Exam Model: CET-SGT
Date: 14-10-23
||JAI SRI GURUDEV||
Year: I PU
SYNERGY PROGRAMME 2022-23
Section: Science
1.
2.
3.
4.
Max Marks: 200
BGS PU COLLEGES
Time:3hr
PHYSICS
Which of the following is unitless quantity?
1) Pressure gradient
2) Displacement gradient
3) Force gradient
4) Velocity gradient
-2
A cube has a side of length 1.2 x 10 m. Its volume upto correct significant figures is
1) 1.7 x 10-6 m3
2) 1.73 x 10-6 m3 3) 1.78 x 10-6 m3 4) 1.732 x 10-6 m3
The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 6.320, 6.032, 0.0006032 are
1) 3, 4, 8
2) 4, 4, 8
3) 4, 4, 4
4) 4, 3, 4
Using the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, which of the following is correct?
4 r
2
1)
T
2

GM
3
4 r
2
2)
T
2
 4 r
2
2
3)
T
2

3
G
4 r
2
4)
T 
3
G
5. A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m and
unit of time is γ s. What will be value of 5 J in this new system?
1) 5   
2) 5   
3) 5   
4) 5   
2
1
2
2
2
2
6. The equation of state of a gas is given by
1
2
1
a 

2
 P  3  (V  b )  c T
V


2
2
, where P, V, T are pressure,
volume and temperature respectively, and a, b, c are constants. The dimensions of a and b
are respectively
1) [ML8T-2] and [L3/2]
2) [ML5T-2] and [L3]
3) [ML5T-2] and [L6]
4) [ML6T-2] and [L3/2]
7. A vehicle travels half the distance L with speed v1 and the other half with speed v2, then its
average speed is
1)
v1  v 2
2
2)
2 v1  v 2
v1  v 2
3)
2 v1 v 2
v1  v 2
4)
L ( v1  v 2 )
v1 v 2
8. A particle starts from the origin at time t = 0 and moves along the positive x-axis. The graph
of velocity with respect to time is shown in figure. What is the position of the particle at
time t = 5 s?
1) 9 m
2) 6 m
3) 10 m
4) 3 m
9. The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of time elapsed. The
magnitude of the acceleration of the body is proportional to
1) t
2) t
3) t2
4) t3/2
10.An automobile, traveling at 40 km/h, can be stopped at a distance of 40 m by applying
brakes. If the same automobile is travelling at 80 km/h, the minimum stopping distance, in
metres, is (assume no skidding)
1) 100 m
2) 75 m
3) 160 m
4) 150 m
11.The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x = a + bt2, where a = 8.5 m and b
= 2.5 m s-2 and t is measured in seconds. The average velocity of the object between t = 2 s
and t = 4 s is
1) 5 m s-1
2) 10 m s-1
3) 15 m s-1
4) 20 m s-1
12.Which of the following graphs cannot possibly represent one dimensional motion of a
particle?
1) (i) and (ii)
2) (ii) and (iii)
3) (i), (ii) and (iii) 4) All four
13.A car moving along a straight road with speed of 144 km h-1 is brought to a stop within a
distance of 200 m. How long does it take for the car to stop?
1) 5 s
2) 10 s
3) 15 s
4) 20 s

14.If a vector A makes an angles α, β and γ respectively with the x, y and z axes respectively.
Then sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ is equal to
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
15.A bird files from (-3 m, 4 m, - 3 m) to (7 m, -2 m, -3 m) in the xyz – coordinates. The bird’s
displacement vector is given by
1) ( 4 i  2 j  6 k )
2) (1 0 i  6 j )
3) ( 4 i  2 j )
4) (1 0 i  6 j  6 k )
16.The equations of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36t m and 2y = 96t – 9.8t2 m. The
angle of projection is
1)
s in
1
 4 
 
 5 
2)
s in
1
3
 
5
3)
s in
1
 4 
 
 3 
4)
s in
1
 3 
 
 4 
17.A particle is projected in air at an angle β to a surface which itself is inclined at an angle α to
the horizontal. Then distance L is equal to
2 u s in  c o s (    )
2
1)
g cos 
2
2 u s in  c o s (    )
2
2)
2
3)
g cos 
2
2 u s in  c o s (    )
g cos 
2
2 u s in  c o s (    )
2
4)
g cos 
2
18.A bullet of mass 40 g moving with a speed of 90 m s-1 enters a heavy wooden block and is
stopped after a distance of 60 cm. The average resistive force exerted by the block on the
bullet is
1) 180 N
2) 220 N
3) 270 N
4) 320 N
19.The position-time graph of a body of 2 kg is as shown in figure. What is the impulse on the
body at t = 4 s?
1)
2
3
kg m s
1
2)

2
3
kg m s
1
3)
3
2
kg m s
1
4)

3
kg m s
1
2
20.A block of mass 5 kg is suspended by a massless rope of length 2 m from the ceiling. A
force of 50 N is applied in the horizontal direction at the midpoint P of the rope, as shown in
the figure.
The angle made by the rope with the vertical in equilibrium is (Take g = 10 m s-2)
1) 30º
2) 40º
3) 60º
4) 45º
21.In Figure, the coefficient of friction between the floor and the block B is 0.1. The coefficient
of friction between the blocks B and A is 0.2. The mass of A is m/2 and of B is m. What is
the maximum horizontal force F which can be applied to the block B so that two blocks
move together?
1) 0.15mg
2) 0.05mg
3) 0.1mg
4) 0.45mg


22.The value of λ for which the two vectors a  5 i   j  k and b  i  2 j  k are perpendicular to
each other is
1) 2
2) – 2
3) 3
4) – 3
23.A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely
from the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 4 kg. The work done in pulling the
entire chain on the table (Take g = 10 m s-2)
1) 12.9 J
2) 6.3 J
3) 3.6 J
4) 2.0 J
24.A particle in a certain conservative force field has a potential energy given by V

