxonomic hierarchy?More groups at each level<div>Fewer organisms in each group</div><div>More similarities between organisms</div>
How do taxonomists classify living organisms?Organisms are placed into taxonomic groups based on similarities in phenotype (anatomical/homologous features) and similarities in genotype<div>Molecular phylogeny is used to identify similarities in DNA base sequences</div><div>Organisms that have features in common will be placed in the same taxonomic group</div><div>Classification is built around the species concept - organisms which have similar characteristics and DNA and can interbreed to produce fertile offspring are placed in the same species</div>
What are the 5 kingdoms?Animals<div>Plants</div><div>Fungi</div><div>Protists</div><div>Prokaryotes</div>
Describe the animal kingdomMulticellular eukaryotes<div>Heterotrophs - obtain energy as readymade organic molecules by ingesting material from other organisms</div>
Describe the plant kingdomMulticellular eukaryotes<div>Autotrophs - make their own organic molecules by photosynthesis (except a few parasites)</div>
Describe the fungi kingdomMulticellular eukaryotes<div>Heterotrophs - absorb nutrients from decaying matter after external digestion</div>
Describe the protist kingdomEukaryotes that photosynthesise or feed on organic matter from other sources but are not included in other kingdoms<div>Includes single celled protozoa such as Amoeba and Paramecium, and algae</div>
Describe the prokaryote kingdomProkaryotic organisms<div>Includes bacteria and cyanobacteria</div>
What is molecular phylogeny used for?To identify similarities in DNA base sequences
How is classification built around the species concept?Organisms which have similar characteristics and DNA and can interbreed to produce fertile offspring are placed in the same species
What is molecular phylogeny?Using the sequences of DNA or RNA bases, sequence of amino acids in a protein, or other information about molecular structures e.g. cell membranes to analyse evolutionary relationships and group organisms together based on shared/similar features
What is a phylogenetic tree?A diagram that shows the evolutionary relationship between organisms based on molecular differences<div>They show where species shared and branched off from a common ancestor</div>
Name the three domainsEukarya/eukaryota<div>Bacteria</div><div>Archaea</div>
How did Carl Woese come up with the three domains?He sequenced the RNA of bacteria to construct a phylogenetic tree based on molecular phylogeny<div>He found that there were differences between bacteria and the methanogens: different RNA sequences, methanogens had no peptidoglycan in their cell walls and methanogens had different membrane lipids</div><div>He proposed that the methanogens should be placed in a separate group called Archaea</div>
Describe the process of critical evaluationScientists communicate their research to the scientific community by publishing their findings in scientific journals and through scientific conferences<div>Peer review - other scientists critically evaluate the experimental methods and data before publication, by repeating the experiments to check reliability and validity</div>
Who was operant conditioning developed by?B.F Skinner
What research is operant conditioning based upon?Thorndike (1911)
Describe Thorndike (1911) researchInvestigate how behaviour was learnt in a scientific manner<div>Developed a puzzle box with a single exit that could only be opened by a system of levers</div><div>A hungry cat was placed in the box and food was placed just outside</div><div>The cat moved around the box, trying to get out because of the food and whilst moving around the cat accidentally pressed the lever and gradually learned by trial and error how to open the box</div><div>Then the cat could get the food which acted as the reward</div><div>This sort of learning in which the solution is hit upon trial and error and a reward is given so that the behaviour is repeated is called trial and error learning</div><div>Thorndike called this the law of effect - if the effect of the learning (to get out of the box) is good (obtains food) then the behaviour is learnt and repeated</div><div>Learning takes place because of what happens after the action</div>
Describe Skinner's (1938) researchInvestigate how reinforcement could change or shape rats' behaviour<div>If rats carried out a desired behaviour then they would be rewarded with food e.g. the rats had to learn that each time they saw a red light and pressed the lever they were rewarded with a food pellet so the rats learnt over time an association with touching a lever and receiving a food reward - this increased the likelihood of them pressing the lever</div><div>Skinner used an electric shock generator wired to the grid on the floor of the cage to deter the rats from carrying out certain behaviours, the electric shock was used as a punishment - Skinner found that if he punished a behaviour in this way the rat became less likely to repeat it</div><div>From these findings Skinner developed the theory of operant conditioning</div>
What did the Skinner boxes allow Skinner to do?Manipulate the rat's behaviour through reinforcements
What did Skinner believe from his research?That behaviour is shaped by its consequences
Describe the ABC model of operant conditioningAntecedent = the situation/stimulus that triggers a behaviour<div>Behaviour = the response made by the organism</div><div>Consequences = what happens because of the behaviour</div>
What are the two main types of consequences?Reinforcers<div>Punishers</div>
Define reinforcersConsequences from the environment that increase the probability of a behaviour being repeated<div>Reinforcers can be positive or negative</div>
Define punishersConsequences from the environment that decrease the likelihood of a behaviour being repeated
What did Skinner propose that reinforcers do?Encourage the desired behaviour and meet different needs
Define primary reinforcersRewards that are focused on meeting a basic need e.g. food
Define secondary reinforcersRewards that can satisfy a basic need, but it is not in itself a basic need e.g. money
Define reinforcementsEncourage repetition of a desired behaviour
Define positive reinforcementsSomething good is given in response to the behaviour
Define negative reinforcementsSomething bad is taken away in response to the behaviour
How is punishment different from reinforcement?Because it is discouraging behaviour, not encouraging it
Define punishmentsUsed to discourage behaviour
Define positive punishmentsSomething bad is given to stop the unwanted behaviour
Define negative punishmentsSomething good is taken away to stop the unwanted behaviour
Why is punishment usually not recommended as an effective method to manage behaviour?It does not promote or give information about the desired behaviour, it only stops undesired behaviour
What is the main essence of the operant conditioning theory?Behaviour is learnt through positive and negative reinforcements
How does operant conditioning account for individual differences?Skinner suggested that positive and negative reinforcements occur in an individual's environment<div>Because everyone's environment is different, individual differences are taken into account</div>
How does operant conditioning link to determinism?Skinner suggested that individuals are not in control of their environment and upbringing<div>Skinner proposed that the concept of freewill was an illusion: all behaviour is a consequence of learning from the environment which an individual does not have control over</div>
How does operant conditioning link with social control?Learning theories are based on deterministic principles which believe that all behaviour can be shaped by environmental forces<div>Therefore human behaviour can be manipulated and is subject to social control e.g. by using reinforcements</div>
How did B.F Skinner develop Thorndike's concept of behaviour being learnt through trial and error?Skinner wanted to continue researching how behaviour could be acquired in a scientific manner so he used animals in laboratory experiments<div>In his experiments using rats he developed an environment for the rats to live in (Skinner box) and experience positive and negative reinforcements</div>
Why did Skinner focus on manipulating the rats' behaviour when they were hungry?Because a primary need for all animals is to eat to survive<div>Therefore the Skinner box was used to deliver positive and negative reinforcements associated with eating</div>
What happened as the rats spent time in their environments?They started to learn different aspects about it and how they were rewarded and punished
Define a token economyA treatment method that provides secondary reinforcement for a desirable behaviour that can be saved up or exchanged for a primary reinforcer
What is the main aim of token economies?To encourage desired behaviour through a system of reward, and reduce undesired behaviour through withdrawal of rewards or privileges (punishment)
Which institutions have token economies been used in?Schools and prisons
EVIDENCE &amp; METHODOLOGY - supporting&nbsp;Empiricism - only directly observable behaviour was studied by Skinner, data gathered was quantitative and this provides objective statistical evidence to confirm how behaviour is learnt, Skinner's research was carried out in laboratory settings with a high level of controls e.g. the use of the Skinner box allowed for careful manipulation of reward and punishments to be given in a controlled environment to manipulate behaviour which allowed Skinner to establish cause and effect links between reinforcers and behaviour, therefore the accuracy of Skinner's data is high which increases the internal validity of the research underpinning the theory, providing it with credibility<div>Falsifiable - the concepts of the theory e.g. reinforcement and punishment are clearly defined allowing testable predictions to be made</div><div>Reliable - the Skinner box allowed for standardised procedures which enabled Skinner to replicate his research and test whether behaviour is learnt through positive and negative reinforcers repeatedly with many different rats and pigeons which confirmed the consistency of his findings</div>
APPLICATION - strengthCan provide an explanation for how a variety of different behaviours are learnt, such as addiction to drugs and therefore how behaviour can be changed through reinforcements<div>Useful in the education and criminal justice system and in treatments for dysfunctional behaviours</div><div>E.g. operant conditioning is used widely in schools in form of token economy systems</div><div>Paul and Lentz (1977) showed the benefits of token economy systems for the treatment of patients with schizophrenia</div>
Outline issues of social control including the study by Paul and LentzResearching operant conditioning with schizophrenic patients<div>Schizophrenic patients were given rewards which could be exchanged for luxury items when they behaved appropriately which ended up reducing some schizophrenic symptoms like bizarre motor behaviours</div><div>However some people think it's not morally correct to control someones behaviour&nbsp;</div>
METHODOLOGY - weaknessesGeneralisability - Skinner's research used rats and pigeons which lowers the generalisability of the research to humans, animals have different everyday experiences from humans and they don't have the cognitive abilities of humans e.g. language therefore their learning experiences will be different, human learning is much more complex and includes many different cognitive and social factors, thus rats and pigeons are not fully representative of the target population of human beings<div>Ecological validity - low because most organisms learn in far more complex environments than a Skinner box which limits the credibility of operant conditioning as an accurate explanation of human behaviour</div><div>Ethics - Skinner caused unnecessary suffering with his use of electric shocks on animals, however the costs to the animals are outweighed by the applications of his research that have made human life easier e.g. guide dogs training</div>
ALTERNATIVES - weaknessValidity of operant conditioning as an accurate explanation of human behaviour is limited as it can be seen as reductionist because it only focuses on positive and negative reinforcers to explain human behaviour and it ignores other possible factors involved in behaviour such as biological and cognitive influences<div>Social learning theory provides an alternative explanation of human behaviour, including the cognitive elements</div>
What happens if there is no reinforcement?The behaviour may become extinct
What do different patterns of reinforcement have different effects on?Speed of learning (response rate) and on whether extinction occurs<div>These are known as schedules of reinforcement</div>
Define response rateThe rate at which the rat pressed the lever
Define extinction rateThe rate at which the lever pressing dies out
What is continuous reinforcement?When behaviour is rewarded or punished each time it occurs<div>This is not regarded to be one of the schedules since the reinforcement occurs the whole time</div><div>The response rate is slow and the extinction rate is fast</div>
Describe Skinner's research (1948) on the superstitious pigeon<div>Study using pigeons to demonstrate schedules of reinforcement in operant conditioning</div>See if any reinforcing situation would yield a response<div>Each of the 8 pigeons were starved to 75% of their well fed weight and for a few minutes each day it was placed into a Skinner box where a food hopper could be swung for 5 seconds so the pigeon could eat from it, this happened at fixed intervals</div><div>One pigeon turned anti-clockwise, making 2-3 turns between reinforcement; another pigeon showed a head tossing response, it seemed that the pigeons gave a specific response when the hopper appeared to give food as a reward, and continued to carry out the response as if it was causing the rewards</div><div>Skinner explored different intervals of time for the food hopper to be presented (variable intervals) and measured the pigeons' responses, 15 seconds was an effective time interval for this study and species</div><div>The pigeons behaved as if their behaviour in this study is what caused the reward, this is called 'superstitious' because the connection between the reinforcement and behaviour had not been planned</div>
What are the 4 schedules of reinforcement?Fixed ratio reinforcement<div>Variable ratio reinforcement</div><div>Fixed interval reinforcement</div><div>Variable interval reinforcement</div>
Describe fixed ratio reinforcementBehaviour is reinforced only after the behaviour occurs a set number of times<div>E.g. for every 5 presses on a lever a reward or punishment could be given</div><div>Response rate = fast</div><div>Extinction rate = medium</div>
Describe fixed interval reinforcementReinforcement is given after a fixed time interval providing at least one correct response has been made<div>E.g. having a reward or punishment every 5 minutes</div><div>Response rate = medium</div><div>Extinction rate = medium</div>
Describe variable ratio reinforcementReinforcement or punishment is given randomly with regard to the number of responses achieved<div>E.g. being reinforced after 3 responses, then after 7, then after 1 - gambling or fishing</div><div>Response rate = fast</div><div>Extinction rate = slow</div>
Describe variable interval reinforcementReinforcement is given after variable amounts of time<div>E.g. being reinforced after 1, 2 or 5 minutes</div><div>Response rate = fast</div><div>Extinction rate = slow</div>
Define behaviour modificationWhen rewards or punishments are planned so that certain behaviours are produced, and others are dropped
What is one way of modifying behaviour?Shaping
Define shapingUsing operant conditioning in the form of rewards or punishments to form a complex behaviour which would not naturally occur so could not be reinforced itself
How is shaping carried out?Rewarding moves towards the desired behaviour<div>Waiting for an action that is nearer to the desired behaviour before a reward is given</div><div>Waiting for the actual behaviour before offering the reinforcement</div>
Describe an example of shapingA squirrel was taught to complete an assault course<div>The whole course could not be achieved in one attempt</div><div>It was necessary to reward each part of the course until the squirrel had learnt the whole course</div>
How does operant conditioning explain the acquisition and maintenance of phobias?Operant conditioning explains behaviour through reinforcement of rewards and punishments<div>It is possible for some individuals to have acquired a phobia through a pattern of rewards and/or punishments</div><div>Positive reinforcement - if a fear of something is rewarded by getting attention for it, then the response is likely to occur again</div><div>Negative reinforcement - a consequence of the fear which means avoiding something that causes pain or fear</div>
How has operant conditioning been linked to explaining the maintenance of social phobias?A social phobia is a marked fear of social situations e.g. parties, college<div>One way of dealing with this phobia would be to avoid or escape these situations to reduce anxiety which is a negative reinforcement</div><div>Therefore these avoidance behaviours become rewarding and in line with operant conditioning reinforces the avoidance behaviour and makes it more likely to occur in the future</div><div>Over time the continued avoidance continues to develop as a reward and also becomes a negative reinforcement</div>
When is genetic drift more likely to occur?In small populations
What are organisms placed into taxonomic groups based upon?Similarities in phenotype (anatomical/homologous features)<div>Similarities in genotype</div><div>Organisms that have features in common will be placed in the same taxonomic group</div>
What is the limbic system?A collection of smaller brain organ structures in the mid-brain which are responsible for initiating or controlling emotions
What is the amygdala?A small almond like structure that sits within the limbic system
What is the amygdala responsible for?Processing emotions such as happiness, anxiety, fear and aggression
What happens to the amygdala when we are exposed to a threatening stimulus?Our amygdala is activated which results in an increase in arousal and emotions<div>This activates responses in our behaviour to either take flight (run away) or fight (become aggressive towards the threat)</div>
What happens if the amygdala is not functioning correctly?Threshold at which the activation of the amygdala occurs is too low - resulting in sudden outbursts of unprovoked aggression leading to an assault<div>Anxiety and fear levels are low - resulting in high levels of risk-taking behaviour which may be a criminal act</div><div>High likelihood of criminal behaviour</div>
Describe Cannon and Britton (1925) study on sham rageSevered neural connections to the cortex of cats, creating 'decorticate cats'<div>When the decorticate cats were provoked they exhibited the emotional behaviour normally associated with rage and aggression demonstrated by erect hair, growling and baring of teeth</div><div>They called this 'sham rage' as it occurred without the cognitive influence or inhibitory control of the cerebral cortex</div><div>The source of the rage was from the amygdala - when it was ablated, the animals became much more placid but if the area was stimulated, aggression would be displayed</div><div>Therefore, amygdala plays an important role in the production of hostile behaviour</div>
Describe the case study of Charles WhitmanOne of the first studies where a criminal act was linked to the amygdala<div>Charles Whitman was an ex-marine who was studying engineering at the University of Texas</div><div>In the early morning hours of August 1 1966, he murdered his wife and mother and later that day he brought a number of guns (a rifle, shotgun and handgun) to the campus and killed 14 people and injured 32 others in a mass shooting</div><div>He was shot at the scene of the crime</div><div>An autopsy found a cancerous tumour of the size of a walnut in his limbic system which impacted the amygdala, thalamus and hypothalamus</div><div>This tumour had a significant impact upon his brain functioning which led to this criminal behaviour, although not demonstrated conclusively, this case study suggests the possible impact that the amygdala has on criminal behaviour</div>
Strengths of the case study of Charles WhitmanEvidence of damage to amygdala in human brain, more generalisable than Cannon<div>Acts as a springboard for future research</div>
Weaknesses of the case study of Charles WhitmanHard to generalise to wider population<div>Reductionist</div><div>Tumour presses on the multiple parts of the limbic system, not just amygdala</div>
Summarise Raine et al (1997) experimentA - To see whether participants pleading NGRI would show brain dysfunctions in areas of the brain associated with violence (amygdala, thalamus, hippocampus, corpus callosum and prefrontal cortex)<div>P - 2 groups of 41 people - 39 males and 2 females, experimental group were criminals with convictions for murder/manslaughter, control group matched upon age and gender</div><div>Continuous Performance Task - sequence of blurred numbers of focus on, practice trial for 10 mins before being injected with fluourodeoxyglucose, after 32 mins of task a PET scan was taken to measure metabolic rate to look at activity levels in different areas</div><div>R - Compared to control group murderers showed lower activity in prefrontal cortex, parietal cortex and corpus callosum and asymmetrical activity in amygdala, thalamus and hippocampus</div><div>C - Abnormal functioning of amygdala could led to fearlessness which may increase the chance of acting violently</div>
Describe Yang et al (2009) studyInvestigating link between smaller volume of the amygdala and anti-social behaviour<div>Researchers looked at 27 psychopathic people and compared them to 27 controls and used a structural MRI scanner to measure the volume of both the amygdala in each participant</div><div>People with psychopathy had lower volume on both amygdalae compared to controls - on average they had 17.1% less volume in the left amygdala and 18.9% less volume in the right amygdala</div><div>Significant negative correlation between reduced volume of the amygdalae and high psychopathy scores</div><div>Concluded that as psychopathy is characterised by a manipulative, unemotional personality and lack of empathy, their findings supported the idea that problems with the functioning of the amygdala is involved in criminal and antisocial behaviour&nbsp;</div>
Describe Pardini et al (2014) researchNeuroimaging scans on a group of 26 year old men who were divided into 2 groups - whether they had normal sized amygdala or reduced sized amygdala<div>3 years later, the researchers found that the group with the reduced volume amygdala were 3 times more likely to be aggressive, violent and demonstrate psychopathic traits than the group with normal sized amygdala</div>
What is one of the problems with research linking amygdala to criminal and antisocial behaviour?There are other parts of the brain implicated in criminal behaviour<div>Research suggests that the amygdala doesn't operate alone but is heavily influenced by the orbital frontal cortex which is part of the frontal cortex and not the limbic system</div><div>The OFC regulates self-control and its reduced functioning is also associated with aggression and violent outbursts</div><div>Suggests that the influence of the amygdala on aggression and crime is difficult to disentangle</div>
What 3 main factors can be used to describe psychological knowledge changing over time?Development of theories &amp; hypotheses<div>Development of treatments</div><div>Development of technology</div>
What is reductionism?Simplifying a complex phenomenon, breaking components down into simple, often singular components in order to explain them<div>It is in contrast to holism which takes a wider perspective of behaviour, considering interactions between the parts and many factors contributing to the behaviour</div>
Strengths of amygdala as an explanation of crime and antisocial behaviourThis explanation of crime is supported by evidence e.g. Raine et al (1997), Yang et al (2009) and Pardini et al (2014)<div>Use of neuroimaging is objective and a number of people can analyse scans which increases inter-rater reliability</div>
Weaknesses of amygdala as an explanation of crime and antisocial behaviourNo direct cause and effect conclusions can be drawn since research shows that the amygdala doesn't really operate alone but is heavily influenced by the frontal cortex which isn't part of the limbic system suggesting that the role of the amygdala can be difficult to disentangle<div>Some studies e.g. Yang found correlations between the size of the amygdala &amp; psychopathy but not necessarily related directly to a crime</div><div>Reductionist - only looks at amygdala when other parts of brain may be involved; it also doesn't take into account complexities of the causes of violent &amp; criminal behaviour</div>
What is 'in situ' conservation?When species are protected at the site of the threatened species and also includes protecting ecosystems and maintaining habitats
What is 'ex situ' conservation?When species are protected away from the site of the threatened species<div>Populations can be supported in zoos and conservation centres</div>
How do zoos use captive breeding programmes to conserve rare species?Increase population numbers of species which are at risk<div>Protect animals from predators/poachers</div><div>Move animals between zoos and use stud books to keep a record of which individuals breed and who they breed with which is important to maintain/increase genetic diversity</div><div>DNA profiling can be used to monitor genetic diversity and help decide which individual to breed from</div><div>Breeding may involve use of IVF, artificial insemination or surrogates</div>
How do zoos use reintroduction programmes to conserve rare species?Carefully choose habitats or reserves to release animals into<div>Prepare animals for reintroduction - need to reinforce wild behaviour e.g. limit food intake to encourage hunting</div><div>Raise awareness and educate the local population - this can help protect the animals from poachers etc. which can help to increase population numbers</div>
Describe what genetic drift isCan occur in small populations<div>Some alleles may not be passed onto offspring/future generations and can be lost from a population</div><div>Allele frequency changes over time</div>
Describe what inbreeding isWhen closely related individuals reproduce<div>Offspring are likely to become homozygous for more and more recessive alleles</div><div>May result in the offspring of animals or plants which have been inbred for a number of generations showing inbreeding depression and producing a lower yield or being less fertile</div><div>Inbreeding depression frequently affects small populations in the wild or in captivity</div>
What are the important roles of a seed bank?Storage of many seeds from each plant species, to help conserve endangered species, conserve genetic diversity within each species and protect plants e.g. from effects of drought, seeds may contain alleles for characteristics which are useful in the future such as drought<div>To conduct scientific research into seed storage and germination conditions</div><div>To work with governments to safeguard threatened habitats, seed banks rely on local knowledge/expertise to identify and collect seeds and store them locally before transfer to the seed bank</div><div>Education of people about importance of conserving plants</div>
How are seeds prepared for storage and stored?Cleaned and dried<div>Sterilised to kill microorganisms which could cause decay</div><div>X-rayed to make sure they contain a fully developed embryo (are viable)</div><div>Stored cold (-20'C) and dry conditions to extend the life span</div><div>Subjected to germination checks every 10 years</div>
What are advantages of storing seeds rather than plants?Seeds are more likely to survive for a longer time<div>Seeds can be frozen but plants cannot</div><div>Seeds are smaller, therefore take up less space and more seeds can be stored than plants, so greater genetic diversity</div><div>Seeds need less maintenance, so it is cheaper to store them than plants</div>
Why is seed germination tested at regular intervals?To check seed viability<div>To grow plants to collect more seeds</div>
How do chromosomes determine gender?Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes and the 23rd pair consists of the sex chromosome which are either X or Y<div>XX = girl, XY = boy</div>
How does nature vs nurture link to the genetic explanation of behaviour?Explaining behaviour such as criminality using genetics indicates that the person is 'hard-wired' to behave in this way - this implies that criminality is due to nature rather than nurture
Describe what chromosomes are"<div>Each cell's nucleus contains chromosomes</div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Long, coiled molecules of DNA</span></div>"
Describe what DNA is"<div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">DNA carries the genetic code that determines the characteristics of a living organism</span><br></div><div>DNA consists of 2 strands coiled into a double helix</div><div>Except for identical twins, each person's DNA is unique</div>"
Describe what genes areSection of DNA that carries a code for a specific protein<div>It is the unit of heredity and may be copied and passed on to the next generation</div><div>Each gene holds information to build and maintain cells and to pass on genetic traits to offspring</div>
When genetic research was in its infancy what was commonly thought at the time?All behaviours had a clear genetic pattern and therefore all behaviour was pre-determined by genetics
When was XYY syndrome discovered?In the 1960's
Who does XYY syndrome occur in?Males only<div>1 in 1000 male births</div>
How does XYY syndrome occur?It is not an inherited condition but occurs randomly at the time of conception<div>Random genetic abnormality where a human male has an extra Y chromosome on the 23rd chromosome instead of the usual XY</div>
What are the characteristics of XYY syndrome?Taller than their siblings<div>Severe acne</div><div>Some studies have shown lower intelligence compared to siblings</div><div>Developmental delays in speech &amp; language</div><div>Behaviour and emotional difficulties e.g. impulsive behaviour</div><div>Very physically active</div>
How does XYY syndrome link to criminal behaviour?Behavioural and emotional difficulties and the tendency to high levels of physical activity that some XYY men experience may make anti-social and aggressive behaviour more likely which makes it more likely for them to engage in criminal behaviour
Why don't many men with XYY know that they have an extra chromosome?Testosterone levels, fertility and sexual development are all normal
What happened when XYY syndrome was discovered?Researchers linked it to criminal behaviour from observations of the criminal population
Describe Jacobs et al (1965) studySuggested that men with XYY syndrome were more aggressive than XY men<div>Found that there was an over-representation of XYY men in the prison population with 15 XYY men for every 1000 prisoners</div>
Describe Daniel Hugon's caseIn 1968 Daniel Hugon murdered a prostitute in a Paris hotel<div>He surrendered to the authorities with a confession filled with remorse</div><div>On the day before the trial Hugon attempted suicide which led the court to order extensive physical and mental examinations before the trial commenced and found that he had XYY syndrome</div><div>This was used by the defence in the court case to imply that his behaviour was pre-determined</div><div>The case gained lots of publicity for the XYY syndrome</div>
Describe the case of Richard SpeckIn 1966 Richard Speck claimed he had XYY syndrome and that this explained his rape and murder of 8 women<div>It turned out that he was XY</div>
Describe Alice Theilgaard (1984) researchWanted to see if there was a particular gene that could be responsible for criminal behaviour and to investigate XYY syndrome<div>Took blood samples from over 30,000 males born in the 1940's</div><div>Results showed that those with the XYY syndrome had slightly lower intelligence and tended to be more aggressive than normal</div><div>This could be a link to suggest that there is evidence for a criminal gene if aggression is a sign of criminality, however not all criminals are aggressive and not all aggression is criminal</div><div>In conclusion Theilgaard found no conclusive evidence of a criminal gene</div>
How does XYY syndrome link to gender differences?Research into XYY syndrome supports gender stereotypes that are over simplified and exaggerated<div>Women also carry out crimes and will not have the XYY syndrome</div><div>Therefore the explanation is limited and cannot fully explain all cases of criminal behaviour</div>
Describe Re and Birkhoff (2015) studyCarried out a review study, drawing together lots of evidence from over the previous 50 years relating to XYY syndrome and crime<div>Concluded that the analysis of the studies in their review 'shows that there is no statistical evidence that an XYY man is predisposed, just because of his genotype, to aggressive and deviant behaviour'</div><div>They argued that XYY characteristics may account for a slightly higher population in prisons due to them finding it harder for such men to integrate into society</div><div>Therefore the XYY syndrome theory is not a credible explanation of crime</div>
Describe Witkin et al (1976) studyCarried out a study in Denmark on 4591 men<div>Found that the difference between XYY and XY men was not significantly different when background variables were controlled</div>
Strength of XYY as an explanation of crimeEarly research suggested a link between XYY and anti-social behaviour and if XYY syndrome is found early, then issues around physical development, behavioural &amp; emotional issues can be addressed early
Weaknesses of XYY as an explanation of crimeGenetic research can be fraught with practical difficulties<div>XYY is a reductionist explanation as it ignores environmental aspects and only explains crime through a genetic mutation, there may be other factors at work - Witkin (1976) suggested that it was because XYY males might be labelled as different due to some of their physical characteristics which may go on to influence their anti-social behaviour</div><div>Women also carry out crimes and will not have the XYY syndrome therefore the explanation has limitations in that it cannot fully explain all cases of criminal behaviour</div><div>More recent research had shown more conclusively that a link between XYY and crime is not shown</div>
Describe the process of classical conditioning1. Unconditioned stimulus produces an unconditioned response in an organism. Stimulus in the environment has produced a behaviour or response which is unlearned and therefore is a natural response which has not been learnt<div>2. Involves another stimulus which has no specific effect on an organism and is called the neutral stimulus</div><div>3. A stimulus which produced no specific response (neutral stimulus) is presented with the unconditioned stimulus. During this stage the unconditioned stimulus must be associated with the conditioned on a number of occasions/trials for learning to take place</div><div>4. The conditioned stimulus has been associated with the unconditioned stimulus to create a new conditioned response</div>
What are stocks?The raw materials, work-in-progress and finished goods held by a firm to enable production and meet customer demand
What are the 3 main categories of stock?Raw materials &amp; components<div>Work in progress</div><div>Finished goods</div>
Describe raw materials &amp; componentsBought from suppliers<div>Used in production process</div><div>E.g. parts for assembly or ingredients</div>
Describe work in progressSemi or part-finished production<div>E.g. construction projects</div>
Describe finished goodsCompleted products ready for sale or distribution<div>E.g. products on supermarket shelves; goods in the Amazon warehouses</div>
Why do businesses hold stock?Enable efficient production to take place<div>Satisfy customer demand</div><div>Precaution against delay from suppliers</div><div>Allow for seasonal changes</div><div>Provide a buffer between production processes</div>
What are key parts of a business operating efficiently?Stock management and control
Why is it crucial to manage stock carefully?It often ties up a significant value of capital that could be used elsewhere in the business
Why is stock management much easier these days?Due to widely available IT systems
What mistakes in stock can have significant damage on a business?Stock-outs and having the wrong stock
What are the main influences on the quantity of stock held?Need to satisfy demand<div>Need to manage working capital</div><div>Risk of stock losing value</div>
What does the overall cost of stock need to take account of?Cost of storage<div>Interest costs</div><div>Obsolescence risk</div><div>Stock out costs</div>
Describe the impact of cost of storage on the overall cost of stockMore stocks require large storage space and possibly extra employees and equipment to control and handle them
Describe the impact of interest costs on the overall cost of stockHolding stocks means tying up capital on which the business may be paying interest
Describe the impact of obsolescence risk on the overall cost of stockThe longer stocks are held, the greater is the risk that they will become obsolete (unusable or not capable of being sold)
Describe the impact of stock out costs on the overall cost of stockA stock out happens if a business runs out of stock which will result in lost sales &amp; customer goodwill, cost of production stoppages or delay, extra cost of urgent replacement orders
Why can stock-out costs be particularly significant?Results in lost sales that may instead go to a competitor as well as the potential loss of customer goodwill and loyalty
What is the overall objective of stock control?To maintain stock levels so that the total costs of holding stocks is minimised
How does the need to satisfy demand influence the quantity of stock held?Failure to have goods available for sale is very costly<div>Demand may be seasonal or unpredictable</div>
How does the need to manage working capital influence the quantity of stock held?Holding stocks ties up cash in working capital<div>Opportunity cost associated with stock holding</div>
How does the risk of stock losing value influence the quantity of stock held?The longer stocks are held, the greater risk that they cannot be used or sold
What are the key elements of a stock control chart?Maximum stock level<div>Re-order level</div><div>Lead time</div><div>Minimum stock level</div><div>Buffer stock</div>
What is maximum stock level?Maximum level of stock a business can or wants to hold
What is re-order level?Acts as a trigger point, so that when stock falls to this level, the next supplier order should be placed
What is lead time?Amount of time between placing the order and receiving the stock
What is minimum stock level?Minimum amount of product the business would want to hold in stock
What is buffer stock?An amount of stock held as a contingency in case of unexpected orders so that such orders can be met and in case of any delays from suppliers
What are key factors to take into account when deciding when and how much stock to reorder?Lead time from supplier - how long it takes for the supplier to deliver the order, higher lead times may require a higher re-order level<div>Implications of running out (stock-outs) - if stock-outs are very damaging, then have a high re-order level &amp; quantity</div><div>Demand for the product - higher demand normally means higher re-order levels</div>
Define stock-outWhere a business is unable to satisfy customer demand due to stock being unavailable
Define stockholding costThe overheads resulting from the stock levels held by a firm
What are the implications of low stock levels?Lower stock holding costs e.g. storage<div>Lower risk of stock obsolescence</div><div>Less capital tied up in working capital - can be used elsewhere in the business</div><div>Consistent with operating lean</div>
What are the implications of high stock levels?Provision fully supplied - no delays<div>Potential for lower unit costs by ordering in bulk/high quantities</div><div>Better able to handle unexpected changes in demand or need for higher output</div><div>Less likelihood of stock outs</div>
What are the principles of lean production?Lean production techniques are working practices derived from Japan that focus on cutting waste whilst maintaining or improving quality<div>Reducing waste is key to increasing efficiencies through lean production</div>
What would a lean approach to managing stock be?Just-In-Time - a technique used to minimise stock holdings at each stage of the production process, helping to minimise costs
Benefits of JIT management of stockLess costs in holding inventory<div>Less working capital required</div><div>Less obsolete or ruined inventory</div><div>Lower associated costs e.g. security and insurance</div><div>Avoids having unsold stock</div>
Difficulties of JIT management of stockLittle room for error<div>Very reliant on suppliers</div><div>Unexpected orders harder to meet</div><div>Any delays in deliveries due to unforeseen circumstances can cause production to come to a halt</div><div>High initial set up costs</div><div>Complex systems have to be put in place and understood</div>
What does managing stock efficiently to reduce waste lead to?Efficient stock control can reduce wastage of perishable goods resulting in less obsolete/damaged stock and lower costs of holding stock<div>Competitive advantage (feature that gives one business an edge over its rivals) - cost savings from lean production techniques can be passed on in the form of lower prices and better able to meet the needs of customers through providing better quality products</div>
Define obsolescenceUnusable or not capable of being sold
What is personality?Stable characteristics that underlie consistencies in the way we behave over time and in different situations
What do our personalities explain?Our interests, hobbies, how we interact with others, how we respond to situations and our overall outlook of life
What did Hans Eysenck study?Personalities and proposed that biological components determine your personality
What are the 3 dimensions of personality that Hans Eysenck studied?Extraversion/introversion<div>Neuroticism/stability</div><div>Psychoticism</div>
Define extraversionOutgoing, sociable, active, want excitement, easily bored
Define introversionReserved, reflective, prefer solitarity
Define neuroticismEmotional instability - anxiety, fear, envy and depression
Define stabilityEmotionally calm, unreactive, unworried
Define psychoticismLack empathy, cold, aggressive, impersonal
How is personality measured?Self-report in the form of psychometric tests
What are psychometric tests?Questionnaires that allow the researcher to quantify a psychological variable e.g. personality
What psychometric test did Eysenck develop and use?The Eysenck Personality Inventory (EPI) which is made up of a series of fixed response closed questions e.g. do you often long for excitement? yes/no
What is a strength and weakness of the EPI?Allows objective quantitative measurement of personality<div>Low validity due to socially desirable answers</div>
What did Eysenck argue that differences in people's personalities could be reduced to?The 3 dimensions (extraversion, neuroticism and psychoticism) which he related to the functioning of the individual's nervous system<div>These dimensions could explain all the differences in personality including why some people are criminal and others are not (relates to individual differences)</div>
Which personality traits did Eysenck propose could be applied to explain criminality?Psychoticism, extraversion and neuroticism<div>Referred to as the PEN personality</div>
What did Eysenck propose in 1990?That arousal theory provided a biological explanation of personality
What does the arousal theory suggest?Individuals are motivated to act in ways that maintain an optimum level of physiological arousal<div>When arousal levels fall below/above an individual's optimal levels the individual will engage in behaviours to increase/decrease arousal</div>
What did Eysenck say that all personality types were based on?The individual's physiological activity<div>Activity of ARAS and ANS</div>
Describe what the ARAS isThe Ascending Reticular Activating System<div>Influences the introvert-extrovert dimension</div>
Describe what the ANS isThe Autonomic Nervous System (in particular the sympathetic nervous system)<div>Influences the stable-neurotic dimension</div>
What explains the stable traits associated with different personality types?Each individual having different arousal levels determined by the ARAS and the ANS
Describe the biological explanation of the extroversion-introversion dimensionThe ARAS is a system in the brain that influences arousal levels in the cortex<div>An extrovert is someone who has a low baseline level of arousal, so gets bored and seeks stimulation to maintain a good level of excitation - they are therefore louder, more outgoing, attention seeking individuals who may lack concentration</div><div>Introverted personalities prefer less stimulating environments and experiences</div>
Describe the biological explanation of the stable-neurotic dimensionThe ANS, in particular activation thresholds in the sympathetic nervous system (responds to threatening situations and situations that produce stress)<div>Neurotic personalities will show a rapid and strong response to stressful situations and may be described as anxious, moody and restless</div><div>This links to the arousal of the limbic system</div><div>Stable personalities have calmer physiological and emotional reactions to threat and stress</div>
Describe the biological explanation of the psychoticism dimensionEysenck linked psychoticism to hormones specifically testosterone
