HAZWOPER 40 – Lessons( 1-24)
verified questions and answers
Table of Contents
HAZWOPER 40 - Lesson 1: quiz .................................................................................................. 2
HAZWOPER 40 - Lesson 2 quiz .................................................................................................... 4
HAZWOPER 40 - Lesson 3 - quiz ................................................................................................. 7
HAZWOPER 40 Section 4 quiz .................................................................................................... 11
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 5 Quiz .................................................................................................. 16
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 6 Quiz .................................................................................................. 18
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 7 Quiz .................................................................................................. 19
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 8 Quiz .................................................................................................. 20
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 9 Quiz .................................................................................................. 21
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 10 Quiz ................................................................................................ 22
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 11 Quiz ................................................................................................ 23
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 12 Quiz ................................................................................................ 24
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 13 Quiz ................................................................................................ 25
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 14 Quiz ................................................................................................ 26
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 15 Quiz ................................................................................................ 27
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 16 Quiz ................................................................................................ 28
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 17 Quiz ................................................................................................ 29
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 18 Quiz ................................................................................................ 30
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 19 Quiz ................................................................................................ 31
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 20 Quiz ................................................................................................ 32
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 21 Quiz ................................................................................................ 33
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 22 Quiz ................................................................................................ 34
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 23 Quiz ................................................................................................ 35
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 24 Quiz ................................................................................................ 36
HAZWOPER 40 - Lesson 1: quiz
Who is NOT covered under the Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency
Response section of OSHA?
• A worker cleaning up hazardous waste sites
• A family who is exposed to hazardous waste buried under their house
• Anyone working with hazardous waste at TDS's
• Someone responding to emergencies involving hazardous material releases
Correct answer: A family who is exposed to hazardous waste buried under their house
When did hazardous waste legislation first start to go into effect?
1970s (October 21, 1976 - The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA))
Which is NOT a source for OSHA standards?
• Consensus standards
• Propriety standards
• Some federal worker protection laws
• Work standard developed by the individual company
Correct answer: Work standard developed by the individual company
What lists the general and permanent rules of federal agencies?
• The Federal Register
• The OSHA CD-ROM
• The OSHA Manual
• The Code of Federal Regulations
Correct answer: The Code of Federal Regulations
The Hazard Communication Standard:
• A. Is a broad general guideline suggesting how companies should handle chemicals
• B. Was created in response to the need to protect workers from chemicals in the
workplace
• C. Requires employers to evaluate chemical hazards in their facilities and to
communicate the hazard information to employees
• D. B and C
Correct answer: D. B and C
True how which one of these statements is NOT true?
• OSHA stands for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
• The OSHA act resulted in the creation of the Occupational Safety and Health
Administration or OSHA
• Employers take all responsibility under the OSH Act
• OSHA went into effect in 1971
Correct answer: OSHA went into effect in 1971
Which of the following is not an employer responsibility?
• Cooperate with OSHA compliance officer
• Post work-related injuries
• Follow SOP's and where required PPE
• Post OSHA poster in a prominent place
Correct answer: Cooperate with OSHA compliance officer
The HazCom program must be written and available to employees.
• True
• False
Correct answer: True
What sec. of OSHA covers hazardous waste operations and emergency response?
• 49 CFR 1910. 120
• 29 CFR 1910.120
• 50 CFR 2020.13
• 17 CFR 1910.130
Correct answer: 29 CFR 1910.120
Which of the following is an employee right?
Correct answer: Be informed of your rights and responsibilities
HAZWOPER 40 - Lesson 2 quiz
Perimeter reconnaissance of a site should involve which of the following observations?
-Changes in vegetation around buildings
-Signs and symptoms workers exhibit on-site
-Time of day
-A& D
Correct answer: Changes in vegetation around buildings
The entry teams responsibilities include which of the following choices?
-Monitoring air for I DL H conditions
-Monitoring for ionization radiation
-Visually checking for dangerous conditions
-All of the above
Correct answer: All of the above
The task of document control should be assigned to one individual on the project team
and should include which of the following responsibilities?
-Keeping a document record by job cycle
-Collecting all documents at the end of each pay period
-Making sure that all information is written in waterproofing
-None of the above
Correct answer: Making sure that all information is written in waterproofing
Off-site information can be obtained by using which two methods?
-Survey and on-going monitoring
-Interviews and perimeter reconnaissance
-Analyzing water and soil samples from the site
-None of the above
Correct answer: Interviews and perimeter reconnaissance
The in ensamble of clothing and equipment referred to as level B protection is generally
the minimum level recommended for an initial entry until what is found to be TRUE?
-The site hazards have been further identified.
-An ongoing air-monitoring program is recognized.
-Interviews and research have been conducted.
-Perimeter reconnaissance has been completed.
Correct answer: The site hazards have been further identified.
Which of the following is a phase of the site characterization process?
