This Contain Science,
Engineering and Arts
Past Questions as
Requested
*Use of English
*Economics
*Mathematics
*Physics
*Chemistry
*Biology
*Literature
*Geography
*Government
*History
*Yoruba Language
*Igbo Language
*Agric. Science
UNIVERSITY OF
IBADAN
POST UTME SCREENING
Past Questions & Solutions
*Fin. Accounting
*Islamic Studies
*CRS
*Geography
*Fine Arts
*Arabic Studies
*
2011 – 2014
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What you NEED to KNOW
• 200 is the JAMB cutoff score required for writing UI putme.
• U.I do not partake in pre-degree but CDL(centre for distance learning)
• Last year U.I set 100 question i.e 25 each and gave 1hour 30mins time limit.
• Age limit is 16years as at the time of admission
• U.I accepts two sittings in O-level for some faculties check below
• University of Ibadan puts only post-utme score into consideration when offering admission.
• Post-utme exercise consists of 100 questions in total(25 each from the 4 subjects selected)
ADMISSIONS REQUIREMENTS
In addition to the subject combinations for each department as advertised in the JAMB brochure, please
note the following;
A. UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN ACCEPTS FIVE CREDITS AT ONLY ONE SITTING IN THE
FOLLOWING FACULTIES
1. College of Medicine
a. Basic Medical Sciences
b. Clinical Sciences
c. Dentistry
d. Public Health
2. Pharmacy
B. UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN ACCEPTS FIVE CREDITS AT ONE SITTING OR SIX CREDITS AT
TWO SITTINGS IN THE FOLLOWING FACULTIES
1. Agriculture and Forestry
2. Arts
3. Education
4. Law
5. Science
6. Technology
7. The Social Sciences
8. Veterinary Medicine
Candidates should note that it is only when an O’level result is deficient for a course of choice, that
another result may be presented to compliment the deficient one. Candidates presenting two O’level
results (2 Sittings) should ensure that, the comprehensive details of both results are submitted.
YOU MUST REMEMBER THIS.
In 2011/12, 25,513 submitted their results online but only 5,045 were invited for post-utme of which
3,131 scored 50 and above, they were recommend for admission but only 2,849 showed up for clearance
and eventually matriculated. The remaining 282 rejected their admission because they were given other option
since they failed to meet their individual cut-off but scored above 50 as required.
LAST YEAR (2015/2016) CUT OFF MARKS
THE SOCIAL SCIENCES
TECHNOLOGY
Economics 69
Agricultural & Environmental
Engineering 51
Geography 50
Civil Engineering 52
Political Science 68
Psychology 60
Electrical & Electronics Engineering
57
Sociology 64
Food Technology 50
Industrial & Production Engineering
50
Mechanical Engineering 55
Petroleum Engineering 54
Wood Products Engineering 50
SCIENCE
LAW
Anthropology 50
Law 74
Archaeology 50
Botany 50
Chemistry 50
Computer Science 50
Geography 50
Geology 50
Mathematics 50
Microbiology 54
Physics 50
Statistics 50
Zoology 50
ARTS
EDUCATION
Arabic & Islamic Studies 62
Adult Education 50
Anthropology 57
Archaeology 57
Educational Management 50
LARIS 56
Classics 53
Guidance & Counselling 53
CLA 70
Health Education 50
English 68
Human Kinetics 50
E. Studies- French 64
E. Studies- German 62
T. Education- Arts 54
T. Educ.- Pre-Primary 50
E. Studies- Russian 60
T. Educ- Science 50
History 50
T. Educ.- Social Science 50
Linguistics 67
Special Educ. 50
Linguistics – Yoruba 58
Linguistics – Igbo 50
PHARMACY
COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
Pharmacy 63
Biochemistry 53
Dentistry 61
Human Nutrition 50
MBBS 74
Medical Laboratory Science 50
Nursing 60
Physiology 55
Physiotherapy 61
AGRIC. & FORESTRY
VETERINARY MEDICINE
Agric. Economics 50
Agric. Extension & Rural Development 50
Aquaculture & Fisheries Mgt 50
Forest Resources Management 50
Wildlife & Ecotourism Mgt 50
Animal Science 50
Agronomy 51
Veterinary Medicine 50
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2011 POST UME SCREENING EXERCISE
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
PLEASE
ENSURE
THAT
YOU
HAVE
SUBMITTED
ONE
DOWNLOADED
ON-LINE
REGISTRATIONFORM BEFORE
AND AFTER THE EXAMINATION.
Calculators, Cell Phones and other electronic devices are not allowed. Any form of examination
malpractice automatically disqualifies the candidate. Candidates may use logarithm tables.
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME ALLOWED:
Shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1. A story not based on fact and reality is A. Myth B. Legend C. Pasquinade D. Love story
2. A character who defends a bad cause or who argues in a contrary position just to stimulate an argument
is referred to as A. Legend B. Cynic C. Villain D. Critic
3. “When the criminal was arrested, he rattled like a rattle snake” is an example of A. Pun B. Simile C.
Hyperbole D. Apostrophe
4. The first-person narrative style is used when the main character in a novel recounts A. The author‟s
story B. Other character‟s story C. His own story D. His best friend‟s story
5. A performance whereby a story is expressed through singing and music is called A. Drama B. Opera
C. Pantomime D. Ballet
6. A word or gesture which serves as a signal to an actor to do or say something is called A. Reminder
B. Correction C. Over-act D. Cue
7. The word “octave” refers to the first eight lines of A. lyric B. sonnet C. ode D. dirge
8. “These naked sons of misery”. This expression is an example of A. litotes B. paradox C. assonance
D. metaphor
9. The expression “the knights arrived at night” is known as A. pun B. satire C. metaphor D. simile
10. A prologue is the A. introductory part of a literary work B. scheme of a literary work C. last part of a
literary work D. tribute paid to a character
11. “Haman is an out-at-the elbow looking man” is referred to as A. metonymy B. idiomatic expression C.
personification D. irony
12. Repetition, rhyme and rhythm are permanent features of A. drama B. poetry C. short story D. prose
Read the poem and answer questions 1 – 5
Bent-double, like old beggars under sacks,
Knock-kneed, coughing like hags, we curse through sludge,
Till on the haunting flares we turned our backs,
And towards our distant rest began to trudge,
Men marched asleep, many had lost their boots,
But limped on, blood-shed. All went lame, all blind;
Drunk with fatigue; even deaf to the hoots
Of gas-shells dropping softly behind
13. The extract conveys a mood of A. dejection B. desperation C. resentment D. resignation
14. The dominant figure of speech in the first stanza is A. hyperbole B. simile C. euphemism D. pun
15. The expression Drunk with fatigue illustrates A. Metaphor B. synecdoche C. litotes D. irony
16. The rhyme scheme of the first stanza is A. aabb B. abab C. abcd D. abba
17. sludge in the extract means A. water B. fire C. snow D. mud
18. “Singing songs of sorrow is symbolic of sincere sympathy” illustrates A. Assonance B. Refrain C.
Alliteration D. Anecdote
19. The predominant use of the third person pronoun in a novel creates a A. sense of detachment on the
part of the writer B. sense of detachment on the part of the reader C. psychological affinity with the
characters D. balance of opinion among the characters
20. A tragic hero, according to the Aristotelian precept must be a A. noble character with hubris B. lowly
character who suddenly stumbles on some fortune C. king with deep affection for his subjects D. central
character after whom the play is named
21. The writing convention in which the events in a narrative are scrambled as they come to the writers
mind without any attempt to arrange them in orderly sequence is called A. shifting style B. narrator‟s mind
style C. psycho-consciousness style D. stream of consciousness
22. A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is generally called a A. couplet B. ballad C. tercet D. quatrain
23. “But at my back I always heard Time‟s winged chariot hurrying near” illustrates A. Metaphor B.
Apostrophe C. Oxymoron D. Metonymy
24. The exclusive right given to authors to protect their works from unlawful production is A. copyright B.
an authority C. an authors right D. a constitutional provision
25. When a story is told in a song and passed down by word of mouth, it is called A. a sonnet B. an epic
C. a ballad D. a singer‟s story
Possible Answers
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2012 POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
76. An exaggeration or overstatement in literature is a A. hexameter B. hyperbole C. metaphor D.
soliloquy
77. A burlesque is A. an exaggerated mockery of a literary work B. a sentimental comedy C. an account
of a famous person‟s life D. a rhetorical device used for effect in poetry
78. When to the sessions of sweet silent thought, I summon up remembrance of things past…‟
Shakespeare, Sonnet XXX The lines contain the predominant use of A. a motif B. irony C. sarcasm D.
alliteration
79. A line of poetry is measured by the A. number of words B. number of feet it contains C. Images D.
rhythm
80. The recurrence of rhythmic pattern of stress in a poem is a A. Couplet B. Metre C. Consonance D.
Scansion
81. “I don‟t fancy forbidden fruits of fashions and fads” illustrates A. Refrain B. Repetition C. Assonance
D. Alliteration
82. “The strong gongs groaning as the guns boom far” illustrates A. Metonymy B. Refrain C.
Onomatopoeia D. Repetition
Read the poem and answer questions 83-87
Sleep, O Sleep,
With thy Rod of Incantation,
Charm my Imagination,
Then, only then. I cease to weep.
By thy power,
The virgin, by Time O’ertaken
For years forlorn, forsaken,
Enjoys the happy hour.
What’s to sleep?
‘Tis a visionary blessing;
A dream that’s past expressing;
Our utmost wish possessing;
So may I always keep.
83. The poem is A. An epic B. An ode C. A lyric D. A ballad
84. The dominant device used in the first line is A. Oxymoron B. Apostrophe C. Rhyme D. Metaphor
85. The poem makes use of A. end-stopped lines B. run-on lines C. Rhyme D. Metaphor
86. “Sleep” in the poem is an example of A. Alliteration B. Assonance C. Onomatopoeia D. Pun
87. The power of “sleep” is described as A. Majestic B. Magical C. Poetic D. Worshipful
88. A stylistic device which uses the name of one thing to describe another is called a A. synonym B.
metonym C. metaphor D. antonym
89. For a play to be successful on stage, it must not be short of A. audience B. speeches C. actions D.
characters
90. An over-used expression is a(n) A. cliché B. epigram C. archetype D. cacophony
91. To be total or complete a play needs have a ___________ A. soliloquy B. conflict C. prologue D.
epilogue
92. One of the following applies to both tragic and comic plays: A. climax B. happy ending C. temper D.
sympathetic ending
93. Dialogue is crucial in a piece of drama because it A. makes the audience laugh B. is like a discourse
C. reveals the character‟s mind D. makes the character honest
94. One major narrative technique the novel shares with drama is A. scenes B. dialogue C. soliloquy D.
sarcasm
95. A necessary quality of every work of literature is that it A. shows creative use of language B. has to
be publishable in order to gain wide acceptance C. teaches a moral lesson D. uses characters or actors
96. The dominant device used in drama is A. oratory B. stage direction C. characterization D. dialogue
97. The style of writing in the Joys of Motherhood is A. first person narrative B. Epistolary C. third person
narrative D. Argumentative
98. Pick the odd item from the options listed: A. epic B. ode C. lyric D. novel
Read the extract and answer questions 99-100
Angels and ministers of grace defend us!
