Full Syllabus
Test Paper No.-03
By Dr. Rishabh Choubey Sir
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A
1.
2.
An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use
of
(1) NOT gate
(2) OR gate
(3) Ex-OR gate
(4) NAND gate
4.
(1) A parabola
(2) An ellipse
(3) A straight line
(4) A circle
In the circuit shown in the figure, if ammeter and
voltmeter are ideal, then the power consumed by
6 Ω resistor will be
A transistor is used in common-emitter mode in
an amplifier circuit. When a signal of 20 mV is
added to the base-emitter voltage, the base
current changes by 20 µA and collector current
changes by 2 mA. The load resistance is 5 kΩ.
The transconductance of the amplifier and
voltage gain is respectively
3.
(1) 0.1 mho, 500
(2) 0.1 mho, 50
(3) 0.2 mho, 500
(4) 0.2 mho, 50
(1) 8 W
(2) 4 W
 R 
The graph of n 
 versus n(A) is (Here R is
 R0 
radius of a nucleus and A is its mass number)
(1)
(3)
8
W
3
(4)
4
W
3
5.
(1) µ0ni
(2)
µ0 ni
2
(4)
(3)
6.
9.
A very long solenoid as shown in the figure is
having n turns per unit length. The magnetic field
at point P is
µ0 ni
2 2
µ0 ni
2
10.
1 

1 −

2

A uniform chain of length l and mass m
overhangs a smooth table with one third part
hanging and two third part lying on the table. The
kinetic energy of the chain as it completely slips
off the table will be
(1)
mgl
3
(2)
2
mgl
9
(3)
mgl
18
(4)
4
mgl
9
In perfectly elastic collision
(1) The kinetic energy remains always constant
(2) The kinetic energy first increases and then
decreases
A particle is moving along x-axis. The positiontime graph is shown in the figure. Select the
correction statement.
(3) The initial kinetic energy is equal to final
kinetic energy
(4) The initial kinetic energy is greater than final
kinetic energy
11.
(1) The particle is continuously going in positive
x direction
(2) The particle is always at rest
12.
(3) Velocity of particle increases up to a time t0
and then becomes constant
A uniform cylinder of mass 1 kg and radius 2 cm
is rotating about its main axis at the rate of 4 rpm.
The constant torque required to stop it after 2π
revolution is
(1) 4.44 × 10–7 N m
(2) 1 × 10–7 N m
(3) 5 × 10–6 N m
(4) 1.78 × 106 N m
The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is
minimum about an axis perpendicular to the disc
and passing through
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity
up to time t0, then stops for time duration t0
and then returns back
7.
8.
Three particles A, B and C are situated at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side length 3
m. Each of the particles moves with constant
speed 2 m/s. A always has its velocity along
AB, B along BC and C along CA. After what time
will the particles meet each other?
(1) 1 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 1.5 s
(4) 0.5 s
13.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Which among the following statement is incorrect
regarding a uniform spherical shell?
(1) Inside the shell the gravitational potential is
zero
(2) Inside the shell, the gravitational field is zero
A park has a radius of 40 m. If a car goes round it
at speed of 36 kmph, then the proper angle of
banking should be
(3) Inside the shell, the gravitational potential is
same everywhere
(4) Inside the shell, the gravitational field is same
everywhere
(1) tan–1 (4)
(2) tan–1 (1)
14.
The breaking stress of a wire depends on
 1
(3) tan−1  
2
(1) Length of the wire
 1
(4) tan−1  
4
(3) Material of the wire
(2) Radius of the wire
(4) Shape of the cross-section
(2)
15.
Two liquids of same volume but of different
densities, ρ1 and ρ2 are mixed together, then the
density of the mixture is
(1)
2ρ1ρ2
ρ1 + ρ2
(3) ρ1 + ρ2
16.
(2)
20.
ρ1 + ρ2
2
(4) 2 ( ρ1 + ρ2 )
21.
A ball is thrown downward with some velocity into
a viscous liquid. Which of the following curves
may represents the possible variation for velocity
versus time?
(1)
(4) All of these
A metallic wire with two masses, each of mass
m, fixed at the two ends is passing over a slab of
ice. This wire passes through the ice slab without
splitting it. This demonstration is used in process
23.
(2) Sublimation
(3) Condensation
(4) Regelation
A piece of metal is heated in a flame. It first
becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow
and finally turns white hot. The correct
explanation for the above observation is possible
by using
(1) Wien’s displacement law
(2) Newton’s law of cooling
24.
(3) Stefan’s law
(4) Kirchhoff’s law
19.
(2)
100 + 7
373
(3)
100 − 7
100
(4)
100 − 7
373
The equation y = Asin2(ωt – kx) represents a
ω
2π
(2) With amplitude 2A and frequency
(1) Vaporisation
18.
100 + 7
100
(1) With amplitude A and frequency
22.
17.
(1)
wave motion
(2)
(3)
The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with
reservoir temperature at 100°C and –7°C will be
The molar specific heat at constant pressure of
7
R . The ratio of specific heat at
2
constant pressure to that at constant volume is
an ideal gas is
(1)
7
8
(2)
9
7
(3)
7
5
(4)
5
3
(3) With amplitude
A
ω
and frequency
2
π
(4) With amplitude
A
ω
and frequency
2
2π
When a sound wave is refracted from air to water
then which of the following will remain
unchanged?