-Off-perimeter survey
-On-site survey
-Remote monitoring
-Requested monitoring
Correct answer: On-site survey
What information should be collected before any personalities allowed to go on-site?
-Geological and hydrological data
-Description of activity at the site
-Accessibility by air and roadways
-All of the above
Correct answer: All of the above
Went site hazards are largely unknown or When there is no need to go on-site
immediately, which should be done to evaluate the situation?
-Extensive information gathering
-Study of the hazardous chemicals
-Study of the protective measures and PPE
-Perimeter reconnaissance
Correct answer: Perimeter reconnaissance
Perimeter reconnaissance does NOT involve_________.
-Interviewing workers
-Visual observation
-Monitoring ambient air
-Collecting and analyzing off-site samples
Correct answer: Interviewing workers
The site safety plan is developed using information from the _________.
-On-site survey
-Off-site survey
-Continuous monitoring
-All of the above
Correct answer: Off-site survey
Which of the following is a result of good documentation?
--It stops accurate communication.
It Provides reason for safety decisions.
-To prevent future safety hazards.
-It supports law suits.
Correct answer: It Provides reason for safety decisions.
Once controls are in place for the health and safety of waste site workers, _________.
-There is little need for them to be reviewed or revised.
-They should be inspected periodically.
-They should be inspected continually.
-That should be inspected by an OSHA officer.
Correct answer: They should be inspected periodically.
Which plan outlines what needs to be accomplished and then, prescribes procedures to
protect the health and safety of the entry team?
-The Site Safety Plan
-Worker's Safety Plan
-Emergency Response Plan
-Site Evaluation Plan
Correct answer: The Site Safety Plan
Photographs can be used as an accurate form documentation because:
-They are objective additions to written observations.
-They contradict unclear data.
-They help workers remember hazards.
-They can be easily copy.
Correct answer: They are objective additions to written observations.
Upon entering the site, enter personnel should do what?
-Start cleaning the site in order to prevent any disaster
-Start developing a plan to clean up the site
-Monitor the air for IDLH and other conditions that may cause death or serious harm
-Collect and analyze samples of earth and other objects lying in the waste area
Correct answer: Monitor the air for IDLH and other conditions that may cause death or
serious harm
HAZWOPER 40 - Lesson 3 - quiz
Chemicals in combination can produce different biological responses than the
responses seen when exposure is to one chemical alone.
True
False
Correct answer: True
________ is the most common route of exposure leading to a toxic dose in the work
environment
-Injection
-Ingestion
-Inhalation
-Eye/Skin contact
Correct answer: Eye/Skin contact
LD 50 of 25 mg/m3 means that a concentration of 25 mg/m3 of a certain substance
indicates:
-50 people out of a group of 80 exposed to a concentration 25 mg/m3 of a substance
were shown to have experienced a fatal dose.
-50% of the concentration of a substance cause fatality in those be exposed.
-A concentration of 25 mg/m3 of a substance is shown to have been fatal to 50 percent
of a test group of animals.
-LD 50 is a fictitious term and does not indicate anything.
Correct answer: A concentration of 25 mg/m3 of a substance is shown to have been
fatal to 50 percent of a test group of animals.
Factors affecting response to chemical exposure include:
-Toxicity
-Route of exposure
-Chemical dose
-All of the above
Correct answer: All of the above
________ provide most of what we know about the dangerous effects of toxic
substances.
-Epidemiological studies
-Animal studies
-Estimation studies
-Actual exposures to a chemical in the workplace
Correct answer:
Epidemiological studies
Animal studies
Example of chemical ________ are carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide.
-Hepatoxins
-Hematoxins
-Asphyxiants
-Nephrotoxins
Correct answer: Asphyxiants
The ACGIH publication: ________ for Chemical Substances and Physical Agents,
OSHA standard 29 CFR part 1910.1000, and other standards reference identify
substances that can be readily absorbed through the skin, mucous membranes, and/or
eyes by either airborne exposures or direct contact with a liquid.
-Threshold Limit Values
-HAZCOM
-Right-to-know
-SDS
Correct answer: Threshold Limit Values
Polyurethane foam, when burnt, gives off:
-Sulfuric acid
-Cyanide gas
-Ethane
-Phosphine
Correct answer: Cyanide gas
Animal studies provide most of what we know about the dangerous effects of toxic
substances. Humans may react differently than animals exposed to toxic materials.
False
True
Correct answer: True
A(n) ________ is the airborne concentration of a material to which nearly all individuals
may be repeatedly expose without adverse health effects.
-Chemical exposure
-Sensitizer threshold
-Exposure limit
-Irritant level
Correct answer: Exposure limit
When a chemical with no known toxic effects acts together with a known toxic
substance to make the combined toxic substance even more potent, this is called
________ interaction.
-Additive
-Synergistic
-Potentiation
-Antagonism
Correct answer: Potentiation
An interaction between a hazardous chemical and a prescription drug being taken by
worker is possible.