Strengths of personality as an explanation for criminal behaviourEysenck himself produced research evidence to support his claims<div>Other research has supported Eysenck's findings - Boduszek et al. (2013)</div><div>Eysenck's theory may have useful applications in preventing crime - criminal tendencies such as lack of response to conditioning and the inability to learn from one's mistakes can be identified in early childhood so if intervention comes early enough, it would be possible to modify the socialisation experiences of high-risk individuals</div>
Weakness of personality as an explanation for criminal behaviourEvidence of criminal personality is not conclusive - Farrington et al (1982) found very little evidence of that Eysenck's EPI was an adequate measure for predicting offending in juveniles or adults, suggesting that his original ideas about the nature of criminal personality may lack validity
What was the name of Eysenck et al (1977) research?Linking personality to criminal behaviour
What was the aim of Eysenck et al (1977) research?An attempt to link certain criminal behaviour to personality traits. The personality traits measured in this study are extroversion, neuroticism and psychoticism
How many participants were in Eysenck et al's (1977) research and what was the age range?156 prisoners aged 18-38 years
Describe the 5 groups of prisoners in Eysenck et al's (1977) researchViolent crimes - 2 or more violent crimes<div>Property crimes - 3 or more convictions for breaking and entering and other convictions for theft</div><div>Confidence crimes - 3 or more convictions for fraud</div><div>Inadequate - 10 or more convictions in 3 years and serving a sentence of less than 18 months (no convictions for robbery and not more than 1 conviction for a violent or sexual offence)</div><div>Residuals - prisoners who did not fall into any of the above categories, they had committed a variety of crimes mentioned above</div>
What were the participants in Eysenck et al's (1977) study tested on?The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire<div>Physiological measures including ECG and skin conductance (GSR galvanic skin response)</div>
What were the results and conclusions of Eysenck et al's (1977) study?<div>It is possible to classify offenders by personality types</div>Psychoticism: con men had very low scores compared to the other groups<div>Extroversion: violent and residual offenders = high scores</div><div>Neuroticism: inadequate and residuals = high scores<br></div><div>Physiological differences were also found between the property and inadequate offenders and the other 3 groups</div><div>Overall, certain personality traits can be linked to criminal behaviour</div>
Describe Boduszek et al. (2013) researchInvestigated the prevalence of Eysenck's personality traits among repeat offenders (recidivists) looking at 133 violent &amp; 179 non-violent male prisoners<div>They found that a criminal thinking style is correlated with high levels of psychoticism, extraversion and neuroticism</div><div>This suggests that Eysenck's theory has validity as the personality types he identified are associated with repeat offending</div>
Describe Lynn and Martin (1997) studyAssessed the PEN personality in 37 countries<div>Women had higher neuroticism in all the countries</div><div>Men had higher psychoticism in 34 countries</div><div>Men had higher extraversion in 30 countries</div><div>Indicates that there are gender differences in personality, also considering that psychoticism and extraversion featured more in males, personality offers a potential explanation as to why males carry out more crimes than females</div>
Describe the issue of individual differences linking to personalityPersonality theories of criminality highlight the role of individual variation in the development of criminality or aggression<div>Not all individuals who display extraversion, psychoticism and neuroticism become criminals, but they may be more likely to engage in high-risk, stressful activities</div>
Why are seeds dried and stored in cold conditions?To inhibit germination by slowing down enzymes and biochemical reactions and the rate of decay and microbial activity which prolongs seed survival<div>Drying reduces the freezing effect</div>
What is the effect of transferring an animal from one zoo to another?Increased genetic diversity because it allows outbreeding with genetically different individuals which reduces inbreeding which would reduce genetic diversity
Why is it better to store seeds from several individual plants of one species rather than seeds from one individual plant?Greater genetic diversity, less chance of inbreeding and reduced chance of storing seeds with low viability/disease
What is clinical psychology?Clinical psychology deals with diagnosing, explaining and treating mental illness
What does diagnosis involve?A clinician assessing a patient, deciding whether they show evidence of a mental disorder, and if so, whether their symptoms match those in a checklist of the features and symptoms of a mental disorder
Why is it often difficult to decide whether someone actually has a mental disorder or not?"There is no clear dividing line separating normal and abnormal behaviour ""normal behaviour and abnormal behaviour are continuous with each other"" - George Albee<div>The concept of abnormality can change over time</div><div>The concept of abnormality can change between societies/cultures</div><div>Many different types of behavior can be considered abnormal</div>"
How do psychologists deal with the issue of abnormal behaviour being hard to define in an objective and scientific manner?By considering the four Ds when diagnosing mental disorders
What are the four Ds?Deviance<div>Distress</div><div>Dysfunction</div><div>Danger</div>
Define devianceBehaviours or emotions that are unusual in society<div>To be described as deviant, a behaviour must not only be statistically rare, but also disapproved of by most in society</div>
Define distressThe extent to which the individual finds their behaviour and/or emotions upsetting
Define dysfunctionThe extent to which the behaviour interferes with the person's day-to-day life
Define dangerBehaviour which could harm others or the individual themselves
How does the issue of social control link to diagnosis?Clinicians hold a lot of power and influence in the diagnosing of mental health problems<div>There can be implications for patients who have been labelled as mentally ill e.g. it is possible to detain and treat patients against their will when sectioned by the Mental Health Act and are considered at risk to themselves or others</div>
Describe the case of Joyce BrownIn 1987 the mayor of New York initiated a programme to help the homeless, teams of social workers and medical experts found the homeless, attended to their medical problems and if necessary took them to hospital for treatment<div>Joyce Brown was homeless and living on the streets in a wealthy area of the city by a restaurant and bank. She was dirty, she smelled, and she sometimes soiled herself. She frequently abused passers-by and tore up and burned or urinated on any money that was given to her</div><div>Joyce was taken to a psychiatric hospital against her will and diagnosed with schizophrenia. Her case went to court as she claimed that she was not mentally ill but chose to live that way. Psychiatrists working for the American Civil Liberties Union supported her claim and argued there were good reasons for her behaviour e.g. access to public toilets wasn't always possible. They also argued that she was not malnourished and posed no threat to herself or others, and that she should not be forced to take anti-psychotic medication against her will. They felt that her diagnosis was used as means of social control - to remove a troublesome person from the public eye</div>
Strengths of the four Ds of diagnosisPractical application in helping professionals decide whether a patient's symptoms warrants a clinical diagnosis<div>Provide a holistic way to assess someone's mental health as they cover a wide range of symptoms</div>
How does the practical issue in the design and implementation of research link to diagnosis?The diagnosis process is often conducted through clinical interviews which are unstructured or semi-structured which may have issues of reliability and validity<div>There can also be problems with the self-report method, especially when gathering highly sensitive data about someone's mental health</div>
Weaknesses of the four Ds of diagnosis"The assessment of dysfunction can be quite subjective as to how much these behaviours inhibit someone's life because the individual themselves may not think they have a problem and their unusual behaviour may suit them as it provides them with a way of coping with their difficulties in life<div>Distress is subjective and difficult to measure and not all mental disorders are distressing to the person</div><div>The assessment of how much danger a person poses to themselves or others may be subjective</div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">The subjectivity in the application of the four Ds which</span>&nbsp;means there is a lack of validity because diagnosis may not be accurate and it may lack reliability because if the four Ds are used by 2 different professionals they may not arrive at the same diagnosis which reduces the scientific status of diagnosis</div><div>The model can be criticised for being incomplete as Davis (2009) suggested that a fifth D needs to be added to the list: duration which refers to how long the symptoms have lasted for e.g. a diagnosis of depression requires the symptoms to have lasted for at least two weeks</div>"
How does the issue &amp; debate of psychology as a science link to diagnosis?The diagnosis of mental disorders relies on unstructured/semi-structured interviews, which involve the clinician's subjective interpretation of data<div>This reduces scientific status of the diagnosing of mental illness because it isn't objective and lacks reliability and validity</div>
Why are classification systems commonly used to aid diagnosis of mental disorders?While the four Ds provide a useful way for clinicians to assess patients in a holistic way, formal diagnosis of a disorder requires a more objective, measurable and scientific approach
What is meant by quality?Quality is about meeting the needs and expectations of customers
What do customers want quality that's appropriate to?The price they are prepared to pay and the level of competition in the market
What do key aspects of quality for the customer include?Good design - looks and style<div>Good functionality - it does the job well</div><div>Reliable - acceptable level of breakdowns or failure</div><div>Consistency</div><div>Durable - lasts as long as it should</div><div>Good after sales service</div><div>Value for money</div>
Why is value for money especially important?Because in most markets there is room for products of different overall levels of quality, and the customer must be satisfied that the price fairly reflects the quality
Why is good product design fundemental?So that the product can be produced efficiently, reliably and at the lowest possible costs
How can quality determine business success?Customer loyalty: customers return, make repeat purchases and recommend the product or service to others<div>Strong brand reputation for quality</div><div>Retailers and other distributors want to stock the product</div><div>As the product is perceived to be better value for money, it may command a premium price and will become more price inelastic</div><div>Fewer returns and replacements leads to reduced costs</div><div>Attracting and retaining good staff</div>
What are the costs of poor quality?Product fails and doesn't perform as promised e.g. a breakdown or unexpected wear and tear<div>Product is delivered late</div><div>Poor instructions/directions for use make using the product difficult or frustrating</div><div>Unresponsive customer service</div>
How does poor quality result in additional business costs?Lost customers - expensive to replace and they may tell others about their bad experiences<div>Cost of reworking or remaking product</div><div>Costs of replacements or refunds</div><div>Wasted materials</div>
What are key benefits of improved quality?Improved image &amp; reputation which should result in higher demand<div>Greater production volumes (possibly providing better economies of scale)</div><div>Lower unit costs because of less waste and rejected output</div><div>Fewer customer complaints &amp; more satisfied customers</div><div>Potentially higher selling prices (less need to discount)</div>
How is quality seen as a key component of competitiveness?Fewer businesses are competing solely on price<div>At a similar price, the higher-quality product is likely to win</div><div>Quality can enable a business to differentiate its product from the competition</div>
What are tangible measures of quality?Reliability<div>Functions &amp; features</div><div>Support levels &amp; standards</div><div>Cost of ownership e.g. repairs</div>
What are intangible measures of quality?Brand image<div>Exclusiveness</div><div>Market reputation</div>
What is important to remember when improving quality?Quality is subjective, it is a matter of personal opinion and what constitutes as an acceptable level of quality will vary from one individual to another<div>Not all aspects of quality are tangible e.g. the degree of assurance given by a firm's name or reputation can be very important even though its hard to measure</div><div>Quality is always evolving because of improved technology, better materials, new manufacturing techniques and fresh competitors</div><div>Whilst controlling quality has benefits to the firm, it can also be costly to do so, so it is important that the benefits outweigh the costs in the long term</div>
What is quality management concerned with?Controlling activities with the aim of ensuring that products and services are fit for their purposes and meet specifications
What are the two approaches to managing quality?Quality control<div>Quality assurance</div>
Define quality controlAn approach to managing quality by inspecting production output before it is delivered to the customers
Define quality assuranceA series of processes that aim to build quality into the production process
What is quality control the process of?Inspecting products to ensure that they meet the required quality standards
What does quality control check?The quality of completed products for faults<div>Quality inspectors measure/test every product, samples from every batch or random samples - as appropriate to the kind of product produced</div>
What is the main objective of quality control?To ensure that the business is achieving the standards it sets for itself
Why is it not possible to achieve perfection?There will always be some variation in terms of materials used, production skills applied and reliability of the finished product
What standards does quality control involve setting?Standards about how much variation is acceptable
What is the aim of quality control?To ensure that a product is manufactured, or a service is provided, to meet the specifications that ensure customer needs are met
Give an example of a method of quality controlInspection - trained inspectors examine samples of work-in-progress and finished goods to ensure standards are being met
Describe what SPC isStatistical process control<div>Used by businesses that rely on a continuous process</div><div>SPC is the continuous monitoring and charting of a process while it is operating, data collected is analysed to warn when the process is exceeding predetermined limits</div>
Advantages of quality controlQuality can be monitored<div>Stops faulty products reaching the customer</div><div>Common problems can be identified</div><div>Inspector takes responsibility</div><div>Often a robust system</div>
Disadvantages of quality controlTakes responsibility away from operatives<div>Requires specialist/additional personnel</div><div>Problems only identified at end of process</div><div>Waste levels may be high</div>
<div>Explain the difference in thickness in the walls of the atria and ventricles in the heart</div><div>Left ventricle has thickest wall, right ventricle is thinner, atria are even thinner</div><div>Thickness relates to distance that blood has to be pumped, so blood pressure required</div><div>Thicker wall indicates more muscle tissue, so greater force of contraction, so greater pressure can be generated, so blood can be pumped further</div><div>Left ventricle pumps blood furthest distance to body (except lungs), right ventricle pumps to lungs which is a shorter distance and requires a lower pressure also to prevent delicate lung capillaries bursting, atria pump to ventricles which is the shortest distance</div>
Explain why the atrioventricular valves need to closeVentricles need to contract and force blood into arteries so atrioventricular valves need to close to prevent backflow into the atria on contraction
How does cash flow affect businesses?Ideally, businesses want to delay paying businesses they owe (creditors/payables) for as long as possible which keeps cash in the business<div>Businesses also want to collect any outstanding money owed to them (debtors/receivables) as quickly as possible which puts more cash into the business</div>
What is a cash flow forecast?Prediction of future cash flows
Describe the cash flow forecastIt lists all the future cash inflows and outflows expected over a future period of time<div>It is a prediction of the future, it has not happened yet</div><div>It is a very important business document</div>
What is quality assurance the process of?Ensuring production quality meets the requirements of customers
Describe the approach used in quality assuranceAims to achieve quality by organising every process to get the product 'right first time' and prevent mistakes ever happening - known as a 'zero defect' approach<div>There is more emphasis on self-checking rather than checking by inspectors</div>
Define right first timeAvoiding mistakes and therefore achieving high quality with no wastage of time or materials
Define zero defectsEliminating quality defects by getting things right first time
Advantages of quality assuranceStops any faults early saving resources being wasted at the next stage of the production process<div>Motivates workers who are responsible for ensuring quality standards are met</div><div>Aims to achieve an objective of zero defects</div><div>Ensures clear systems are in place</div><div>Enhances the reputation of the business as less chance of faulty goods reaching the end customer</div>
Disadvantages of quality assuranceRequires staff training and high levels of staff commitment<div>Can slow down the production process and labour productivity leading to higher unit costs</div><div>May demotivate workers who feel under pressure</div><div>Opportunity costs of managers time when initially implementing the systems and procedures</div>
Describe what TQM isTotal Quality Management<div>TQM sees quality as the responsibility of all employees</div><div>Each employee is a link in the chain and treats the next link as if they were an external customer</div><div>They will pass the product on only if it is correct</div><div>Philosophy of get it right first time</div>
Advantages of TQMTQM should become deeply rooted into the company culture<div>Once all staff think about quality, it should show through from design to manufacture and after-sales service</div>
Describe what quality circles areInformal groups of workers who volunteer to meet on a regular basis to discuss issues relating to the workforce<div>Emphasis is placed on how to improve quality</div><div>The workers who are involved in the production of the good or service are best placed to understand any quality issues and suggest ways on improving quality</div><div>Recommendations are fed back to management</div><div>Increased employee participation leads to higher motivation</div>
Describe what zero defects isThe aim is to produce goods and services with no faults or problems<div>To achieve zero defects, in addition to a perfectionist approach to quality from all staff, there is likely to be a two-stage system for quality control</div>
Describe what Kaizen isKaizen is a system that concentrates on small but frequent improvements in every aspect of the production process<div>All members of the workforce will be involved and employees are encouraged to work in Kaizen groups - requires a highly motivated and committed workforce</div><div>Improvements can take place at any level of the hierarchy</div><div>A vital component of TQM in order to improve the quality of the production process</div><div>This is a specific approach to quality assurance that aims to develop a quality culture throughout the firm</div>
How does quality management lead to competitive advantage?"Product quality leads to increased sales<div>Effective quality assurance prevents defective products from reaching customers which enhances a reputation of outstanding quality which<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">&nbsp;can be used as a form of differentiation as a USP of high quality, enabling the business to charge higher prices</span></div><div>Higher quality can give businesses a competitive advantage which enables them to win customers from rivals, increasing market share and profit</div>"
Disadvantages of TQMAt first staff may be sceptical of TQM because it lacks the clear, concrete programme of QC or QA<div>To get TQM into the culture of a business may be expensive, as it would require extensive training among all staff</div>
Do arteries carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?Oxygenated however the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood (to the lungs)
Do veins carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?Deoxygenated however the pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood (from lungs to heart)
What are the two mechanisms to achieve blood flow in veins?Valves (prevent backflow)<div>Contraction of skeletal muscles pushes the blood forward through open valves</div>
Why can unicellular organisms solely rely on diffusion?Short diffusion distance - diffusion is sufficient<div>Large surface area to volume ratio - diffusion is sufficient</div>
What are the advantages of a double closed circulatory system?<div>Oxygenated &amp; deoxygenated blood cannot mix so tissues receive maximum oxygenated blood<br></div><div>Blood travels slowly at a lower pressure through lungs &amp; tissues to enable efficient gas exchange and prevent damage</div><div>Repressurisation – heart pumps oxygenated blood at high pressure around body, so that it reaches all parts of body faster</div>
Describe circulation in a double closed circulatory system<div>Right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs where gaseous exchanges take place in the alveoli</div><div>Oxygenated blood then returns to the heart where the blood is repressurised and the left ventricle pumps the oxygenated blood through the aorta around the whole body</div><div>Gaseous exchange then takes place between capillary and body cells</div><div>Deoxygenated blood returns to the heart through the vena cava leading to the right atrium</div>
Why do many animals need a heart and circulatory system?"Heart needed to pump blood around the body for m<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">ass flow</span><div>Many animals have a small surface area to volume ratio</div><div>Circulatory system is needed to overcome the limitations of diffusion</div><div>Many animals have a high metabolic rate</div>"
Why do organisms need a mass transport system?To move molecules quickly between gas exchange surfaces and cells in organisms that have small surface area to volume ratio where diffusion would be inadequate
Define dipoleA molecule with an unevenly distributed electrical charge, giving a positively charged and a negatively charged end of the molecule<div>In water hydrogen is slightly positive and oxygen is slightly negative</div>
Describe the differences between hydrophobic and hydrophilicHydrophobic is water-repelling whereas hydrophilic is water-attracting<div>Hydrophobic substances are non-polar and do not dissolve in water whereas hydrophilic substances are polar and dissolve in water as water surrounds the polar molecules</div>
Explain how the properties of water molecules result in surface tensionWater molecules are polar therefore form hydrogen bonds and are cohesive which results in a net inwards force at its surface
Why are classification systems used by practitioners?To help them make diagnoses and establish appropriate treatment regimens
What is the aim of classification systems?To provide clear and measurable criteria for diagnosis, which can be used in the same way by all practitioners which should increase the reliability of diagnosis
What are attempts to classify mental disorders closely linked to?The medical model of abnormality
What is the medical model of abnormality?"<div style=""direction: ltr;"">A biological approach which assumes that the major source of 'disturbed' and 'abnormal' behaviour is some form of medical illness, psychological symptoms are outward signs of the inner physical disorder and if symptoms are grouped together and classified into a syndrome the true cause can eventually be discovered and appropriate physical treatment administered</div>"
What is a strength of the medical model of abnormality?It takes a scientific, objective approach to diagnosis
What are problems with using the medical model of diagnosis for mental disorders?Whereas the classification of physical illness involves observation and measurement of objective symptoms e.g. blood pressure, with mental illnesses the symptoms are much more subjective e.g. feelings of despair, these cannot be easily measured, so the clinician must make a judgement based largely on experience<div>Diagnosis of physical illness can normally relate to the causes of the problem (aetiology) however the causes of many mental illnesses are unknown, this has an important consequence for treatments based on the biomedical model, as they can be criticised as focusing only on the symptoms of mental disorder and not the cause</div>
When was the medical model heavily criticised?In the 1960's during the anti-psychiatry movement
What did authors like Thomas Szasz and R.D Laing say relating to the anti-psychiatry movement?Suggested that psychiatric symptoms, especially psychosis, might just be an understandable reaction to coping with a sick society<div>They were very worried about the power of psychiatrists to detain and treat people, even against their will</div><div>They felt that mental hospitals were not designed to cure people, but to function as a type of prison, where disruptive or troublesome people could be removed from society</div>
What are the two major classification systems?The International Standard Classification of Diseases (ICD 10)<div>The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM 5)</div>
Who is the ICD 10 published by and where is it used?Published by the World Health Organisation<div>Commonly used in Britain and most other parts of the world</div>
Who is the DSM 5 published by and where is it used?Published by the American Psychiatric Association<div>Generally used in North America</div>
What are the DSM 5 and ICD 10?Diagnostic tools designed to enable practitioners to identify and treat particular disorders
Why are the DSM 5 and ICD 10 both regularly updated?To take into account new research
How do the ICD 10 and DSM 5 attempt to improve psychiatric diagnosis across cultures?By taking account of people's changing cultural views
What does regular revision of both manuals mean?That inconsistencies and ambiguities can be removed and results in a clear set of criteria which increases the reliability of diagnosis
Why will there always be an element of subjectivity when deciding on a diagnosis?"When making a diagnosis of depression for example, the clinician must use their own judgement to decide whether the ""sad, depressed mood"" listed as a diagnostic criterion is within normal limits<div>Therefore because of this subjectivity, no classification system can be completely reliable</div>"
What has the revision of the two classification systems led to over time?They have become more similar<div>Currently the DSM 5 correlates much more with the new ICD 11 (2018) which is currently being implemented - both include categories of mental disorder based on characteristic patterns of symptoms; the DSM 5's coding system has been revised to be in keeping with that of the ICD 10</div>
Why can the ICD 10 and DSM 5 both be criticised for being reductionist?They both rely on checklists of behaviours
How are the DSM 5 and ICD 10 both criticised for using the medical model?The medical model assumes that mental health issues are illnesses and should be treated in the same way as physical illness, but R.D Laing suggested that schizophrenia was another way of living and not a medical illness
Similarities between the DSM 5 and ICD 10Both are regularly updated to take into account of new research<div>Both take into consideration cultural differences across the world</div><div>Both are considered to be reductionist since they use checklists of symptoms to diagnose people</div><div>Both are criticised for using medical model</div>
Differences between the ICD 10 and DSM 5ICD 10 looks at physical and mental conditions, whereas DSM 5 is only for mental conditions<div>DSM 5 generates profit, whereas ICD 10 is a free open resource</div><div>ICD 10 is more reductionist compared to DSM 5's more holistic approach</div>
How do the classification systems link to the issue &amp; debate of reductionist vs holistic?Both the DSM and the ICD rely on checklists so they can both be criticised for being reductionist<div>However, DSM takes account of psychological factors and disability so it may be considered less reductionist than the ICD</div>
How do the classification systems link to the issue &amp; debate of how psychological understanding has changed over time?There are different types of mental disorder<div>In the late 19th century Kraepelin argued that psychiatric disorders were fundamentally physical in nature and should be studied as a branch of medical science, he believed it was possible to classify specific mental health disorders by their symptoms, diagnose them and predict their course</div><div>This system is constantly under review by the psychiatric profession because it is important to have a reliable and valid way of diagnosing mental disorders in order to ensure correct treatment is provided - both DSM and ICD are regularly updated</div>
What are the DSM 5 guidelines?Monitoring for client safety<div>Assessing medical/psychiatric conditions</div><div>Performing a mental status exam</div><div>Making a mental health diagnosis with the DSM</div><div>Case management</div>
Give one argument for and against classification systems being scientificGreat deal of objective data to support biological explanations of schizophrenia e.g. brain scans and blood tests are conducted with reliable equipment so data is highly credible<div>Tests on the early diagnostic systems showed low inter-rater reliability</div>
How does classification systems link to practical issues?Diagnosis with semi-structured/unstructured interviews can be low in reliability and validity because participants may withhold or embellish information
How does classification systems link to cultural differences?Some cultures exhibit and explain symptoms differently e.g. panic attacks may be a breathing difficulty in one culture but unexpected crying in another
When was the DSM first published?In 1952
When was the DSM 5 (current edition) published?May 2013
What does the DSM 5 assess individuals in terms of?a) The type of disorder from which they suffer e.g. mood disorders, anxiety disorders and psychotic disorders - each category has specific operational diagnostic criteria i.e. clear definitions are given for each disorder as well as a specific list of symptoms<div>b) Factors such as mental retardation and general medical conditions which can exist alongside a clinical disorder</div><div>c) Psychosocial and contextual factors e.g. homelessness or unemployment which can influence the wellbeing of the individual</div><div>d) Disability - the overall level of functioning of the individual</div>
Why is the DSM considered less reductionist than the ICD?Because it takes account of psychosocial factors and disability
How does classification systems relate to the issue &amp; debate of culture?"Both DSM and ICD attempt to improve psychiatric diagnoses across cultures and to take account of people's changing cultural views<div>However, there is not perfect agreement between the European ICD and the American DSM, which means they may lead to different diagnoses<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">&nbsp;which challenges the idea that it is possible to have a universal diagnostic system</span></div><div>However the DSM 5 has tried to harmonise the two systems and hopefully reliability between the two systems will improve</div><div>The recent edition of the DSM has sought to make diagnosis accurate for people from all cultural backgrounds, as it is now recognised that different cultures exhibit symptoms in different ways</div><div>Clinicians are now encouraged to take cultural background of the patient into account by using the cultural formulation interview guide</div>"
Which procedures are involved in the assessment of an individual?Clinical interview<div>Observation of the client</div><div>Medical records</div>
How does the DSM 5 focus on assessing patients?Along a spectrum rather than categories which appeared in DSM 4 - this approach to diagnosis will develop gradually over time in subsequent versions
What is the ICD used for diagnosing?Both physical and mental conditions
What is the DSM used for diagnosing?Only mental conditions
Does the DSM generate profit?Yes, for the American Psychological Association
Does the ICD generate profit?No, it is a free and open resource
How many categories does ICD 10 have?100 including dementia, schizophrenia, affective disorders and personality disorders, with similar disorders linked together
Describe how the categories work in the ICDEach of the categories notes the relevant disorders<div>Each disorder then has a description of characteristics, similar to those used in the DSM</div>
How is the ICD's criterion-based approach to diagnosis considered rather reductionist compared to DSM's more holistic approach?The ICD does not look at the other aspects (points b,c and d in the description of what the DSM assesses)
How does the DSM link to developmental psychology?The latest version of the DSM reflects developmental and lifespan considerations beginning with disorders thought to reflect developmental processes, those that occur early in life such as neurodevelopmental disorders and those on the schizophrenia spectrum, followed by those that are more commonly developed during adolescence such as depression<div>This highlights that some psychiatric illnesses occur during certain periods of our development</div>
How does the ICD relate to psychological understanding developing over time?The WHO's ICD 11 came into effect in January 2022 and changes made in the new ICD 11 include:<div>ICD 11 is entirely digital with a new user-friendly format and multilingual capabilities that reduce the chance of error, it has been compiled and updated with input from over 90 countries</div><div>WHO has ensured that ICD 11 provides a common language that allows health professionals to share standardised information across the world</div><div>ICD 11 includes clear terminology for the general public</div><div>ICD 11 includes new chapter on traditional medicine, sexual health and gaming disorder</div>
Describe the three sections that the DSM 5 manual is divided up intoSection One: intro to the manual with instructions on its use<div>Section Two: classification of the main mental health disorders e.g. bipolar disorders, neurodevelopmental disorders, schizophrenia, depressive disorders, anxiety disorders, obsessive disorders etc.</div><div>Section Three: other assessment measures to aid diagnosis e.g. a cultural formulation interview guide to help diagnose individuals from a different culture from the clinician diagnosing them and other conditions that are being assessed for possible future diagnosis e.g. internet addiction disorder and caffeine use disorder</div>
What other methods together with the DSM 5 would the clinician use to diagnose a patient?Range of information gained through clinical interview and medical records
Which has higher blood pressure; arteriole or venule end of capillary?Arteriole
<div>Describe the process of atherosclerosis</div><div>1. Damage to the endothelium of the wall of an artery</div><div>2. This triggers an inflammatory response – there is an accumulation of white blood cells as they move into the damaged wall</div><div>3. This causes a build up of cholesterol in the artery wall which forms a fatty build up called an atheroma</div><div>4. The build up of calcium salts and fibrous tissue, forming a hard plaque in the artery wall</div><div>5. The artery wall hardens and becomes less elastic</div><div>6. The artery lumen becomes narrower</div><div>7. The person now has atherosclerosis (hardening of the arteries)</div><div>8. Atherosclerosis is a self–perpetuating or positive feedback process; the narrow lumen causes a further increase in blood pressure which can cause further damage to the artery endothelium</div>
When is diagnosis considered to be reliable?If two different practitioners arrive at the same diagnosis of a patient
What can we say about a system of diagnosis if clinicians agree on a diagnosis?It has high inter-rater reliability
Weaknesses of reliability of diagnosisEarly versions of the DSM were low in reliability and much of the research on this issue seems to indicate poor diagnostic reliability<div>Spitzer and Williams (1985)</div><div>Hiller et al (1992)</div><div>Ward (1962)</div>
Strengths of reliability of diagnosisThe move to a criterion-based system where each disorder has a checklist of symptoms has increased reliability of diagnosis, the more recent versions of the DSM seem to be higher in reliability<div>Brown (2002)</div><div>Pederson (2001)</div>
Describe Spitzer and Williams (1985) researchReviewed the process of diagnosis and suggested that experienced psychiatrists only agree on diagnosis about 50% of the time
Describe Hiller et al (1992) researchArgued reliability is in doubt for some disorders related to schizophrenia
Describe Ward (1962) researchStudied 2 psychiatrists diagnosing the same patient and found that disagreement occurred because of the inconsistency of the information provided by the patient (5%), the psychiatrists' interpretation of symptoms (32.5%) and inadequacy of the classification system (62.5%)
Describe Brown (2002) researchTested the reliability and validity of DSM 5 diagnosis for anxiety and mood disorders and found them to be good to excellent
What 3 factors impact reliability of diagnosis?Patient factors<div>Clinician factors</div><div>Classification systems</div>
How do patient factors impact on reliability of diagnosis?Patients may give different psychiatrists slightly different information for some reason e.g. lack of standardisation in assessment and interview techniques which could lead different practitioners into giving different diagnoses to the same person
Define inter-rater reliabilityDegree of agreement and consistency between raters about the thing being measured
How do clinician factors impact on reliability of diagnosis?The practitioners using the classification systems are not completely objective<div>The practitioner may gather insufficient information or the practitioner may not use the categories of the classification system correctly</div><div>Associate Professor of Psychiatry, Ahmed Aboraya and colleagues (2006) research</div>
Describe Associate Professor of Psychiatry, Ahmed Aboraya and colleagues (2006) researchDraw attention to many factors which prohibit practitioners from making reliable diagnoses including the fact they simply do not have sufficient time to spend on the necessary structured interviews and rating scales<div>They also note that practitioners prefer not to use these instruments as they interfere with the development of the therapeutic rapport necessary for successful treatment</div>
How do classification systems impact on reliability of diagnosis?DSM 5 has a clear set of criteria which will increase the reliability of diagnosis - if two or more clinicians use this same standardised set of criteria, they are more likely to agree on the diagnosis which will improve inter-rater reliability<div>The new ICD 11 coding system correlated well with the DSM 5 - they both use a criterion-based system of categories of mental disorder based on characteristic patterns of behaviour, this criterion-based system list checklists of specific symptoms for each disorder and this coding allows the clinician to use this diagnostic tool in a specific way</div><div>These objective measures mean that different practitioners will use the diagnostic manuals in the same way</div>
Describe Stinchfield et al (2016) researchRandy Stinchfield and colleagues have been researching gambling disorder for the past 15 years<div>Using patients recruited from a treatment programme in Ontario and members of the local community, they were able to accurately identify 91% of participants as either having or not having gambling disorder</div><div>Gambling disorder reliably diagnosed with DSM 5, DSM 5 test-retest data has shown high levels of agreement</div>
Describe Pederson (2001) researchFound that 71% of psychiatrists agreed with the ICD 10 definition of depression when assessing 116 patients which indicates high inter-rater reliability
Which attempts have there been to make improvements to reliability?Reliability has been improved with the use of standardised interview schedules, which specify the symptoms to ask about and give instructions as to how to rate their severity<div>Classification systems now have specific diagnostic operational criteria for diagnosis to increase objectivity and reliability i.e clear definitions are given for each disorder and a list of symptoms are given</div><div>Research now shows that both DSM 5 and ICD 10 have both significantly improved in reliability for diagnosis of schizophrenia, anxiety and mood disorders</div>
How is a platelet plug formed?When platelets come into contact with the damaged endothelium of the artery wall they change from flattened discs to spheres with long thin projections<div>Their surfaces change causing them to stick to each other and the exposed collagen</div><div>This forms a temporary platelet plug</div>
Explain the role of blood clots in heart diseaseBlood clots can block the coronary arteries reducing the flow of blood and oxygen supply to heart tissue resulting in a heart attack
Explain why a blood clot in an artery leading to the brain could cause a strokeReduced blood flow so less oxygen and glucose reaches the brain therefore less aerobic respiration can take place<div>Less ATP produced - the brain needs a lot of ATP/energy to function</div><div>Anaerobic respiration produces lactic acid which is toxic and inhibits enzymes</div>
What is a hazard?Something which can cause you harm
Define concurrent validityCompares evidence from different diagnostic tests to see if they agree
Define aetiological validityExists when the diagnosis reflects the cause
Define predictive validityWhere the future course of a disorder is known and can be applied to the person, so the diagnosis can be checked against the outcome to see if it is valid
What are the 3 types of validity?Concurrent<div>Predictive</div><div>Aetiological</div>
Define validity of diagnosisRefers to the extent to which a diagnosis is accurate
How do patient factors impact on validity of diagnosis?The patient may not disclose all relevant information because they may be embarrassed or ashamed or because they may not remember all relevant details which might mean that the clinician would not be able to arrive at an accurate diagnosis
How do clinician factors impact on validity of diagnosis?Implicit bias (positive or negative attitudes that a person may hold at an unconscious level) in the clinician can reduce the validity of diagnosis because the beliefs of a clinician e.g men are less likely to suffer from depression than women, might mean that they arrive at an inaccurate and invalid diagnosis<div>This is particularly likely to be a problem as using both the DSM and the ICD involves a clinical interview and because interviews tend to be more subjective, this can affect validity of diagnosis as questionnaires and interviews may produce the findings that the clinician expects to find</div>
<div>What 3 factors impact validity of diagnosis?</div><div>Patient factors</div><div>Clinician factors</div><div>Classification systems<br></div>
How do classification systems impact on validity of diagnosis?If the classification system itself is biased then the diagnosis will not be valid
How is the DSM 5 an improvement on the DSM 4?It reflects social changes<div>The DSM 5 acknowledges that dementia is a growing problem and has been reclassified as a neurocognitive disorder, separating mild and major dementia to encourage doctors to diagnose early which will therefore increase accuracy of diagnosis</div>
Give an example of improved accuracy of diagnosisThe wars in Iraq and Afghanistan have provided us with more insight into Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)<div>The DSM 5 now covers more symptoms for this disorder, such as flashbacks - these will further aid the clinician in correctly diagnosing a patient's symptoms</div>
Describe Cochrane et al (1995) studyBlames the classification systems used in Britain which lead practitioners to take on a 'Eurocentric bias' which means they cannot take into account the 'normal' behaviours of other cultures because they are based on European ideas
Describe Littlewood (1992) studyQuestions the international validity of DSM 4 as he says the assumptions it makes about nuclear family life are not applicable to all cultures
Describe Jansson et al (2002) studyFound that different classification systems focused on different features and symptoms in schizophrenia e.g. the ICD 10 and ICD 9, which threatens the validity of the two systems