Be thou a spirit of health, or globlin damn’d
Bring with thee airs from heaven, or blasts from hell,
By thy intents, wicked or charitable,
Thou comest in such a questionable shape…
99. The speaker is A. Hamlet B. Marcellus C. Horatio D. Laertes
100. The character being addressed is A. the king B. the ghost C. angels D. God
Possible Answers:
76. B
77. A
78. D
79. D
80. B
81. C
82. C
83. A
84. C
85. B
86. A
87. C
88. B
89. C
90. A
91. B
92. A
93. C
94. B
95. A
96. D
97. C
98. D
99. A
100. B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2011 POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
GOVERNMENT
76 The organ of government that applies the rules and policies of a society is: (A) the
judiciary (B)the legislature (C)the civil service (D)the executive
77 Which of the following best describes a sovereign state? (A)a member of the Africa
union (B)freedom from economic control (C)Geographical contiguity (D)military,
political and economic independence
78 The branch of Government that that sets agenda for other organs is known as: (A)the
bureaucracy (B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
79 Political sovereignty lies with:
(A) head of state (B)head of government (C)the parliament (D) the electorate
80 In the civil service, anonymity means that civil servants must (A) not receive the credit or blame
for any good (B) serve any government impartiality (C) avoid nepotism and favouritism (D)be
politically
8 In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated. (A) Nigeria
1 and Ghana (B)the united state and united kingdom (C) France and Germany (D) india and china
82 The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) life liberty and property (B)salvation, property
freedom of thought (C) Employment, property and social security (D) free education, employment
and property
83 The major advantage of state power? (A) it ensures the anonymity of each voter (B)it is faster
than other systems (C)nobody can be prevented from voting (D)it extends franchise to all adults
84 Which of these is an element of state power? (A) Geographical location, population & economic
resources (B) ) Geographical location, elites interests & economic resources (C) ) Geographical
location, ethnicity & economic resources (D) ) Geographical location, political crisis & economic
resources
85 In which of these International Organizations is African membership NOT possible? (A)ECOWAS
(B)EU (C)OPE C (D)Commonwealth
86 All of the following affect Nigerias foreign policy EXCEPT? (A) Economic resources (B) Nuclear
capability (C)African perspective (D)population
87 In the Hausa pre-colonial political system, sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B)Emir (C)
Waziri (D)Galadima
88 The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (B)Sir bubakar Tafawa
Balewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D)Alhaji Shehu Shagari
89 Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford
constitution (B)1946 Richard constitution (C) 1953 London conference (D) 1954 Lytelton
constitution
90 Under the Babangida regime. Director Generals who replaced the Permanent Secretaries can
be appointed from. (A) Anywhere (B)only the civil service (C) local government (D)professionals
91 An essential principle that guides the work of the United Nations (A) the regulation of international
trade (B) the protection of the United State of America against terrorism (C) respect for sovereign
equality of member state (D)the transfer of technology to developing countries
92 Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations? (A)voluntary
association of the independent countries of the former british colonies (B)association of free
nations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independent
Africa states (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the French colonial
empire
93 Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations? (A)international labour
organization (B) league of Nations (C)UNESCO (D)OAU
94 ECOMOG was created under the auspices o f(A) The UNO (B)OAU (C)ECOWAS (D)AU
95 Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU? (A) The assembly conference (B)the
executive council (C) African court of justice (D)the commission
96 The 1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties
(A)All progressive grand alliance and the northern people’s alliance (B)Nigeria national
alliance and united progressive grand alliance (C)National democratic coalition and
Nigeria peoples alliance (D)National Democratic Alliance and Northern Elements
Progressive Union
97 Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B)raise
revenue for the government (C)provide essential services for the public (D) promote public
accountability
98 A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to private
.
individuals or organizations is called (A) Indeginisation (B)commercialization (C)
privatization (D)Acquisition
99. Which of the following is not a major problem of local Government in Nigeria (A) insufficient
funding and limited internally generated revenue (B) ) interference and control by higher
levels of government (C)lack of competent and qualified staff (D)lack of sufficient number
of local government
100 A major problem associated with military rule in Nigeria is (A)decentralization of political
.
power (B)slow decision making process (C)frequent violation of human rights
(D)conservative foreign policies
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2012 POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
GOVERNMENT
26. The emergency powers conferred on the Federal Government under the independence constitution
was first exercised in the A. Western region B. Mid-Western region C. Eastern Region D. Northern region
E. Federal Territory Lagos
27. The international organization formed after the Second World War to guarantee international peace
and security is called A. The European Common Market B. The British Common Wealth of Nations C.
The League of Nations D. The United Nations Organization
28. Nigeria changed to the right hand driving in A. 1970 B. 1973 C. 1975 D. 1977
29. Mary Slessor was popular for her A. Involvement in the abolition of slave trade B. Intervention in the
killing of twins C. Cordial relationship with the Efik people D. Soliciting for peace among the indigenes.
30. The following are key factors which influence Nigeria‟s foreign relations except A. peaceful coexistence B. economic dependence C. non-interference D. respect for territorial integrity
31. The second military coup d‟etat in Nigeria took place on A. July 29, 1966 B. July 29, 1975 C. February
13, 1976 D. October 1, 1966
32. The mechanism used to limit a parliamentary debate is known as A. guillotine B. prerogative C.
abrogation D. adjournment
33. Some pre-colonial West African governments were democratic because of the existence of A.
powerful traditional rulers B. age grade C. religious institutions D. checks and balances
34. The head of the executive branch in a parliamentary system is called A. Senate President B. Prime
Minister C. President D. Governor-General
35. Under what constitution did the Supreme Court become the highest Court of Appeal in Nigeria? A.
Lyttleton Constitution B. Republican constitution C. McPherson constitution D. Independence constitution
36. The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is A. An economic association B. A
political association C. Cultural association D. A social association
37. Government as an act of governing means A. Activities of pressure groups and political parties B.
Act of vetoing a bill C. Orders of judiciary and legislature D. Activities by which government policies are
made and implemented
38. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that A. it is faster than other systems B. nobody can be
prevented from voting C. it ensures the anonymity of each voter D. it extends franchise to all adults
39. The process of depriving persons of the right of voting is known as A. Disenfranchisement B.
Disqualification C. Prohibition D. Dismissal
40. The question of civil war was raised for the first time at the meeting of the OAU in September 1967 in
A. Kampala B. Addis Ababa C. Nairobi D. Kinshasa
41. Military governors were members of the supreme military council under A. Murtala Mohammed regime
B. Yakubu Gowon C. Ibrahim Babangida regime D. Muammadu Buhari regime
42. Residual powers under the Nigerian independence constitution were the powers exercised by A. the
Federal government B. the Regional government C. the Local government D. both the Federal and
Regional governments
43. It is the duty of a government to perform all the following functions except A. Providing all the needs
of its citizens B. Preventing internal disorder C. Providing basic welfare services D. Promoting industrial
and commercial development
44. The following factors favoured the introduction of indirect rule in Nigeria except the A. shortage of
manpower B. shortage of funds C. existence of education elites D. existence of a system of taxation
45. It is argued that most of the new states of Africa cannot remain faithful to the doctrines of nonalignment mainly because of A. corruption B. ethnic problems C. bad leadership D. poor economy
46. The delegation of Administrative Powers to the local units with the central supervision and control is
called A. devolution B. decentralization C. deconcentration D. centralization E. concentration
47. Which of the following is not an accepted way of resolving international conflict A. Diplomacy B.
Propaganda C. Non-military use of force D. Military Force (war) E. Nuclear War
48. A unified- local government system was adopted in Nigeria under the A. Tafawa Balewa
administration B. Yakubu Gowon administration C. Shehu Shagari administration D. Murutala/Obasanjo
administration E. Mohammadu Buhari administration
49. One of the criticisms against delegated legislation is that it A. gives too much power to all organs of
government B. enhances separation of powers C. encroaches on parliamentary power D. is not practised
in advanced countries
50. Which of the following is not an objective in foreign policy? A. prestige B. large population C. territorial
integrity D. survival
Possible Solutions:
26. A
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. B
31. A
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. D
38. C
39. A
40. D
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. C
45. D
46. A
47. E
48. D
49. C
50. B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2013 POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
GOVERNMENT
51. Government by the few is a) Dictatorship b) Oligarchy c) Monarchy d) Autocracy
52. The primary function of the Judiciary is to a) make laws b) protect the citizens c) interpret laws d)
execute laws
53. A characteristic feature of communism is a) free enterprise b) liberal democracy c) dictatorship d)
multi-party system
54. A tax law is a a) Private bill b) Speaker’s bill c) Public bill d) Judicial bill
55. Nigeria is a member of
a) OPEC, NATO and ECOWAS b) O.A.U, the U.N.O and ECOWAS
c) ECOWAS, NATO and O.A.U d) The Commonwealth of Nations, OPEC and the O.A.S
56. A country made up of semi-autonomous units is
a) a confederation b) a federation c) a region d) unitary
57. Unicameralisrn refers to a a) a two-chamber legis1ature b) the process of secpW5ting in the
legislature
c) the lower chamber legislature d) a one- chamber legislature
58. An important function of the legislature is a) Judicial review b) review of executive policies and action
c) lobbying d) defending government policies
59. Fascism is a system of government which
a) encourages political dissent and opposition
b) represses individual freedom and opposition
c) promotes equality
d) promotes the individual brotherhood of man
60. The 1963 Constitution of Nigeria was a) written and flexible b) written and rigid
c) flexible and unwritten d) unitary and rigid
61. The main source of Local government finance since the 197 6 Reform has been a) local rate b) levies
c) revenue from court fines and licenses d) the Federal government
62. Sovereignty is limited by a) the criminal code b) decrees c) the legal system d) international laws
63. Marxism is directed against a) state ownership of the means of production b) materialism c) The
proletariat d) Socialism
64. The rule of law implies that a) judges interprets the law b} lawyers interpret the c) everyone is subject
to the law d) the legislature makes the law
65. Freedom of speech in a democratic state is limited by a) law of sedition b) law of trespass c) Press
censorship d) Martial law
66. Liberalism is a philosophy underlying a) Socialism b) Capitalism c) Feudalism. d) Nazism
67. In international relations, countries have right to a) export Oil b) create more states c) diplomatic
immunity of their envoys d) own a police force
68. Political authority is normally vested in the a) State b) Judiciary c) Government d) Armed force
69. Case-law are made by the a) legislature b) Council of ministers c) Judiciary d) President
70. Bicameral legislatures are popular in a) Unitary system b) Federal systems c) Con-federal system d)
Rigid system
71. A flexible constitution is one that is a) amended periodically b) easy to amend c) amendable with
difficulty d) easy to interpret
72. Which of the following is NOT associated with local government elections? a) Constituency b) Ballot
box c) Electoral officer d) Ward
73. The fusion of the executive and legislative organs of government is associated with
a) Monarchy b) The presidential system c) Fascism D) The parliamentary system
74. The most important objective of political partiesis to a) Elect their spokesman b) Lobby the
government
c) Form effective national organizations have d) Control the government
75. The primary function of a pressure group is to a) Win and control governmental power b) Elect their
official
c) Influence government policy d) Organize workers to confront government
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2014 POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
GOVERNMENT
51. Who propounded the theory of the rule of law? A. A.V. Dicey B. Karl Max C. Baron de Montesquieu
D. Abraham Lincoln
52. The constitution that introduced federalism to Nigeria was__________ A. The McPherson
Constitution B. The Clifford Constitution C. The Lyttleton Constitution D. The Richards Constitution
53. Which of the following is not a pressure group A. P.D.P B. A.S.U.U C. N.A.S.U D. N.L.C
54. Which of these is an organ of The United Nations organization? A. The council of ministers B. The
senate of the U.N C. House of Lords D. The general assembly
55. A body charged with the responsibility of employing, promoting dismissing and disciplining of civil
servants is A. The Nigerian police B. The Senate C. The Judiciary D. The public service
56. The rule of law entails A.there is no man without law B.the law is everywhere C.impartiality before
the law D.the law exist before man
57. A type of election in which an important political matter or a proposed law is referred to the electorate
for final approval is A. Primary elections B. Run-off election C. General election D. Referendum