True
False
Correct answer: True
An instance where a chemical without any known toxic effect acts together with a known
toxic substance to make the toxic substance even more potent and dangerous is known
as:
-Antagonism effect
-Synergistic effect
-Potentiation effect
-Additive effect
Correct answer: Syn
What is an example of a form that a toxic substance may take?
-A solid or a liquid
-Only a liquid
-Only a solid
-A Concentration
Correct answer: A solid or a liquid
An example of a chronic response to chemical exposure is ________.
-Nausea
-Brain or muscle damage
-Liver, kidney, or lung damage
-All of the above
Correct answer: Liver, kidney, or lung damage
Toxicology is the study of ________ and the degree to which the substance can be
harmful to living things.
-Natural toxins
-Chemical toxicity
-Hazardous chemicals
-Toxins
Correct answer: Natural toxins
Chemicals that affect various tissues causing redness, rashes, or even imaging are
called ________.
-Mutagens
-Irritants
-Carcinogens
-Asphyxiant
Correct answer: Irritants
Toxic dose is ________ for every living thing.
-Different
-The same
-Consistent
-Conclusive
Correct answer: Different
Which method of toxic chemical entry is the least commonly found at the workplace?
-Inhalation
-Dermal contact
-Ingestion
-Injection
As: Injection
It is possible for the interaction of two toxic chemicals can produce less than the
expected results.
True
False
Correct answer: True
Chemical for deprived the victim's body tissue of oxygen are called ________.
-Mutagens
-Irritants
-Carcinogens
-Asphyxiants
Correct answer: Asphyxiants
________ refers to the specific amount of particular material that results in a death in
sample group of lab animals.
-Constant number of deaths
-Share of deaths
-Lethal dose
-Majority of deaths
Correct answer: Lethal dose
Workplace exposure concentration recommended by NIOSH for declaration by OSHA
has an acceptable amount is called a(n) ________.
-PEL
-TLV
-REL
-IDLH
Correct answer: REL
HAZWOPER 40 Section 4 quiz
What does NIOSH stand for?
Correct answer: National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health
What document details a products health and safety information in writing?
Correct answer: SDS
Briefly explain what the four NFPA system colors are with their associated hazard
warnings.
Correct answer:
Blue: health
Red: flammability
Yellow: instability
White: special
Briefly explain what the four HMIS system colors are with their associated hazard
warnings.
Correct answer:
Blue: health
Red: flammability
Orange: physical hazards
White: recommended PPE
Under the Hazard Communication Regulation, who must supply the SDS's to the
employer?
Correct answer: Manufacturer/Distributor
What should you do if you find an item on a SDS is missing or left blank?
Correct answer: Notify your supervisor
How many hazard classes and divisions are currently referenced or listed by the
Department of Transportation (DOT)
Correct answer:
9 classes
16 divisions
What information must be provided on an SDS for a trade secret chemical?
Correct answer:
Name
Contact information of manufacturer
Appropriate hazard warnings
The fourth color, white, of the HMIS system represents what?
Correct answer: Recommended PPE
What documentation must be carried by every hazardous material transporter?
Correct answer: Shipping papersHCS 2012
29 cfr 1910.1200
Correct answer: HazCom
When was HazCom introduced?
Correct answer: 1983
HCS 2012
Correct answer: Hazard Communication Standard
GHS
Correct answer: Globally Harmonized System
What are the HazCom basic requirements?
Correct answer:
Materials Inventory
SDS
Labelling
Training
Written programs
NFPA
Correct answer: National Fire Protection Association
What are the 3 alternate ID systems?
Correct answer:
NFPA 704
US DOT
HMIS III
HMIS III
Correct answer: HazMat Identification System
NFPA 704 Special Information: W
Correct answer: Avoid use of water
NFPA 704 Special Information: COR
Correct answer: Corrosive
NFPA 704 Special Information: OX
Correct answer: Oxidizer
NFPA 704 Special Information: CRY
Correct answer: Cryogenic
NFPA 704 Special Information: SA
Correct answer: Simple Asphyxiants
NFPA 704 Numbering System: 0
Correct answer: 0% No Hazard
NFPA 704 Numbering System: 1
Correct answer: 25% Minor Hazard
NFPA 704 Numbering System: 2
Correct answer: 50% Moderate Hazard
NFPA 704 Numbering System: 3
Correct answer: 75% High Hazard
NFPA 704 Numbering System: 4
Correct answer: 100% Severe Hazard
What are NFPA 704 limitation?
Correct answer:
No chemical name, quantity, or location
Does not show post-fire/explosion information
Fire (heat) can alter chemicals
What is the DOT identification system based on?
Correct answer: The UN ITDG
What does ITDG stand for?
Correct answer: International Transportation of Dangerous Goods
What does the DOT identification system include?
Correct answer:
UN Hazard Class number
UN 4 digit identifier
Placards
What are the 9 UN hazard classes?