Describe Mason and colleagues (1997) studyShowed that the diagnosis of schizophrenia using the ICD 10 has good predictive validity<div>The study compared different ways of making a diagnosis and found that accurate diagnosis for future functioning were made in 99 people with schizophrenia</div><div>The ICD was 'reasonably good at predicting disability' 13 years later, as measured by the global assessment of functioning questionnaire</div>
How do you maintain a healthy weight?An equal energy input (consumed) to energy use (expenditure)
Why is the waist-to-hip ratio considered a better measure of obesity?Studies have shown it shows a highly significant association with risk of heart attack
Is the secondary structure 2 dimensional or 3 dimensional?3 dimensional
What is the equation for photosynthesis?6CO2 + 6H2O -&gt; C6H12O6 + 6O2
What is photolysis?The splitting of water using the energy from sunlight<div>Hydrogen ions, electrons and oxygen are released</div>
What is the equation for photolysis?H2O -&gt; 2H+ + 2e- + 1/2O2
How is the hydrogen from the water stored?In general, the hydrogen reacts with the carbon dioxide<div>The carbon dioxide is reduced to form the carbohydrate glucose</div>
What is in chloroplasts?DNA loop<div>Stroma</div><div>Thylakoid space</div><div>Inner membrane</div><div>Starch grain</div><div>Granum</div><div>Outer membrane</div><div>Thylakoid membrane</div>
Where do the light dependent reactions take place?Thylakoid membrane
Where do the light independent reactions take place?Stroma
Where does photolysis take place?Thylakoid space
What are thylakoid membranes?A system of interconnected flattened fluid-filled sacs
What are granum?A stack of thylakoids joined to one another<div>Grana (plural) resemble stacks of coins</div>
What is the thylakoid space?Fluid within the thylakoid membrane sacs
What is the stroma?Fluid surrounding the thylakoid membranes
What do starch grains do?Store the products of photosynthesis
Describe the light-dependent reactions1. Light hits a chlorophyll PSII molecule embedded in the thylakoid membrane and 2 electrons become excited and exist at a higher energy level<div>2. The electrons leave the chlorophyll PSII and pass to the first electron carrier in the electron transport chain</div><div>3. The electrons pass down the electron transport chain from one electron carrier to the next in a series of REDOX reactions, as the energy level of the electron falls, energy is lost</div><div>4. The energy is used to synthesise ATP and H+ passes through ATP synthase into the stroma which results in the phosphorylation of ADP which is known as photophosphorylation and is a condensation reaction</div><div>5. Light hits PSI and another 2 electrons become excited and raised to a higher energy level, these leave the chlorophyll and pass down the second electron transport chain, the 2 electrons from PSII replace those lost from PSI</div><div>6. In the thylakoid space, photolysis occurs and the electrons released replace those lost from PSII</div><div>7. The hydrogen ions from photolysis pass through ATP synthase and join with the electrons from the electron transport chain to reduce NADP to form NADPH</div>
What happens when light hits a chlorophyll PSII molecule embedded in the thylakoid membrane?2 electrons become excited and exist at a higher energy level<div>The electrons leave the chlorophyll PSII and transfer to the first electron carrier in the electron transport chain</div>
How do electron move down the electron transport chain?In a series of REDOX reactions (oxidation and reduction)
What happens to the energy level of the electron as it moves down the electron transport chain?<div>The energy level of the electron falls</div>Energy is lost and this energy is used to synthesise ATP from the addition of Pi to ADP in a process called photophosphorylation which is a condensation reaction catalysed by ATP synthase<div>H+ passes through ATP synthase into the stroma which results in the phosphorylation of ADP</div>
What happens when light hits PSI?Another 2 electrons become excited and raised to a higher energy level<div>These leave the chlorophyll and pass down the second electron transport chain</div><div>The 2 electrons from PSII replace those lost from PSI</div>
What do 2 1/2O2 made in photolysis join to create?O2 which is a waste product
What do the electrons released in photolysis replace?Those lost from PSII
What do the hydrogen ions released from photolysis and the electrons from the electron transport chain do?<div>The hydrogen ions pass through ATP synthase and join with the electrons from the electron transport chain to reduce NADP to form reduced NADP (NADPH)</div>
Describe the formation of ATPPhosphorylation - condensation reaction<div>Enzyme: ATP synthase</div><div>Energy taken in</div>
Describe the breakdown of ATPDephosphorylation - hydrolysis reaction<div>Enzyme: ATPase</div><div>Energy released</div>
Describe ATP synthesis"At intervals embedded in the thylakoid membrane, there are ATP synthase enzymes through which H+ from photolysis diffuse into the stroma by&nbsp;<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">moving down an electrochemical gradient</span><div>As the H+ diffuse into the stroma through ATP synthase, ADP is photophosphorylated to form ATP</div><div>Hydrogen ions cause a conformational change in the enzyme's active site, so the ADP can bind</div><div>This is called chemiosmosis&nbsp;</div>"
Describe the light-independent reactions1. 6 x CO2 combine with 6 x 5C compound RuBP which is catalysed by the enzyme RuBISCO, this is known as carbon fixation<div>2. 6 unstable intermediate 6C compounds are formed and they immediately split into 12 3C compounds - GP</div><div>3. Each GP is reduced to form GALP - the hydrogens come from the oxidation of NADPH and the energy is provided by the hydrolysis/dephosphorylation of ATP into ADP and Pi</div><div>4. 2 of the 12 GALPs formed are removed from the cycle and they combine to create a hexose sugar which can be converted into other organic molecules for use by the plant</div><div>5. The remaining 10 GALPs are used to regenerate the 6 RuBP, the GALP is phosphorylated - the energy and phosphate for this is provided by the hydrolysis/dephosphorylation of ATP into ADP and Pi</div>
What is Pi?Inorganic phosphate
What happens to the hexose sugar from the 2 GALPs?Converted into:<div>Alpha glucose to be used in respiration or converted into sucrose for transportation to be stored as starch (amylose &amp; amylopectin)</div><div>Beta glucose to form cellulose</div><div>Amino acids, lipids and nucleic acids</div>
Describe carbon fixation6 x CO2 combine with 6 x 5C compound RuBP which is catalysed by RuBISCO
What is formed from carbon fixation?6 unstable intermediate 6C compounds<div>They immediately split into 12 3C compounds (GP)</div>
What is each GP reduced to form and how?GALP<div>The hydrogens come from the oxidation of reduced NADP</div><div>The energy is provided by the hydrolysis/dephosphorylation of ATP into ADP and Pi</div>
What happens to 2 out of 12 GALPs?They are removed from the cycle and combine to create a hexose sugar which can be converted into other organic molecules for use by the plant
What are the remaining 10 GALPs used to regenerate and how?6 RuBP<div>GALP is phosphorylated - the energy and phosphate for this is provided by the hydrolysis/dephosphorylation of ATP into ADP and Pi</div>
What molecule is produced by photophosphorylation?ATP
What molecules are produced by dephosphorylation?ADP and Pi
Define productivityThe rate of generation of biomass in an ecosystem
Define GPPThe rate at which energy is incorporated into biomass by plants/producers/photosynthesis
Define NPPThe rate at which energy is transferred into biomass that make up new plant biomass
Define biomassThe amount of living material present, can be per unit area
Why is 100% of light energy falling on a leaf not converted into biomass?Reflection<div>Incorrect wavelength colour/frequency of light</div><div>Light not hitting the chloroplast or it is transmitted</div><div>Light is in excess - already at maximum photosynthesis so no more light can be used</div>
How do you calculate % efficiency of photosynthesis?(GPP / amount of light energy hitting plant) x 100
How do you calculate NPP?NPP = GPP - R
How is energy lost between producers and primary consumers?Not all the available food gets eaten i.e. twigs<div>Some undigested food remains in faeces i.e. cellulose</div><div>Much of the food absorbed by the consumer is used in respiration</div>
Why is the transfer of energy more efficient between primary and secondary consumers?Most of the herbivore is eaten by the carnivore<div>The herbivore provides a protein-rich diet which is more easily digestible</div>
Define correlationWhen a change in one variable is associated with a change in another variable
Define causationWhen a change in one variable is responsible for a change in another variable
Why is pollen so useful for reconstructing past climates?Plants produce pollen in vast amounts<div>Pollen grains have a tough outer layer that is resistant to decay</div><div>Each species of plant has a distinctive type of pollen - allows plant identification</div><div>Pollen is trapped in peat - the deeper the pollen in peat, the older the pollen</div><div>Each plant species has a particular set of environment conditions - the type of pollen present indicates the tree and therefore the climate</div>
Why are peat bogs so good at preserving organic matter?They are anaerobic (lacking in oxygen) and acidic<div>These conditions inhibit the growth, survival and multiplication of microorganisms by inhibiting enzyme activity so the decay rate is slowed or stopped altogether</div>
What is tree-ring analysis known as?Dendrochronology
What type of climate is indicated by wide tree rings and why?Warm and wet<div>An optimum temperature and an abundance of water is better for tree growth, therefore larger xylem vessels will be created and the tree ring will be wider</div>
How are ice cores used to indicate past climates?As water freezes, bubbles of air become trapped within the ice<div>The ratio of different oxygen isotopes in the trapped air is measured and this gives an estimate of the average temperature when the ice was formed and CO2 concentration can also be measured in the bubbles</div>
How do partially permeable membranes allow osmosis to take place?A partially permeable membrane is a barrier to some solutes but not water which enables a concentration gradient of solutes/water
Why do the DNA strands run in opposite directions?So the hydrophilic phosphate groups are on the outside and the hydrophobic bases are on the inside
What do the sequence of bases/codons on mRNA determine?The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
Where are cilia found?In the epithelial cell lining of the respiratory system (trachea and bronchi)
What happens if thicker and stickier mucus blocks the vas deferens?Sperm cannot pass through<div>Less sperm in each ejaculation</div><div>Reduces the chance of a sperm fertilising the egg</div>
Describe what CF isGene mutation causing a non-functioning CFTR channel protein so chloride ions cannot move out of epithelial cells which leads to an accumulation sodium and chloride ions in the cells preventing water moving into mucus by osmosis so it becomes thicker and stickier
What is the limiting factor when enzyme concentration increases, the initial rate of reaction increases?Enzyme concentration - the increase in rate will continue as long as the substrate continues to be in excess
What is most ultraviolet absorbed by?Ozone in the stratosphere
What 2 things happen to visible radiation?Some is reflected by the Earth and some is reflected by clouds
What happens to most solar radiation?Absorbed by the Earth's surface
What 2 things happen to infrared?Some is absorbed by greenhouse gases, warming the troposphere<div>Some is emitted from the Earth's surface cooling it</div>
Describe the greenhouse effectGreenhouse gases, CO2 and methane, accumulate and absorb/trap infrared radiation which is reflected from the Earth's surface which increases the mean temperature of the Earth's atmosphere and surface
What characteristics must a greenhouse gas have?Long lifespan<div>Ability to absorb infrared radiation</div><div>Abundance in the atmosphere</div>
Which processes release CO2 into the atmosphere?Combustion of fossil fuels<div>Deforestation - lower capacity to absorb CO2 in photosynthesis</div>
Which processes release methane into the atmosphere?Decay of organic matter in waterlogged conditions i.e. bogs and paddy/rice fields<div>Decay of domestic waste in landfill sites</div><div>Decomposition of animal matter</div><div>Digestive systems of cattle</div><div>Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels</div>
Define controversial issueWhen alternative points of view about the issue can be reasonably held
Why does climate change remain controversial?Science cannot prove theories - scientific methods can only disprove them. A hypothesis is proposed and tested. If the results dispute the idea, the hypothesis is rejected; if the results support the idea it still does not prove it<div>There is incomplete knowledge about how the climate system works. The data sets used in making predictions have limitations</div>
What is the general consensus on climate change?"Global temperatures are rising and the climate is changing - g<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">reenhouse gases are partly responsible for this</span>"
How has the general consensus on climate change&nbsp;been reached?By the gradual build-up of a large body of scientific evidence
What do some other people believe about climate change?Climate change and increases in temperature are due to the natural cycle of climate variations and changes in the sun's activity
When people make conclusions, what are they influenced by?Their own particular values and viewpoint - the scientific methodology can be sidelined<div>Political and economic considerations - data could be interpreted with hidden agendas and this then becomes news rather than science. Also, scientists could be influenced by those who provide their research funding</div>
What are ethical arguments of climate change?We have a right to choose whether or not we use fossil fuels to achieve a good standard of living<div>We have a duty to allow others to improve their standard of living</div><div>We have a duty to preserve the environment for future generations</div>
Define global warmingGradual increase in average temperature of earth's surface, atmosphere and oceans
What is DNA analysed to detect?Defective gene mutation
What are the advantages of genetic screening?The information can allow people to make informed decisions, gives people the opportunity to choose/consider a termination<div>The information can be used to allow people to prepare or start counselling</div><div>Couples may have the choice of IVF to implant only embryos without the gene mutation</div>
Why can't CVS detect gene problems on X chromosomes?They are inactivated in fetal placental cells
How long do CVS results take?2-3 days
How long do amniocentesis results take?2 weeks
What is the key question?Should airline companies offer treatment programmes to passengers with a fear of flying?
What is fear regarded to be?One of the six universal emotions which are instinctive
What happens when normal fears escalate?They can develop into a phobia which is distinctly different from a fear
What symptoms do you need to have to be diagnosed with a phobia?The fear of the object, item or situation has to be marked and persistent which affects the person's functioning in everyday life<div>Exposure to the phobic stimulus almost invariably provokes an immediate anxiety response - crying, panic attack, freezing or running away</div><div>The object, item or situation is excessively avoided by the individual</div><div>These symptoms must be present for at least 6 months</div>
What is fear of flying known as?Aerophobia
How many people have a fear of flying?Approximately one in six
What other phobias can a fear of flying be associated with?Fear of heights (acrophobia) or claustrophobia
What are the most common reasons people give to explain their fear of flying?Fear of crashing<div>Not being in control</div><div>Fear of the flight being hijacked</div>
What are the chances of being involved in a plane crash compared to a road accident?Incredibly low - 1 in 5.4 million whereas the chances of being in a road accident are 1 in 240
What did US airlines notice following the 9/11 terror attacks in New York?A drastic decline in passenger miles, while road use increased
What did Professor Gerd Gigerenzer (a psychologist specialising in risk behaviour) estimate?That an additional 1595 Americans died in car accidents the year after the 9/11 terror attacks, likely due to people choosing to drive rather than fly<div>Therefore, it would seem that flying is a safer form of travel, particularly for long distances</div>
Why is fear of flying an important issue?Air travel is so common in today's society and is often unavoidable<div>Many people have to travel by plane regularly for work, leisure or to visit family members abroad</div><div>A fear of flying would therefore prevent people from working or seeing family</div><div>This not only impacts on individuals' lives but also has an economic impact</div>
What is the benefit of airline companies offering treatment programmes to passengers with fear of flying?May help passengers overcome their fear, and therefore have a positive effect on their personal lives as well as on the overall economy
Describe some airlines that have introduced treatment programmes to passengers with a fear of flying with successEasyJet - 'Fearless Flyer' course which helped over 10,000 people<div>Virgin Atlantic - 'Flying Without Fear' course which helped 2-3000 people every year with a 98% success rate</div>
Describe a recent plane crashTwo United Airlines planes collided on March 6 2023 at Logan International Airport, in Boston
Briefly explain classical conditioningClassical conditioning proposes that behaviour is learnt through the pairing of stimuli that over time produce a conditioned response<div>Evidence: Pavlov, Watson &amp; Rayner</div>
"Briefly explain&nbsp;<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">operant conditioning</span>"Operant conditioning proposes that behaviour is learnt through reinforcements and punishments<div>Evidence: Skinner</div>
Briefly explain Social Learning TheorySocial Learning Theory proposes that behaviour is learnt through observation, modelling and imitation<div>Evidence: Bandura</div>
How does classical conditioning explain a fear of flying for the individual?"A fear of flying develops due to pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to create a conditioned response<div>E.g. a person may develop a fear of flying due to having experienced turbulence (unconditioned stimulus) on a flight before which would cause them to feel fear (unconditioned response). Prior to having e<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">xperienced turbulence, flying would have been a neutral stimulus. The person then learns to associate flying with turbulence so the next time they fly they may also have a similar fear response. Flying therefore becomes the conditioned stimulus, creating a conditioned response</span></div>"
How does operant conditioning explain a fear of flying for the individual?E.g. when someone has aerophobia, by not flying they reduce their anxiety which acts as a negative reinforcement. Alternatively, when someone experiences a fear of flying, they may receive attention which acts as a positive reinforcement
How does social learning theory explain a fear of flying for the individual?E.g. a child may learn to fear flying if they observe their parents or role model to have a fear of flying (observation, modelling, imitation)
Explain how flooding therapy could be used to treat fear of flyingThe idea is based upon biological principles that if an individual experiences something fearful, then that will cause an alarm reaction for a certain length of time and then it would have to subside<div>E.g. someone with aerophobia would experience an alarm reaction on a flight but this reaction would only have a certain longevity so the person would calm down and relearn the association</div>
Explain how systematic desensitisation could be used to treat fear of flyingA person with aerophobia could gradually become more and more familiar with the situation while also learning breathing techniques and progressive muscle relaxation<div>E.g. week 1 - talk about planes, week 2 - look at images of planes, week 3 - watch videos of planes, week 4 - visit the airport, week 5 - book plane ticket, week 6 - pack bag, week 7 - go on plane trip</div>
Briefly summarise Capafons et al (1998) researchAim - to investigate the effects of systematic desensitisation as a treatment programme to treat fear of flying<div>Conclusion - significant decrease in fear of flying in treatment group, systematic desensitisation is an effective treatment for reducing fear of flying</div>
Describe virtual reality exposure theoryPeople are exposed to a computer-generated three-dimensional virtual aeroplane as opposed to an actual aeroplane
Describe Rothbaum et al. (2000) research"Researched into the effectiveness of VRE therapy as a treatment for fear of flying and found it to be as effective as standard therapy (involving an actual aeroplane)<div>Participants given 4 sessions of anxiety management training followed by either VRE or standard therapy (real plane) or control group</div><div>Measured participants' willingness to fly and anxiety during flight - n<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">o difference between VRE and standard therapy</span></div><div>6 months after 93% of VRE participants and 93% of standard therapy participants had flown</div>"
What is one strength of using classical conditioning as a treatment of fear of flying?Research has demonstrated that therapies using classical conditioning principles can be effective
What is one weakness of classical conditioning as an explanation for fear of flying?It could be considered reductionist because it ignores social factors such as how people may learn a fear response as a result of observational learning, therefore social learning theory may be a better explanation
What is one strength of operant conditioning as an explanation for fear of flying?Theory is supported by scientific research which uses reliable, standardised procedures e.g. Skinner was able to replicate his research and test whether behaviour is learnt through positive and negative reinforcements over and over again
What is one weakness of operant conditioning as an explanation for fear of flying?It is questionable how applicable it is to aerophobia as most research in this area has been carried out with animals in artificial settings, lowering the generalisability and ecological validity
What is one strength of social learning theory as an explanation for fear of flying?It is a more holistic view learning as it considers social and cognitive factors
What is one weakness of social learning theory as an explanation for fear of flying?Supporting evidence comes from lab experiments and so lack ecological validity, therefore it is questionable whether the theory can be applied to fear of flying in the real world
When was social learning theory developed and by who?1977 by Albert Bandura
How was social learning theory developed?Following the results from a series of experiments Bandura and his colleagues had carried out at Stanford University
What happened in America throughout the 1960s?Strong societal change - civil rights movement, president Kennedy was shot and there was a sense of revolt against normal social norms<div>These changes in society sparked the interest of academic psychologists to study the social aspects associated with human behaviour</div>
What was Bandura curious about?As to how the changes in society had affected human behaviour: how had people learned new behaviour<div>Also wanted to build on theories of operant and classical conditioning since he hypothesised that learning a new behaviour was simply much more complex than originally put forward by Pavlov, Watson and Rayner, and Skinner</div>
What are Bandura's 3 experiments?"1. Transmission of aggression through imitation of aggressive models - Bandura, Ross and Ross (1961)<div>2. Imitation of film mediated aggressive models - Bandura, Ross and Ross (1963)</div><div>3.&nbsp;<span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: arial; text-align: center; background-color: var(--bs-body-bg);"">Influence of model's reinforcement contingencies on the acquisition of imitative responses</span>&nbsp;- Bandura (1965)</div>"
What was the title of study 1?Transmission of aggressive behaviour through imitation of aggressive models - Bandura, Ross and Ross (1961)
What was the aim of study 1?To see whether aggressive behaviour could be acquired through observation of aggressive models
What were the 4 hypotheses tested in study 1?1. Children exposed to aggressive role models would imitate the modelled aggression<div>2. Observation of non-aggressive models would inhibit aggressive behaviour</div><div>3. Children will imitate the behaviour of a same-sex model more than model of the opposite sex</div><div>4. Boys would display more aggression than girls</div>
What is the method of study 1?Laboratory experiment
What is the design of study 1?Matched pairs
How were participants matched?Upon their aggression level which were identified by a female experimenter and the children's nursery school teacher - both knew the children well prior to the study<div>The children were rated on a five-point aggression scale for displays for physical or verbal aggression towards objects and their ability to control their behaviour</div><div>This controls the participant variable of aggression</div>
Describe the sample used in study 172 children from the Stanford University nursery<div>36 boys and 36 girls</div><div>Mean age of 52 months</div>
Describe how the participants were divided into 3 categories in study 112 boys and 12 girls witnessed an aggressive role model<div>12 boys and 12 girls witnessed a non-aggressive role model</div><div>12 boys and 12 girls did not see a role model (control group)</div>
How was each category further subdivided?Within each category, half of the participants saw a same-sex role model and half saw an opposite-sex role model
Name the 3 stages of the procedure in study 11. Modelling stage<div>2. Mild aggression arousal</div><div>3. Test for delayed imitation</div>
How long was modelling stage (stage one)?Approximately 10 mins
Describe the procedure of the modelling stage in study 1 for all groupsThe experimenter led the participant into the first room, where the child was seated at the table and encouraged to play with the potato prints and stickers<div>The model was then escorted to the opposite corner of the room and told that the Tinker toy set, mallet and Bobo doll were for him or her to play with</div><div>The experimenter then left the room</div>
Describe the procedure of the modelling stage in study 1 for the aggressive conditionThe model started to play with the Tinkertoy set, but after a minute turned to the Bobo doll and started to act aggressively towards it<div>The aggressive acts were deliberately stylised so that imitation of them would be clear and not just examples of how children would play with the Bobo doll</div><div>The physically aggressive acts were repeated about three times in a 10 min period</div>
State one of the physically aggressive acts in the modelling stage in study 1"<div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Laid the Bobo doll on its side, sat on it and punched it on the nose</span></div>"
State one of the verbally aggressive responses in the modelling stage in study 1'Pow'
State one of the non-aggressive phrases in the modelling stage in study 1'He sure keeps coming back for more'
Describe the procedure of the modelling stage in study 1 for the non-aggressive conditionOnce seated at the table, the adult assembled the Tinker toys in a quiet, subdued manner and ignored the Bobo doll for the 10 mins that the child was in the room<div>After 10 mins the experimenter came to collect the child, saying they were going to another room</div>
Describe the procedure of the modelling stage in study 1 for the control groupDid not see a model
How long was the mild aggression arousal stage (stage two)?Approximately 2 mins
Describe the procedure of the mild aggression arousal stage in study 1Each child including those from the control group was then taken into room two, where they were subjected to mild aggression arousal<div>This room was filled with attractive toys; a jet fighter plane, a cable car and a colourful spinning top</div><div>The child was allowed to play with them for 2 mins then the experimenter stopped the child and said, 'These are my very best toys! I don't just let anyone play with them! I have decided to keep them for the other children. But you can play with the toys in the next room'</div>
What was the purpose of the mild aggression arousal stage?To make sure that their emotional levels were similar before the next phase
How long was the test for delayed imitation stage (stage three)?Approximately 20 mins
Describe the procedure of the test for delayed imitation in study 1Each child including those from the control group, was taken into room three<div>This room contained a variety of aggressive toys: a bobo doll, a mallet and two dart guns</div><div>The non-aggressive toys included a tea set, crayons and two dolls</div><div>The experimenter stayed with them, as some of the children refused to go into this room on their own or tried to leave before the allotted time. To avoid affecting the children's behaviour the experimenter worked discreetly at the other end of the room. The child was able to play with the toys and their behaviour was observed for 20 mins through a one-way mirror</div>
Describe how the children were observedFor 20 mins through a one-way mirror by 2 observers<div>They scored the subjects behaviour at five second intervals, which gave 240 observations</div><div>The children were observed for the following categories of behaviour: imitative physical aggression, imitative verbal aggression, non-imitative aggression, mallet aggression, gun play</div>
Give data to support result 1: participants in the aggressive condition showed more aggressive behaviour than those in the non-aggressive or control condition"Physical aggression for boys with a male model in the aggressive condition = 25.8<div>Compared to:</div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">1.5 in the non-aggressive condition</span><div>2.0 in the control group</div></div>"
What are the 4 main results?1. Participants in the aggressive condition showed more aggressive behaviour than those in the non-aggressive or control condition<div>2. The participants in the non-aggressive condition showed no significant difference in aggressive behaviour to the control group who saw no model</div><div>3. The sex of the model impacted on the participants; children would be more likely to copy a same-sex model than the opposite sex model</div><div>4. Boys in particular imitated more aggressive acts than girls, especially with the same-sex model</div>
Give data to support result 2: the participants in the non-aggressive condition showed no significant difference in the aggressive behaviour to the control group who saw no modelVerbal aggression for girls with a female model in the non-aggressive condition = 0.3<div>Compared to in the control group = 0.7</div>
Give data to support result 3: the sex of the model impacted on the participants; children would be more likely to copy a same-sex model than the opposite sex modelVerbal aggression for girls with a male model in the aggressive condition = 2.0<div>Lower compared to with a female model = 13.7</div>
Give data to support result 4: boys in particular imitated more aggressive acts than girls, especially with the same-sex modelPhysical aggression for boys with a male model in the aggressive condition = 25.8<div>Higher compared to girls = 5.5</div><div>And compared to boys with a female model = 12.4</div>
Describe the conclusion for study 1If a child is exposed to an aggressive model, it is likely that they would imitate their behaviour<div>Boys were more likely to imitate the same-sex model than girls</div><div>Not all behaviour is learnt through the process of punishment and reward as previously suggested by Skinner through the principles of operant conditioning</div><div>Behaviour is learned when a role model is observed and imitated</div>
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessesThe sample may be biased as the participants are not representative of a target population of children in general because the children were all from Stanford University nursery and the majority of these children are likely to have been sons/daughters of university academics and so all children are from a middle-class white background therefore, this may indicate cultural bias, so the findings about learning through observation may not generalise to the broader population<div>The children were all between 3 and 5 years old therefore, the findings about learning of aggression may not generalise to older children or adults</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthsHigh reliability as standardised procedures were used for each child making the research easily replicable e.g. in the mild aggression arousal stage, the children had the exact same toys to play with and the exact same phrase was said to all of them<div>The results of the two observers used to record the behaviour in the test for delayed imitation were checked for reliability and high inter-rater reliability was found (0.9 = very strong positive correlation)</div>
APPLICATIONS - strengthProvoked a great deal of debate on the effects of aggressive role models on children's behaviour and aided in the development of policies that effectively censor what children can watch e.g. certification of movies
ECOLOGICAL VALIDITY - weaknessLaboratory setting therefore lacks in ecological validity and the artificial environment may have made the behaviour seen in the children less natural e.g. the bobo doll was an unusual object to the children and the three rooms were all very controlled settings with the same toys and the same events and may not have been a realistic reflection of the children's natural environment<div>This had had an implication on how useful these research findings are in terms of demonstrating children's responses to seeing someone behaving aggressively so it is possible that the study has limited real world applications</div>
VALIDITY - strengthHigh internal validity - carried out in a laboratory setting and had several controls to ensure that extraneous variables did not influences the children's behaviour e.g. the children's aggression levels prior to the experiment were controlled by the participants being matched with a child that had a similar aggression rating, they were then randomly allocated to the three conditions to ensure that any aggressive behaviour seen was not the result of pre-existing aggression in the children. This control enabled Bandura to make cause and effect links between the aggression of models and the behaviour of the children since the main variables were isolated through the controls
VALIDITY - weaknessBobo doll threatens the internal validity because it could be that the children believed that they were expected to hit the bobo doll and that the adult model was giving them instructions as to what was expected - these demand characteristics may mean that the behaviour differences seen in the children may not be because of observational learning so validity is lowered
ETHICS - weaknessesNot clear how consent was granted for the children to participate in the study and whether the parents knew exactly what would happen to their children<div>Participants were not protected from harm as they were trained to be aggressive and it is not known how long the effects of the study would last (the children were never followed up)</div><div>In the mild aggression arousal stage many of the children became upset when they were not allowed to play with the toys</div>
What was the title of study 2?Imitation of film mediated aggressive models - Bandura, Ross and Ross (1963)
What did Bandura want to explore following his first study?Whether or not children could learn aggressive behaviour through watching violent acts on film
What were the aims of study 2?To investigate whether a filmed model would have the same effect as a live model on children's aggression<div>To investigate whether cartoon violence would have a similar impact to realistic filmed aggression</div>
What was the method of study 2?Laboratory experiment
What was the design of study 2?Matched pairs - same process as study 1<div>Matched upon aggression levels by a female experimenter and nursery teacher. Rated on a five point aggression scale for displays of physical or verbal aggression towards objects and their ability to control behaviour</div>
Describe the sample used in study 296 children<div>48 boys and 48 girls from the Stanford University Nursery aged between between 35 and 69 months</div>
Describe how the participants were divided into 4 categories in study 224 children in real life aggressive model condition<div>24 children in human film aggression condition</div><div>24 children in cartoon film aggression condition</div><div>24 children in control group</div><div>Within each group half of the participants witnessed a same-sex model and the other half witnesses and opposite-sex model</div>
Name the 3 stages of the procedure used in study 21. Modelling stage<div>2. Mild aggression arousal</div><div>3. Test for delayed imitation</div>
What are the 4 conditions?1. Real life aggression condition<div>2. Human film aggression condition</div><div>3. Cartoon film aggression condition</div><div>4. Control group</div>
Describe the procedure of the modelling stage in study 2 for the real life aggression condition<div>The experimenter led the participant into the first room, where the child was seated at the table and encouraged to play with the potato prints and stickers</div><div>The model was then escorted to the opposite corner of the room and told that the Tinker toy set, mallet and Bobo doll were for him or her to play with</div><div>The experimenter then left the room</div><div>The model started to play with the Tinkertoy set, but after a minute turned to the Bobo doll and started to act aggressively towards it</div><div>The aggressive acts were deliberately stylised so that imitation of them would be clear and not just examples of how children would play with the Bobo doll</div><div>The physically aggressive acts were repeated about three times in a 10 min period</div>
State one of the non-aggressive phrases in the modelling stage in study 2 for the real life aggression condition'He sure keeps coming back for more'
State one of the physically aggressive acts in the modelling stage in study 2 for the real life aggression conditionLaid the Bobo doll on its side, sat on it and punched it on the nose
State one of the verbally aggressive responses in the modelling stage in study 2 for the real life aggression condition'Pow'
Describe the procedure of the modelling stage in study 2 for the human film aggression conditionThe experimenter led the participant into a semi-darkened room and introduced them into the picture materials and informed that while they played with potato prints, a movie would be shown on a screen, positioned approximately 6 feet from the subject's table<div>The colour movie and tape recording of the soundtrack was begun by a male projectionist</div><div>The film was shown for 10 mins</div><div>The models in the film were the same adult males and females who participated in the real life aggression condition</div>
How long was the modelling stage (stage one)?Approximately 10 mins
How long was the mild aggression arousal stage (stage two)?Approximately 2 mins
How long was the test for delayed imitation stage (stage three)?Approximately 20 mins
Describe the procedure of the modelling stage in study 2 for the cartoon film aggression conditionThe experimenters sat the participants at the table with the picture construction material, the experimenter walked over to the television console which was 3 feet in front of the participants table and remarked 'I'll guess I'll turn on the colour TV' and turned the cartoon on then left the room<div>The cartoon was performed by a female model costumed as a black cat similar to the many cartoon cats. The cartoon began with a close up of a stage in which the curtains were slowly drawn revealing a picture of a cartoon cat along with the title, 'Herman the Cat'. The film then showed the cat sitting on the doll and punching it on the nose in a manner identical with the performance in the real life aggression condition and the cat's verbal aggression was repeated in a high pitched voice</div>
<div>Describe the procedure of the mild aggression arousal stage in study 2</div>Each child including those from the control group was then taken into room two, where they were subjected to mild aggression arousal<div>This room was filled with attractive toys; a jet fighter plane, a cable car and a colourful spinning top</div><div>The child was allowed to play with them for 2 mins then the experimenter stopped the child and said, 'These are my very best toys! I don't just let anyone play with them! I have decided to keep them for the other children. But you can play with the toys in the next room'</div>
Describe the procedure of the test for delayed imitation in study 2Each child including those from the control group, was taken into room three<div>This room contained a variety of aggressive toys: a bobo doll, a mallet and two dart guns</div><div>The non-aggressive toys included a tea set, crayons and two dolls</div><div>The experimenter stayed with them, as some of the children refused to go into this room on their own or tried to leave before the allotted time. To avoid affecting the children's behaviour the experimenter worked discreetly at the other end of the room. The child was able to play with the toys and their behaviour was observed for 20 mins through a one-way mirror</div><div>Two observers scored the subjects behaviour at five second intervals, giving 240 observations</div>
Describe the results for study 2Mean total real life aggression = 83<div>Mean total human film aggression = 92<br></div><div>Mean total cartoon film aggression = 99<br></div><div>Mean total control group aggression = 54</div><div>Film mediated aggression was higher than real-life aggression</div><div>Although cartoon aggression was higher than human film aggression there was no significant difference</div>
Describe the conclusion for study 2Observing filmed aggressive acts will lead to imitation of aggression acts by children<div>Made indications that learning was vicarious as the model exhibiting the behaviour was not punished</div><div>The model might not have been directly rewarded either but if the behaviour seemed acceptable to the child, they may have imitated the behaviour because they thought it was fine to do so</div>
Define vicarious learningLearning is derived from indirect sources such as hearing or observation, rather than direct, hands-on instruction
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessParticipants were all children from a university nursery, the sample may have been biased because the majority of these children will be sons/daughters of university academics and therefore it could be considered that these participants are not representative of the target population of children so generalisability is low
RELIABILITY - strengthMeasurements were carried out by 2 observers to record the behaviour in the test for delayed imitation and they were trained to a reliable standard, also one of the judges was blind to the condition which the child had been placed and this was used to avoid bias when recording the behaviour - this ensured inter-rater reliability throughout this experiment
APPLICATIONS - weaknessLow ecological validity has implications for how applicable these research findings are to a child's natural responses to seeing someone they know being aggressive
VALIDITY - strengthLaboratory experiment with a number of controls e.g. control group of participants which provided a baseline measurement which could be used to compare the effect of the 3 conditions. This control and others enabled Bandura to measure the difference between the conditions and establish a cause and effect link between the IV (how aggressive behaviour was shown) and the DV (aggressive behaviour) so there is high validity so this research is scientific and provides psychology as a discipline with credibility within the wider scientific community
VALIDITY - weaknessLaboratory setting with the children seeing reinforced behaviour through an enactment of aggression on a bobo doll or a video of this re-enactment or a cartoon of an aggressive cat - none of the reinforced behaviour was carried out by parents which children would have been more familiar with therefore ecological validity is low
ETHICS - weaknessParticipants were exposed to aggressive reinforcements which may have influenced or changed their behaviour in the long run, therefore it could be thought that the participants were not fully protected from harm
What was the title of study 3?Influence of model's reinforcement contingencies on the acquisition of imitative responses
What ideas did Bandura want to further in study 3?Vicarious learning and whether or not this was influenced by rewards or punishments
What was the aim of study 3?To investigate which reinforcements would influence the performance of a participant when imitating behaviour
What was the method and design of study 3?Laboratory experiment<div>Independent groups</div>
Describe the sample used in study 366 children<div>33 boys and 33 girls from Stanford University nursery</div><div>Aged 42-71 months</div>
Describe how the participants were divided into 3 categories in study 322 children in model rewarded condition<div>22 children in model punished condition</div><div>22 children in no consequences condition</div>
What are the 3 conditions in study 3?<div>Model rewarded condition</div>Model punished condition<div>No consequence condition</div>
