TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS
By Christian Jerell S. Cosme, MD
PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS
QUIZLET 2024
https://qrs.ly/8bfkepi
Your Mother Goose will announce the password
CELLULAR RESPONSES TO STRESS
QUESTIONS
The two (2) consistent features
of reversible cell injury
Increase in cell NUMBER due
to increased workload or
compensatory response
Increase in cell SIZE due to
hormonal stimulation or
compensatory response
Decrease in cell size and/or
number due to loss of
innervation, loss of blood
supply, etc.
Differentiated cell type
replaced by another
Most common type of
metaplasia
Type of metaplasia in
Barrett’s esophagus
Degradation of this molecule
causes increased cytoplasmic
eosinophilia in necrotic cells
Decreased basophilia of
chromatin
Nuclear shrinkage with
increased basophilia
Fragmentation of pyknotic
nucleus
Pattern of necrosis in the
setting of ischemia in most
organs; (+) “ghost cells” preserved cell architecture,
loss of nucleus
All organs undergo
coagulative necrosis
following ischemia, except:
Pattern of necrosis occurring
in bacterial infections and
ischemic necrosis of the
brain; due to neutrophilic
enzymes; (+) pus
ANSWERS
Cellular swelling, Fatty
change
QUESTIONS
Pattern of necrosis due to
loss of blood supply in a limb;
can be dry or wet
(superimposed with bacterial
infection)
Pattern of necrosis
characterized by cheese-like
friable foci of necrosis and
structureless collection of
lysed cells and amorphous
debris; seen in tuberculous
infections
Pattern of necrosis seen in
acute pancreatitis; (+)
chalky-white areas of
saponification, (+) basophilic
calcium deposits
Pattern of necrosis
characterized by pink,
amorphous material in the
walls of arteries; due to
immune complex deposition
Most characteristics feature
of apoptosis
Pathologic calcification that
occurs in necrotic tissue in
the setting of normal serum
calcium levels
Sand-like lamellated
dystrophic calcifications seen
in papillary cancers
Pathologic calcification that
occurs in viable tissue in the
setting of hypercalcemia
Pyknosis
Karyorrhexis
Vasodilating eicosanoids
Hyperplasia
Atrophy
Metaplasia
Squamous metaplasia
Intestinal metaplasia
Nucleic acids
Karyolysis
Coagulative necrosis
Brain
Liquefactive necrosis
Gangrenous necrosis
Caseous necrosis
Fat necrosis
Fibrinoid necrosis
Chromatin condensation
Dystrophic calcification
Psammoma bodies
Metastatic calcification
INFLAMMATION AND REPAIR
QUESTIONS
The two (2) consistent
features of reversible cell
injury
Transmigration of leukocytes
across the endothelium i.e.
postcapillary venules
Movement of leukocytes
towards a chemotactic signal
Most common exogenous
chemotactic product
Endogenous chemotactic
signals
Vasoactive amine that causes
vasodilation and increased
vascular permeability;
produced by mast cells,
platelets, and basophils
Vasoactive amine that causes
vasoconstriction; produced
by platelets and
neuroendocrine cells
Parent molecule of
eicosanoids
Hypertrophy
ANSWERS
Vasoconstricting eicosanoids
Cytokine that has a
significant role in fever
Complement system pathway
activated by antibodies
Complement system pathway
activated by antibodies
Deficient complement
proteins associated with
increased risk to Neisseria
infections
Complement proteins acting
as anaphylatoxins
ANSWERS
Cellular swelling, Fatty
change
Diapedesis
Chemotaxis
N-formylmethionine
IL-8, C5a,
leukotriene B4
Histamine
Serotonin
Arachidonic Acid
PGI2 (Prostacyclin, PGE1,
PGE2, PGD2
TXA2, LTC4, D4, E4
IL-1, TNF
Classical pathway
Alternative pathway
Late components or
Membrane attack complex
(C5b, C6-C9)
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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C3a, C5a
Page 1 of 27
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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QUESTIONS
Most common complement
deficiency
An autosomal dominant
disease caused by deficiency
in C1 inhibitor
Hallmark of acute
inflammation
Cells involved in chronic
inflammation
Pattern of inflammation in TB
or foreign body deposition
Hallmark of granuloma
Acute phase protein that
causes red blood cells to form
stacks (rouleaux)
Reduces availability of iron to
erythroid precursors in
marrow; Causes anemia of
chronic inflammation
Most important source of
growth factors during
repair
Examples of stable tissues quiescent but with limited
capacity to proliferate in
response to tissue injury and
loss
Examples of permanent
tissue - terminally
differentiated and nonproliferative
Hallmark of repair
Scar tissue that does not
grow beyond the boundaries
of the original wound
Scar tissue grows beyond the
boundaries of the original
wound; more common in
African American
ANSWERS
C2
Hereditary angioedema
Dilation of small blood
vessels and accumulation
of leukocytes and fluid in
the extravascular tissue
Macrophage, lymphocytes
Chronic granulomatous
Epithelioid cells
Fibrinogen
Hepcidin
Macrophage
Liver, Kidney, Pancreas,
Endothelium, Fibroblasts,
Smooth muscle
Neurons, Cardiac and
skeletal myocytes
Granulation tissue
Hypertrophic scar
Keloid
HEMODYNAMIC DISORDERS
QUESTIONS
Mechanism of edema or
effusion in heart failure
Mechanism of edema or
effusion in nephrotic
syndrome or liver cirrhosis
Mechanism of edema or
effusion in burns or
infections
Mechanism of edema or
effusion in tumors, filariasis,
post-radiation fibrosis, postlymphadenectomy in breast
cancer
Type of effusion
characterized by increased
protein content, specific
gravity, fibrin, and
inflammatory cells
Increased in blood volume in
tissues due to arteriolar
dilation; an active process
Increased in blood volume in
tissues due to reduced
outflow; a passive process
Engorged alveolar capillaries,
septal edema, and focal intraalveolar hemorrhage
(+) Hemosiderin-laden
macrophages (heart failure
cells); fibrotic septa
ANSWERS
↑ Hydrostatic pressure
↓ Oncotic pressure
↑ Vascular permeability
Lymphatic obstruction
Exudate
Hyperemia
Congestion
Acute pulmonary
congestion
Chronic pulmonary
congestion
QUESTIONS
Distended central vein and
sinusoids, centrilobular
ischemic necrosis, periportal
fatty change
Nutmeg liver, (+)
hemosiderin-laden
macrophages, hepatocyte
dropout and necrosis
Initial step in hemostasis that
occurs due to reflex
neurogenic mechanisms and
endothelin
Vitamin K-dependent
proteins that act together as
anticoagulants
Main factor of fibrin
degradation
Vrichow triad of thrombosis
Most common inherited
thrombophilia; FV becomes
resistant to Protein C
inactivation
Type of thrombosis that
occurs due to
turbulence/endothelial
injury; retrograde
propagation
Common sites involved in
arterial thrombosis
Type of thrombosis that
occurs due to stasis;
anterograde propagation
Most common site involved
in venous thrombosis
Detached intravascular mass
that is carried by the blood
from its point of origin to a
distant site
Most common form of
thromboembolic disease
Most common source of
pulmonary embolism
Type of pulmonary embolism
that causes sudden death;
located at the pulmonary
artery bifurcation
Most common source of
systemic thromboembolism
that results in end-organ
ischemia
Type of embolism associated
with long bone fractures and
soft tissue trauma
5th most common cause of
maternal mortality
worldwide, occurs in
immediate postpartum
Specific form of air embolism
seen in divers who did rapid
ascent; (+) bends and chokes
Area of ischemic necrosis
caused by vascular occlusion
Type of infarct in solid organs
with end-arterial circulation
Type of infarct occurring due
to venous occlusion in
spongy tissues or organs with
dual blood supply
State in which diminished
cardiac output or reduced
effective circulating blood
volume impairs tissue
perfusion and leads to
cellular hypoxia
ANSWERS
Acute hepatic congestion
Chronic hepatic congestion
Arteriolar vasoconstriction
Protein C, Protein S
Plasmin
Endothelial injury,
Abnormal blood flow,
Hypercoagulability
Factor V Leiden
Arterial thrombosis
Coronary > Cerebral >
Femoral
Venous thrombosis
Lower extremity veins
(90%)
Embolus
Pulmonary embolism
Deep venous thrombosis
Saddle embolus
Mural thrombi
Fat embolism
Amniotic fluid embolism
Decompression sickness
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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Infarct
White infarct
Red infarct
Shock
Page 2 of 27
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QUESTIONS
Type of shock seen in MI,
arrhythmia, cardiac
tamponade, tension
pneumothorax
Type of shock seen in
hemorrhage, diarrhea
Stage of shock where
worsening circulatory and
metabolic derangement
(lactic acidosis) is observed
Stage of shock refractory to
corrective measures
ANSWERS
Cardiogenic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Progressive
Irreversible
GENETIC DISORDERS
QUESTIONS
One dominant allele is
enough to produce
phenotype (heterozygous)
AD disorder characterized by
a defect in fibrillin-1 gene
(chromosome 15)
Most striking feature in
Marfan syndrome
Most life-threatening feature
in Marfan syndrome
Two recessive alleles
produce phenotype
AR disorder with a defect in
hexosaminidase A causing
accumulation of GM2
ganglioside in neurons and
retina
AR disorder with
sphingomyelinase deficiency
Most common lysosomal
storage disorder; (+)
crumpled tissue paper on
PAS
Usually males express
phenotype; Females may
express the phenotype (due
to inactivation of one X
chromosome)
X-linked recessive blood
disorders
Example of X-linked
dominant disorders
Most common chromosomal
disorder; leading cause of
mental retardation
Edward syndrome
Patau syndrome
Most common chromosomal
abnormality in Klinefelter
syndrome
Most consistent finding in
Klinefelter syndrome
Heart abnormality associated
with Klinefelter syndrome
Single most important cause
of primary amenorrhea
Most common chromosomal
defect in Turner Syndrome
ANSWERS
QUESTIONS
Defect in Fragile X syndrome
Most distinctive feature in
Fragile X syndrome
CAG expansion; dementia +
movement disorders
Deletion in paternallyderived chromosome 15; (+)
obesity, hyperphagia, short
stature
Deletion in maternallyderived chromosome 15;
inappropriate laughter
“happy puppet”
Examples of mitochondrial
disorders (maternal
inheritance)
Autosomal dominant (AD)
Marfan syndrome
Skeletal abnormalities e.g.
pectus excavatum /
carinatum, dolichocephalic,
kyphosis/scoliosis
Cardiovascular
abnormalities e.g. MVP,
aortic dissection, aortic
insufficiency
Autosomal recessive (AR)
Tay-Sachs disease
Niemann-Pick disease
Gaucher disease
X-linked recessive (XR)
Hemophilia A and B, G6PD
deficiency, CGD
Alport syndrome and
Vitamin D-resistant rickets
Trisomy 21
Trisomy 18
Trisomy 13
47XXY (90%)
Hypogonadism
Mitral valve prolapse
(50%)
Turner syndrome
45XO
Most important cause of
increased mortality in
children with
Turner syndrome
Cardiovascular
abnormalities (preductal
CoA, bicuspid aortic valve,
aortic root dilation, aortic
dissection)
2nd most common cause of
mental retardation after
Trisomy 21
Fragile X syndrome
ANSWERS
CGG expansion
Macroorchidism
Huntington disease
Prader-Willi syndrome
Angelman Syndrome
Mitochondrial myopathy,
Encephalopathy, Lactic
Acidosis and Stroke
(MELAS), Leber Hereditary
Optic Neuropathy (LHON)
DISEASES OF THE IMMUNE
SYSTEM
QUESTIONS
Only cell in the body that can
produce antibodies
Most important antigenpresenting cell for initiating
T-cell responses against
protein antigens
Type of antibody that can
cross the placenta
IgE-mediated type of
hypersensitivity
Examples of Type I
hypersensitivity
Antibody-mediated type of
hypersensitivity
Examples of type II
hypersensitivity
Immune complex-mediated
type of hypersensitivity
Most common sites of
immune complex deposition
Examples of type III
hypersensitivity
T cell-mediated or delayed
type of hypersensitivity
Examples of type IV
hypersensitivity
HLA type associated in
seronegative
spondyloarthropathies
Most sensitive and best
screening test for SLE
Specific test for SLE that
correlates with disease
activity
Autoantibody associated with
drug-induced lupus
Autoantibody associated with
neonatal lupus and
congenital heart block
ANSWERS
B Lymphocytes i.e. Plasma
cells
Dendritic cells
IgG
Type I or Immediate
hypersensitivity
Asthma, anaphylaxis,
allergies
Type II
Immune hemolytic anemia,
Rheumatic fever,
Myasthenia gravis,
Goodpasture syndrome,
Graves disease
Type III
Kidneys, joints
SLE, PSGN, Polyarteritis
nodosa, Reactive arthritis
Type IV
RA, T1DM, TST, IBD,
Psoriasis, Multiple
sclerosis, contact
sensitivity
HLA-B27
AAnti-nuclear antibody
(ANA)
Anti-dsDNA
Anti-histone
Anti-Ro (SS-A)/ Anti-La (SSB)
Antiphospholipid antibodies
Anticardiolipin and β2glycoprotein I
Autoimmune disease
directed against lacrimal and
salivary glands; (+)
xerostomia (dry mouth) &
keratoconjunctivitis sicca
(dry eyes)
Sjogren syndrome (SS)
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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QUESTIONS
Most important and most
common associated
autoantibodies associated
with SS
Earliest histologic finding in
SS
Most common associated
disease with SS
Patients with SS have
increased risk to develop
what type of malignancy
EXcessive fibrosis throughout
the body
Type of scleroderma that has
widespread skin
involvement, rapid
progression, early visceral
involvement
Autoantibody associated with
diffuse scleroderma
Type of scleroderma with
limited skin and visceral
involvement
Clinical features of CREST
syndrome
Autoantibody associated with
limited scleroderma
Disease with clinical features
that overlap with those of
SLE, systemic sclerosis, and
polymyositis
Autoantibody associated with
mixed connective tissue
disease
AR disease associated with
selectin/integrin
abnormalities; (+) delayed
separation of the umbilical
cord, omphalitis
XR disease characterized by
NADPH oxidase deficiency;
(+) susceptibility to catalasepositive organism
XR disease characterized by
failure of B cell maturation;
respiratory and GIT
infections at 6 months of age
Defect in DiGeorge syndrome
Clinical features of DiGeorge
syndrome
Triad of Wiskott-Aldrich
Syndrome
Most serious secondary
immunodeficiency
Most abundant HIV antigen;
detected in screening tests
for HIV infection
First stage of infection with
HIV; Symptoms include flulike illness, rash, cervical
adenopathy, diarrhea,
vomiting
ANSWERS
Anti-Ro (SS-A) Anti-La (SSB)
Periductal and
perivascular lymphocytic
infiltration
Rheumatoid arthritis
Lymphoma
Systemic Sclerosis
(Scleroderma)
Diffuse scleroderma
Anti DNA topoisomerase I
(anti-Scl 70)
Limited scleroderma or
formerly known as CREST
syndrome
Calcinosis, Raynaud
phenomenon,
Esophageal dysmotility,
Sclerodactyly,
Telangiectasia
Anti-centromere
Mixed Connective Tissue
Disease
Anti-U1-RNP
Leukocyte Adhesion
Deficiency
Chronic Granulomatous
Disease
Bruton
agammaglobulinemia
Chromosome 22q11
deletion→Failure of
development of pharyngeal
pouches (thymus and
parathyroid glands)
CATCH22 – Cardiac
abnormalities, abnormal
facies, thymic aplasia, cleft
palate, hypocalcemia/
hypoparathyroidism
Thrombocytopenia (with
small platelets), Recurrent
infections, Eczema
Acquired
immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS)
p24
Acute Retroviral Syndrome
or Acute HIV Syndrome
QUESTIONS
Examples of AIDS-defining
illnesses
Most common fungal
infection associated with
AIDS
Most common neoplasm
associated with AIDS; causes
by HHV-8
Most common type of
lymphoma in AIDS
Hemodialysis-associated
amyloid protein
Amyloid protein in Alzheimer
disease
Most common and
potentially most serious form
of organ involvement
ANSWERS
Opportunistic infections,
secondary neoplasms, CNS
disease
Candidiasis
Kaposi Sarcoma
B-cell Lymphoma
Aβ2m: β2- microglobulin
Aβ: Amyloid precursor
protein
Renal involvement
NEOPLASIA
QUESTIONS
Formation of abundant
collagenous stroma in response
to parenchymal cells