Correct answer:
Explosives
Compressed Gases
Flammable Liquids
Flammable Solids
Oxidizers
Toxic (or Poisons)
Radioactive
Corrosive
Miscellaneous
What is the purpose of the 4 digit DOT?
Correct answer: Identify the product
How many HMIS PPE items are listed?
Correct answer: 12
How many HMIS PPE combinations are there?
Correct answer: 12
SDS Section 1
Correct answer: Chemical Product and Company Identification
SDS Section 2
Correct answer: Hazard Identification
SDS Section 3
Correct answer: Composition/Information on Ingredients
SDS Section 4
Correct answer: First aid measures
SDS Section 5
Correct answer: Fire Fighting Measures
SDS Section 6
Correct answer: Accidental Release Measures
SDS Section 7
Correct answer: Handling and storage
SDS Section 8
Correct answer: Exposure Controls, Personal Protection
SDS Section 9
Correct answer: physical and chemical properties
SDS Section 10
Correct answer: Stability and Reactivity
SDS Section 11
Correct answer: Toxicological Information
SDS Section 12
Correct answer: Ecological Information
SDS Section 13
Correct answer: Disposal Considerations
SDS Section 14
Correct answer: transport information
SDS Section 15
Correct answer: regulatory information
SDS Section 16
Correct answer: other information
What does ACGIH stand for?
Correct answer: American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists
What does TLV stand for?
Correct answer: Threshold Limit Value
What does NIOSH stand for?
Correct answer: National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health
What does ISDC stand for?
Correct answer: International Safety Data Card
What must be included on the DOT shipping papers?
Correct answer:
4-digit UN ID number
Proper shipping name per DOT
Hazard classification per DOT
Packing group
Type of package
Total quantity of material
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 5 Quiz
When there is a large fir involving water ,it is best in most situations to reduce human
exposures and let the fire burn.
Correct answer: Reactive
If a liquid has a pH of ,its H+ ion concentration is very low.
Correct answer: 11
Only flammable liquids are more commonly used and transported than corrosives.
Correct answer: True
Two main types of materials powerful enough to corrode steel are:
Correct answer: Both A & B
Which of the following is FALSE?
Correct answer: Percent and polarity are expressions that identify concentration.
What ending of a word signals a hazardous chemical?
Correct answer: Danger
How should unstable materials be handled?
Correct answer: As if they are explosives until proven otherwise.
Which of the following is not on the "to do" list for solvents?
Correct answer: Keep solvents in a non-ventilated area.
The HCS requires that every container of hazardous materials be labeled by the
manufacturer and provide:
Correct answer: All of the above
What are some basic elements of an explosive train?
Correct answer: A main charge, primer, and igniter
What are the physical hazards of flammable solvents?
Correct answer: Fire and explosion
In the event of chemical exposure, which of the following should be done first?
Correct answer: Flushing out and neutralize the material
A flammable liquid spilled in amounts less than a gallon can create a fire hazard in a
confined space.
Correct answer: True
The physical hazards solvents bring to the work place are:
Correct answer: Both B and C
Corrosives are used in everything from:
Correct answer: batteries to disinfectants
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 6 Quiz
Which of the following are types of ionizing radiation?
Correct answer: Alpha, beta, and gamma
Examples of transferable contamination include:
Correct answer: All of the above
Radiation is categorized as either:
Correct answer: Ionizing or non-ionizing
Workers can protect themselves from ionizing radiation exposure in terms of:
Correct answer: Time
Radiation must be detected and measured using:
Correct answer: Radiation monitoring instruments
(blank) particles are the largest of the particles emitted from the nucleus of an atom.
Correct answer: Alpha
What are some symptoms of acute radiation exposure?
Correct answer:
extreme nervousness and confusion
severe nausea
vomiting
watery diarrhea
loss of consciousness
burning sensations of the skin
(blank) puts protective materials between the worker and the source.
Correct answer: Shielding
Acute radiation dose is more tolerable for human body than a chronic dose.
Correct answer: False
Radiation does are measured using standard radiation units, called:
Correct answer: All of the above
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 7 Quiz
The two main types of positive-pressure respirators are pressure-demand and:
Correct answer: Continuous flow
The assembly that has been approved by MSHA and NIOSH to protect against organic
vapors is tested against only a single challenge substance. That substance is:
Correct answer: carbon tetrachloride
Two types of fit tests can be performed. The first is a qualitative fir test, which exposes
the wearer to irritants (stannic chloride) or substances that have distinctive odors or
tastes. The second type of test is the:
Cartridges usually attach directly to the respirator face-piece. The larger volume
canisters attach to the chin of the face-piece or are carried with a harness and attached
to the face-piece by:
Correct answer: A breathing tube
The Assigned Protection Factor (APF) is determined experimentally by measuring facepiece seal and:
Correct answer: Exhalation valve leakage
Air-purifying respirators have limited use at hazardous waster sites and can be used
only when the ambient atmosphere contains sufficient oxygen that is greater than
(blank) percent.
Correct answer: 19.5
The main disadvantage of negative-pressure respirators is that, if any leaks develop,
the user:
Correct answer: Draws contaminated air into the face-piece during inhalation
A SAR is NOT recommended for entry into IDLH atmospheres unless the apparatus is
equipped with:
Correct answer: An escape SCBA
The combination system provides up to 60 minutes of self-contained air, whereas the
escape SCBA contains much less air, generally for how many minutes?
Correct answer: 5 minutes
In which type of respirator, is exhaled air recycled by removing the carbon dioxide with
an alkaline scrubber and by replenishing the consumed oxygen with oxygen from a
solid, liquid, or gaseous source?
Correct answer: Closed-circuit SCBA
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 8 Quiz
What is the best way for employees to verify the functionality of PPE program at a
workplace?
Correct answer: check if the written PPE plan document covers necessary requirements
and verify the date of its most recent view
Work activities should be studied to determine the degree of dexterity required, the
duration, frequency, degree of exposure, and the (blank) involved.
Correct answer: Physical stress
Which class of helmets is made of aluminum that conducts electricity and, therefore,
should not be worn near electrical hazards?
Correct answer: Class C
Which assessment must be performed by the employers to determine the necessity for
PPE?
Correct answer: Hazard assessment
Which class of helmets provides impact and penetration as well as electrical protection
from low-voltage conductors?
Correct answer: Class A
Class E helmets provide electrical protection from high-voltage conductors and are
proof tested to how many volts?
Correct answer: 20,000 volts
What must be provided, used, and maintained to protect employees from workplace
hazards?
Correct answer: Protective equipment
No clothing material protects against all chemicals. When working with chemical
mixtures, a glove should be chosen on the basis of its:
Correct answer: Permeation rate and breakthrough time
Employees must remove their gloves in such a manner as to prevent what?
Correct answer: Skin contamination
What are the symptoms of heat stroke?
Correct answer: Very small pupils, confusion, unconsciousness, and a very high body
temperature
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 9 Quiz
External communication is done by phone or radio. Its purpose is to coordinate
emergency response and often to maintain contact with (blank).
Correct answer: Off-site personnel and management
What are some common internal communication devices?
Correct answer: radios, mobile phones, intranet, collaboration tools, and email
To reduce the accidental spread of hazardous substances by workers from a
contaminated area to a clean area. what should generally by established?
Correct answer: Site work zones
Which area is the passageway between the exclusion zone and the support zone used
for the decontamination process?
Correct answer: contamination reduction zone
Which of the following is not an internal communication device used to communicate
visually with personnel?
Correct answer: Smoke
The establishment of the hot line is based on evaluation results of soil and (blank)
sampling.
Correct answer: Water and air sampling
The primary activities in the exclusion zone are site characterization (such as mapping
or sampling), installation of wells for groundwater monitoring, and (blank).
Correct answer: A variety of clean-up activities
Which zone personnel are responsible for alerting the proper agency in the event of an
emergency?
Correct answer: Support Zone
Workers in the exclusion zone should be in line-of-sight contact of communicative
contact with which person in the support zone?
Correct answer: command post supervisor
What is necessary to prevent the exposure of unauthorized, unprotected people to site
hazards?
Correct answer: Site security
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 10 Quiz
The degree of permeation depends on what factor(s)?
Correct answer: All of the above
Which of the following is NOT an example of a standard operating procedure for
decontamination?
Correct answer: Dispose of all equipment after contamination, regardless of the
circumstance
Which of the following is a method for decontamination?
Correct answer: All of the above
The decontamination plan is part of the site (blank).
Correct answer: Health and safety program
Where can contaminants be found?
Correct answer: A and B
In an emergency, the primary focus is to prevent the loss of life or severe injury?
Correct answer: True
All PPE is effective in dealing with hazardous substances?
Correct answer: False
What is the last step in a basic six-step decontamination line?
Correct answer: Field wash
Decontamination facilities should be located in (blank).
Correct answer: The contamination reduction zone
One way to test the effectiveness of decontamination procedures is to (blank).
Correct answer: analyze for contaminants left in the cleaning solutions.
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 11 Quiz
What should be used as baseline data for hazardous waste site workers?
Correct answer: Pre-employment exams
At least annually, the site officer must do what?
Correct answer: All of the above
Records should be kept and preserved for (blank) years after employment.
Correct answer: 30
Periodic medical exams be done at least (blank), following the report of employee
symptoms, or at the recommendation of a physician.
Correct answer: Annually
In reviewing occupational and medical history questionnaires, a physician will pay
particular attention to all of the following EXCEPT which one?
Correct answer: General chemical exposures
Emergency medical treatment procedures must be integrated into what?
Correct answer: Overall site emergency response program
Which of the following components should a medical program provide?
Correct answer: All of the above
29 CFR 1910.120 requires employers to do what?
Correct answer: Develop a medical surveillance program
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 12 Quiz
Which term is defined as the ability of an instrument to detect and measure a specific
chemical or group of similar chemicals?
Correct answer: Selectivity
The interaction of the oppositely charged particles and the (blank) keep the electrons in
orbits outside the nucleus.
Correct answer: Laws of quantum mechanics
A contaminant reacts with the indicator chemical in the colorimetric indicator tube,
producing a change in color. The length of the colored area is proportional to the:
Correct answer: Contaminant concentration
Since most monitoring instruments were designed for industrial use, allowances may
not have been made for using them while wearing:
Correct answer: Protective equipment
When monitoring the atmosphere for air contaminants, one must evaluate the reliability
of the:
Correct answer: Resulting data
The safeguards that prevent combustion in a flammable atmosphere are NOT designed
to operate in which atmosphere?
Correct answer: Oxygen-enriched
Which monitor has the same limitations, considerations, and detection method as
CGIs?
Correct answer: Catalytic combustion detectors
An active sampling system should be calibrated both before and after a prescribed
sampling period.
Correct answer: True
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 13 Quiz
OSHA Standards prohibit excavation under sidewalks and pavement is prohibited
unless an appropriately designed support system is provided or another effective
method is used.
Correct answer: True
What occurs when the body is deprived of oxygen?
Correct answer: Asphyxia
In sewers and utility tunnels, where isolation is not possible, one should use written
safety procedures that are approved and enforced by whom?
Correct answer: The employer
OSHA requires that (blank) or other suitable means be used to prevent surface water
from entering an excavation.
Correct answer: Diversion ditches
A permit is (blank) when an emergency develops and/or an evacuation of the space is
necessitated.
Correct answer: Cancelled
OSHA requires adequate means of egress within (blank) feet of lateral travel when
employees are required to be in trench excavations four feet deep or deeper.
Correct answer: 25
The three main atmospheric hazards that cause concern are oxygen depletion,
flammability, and (blank).
Correct answer: Toxicity
The chief hazard associated with excavations is:
Correct answer: Cave-ins
Atmosphere can contain flammable or toxic gases, or be depleted of or enriched in
oxygen. When a condition of IDLH (immediately dangerous of life and health) exists,
what must be used?
Correct answer: Ventilation
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 14 Quiz
Which of the following is NOT something that a site map should highlight?
Correct answer: Bathrooms
By applying another material, most corrosives can be neutralized. What material is this?
Correct answer: That which reacts chemically to form less harmful substances
What is an example of an item that would be located in a refuge area?
Correct answer: B and C
Gel forming agents are dry granular materials designed to coagulate aqueous or
petroleum-based liquids. They do this by what means?
Correct answer: Chemically bonding to the liquid
Which of the following is NOT a step that should be covered in an emergency response
procedure?
Correct answer: Clarification
What planning for decontamination in medical emergencies, procedures should be
developed for doing what?
Correct answer: All of the above
A checkpoint or series of checkpoints through which all personnel should pass is called
what?
Correct answer: Support zone checkpoint
Safe distances should be determined before an emergency occurs.
Correct answer: True
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 15 Quiz
Written records of sample collection, transfer, storage, analysis, and destruction are
necessary for two reasons: to help ensure the proper interpretation of analytical test
results, and:
Correct answer: To provide supporting evidence in case of a legal action
If the soil is not hard and rocky, an auger can be used to bore a hole to a desired
sampling depth. Which type of auger has limited use for sample collection?
Correct answer: Post hole auger
To collect a shallow sample that is more than 10 feet from the water's edge, which
sampler can be used?
Correct answer: Pond sampler
Typically, environmental samples contain dilute concentrations of pollutants and are not
as hazardous as the:
Correct answer: Hazardous waste samples
When manually sampling from a drum, cover drum tops with plastic sheeting or other
suitable non-contaminated materials to avoid:
Correct answer: Excessive contact with the drum tops
Once collected, soil samples should be kept at their in-ground temperature or lower.
Refrigeration to what temperature with a minimal holding time is also required?
Correct answer: 4 C
A device that is commonly used for sampling is called a drum thief. Its glass tubes are
inexpensive and can be disposed of instead of decontaminated. One drawback is that if
the liquid has a low viscosity, it can be difficult to maintain:
Correct answer: A vacuum in the tube
Peristaltic pumps are limited in the lifting capacity; however, they have an advantage in
that the same system can be used not only for purging but also for:
Correct answer: Sample collection
In order to prevent cross contamination of samples, (blank) must be thoroughly
decontaminated after each use.
Correct answer: Sampling equipment
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 16 Quiz
The first step in creating a safe work environment is to:
Correct answer: Develop a list of standard operating procedures
Regulations concerning drum and container handling include:
Correct answer: All of the above
(blank) is the process of blocking the flow of energy from a power source to a piece of
equipment and keeping it blocked out.