20 xy
. The
z
force exerted on it is
1)
 20 y    20 x    20 xy  

i  
 j
k
2
 z 
 z 
 z

2)
 20 y    20 x    20 xy  

i  
 j
k
2
 z 
 z 
 z

3)
 20 y    20 x    20 xy  

i  
 j
k
2
 z 
 z 
 z

4)
 20 y    20 x    20 xy  

i  
 j
k
2
 z 
 z 
 z

25.A force ( 4 i  j  2 k ) N acting on a body maintains its velocity at ( 2 i  2 j  3 k ) m s-1. The
power exerted is
1) 4 W
2) 5 W
3) 2 W
4) 8 W
26.The x, y coordinates of the centre of mass of a uniform L-shaped lamina of mass 3 kg is
1)
5
5

m
 m,
6
6

2) (1 m, 1 m)
3)
6
6

m
 m,
5
5

4) (2 m, 2 m)
27.The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds.
The angular acceleration of the motor wheel is
1) 2π rad s-2
2) 4π rad s-2
3) 6π rad s-2
4) 8π rad s-2
28.A particle starts from the origin and moves along the X-axis such that the velocity at any
instant is given by 4t3 – 2t, where t is in second and velocity is in ms-1. What is the
acceleration of the particle when it is 2 m from the origin?
1) 10 ms-2
2) 12 ms-2
3) 22 ms-2
4) 28 ms-2
29.The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30º and 45º with the
x-axis. The ratio of the two velocities is
1) 3 : 1
2) 1 : 1
3) 1 : 2
30.The resultant of two forces, each P, acting at an angle θ is
1)
2 P s in