58. Laws made by the Federal Government are called A. Executive laws B. Central laws C. Bye-laws D.
Concurrent laws
59. The name, Nigeria, was suggested by ______ A. Sir Frederick Lugard B. Nnamdi Azikiwe C. Flora
Shaw D. Bishop Ajayi Crowther
60. In 1919, Lord Lugard was replaced with _________ as the Governor of Nigeria A. Sir Arthur Richards
B. Lord Milverton Thatcher C. Sir John Macpherson D. Sir Hugh Clifford
61. The ability of a state to make laws which are free from internal aggression and external control is
known as A.independence B.power C.authority D.sovereignty
62. Organization of petroleum exporting countries (OPEC) was founded in A. 1955 B. 1960 C. 1979 D.
1977
63. The admistratior of the capital in pre-colonial Hausa/Fulani was A. Maagi B. Galadima C. Madawaki
D. Sarkin Yan Doka
64. Which is the highest office in the structure of organization of the civil service? A. The executive class
B. The professional or specialist class C. The Administrative class D. The Technical class
65. The ombudsman originated in which of the following countries A. The U.S.A B. Sweden C. Britain D.
Greece
66. The theory of separation of powers was for the first time clearly formulated by A. Baron de
Montesquieu B. Albert Dicey C. Lord Bryce D. Jean Bodin
67. One major disadvantages of a two-party is that is A. does not allow citizens to participate in politics
B. divides the country into factions C. creates two countries D. stifles public opinion
68. The Aba riots of 1929 was a direct consequence of the A. attempt to introduce taxation B. introduction
of Western education C. Yoruba political organization D. pre-colonial Bini System
69. Fascism emphasizes A. equality B. individualism C. nationalism D. totalitarianism
70. When a high court declares an action of the executive ultra-vires, it means that A. the executive has
to reconsider the action B. such an action should never be brought up again
C. only the legislature can deal with such an action D. the action is illegal and of no effect
71. The two parties which formed the coalition government in 1959 were the A. NPC and the NCNC B.
NCNC and AG C. NPC and the NNA D. PRP and UPGA
72. Dis-enfranchisement refers to the A. qualification of voters in an election B. disqualification of
fraudulent presidential aspirants C. denial of the right to vote in an election D. right to vote in all elections
73. The objective of the 1841 Niger expedition included the following except A. The abolition of the slave
trade B. Establishment of legitimate commerce C. Establishment of friendly relationship with Africans D.
Acquire greater knowledge of the interior of Africa.
74. The system of indirect rule failed in the former Eastern Nigeria primarily because A. of the fragmented
political structures B. the chiefs refused to co-operate with the colonial officials C. of high taxation D. of
forced labour
75. The headquarters of OAU is in A. Togo B. Senegal C. Addis Ababa D. Nigeria
Possible Answers:
51. A
52. C
53. A
54. D
55. D
56. C
57. D
58. C
59. C
60. C
61. D
62. D
63. B
64. C
65. B
66. A
67. B
68. A
69. D
70. D
71. A
72. C
73. D
74. A
75. C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2011 POST UME SCREENING EXERCISE
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
PLEASE
ENSURE
THAT
YOU
HAVE
SUBMITTED
ONE
DOWNLOADED
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REGISTRATIONFORM BEFORE
AND AFTER THE EXAMINATION.
Calculators, Cell Phones and other electronic devices are not allowed. Any form of examination
malpractice automatically disqualifies the candidate. Candidates may use logarithm tables.
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME ALLOWED:
Shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
ECONOMICS
26.
Economics may be described as (A) the study of demand and supply of things in our environment
(B) the study of production and distribution (C) the study of human behavior in the allocation of scarce
resources (D) the study of the employment of labour, land and capital (E) The study of money and banking.
27
Nigeria, being a developing Africa country in the sub-sahara, has put together a development blueprint called Vision 20:2020 which can ensure that the country becomes (A) one of the 20 developed
countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic “Tiger” by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20
largest economies in the world by the year 2020 (D) one of the 20 largest economies in subsaharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of the 20 largest economies in the developing world by
the year 2020
28
Which of the following is NOT a measure of dispersion (A) standard deviation (B) mean deviation
(C) variance (D) range (E) mean
29
The impact of a change in the price of commodity A on the quantity demanded of commodity B is
best explained using the concept of (A) price-elasticity demand (B) cross-price elasticity of demand
(C) income elasticity of demand (D) elasticity of substitution (E) A – price elasticity of demand for
B
30
A normal goods with close substitutes is likely to have its price elasticity of demand
(A) between zero and one (B) equal to unity (C)greater than unity (D) less than unity (E) none of
the above
31 Diseconomics of scale operates when (A) doubling inputs brings about more than
proportionate increase in output (B) doubling inputs leads to a doubling of output (C) doubling
inputs brings about less than proportionate increase in output (D) decrease in profit (E)
increase in revenue
32 A firm achieves least cost in production by substituting factors until (A)their factor price are
equal (B)their marginal product are equal to the factor prices (C) their marginal products are
each equal to zero (D) the ratios of their marginal product equals the ratio of their prices (E)
none of the above
33 The basic fiscal relation that exists among the three tiers of government in Nigeria is (A)
national budget appropriation (B) State Local Government joint account (C) revenue
allocation from the federation account (D) federal road projects (E) federal character principle
34 In recent years, Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth in……… Sector
in the last ten years (A) Agriculture (B) Education (C) telecommunication (D transport (E)
distribution
35 Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of
labour in the country? (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and
petroleum (E) Transport and communications
36 Which of the following is a term used to describe a payment representing a surplus in excess
of transfer costs? (A) Interest rate (B) Opportunity cost (C) Economic rent (D) Indirect cost
(E) Wages
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
By trade by bater, we mean (A)Trade done by people in the village (B) Exchange of goods
for money (C)International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade of the Middle
Ages
In the limited liability company, the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures (B)
Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) preference shareholders (E) Board of
directors
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Economic Community of West
African States? (A) Sierra Leone (B) Sudan (C) The Gambia (D) Nigeria (E) Guinea
Population density refers to (A)Densely populated urban centers (B) The total area divided
by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total population divided by
the total area (E)All of the above
The most common index used for measuring development is (A)The level of literacy (B) Per
capital income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International development
index.
The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing. (A) Consumer goods originally imported
(B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for domestic
consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is(A)the absence of common currency (B)political
instability (C)high poverty rate (D)non-implementation of decisions (E)trade-related political
crisis in ivory coast
The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A)twenty (B)seven
(C) five (D)infinity (E)limited to the number of individuals that are interested
The major objective of economic growth is to (A) redistribute income and other benefit of
growth (B)equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) increase aggregate
expenditure on goods and services (D)increase the real per capita income (E)increase access
to education
Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A)utilize local raw
material (B)employ an increase number of labour (C)provide recreational facilities (D) use
modern machines which replace human labour (E) all of the above
An effective does not have a cost when (A) the activity does not require the giving up of any
activity or thing (B)the government pays for it (C) it is carried out by a non-governmental
organisation (D)it is not priced (E) it is easy to undertake
Which of the following is compatible with a firm in a purely competitive market? (A) demand
is inelastic (B) demand is infinitely elastic (C) marginal cost is falling (D) price is greater than
marginal cost (E) price is less than marginal cost
In economics, production is complete when (A) goods are produced in the factories (B) goods
are sold to the wholesaler (C) goods and services are produced by the government (D) prices
are fixed for goods and services (E)goods and services finally reach the consumer
Which of following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population growth?
(A) the rate of natural increase (B)the net migration rate (C) the rate of population increase
(D) the fertility rate (E) all of the above
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2012 POST UME SCREENING EXERCISE
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
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ENSURE
THAT
YOU
REGISTRATIONFORM BEFORE
AND AFTER THE EXAMINATION.
HAVE
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malpractice automatically disqualifies the candidate. Candidates may use logarithm tables.
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME ALLOWED:
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ECONOMICS
1. Land is a most significant factor in terms of contribution to the economy because A. it enables us to
build industries B. we build houses on it C. all our highways are constructed on it D. vital resources from
it enrich the economy.
2. All of the following are assets of a commercial bank except A. cash B. bills discounted C. bank deposits
D. advances to customers
3. The Quantity Theory of Money states that an increase in the quantity of money would bring about A. a
geometrical rise in prices B. an unequal rise in prices C. a proportionate rise in prices D. an absolute rise
in prices
4. Under the socialist economy, the decision on what to produce is determined by the A. producers B.
level of expected profit C. price D. government
5. Terms of trade simply means the price A. ratio of import to export B. ratio of export multiplied by import
C. ratio of export to import D. ratio of export multiplied by price ratio of import
6. In perfect competition, the marginal cost curve intersects the average cost curve A. from below at its
lowest point B. from above at its lowest point C. from below before the lowest point D. at the zero point
7. International trade takes place because of differences in A. production cost B. language C. government
D. currency
8. One major aim of a cartel is A. Increase production B. Regulate output through quota system C. Have
a joint account D. Share profits equally
9. Which of the following does not hinder the efficient distribution of goods in West Africa? A. Inadequate
transportation network B. Inadequate storage facilities for agricultural goods C. Inadequate credit facilities
for potential distributors D. government participation in the distributive trade
10. Which of the following is not a negative effect of inflation? A. lenders earn less B. pensioners and
salary earners on fixed incomes suffer C. exports tend to decline D. savings are discouraged
11. Devaluation means A. a reduction in the value of the national currency B. a reduction in the
purchasing power of foreign currencies C. a reduction in the value of domestic currency relative to foreign
currencies D. an increase in the value of the national currency
12. Which of the following is not an advantage of price control? A. control of inflation B. distortion of price
mechanism C. prevention of exploitation D. control of producer‟s profit
13. Cement industry is located in Cross River because the state A. imports raw materials. B. has large
deposit of limestone. C. the soil is unsuitable for other products D. land is suitable for cement production.
14. Which of the following is not a type of mobility of labour A. Occupational mobility of labour B. Industrial
mobility of labour C. Geographical mobility of labour D. Crisis mobility of labour
15. A common natural response of people to the problem of uneven distribution of resources in a place
is A. hoarding B. shifting cultivation C. family planning D. migration
16. Subsistence agriculture means A. cultivation for external use B. cultivation for local industries C.
farming for the urban dwellers D. cultivation for household consumption
17. The natural growth rate of a population is the A. death rate plus net immigration B. rate of migration
divided by birth rate C. birth rate minus death rate D. sum of birth rate and net immigration rate
18. Who bears the greater burden of the indirect tax when the demand for a commodity is inelastic? The
A. wholesaler B. shareholder C. retailer D. consumer
19. Which of these is NOT a feature of under development? A. low per capita income. B. vicious circle of
poverty. C. low level of industrialization D. high per capita income.