Describe the procedure for all groups in study 3The participants were brought individually into a semi-darkened room and the experimenter explained that they had some business to attend to before they could proceed to the 'surprise playroom', but that during the waiting period the child might watch a televised program. The child was seated, and a television programme was switched on then the experimenter left the room<div>The film lasted approximately 5 mins, it began with a scene in which the model named Rocky walked up to an adult size Bobo doll and ordered him to clear the way. After glaring for a moment at the bobo doll, the model exhibited 4 novel aggressive responses each accompanied by a distinctive verbalisation. The following sequence was repeated twice:</div><div>The model laid the bobo doll on its side, sat on it and punched it on the nose while remarking 'Pow, right in the nose, boom, boom'</div><div>The model raised the doll and pommelled it on the head with a mallet saying 'Sockeroo...stay down!'</div><div>Punishments and rewards were associated with the model's aggressive responses and were introduced in the closing scene of the film</div>
Describe the procedure for the model rewarded condition in study 3"A second adult appeared and rewarded the model verbally, saying that he was a strong champion and that he deserved a treat<div>He then poured him a glass of 7-Up and gave him treats including chocolate bars, popcorn and an assortment of candies and&nbsp;<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">continued to give positive social reinforcement while the model consumed the treats</span></div>"
Describe the procedure for the model punished condition in study 3The reinforcing agent appeared on the scene shaking his finger menacingly and commenting reprovingly, 'Hey there, you big bully. You quit picking on that clown; I won't tolerate it.'<div>As the model drew back he tripped and fell, the other adult sat on the model and smacked him with a rolled-up magazine whilst reminding him of his aggressive behaviour</div><div>As the model ran off cowering, the agent warned him 'If I catch you doing that again, you big bully, I'll give you a hard smacking. You quit acting that way'</div>
Describe the procedure for the no consequences condition in study 3Viewed the same film as shown to other two groups except there was no reinforcement included at the end
Describe the procedure in the experimental room for all groups in study 3Immediately following the procedure, the children were escorted to an experimental room that contained a bobo doll, a mallet, dart guns, cars, plastic farm animals and a doll house<div>After the experimenter instructed the child that she/he was free to play with the toys in the room, she excused herself supposedly to fetch additional play materials. This was since many preschool children are reluctant to remain alone.</div><div>Each participant spent 10 mins in the test room during which their behaviour was recorded every 5 seconds in terms of predetermined imitative response categories by judges who observed the session through a one-way mirror. Two observers shared the task of recording the occurrence of matching the behaviour with model previously displayed behaviour. Both observers were blind as to which condition the children had been placed.</div><div>After this, all 3 groups of children were then offered rewards to act aggressively towards the doll</div>
Describe the main results in study 3Boys showed significantly more imitative responses compared to girls<div>The model rewarded condition showed significantly more imitative responses compared to the model punished condition</div><div>There was no significant difference in imitative responses between the model rewarded condition and the no consequences condition</div><div>Introducing the promise of a reward for the children's aggressive behaviour eliminated all the differences between these groups, with all children significantly more likely to show aggressive behaviour towards the doll</div>
Describe the conclusions from study 3Reinforcements administered to the model influence the observers' performance<div>Observations alone will not provide sufficient conditions for imitative or observational learning</div><div>Behaviour can be vicariously transmitted through observation of consequences including no consequences to a model's behaviour</div><div>The promise of reinforcement is a more powerful influence on aggression</div>
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessAs the participants were all children from a university nursery, the sample may have been biased because the majority of these children will be sons/daughters of university academics and therefore it could be considered that these participants are not representative of the target population of children so generalisability is low
RELIABILITY - strengthsMeasurements were carried out by 2 observers which allowed researchers to check if the observations were consistent<div>Procedure was standardised for each participant e.g. each participant viewed the same film and the reinforcements used in each condition like rewarding the participant with a drink of 7-Up</div>
VALIDITY - strengthControlled laboratory experiment with several controls to ensure that Bandura could see the cause and effect e.g. the control group to provide Bandura with a baseline measurement to compare the effect of the punishment/reward conditions on aggression. This control and others enabled Bandura to measure the difference between the conditions and meant that a cause and effect link between the IV (type of reinforcement; reward/punishment) and the DV (aggressive behaviour) could be established so there is high validity so this research is scientific and provides psychology as a discipline with credibility within the wider scientific community
VALIDITY - weaknessResearch completed in a laboratory setting with the children seeing reinforced behaviour through a video; instead of in a real-life situation, additionally the reinforcement was provided by a stranger, not by their parents or another adult who children were used to therefore the research can be said to lack ecological validity
ETHICS - weaknessSome of the participants saw aggressive behaviour rewarded which may have caused them to become more aggressive, therefore it could be thought that the participants were not fully protected from harm
What did Bandura develop and formulate in 1977 following his 1961, 1963 and 1965 research?Social learning theory - this full theory was published as a book and was the collective theory that had been developed after research carried out by Bandura and his colleagues<div>This was regarded to be the third learning theory</div>
What is the main essence of this theory?People learn behaviour through observations of others - observational learning
Define observational learningThe process where learning takes place from watching someone rather doing something oneself
What does the observational learning concept propose?People watch others and copy the actions of others to form new behaviour<div>A common term to describe this process is 'monkey see, monkey do'</div>
Describe the stages in observational learning1. Behaviour is modelled by a role model. A role model may be a parent, peer or a friend, media personality or any person who is significant in some way<div>2. The observer identifies with the role model</div><div>3. The behaviour is observed and noted</div><div>4. The behaviour is imitated and so it is learned. Whether it is repeated again depends on reinforcements and rewards</div>
Describe stage 1 of observational learningThe behaviour is modelled by a role model<div>A role model may be a parent, peer or a friend, a media personality or any person who is significant in some way</div>
Describe stage 2 of observational learningThe observer identifies with the role model
Describe stage 3 of observational learningThe behaviour is observed and noted
Describe stage 4 of observational learningThe behaviour is imitated and so it is learned<div>Whether it is repeated again depends on reinforcement and rewards</div>
Define modellingDisplaying the behaviour
Define role modelSomeone significant/important to an individual e.g. a parent<div>The individual will identify with them</div>
Define imitationCopying the behaviour of others
Define self-efficacyWhen a person knows their own ability to do something and is confident that they will be able to succeed
What elements are also involved in observational learning?Cognitive
Why does the learner have to pay attention to the important parts of the behaviour that is desirable when observing?In order to store that behaviour to memory
Why is motivation important?As the consequences of the action for the role model are involved in deciding whether or not to carry out the behaviour
What are the 4 cognitive processes involved in observational learning?Attention<div>Retention</div><div>Reproduction</div><div>Motivation</div>
Describe the cognitive process of attentionAttention must be paid to the role model or else learning will not take place<div>Attention could depend on many factors such as the distinctiveness of the behaviour being modelled</div>
Describe the cognitive process of retentionThe individual must then retain or store what they have attended to
Describe the cognitive process of reproductionThe showing of the modelled behaviour, which is limited by the physical capabilities of the individual
Describe the cognitive process of motivationIf a reward is offered we are more likely to reproduce the behaviour
Describe the stages in observational learning including the cognitive processesIt is observed<div>It is attended to - attention</div><div>It is stored in memory - retention</div><div>It's rewarded in such a way that there is motivation to reproduce the action - reproduction &amp; motivation</div>
Define vicarious learningLearning that is derived from indirect sources such as hearing or observation, rather than direct, hands-on instruction
How is vicarious reinforcement connected to observational learning?Reinforcement can occur through others being reinforced<div>Social learning theory explains that learning takes place through direct reinforcement and indirect (vicarious reinforcement)</div><div>It examines how imitation is affected by perceived reinforcements and punishments</div>
Define vicarious extinctionPeople stop doing something because they have seen that people are not rewarded for doing it
Give an example of vicarious reinforcementA person works hard because a colleague has been rewarded for hard work
Give an example of vicarious punishmentSomeone does not park in a particular place because he/she has seen someone get a parking ticket there
What factors increase the likelihood of a behaviour being imitated?If you perceive yourself as being similar to the observer<div>If you perceive the observer as important</div><div>If the behavior is observable</div>
How do the factors that may increase the likelihood of a behaviour being imitated link to developmental psychology?Male and female children are treated differently<div>Different aggression levels in different cultures i.e. American culture is more aggressive than other western cultures</div>
EVIDENCE - supportingGreat deal of supporting evidence for this theory from highly reliable experimental research<div>The studies which support the theory are lab based and were carried out following standardised procedures allowing replication</div><div>E.g. Bandura et al's (1961) study - all the children involved went through the same procedure including observing an aggressive model who followed the exact same script such as always hitting the bobo doll in the face with the mallet</div>
METHODOLOGY - strengthThe research studies supporting the theory are lab-based experiments which were carried out with a high level of internal validity due to the number of controls that were used; these scientific procedures mean that cause and effect links are established<div>E.g. in Bandura's 1961 and 1963 studies he ensured that the children taking part in each condition were matched on their personal aggression levels, this meant that this participant variable did not confound the differing measures of aggression he found in the levels of the IV</div><div>Therefore Social learning theory is supported by a strong research base which increases its credibility as an explanation of human behaviour</div>
How does social learning theory account for individual differences?Cognitive processes<div>Viewing the role model as competent and relevant to the observer</div><div>Vicarious rewards need to be relevant to the observer</div>
APPLICATIONS - strengthIt can explain how humans learn aggressive behaviour and this information can be used to develop therapies/treatments<div>E.g. modelling therapies involve learning alternatives to aggressive behaviours through the observation and imitation of a positive role model - this could be used for children with aggressive behaviour patterns</div>
METHODOLOGY - weaknessesEcological validity may be low as much of the research for the theory was experimental and lab based which means that we cannot be sure that the results gained would be generalised to real life situations as the aggressive behaviour observed may not be natural e.g. a bobo doll was used as the target for aggression for ethical reasons, but seeing a bobo doll getting punched is not the same as a child who experiences real life violence/aggression in their homes<div>Generalisability is possibly low due to the methods used in the research, as the participants that were used throughout the experiments that underpin the theory were students from Stanford University nursery so the sample may be biased e.g. most of the children were sons/daughters of university academics and therefore not considered to be representative of a target population of children</div>
What is a counter-argument for the problems with the underpinning research limiting social learning theory as an explanation of human behaviour?This theory has been successfully tested in many other settings and countries
ALTERNATIVES - againstThere are alternative explanations that challenge social learning theory as a full explanation of human behaviour e.g. biological psychology may explain aggressive behaviour due to the role of brain structures such as the amygdala and the prefrontal cortex in aggressive behaviours. Therefore social learning theory overlooks the possibility that behaviour is also influenced by other things like biological factors
EVIDENCE - againstRaine et al explains aggression in terms of biological factors rather than social learning<div>PET scans of 41 murderers showing areas of the brain to be dysfunctional e.g. prefrontal cortex, amygdala, corpus callosum</div>
How does social learning theory link to the key issue of reductionism vs holism?Social learning theory takes several factors into account - it includes social aspects of behaviours, cognitive factors and behavioural factors. Therefore, it is quite a holistic theory for an explanation for behaviour<div>However, because it ignores biological explanations for behaviour and therefore can be regarded to be reductionist</div>
How does social learning theory explain the acquisition of phobias?"Bandura's social learning theory suggests that children learn to imitate behaviour through the process of observation, modelling and imitating.&nbsp;<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">We can use this to explain why someone might acquire a phobia. This is because social learning theory suggests that if someone observes a role model showing fear in a certain situation or when faced with a certain object, then the person watching can learn that phobia.</span><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">E.g. if a child observes an older sibling respond to finding a spider in their room in a fear reaction the child may see the older sibling as a role model and would later imitate this phobia when they themselves encounter a spider</span></div>"
How does social learning theory explain the maintenance of phobias?If someone else is modelling the phobia, social learning theory would explain how a phobia is maintained<div>E.g. observation - a child watches an older sibling respond to finding a spider in their bed, vicarious reinforcement - the parents might try to make the older sibling feel better by comforting them, imitation - sometime later the observing child finds a spider in their bed and they repeat the behaviour they had witnessed earlier, reinforcement - the observed child's parents provide comfort which consoles as well as reinforces the phobia</div>
Why are egg cells larger than sperm cells?The egg cell contains a large food store for energy for cell division until implantation
Define differentiationProcess of specialisation e.g. stem cells divide to produce specialised cells
Describe the process of therapeutic cloningA diploid somatic cell is removed from the patient<div>The nucleus is removed from an egg cell</div><div>The nucleus of the diploid somatic cell fuses with the enucleated egg cell</div><div>Cell electrically stimulated to divide by mitosis into a blastocyst</div><div>Pluripotent stem cells removed and encouraged to develop into tissues identical to the patient</div>
Why is embryonic stem cell therapy more controversial than adult stem cell therapy?Involves destruction of embryos which have a right to life
What is plant tissue culture?Growing complete plants from fragments of leaves, stems and roots (explants) or a single cell
Describe the process of plant tissue cultureExplants are placed on a sterile agar medium with nutrients and growth regulators<div>Cells divide to form a callus (undifferentiated cells)</div><div>Callus differentiates to form an embryo</div><div>Embryo develops into a genetically identical clone</div>
What can be used to analyse the external environment?PESTLE analysis
What does PESTLE stand for?Political<div>Economic</div><div>Social</div><div>Technological</div><div>Legal</div><div>Ethical/environmental</div>
Why must businesses consider the external environment in which they operate?In order to make effective decisions
Do businesses have much control over the external environment?Not likely, if any
Why do businesses need to monitor their environment constantly?In order to react to any changes that occur
What will the most competitive businesses do about change?Anticipate change, rather than react to it
What are economic influences a part of?The external environment in which a business operates
Give examples of political factors in PESTLE analysisIndustry regulation<div>Business policy &amp; incentives</div>
Give examples of economic factors in PESTLE analysisBusiness cycle<div>Interest rates</div><div>Inflation</div><div>Exchange rates</div><div>Government spending &amp; taxation</div>
Give examples of technological factors in PESTLE analysisDisruptive technologies<div>Adoption of mobile tech</div><div>New production processes</div><div>Big data and dynamic pricing</div>
Give examples of legal factors in PESTLE analysisEmployment law<div>Minimum/living wage</div><div>Health &amp; Safety laws</div><div>Environmental legislation</div>
Give examples of social factors in PESTLE analysisDemographic change<div>Compact tastes &amp; fashions</div><div>Changing lifestyles</div>
Give examples of ethical/environmental factors in PESTLE analysisSustainability<div>Tax practices</div><div>Ethical sourcing</div><div>Pollution &amp; carbon emissions</div>
What is the business cycle?The rate of change in the value of economic activity
What is the most common measure of the rate of change in the value of economic activity?GDP - Gross Domestic Product
What is the level of demand in most markets influenced by?The rate of economic growth
How do economies vary?In terms of their 'normal' long-term growth rate
What will GDP vary depending on?The stage of the business cycle
What does the business cycle describe?The changes in GDP from one quarter to the next<div>The traditional sequence of slump, recovery, boom and recession</div><div>The regular patterns of 'ups and downs' in the economy</div>
What is the traditional sequence of the business cycle?Boom<div>Recession</div><div>Slump/depression</div><div>Recovery</div>
Describe the boom stage of the business cycleHigh levels of consumer spending, business confidence, profits and investment<div>Prices and costs also tend to rise faster</div><div>Unemployment tends to be low</div>
Describe the recession stage of the business cycleFalling levels of consumer spending and confidence means lower profits for business which start to cut back on investment<div>Spare capacity increases</div><div>Rising unemployment</div>
Describe the slump/depression stage of the business cycleVery weak consumer spending and business investment<div>Many business failures</div><div>Rapidly rising unemployment</div><div>Prices may start falling</div>
Describe the recovery stage of the business cycle"Things start to get better<div>Consumers begin to increase spending</div><div>Businesses feel a little more confident and start to invest again</div><div>But it takes time f<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">or unemployment to stop growing</span></div>"
What causes the business cycle?Changes in the level and value of business and consumer confidence<div>Alternating periods of stocking (businesses increasing their stocks) and destocking (reducing the value of the stocks held)</div><div>Changes in government policy which can induce a change in the economy</div>
What is economic growth?An increase in the level of economic activity or real gross domestic product<div>Extent to which the volume of goods and services being produced increases over time</div>
What is the best measure of whether a country is getting wealthier?Real GDP is better than GDP measured in pure monetary value
How can real GDP be measured?Total income of a country<div>Total expenditure of the country</div><div>Total level of output of the country</div>
What is the level of economic growth affected by?The availability and exploitation of valuable natural resources<div>The availability of a well-educated and highly skilled workforce</div><div>Increasing investment and new technology</div><div>Government policy encouraging growth</div>
What does the effect of economic growth on businesses depend on?The rate of change of growth, reflected in the different stages of the business cycle
What are the effects of economic growth on businesses?Sales<div>Corporate profits</div><div>Investment</div><div>Employment</div><div>Business strategy</div>
How does economic growth affect sales of businesses?With higher levels of real GDP, real incomes in the economy are higher, which should lead to higher retail sales
How does economic growth affect corporate profits of businesses?Higher income leads to a greater demand for goods and services, this provides opportunities for higher profits<div>Sales are likely to increase as well as the chance to increase the selling price due to the greater demand</div>
How does economic growth affect investment of businesses?Higher demand for goods and services means that firms are more likely to invest in expanding their operations<div>Increasing demand is likely to be accompanied by rising share prices and higher profitability, which makes it easier to obtain the funds</div>
How does economic growth affect employment of businesses?Businesses seeking to expand production may initially choose to make their existing labour work harder<div>They would then only recruit more workers once they are convinced the increase in demand for their production is sustainable</div>
How does economic growth affect business strategy?Expansion - rapid expansion is more easily achieved during this period as sales can be gained without having to steal sales from the competition<div>New products - economic growth provides new opportunities for firms to update or extend their product range</div><div>Generally, it provides favourable trading conditions and new opportunities</div>
Why don't economic growth and increased wealth necessarily produce an increase in welfare?It can have serious consequences for the environment e.g. pollution and congestion
What is an interest rate?The reward for saving and the cost of borrowing expressed as a percentage of the money saved or borrowed
Give examples of how at any one time there are a variety of different interest rates operating within the external environmentInterest rates on savings in bank accounts<div>Borrowing interest rates</div><div>Mortgage interest rates</div><div>Credit card interest rates and payday loans</div><div>Interest rates on government and corporate bonds</div>
What does the Bank of England use policy interest rates for?To help regulate the economy and meet economic policy objectives
What might happen if interest rates start to fall?Cost of servicing loans/debt is reduced - boosting spending power<div>Consumer confidence should increase leading to more spending</div><div>Effective disposable income rises - lower mortgage costs</div><div>Business investments should be boosted e.g. prospect of rising demand</div><div>Housing market effects - more demand and higher property prices</div><div>Exchange rate and exports - cheaper currency will increase exports</div>
What happens to demand for consumer and capital goods if the interest rate falls?Increases
What happens to demand for consumer and capital goods if the interest rate rises?Falls
Describe why the demand for consumer goods increases if the interest rate fallsSaving money is less attractive because less interest is received, meaning people prefer to spend rather than save, causing an increase in demand<div>Also, variable rate mortgage and other loan repayments will fall, meaning more disposable income available</div>
Describe why the demand for consumer goods decreases if the interest rate rises<div>Saving money is more attractive because more interest is received, meaning people prefer to save rather than spend, causing an decrease in demand</div><div>Also, variable rate mortgage and other loan repayments will rise, meaning less disposable income available</div>
Describe why the demand for capital goods increases if the interest rate fallsIt is cheaper to purchase expensive capital equipment on credit, meaning firms might bring forward planned future investment or actually increase the level of investment, as the return on projects is more likely to exceed the interest payments
What happens when interest rates in the UK are high relative to interest rates in other countries?It becomes more attractive to invest in UK banks, meaning foreign investment flows into the country in order to take advantage of the attractive rates<div>Investment in a UK bank can only take place in sterling, so there is an increase in demand for pounds and the value of the pound rises</div>
What is an exchange rate?The price of one currency in terms of another currency
What determines the exchange rate?The forces of demand and supply in the currency markets
What does it mean if the pond sterling appreciates?The sterling value has become stronger or more expensive to buy
What does it mean if the pound sterling depreciates?The sterling value has become weaker or cheaper to buy
What does the effect of changes in exchange rates on businesses depend on?Whether they are businesses that:&nbsp;<div>Export their goods to consumers in other countries</div><div>Sell their goods in the UK</div><div>Are competing against foreign imports</div><div>Purchase imported fuel, raw materials and components to use in the production of their own goods</div>
Describe SPICEDStrong pound, imports cheap, exports dear<div>A rise in the value of the pound - cheaper for imports, demand for imports rises</div><div>A rise in the value of the pound - less competitive export price, demand for exports falls<br></div>
Describe WPIDECWeak pound, imports dear, exports cheap<div>A fall in the value of the pound - more expensive for imports, demand for imports falls</div><div>A fall in the value of the pound - more competitive export price, demand for exports rises<br></div>
What 2 acronyms describe the impact of exchange rates on exporters and importers?Rise in value = SPICED<div>Fall in value = WPIDEC</div>
Describe the full impact of an increase/appreciation in the exchange rate for a currencyMay increase the price at which exports are sold abroad and reduces the price charged for imports in the UK<div>This will affect revenue, competitiveness and profitability</div><div>The extent to which the charging prices of exports and imports will affect export sales and the purchase of imports depends on the price elasticity of demand; despite this exchange rates aren't the only thing that affect demand for exports/imports</div>
What will the strategies that a business may deploy in response to changes in exchange rates depend on?Whether they are falling or rising<div>What market the business is operating in</div>
Describe the business strategy for a business that exports its goods to consumers in other countries for a rising exchange rate for the poundIt must understand how higher prices will affect sales - if sales are likely to fall as buyers switch to competing lower priced substitutes it may be better to accept a lower profit margin and reduce the price to take account of the appreciation of the exchange rate
What is difficult when exchange rates rise?Staying competitive
What will most big businesses want if export markets are important to them?A stable and low/weak exchange rate
What does the best strategy of responding to exchange rates depend on?Price elasticity of demand for the product<div>Cut prices if demand is elastic, do nothing if demand is inelastic</div>
Describe why the demand for capital goods decreases if the interest rate rises"<div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">It is more expensive to purchase expensive capital equipment on credit, meaning firms won't bring forward planned future investment or actually decrease the level of investment, as the return on projects is less likely to exceed the interest payments</span><br></div>"
Describe the business strategy for a business that sells its goods in the UK in competition with foreign imports for a rising exchange rate for the poundAdded pressure to increase its efficiency as it may be facing competition from cheaper imported goods<div>Increase investment in labour saving machinery and reducing the workforce</div><div>Introduce new technologies and organisational strategies</div><div>Increase marketing efforts as the company fights to maintain its competitiveness</div>
Describe the business strategy for a business that imports raw material from abroad and exports the finished product for a rising exchange rate for the poundFall in demand could be offset through falling production costs where the business has an added incentive to reduce prices
Give an example of how price elasticity of demand is an important concept for any business where demand may be affected by changing exchange ratesPrice elastic demand<div>Stronger (higher) exchange rate will increase selling price for export customers e.g. they have to use more $ for each £ which is likely to result in greater reduction in quantity demanded and overall reduction export sales</div>
Describe how the factors that determine effect of changing exchange rates on businesses would have a low effect on businessNo export sales - turnover all in domestic (UK) market<div>All business activities located in UK</div><div>Raw materials and other supplies bought in UK</div><div>Demand predominantly from domestic (UK) customers</div><div>Demand is price inelastic</div><div>Higher costs can be passed on to customers to maintain margin</div>
Describe how the factors that determine effect of changing exchange rates on businesses would have a high effect on businessSignificant export sales, perhaps in many currencies<div>Overseas operations, earning profits in foreign currencies</div><div>Significant purchases from overseas suppliers</div><div>Substantial demand from overseas visitors to UK</div><div>Demand is price elastic</div><div>Higher costs usually have to be absorbed via a lower margin</div>
What is inflation?A sustained increase in the average price level of an economy
How is the rate of inflation measured?By the annual percentage change in the level of prices as measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI)
What is deflation?A sustained fall in the general price level<div>The rate of inflation becomes negative</div>
What are the two main causes of inflation?Too much demand - 'demand-pull inflation'<div>Rising business costs - 'cost-push inflation'</div>
Describe demand-pull inflationPrices rise because there is excess demand in the economy<div>Excess demand in the economy or a market is associated with the boom phase of the business cycle<br></div><div>Businesses respond to high demand by raising prices to increase their profit margins</div>
Describe cost-push inflationIncrease in the costs of production that forces firms to increase their prices in order to protect their profit margins<div>The main causes are external shocks, a depreciation in the exchange rate and faster growth in wages and salaries</div><div>Firms raise prices to protect their profit margins - better able to do this when market demand is price inelastic</div><div>'Wages often follow prices'</div><div>A rise in inflation can lead to rising inflationary expectations</div>
What are the main costs and consequences of inflation?Money loses its value and people lose confidence in money as the value of savings is reduced<div>Inflation can get out of control - prices increases lead to higher wage demands as people try to maintain their living standards, this is known as wage-price spiral</div><div>Consumers and businesses on fixed incomes and employees in poor bargaining positions lose out because their real income falls</div><div>Inflation can favour borrowers at the expense of savers because inflation erodes the real value of existing debts</div><div>Inflation can disrupt business planning and lead to lower capital investment</div><div>Inflation is a possible cause of higher unemployment in the long term because of a lack of competitiveness</div><div>Rising inflation is associated with higher interest rates which reduces economic growth and can lead to a recession</div>
What should a business consider when evaluating which strategies to undertake when dealing with inflation?"How high or low the inflation rate is<div>Whether demand for the product is elastic or inelastic<div>Nature of the business and the products it offers - a luxury product with a high status and popular brand where price isn't a major factor in determining demand may be able to continue to raise prices during a period of high inflation, however b<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">usinesses selling products in highly competitive markets where price competition is of crucial importance are unlikely to be able to push up prices unless all business are doing so within that market</span></div></div>"
What does price elasticity of demand refer to?The responsiveness of demand to changes in price<div>When demand is elastic, a price rise leads to a more than proportionate fall off in quantity demand<br></div><div>When demand is inelastic, a price rise leads to a less than proportionate fall off in quantity demand<br></div>
How does price elasticity of demand affect how much a business will be impacted by inflation?Businesses with products that have inelastic price elasticity of demand will be less affected by a rise in inflation
How can some businesses absorb price increases?By becoming more efficient
What does economic policy involve?Efforts by the government to control the economy in order to achieve its objectives
What are key economic objectives that most governments try to achieve?Encouraging economic growth<div>Controlling and reducing inflation</div><div>Maintaining a satisfactory level of unemployment</div><div>Achieving a satisfactory balance of payments (exports - imports)</div><div>Maintaining a stable exchange rate</div>
What is the major problem facing governments with the economic policy?The degree of trade-off between the objectives as they cannot all be fully achieved
What is macroeconomic policy?Governments attempt to influence the level of demand in the economy as a whole<div>This is done primarily through monetary policy and fiscal policy, the choice depending on priorities of the government</div>
What does fiscal policy involve?The use of government spending, taxation and borrowing to affect the level and growth of economic activity
What do governments use taxes to do?Raise revenue to finance government spending<div>Manage aggregate demand to help meet the government's macroeconomic objectives</div><div>Change the distribution of income and wealth</div><div>Address market failure and environmental targets</div>
What are the 2 main kinds of taxation?Direct and indirect
What is direct taxation levied on?Income, wealth and profit<div>E.g. Income Tax, National Insurance Contributions, Corporation Tax and Capital Gains Tax</div>
What is indirect taxation levied on?Spending by consumers on goods and services<div>E.g. VAT and excise duties on fuel, alcohol, car tax and betting tax</div>
What are the 3 main areas of government spending?Transfer Payments<div>Current Spending</div><div>Capital Spending</div>
Describe what Transfer Payments areWelfare payments made to benefit recipients such as the state pension and the Jobseeker's Allowance
Describe what Current Spending isSpending on state-provided goods and services such as education and health
Describe what Capital Spending isInfrastructural spending such as spending on new roads, hospitals, motorways and prisons
Why is government spending so significant?Provide welfare support for low income households/unemployed<div>Redistributes income within society e.g. to reduce the scale of relative poverty</div><div>Tool to manage aggregate demand (GDP) as part of macroeconomic policy</div>
What are the 2 ways that cells can communicate with each other in order to work as tissues, organs or organ systems?Adhesion molecules<div>Receptor molecules</div>
What are adhesion molecules?Located on cell surface membrane<div>Used in cellular recognition</div><div>Only cells with the same recognition molecules will stick together</div>
What are receptor molecules?Glycoproteins or glycolipids located on the cell surface membrane<div>Receptors are specific for a particular signal protein</div>
What is the difference between monetary and fiscal policy?Monetary policy is using the rate of interest to influence the level of spending and demand in the economy whereas fiscal policy is using taxation and government expenditure to influence the economy
How do taxes differ from interest?Taxes can't be charged as often as interest rates but can be used to target certain products or affect certain types of behaviour more specifically, as different taxes can be charged in different ways e.g. income tax, VAT, duty paid on alcohol and tobacco and the sugar tax
What is the impact of monetary/fiscal policies during a recession?"Growth can be encouraged by allowing demand to increase by k<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">eeping interest rates down, reducing taxes and increasing government expenditure</span><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">By increasing government expenditure through an increase in spending on health, roads or education there may be an increase in jobs and construction/supply of private sector goods which benefits the economy</span></div>"
What is the impact of monetary/fiscal policies during a boom?Symptoms of 'overheating' may start to appear, such as high inflation and shortages of skilled labour<div>The government is faced with accelerating inflation and rising demand for imported goods and services, therefore will want to reduce the rate at which demand is increasing</div><div>It will restrict consumer and government spending through increasing interest rates and taxes and reducing government expenditure</div>
How is the government responsible for spending in the public sector?It provides a range of services such as education, defence, welfare benefits, transport and healthcare
What is the effect of changes in government expenditure on businesses?To control inflation the government could cut back on its own spending which would reduce the income of businesses involved in education, health and road building so these businesses may have to make some people redundant which may have the effect of reducing demand, therefore helping to keep prices from rising<div>The government could increase the amount it spends and this will have the effect of reducing unemployment as construction companies, schools, hospitals employ more staff</div>
What is economic uncertainty?The inability to predict exactly what will happen in the economic environment in the future
What is the effect of economic uncertainty on the business environment?The inability to predict exactly what will happen in the economic environment in the future can affect the actions of individuals and businesses as uncertainty makes decision making more difficult, reduces business confidence and presents businesses with some unexpected events which they have to deal with
What is consumer demand?The levels of spending by consumers in general
What is discretionary income?A person's income after deducting taxes and fixed payments e.g. rent and utility bills
What is the economic climate?The atmosphere surrounding the economy e.g. gloom and doom or optimism and boom
What is GDP?Gross Domestic Product<div>Value of all the goods and services produced in a country in a year</div>
What is recession?Two or more quarters of negative economic growth
What does real mean in terms of changes in money?Changes in money e.g. wages, excluding the distorting effect of changes in prices
How is beta glucose different from alpha glucose?Alpha glucose has two hydroxyl groups adjacent to one another
Describe what the cambium isA layer of unspecialised cells between the phloem and xylem which divide giving rise to specialised xylem and phloem
What is the flow in the phloem?Two-way
What is the flow in the xylem?Always upwards
What is the position of the sclerenchyma?In and around vascular tissue
What is the position of the phloem?Middle of the vascular bundle
What is the position of the xylem?Innermost point of the vascular bundle
Why do plants need phosphate ions?For ATP and ADP<div>Lipid membrane and nucleic acids</div>
What are deficiency symptoms of phosphate ions?Very dark leaves with purple veins<div>Stunted growth</div>
Define extrapolationAn inference about the future based on known facts and observations
What is an example of extrapolation?Extending the line on a graph following the previous trend of data
What does extrapolation enable scientists to do and what are they assuming?It enables them to make predictions about a future course of events i.e. climate change<div>They are assuming that there is enough data to establish the trend accurately and that present trends will continue</div>
What are the limitations of extrapolation?The prediction will only be accurate if there is no change in the system e.g. steps could be taken to reduced CO2 emissions or an increase in living standards in developing parts of the world might cause CO2 levels to rise<div>Models are not expected to predict the future precisely, but to make the best prediction based on all the evidence available</div>
Why is modelling climate change difficult?"Carbon dioxide only plays a part in climate change - m<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">any factors are involved</span><div>If one is missed out then the accuracy of the prediction is decreased - must also take into account the interactions between the factors as well i.e. does one increase when another decreases?</div>"
What are other factors that may affect climate change?Other greenhouse gases (methane, CFCs and N2O)<div>Aerosols</div><div>The degree of reflection from parts of the earth free from ice and snow</div><div>The fraction of the earth covered with ice and snow</div><div>The extent of cloud cover</div><div>Changes in the sun's radiation</div>
Why might predictions of climate change be incorrect?Limited data<div>Limited knowledge of how the climate system works</div><div>Limitations in computing resources</div><div>Failure to include all factors affecting the climate</div><div>Changing trends in included factors i.e. faster than expected loss of snow and ice or greater CO2 emissions</div>
How are the models continually improving?Use of bigger data sets<div>Incorporating more factors</div><div>Considering more sophisticated interactions between the factors</div><div>Testing the computer models - taking data from past years, feeding that into the models and seeing if the predictions match what actually happened</div><div>By comparing the outcomes with other outcomes from other models and comparing them with actual observations increases the scientific community confidence in the predictions</div>
Define carbon neutralThe amount of CO2 released during combustion is equal to the amount taken up from the atmosphere in recent photosynthesis<div>There is no net increase in CO2 in the atmosphere</div>
What is the role of microorganisms in the carbon cycle?They recycle plant biomass and release CO2 during respiration in the decomposition of organic matter, the CO2 is then available for photosynthesis
What are the two main factors likely to be responsible for the carbon cycle being out of balance?Combustion of fossil fuels and deforestation
Describe how combustion is responsible for the carbon cycle being out of balanceCoal is formed from the wood of trees that lived millions of years ago - it is a carbon sink formed by past photosynthesis<div>The trees did not decay (in anaerobic swamps) and release CO2</div><div>Carbon is trapped/locked in the coal</div><div>Burning fossil fuels will release the carbon in a short time as CO2 which has been out of circulation for millions of years</div>
Describe how deforestation is responsible for the carbon cycle being out of balanceMature forests do not accumulate additional biomass (they have stopped growing rapidly) or become fossil fuels<div>CO2 uptake by photosynthesis = CO2 release by respiration</div><div>Deforestation causes photosynthesis to drop so there is a net gain of CO2 in the atmosphere</div><div>Off-cuts of the trees are left to decay or are burnt = increase in CO2</div><div>Clearance machinery can also increase CO2</div>