2
2)
2 P cos

3)
2 P cos 
4) 1 :
4)
P
3
2
2
31.The resultant of two forces at right angle is 5N. When the angle between them is 120º, the
resultant is 1 3 . Then, the forces are
1) 1 2 N , 1 3 N
2) 2 0 N , 5 N
3) 3 N, 4 N
4) 4 0 N , 1 5 N
32.A force, F  2 i  2 j N displaces a particle through S  2 i  2 k m in 16 s. The power developed
by F is
1) 0.25 J s-1
2) 25 J s-1
3) 225 J s-1
4) 450 J s-1
33.The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15º is 50 m. If it is fired with the
same speed at an angle of 45º, its range will be
1) 60 m
2) 71 m
3) 100 m
4) 141 m
º
34.A particle is projected from the ground at an angle of 60 with horizontal with speed u=20 ms-1.
The radius of curvature of the path of the particle, when its velocity makes an angle of 30 º with
horizontal is (g = 10 ms-2)
1) 10.6 m
2) 12.8 m
3) 15.4 m
4) 24.2 m
35.A wooden wedge of mass M and inclination angle α rests on a smooth floor. A block of
mass m is kept on wedge. A force P is applied on the wedge as shown in figure, such that a
block remains stationary with respect to wedge. The magnitude of force P is
1) (M + m) g tan α
2) g tan α
3) Mg cosα
4) (M + m) g cosec α
36.A rocket with a lift-off mass 20000 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 5.0
m/s2. Calculate the initial thrust (force) of the blast.
1) 3 x 105 N
2) 2 x 105 N
3) 4 x 105 N
4) 5 x 105 N
37.In figure, the blocks A, B and C each of mass m have acceleration a1, a2 and a3 respectively.
F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitude 2 mg and mg respectively. Then
1)
a1  a 2  a 3
2)
a1  a 3  a 2
3)
a1  a 2 , a 2  a 3
4)
a1  a 2 , a1  a 3
38.A ball of mass 1 kg hangs in equilibrium from two strings OA and OB as shown in figure.
What are the tensions in strings OA and OB? (Take g = 10 ms-2)
1) 5 N, zero
2) Zero, N
3) 5 N 5 3 N
4) 5 3 N, 5 N
39.A block of mass 1 kg is at rest on a horizontal table. The coefficient of static friction
between the block and the table is 0.5. If g = 10 ms-2, then the magnitude of the force acting
upwards at an angle of 60º from the horizontal that will just start the block moving is
1) 5 N
2) 5.36 N
3) 74.6 N
4) 10 N
-1
40.If a man speeds up by 1 ms , his kinetic energy increases by 44%. His original speed in ms-1 is
1) 1
2) 2
3) 5
4) 4
41.A body of mass 3 kg is under a force which causes a displacement is given by
s 
t
3
(in m).
3
Find the work done by the force in first 2 seconds.
1) 2 J
2) 3.8 J
3) 5.2 J
4) 24 J
2
42.Power applied to a particle varies with time as P = (3 t – 2t + 1) watt, where t is in second.
Find the change in its kinetic energy between t = 2 s and t = 4 s.
1) 32 J
2) 46 J
3) 61 J
4) 100 J
43.A bomb of mass 3.0 kg explodes in air into two pieces of mass 2.0 kg and 1.0 kg. The
smaller mass goes at a speed of 80 m/s. The total energy imparted to the two fragment is
1) 1.07 kJ
2) 2.14 kJ
3) 2.4 kJ
4) 4.8 kJ
44.Three bricks each of length L and mass M are arranged as shown from the wall. The
distance of the centre of mass of the system from the wall is
1)
L
2)
4
L
3)
3
4)
L
2
2
11
L
12
45.Which of the following points is the likely position of the centre of mass of the system
shown in figure?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
46.A non-uniform thin rod of length L is placed along X-axis as such its one of ends is at the
origin. The linear mass density of rod is l = l0x. The distance of centre of mass of rod from
the origin is
1)
L
2)
2L
3)
3
2
L
4)
4
L
5
47.Two perfectly elastic objects A and B of identical mass are moving with velocities 15ms-1
and 10 ms-1 respectively, collide along the direction of line joining them. Their velocities after
collision are respectively
1) 10 ms-1, 15 ms-1
2) 20 ms-1, 5 ms-1
3) 0 ms-1, 25 ms-1
4) 5 ms-1, 20 ms-1
48.Two spherical bodies of the same mass M are moving with velocities  and  . These
1
2
collide perfectly inelastically,
1)
1
2
M ( v1  v 2 )
2
2)
1
2
M ( v1  v 2 )
2
2
3)
1
4
M ( v1  v 2 )
2
4)
2 M ( v1  v 2 )
2
2
49.Three particles each of mass m gram, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle
ABC of side l cm (as shown in figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a line AX
perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC in g-cm2 unit will be
1)
3
ml
2)
2
2 ml
5
3)
2
4
ml
4)
2
4
3
ml
2
2
50.A circular disc rolls down an inclined plane. The ratio of the rotational kinetic energy to
total kinetic energy is
1)
1
2)
2
1
2
3)
3
4)
3
3
4
CHEMISTRY
51.The Rydberg’s constant is 1 .0 9 7 3 7 3 1 7 7  1 0 m . It can be expressed to three significant
figures as
1) 1 .0 9 7 4  1 0 m
2) 1 .0 9  1 0 m
3) 1 .1 0  1 0 m
4) 1 .1 0 m
52.An electric bulb was filled with 100 cc of argon gas (At. mass = 40) at 25ºC and 1 atm
pressure. The number of atoms of argon present in the bulb is
1) 4 0 0 0 0
2) 2 .5  1 0
3) 3 .3  1 0
4) 5 .4  1 0
53.A person adds 1.71 gram of sugar ( C H O ) in order to sweeten his tea. The number of
1
7
7
1
7
1
7
21
1
1
24
12
22
21
11
carbon atoms added are (mol. mass of sugar = 342)
1) 3 .6  1 0
2) 7 .2  1 0
3) 0 .0 5
4) 6 .6  1 0
54.10 g of hydrofluoric acid gas occupies 5.6 litres of volume at STP. If the empirical formula
of the gas is HF, then its molecular formula in the gaseous state will be
1) H F
2) H F
3) H F
4) H F
22
21
2
2
22
3
3
4
4
55.The chloride of a metal (M) contains 65.5% of chlorine. 100 ml. of the vapour of the
chloride the metal at S.T.P. weigh 0.72 g. The molecular formula of the metal chloride is
1) MCl
2) MCl2
3) MCl3
4) MCl4
56.Consider the following data
Element
Atomic weight
A
12
B
35.5
A and B combine to form a new substance X. If four moles of B combine with one mole of
A to give one mole of X, then the weight of one mole of X is
1) 47.5 g
2) 83 g
3) 154 g
4) 166 g
57.What is the weight of oxygen required for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene?
1) 2.8 kg
2) 6.4 kg
3) 9.6 kg
4) 96 kg
3
3
58.100 cm of 0.1 N HCl is mixed with 100 cm of 0.2 N NaOH solution. The resulting solution is