20. The economic system which relies mainly on the price mechanism for the allocation of scarce
resources is known as A. Capitalist economic system B. Command economic system C. Combined
economic system D. Traditional economic system
21. The theory of consumer behaviour is based on all the following assumptions except that the A.
consumer is assumed irrational B. consumer taste remains constant C. consumer has budget constraint
D. consumer aims at maximizing his utility
22. During the consolidation exercise most banks in Nigeria got the required capital through A. mergers
only B. mergers and acquisition C. acquisition only. D. getting money from people
23. Economics can best be defined as the study of A. how to spend the family income efficiently B. how
to find minimum cost of production C. the interpretation of scarce resources and date D. how scarce
resources can be used efficiently
24. Which of the following is specialized in lending money for the purpose of developing real estate? A.
Commercial banks B. Central bank C. Mortgage banks D. Merchant banks.
25. Factors of production can be described as the A. resources required for the provision of goods and
services B. skills involved in deciding and directing the flow of goods C. monetary tools employed by
government to ensure stable production D. elements involved in the process of formulating polices on
production.
Possible Solutions:
1. D
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. D
15. D
16. D
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. D
24. C
25. A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2013 POST UME SCREENING EXERCISE
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
PLEASE
ENSURE
THAT
YOU
HAVE
SUBMITTED
ONE
DOWNLOADED
REGISTRATIONFORM BEFORE
AND AFTER THE EXAMINATION.
Calculators, Cell Phones and other electronic devices are not allowed. Any form of examination
malpractice automatically disqualifies the candidate. Candidates may use logarithm tables.
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME ALLOWED:
Shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
ON-LINE
ECONOMICS
51. The systemic record of the various levels and types of economic activities is called. A. Gross national
product B. National income accounting C. The budget D. Census.
52. When the rate of inflation increases A. Savings will increase B. Income will increase C. Savings will
decrease D. Prices will decrease
53. The tax imposed on goods manufactured within a country is called A. Value added tax B. Capital
gains tax C. Excuse tax D. Profit tax
54. One of the criticisms against delegated legislation is that it A. gives too much power to all organs of
government B. enhances separation of powers C. encroaches on parliamentary power D. is not practised
in advanced countries
55. Devaluation of the country‟s currency is as a result of A. Forces of demand and supply B. Official
policies of local economy C. The economic meltdown D. Foreign policies
56. The economic system which relies mainly on the price mechanism for the allocation of scarce
resources is known as A. Capitalist economic system B. Command economic system C. Combined
economic system D. Traditional economic system
57. A shift in supply is caused by the following factors except A. The price of the goods B. The cost of
resources C. The number of buyers D. The technique of production
58. When firms are privatized A. They are transferred to individuals B. They are made more profitable.
C. They are owned by the government but managed by individuals D. Their products are sold to the public.
59. Any type of restricted franchise is a violation of the principle of A. constitutionalism B. sovereignty C.
political equality D. popular election
60. When the demand for a commodity is inelastic, who bears the greater burden of the indirect tax? A.
The producer B. The government C. The retailer D. The consumer
61. The indicator of the value of money in the market is A. the general price level B. effective supply C.
the equilibrium price D. effective demand
62. Which of the following is not characteristic of a perfect competition? A. Many sellers and buyers are
in the market B. there is perfect knowledge of the market situation C. supply and demand are equal D.
there is no discrimination
63. The price of a commodity is determined by the A. supplier B. consumer C. quantity of goods
demanded D. interaction of demand and supply
64. In which of the following economic systems is the consumer referred to as „The King‟? A. Planned
economy B. Mixed economy C. Traditional economy D. Free Market economy
65. As interest rate increases A. investment declines B. it is not certain what happens to investment C.
investment increases D. investment remains constant
66. Economic planning in Nigeria faces all these problems except: A. Shortage of land B. Shortage of
capital C. Lack of skilled manpower D. Political instability
67. The natural growth rate of population is the A. sum of the birth rate and the death rate B. sum of the
birth rate and the net migration rate C. birth rate minus the death rate D. death rate minus the net migration
68. Which of the following is not correct? A. Population refers to the number of people living in a place B.
The population of a place is not static C. Population is known through a census D. Population is affected
by the amount of money in circulation
69. Which of the following is not characteristic of a perfect competition? A. Many sellers and buyers are
in the market B. there is perfect knowledge of the market situation C. supply and demand are equal D.
there is no discrimination
70. If the price elasticity of demand for a good is greater than one, then its demand will be A. Inelastic B.
infinitely elastic C. infinitely inelastic D. relatively elastic
71. In any economic system, which of the following is not an economic problem? A. What goods and
services to produce B. For whom to produce goods or services C. What techniques of production to be
adopted D. Equal distribution of the goods and services
72. Which of the following are not agents of distribution? A. Wholesalers B. Retailers C. Consumers D.
Government agencies
73. Which of the following is not an advantage of division of labour? It A. saves time B. makes possible
the use of machines C. is monotonous D. leads to specialization
74. An inflation in which the price level rises steadily at an average rate of about 2% per annum is best
described as A. galloping B. induced C. creeping D. suppressed
75. The greatest disadvantage of the barter system is the need for A. durability B. divisibility C.
homogeneity D. double coincidence of wants
POSSIBLE ANSWERS
51. B
52. C
53. C
54. C
55. C
56. A
57. C
58. A
59. C
60. D
61. A
62. C
63. D
64. D
65. A
66. C
67. C
68. D
69. C
70. D
71. D
72. C
73. C
74. C
75. D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2014 POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
ECONOMICS
26. The movement of a group of people from a village to an irrigation project area may be described as
A. rural-urban migration B. urban-urban migration C. rural-rural migration D. urban-rural migration
27. Which of the following factors best explains the generally low insolation in the high latitudes A.
continentality B. longitudinal position C. angle of inclination D. altitude
28. The basic raw materials for the textile industry include A. wool, cotton, jute and rubber B. wool, flax,
pulp and papyrus C. wool, flax, silk and cotton D. wool, cotton, pulp and papyrus
29. Which of the following refers to the fountains of hot water and super heated steam that may spout up
to a great height of 45 meters from the earth beneath A. tsunamis B. blow-outs C. volcanoes D. geysers
30. Hydrolysis and oxidation are processes of A. mechanical weathering B. biological weathering C.
chemical weathering D. mass wasting
31. Which of the following may not solve the problem of over population?
A. increase in food production B. birth control
C. increase in the area extent of towns‟ D. reduction of agricultural land
32. All the following are characteristics of a limestone region except
A. stony and broken surface B. rugged topography
C. adequate luxuriant vegetation cover D. absence of surface drainage
33. The rapid exhausation of non-renewable natural resources may least be aided by one of the following
which is it?
A. increased urbanization B. reckless exploitation
C. inadequate technology D. natural disaster
34. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between rural and urban centres?
A. cities are not important as rural areas B. rural areas are more productive than cities
C. cities can exist without the rural areas D. cities and rural areas depend on each other
35. The most critical element in an ecosystem is the A. growth per day B. energy flow within the system
C. number of species in the system D. extent of area covered by the system
36. The level of details and the definition of distances between objects on a map is based upon A.
compass B. longitude C. latitude D. scale
37. Artic and Antarctic circles are imaginary lines that surround the north and south poles at A. 90 degrees
latitude B. 661/2 degrees latitude C. 231/2 degrees latitude D. 45 degrees latitude
38. The largest indigenous city in Tropical Africa is A. Cotonu B. Nairobi C. Kampala D. Ibadan
39. Which of the following farming systems is likely to give rise to nucleated rural settlements? A. largescale farming B. Irrigation farming C. subsistence farming D. grazing
40. Climate is the:
(A) Prevailing weather conditions of a region for 10 years
(B) Prevailing weather conditions of a region for 15 years
(C) Prevailing weather conditions of a region for 20 years
(D) Prevailing weather conditions of a region for 25 years
(E) Prevailing weather conditions of a region for 35 years
42. Igneous rocks are rocks formed by:
(A) The cooling of molten minerals from a liquid into a solid.
(B) The heating of minerals from a solid into a liquid.
(C) The change of minerals from a solid into a liquid.
(D) The deposition of minerals a solid into a liquid.
(E) The deposition of minerals.
43. Temperature is a measure of:
(A) The average hotness.
(B) The average coolness.
(C) The average heat.
(D) The average reflection.
(E) The average emission.
44. Isotherm refers to:
(A) Line that connects points of equal sunshine.
(B) Line that connects points of equal humidity.
(C) Line that connects points of equal rainfall.
(D) Line that connects points of equal pressure.
(E) Line that connects points of equal temperature.
45. The longest river in Africa is:
(A) River Zaire.
(B) River Nile.
(C). River Niger
(D) River Benue.
(E) River Zambezi
46. Isobar refers to:
(A) Line that connects points of equal sunshine.
(B) Line that connects points of equal humidity.
(C) Line that connects points of equal rainfall.
(D) Line that connects points of equal pressure.
(E) Line that connects points of equal temperature.
47. Topographic maps are:
(A) Representations of features on the Earth's surface.
(B) Features on the Earth's surface.
(C) Detailed and accurate graphic representations of features on the Earth's surface
(D) Geographic coordinate grid on the Earth's surface.
(E) Map legend on the Earth's surface.
48. Lesotho is in:
(A) Central Africa.
(B) East Africa.
(C) West Africa.
(D) North Africa.
(E) South Africa.
49. Weathering of rocks is:
(A) The building of rocks.
(B) The formations of rocks.
(C) The deformations of rocks.
(D) The breaking down of rocks.
(E) The accumulation of rocks.
50. Scale of a map is defined as:
(A) The ratio of a distance on the drawing board to the corresponding distance on the ground.
(B) The ratio of a distance on the map to the corresponding distance on the ground.
(C) The ratio of a distance on the tape to the corresponding distance on the ground.
(D) The ratio of a distance on the ruler to the corresponding distance on the ground.
(E) The ratio of a distance on the graph to the corresponding distance on the ground.
51. The capital of Niger state in Nigeria is:
(A) Minna.
(B) Yola.
(C) Makurdi.