What other factors can upset the carbon balance?Volcanoes<div>Creation of marine sediments</div><div>Erosion and chemical weathering (acid rain) of sedimentary rocks</div><div>Rising global temperatures - increase in decomposition of peat by microorganisms (tundra) and warmer oceans can hold less dissolved CO2</div>
Describe the role of biofuels in maintaining balance in the carbon cycleSource of energy produced, directly in plants or indirectly in animals by recent photosynthesis - they are carbon neutral and renewable<div>But we must consider how the biofuel is harvested and transported - machinery releases CO2</div><div>Disadvantages: destruction of forests and biodiversity to grow crops (not sustainable) and less land available to grow food</div>
Describe the role of reforestation in maintaining balance in the carbon cycleYoung trees grow rapidly - lots of carbon fixation to produce biomass (NPP)<div>Photosynthesis is greater than respiration - net absorbers of CO2</div><div>As tree ages, ability to uptake as much CO2 decreases - creates carbon sink</div><div>But there is a limit as to how much trees can take in CO2</div>
Describe the process of binary fissionDNA is replicated<div>New cell contents are made</div><div>New cell wall forms down the centre of the cell</div><div>Cell is divided into roughly 2 equal halves</div>
What is exponential growth?Rate of growth increases as time increases<div>In bacterial growth the population doubles each time</div>
How is contemporary drug testing an improvement on the trial used by William Withering?Safer, more valid and reliable
How is contemporary drug testing safer than the trial used by William Withering?Pure drug used rather than extract<div>Pre-testing on cells/animals before testing on humans</div><div>Regulated by legislation</div>
How is contemporary drug testing more valid than the trial used by William Withering?Placebo used as a comparison<div>Double-blind trials</div><div>Variables/factors of tested cohort controlled e.g. age and lifestyle</div>
How is contemporary drug testing more reliable than the trial used by William Withering?More people tested<div>Results are statistically analysed</div>
Why are different doses of a drug given?To check for side effects and to determine a safe dose
Why is a placebo given?To make sure that any side effects described were due to the drug
What are the main roles of legislation?Regulate the rights and duties of people carrying out business in order to ensure fairness<div>Protect people dealing with business from harm caused by defective services</div><div>Ensure the treatment of employees is fair and un-discriminatory</div><div>Protect investors, creditors and consumers</div><div>Regulate dealings between business and its suppliers</div><div>Ensure a level playing field for competing businesses</div>
What is government legislation an important part of?The overall external environment
What are the 5 main areas of legislation?Employee protection<div>Consumer protection</div><div>Environmental protection</div><div>Competition policy</div><div>Health and safety</div>
What are the key areas of employee protection impacting on businesses?Those relating to individual employment (particularly pay and discrimination) and industrial disputes
What comes under employee protection?Equal pay<div>Minimum wage</div><div>Discrimination</div><div>Employment rights</div><div>Industrial relations</div>
What is the basic rule surrounding equal pay?Men and women are entitled to equal pay for work of equal value
What does pay include?Everything in the employment contract - bonuses and pension contributions, as well as basic wages or salary
How can workers ask their employer for information to check equality?They have the right to do this by using the equal pay questionnaire
What can employees do if they believe their pay is unequal?They can take their employer to an Employment Tribunal
Describe the laws surrounding minimum wageEmployers are required by law to ensure they pay their workers at least the national minimum wage (NMW)<div>Makes no difference when a worker is paid (monthly, weekly, daily, hourly), the NMW still applies</div>
What is it illegal for an employer to discriminate against an employee on the basis of?Sex, including pregnancy and maternity<div>Marital/civil partnership status</div><div>Disability</div><div>Race</div><div>Age</div><div>Sexual orientation</div><div>Religion/beliefs</div><div>Trade union membership or non-membership</div><div>Status as a fixed-term or part-time worker</div>
What rights are provided to employees through laws?Reasonable notice before dismissal<div>Right to redundancy</div><div>Right to a written employment contract</div><div>Right to request flexible working</div><div>Right to be paid national minimum wage</div><div>Right to take time off for parenting</div>
Describe what industrial relations areProtection from unfair dismissal<div>Employers must recognise union is &gt;50% of staff are members</div><div>Regulation of procedures for industrial action e.g. ballots</div><div>Role/powers of Employment Tribunals</div><div>EU - Works Councils requirements</div>
What is consumer protection?Legislation provides a wide variety of protections to consumers when they transact with businesses
What must businesses ensure in order to keep in line with consumer protection?"Goods fit their description<div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Must be of satisfactory quality</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Goods are fit for the purposes specified</span></div><div>Must not use unfair commercial practices</div><div>Customers have a right of return and full return if goods/services do not comply with law</div><div>Services must be done at a reasonable price and by the time stated and the customer can request that unsatisfactory work is repaired or carried out again at no cost</div><div>Consumers have the right to a cooling off period</div>"
What is meant by goods fit their description?Businesses need to take care with description and avoid inaccurate claims
What is meant by satisfactory quality?The product must work and have no major blemishes
What is meant by goods are fit for the purpose specified?Businesses should take care when explaining what a product can be used for
What is meant by businesses may not use unfair commercial practices?Must not do misleading advertising
What are the key areas of impact of environmental protection?Emissions into the air<div>Storage, disposal and recovery of business waste</div><div>Storing and handling hazardous substances</div><div>Packaging</div><div>Discharges of wastewater</div>
What levels can environmental laws be set at?Local, UK and European levels
What are the main aims of competition laws?Widen consumer choice in markets for goods and services<div>Encouraging and protecting innovation</div><div>Effective price competition between suppliers</div><div>Investigating allegations of anti-competitive behaviour within markets which might have a negative effect on consumers</div>
What are competition laws?Laws designed to regulate market competition
What do both UK and EC competition law prohibit?Agreements, arrangements and concerted business practices which appreciably prevent, restrict or distort competition (or have the intention of doing so)
What are examples of prohibited agreements through competition policy?Agreements which directly or indirectly fix purchase or selling prices, or any other trading condition e.g. discounts or rebates<div>Agreements which limit or control production, markets, technical development or investment e.g. setting quotas or levels of output</div><div>Agreements which share markets or sources of supply</div>
What is health &amp; safety legislation about?Preventing people from being harmed at work or becoming ill, by taking the right precautions and providing a satisfactory working environment
Who does health &amp; safety apply to?Not just staff, it applies to many people who come into contact with the business
Give examples of how health &amp; safety legislation applies to many peopleEmployees working at the business premises, from home, or at another site<div>Visitors to the premises such as customers or subcontractors</div><div>People at other premises where the business is working e.g. a construction site</div><div>Members of the public - even if they're outside the business premises</div><div>Anyone affected by products and services the business designs, produces or supplies</div>
What are examples of stringent health &amp; safety regulations specific to particular industries?Food processing (hygiene)<div>Hotels (guest safety and hygiene)</div><div>Chemical production (dangerous processes and waste disposal)</div><div>Air travel (passenger safety)</div><div>Tour operators (holidaymaker safety)</div>
Define cartelAn agreement between producers to control supply and thereby control prices
Define laisses-faireLet it be, implying leaving business free to choose their own policies and practices, trusting in the free market
What is competitiveness?The ability of a business to deliver better value to customers than competitors
When is a business said to have competitive advantage?If a business is able to be more competitive than the rest of the market/industry over a sustained period
What is competitive advantage?The ability of a business to add more value for its customers than its rivals and attain a position of relative advantage<div>A situation where a business has an advantage over its competitors by being able to offer better value, quality and/or service</div>
What factors is the nature of competition in a market determined by?The extent of current competition<div>The potential for new businesses to enter the market</div><div>The extent to which a business produces a similar product (indistinct from rivals) or a differentiated product (distinct from rivals)</div>
Describe how the threat of new businesses entering a market is a particularly important factor influencing the extent of competitive rivalryHigh profits will tempt newcomers to enter a market and this will drive down prices and profits<div>Therefore, the maintenance of market power depends upon erecting and maintaining barriers to market entry</div>
What can existing competitors in a market do to dissuade new businesses from trying to enter a market?Product differentiation (including brands)<div>Control access to raw materials and distribution channels</div><div>Retaliation by established products</div>
How does product differentiation by existing competitors in a market dissuade new businesses from trying to enter a market?Will act to increase customer loyalty making it difficult for newcomers to gain market share
How does existing competitors in a market controlling access to raw materials and distribution dissuade new businesses from trying to enter a market?A lack of access will make it difficult for newcomers to enter the market
How does retaliation by established products by existing competitors in a market dissuade new businesses from trying to enter a market?E.g. the threat of price war - this will act to discourage newcomers
What is collusion?When managers from different firms get together to discuss ways to work together to restrict supply and/or raise prices
What is non-price competition?All competitive strategies other than price<div>E.g. branding, product design and technological innovation</div>
What is an oligopoly?A market dominated by a few large companies
What is a monopoly?A market dominated by one large company
What is predatory pricing?Pricing low with the deliberate intention of driving a competitor out of business
What does the social approach to explaining criminal and anti-social behaviour assume?That behaviour is shaped by the people that are around us
How is the debate of nature/nurture relevant to the social approach?It provides an explanation as to why criminal behaviour occurs using an external social cause<div>This means that people around a person e.g. parents/carers and friends and their behaviour towards that person may cause criminal behaviour (nurture)</div>
What is a key social explanation of why people turn to crime?Learning from others
What does the idea of learning from others emphasise?The importance of upbringing and the influence of parents on criminal behaviour and the importance of which group young people associate with i.e. their peer groups<div>The presence of numerous violent role models in the media e.g. film and computer games has also been highlighted as an important area of study</div>
Describe the Social Learning TheoryDeveloped by Albert Bandura in 1977<div>He proposed that observational learning is a major mechanism in explaining all human behaviour</div><div>Behaviour is firstly observed then modelled and imitated to be reproduced</div>
What is vicarious reinforcement?Learning certain behaviours occurs through seeing the consequences of another person's behaviour<div>If a person is rewarded for their behaviour, then that behaviour is more likely to be copied</div>
What is observational learning?Where children/people learn by observing and imitating the behaviour of role models
How do people make a choice about who is observed and imitated in observational learning?People are more likely to imitate a higher status/well respected and same sex role model<div>They are more likely to imitate if they see their role model rewarded - vicarious reinforcement and less likely to copy the model if they see them punished - vicarious punishment</div><div>They are more likely to imitate the behaviour if they themselves are directly rewarded for it (positive reinforcement)</div>
What are the 4 cognitive elements of learning?Attention<div>Retention</div><div>Reproduction</div><div>Motivation</div>
Describe attention"Behaviour has to be noticed and we must concentrate on it to be able to imitate it and we are more likely to show an interest in:<div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Behaviour of models that are of higher status/well respected and of the same sex</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Behaviour that is distinctive to us in some way</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">So we make a choice about what behaviour is observed and imitated</span></div>"
Describe retentionThe behaviour has to be remembered to be imitated
Describe reproductionThe person has to be capable of reproducing the behaviour - we have to have the physical and mental abilities to enable us to imitate the behaviour
Describe motivationThere is often an incentive present encouraging us to imitate the behaviour<div>This often takes the form of vicarious or direct positive reinforcement</div>
How might Bandura's SLT help explain deviant or criminal behaviours?His research focused on social explanations of all behaviour but he was very interested in aggression and his bobo doll experiments looked at how we learn to behave aggressively as children by observing and imitating others<div>This can help explain deviant or criminal behaviours by suggesting that as children, people who become criminal were exposed to criminal role models and they observed, learned and imitated this behaviour</div>
How is SLT a developmental theory of criminality?Concerned with the acquisition of crime/anti-social behaviour and the socialisation in children/adolescents<div>Boys and girls are often raised differently - may result in different behaviours</div><div>How the values of society/culture are internalised as a product of how someone is raised</div><div>Development of levels of reasoning and morality</div><div>As children develop exposure to aggression/anti-social role models can affect how children internalise these behaviours</div><div>A persistent exposure to anti-social role models may have an accumulative effect</div>
Describe the conclusion from Bandura (1961) study'Modelling'<div>Children could learn aggressive behaviour through the process of observational learning</div>
Describe the conclusion from Bandura (1963) study'Media'<div>Observing filmed aggressive acts can lead to children behaving aggressively</div>
Describe the conclusion from Bandura (1965) study'Vicarious reinforcement'<div>Boys in particular showed more imitative responses compared to girls</div><div>Reinforcements administered to the model influenced the observer's behaviour</div>
How has SLT contributed to our understanding of criminal behaviour?Through its ability to explain the learning of aggressive behaviours e.g. Bandura explored the effect of aggressive role models in a series of lab experiments
How does Bandura (1961) conclusion relate to crime?"Children, especially boys might observe their fathers committing crime or anti-social behaviour and t<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">hey may then copy this - can help explain the gender differences</span>"
How does Bandura (1963) conclusion relate to crime?Children may learn to commit anti-social behaviour through watching TV programmes or violent video games
How does Bandura (1965) conclusion relate to crime?Children could learn anti-social behaviour/crime by seeing others rewarded or reinforced e.g. criminals getting away with it<div>Anti-social behaviour can be rewarded by being seen as being desirable or increasing someone's status</div>
What is a natural experiment?The independent variable is not manipulated by the experimenter, it occurs naturally<div>The studies usually take place in a naturalistic environment</div>
Describe Williams (1986) researchCarried out a natural field experiment looking at the effect of TV on the behaviour of children in a remote community in Canada where TV hadn't been available before<div>Williams found that the introduction of TV increased the children's aggressive behaviours as rated by teachers and peers</div>
Describe Johnson et al (2002) researchFound that there was a positive correlation between the amounts of TV children in the New York State watched and increased aggressive behaviour<div>Also found that those who watched the most TV also committed the highest number of violent acts</div><div>The conclusion was that watching more than 1 hour of TV per day significantly increases aggression, especially between the ages of 14-16</div>
How does SLT link to gender differences in criminal and anti-social behaviour?Males carry out more criminal and anti-social behaviour than females therefore any theory that seeks to explain criminal behaviour must give a credible explanation of these gender differences<div>SLT can explain these differences in criminal behaviour between the sexes by proposing that male and female children are usually socialised differently e.g. boys are encouraged to observe and imitate male role models and are reinforced for risk taking behaviour and sticking up for themselves whereas girls imitate female role models and are less likely to be reinforced for anti-social behaviour<div>However, biological psychologists might argue that there are biological differences between males and females e.g. hormones and that this rather than socialisation may account for different rates of crime between men and women</div></div>
EVIDENCE - strengthsBandura's series of lab based experiments provide evidence that aggressive behaviour is learnt through the observation of a role model are well controlled so cause and effect links can be established<div>There is also some evidence from natural experiments (Williams 1986) and correlational studies (Johnson et al 2002) of a link between violence in the media and aggressive behaviour</div><div>It can explain: cultural differences in anti-social behaviour as different cultures may provide different role models for children, individual differences in criminal behaviour as every individual has differing role models so a child exposed to violent role models will be more likely to be a violent criminal whereas a child brought up with a thief will be more likely to be a thief and gender differences in criminal behaviour</div>
EVIDENCE - weaknessMuch of this evidence is related to aggressive behaviour rather than criminal behaviour itself
METHODOLOGY - strengthsLab experiments (Bandura) provide credible scientific evidence linking observation of role models to aggressive behaviour so reliable cause and effect links can be established due to good control of the independent variable and confounding variables<div>Furthermore, the studies that are not based in the lab do use objective and quantitative methods</div>
APPLICATIONS - strengthsResearch in this field has led to society being much more aware of the power of role models and the fact that children learn by observation<div>Attempts have been made to control violence in the media by censorship e.g. films and video games are subject to a certification system so that certain audiences are not available to the filmmaker if there are certain kinds of violence present</div><div>The theory also suggests that offenders need appropriate role models to aid in their rehabilitation</div><div>Although the violence children are exposed to in the media is an ongoing concern the media do use observational learning to promote pro-social role models e.g. in TV programmes such as Sesame Street where concepts of sharing and helping one another are modelled by puppets</div>
APPLICATIONS - weaknessCertification system measures cannot easily be applied to internet viewing by children, although parental controls are available they are often easily overcome
EVIDENCE - againstSocial learning theory predicts that punishment, whether direct or vicarious should make reoffending less likely but high rates of recidivism go against this prediction - prison should act as a punishments however reoffending statistics in England and Wales suggest this is not always the case
What is one year proven reoffending measure?Any offence committed in a one year follow-up period that leads to a court conviction or caution or within a further six month waiting period to allow the offence to be proven in court
METHODOLOGY - weaknessesAlthough Bandura's lab based experiments are highly scientific, one of their main weaknesses is that they are conducted in artificial environments so lack ecological validity and don't reflect real life situations so may tell us little about the role of social learning in the development of real life criminal behaviour<div>It is virtually impossible to use experiments to study the role of social learning in criminal behaviour in real life families due to ethical constraints but the alternative methods that have been used such as natural experiments and correlations have practical issues in their design and implementation that mean firm cause and effect links cannot be made between social learning and criminal behaviour</div>
ALTERNATIVE THEORIES - againstA criticism of SLT as an explanation of crime generally is that it tends to overlook the possibility of a strong biological influence on criminal behaviour in certain individuals, it does provide an explanation for the evidence that criminality runs in families but this data may also be explained by other factors such as genetics or social deprivation rather than imitation of role models
What does the term labelling refer to?When general and broad terms are used to describe members of a group<div>This often happens when a group of people are seen as sharing an interest or characteristic and labels are often based on stereotypes and are given to the individual or a group of people by powerful majority groups</div><div>Negative stereotypes are commonly associated with certain groups</div>
Define labellingWhen general and broad terms are used to describe members of a group
Define stereotypeAn over generalised belief about someone or something typically based on limited information
Define prejudiceDislike based on false or misguided opinions
Define discriminationThe practice of treating one person or group differently from another in an unfair way
How can negative stereotypical labels result in prejudice and discrimination?Negative stereotypical labels can influence the attitudes of others to the individual or a group of people, which can result in prejudice<div>They may start to be treated by powerful majority groups according to that label (discrimination)</div>
What is the effect of the discriminatory behaviour experienced?It may lead to the label becoming the 'master status' of the individual overriding all others which changes the self-concept of the individual which may influence their behaviour
When does labelling often happen?When a group of people are seen as sharing an interest or characteristic
What are labels based on?Stereotypes
Who are labels given by?Powerful majority groups
Briefly list the 4 steps in the process of labelling1. Label is given<div>2. Treated accordingly</div><div>3. Becomes master status</div><div>4. Self-concept changes</div>
Describe the first step in the process of labellingLabel is given by powerful majority social groups e.g. parents, teachers, police which are often based on stereotypes
Describe the second step in the process of labellingPerson/group is then treated according to the label given (discrimination)
Describe the third step in the process of labellingLabel becomes the master status - negative labels result in stigma<div>It overrides the other forms of status a person has e.g. sibling, friend</div>
Describe the fourth step in the process of labellingSelf concept changes as a person accepts the label<div>How we see ourselves often relies on how others see us and behave towards us</div><div>This may influence the person's behaviour</div>
Describe Besemer et al (2013) researchInvestigated the extent to which children of convicted parents had higher risk of conviction themselves because of official bias towards criminal families<div>Official bias occurs where the criminal justice system focuses on certain families with high levels of criminal behaviour and low income levels</div><div>It is likely that a child in such a family is labelled as criminal and it is possible that this could influence their future behaviour</div><div>Besemer found that children from families labelled as 'criminal' are more likely to be convicted than children from other families</div><div>However he said that this finding did not show that families transmit criminal behaviour to their children, he said the findings mean families labelled as 'criminal' are paid more attention to and so such children are more likely to be caught, prosecuted and found guilty than children from other families</div><div>Although this study did not look at labelling of the individual directly, it does indicate that children can be labelled by powerful groups as 'criminal' according to their social circumstances and parental behaviour</div>
Describe Lieberman et al (2014) researchFound that juveniles who had been previously arrested were more likely to commit other crimes compared with juveniles who had not been previously arrested<div>They argued that this could due to labelling theory and how others treat them</div>
Describe Chambliss (1973) researchObserved 2 groups of high school boys, the Roughnecks and the Saints<div>He found the Roughnecks were much more likely to be labelled as deviant by the police and were more likely to have legal action taken against them</div>
Describe Lemert (1962) researchFound that cheque forgers had been forging cheques long before they were caught, so had been active in this crime before they had been labelled<div>He argues that their self-image was not affected by a label</div><div>(Labelling theory doesn't really explain how people turned to crime in the first place)</div>
How does labelling theory link to nature/nurture?Labelling theory focuses on the role of nurture in the development of the behaviour, ignoring the role that genetics or hormones play in a person's behaviour so it cannot explain all criminal behaviour
Describe how Becker (1963) applied labelling theory to explain crimeHoward Becker suggests that labelling theory can explain crime because it proposes that what is 'criminal' or 'deviant' is decided by powerful social groups<div>Behaviour e.g. aggression is not itself criminal, but only becomes a crime when someone in power in society labels it a crime</div><div>Therefore according to Becker it is the disadvantaged that are most likely to be labelled as criminals</div><div>Those in power such as teachers and police label someone as a criminal then they are treated as a criminal and it is at this point that they become a criminal - the consequences of labelling can be seen in the self-fulfilling prophecy</div>
What is a weakness of labelling theory?It is only a partial explanation of crime<div>The theory implies that without labelling, crime would not exist</div><div>This seems to suggest that someone who has committed an offence but has not been labelled is not a criminal</div><div>Most people would agree that serious offences are more than social constructs and that murderers are criminal whether they are labelled or not</div>
How is the glucose used?It can be used immediately in respiration to provide energy<div>It can be converted into sucrose for transport around the plant</div><div>It can be stored as starch (amylose &amp; amylopectin) or converted into cellulose and other organic compounds (lipids, amino acids and nucleic acids)</div>
What does the self-fulfilling prophecy suggest?Our expectations of others and the way we behave towards them based on those expectations affect the behaviour of these individuals<div>When we are labelled in some way then we become that label - we end up living up/down to expectations others have of our behaviour</div>
Define self-fulfilling prophecyThe process by which one person's expectations about another become reality by eliciting behaviours that confirm the expectations<div>Smith and Mackie (2000)</div>
What is the self-fulfilling prophecy sometimes referred to as?The Pygmalion Effect
Describe the Pygmalion Effect cycle"<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Others' beliefs about us</span><div>Cause</div><div>Others' actions towards us</div><div>To reinforce</div><div>Our beliefs about ourselves</div><div>Which influence</div><div>Our actions towards others</div>"
Where do we get our self-image from according to the self-fulfilling prophecy?The way other people in society respond to us
What does our self-image influence according to the self-fulfilling prophecy?Our actions which cause other people's social reactions to change
Briefly list the 4 steps in self-fulfilling prophecy1. Self-fulfilling prophecy is based on labels being given to people<div>2. Others will then behave towards the person according to the label</div><div>3. Because they are treated in a certain way the person internalises the label</div><div>4. They then behave according to the label so the prophecy is fulfilled</div>
Describe Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) study'Pygmalion in the classroom'<div>At the start of an academic year some teachers in San Francisco, USA were told that 20 pupils in a class were about to bloom</div><div>All the pupils in the class had had an IQ test before the start of the year, and the researchers told the teachers that the predictions about these 20 pupils came from the results of the IQ test, this was not true and the 20 pupils were chosen at random</div><div>At the end of the year the pupils were all IQ tested again and they were also tested at the end of 2 tears</div><div>The 20 who had falsely been said to be bloomers did have improved IQ scores, both after one and two years compared to others in the class</div><div>It seemed that the teachers had expected those pupils to do better, and that they must have given them some extra attention or feedback</div><div>It concluded that teacher expectation and the related behaviour affects student performance and what someone expects of another person can come true through a self-fulfilling prophecy</div>
Describe Madon et al. (2004) study"'Self-fulfilling prophecies: the accumulative effect of parents' beliefs on children's drinking behaviour'<div>Madon was interested in the self-fulfilling prophecy in family settings</div><div>Her sample was made up of 115 children aged 12-13 years old in the USA</div><div>Their parents were given a questionnaire and asked to estimate how much alcohol their child regularly drank and would drink in the coming year then a<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">&nbsp;year later children were asked to say how much alcohol they actually consumed and a correlational analysis was carried out</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">The study showed that there was a greater influence on the child's drinking behaviour when both parents overestimated their child's alcohol use - if both parents expected their child to drink alcohol, the child was more likely to do so</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">This suggests that negative self-fulfilling prophecies may have an effect on the child's behaviour</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">However, Madon's study is a correlational analysis, so it doesn't prove cause and effect; it might be that parents are just quite good at predicting their children's future drinking behaviour</span></div>"
Describe Jahoda (1954) studyThe Ashanti people (South Ghana) were studied<div>They give boys soul names when they are born and these names are linked to the day of the week on which they are born and supposedly influence their characters</div><div>Boys named Kwadwo (Monday) are seen as calm and peaceful whereas boys named Kwadku (Wednesday) are seen as aggressive and angry and are expected to behave in an aggressive, violent way</div><div>5 years of juvenile court records were analysed and it was discovered that Kwadwo (Monday) names were responsible for 6.9% of violent crime whereas Kwadku (Wednesday) names were responsible for 22% of violent crime</div><div>This suggests that cultural expectations about the behaviour of the boys based on their names led to them being treated differently according to these explicit labels e.g. Wednesday names may have been treated more suspiciously and this may have led them to confirm their labels</div>
How does the self-fulfilling prophecy link to gender differences in criminal and anti-social behaviour?Jahoda's study shows that the self-fulfilling prophecy can explain how the gender differences that exist in criminal behaviour may come about, however in this research females were not studied so the evidence is not clear<div>Nevertheless, it is clear that boys may be far more likely to be labelled as daredevils and aggressive than girls due to common gender difference stereotypes</div><div>This is linked to developmental psychology as these stereotype labels may influence males' and females' self-concepts from a very early age</div>
How is self-fulfilling prophecy a developmental theory of criminality?"The self-fulfilling prophecy helps to explain the development of some individuals because it is more likely that a label will be assigned and internalised as a young person is forming their own sense of identity - a<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">t this point in development there is greater vulnerability to the internalisation of others' beliefs about them</span>"
EVIDENCE - strengthsThere is some evidence of the influence of labelling and the self-fulfilling prophecy in real life settings: Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) showed the power of expectations in education<div>This research is further supported by Madon et al (2004) who found that when parents have negative expectations about their child's likelihood of drinking alcohol, their child is indeed likely to drink</div><div>Evidence from Jahoda's (1953) study on names and criminality in the Ashanti people - this finding seems to be reliable and applicable to criminal behaviour</div><div>Besemer et al (2013) work on labelling of criminal families suggest that labelling and the self-fulfilling prophecy can have an influence on criminal behaviour</div><div>It can explain gender differences in criminal behaviour if we assume that boys may be far more likely to be labelled as daredevils and aggressive than girls due to common gender difference stereotypes and individual differences</div>
How can the self-fulfilling prophecy explain individual differences in criminal behaviour?Some people are exposed to the type of labelling associated with criminal behaviour, whereas others are not<div>Not all individuals live up to the expectations of others around them, therefore they don't respond to the self-fulfilling prophecy e.g. those with higher self-esteem, greater autonomy and less regard for the opinions of others</div>
METHODOLOGY - strengthMuch of the research in this field is from real life settings so the ecological validity of the findings is high meaning that labelling and self-fulfilling prophecy is probably a factor in the criminal and anti-social behaviour of individuals in everyday situations
APPLICATIONS - strengthResearch in this field has led to society being much more aware of the power of labels and how they can influence a person's self-concept and subsequently, their behaviour. This has led to important real life applications e.g. during their training, teachers are prepared carefully so they can recognise how self-fulfilling prophecy may influence the views of their students e.g. a child might be labelled as a troublemaker because of her family and social background and that may lead the teacher to expect bad behaviour
EVIDENCE - weaknessesIt is virtually impossible to use experiments to study the influence of self-fulfilling prophecy and labelling on criminal behaviour, due to ethical constraints - supporting evidence from experiments is therefore lacking because it would be highly unethical to deliberately label people as criminals to test the theory<div>Much of the evidence that does exist is linked to educational outcomes therefore it may not be relevant to criminal behaviours</div>
METHODOLOGY - weaknessThe problem with studying the influence of labelling and the self-fulfilling prophecy on criminal behaviour is that the existence of negative beliefs and expectations in those doing the labelling are difficult to study because they are not directly observable so researchers must rely on self-report e.g. Madon et al (2004) study on the self-fulfilling prophecy and drinking behaviour<div>Similarly, the self-concept of those who are labelled can only be studied in this way which means that practical issues are raised in attempting to gain valid data on certain parts of the processes involved in the self-fulfilling prophecy</div>
ALTERNATIVE THEORIES - weaknessesA shortcoming of the self-fulfilling prophecy is that it is not a complete social explanation of criminal behaviour - it doesn't explain how the individual learns the actual criminal behaviour they get involved in so there must be other social factors that influence criminal behaviour and these may have a much more powerful effect than the self-fulfilling prophecy<div>In addition, the self-fulfilling prophecy is a purely social explanation for criminal behaviour and does not allow for the possibility of biological explanations e.g. genetic inheritance of criminal type behaviour traits so therefore it can be thought of as reductionist</div>
What is the name of this practical?The Hill Reaction
What are the independent variables and how were they varied?Chloroplasts or another part of the cell - addition of the leaf extract or the supernatant<div>Light or dark - exposure to light or darkness</div>
What were the controls?Negative controls<div>Tube 2: Contained only isolation medium - checks that it will not reduce the DCPIP</div><div>Tube 4: Contained distilled water and leaf pellet - checks that the leaf pellet does not change in the light or heat</div>
What is the dependent variable and how was it measured?The colour change of the DCPIP solution was measured by judging the colour change of the DCPIP by eye - qualitative measurement
Describe how and why organism variables were controlledSpecies of plant - same species (spinach) because different species could contain different numbers of chloroplasts in their leaves or photosynthesise at different rates<div>Source of chloroplasts - extracted from leaves from the same plant because there could be genetic variation or different chloroplast content between different plants due to different growing conditions</div><div>Age - chloroplasts extracted from the same age of plants/leaves (baby spinach) because different ages of plants/leaves produce chloroplasts in different quantities and different types of chlorophyll</div>
Describe how and why environmental variables were controlledTemperature - use of ice to keep temperature low during isolation phase however the chloroplasts were allowed to warm up to room temperature during centrifugation and during work on the lab bench, the same wattage of lamp is used which produces the same amount of heat because changes in temperature affect enzyme activity - temperature is a limiting factor<div>pH of solutions - use of a buffer within the isolation medium because enzymes have an optimum pH and non-optimum pH can decrease enzyme activity and reduce rate of photosynthesis</div><div>Light intensity - use same wattage and colour (wavelength) of light because light intensity and wavelength are limiting factors for the light dependent stage of photosynthesis</div>
How is temperature a limiting factor?Low temperatures reduce kinetic energy of enzymes and molecules which would reduce enzyme activity and the rate of photosynthesis<div>Warm temperatures increase kinetic energy of enzymes and molecules increasing the rate of photosynthesis</div><div>High temperatures could denature enzymes reducing enzyme activity and rate of photosynthesis</div>
Describe how and why procedural variables were controlled"Volume of DCPIP - same volume (5cm3) measured by pipette because DCPIP accepts the electrons from the electron transport chain<div>Concentration of DCPIP - same concentration (0.05%)&nbsp;<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">because DCPIP accepts the electrons from the electron transport chain</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Volume of leaf extract/supernatant - same volume (0.5cm3) measured by pipette because the same number of chloroplasts is needed as different numbers of chloroplasts would affect the speed of the development of the results in each tube</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Total reaction volume - totalled to 5.5cm3 because the isolation medium needs to be at the correct dilution, the chloroplasts are equally diluted/concentrated so that light can reach them evenly</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Length of exposure to light source - reaction tubes are exposed to the same light source for at least 20 minutes because the length of exposure time must be sufficient to allow the light dependent reaction to occur</span></div>"
What repeats should be carried out?Each tube/condition should be repeated at least 3-5 times
How is this investigation made reliable?It is not very reliable - no repeats have been performed within each group, combined class data is more reliable
How is this investigation made valid?Controlled variables kept constant<div>Controls were used - tube 2 and 4</div>
How is this investigation made safe?Safety glasses when using DCPIP<div>Same volume of filtrate in centrifuge tube to balance the centrifuge</div>
State each step of the method1. Keeping solutions and apparatus cold during the experiment<div>2. Discard the midribs and stalks</div><div>3. Addition of 20cm3 cold isolation medium</div><div>4. Grind vigorously and rapidly</div><div>5. Filter the mixture through a layer of muslin into cold centrifuge tube</div><div>6. Check that each centrifuge has the same volume of filtrate</div><div>7. Centrifuge filtrate at 3500 rpm for 3 minutes</div><div>8. Pour off supernatant and re-suspend the pellet</div>
Why should you keep solutions and apparatus cold during the experiment?To preserve photosynthesis enzyme activity
Why should you discard the midribs and stalks?They contain the vascular bundles (xylem and phloem) which do not contain chloroplasts
What does the isolation medium contain?A buffer to maintain a neutral pH for the activity of photosynthesis enzymes<div>Sucrose to balance the osmotic potential of the chloroplasts so that water does not enter the chloroplasts by osmosis causing them to burst</div>
Why do you need to grind vigorously and rapidly?To break apart the cells to release the chloroplasts<div>Need to do it quickly to keep the plant material cold</div>
Why do you need to filter the mixture through a layer of muslin into cold centrifuge tube?Remove the large remnants of plant material<div>Chloroplasts are within the isolation medium that go into the centrifuge tube</div>
Why should you check that each centrifuge tube has the same volume of filtrate?To maintain the correct balance in the centrifuge
Why should you centrifuge the filtrate at 3500 rpm for 3 minutes?To separate the chloroplasts from the lighter organelles and plant material which will remain in the supernatant<div>Need to do it quickly to keep the plant material cold</div>
Why should you pour off supernatant and re-suspend the pellet?To remove the remaining plant material and other organelles<div>To produce a uniform suspension of chloroplasts</div>
Why use the leaf extract?Contains the chloroplasts with the thylakoids for the light-dependent reactions
Why use the supernatant?This is an independent variable to show that photosynthesis needs chloroplasts
Why expose tubes to a bright light 12-15cm away?So that light is not a limiting factor for photosynthesis
Why put tube 3 in the dark?This is an independent variable to show that photosynthesis needs light
Which improvements could be made?Positive control - addition of a reducing compound that will check that the DCPIP will reduce and change colour<div>Carry out procedure in darkness to stop the light dependent reaction and then switch light on (do not work under red light)</div><div>Use a set mass of plant leaf tissue (especially if needing to compare different plants/compounds that may effect rate of photosynthesis)</div><div>Use leaves of the same plant and age e.g. 3rd leaf from the growing tip</div><div>Centrifuge in a refrigerated centrifuge to keep the temperature low</div><div>Use a strip light to ensure that every tube receives the same light intensity (light will not be a limiting factor)</div><div>Heat sink could be used - heat from the 100W bulb could slow down photosynthesis (temperature would be a limiting factor) or cause DCPIP to decolourise</div><div>Quantitative measurement could be done with a colorimeter to measure absorbance of the solution using a red filter</div>