Tumor containing recognizable
mature or
immature tissues belonging to
more than one germ cell layer
Disorganized mass composed
of cells indigenous
to the involved tissue
Term applied to heterotopic
(misplaced) but
organized rest of cells (aka
heterotopia, ectopia)
Lack of differentiation;
Hallmark of malignancy
Architectural disarray, loss of
orderly maturation, and
cytologic atypia confined within
the epithelium; “disordered
growth”
Unequivocal marker of
malignancy
Route of dissemination
typically seen in carcinomas
Route of dissemination
typically seen in sarcomas
Most favored sites of
hematogenous spread
Most common cancer in males
Most common cancer in
females
Most common cause of cancer
death in both males and
females
Normal gene whose products
promote cellular proliferation
Most common type of
abnormality involving protooncogenes in human tumors
Tumor suppressor gene that
regulates G1-S checkpoint;
governor of proliferation
Most frequently mutated gene
in human cancers
Cancer associated with
cholangitis or Opsithorchis
viverrini infection
Cancer associated with
Hashimoto thyroiditis and
Sjogren syndrome
Asbestosis-related cancers
ANSWERS
Desmoplasia
Teratoma
Hamartoma
Choristoma
Anaplasia
Dysplasia
Metastasis
Lymphatic spread
Hematogenous spread
Lungs, liver
Prostate cancer
Breast cancer
Lung cancer
Proto-oncogene
RAS
RB
TP53
Extrahepatic
cholangiocarcinoma
Marginal zone lymphoma
Mesothelioma, lung
carcinoma
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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QUESTIONS
Cancer associated with
Schistosoma haematobium
infection
HPV-associated cancers
HTLV-1-associated cancer
Vinyl chloride-associated
cancer
Cadmium-associated cancer
Benzene-associated cancer
Signs and symptoms not
referable to the anatomic
distribution of the tumor; due
to hormones or substances
elaborated by the tumor
Most common endocrinopathy
Most common paraneoplastic
syndrome
Serum abnormalities observed
in tumor lysis syndrome
Tumor marker for medullary
thyroid carcinoma
Tumor marker for
hepatocellular carcinoma, nonseminomatous germ cell
tumors of testis
ANSWERS
Bladder squamous cell
carcinoma
Oropharyngeal, Cervical,
Vulvar, Penile
carcinomas
Adult T cell
leukemia/lymphoma
Hepatic angiosarcoma
Prostate cancer
Acute myeloid leukemia
Paraneoplastic syndrome
Cushing syndrome
Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia,
hyperphosphatemia,
hyperuricemia,
hypocalcemia
Calcitonin
α-fetoprotein (AFP)
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
QUESTIONS
Multinucleated giant cells
with eosinophilic nuclear and
cytoplasmic inclusion bodies
seen in measles infection
Ulcerated mucosal lesions in
oral cavity near opening of
Stensen duct in measles
Most common extra salivary
gland complication in mumps
Causative agent of cold sores,
herpetic whitlow
Causative agent of genital
herpes
α-herpesviruses
β-herpesvirus
γ-herpesvirus
Large cell and nucleus with
intranuclear basophilic
inclusions with surrounding
clear halo (Owl’s eye)
EBV-associated malignancies
Causative agent of infectious
mononucleosis
Clinical form of leprosy
characterized by intact cellmediated immunity, (+)
Lepromin skin test, and
asymmetric nerve
involvement with
granulomatous inflammation
Clinical form of leprosy
characterized by depressed
cell-mediated immunity,
symmetric nerve
involvement, (-) Lepromin
skin test, and (+) Lepra cells
Most common
extrapulmonary
manifestation of TB
ANSWERS
Warthin-Finkeldey cells
Koplik spots
Aseptic meningitis
HSV-1
HSV-2
HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV
CMV, HHV-6, HHV-7
EBV, HHV-8
QUESTIONS
Most commonly involved
segment of the intestine in
gastrointestinal TB
Components of Ghon complex
Ileum
Ghon focus +pulmonary
hilar node involvement
Anogenital painless lesion in
primary syphilis
Broad-based plaques on skin
in secondary syphilis
Histologic findings of gummas
Causative agent of Lyme disease
Expanding area of redness
with pale center on tick bite
site in Lyme disease
Most common zoonotic
infection in the world
Triad of Weil disease or
icteric phase of leptospirosis
Most consistent pathologic
finding in leptospirosis
Most prevalent fungal
pathogen of humans;
produces a germ tube at 37°C
Important cause of CNS
infection in
immunocompromised
patients; (+) capsule
Important cause of
pneumonia in AIDS patients;
stains with Gomori
Methenamine Silver
Fungi with septate hyphae
branching at acute angles
Cancer caused by Aspergillus
flavus aflatoxin
Fungi with non-septate
hyphae branching at right
angles
Most virulent malarial
parasite; Most common
malarial parasite in the
Philippines
Benign tertian malaria
Quartan malaria
Most common cause of death
in hepatic schistosomiasis
Leading cause of bacterial
vaginosis
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Amsel criteria in the
diagnosis of bacterial
vaginosis (3 out of 4)
Nasopharyngeal
carcinoma, Burkitt
lymphoma, some Hodgkin
lymphoma type
Painful genital ulcers
Causative agent of chancroid
EBV
Painless genital ulcer
Causative agent of LGV
Tuberculoid
(paucibacillary)
ANSWERS
Purulent discharge, Gram (-)
intracellular diplococci
Greenish vaginal discharge
with fishy odor, (+)
strawberry cervix
Chancre
Condyloma lata
Granuloma with central
coagulative necrosis and
surrounding plasma cells
Borrelia sp.
Erythema migrans
Leptospirosis
Jaundice, renal failure,
hemorrhage
Capillary vasculitis
Candida
Cryptococcus neoformans
Pneumocystis jirovecii
Aspergillosis
Liver cancer
Mucor
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax and ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Cirrhosis
Gardnerella vaginalis
Thin, white homogenous
discharge; clue cells;
vaginal fluid pH >4.5; (+)
Whiff test - fishy odor upon
addition of 10% KOH
Chancroid, Granuloma
inguinale, Genital herpes
Haemophilus ducreyi
Chancre,
lymphogranuloma
venereum (LGV)
Chlamydia trachomatis,
L1-L3 strain
Gonococcal urethritis
Trichomoniasis
Lepromatous
(multibacillary)
Lymphadenitis (scrofula)
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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Page 5 of 27
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
For inquiries visit www.topnotchboardprep.com.ph or https://www.facebook.com/topnotchmedicalboardprep/
This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
ENVIRONMENTAL AND
NUTRITIONAL PATHOLOGY
QUESTIONS
Most common organ system
affected by air pollution
Systemic, colorless and
odorless gas asphyxiant; (+)
cherry red discoloration of
the skin and mucous
membranes
Percent saturation of CO that
causes death
Hemoglobin synthesis
enzymes inhibited by lead
Hematologic findings
observed in lead poisoning
Form of gout caused by lead
poisoning
Disease caused by in utero
exposure to methylmercury
through ingestion of
contaminated fish
Known as the king of
poisons; Chronic exposure
causes keratosis that may
progress to squamous cell
carcinoma
Most prevalent preventable
cause of death in man
A metabolite of nicotine used
as a measure of passive
smoking exposure
Tobacco smoke compounds
that promote carcinogenesis
Most commonly abused
substance
Amount of alcohol that is
reported to be protective
against coronary artery
disease
Ethanol metabolite that
causes cellular injury by lipid
peroxidation and adduct
formation
Blood alcohol level that
causes coma and respiratory
arrest
Most common thermal injury
Most common causes of
thermal burns
Most common
microorganism causing
sepsis in burn patients
Mechanism of heat cramps
Most common hyperthermia
syndrome
Hyperthermia, hyperkalemia,
tachycardia, arrhythmia, and
rhabdomyolysis following
exposure to anesthetic agents
Mutated gene in malignant
hyperthermia
Most common form of
current at home that causes
electrical injuries
ANSWERS
Respiratory system i.e.
lungs
Carbon Monoxide (CO)
60-70%
ALA dehydratase and
Ferrochelatase
Basophilic stippling, ring
sideroblast (iron-laden
mitochondria), microcytic
hypochromic anemia
Saturnine gout
Minamata disease
Arsenic
Smoking
Cotinine
Tar, Polycyclic aromatic
hydrocarbons,
Benzopyrene, Nitrosamine
Ethanol
20-30 g/day
Acetaldehyde
≥ 400 mg/dL
Thermal burns
Fire, Scalding (in children)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Electrolyte loss through
sweating
Heat exhaustion
Malignant hyperthermia
Ryanodine receptor 1
(RYR1) gene
Alternating current (AC)
QUESTIONS
Weight for height ratio that is
3 standard deviations below
the normal range
Type of SAM occurring due to
caloric deficiency; (+) growth
retardation, wasting,
minimally depleted serum
albumin
Type of SAM with profound
hypoalbuminemia (protein >
caloric deficiency, “flaky
paint” skin appearance, “flag
sign” or alternating bands of
pale and darker hair
Highest death rate of any
psychiatric disorder; selfinduced starvation to
promote weight loss
Binge eating followed by
purging such as vomiting and
laxatives or non-purging
techniques like obsessive
exercising and diet pills
Vitamin deficiency associated
with squamous metaplasia in
ocular, respiratory and skin
tissues; (+) night blindness,
xerophthalmia
Dementia, dermatitis,
diarrhea
Vitamin deficiency that
presents as dry or wet
beriberi; causes Wernicke
and Korsakoff syndrome with
excessive alcohol intake
Megaloblastic anemia with
neurologic symptoms due to
degeneration of the spinal
cord
Megaloblastic anemia
without neurologic
symptoms
Cancers associated with the
increased synthesis of
estrogen in obese individuals
ANSWERS
Severe acute malnutrition
(SAM)
Marasmus
Kwashiorkor
Anorexia nervosa
Bulimia nervosa
Vitamin A
Pellagra (Niacin/Vitamin
B3 deficiency)
Vitamin B1 (thiamine
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B9
Breast and endometrial
cancers
CONGENITAL ANOMALIES
QUESTIONS
Primary errors of
morphogenesis (Intrinsically
abnormal developmental
process)
Secondary destruction of a
normally developed
organ e.g. amniotic bands
compressing fetal parts
Extrinsic disturbance of
development; most common
cause is uterine constraint
Cascade of anomalies
triggered by one initiating
aberration
Congenital anomaly
associated with thalidomide
use
Second most common cause
of neonatal morbidity, second
to congenital anomalies
Most common cause of
respiratory distress in
newborns
ANSWERS
Malformation
Disruption
Deformation
Sequence
Phocomelia
Prematurity
Neonatal respiratory
distress syndrome /
X-rays, gamma rays, highMain sources of ionizing
Hyaline membrane disease
energy neutrons, alpha
radiation
Pulmonary immaturity and
particles , beta particles
Surfactant deficiency
Effects of whole-body
Lymphocytes→bone
Fundamental defect in RDS
(DPPC:
ionizing radiation (in
marrow→small
dipalmitoylphosphatidylch
increasing dose)
bowel→brain
oline)
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
Page 6 of 27
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
For inquiries visit www.topnotchboardprep.com.ph or https://www.facebook.com/topnotchmedicalboardprep/
This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
QUESTIONS
ANSWERS
Hyaline membranes along
alveolar walls: Fibrin +
Necrotic Type 2
pneumocytes
Ground-glass appearance
of the lungs
Retinopathy of
prematurity,
bronchopulmonary
dysplasia
QUESTIONS
Wilms tumor, Organomegaly,
macroglossia,
hemihypertrophy,
omphalocele, adrenal
cytomegaly
Tumor with a classic
triphasic pattern that
includes blastemal, epithelial,
and stromal components
A premature infant presents
with hematochezia,
abdominal distension, and
hypotension following
aggressive bottle feeding.
Necrotizing Enterocolitis
Radiographic findings seen in
NEC
Pneumatosis intestinalis
(gas within the intestinal
wall), pneumoperitoneum
(severe cases)
QUESTIONS
Severe blood pressure
elevations (> 200/120
mmHg) with renal failure and
other end-organ damage
Thickened arterial wall with
homogenous pink, hyaline
material; seen in
hypertension, diabetes
mellitus
Concentric, laminated
thickening of the arterial wall
composed of smooth muscle
cells with thickened,
reduplicated basement
membrane or “onion-skin
lesion”; seen in severe HTN
Microscoping finding
expected in RDS (not seen in
stillborn infants)
Typical imaging finding in
RDS
Diseases associated with
hyperoxic injury
Excessive accumulation of
fluid in 2 or more feta;
cavities
Primary mechanism of
immune hydrops in
hemolytic disease of the fetus
and newborn (HDFN)
Most serious complication of
immune hydrops
Most common cause of HFDN
A newborn presents with
jaundice immediately postdelivery. The G2P2 mother is
B - while the baby is B +.
What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Recurrent respiratory
infections, malabsorption,
and increased sweat chloride
levels
Etiology of cystic fibrosis
Most common cause of death
in cystic fibrosis
Most common cause of death
between 1 month to 1 year
old in the US
Most common tumors of
infancy
Most common teratoma of
childhood
Most common malignant
pediatric tumor
Most common extracranial
solid tumor of childhood;
Most commonly diagnosed
malignancy of infancy
Childhood tumor presenting
as an abdominal mass that
crosses the midline; (+)
blueberry muffin skin
discoloration; increased
blood VMA levels
Most common site of
neuroblastoma
Tumor cells around a central
space filled with neuropil;
seen in neuroblastoma and
medulloblastoma
Most common primary renal
tumor of childhood
Wilms tumor, Aniridia,
Genitourinary anomalies,
Mental retardation
ANSWERS
Beckwidth-Wiedemann
syndrome (WT2)
Wilms Tumor
BLOOD VESSELS
Fetal Hydrops
High-output heart failure
to hemolytic anemia →
Edema
Kernicterus
ABO incompatibility
Rh incompatibility [Setup:
Mother: Rh (-), Fetus: Rh
(+), subsequent pregnancy]
Non-modifiable risk factors
of atherosclerosis
Most common sites involved
in atherosclerosis
Cystic fibrosis
CFTR gene (Chromosome
7) mutation
Cardiorespiratory
complications (persistent
lung infections, obstructive
pulmonary disease, cor
pulmonale)
Sudden infant death
syndrome (SIDS)
Hemangioma
Sacrococcygeal teratomas
Leukemia
Neuroblastoma
Neuroblastoma
Adrenal medulla
Homer-Wright
pseudorosettes
Nephroblastoma (Wilms
tumor)
WAGR syndrome (WT1
gene mutation)
Level of critical stenosis or at
which ischemia starts
Localized, abnormal
dilatation of the blood vessel
or the heart
Cytokine involved in the
development of aneurysm in
Marfan syndrome
A 55-year-old male smoker
presents with a pulsating
abdominal mass
Most common site of
abdominal aortic aneurysm
Blood tunnels through the
layers of the vessel wall
through an intimal tear→
blood-filled channel within
the aortic wall
Most common site of aortic
dissection
A 55-year-old woman
complains of headache
particularly on the temporal
area and blurring of vision.
She is also diagnosed with
polymyalgia rheumatica.
What is the most likely
diagnosis?
ANSWERS
Malignant hypertension
Hyaline arteriosclerosis
Hyperplastic
arteriosclerosis
Genetic abnormalities,
family history, increasing
age, male gender
Lower abdominal aorta
and iliac arteries >
Coronary arteries >
Popliteal arteries >
Internal carotid arteries >
Circle of Willis
70–75% occlusion
Aneurysm
TGF-β
Abdominal aortic
aneurysm
Between renal arteries and
bifurcation of aorta
Aortic dissection
Ascending aorta within 10
cm of aortic valve
Giant cell arteritis or
temporal arteritis
Histologic finding observed
in temporal arteritis
Medial granulomatous
inflammation with T cells
and multinucleated giant
cells
Immune vasculitis that
occurs in individuals <50
years old characterized by
weakening of pulses in upper
limbs and ocular
disturbances.
Takayasu arteritis or
pulseless disease
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
QUESTIONS
Medium-vessel immune
vasculitis associated with
Hepatitis B infection
A 3-year-old male presents
with a 5-day history of fever,
bilateral conjunctivitis, (+)
strawberry tongue, erythema
of the palms and soles,
polymorphous rash and
cervical lymphadenopathy.