(D) Gusau
POSSIBLE ANSWERS:
26. C
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. D
32. C
33. D
34. D
35. B
36. D
37. B
38. D
39. B
40. E
41. A
42. C
43. E
44. B
45. D
46. C
47. E
48. D
49. B
50. A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2012 POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
GEOGRAPHY
51. Groundnut pyramid is associated with the region around A. Damaturu B. Maiduguri C. Sokoto D.
Kano
52. An irrigation system which involves major engineering works and dams to supply water to farms
throughout the year is known as A. animal irrigation B. perennial irrigation C. well irrigation D. tank
irrigation
53. Which of these features is not produced by the action of rain? A. gullies B. ravine C. earth pillars D.
soil creep
54. The hydrological cycle explains A. how man uses water B. what happens to rain water C. that some
rain water percolates D. that some rain water runs off the surface
55. Which of the following is not associated with the process of chemical weathering: A. oxidation B.
hydration C. solution D. percolation
56. Check the correct answer in the following: The capital of Jigawa state in Nigeria is A. Jigawa B. Lokoja
C. Dutse D. Jalingo
57. Which of the following mineral oil products is not used for power consumption? A.bitumen B.natural
gas C.gasoline D.kerosene
58. Check the wrong statement in the following: The rotation of the earth on its axis results in: A. Day and
night B. Time difference of 4 minutes for one degree of longitude C. Storms D. deflection of the planetary
wind system
59. Which of the following instruments is not found in a weather station? A. thermometer B. anemometer
C. barometer D. scanner
60. Which of the following countries is not a major producer of cocoa? A. Ghana B. Nigeria C. Ivory Coast
D. Angola
61. Which of these is not true? Evidences that the earth is spherical are: A. different places on the earth‟s
surface see the sun at different times B. it is possible to circumnavigate the earth C. the shadow cast on
the moon by the earth during an eclipse is round D. the earth is a globe
62. Which of the following is not a measure of environmental control?
A. preservation B. Stabilization
C. Degradation D. A forestation
63. Water pollution is caused by all the following except
A. increased silt load B. sand filling
C. sewage disposal D. industrial effluent
64. Which of the following environmental hazards has been paired with the wrong factor?
A. coastal erosion and wave action B. drought and climate
C. floods and human factor only D. deforestation and human factor only
65. The active human population is determined by it‟s
A. racial combination B. male-female ratio
C. age distribution D. height difference
66. The predominant system of agriculture among rural farmers in Nigeria is
A. terrace farming B. irrigation farming
C. plantation agriculture D. bush fallowing
67. Glaciations produces A. hanging valleys B. zeugens C. yardange D. blow holes
68. The most suitable statistical diagram to show spatial distribution of population is A. Dot map B. Pie
Chart C. Divided circle D. Line graph
69. Which savanna vegetation is characterized by grasses of about one metre high and scattered trees
with flattish canopy? A. guinea B. sudan C. sahel D. derived
70. Another name for wet and dry bulb thermometer is the A. Hydrometer B. Anemometer C. Anemometer
D. Hygrometer
71. Which of the following is a major environmental problem in heavily industrialized regions? A. water
pollution B. accelerated erosion C. frost damage D. acid rain
72. The time difference between a place on longitude 35oW and another longitude 25oE is A. 2 hours B.
3 hours C. 5 hours D. 4 hours
73. The olive tree is probably the most typical of all cultivated vegetation in A. Tropical desert B. Sudan
climate C. Mediterranean climate D. Tropical monsoon climate
74. Stars occur in clusters known as A. satellites B. nebulas C. meteorites D. asteroids
75. High temperatures and heavy rainfall throughout the year describe the climate of A. Uganda, Ethiopia
and Tanzania B. Ghana, Nigeria and Sierra Leone C. Brazil, Egypt and Zambia D. Britain, North and
South Korea and Namibia .
POSSIBLE SOLUTIONS:
51. D
52. B
53. B
54. A
55. D
56. C
57. A
58. C
59. D
60. D
61. D
62. C
63. B
64. C
65. C
66. D
67. A
68. A
69. B
70. D
71. D
72. D
73. C
74. B
75. B
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QUESTIONS ATTACHED
2016
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MATERIAL IS
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NOTE:
SOME QUESTIONS ARE INCOMPLETE AND SOME MISSING DUE TO THE MEANS OF OBTAINING
THEM. SO ALSO SOME SOLUTION MISSING AS A RESULT OF TIME CONSTRAIN.
LEGWORK
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2011/2012 POST UME SCREENING EXERCISE
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
PLEASE ENSURE THAT YOU HAVE SUBMITTED ONE DOWNLOADED ON-LINE
REGISTRATIONFORM BEFORE
AND AFTER THE EXAMINATION.
Calculators, Cell Phones and other electronic devices are not allowed. Any form of examination
malpractice automatically disqualifies the candidate. Candidates may use logarithm tables.
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME ALLOWED:
Shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
PHYSICS
1. A simple pendulum makes 50 oscillations in one minute. What is the period of oscillation?
A. 0.02s B.0.20s C. 0.83s D. 1.20s E. 50.00s
2. A girl whose mass is 55kg stands on a spring-weighing machine inside a lift. When the lift
starts to ascend, its acceleration is 2ms-2. What will be the reading on the machine? (Take g =
10ms' ) A. 66kg B. 55kg C. 44kg D. 22kg E. 11kg
3. A boy pulls a nail from a wall with a string tied to the nail. The string is inclined at an angle of
600 to the wall. If the tension in the string is 4N.what is the effective force used in pulling the
nail?
A. 2N B. 3N C. 4N D. 5N E. 8N
4. Which of the following is not a vector quantity? A. momentum B. force C. velocity D.
temperature E.displacement
5. A real image of an object formed by a converging lens of focal length 15cm is three time the
size of the object..What is the distance of the object from the lens?
A. 30cm B. 25cm C. 20cm D. 15cm E. 10cm
6. Which of the following remain(s) unchanged as light travels from one medium to another?
I. speed II. Wavelength III Frequency A. I only B. II only C. Ill only D. I and II only E. II and III
only
7. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 20cm has a pin placed at 15cm from its pole. What
will be the magnification of the image formed?
8. The image in a pin-hole camera is always A. diminished B. enlarged C. upright D. inverted E.
blurred
9. An object weighs 10.ON in air and 7.ON in water. What is its weight when immersed in a
liquid of relative density 1.5?
A. 4.50N B. 4.67N C. 5.50N D. 6.67N E. 8.50N
10. A converging lens of focal length 5cm forms a virtual image which is 10cm from the lens.
How far from the lens is the object? A. 2.0cm B. 3.3cm C. 5.0cm D. 10.0cm E. 15.0cm
11. The count rate of an alpha-particle source is 400 per minute. If the half-life of the source is 5
days, what would be the count rate per minute after I5 days?
A. 20 B. 25 C.50 D. 200 E. 400
12. The nucleon number and the proton numbers of a neutral atom of an element are 238 and 92
respectively. What is the number of neutron in the atom?
A. 330 B. 238 C. 146 D. 119 E.73
13. In 24 days a radioactive isotope decreases in mass from 64g to 2g. what is the half life of the
radioactive material?
A. 0.75 days B. 2.58 days C. 4.00 days D. 4.80 days E. 6.00 days
14. When an atom gains or loses a charge, it becomes A. an ion B. an electron C. a neutron D. a
proton E. a deuteron
15. Beta particles are A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons D. helium nuclei E. tritium, nuclei
16. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?
A. infrared ray B. gamma rays C. ultra violet ray D. radio wave E. visible light
17. The inability of the eye to focus near objects is known as
A. long sight B. astigmatism C. presbyopia D. glaucoma E. short sight
18. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a hill with a velocity of 20ms-1. If it reaches
the ground 4 seconds later, what is the height of the hill? (g = 10ms ).
A. 20m B. 40m C. 80m D. 160m E. 200m
19. Calculate the resistance of the filament of a lamp rated 240V40W.
A. 500 B.1000 C. 1500 D. 14400 E. 28800
20. A cube made of a metal of linear expansivity initial 'volume of the cube is V, what is the
increase in volume of the cube?
D. 2aVt
CHEMISTRY
21. When sucrose is warned with Fehling solution.
A. a silver mirror is produced B. the turns milky C. a brick-red precipitate is formed D. There is
no precipitate E. a blue black coloration
22. Which of the following gases will have the highest rate of diffusion under the same
conditions (H = 1, C =12, O = 16, S = 32, Cl = 35.5)
A. O2 B. C12 C. HC1 D. H2S E. CO2
23. Which of the following involves the decomposition of a sugar by enzymic action?
A. Esterification B.Fermentation C. Dehydration D. Polymerization E. Saponification
24. When iron rusts, it undergoes
A. Deliquescence B. Chemical Decomposition C.hydrolysis D. Redox reaction E. Combustion
25. Hydrogen is used for the following except
A. manufacturing of ammonia B. synthesis of hydrochloric acid C. extinguishing fire
D. conversion of coal to petrol E. manufacture of magarine
26. Petrol can be obtained from diesel by
A. distillation B. cracking C. polymerization D. dehydrogenation E. catalysis
27. The following metals are attracted by electrolytic method except
A. potassium B. calcium C. sodium D. tin E. magnesium
28. The complex salt formed when aluminum dissolves in sodium hydroxide solution is
A. Na3Al(OH)4 B. Na2Al(OH)3 C. NaAl(OH)3 D. Na4Al(OH)4 E. NaAl(OH)4
29. Which of the following is a waste product in the solvay process for the manufacture of
sodium trioxocarbonate(IV)?
A. Ammonium chloride B. brine C. limestone D.calcium oxide E. calcium oxide
30. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring Iron ore?
A. FeCl2 B. Fe2O3 C. Fe2O3 D. FeCO3 E. FeS2
31. Which of the following materials cannot be extracted from its ore by using carbon or carbon
(II)oxide as the reducing agent? A. Cu B. Zn C. Al D. Pb E.Fe
32. Chlorine is used in water treatment as
A. a germicide B. a decolorizing agent C. an anti-oxidant D. a coagulating agent E. an aerating
agent
33. The properties of electrovalent compounds include the following except
A. a high melting and boiling point B. conduction of electricity in the molten state C. high
volatility at room temperature D. ionization of aqueous solution E. decomposition of their
solutions by electric current
34. Alkanes are used mainly
A. in the production of plastics B. as domestic and industrial fuels C. in the textile industry
D. in the hydrogenation of oils E. as line chemicals
35. Which of the following solids has a network structure?
A. diamond B. iodine C. sulphur D. graphite E. iron
36. Which of the following separation is routine applied in the petroleum industry?
A. filtration B.chromatography C. fractional crystallization D.evaporation E. fractional
distillation
37. Which of the following observation is not correct about the reaction of sodium metal with
cold water?
A. The reaction is spontaneous B. the reaction is endothermic C. hydrogen is produced
D. the sodium melts and dissolves E. the resultant solution is alkaline
38. The formula (CH3)3COH is that of
A. polyhydric alcohol B. secondary alkanol C. tertiary alkanol D. primary alkanol E.
trihydricalkanol
39. What is the number of oxygen atoms in 32g of the gas? (O = 16, L = 6.0 x 1024mor').
A. 3.2x 1023 B. 6.0 X 1023 C. 1.2 0 X 1024 D. 1.60 X 1024 E. 2.0 X 1024
40. The ionic radii of metals are usually
A. greater than their atomic radii B. unaffected by the charge of the ion C. less than their atomic
radii D. greater than those of non-metals E. the same as their atomic radii
ENGLISH
From the words lettered A to E below each of the following sentences, choose the group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined expression as it is used in the sentence.
41. She tried to settle the quarrel but the man remained obstinate to listen to her.
A. offensive B. angry C. stubborn D. unstable E.impolite
42. Okon attempted to entice Eno with the promise of a handsome sum of money
A. deceive B. enchant C. force D. trick E. tempt
43. I am very proud to speak before this august assembly.
A. Ignominious C. monthly D. untrue E. popular
44. It is University of Ibadan to suggest that Tunde should marry that saucy lady.
A. pitiable B. hopeless C. humorous D. untrue E. ridiculous
45. The principal's orders are imperative. A. lenient B. authoritative C. genuine D. E. necessary
46. The suspect was made to walk in front of the anxious crowds.
A. surprised B. astonished C. engrossed D. curious E.questionable
47. The lawyer's argument of the case was exhaustive
A. Interesting B. exaggerating C. exhilarating D. thorough E. fascinating
48. The superintendent was appalled by the attitude of some of the employees towards their
work.