Describe the results for tube 1 (leaf pellet and DCPIP)DCPIP becomes colourless<div>Light and chloroplasts membranes</div><div>DCPIP is reduced by hydrogen and electrons</div>
Describe the results for tube 2 (isolation fluid and DCPIP)No change in DCPIP<div>Negative control</div><div>Demonstrates that isolation fluid used does not affect DCPIP</div>
Describe the results for tube 3 (leaf pellet and DCPIP in the dark)No change in DCPIP<div>No light for photosynthesis</div><div>Demonstrates that light is needed for reduction to occur</div>
Describe the results for tube 4 (leaf pellet and distilled water)No DCPIP to change colour<div>No DCPIP present, so this is a negative control to show that leaf pellet material does not change colour in light</div>
Describe the results for tube 5 (supernatant and DCPIP)No change in DCPIP?<div>Dependent on the quality of the centrifugation - if chloroplast membranes are present then some decolourisation may occur</div>
What does Rosenhan's study investigate?Both the reliability and validity of diagnosis of mental disorder
What is the most commonly accepted approach to understanding and classifying abnormal behaviour?The medical model
What is the branch of medicine which is concerned with treating mental illness known as?Psychiatry
What are psychiatrists?Medical doctors who are trained to regard mental illness as comparable to other kinds of physical illnesses
When did the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) start to be used to classify abnormal behaviour?In the 1950s
What happened in the 1960s?A number of psychiatrists and psychotherapists, known as the anti-psychiatry movement, started to fiercely criticise the medical approach to abnormality
What was the anti-psychiatry movement concerned about?Controversial medical practice in psychiatry<div>Diagnosis could be used as an agent of state control</div><div>Diagnosis of mental illness was being used to medicalise social problems</div><div>Diagnosis results in labelling</div>
What were the anti-psychiatry movement concerned about controversial medical practices in psychology?Lobotomies as a treatment - nerve fibers in the brain are cut, often leaving a patient apathetic and childlike
What were the anti-psychiatry movement concerned about diagnosis being used as an agent of state control?Dissidents in the USSR were sometimes institutionalised to stop them spreading their political views
What were the anti-psychiatry movement concerned about diagnosis of mental illness being used to medicalise social problems?Social anxiety disorder is widely diagnosed today<div>This disorder is characterised by a marked and persistent fear of social or performance situations in which embarrassment may occur</div><div>Some suggest that the condition is just ordinary shyness and does not require diagnosis or treatment</div>
How did David Rosenhan, a psychiatrist, criticise the medical model?He felt that diagnosis was not accurate<div>Being given a psychiatric diagnosis would negatively affect a person's life as they would be left with a psychiatric label which would cause others to judge them negatively and misinterpret their behaviour</div>
What was the title of Rosenhan study 1?On being sane in insane places
What was the aim of study 1?To see if psychiatrists could differentiate between sane and insane people
Describe the sample used in study 18 pseudo-patients (sane people)<div>One graduate student, 3 psychologists, a paediatrician, a painter, a housewife and a psychiatrist</div>
What 2 experimental methods were used in study 1?Field experiment with participant observation (covert)
Describe the procedure in study 1"Telephoned 12 psychiatric hospitals for urgent appointments<div>Gave false name and address</div><div>Complained of hearing unclear voices saying ""empty, hollow, thud"" - chose these words because they aren't associated with any particular disorder</div><div>They were all admitted to hospital and all but one were diagnosed as suffering from schizophrenia</div><div>Once admitted they stopped simulating any symptoms and took part in ward activities</div><div>They took notes of their experience while in the hospital</div>"
How did the ward staff see the pseudo-patients in study 1?"Normal behaviour was misinterpreted<div>Writing notes was described as ""the patient engaged in writing behaviour""</div><div>Arriving early for lunch described as ""oral acquisitive syndrome""</div><div>Behaviour distorted to fit in with label</div>"
How long did they stay in hospital in study 1?The shortest stay was 7 days<div>The longest stay was 52 days</div><div>The average stay was 19 days</div><div>They had agreed to stay until they convinced the staff they were sane</div>
How much medication was given in study 1?Given a total of 2100 medication tablets<div>They flushed them down the toilet and noted that other patients did the same and that this was ignored as long as patients behaved themselves</div>
How long did nurses stay in their ward offices for in study 1?90% of the time
How much time did each real patient spend with psychiatric staff per day in study 1?Less than 7 minutes
What did the pseudo-patients' visitors detect in study 1?"""No serious behavioural consequences"""
What did the real patients think about the pseudo-patients in study 1?35 out of 118 patients voiced their suspicions
What happened to pseudo-patients when they got released in study 1?They were diagnosed as schizophrenia in remission<div>Labels are sticky - they remain with you even when you are well</div>
What is the conclusion for study 1?Psychiatrists could not detect sanity
What was the aim of study 2?To see if the hospitals, who has been told they were going to be approached by pseudo-patients, would be able to tell the sane from the insane
Describe the procedure of study 2A teaching and psychiatric hospital that was aware of the findings from study 1 was informed that over the next 3 months one or more pseudo-patients would try to get admitted to their hospital<div>Each member of staff was asked to rate the likelihood that the patients who sought to be admitted were pseudo-patients</div><div>In reality, no pseudo-patients were admitted</div>
What was the conclusion for study 2?The staff were unable to detect insanity
Describe the results of study 2Staff members rated new patients on scale 1 - 10 as how likely to be a fraud<div>193 patients assessed</div><div>41 rated as a pseudo-patient by at least 2 members of staff</div><div>23 rated as a pseudo-patient by at least one psychiatrist</div><div>19 rated as a pseudo-patient by a psychiatrist and one other member of staff</div>
GENERALISABILITY - strengthsStudy 1 took place in a range of hospitals (12) across the USA (old/new hospitals, well-staffed/understaffed)<div>This means that the findings should be generalisable to the USA of the 1960's</div>
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessesMay not generalise to current times or outside the USA
RELIABILITY - weaknessesField experiment - variables such as patient-staff interactions could not be standardised which means that the research could not be repeated in a consistent way<div>Participant observation - low reliability because participant observers find it difficult to observe all details and may get distracted or over-involved</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthsCertain aspects of the study were standardised leading to high reliability<div>All the pseudo-patients presented with the same single symptom of hearing a voice that said hollow, thud, or empty</div><div>All pseudo-patients behaved normally as soon as they were admitted to hospital and said that they did not have any symptoms</div><div>The questions asked by the pseudo-patients and the control in study 3 were standardised</div>
APPLICATIONS - strengthsNumber of criteria used to diagnose mental illnesses increased - diagnosis is now more accurate as a diagnosis of schizophrenia cannot rely on only one symptom - led to changes in the DSM III<div>People recognised that hospitals may not be the best place to treat mental illness</div><div>Highlighted danger of labelling</div><div>Reduce abuse of power in mental institutions by staff using CCTV</div>
VALIDITY - strengthsVery high ecological validity - setting (hospital) and tasks (hospital activities; life as a patient) both true to life<div>Process of being admitted to a hospital, the experience of life in a hospital, interactions with staff and discharge was true to life</div><div>Covert observations increases validity as reduces demand characteristics - doctors and nurses likely to act as they normally would</div>
VALIDITY - weaknessesLack of controls due to the nature of research (field experiment) reduces the validity of the research - impossible to standardise things such as patient/staff interactions or reactions of other patients<div>Observer bias may reduce validity - Rosenhan had strong opinions about psychiatry and the medical model; his opinions may have influenced his observations</div>
ETHICS - strengthConfidentiality - names of individual doctors and nurses not published
ETHICS - weaknessesParticipants did not know they were part of a study so there are problems with informed consent, right to withdraw and deception<div>Protection - undermines confidence of doctors and nurses</div><div>Protection of other patients - staff wasting time on pseudo-patients instead of looking after genuinely ill people</div>
What was the aim of study 3?To investigate patient/staff contact
Describe the participants used in study 3Doctors and staff in 4 of the hospitals used in study 1<div>Opportunity sample</div>
Describe the procedure in study 3 for the pseudo-patient condition"In 4 of the hospitals used in study 1, pseudo-patients approached a member of staff and asked ""Pardon me, Dr X, could you tell me when I will be eligible for ground privileges?""<div>The pseudo-patient did this as normally as possible and avoided asking the same member of staff more than once a day</div>"
Describe the procedure in study 3 for the control condition"Young female participant stopped faculty members on university campus and asked various questions e.g. ""I'm looking for a psychiatrist"""
Describe the result from study 3In the psychiatric hospital only 4 psychiatrists stopped and talked whereas at the university campus 100 faculty members stopped and talked
Describe the conclusion for study 3Patients are powerless while on the mental ward<div>The lack of eye contact between staff and patients depersonalises the patients</div>
Describe Rosenhan's overall conclusion"""It is clear that we are unable to distinguish the sane from the insane in psychiatric hospitals""<div>In the first study we are unable to detect sanity and in the follow up study we are unable to detect insanity</div><div><span style=""color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: arial; text-align: center; background-color: var(--bs-body-bg);"">Hospitalisation for the mentally ill isn't the solution as it results in powerlessness, depersonalisation, segregation, mortification and self-labelling which are all counter-therapeutic</span></div>"
What did Rosenhan's study highlight?The depersonalisation and powerlessness of patients in psychiatric hospitals<div>Behaviour is interpreted according to expectations of staff and that these expectations are created by the labels sanity and insanity</div>
What is depersonalisation?Where people are not treated as unique individuals worthy of respect
How was depersonalisation shown in Rosenhan's findings?Patients were deprived of many human rights such as freedom of movement and privacy e.g. physical examinations were conducted in semi-private rooms<div>Medical records were open to all staff members regardless of status or therapeutic relationship with the patient</div><div>Personal hygiene was monitored and many of the toilets did not have doors</div><div>Some of the ward orderlies would be brutal to patients in full view of other patients but would stop as soon as another staff member approached which indicates that staff were credible witnesses but patients were not</div><div>Staff treated patients with little respect, beating them and swearing at them for minor incidents</div><div>General activity around the patients was conducted as though they were invisible</div><div>Patients were unable to initiate contact with staff</div>
What does depersonalisation lead patients to feeling?Powerless
What are the contents of the 5 tubes?Leaf pellet and DCPIP<div>Isolation fluid and DCPIP</div><div>Leaf pellet and DCPIP (in the dark)</div><div>Leaf pellet and distilled water</div><div>Supernatant and DCPIP</div>
What is the impact of an overactive amygdala compared to an underactive amygdala?Overactive amygdala leads to increased impulsive aggression whereas underactive amygdala leads to low fear levels and risk taking behaviour
What is a mission statement?A qualitative statement of an organisation's aims
What type of language does a mission statement use?Language intended to motivate employees and convince customers, suppliers and those outside the firm of its sincerity and commitment
What must an organisation do before it can start to address the task of planning and setting objectives?Have a clear understanding of its purpose - the mission statement does this
What does the mission statement communicate?It communicates with key shareholders what the company is doing and what it ought to be doing
How should a mission statement be presented?In the most clear, considered and memorable way as possible
Why do companies have mission statements?Mainly to ensure the employees know what the company does, this way all employees can understand and identify with this and can help create a desirable company culture
What factors need to be considered when drawing up a mission statement?They can tend to ignore parts of the business, as many businesses now do multiple things - can have mission books or lists in order to cover all of the company's activities<div>Should start from the top and get everybody involved in thinking about what the statement is going to be - should be understood at the top first and passed down, ensuring everybody on the way down understands what it means to them</div><div>Needs to be continually monitored and perhaps altered if things change</div>
What are the problems with mission statements?"Contain idealistic values that have no meaning in practice - they are simply a PR strategy<div>Can fail to have an impact on company performance as they do not provide a clear signal as to how the purpose, values and strategy should guide employee's standards and behaviour</div><div>Do not add value and can do serious harm as workers may seriously disagree and ridicule it - to be effective everyone in the business needs to ""buy in""</div><div>Not always supported by actions of the business - need to match what is actually happening in the company</div><div>Need to be checked for any hidden meanings or negative implications</div><div>Often too vague and general statements of the obvious</div>"
Define corporate aimsLong term intentions of a business
Define corporate objectivesTargets that must be achieved to meet the stated business aims
How are corporate aims often provided?In mission statement form
Describe what corporate aims doGive a general focus so other objectives can be set<div>Provide a common purpose for everybody to identify with and work towards, as well as a collective view that helps build team spirit and encourage commitment</div><div>Determine the way in which an organisation will develop</div>
Describe what corporate objectives doThey are medium to longer term targets that give a sense of direction<div>Act as a focus for decision making and effort and a yardstick for success or failure</div><div>Encourage a sense of common purpose, making it easier to coordinate actions and create team spirit which can lead to increased efficiency and more productive and motivated staff</div><div>They govern the targets for each department</div>
How do aims and objectives vary from firm to firm?They depend on size and legal structure
What are some key corportate aims and objectives?Survival<div>Profit</div><div>Growth</div><div>Diversification</div><div>Meeting the needs of other stakeholders</div>
Describe the key corporate aim/objective of survivalKey objective for most small or new firms, especially in highly competitive markets<div>Even more significant in times of uncertainty and recession</div>
Describe the key corporate aim/objective of profitProfit maximisation is often cited as the most important objective<div>It depends on the level of competition, capacity, stage of business cycle and demand for the product</div>
Describe the key corporate aim/objective of growthCould relate to increasing market share, turnover, number of outlets or number of business areas<div>It can be achieved by the growth of the existing business, or by takeover of other businesses</div>
Describe the key corporate aim/objective of diversificationMay wish to diversify in order to spread risk by reducing the dependency on a single market or product
Describe the key corporate aim/objective of meeting the needs of other stakeholdersOther stakeholders include workers and the local community<div>Helping these will help enhance the reputation of the company, and may lead to increased output due to motivation</div>
What is corporate strategy?The course or route that a business has chosen to follow in order to achieve its corporate objectives
How will the corporate strategy be informed?By an assessment of the business' internal strengths and weaknesses and external opportunities and threat
What will corporate strategy influence?Which markets a business chooses to compete in<div>Which products to offer</div>
What will corporate strategy be influenced by?Corporate objectives<div>Distinctive capabilities</div><div>Competitive environment</div><div>Leaders' attitudes to risk</div><div>Local, national and global economic environment</div>
What does Ansoff's Matrix look at?&nbsp;The degree of risk and potential for reward from different strategic options
What did Ansoff recognise that happened as a business moved away from what it knows best?The degree of risk increased however trying to just sell more of an existing product in an existing market is unlikely to bring about substantial growth opportunities
What are the 4 strategies in Ansoff's Matrix?Market penetration - existing product &amp; existing market<div>Market development - existing product &amp; new market</div><div>Product development - new product &amp; existing market</div><div>Diversification - new product &amp; new market</div>
Describe market penetrationTrying to sell more of an existing product to the existing market<div>Low risk strategy but limited potential for reward</div>
What are possible approaches to market penetration?Gain market share from competitors<div>Encourage customers to buy more</div><div>Changes to the marketing mix</div><div>Extension strategies</div>
What are potential dangers of market penetration?Competitors' reactions<div>Relatively short term only</div><div>Market may already be saturated</div>
Describe market developmentAttracting new customers to buy existing products<div>Risk associated with lack of knowledge of customers e.g. may be new customer type or new location</div>
What are possible approaches to market development?Enter a new international market<div>Change promotional tactics</div><div>New distribution channels e.g. e-commerce</div>
What are potential dangers of market development?The product may not be accepted, desired or understood in a new market<div>The business may not understand the new market</div><div>Alienation of current customers</div>
Describe product developmentSelling new and better products to existing customers<div>Risk comes from not knowing the products, high R&amp;D costs and competitors' reactions</div>
What are possible approaches to product development?Launch substantially improved versions of existing products<div>Introduce complementary products</div><div>New product innovations</div>
What are potential dangers of product development?Risk of cannibalisation<div>May shorten product life cycle of existing products</div><div>Damage to brand</div>
What is cannibalisation?A loss in sales caused by a company's introduction of a new product that displaces one of its own older products
Describe diversificationSelling new products to new markets<div>High risk strategy as 2 elements are unknown - the market and the product</div><div>High risk but also greatest potential for reward</div>
What are possible approaches to diversification?R&amp;D into new products and market research into new markets<div>Acquisition of other businesses</div>
What are potential dangers of diversification?Relies on heavy investment<div>Cultural differences may exist</div><div>Brand name may be diluted</div>
Define phenologyThe study of seasonal events in the lives of animals and plants
What are the 2 ways that species can cope with climate change?Changing distribution of species<div>Altered development and life cycles</div>
What features enable animal and plant species to change their distribution?Animals - ability to fly, swim over long distances, mobile over a large land mass<div>Plants - good seed dispersal</div>
What are the possible consequences of new species moving to an area?Increased competition for the same niche, change in the dominant species
What are the possible solutions for the original species when a new species moves to an area?Migrate, adapt to a different niche, become extinct if can't move/nowhere to go
What problems would the migrating animal species face?Lack of normal food supply, competition with existing species for a niche
Which environmental factor is most likely to affect animal species?Temperature, if it acts as a cue or trigger for their development or behaviour
What is the other environmental cue for some species?Photoperiod
What environmental cue do some plants use?Rainfall
Why do animals and plants need to be synchronised with each other?The hatching of eggs or the emergence of adults (after hibernation) is synchronised with periods of maximum food availability<div>A mismatch can seriously reduce survival rates</div>
How is phenology used to provide evidence for climate change?"The timing of developmental events are used as biological indicators<div>Many long-term records exist and many data sets from different species and different locations are needed.&nbsp;<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">They are compared and tested statistically to improve validity</span></div>"
What are the 4 strategies in Porter's Strategic Matrix?Cost leadership - mass market &amp; lowest cost<div>Focused cost leadership - niche market &amp; lowest cost</div><div>Differentiation - mass market &amp; highest differentiation</div><div>Focused differentiation - niche market &amp; highest differentiation</div>
What is the Boston Matrix?Also known as Product Portfolio Analysis<div>A model that analyses each product within a product portfolio in relation to its market share and the rate of market growth</div>
What is a product portfolio?The collection of products a business is currently making
What are the 4 quadrants of the Boston Matrix?Cash cow - high market share &amp; low market growth<div>Dog - low market share &amp; low market growth</div><div>Rising star - high market share &amp; high market growth</div><div>Question mark/problem child - low market share &amp; high market growth</div>
Explain the aim of product portfolio analysis for a businessHelps with decision making - marketing, investing and discounting products
Describe cost leadershipThe firm sets out to become the lowest cost producer in the industry<div>It does this by producing on a large scale and gaining economies of scale, by using more technology or by cutting fixed costs</div><div>Its products tend to be standard and mass produced</div>
Describe differentiationThe firm sets out to have a valuable USP which provides it with the opportunity to charge high prices<div>Differentiation can be based on product image, product durability or after sales service etc</div>
Describe niche focusThe firm picks a segment of the market that is poorly served by the main players in the industry and then adopts either a cost leadership strategy or a differentiation strategy to target the niche
What is the key to success with cost leadership?To achieve the lowest costs in the industry but with processes that are close to the industry average
What is the key to success with differentiation?To try and reduce costs in areas that do not affect the uniqueness of the product
What is the key to success with niche focus?The strategy that can be either cost leadership or differentiation, is aimed at a particular market segment
What problems can occur with cost leadership?If customers perceive the quality or value of the products to be lower than competitors'
What problems can occur with differentiation?If the extra costs incurred in achieving differentiation outweigh the additional revenue generated by the higher prices
How can a business gain a competitive advantage in relation to Porter's Generic Strategies?The business must choose to either follow cost leadership OR differentiation otherwise it risks being 'stuck in the middle', trying to be all things to all people and ending up with no competitive strategy at all
How can competitive advantage be achieved?Through distinctive capabilities
What is competitive advantage?A set of unique features of a company and its products that are perceived by customers as significant and superior to the competition
What is a distinctive capability?A form of competitive advantage which competitors find very difficult to reproduce/imitate
What are the 3 types of distinctive capability?Architecture - the relationship with key stakeholders<div>Reputation - brand image and customer service</div><div>Innovation - new products and processes</div>
What 3 questions are used to test distinctive capabilities?Do they allow for market development?<div>Do they provide noticeable benefits to the end user?</div><div>Are they difficult to imitate?</div>
What is the difference between strategies and tactics?Strategies set out the medium to long-term direction that a firm will take to achieve its objectives<div>Tactics are short-term responses to an opportunity or threat in the market</div>
Define rapportThe spoken and unspoken connections between two people
Define unstructured interviewInterviews that have no clear structure of questions
Define semi structured interviewInterviews that have some structure of questions and then no structure in questions
Define structured interviewInterviews that have a structure to follow and a pattern of questions
What happens after a crime has been committed?The crime is generally reported to the police either by the victim or witnesses<div>During these reports the police must gain accurate details about the crime and who the victim or witness thought was the offender</div><div>Following this the police can identify suspects</div><div>Once suspects have been identified an arrest can take place</div>
How long do police spend interviewing people who can help them with the criminal investigations?70-80% of their time
What are the 4 categories of people that the police interview?Victims<div>Witnesses (someone who saw the crime)</div><div>Complainants (those who report the crime)</div><div>Suspects</div>
What is the purpose of the interview process for witnesses?To gain an account of what the suspect firstly looked like and then what they supposedly did (an accurate account of the crime)
What is the main aim of any police interview?To gain as much information as possible about a crime<div>This information will go towards making a case that can contribute towards a conviction</div>
What are the 4 stages of the standard police interviews?Orientation<div>Listening</div><div>Questions and answers</div><div>Advice</div>
Describe the orientation stage of the standard police interviewsThe purpose of the interview is stated and the legal requirements are fulfilled such as informing interviewees of their rights
Describe the listening stage of the standard police interviewsThe interviewee gives free recall of the events with minimal questions
Describe the questions and answers stage of the standard police interviewsThe interviewer asks specific questions based on the previous stage that is intended to fill in any gaps and reduce any ambiguities and obtain additional information. The statement is then read through and signed
Describe the advice stage of the standard police interviewsThe interviewee is informed of any further action e.g. the need to be re-interviewed
What were standard police interviews criticised for?Being ineffective<div>Including inappropriate or leading questions</div><div>Witnesses often being interrupted</div><div>Failed to build rapport</div><div>Coercing interviewees into making false statements (Baldwin, 1993)</div>
Describe Baldwin (1993) studyA report by Baldwin argued that these standard police interviews often used coercion and oppressive interviewing procedures, potentially leading to false confessions, wrongful convictions and miscarriages of justice
What led to the implementation of PACE?The concerns about the inappropriate police interviewing practices in England and Wales
What is PACE?Police and Criminal Evidence Act (1984)
What did PACE offer police officers?An ethical code of practice to follow when interviewing suspects to improve the evidentiary value of the information gathered<div>A legal framework which they must follow in order to protect the human rights of those being interviewed</div>
What did PACE lead to the development of?The PEACE model of interviewing, which is the guidelines recommended for police to use whilst interviewing potential suspects or witnesses
What was the PEACE model a collaboration between?Enforcement agencies and psychologists in England and Wales
What is the PEACE model based on the idea of?That suspects are more likely to cooperate with the police and hence give a truer account if they feel relaxed, secured and not threatened
What are the 5 principles of the PEACE model?Planning &amp; preparation<div>Engage &amp; explain</div><div>Account (clarification, challenge)</div><div>Closure</div><div>Evaluate</div>
Describe the planning &amp; preparation principle of the PEACE modelLack of planning was a major criticism of standard police interviews<div>Interviews should have clear objectives</div>
Describe the engage &amp; explain principle of the PEACE modelEstablishing rapport is important in interviews instead of intimidation<div>This means that the purpose of the interview should be explained, putting the interviewee at ease and ensuring that they know their rights such as the presence of a lawyer</div><div>The interviewee must be encouraged to ask questions if they do not understand anything</div>
Describe the account (clarification, challenge) principle of the PEACE modelGood questioning and listening skills are needed to produce a reliable account<div>The use of open-ended questions can be used to elicit information</div><div>There may also be challenges to the account if there are inconsistencies</div>
Describe the closure principle of the PEACE modelThe interviewee needs to understand what has happened during the interview and it is important to explain what will happen next<div>It also gives the interviewee a chance to ask any questions</div><div>A positive closure keeps a good rapport</div>
Describe the evaluate principle of the PEACE modelReflection on the interviewers' performance, to see if the interview went as planned and learn from any mistakes<div>Reflection on the information gathered and whether the suspect was treated fairly</div>
Strengths of the PEACE modelEvidence that PEACE model builds rapport and uses more ethical techniques when compared to non-PEACE techniques (Walsh &amp; Milne, 2010)<div>Builds public confidence by ensuring fewer miscarriages of justice</div>
Weaknesses of the PEACE modelAlthough National College of Policing advocates the PEACE model it is not always used consistently and therefore its effectiveness is limited<div>Expensive to train police in this technique</div>
What type of disorder is schizophrenia?A psychotic disorder
What is psychosis?The general term for disorders that involve a loss of contact with reality
How does losing contact with reality make it difficult to function?The person suffering from psychosis has an impaired ability to perceive, process and respond to environmental stimuli
What are periods of remission?Where the patient has no symptoms
What follows periods of remission?Relapses where symptoms reoccur
Define symptomsThe issues which a patient would show
Define featuresGeneral information about the disorder
Define positive symptomsStrange and bizzare additions to normal behaviour
Define negative symptomsThe loss or absence of normal characteristics
Define cognitive symptomsIssues to do with information processing
What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?Delusions<div>Hallucinations</div><div>Disorganised thinking/speech</div><div>Abnormal motor behaviour/grossly disorganised behaviour</div>
Define delusionsFalse or bizarre beliefs which persist even in the presence of disconfirming evidence
What are the different types of delusions?Delusions of reference<div>Delusions of grandeur</div><div>Delusions of persecution</div><div>Thought insertion</div><div>Thought broadcasting</div>
What are delusions of reference?Where the patient believes that other people's behaviour is directed specifically at them<div>E.g. if a person with schizophrenia sees his neighbours talking, he may be convinced that they are talking about him</div>
What are delusions of grandeur?Where the patient believes that they have a higher power/status
What are delusions of persecution?Involves beliefs that one is being plotted or conspired against
What is thought insertion?Where the person believes that their thoughts have been implanted by some kind of external force over which they have no control
What is thought broadcasting?Believe that others can hear their thoughts
How are cultural differences relevant to the symptom of delusions?Some cultural differences are apparent in the kind of delusions that occur in schizophrenic patients<div>Often the delusions tend to reflect the predominant themes and values of a person's culture</div>
Give examples of how delusions differ according to the patient's cultureIreland: religious piety is highly valued - delusions of sainthood<div>America: industrially advanced - delusions focus on sinister uses of technology and surveillance, being spied on by their TV or that they are being x-rayed when they walk down the street</div><div>Japan: prizes honour and social conformity - delusions revolve around slander or the fear of being humiliated publicly</div><div>Nigeria: mental illness is believed to be caused by evil spirits - delusions may take the form of witches or ancestral ghosts</div>
Give examples of how different cultures may diagnose disorders differently"Many behaviours that would be seen as schizophrenic symptoms in the western world are considered signs of spiritual exaltation in developing countries<div>A person who claimed that he was a god on earth would be considered delusional in western society, but in India he might be considered a spirit medium who is the human incarnation of a Hindu god</div><div>In some African cultures, hallucinations are not seen as a sign of mental illness because shamans (tribal priests who act as intermediaries between the natural and spiritual worlds) are deeply respected for their ability to describe their experiences in the supernatural realm. Many tribal societies regard the spirit world as immediate and accessible and believe that they can communicate with their deceased ancestors; t<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">hese beliefs reflect cultural norms and are not considered delusions</span></div>"
Define hallucinationsPerception of stimuli not actually present
What are the different types of hallucinations?Visual<div>Auditory</div><div>Olfactory</div>
What is the most common type of hallucination in schizophrenia?Auditory hallucinations
What are auditory hallucinations?"Hearing voices; usually saying something relevant to the person's life<div>Typically the voices come from outside the individual's head and may offer a running commentary in the third person on all that he is doing e.g. ""...now he is washing his hands, now he is opening the fridge...""</div><div>Sometimes they will comment on the individual's character, usually in an insulting manner or they may give a command</div>"
How is the issue of cultural differences relevant to hallucinations?People from different cultures may interpret the voices that they hear differently<div>Luhrmann (2015) found that in some cultures the voices heard were harsh and critical, but in other cultures they were seen as kind</div><div>Therefore the symptoms of schizophrenia may vary from culture to culture</div>
Define disorganised thinking/speechWhere there is an underlying problem with conscious thought that has an effect on a person's language
What is word salad?When the patient's speech is jumbled<div>This is due to loose associations in thoughts where one idea constantly triggers another so they jump from topic to topic</div>
What are neologisms?When thought patterns are reflected in the inventions of new words
Define abnormal motor behaviour/grossly disorganised behaviourRefers to agitated movement, such as repeating movements over and over again<div>However, catatonia may sometimes be present which refers to not moving and responding to others</div>
Which symptoms are given more weight to when making a diagnosis?Positive
Which symptoms come first?Negative - sometimes years before schizophrenia is diagnosed, this is known as the prodromal period
What are the different types of negative symptoms?Lack of energy and motivation e.g. no motivation to do daily chores<div>Social withdrawal e.g. avoiding family and friends</div><div>Flatness of emotions; a person's face becomes emotionless and the voice dull with no rise and fall of intonation</div><div>Not looking after appearance and self</div><div>Lack of pleasure in everyday things</div><div>Speaking little even when required to interact</div>
How do the symptoms of schizophrenia link to the issue of psychology as a science?The negative symptoms may be a more objective measure when diagnosing schizophrenia, as they may be more directly observable because they are based on behaviours than the positive symptoms such as hallucinations which tend to be impossible to observe
Evaluate the symptoms of schizophrenia in terms of diagnosisPositive symptoms: may be difficult to measure accurately as they may not be directly observable and cultural differences mean that positive symptoms may present differently cross-culturally, making diagnosis more difficult<div>Negative symptoms: may be easier to measure in an objective way and may be less affected by cultural differences</div>
What are the cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia?Difficulties in concentrating and paying attention<div>Problems with working memory</div><div>Difficulties with executive functioning (understanding and decision making)</div>
How do the symptoms of schizophrenia link to the issue of individual differences?Different people suffering from schizophrenia may show different symptoms
What are the 3 features?Onset<div>Prevalence</div><div>Prognosis</div>
What is the onset of schizophrenia?Typically between the late teens and the mid-30's
How does the topic of developmental psychology link to onset of schizophrenia?The onset of schizophrenia is typically between the late teens and mid-30's<div>It may be that schizophrenia is triggered by some aspect of development during these years; either biological or social</div>
What is peak onset for schizophrenia?Early to mid-twenties in males<div>Late twenties for females</div><div>This links to the issue of individual differences in the form of gender as it can influence the likelihood of someone developing schizophrenia</div>
Describe the development of schizophrenic episodesThe episodes often develop gradually over time and may not be obvious at first
Define prevalenceHow common a disorder is
Describe the prevalence of schizophrenia around the worldSchizophrenia has been observed all around the world, in various countries, cultures and races so there is no doubt that it is a universal illness<div>However, the symptoms may not show themselves in the same way across cultures</div>
What is the likelihood of someone developing schizophrenia?Between 0.7 and 1%<div>This is influenced by racial/ethnic background, country of residence and country of birth</div><div>People who experience social problems such as poverty and unemployment are more likely to develop schizophrenia than other sections of the population</div><div>This links to the issue of individual differences</div>
How are there cultural differences in the development of schizophrenia?Although schizophrenia has been observed around the world, prevalence varies according to countries
Define prognosisThe likely course of the disease
Describe the prognosis of schizophrenia25% of people who have had a schizophrenic episode recover and don't have another episode<div>50% of people have recurrent episodes (between episodes they are symptom free)</div><div>25% of people experience schizophrenic episodes continually, without any breaks</div>
What is the average life expectancy for a person with schizophrenia?10 years less than the overall population average
How is the issue of individual differences relevant to prognosis?Males show more negative symptoms and have a longer duration of the disorder than females, both of these factors are associated with poor prognosis
How are cultural differences important in terms of prognosis?The World Health Organisation International Pilot Study of Schizophrenia suggests that patients with this disorder in developing countries have a more positive prognosis than comparable patients in western industrialised societies
Describe why enzyme reactions progress slowly at low temperaturesBoth the enzyme and substrate molecules have low kinetic energy<div>They move slowly and do not collide very often</div><div>Fewer enzyme-substrate complexes form</div>
Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of enzyme controlled reactionsAn increase in temperature results in an increase in kinetic energy of the enzyme and substrate molecules<div>The enzyme and substrate have more frequent collisions and therefore more enzyme-substrate complexes form</div><div>Increased rate in the loss of the substrate and production of the product</div>
Describe why enzyme activity falls at high temperaturesAt temperatures above the optimum for the particular enzyme the molecule will vibrate more<div>Bonds (ionic, disulfide and hydrogen) holding the specific 3-dimensional shape of the active site will break and the active site changes shape - the enzyme is said to be denatured</div><div>The substrate will no longer fit into the active site</div><div>Reduced number of enzyme-substrate complexes form</div><div>Reduced formation of product</div>
What is the Q10?The temperature coefficient<div>The rate of reaction approximately doubles for each 10'C rise in temperature</div><div>Most enzymes have a Q10 between 2 and 3</div><div>2 = doubles, 3 = triples</div>
What is the equation to calculate Q10 for an enzyme?Q10 = rate of reaction at temperature T + 10'C / rate of reaction at temperature T
Describe how to use the Q10 equation and a temperature vs rate graph to calculate Q10Choose 2 temperatures 10'C apart in the increasing exponential phase of a temperature vs rate graph e.g. 20'C and 30'C<div>Read the rate for each of those temperatures off the graph</div><div>Divide the rate for the higher temperature by the rate for the lower temperature</div><div>The answer should be between 2 and 3</div>
Define allele frequencyThe relative frequency of a particular allele for a particular gene in a gene pool
Define genomeAll the genes (coding regions) and non-coding regions of DNA in an organism
What is climate change acting as?A selection pressure
What have the techniques of molecular biology enabled scientists to gain evidence about?Evolution and the evolutionary history of organisms i.e. common ancestors
What is the study of DNA/the genome called?Genomics
What is the study of proteins called?Proteomics
What are the 4 molecular techniques?DNA hybridisation<div>DNA profiling</div><div>DNA &amp; protein sequencing</div><div>DNA molecular clocks</div>
Describe the method and use of DNA hybridisationHeat (95'C) double stranded DNA samples from 2 different species<div>This denatures the DNA and creates separate strands</div><div>Mix the DNA strands from both species together so that they complementary base pair to produce hybrid DNA</div><div>Heat the DNA by slowly increasing the temperature</div><div>The higher the temperature needed to denature the hybrids, the more closely related the species</div>
Describe the method and use of DNA profilingUse restriction enzymes to cut the DNA at specific sequences<div>Different sized fragments are produced which can be visualised on a gel</div><div>Mutations in sequences in different individuals in same species or different species will change the lengths of the fragments so different bands will be seen on the gel</div><div>The closer the match in the bands, the closer related the individuals or species</div>
Describe the method and use of DNA &amp; protein sequencingComparing the sequences of bases in DNA or amino acids in proteins between different species<div>The closer the sequence, the more closely related the species - they evolved from a common ancestor</div>
Describe the method and use of DNA molecular clocksAs species evolve they accumulate random mutations at a regular rate, becoming more genetically different<div>For a given gene, the mutation is fairly constant</div><div>This can be used as a molecular clock</div><div>The number of differences between species can be used to calculate how long ago they shared a common ancestor</div>
How do scientists validate new scientific evidence?Publish papers in scientific journals that have been subject to the peer review process<div>Also attend and present at scientific conferences</div>
Who was the cognitive interview originally developed by?Psychologists Geiselman et al.