1) 0.1 N and the solution is basic
2) 0.05 N and the solution is basic
3) 0.1 N and the solution is acidic
4) 0.05 and the solution is acidic
59.In alkaline medium, KMnO4 reacts as follows
2 K M n O 4  2 K O H  2 K 2 M n O 4  H 2O  O
Therefore, the equivalent weight of KMnO4 will be
1) 31.6
2) 52.7
3) 7.0
4) 158.0
60.If potassium chlorate is 80% pure, then 48 g of oxygen would be produced from (atomic
mass of K = 39)
1) 153.12 g of KClO3
2) 122.5 g of KClO3
3) 245 g of KClO3
4) 98.0 g of KClO3
61.Which of the following structure represents 2, 2, 3-trimethylhexane?
1) C H C ( C H ) C H C H C H ( C H )
2) C H C H ( C H ) C H C H ( C H ) C H C H
3
3)
3
2
2
2
3
2
C H 3C (C H 3 ) 2 C H (C H 3 )C H 2C H 2C H
3
3
4)
CH
3
CN
||
|
 C  CH
2
 C  CH
3
is
|
CH
3
1) 2-Cyano-2-methyl-4-oxopentane
2) 4-Cyanno-4-metyl-2-pentanone
3) 4-Cyano-4-methyl-2-oxopentane
4) 2, 2-Dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile
63.IUPAC name of the compound
1)
2)
3)
4)
2
3
C H 3C (C H 3 ) 2 C H 2C (C H 3 ) 2 C H
62.The IUPAC name of the compound
O
3
Ethyl 2-methyl-2-(m-nitrophenyl)propionate
Ethyl 2-methyl-2-(m-nitrophenyl)propanoate
Ethyl 2-methyl-2-(3-nitrophenyl)propanoate
Ethyl 2-methyl-2-(3-nitrophenyl)propionic acid
64.The IUPAC name of
is
1) 4-Ethyl-5, 6, 7, 9-tetramethyldeca-2, 9-diene
2) 7-Ethyl-2, 4, 5, 6-tetramethyldeca-1, 8-diene
3) 7-Ethyl-2, 4, 5, 6-tetramethyldeca-1, 7-diene
4) 7-(1-Propenyl)-2, 3, 4, 5-tetramethyl-non-1-ene
2
3
3
CH
65.The IUPAC name of the compound,
2
 CH  COOH
|
|
OH
NH
2
1) 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid 2) 1-Hydroxy-2-aminopropan-3-oic acid
3) 1-Amino-2-hydroxypropanoic acid
4) 3-Hydroxy-2-aminopropanoic acid
66.How many aromatic amines can be represented by the molecular formula, C 7H9N?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
67.Which of the following does not show tautomerism?
1) C6H5COCH3
2) CH3CHO
3) CH3COCH3
4) C6H5COC(CH3)3
68.Which of the following represent functional isomerism?
1) Nitroalkanes and alkyl nitrites
2) alkanenitriles and carbylamines
3) alcohols and ethers
4)all the functional isomers
69.One among the following pairs of compounds is not isomers?
1) (CH3)2CH – O – C2H5 and CH3(CH2)2 – O – C2H5
2) CH3CH2CO2H and CH3CO2CH3
3) CH3COCH3 and CH3CH2CH2OH
4) CH3CH2NO2 and NH2CH2COOH
70.Isomerism exhibited by acetic acid and methyl formate is
1) Functional isomerism
2) Position isomerism
3) Chain isomerism
4) Geometrical isomerism
71.Which of the following statements about electromagnetic spectrum is not correct?
1) Intra-red radiations have larger wavelength than cosmic rays
2) The frequency of microwaves is less than that of ultra-violet rays
3) X-rays have larger wave number than microwaves
4) The velocity of X-rays is more than that of microwaves.
72.The ratio of radii of second and third Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is
1) 2 : 3
2) 3 : 2
3) 4 : 9
4) 9 : 4
73.If a light of wavelength λ hits the moving electron, the uncertainty in measurement of its
position will
3) Greater than λ
2) Less than λ
3) Equal to λ
4) It can have any value
74.Which of the following has largest de Broglie wavelength given that all have equal velocity?
1) CO2 molecule
2) NH3 molecule 3) Electron
4) Proton
75.For a given principal level n = 4, the energies of its sub-shells are in the order
1) s  d  f  p
2) s  p  d  f
3) d  f  p  s
4) s  p  f  d
76.The figure given below is a representation of the shape of
1) 3 dxy orbital
2) 3
d
z
2
orbital
3) 2 p orbital
z
4)
3d
2
x y
2
orbital
77.The d-orbital whose four lobes lie along the axes is
1) d 2
2) d
3) d
z
xz
yz
4)
d
2
x y
2
78.Which of the following are possible values of n, l and m for an atom having maximum value
of m = + 2?
1) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 2
2) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2
3) n = 3, l = 3, m = + 2
4) n = 4, l = 3, m = – 2
79.the electrons, identified by quantum numbers n and l, (i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 (iii) n=3,
l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy, from the lowest to highest,
as
1) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
2) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
3) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)
4) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
80.The wave number of the series limiting line for the Lyman series for hydrogen atom is
(R = 109678 cm-1)
1) 82259 cm-1
2) 109678 cm-1
3) 1.2157 x 10-5 cm
4) 9.1176 x 10-6 cm
81.Which pair of the elements will have the same chemical properties?
1) 13, 22
2) 3, 11
3) 4, 24
4) 2, 1
82.Which one of the following is an example of a positive ion and a negative ion that is
isoelectronic with F-?
1) S2- and Mg2+ or Na+
2) O2- and Ca2+ or K+
3) O2- and Mg2+ or Li+
4) O2- and Mg2+ or Na+
83.IE1 and IE2 of Mg are 178 and 348 kcal mol-1 respectively. The energy required for the
reaction Mg(g) → Mg2+ (g) + 2e- is
1) + 170 kcal
2) + 526 kcal
3) – 170 kcal
4) – 525 kcal
84.Arrange the elements S, P, As in order of increasing ionization enthalpy
1) S < P < As
2) P < S < As
3) As < S < P
4) As < P < S
85.Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy?
1) Cl(g) + e- → Cl-(g)
2) O-(g) + e- → O2-(g)
3) O (g) + e- → O- (g)
4) S (g) + e- → S- (g)
86.The electronegativities of the following elements: H, O, F, S and Cl increase in the order
1) H < O < F < S <Cl
2) Cl< H < O < F < S
3) H < S < O <Cl< F
4) H < S <Cl< O < F
87.The ionization enthalpy and electron gain enthalpy of an element are 13.0eV and 3.8eV
respectively. Its electronegativity on the Pauling scale is
1) 4.0
2) 3.5
3) 3.0
4) 2.8
88.Which one of the following indicates the correct order of variation in atomic size
1) Be > C > F > Ne
2) Be < C < F < Ne
3) Be > C > F < Ne
4) F < Ne < Be < C
89.The correct order of decreasing first ionization energy is
1) C > B > Be >Li
2) C > Be > B > Li
3) B > C > Be > Li
4) Be > Li > B > C
90.Set containing isoelectronic species is
1) C , N O , C N , O
2


