PREBOARD EXAMINATION
ENGINEERING SCIENCES AND ALLIED SUBJECTS
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading
the box corresponding to letter of your choice on the sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. GOOD LUCK.
1.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is otherwise known as "The New Electrical Engineering Law"?
RA 184
RA 5734
RA 7920
RA 7902
2. Under Article I of RA 7920, what refers to any equipment, which
produces, modifies, regulates, or controls the supply of electrical
energy?
A. Electric supply equipment
B. Power plant equipment
C. Electric plant equipment
D. Power generator
3. In Section 2, Article I of RA 7920, what refers to the power plant
mounted on wheels as used in the railroad transportation industry?
A. Watercraft
B. Electrical locomotive
C. Electrical transit
D. Electrical substation
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is another term for operating system (OS)?
Start-up program
Computer program
Monitor program
All of the choices
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
If the program is placed in ROM or EPROM, it is referred to as
software
firmware
hardware
software and firmware
6.
What is the smallest type of computer in terms of their physical sizes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Minicomputer
Mainframe
Maxicomputer
Microcomputer
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is a central processing unit (CPU) on a single chip?
Integrated circuit
Microprocessor
Accumulator
ALU
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the function of the Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)?
Executes command and manipulates data
Holds data for further manipulation
Provide temporary data storage in sequential order
Carries the actual data
9.
What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received
if a particular strategy is rejected?
A. Opportunity cost
B. Ghost cost
C. Horizon cost
D. Null cost
10. What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing
depreciation is seldom used in the industry?
A. Unstable economy
B. Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
C. The initial depreciation is high.
D. The initial depreciation is low.
11. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects
over the depreciation period of the asset?
A. Asset recovery
B. Depreciation recovery
C. Period recovery
D. After-tax recovery
12.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is used to record historical financial transactions?
Bookkeeping system
Ledger system
Balance check
General journal system
13. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts
receivable are collected?
A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Acid test ratio
D. Receivable turnover
14.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Poise is a unit of viscosity derived from which of the following?
dyne-second per square centimeter
pound-second per square foot
slugs-second per square foot
gram-second per square centimeter
15.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the velocity of a fluid particle at the center of the pipe?
Minimum
Maximum
Between minimum and maximum
Zero
16.
A.
B.
C.
D.
It refers to weight of the fluid per unit volume. Which one?
Absolute weight
Mass
Specific weight
Gravitational acceleration
17. Bernoulli's law for fluid flow is based on which of the following
principles?
A. Conservation of mass
B. Conservation of energy
C. Newton's second law of motion
D. Continuity equation
18.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following is NOT a reaction turbine?
Francis turbine
Thomson turbine
Pelton wheel turbine
Kaplan turbine
19. Which of the following is an empirical factor that accounts for the friction
and turbulence at the orifice?
A. Coefficient of friction
B. Coefficient of contraction
C. Coefficient of velocity
D. Coefficient of discharge
20. For pure metals, what happens to the thermal conductivity if the
temperature is extremely high?
A. Approaches infinity
B. Decreases except for ferrous metals
C. Almost constant except for ferromagnetic materials
D. Increases except for steel
21.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following liquids that has the highest thermal conductivity?
Gasoline
Glycerin
Water
Alcohol
22. If the term 85% magnesia used in insulating materials is magnesia;
then, what is the 15% of these materials?
A. Asbestos
B. Steel
C. Water
D. Styrofoam
23.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following is not a heat exchanger?
Condenser
Boilers
Evaporators
Water hammer
24. Which of the following heat exchangers where fluid flow in the same
direction and both are of changing temperatures?
A. Parallel flow
B. Cross flow
C. Counter flow
D. Mixed flow
25.
A.
B.
C.
Brayton cycle has:
Two isentropic and two constant volume processes
Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
One constant pressure, one constant volume and two adiabatic
processes
D. Two isothermal, one constant volume and one constant pressure
processes
26. Otto cycle consists of:
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
27. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant
of its state, it is undergoing what process?
A. isobaric process
B. quasi-static process
C. isometric process
D. cyclic process
28.
A.
B.
C.
D.
An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is:
always negative
always positive
zero
undefined
29.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The state of a thermodynamic system is always defined by its:
absolute temperature
process
properties
temperature and pressure
30.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Entropy is the measure of.
the internal energy of a gas
the heat capacity of a substance
randomness or disorder
the change of enthalpy of a system
31.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lux is expressed in
lumens per sq. meter
lumens per sq. foot
lumens per sq. cm
lumens per sq. mm
32. What type of vibratory motion occurs when there is a restoring force
opposite to and proportional to a displacement?
A. Simple harmonic motion
B. Under damped harmonic motion
C. Over damped harmonic motion
D. Periodic harmonic motion
33. What type of image will be produced if an object is farther from a
converging lens than to its focal point?
A. Inverted image
B. The same image
C. Virtuai image
D. Refracted image
34. In sound, an interval is defined as a ratio of the frequencies of two pure
tones. Which one is called an octave interval?