What is the cognitive interview applied to do?To help the police to carry out a more effective method of interviewing
What is the cognitive interview technique based upon?Extensive research into cognitive psychology
What are the two main memory principles for the application of the cognitive interview?Encoding specificity principle (Tulving)<div>Schema and reconstructive memory</div>
Describe Tulving's encoding specificity principleRelated to report everything and reinstate the context<div>When an event occurs it is first encoded and other important cues are stored alongside it</div><div>These might include sensory details of the context e.g. weather as well as the person's emotional state (what they were feeling at the time)</div><div>It assumes that being reminded of these context cues may facilitate a more accurate recall</div>
Describe schema and reconstructive memory&nbsp;Related to reverse the order and change perspective<div>Having a schema for certain events means that our memory for events may be based on more of what we expect to happen rather than what actually did happen</div>
What did Bartlett find in his 'The War of the Ghosts' study?Participants did not remember the story as it was told<div>They made errors in their recall because they had used their own individual method to interpret the story and provided additional information</div><div>He also asked people to recall the story over time and further distortions recurred</div>
What did Bartlett argue?<div>People store pieces of information in cognitive units called schemas</div>We do not remember all that we perceive<div>We often draw in our schemas when we recall an event to fill in the gaps and make sense</div><div>Recall is an active reconstruction of an event influenced by stored knowledge, expectations and beliefs</div>
What 4 things did Bartlett suggest that memory was prone to?Distortion<div>Rationalisation</div><div>Transformation</div><div>Simplification</div>
How does the cognitive interview link to schemas?<div>Memory can be selective and unreliable</div>Part of cognitive interviewing is to inhibit schema activation<div>This stops people recalling what they think should have happened and instead what actually did happen</div>
What are the 4 main techniques used within the cognitive interview?Context reinstatement<div>Report everything</div><div>Changing the order</div><div>Change perspective</div>
Describe the context reinstatement stageBased on the encoding specificity hypothesis by Tulving which states that reinstating the context increases the accessibility of the information stored in the memory<div>It requires the witness to mentally reconstruct the physical and personal context</div><div>Encouraging a witness to recall specific sensory cues such as how they felt, the weather and time of the day helps to put the person back in time to the incident mentally</div>
Describe research supporting context reinstatementGoddon and Baddeley (1975) gave deep sea divers lists of words to remember<div>Some remembered it on the beach and some under 15 feet of water</div><div>Recall was best when the divers had recalled the words in the same environment as they had learnt it</div>
Describe the report everything stageAllowing witnesses to freely recall a narrative of the situation gains an initial account without interruption<div>There is then scope later on in the interview for the interviewer to ask further questions to clarify significant moments in turn for more details</div><div>Witnesses may exclude details they feel are irrelevant or trivial especially if they don't fit into their existing schemas for that type of event - unimportant detail can act for key information about the event</div>
Describe the change the order stageAs we tend to remember situations in the order in which they happened, we are more likely to reconstruct a story and draw on existing schemas and this can be inaccurate as a result<div>Recalling events in reverse order can help a person to avoid skipping over information that they have taken for granted, as it interrupts schema activation (what we would expect to see) to help prevent story formation</div>
Describe the change perspective stageTrying to adopt the viewpoint of a different witness like a prominent character in the incident can encourage recall of events that may otherwise be omitted<div>This strategy is based on the assumption that in order to provide recall from a different physical perspective witnesses will use different retrieval cues and so be able to recall new information from memory</div><div>It has to be made clear that the witness only reports what they know, and not what they think the other person would have seen</div>
What is the title of Geiselman et al. (1985) study?Comparing the effectiveness of three interview techniques
Describe the procedure of Geiselman et al. (1985) studyLab experiment comparing 3 different interview techniques for optimising eyewitness memory performance<div>They used 89 undergraduate students randomly assigned to one of the 3 interview methods: standard police interview, hypnosis interview and cognitive interview</div><div>The participants watched a violent film and were then asked a set of questions about it</div>
Describe the results of Geiselman et al. (1985) studyThe results showed a significant increase in the number of correct items recalled using the cognitive interview<div>The difference in the interviews of the number of confabulated items (items made up by the participant) was not statistically significant</div>
Describe the conclusion of Geiselman et al. (1985) studyThe increased retrieval using the cognitive interview was due to the guided approach to interviewing which encouraged participants to remember the crime<div>Although participants recalled more information, it was not more accurate than the standard police interview</div><div>Both cognitive and hypnosis procedures elicited a significantly greater number of correct items of information than those in the standard interview</div>
What was the average number of correct items recalled by each group in Geiselman et al. (1985) study?Hypnosis interview: 39<div>Cognitive interview: 39</div><div>Standard interview: 30</div>
What was the average number of incorrect items recalled by each group in Geiselman et al. (1985) study?Hypnosis interview: 6<div>Cognitive interview: 7</div><div>Standard interview: 6</div>
What was the average number of confabulated items recalled by each group in Geiselman et al. (1985) study?Hypnosis interview: 1<div>Cognitive interview: 1</div><div>Standard interview: 0</div>
Describe Fisher et al. (1990) studyFound that Miami Police Department detectives in real situations produced a 46% increase in recall when using the cognitive interview over standard interviews with 90% accuracy
Strengths of the cognitive interviewHigh ecological validity as Fisher et al. (1990) shows that it is effective in real life situations<div>As the interview uses a framework which others can follow it enables the interview to have an element of reliability - this enables others to be trained in this technique to administer onto others</div>
Describe Bekerian &amp; Dennett (1993) researchReviewed 27 studies into the effectiveness of the cognitive interview schedule<div>Found that the cognitive interview provided more accurate information than other interview techniques</div>
Describe Holliday (2003) studyShowed children aged 5 to 9 a video of a child's birthday party and interviewed them the next day using both cognitive and standard interview methods<div>Found that the cognitive interview yielded more correct details about the video than the standard interview, and so showed that it can also be very useful when interviewing children</div>
Describe Milne &amp; Bull (2002) studyFound that when used in combination, cognitive reinstatement and report everything was particularly effective for eliciting information
Weaknesses of cognitive interviewCan be more time consuming and requires specialist training in order to be used effectively and this training can be costly to police services who want to use this approach<div>Nevertheless it is necessary as research shows that untrained interviewers' attempts at cognitive interviewing are likely to produce more errors than standard interview techniques</div>
Describe Geiselman (1999) study"With children under 6, accuracy of recall went down using the cognitive interview<div>Therefore, he recommended that the cognitive interview should only be used on children aged 8 and over because y<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">oung children seem to find the instructions confusing and as a result produce less reliable recall</span></div>"
Describe Kohnken et al. (1999) studyRecorded an 81% increase in correct information using cognitive interview techniques but this was offset by a 61% increase in incorrect information compared with standard interview techniques<div>Whilst cognitive interviews generate more information, it can also produce more false information</div>
What are neurotransmitters?Chemicals that get released from the presynaptic neuron into the synaptic cleft after an action potential then stimulate the postsynaptic neuron and assist in that neuron to create its own action potential
What is the function of neurotransmitters?To allow neurons to communicate with one another to allow our brains to think and feel and our bodies to do things
What is dopamine?A neurotransmitter associated with many functions including motivation and feeling pleasure
What is the dopamine hypothesis?The oldest biological explanation for schizophrenia<div>It suggests that schizophrenia can be explained by changes of dopamine functioning in the brain</div>
What are the two ways that dopamine can cause schizophrenia?Excess dopamine (hyperdopaminergia)<div>Dopamine deficiency (hypodopaminergia)</div>
What are 3 ways that hyperdopaminergia can be explained?Low levels of beta hydroxylase<div>Excess numbers of dopamine receptors</div><div>Hypersensitivity of certain dopamine receptors</div>
Explain how hyperdopaminergia can be linked to beta hydroxylase"<div>Low levels of an enzyme called beta hydroxylase which normally breaks down dopamine&nbsp;<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">means that excess amounts of dopamine build up in the synapses</span></div>"
Explain how hyperdopaminergia can be linked to excess numbers of dopamine receptors"The presence of excess numbers of dopamine receptors at the synapses in the brain s<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">uggests that people with schizophrenia are overreacting to the presence of normal levels of schizophrenia</span>"
Describe Owen (1978) researchPost-mortem examinations of the brains of people with schizophrenia which showed that they had a higher density of dopamine receptors in the cerebral cortex than people who had not suffered from schizophrenia
Explain how hyperdopaminergia can be linked to hypersensitivity of certain dopamine receptorsSchizophrenia may be due to hypersensitivity of certain dopamine receptors (D2 receptors)<div>Suggests that patients with schizophrenia are overreacting to the presence of normal levels of dopamine</div>
What is hyperdopaminergia?Excess dopamine
What is hypodopaminergia?Dopamine deficiency
Describe what happens in the dopamine pathway associated with positive symptoms of schizophreniaExcess dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway in the brain may explain the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
Describe what happens in the dopamine pathway associated with negative and cognitive symptoms of schizophreniaLow levels of dopamine in the mesocortical pathway in the brain may explain the negative and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia
Define mesocortical pathwayA dopamine pathway associated with motivation and energy
Define mesolimbic pathwayA dopamine pathway associated with reward, pleasure and addictive behaviour
What can negative symptoms of schizophrenia also be explained by?Irregular serotonin activity
What is the interaction between serotonin and dopamine?Serotonin regulates dopamine levels in areas such as the mesolimbic pathway
What are other neurotransmitters that may have a role in schizophrenia?GABA and glutamate
Strengths of neurotransmitters as an explanation of schizophreniaThe theory is backed up by evidence from drug treatment - many antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia work by blocking dopamine<div>People with schizophrenia are more sensitive to dopamine uptake</div><div>People given a drug (Levodopa) which treats Parkinson's disease by increasing dopamine production can experience schizophrenia-like symptoms such as hallucinations - this provides testable evidence for the theory that excess dopamine plays a role in schizophrenia</div><div>The theory explains both the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, whereas some other explanations struggle to explain the negative symptoms of schizophrenia</div>
Describe&nbsp;Carlsson et al. (1999) study<div>Scanning shows that if those with schizophrenia are given amphetamines there is a greater release of dopamine than if people without schizophrenia are given amphetamines</div><div>This suggests that those with schizophrenia are more sensitive to excess dopamine than other people</div>
Weaknesses of neurotransmitters as an explanation of schizophreniaNot all patients with schizophrenia respond to antipsychotic drugs<div>Some other antipsychotic medications such as clozapine are effective in treating schizophrenia, but don't only work by blocking dopamine receptors, but instead focus on other neurotransmitters such as serotonin</div><div>Amphetamines produce only symptoms that are like the positive symptoms of schizophrenia which suggests that the dopamine hypothesis isn't a sufficient explanation as it does not account for the negative symptoms of schizophrenia</div><div>Glutamate is also thought to cause psychotic symptoms if its production is blocked which is shown in those who take PCP (angel dust) so perhaps dopamine isn't the only neurotransmitter involved in the development of schizophrenia</div><div>The theory cannot prove that excess dopamine causes schizophrenia instead it may be a symptom of schizophrenia - it's possible that having schizophrenia changes the patient's brain chemistry</div><div>Even though the dopamine hypothesis explains both positive and negative symptoms, it can be viewed as a reductionist explanation because it focuses purely on the role of neurotransmitters, ignoring all other factors that may influence whether someone develops schizophrenia, such as other biological, psychological and social factors</div>
Describe Brown and Birley (1968) studyFound that 50% of schizophrenic patients reported a major life event in the 3 weeks prior to relapse, suggesting that social conditions may trigger relapse
Describe Alpert and Friedhoff (1980) studyFound that some patients did not improve at all after taking dopamine antagonists
Describe Zipursky et al. (2007) studyConducted a review article which showed that PET scans can be used to show the extent to which medication blocks dopamine receptors<div>Blocking dopamine receptors doesn't always remove the symptoms in patients who have had schizophrenia for 10 years or more, even if the block is 90% effective</div>
EVIDENCE - forThe explanation has credibility because it is supported by evidence
METHODOLOGY - forThe main supporting evidence for the neurotransmitter explanation comes from PET scans in investigating dopamine levels in patients with schizophrenia<div>This provides an objective measure of neurotransmitter functioning in areas of the brain</div>
METHODOLOGY - againstPET scans can be a stressful experience for patients and therefore may not have produced valid findings about dopamine functioning
APPLICATIONS - forThe neurotransmitter explanation has practical applications as many antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia work by blocking dopamine receptors
What does SWOT analysis help a business do?Assess its competitive strength and the nature of its external environment
What is SWOT analysis?A diagnostic tool which is used to identify the internal strengths and weaknesses and the external opportunities and threats to a business
Which parts of SWOT analysis are internal to the business?Strengths and weaknesses
Which parts of SWOT analysis are external to the business?Opportunities and threats
What does SWOT analysis help inform?Decision making
What is the purpose of carrying out a SWOT analysis?Maximise strengths<div>Minimise weaknesses</div><div>Take advantage of opportunities</div><div>Avoid threats</div>
When carrying out a SWOT analysis which areas should you examine to see signs of improvement or decline to identify strengths and weaknesses?% market share (changes in sales revenue)<div>Changes in profitability (profit margins) and cash flows</div><div>Increasing or decreasing unit costs (efficiency and productivity)</div><div>Reputation for quality and customer service</div><div>Evidence of distinctive capabilities/competitive advantage</div><div>Evidence of a motivated and skilled workforce</div>
What are examples of opportunities and threats that are external to the business?<div>Political, economic and legal environment</div><div><div>Consumer trends</div><div>Demographic</div></div><div>Technological change</div><div>Legislation</div><div>Degree of competition</div>
Strengths of SWOT analysisLogical structure<div>Focuses on strategic issues</div><div>Encourages analysis of external environment</div>
Weaknesses of SWOT analysisToo often lacks focus<div>Independent?</div><div>Can quickly become out-of-date</div>
What does PESTLE analysis do?Provides a useful way to analyse the external factors affecting a business
What does PESTLE analysis form the basis for?The opportunities and threats identified in SWOT analysis
What does PESTLE stand for?Political<div>Economic</div><div>Social</div><div>Technological</div><div>Legal</div><div>Ethical/environmental</div>
Give examples of political factors in PESTLEGovernment policy<div>Political stability</div><div>Corruption</div><div>Foreign trade policy</div><div>Tax policy</div><div>Labour law</div><div>Trade restrictions</div>
Give examples of economic factors in PESTLEEconomic growth<div>Exchange rates</div><div>Interest rates</div><div>Inflation rates</div><div>Disposable income</div><div>Unemployment rates</div>
Give examples of social factors in PESTLEPopulation growth rate<div>Age distribution</div><div>Career attitudes</div><div>Safety emphasis</div><div>Health consciousness</div><div>Lifestyle attitudes</div><div>Cultural barriers</div>
Give examples of technological factors in PESTLETechnology incentives<div>Level of innovation</div><div>Automation</div><div>R&amp;D activity</div><div>Technological change and awareness</div>
Give examples of legal factors in PESTLEDiscrimination laws<div>Antitrust laws</div><div>Employment laws</div><div>Consumer protection laws</div><div>Copyright and patent laws</div><div>Health and safety laws</div>
Give examples of ethical/environmental factors in PESTLEWeather<div>Climate</div><div>Environmental policies</div><div>Climate change</div><div>Pressure from NGO's</div>
What are Porter's Five Forces?Intensity of rivalry within the industry<div>Threat of new entrants</div><div>Threat of substitute products</div><div>Bargaining power of buyers</div><div>Bargaining power of suppliers</div>
Why does competitive rivalry vary between industries?Size (revenues, quantities)<div>Structure</div><div>Distribution channels</div><div>Customer needs and wants</div><div>Profitability</div><div>Growth</div><div>Product life cycle</div><div>Alternatives for the customer</div>
What is Porter's Five Forces a framework for?Analysing the nature of competition within an industry or market
What does Porter's Five Forces help businesses to do?Understand and assess the scope for profitability and the attractiveness of an industry/market<div>Determine the best strategy a business should adopt in order to become more profitable</div>
What are low industry profits associated with?Strong suppliers and customers<div>Low entry barriers</div><div>Many opportunities for substitutes</div><div>Intense rivalry</div>
What are high industry profits associated with?Weak suppliers and customers<div>High entry barriers</div><div>Few opportunities for substitutes</div><div>Little rivalry</div>
Why do businesses often have low profit margins in a very competitive market?Keeping prices low in order to maintain market share<div>High variable costs (focus on high quality or high levels of customer service)</div>
What will affect the strategies adopted by businesses in order to maintain a competitive advantage?The nature or level of competition in a market
Which businesses will be able to achieve the highest profits in competitive markets?Businesses which have distinctive capabilities because they will sell the most and may be able to raise prices due to brand loyalty
What does it mean if a supplier has high power over its customer (manufacturer has power over retailer)?They can sell their products at a higher price to the retailer which reduces the retailer's profit
Which circumstances do suppliers tend to be powerful in?When there are only a few businesses supplying the product/service<div>The products they sell are scarce or there are very few substitutes</div><div>The cost of switching to an alternative supplier is high</div><div>The customer is small and unimportant</div>
What are powerful customers (an individual or business) able to do?Drive down prices when buying from the supplier
When are buyers poweful?When there are many suppliers to choose from and switching to a different supplier is easy
What do suppliers have to do in order to be competitive?Offer the lowest price to buyers, hence they have weaker bargaining power and customers have strong bargaining power
What are examples of barriers to entry?Expertise and reputation<div>Economies of scale</div><div>Access to best technologies</div><div>Vertical integration</div><div>Brand loyalty</div>
What does it mean if it is easy for new businesses to enter into a market?There are low barriers to entry
What happens when new entrants enter a market?They increase competition and prices are usually forced down, resulting in a fall in profits for existing businesses in that market
What do existing businesses use as a source of competitive advantage and how do new entrants react?Brand loyalty and low operating costs - new entrants often use technology to disrupt the market and gain high levels of market share
What can protect some businesses from new entrants?The use of copyright and patents
What is a substitute?An alternative product which meets the same customer need
What is the impact on prices if the threat from substitutes is high?Prices will be lower
What will limit the extent of the threat of substitutes?The extent of customer loyalty and availability of each substitute
What has enabled many businesses to provide a huge range of substitute products?E-commerce
When will competitive rivalry be higher?In an industry with many current and potential customers and when there is a lot of choice for the buyer
When rivalry is high what will businesses do?Try to gain competitive advantage by offering the lowest prices and/or high levels of differentiation<div>However customer loyalty can reduce the intensity of the rivalry, hence the importance of creating a strong brand image</div>
What is the independent variable?Temperature
What is the dependent variable?Volume of oxygen evolved (in order to calculate rate of reaction)
What are the key control variables?Enzyme concentration - same number of catalase molecules (hard to control but can measure the same volume of catalase solution with a pipette)<div>Substrate concentration - dilutions made from the same stock solution using a pipette</div><div>pH - buffer</div><div>Volume of substrate solution - pipette</div><div>Use of water bath to maintain/change temperature</div><div>Same volume and concentration of hydrogen peroxide</div><div>Same source of pear/number of pear cells</div>
Why is the initial rate of reaction used?To ensure that substrate is not a limiting factor<div>Fastest rate is at the start (initial rate) then decreases because as the reaction proceeds substrate concentration decreases as substrate gets used by enzyme in the reaction so substrate concentration should be constant for each temperature experiment</div>
What does temperature affect in an organism?Development/growth/cell division
What is the title of the experiment?The effect of temperature on the hatching success of brine shrimp
What is the independent variable?Temperature
What is the dependent variable?Number of eggs hatched in a given time, hatch rate
What is the range of temperatures investigated?5 to 35'C<div>Above 35'C most enzymes would denature and the range is the brine shrimps' normal conditions</div>
Describe the method of preparing the beaker with water for the brine shrimpPlace 2g of sea salt into a 100cm3 beaker<div>Add 100cm3 of de-chlorinated water and stir until the salt completely dissolves</div><div>Label the beaker with the temperature at which it will be incubated</div>
Describe the method of placing the brine shrimp eggs into the beakerPlace a tiny pinch of egg cysts onto a large sheet of white paper<div>Wet the piece of graph paper using a few drops of salt water</div><div>Dab the paper onto the white sheet to pick up approximately 40 eggs</div><div>Use a magnifying glass to count the eggs and cut the graph paper so that there are exactly 40 eggs</div><div>Put the paper with the 40 eggs into the beaker eggs-side down</div><div>After 3 minutes use a pair of forceps to gently remove the paper, making sure that all the egg cysts have washed off into the water</div>
Describe the method after incubating the beakers at the appropriate temperaturesThe next day count the number of hatched larvae in each of the beakers by placing a bright light next to the beaker since any larvae will swim towards the light<div>Using a fine glass pipette, reversed with the tip inserted into the teat, catch the brine shrimps and place them into a small beaker of salt water</div><div>Repeat the counting daily for several days</div><div>Record the number of larvae that have successfully hatched at each temperature</div>
Describe how brine shrimp should be handledBrine shrimp are very delicate and care must be taken when handling them<div>Release the young brine shrimp into a saltwater aquarium</div>
What is in a bacterial cell?Ribosomes<div>Cell surface membrane</div><div>Circular DNA</div><div>Capsule</div><div>Flagellum</div><div>Mesosome</div><div>Cell wall</div><div>Plasmid</div><div>Pili</div>
What is circular DNA?One long coiled up strand of DNA<div>Not attached to histone proteins</div><div>Floats free in the cytoplasm</div>
What are ribosomes?Site of translation (protein synthesis)<div>Smaller than eukaryotic ones (70S)</div>
What are pili?Protein tubes that allow bacteria to attach to surfaces<div>Involved in cell-to-cell attachment (conjugation)</div>
What are plasmids?Small loop of DNA<div>Plays a role in exchanging DNA between bacterial cells</div>
What is the mesosome?Infolding of the cell surface membrane
What is the flagellum?Used for cell movement
What is the capsule?A protective mucus outer layer for protection and to prevent dehydration<div>It also allows bacteria to form colonies</div>
Describe the bacterial cell wallMade of peptidoglycan - a polysaccharide cross-linked by peptide chains<div>Its composition makes it either Gram positive or Gram negative</div>
Describe Gram-positive bacteriaHave walls that are thickened with additional polysaccharides and proteins
Describe Gram-negative bacteriaHave thinner walls but with a surface layer of lipids for protection
How do bacteria reproduce?Asexually by binary fission to produce 2 identical daughter cells<div>They do not make spindle fibres during this process like animal cells do</div>
What are pathogens?Microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi) that cause disease
What are infectious diseases?Diseases caused by pathogens
Once bacteria get into the body what 2 things can initially happen?They grow in a localised area<div>Get into the blood supply and get carried around the body</div>
How do bacteria make people unwell?Through the toxins they produce either as by-products of their metabolism or part of their parasitic lifestyle to incapacitate their host or its immune response
What are the 2 types of toxins?Endotoxins<div>Exotoxins</div>
How big are bacteria?Between 0.5 and 5 micrometers
How are prokaryotes (bacteria) different to eukaryotes?They don't have a nucleus or other membrane bound organelles
What are the 2 classes of bacteria based on their cell walls?Gram positive<div>Gram negative</div>
What happens when Gram positive bacteria are stained with crystal violet?They take up the stain and turn purple
What happens when Gram negative bacteria are stained with crystal violet?They reject the stain and turn pink
How are Gram negative bacteria different from Gram positive bacteria?The cell wall is a thinner layer of peptidoglycan and there is a periplasmic space between the cell wall and membrane<div>The outer membrane (which Gram positive bacteria don't have) contains lipopolysaccharides, porin channels and murein lipoprotein</div><div>Lipopolysaccharide is an endotoxin which blocks antibiotic, dyes and detergents so it protects the thin inner membrane and cell wall</div>
Describe binary fissionBacteria reach a certain size<div>DNA is replicated</div><div>The old cell wall begins to break down around the middle of the cell</div><div>DNA is associated with the cell membrane (mesosomes?)</div><div>Cell pinches together forming a septum</div><div>2 new identical daughter cells are formed</div><div>Plasmids often divide at the same time</div><div>Time between divisions is the generation time (as little as 20 minutes)</div>
What are the 3 methods of sexual reproduction by bacteria?Transformation<div>Transduction</div><div>Conjugation</div><div>(All examples of horizontal gene transfer)</div>
Describe transformationA short piece of DNA is released by a donor (which doesn't need to be alive) or the DNA is in the environment<div>This is actively taken up by a recipient</div><div>The new DNA replaces a similar piece of DNA in the recipient</div>
Describe transductionA small amount of DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage
Describe conjugationPlasmid DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by direct contact<div>The donor cell (F+) produces a sex pilus</div><div>A cytoplasmic bridge is created to the recipient cell (F-)</div><div>DNA is transferred through the pilus</div>
Are viruses cells?No, they are small organic particles since they are 20nm to 1000nm
What are features of a virus?Capsid<div>Envelope</div><div>Enzymes</div><div>Nucleic acid</div><div>Glycoproteins</div>
What are enzymes used for in viruses?Some viruses contain enzymes needed for their replication process
Describe the nucleic acid in virusesCan be double stranded DNA, single stranded DNA or single stranded RNA
What is the capsid?Outer protein coat<div>Made of repeating protein subunits to protect the nucleic acid</div>
What is the envelope?Taken from the host cell's surface membrane<div>It contains lipids and proteins</div><div>Helps the virus attach to the host cell and penetrate the cell surface membrane</div>
What are glycoproteins on viruses?Are recognised by the host's immune system as non-self, therefore act as antigens
Describe the key features of endotoxinsLipopolysaccharides (part of the outer layer of Gram negative bacteria)<div>Rarely fatal</div><div>Tend to cause symptoms such as fever, vomiting &amp; diarrhoea which can indirectly lead to death by dehydration</div>
Describe the key features of exotoxinsSoluble proteins<div>Produced and released into the body by bacteria as they metabolise and reproduce</div><div>Many different types with specific effects e.g. damage cell membranes, causes cell breakdown or internal bleeding, competitive inhibitors to neurotransmitters, directly poison cells</div><div>Rarely cause fever</div><div>Responsible for some of the most dangerous and fatal bacterial diseases</div>
Describe the structure of Gram positive bacteriaComposed only of a cell wall and an inner membrane<div>Thick cell wall made of peptidoglycan that binds the crystal violet</div><div>Teichoic acid provides rigidity to the cell wall</div><div>Membrane made of phospholipids and proteins</div>
Describe the structure of Gram negative bacteriaMore complex cell wall<div>Extra outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides, porin channel and murein lipoprotein</div><div>Thin cell wall made of peptidoglycan</div><div>Periplasmic space between cell membrane and cell wall</div><div>Membrane made of phospholipids and proteins</div>
What is an example of virus adaptations?Some have specific mechanisms for injecting their DNA into cells e.g. bacteriophages
How is viral genetic material adapted?To take over host
What does viral DNA do?Acts directly as a template for both new viral DNA and for mRNAs needed to induce synthesis of viral proteins
What does viral RNA do?Directs the synthesis of reverse transcriptase which proceeds to make DNA corresponding to the viral genome which is then used as a template for new viral proteins and ultimately a new viral RNA genome
What can viruses not survive without?The host cell
Why do viruses require host cells to replicate?Because they lack internal structures for growth and reproduction such as ribosomes
What do viruses hijack?The host cell's metabolic machinery and disrupt the normal workings of the cell i.e. protein synthesis of host cell proteins
What happens following replication of a virus?The new virus particles may bud out of the infected cells or may lyse the cell completely splitting it open<div>This causes viruses and cell contents to be released into surrounding tissues</div><div>This can cause the symptoms of the disease</div>
Describe the steps of viral replication1. Virus attaches to the host cell<div>2. Virus inserts nucleic acid</div><div>3. Viral nucleic acids replicate</div><div>4. Viral protein coats synthesises</div><div>5. New virus particles formed</div><div>6. Virus particles released due to cell lysis</div>
Describe the lytic pathwayViral genetic material is replicated independently of the host DNA straight after entering the host cell<div>Mature viruses are made by the host cell</div><div>Cell bursts and releases large number of new virus particles</div><div>These go on to invade other host cells</div><div>The virus is said to be virulent (disease causing)</div>
Describe the lysogenic pathwayViruses are non-virulent when they first get into the host cell<div>They insert their DNA into the host DNA so it is replicated every time the host cell divides</div><div>No mRNA is produced from the viral DNA because one of the viral genes causes the production of a repressor protein</div><div>This makes it impossible to translate the rest of the viral genetic material</div><div>The virus remains dormant and becomes lytic and therefore virulent under the right conditions</div>
What does it mean if an infection is communicable?It is capable of spreading from one person to another
What are the 4 major routes pathogens can enter the body?Cuts in the skin<div>Through the digestive system via contaminated food or drink</div><div>Through the respiratory system by being inhaled</div><div>Through other mucosal surfaces e.g. inside the nose, mouth and genitals</div>
What are the 6 types of transmission?Inhalation<div>Direct contact</div><div>Inoculation</div><div>Vectors</div><div>Ingestion</div><div>Fomites</div>
What are the 4 types of barriers?Skin<div>Mucosal membranes</div><div>Stomach acid</div><div>Gut flora</div>
Describe inhalationBreathing in liquid droplets containing the pathogen<div>These were previously expelled from the respiratory tract of an infected individual</div><div>E.g. the flu and cold virus</div>
Describe direct contactSkin-to-skin contact and maternal transmission from mother to unborn child or in breast milk<div>E.g. HIV transmission between mother and child</div>
Describe inoculationPathogen enters directly into the body through a break in the skin<div>E.g. infected needles</div>
Describe vectorsA living organism that transmits an infection from one host to another<div>E.g. mosquitoes and malaria</div>
Describe ingestionContaminated food or drink leads to vomiting and diarrhoea<div>Greatest risk from raw/undercooked food. The heating process not high enough to kill pathogens (could aid their multiplication). Re-contamination of cooked food</div><div>E.g. salmonella</div>
Describe fomitesInanimate objects that carry pathogens from one host to another<div>E.g. hospital bedding</div>
Describe skin as a barrierContains the tough keratin, however the skin can be breached by wounds but blood clotting helps prevent this<div>Skin flora outcompetes and prevents colonisation by other bacteria</div>
Describe mucosal membranes as a barrierLine the airways and gut<div>The mucus traps microbes and other particles</div><div>Beating cilia carry the mucus up to the throat to be swallowed</div><div>Secretions from eyes and nose contain the enzyme lysozyme that breaks down bacterial cell walls causing them to burst</div>
Describe stomach acid as a barrierContains hydrochloric acid, giving a pH of less than 2.0<div>This kills most bacteria that enter with food or drink</div><div>This is also the optimum pH for the digestive enzyme pepsin</div>
Describe gut flora as a barrierFriendly bacteria found in both intestines<div>We have a mutualistic relationship with them</div><div>They aid digestion and outcompete pathogenic bacteria for food and space</div><div>The bacteria also secrete chemicals (lactic acid) to aid the defence against pathogens</div>
What should be the case if schizophrenia is genetic?People who are genetically related to schizophrenics should be more likely to have schizophrenia themselves<div>Also the chances of them having schizophrenia should be higher than the approximately 1% risk in the general population</div>
What has research which has shown some element of heritability in schizophrenia shown?That the closer the relative the higher the likelihood of getting schizophrenia
Describe Hilker et al (2018) studySuggested that there is a 79% heritability rate for schizophrenia which suggests that genetics play a part in the cause of schizophrenia
How can schizophrenia appear in the absence of a family history but may still be due to genetic factors?Because genes may mutate due to an environmental factor or to an error in cell division
Describe what DiGeorge syndrome isA condition present from birth that can cause a range of lifelong problems including heart defects and learning disabilities<div>Adults with DiGeorge syndrome are more likely to have mental health problems such as anxiety disorder and schizophrenia - as many as 25% of people with this condition go on to develop schizophrenia</div>
What is DiGeorge syndrome caused by?The deletion of around 30-40 neighbouring genes located in a specific region of chromosome 22
Describe Wright (2014) researchSuggested that as many as 700 genes have been linked to schizophrenia - this number continues to grow as more research is conducted
What specific genes have been identified to be associated with schizophrenia?The COMT gene and the DISC1 gene
How does the COMT gene link to the development of schizophrenia?The link between schizophrenia and DiGeorge syndrome may be due to the deletion of the COMT gene<div>This gene is involved in regulating dopamine levels, meaning that if this gene is deleted high levels of dopamine may cause the symptoms of schizophrenia</div>
How does the DISC1 gene link to the development of schizophrenia?<div>This gene codes for the creation of GABA, a neurotransmitter that regulates other neurotransmitters such as glutamate and dopamine in the limbic system</div>
Describe Kim et al (2012) studyPeople with an abnormality in the Disrupted-in-Schizophrenia 1 gene (DISC1 gene) are 1.4 times more likely to develop schizophrenia than those without this abnormality
What does the interaction of genes with neurotransmitters show?Any one explanation on its own is reductionist
What 3 major types of research have investigated the possibility of the role of genetics in schizophrenia?Family studies<div>Adoption studies</div><div>Twin studies</div>
Describe the use of family studies in investigating the possibility of the role of genetics in schizophreniaThese investigate whether close biological relatives also have schizophrenia<div>However they are problematic because the closer the relative the more likely that they are to share the same environment</div><div>This is a confounding variable which makes it difficult to separate out the effects of nature (genetics) with nurture (upbringing) - can't tell if genes or the environment explains schizophrenia</div>
Describe the use of adoption studies in investigating the possibility of the role of genetics in schizophreniaThese are useful because a genetic factor can be looked for in adopted children who have been reared apart from their biological parents<div>This allows the effects of nature (genes) to be separated from nurture (upbringing) thus controlling the extraneous variable of environment</div><div>If schizophrenia is explained through genes rather than environment then the adopted children whose biological parents are schizophrenic would have a higher risk of developing schizophrenia even though they have been brought up by a non-schizophrenic parent</div>
Describe the use of twin studies in investigating the possibility of the role of genetics in schizophreniaSchizophrenia in monozygotic (genetically identical; share 100% of genes) and dizygotic (non-identical; share 50% of genes) twins can be compared<div>The extent to which twins are similar on a particular characteristic is known as the concordance rate</div><div>If one twin has schizophrenia and the condition is entirely caused by genetic factors we would expect that the concordance between MZ twins should be 100% whereas the concordance rate between DZ twins should be lower</div>
What is the aim of Gottesman and Shields (1966) study?To investigate how far schizophrenia was genetic
What did Gottesman and Shields investigate?Whether schizophrenia had a genetic basis by looking at concordance rates for schizophrenia in MZ and DZ twins
Describe the procedure of Gottesman and Shields (1966) studyThe researchers gathered secondary data from one hospital for twins who had been diagnosed with schizophrenia<div>16 consecutive years of records from 1948</div><div>57 twin pairs</div><div>Secondary data: hospital notes case histories</div><div>Primary data: blood tests, visual tests, semi-structured interviews, personality testing, test to look at thought disorders</div>
Describe the results of Gottesman and Shields (1966) studyThe concordance rate for schizophrenia was much higher in MZ twins (42%) compared to DZ twins (9%)<div>The concordance rate for severe schizophrenia was much higher in MZ twins (75%) compared to DZ twins (22%)</div><div>Concordance rates for schizophrenia were higher in females compared to males for both MZ and DZ twins</div>
Describe the conclusions of Gottesman and Shields (1966) studyThe results suggest that schizophrenia does have a biological basis as the chance of developing schizophrenia appears to be influenced by a person's genes<div>However, schizophrenia is not totally caused by genes as the concordance rate of MZ twins was not 100% therefore genes are a risk factor for developing schizophrenia, but environmental triggers may be necessary also</div>
What did later studies conducted by Gottesman and Shields (1991) show?Consistency in the findings (reliability) where MZ concordance was 48% (42% in first study) and DZ was 17% (9% in the first study)<div>The differing percentages may be down to advances in medical practice which shows that psychology is constantly developing and evolving over time</div>
Strengths of genes as an explanation for schizophreniaEvidence from twin studies suggests that there is a significant genetic factor in schizophrenia. Some researchers argue that it is as least as great as with physical illnesses such as diabetes, hypertension and coronary artery disease, all of which have been acknowledged to have a genetic component<div>More recent research is working on identifying which specific genes may be linked to schizophrenia</div><div>The biological approach to explaining schizophrenia is associated with the medical profession and has scientific status and credibility</div><div>Has been used to provide families with genetic counselling - when a member of a family develops schizophrenia the likelihood of other members of the family developing the disorder can be calculated. This allows family members to understand their risk factors</div>
Describe Joseph (2004) study<div>(Suggests environmental factors may be involved in the development of schizophrenia)</div>Argued MZ twins may be raised more similarly than DZ twins
Describe Prof. Bentall (2012) research(Supports the diathesis-stress model)<div>Analysis of over 30 years of studies</div><div>Childhood trauma before the age of 16 indicates that an individual is 3 times more likely to develop schizophrenia</div><div>This suggests that there is a strong relationship between the environment and development of schizophrenia</div>
