LORNE PARK SECONDARY SCHOOL
SBI 4UO BIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
PRACTICE EXAMINATION
13 PAGES TOTAL
NAME:_____________________________________________________
PART
OUT OF
MARK
TIME ALLOTTED
KNOWLEDGE
40 MARKS
40 MINUTES
APPLICATION
43 MARKS
50 MINUTES
INQUIRY
TOTAL
20 MARKS
30 MINUTES
120 MINUTES
NOTE: THIS EXAM IS AN ILLUSTRATION OF THE FORMAT OF A GRADE 12
FINAL EXAM AND NOT A STUDY GUIDE. YOUR PERFORMANCE
ANSWERING THESE QUESTIONS IS NOT ADEQUATE REVIEW OF COURSE
MATERIAL ON THE ACTUAL FINAL EXAM AND IS NOT A REPLACEMENT
FOR REVIEW SHEETS PREPARED BY YOUR TEACHER.
The genetic code
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SBI 4U0 BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM
Multiple Choice - KNOWLEDGE
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question and mark the corresponding space on your
Scantron card.
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1. In looking at the periodic table, the following information would be found about nitrogen:
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2.
____
3.
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4.
____
5.
From the above, it can be determined that an atom of nitrogen has the following characteristics:
a. it has 7 protons, 14 neutrons and 7 electrons
b. it has 2 protons in the first energy level and 5 protons in the second energy level
c. it has an atomic mass of 14 atomic mass units and 7 electrons
d. it has 7 neutrons and 4 electrons
e. it as an atomic number of 14 and contains 7 protons
One of the ways organisms maintain a stable internal environment (homeostasis) is to use buffers to keep the
pH of their body fluids within narrow limits. A biology student mixes 200 mL of a buffered solution with a
pH of 4 (solution 'X') with 200 mL of a base (solution 'Y'). After mixing, the pH of the resulting solution
(solution 'Z') was found to have risen to 5. Which of the following statements can be made in connection with
the experiment described?
I. solution 'Z' contains more hydroxyl ions per unit volume than solution 'Y'
II. there were 10 times as many hydronium ions in solution 'X' per unit volume than there were in solution
'Z'
III. solution 'Z' contains a higher concentration of hydronium ions than solution 'X'
IV. solution 'Y' used up all of the buffering action of solution 'X'
V. the pH of solution 'B' was 8
a. I, II, II, IV and V
d. I, II, and V only
b. II, III, and IV only
e. II and IV only
c. III and IV only
In living organisms, buffers do which of the following?
a. prevent charged particles from entering cells
b. neutralize the effect of enzymes
c. maintain pH in the cells within a narrow range, allowing enzymes to function
d. allow the pH of cells to change without affecting the action of the enzymes
e. maintain cytoplasm in a fluid condition
Which three of the following are characteristics of hydrogen bonds?
I. They are responsible for the surface tension properties of water.
II. They are responsible for the relatively high boiling point of water.
III. They are stronger than ionic bonds.
IV. They are present in all substances.
V. They are weaker than covalent bonds.
a. III, IV and V
d. II, III and IV
b. I, II and V
e. I, III, and IV
c. I, III and IV
Which of the functional groups illustrated below would you expect to find in an amino acid?
1
2
3
4
5
a. 1, 2, and 4
b. 2, and 3
c. 2, 4, and 5
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d. 1 and 4
e. 3 and 5
6. Of the following, which is not considered to by a polymer?
a. cellulose
d. protein
b. RNA
e. fat
c. starch
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7. In humans, the function of glycogen is to
a. synthesize proteins
d. increase osmotic pressure in cells
b. dilute the blood plasma
e. store glucose in plants
c. keep glucose available
8. Many people are aware that water is the most abundant substance in all organisms. However, next to water,
what is the major component of living cells?