2
2
2
2) CO, NO, O2, CN
3) CO2, NO2, O2, N2O5
4) CO, CO2, NO, NO2
91.The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angles of the following hydrides is
1) NH3> PH3> AsH3> SbH3
2) NH3> AsH3> PH3> SbH3
3) SbH3> AsH3> PH3> NH3
4) PH3> NH3> AsH3> SbH3
92.Which bond angle θ would result in the maximum dipole moment for the triatomic molecule
XY2 as shown below
1) 90º
2) 120º
3) 150º
93.The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in


N O2 , N O3
4) 180º
and N H are

4
1) s p , s p a n d s p respectively
2) s p , s p a n d s p respectively
3) s p , s p a n d s p respectively
4) s p , s p a n d s p respectively
94.The AsF5 molecule is trigonalbipyramidal. The hybrid orbitals used by the As atoms for
bonding are:
, d , s, p , p
1) d
2) d , s , p , p , p
2
3
2
2
2
x y
3)
2
2
3
2
z
2
x
s, px , p y , pz , d
z
4)
2
3
xy
y
d
2
x y
3
x
2
y
z
, s, px , p y
95.Both sp2 and sp3 hybrid carbons are present in which one of the following compounds?
1) CH3 – CH3
2) CH2 = CH2
3) CH ≡ CH
4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
96.Carbon suboxide (C3O2) has recently been shown as a component of the atmosphere of
Venus. Which of the following formulation represents the correct ground state Lewis
structure for carbon suboxide?
1) : O : C :: C : C : O :
2) : O :: C :: C : C :: O :
..
..
.
..
3) : O :: C :: C :: C :: O :
4) : O : C : C : C : O :
+
97.The bond energies in No, NO and NO follow the order
1) NO+> NO > NO2) NO > NO+> NO3) NO-> NO > NO+
4) NO+> NO-> NO
98.The correct order of increasing covalent character of the following is
1) SiCl4< AlCl3< CaCl2<KCl
2) KCl< CaCl2< AlCl3< SiCl4
3) AlCl3< CaCl2<KCl< SiCl4
4) None of these
99.BF3 and NF3 both are polar covalent compounds but NF3 is polar whereas BF3 is non-polar.
This is because
1) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
2) N-F bond is more polar than B-F bond
3) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular
4) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not
100. Incorrect order of decreasing boiling point is
1) HF > HI >HBr>HCl
2) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
3) Br2> Cl2> F2
4) CH4> GeH4> SiH4
MATHEMATICS
101. Which of the following is an empty set?
1) { x | x is a real number and x  1  0} 2) { x | x is a real number and
2
{x | x
is a real number and
x  9  0}
2
4) { x | x is a real number and
x  3  0}
2
x
2
 x  2}
3)
102. The set A  { x :| 2 x  3 |  7} is equal to the set
1) D  { x : 0  x  5  7}
2) B  { x :  3  x  7}
3) E  { x :  7  x  7}
4) C  { x :  1 3  2 x  4}
103. Let S  {1, 2 , 3, ....,1 0} . The number of subsets of S containing only odd numbers is
1) 15
2) 31
3) 63
4) 7
104. If X  {  2 ,  1, 0 ,1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5 , 6 , 7 , 8} and A { x :| x  2 |  3, x is an integer}, then X  A 
1) {  2 , 6 , 7 , 8}
2) {  2 ,  1,1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5 , 6}
3) {  1, 0 ,1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5 , 7 , 8}
4) {  2 ,  1, 2 , 3, 6 , 7 , 8}
105. Let X  {1, 2 , 3, ....,1 0} and A  {1, 2 , 3, 4 , 5} . Then the number of subsets B of X such that
A  B  { 4} is
1) 2
2) 2
3) 2  1
4) 1
106. If the sets A and B are as follows A  {1, 2 , 3, 4} , B  {3, 4 , 5 , 6} , then
1) A  B  {1, 2}
2) B  A  {5 , 6}
3) [( A  B )  ( B  A )]  A  {1, 2}
4) all of these
107. If A and B are two non-empty sets, then A  ( A  B ) ' equals
1) 
2) A
3) B
4) none of these
108. If two sets A and B have 99 elements in common, then the number of elements common
to the sets A  B and B  A is
1) 2
2) 9 9
3) 100
4) 18
109. If n ( A ) denotes the number of elements in set A and if n ( A )  4 , n ( B )  5 and n ( A  B )  3 ,
then n [( A  B )  ( B  A )] 
1) 8
2) 9
3) 10
4) 11
110. If n ( A )  5 and n ( B )  7 , then the number of relations on A  B is
1) 2
2) 2
3) 2
4) 2
111. R is a relation on N given by R  { ( x , y ) | 4 x  3 y  2 0} . Which of the following belongs to R?
1) (3, 4 )
2) ( 2 , 4 )
3) (  4 ,1 2 )
4) (5 , 0 )
5
5
4
2
99
35
49
112. The domain of the function
1)
2)
(   ,  1)
113. If
f (x)  2 x
1) 156
114. A function
of f ( 2 5 6 ) is
1) 24
2
, find
f
25
f (x) 
lo g ( x  5 )
x  4x  3
[  3,  1]
2
3)
70
is
R  [  3,  1]
4)
(  5 ,  )  {  3,  1}
f (3 .8 )  f ( 4 )
3 .8  4
2) 0.156
satisfies the relation
2) 26
3) 1.56
f (n )  f (n)  6
2
3) 22
4) 15.6
for n  2 and
4) 28
f (2)  8
. Then the value
115. The range of function
f ( x )  lo g a x , a  0
is
1) ( 0 ,  )
2) (   ,  )
3) (   ,  )  {0}
4) none of these
116. Let f  { (1,1), ( 2 , 4 ), ( 0 ,  2 ), (  1,  5 )} be a linear function from Z into Z. Then f ( x ) is
1) f ( x )  3 x  2
2) f ( x )  6 x  8
3) f ( x )  5 x  2
4) f ( x )  7 x  2
x 8
2
117. The range of the function
1)
3

 1,


2

118. If
2)
s in x  c o s x 
2
2)
x  4
2
,x R
3)
(1, 2 ]
, then
1) 1
f (x) 
is
(1, 2 )
4)
3

,2


2

sin x co s x 
1
3) 2
4)
2
2
119.
tan 1 0  tan 2 0  tan 3 0  tan 4 0  tan 5 0  tan 6 0  tan 7 0  tan 8 0  
1) 0
2)
1
3)
1
4) 1
3
120.
1)
3)
(1  ta n A )(c o t A  1) 
2)
4)
(1  ta n A )(1  ta n A )
(1  ta n A )(1  c o t A )
121. If
ta n  
1
7
(ta n A  1)(c o t A  1)
 cos ec   sec  

 
2
2
 cos ec   sec  
2
, then
(1  ta n A )(c o t A  1)
2
1) 1/2
2) 3/4
3) 5/4
4) 2
122. If s in A  6 c o s A  7 c o s A , then c o s A  6 s in A is equal to
1) 6 s in A
2) 7 s in A
3) 6 c o s A
4) 7 c o s A
123. lo g (s in 1  )  lo g (s in 2  )  lo g (s in 3  ).... lo g (s in 1 7 9  )
1) Is positive
2) Is negative
3) Lies between 1 and 180
4) Is zero
124.
1)
 