Weaknesses of genes as an explanation for schizophreniaResearch methods used to establish genetic links to schizophrenia e.g. twin studies have flawed methodologies e.g. MZ twins may be treated more similarly than DZ twins as they look the same as each other and are always the same sex which means that their genes may not actually explain their schizophrenia and twin studies tend not to take account of the fact that genes may function differently in different environments<div>Few researchers believe that a genetic explanation is the only factor involved in schizophrenia; they can be seen as reductionist explanations as evidence suggests that they don't provide the whole answer and that environmental factors may be involved in the development of schizophrenia</div><div>There is also some confusion as to exactly which genes are responsible for predisposing a person to schizophrenia as it has not yet been possible to reliably identify the specific gene/s responsible for schizophrenia and research suggests that there are many genes which may be involved in causing schizophrenia</div><div>The genetic explanation for schizophrenia doesn't lead directly to new treatments</div>
Describe Thome et al. (2012) studyResearch in animals has shown that gene therapy may be effective in psychosis and dementia and it is possible that once technical and ethical problems have been overcome, gene therapy may one day in the future be used to treat schizophrenia
Explain the effects of temperature and precipitation on GPPGPP depends on photosynthesis<div>Higher the temperature, higher the GPP because enzymes in photosynthesis have more kinetic energy</div><div>Higher the precipitation, higher the GPP because water is needed for the light dependent reactions for photolysis</div>
Why does GPP decrease when photosynthesis decreases?Less glucose produced to convert into biomass
EVIDENCE - supportingThe theory has credibility because it is supported by evidence<div>E.g. Gottesman and Shields (1991) found that the concordance rate of schizophrenia for MZ twins was 48% compared with 17% concordance rate for DZ twins</div>
EVIDENCE - againstThe genetic explanation can be considered to be reductionist<div>It doesn't provide a complete answer; environmental factors may also be involved in the development of the disorder</div><div>A more holistic explanation could be the diathesis-stress model where a biological disposition to schizophrenia may be triggered by environmental factors</div>
APPLICATIONS - forThe genetic explanation has practical applications in terms of diagnosing and helping patients with schizophrenia<div>E.g. by using the DSM to help gather information on family history, a possible genetic predisposition to schizophrenia can be identified, which can then lead to appropriate intervention like genetic counselling</div>
METHODOLOGY - forThe main supporting evidence for the genetic explanation comes from twin studies<div>E.g. Gottesman and Shields (1966) collected a wide range of data including hospital notes, self-report questionnaires, self-report interviews, personality testing and tests to measure disordered thinking</div><div>Qualitative and quantitative data were gathered which increases the validity of the study</div>
METHODOLOGY - againstTwin studies have flawed methodologies e.g. they tend not to take account of the fact that genes may function differently in different environments
What does the diathesis-stress model of schizophrenia suggest?It may be that people inherit a genetic predisposition for schizophrenia which may then be triggered by environmental factors<div>A genetic predisposition becomes apparent when the individual becomes stressed by factors in their environment</div><div>This is still a genetic explanation because genes are the required element but it is more holistic because it also takes environmental factors into account</div>
Describe how the issue and debate of individual differences supports the view that the genetic explanation of schizophrenia may be reductionistSymptoms of schizophrenia are very diverse and not the same for everyone<div>The biological view of schizophrenia is unlikely to be complete as there are likely to be different factors associated with developing the disorder that may account for the various subtypes of symptoms</div>
Describe how the issue and debate of nature vs nurture supports the view that the genetic explanation of schizophrenia may be reductionistBiological explanations of schizophrenia ignore any role of external influences on the development of the disorder<div>Social factors have been implicated in the explanations of schizophrenia e.g. research has found higher rates of schizophrenia in deprived areas</div>
How does schizophrenia link to developmental psychology?Schizophrenia is a disorder that can be explained through the process of development<div>Schizophrenia develops in late adolescence and early adulthood so it is important that developmental psychologists establish what biological, social or emotional changes occur during this period of life that could account for its onset</div>
What is a similarity between the neurotransmitter and the genetic explanation?Both theories are reductionist as they don't include other factors in the explanation<div>E.g. the genetic explanation for schizophrenia focuses on the concordance rate of MZ twins however Gottesman and Shields' (1991) findings show the concordance rate for MZ twins suffering with schizophrenia was 48% so genetics cannot be a complete explanation</div><div>Similarly the neurotransmitter explanation does not consider other biological, psychological and social factors e.g. Brown and Birley (1968) found that 50% of schizophrenic patients reported a major life event 3 weeks prior to relapse</div>
What is a difference between the neurotransmitter and the genetic explanation?The neurotransmitter explanation may be more directly useful than the genetic explanation<div>This is because the neurotransmitter explanation suggests treatments in the form of drugs which work on neurotransmitters e.g. drugs which block the uptake of dopamine</div><div>However the genetic explanation doesn't lead directly to a specific treatment as medical science has not yet been able to use gene therapy widely to treat schizophrenia although its use is being developed</div>
What is formed by combustion?Carbon dioxide and water vapour<br>(Same equation as respiration; opposite of photosynthesis)
Discuss why the production of biofuels may not be carbon neutralCarbon neutral means that the CO2 produced equals the CO2 used<div>Forests are carbon sinks therefore deforestation results in a net increase in CO2 as less plants means less CO2 removed by photosynthesis</div><div>Burning trees and decomposition produces CO2</div><div>Using fossil fuels for machinery and burning biofuels produces CO2</div>
Distinguish between the structure of bacteria and virusesBacteria are cells, viruses are particles<div>Bacteria surrounded by cell wall, viruses surrounded by envelope</div><div>Bacteria have plasmids and ribosomes, viruses don't have plasmids and ribosomes</div><div>Bacteria have DNA, viruses have DNA or RNA</div><div>Bacterial DNA is double-stranded, viral genetic material is single or double stranded</div>
Why do Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria stain in different ways?Gram positive bacteria retain the stain because they have more peptidoglycan in their cell walls
Explain how skin flora protect the body from infectionSkin flora prevent the growth of pathogens by competition for space and they also release chemicals
Explain why not all contaminated food causes food poisoningEnzymes kill microorganisms - hydrochloric acid kills microorganisms<div>Lack of oxygen affects microorganisms</div><div>Competition for space by gut flora with microorganisms</div><div>Insufficient numbers of microorganisms to cause food poisoning</div><div>Microorganisms may not be pathogenic</div>
Describe how new viral particles are formed inside the host cellsSynthesis of RNA using host cell enzymes<div>Synthesis of viral proteins using host cell enzymes</div><div>Assembly of viruses</div>
What is meant by anthropogenic climate change?Anthropogenic = caused by the effect of humans<div>Climate change = changes to mean temperature/rainfall</div>
How could action of competitors cause variance?Lower prices<div>Introduce a new product</div><div>Close a store</div>
How could action of suppliers cause variance?Change prices<div>Offer a discount</div>
How could changes in the economy cause variance?<div>Change in interest rates</div><div>Increase to minimum wage</div>
How could internal inefficiency cause variance?<div>Poor management of a budget</div><div>Demotivated sales team</div>
How could internal decision making cause variance?"<div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Change suppliers</span></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Special promotions</span><br></div>"
What is a review article?A review article summarises previously published studies, rather than reporting new facts or analysis
How are review articles useful?They often look at topics such as recent major advances and discoveries, significant gaps in the research, current debates, ideas of where research might go next
What did Arvid Carlsson do?He was awarded the Nobel prize in 2000 for his research on dopamine and its role in Parkinson's disease (which is caused by low levels of dopamine)<div>He also developed the first SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor) - an antidepressant which works by increasing levels of serotonin in the brain</div>
How is Carlsson's study significant?It focuses on biological explanations<div>The study uses PET scans to investigate neurological pathways</div><div>It shows how scientific research proceeds. Carlsson investigates better explanations of schizophrenia. This is falsifiability - a theory being open to criticism</div>
What does a review article summarise?Previously published data (secondary data) rather than generating any new data
What is the title of Carlsson's review article?Network interactions in schizophrenia: therapeutic implications
When was Carlsson's review article done?2000
How does Carlsson's study link to the issue of change in psychological understanding over time?Subsequent research has built on his work
What are the aims of Carlsson's review article?Provide evidence for and against the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia<div>Look beyond the dopamine hypothesis at the interaction of neurotransmitters including glutamate, serotonin and GABA</div><div>Look at specific brain areas with regard to neurotransmitter interactions</div><div>Use the information on psychosis and neurotransmitter functioning to produce new antipsychotic drugs that could be more effective, with fewer side effects</div>
What was the procedure?Literature review - the methods and findings of studies to do with neurotransmitter interactions in schizophrenia are analysed
What types of studies did this literature review look at?Studies which used rodents to test neurotransmitter functioning and related brain structure functioning<div>Studies on people with acute schizophrenia and on people with schizophrenia in remission</div><div>The research includes studies which used brain scans to investigate psychosis</div>
Describe one piece of evidence which Carlsson describes which supports the dopamine hypothesisPET scans provide evidence to show that high levels of dopamine are related to psychosis - Abi-Dargham et al. (1998); Brier et al. (1997)
What is the dopamine hypothesis?The dopamine hypothesis is the oldest biological explanation for schizophrenia which suggests that schizophrenia can be explained by changes of dopamine due to:<div>Excess dopamine in the brain (especially mesolimbic pathways)</div><div>Increased sensitivity of dopamine receptors</div><div>Increased numbers of dopamine receptors</div><div>Negative symptoms due to too little dopamine in the mesocortical pathways</div>
What other neurotransmitters, aside from dopamine, may be implicated in schizophrenia?Noradrenaline<div>Serotonin</div><div>GABA</div><div>Glutamate</div><div>Acetylcholine</div>
Which neurotransmitters are easiest to study in the brain?Serotonin and dopamine - links to practical issues in psychology
How might changes in dopamine levels result from some other change in people with schizophrenia?There may be interactions with other neurotransmitters such as noradrenaline, serotonin, acetylcholine, glutamate and GABA
What does glutamate do?Glutamate plays an essential role in normal brain functioning and its levels must be tightly regulated<div>It is important that levels mustn't be too high or too low</div><div>Glutamate is important in learning and memory</div>
Describe the research which suggests that low levels of glutamate (hypoglutamatergia) may also play a role in schizophreniaLodge et al. (1989) shows that PCP/angel dust can induce psychosis by inhibiting the action of glutamate in the brain because it is a powerful antagonist on one of the glutamate receptor subtypes
What do low levels of glutamate in the cerebral cortex lead to?Glutamate failure in the cerebral cortex may lead to negative symptoms of schizophrenia
What do low levels of glutamate in the basal ganglia lead to?Glutamate failure in the basal ganglia could be responsible for positive symptoms of schizophrenia
What has some research found about an interaction between dopamine and glutamate?Reduced levels of glutamate seem to be associated with increased dopamine release
What did Carlsson focusing on serotonin and glutamate lead to?Development of new drug treatments in the form of serotonin agonists and glutamate agonists<div>This helps people who were previously treatment resistant and reduces side effects such as tardive dyskinesia (a condition where your face and/or body make sudden irregular movements which you can't control)</div><div>Practical application</div>
What does Carlsson refer to as the thalamus being an area of the brain which is important in explaining schizophrenia?Thalamic filter
What does the thalamus filter off?Neurotransmitters coming out of the striatum to stop the cerebral cortex from overloading
What are the 2 pathways through the thalamus?The indirect pathway and the direct pathway
Describe the indirect pathwayHigh levels of dopamine (hyperdopaminergia)<div>Low levels of glutamate (hypoglutamatergia)</div><div>Reduces the protective influence of the thalamus</div><div>This links to positive symptoms of schizophrenia</div>
Describe the direct pathwayAbnormal dopamine and glutamate activity will excite the thalamus, starving the cerebral cortex of stimulation<br><div>This links to negative symptoms of schizophrenia</div>
What are serotonin levels related to?Dopamine
Provide 2 pieces of evidence that suggest that serotonin is implicated in schizophreniaClozapine, which is used to treat psychosis, works by reducing both dopamine and serotonin levels in the brain<div>NMDA antagonists, which limit glutamate, seem to stimulate serotonin levels</div><div>(Too much serotonin may be a cause of schizophrenia)</div>
What are the 2 main theories about what causes schizophrenia?High levels of dopamine (hyperdopaminergia)<div>Low levels of glutamate (hypoglutamatergia)</div>
What are the conclusions of Carlsson's review article?There may be different subpopulations of those with schizophrenia, where schizophrenia is caused by different abnormal levels of different neurotransmitters, not just dopamine which has implications for treatment<div>Glutamate deficiency should be studied to explain schizophrenia</div><div>Glutamate deficiency may explain increased dopamine responsiveness</div><div>Increased serotonin activity is found in people with schizophrenia. It is thought that both dopamine and serotonin contribute to both the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia</div><div>More focus on other neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, GABA and neuropeptides is needed</div>
What are the 4 main reasons (objectives) why a business may want to pursue growth?To achieve economies of scale<div>Increased market power over customers and suppliers</div><div>Increased market share and brand recognition</div><div>Increased profitability</div>
What is the reason of the growth objective of achieving economies of scale?By growing the scale of output, a business can achieve lower unit costs which can thereby improve a firm's competitiveness
What is the reason of the growth objective of increasing market power?Larger firms may be able to exert greater bargaining power over suppliers and/or customers to gain a competitive advantage
What is the reason of the growth objective of increasing market share and brand recognition?Much research points to the link between growing market share and brand recognition with higher profits, so this reason is linked with increasing profits
What is the reason of the growth objective of increasing profits?A key objective for many firms, particularly PLCs with external shareholders
Define economies of scaleThe reduction of unit costs achieved as a business grows and expands its output
Define internal economies of scaleThe reduction in unit cost experienced by a single business as it increases output
Define external economies of scaleThe reduction in unit cost experienced by all businesses as the industry grows
What are examples of internal economies of scale?Purchasing<div>Technical</div><div>Managerial</div><div>Marketing</div><div>Risk-bearing</div><div>Financial</div>
What is an example of purchasing economies of scale?Buying in greater quantities usually results in a lower price per unit (bulk-buying)
What is an example of technical economies of scale?Use of specialist machinery or processes to boost productivity
What is an example of managerial economies of scale?Specialist managers can be employed to help reduce unit costs and boost efficiency
What is an example of risk-bearing economies of scale?Diversify into a range of markets to reduce risk (dependency on one market)
What is an example of financial economies of scale?Larger firms benefit from access to more and cheaper finance
Why must a business ensure that its costs are kept as low as possible?In order to compete effectively
What do internal economies of scale cause?An increase in productive efficiency and a decrease in unit cost
Describe technical economies of scaleLarge-scale businesses can afford to invest in expensive and specialist capital machinery in order to increase output
Describe specialisation of the workforceLarger businesses split complex production processes into separate tasks to boost productivity<div>By specialising in certain tasks or processes, the workforce is able to produce more output in the same time</div>
Describe managerial economiesManagerial economies are a form of division of labour<div>Large-scale manufacturers employ specialists to supervise production systems, manage marketing systems and oversee human resources</div><div>They can employ the best managers and adopt more cost-effective administration procedures, reducing the overheads for the business</div>
Describe purchasing economies of scaleLarge firms can buy in bulk<div>This reduces costs because suppliers can produce large quantities and thus lower their own costs</div><div>Suppliers may offer greater discounts to firms in order to guarantee a contract, therefore the larger firms have the ability to negotiate prices to a greater extent than smaller firms</div>
Describe financial economies of scaleLarger firms are usually rated by the financial markets to be more creditworthy and have access to credit facilities, with favourable rates of borrowing<div>In contrast, smaller firms often face higher rates of interest on overdrafts and loans</div>
Describe risk-bearing economies of scaleLarger businesses can more easily diversify and move into new markets<div>This removes their dependency on one particular market</div>
Where do external economies of scale come from?Labour - a concentration of skilled labour in a geographical area<div>Support services - suppliers and other businesses are attracted to a particular area or region in order to support the specialist large businesses who have located there</div>
Strengths of Carlsson's research"Supported by another review article ""Beyond Dopamine: Glutamate as a target for today's antipsychotics"" (Sendt et al. 2012) which also suggests that glutamate is important in explaining schizophrenia so this research provides evidence for Carlsson's suggestion that dopamine levels on their own don't fully explain schizophrenia<div>It looked at a wide range of evidence to provide support for the idea that glutamate deficiency may be important in explaining schizophrenia, this included evidence from studies using rodents, people with Parkinson's, Huntington's and schizophrenia, both acute and in remission, they also mentioned primate studies and had done previous research on glutamate deficiencies so their findings are likely to be valid</div><div>Much of the research cited used scientific methods such as PET scans e.g. Abi-Dargham (2012) used PET scans to measure dopamine transmission in patients with schizophrenia</div><div>It suggests effective treatments for schizophrenia, it suggests that both glutamate and serotonin agonists may be effective treatments, reducing both the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Drug compliance has also been enhanced by a reduction of side effects like tardive dyskinesia</div><div>Because it is a review article it summarised the most up-to-date information on schizophrenia from the time giving a clear overview of the topic and pointing the way for future research e.g. into the best treatments for schizophrenia<br></div>"
Weaknesses of Carlsson's researchSome of the findings come from research done on animals and therefore may not generalise to humans. One factor that animal studies cannot investigate is the role of culture in schizophrenia e.g. Luhrmann (2015) found that there are differences in the type of auditory hallucinations which people from different cultures experience<div>Some of the findings used scanning to investigate neurotransmitter functioning, but because participants may have found this stressful, it may have affected their neurotransmitter functioning, and therefore may not have produced valid findings about dopamine functioning</div><div>It is limited as further research suggests that other neurotransmitters (anandamide and nitric oxide) are linked to psychosis (Crippa et al. 2015). Therefore Carlsson's research ignores some possible neurotransmitter interactions. It also has been suggested that neurotransmitter imbalances may arise from autoimmune problems (Severance et al. 2018) offering a reason for the imbalances themselves</div><div>May be considered reductionist as it doesn't investigate causes of schizophrenia other than neurotransmitter interactions e.g. it ignores the role of genetics, as well as non-biological causes such as the social causation hypothesis. However, even though it only focuses on neurotransmitters, it is less reductionist than the dopamine hypothesis, as it moves beyond dopamine to look at a variety of other neurotransmitters including glutamate and serotonin and investigates their interaction</div><div>Conducted in 2000 and may be outdated, given new developments in the understanding of schizophrenia. However, Carlsson's theories have not been found to be incorrect instead they have been built upon and extended</div><div>Review article so the reliability and validity of the secondary data which it analyses may be questionable however all but one of the studies which Carlsson cited had been peer-reviewed</div>
GENERALISABILITY - strength33 studies reviewed at the time, 14 that Carlsson took part in - a very representative selection of what was going on at the time in his field
GENERALISABILITY - weaknessesSome of the findings come from research done on animals and therefore may not generalise to humans<div>Culture may influence the type of auditory hallucinations a person may experience (Luhrmann 2015) - this cannot be investigated using animals</div><div>It may be time locked (year 1999/2000) - research no longer representative of state of scientific ideas, however Carlsson's reviews have been expanded on rather than refuted</div>
RELIABILITY - strengthsStudies cited by Carlsson are all lab experiments - many of them on animals and also PET scans<div>These techniques are controlled and standardised, making research reliable</div>
APPLICATION - strengthsUseful in developing better anti-psychotic drugs<div>Improved dopaminergic drugs that have fewer side effects based on better understanding of dopamine pathways and new atypical drugs that affect other neurotransmitters like serotonin and glutamate</div><div>Glutamate anti-psychotics are still in development (Papanastasiou et al. 2013) - could bring relief to people who don't respond to typical antipsychotics</div>
VALIDITYCarlsson is questioning the validity of the dopamine hypothesis that he himself helped develop back in 1950's<div>Cites Clozapine which reduces psychotic symptoms by reducing dopamine and serotonin levels</div><div>Carlsson considers glutamate as possible contributor to schizophrenia</div><div>Carlsson argues both hypotheses may be true and research should continue in both as evidence seems to suggest this</div><div>Sendt (2012) literature review supports Carlsson's findings (concurrent validity)</div><div>Further research suggests that other neurotransmitters (anandamide and nitric oxide) are linked to psychosis (Crippa et al 2015)</div>
ETHICSReview article so no direct ethical issues<div>Uses study with animal studies - drugs to bring on psychotic symptoms in mice</div><div>Other studies use humans - with or without schizophrenia being given amphetamines or PCP or other drugs that increase psychotic symptoms</div><div>Patients don't know whether they are being given real drug or placebo, therefore issues of deception and risk</div>
How does psychology as a science support Carlsson's study?Use of scientific methods e.g. PET scans<div>Looks at a wide range of studies, therefore increasing validity</div><div>Use of animals - controlled lab studies</div><div>Sendt et al review article 2012 increases scientific credibility</div>
How does psychology as a science go against Carlsson's study?Review articles use secondary data so Carlsson's research may be affected by flaws in the earlier research which it uses<div>Animal studies - generalisability, scientific credibility?</div>
How do practical issues link to Carlsson's study?It's difficult to study the functioning of neurotransmitters in the brain<div>Therefore, the neurotransmitters which are easiest to study (dopamine and serotonin) tend to be most researched, and other neurotransmitters, which may also be important, tend to be ignored</div><div>Methodological flaws with secondary data - GRV</div>
How is Carlsson's study reductionist?This research is purely biological (and focuses on one biological area - neurotransmitter interaction)<div>This is an important characteristic of science and cause and effect links can be established</div><div>This research ignores other factors which may explain schizophrenia, such as cognitive and social causation factors</div>
How is Carlsson's study not reductionist?The research uses many different studies to draw its conclusions, including primate studies, rodent studies and PET scans of people with schizophrenia<div>Because it gathers such a wide range of evidence, it can be considered to be somewhat holistic</div>
How does Carlsson's study link to psychological understanding developing over time?The study shows that our understanding of how neurotransmitters may cause schizophrenia has become clearer over time, as methods of investigating neurotransmitters have become sophisticated<div>Further research suggested by the article will lead to more changes e.g. Crippa 2015 (anandamide and nitric acid linked to psychosis)</div>
How does Carlsson's study link to the use of psychological knowledge within society?Carlsson's research is useful to society because it suggests areas for further research into neurotransmitters as an explanation for schizophrenia, which can then be used to inform treatments for schizophrenia e.g. Crippa and Severance et al 2018
What are diseconomies of scale?The disadvantages that an organisation experiences due to an increase in size<div>These cause a decrease in productive efficiency and an increase in unit cost</div>
What are the types of diseconomies of scale?Co-ordination diseconomies<div>Communication diseconomies</div><div>Motivation diseconomies</div>
What is overtrading?When a business expands too quickly without having the financial resources to support such a quick expansion - can occur even if a business is profitable
When is overtrading most likely to occur?When growth is achieved by making significant capital investment in production or operations capacity before revenues are generated<div>Sales are made on credit and customers take too long to settle amounts owed</div>
How can overtrading lead to business failure?If suitable sources of finance are not obtained, overtrading can lead to business failure if the business runs out of cash to pay its bills
Describe what co-ordination diseconomies areLoss of control by management as an organisation becomes more complex<div>Individuals are less likely to follow organisation policies as the level of control is reduced and spans of control are larger</div><div>Large firms often have more rigid and inflexible structures, meaning their costs could increase due to a loss of quality and/or productivity</div>
Describe what communication diseconomies areToo many levels of hierarchy in a business can reduce the effectiveness of communication<div>Messages can be distorted and it is possible that communication will not reach everyone</div><div>Spans of control increase and it becomes much more difficult for managers to meet with subordinates</div><div>Inappropriate methods of communication are often used as standardised, large scale approaches are common</div>
Describe what motivation diseconomies areIt is more difficult to assess the needs of many individuals<div>Even if motivational methods are introduced, it is unlikely that managers will know the best approach for each subordinate</div><div>There may be less time for recognition and reward or there might be a feeling of distance between decision makers and employees</div>
What are technical diseconomies?Difficulty to organise
What is excessive bureaucracy?&nbsp;Rules and procedures
What staff problems could lead to diseconomies of scale?High staff turnover
How might diseconomies of scale cause problems for companies?By limiting the productivity of the business resulting in increased unit costs
What is a takeover/acquisition?Involves one business acquiring control of another business
What are possible reasons for takeovers?"Increase market share and achieve growth quickly<div>Access economies of scale</div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Spread risks by diversifying</span></div><div>Enter new segments of an existing market</div><div>Eliminate competition</div>"
What are drawbacks of takeovers?"High cost involved<div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Upset customers and suppliers</span><br></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Resistance from employees</span><br></div><div><span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">Incompatibility of management styles, structures and culture</span><br></div><div>High failure rate</div>"
What are common reasons why takeovers fail?Price paid for takeover was too high (over-estimate of synergies)<div>Cultural incompatibility between the 2 businesses</div><div>Poor communication particularly with management, employees and other stakeholders of the acquired business</div><div>Loss of key personnel and customers post acquisition</div><div>Competitors take the opportunity to gain market share whilst the takeover target is being integrated</div>
What are the different directions of integration?Forward vertical<div>Backward vertical</div><div>Horizontal</div><div>Conglomerate</div>
Describe what forward vertical integration isAcquiring a business further up in the supply chain e.g. manufacturer buys a distributor
Describe what backward vertical integration isAcquiring a business operating earlier in the supply chain e.g. a retailer buys a wholesaler
Describe what horizontal integration isAcquiring a business at the same stage of the supply chain e.g. a manufacturer buys a competitor
Describe what a conglomerate isWhere the acquisition has no clear connection to the business buying it
What are benefits of horizontal integration?Achieve economies of scale<div>Wider range of products i.e. diversification</div><div>Reduces competition by removing key rivals - this increases market share and long-run pricing power</div><div>Buying an existing and well-known brand can be cheaper than organically growing a brand - this can then make the entry barriers higher for potential rivals</div>
What are benefits of vertical integration?Enables a business to capture a greater share of the profit on each sale<div>Secures important and cheaper sources of supply or distribution</div><div>Create a barrier to entry to potential new competitors</div><div>Gain greater insights into customer needs and wants at each stage of the supply chain</div>
What is the issue with vertical integration?"May lack experience of managing the type of business being taken over i.e. a<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">&nbsp;retailer knows little about a manufacturing business and manufacturers may not understand the needs of a retailer</span>"
What is a merger?A combination of 2 previously separate firms which is achieved by forming a completely new firm into which the 2 original businesses are integrated
What is the difference between a merger and a takeover?A merger involves a new firm being created into which 2 existing businesses are merged<div>A takeover involves an existing firm acquiring more than 50% of another firm and thereby gaining control of it</div>
What are reasons for mergers?A merger can be seen as a decision made by 2 businesses that are broadly equal in terms of factors such as size, scale of operations, customer etc.<div>The enlarged, merged business, through the changes made by combining both together, can cut costs, grow revenues and increase profits - which should benefit shareholders of both the original 2 businesses</div>
What are the key reasons for staying small?Source of product differentiation and USP<div>Flexibility in meeting customer needs</div><div>Deliver high standard of customer service</div><div>Exploit opportunities from e-commerce</div>
How is a source of product differentiation and USP a reason for staying small?Positioning a business as small can help differentiate against larger competitors<div>Customer perception may be an expectation of a better product from a business that cares</div><div>More scope for adding value through the provision of specialist expertise e.g. advice</div>
How is flexibility in meeting customer needs a reason for staying small?"Many small businesses talk to their customers regularly<div>Small firms often communicate in the customers' language which give the impression to the customer that they are more in tune with their needs which m<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">akes it easier to get customer feedback</span></div>"
How is delivering high standards of customer service a reason for staying small?Most small businesses operate in the service sector, so this is a key source of competitive advantage<div>Employees in smaller firms are likely to treat customer service as a priority compared with larger firms though there is no guarantee</div>
How is exploiting opportunities from e-commerce a reason for staying small?E-commerce is an increasingly popular way for small firms to reach a broader customer base<div>It is now easy for a small firm to target niche segments both domestically and overseas</div><div>Smaller firms (provided they are confident with its use) can gain significant traction with customers using social media</div>
What are typical objectives of small firms?Survival<div>Revenue maximisation</div><div>Profit maximisation</div><div>Cost efficiency and scale</div><div>Customer service</div>
How is the objective of survival relevant to smaller firms?A key objective for startup firms and many smaller firms<div>Whilst small firms have lower costs, over-reliance on one or a few products can threaten survival</div>
How is the objective of revenue maximisation relevant to smaller firms?Rarely a key objective for smaller firms, although they are often keen to grow sales albeit from a low base level
How is the objective of profit maximisation relevant to smaller firms?Smaller firms will normally earn lower absolute levels of profit (because their revenues are lower)<div>However they can still achieve high profit margins if operating in a suitable niche market</div>
How is the objective of cost efficiency and scale relevant to smaller firms?Smaller firms are unlikely to benefit from economies of scale although they may be good at keeping their cost base low
How is the objective of customer service relevant to smaller firms?Smaller firms are often associated with higher levels of customer service and satisfaction, often because the business owner is closely involved with the provision of customer service
What is inorganic growth?A business growth strategy which involves two (or more) businesses joining together to form one much larger business
What is organic growth?A business growth strategy which involves a business growing gradually using its own resources
How does a business choose which growth strategy is best?The decision depends on how quickly the business wants to grow and the risks involved
What are methods of organic growth?New customers (more distribution channels)<div>New products</div><div>New markets (new locations/countries)</div><div>New business model (using e-commerce)</div><div>Franchising</div>
Advantages of organic growthLess risky than inorganic growth<div>Cheaper as less need to borrow capital or raise share capital</div><div>Cash flow tends to be stronger - more inflows than outflows</div><div>Managers have more control</div><div>Less diseconomies of scale as growth is slow and steady and unit costs can be controlled more easily</div>
Disadvantages of organic growthTakes a long time to grow and shareholders may sell shares<div>Prevents a business from tapping into others expertise by purchasing it</div><div>A business may get left behind if others are rapidly expanding through external growth</div><div>Not able to benefit from economies of scale as it takes so long to increase the scale of production</div>
What is an antigen?Molecules (usually proteins or polysaccharides) found on the surface of cells
What happens when a pathogen invades the body, regarding antigens?The antigens on its cell surface are recognised as non-self by white blood cells and the immune system is now activated, an immediate non-specific immune response is activated<div>Later, the specific immune response takes over (production of antibodies by specific white blood cells)</div>
What is the non-specific immune response?General attack of anything that is non-self<div>It happens in the same way for all pathogens that enter the body, regardless of the antigens present</div>
What are the 4 main processes of the non-specific immune response?Lysozyme action (secretions in mouth, eyes, nose)<div>Inflammation (release of histamine)</div><div>Antimicrobial proteins (interferon)</div><div>Phagocytosis (white cells 'phagocytes')</div>
What are the main purposes of the 4 processes in the non-specific immune response?To destroy, prevent the multiplication and spread of invading pathogens
What is lysozyme?An antibacterial enzyme<div>Acts on the surface of the barriers provided by skin</div><div>Found in tears, nasal secretions, saliva</div><div>First line of defence against bacteria entering the body through eyes, nose or mouth</div><div>It degrades the polysaccharide that is found in bacterial cell walls and the bacterial cells would die by the cell wall being broken down, absorbing water, swelling and bursting = cell destroyed</div>
What is the process of inflammation also known as?An inflammatory response
What is the purpose of inflammation?To destroy the cause of infection and remove it and its products from the body<div>If this fails, to limit the spread of infection</div>
How does the site where a pathogen enters the body (the site of infection) become?Red<div>Swollen (oedema)</div><div>Painful</div><div>Warm</div>
What will rapidly seal a wound if there has been damage to the skin surface?A blood clot
Describe the inflammatory response"1. Damaged basophils and mast cells release histamine<div>2. This causes vasodilation of the arterioles to increase blood flow to the infected site - this brings more phagocytes to the area and i<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">t becomes red and hot</span></div><div>3. Histamine also makes the capillaries more permeable and leaky so that plasma, phagocytes and antibodies can enter the site which<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">&nbsp;causes oedema (swelling)</span></div>"
What is the role of interleukin in the inflammatory response?It is a protein which regulates inflammation<div>It is released from white blood cells to attract more phagocytic cells to the site of infection</div>
What is the role of neutrophils in the inflammatory response?They are a type of white blood cell (phagocyte)<div>They can squeeze out of capillaries into the tissues (this is why nucleus is not spherical) to destroy the bacteria</div>
What does interferon provide defence against?Mostly viruses, but also some bacteria and protozoa
Describe interferon's mode of actionIt is released from infected cells<div>It diffuses to and is taken up by surrounding cells where it prevents viral protein synthesis and therefore replication of new virus particles</div>
What are interferons?A group of proteins made by cells infected with a virus
What happens after interferon diffuses from the cell of production to the surrounding cells?They bind to cell surface receptors and stimulate a pathway to switch on genes for other antiviral proteins
How do the antiviral proteins in the process of interferon inhibit viral replication?Inhibit new viral nucleic acid synthesis<div>Inhibit viral protein synthesis</div><div>Inhibit the formation of new viral particles</div>
What are white blood cells also known as?Leucocytes
What are the different types of leucocytes?Neutrophils<div>Lymphocytes</div><div>Monocytes &amp; macrophages</div><div>Eosinophils &amp; basophils</div>
Describe what neutrophils are70% of WBCs<div>Ingest and destroy bacteria (phagocytosis)</div><div>Last only a few days</div>
Describe what lymphocytes are2 types - T cells and B cells<div>B cells produce antibodies</div><div>Some last few days, others years</div>
Describe what monocytes &amp; macrophages are&nbsp;"Have a role in non-specific and specific immune responses<div>Monocytes circulate in the blood and m<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">ove into tissues and differentiate into macrophages</span></div><div>Macrophages engulf bacteria, foreign matter and cell debris (phagocytosis)</div><div>Macrophages will present antigen to lymphocytes</div>"
Describe what eosinophils &amp; basophils areGranular cytoplasm<div>Basophils produce histamine</div>
What are phagocytes?A group of leucocytes that carry out phagocytosis
What is phagocytosis?Engulfment of pathogens
Where are phagocytes found?In tissues
Which leucocytes are phagocytes?Neutrophils and macrophages
Briefly describe the role of phagocytes"They are first cells to respond to a pathogen inside the body, a<span style=""background-color: var(--bs-body-bg); color: var(--bs-body-color); text-align: var(--bs-body-text-align);"">re not specific to any pathogen</span>"
Describe how neutrophils work in phagocytosisEach engulf between 5 and 20 bacteria before they become inactive and die<div>80 million made every minute</div>
Describe how macrophages work in phagocytosisMacrophages arrive at the site of infection after neutrophils since they need to move into the tissues and mature from monocytes<div>They are larger, longer-lived cells</div><div>Each can destroy 100 bacteria</div><div>Also ingest debris from damaged cells and foreign matter such as carbon and dust in lungs</div>
Describe the process of phagocytosis1. Bacterium binds to receptors on the macrophage surface<div>2. Membrane processes (pseudopodia) surround the bacterium, engulfing it into a phagosome/phagocytic vesicle</div><div>3. Lysosomes containing digestive enzymes fuse with the phagosome to form a phagolysosome and the bacterium is digested</div><div>4. A small vacuole containing some small fragments of the bacterium buds off from the phagolysosome</div><div>5. The phagolysosome then fuses with the cell surface membrane and its contents are released from the cell by exocytosis</div><div>6. Within the small vacuole, a bacterial fragment is bound to an MHC (major histocompatibility) protein</div><div>7. The vacuole fuses with the cell surface membrane and the bacterial fragment (now an antigen) is presented on the macrophage cell surface and the macrophage has now become an antigen pre