A. annoyed B. disappointed C. shocked D. provoked E.depressed
49. Death is inevitable for a man.
A. unavoidable B.
essential C. necessary D. immoral E. imminent
50. The decision taken by the panel is irrevocable.
A. irreversible B. unexpected C. acceptable D. irresponsible E. unacceptable
From the words or group of words lettered A to E, choose the one that best completes each
of the following sentences
51. ......is the owner of this pair of shoes?
A. who B.whom C. which D. whose E. when
52. My uncle is an expert ....... Mechanical engineer
A. at B. in C. with D. for E. on
53. The PTA meeting did not adjourn until it had discussed all the matters placed ZZ it
A. by B. with C. before D. over E. on
54. Nobody was surprised that the thief was convicted ZZ. All the charges
A. on B. with C. of D. over E. for
55. It has been rough so far ZZ?
A. hasn’t it B. B. hadn’t it C. isn’t it D. wasn’t it E. haven’t it
56. The master says he’s accountable Z the president, and nobody else A. from B to C. with D. by
E. for
57. You were punished because you .... ..last week without permission.
A. ought not to have traveled B. must not have travelled C. Ought not to travel
D. will not have travelled E. ought to have travelled
58. The president’s speech ZZ At 7pm yesterday.
A. is broadcast B. has been broadcast C. were broadcast D. was broadcast
59. She Z... . .before I entered the office.
A. has to be questioned B. has been questioned C. have been questioned D. had been questioned
E. is being questioned
60. The suspect .... . ..when I entered the office.
A. has been questioned B. have been questioned C. was being questioned D. is being questioned
E. will be questioned
MATHEMATICS
61. The angle of the sector of a circle of diameter 8cm is 135°. Find the area of the sector. (TC=
22/7)
A. 3/20 B.Ifi C. 1/4 D. 3/10 E. 3/4
62. Calculate, correct to three significant figures, the length of an arc that subtends an angle of
70° 22/7)
A. 2.44cm B. 4.89cm C. 9.78cm D. 25.1cm E. 50.3cm
63. A number is chosen at random from the set {1,2,3,...9,10}. What is the random probability
that the number is greater than or equal to 7?
A. 1/10 B.3/10 C. 2/5 D. 3/5 E. 7/10
64. A fair die is rolled once. What is the probability of obtaining 4 or 6?
A. 1/12 B. 1/6 C. 1/3 D. ½ E. 2/3
65. S = {1,2...5,6}, T= {2,4,5,7} and R = {1,4,5}, find {S
A. {1,4,5} B.{2,4,5} C. {1,2,4.5} D. {2,3,4,5} E.{1,2,3,4,5}
66. Simplify ¾ x (1½ - 2/3)
A. 7/30 B. 7/24 C. 9/25 D.1/2 E.18/25
67. Solve the inequality 3m + 3>9
A. m > 2 B.m>3 C. m >6 D. m > 6 E. m > 12
68. Convert 89 in base ten to a number in base two
A. 1101001 B. 1011001 C. 1001111 D. 101101 E. 1101
69. The nth term of a sequence is given by (-l)n-1, find the sum of the second and third terms
A. -2 B. 1 C. 2 D. 6 E. 12
70. In an arithmetic progression, the first term is 2 and the sum of the 1st and 6th terms is 614.
What is the 4th term?
A. 12 B.91/2 C. 8 D. 7 E. 51/2
71. While doing his Physics practical Chioma recorded a reading of 1.12cm instead of 1.21cm
calculate his percentage error.
A. 1.17% B. 6.38% C. 7.44% D. 8.05% E. 9.00%
72. From the top of a building 10m high, the angle of depression of a stone lying on the
horizontal, ground is 69°. Calculate, correct to one decimal place, the distance of the stone from
the foot of the building.
A. 3.6m B. 3.8m C. 6.0m D. 9.3m E. 26.1m
73. Factorize 3a2 – 11a + 6
A. (3a-2)(a-3) B. (2a-2)(a-3) C. (3a-2)(a + 3) D. (3a +2)(a – 3) E. 2a - 3)(a + 2)
74. Solve the equation 3a + 10 = a2 A. 5, 2 B. -5, 2 C.10, 0 D. 5, -2 E. -5, -2
75. The common ratio of a geometrical progressions 2. if the 5th term is greater than the 1st term
by45, find the 5th term.
A. 3 B.6 C. 45 D. 48 E. 90
76. Which of the following about a rhombus may not be true?
A. The diagonals are equal B. the diagonals bisect the angles through they pass
C. the diagonals bisect each other D. the adjacent sides are equal E. opposite angles are equal
77. Evaluate log,025 + log,032 - Iog108.
A. 0.2 B. 2 C.100 D. 409 E. 490
78. Construct a quadratic equation whose roots are -1/2 and 2.
A. 3x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 B. 3x2 + 3x - 2 = 0 C. 2x2 + 3x – 2= 0 D. 2x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 E.2x2 – 3x - 2 = 0
79. What must be added to the expression x2 – 18x to make it a perfect square?
A. 3 B. -9 C. 36 D. -72 E. 81
80. Solve the equation m/3 + ½ = ¾ + m/4. A. -3 B.-2 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4
SOLUTIONS TO POST UME 2011/2012
PHYSICS
1. Period T = t/n = 60/50 = 1.20s =B
2. = B There is no change in mass
3. Effective force Fx = Fcos 60 = 4cos 60 = 4(0.5) = 2N = A
4. Temperature = D is positive for a converging lens. Distance of real object and real image are
positive = 1/5
u = 60/3 = 20cm = C
6. =A
- 1/u = 1/10 – 1/15 = 1/30 and v = +30cm; v is
positive so image is real.
Magnification m = v/u = 30/15 = 2.00 = B
8. = E
9.
Rel. Density = weight – in – air
Weight – of – equal – volume – of – water
1.5 = 10/ b; 1.5b = 10 and b = 6.67N =D
- 1/v = 1/5 – 1/10 = 1/10. u = 10cm = D
11. 15/5 = 3 400/2 = 200 1st half of decay = 5days
200/2 = 100 2nd half of decay = 5days 15 days
100/2 = 50 3rd half of decay = 5days = C
12. Proton and neutron constitute the nucleon.
Hence neutrons = Nucleon – Proton = 238 – 92 =
146 = C
13. 14/2 = ( ½ )24/t
1/2 => 3.2 = (0.5)24/t 1/2
Log 3.2 = log0.524/t
1/2 => 1.51 = 24/t1/2 (-0.3010)
t1/2 =24 x 0.3010 = 4.8 days = D
1.51
14. A 16. B
15. A 17. A
18. S = ut + ½ gt2 = 20.4 + ½ . 10.16
S = 80 + 80 = 160m
19. P = IV = V2/R = I2R where V = 240, P = 4W
R =V2= 2402 = 1440= D P 40
- Vt V1t= E
CHEMISTRY
21. – 28. E 35. D
22. A 29. B 36. E
23. B 30. A 37. B
24. B 31. C 38. C
25. C 32. A 39. C
26. B 33. C 40. C
27. D 34. B
ENGLISH
41. Obstinate (often disapproving) refusing to change your opinions, way of behaving etc. when
other people try to persuade you to; showing this:
ANS stubborn = C
42. Entice: to persuade somebody/something to go somewhere or to do something, usually by
offering them something ANS tempt = E
43. august: (Note this is different from August – the 8th month) Impressive, making you feel
respect ANS popular = E
44. University of Ibadan: completely ridiculous, not logical and sensible ANS ridiculous = E
45. Imperative: very important and needing immediate attention or action (2) expressing
authority: expressing an order ANS authoritative =B
46. Anxious: feel worried or nervous ANS curious =D
47. Exhaustive: very thorough, looking at a every detail ANS thorough = D
48. Appalled: feeling or showing horror or disgust at something unpleasant or wrong ANS
shocked = C
49. Inevitable: that you cannot avoid or prevent ANS unavoidable = A
50. Irrevocable: that cannot be changed; final ANS irreversible = A
51. Note: ‘whom’ is used instead of ‘who’ as the object of a verb or proposition while who is
usually used as the object pronoun, especially in questions. It is much more natural to use who
and put the preposition at the end of the sentence ANS who = A
52. B 56. B 60. C
53. C 57. A
54. C 58. D
55. A 59. D
MATHEMATICS
61.
Area of a sector A = 186/7
360 360 7
4.89cm = B
360 360 7
63.
x> 7(8,9,10) = P(x) = 3 x = 7(7) = P(x) = 1
x > 7 = 3 + 1 =4 = 2
10 10 10 5 = C
666663=C
65.
S = {1,2,3,4,5,6}; T = {2,4,5,7}; R = {1,4,5}
= C 66. = D
67.
3m + 3 > 9; 3m> 9 – 3; 3m > 6; and m > 2 = A 68. = B
69.
Second term = (-1)2-2. 22-1 = 1.2 = 2
Third term = (-1)3-2. 23-1 = -4
Hence their sum is 2 + (-4) = -2 = A
70.
a = 2, a + U6 = 614 = 2 + U6 and U6 = 612
U6 = a + (n – 1)d
612 = 2 + (6 – 1)d; 612 – 2 = 5d; and d = 610/5 = 122
The fourth term U4 = 2 +(4 – 1)122 = 368 Z Question is mixed up, but you can use this
method
71.
1.21 – 1.12 x 100 = 7.44% = C 1.21
72.
tan 21 = x ; x = 10tan 21 = 3.8 = B
73.
3a2 – 11a + 6 ; 3a2 – 9a – 2a + 6 = (3a – 2)(a – 3) = A
74. 3a – 10 = a2 ; a2 – 3a – 10
a(a + 2) - 5(a – 2)
a = 5 or a = -2 = D
75.
r = 2, U5 – a = 45; ar4 – a = 45
a(24 – 1) = 45; hence 15a = 45 and a = 3
U5 = ar4 = 3(24) = 48 = D
76. A
77.
log1025 + log1032 – log108 = log1025 x 32 = log10800
Log10100 = 2log1010 = 2 = B
78.
x = -½ , x = 2
(x + ½ )(x – 2) = 0; x2 – 2x + x( ½ ) – 1 = 0
x2 – 3/2x – 1 = 0 Multiply through by
2x2 – 3x – 2 = 0 = E
79.
– – 4.1.c = 0 square both sides
182 – 4c = 0; 324 – 4c = 0 hence 324 = 4c and c = 81 = E
80.
m +1 = 3 + m
3 2 4 4 Multiplying through by 12 gives
4m + 6 = 3(3) + 3m
4m – 3m = 9 – 6
m=3=D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 2012/2013 POST UME TEST
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Insert the word(s) that best fit(s) in with the meaning of the sentence
1. Legislators must be trained to _____ the truth
A. disguise B. discern C. digest D. disturb E. distort
2. As it holds true that, unless you trained your body you cannot be an athlete, so also unless you
train your ____ you cannot be a ____
(A) kicking footballer (B) voice-choirmaster (C) mind-scholar (D) courage-hero (E) arms
swimmer
3. Never in the history of human conflict has so much been owed by so many to so few.
(A) many people owed much money of the end of the war
(B) A handful of people saved the lives of a nation
(C) A few people did a lot of things gratis
(D) This conflict caused the largest ransom ever demanded
(E) Very little was owed by anyone to anybody
Choose the word phrase from A to E which has the same meaning as the underlined word
or words in each sentence
4. After the wife had covered her misdeeds by prevaricating on several occasions the poor
husband accused her point-blank of adultery
(A) bluntly (B) pointedly (C) emphatically (D) unreservedly (E) unmistakingly
5. When a man is immune to an illness, he is
(A) opposed to it (B) attached it (C) hasted by it (D) protected against it (E) addicted to it
6. In a civilized society, it is unseemly to emit a loud belch at the end of a meal
(A) noisy (B) annoying (C) stupid (D) outrageous (E) Impolite
Choose the appropriate option to fill the gap in the following sentences
7. The principal was able to establish a functional language laboratory for his school because he
acted____ the advice of experts on the subject
(A) through (B) at (C) from (D) on (E) by
8. The prefect came to the class five minutes after the lesson ____
(A) has started (B) had started (C) have started (D) is started (E) has been started
9. Grace must be allergic ___ smoke because any she sits by someone who is smoking, she
sneezes.