 


ta n 


  ta n 

2 
2 
 4
 4
2)
sec 
is equal to
2 se c 
3)
sec

4)
sin 
4)
2
2
125. The value of
1)
ta n (1  )  ta n (8 9  )
2
2)
s in ( 2  )
126. The value of
1)
is
1
3)
s in ( 2  )
ta n 3 3 0  s e c 4 2 0  s in 3 0 0 
ta n 1 3 5  s in 2 1 0  s e c 3 1 5 
1
2)
1
s i n (1  )
is equal to
3)
2
1
2
ta n 4 0   ta n 2 0  
2)
12
3 ta n 2 0  ta n 4 0 
1
3) 1
z 
3
4)
3
2i
, then
R e ( z )  Im ( z ) is
2
is equal to
2
3
128. If
4)
3
127. The value of
1)
s i n (1  )
2
equal to
i
1) 1
2) -1
3) 2
4) -2
129. The value of
1 i 


1 i 
1000
1 i 


1 i 
2000
1) 1  i
2) 2
130. Smallest value of n for which
1) 1
2) -1
131. If
1
z1  z 2  z 3 
1

z1

z2
1
z3
is equal to
3)
4) 1
i
[ (1  i ) / (1  i ) ]  1 is
n
3) 4
 1 and z 1 , z 2 , z 3
4) 2
are imaginary numbers, then
1) Equal to 1
2) Less than 1
3) Greater than 1
4) Equal to 3
132. The number of solutions of equation z  z  0 , where
1) 6
2) 1
3) 4
2
133. The value of
1 i
3
1 

1 

i1

1) 20
is
are
4) 5
zC
is
2
2) 9
3)
5
4)
4
134.
1)
135.
1)
136.
z1  z 2  z 3
4
5
In how many ways 6 letters be posted in 5 different letter boxes?
2) 6
3) 5 !
4) 6 !
5
How many numbers greater than 10,00,000 be formed from 2, 3, 0, 3, 4, 2, 3?
420
2) 360
3) 400
4) 300
If P : P  3 0 8 0 0 : 1 , then
6
5
56
54
r6
r3
1) r  4 1
2) r  5 1
3) r  3 1
4) none of these
137. If n is an integer with 0  n  1 1 then the minimum value of n !(1 1  n ) ! is attained when the
value of n 
1) 5
2) 7
3) 9
4) 11
138. The number of diagonals in a polygon is 20. The number of sides of the polygon is
1) 5
2) 6
3) 8
4) 10
139. C , C , C , ...., C are the binomial coefficients in the expansion of (1  x ) , then
15
0
C1
C0
1)
140.
1)
141.
1)
2)
3)
4)
142.
1)

1
2C 2
C1
2

3C 3
C2
15
 .... 
1 5 C 15
is
C 14
32
2) 64
3) 128
4) none of these
If n is a positive integer, then (3  4 ) is always divisible by
7
2) 12
3) 17
4) 45
If n is a positive integer, then ( 3  1)  ( 3  1) is
An even positive integer
A rational number other than positive integer
An irrational number
An odd positive integer
The digit in the unit’s place of 5 is
3
2) 5
3) 0
4) 1
4n
3n
2n
834
2n
143. If 1 
1)
144.
x2  3,
then
2)
[  1, 5 ]
x 4
x3
x
3)
[  1,1]  [3, 5 ]
3)
(  1, 5 )
2) (3,1 0 )
4) none of these
 1

( , 7)    , 3 
 2

 1

( , 7)    , 3 
 2

146. Solution of
1)
3)
4)
is satisfied when x satisfies
 2
1) (   , 3 )  (1 0 ,  )
3) (   , 3 )  [1 0 ,  )
145. Solution of ( 2 x  1)( x  3 )( x  7 )  0 is
1)
(  1, 0 )  ( 2 , 5 )
x  10  6
2
2)
 1

( , 7)   , 3 
 2

4)
(   ,  7 )  (3,  )
2)
4)
(4, 2)
is
(2, 4)
(4, 2)  (2, 4)
147. The sum of first three terms of a G.P. is
[4, 2]  [2, 4]
13
and their product is -1. Find the terms
12
1)
4
,  1,
3
3
2)
4
3
,  1,
4
4
148. Which term of the G.P.
2 ,1,
1 1
, , ...
2 4
10  1
1
4) none of these
2
is
1
?
128
3) 7th
7 , 7 7 , 7 7 7 , 7 7 7 7 , ....
n
1)
2 ,  1,
3
1) 9th
2) 8th
149. Find the sum of the sequence