A. 1:2
B. 2:3
C. 3:4
D. 4:5
35. When can an observer on the ground can hear a sonic boom from an
airplane traveling faster than the speed of sound?
A. When the airplane is directly overhead
B. After the airplane has passed by
C. As the airplane is approaching
D. Only when the airplane breaks the sound barrier
36. What do you call a substance that cannot be decomposed any further
by a chemical reaction?
A. lon
B. Element
C. Molecule
D. Atom
37. One of the following is the standard pressure and temperature. Which
one?
A. 0°C and one atmosphere pressure
B. 0°C and zero pressure
C. 0° F and one atmosphere
D. 32°F and zero pressure
38.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following is the strongest type of bonds?
Van de Waals
Metallic
Covalent
lonic
39.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sublimation is a direct change from:
Solid to liquid phase
Solid to gaseous phase
Liquid to gaseous phase
Gaseous to liquid phase
40. What do you call hydrocarbons containing carbon to carbon double
bonds?
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Alkynes
D. None of these
41.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?
Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting
Improve conductivity
Lowers castability
Improves machinability
42.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?
Increases strength up to about 12 %
Reduces shrinkage
Improves machinability
Increases fluidity in casting
43. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic
properties ideal for permanent magnets?
A. Invar and Nilvar
B. Nichrome and Constantan
C. Elinvar and Invar
D. Alnico and Cunife
44. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements
except:
A. lime
B. silica
C. alumina
D. asphalt
45. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating
in the nonlinear region in the stress-strain diagram?
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Proportionality limit
C. Secant modulus
D. Tangent modulus
46.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the ratio of the ultimate failure strain to the yielding strain?
Poison's ratio
Ductility
Resilience
Fatigue
47.
A.
B.
C.
D.
For shear stress, what is the constant of proportionality?
Shark modulus
Shape modulus
Shout modulus
Shear modulus
48.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following stresses has an area parallel to the force?
Normal stress
Shear stress
Flexural stress
Longitudinal stress
49. If an object is continuously loaded over a portion of its length, it is
subjected to which type of loading?
A. Dead load
B. Concentrated load
C. Distributed load
D. Moving load
50.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress?
Yield factor
Safety stress
Factor of safety
Design factor
51.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The sum of the individual forces in a linear force system is called:
Total force
Axial force
Concentrated force
Equivalent resultant force
52. It is the internal resisting moment of a beam. It is opposite in the sense
to the bending moment but of the same magnitude
A. Strain
B. Elastic limit
C. Moment of resistance
D. Modulus of elasticity
53.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What do you call a set of pin-connected axial members?
Gable end
Structural cell
Truss
Trestle
54. Which of the following is true about a beam supported at both ends and
carrying à uniformly distributed load?
A. It has a uniform shear throughout the length of the beam
B. It has its maximum shear at the supports
C. It has its maximum shear at the center of the beam
D. It has its maximum bending moment at the supports
55. What force system combines the non-concurrent, non-parallel and noncoplanar forces?
A. General three-dimensional system
B. Polar force system
C. Space force system
D. Parallel force system
56. Which one of the choices below refers to an overload' condition that
occurs when a long, unsupported members rolls out of its normal
plane?
A. Web crippling
B. Local buckling
C. Vertical buckling
D. Lateral buckling
57. Which of the following factors are used to account for the non-uniform
stress distribution?
A. Stress concentration factors
B. Principal stress factors
C. Combined stress factors
D. Mohr's factor
58.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What do you call the removal of zinc from brasses?
Dezincification
Graphitization
Stabilization
Dealloying
59. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of
corrosion?
A. Expoliation
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Scaping
D. Fretting
60. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy
hairlines?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stray current corrosion
Microbiological corrosion
Filiform corrosion
Fretting corrosion
61. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion
of small amplitude (20 to 100 um) between two solid surfaces in a
corrosive environment?
A. Stray current corrosion
B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion
62. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.
A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion
because they are not good conductors of electricity.
B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection of many
metals.
D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.
63. What type of bond results in form the sharing of electrons by two
atoms?
A. Atomic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Metallic bond
D. lonic bond
64. Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is
FALSE?
A. Organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acids
B. All organic matter contains carbon
C. Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures
D. Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water
65. What do you call a substance that dissociates in solutions to produce
positive and negative ions?
A. BasE
B. Acid
C. Electrolyte
D. Solute
66. Energy can neither be destroyed nor created. This is law of
A. Conservation of momentum
B. Conservation of energy
C. Conservation of mass
D. None of these
67.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following is also known as sympathetic vibration?
Beat
Overtone
Resonance
Music
68. What is the difference between an echo and a reverberation?
A. The time interval between the original sound and the reflected
sound
B. The amplitude of the echo is much greater
C. An echo is a reflected sound while a reverberation is not
D. Reverberation comes from acoustical speakers while echoes
comes from cliffs and walls
69. According to the electromagnetic wave model, how does a visible light
produced?
A. When an object absorbs electromagnetic radiation
B. When an electric charge is accelerated
C. When an object is heated to an appropriate temperature
D. When a blackbody is heated to a temperature above absolute
zero.