(A)to (B) from (C) for (D) with (E) by
Fill in the right word/phrase
10. He ____ the book to the library last week
(A) has returned (B) had retuned (C) was returned (D) retuned (E) was to be returning
11. The police man was sent to _____ the allegation made by the man
(A) Investing (B)examine (C) probe (D) enquire (E)observe
Which of the options express the same ideas as the one in quotes
12. To beat down the 'price' is to
(A) flog the price (B) reduce the price (C) beat the salesman (D) attack the seller (E)
control the price
Fill in the blank spaces in the following sentences making use of the best of the two
options
13. For their part in the successful ___ the mutineers were court-martialled.
(A) coopes (B) coupes (C) coupe (D) coup (E) coupes
14. The way to stop some frivolous publications is to___ the press
(A) gag (B) shackle (C) fetter (D) handcuff (E) blind
Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word underlined
15. To most people last Christmas was an austere period
(A) prosperous (B) harsh (C) severe (D) four (E) stern
16. Chidi is naturally taciturn
(A) friendly (B) cheerful (C) dumb (D) lively (E) garrulous
Choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined
17. The salesman tried to pull the wool over my
(A) force me to buy his goods
(B) offer me cotton wool
(C) make me buy his wool
(D) dupe me
(E) cover my eyes with wool.
18. The legislator has decided to play second fiddle after he had been walked out of the Assembly
for violating basic procedures of the House. This means that the Legislator has decided to
(A) oppose every motion in the House
(B) Support every motion in the House
(C) condemn every motion
(D) support the lead given by others
(E) Become active in the House
19. Select the wrongly spelt word
(A) disappointed (B) embarassed (C) equipped (D) rhythm (E) restaurant
20. Select'' the wrongly spelt word (A) quite (B) believe (C) proceed (D) precede (E) opportunity
CHEMISTRY
21. When air which contains the gases: oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, water vapour and the
rare gases, is passed through alkaline pyrogallot and then over quicklime, the only gases left are:
(A) nitrogen and carbondioxide
(B) the rare gases
(C) nitrogen and oxygen
(D) nitrogen and the rare gases
(E) nitrogen, carbondioxide and the rare gases.
22. When large hydrocarbon molecules are heated at high temperature in the presence of a
catalyst to give smaller molecules, the process is known as
(A) disintegration (B) polymerization (C) cracking (D) degradation (E) distillation
23. When each of the nitrates of potassium, magnesium and iron is heated
(A) all the nitrates decompose to their oxides
(B) the nitrate of magnesium gives the nitrite and oxygen
(C) the nitrates of magnesium and iron give the oxides
(D) the nitrate of iron gives the nitrite and oxygen
(E) the nitrate of the magnesium is not decomposed
24. Helium atoms are chemically unreactive because
(A) there are no electrons around the nucleus
(B) the number of protons equals the number of electrons
(C) there are equal number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
(D) the outer electron shell is completely filled
(E) the atoms contain only protons
25. How many grams of HBr would exactly be required to react with 2g of propyne?
(C = 12, H = 1,Br= 80)
(A) 4.1g (B) 6.1g (C)8.1g (D) 10.lg (E) 16.2g
26. Under high pressure, real gases do not obey gas laws because their molecules
(A) have become more energetic
(B) have become less energetic
(C) have become smaller in size
(D) decompose into atoms
(E) start repelling each other
27. Which of the following statements is an exception in the assumptions of the kinetic theory of
gases?
(A) Gases are composed of many elastic particles
(B) the particles are of negligible size
(C) the particles are in constant random motion
(D) the particles are of negligible mass
(E) the particles collide with each other
28. 5.00g of hydrated salt of barium when heated to a constant weight gave 4.26g of anhydrous
salt with a molecular weight of 208. The number of molecules of water of crystallization in the
hydrated salt is
(A) 10 (B)7 (C)5 (D)2
29. Oxidation is the process of:
(A) gain of electrons
(B) loss of electrons
(C) gain of hydrogen
(D) loss of oxygen
(E) addition of an electropositive element to a substance
30. Which of the following statement is NOT true of the electrovalent compounds?
(A) They are solids
(B) They do not vaporize easily
(C) they usually dissolve in water
(D) the elements orbiting the compounds normally have their valence electrons in a shared state
(E) they conduct electricity
31. If concentrated sulphuric acid is added to sugar and warmed gently, the sugar changes from
white to brown and "finally to a black mass of carbon. In this reaction, concentrated sulphuric
acid is acting as:
(A) a dying agent (B) an oxidizing agent (C) a dehydrating agent (D) a reducing agent
(E) a hydrolyzing agent
32. When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be
(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermic (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
33. The pH of lour solutions W, X, Y, Z are 4,6,8,10, respectively therefore
(A) none of these solutions is acidic
(B) the pH of Y is made more acidic by addition of distilled water
(C) Z is the most acidic solution
(D) W is the most acidic solution
(E) X is neutral
34. Which of the following contains two amphoteric oxides?
(A) Sodium oxide, Zinc Oxide, Magnesium oxide
(B) Aluminum oxide, calcium oxide, Zinc oxide
(C) Potassium oxide, lithium oxide, Carbon dioxide
(D) Silver oxide, Lead oxide, Sodium oxide
(E) Sulphur dioxide. Aluminum oxide, Carbon monoxide
35. 50cm3 of hydrogen are sparked with 20cm3 of oxygen at 100°C and 1 atmosphere. The total
volume of the residual gases is
(A) 50cm3 (B) 10cm3 (C) 40cm3' (D) 30cm3 (E) 70cm3
36. When ammonium, potassium and Calcium carbonates are each separately heated
(A) non of them will decompose
(B) each of them will decompose to give carbondioxide and the respective oxide
(C) ammonium carbonate and potassium carbonate will not decompose
(D) only ammonium carbonate and calcium carbonate will decompose to carbon dioxide and the
respective oxide
(E) ammonium carbonate will decompose to glycocarbon dioxide, water and ammonia
37. 500cm3 oxygen was collected over water at 30°C and 752mmHg pressure. What is the
volume of dry oxygen at STP? (Vapour pressure of water at 30°C =
32mmHg)
(A) 475cm3 (B) 415cm3 (C) 586cm3 (D) 500cm3 (E) 427cm3
38. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Metals conduct electricity while non-metals do not
(B) Metals have high density, non metals have low Density
(C)Metals form acid oxides, non-metals are below hydrogen
(E) Metals lose electrons while non metals gain electrons during normal reactions
39. In the reaction of oxygen with hydrogen to produce water, which of the following statements
is true?
(A) One atom of hydrogen reacts with two atoms of oxygen to give one molecule of water
(B) Two atoms of hydrogen react with two atoms of oxygen to give two molecules of water
(C) One molecule of oxygen reacts with one molecule of hydrogen to give two molecules of
water
(D) One molecule of hydrogen reacts with two molecules of oxygen to give three molecules of
water
(E) One molecule of oxygen reacts with two molecules of oxygen to give two molecules of water
40. The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to:
(A) the atomic number
(B) the Avogadro number
(C) the gas constant
(D) the number of neutrons
(E) the number of electrons
MATHEMATICS
41. Simplify 25/12 – 17/8 x 6/5
(A) 1/6 (B) 13/20 (C) 11/20 (D) 9/4 (E) 3/5
42. Make c the subject of the equation: a(b + c) + (5/d) – 2
(A) ad – b + 2d (B) ab + 5 – 2d (C) 2d – 5 – ad (D) 2d – 5 – adb (E) None
43. On each market day Mrs. Bassey walks to the market from her home at a steady speed. This
journey normally takes her 2 hours to complete. She finds, however, that by increasing her usual
speed by 1km/hr she can save 20 minutes. Find her usual speed in km/hr.
(A) 12/3 (B)2 (C)5 (D)6 (E)10
44. The ratio of the areas of similar triangles is necessarily equal to
(A) The ratio of the corresponding sides
(B) The ratio of the squares on corresponding sides
(C) The ratio of the corresponding heights of the triangles
(D) half the ratio corresponding heights of the triangles
(E) the ratio of the corresponding bases to the heights of the triangles.
45. A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400. the woman had 10% of the cost and the
man 40% of the remainder. How much did they have altogether?
(A) N 216 (B) N200 (C) 184 (D) N 144 (E) N100
46. The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows:
6,9,5,7,6,7,5,8,9,5,7,5,8,7,5,6,5,7,6,9,9,7,8,8,7,8,9,8, the mode is
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10
47. What factor is common to all the expressions x2 –x, 2x2 + x -1 and x217
(A) x (B) x – 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No Common Factor (E) (2x – 1)
48. Simplify log 10 0 – log 10 4
(A) Log102 (B) Log108 (C) 0 (D)Log104 (E)1 log104-log102
49. If f(x – 2) = 3x2 + 4x+ 1. find f(1)
(A) 8 (B) 40 (c) 7 (d) 32 (e) 21
50. Given that p:g = 1/3: 1/2 and q:r = 2/5: 4/7, find p:r
(a) 4:105 (B) 7:15 (C) 20:21 (D) 2:36
51. If x is jointly proportional to the cube of y and the fourth power of z. in what ratio is x
increased or decreased when y is halved and z is double?
(A) 4:1 increase (b) 2:1 increase (c) 1:4 decrease (d) 1:1 no change (e) 3:4 decrease
52. If x + 2 and x – 1 are factors of the expression Lx3 + 2kx2 +24, find the values of L and k.
(A) L = 6, k = -9 (b) L=- 2, k = 1 (C) L = 2 k = -1 (D) L = 6, k = 1 (E) L = 6, k = 0
53. The value of (0.03)3 – (0.02)3 is
(A) 0.019 (B) 0.0019 (C) 0.00019 (D) 0.000019 (E) 0.000035
54. PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle. If <PQS = 150 find <QRS
(A) 750 (b) 371/ 20 (c) 127 1/ 20 (D) 1050 (e) none of the above
55. Which is the values of the variable x, (a)x = 3, (C)x = 9, satisfy the inequalities 0 <x + 3< 2?
X–1
A. (a), (b), (c), B. (b) c only C. (c) only D. none of (a), (b), (c) E. none of the choices above
56. Write down the number 0.0052048 correct to three significant figures
A. 0.005 B 0.00052 C. 0.00520 D. 5.2048 E. 5204
57. P and Q are fixed points and x is a variable point which moves so that angle PXQ = 450 what
is the locus of X?
(A) A pair of straight lines parallel to PQ
(B) the perpendicular bisector of PQ
(C) an are of a circle passing through P and Q
(D) a circle with diameter PQ
(E) the bisector of angle PXQ
58. A sector of a circle is bounded by two radii 7cm long and are length 6cm. find the area of the
sector.