7  1 0 (1 0  1)
 n

9 
9

3)
4) 5th
to n terms

7  1 0 (1 0  1)
 n

9 
9

n
2)
n
3)
4) none of these
9
150. The A.M. of the roots of a quadratic equation is A and G.M. of its root is G. The
quadratic equation is
1) x  A x  G  0
2) x  2 A x  G  0
3) x  A x  G  0
4) x  2 A x  G  0
BIOLOGY
151. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?
1) Eubacteria
2) Cyanobacteria
3) Mycobacteria
4) Archaebacteria
152. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
1) Dinoflagellates
2) Cyanobacteria
3) Diatoms
4) Euglenoids
153. Which of the following is correct about viroids?
1) They have RNA with protein coat
2) They have free RNA without protein coat
3) They have DNA with protein coat
4) They have free DNA without protein coat
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
154. Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by
1) D.J. Ivanovsky
2) M. W. Beijerinck
3) Stanely
4) Robert Hook
155. Phylogeny refers to
1) Morphology
2) Physiology
3) Reproduction
4) Evolutionary relationship
156. Match the columns
Column-I
Column-II
(A) Salty area
(1) Thermoacidophiles
(B) Hot spring (2) Methanogens
(C) Marshy area (3) Halophiles
1) A:3, B:1, C:2
2) A:1, B:2, C:3 3) A:2, B:1, C:3 4) A:2, B:3, C:1
157. Which of the following is extensively used in biochemical and genetic work?
1) Aspergillus
2) Claviceps
3) Neurospora
4) Penicillium
158. What is indicates A to D in this figure?
1) A: Collar, B: Tail fibres, C: head, D: Sheath
2) A: Sheath, B: Collar, C: Head, D: Tail fibres
3) A: Tail fibres, B: Sheath, C: Collar, D: Head
4) A: Tail fibres, B: Collar, C: Head, D: Sheath
159. Brown algae vary in colour from ____to various shades of ____depending upon the
amount of ____pigment and ____present in them
1) Fucoxanthin, xanthophyll, blue, brown
2) Blue, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll
3) Yellow, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll
4) Olive green, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll
160. Red algae is red due to the presence of which of the following pigment?
1) Phycoerythrin
2) R-phycocyanin
3) R-phycoerythrin
4) N-phycocyanin
161. Identify A, B and C in the below diagram
1) A: Fucus, B: Laminaria, C: Dictyota
2) A: Laminaria, B: Dictyota, C: Fucus
3) A: Laminaria, B: Fucus, C: Dictyota
4) A: Dictyota, B: Fucus, C: Laminaria
162. Heterosporous pteridophytes are
1) Dryopteris and Pteris
2) Selaginella and Lycopodium
3) Selaginella and Salvinia
4) Equisetum and Adiantum
163. Which of the following statements are correct for conifers?
(I)
Needle-like leaves to reduce surface area
(II) Thick cuticle on leaves
(III) Sunken stomata to reduce water loss
(IV) The main plant body is gametophyte
1) II and III
2) IV only
3) I only
4) I, II and III only
164. What indicates A to E in the below figure?
1) A: Region of maturation, B: Root cap, C: Region of meristematic activity, D: Root hair,
E: Region of elongation
2) A: Root hair, B: Region of maturation, C: Region of elongation, D: Root cap, D: Region
of meristematic activity
3) A: Root cap, B: Region of maturation, C: Region of elongation, D: Root hair, E: Region
of meristematic activity
4) A: Region of meristematic activity, B: Region of elongation, C: Region of maturation, D:
Root hair, E; root cap
165. Find out the correct matching from the following
(A)Palmately compound leaves- Leaf let attached to common axis rachis
(B) Phyllotaxy-Pattern of leaf arrangement on stem or branch
(C) Pinnately compound leaves-leaflet attached to a common point, i.e., at the tip of petiole
(D)Venation-Arrangement of veins and veinlets in the lamina of leaf
1) A and B only
2) B and C only 3) C and D only 4) B and D only
166. Select the correct matching
Column I
Column II
Column III
A. Alternate X. Single leaf arises at each node 1. china rose, mustard, sunflower
B. Whorled Y. More than 2 leaf arises at node 2. Alstonia
C. Opposite Z. Pair of leaf arises at node
3. Calotropis and guava
1) A-X-1, B-Y-2, C-Z-3
2) A-Y-3, B-Z-2, C-X-1
3) A-Y-3, B-Z-1, C-Y-2
4) A-Z-3, B-Y-2, C-X-1
167. Select the correct matching
Aestivation
Example
1) Valvate
Cassia
2) Twisted
China rose, ladies fingers, Calotropis
3) Imbricate
Cassia and Gulmohur
4) Vexillary
Pea, bean, aloe, tulip
168. Match the columns
Column I
Column II
(A)Marginal
- (1) Pea
(B) Parietal
- (2) Mustard and argemone
(C) Axial
- (3) Dianthus and primrose
(D)Central and free central
- (4) China rose, tomato and lemon
(E) Basal
- (5) Sunflower and marigold
1) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-5
2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5
3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5, E-4
4) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-2, E-3
169. The Hilum a scar on the
1) Seed, where funicle was attached
2) Fruit, where it was attaché to pedicel
3) Fruit, where style was present
4) Seed, where micropyle was present
170. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are
1) Fibrous roots
2) primary roots 3) Prop roots
4) Lateral roots
171. Conjoint vascular bundle is present in
1) Monocot stem
2) Dicot stem
3) Leaf
4) All of these
172. When xylem and phloem are separated by a strip of cambium, it is called
1) Collateral and open
2) Collateral and closed
3) Bicollateral and open
4) Concentric and closed
173. The following features belong to which option?
(I)
Epidermis may bear trichomes and few stomata
(II) Cortex is divided into three sub-zones
(III) Hypodermis is made up of collenchyma
(IV) Starch sheath
(V) Pericycle is above phloem in the form of semilunar patches of sclerenchyma
1) Dicot root
2) Dicot stem
3) Monocot root 4) Monocot stem
174. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral grass leaf is shown by
1) Palisade towards adaxial surface
2) Palisade towards abaxial surface
3) Undifferentiated mesophyll
4) Palisade along both the surface
175. In the diagram of T.S. of stele of dicot root, the different parts have been indicated with
alphabets. Choose the answer in which these alphabets correctly match with the parts they
indicate
1) A: Endodermis, B: Conjunctive tissue, C: Metaxylem, D: Protoxylem, E: Phloem, F: Pith
2) A: Endodermis, B: Pith, C: Protoxylem, D: Metaxylem, E: Protoxylem, F: Conjunctive
tissue
3) A: Pericycle, B: Conjunctive tissue, C: Metaxylem, D: Protoxylem, E: Phloem, F:
Endodermis
4) A: Endodermis, B: Conjunctive tissue, C: Protoxylem, D: Metaxylem, E: Phloem, F: Pith
176. In what aspect, the pericycle of a monocot root differs from that of the monocot stem?
1) Sclerenchymatous in root and collenchymatous in stem
2) Collenchymatous in root and parenchymatous in stem
3) Parenchymatous in root and sclerenchymatous in stem
4) Parencymatous in root and collenchymatous in stem
177. Identify A, B, C, D and E in given figure
1) A: Rough endoplasmic reticulum, B: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, C: Nuclear
envelope, D: microtubule, E: nucleolus