70.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following best describe both Stirling and Ericson engines?
Internal combustion engines
External combustion engines
Carnot engines
Brayton engines
71. Nozzles do not involve any work interaction. The fluid through this
device experiences which of the following?
A. No change in potential energy
B. No change in kinetic energy
C. No change in enthalpy
D. A vacuum
72. The convergent section of a nozzle increases the velocity of the flow of
the gas. What does it has to do on its pressure?
A. Pressure becomes constant
B. Pressure equals the velocity
C. It increases the pressure
D. It decreases the pressure
73. At steam point, the temperatures of water and its vapor at standard.
pressure are:
A. extremes or maximum
B. unity
C. in equilibrium
D. underfined
74.
A.
B.
C.
D.
In a two-phase system, 30% moisture means
70% liquid and 30% vapor
70% vapor and 30% liquid
30% liquid and 100% vapor
30% vapor and 100% liquid
75. In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an object must be at a
temperature:
A. above 0 K
B. above 0°C
C. above that of its surroundings
D. high enough for it to glow
76. The rate at. which an object radiates electromagnetic energy does not
depend on its:
A. surface area
B. mass
C. temperature
D. ability to absorb radiation
77.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sublimation refers to :
the vaporization of a solid without first becoming liquid
the melting of a solid
the vaporization of a liquid
the condensation of a gas into liquid
78. In the process of freeze drying, ice goes directly into water vapor. What
is the temperature at which this process can take place?
A. Below the triple point of water
B. At the triple point. of water
C. Above the triple point of water
D. Any of the above, depending on the pressure
79. What usually happen when a vapor condenses into a liquid?
A. It elvolves heat
B. It generates heat
C. Its temperature increases
D. It boils with temperature less than 100°C
80.
A.
B.
C.
D.
In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by:
condensation
convection
evaporation
conduction
81. What do you call the pressure which the fluid exerts on an immersed
object or container walis?
A. Normal pressure
B. Standard liquid pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure
D. Gage pressure
82. Viscosity for a fluid is define as the constant of proportionality between
shear stress and what other variable?
A. The spatial derivative of velocity
B. The time derivative of pressure
C. The time derivative of density
D. The spatial derivative of density
83. What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid travels parallel to
the adjacent layers and the paths of the individual particles do not cross
each other?
A. Steady flow
B. Laminar flow
C. Uniform flow
D. Turbulent flow
84. Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid's sensitivity to
changes in viscosity with changes in temperature?
A. Viscosity index
B. Coefficient of viscosity
C. Viscosity ratio
D. Viscosity factor
85. If the Mach number is greater than 1 but lesser than 5, what is the
standard classification of the travel?
A. Transonic travel
B. Subsonic travel
C. Hypersonic travel
D. Supersonic travel
86. Which is true about partnership?
A. It has a perpetual life.
B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected
with the partnership.
C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
D. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner
87. Which is true about corporation?
A. It is worse type of business organization:
B. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is
three.
C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.
D. The stockholders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of
their investments.
88. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a
financial security?
A. Bond
B. Bank note
C. Coupon
D. Check
89.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?
Mortgage bond
Joint bond
Tie-up bond
Trust bond
90. What type of bond whose quaranty is in lien on railroad equipment.
such as freight and passenger cars, locomotives, etc.?
A. Railroad bond
B. Equipment obligation bond
C. Equipment bond
D. Equipment trust bond
91. A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest
due and the date when such interest is to be paid is
bond.
A. registered
B. coupon
C. mortgage
D. collateral trust
92. What refers to an ideal body that absorbs all of the radiant energy that
intrudes on it and also emits the maximum possible energy when acting
as a source?
A. White body
B. Black body
C. Gray body
D. Red hot body
93. The thermal resistance for one-dimensional steady conduction heat
transfer through cylindrical wall in the radial direction is expressed in
which of the following functions?
A. Linear
B. Exponential
C. Logarithmic
D. Trigonometric
94. The law which states that "the ratio of the emissive powers to
absorptivities are equal when the two bodies are in thermal equilibrium'
is known as:
A. Stefan-Boltzmann Law
B. Newton's Law of Convection
C. Fourier's Law
D. Kirchhoff's Law of Radiation
95. It refers to the ratio of the internal thermal resistance of a solid to the
boundary layer thermal resistance (or external resistance of the body)
A. Biot number
B. Prandtl number
C. Nusselt number
D. Reynolds number
96. It refers to the ratio of the rate of heat transferred by conduction to the
rate of energy stored
A. Reynolds number
B. Fourier number
C. Biot number
D. Prandti number
97. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric
system?
A. zero
B. positive
C. negative
D. positive or negative
98. Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for
a real gas?
A. PV= nRT
B. An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic
energy of the gas.
C. The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the
volume of the gas as a whole
D. No attractive force exists between the molecules of a gas
99. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following
principles?
A. Conservation of mass
B. Conservation of energy
C. Action and reaction
D. The entropy - temperature relationship
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following cycle is used in vapor cycle power plant?
Brayton cycle
Diesel cycle
Ericson cycle
Rankine cycle