Most commonly involved
blood vessels in Kawasaki
disease
Microscopic finding in
microscopic polyangiitis
Persistent asthma, allergic
rhinosinusitis, joint pains,
renal disease, eosinophilia,
(+) MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA
Most common form of renal
disease in Churg-Strauss
syndrome
Persistent pneumonitis,
chronic sinusitis with saddle
nose deformity,
nasopharyngeal ulcers,
glomerulonephritis, (+) PR3ANCA/c-ANCA
Large-vessel vasculitides
Medium-vessel vasculitides
Small-vessel vasculitides
Most likely diagnosis in a 60year-old heavy smoker who
presents with claudication,
Raynaud phenomenon, and
gangrenous lower extremity
Exaggerated vasoconstriction
of the fingers and toes in
response to cold or emotion;
secondary type is associated
with SLE, Scleroderma,
Buerger disease
Most common etiology of
lymphangitis
Most common vascular
ectasia
Most common type of
hemangioma
Age at which most cases of
juvenile hemangioma
regresses
Type of lymphangioma
associated with Turner
syndrome
Benign tumor from modified
smooth muscle cells of
arteriovenous structures
involved in
thermoregulation; subungual
in location
Clinical form of Kaposi
sarcoma that is common in
Mediterranean, Middle
Eastern, or Eastern European
descent (especially
Ashkenazi Jews) and has no
HIV association
Most sensitive and specific
endothelial marker for
angiosarcoma
ANSWERS
Polyarteritis nodosa
Kawasaki disease
Coronary arteries
Leukocytoclasia or
fragmented neutrophils in
post-capillary venules
Churg-Strauss syndrome or
Eosinophilic
granulomatosis with
polyangiitis
Focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis
Wegener granulomatosis
or granulomatosis with
polyangiitis
Takayasu arteritis,
temporal arteritis
Kawasaki disease,
polyarteritis nodosa
Churg-Strauss syndrome,
Wegener granulomatosis,
Microscopic polyangiitis
Buerger disease or
thromboangiitis obliterans
Raynaud phenomenon
Group A Beta-Hemolytic
Streptococci (GABHS)
Nevus flammeus
(Birthmark)
Capillary hemangioma
7 years old
Cavernous lymphangioma
(Cystic hygroma)
Glomus tumor
Classic Kaposi sarcoma
ERG
HEART
QUESTIONS
Main effect of left-sided heart
failure
Hemosiderin-laden
macrophages in the lungs
seen in long standing leftsided heart failure
Most common cause of rightsided heart failure
Right-sided heart failure as a
consequence of increased
pulmonary vascular
resistance in the setting of
primary pulmonary disease
Main effect of right-sided
heart failure
Hallmark of RSHF
Most common genetic cause
of congenital heart disease
(CHD)
Acyanotic heart disease
Cyanotic heart disease
The phenomenon at which
L→R shunt becomes R→L
(shunt reversal) due to
pulmonary vascular
remodelling
Most common CHD in adults
Most common type of ASD
Most common CHD (overall)
Most common type of VSD
Most common cyanotic CHD
Four components of
Tetralogy of Fallot
Main determinant of outcome
or prognosis of TOF
ANSWERS
Pulmonary congestion
Heart failure cells
Left-sided heart failure
Cor pulmonale
Systemic/portal venous
congestion
Dependent edema
Trisomy 21
Left-to-right shunts
Right-to-left shunts
Eisenmenger phenomenon
Atrial septal defect
Secundum
Ventricular septal defect
Membranous
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
Large VSD, Right
ventricular outflow tract
obstruction, Aorta
overriding the VSD, Right
ventricular hypertrophy
Degree of RVOT
obstruction or pulmonic
stenosis
A known Turner syndrome
patient presents with lower
extremity cyanosis; CXR: rib
notching
Coarctation of the Aorta
Most common cause of
ischemic heart disease
Atherosclerosis of
epicardial coronary
arteries (Coronary artery
disease)
Type of angina that occurs
during vasospasm of a
coronary artery
Prolonged chest pain,
unrelieved by rest, normal
cardiac biomarkers
Expected light microscopy
findings 30 minutes to 4
hours post-MI
Time where early coagulative
necrosis is observed in the
myocardium
Most common cause of death
within 3-7 days post-MI
Most common cause of death
within the first 24 hours
post-MI
Granulation tissue formation
is expected at this time postMI
Unexpected death from
cardiac causes either without
symptoms, or within 1 to 24
hours of symptom onset
Most common cause of
sudden cardiac death
Prinzmetal angina
Unstable angina
None or myocardial
waviness
12-24 hours
Myocardial rupture
Arrhythmia
7-10 days
Sudden cardiac death
Coronary artery disease
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
QUESTIONS
Most common mechanism of
sudden cardiac death
Etiology of left-sided
hypertensive heart disease
Minimum Pathologic criteria
of left-sided HHD
Etiology of right-sided
hypertensive heart disease
Most common cause of rightsided HHD
A 65-year-old hypertensive
patient presents with
dyspnea. PE revealed (+)
early diastolic murmur on 2nd
ICS, right parasternal border,
wide pulse pressure, and (+)
De Musset sign, headbobbing synchronous with
arterial pulse
ANSWERS
Arrhythmia (asystole or
ventricular fibrillation)
Systemic Hypertension
Concentric LVH with no
other cardiovascular
pathology AND
History/pathologic
evidence of hypertension
in other organs
Pulmonary hypertension
Left-sided heart failure
Aortic Regurgitation
Most common cause of aortic
stenosis
Age-related calcification of
normal or congenital
bicuspid aortic valves
Most common cause of mitral
regurgitation
Mitral valve prolapse
Microscoping finding seen in
mitral valve prolapse
Myxomatous degeneration
of spongiosa layer +
Attenuation of collagenous
fibrosa
Non-suppurative cardiac
sequelae of Group A
Streptococcal pharyngitis
Streptococcal antigen that
cross-reacts with cardiac selfantigens
Granulomatous cardiac
lesions composed of T cells,
plasma cells, and activated
macrophages in ARF
Activated plump
macrophages seen in Aschoff
bodies; also known as
“caterpillar cells” because of
the wavy, slender chromatin
Cardinal morphologic
changes in rheumatic heart
disease (RHD)
Most common cause of mitral
stenosis
Most common valve affected
in rheumatic heart disease
Hallmark lesion of infective
endocarditis
Microorganism associated
with acute infective
endocarditis in IV drug users
Most commonly isolated
microorganisms in subacute
infective endocarditis
Etiology of carcinoid heart
disease
Affected structures in
carcinoid heart disease
Type of endocarditis
associated with SLE
Acute rheumatic fever
(ARF)
M protein
Aschoff bodies
Anitschkow cells
Leaflet thickening,
commissural fusion and
shortening, and thickening
and fusion of the tendinous
cords
Rheumatic heart disease
Mitral valve
Vegetations
Staphylococcus aureus
Viridans Streptococci,
HACEK organisms
(HACEK: Haemophilus spp,
Aggregatibacter spp.,
Cardiobacterium spp., Eikenella
corrodens, Kingella spp.)
Bioactive substances (e.g.,
serotonin) produced by
carcinoid tumors in the
setting of massive liver
metastatic burden
Right heart valves
(Tricuspid), Endocardium
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
QUESTIONS
Pathogenesis of Marantic
endocarditis
Type of cardiomyopathy with
reduced ejection fraction
Types of cardiomyopathy
with preserved ejection
fraction
Most common type of
cardiomyopathy
Most common cause of
dilated cardiomyopathy
Type of cardiomyopathy
associated with alcohol and
iron excess, childbirth,
chronic anemia, and
hyperthyroidism
Left ventricular contractile
dysfunction after extreme
psychological stress
A young athlete died suddenly
with an unexplained cause of
death. Post-mortem
examination of the heart
showed disproportionate
thickening of the
interventricular septum relative
to the free wall.
Etiology of restrictive
cardiomyopathy
Most common helminthic
cause of myocarditis
Most common cause of
myocarditis in the US
A McCune-Albright syndrome
patient presents with fever,
left-sided weakness, dyspnea,
and pulmonary edema. 2Decho showed a pedunculated
mass in the left atrium. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
Most common primary tumor
of the adult heart
Most common primary tumor
of the adult heart
Beck triad of cardiac
tamponade
Intense pericarditis weeks
post-MI probably due to
antibodies against injured
pericardium
Most common type of acute
pericarditis
Most common cause of
hemorrhagic pericarditis
ANSWERS
Hypercoagulable state
→Thrombosis
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Restrictive
cardiomyopathy,
Hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Genetic
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
(Broken heart syndrome)
Hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy
Idiopathic, Amyloidosis,
Sarcoidosis, Radiationinduced fibrosis, Metastatic
tumors, Storage disease
Trichinella spiralis
Viruses (Coxsackie A/B,
enteroviruses)
Myxoma
Myxoma
Rhabdomyoma
↑ jugular venous pressure,
arterial hypotension,
muffled heart sounds
Dressler syndrome
Fibrinous/Serofibrinous
Malignant tumor
WHITE BLOOD CELLS, LYMPH
NODES, SPLEEN AND THYMUS
QUESTIONS
Most common cause of
neutropenia
Etiopathogenesis of
neutropenia in SLE
Type of leukopenia observed
in advanced HIV
Increased WBC count ( ≥
50×109/L) in the absence of
myeloproliferative neoplasm
A cytochemical stain used to
differentiate leukemoid
reaction from CML
ANSWERS
Drug toxicity
Immune destruction
Lymphopenia
Leukemoid reaction
Leukocyte alkaline
phosphatase (LAP)
(Normal LAP score in leukemoid
reaction; Low in CML)
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
For inquiries visit www.topnotchboardprep.com.ph or email us at topnotchmedicalboardprep@gmail.com
This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
For inquiries visit www.topnotchboardprep.com.ph or https://www.facebook.com/topnotchmedicalboardprep/
This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
QUESTIONS
Form of lymphadenitis in a
patient with rheumatoid
arthritis who present with
chronic painless lymph node
enlargement
Expansion of interfollicular
(T-cell) zones in lymph nodes
during a viral infection
A 7-year-old male presents
with pallor, recurrent
infections, and easy bruising.
CBC showed leukocytosis
with elevated bands, anemia,
and thrombocytopenia. What
is the most likely initial
diagnosis?
Most common cancer in
children
Immunostain used to identify
immature lymphoid process
A patient presented with the
following results: PBS - (+)
Auer rods, (+) Faggot cells.
Immunostain - (+) MPO
Hematologic emergency
associated with acute
promyelocytic leukemia
Most common leukemia in
adults in the Western world
Fragile lymphocytes that are
flattened in the process of
smearing blood of CLL
patients
Transformation of CLL to
Diffuse Large B-cell
Lymphoma
Etiology of Chronic Myeloid
Leukemia (CML)
A known CML patient refuses
to undergo treatment. 5 years
later, PBS showed ≥20%
blasts. Which phase is the
patient currently in?
Dry tap on bone marrow is
common in this type of
leukemia due to marrow
fibrosis or increased reticulin
fiber deposition;
Immunostain: (+) TRAP
Cells with Large, multiple
nuclei or single with multiple
lobes; each with nucleolus
(“Owl-eye nucleus”)
Reed-Sternberg cells are seen
in which type of lymphoma
Most common Hodgkin
Lymphoma subtype
Least common Hodgkin
Lymphoma subtype but has
the worst prognosis; seen in
HIV patients
Staging system used in the
prognosis of lymphoma
Type of non-Hodgkin
lymphoma (NHL) associated
with lymphomatous
polyposis of the GI tract
Most common form of
indolent NHL
ANSWERS
Follicular hyperplasia
Paracortical hyperplasia
QUESTIONS
Type of NHL with bimodal
distribution. Typical PBS
show starry sky pattern or
sheets of medium-sized
atypical lymphocytes) with
tingible body macrophages
Type of lymphocytes elevated
in Multiple Myeloma
Myeloma-defining events
Leukemia
Acute lymphoblastic
leukemia/lymphoma
Tdt (terminal
deoxynucleotidyl
transferase)
Acute myeloid leukemia
Disseminated intravascular
coagulation
Chronic lymphocytic
leukemia (CLL)
Smudge cells
Richter syndrome
t(9;22)→BCR::ABL1 fusion
(Tyrosine kinase)
Blast phase
Hairy cell leukemia
Protein detected in urine of
multiple myeloma patients
Serum protein
electrophoresis finding in
multiple myeloma
Hallmark of myelodysplastic
syndromes or defective
hematopoietic maturation
Common mutation in
myeloproliferative
neoplasms
Most likely diagnosis in a
patient with facial plethora
(redness). pruritus worsened
by bathing, and elevated Hgb
In primary myelofibrosis,
RBCs assume this teardropshaped poikilocyte due to
squeezing from fibrotic
marrow
Chronic venous congestion of
the spleen occurs in the
setting of
Thymic disorder seen in
DiGeorge Syndrome
Most common thymic
disorder associated with
myasthenia gravis
Most common thymic
epithelial tumor
Immune paraneoplastic
syndrome associated with
thymoma
Most common histology of
thymic carcinoma
Lymphocyte-depleted
(LDHL)
Ann-Arbor stage
Clinical features observed in
intravascular hemolysis
Hodgkin Lymphoma
Nodular sclerosis (NSHL)
Burkitt Lymphoma
Plasma cells
CRAB -HyperCalcemia,
Renal failure, Anemia,
Bone lesions
Bence-Jones protein
Monoclonal gammopathy
(IgG)
Dysplasia in one or more
myeloid lineages
JAK2 V617F mutation
Polycythemia vera
Dacryocyte
Liver cirrhosis
Thymic Aplasia
Thymic follicular
hyperplasia
Thymoma
Myasthenia gravis
Squamous cell carcinoma
RED BLOOD CELLS AND BLEEDING
DISORDERS
QUESTIONS
>95% of adult hemoglobin is
composed of this type
Variability in red cell size
Variability in red cell shape
Type of hemolytic anemia
that occurs due to inherent
defects in red cells
Type of hemolysis that occurs
in the spleen
Reed-Sternberg cells
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
HbA1/HbA (Adult
hemoglobin): α2β2
Anisocytosis
Poikilocytosis
Intrinsic hemolysis
Extravascular hemolysis
Hemoglobinemia,
Hemoglobinuria,
Hemosiderinuria
Viral infection associated
Parvovirus B19 infection
with aplastic crisis
Mantle cell lymphoma
Most likely diagnosis in a
patient presenting with
jaundice and gallstones; Lab
Hereditary Spherocytosis
Follicular lymphoma
findings include ↑ MCHC, ↑
RBC osmotic fragility
Diffuse Large B-cell
Most common NHL
Most common trigger of red
Lymphoma
cell hemolysis in G6PD
Infection
Type of NHL associated with
Marginal Zone Lymphoma
deficiency
chronic inflammatory
of Mucosa-Associated
Precipitated denatured
disorders such as H. pylori
Lymphoid Tissue
hemoglobin seen in G6PD
Heinz bodies
gastritis, Hashimoto
(MALToma)
deficiency
thyroiditis
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QUESTIONS
Having G6PD deficiency
and/or sickle cell trait is
protective against which
parasitic infection
Pattern of inheritance of
sickle cell anemia
Etiology of sickle cell anemia
Most common cause of
morbidity and mortality in
sickle cell anemia
Autosplenectomy causes
increased susceptibility to
which type of organisms
Beta-thalassemia syndrome
with 2 mutated β globin
genes in chromosome 11
Alpha-thalassemia syndrome
with 3 deleted α-globin gene
mutations
Alpha-thalassemia syndrome
with 4 deleted α-globin gene
mutations
Red cell surface proteins
absent in patients with
paroxysmal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria which
increases susceptibility to
complement-mediated lysis
Most common cause of
disease-related death in PNH
Most common form of
immunohemolytic anemia;
Associated with autoimmune
diseases (SLE), Lymphoid
neoplasms (CLL)
Type of antibody in WAIHA
Infections associated with
cold agglutinin disease
Type of antibody in CAD
Disease-causing antibody in
paroxysmal cold
hemoglobinuria, which is
common in children postviral infection
Possible deficient vitamins in
patients with megaloblastic
anemia
Gastrectomy and
autoimmune atrophic
gastritis causes vitamin B12
deficiency due to the absence
of
Parasite that competes with
vitamin B12 absorption
Features that differentiate
Vitamin B12 deficiency from
Vitamin B9 deficiency
DMARD used in the
management of RA that
causes Vitamin B9 deficiency
Most common nutritional
disorder in the world
Peptide hormone increased
in anemia of chronic disease
that prevents mobilization of
stored iron
BMA: Hypocellular marrow
with fat cells and scattered
lymphocytes and plasma
cells; CBC:Pancytopenia with
normocytic, normochromic
anemia
ANSWERS
Malaria
Autosomal recessive
Point mutation in the βglobin gene (glu→val)
Vaso-occlusive (Pain)
crises
encapsulated organisms (S.
pneumoniae and H.
influenzae)
β- thalassemia major
HbH disease
Hydrops fetalis
CD55, CD59
Venous thrombosis
Warm Autoimmune
Hemolytic Anemia
(WAIHA)
IgG active at 37°C
Mycoplasma pneumoniae,
EBV, CMV, HIV
IgM active below 37°C
IgG anti-P (DonathLandsteiner antibody)
Vitamin B12, B9
Intrinsic factor
Diphyllobothrium latum
(+) neurologic symptoms
due to subacute combined
degeneration of spinal cord
+ ↑ methylmalonate
(normal in Vit B9
deficiency)
Methotrexate (a folate
antagonist)
Iron deficiency anemia
Hepcidin
Aplastic anemia
QUESTIONS
Most common cause of
aplastic anemia
(+) Parvovirus B19
infection/autoimmune
disease; BMA: Absent
erythroblasts with normal
granulocytic and
megakaryocytic lineages
Space-occupying lesions
displace bone marrow
elements
Most common cause of secondary
myelophthisic anemia
A 5-year-old patient presents
with multiple petechiae. He
had a URTI 3 days ago and
has no significant medical
history. CBC: Low platelets
Etiology of immune
thrombocytopenic purpura
Form of ITP that is more
common in adults and is
associated with SLE, HIV, CLL
Thrombotic disease that
occurs due to decreased
ADAMTS13 level or activity
Action of ADAMTS12
Causative agent of typical
hemolytic uremic syndrome
Autosomal recessive
inherited GPIb/IX deficiency;
defective platelet adhesion
Autosomal recessive
inherited GPIIb/IIIa
deficiency; defective platelet
aggregation
Most common inherited
bleeding disorder
ANSWERS
Drugs
Pure red cell aplasia
Myelophthisic anemia
Metastasis
Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura (ITP)
Anti-GPIIb-IIIa and GPIb-IX
(80%) IgG
Chronic ITP
Thrombotic
thrombocytopenic purpura
(TTP)
Degrades von Willebrand
factor (vWF) multimers
E. coli O157:H7
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
/ Giant Platelet Syndrome
Glanzmann
Thrombasthenia
Von Willebrand Disease
Clinical and laboratory
features of VWD
Mucocutaneous>Internal
bleeding, ↑ BT, ↑ aPTT,
Normal PT
Most common hereditary
disease associated with lifethreatening bleeding
Hemophilia
Christmas Disease
Most common adverse
transfusion reaction
Most common reaction in
platelet transfusions
Transfusion-transmitted
infections are more common
in this blood product due to
its storage at room
temperature
Hemophilia B (Factor IX
deficiency)
Febrile non-hemolytic
anemia
Allergic reactions
Platelet concentrate
LUNG AND PLEURA
QUESTIONS
Type of atelectasis due to
airway obstruction
Type of atelectasis associated
with fluid, air, or mass inside
the pleural cavity
Type of atelectasis that occurs
as a result of
pulmonary/pleural fibrosis
Abrupt onset of hypoxemia
and bilateral pulmonary
edema in the absence of heart
failure
Histologic hallmark for the
acute phase of acute
respiratory distress
syndrome
ANSWERS
Resorption atelectasis
Compression atelectasis
Contraction atelectasis
Acute lung injury
Diffuse Alveolar Damage
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QUESTIONS
Irreversible enlargement of
airspaces distal to terminal
bronchiole
Type of emphysema
associated with smoking
Type of emphysema
associated with α-1antitrypsin deficiency
Type of emphysema
associated with spontaneous
pneumothorax in young
adults
Persistent cough with sputum
production for at least 3
months in at least 2
consecutive years in the
absence of any other cause
Ratio of thickness of the
mucus gland layer to the wall
thickness
Chronic inflammatory airway
disease that produces
episodic variable expiratory
airflow obstruction
Extruded mucus plugs seen in
sputum examination of
asthmatic patients
Microscopic crystals made up
of galectin-10 from
eosinophils
A known cystic fibrosis
patient presents with severe,
persistent cough with foulsmelling mucopurulent
sputum. Episodes of
hemoptysis were also noted.
What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Bronchiectasis, Sinusitis, Situs
inversus, Sperm dysmotility
Clinicopathologic syndrome
marked by progressive
interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
and respiratory failure; (+)
Honeycomb fibrosis
Most important
environmental factor of IPF
Black discoloration of the
bronchi due to carbon
deposits; accentuated in coal
workers’ pneumoconiosis
Most common
pneumoconiosis and chronic
occupational disease
worldwide; (+) Eggshell
calcifications in lymph nodes
Hallmark of silicosis
ANSWERS
Emphysema
Centriacinar
Panacinar
Distal acinar (Paraseptal)
Chronic bronchitis
Reid index
Asthma
Curschmann's spiral
Charcot-Leyden crystals
Bronchiectasis
Kartagener syndrome
Idiopathic pulmonary
fibrosis (IPF)
Cigarette smoking
Anthracosis
Silicosis
Whorled collagen fibers
surrounded by dust-laden
macrophages
QUESTIONS
Most common cause of
community- acquired acute
pneumonia and lobar
pneumonia
Most common cause of Gramnegative bacterial
pneumonia; (+) Currant jelly
sputum
Bacteria associated with
hospital-acquired infections,
cystic fibrosis and
neutropenic patients
Viral pneumonia linked to
Parkinson's disease later in
life
Stage of lobar pneumonia
where the lungs are heavy
and boggy; Vascular
engorgement, intra-alveolar
fluid with few neutrophils,
numerous bacteria
Stage of lobar pneumonia
where the lungs are red, firm,
airless with a liver-like
consistency. (+) intra alveolar
PMNs, RBCs, fibrin
Microscopic finding of the
lungs in viral pneumonia
Most common cause of lung
abscess
Most common site of lung
abscess
Most common primary lung
tumor
Most common symptom of
lung cancer
Type of lung carcinoma
associated with
paraneoplastic syndromes;
strongest association with
smoking
Most common histologic type
of lung cancer; most common
type in never smokers;
peripheral in location
Most common mutation of
lung adenocarcinoma in nonsmokers
Type of lung cancer that is
central in location; (+)
keratinization, keratin pearls,
intercellular bridges
IHC stains positive in
carcinoid tumor
Cannon-ball lesions or
multiple discrete lesions in
the lung is typical of
Most common cause of noninflammatory transudative
effusions
Mechanism of pleural effusion
in CHF
Type of effusion associated
with radiation, autoimmune
disease, uremia
Type of effusion associated
with thoracic duct trauma
Pneumothorax sufficient to
cause circulatory collapse due
to compression of mediastinal
structures
Type of pneumothorax that
occur due to rupture of
subpleural blebs in young
patients
ANSWERS
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumonia
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Influenza virus type A
Congestion
Red Hepatization
Interstitial mononuclear
inflammation
Aspiration
Right lower lobe
Lung carcinoma
Cough
Small cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
EGFR mutation
Squamous cell carcinoma
Synaptophysin,
Chromogranin
Metastatic neoplasm
Congestive heart failure
Most common manifestation
Pleural plaques
of asbestosis
↑Capillary hydrostatic
Golden brown rods with
pressure
translucent core containing
Asbestos bodies
Serous, serofibrinous,
asbestos coated with an ironfibrinous
protein complex
X-ray finding in sarcoidosis
Bilateral hilar adenopathy
Chylous
Mean pulmonary artery
Pulmonary hypertension
pressure ≥ 25 mm Hg at rest
WHO classification of
Tension pneumothorax
pulmonary HTN secondary to
Group 2
heart failure
WHO classification of
pulmonary HTN secondary to
Group 3
Spontaneous idiopathic
lung disease or hypoxia
pneumothorax
WHO classification of
pulmonary HTN secondary to
Group 1
Secondary tumors (common
Most common pleural tumors
thromboembolism
sources: lung, breast)
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HEAD AND NECK
QUESTIONS
Most common cause of tooth
loss < 35 years old
Associated conditions with
recurrent/persistent
aphthous ulcers
Most common fungal
infection of oral cavity
White pseudomembrane that
can be scraped off
A white patch or plaque that
cannot be scraped off and
cannot be characterized
clinically or pathologically as
any other disease
Most common head and neck
cancer
Etiology of oral cavity SCCa
Most common site of local
metastasis of oral cavity SCCa
Etiology of oropharyngeal
SCCa
Odontogenic cysts located in
impacted/unerupted tooth
Condition associated with
multiple odontogenic
keratocyst
Odontogenic cyst associated
with history of dental
caries/trauma; location: apex
of non-viable tooth
Most common odontogenic
tumor
A patient presents with a
mass on the right mandible
in the posterior molar area.
Biopsy: epithelial cells
palisading around a stellate
reticulum.
Most common cause of
bacterial
pharyngitis/tonsillitis
An adolescent male presents
with recurrent epistaxis and
nasal obstruction. A mass
was seen in the posterior
roof of the nasal cavity.
Virus associated with
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(NPCA)
Most common location of
NPCA
Most radiosensitive type of
NPCA
Laryngeal lesion associated
with voice abuse
Most common benign
laryngeal epithelial tumor
Etiology of laryngeal
papilloma
Common bacterial causes of
acute otitis media
ANSWERS
Dental caries
Celiac disease,
Inflammatory bowel
disease, Behçet disease,
immunocompromised
Candida albicans
Thrush
Leukoplakia
Squamous cell carcinoma
Tobacco, Alcohol, Betel
chewing, Sunlight, Pipe
smoking
Cervical lymph nodes
High-risk HPV
Dentigirous cyst
Gorlin syndrome (Nevoid
basal cell carcinoma
syndrome)
Radicular cyst
Odontoma
Ameloblastoma
Group A beta-hemolytic
streptococci (GABHS)
Sinonasal tract
angiofibroma
Epstein-Barr virus
Rosenmuller fossa
Undifferentiated NPCA
Reactive nodules
Squamous papilloma
Low-risk HPV (6 and 11)
QUESTIONS
Salivary gland lesions that
occurs following sublingual
duct damage
Most common viral
sialadenitis
Bacterial sialadenitis can
occur in the presence of
Most common salivary gland
tumor
Salivary gland tumor
associated with smoking;
Morphology: papillary
structures with central
lymphoid stroma covered by
double layer of oncocytic
cells
Most common primary
malignant salivary gland
tumor
Most common location of
pleomorphic adenoma,
mucoepidermoid carcinoma,
and Warthin tumor
A cancer arising from a
primary or recurrent
pleomorphic adenoma
Most common location of
adenoid cystic carcinoma
Most common form of
adenoid cystic carcinoma
ANSWERS
Ranula
Mumps
Sialolithiasis
Pleomorphic adenoma or
benign mixed tumor
Warthin Tumor
Mucoepidermoid
carcinoma
Parotid gland
Carcinoma ex pleomorphic
adenoma
Minor (palatine) glands
Cribriform
GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
QUESTIONS
Most common type of
tracheoesophageal fistula
with esophageal atresia
A neonate presents with
recurrent vomiting. Maternal
history: polyhydramnios;
Imaging: double-bubble sign
Most common congenital
intestinal atresia
Sequela of herniation
abdominal contents into
thoracic cavity in
diaphragmatic hernia
Herniation of visceral organs
(intestines, liver) enclosed in
a sac through a large
umbilical ring
Herniation of visceral organs
(intestines) directly into the
amniotic cavity, (-) sac
Functional tissues in unusual
locations, which can cause
disease
Most common true
diverticulum and congenital
anomaly of the GI tract
Rule of 2 in Meckel
diverticulum
S. pneumoniae, H.
influenzae, M. catarrhalis
2nd branchial arch
remnant
Drugs (Anticholinergics,
Antihistamines,
Antipsychotics,
Antidepressants)
ANSWERS
Type C (distal TEF with
proximal esophageal
atresia)
Duodenal atresia
Imperforate anus
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Omphalocele
Gastroschisis
Ectopia/heterotopia
Meckel diverticulum
Most symptomatic < 2 y.o.,
within 2 feet from ileocecal
valve, 2 inches in length,
M:F (2:1), present in 2% of
population
(+) recurrent non-bilious
vomiting, regurgitation; (+)
Congenital Hypertrophic
Origin of branchial cleft cyst
olive-shaped abdominal
Pyloric Stenosis
mass
Antibiotic associated with
Most common cause of
congenital hypertrophic
Macrolides
xerostomia
pyloric stenosis
Absence of ganglion cells in
Most common inflammatory
Mucocele
the affected GI tract segment;
salivary gland lesion
constricted diseased segment
Hirschsprung disease
+ dilated normal proximal
segment
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QUESTIONS
Most common esophageal
functional obstruction
A patient presents with
dysphagia. Barium studies
reveal a corkscrew esophagus.
False diverticula above the
upper esophageal sphincter,
(+) halitosis, regurgitation
Triad of dysphagia, irondeficiency anemia, upper
esophageal webs
A patient presents with
dysphagia. Manometry
reveals incomplete LES
relaxation, ↑ LES sphincter
tone, aperistalsis
Etiopathogenesis of primary
achalasia
Parasitic infection that can
cause secondary achalasia
Intestinal metaplasia within
the esophageal epithelium
(squamous → columnar with
goblet cells)
A patient presents with
hematemesis, severe
vomiting/retching following
binge drinking.
Spontaneous rupture of the
esophagus resulting into
leakage of contents into the
mediastinum → mediastinitis
(chest pain)
Most common cause of
esophageal varices
Most dreaded complication
of esophageal varices
Usual site of esophageal
squamous cell carcinoma
Risk factors for esophageal
squamous b cell carcinoma
Usual site of esophageal
adenocarcinoma
Risk factors for esophageal
adenocarcinoma
Pathogenesis of NSAIDinduced gastritis
Proximal duodenal ulcers in
burns
Esophageal, gastric, and
duodenal ulcers in patients with
↑ intracranial pressure (ICP)
Most common organism
associated with chronic
gastritis, peptic ulcer disease,
and gastric cancer
Enzyme produced by H.
pylori that increases
ammonia production which
raises intragastric pH
Conditions associated with
autoimmune atrophic
gastritis
Antibodies present in
autoimmune atrophic
gastritis
Most common complication
of peptic ulcer disease
Most common gastric
malignancy
A diffusely infiltrative type of
gastric cancer marked by
thickened, rigid gastric wall
with flattened rugae
ANSWERS
Nutcracker esophagus
Diffuse esophageal spasm
Zenker or
Pharyngoesophageal
diverticulum
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Achalasia
Degeneration of nitric
oxide-producing neurons
Trypanosoma cruzi
infection
Barrett esophagus
Mallory-Weiss Tear
Boerhaave syndrome
Liver cirrhosis due
alcoholic liver disease
Bleeding
Middle third
↓ Fruit/Vegetable diet, Hot
drinks, HPV, Caustic injury,
Achalasia, Plummer-Vinson
syndrome
Distal third
Chronic GERD, Smoking,
Radiation
↓ Synthesis of mucosal
protective prostaglandins
Curling ulcers
Cushing ulcers
QUESTIONS
Only malignancy that can be
cured by antibiotics
Most common site of
neuroendocrine neoplasms
Most common abdominal
mesenchymal tumor
Origin of GIST
Overall most common cause
of intestinal obstruction
Most common cause of
intestinal obstruction in
children <2 years
Usual sites of ischemic bowel
diseases
Most important risk factor
for thrombosis in ischemic
bowel disease
A patient presents with
chronic diarrhea, worsened
by gluten intake. Intestinal
biopsy: villous atrophy +
crypt hyperplasia
Pruritic blistering lesion
associated with celiac disease
Hallmark of Crohn Disease
Inflammatory bowel disease
with marked pseudopolyp
formation, higher malignant
potential and toxic
megacolon incidence
Role of smoking and
appendectomy in Crohn
disease
False diverticula in the
sigmoid colon that presents
with painless lower GI bleed;
common in elderly
population
Type of colorectal adenoma
with highest malignant
potential
Most important
characteristic that relates to
malignancy risk of colorectal
adenoma
Autosomal dominant
condition associated with
>100 colorectal polyps and
mutation in APC, “gatekeeper
of colonic neoplasia”
Extracolonic tumors seen in
Lynch syndrome
ANSWERS
MALT Lymphoma (H. pylori
eradication)
GIT, particularly small
intestine
Gastrointestinal stromal
tumor (GIST)
Interstitial cells of Cajal
Hernia
Intussusception
Colon (watershed areas:
splenic flexure,
rectosigmoid)
Atherosclerosis
Celiac disease
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Non-caseating granulomas
Ulcerative colitis
Increases risk
Diverticular disease
Villous adenoma
Size (>4cm)
Familial adenomatous
polyposis
Endometrial, Ovarian,
Urothelial, Pancreatic,
Brain, Skin
(+) Mucocutaneous
pigmentation, (+) Multiple
Peutz-Jegher syndrome
Helicobacter pylori
hamartomatous GI polyps
Most common malignancy of
Colorectal adenocarcinoma
the GI tract
Laterality of colon cancer
Urease
that presents as polypoid
Right-sided
exophytic mass, and irondeficiency anemia
Type 1 DM, Hashimoto
Laterality of colon cancer
thyroiditis, Addison
that presents as annular
disease, Graves disease
“napkin-ring” constriction,
Antibodies against H+-K+changes in bowel habits due
Left-sided
ATPase (proton pump) and
to obstruction, and apple
intrinsic factor (IF)
core deformity in barium
Bleeding
studies
Most common site of distant
Liver
Gastric adenocarcinoma
metastasis from colon cancer
Functional GI disorder
characterized by recurrent
Proctalgia fugax
Linitis plastica
sharp, fleeting anorectal pain
Most common cause of
Fecalith
appendicitis
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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QUESTIONS
Most common appendiceal
tumor
Malignant clinical syndrome
characterized by mucinous
ascites secondary to a
mucinous neoplasm in the
appendix or ovaries
ANSWERS
Carcinoid tumor
Pseudomyxoma peritonei
LIVER, GALLBLADDER, PANCREAS
QUESTIONS
Pathologic effects of
reversible injury to the liver
Deeply eosinophilic
apoptotic bodies seen in viral
hepatitis
ANSWERS
Steatosis, Cholestasis,
Ballooning
Acidophil bodies in Yellow fever
patients
Councilman body
Liver enzyme specific to the
liver
Most severe form of liver
disease (80-90%
parenchymal loss)
Most common drug causing
acute liver failure
Alanine transaminase
(ALT)
Microscopic finding in liver
cirrhosis
Signs of hyperestrogenemia
in cirrhosis
Most common intrahepatic
cause of portal HTN
Etiology of hepatic
encephalopathy
Hyperdynamic circulation
causes renal hypoperfusion
→ RAAS activation →
Systemic vasoconstriction
→↓GFR
Most common cause of
chronic viral hepatitis
Hepatitis viruses transmitted
via the fecal-oral route
Hepatitis viruses transmitted
via the parenteral route
Histologic hallmark of HBV
Histologic findings of the
liver in HCV infection
Duration of chronic hepatitis
infection
A teenage woman presents
with fatigue and jaundice.
She is a non-alcoholic
drinker. Labs: (-) hepatitis
profile, ↑ IgG, AST, ALT. Liver
biopsy reveals fibrosis,
lymphocytes + plasma cells
within hepatocytes, rosette
formation of hepatocytes
around dilated canaliculi
Conditions associated
autoimmune hepatitis
Acidophil body
Liver failure
Acetaminophen
Parenchymal nodules
surrounded by dense
bands of fibrosis (scarring)
Palmar erythema, Spider
angioma, Gynecomastia in
males
Cirrhosis
Impaired detoxification of
NH3
Hepatorenal Syndrome
QUESTIONS
Protein that binds copper;
low in Wilson Disease
Green to brown deposits in
descemet membrane in
corneal limbus in Wilson
disease patients
Most common diagnosed
inherited hepatic disorder in
infants and children
Cancer associated with
Wilson disease, hereditary
hemochromatosis, alpha-1antitrypsin deficiency
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
with autosomal recessive
pattern of inheritance
MRP2 mutation with dark
discoloration of the liver
Enzyme that is absent or
deficient in unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia
Charcot triad in ascending
cholangitis
Persistent jaundice beyond
14-21 days after birth
Autoimmune cholangiopathy
associated with Sjö gren
syndrome, Hashimoto
Thyroiditis, scleroderma
Autoantibody positive in
95% of PBC patients
Hepatitis A and E virus
Hepatitis B, C, and D virus
Ground glass hepatocytes
Lymphoid
aggregates/follicles, Bile
duct injury, Steatosis
>6 months
Kayser-Fleischer ring
α-1-antitrypsin
deficiency
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Dubin-Johnson syndrome,
Rotor syndrome
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
UGT1A1
Fever, jaundice, RUQ pain
Neonatal cholestasis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
(PBC)
AMA
Primary sclerosing
cholangitis (SPC)
Autoantibody positive in
65% of PSC patients
ANCA
Characteristic microscopic
finding of bile ducts in PSC
Congenital dilatation of the
common bile duct
Disorder characterized by
hepatic vein outflow
obstruction either
thrombotic or nonthrombotic in origin
Benign hepatic tumor with
well-circumscribed,
unencapsulated, with central
stellate scar
Conditions associated with
hepatocellular adenoma
Autoimmune hepatitis
Ceruloplasmin
Autoimmune cholangiopathy
associated with IBD (UC)
Radiologic finding in PSC
Hepatitis C virus
ANSWERS
Most common primary liver
malignancy
Tumor marker for HCC
Most common location of
extrahepatic
cholangiocarcinoma
Most common malignant
tumor of the liver
Most common benign liver tumor
Most common liver tumor of
early childhood
Most common biliary tract
disease
Beading of contrast
medium
Onion-skin fibrosis and
stricture
Choledochal cysts
Budd-Chiari syndrome
Focal nodular hyperplasia
Obesity, metabolic
syndrome, OCP and
anabolic steroid use
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
(HCC)
α-fetoprotein (AFP)
Junction of right and left
hepatic ducts (Klatskin
tumor)
Type 1 DM, Thyroiditis,
Celiac sprue
Metastatic tumors
vANA, Anti-Smooth muscle
Cavernous hemangioma
actin (Anti-SM/SMA), AntiDiagnostic antibodies in type
soluble liver antigen/liverHepatoblastoma
1 autoimmune hepatitis
pancreas antigen (AntiSLA/LPA), AntiCholelithiasis
mitochondrial (AMA)
Female sex, Estrogen
cAnti-liver kidney
Risk factors for cholelithiasis
exposure, Obesity, Rapid
Diagnostic antibodies in type
microsome-1 (Anti-LKM-1)
weight loss, Advancing age
2 autoimmune hepatitis
against CYP2D6, Anti-liver
Hemolysis, Ileal
cytosol-1 (Anti-ACL-1)
dysfunction/bypass, Biliary
Cirrhosis, diabetes
Etiology of pigment stones
Classic triad of
tract infections (E. coli,
mellitus, skin pigmentation
hemochromatosis
Ascaris, Clonorchis)
“bronze skin”
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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QUESTIONS
Most common cause of acute
and chronic cholecystitis
Mucosal outpouching GB in
chronic cholecystitis
Extensive dystrophic
calcification of the GB wall
Most important risk factor
for gallbladder carcinoma
Most common congenital
anomaly of the pancreas
Patients with pancreatic
divisum are at risk for
Metabolic disorders that
cause acute pancreatitis
A more specific marker for
acute pancreatitis
Most common cause of
chronic pancreatitis
Clinical features associated
with chronic pancreatitis
Most common outcome of
pancreatic pseudocyst
Most common location of
pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Most important
environmental risk factor for
pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Paraneoplastic syndrome
associated with pancreatic
adenocarcinoma
Tumor marker elevated in
pancreatic adenocarcinoma
ANSWERS
Gallstones
Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
Porcelain gallbladder
Gallstones
Pancreatic divisum
Chronic pancreatitis
↑ Triglycerides,
Hypercalcemia
Lipase
Long-term alcohol abuse
Abdominal pain, pancreatic
insufficiency malabsorption, diabetes
mellitus
Regression
Head
Smoking
Trousseau syndrome
(migratory superficial vein
thrombophlebitis)
CA 19-9
KIDNEY
QUESTIONS
Hematuria, azotemia,
variable proteinuria, edema,
and hypertension
>3.5 g/day proteinuria,
hypoalbuminemia,
hyperlipidemia, lipiduria
Azotemia→Uremia
progressing for months to
years
Most common cause of
nephritic syndrome in
children
Electron microscopy finding
in PSGN
Antibody tests used to aid in
the diagnosis of PSGN
Syndrome of progressive loss
of renal function
characterized by nephritic
syndrome often with severe
oliguria
Hallmark of RPGN in light
microscopy
Etiology of Type I RPGN
Etiology of Type II RPGN
Etiology of Type II RPGN
A 20-year-old male smoker
presents with hemoptysis
and hematuria. Lab findings
include elevated creatinine,
urea; (+) anti-GBM antibodies
Most common cause of
nephrotic syndrome in
children
ANSWERS
Nephritic syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome
Chronic renal failure
Post-streptococcal acute
glomerulonephritis
Subepithelial humps on
GBM
Antistreptolysin O
(pharyngeal infection),
anti-DNase B (pyoderma)
Rapidly progressive
glomerulonephritis
(RPGN)
Crescents - proliferating
parietal epithelial cells +
Infiltrating leukocytes
anti-GBM antibodies
Immune complexmediated
ANCA
Goodpasture syndrome
Minimal change disease
(MCD)
QUESTIONS
Alternative term for MCD
attributed to the lipid and
protein-laden proximal
tubule cells
Conditions associated with
MCD in adults
Drugs associated with
membranous nephropathy
Infections associated with
membranous nephropathy
Electron microscopy findings
in membranous nephropathy
Most common cause of
nephrotic syndrome in adults
in the US
Also known as “dense deposit
disease” due to the
permeation of extremely
electron-dense structure in
the lamina densa
Most common type of
glomerulonephritis
worldwide; Clinical features
include hematuria during or
immediately after a GIT/GUT
infection
Alternative term for IgA
nephropathy
A child presents with
hematuria, joint pains,
abdominal pain, and purpuric
rash on buttocks and
extensor surfaces of arms and
legs. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A male patient presents with
hematuria, sensorineural
deafness, and lens
dislocation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
Characteristic electron
microscopy finding of the
kidney in Alport syndrome
Most common cause of acute
kidney injury
Endogenous substances that
can cause toxic acute tubular
necrosis (ATN)
Distribution of necrosis and
length of affected segment in
ischemic ATN
Distribution of necrosis and
length of affected segment in
toxic ATN
Affected segments in
ischemic ATN
Affected segments in toxic
ATN
ANSWERS
Lipoid nephrosis
Lymphoma, leukemia
Penicillamine, Captopril,
Gold, NSAIDs
Chronic HBV, HCV, Syphilis,
Schistosomiasis, Malaria
Spike and Dome
appearance: Subepithelial
deposits EM along GBM;
Effacement of foot
processes
Focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis
Membranoproliferative
glomerulonephritis type II
IgA nephropathy
Berger disease
Henoch-Schönlein Purpura
(HSP)
Alport Syndrome
Basket weave appearance
of GBM: Pronounced
splitting and lamination of
lamina densa
Acute tubular
injury/necrosis
Hemoglobin, Myoglobin, Ig
light chains, Bilirubin
Patchy, short
Extensive, long
Proximal straight tubule,
ascending limb of Henle’s
loop
Proximal convoluted
tubule, ascending limb of
Henle’s loop
A patient was treated with oral
TMP-SMX for her UTI. On day 8 of
treatment, she developed fever,
maculopapular rash, and
eosinophilia. Creatinine was 1.9
mg/dL (baseline SCr 0.7 mg/dL).
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute drug-induced
interstitial nephritis
Drugs associated with acute
drug-induced interstitial
nephritis
Sulfonamides,
Methicillin/Ampicillin,
Rifampin, Thiazides,
NSAIDs, allopurinol,
cimetidine, checkpoint
inhibitors
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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QUESTIONS
Most common causative
agent of UTI
ANSWERS
Eschierichia coli
Tubular changes seen in
chronic pyelonephritis
Thyroidization and
atrophy
Etiology of nephrosclerosis or
sclerosis of renal
arterioles/small arteries
Extravasation of plasma
proteins and basement
membrane matrix deposition
Most common cause of renal
artery stenosis
Most likely cause of renal
artery stenosis in a 30-yearold female
Most common etiology of
renal infarct
Type of infarct observed in
ischemia of the kidneys
Blood vessel compressed in
Nutcracker Syndrome
Blood vessels compressing
the left renal vein in
Nutcracker Syndrome
Anomalies associated with
autosomal dominant
polycystic kidney disease
(ADPKD)
Most common cause of death
in ADPKD patients
Anomalies associated with
autosomal recessive
polycystic kidney disease
(ARPKD)
Most common cause of death
in ARPKD patients
Advancing age,
Hypertension, Diabetes
mellitus
Clinical feature/s of bilateral
partial urinary tract
obstruction
Clinical feature/s of bilateral
complete urinary tract
obstruction
Most common type of urolith
Most important determinant
of urolith formation
Type of renal stone formed in
basic pH, has a coffin-lid
appearance and is associated
with Proteus infection
Type of renal stone occupying
the renal pelvis or calyces
Renal stones formed in acidic
pH
Type of renal stone associated
with diseases with rapid cell
turnover such as leukemia
Most common malignant
tumor of the kidneys
Classic triad of renal cell
carcinoma
Most important risk for for
renal cell carcinoma
>50% of renal cell carcinoma
cases metastasize in which organ
Most common histologic type
of renal cell carcinoma;
associated with Von HippelLindau
Psammoma bodies may be
present in this histologic type
of renal cell carcinoma
LOWER URINARY TRACT AND
MALE GENITAL TRACT
QUESTIONS
Most common cause of
hydronephrosis in infants
and children
Most common and serious
congenital anomaly of the
urinary bladder
Hyalinization
Sequelae of bladder
exstrophy
Atherosclerosis
Partial patency of the
urachus result in the
formation of
Cancer associated with
urachal cyst and intestinal
metaplasia of the urinary
bladder
Most common cause of acute
cystitis
Viruses associated with
hemorrhagic cystitis
Commonly associated drug
with hemorrhagic cystitis
Polypoid cystitis is
commonly associated with
Type of urinary bladder
cancer linked to Schistosoma
haematobium infection
Most common bladder tumor
Most important risk factor
for urothelial tumor
formation
A 4-year-old female presents
with painless hematuria,
frequency and recurrent UTI.
Imaging revealed
hydronephrosis and a grapelike lesion inside the urinary
bladder. What is the most
likely initial diagnosis?
Most common urinary
bladder sarcoma in adults
Non-infectious urethritis
associated with
conjunctivitis and arthritis
Fibromuscular dysplasia
Embolism (from cardiac
mural thrombus)
White infarct
Left renal vein
Superior mesenteric artery
(anterior), abdominal
aorta (posterior)
Liver cysts, Intracranial
berry aneurysms, Mitral
valve prolapse
Coronary or Hypertensive
heart disease
Congenital hepatic fibrosis
in patients who survive
infancy
Renal failure in infancy
Impaired urine
concentrating ability
(Nocturia, Polyuria),
Hypertension
Oliguria, Anuria
Calcium stones
Supersaturation
Magnesium Ammonium
Phosphate (Struvite)
stones
Staghorn calculi
Calcium oxalate, Uric acid,
Cystine stones
Uric acid
Renal cell carcinoma
Hematuria, Flank Pain,
Mass
Smoking
Lung
Clear Cell Renal cell
carcinoma
Papillary Renal cell
carcinoma
Common infectious etiology
of urethritis
Type of carcinoma seen in
the proximal urethra
Type of carcinoma seen in
the distal urethra
Abnormal opening on the
ventral shaft of the penis
Associated disease with
hypospadia
Abnormal opening on the
dorsal shaft of the penis
Associated disease with
epispadia
Long-term consequence of
phimosis and balanoposthitis
Etiology of condyloma
acuminatum or genital warts
Perinuclear cytoplasmic
vacuolization of squamous
epithelial cells; indicative of
HPV infection
HPV-related penile
intraepithelial neoplasia
(PeIN)
PeIN associated with older
men. Lesion is solitary.