Correct answer: Lockout
Disorders of the muscular-skeletal and nervous systems, which are caused or made
worse by repetitive motions, are called:
Correct answer: Repetitive motion disorders
Which of the following is not an example of a hazard found in the work environment
discussed in this lesson?
Correct answer: Fire
Standing orders, also known as SOPs, should be:
Correct answer: All of the above
What is the term, as defined by the Department of Transportation, which describes
something that presents a danger during shipment?
Correct answer: Hazardous materials
If a worker is being electrically shocked, you should:
Correct answer: Pry or knock the victim free with a non-conductive object
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 17 Quiz
Because of their simplicity of design, (blank) require no formal calibration.
Correct answer: Passive samplers
These types of samplers rely on natural rather than mechanical forces to collect
samples:
Correct answer: Passive samplers
Contamination levels can be verified and determined by placing sampling devices on
the affected workers in their breathing zones.
Correct answer: True
Integrated samples are usually measurements taken (blank) in a laboratory.
A characteristic of sampling pumps is:
Correct answer: All of the above
Which of the following is a reason a sampling plan can be complex?
Correct answer: It is often difficult to decide what to sample
Sampling the immediate surroundings of persons in their work environment is called:
Correct answer: Personal monitoring
"Dosimeters" is another name for:
Correct answer: Passive samplers
Chirpy devices are worn by personnel involved in what kind of work?
Correct answer: Radiology
The digital dosimeter is a battery-powered direct-reading instrument with a digital readout in:
Correct answer: mR
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 18 Quiz
The federal body that first issued the Excavation and Trenching Standard in 1971 is
known as (blank).
Correct answer: OSHA
Any man-made cut, cavity, or depression in the earth's surface is referred to as a(n)
Correct answer: an excavation
If an employee has to wear a lifeline in an excavation, an observer must be present to
ensure that:
Correct answer: The lifeline is working properly at all times and communication with the
employee is maintained
The allowance width limit of a trench is how many feet?
Correct answer: 15
Working under loads handled by lifting or digging equipment should be (blank).
Correct answer: Prohibited
Excavations greater than four feet that have a potential for oxygen deficiency or other
hazardous atmospheric conditions must be inspected by a(n) (blank) before a worker is
allowed to enter.
Correct answer: Competent person
Which of the following is an OSHA guideline with respect to employee safety while
installing support systems?
Correct answer: Ensure that the members of the support systems are securely
connected
Before finalizing a bid, the contractor should consider which of the following site
conditions?
Correct answer: All of the above
After excavation work is completed, the excavation itself must be (blank).
The design of a protective system depends on many factors including:
Correct answer: Soil classification and depth of the cut
The design of a protective system depends on many factors including:
Correct answer: soil classification, depth of cut, water content of soil, weather and
climate, and other operations in the vicinity
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 19 Quiz
Employers must ensure that all employee alarm systems are kept in operating condition
except when (blank).
Correct answer: They are being repaired or serviced
The employer shall test supervised employee alarm systems at least (blank).
Correct answer: Annually
Which of these is NOT a specific requirement of a dry chemical extinguishing system?
Correct answer: Backup chemical reservoir
Sources of ignition can be (blank).
Correct answer: Both A and B
What is the role of oxygen in the fire triangle?
Correct answer: To sustain combustion
To be most effective, where should fire extinguishers be aimed?
Correct answer: At the base of the fire
Employers must position extinguishers around the workplace based on (blank).
Correct answer: The anticipated degree of hazard which would necessitate their use
Which is NOT a way to prevent combustion of flammable liquids or gases?
Correct answer: Fixed dry chemical extinguishing systems
Fixed dry chemical extinguishing systems must meet which of the following order to
comply with OSHA standard 1910.160:
Correct answer: All of the above
The employee alarm system should (blank).
Correct answer: Be distinctive and recognizable
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 20 Quiz
Many needlesticks and other cuts can be prevented by:
Correct answer: Using safer techniques like self-sheathing needles instead of recapping
needles with both hands
(blank) vaccine has been available since 1982.
Correct answer: Hepatitis B
Post exposure treatment is (blank) recommended for all occupational exposures to HIV.
Correct answer: 3-drug HIV PEP
In September 1986, OSHA was petitioned by whom to develop an emergency
temporary standard to protect employees from occupational exposure to bloodborne
diseases?
Correct answer: Various unions representing healthcare employees
Following the body fluid exposure, the risk of infection can vary with factors such as:
Correct answer: The type of exposure
The provisions of the Standard were based on the agency's determination that a
combination of engineering and work practice controls, personal protective equipment,
training, medical surveillance, hepatitis B vaccination, signs and labels, and other
requirements would:
Correct answer: Minimize the risk of disease transmission
If the source individual cannot be identified or tested, decisions regarding follow-up
should be based on:
Correct answer: The exposure risk and whether the source is likely to be infected with a
bloodborne pathogen
Workers who have occupational exposure to blood and OPIM are at risk from
bloodborne pathogens, including:
Correct answer: Hepatitis B virus (HBV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Post exposure treatment is not recommended for all occupational exposures to HIV
because:
Correct answer: the drugs used to prevent infection may have serious side effects.