(1) Frequency
(2) Wavelength
(3) Wave number
(4) Wave velocity
A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling
of a car accelerating uniformly on a horizontal
g
road with acceleration
. If length of pendulum
2
is l, then time period of small oscillations about
mean position is
(1) 2π

g
(2) 2π
(3) 2π
2
5g
(4) 2π
2
5g
2
3g
An acoustic engineer places a sound detector on
a railway station. A train, approaching the
platform at a speed of 10 m/s sounds a whistle.
The detector detects 10 kHz as the most
dominant frequency in the whistle. If the train
stops at platform and sounds the whistle, then
most dominant frequency detected will be nearly
(vsound = 340 m/s)
(1) 9.7 kHz
(2) 11.3 kHz
(3) 10.3 kHZ
(4) 8.5 kHz
(3)
ω
2π
25.
In the arrangement, shown in the figures all the
bulbs have same resistance. If bulb D gets fused,
then brightness of bulb B will (Battery is ideal)
29.
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
30.
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Depend on resistance of D
26.
A small sphere of mass m and having charge q is
suspended by an insulating thread of length l in a
uniform horizontal electric field. If it stands in
equilibrium at a distance d from the vertical line
from point of suspension, then magnitude of
electric field is
(3)
27.
q l2 − d2
mg
q
(2)
(4)
(2) 100 V
(3)
200
V
3
(4) 150 V
A potentiometer having a wire 10 m long
stretched on it is connected to a battery having a
steady voltage. A cell gives a null deflection point
at 700 cm. If the length of potentiometer wire is
increased by 2 m, then the new position of null
point will be
(1) 740 cm
(2) 800 cm
(3) 950 cm
(4) 840 cm
In a coaxial cylindrical straight cable, the inner
solid conductor and the outer conductor carry
equal currents in opposite directions. The
magnetic field is zero
(2) Inside the outer conductor
(3) In between the two conductor
(4) Outside the cable
32.
(1)
500
V
3
(1) Inside the inner conductor except axis
31.
mgd
(1)
mgl
The maximum value of the permeability of
Mu-metal is 0.126 T m A–1. The maximum value
of relative permeability will be nearly
(1) 105
(2) 8 × 104
(3) 4 × 105
(4) 7 × 103
Which among the following pairs of coils has zero
coupling constant?
q l2 − d2
mg  d 
q  l 
Electric charge Q is uniformly distributed around
a thin ring of radius a. The electric potential is
maximum on the axis of ring at
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) Centre of the ring
(2)
±
(3) ±
a
2
on the axis of ring
a
on the axis of ring
2
33.
(4) Infinity
28. A 2 µF capacitor is charged to a potential of
200 V and a 1 µF capacitor is charged to 100 V.
The capacitors are then connected in parallel
with plates of opposite polarity joined together.
The common potential will be
(4)
A coil of resistance 100 Ω is placed in a magnetic
field. If the magnetic flux φ (in Wb) linked with the
coil varies with time t(in s) as φ= 40t2 + 8. The
current in the coil at time t = 1 s is
(1) 0.8 A
(2) 1.6 A
(3) 2.4 A
(4) 1.0 A
34.
35.
41.
The primary winding of an ideal transformer has
1000 turns whereas its secondary has
5000 turns. The primary is connected to an ac
supply of 220 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have
an output of
(1) 550 V
(2) 1100 V
(3) 440 V
(4) 44 V
42.
Which among the following is the cause of
“Greenhouse effect”?
(1) Infrared rays
(2) X-rays
(3) Radio waves
(4) Gamma rays
(1) 4λ
(2) 2λ
(3) 5λ
(4) 6λ
The electrical conductivity of pure silicon can be
increased by
(1) Increasing the temperature
(2) Doping the impurities
(3) Irradiating UV light on it
SECTION-B
36.
A certain radioactive material can undergo three
different types of decay simultaneously each with
different decay constant λ, 2λ and 2λ. Then the
effective decay constant λeff is
(4) All of these
A light ray is incident on a glass sphere of
43.
refractive index µ = 3 at an angle of incidence
60° as shown in the figure. The total deviation
after two refractions will be
44.
The dimensions of the ratio of electric dipole
moment to the magnetic dipole moment will be
(1) [M0L0T0]
(2) [M0L–1T]
(3) [M0LT]
(4) [M0LT–1]
Consider the following statements.
(a) The addition of 10.0 + 0.048 have three
significant figures.
37.
38.
(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 120°
(b) For a given quantity, the numerical value (n)
is directly proportional to the unit (u).
Choose the incorrect statement(s).
(1) (a) only
A near-sighted man can clearly see objects up to
a distance of 2 m. The power of the lens of the
spectacles necessary for the remedy of this
defect is
(1) – 1 D
(2) 2 D
(3) 0.25 D
(4) – 0.5 D
(3) Both (a) and (b)
45.
Fringe width in YDSE
46.
(1) Is proportional to wavelength of light used
(2) Is inversely
between slits
proportional
to
(3) 2x
40.
(2) α < β if P < Q
(3) α < β if P > Q
(4) α < β if P = Q
An object may have
(3) Non zero acceleration without having varying
speed
(4) Both (2) and (3)
47.
The resolving power of an electron microscope
operated at 24 kV is x. The resolving power of
the electron microscope when operated at 6 kV is
x
2
(1) α < β
(2) Varying velocity without having varying speed
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1)
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)


The resultant of two vectors P and Q makes an


angle α with P and β with Q , then
(1) Varying speed without having varying velocity
separation
(3) Is directly proportional to separation between
slits
39.
(2) (b) only
Consider two block system in equilibrium as
shown in the figure. All the surfaces are rough.
The direction of friction on B due to A
(2) x
(4) 4x
An electron in hydrogen like atom is in an excited
state. It has a total energy of – 3.4 eV. The de
Broglie wavelength of the electron is nearly
(2) Is downward
(1) 9.33 Å
(2) 6.66 Å
(3) Is zero
(3) 3.33 Å
(4) 12.67 Å
(4) Depends on masses of A and B
(1) Is upward
(5)
48.
49.
50.
The velocity of centre of mass of the system
remains constant. The net external force acting
on the system is
A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force

F =( −3i + 4 j ) N . If its initial velocity at t = 0 is
(1) Minimum
(2) Maximum

=
u
(3) Unity
(4) Zero
have a velocity along y axis is
The equation of a projectile are given by x = 36t
and y = 48t – 4.9t2. Here x, y and t are in SI units.
The angle of projection is
(1) 37°
(2) 45°
(3) 53°
(4) 60°
( 6i − 12 j ) m/s . The time at which it will just
(1) 10 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 15 s
(4) 5 s
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51.
52.
57.
Number of electrons present in 49 g of H2SO4 is
(NA = Avogadro’s number)
(1) 0.5 NA
(2) 5 NA
(3) 2.5 NA
(4) 25 NA
(3) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = −
55.
56.
(3) O2+
(4) O2
58.
1
2
1
2
(4) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s = +
54.
(2) O2–
1
2
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = –1, s = +
53.
(1) N2
Which of the following sets of quantum number is
not possible?
(1) n = 4, l = 0, m = 1, s = –
59.
1
2
Ratio of energies of electrons in 4 orbit of He
and 2nd orbit of H atom is
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 : 1
Dipole-dipole
interaction
energy
between
stationary polar molecules (as in solid state) is
proportional to
(1)
1
r6
(2)
1
r3
(3)
1
r2
(4)
1
r
A real gas approaches ideal behaviour at
(1) High temperature and low pressure
th
(1) 1 : 1
Maximum bond length among the following is of
+
(2) 6 and 3
(3) 3 and 6
(4) 6 and 6
Which of the following order
regarding ionisation enthalpy?
(1) B > Li
(2) B > Be
(3) N > O
(4) F > N
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(4) Low temperature and high pressure
Oxidation state and covalence
[AlCl(H2O)5]2+ are respectively
(1) 3 and 3
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
of
is
Al
60.
in
incorrect
61.
Shape of ClF3 molecule is
(1) Pyramidal
(2) Trigonal planar
(3) Bent-T-shape
(4) Tetrahedral
1 mol of ideal gas expands reversibly and
isothermally from 1 L to 100 L at 300 K. The heat
exchange during the process is nearly
(1) 0
(2) 600R
(3) 900R
(4) 1380R
If standard enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is
–x kJ mol–1 then how much energy in kJ will be
required to break 34 g NH3(g) into N2(g) and
H2(g)?
(1)
x
2
(3) 2x
(6)
(2) x
(4) 4x
62.
71.
If Kc = x for CO(g) + 3H2(g)  CH4(g) + H2O(g)
then Kc for the reaction,
I.
1
1
1
3
CH4(g) +
H2O(g) 
CO(g) +
H2(g)
2
2
2
2
will be
II. Paper chromatography is a type of partition
chromatography
(1) x
(3)
(2)
1
(4)
2x
1
x
(1) 100 mL
(2) 250 mL
(3) 500 mL
(4) 200 mL
72.
73.
(3) 0.2 M aqueous HCl
Oxidation state of P in PH3, P2H4 and P4
respectively are
(4) –3, –2, –1
2–
7
and SO
2–
3
70.
(4) 24%
O2
( CH3 COO )2 Mn, ∆
CH3 CH3 → A
(1) CH3CHO
(2) CH3OCH3
(3) CH3CH2OH
(4) CH3COOH
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
in balanced redox
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 2 : 3
75.
Soda ash is
(1) Na2CO3 ⋅ 10H2O
(2) Na2CO3 ⋅ 9H2O
(3) Na2CO3 ⋅ H2O
(4) Na2CO3
(2) (CH3)2SiCl2
(3) (CH3)2Si(OH)2
(4) (CH3)3SiOH
Which of the following on heating give(s) brown
colour gas?
(1) Be(NO3)2
(2) Mg(NO3)2
(3) Ca(NO3)2
(4) All of these
77.
(2) amine
(3) amide
(4) ammine
(2) H2C = CH2
(3) CH3 – CH3
(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH3
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Second nearest neighbour distance of Na+ in
terms of edge length a for NaCl lattice is
(1) a
IUPAC group prefix for – NH2 group is
(1) amino
(1) HC ≡ CH
Product C in the above reaction is
H2 O
Cu Powder
2CH3 Cl + Si 
→ A 
→B
570 K
(1) CH3SiCl3
Most acidic compound among the following is
76.
Product B is
69.
(2) 16%
Product A in the given reaction is
reaction for acidic medium is
68.
0.5 g of an organic compound gave 0.188 g
AgBr. The percentage of Br in the organic
compound is (At mass : Ag = 108 u, Br = 80 u)
(2) –1, –4, 0
(3) –3, 0, 0
67.
(4) I and III only
74.
(4) 0.2 M aqueous NH3
Ratio of Cr2 O
(3) II and III only
Product A in above reaction is
(2) 0.1 M aqueous CaCl2
66.
(2) I and II only
(3) 8%
Maximum solubility of AgCl is in
(1) –3, –2, 0
(1) I, II and III
(1) 48%
(1) 0.1 M aqueous NaCl
65.
Thin layer chromatography is adsorption
chromatography
III. Chromatography is classified into adsorption
and partition chromatography
1
x
63. How much volume (in mL) of 0.2 M CH3COOH
should be added in 500 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
solution to make a buffer solution of pH = 4.7?
[pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.7]
64.
Consider the following statements
(3)
(7)
(2)
a
2
(4)
a
2
a
3
78.
SECTION-B
Mole fraction of component A in vapour phase of
ideal solution of 5 mol of A and 10 mol of B is
86.
o
o
( PA = 200 torr, PB = 100 torr)
(1)
1
2
(2)
1
3
(3)
1
4
(4)
1
5
87.
79. Maximum prescribed concentration of zinc in
drinking water is
80.
(1) 50 ppm
(2) 10 ppm
(3) 100 ppm
(4) 5 ppm
88.
89.
(2) H2S2O5
(3) H2SO5
(4) H2S2O7
CuCl2
4HCl + O2 
→ 2Cl2 + 2H2O
Consider the following statements
B. XeOF4 has a square pyramidal molecular
structure
Maximum emf among the following is of
(0.2 M) || Cu
2+
C. Partial hydrolysis of XeF6 gives XeOF4
(0.1 M) | Cu(s)
D. Hybridisation of Xe in XeOF4 is sp3d2
(3) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.2 M) || Cu2+ (0.3 M) | Cu(s)
The correct statements are
(4) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.3 M) || Cu2+ (0.2 M) | Cu(s)
(1) A, B, C and D
(2) B, C and D only
Ratio of t99.9% to t90% for first order reaction is
(3) A, B and C only
(4) B and D only
(1) 10 : 1
(2) 9 : 1
(3) 6 : 1
(4) 3 : 1
90.
For which of the following order unit of rate of
reaction and rate constant are same?
91.
Enthalpy of atomisation is lowest for
(1) Cu
(2) Zn
(3) Co
(4) Ni
Minimum ionic radii among the following is of
(1) 3 order
(2) 2
order
(1) Ce3+
(2) Pr3+
(3) 1st order
(4) 0th order
(3) Nd3+
(4) Pm3+
rd
nd
92.
Select the incorrect statement regarding lyophilic
colloids?
Select the correct-regarding [NiCl4]2– ion
(1) Paramagnetic in nature
(1) Directly formed by mixing
(2) sp3d hybridised
(2) Cannot be easily coagulated
(3) Square planar shape
(3) Irreversible sols
(4) Magnetic moment is
(4) Gum and gelatin are the examples
85.
(1) H2S2O4
A. XeOF4 is a coloured volatile liquid
(1) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.1 M) || Cu2+ (0.2 M) | Cu(s)
84.
Which of the following acid contains peroxide
linkage?
(4) Lead chamber process
(4) ∧m and κ both decreases
83.
(4) Te
(3) Ostwald process
(3) ∧m decreases while κ increases
82.
(3) Se
(2) Deacon’s process
(2) ∧m and κ both increases
(2) Mg(s) | Mg
(2) S
(1) Contact’s process
On dilution
2+
(1) O
Given process is known as
(1) ∧m increases while κ decreases
81.
Least negative electron gain enthalpy among the
following is of
93.
Leaching of gold and silver is carried out by
(1) NaCN
18 BM
Fastest SN1 reaction rate is observed in
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) H2SO4
(4) NaOH
(8)
94.
97.
Weakest acid among the following is
(1) o-Nitrophenol
(2) o-Cresol
(3) p-Cresol
(4) Ethanol
Molecule which does not undergo Friedel –
Crafts reaction is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
95.
P is
98.
(1)
(2)
99.
Vulcanisation of rubber requires use of
(1) 5% phosphorous
(2) 5% sulphur
(3) 5% carbon
(4) 5% silicon
Dettol, used as an antiseptic is a mixture of
(1) Boric acid and iodine
(3)
96
(2) Phenol and cresol
(4)
(3) Chloroxylenol and terpineol
(4) Iodoform and bithionol
Select the most reactive compound towards
nucleophilic addition reaction.
100. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are
(1) Ethanal
(2) Propanal
(1) Anomers
(2) Epimers
(3) Propanone
(4) Methanal
(3) Tautomers
(4) Enantiomers
BOTANY
SECTION-A
104. The site for active rRNA synthesis is
101. In certain bacteria, small circular DNA found
outside the genomic DNA is called
(1) Nucleoid
(2) Plasmid
(3) Polysome
(4) Nucleolus
102. Select
the
incorrect
endomembrane system.
cell
(4) Cytoplasm
as
(2) Involves protein synthesis
(3) Centriole duplicates in cytoplasm
single
(4) RNA formation occurs
106. Bivalents
(1) Are formed in pachytene stage
(3) Involved in processing and packaging of
materials
its
(3) Ribosome
(1) Most of the cell organelles duplicate here
for
(2) Includes ER, Golgi body, lysosomes and
vacuoles
(4) Functions of
coordinated
(2) Nucleolus
105. Find the odd one for G1 phase.
statement
(1) Consists of double as well
membrane bound organelles
(1) Nucleus
organelles
(2) Are made up
chromosomes
are
of
two
non-homologous
(3) Are stabilised by synaptonemal complex
(4) Consists of two chromatids only
103. Which one is not true for mitochondria?
107. Chiasmata terminalize during
(1) Inner membrane forms infoldings called
cristae
(1) Diplotene
(2) It produces cellular energy
(2) Pachytene
(3) It contains RNA as well as DNA
(3) Diakinesis
(4) It contains 80S ribosomes
(4) Zygotene
(9)
108. Which one is not a defining feature of human
beings?
(1) Internal growth
(2) Reproduction
(3) Metabolism
(4) Cellular organisation
109. Mark the incorrect one for eubacteria.
(1) Some of them have chlorophyll a and b
(2) They can
substances
oxidise
various
be
unicellular,
colonial
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Desmids
C
(1) F
T
F
(2) T
F
T
(3) F
T
T
(4) T
F
F
(1) Have chlorophyll a and c as major pigments
(2) Produce laterally
zoospores
or
inserted
biflagellated
(3) Store food in the form of starch
(4) Have cellulosic inner cell wall and outer cell
wall of algin
110. The autotrophic protists that have stiff cellulosic
plates on surface of their walls are
(1) Diatom
B
116. Chlorophyceae members
inorganic
(3) Includes some wall-less monerans
(4) They can
filamentous
A
117. The leafy member of liverworts is
111. Puccinia belongs to the group which includes
organisms with
(1) Porella
(2) Riccia
(3) Marchantia
(4) Funaria
118. Root pressure
(1) Endogenously produced meiospores
(1) Develops due to active absorption of water
(2) Dikaryotic hyphae
(2) Is negative hydrostatic pressure
(3) Coenocytic branched hyphae
(3) Is effective in day time
(4) Well developed sex organs
(4) Develops and effective in tall plants
112. Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in
119. Facilitated diffusion does not
(1) Mustard
(2) Guava
(1) Require proteins
(3) Alstonia
(4) China rose
(2) Depend on ATP
113. Select the wrong statement.
(3) Occur from high to low concentration
(1) Mature bean seed lacks endosperm
(4) Show saturation
(2) Aleurone layer are triploid in nature
120. The element which is major component of middle
lamella is
(3) Maize and pea have perispermic seeds
(4) Coleoptile and coleorhiza are protective
sheath like structure in monocot seed
114. The only living component of xylem tissue is
(1) Calcium
(2) Sodium
(3) Manganese
(4) Sulphur
121. The pigment that appears
chromatogram is
(1) Tracheid
yellow-green in
(2) Vessel
(1) Chlorophyll a
(2) Xanthophyll
(3) Xylem sclerenchyma
(3) Carotenoid
(4) Chlorophyll b
(4) Ray parenchyma
122. The most crucial step of Calvin cycle
115. State true (T) or false (F) to the following
statements and select the correct option.
(a) Is catalysed by RuBisCO
(b) Utilises NADPH
A. Protonema is juvenile stage of Riccia.
(c) Is called carboxylation
B. Mosses have elaborated mechanism of spore
dispersal.
Select the correct one (s).
C. Bryophytes can serve as food source for
birds.
(10)
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (c) only
123. The steps of Krebs cycle where decarboxylation
occurs are
129. Which of
xenogamy?
the
given
features
promotes
(a) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA
(1) Dioecy
(2) Cleistogamy
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid → α-KGA
(3) Homogamy
(4) Bud pollination
(c) Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
130. ________ are slightly different forms of a gene.
Fill the above blank by choosing correct option.
(d) α-KGA → Succinyl CoA
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(1) Alleles
(2) True line
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) Dominant factors
(4) Cistron
131. A normal woman whose mother was colourblind
marries a haemophilic man. What are the
chances of colourblindness and haemophilia in
their children?
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
124. During
ETS,
equivalents to
FADH2
transfers
(1) FMN
(2) UQ
(3) Cyt a and a3
(4) Cyt c
reducing
(1) 50% daughter
haemophilic
132. An example of monosomy is
(3) Breaking of dormancy of seed
(1) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Induction of root hair development on stem
cutting
(2) Down’s syndrome
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome
126. Choose the plants that do not show any
correlation between exposure to light duration
and induction of flowering response.
(4) Radish
(4) Edward’s syndrome
133. During replication, unwinding of DNA helix is
performed by
127. All are pre-fertilization events, except
(1) Syngamy
(2) Pollination
(3) Gametogenesis
(4) Gamete transfer
Apocarpous
gynoecium
(i) 3 celled, 3 nucleate
b.
Egg apparatus
(ii) Lotus
c.
Syncarpous
gynoecium
(iii) Haploid
d.
Embryo sac
(iv) Papaver
(2) Gyrase
(3) Topoisomerase
(4) Ligase
(1) RNA polymerase
Column-II
a.
(1) Helicase
134. Select the wrong match.
128. Match the columns and select the correct option.
Column-I
as
(4) All children are normal
(2) Enhancement of sugarcane yield
(3) Wheat
well
(3) 50% daughter haemophilic and 50% son
normal
(1) Bolting in rosette plants
(2) Soyabean
as
(2) 50% son colourblind and 50% son normal
125. Which of the given functions is not under
influence of gibberellins?
(1) Tomato
colourblind
– Unwinds DNA during
transcription
(2) RNA polymerase III – Transcribes transfer
RNA
(3) RNA polymerase II – Transcribes 5S rRNA
(4) RNA polymerase I
– Transcribes peptidyl
transferase
135. Which one is a high yielding variety of rice?
(1) Sonalika
(2) Himgiri
(3) Jaya
(4) Atlas 66
SECTION-B
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
136. Citric acid is produced by
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Acetobacter aceti
(2) Aspergillus niger
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Lactobacillus
(4) Penicillium
(11)
137. Which one is incorrectly matched?
(1) CAM pathway
– Opuntia
(2) Kangaroo rat
– Fat oxidation
(3) Seals
– Fat blubber
143. Read the given statements and choose the
correct option.
Statement A: Steller’s sea cow became extinct
due to over exploitation.
Statement B: Carrot grass is a weed that
exterminate many herbs and shrubs of the area
where it grows.
(4) Altitude sickness – Body decreases RBC
production to adapt
(1) Only statement A is correct
138. Which one is not a biofertiliser?
(1) Anabaena
(2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Nostoc
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Oscillatoria
144. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
(4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
a. Electrostatic precipitator – Have costly metals
like platinum
139. All of the following are important roles of
predators in ecosystem, except
(1) Transfer energy across trophic levels
b. Scrubber – Removes SO2 produced from
industries
(2) Keep pray population under control
c.
(3) Result in extinction of prey by overexploiting
them
(1) a only
(2) a and b
(4) Maintain species diversity
(3) b and c
(4) All a, b and c
145. Eutrophication
140. Find the wrong one w.r.t. productivity.
(1) GPP is the available
consumption to heterotroph
biomass
Catalytic converters – Converts unburnt
hydrocarbons into CO2 and H2O
for
(2) Annual NPP of whole biosphere is
approximately 170 billion tons of organic
matter
(1) Can be man made only
(2) Refers to aging of water bodies by nutrient
enrichment of its water
(3) Occurs due to discharge of pesticides in
water
(4) Leads to decrease in temperature of water
body
(3) Deserts and deep sea are some of the least
productive ecosystems
(4) GPP is rate of production of organic matter
by producers per unit area and time
141. In an ecological pyramid
146. Tropospheric ozone
(1) Is also called good ozone
(2) Is a secondary air pollutant
(3) Is a part of photochemical smog
(1) Food chain and food webs are accommodated
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Detritivores occupy top most position
147. If 1000 J energy falls on plants then how much
energy will be provided by frog to snake?
(3) Insectivorous plants does not occupies any
place
Plant → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
(4) Saprophytes are placed at all trophic levels
142. In IUCN red data book, which of the given animal
is placed under extinct category?
(1) 1 J
(2) 0.1 J
(3) 0.01 J
(4) 10 J
148. Plants that have archegonia inside ovule
(1) Dodo
(1) Lack vascular system
(2) Lion
(2) Are called archegoniate spermatophyte
(3) Tiger
(3) Produce flowers
(4) Panda
(4) Show double fertilization
(12)
150. Choose the example which is odd one w.r.t. haplodiplontic life cycle.
149. Cells that enter G0 phase
(1) Become metabolically inactive
(1) Fucus
(2) Can never proliferate
(2) Funaria
(3) Start duplicating its cell organelles
(4) Exit the G1 phase to enter into an inactive
phase
(3) Pteris
(4) Ectocarpus
ZOOLOGY
156. Select the odd one w.r.t. reproductive system of
male cockroach.
SECTION-A
151. Study the scientific names and common names
of certain animals given below.
Scientific Name
(1) A pair of testes lying one each lateral side in
4th-6th abdominal segment
Common Name
(a) Physalia
–
Sea fur
(b) Asterias
–
Brittle star
(c) Gorgonia
–
Sea pen
(d) Loligo
–
Squid
(2) A characteristic mushroom shaped gland is
present in 6th-7th abdominal segments which
function as an accessory reproductive gland
(3) Male gonopore is situated dorsal to anus
(4) Sperms are stored in seminal vesicles
Which of the above option are correct?
157. Study the list of biomolecules given below and
choose the option that shows molecules with
glycosidic linkages.
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(2) Only b and c
(3) a, c, and d only
(4) All a, b, c, d and e
(3) Fall in pH
(3) Chelone and Crocodilia
(4) Increase in H+ ion concentration
(4) Bungarus and Betta
159. Choose the option which give the correct
combination.
154. Animals belonging to how many classes of
division
Gnathostomata
exhibit
internal
fertilisation?
(4) Four
(1) Only a and b
(2) Increase in pCO2
(2) Calotes and Felis
(3) Three
d. Lactose
Adenosine
(1) Fall in pO2 in arterial blood
(1) Neophron and Macaca
(2) Two
c.
158. All of the followings act as stimulus for excitation
of chemoreceptors for regulation of respiration,
except
153. Homeothermy is a feature shared by
(1) One
b. Haemoglobin
e. Lecithin
152. How many among Chiton, Limulus, Chaetopleura
and Nereis, exhibit true segmentation and close
circulatory system?
(1) One
a. Glycogen
(1) Chloride shift Occurs only at lungs alveoli
level
(2) Haemoglobin Binds approximate 65% of
oxygen in a healthy person
155. Striated muscles are present in all except
(1) Biceps
(3) Vital capacity After deep inspiration
maximum expiration by lungs
(2) Abdominal wall
(3) Myocardium
(4) Respiratory
Present in pons
rhythm centre
(4) Urinary bladder wall
(13)
160. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option.
Column-I
164. The first heart sound is
B
associated with
Column-II
sound is
a. Sphincter of Oddi (i) Inhibits gastric secretion
and motility
b. GIP
(ii) Contains both smooth
and striated muscles
c. Oesophagus
(iii) Hepatopancreatic duct
d. Hepatic lobules
(iv) Structural and functional
unit of liver
C
A
which is
and the second heart
which is associated with
D
.
Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A,
B, C and D.
A
B
C
D
(1) Lub Opening of Dub Closure of semilunar
AV valves
valves
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
161. Select the correct statement w.r.t. dentition of
human.
(2) Lub Opening of Dub Opening of
AV valves
semilunar valves
(3) Lub Closure of
AV valves
Dub Closure of semilunar
valves
(4) Lub Closure of
AV valves
Dub Opening of
semilunar valves
165. Select
the
incorrect
explanation
w.r.t.
phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard
electrocardiogram.
(1) All teeth in humans are diphyodont and
thecodont
(2) Upper jaw contains 3 premolar and 2 molar
teeth in adults
(1) QRS
complex
depolarisation
(3) 8 premolar and 4 molar teeth come only once
time in a life
(2) The end of T-wave marks the end of
ventricular systole
(4) Incisor teeth are present in between canine
and molar teeth in humans
(3) By counting the number of QRS complexes
that occur in a given time, one can determine
the heart rate of an individual
162. Every 1000 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately ______ ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(1) 15
(2) 40
(3) 30
(4) 4
indicates
ventricular
(4) P wave indicates beginning of ventricular
contraction
166. Which of the following substance in
glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed passively?
the
(1) Some nitrogenous wastes
163. A histogram representing volume of blood
existing in veins (V), arteries (A) and
capillaries (C) in the human body at a particular
time. Identify the correct option.
(2) Glucose
(3) Amino acids
(4) Na+
167. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1)
(3)
(1) Muscular tissue is mesodermal in origin
(2)
(2) Macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit
amoeboid movement
(3) Passage of ova through the female
reproductive tract is facilitated by ciliary
movement
(4)
(4) In humans about 20-30 percent of body
weight is contributed by muscles
(14)
175. Which of the following event increases when
there is depolarisation of a nerve fibre?
168. The osmolarity of the glomerular filtrate in
a is less than 300 mOsmol/L.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank a.
(1) Influx of sodium ions into the neuron
(1) PCT
(2) Influx of potassium ions into the neuron
(2) DCT
(3) Diffusion of Cl– ions into the neurons
(3) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(4) Diffusion of Ca+2 ions into the neurons
176. Choose the wrong statement.
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(1) The dorsal root ganglion contains pseudounipolar neuron
169. Identify the disorder of skeletal system which is
associated
with
disturbance
in
purine
metabolism.
(1) Tetany
(2) Gout
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Osteoporosis
(2) In eye, lateral to the blind spot is a yellowish
pigmented spot called fovea with a central pit
called macula lutea having greatest visual
acuity
170. Number of true ribs are equal to number of
(1) False ribs
(2) Facial bones
(3) Carpals
(4) Floating ribs
(3) The otolith organ of vestibular apparatus of
inner ear consists of the utricle and saccule
(4) The association areas in cerebral cortex are
regions that are neither clearly sensory nor
motor in function
171. If the rise in blood volume/body fluid volume is
more than normal then
177. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
(1) Secretion of ADH increases
(2) Secretion of aldosterone increases
(A) The sizes of crow and parrot are not very
distinct yet their life spans show a wide
difference.
(3) Secretion of ANF decreases
(4) Secretion of mineralocorticoids decreases
172. Select the correct secondary messenger for
FSH.
(1) cGMP
(2) cAMP
(B) Sexual reproduction is a biological process in
which an organism give rise to genetically
different young ones from itself.