ANSWERS
Ureteropelvic junction
obstruction
Vesicoureteral reflux
Infections, Colonic
glandular metaplasia, ↑
risk of Adenocarcinoma
Urachal cyst
Adenocarcinoma
Coliforms (E. coli, Proteus,
Klebsiella, Enterobacter)
Adenovirus, BK virus
Cyclophosphamide
Indwelling catheter use
Squamous cell carcinoma
Urothelial tumors
Smoking
Embryonal
rhabdomyosarcoma
(Sarcoma botyroides)
Leiomyosarcoma
Reactive arthritis (Reiter
syndrome)
N. gonorrhoeae, C.
trachomatis, Ureaplasma
urealyticum
Urothelial carcinoma
HPV-related Squamous cell
carcinoma
Hypospadia
Cryptorchidism
Epispadia
Exstrophy of the bladder
↑ risk for penile cancer
Low-risk HPVs (HPV 6 >
HPV 11)
Koilocytosis/Koilocytic
change
Bowen disease, Bowenoid
papulosis
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Bowen disease
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QUESTIONS
PeIN associated with
younger men. Lesions are
multiple..
High-risk HPV types
HPV oncogenic viral product
that inactivates p53
HPV oncogenic viral product
that inactivates RB and
increases p16
Surrogate marker of HPV
infection
Most common site of arrest
in cryptorchidism
Type of cancer associated
with cryptorchidism
Common etiology of
epididymitis and orchitis in
childhood
Common etiology of
epididymitis and orchitis in
childhood
Epididymo-orchitis pattern
of involvement in
tuberculosis
Epididymo-orchitis pattern
of involvement in syphilis
Adolescents with a bell
clapper deformity of the
testis is at risk for this
urologic emergency
Most common cause of
painless testicular
enlargement
Most common testicular
tumor
Most common GCT
Prognosis of seminomatous
GCTs
Primary route of metastasis
of non-seminomatous GCTs
Tumor marker used to assess
testicular tumor burden
Most common testicular GCT
in infants and children up to
3 years
Central capillary surrounded
by tumor cells within a space
lined by tumor cells; seen in
yolk sac tumor
Elevated tumor marker in
choriocarcinoma
Most important predictor of
biologic behavior of teratoma
Sex-cord stromal tumor that
can elaborate androgens and
estrogens
Eosinophilic, rod-shaped
inclusions seen in the
microscopy of Leydig cell
tumors
Most common testicular
tumor in men > 60 years
A 50-year-old male presents
with fever, chills, dysuria. PE
showed tender, boggy
prostate on DRE. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
Most common form of
prostatitis
Most common benign
prostatic disease in men > 50
years old
ANSWERS
Bowenoid papulosis
HPV 16, 18, 31, and 33
E6
E7
QUESTIONS
Ultimate mediator of
prostatic growth formed by
Type 2 5-α-reductase
Most common site of nodular
prostatic hyperplasia
Risk factors for prostatic
adenocarcinoma
p16
Inguinal canal
Testicular germ cell tumors
on BOTH testes
Gram-negative rods
E. coli, Pseudomonas
Epididymis→Testis
Testis→Epididymis
Testicular torsion
Tumors
Germ cell tumors (GCT)
Seminoma
Favorable (radio- and
chemosensitive)
Hematogenous
Lactate dehydrogenase
(LDH)
Yolk sac tumor
Most common site of
prostatic adenocarcinoma
Gleason pattern with discrete
prostatic glands
Gleason pattern with no
gland formation observed
Computation of Gleason
score
Prostatic adenocarcinoma
produce blastic lesions on
the bones by spreading
hematogenously via the
Sites of distant metastasis of
prostate cancer in decreasing
order of frequency
(hematogenous route)
Screening for prostate
cancers starts at age
Reference range of PSA
Recommendation for a >75
y.o. patient with PSA >4
ng/mL and suspicious DRE
Sperm motility less than
reference value
Morphologically normal
spermatozoa percentage less
than reference value
Leydig cell tumor
Crystalloids of Reinke
Testicular lymphoma
Acute bacterial prostatitis
Chronic abacterial
prostatitis
Nodular prostatic
hyperplasia (NPH)
Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
Transition zone, Inner
periurethral zone
Advancing age, androgen
excess, race (African
Americans, family history
in 1st degree relatives,
inherited mutations,diet
(Charred meats, animal fat)
Peripheral zone
Gleason pattern 3
Gleason pattern 5
Most dominant pattern +
2nd most dominant pattern
Batson plexus
Lumbar spine, proximal
femur, pelvis, thoracic
spine, ribs
45
0-4 ng/mL
Biopsy
Asthenozoospermia
Teratozoospermia
FEMALE GENITAL TRACT
QUESTIONS
Most serious complication of
gonorrhea in women
Risk factors associated with
polymicrobial cause of PID
Schiller-Duval bodies
Human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG)
Age (prepubertal male benign; postpubertal malignant)
ANSWERS
Complications of chronic PID
Age at which a Bartholin cyst is
biopsied to rule out malignancy
Stage of syphilis where
condyloma lata appear
Most common histologic type
of carcinoma in the vulva
Etiology of septate vagina
Septate vagina and vaginal
adenosis are associated with in
utero exposure to which drug
Most common malignant
tumors of the vagina originate
from the
Most common site of primary
squamous cell carcinoma of the
vagina
Vaginal mass with grape-like
clusters protruding from the
vaginal orifice of an infant
Most common site of squamous
intraepithelial lesion (SIL)
ANSWERS
Pelvic inflammatory
disease (PID)
Induced abortion,
dilatation and curettage,
and surgical procedures
Infertility and tubal
obstruction, ectopic
pregnancy, pelvic pain,
and intestinal
obstruction
> 40 years
Secondary syphilis
Squamous cell carcinoma
Failure of Mullerian duct
fusion
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
Cervix
Posterior wall at
ectocervicovaginal
junction
Sarcoma botyroides
Transformation zone
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QUESTIONS
Basaloid cells and mitosis
within lower 1/3 of epithelium,
Koilocytic atypia
A 50-year-old female presents
with post-coital bleeding. On
examination, a finger-like mass
was seen on the cervical
introitus. Biopsy showed
fibrovascular stroma lined by
endocervical epithelium. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
Basaloid cells and mitosis to
upper 2/3 of epithelium
Full thickness basaloid cell
proliferation and mitosis
CIN classified as high-grade SIL
80% of cervical carcinomas are
of this histologic type
Most common cause of death
Cellular infiltrates identified in
chronic endometritis
Ectopic endometrial tissue
outside the uterus
Endometrial tissue in deep
myometrium
Cyst filled with old menstrual
blood due to ectopic
endometrial implants in the
ovaries
A patient on tamoxifen
presents with AUB. D&C was
performed. Pathology report
showed cystically dilated
glands in fibrous stroma.
Etiology of endometrial
hyperplasia without atypia
Etiology of atypical
endometrial hyperplasia and
endometrioid carcinoma
Most common invasive cancer
of the FGT
Type I endometrial carcinoma
histologic type/s
Type II endometrial carcinoma
histologic type/s
Most common histologic type
of endometrial carcinoma
Endometrioid carcinoma
associations
Serous carcinoma associations
Most common tumor in women
Diagnostic triad for uterine
leiomyosarcoma
Most common site of tubal
pregnancy
Serous tubal intraepithelial
carcinoma (STIC) is a precursor
to
A 30-year-old patient
complains of menstrual
irregularities, hirsutism and
acne. TVS showed bilaterally
enlarged ovaries with multiple
small follicles. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
Most common ovarian tumors
Most commonly benign surface
epithelial tumors
Most commonly malignant
surface epithelial tumors
ANSWERS
Low-grade SIL/Cervical
Intraepithelial Neoplasia
(CIN) 1
Endocervical polyp
CIN 2
CIN 3
CIN 2, 3
Squamous cell carcinoma
Complications of urinary
tract obstruction
Plasma cells
Endometriosis
Adenomyosis
Chocolate cyst or ovarian
endometrioma
Endometrial polyp
Prolonged estrogen
stimulation
PTEN loss/mutation
Endometrial carcinoma
Endometrioid
Serous, Clear cell,
Carcinosarcoma
Endometrioid carcinoma
Age 55-65 years, ↑
Estrogen, Hypertension,
DM, Obesity
Age 65-75 years,
Atrophic uterus, Thin
physique
Leiomyoma
Marked cell atypia,
tumor cell necrosis,
increased mitosis
Ampulla
Ovarian high-grade
serous carcinoma
Polycystic ovarian
syndrome or SteinLeventhal syndrome
Surface epithelial tumors
QUESTIONS
Elevated tumor markers in
surface epithelial tumors
Most common histologic type
of ovarian cancer
Mutated genes associated with
ovarian serous carcinoma
Protective factors for ovarian
serous carcinoma
Ovarian tumor with
transitional/urothelial-like
epithelium in a fibrous stroma
Tumors associated with
dermoid cysts and Brenner
tumor
Accumulation of mucinous
material within the
abdominopelvic cavity due to
mucin-secreting tumor cells
Ovarian counterpart of
seminoma
GCT predominant in children
and young women
GCT predominant in
reproductive age
Most common ovarian GCT
A subtype of teratoma
characterized by a cystic mass
lined by skin-like structures
Grading of immature teratoma
is based on the amount of
A patient with mature cystic
teratoma presents with
psychosis and seizures. What is
the paraneoplastic syndrome
associated with this tumor?
A postmenopausal woman
presents with AUB and a large
adnexal mass. She
consequently underwent
surgery. Pathology report
showed round/oval cells with
scant cytoplasm and nuclear
grooves (coffee bean nuclei).
Most metastatic tumors to the
ovary come from primary
tumors of
Signet ring cell carcinoma from
GIT metastatic to both ovaries
Abnormal gestations
characterized by hydropic villi
chorionic villi with
trophoblastic proliferation
Karyotype of partial mole
Karyotype of complete mole
Embryo/fetus, amnion, and
fetal RBCs are only present in
Uterine size larger for dates,
hCG levels >100,000 mIU/mL
and higher rate of subsequent
gestational trophoblastic
neoplasia
Ovarian cysts associated with
hydatidiform mole due to
elevated hCG
Most common gestational
trophoblastic neoplasm
Distant sites of metastasis of
gestational choriocarcinoma
ANSWERS
CA-125 and HE4
High-grade serous
carcinoma
BRCA1, BRCA2
40-59 years with OCP
intake or tubal ligation
Brenner tumor
Mucinous carcinoma
Pseudomyxoma
peritonei
Dysgerminoma
Immature teratomas,
Yolk sac tumor
Mature cystic teratomas,
Dysgerminomas
Mature cystic teratoma
Dermoid cyst
Neuroepithelium
Anti-NMDA receptor
encephalitis
Granulosa cell tumor
Mullerian origin (uterus,
fallopian tube,
contralateral ovary,
pelvic peritoneum)
Krukenberg tumor
Hydatidiform mole
Triploid (Diandric
triploidy - 2 Sperm + 1
Ovum)
Paternal-only diploidy
Partial Mole
Complete Mole
Theca-lutein cysts
Gestational
choriocarcinoma
Lungs > Vagina > Brain >
Liver > Bone > Kidney
Serous, mucinous
Endometrioid
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BREAST
QUESTIONS
Cells that are histologically
absent in invasive carcinomas
of the breast
A postpartum, nursing mother
developed fever accompanied
by pain and erythema of her
right breast. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
Fat necrosis of the breast
occurs following a
Fat necrosis occurs due to the
saponification of fat by this
enzyme
A patient with Hashimoto’s
thyroiditis complains of a
palpable left breast mass.
Biopsy showed lymphocytic
infiltrates and ductal and
lobular atrophy.
Proliferative breast diseases
without atypia
Cell adhesion molecule absent
in atypical lobular hyperplasia
or lobular neoplasia
Papillary fronds covered by
epithelial and myoepithelial
cells, growing within a dilated
duct; presents with bloody
nipple discharge
Histologic subtype of ductal
carcinoma in-situ (DCIS) that
has abundant central luminal
necrosis
Malignant epithelial cells in the
nipple-areola epidermis;
presents with eczematous
nipple lesion; associated with
invasive cancer or DCIS
Most common and deadly
malignancy of women globally
Most common genes implicated
for single gene familial breast
cancers (80-90%)
Gene more associated with
ovarian cancer and triplenegative breast cancer
Gene associated with male
breast cancer
Overexpression of this gene
implies poorer prognosis but is
more amenable to treatment
with trastuzumab
Most common type of invasive
breast carcinoma (IBC)
ANSWERS
Myoepithelial cells
Acute mastitis
History of breast
trauma/surgery
Tissue/blood lipase
Lymphocytic mastopathy
Usual ductal hyperplasia,
sclerosing adenosis,
complex sclerosing
lesion
E-cadherin
Intraductal papilloma
Comedo DCIS
Paget Disease of the
Breast
Invasive Breast
Carcinoma
BRCA1, BRCA2
BRCA1
BRCA2
HER2
Invasive breast
carcinoma of no special
type
QUESTIONS
Excess estrogen in males
produces this
unilateral/bilateral swelling of
the areola
Most important cause of
gynecomastia
Chromosomal disorder
associated with male breast
cancer
ANSWERS
Gynecomastia
Liver cirrhosis
Klinefelter syndrome
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
QUESTIONS
Infarction or hemorrhage of the
pituitary gland producing
sudden neurologic impairment
Most common cause of
hyperpituitarism
Most common
hyperfunctioning pituitary
tumor
Hyperfunctioning of this cell
type produces gigantism in
children and acromegaly in
adults
Development of large,
destructive pituitary adenomas
post-adrenalectomy for
Cushing syndrome
Pituitary macrotumors
measure
New term for pituitary
adenoma based on WHO 5th
edition
New term for pituitary
carcinoma based on WHO 5th
edition
Most common hormone
produced by functional
metastatic PitNET
Evidence of hypopituitarism
appear at this percentage of
parenchymal loss
Arachnoid and CSF herniate
through a sellar diaphragm
defect and compress the
pituitary
Postpartum hypopituitarism
caused by significant blood loss
after delivery
Type of lung cancer that
produces syndrome of
inappropriate ADH excess
Pathology in central diabetes
insipidus (DI)
ADH level, serum and urine
osmolality in central DI
ANSWERS
Pituitary apoplexy
Functioning anterior
pituitary neuroendocrine
tumor
(PitNET)/adenoma
Prolactinoma
Somatotroph (produces
GH)
Nelson syndrome
≥ 1 cm
Pituitary neuroendocrine
tumor (PitNET)
Metastatic pituitary
neuroendocrine tumor
ACTH
75%
Primary sella syndrome
Sheehan syndrome
Small cell lung carcinoma
ADH deficiency
ADH - Low; Serum Osm Normal to high; Urine
Osm - Low
Unresponsiveness of
renal tubules to ADH
ADH - High; Serum Osm Normal to high; Urine
Osm - Low
Special type of IBC with
Invasive lobular
discohesive cells assuming a
carcinoma
Pathology in nephrogenic DI
single file or ‘Indian filing’
Type of breast carcinoma
ADH level, serum and urine
where tumor cells plug dermal
Inflammatory carcinoma
osmolality in central DI
lymphatics producing a peau
d’orange appearance
Hypothalamic suprasellar
Most important prognostic
tumor derived from vestigial
factor of IBC in the absence of
Lymph node metastasis
remnants of the Rathke pouch,
Craniopharyngioma
distant metastasis
a diverticulum from the
Most common benign tumor of
embryonic buccal cavity
Fibroadenoma
the female breast
Histologic subtype of
Breast tumor composed of the
craniopharyngioma
proliferation of both epithelial
characterized by squamous
Adamanatinomatous
and stromal components with
Phyllodes tumor
epithelium with peripheral
leaf-like fronds protruding into
palisading, stellate reticulum,
cystically dilated spaces
Most common breast sarcoma
Angiosarcoma
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QUESTIONS
“wet” keratin or “machine oil”
fluid, dystrophic calcification
↑ T3/T4 → ↓ TSH
↑ TSH → ↑ T3/T4
One of the earliest and most
consistent features of
hyperthyroidism
Most common arrhythmia
encountered in
hyperthyroidism other than
sinus tachycardia
Autoantibodies present in
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Hashimoto thyroiditis
microscopic findings
Hashimoto thyroiditis patients
have increased risk to develop
these neoplasms
Painless thyroid enlargement
in a postpartum patient; (+)
Anti-TPO; Thyroid biopsy lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates
with germinal centers only
Painful thyroid enlargement
following a history of URTI;
Thyroid biopsy - lymphocytic
infiltration, granulomas with
multinucleated giant cells
Most common cause of
endogenous hyperthyroidism
Disease-causing autoantibody
in Graves disease
Graves disease patients are at
risk to develop these
conditions
Accumulating substance that
causes exophthalmos in Graves
ophthalmopathy
Scaly thickening and induration
of the skin overlying the shins
in Graves disease
Most common cause of goiter
Features favoring thyroid
malignancy
Distinguishing feature of
follicular carcinoma from
follicular adenoma
Most common thyroid
malignancy
A specific feature of papillary
thyroid carcinoma wherein the
nucleus is optically clear and
devoid of chromatin
Fast-growing thyroid
malignancy that has 100%
mortality within 6 months
Thyroid malignancy associated
with amyloid deposition and
IHC positive with calcitonin
Most common cause of primary
hyperparathyroidism
Most common cause of
secondary
hyperparathyroidism
Skeletal disorder associated
with late-stage primary
hyperparathyroidism
ANSWERS
Primary
hyperthyroidism
Secondary
hyperthyroidism
Cardiac manifestations
Atrial fibrillation
Anti-thyroglobulin, antithyroid peroxidase
Lymphoplasmacytic
infiltrates with germinal
centers, Oncocytic
change in thyrocytes,
Fibrosis
Marginal zone
lymphoma, Papillary
thyroid carcinoma
Subacute lymphocytic
(painless) thyroiditis
Granulomatous (De
Quervain) thyroiditis
QUESTIONS
Reliable criteria differentiating
parathyroid carcinoma from
adenoma
Renal manifestations of
hyperparathyroidism
Most common cause of
hypoparathyroidism
The presence of Chvostek and
Trousseau signs is suggestive
of this electrolyte abnormality
Autoantibodies against
pancreatic islet cells in T1DM
Most important susceptibility
genes for T1DM
Most important environmental
factor causing T2DM
Most common cause of death in
T2DM patients
T2DM macrovascular
complications
T2DM microvascular
complications
Nodules of pink hyaline
material in the glomerulus of
patients with diabetic
nephropathy
Unequivocal criteria for
pancreatic neuroendocrine
tumor malignancy
Most common pancreatic
neuroendocrine tumor
Graves Disease
Thyroid-stimulating
immunoglobulin (TSI)
SLE, pernicious anemia,
Type 1 DM, Addison
disease
Glycosaminoglycan
Pretibial myxedema
Iodine deficiency
Solitary nodule, Young,
Male patient, History of
radiation, Nonfunctioning “cold”
nodules
Capsular and/or vascular
invasion
Papillary carcinoma
Orphan Annie nucleus
Anaplastic carcinoma
Whipple triad of insulinoma
A patient presents with severe
GERD and peptic ulceration
despite intensive PPI
treatment. H. pylori is not
detected. Which pancreatic
tumor is most likely present?