a. nucleotides
d. vitamins
b. carbohydrates
e. lipids
c. proteins
9. Aerobic respiration involves which one of the following?
a. the input of energy into cells without sufficient oxygen
b. the release of energy in cells without sufficient oxygen
c. the sequence of events in fermentation
d. breathing very rapidly, getting too much oxygen into the blood
e. the release of energy in cells with an adequate supply of oxygen
10. Where in the electron transport chain does the energy come from for the synthesis of ATP?
a. the combination of hydrogen ions, electrons, and oxygen to form water
b. the breakdown of water
c. the cytochromes
d. an electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane
e. oxygen
11. During aerobic cellular respiration, which of the following molecules activates Krebs cycle?
a. citrate
d. acetyl coenzyme A
b. pyruvate
e. carbon dioxide
c. cytochrome oxidase
12. The major advantage of aerobic respiration to humans is that we
a. cannot obtain more usable energy from food by aerobic respiration
b. must always use anaerobic respiration for movement
c. obtain more usable energy by aerobic respiration
d. must always use aerobic respiration for movement
e. cannot release energy from food by anaerobic respiration
13. Which of the following will affect stomatal opening and closing?
I. air temperature
II. amount to water in the soil
III. brightness of ambient light
IV. turgor pressure of the guard cells
V. humidity
a. I, III and V only
d. I, III, IV and V
b. IV and V only
e. I, II, III, IV and V
c. I, IV and V only
14. Temporal separation refers to
a. the Calvin cycle
d. cellular respiration
b. the C4 pathway
e. oxidative phosphorylation
c. the CAM pathway
15. Photosynthesis is important to the planet because it releases
a. both ATP and oxygen
d. NADH
b. oxygen
e. ATP
c. carbon dioxide
The table below summarizes data obtained in an experiment on oxygen evolution by different plants species
grown under different lighting conditions. Assume that the plants are of comparable size.
Plant
Type of light
Volume of oxygen
Temperature
Time (days)
given off (mL)
(C)
Corn
Corn
Barley
Barley
incandescent
fluorescent
incandescent
fluorescent
200
400
200
150
20
22
22
22
5
10
5
5
____ 16. Which of the following is a reasonable interpretation?
a. oxygen production is more rapid in barley in incandescent light than fluorescent light
b. less oxygen is evolved per day in incandescent light than in fluorescent light
c. in incandescent light, both corn and barley give off he same amount of oxygen
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d. at 22°C, corn gives off more oxygen than oats
e. in incandescent light, corn gives off more oxygen per day than does oats
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____ 17. The percentage composition of a nucleic acid molecule found in bacterial cells is
32.3% adenine
30.7% thymine
19.1% cytosine
17.9% guanine
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
The molecule is most likely to be
a. double-stranded DNA.
d. double-stranded RNA.
b. mitochondrial DNA.
e. single-stranded DNA.
c. messenger RNA.
DNA replication
a. is the first step in protein synthesis
b. occurs in every living cell in a multicellular organism
c. occurs before cytokinesis
d. is only semi-conservative in eukaryotes, not prokaryotes
e. may be conservative or semi-conservative at different points in an organism's life-cycle
The nucleotide at the end of one strand of a fragment of double-stranded DNA has a free phosphate attached
to the 5' carbon of its deoxyribose sugar. The complementary nucleotide has
a. a free phosphate attached to the 3' carbon of its deoxyribose sugar
b. a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to the 3' carbon of its deoxyribose sugar
c. a free phosphate attached to the 5' carbon of its deoxyribose sugar
d. a hydroxyl group attached to the 5' carbon of its deoxyribose sugar
e. two hydrogen atoms attached to the 3' carbon of its deoxyribose sugar
The arrangement of bases in a molecule of mRNA is best described as
a. branched
d. linked into a beta-pleated sheet
b. linear
e. circular
c. paired
DNA acts as a template for transcription. Which of the following statements regarding the DNA of a gene
being expressed is true?
a. After unwinding, both of the DNA strands act as templates.
b. After unwinding, only one of the DNA strands acts as a template.
c. The two strands only act as a template when paired.
d. In prokaryotes, the binding of RNA polymerase to unwound DNA occurs randomly on
either of the two strands.
e. The strand with the higher cytosine-guanine content acts as the template.
A cell in cell culture is briefly immersed in radioactive uracil. After a short time, the radioactive uracil is
removed and the cell culture is washed with, and immersed in, nonradioactive uracil. Where would you
expect to find the main concentration of radioactive nucleic acid?
I. Immediately after immersion in the radioactive uracil solution.
II. Some time after the cell was returned to nonradioactive uracil.
a. in the nucleus in both cases
b. in the cytoplasm in both cases
c. I. in the nucleus; II. in the cytoplasm
d. I. in the nucleus; II. in the nucleus and cytoplasm
e. I. in the nucleus; II. outside the cell
Gel electrophoresis separates fragments of DNA using
a. a sieving medium through which DNA fragments are moved by gravitational forces
b. repulsion of charged DNA molecules by the electrically charged gel beads
c. a sieving medium through which DNA molecules are moved by electrical forces
d. movement through a sieving medium by positively charged DNA molecules attracted by a
negative pole
e. movement of DNA fragments of different sizes at different speeds as a result of
ultracentrifugation
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____ 24. The recognition sites of five restriction endonucleases are shown below. Which would make cuts in the
following DNA fragment? You will need to draw in the complementary DNA strand before attempting this
question.
5'-GCAAGCTTGCTGCAGAATTACCCGGA-3'
Recognition Sites:
EcoRI
____ 25.
____ 26.
____ 27.
____ 28.
____ 29.
____ 30.
5'-GAATTC-3'
3'-CTTAAG-5'
SmaI
5'-GGGCCC-3'
3'-CCCGGG-5'
AluI
5'-AGCT-3'
3'-TCGA-5'
HindIII
5'-AAGCTT-3'
3'-TTCGAA-5'
a. HindIII and SmaI
d. EcoRI and HindIII
b. EcoRI and AluI
e. AluI and HindIII
c. EcoRI and SalI
In a research laboratory, an anaesthetized mouse has a fine tube inserted into one of its ureters. The number of
drops of urine excreted from the fine tube increases dramatically when a small amount of concentrated
glucose solution is injected into a vein The best explanation of this phenomenon is that
a. glucose in concentrated solution is isotonic to the extracellular fluid
b. a great increase in the amount of plasma increases the rate of formation of urine
c. the amount of glucose in the urine increases if the glucose content of the diet or blood
increases
d. urine discharge is naturally intermittent rather than continuous
e. glucose affects osmosis, one of the mechanisms involved in the formation of urine
A bus driving through the desert in Arizona breaks down. After walking three hours in the hot sun, which
person(s) described below makes (make) the appropriate choice(s) to restore body fluid volume?
I. reabsorbing more water
II. drinking a quantity of alcoholic beverage
III. excreting more salt to make water more isotonic
IV. reabsorbing more salt so that water follows
a. I only
d. I, II and III only
b. I and IV only
e. I, II and IV only
c. II and III only
When the ambient (room) temperature is very high (i.e., 105 degrees Fahrenheit), the body will lose heat by
a. radiation
d. increased metabolism
b. conduction
e. none of the above
c. evaporation
A patient exhibits the following symptoms: high phosphate content in the urine, prone to bone fractures by
minor accidents, and tender areas around the kidney due to stones. The doctor's assessment involves problems
with which of these hormone?
a. PTH
c. ADH
b. cortisol
d. thyroxine
A person who has experienced a considerable loss of mass, has a low blood calcium level, has protruding
eyes, is easily agitated, and always feels cold is likely suffering from which of the following?
a. diabetes insipidus
d. a hyperactive parathyroid
b. diabetes mellitus
e. an adrenal tumor
c. a hyperactive thyroid
The coordination of motor activities in mammals is carried out by which of the following?
a. pons
d. medulla
b. cerebellum
e. hypothalamus
c. cerebrum
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____ 31. Given the steps shown below, which is the correct sequence for transmission at a chemical synapse?
I. neurotransmitter binds with receptor
II. calcium ions rush into neuron's cytoplasm
III. action potential depolarizes the presynaptic membrane
IV. ion gate opens to allow particular ion to enter cell
V. synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft
a. I, II, III, IV and V
d. IV, III, I, II and V
b. II, III, V, IV and I
e. V, I, II, IV and III
c. III, II, V, I and IV
____ 32. People are not constantly aware of what they are wearing. This is called
a. sensory adaptation
d. motor unit recruitment
b. fovea accommodation
e. receptor amplification
c. rhodopsin bleaching
____ 33. Which of the population dispersion patterns is most often found in natural populations?
a. uniform dispersion
b. clumped dispersion
c. random dispersion
d. all of these patterns are equally common
e. none of the above
____ 34. Population density can be measured in which of the following?
a. individuals/m
d. all of the above
b. individuals/ha
e. only a and b
c. individuals/cm
____ 35. The number of organisms of the same species living within the total area of their entire habitat is best known
as which of the following?
a. population size
d. population dynamics
b. ecological density
e. none of the above
c. crude density
____ 36. The population dispersion pattern in which organisms are spread throughout their habitat in an unpredictable
manner is known as which of the following?
a. clumped
d. patterned
b. uniform
e. ecological
c. random
____ 37. Quadrat sampling is an efficient way of estimating the size of a population of which of the following?
a. small organisms
d. dangerous animals
b. stationary species
e. a and b only
c. migrating species
____ 38. In a small mark-recapture study, 10 animals are marked, then released. Later, of 10 animals trapped, only 1
has a mark. What is the total size of the population?
a. 10 animals
d. there is no way to determine the size
b. 100 animals
e. none of the above
c. 1000 animals
____ 39. In an field having an area of 3.0 ha is a pond with an area of 1.0 ha. A colony of ground squirrels numbering
90 animals lives here. Determine the ecological density of the population.
a. 2.0 ha
d. 45 ground squirrels/ha
b. 30 ground squirrels/ha
e. 180 ground squirrels/ha
c. 90 ground squirrels/ha
____ 40. Mice have the ability to produce over a dozen offspring every 3 weeks. This statement describes their
a. fertility
d. birth rate
b. fecundity
e. mating success
c. natality
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APPLICATION: ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS IN THE SPACE PROVIDED.
1. Draw a diagram of the structure of two different monosaccharaides. Indicate the differences. (3)
2. Draw a diagram that shows the reaction two amino acids to form a dipeptide. What type of reaction is this? (3)
3. What are two factors which influence protein higher order structure? (2)
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4. You are provided with two test tubes labeled A and B containing two different strains of yeast. One strain is able to
carry out only anaerobic respiration, the other can only carry out aerobic respiration. You note that the yeast in tube
B grows much more rapidly than the one in tube A. Which tube contains the yeast only able to carry out aerobic
respiration? Explain your choice. How could you verify your answer? (3)
5. Draw a diagram to of the electron transport chain in the mitochondrion. (4)
6. What is the importance of the ATP and NADPH + H+ produced in the thylakoid in the Calvin cycle? (4)
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7. Explain on structural and one physiological adaptation of C4 plant that helps them overcome photorespiration? (4)
8. How do ribosomes recognize the beginning or the genetic code on an mRNA molecule? (2)
9. Explain why DNA replication requires single stranded binding proteins. (1)
10. Briefly explain the repression of the tryptophan (trp) operon. Use appropriate diagrams in your answer. (3)
11. Explain the following in terms of kidney function:
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a) Individuals with diabetes insipidus excrete large volumes of urine. (1)
b) Consumption of alcohol can causes frequent urination. (1)
12. How are peptide and steroid hormones different? (2)
13. Sketch a diagram of a synapse. How does information move from the presynaptic to postsynaptic cell?. (4)
14. Draw a diagram of an exponential growth curve. Is this curve an accurate reflection of the long term growth of a
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natural population? Explain. (4)
15. Explain two factors which can limit population growth. (2)
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INQUIRY: ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS IN THE SPACE PROVIDED.
The following is a sequence of DNA which is transcribed in a cell:
3’ T A C A G A A T A T T A A C A G G C A C T 5’
a) Write the complementary sequence of this DNA. (2)
b) What RNA would be transcribed from the DNA? (2)
c) Write the amino acid sequence that the RNA would be translated into. (3)
d) Assume the ninth nucleotide in the DNA sequence was deleted. What effect will this have on the
amino acid sequence? What kind of mutation is this (hint: DELETION is NOT the right answer)?
(2)
e) Show an example of a silent mutation where at least one base in the DNA is changed. What type of
mutation is this? (3)
f) What is a different way that a silent mutation can occur in eukaryotic DNA? (2)
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On the front lawn of Lorne Park the number of dandelions in five quadrats was counted. The
quadrats contained 30, 26, 45, 10 and 18. If the lawn measures 64 m by 90 m:
a)
b)
What is the estimated size of the dandelion population on the lawn? (4)
What is the crude population density of the dandelion population? (2)
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