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Sample Final Exam Questions
Human Resource Management (Humber College)
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1. Which of the following is true about performance management?
a.
The process contains 3 steps.
b.
Research indicates that most companies manage performance well.
c.
It is indirectly related to achieving strategic objectives.
d.
The process does not involve coaching.
e.
Better performance management represents a largely untapped opportunity to improve company
profitability.
2. The simplest and most popular technique for appraising employees is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
alternation ranking method.
critical incident method.
forced distribution method.
graphic rating scale.
paired comparison method.
3. An example of the alternation ranking method would include all of the following steps except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
crossing off names not known well enough to rank.
defining the compensable factors.
putting the lowest-ranking employee on the last line.
listing the highest-ranking employee on the first line.
listing all the employees to be ranked.
4. All of the following are advantages of the critical incident method except that it
a.
provides concrete examples of what an employee can do to eliminate any performance
deficiencies.
b.
ensures that the evaluator thinks about the employee's appraisal all during the year.
c.
ensures that the evaluator will only consider the employee's most recent job performance.
d.
can be used to supplement another appraisal technique.
e.
provides the evaluator with some specific hard facts for explaining the appraisal.
5. MBO almost always refers to a comprehensive organization-wide goal-setting and appraisal
program that consists of all the following steps except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
setting long-term performance targets.
setting the organization's goals.
setting the department's goals.
providing feedback to employees.
discussing the department's goals.
6. Appraisal systems must be based on performance criteria that are ________ for the position
being rated and ________ in that their application must produce consistent ratings for the same
performance.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
reliable; valid
reliable; reliable
valid; measurable
measurable; valid
valid; reliable
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7. The following are all ways to minimize the impact of appraisal problems, such as bias and
central tendency, except
a.
training supervisors to eliminate rating errors.
b.
refraining from confusing the employee by including him or her in the rating and evaluation
process.
c.
becoming familiar with the typical rating errors that can undermine rating scale appraisals.
d.
trying to understand the problem in order to prevent it.
e.
choosing the right appraisal tool.
8. All of the following are advantages of various appraisal tools except that
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
alternation ranking is simple to use.
forced distribution results depend on the adequacy of the original choice of cutoff points.
BARS is very accurate.
a graphic rating scale is simple to use.
MBO is tied to jointly agreed goals.
9. When preparing for the appraisal interview, there are three things to do. First, assemble the
data, second, prepare the employee, and finally,
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
choose the time and place.
prepare the appraisal examination.
do the performance appraisal.
lay out an action plan.
document all information to be discussed in the interview.
10. Susan, the HR director, is developing performance management training sessions for junior
managers. She wants to be sure to emphasize the key success factor for effective performance
appraisal that most often leads to optimum employee performance. The factor she emphasizes is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
effective career development discussions.
the quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between the manager and employee.
linking pay with performance.
legally compliant policies.
none of the above.
11. Total rewards refers to
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
payroll costs.
all forms of pay or other compensation provided to employees.
cash payments only.
certain forms of pay and rewards to employees.
contractual pay methods or fringe benefits to employees.
12. The Revlex Company did a salary survey and the results showed that 10 of its key positions
had lower wages compared with similar positions at their key competitors. The problem the
company faces is
a.
b.
c.
d.
comparable worth.
pay equity.
external equity.
internal inequity.
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e.
broadbanding.
13. Job evaluation is a technique used to determine
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
performance appraisals of individuals to the group.
promotability.
merit reviews of individuals to the group.
the relative value of an individual's career earnings to the group's.
the relative worth of each job.
14. The job evaluation method in which a number of compensable factors are identified, and then
the degree to which each of these factors is present on the job is determined, is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
factor comparison method.
ranking method.
point method.
Hay plan method.
job classification method.
15. Establishing pay rates involves three stages, which are
a.
job evaluation, conducting salary surveys, and combining job evaluation and salary survey results.
b.
consulting with industry, determining salaries for executive positions, and deciding on a benefits
plan.
c.
pricing of benchmark jobs, collecting data on insurance benefits, and evaluating benefits packages.
d.
collecting data on insurance benefits, creating a salary survey, and hiring external consultants.
e.
collecting data used to price every job in the organization, working with a compensation consultant,
and working with a benefits specialist.
16. One way to depict the pay rate ranges for each pay grade is with a wage structure graphically
depicting the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
range of pay grades for each pay rate.
range of pay rates for each pay grade.
range of jobs.
pay for each job.
scatter-plot points within a pay grade.
17. Rates being paid to overpaid employees are often called
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
red circle pay rates.
premium jobs pay rates.
excessive pay rates.
silver circle pay rates.
black circle pay rates.
18. The two bases upon which to pay employees are increments of performance and seniority.
a. True
b. False
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19. Most of the pay equity acts in Canada focus on four compensable factors—skill, effort,
responsibility, and working conditions.
a. True
b. False
20. Skill/competency-based and market-based pay entirely eliminates the need for evaluating the
worth of one job relative to others in the firm.
a. True
b. False
21. The three types of benefits provided under the Canada/Quebec Pension Plan are
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
disability, survivor, and old age security.
retirement, vacation, and disability.
retirement, survivor, and old age security.
retirement, disability, and survivor.
retirement, survivor, and health care.
22. Individualized benefit plans allowed by some employers, in order to accommodate employee
preferences for benefits, are known as
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
perquisite benefits plans.
flexible benefits programs.
individualized benefits plans.
constrained benefits plans.
family-friendly benefits.
23. Effective disability management programs include
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
monitoring worker's compensation.
early and safe return-to-work policies.
remedial programs.
monitoring sick leave plans.
a required company medical.
24. A pension plan in which a certain amount of profit is credited to each employee's account,
payable at retirement, termination, or death, is a
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
group pension plan.
defined benefit pension plan.
defined contribution plan.
deferred profit-sharing plan.
group RRSP.
25. A pension provision whereby employees who change jobs can transfer the lump sum value of
the pension they have earned to a locked-in RRSP or their new employer's pension plan is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
non-funding.
vesting.
a non-locked-in provision.
flexible pensions.
portability.
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26. To date, the evidence regarding the actual effects of employer-sponsored childcare on
employee absenteeism, turnover, productivity, recruitment, or job satisfaction is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
positive, without consideration of obstacles or attitudes toward work.
neutral, with some positive and some negative effects.
positive, with respect to increasing obstacles in coming to work.
positive, with respect to reducing obstacles in coming to work and improving workers' attitudes.
negative, in respect to employees' attitudes.
27. The EI program is funded solely by contributions from eligible employees.
a. True
b. False
28. Melanie has a defined contribution pension plan. She will know the actual benefits she will get
ahead of time.
a. True
b. False
29. The looming labour shortage based on when baby boomers start retiring is resulting in
employers seeking to retain older employees. Mel's organization is experiencing this issue. One
program to support this issue is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
RRSPs.
supplemental employee retirement plans.
defined benefit pension plans.
phased retirement.
defined contribution pension plans.
30. Unlike government-provided retirement benefits, employer-sponsored pension plans are
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
restricted to deferred profit sharing.
easily managed.
invested in mutual funds.
pre-funded.
formalized.
31. Safety and accident prevention concerns managers because
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
work-related accidents figures are staggering.
of global competition.
cutting costs is essential.
customer service is extremely important.
employees need to be motivated.
32. The function of joint health and safety committees is to provide a ________ atmosphere where
management and labour can work together to ensure a safe and healthy workplace.
a.
b.
structured
directive
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c.
d.
e.
non-adversarial
collegial
supportive
33. The components of WHMIS are
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
public information sessions, MSDS, and employee training.
labelling of hazardous material, MSDS, and employee training.
labelling of hazardous material, public information sessions, and MSDS.
labelling of hazardous material and employee training.
MSDS and employee training.
34. Which of the following are the main causes of accidents in organizations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
chance occurrences and unsafe conditions
unsafe acts on the part of employees
chance occurrences, unsafe conditions, and unsafe acts on the part of employees
ineffective health and safety committees and cost cutting
unsafe conditions and cost cutting
35. You are the new human resources professional at a plastics manufacturing company. Which of
the following tests human traits that might be related to accidents on a specific job and could be
used to determine whether test scores are related to accidents on the job?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
intelligence tests
literacy tests
emotional stability and personality tests
measures of muscular coordination and visual skills
self-awareness tests
36. Senior management commitment to safety can be demonstrated in all of the following ways
except by
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
giving the company safety officer high rank and status.
giving safety matters high priority in company meetings.
including safety training in new workers' training.
minimizing the organization's investment in safety equipment.
senior managers being personally involved in safety activities on a routine basis.
37. Wellness programs take a ________ approach to employee well-being and EAPs take a
________ to employee health issues.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
proactive; proactive
reactive; reactive
reactive; proactive
proactive; reactive
none of the above
38. Maike is a supervisor of a team of oil rig workers. She has discovered that two of her direct
reports have a substance abuse problem. Which of the following actions should she take?
a.
Make a written record of observed behaviour and follow up on each incident.
b.
Ask the employees to see the HR representative since supervisors are never the company's first
line of defence with employee substance abuse issues.
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c.
Troubled employees should be escorted to the organizational psychologist's office for counselling.
d.
Fire the employees if they are unfit to work.
e.
Regardless of suspicion of substance abuse, only focus on the work to be performed by the
employee.
39. . In Canada, when dealing with alcohol and substance abuse, employers must balance
conflicting legal obligations from occupational health and safety legislation and
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
employment standards legislation.
human rights and privacy laws.
employment equity/pay equity legislation.
Charter of Rights and Freedoms.
WHMIS.
40. Warning signs of repetitive strain injury can include any of the following except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
frequent dropping of tools.
hands falling asleep.
numbness and tingling in fingertips.
tightness or stiffness in the hands, elbow, wrists, shoulder and neck.
headaches.
41. The "due diligence" requirement for employees mandates that they take every reasonable
precaution to ensure their own health and safety.
a. True
b. False
42. Government health and safety inspectors may enter a workplace at any time, provided they
have a warrant and give prior notification.
a. True
b. False
43. Employers should inquire about the workers' compensation history of job applicants in order
to avoid hiring accident-prone individuals.
a. True
b. False
44. . Suggestion programs have several benefits. The net effect is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
they let management continually monitor employees' concerns.
there is less likelihood that small problems will grow into big ones.
they make it clear that employees have several channels through which to communicate.
they make it clear that employees have several channels through which to get responses.
they let management continually monitor employees' feelings.
45. Procedural justice refers to
a.
b.
c.
d.
fairness in interpersonal interactions by treating others with respect.
the fairness of the process used to make a decision.
managers conducting their interpersonal dealings.
highly publicized vehicles through which employees can appeal.
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e.
the fairness and justice of the outcome of a decision.
46. . A layoff occurs where which of the following condition(s) are present?
a.
There is a permanent severing of the employment relationship.
b.
There is no work and there is a permanent severing of the employment relationship.
c.
There is no work and management intends to recall the employees when work is available again.
d.
There is an issue of poor performance and a permanent severing of the employment relationship.
e.
The owner and president decides, for economic and personal reasons, to shut down the
business.
47. A software firm has lost a major client and the immediate impact is a loss of work. Software
programmers are difficult to recruit and train, so the firm is considering alternatives to laying off
employees. The company could consider any of the following except
a.
asking employees if they are willing to take unpaid leaves to help reduce costs.
b.
asking employees to schedule vacation during the period when there is less work.
c.
asking employees to participate in a lottery to determine who should be let go (since it is
unbiased).
d.
asking employees to take a voluntary reduction in pay (or reduced hours of work).
e.
All of the above are options for the software firm.
48. A fair and just discipline process is based on which of the following prerequisite(s)?
a.
a system of progressive penalties and an appeals process
b.
a set of rules and regulations, a system of progressive penalties, and an appeals process
c.
a set of clear rules and regulations, a system of progressive penalties, and a system of guided
procedures.
d.
an appeals process
e.
a system of guided procedures.
49. The following are all expert recommendations for avoiding wrongful dismissal suits except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
document all disciplinary action.
do not allege just cause for dismissal unless it can be proven.
include two members of management in the termination meeting.
use termination letters in all cases, clearly stating the settlement offer.
reassure new employees that they can only be dismissed for just cause.
50. Constructive dismissal can be considered to occur in the all of following circumstances
except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
reduction in pay and benefits.
forced termination.
demotion.
forced resignation.
forced transfer.
51. The steps in a termination interview include planning the interview carefully, getting to the
point, describing the situation, and doing the majority of talking.
a. True
b. False
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52. Firms are now providing preretirement counselling to employees who are about to retire,
covering matters such as financial planning, relationship issues, and health issues.
a. True
b. False
53. Specific strategies adopted by organizations using the union substitution approach include
a.
pay, benefits, and working conditions equal to or better than those in unionized firms.
b.
preventing a union from gaining a foothold.
c.
avoiding a union at all costs.
d.
accepting collective bargaining as an appropriate mechanism for establishing terms and conditions
of employment.
e.
viewing the union as the legitimate representative of the firm's employees.
54. An organizing drive has begun at a busy branch of a bank. The managers wish to avoid a
union at all costs. This approach to labour relations is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
tough bargaining.
union suppression.
union substitution.
union acceptance.
union avoidance.
55. Common characteristics among labour relations legislation in all Canadian jurisdictions
include all of the following except
a.
a minimum term of six months for all collective agreements.
b.
procedures that must be followed by one or both parties before a strike or lockout is legal.
c.
the requirement that disputes over matters arising from interpretation of the collective agreement
be settled by binding arbitration.
d.
establishment of a labour relations board or the equivalent.
e.
prohibition of strikes or lockouts during the life of a collective agreement.
56. A union steward is
a.
a union member who is appointed by management to act as the union representative.
b.
a union member elected by workers in a particular area of a firm to act as their union
representative.
c.
a union member elected by management to act as the union representative.
d.
a union member working with an airline.
e.
a management member elected by workers in an area of a firm to act as their union
representative.
57. The most important part of the union structure for human resources managers is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
national union.
local.
provincial/territorial federation of labour.
local/district labour council.
central or regional office.
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58. Steps in the unionizing process typically include all of the following except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
an all-out public campaign.
the outcome: certification, recognition, or rejection.
formation of an in-house organizing committee.
employee/union contact.
a vote.
59. Under the law, employers are granted the right to do all of the following in response to a
unionization attempt except
a.
require employees to attend sessions at which their position is presented.
b.
state their position regarding the desirability of remaining non-union.
c.
express their views and opinions regarding unions.
d.
prohibit distribution of union literature on their own property on company time.
e.
increase wages, make promotions, and take other HR actions, as long as they would do so
during the normal course of business.
60. All of the following statements about termination of bargaining rights are true except that
a.
a union is automatically decertified when a collective agreement is not negotiated within one year
of certification.
b.
it is possible for a labour union to notify the LRB (or equivalent) that it no longer wishes to
represent the employees in a particular bargaining unit.
c.
members may apply for decertification if they are dissatisfied with the performance of a union.
d.
the decertification process generally involves a secret-ballot election.
e.
generally, members may apply for decertification if the union has failed to negotiate a collective
agreement within one year of certification.
61. The bargaining zone is between
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Party A's resistance point and Party B's target point.
Party B's resistance point and Party A's resistance point.
Party A's target point and Party B's target point.
Party B's resistance point and Party B's target point.
Party B's resistance point and Party A's target point.
62. The approach that is appropriate when dealing with monetary issues, but may be used when
there is a history of distrust and adversarial relations, is known as ________ bargaining.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
distributive
productivity
concessionary
mutual gains
integrative
63. The objective of ________ bargaining is to establish a creative negotiating relationship that
benefits labour and management.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
productivity
integrative
mutual gains
distributive
concessionary
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64. Which of the following statements about ratification is false?
a.
In some jurisdictions, ratification is required by law.
b.
If any of the bargaining unit members vote in favour of the proposal, it replaces any prior
agreement.
c.
The results of a ratification vote have a significant impact.
d.
If the proposed collective agreement is rejected, a strike is the inevitable result.
e.
When a ratification vote is held, all members of the bargaining unit, whether or not they are trade
union members, have the right to cast a ballot.
65. Each of the following statements about lockouts is true except that
a.
they put pressure on the union negotiating team to agree to the terms and conditions offered by
management.
b.
they are legally permissible in only a few Canadian jurisdictions.
c.
they can damage an organization's public image.
d.
they may have a negative impact on nonstriking employees.
e.
lockouts are not a widely used strategy in Canada.
66. Situations in which interest arbitration may be involved include all of the following except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
negotiations involving firefighters in most jurisdictions.
negotiations involving police officers in most jurisdictions.
negotiations involving public servants in some jurisdictions.
negotiations involving nursing home employees in most jurisdictions.
none, there are no exceptions listed above.
67. The most restrictive form of union security is known as a
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
open shop.
maintenance-of-membership.
union shop.
dues shop.
closed shop.
68. Which type of union security arrangement recognizes the fact that the union must represent
all employees in the bargaining unit, whether or not they choose to belong to the union?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
open shop
union shop
closed shop
the Rand formula
maintenance-of-membership
69. All Canadian jurisdictions require that collective agreements contain a clause providing for
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
surface bargaining.
mediation.
final and binding settlement by arbitration of all disputes arising out of the collective agreement.
a disciplinary process.
pattern bargaining.
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70. The primary purpose of the grievance procedure is to
a.
call to the attention of union and management leaders areas of the contract requiring clarification
or modification in subsequent negotiations.
b.
resolve issues that were not anticipated by those at the bargaining table.
c.
serve as a communications device.
d.
interpret the contract language.
e.
ensure the application of the contract with a degree of justice for both parties.
71. Kate's organization is now unionized, so the HR department will hire a
a.
labour relations specialist.
b.
recruitment specialist.
c.
training specialist.
d.
line manager.
e.
compensation specialist.
72. Unionization impacts HRM in which of the following ways?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Management has more freedom to make decisions.
HR policies must be consistent with the terms of the collective agreement.
A union steward must design 50% of all HR policies.
Record keeping is decentralized.
The HR department becomes smaller.
73. Collective bargaining is the negotiations that take place between management and employees
directly.
a. True
b. False
74. The primary goal of the labour unions active in Canada is to obtain job security for their
members.
a. True
b. False
75. In preparation for bargaining, unions generally hold a meeting that is open to all bargaining
unit members, at which individuals have the opportunity to suggest items for inclusion in union's
demands.
a. True
b. False
76. A wildcat strike may be legal or illegal, depending on its timing.
a. True
b. False
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77. The number one concern when it comes to employee relocations is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
cost projections.
candidate assessment.
relocation assistance.
family issues.
candidate selection.
78. Brian is the director of HR for a global software development company. He is advising the
director of sales about which of the sales managers to send to lead the sales department in India.
Which of the following are key traits Brian should consider in advising on the best candidate for
the expatriate assignment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
agreeableness
interpersonal skills and cultural sensitivity
cultural sensitivity only
interpersonal skills, cultural sensitivity, and flexibility
There are no specific traits that are helpful to consider.
79. The staffing policy in which all key management positions are filled by parent-country
nationals is known as
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
homocentric.
ethnocentric.
polycentric.
geocentric.
multicentric.
80. Realtex, an international resort development company, has a staffing policy which seeks the
best people for key jobs throughout the organization, regardless of nationality. Realtex has what
type of staffing policy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
polycentric
geocentric
multicentric
homocentric
ethnocentric
81. The following are all traits that managers should possess when assigned domestically and
overseas in order to be successful except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
adaptability.
relational skills.
technical skills.
exploitive skills.
motivation.
82. Level 3 of the training of employees for global assignments is focused on
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the impact of cultural differences.
understanding how attitudes are formed.
factual knowledge of the target country.
language acquisition and adaptation skills.
non-verbal communication awareness.
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83. The leading cause of expatriate "failures" is
a.
the maturity level of the expatriate.
b.
the adaptability of the expatriate.
c.
the inability of the expatriate's spouse to adjust.
d.
compensation levels which do not adequately match the local living standards in the expatriate's
assignment.
e.
unsuitability for the assignment.
84. The first step in ensuring the foreign assignee's success is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
screening.
job enrichment.
human resource planning.
succession planning.
job previews.
85. A process for ensuring success for managers in overseas assignments is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
occupational health and safety training.
cross-cultural training.
job analysis.
performance appraisal.
job enrichment.
86. The balance sheet approach for formulating expatriate pay uses all of the following homecountry groups of expenses except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
pay supplements.
job evaluation.
goods and services.
income taxes.
housing.
87. An international compensation trend used to reward managers is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
an annual bonus.
a lump sum bonus.
a piece wage incentive.
variable pay.
perquisites.
88. International EAPs can treat common reactions to culture shock, including all the following
except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
chronic fatigue.
depression.
homesickness.
irritability.
marital stress.
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89. The expatriate performance appraisal process could be improved in any of the following ways
except
a.
weighing the evaluation more toward the on-site manager's appraisal than the home-country
manager's perceptions.
b.
not appraising the expatriate manager on quantifiable criteria only, including others such as
insight into the interdependencies of domestic and foreign operations.
c.
modifying performance appraisal criteria to fit the overseas position.
d.
Using behaviourally anchored rating scales.
e.
Stipulating the assignment's difficulty level.
90. Repatriation refers to the process of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
moving family back to the home country.
moving from one country to another.
moving home then back to the host country.
moving back to the parent company and country from the foreign assignment.
becoming a third-country national.
91. To reduce problems associated with repatriation, any of the following steps can be taken
except
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
providing career counselling.
writing a repatriation agreement.
offering financial support.
assigning the employee to another international position.
assigning a sponsor.
92. Industrial relations and, specifically, the relationship between the worker, the union, and the
employer, vary dramatically from country to country and have an enormous impact on HR
management practices.
a. True
b. False
93. Third-country nationals are citizens of a country other than the parent or host country.
a. True
b. False
94. Geocentrism, rarely seen, assumes that management candidates must be searched for
domestically.
a. True
b. False
95. To improve the expatriate appraisal process, the evaluation should be weighted more toward
the home-site manager's perceptions than toward the on-site manager's appraisal.
a. True
b. False
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96. Human resources management refers to
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
management techniques for controlling people at work.
concepts and techniques used in leading people at work.
the management of people in organizations.
all managerial activities.
concepts and techniques for organizing work activities.
97. A company uses a system to measure the impact of human resources which balances
measures relating to financial results, customers, internal business processes, and human capital
management. This system is known as the HRIS.
a.
b.
c.
d.
balanced scorecard.
Human Capital Index.
balanced strategy.
none of the above.
98. You have been tasked with building employee engagement at the firm you work for. Strategic
human resources initiatives you would consider implementing include
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
employee recognition programs.
diversity programs.
employee recognition programs and management development programs.
job design indicators.
employee relations activity.
99. Being completely familiar with employment legislation, HR policies and procedures, collective
agreements, and the outcome of recent arbitration hearings and court decisions is most closely
related to which of the following HR activities?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
offering advice
formulating policies and procedures
providing services
serving as a consultant
serving as a change agent
100. The goal of HRM is to align people practices with organizational strategy to produce
behaviours required to achieve organizational goals.
a. True
b. False
SAMPLE/EXAMPLE of ANSWER SHEET
1. e. Better performance management represents a largely untapped opportunity to improve
company profitability.
2. d. graphic rating scale.
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3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
b. defining the compensable factors.
c. ensures that the evaluator will only consider the employee's most recent job performance.
a. setting long-term performance targets
e. valid; reliable
b. refraining from confusing the employee by including him or her in the rating and evaluation
process.
b. forced distribution results depend on the adequacy of the original choice of cutoff points.
a. choose the time and place.
b. the quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between the manager and employee.
b. all forms of pay or other compensation provided to employees
c. external equity.
e. the relative worth of each job.
c. point method.
a. job evaluation, conducting salary surveys, and combining job evaluation and salary survey
results.
b. range of pay rates for each pay grade.
a. red circle pay rates.
b. False
a. True
b. False
d. retirement, disability, and survivor.
b. flexible benefits programs.
b. early and safe return-to-work policies.
d. deferred profit-sharing plan.
e. portability.
d. positive, with respect to reducing obstacles in coming to work and improving workers' attitudes.
b. False
b. False
d. phased retirement.
d. pre-funded.
a. work-related accidents figures are staggering.
c. non-adversarial
b. labelling of hazardous material, MSDS, and employee training.
c. chance occurrences, unsafe conditions, and unsafe acts on the part of employees
d. measures of muscular coordination and visual skills
d. minimizing the organization's investment in safety equipment.
d. proactive; reactive
a. Make a written record of observed behaviour and follow up on each incident.
b. human rights and privacy laws.
e. headaches.
b. False
b. False
b. False
b. there is less likelihood that small problems will grow into big ones.
b. the fairness of the process used to make a decision.
c. There is no work and management intends to recall the employees when work is available
again.
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47. c. asking employees to participate in a lottery to determine who should be let go (since it is
unbiased).
48. b. a set of rules and regulations, a system of progressive penalties, and an appeals process
49. e. reassure new employees that they can only be dismissed for just cause.
50. b. forced termination.
51. b. False
52. a. True
53. a. pay, benefits, and working conditions equal to or better than those in unionized firms.
54. b. union suppression.
55. a. a minimum term of six months for all collective agreements.
56. b. a union member elected by workers in a particular area of a firm to act as their union
representative.
57. b. local.
58. a. an all-out public campaign.
59. a. require employees to attend sessions at which their position is presented.
60. a. a union is automatically decertified when a collective agreement is not negotiated within one
year of certification.
61. b. Party B's resistance point and Party A's resistance point.
62. a. distributive
63. b. integrative
64. d. If the proposed collective agreement is rejected, a strike is the inevitable result.
65. b. they are legally permissible in only a few Canadian jurisdictions.
66. e. none, there are no exceptions listed above.
67. e. closed shop.
68. d. the Rand formula
69. c. final and binding settlement by arbitration of all disputes arising out of the collective agreement.
70. e. ensure the application of the contract with a degree of justice for both parties.
71. a. labour relations specialist.
72. b. HR policies must be consistent with the terms of the collective agreement.
73. b. False
74. b. False
75. a. True
76. a. True
77. d. family issues.
78. d. interpersonal skills, cultural sensitivity, and flexibility
79. b. ethnocentric.
80. b. geocentric
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
d. exploitive skills
c. factual knowledge of the target country.
c. the inability of the expatriate's spouse to adjust.
a. screening.
b. cross-cultural training.
b. job evaluation.
d. variable pay.
a. chronic fatigue.
d. Using behaviourally anchored rating scales.
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90. d. moving back to the parent company and country from the foreign assignment.
91. d. assigning the employee to another international position.
92. a. True
93. a. True
94. b. False
95. b. False
96. c. the management of people in organizations.
97. a. balanced scorecard.
98. c. employee recognition programs and management development programs.
99. a. offering advice
100.
a. True
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