2) A: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, B: Rough endoplasmic reticulum, C: Microtubule, D:
Nuclear envelope, E: Nucleolus
3) A: nucleolus, B: Microtubule, C: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, D: Nuclear envelope,
E: Rough endoplasmic reticulum
4) A: Rough endoplasmic reticulum, B: Nucleolus, C: Microtubule, D: Smooth endoplasmic
reticulum, E: Microtubule
178. Which of the following represents prokaryotic cell?
1) Blue-green algae
2) PPLO
3) Bacteria
4) All of these
179. A polysome is a chained structure of which of the following organelle?
1) Lysosome
2) Mesosome
3) Ribosome
4) All of these
180. Select the correct matching
Column I
Column II
(Type of leucoplast)
(Stored food)
(A)Amyloplast
(1) Oil and fat
(B) Elaioplast
(2) Protein
(C) Aleuroplast
(3) Carbohydrate
1) A:3, B:1, C:2
2) A:1, B:2, C:3 3) A:3, B:2, C:1
181. Identify A, B, C, D and E in the given figure
1)
2)
3)
4)
182.
4) A:2, B:3, C:1
A: Satellite, B: Secondary constriction, C: Centromere, D: long arm, E: Short arm
A: Secondary constriction, B: Satellite, C: Long arm, D: Centromere, E: Short arm
A: Centromere, B: Satellite, C: Long arm, D: Short arm, E: Secondary constriction
A: Satellite, B: Short arm, C: Long arm, D: Centromere, E: Secondary constriction
Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(A) Cristae
(i) Primary constriction in chromosome
(B) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(C) Centromere (iii) Infolding in mitochondria
(D) Cisternae
(iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(B) (C) (D)
1) (ii)
(iii) (iv) (i)
2) (iv)
(iii) (ii) (i)
3) (i)
(iv) (iii) (ii)
4) (iii)
(iv) (i)
(ii)
183. The organelles that are included in the Endomembrane system are
1) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria and Lysosomes
2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes, and Lysosomes
3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
4) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
184. The centriole undergoes duplication during
1) G2 phase
2) S-phase
3) Prophase
4) Metaphase
185. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of mitosis if the
number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after
S phase?
1) 32
2) 8
3) 16
4) 4
186. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(a) S phase
(i) Proteins are synthesized
(b) G2 phase
(ii) Inactive phase
(c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(d) G1 phase
(iv) DNA replication
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(B) (C) (D)
1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
2) (iii) (ii) (i)
(iv)
3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
4) (iv) (i)
(ii) (iii)
187. Match the stage of meiosis in Column-I to their characteristic features in Column-II and
select the correct option using the codes given below
Column-I
Column-II
(A) Pachytene
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(B) Metaphase I (2) Terminalization of chiasmata
(C) Diakinesis (3) Crossing over takes place
(D) Zygotene
(4) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate
1) A:1, B:4, C:2, D:3
2) A:2, B:4, C:3, D:1
3) A:4, B:3, C:2, D:1
4) A:3, B:4, C:2, D:1
188. Select the correct option
Column-I
Column-II
(A) Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes
(1) Anaphase-II
(B) Synthesis of RNA and protein
(2) Zygote
(C) Action of enzyme recombinase
(3) G2-phase
(D) Centromeres do not separate but chromatids move (4) Anaphase-I
towards opposite poles
1) A:2, B:1, C:3, D:4
2) A:2, B:3, C:1, D:4
3) A:1, B:2, C:3, D:4
4) A:1, B:2, C:4, D:3
189. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II
2) Both ATP and NADPH+H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophorylation
3) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase
4) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
190. The first stable product of CO2, fixation in sorghum is
1) Phosphoglyceric acid
2) Pyruvic acid
3) Oxaloacetic acid
4) Succinic acid
191. PEP is a primary CO2 acceptor in
1) C4 plants
2) C3 plants
3) C2 plants
4) Both C3 and C4 plants
192.
1)
2)
3)
4)
193.
1)
194.
Photorespiration is favoured by
High O2 and low CO2
Low light and high O2
Low temperature and high O2
Low O2 and high CO2
Kranz type of anatomy is found in
C2 plants
2) C3 plants
Identify A to D in the given figure
3) C4 plants
4) CAM plants
A: e- acceptor, B: Light, C: Chlorophyll P700, D: Electron transport system
A: Light, B: Electron transport system, C: e- acceptor, D: Chlorophyll P700
A: Electron transport system, B: e- acceptor, C: Chlorophyll P700, D: Light
A: Chlorophyll P700, B: Electron transport system, C: Light, D: e - acceptor
Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(A) Metamerism
(i) Coelenterata
(B) Canal system
(ii) Ctenophore
(C) Comb plates
(iii) Annelida
(D) Cnidoblasts
(iv) Porifera
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1) (iv) (i)
(ii) (iii)
2) (iv) (iii) (i)
(ii)
3) (iii) (iv) (i)
(ii)
4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
196. Read the following statements
(A)Metagenesis is observed in Helminths
(B) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals
(C) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization
(D)Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion
(E) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) (B), (C) and (E) are correct
2) (C), (D) and (E) are correct
3) (A), (B) and (C) are correct
4) (A), (D) and (E) are correct
1)
2)
3)
4)
195.
197. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?
I In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life
II In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only
III Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow
IV Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichrodata, Tunicata and cephalochordate
1) IV and III only
2) I and III only
3) I and II only
4) II and III only
198. Match the name of the animal (Column I) with its characteristics (Column II), and the
phylum/class (Column III) to which it belongs
Column I
Column II
Column III
1) Petromyzon Ectoparasite
Cyclostomata
2) Ichthyophis Terrestrial
Reptilian
3) Limulus
Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton Pisces
4) Adamsia
Radially symmetrical
Porifera
199. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Animals
Morphological features
(i)
Crocodile
Four-chambered heart
(ii) Sea urchin
Parapodia
(iii) Obelia
Metagenesis
(iv) Lemur
Thecodont
1) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2) only (i) and (iv)
3) only (i) and (ii)
4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
200.
Consider the following features
(A)Organ system level of organization
(B) Bilateral symmetry
(C) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics
1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
2) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
3) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
4) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata