Bailey And Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition By Patricia M. – Test Bank To purchase this Complete Test Bank with Answers Click the link Below https://www.quizsol.com/product/bailey-and-scotts-diagnostic-microbiology-13th-edition-by-patriciam-test-bank/ If face any problem or Further information contact us At Quizsol99@gmail.com Description INSTANT DOWNLOAD WITH ANSWERS Bailey And Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition By Patricia M. – Test Bank SAMPLE TEST Chapter 03: Host-Microorganism Interactions Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A human infection that results from a microorganism that primarily infects animal populations is referred to as a(n) _________ infection. a. accidental b. zoonotic c. secondary d. vector ANS: B Some microorganisms primarily infect animal populations but can occasionally infect humans in what is called a zoonotic infection. REF: 24 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 2. The persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body is called a(n): a. infection. b. colonization. c. nosocomial infection. d. reservoir. ANS: B Microorganisms are everywhere in nature, including on and in the human body. Sometimes they do not cause disease but instead coexist with the host. REF: 25 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 3. Cells that ingest and destroy bacteria and other foreign particles are called: a. phagocytes. b. lymphocytes. c. goblet cells. d. ciliated cells. ANS: A Phagocytes are cells that ingest and destroy invading bacteria when they enter the human body. REF: 28 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 4. Cells with a short life span that circulate in blood and tissues and are usually the first cells on the scene of a bacterial invasion are called: a. monocytes. b. polymorphonuclear neutrophils. c. lymphocytes. d. macrophages. ANS: B All the cells listed are involved in the body’s cellular responses to foreign particles, but neutrophils are short-lived cells that circulate in blood and tissues. REF: 28 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 5. Swelling, redness, heat, and pain are all manifestations of: a. nosocomial infection. b. inflammation. c. bacterial colonization. d. coagulation. ANS: B Inflammation is a system that has both cellular and biochemical components that interact in various ways to fight microbial invasion in the human body. REF: 29–30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 6. The complement system serves to: a. increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the product substances. b. c. attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes. provide substances secreted by one type of cell, which have substantial effects on the antiinfective activities d. ingest and destroy microorganisms. ANS: B Because neutrophils and macrophages are widely dispersed throughout the body, the complement system sends signals to attract and concentrate these cells at the point of invasion. REF: 29 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 7. The coagulation system serves to: a. increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the product substances. b. c. attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes. provide substances secreted by one type of cell, which have substantial effects on the antiinfective activities d. ingest and destroy microorganisms. ANS: A The coagulation system increases blood flow and walls off the infection. It accomplishes this through the production of barrier substances. REF: 29 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 8. Biochemicals known as cytokines serve to: a. b. increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the product substances. attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes. c. have substantial effects on the activities of other cells. d. directly kill gram-negative bacteria. ANS: C A key component of inflammation is the group of cytokines that are substances secreted by macrophages and other cells that enhance the antiinfective activities of other cells. REF: 29 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 9. Specific proteins produced by cells of the immune system in response to the presence of foreign molecules that circulate in the serum and are present in secretions such as saliva are called: a. antigens. b. immunoglobulins. c. cytokines. d. phagogens. ANS: B Produced by B lymphocytes in response to the presence of foreign molecules, immunoglobulins (antibodies) are present in serum and in secretions such as saliva and are the central molecule of the immune response. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 10. The antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes is: a. immunoglobulin (Ig) G. b. IgA. c. IgM. d. IgE. ANS: B Each of the five different classes of antibodies has its distinctive molecular configuration and is involved in the immune reaction in a different way. IgA is secreted in body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 11. Which stage of infection is characterized by host deterioration and possibly death? a. Prodromal b. Clinical c. Decline d. Convalescent ANS: C REF: 36 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 12. Which immune system cells primarily function as antibody producers and originate from stem cells? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Natural killer cells d. Neutrophils ANS: A Produced by B lymphocytes in response to the presence of foreign molecules, immunoglobulins (antibodies) are present in serum and in secretions such as saliva and are the central molecule of the immune response. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 13. Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cells? a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Natural killer cells d. Neutrophils ANS: C Natural killer cells are an important cellular component of the immune response that serve to destroy infected or malignant host cells. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 14. Infectious processes that quickly develop are referred to as _________ infections. a. chronic b. latent c. acute d. nosocomial ANS: C Depending on the host and microbial factors, infections may develop quickly (acute) or slowly (chronic). REF: 35 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 15. Infectious processes that develop and slowly progress are known as _________ infections. a. chronic b. latent c. acute d. nosocomial ANS: A Depending on the host and microbial factors, infections may develop quickly (acute) or slowly (chronic). REF: 35 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 16. Proper hand-washing and hygiene procedures by hospital staff are essential in preventing which types of infections? a. Chronic b. Latent c. Acute d. Nosocomial ANS: D Nosocomial infections are those that are contracted in the hospital environment, sometimes being transmitted by the contact of hospital personnel such as the nursing staff. REF: 23 OBJ: Level: Application 17. Which one of the following statements is true regarding endotoxins? a. They are produced and released by living bacteria. b. They are associated with gram-positive bacteria. c. They interrupt protein synthesis. d. They are released upon cell death. ANS: D Endotoxins are found within gram-negative bacteria and are released only upon cell lysis and death. REF: 34 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 18. A bacterium that normally colonizes the skin gains access through a laceration and causes infection. This type of infection is classified as: a. nosocomial. b. opportunistic. c. nonpathogenic. d. immunogenic. ANS: B Although bacteria colonize the skin and are nonpathogenic to the host, they have the ability to cause infection if given the opportunity to penetrate the skin barrier and enter the host’s system. REF: 33 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 19. An example of antibody-mediated immunity is: a. phagocytosis. b. macrophage release. c. T-cell activation. d. B-cell activation. ANS: D Antibodies are produced by plasma cells that are produced by B cells; therefore, antibodymediated immunity is observed in B-cell activation. REF: 31 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 20. Latent infections are those that: a. develop and progress slowly. b. develop quickly and end soon. c. exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect. d. develop quickly but last long. ANS: C Some pathogens, particularly viruses, lie dormant in the body for a time before suddenly becoming active again. REF: 35 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 21. Pathogens are able to produce enzymes that directly destroy or inactivate antibodies. These enzymes are referred to as: a. proteases. b. nucleases. c. collagenases. d. polymerases. ANS: A Antibodies are classified as proteins, and proteases are enzymes that break down proteins. REF: 34 OBJ: Level: Application 22. Botulism and tetanus have the ability to interfere with neuromuscular functions. The toxins they produce are classified as: a. endotoxins. b. enterotoxins. c. exotoxins. d. emetic toxins. ANS: C Botulism and tetanus cause a disruption in neuromuscular function by secreting exotoxins into the surrounding environment. REF: 34 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 23. IgG is the: a. first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered. b. antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections. c. antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous d. second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abu ANS: D Each of the five different classes of antibodies has its distinctive molecular configuration and is involved in the immune reaction in a different way. IgG is the most abundant and is the second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 24. IgM is the: a. first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered. b. antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections. c. antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous d. second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abu ANS: A Each of the five different classes of antibodies has its distinctive molecular configuration and is involved in the immune reaction in a different way. IgM is the first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 25. IgE is the: a. first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered. b. antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections. c. antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous d. second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abu ANS: B Each of the five different classes of antibodies has its distinctive molecular configuration and is involved in the immune reaction in a different way. IgE is usually elevated in a parasitic infection. REF: 30 OBJ: Level: Knowledge Chapter 05: Specimen Management Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A principal role of the clinical microbiologist includes: a. quickly and accurately communicating information about the patient in both verbal and written form b. assisting nurses and/or phlebotomists on the floor when drawing blood cultures. c. diagnosing and treating patients. d. designing software for microbial databases. ANS: A The role of the clinical microbiologist is many faceted and includes quickly and accurately communicating information about the patient in both verbal and written formats. REF: 53 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 2. Rejection of inappropriately collected or transported specimens: a. is the sole responsibility of the laboratory and should be performed without regard to physician requ b. should be initiated by laboratory personnel but approved by the nurses or physicians responsible for the care c. is not in the best interest of patient care and should not be considered appropriate. d. is the responsibility of the nursing staff and should not be an issue for laboratory personnel. ANS: B Specimen quality is critical in providing good test results, and every effort should be made to ensure optimal quality. REF: 63 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 3. The definitive identification of clinically significant isolates is: a. always necessary and should be carried out by the laboratory at all times. b. desirable in most cases; however, limited identification may sometimes be necessary and helpfu c. often not cost effective and should be performed only when requested by the attending physician d. not necessary in most cases and should not be routinely performed by the laboratory. ANS: B The definitive identification of clinically significant isolates, although desirable in most cases, is not always necessary and is often not cost effective. Limited identification may be helpful and all that is necessary. REF: 66 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 4. Specimens for microbiologic studies should be: a. transported to the laboratory within 48 hours of collection. b. collected in nonsterile specimen containers. c. transported in sealable, leak-proof plastic bags with a separate section for paperwork. d. sent to the laboratory on ice, no matter what type of specimen. ANS: C Microbiological specimens should be transported in sealable, leak-proof bags, keeping the paperwork separate in the event the specimen leaks. REF: 62 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 5. Holding media, such as Stuart’s medium and Amie’s transport medium, are used to: a. maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen. b. support the growth and multiplication of any pathogenic organisms that are present. c. prevent clotting of specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid. d. allow pathogenic organisms to grow while nonpathogenic organisms die. ANS: A Holding media are designed to maintain viability but do not support the multiplication of bacteria present. REF: 62 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 6. The best anticoagulant to prevent clotting of specimens, such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid, which are submitted for recovery of all types of microorganisms, is: a. sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS). b. heparin. c. citrate. d. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). ANS: A SPS is the least inhibitory anticoagulant, which makes it the best choice for preserving blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid. REF: 62 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 7. Direct examinations such as the Gram stain serve what purpose? a. To determine the organism’s genetic makeup b. To give the physician an early indication of what may be wrong with the patient c. To determine the type of flora in the throat and stool specimens d. To determine the organism’s colonial morphologic features ANS: B Direct examinations enable the laboratory scientist to give the physician an early indication of possible pathogens, enabling him or her to gain insight to guide the work-up of the specimen. REF: 63 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 8. Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms? a. Selective b. Nutritive c. Differential d. Definitive ANS: B Many different types of media exist and serve many different purposes in clinical microbiology. Some types are basically nutritive and support the growth of many different types of microorganisms. REF: 64 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 9. Which type of media is designed to distinguish microorganisms on the basis of certain growth characteristics? a. Selective b. Nutritive c. Differential d. Definitive ANS: C Many different types of media exist and serve many different purposes in clinical microbiology. Some types are differential in that they allow the discrimination of microorganisms on the basis of certain growth characteristics. REF: 64 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 10. Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms, but not another, by containing antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol? a. Selective b. Nutritive c. Differential d. Definitive ANS: A Many different types of media exist and serve many different purposes in clinical microbiology. Some types are selective in that they contain antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol that cause the support of the growth of one group of organisms but not another. REF: 64 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 11. An example of a selective medium for gram-positive organisms is: a. MacConkey agar. b. blood agar. c. colistin and nalidixic acid. d. thioglycollate broth. ANS: C Colistin and nalidixic acid agar contains factors to inhibit the growth of gram-negative bacteria but will allow gram-positive bacteria to grow. REF: 64 OBJ: Level: Application 12. Ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O 2) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide (CO2), is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism? a. Aerobes b. Anaerobes c. Capnophiles d. Microaerophiles ANS: A Various types of microorganisms require different atmospheric conditions. Aerobes grow best in the presence of ambient air. REF: 66 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 13. Increased concentrations of CO2 (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O 2 produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism? a. Aerobes b. Anaerobes c. Capnophiles d. Microaerophiles ANS: C Various types of microorganisms require different atmospheric conditions. Capnophiles grow best in the presence of increased levels of CO 2. REF: 66 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 14. Between 5% and 10% hydrogen (H 2), 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitrogen (N 2), and 0% O2 produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism? a. Aerobes b. Anaerobes c. Capnophiles d. Microaerophiles ANS: B Various types of microorganisms require different atmospheric conditions. Anaerobes grow best in the absence of oxygen. REF: 66 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 15. Reduced O2 (5% to 10%) and increased CO2 (8% to 10%) produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism? a. Aerobes b. Anaerobes c. Capnophiles d. Microaerophiles ANS: D Various types of microorganisms require different atmospheric conditions. Microaerophiles grow best in the presence of reduced O 2 and increased CO2. REF: 66 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 16. Colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae appear alpha-hemolytic on blood agar media. Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy? a. The lot of blood agar may be expired. b. Something may be wrong with the strain of S. pneumoniae since it should be beta-hemolytic on blood c. Something may be wrong with the strain of S. pneumoniae; it should be gamma-hemolytic on blood d. No discrepancy is present. S. pneumoniae should be alpha-hemolytic on blood agar. ANS: D 1. pneumoniae produces alpha-hemolysis on blood agar. REF: 64 OBJ: Level: Problem Solving 17. An example of a beta-hemolytic gram-positive organism is: a. Staphylococcus aureus. b. Streptococcus pneumoniae. c. Escherichia coli. d. Enterococcus. ANS: A The only gram-positive beta-hemolytic organism in this listing of answers is S. aureus. S. pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic, and Enterococcus is either alpha- or gamma-hemolytic. Although E. coli appears beta-hemolytic on blood agar, it is a gram-negative organism. REF: 64 OBJ: Level: Application 18. Which specimen is quantitatively plated by using a calibrated loop? a. Stool b. Sputum c. Joint fluid d. Urine ANS: D Urine is plated using a calibrated loop to determine the amount of colonies present (i.e., colony count) and to decide whether the bacteria present are clinically significant or skin contamination. REF: 65 OBJ: Level: Knowledge 19. Which specimen culture, if positive, should be immediately reported to the clinician? a. Urine b. Blood c. Throat d. Stool ANS: B A positive blood culture is considered a critical value because of the possibility of bacterial sepsis. Critical values are always immediately reported to the clinician; appropriate antimicrobial treatment should be administered right away. REF: 66–67 OBJ: Level: Application 20. The appropriate storage for a cerebral spinal fluid specimen is ____° C. a. 4 b. 22 c. 37 d. –70 ANS: C Cerebral spinal fluid should always be stored at 37° C to keep pathogens viable once outside the body. REF: 62 OBJ: Level: Knowledge