Pancreatic tumor with features of
diabetes, necrolytic migratory
erythema, and anemia
WDHA syndrome of VIPoma
Abdominal striae, obesity,
dorsocervical fullness (buffalo
hump), moon facies, ↑ 24-hour
urine free cortisol
ACTH-secreting pituitary
adenoma
Most common cause of Cushing
syndrome overall
Most common endogenous
cause of Cushing syndrome
Hypertension, hypokalemia, ↑
Aldosterone ↓ Renin
↑ Renin ↑ Aldosterone
Medullary carcinoma
Parathyroid adenoma
Causes of secondary
hyperaldosteronism
ANSWERS
Metastasis and Local
invasion
Nephrolithiasis,
nephrocalcinosis
Surgical removal
Hypocalcemia
Anti-insulin, GAD, and
ICA2
HLA DR3/DR4 (Ch6)
Central/Visceral obesity
Myocardial infarction
Coronary, cerebrovascular,
and peripheral arterial
disease
Retinopathy,
Nephropathy,
Neuropathy
Kimmelstiel-Wilson
lesion/Nodular
glomerulosclerosis
Metastasis, Vascular
invasion, Local
infiltration
Insulinoma
Hypoglycemia <50
mg/dL, Neuroglycopenic
symptoms, Relief upon
parenteral glucose
administration
Gastrinoma
Glucagonoma
Watery diarrhea,
Hypokalemia,
Achlorhydria
Cushing syndrome
Cushing disease
Exogenous steroids
Cushing disease
Primary
hyperaldosteronism or
Conn syndrome
Secondary
hyperaldosteronism
Renal hypoperfusion Nephrosclerosis, Renal
artery stenosis, Arterial
hypovolemia; Pregnancy
Most common cause enzyme
deficient in congenital adrenal
21-hydroxylase
hyperplasia
Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage
Von Recklinghausen
as a complication of
disease of bone or
Waterhousemeningococcemia causing
osteitis fibrosa cystica
Friderichsen syndrome
primary acute adrenocortical
insufficiency
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Renal failure
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QUESTIONS
Eponym of primary chronic
adrenocortical insufficiency
Hormone elevated in Addison
disease that causes skin
hyperpigmentation
Features differentiating
secondary from primary
adrenal insufficiency
Most common adrenocortical
tumor
Medullary chromaffin cell
tumor that produces
catecholamines
Only reliable criterion of
malignancy for
pheochromocytoma
ANSWERS
Addison disease
MSH or melanocytestimulating hormone
Hyperpigmentation (↓
MSH); ACTH stimulation
test: (+) – ↑ in cortisol
Adrenocortical adenoma
Pheochromocytoma
Metastasis
QUESTIONS
Acanthosis nigricans is a
cutaneous marker of these
malignancies
Soft pedunculated mass on the
skin; fibrovascular cores lined
by benign squamous
epithelium
Tan/dark brown plaque with
keratin-impacted pores on
dermoscopy
The abrupt appearance of of
multiple seborrheic keratoses
caused by an associated
malignancy
Blue-gray elastic fibers in the
dermis that serve as a marker
of sun damage; seen in actinic
keratosis
Most important risk factor for
squamous cell carcinoma of the
skin
Pheochromocytoma rule of 10
10% are extra-adrenal,
bilateral, biologically
malignant, and not
associated with
hypertension
MEN 1 Syndrome eponym
Wermer syndrome
Features of MEN 1 syndrome
3 Ps: Primary
hyperparathyroidism,
pancreatic tumor,
pituitary tumor
Other risk factors for SCCA of
the skin
MEN 2A Syndrome eponym
Sipple syndrome
Most common type of skin
cancer
Clinical features of MEN2A
syndrome
MEN 2B Syndrome eponyms
Clinical features of MEN2B
syndrome
Pheochromocytoma,
Medullary thyroid
carcinoma, Parathyroid
hyperplasia
Wagemann-Froboese
syndrome, MEN 3,
Mucosal neuroma
syndrome
Pheochromocytoma,
Medullary thyroid
carcinoma, Neuromas,
Ganglioneuromas,
Marfanoid habitus
Gene mutation in MEN1
MEN1 loss
Gene mutation in MEN2A, 2B
RET gain-of-function
Syndrome associated with
multiple BCCs,
medulloblastoma, odontogenic
keratocysts, etc.
Type of hypersensitivity
observed in acute eczematous
dermatitis (contact with
external antigen e.g. poison ivy)
Infections associated with
erythema multiforme
Drugs associated with
erythema multiforme
SKIN
QUESTIONS
Nested melanocytic
proliferation without
architectural/cytologic atypia
Linear melanocytic
proliferation along basal
epidermis
Most deadly skin cancer
Most important risk factor for
malignant melanoma
Growth phase of melanoma
that has metastatic potential
Type of melanoma located in
any cutaneous site except
palms and soles; Intermittently
sun-exposed skin
Type of melanoma located in
on-hair bearing acral skin;
Unrelated to sun exposure
Measures the depth of invasion
of melanoma from the top of
the granular layer to the
deepest point of invasion
Thickened, hyperpigmented
skin with a “velvet-like” texture
in flexural areas seen in obese
and DM patients
Clinical features of BCC
ANSWERS
Melanocytic nevus
Simple lentigo
Malignant melanoma
Sun exposure
Vertical growth phase
Superficial spreading
melanoma
Acral melanoma
Breslow thickness
A patient presents with
multiple plaques with scaling
on the elbow, knee, and scalp
regions. Nail pitting and
onycholysis are present. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
Pinpoint bleeding on lifting of
psoriasis scales
Appearance of new skin lesions
on previously unaffected skin
secondary to trauma
Collection of neutrophils in the
stratum corneum; a cardinal
sign of psoriasis
Biochemical etiology of
seborrheic dermatitis
Infectious etiology of
seborrheic dermatitis
Civatte bodies or necrotic basal
keratinocytes are present in
6Ps of lichen planus
ANSWERS
Gastrointestinal
malignancies
Fibroepithelial polyp
(Acrochordon, Skin Tag)
Seborrheic keratosis (SK)
Leser-Trélat sign
Solar elastosis
UV radiation
Ionizing radiation,
Immunosuppression,
HPV infection (5 and 8),
Coal tar, Arsenic, Old
burn scars, chronic
ulcers, draining
osteomyelitis
Basal cell carcinoma
(BCC)
Pearly, telangiectatic
papules→Ulceration
(Rodent ulcer), extensive
local invasion
Nevoid BCC (Gorlin)
syndrome
Type IV Hypersensitivity
HSV, Mycoplasma,
Histoplasma,
Coccidioides, S. typhi, M.
leprae
Sulfonamides, Penicillin,
Barbiturates, Salicylates,
Hydantoins,
antimalarials
Psoriasis
Auspitz sign
Koebner phenomenon
Munro microabscesses
↑ Androgens, ↓ Dopamine
(Parkinson)
Malassezia furfur, HIV
Lichen planus
Pruritic, purple,
polygonal, planar,
papules, and plaques
Most common type of
Pemphigus vulgaris
pemphigus
Pathology in pemphigus
IgG against desmoglein
vulgaris
(Desmosomes)
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Acanthosis nigricans
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QUESTIONS
Immunofluorescence finding in
pemphigus vulgaris
Pathology in bullous
pemphigoid
Immunofluorescence finding in
bullous pemphigoid
Clinical sign that differentiates
pemphigus vulgaris from
bullous pemphigoid
Disease associated with
dermatitis herpetiformis
Pathology in dermatitis
herpetiformis
Acne-causing bacteria that
converts lipids into
proinflammatory fatty acids
Papules with central black plug
(due to oxidized melanin)
Causative agent of verruca
vulgaris
vPink, pearly papule with
umbilical center; curd-like
material can be expressed from
umbilication
Etiology of impetigo
Focal suppurative
inflammation of skin and
subcutaneous tissue
Deeper suppurative infections
that spreads laterally and
superficially
Chronic suppurative infection
of the apocrine glands
Infection of the palmar side of
fingertips
Nail bed infection
Other term for Staphylococcal
Scalded Skin Syndrome
ANSWERS
Epidermis, intercellular
→ Lace-like pattern
IgG against BPAGs
(Hemidesmosomes)
Basement membrane →
Linear pattern
QUESTIONS
Faulty bone mineralization
caused by vitamin D
deficiency; results in bone
softening and weakening
Pemphigus: (+) Nikolsky
sign
Clinical features of rickets
Celiac disease
Open comedones
Skeletal disorder in CKD and
dialysis patients resulting
from secondary
hyperparathyroidism
Mosaic pattern of lamellar
bone with cement lines
→Jigsaw-puzzle appearance
Low-risk HPVs
Most dreaded complication
of Paget’s Disease of Bone
IgA against gliadins cross
reacts against reticulin
Cutibacterium acnes
Molluscum contagiosum
S. aureus (bullosa), S.
pyogenes (contagiosa)
Furuncle
Carbuncle
Hidradenitis
Felon
Paronychia
Ritter disease
BONES, JOINTS, SOFT TISSUE
QUESTIONS
Disruption of the migration
and condensation of
mesenchyme
Global disorganization of
bone and or cartilage
Most common skeletal
dysplasia
Most common cause of lethal
dwarfism
Usual cause of death in
thanatophoric dysplasia
Gene mutation in
achondroplasia and
thanatophoric dysplasia
Most common cause of
inherited disorder of
connective tissue
Genes mutated in
osteogenesis imperfecta
Pathology in osteogenesis
imperfecta
Decreased bone mass (T
score = -1 – -2.5 SD)
Severe osteopenia that
significantly increases the
risk of fracture (T score < 2.5 SD)
Risk factors for osteoporosis
ANSWERS
Dysostosis
Dysplasia
Achondroplasia
Thanatophoric dysplasia
Respiratory insufficiency
FGFR3 gain of function
Osteogenesis imperfecta
(Brittle bone disease)
COL1A1, COL1A2
Deficient Type I collagen
synthesis
Osteopenia
Osteoporosis
Advanced age, physical
inactivity, calcium and
vitamin D deficiency,
estrogen deficiency
Stage of fracture healing on
Day 0-1
Stage of fracture healing on
Week 0-1
Type of bone deposited in
week 2-3 of fracture healing
Type of bone formed in week
3-months of fracture healing
Most common etiologies of
avascular necrosis
Site commonly involved in
avascular necrosis due to the
absence of collateral
circulation
Most common bacterial
cause of osteomyelitis
Bacteria associated with
osteomyelitis in sickle cell
anemia patients
Region of the bone where
osteomyelitis in children is
commonly located
Region of the bone where
osteomyelitis in adults is
commonly located
In acute osteomyelitis,
destruction of the bone produces
draining sinuses called as
Living shell around a
devitalized infected bone
Osteoid osteoma tumor size
and pain response to NSAIDs
Osteoblastoma tumor size
and pain response to NSAIDs
Most common primary bone
sarcoma
Secondary osteosarcoma risk
factors
Most common site of
osteosarcoma
Radiologic findings
suggestive of osteosarcoma
Most common metastatic site
of osteosarcoma
Most common benign bone
tumor
Common site involved in
osteochondroma
Osteochondroma can
transform into which
sarcoma
Syndrome of multiple
enchondromas, Spindle cell
hemangiomas, Risk for brain
gliomas
ANSWERS
Rickets (Pediatric),
Osteomalacia (Adults)
Craniotabes (Softened skull
bones), Frontal bossing,
Squared head, Rachitic
rosary, Pigeon breast
deformity, Lumbar
lordosis, Bowing of legs
Renal osteodystrophy
Paget’s Disease of Bone
Secondary sarcoma
(Osteosarcoma >
Fibrosarcoma)
Organizing hematoma
Soft callus/bone callus
Woven bone
Lamellar bone
Fractures, corticosteroid
use
Medullary cavity
Staphylococcus aureus
Salmonella
Metaphysis
Epiphysis, Subchondral
Sequestrum
Involucrum
<2 cm, pain relieved by
NSAIDs
> 2 cm, pain not relieved by
NSAIDs
Osteosarcoma
Paget disease of bone, bone
infarcts, previous radiation
Metaphysis - Knee
Sunburst periosteal
reaction, Codman triangle
(Periosteal lifting)
Lung
Osteochondroma
Metaphysis - Knee, Pelvis,
Scapula, Ribs
Chondrosarcoma
Maffucci syndrome
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Page 23 of 27
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QUESTIONS
Genetic mutation in Ewing
sarcoma
Common site involved in
Ewing sarcoma
Rounded cell clusters around
a central fibrillary core seen
in Ewing sarcoma
Radiologic findings
suggestive of Ewing sarcoma
Skeletal disorder associated
with McCune-Albright
syndrome
Most common skeletal
malignancy
Blastic bone lesions
Lytic bone lesions
Most common form of
arthritis
Osteophytes at the DIPJ
Osteophytes at CMCJ or PIPJ
of the hand
Most common inflammatory
arthritis
HLA type associated with RA
Most common joints involved
in RA
PIP Hyperextension, DIP
flexion
PIP Flexion, DIP
Hyperextension
IgM/IgG against IgG Fc
region
Early specific marker for RA
Most commonly involved
joint in gout
Pathologic hallmark of gout
Appearance of monosodium
urate crystals in polarized
microscopy
Crystals deposited in
pseudogout
Most commonly involved
joint in pseudogout
Appearance of CPP crystals
in polarized microscopy
Infectious etiology of
suppurative arthritis in late
adolescents and young adults
Infectious etiology of
suppurative arthritis in
children <2 years old
Examples of seronegative
spondyloarthropathies
Most commonly involved
joint in Ankylosing
spondylitis
Triad of reactive arthritis
Most common soft tissue
tumor of adulthood
Most common sarcoma of
adulthood
Most common soft tissue
sarcoma in children and
adolescents
ANSWERS
t(11;22) ESWR1::FLI1
Diaphysis - Long bones,
Pelvis, Ribs
Homer-Wright rosettes
Lytic, infiltrative,
multilayered periosteal
reaction (Onion-skin
lesion)
Fibrous dysplasia (+ Caféau-lait spots + Precocious
puberty)
Metastasis
Prostate
Kidney, Lung, GIT,
Melanoma
PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
AND SKELETAL MUSCLE
QUESTIONS
A 30-year-old male patient
presents with symmetric
ascending paralysis and
areflexia following a history of
diarrhea. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
Microbial infections associated
with GBS
CSF finding in GBS
Swan neck deformity
Most common chronic acquired
inflammatory
peripheral neuropathy
Most common cause of
peripheral neuropathy
Characteristic pattern of
involvement in diabetic
neuropathy
Accumulating substance that
causes osmotic damage in
diabetic neuropathy
Most common inherited
peripheral neuropathies
Boutonniere deformity:
Autoantibodies linked to
myasthenia gravis (MG)
Osteoarthritis
Heberden nodes
Bouchard nodes
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
HLA-DR4
Small joints of hands and
feet
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-citrullinated peptide
antibody (ACPA)
1st MTP of big toe
Tophus
Needle-shaped, (-)
Birefringence (Yellow)
Calcium pyrophosphate
dihydrate (CPPD)
Knee
Rhomboid, (+)
Birefringence (Blue)
N. gonorrhoeae
H. influenzae
Ankylosing spondylitis,
Reactive arthritis
Sacroiliac joint
Arthritis, Conjunctivitis,
Urethritis
Lipoma
Liposarcoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Thymic abnormalities
associated with myasthenia
gravis
Electrophysiology finding in
MG
Autoantibodies linked to
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic
syndrome (LEMS)
Lung cancer associated with
LEMS
Electrophysiology finding in
LEMS
Most common inflammatory
myopathy in children
Dermatomyositis in adults
usually occur as a form
Morphologic hallmark of
dermatomyositis
Lilac-colored rash on upper
eyelids
Dusky red patches on knuckles,
elbows, and knees
Autoantibodies associated with
Gottron papules and heliotrope
rash
Autoantibodies associated with
interstitial lung disease,
Nonerosive arthritis, Skin rash
(“mechanic’s hands”)
Similar symmetric proximal
muscle weakness involvement
with dermatomyositis but
absent cutaneous
manifestations
Genetic mutation in Duchenne
muscular dystrophy (DMD)
ANSWERS
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
(GBS)
Campylobacter jejuni,
CMV, EBV, and
Mycoplasma
Albuminocytologic
dissociation - ↑ CSF
protein
without significant ↑ in
inflammatory cells
Chronic inflammatory
demyelinating
polyradiculoneuropathy
Diabetes Mellitus
Distal symmetric sensory
polyneuropathy (Glove
and stocking pattern)
Sorbitol
Charcot-Marie-Tooth
disease
Antibodies to
postsynaptic ACh
receptor
Thymic hyperplasia,
thymoma
↓ response with repeated
stimulation
Antibodies to
presynaptic Ca channel
Neuroendocrine lung
carcinoma
↑ response with repeated
stimulation
Dermatomyositis
Paraneoplastic disorder
Perifascicular atrophy
Heliotrope rash
Gottron papules
Anti-Mi2
Anti-Jo1
Polymyositis
Total absence of
dystrophin
(Deletion/Frameshift)
Truncated version of
dystrophin (↓ activity)
Genetic mutation in Becker
muscular dystrophy
Enzyme elevated in early
stages of DMD but decreased in
Creatine kinase
the late stages
Etiology of schwannoma
NF2 loss
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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QUESTIONS
Type of schwannoma located in
the cerebellopontine angle,
attached to vestibular branch
of CN VIII
Cell-dense area of palisading
spindle cell fascicles in
schwannoma
Cell-poor areas with prominent
myxoid stroma
Most common peripheral nerve
sheath tumors
Etiology of neurofibroma
Etiology of neurofibromatosis
type 1
Etiology of neurofibromatosis
type 2
Malignant peripheral nerve
sheath tumors, optic nerve
gliomas, pheochromocytoma,
Lisch nodules, Cafe au lait spots
Schwannoma, meningioma,
ependymoma
ANSWERS
Vestibular schwannoma
Antoni A
Antoni B
Neurofibroma
NF1 loss
(Neurofibromin, Ch17)
loss → ↑ RAS signaling
NF2 (Merlin, Ch22) loss
Neurofibromatosis type 1
Neurofibromatosis type 2
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
QUESTIONS
Earliest morphologic marker of
neuronal cell death or acute
neuronal injury
Most important pathologic
marker of CNS injury
Type of cerebral edema
observed in infection,
inflammation and tumors
occurring due to increased
vascular permeability
Type of cerebral edema
observed in generalized
hypoxic injury where the ionic
balance of cells are disrupted
Type of hydrocephalus which
occurs due to ↓ CSF resorption
by arachnoid granulations i.e.,
in healed subarachnoid
hemorrhage
Type of hydrocephalus when a
focal obstruction within the
ventricular system is present
Cerebral artery compressed in
subfalcine herniation
Neurovascular structures
compressed in transtentorial
(uncal) herniation
Linear/Flame-shaped
hemorrhagic lesions in
midbrain/pons
Compression of this structure
in tonsillar herniation causes
cardiac and respiratory
depression
Most common CNS
malformation
Deficiency of this vitamin is a
known risk factor for NTDs
Extension of spinal cord and
meninges through a vertebral
column defect
Most common site of
encephalocele
This cranial dysraphism occurs
due to a failure in the closure of
the anterior neural tube
ANSWERS
Red neurons
Gliosis - astrocytic
hyperplasia and
hypertrophy
Vasogenic edema
Cytotoxic edema
Communicating
hydrocephalus
Noncommunicating
hydrocephalus
Anterior cerebral artery
Ipsilateral CN III and
Posterior cerebral artery
(PCA), and cerebral
peduncle
Duret hemorrhages
Brainstem
Spinal dysraphism (Spina
bifida)
Folic acid
Myelomeningocele
Occiput
Anencephaly
QUESTIONS
Incomplete separation of
cerebral hemispheres across
midline
Absence of white matter
bundles that carry cortical
projections from one
hemisphere to another
Small posterior fossa causing
downward extension of
cerebellar tonsils and medulla
through the foramen magnum
Low-lying cerebellar tonsils
through foramen magnum
Hypoplasia/agenesis of the
vermis resulting in cystic
enlargement of 4th ventricle
Fluid-filled cavity in the inner
portion of the cord
Most common route of CNS
infection
Viruses with retrograde spread
in the nervous system
Most common cause of acute
pyogenic meningitis overall
Common etiologies of acute
pyogenic meningitis in
newborns
Common etiologies of acute
pyogenic meningitis in teen and
young adults
Most identifiable agent of acute
aseptic meningitis
CSF protein and mononuclear
cells are markedly elevated in
this type of meningitis
Risk factors for brain abscess
formation
Morphologic findings in
meningovascular neurosyphilis
Virus associated with
hemorrhagic necrotizing
encephalitis of the temporal
lobe
Virus associated with
microcephaly, periventricular
calcification
Cytoplasmic, round,
eosinophilic inclusions in
pyramidal neurons of the
hippocampus and Purkinje
cells of the cerebellum in rabies
infection
Most common cryptococcal
infection in immunosuppressed
patients
Location of skull fracture
associated with Raccoon sign
and CSF rhinorrhea
Location of skull fracture
associated with CN III, IV, V, VI
injuries, Carotid injury
Most common type of skull
fracture
Mastoid hematoma
Rapid neurologic deterioration
with lucid intervals
Blood vessel lacerated in
epidural hematoma
CT scan finding in epidural
hematoma
ANSWERS
Holoprosencephaly
Agenesis of corpus
callosum
Chiari II Malformation
(Arnold-Chiari)
Chiari I Malformation
Dandy-Walker
malformation
Syringomyelia
Hematogenous
Rabies, VZV
S. pneumoniae
Group B streptococci, S.
pneumoniae, L.
monocytogenes, E. coli
N. meningitidis, S.
pneumonia
Enteroviruses
Tuberculous meningitis
Acute bacterial
endocarditis, Congenital
heart disease (R→L
shunts), Chronic
pulmonary infections,
Immunosuppression
Obliterative endarteritis,
Perivascular plasma
cells, Gummas
HSV
CMV
Negri bodies
C. neoformans
Anterior skull base
Central skull base
Temporal fracture
Battle sign
Epidural hematoma
Middle meningeal artery
Lentiform hyperdense
lesion
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
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TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
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This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
QUESTIONS
Blood vessel lacerated in
subdural hematoma
CT scan finding in subdural
hematoma
Above which cervical vertebra is
respiratory compromise expected
in cases of spinal cord injury
Crescent-shaped
hyperdense lesion
Neurons most susceptible to
ischemic injury
Pyramidal neurons of
Hippocampus (Area CA1:
Sommer sector),
Cerebellar Purkinje cells,
Pyramidal neurons in
cerebral cortex (Layers
III and IV)
Most common location of
watershed infarcts in global
cerebral ischemia
Most common site of deep
parenchymal hemorrhage
Etiology of lobar hemorrhage
Most common type of
intracranial aneurysm; Most
common cause of spontaneous
subarachnoid hemorrhage
(SAH)
Most common site of berry
aneurysm
Associated conditions with
berry aneurysm
Most common clinically
significant vascular
malformation
Usual site of AV malformation
A patient presents with
multiple neurologic deficits
separated in time and space
and optic neuritis; CSF findings
include moderate pleocytosis,
mildly ↑ protein, ↑ IgG. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
CSF electrophoresis finding in
multiple sclerosis
Partial seizure that starts with
one group of muscles then
spreads “marches” to other
groups of muscles
Disease associated with rapid
correction of hyponatremia
Most common prion disease
ANSWERS
Bridging veins
C4
ACA-MCA border
Putamen
Cerebral amyloid
angiopathy – Amyloid
(Aβ) deposits in vascular
wall
Saccular “Berry”
Aneurysm
Circle of Willis – ACAACoA junction (40%)
ADPKD, Ehler-Danlos
(Type IV), NF1, Marfan,
Fibromuscular dysplasia,
Coarctation of aorta
Arteriovenous
malformation
MCA territory
Multiple sclerosis
QUESTIONS
Most important risk factor for
Parkinson disease
Cytoplasmic, eosinophilic,
round to elongated inclusions
with a dense core and
surrounding pale halo seen in
Parkinson disease
Parkinsonism + dementia +
visual hallucination
Trinucleotide repeated or
expanded in Huntington
disease
Most common immediate cause
of death
Vitamin deficiency in Wernicke
encephalopathy and Korsakoff
syndrome
Triad of ataxia, confusion,
ophthalmoplegia
Triad of confabulation,
hallucination, amnesia
Most common group of
primary brain tumors
Most common primary malignant
brain tumor in adults
Brain glioma with fried egg
appearance of the tumor cells
and chicken-wire appearance
of the vasculature
Etiology of oligodendroglioma
Most common type of glioma
Most common glioma in
children; (+) Rosenthal fibers
Perivascular pseudorosettes
are seen in which brain tumor
2nd most common primary
malignant tumor in children; (+)
Homer-Wright pseudorosettes; (+)
Drop metastasis
Most common CNS neoplasm in
adults
Most common CNS neoplasm in
immunocompromised
individuals
Oligoclonal IgG bands
Jacksonian march
Cerebral pontine
myelinolysis
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
(CJD)
ANSWERS
Gaucher disease
(Glucocerebrosidase)
Lewy body (α-synuclein)
Dementia with Lewy
bodies
CAG
Pneumonia
Thiamine
Wernicke
encephalopathy
Korsakoff syndrome
Glioma
Glioblastoma multiforme
Oligodendroglioma
IDH1 or IDH2 mutation
AND 1p/19q codeletion
Astrocytoma
Pilocytic astrocytoma
Ependymoma
Medulloblastoma
Metastasis
Primary CNS lymphoma
EYE
QUESTIONS
Optic nerve tumors causing
proptosis of the eye
Most common primary tumor
of the orbit
Granulomatous lesion of the
eyelid due to sebaceous gland
drainage obstruction
Most common malignancy of
the eyelid
Submucosal conjunctival
elevations in sun-exposed
areas of conjunctiva
Common site of conjunctival
tumors
Condition associated with blue
sclerae
Cone-shaped cornea associated
with Down syndrome, Marfan
syndrome, atopy
Drug associated with cataract
formation
Metabolic disease associated
with cataract formation
Type of glaucoma wherein the
iris adheres to the trabecular
meshwork, obstructing the
outflow of aqueous humor
ANSWERS
Glioma, meningioma
Vascular tumors
Chalazion
Central core with radiating
spicules of amyloid seen in the
Kuru plaques
Basal cell carcinoma
cerebellum of CJD patients
Most common cause of
Alzheimer disease (AD)
Pinguecula, pterygium
dementia in older adults
(grows onto cornea)
Associations with Alzheimer
Trisomy 21, apoE (ε4)
disease
allele (Ch19)
Limbus
Focal spherical collections of
dilated, tortuous axonal or
Neuritic plaques (Aβ)
Osteogenesis imperfecta
dendritic process around a central
amyloid core; Specific for AD
Basophilic fibrillary structures;
Keratoconus
Not specific for AD but
Neurofibrillary tangles
correlates better with degree of
(Ta)
Corticosteroids
dementia
A patient presents with
Galactosemia, DM,
diminished facial expression,
Wilson disease
slow movement, stooped
posture, festinating gait,
Parkinson disease
Angle-closure glaucoma
rigidity, pill-rolling tremor.
What is the most likely
diagnosis?
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
Page 26 of 27
For inquiries visit www.topnotchboardprep.com.ph or email us at topnotchmedicalboardprep@gmail.com
This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISITIAN JERELL COSME
For inquiries visit www.topnotchboardprep.com.ph or https://www.facebook.com/topnotchmedicalboardprep/
This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
QUESTIONS
Most common form of
glaucoma
Inflammation within vitreous
humor
Inflammation of retina, choroid,
sclera
Autoimmune disorders
associated with uveitis
Most common intraocular
malignancy in adults
Most common primary
intraocular malignancy in
adults
Type of retinal detachment
with full-thickness retinal
defect
Infarcts from choroidal vessel
damage in hypertensive
retinopathy
Copper/silver wiring in
hypertensive retinopathy
Most common retinal vascular
disease
Earliest sign of nonproliferative
diabetic retinopathy
Neovascularization is present
in these vascular disease of the
retina
ANSWERS
Primary open-angle
glaucoma
Endophthalmitis
Panophthalmitis
Reactive arthritis, Behçet
syndrome, Juvenile
idiopathic arthritis
Choroidal metastasis
Uveal melanoma
Rhegmatogenous
Elschnig spots
Retinal arteriosclerosis
Diabetic retinopathy
QUESTIONS
A patient presents with sudden
onset unilateral blindness.
Fundoscopy showed diffuse
retinal pallor and cherry red
spot in the macula. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
Type of age-related macular
degeneration where Drusen
spots or Bruch membrane
deposits are seen
Most common primary
intraocular malignancy in
infants and young children
Characteristic spoke-and-wheel
shaped cell formation seen in
retinoblastoma
Atrophic, internally
disorganized; often called as
end-stage eye
Chromosome where the RB
gene is located
Bilateral edema of the optic
nerve or papilledema is a sign
of
ANSWERS
Central retinal artery
occlusion
Dry/Atrophic age-related
macular degeneration
Retinoblastoma
Flexner-Wintersteiner
Rosettes
Phthisis bulbi
Chromosome 13
Increased intracranial
pressure
Microaneurysms
Proliferative diabetic
retinopathy, ischemic
retinal vein occlusion,
retinopathy of
prematurity, wet agerelated macular
degeneration
END OF PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS
TOPNOTCH PATHOLOGY FLASHCARDS HANDOUT BY DR. CHRISTIAN JERELL S. COSME
For inquiries visit www.topnotchboardprep.com.ph or email us at topnotchmedicalboardprep@gmail.com
This handout is only valid for the April 2024 batch. This will be rendered obsolete for the next batch since we update our handouts regularly.
Page 27 of 27