Exposure risk can be reduced by:
Correct answer: Employing safer techniques and using appropriate barriers
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 21 Quiz
Put all used sharps in proper containers that are:
Correct answer: Labeled with the biological hazard placard or red in color
Written exposure control plans must contain which of the following elements?
Correct answer: An exposure determination such as a list of job classifications that have
occupational exposure
Where engineering controls are not sufficient to minimize or prevent employee
exposure, an employer must:
Correct answer: use additional protective measures such as PPE, safety training, and
medical testing
During use, containers used for contaminated sharps must be easily:
Correct answer: All of the above
Containers for biological waste must be:
Correct answer: Leak proof on the sides and bottom
One function of a written exposure control plan is:
Correct answer: Communication of hazards to employees
Employers with employees who have occupational exposure to BBPs are required to
establish a:
Correct answer: Written exposure control plan
Employers must ensure employees use personal protective equipment except when:
Correct answer: Correct answer: If and when there is known occupational exposure
If an employee exposure does occur, the employee should immediately:
Correct answer: wash the affected skin with soap and water and flush any affected
mucous membranes with water
Which of the following is a safe work practice in terms of eliminating occupational
exposure to BBPs?
Correct answer: Never eat or drink in work areas if exposure to BBPs can occur
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 22 Quiz
Current recommendations of the U.S. Public Health Service can be obtained through:
Correct answer: The CDC
The healthcare professional providing treatment to the exposed employee must be
provided all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct answer: The name and exposure history of the source individual, if available
The rate of chronic HBV infection is greater in:
Correct answer: Italy than in England
While the probability of source blood being HBsAg positive ranges from 1-to-3 per
thousand in the general population, it ranges from (blank) in groups at high risk for HBV
infection.
Correct answer: 5-to-15 percent
Although the potential for HBV transmission in the workplace is greater than for HIV,
their modes of transmission are similar. Both have been transmitted through:
Correct answer: All of the above
Hands and other skin surfaces should be washed immediately and thoroughly if they
are contaminated with which of the following?
Correct answer: Other body fluids to which universal precautions apply
What are some examples of workers who are at a higher risk for contracting HBV?
Correct answer: Police officers and EMTs
Symptoms of HBV include:
Correct answer: Eyes and skin turning yellow, tiredness
Although anyone can get Hepatitis B, some people are at greater risk, such as those
who:
Correct answer: All of the above
The healthcare professional's written opinion must include:
Correct answer: Hepatitis B vaccination status
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 23 Quiz
Training must meet all the following requirements EXCEPT:
Correct answer: Include a hands-on workshop that simulates the exposure environment
The employee's medical exposure record must include:
Correct answer: A copy of the employee's hepatitis B vaccination status
Employee medical exposure records required shall be provided upon request for
examination and copying to:
Correct answer: All of the above
Employers are required to retain employee medical records for how long?
Correct answer: The duration of employment plus 30 years
Employers are required to provide training to employees:
Correct answer: Upon initial assignment and at least annually thereafter
The trainer has to be knowledgeable in the elements contained in the training program
as they relate:
Correct answer: To the specific workplace where the training is done
Which of the following must the bloodborne pathogen training program include?
Correct answer: All of the above
All training must be documented. Which of the following must the training records
include?
Correct answer: The dates of the training sessions
Labels required by the Standard require what legend?
Correct answer: Biohazard
Individual containers of blood or other potentially infectious materials that are placed in
a labeled container during storage, transport, shipment, or disposal are exempted from
the labeling requirement.
Correct answer: True
HAZWOPER 40: Lesson 24 Quiz
Revisions to the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard were:
Correct answer: Mandated because occupational exposure to BBPs from accidental
sharps injuries in healthcare and other occupational settings continues to be a serious
problem
One new element added to the employer's annual review of the exposure control plan
requirements:
Correct answer: Reflects changes in technology that eliminate or reduce exposure to
BBPs
Specifically, the revised OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard obligates employers to
consider safer needle devices when they conduct their annual exposure control plan
(ECP) review.
Correct answer: True
The revision to the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard added new requirements for
employers, including:
Correct answer: A and B
Needleless systems mean any device that does not use needles for:
Correct answer: All of the above
According to the revised Standard, engineering controls mean:
Correct answer: Controls like self-sheathing needles, safer medical devices, and
needleless systems
Why does the revised Standard require the involvement of frontline employees in
selecting safer devices?
Correct answer: Correct answer: ensures that workers using them have the opportunity
for input into purchasing decisions.
The purpose of the sharp’s injury log is:
Correct answer: To help both employees and employers track all needlesticks to help
identify problem areas or operations
Which of the following is an example oof engineering controls under the revised
definition?
Correct answer: All are examples