(3) IP3
(4) DAG
(1) Both statements are correct
173. Parasympathetic
responsible for
nervous
system
is
(2) Both statements are incorrect
not
(3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Increase in peristalsis movement
(4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Contraction of urinary bladder
178. In humans, first cleavage division in zygote is
completed in which of the following region of
female genital tract?
(3) Increase in force of contraction and stroke
volume
(1) Uterus
(4) Increase gastric juice from gastric glands
174. An example/s of antagonistic
controlling homeostasis is/are
(2) Infundibulum of oviduct
hormones
(3) Isthmus region of fallopian tube
(4) Cervix
(a) Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine
179. Complete the analogy
(b) TCT and PTH hormone
(c) Oxytocin and prolactin
Leydig cells : Androgens :: Sertoli cells : ____
(d) Insulin and glucagon
(1) Testosterone
Choose the correct option.
(2) Inhibin
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) Prolactin
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b) and (d)
(4) Progesterone
(15)
SECTION-B
180. All of the following are steps taken by
government to check the increasing population
growth, except
(1) Motivating smaller
contraceptive method
families
to
186. In below given diagram of cloning vector pBR322
choose the option which includes only
incorrectly labelled components w.r.t. site of
restriction endonuclease enzymes.
adopt
(2) National programme and slogans to check on
population growth
(3) Promotion of abortion if second pregnancy
occurs
(4) Promotion of tubectomy and vasectomy
181. Accessory reproductive gland in human male
which contributes 60% of semen’s total volume
is/are
(1) Prostate gland
(2) Cowper’s gland
(3) Seminal vesicles
(4) Bulbourethral gland
(1) Bam HI and Pst I
182. Among the following contraceptive methods,
select one which has maximum average failure
rate
(1) Rhythm method
(2) LNG-20
(3) Norplant
(4) Mala-D
(2) Pst I and Pvu I
(3) Pvu I and Pvu II
(4) EcoRI and Sal I
187. Anti-tetanus serum is included in
183. Finger like projections called chorionic villi are
formed by
(1) Physical barrier of innate immunity
(2) Natural passive immunity
(1) Trophoblast
(3) Artificial passive immunity
(2) Uterine myometrium
(4) Natural active immunity
(3) Uterine endometrium
188. Read the following statements and choose the
correct answer.
(4) Inner cell mass
184. Select the correct matching w.r.t. PCR.
(1)
Denaturation Occurs at 40°C
(2)
Annealing
(A) Excessive
dose
hallucination.
of
cocaine
causes
(B) Flavr Savr tomato remains fresh for longer
duration.
Requires activity of Taq
polymerase
(1) Both statements are correct
(3)
Extension
Requires deoxy-nucleotides
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(4)
Primers
Attach on 5′ end of single
DNA strand
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
(4) Only statement (B) is correct
185. 5′ − GGATCC − 3′ is the recognition site for the
action of restriction endonuclease enzyme
189. Which of the following characteristics is correct
for Neanderthal man?
(1) Discovered fire
(1) Hind II
(2) Tool maker man
(2) Bam HI
(3) Prehistoric cave art
(3) EcoRI
(4) Used hides as clothing and had burial
customs
(4) Sma I
(16)
196. Read the following statements and choose the
correct answer.
190. Which among the following is an example of
adaptive convergence?
(1) Tendrils of
Bougainvillea
Cucurbita
and
thorn
A. The collagen fibres provide
elasticity and flexibility in all
connective tissue.
of
(2) Koala and marsupial wolf
strength,
kinds of
B. In areolar connective tissue, the fibroblasts
secrete modified polysaccharides, which
accumulate between cells and fibres and act
as ground substance.
(3) Darwin’s finches
(4) Flying phalanger and flying squirrel
191. Fluid filled cavity called antrum is associated with
(1) Both statements are correct
(1) Primordial follicle
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Primary follicle
(3) Only statements A is correct
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Tertiary follicle
197. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Exocoetus.
192. The hyperproduction of GH before puberty result
in a condition known as
(1) It is a viviparous animal
(2) It contains 6-15 pairs of gill slits for
respiration
(1) Acromegaly
(3) It possesses bony cranium and vertebral
column
(2) Gigantism
(3) Cretinism
(4) It belongs to super class tetrapoda
(4) Dwarfism
198. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. digestive glands.
193. In MOET, the fertilised eggs at
celled stage
are recovered non-surgically and transferred to
surrogate mother.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
(1) 5-8
(2) 8-32
(3) 32-64
(4) 1-2
(1)
Liver
– Largest gland of the body
(2)
Gall bladder
– Cystic duct
(3)
Salivary
glands
– Situated inside the
buccal cavity
(4)
Instestinal
gland
– Secrete succus entericus
199. Every 1000 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately
194. Evolution of DDT resistant mosquito is best
explained by which category of natural selection?
(1) 5 ml of O2 to the alveoli
(1) Stabilising selection (2) Directional selection
(2) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(3) Disruptive selection (4) Balancing selection
(3) 40 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(4) 50 ml of O2 to the alveoli
195. Which of the following disease is associated with
cattles?
200. In human heart, the pericardium is present
(1) Anthrax
(1) Outside the myocardium
(2) Ranikhet
(2) Inside the endocardium
(3) Pebrine
(3) Between myocardium and endocardium
(4) New castle disease
(4) Inside the myocardium


(17)