A. 42cm2 B.3cm2 C.21cm2 D. 24cm2 E 12cm2
59. The currency used in a country is <matimalik< (M) and is of the base seven. A lady in that
country bought 4 bags of rice at M56 per bag and 3tins of
milk at m4 per tin. What is the total cost of the items she bought?
A. M246 (7) B. M242 (7) C. M236 (7) D. M336 (7)
60. If 0.0000152 x 0.00042 = A x 108, where 1< A <10, find A and B
(A) A=9, B=6.38 (B) A=6.38, B = -9 (C) A=6.38, B=9 (D) A=6.38, B=-1 (E) A=6.38, B=1
PHYSICS
61. Which of the following is true for the image formed by a convex mirror?
I. The image is always virtual
II. The image is always erect
III. The image is never magnified
IV. The image is never magnified V. the focal length is negative
A. I only B I and II only C. II and III only D I, II, III and IV only E All five
62. Which of the following statement is true? The reading of pressure on mercury diameter is
independent of:
(A) the cross sectional area of the tube
(B) the atmospheric pressure of the tube
(C) the density of mercury
(D) the temperature of mercury
(E) the acceleration due to gravity
63. In electrolysis experiment, a cathode of mass 5g is found to weight 5.01g after a current of 5
A flows for 50sec. what is the electrochemical equivalent of the deposited substance?
(A) 0.00004g/C (B) 0.00002g/C (C) 0.02500d/C (D) 0.05000g/C (E) 0.00001g/C
64. A capacitor and a resistor are connected in series with each other and in negligible internal
resistance. The potential difference across the terminals of the capacitor is:
(A) twice the e.m.f of the accumulator
(B) less than the E.M.F by the potential drop across the resistor
(C) zero
(D) the same as the e.m.f
(E) greater than the e.m.f
65. A weight of 1000 grams hangs from a lever 20cm to the right of the fulcrum. At the left is
500 gram weight 20cm from the fulcrum, and a 200gram weight x cm away from the fulcrum.
What is the value of x that will make the lever balanced?
(A) 50cm (B) 20cm (C) 10cm (D) 30cm (E) 70cm
66. A magnetic needle is suspended first at earth’s north magnetic pole and at a point on the
magnetic equator, the respective angles between the needle and the horizontal are:
(A) 00 and 00 (B) 600 and 600 (C) 900 and 900 (D) 900 and 00 (E) 00 and 900
67. Which of the following Is NOT a vector quality?
(A) Force (B) altitude (C) weight (D) displacement (E) acceleration
68. A man of mass 50kg ascender a flight of stairs 5m high in 5 seconds. If acceleration due to
gravity is 10m/s2:
(A) 100w (B) 200w (C) 250w (D) 400w (E) 500w
69. A body rolls down a slope from a height of 100m. Its velocity at the foot of the slope is
20m/s. what percentage o it essential potential energy is converted into kinetic energy:
(A) 40% (B) 35% (C)20% (D)15%
70. As a result of air at the top of a barometer the height of the mercury column is 73.5cm when it
should be 75.0cm the volume of the space above the mercury is 8.0cm3. Calculate the correct
barometric height when the barometer reads 74.cm and the volume of the space above the
mercury is 6.0cm3.
(A) 72.0cm (B) 74.5cm (C) 75.1cm (D) 76.0cm
71. 22,000J of heat is required to raise the temperature of 1.5kg of paraffin from 200C to 300c.
Calculate the specific heat capacity of paraffin:
(A) 14666jkg-10C- 1 (B) 2933 jkg-10C- 1 (C) 40400 jkg-10C- 1 (D) 5886jkg-10C – 1
72. An object is placed 30cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. the linear
magnification of the image produce is:
(A) 0 (B) 2/3 (C)1 (D) 2 (E) 3
73. An electric cell has an internal resistance of 20hm. A current of 0.5A is found to flow when a
resistor of 50hms resistance is connected across it. What is the electromotive force of the cell
(A) 5volts (B) 3.5volts (C) 2.5volts (D) 1 volt (E) 10 volt
74. A concave lens of focal length 20cm forms an image ½ the size of the object. The object
distance is;
(A) 150cm (B) 100cm (C) 60cm (D) 60cm (E) None of the above
75. Which of the following electromagnetic waves length?
(A) Radio wires (B) x –rays (C) infra-red (D) blue light (E) ultra violet
76. Which of the following statements is correct? Silvered walls of a vacuum flask are used to
prevent:
(A) Heat loss due to conduction
(B) vacuum loss
(C) heat entry into the inner flask due to convection
(D) heat loss due to radiation
(E) heat loss due to t convection
77. The point beyond which a stretch spring does not return to its original length is called the:
(A) Breaking point (B) elastic limit (C) spring constant (D) elasticity point (E) release point
78. The range of wavelengths of visible spectrum is 400nm – 700nm the wavelength of gamma
rays is:
(A) Longer than 700nm
(B) shorter than 700nm but longer than 400nm
(C) 550nm
(D) shorter than 400nm
(E) infinite
79. Which of the following arrangements in the sequence show can be used to obtain a pure
spectrum of white light?
(A) source, slit, converging lens, prism, converging lens, screen,
(B)source slit, diverging lens, prism, diverging lens,screen
(C) source, converging lens, prism, diverging lens, screen
(D) source, slit, diverging lens, converging lens,screen
(E) source, slit, prism, diverging lens, screen
80. The mechanical advantage (MA) of an inclined plane depends on:
(A) Its length (B) its height (C) the product of its length and height (D) the ratio of its length to its
height.
SOLUTION TO POST UME 2012/2013
ENGLISH
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. E 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D 11 C 12 B 13. D 14 A 15 A 16 E 17 D 18 D
19. B 20 B
21. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide and the rare gases. E
22. Cracking C 23. A
24. They satisfy the octet for stability of their electric configuration
25. Molar mass of propyne (CH3CCH) = (12 + 3+ 12 + 12 +1)g = 40g
Mole = mass = 2 = 0.05mole molar – mass 40
CH3CCH + HBrCH3CHCHBr
Required mass of HBr = mole * mass = 0.05 * (1+80)= 4.1g = A
26. If the gas is heated the molecules acquire more kinetic energy, thereby increasing the pressure
A
27. The particles collide with each other E
28. STV 29. B
30 Din electrovalent compounds; valence electrons are transferred not shared
31. =C Conc. H2SO4 acid is able to remove elements of H2 and oxygen in the form of water
from the compound of sugar: C12h22O11 12C (- 11 H2O in the presence of H2SO4)
32. D 33. D 34. B
35. By Gay-Lussac’s law of combining volumes
2H2 + O2 2H2O
2:1:2
40 : 20 : 40
Residual gas = 10cm3 of unreacted hydrogen +
40cm3 of steam formed = 50cm3=A
36. Ammonia carbonate decomposes to liberate ammonia, CO2 and H2O=E
37. PG + PW = PT pressure of gas PG = 752 =720mmHg
from the ideal gas equation we have that:
P1V1=P2 V2thus 720 x500 = 760 x V2 V2 =
427cm3
T1 T2 303 273
38. = E Metals ionize by electron loss, while non – metals ionize by electron gain
39. 2H2+ O2 2H2O = E
40. B
41. 25/12 – 17/8x 6/5 = 29 -15 x 6 = 29 – 9 = 1 = A
42. a (b + c) + (5/b) – 2 multiply both sides by d
then simplify ad(b + c) + 5 – 2d = 0 =>adb + adc +
5 – 2d put the expression with c on the LHS.
adc = 2d – 5 – adb thus c =2d -5 – adb
ad = 1/3 hrs Time(T) 2
The time on second trip = 2 – 1 = 5hrs 3 3
5 + 5S = 6S and we find that S = 5 = C
44. B the ratio of the squares on corresponding sides
45. 10% of N400 = thus remainder is 400 – 40 = 360
40% of N360 N144 and the total = N184 = C
46. Mode is most occurring i.e. highest frequency = 7 = D
47. x2 – x = x(x – 1) 2x2 + x – 1
= (2x – 1)(x + 1) x2 –1
= (x + 1)(x – 1) No common factor = D
48. Log 100 – log, 4 = log10 (0/4)= 0 = C
Log104 – log102 log10 (4/2)
49. Put f (x – 2) = f (1) then x – 2 – 1 gives x = 3
From 3x2 + 4 x +1= 3 (32) + 4 (3) + 1 = 27 + 12 +1 = 40 B
50. P:g – 1/3: ½ and q:r = 2/5: 4/7
R = q => 3p = 2p and q = 3p
1/3 ½ 2
P = r =>3/2p = 7r
2/5 4/7 2/5 4
15p = 7r = >p = 7 thus p:r = 7:15 = B 4 4 r 15
51. Mathematically X1 = ky3Z4 and X2 = K (y/2)3 (2Z)4
X2 = k x y3x 16 z4 = 2ky3z4
X2 = 2y3 z4 = 2 thus x2: x1= 2: 1 = B
X1 y3 z41
52. Lx3 + 2kx2 +24 when x + 2 is a factor then we
can put x – 2; L(-2)3 + 2k(-2)2 +24 =0thus – 8L + 8k +24 =
divided through by 8 to get k – L = -3. When x – 1 is a factor
then we can put x = 1 L(1)3 + 2k(2)2 + 24 = L + 2k = -24
solving the two gives 3k = -27 and k = 9
Also from k – L = - 3; - 9 – L =3 thus L= -6
Hence k = -9 and L = -6 =A
53. D 54. A 55. C 56 57. C
58. Length of are
59. STV 60. STV 61. E 62 B
63 Mass of deposited substance (M) = M2 – M1 =(5.01 5)g = 0.01g
From M = Z I T we say Z = M = 0.01= 0.01
0.00004g/C = A
IT 5x50 250
64. STV 65. A 66. D 67. B
68. Since answers are given in W,
we assume that the question requires us to find power whose units is W
force (F) = Ma = 50 x 10 -500N
Work down (W) = Force Distance = 500x 5 =2500J
Power is the rate of doing work = W = 2500 = 500 =
Et5
69. K.E x 100 = 1/2MV2 x 100 = ½ x 20 x 100 P.E mgh 10x 100 70. STV
71. MC.p(02 – 01) = 22000
Thus Cp= 22000 1.5(30 - 20) 1466.67JKg -10C– 1 = A
72. m = v = 30 =2 = D f 15
E = 1 (R+ r) = 0.5(5+2) E = 3.5volts = B
74. Using 1 = 1 + 1, 1 = 1 + 1 , 1 = 2 + 1 , 1 =3 fu v 20
½ v v20 v v 20 v hence v =60cm = C
75. B 76. D 77. B 78. D 79. STV 80. STV
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN POST UME SCREENING 13/14
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS: SHADE THE ANSWER SHEET AS APPROPRIATE WITH HB
PENCIL ONLY
ENGLISH
1. You are driving - fast for my liking
(A) too (B) very (C) pretty (D) fairly
2. You have given me one orange - many
(A) very (B) so (C) too (D) more
3. The upholstery work doesn't go - the colour of the car
(A) after (B) by (C) with (D) for
4. I became depressed - hearing the news
(A) at (B) with (C) as (D) on
5. He was punished for failing - his duty as a prefect of the school
(A) on (B) about (C) with (D) in
6. Good discipline was instructed - the success achieved by the college
(A) for (B) to (C) in (D) with
7. It was quite dark in the room - we couldn't see
(A) so (B) because (C)through (D) yet
8. He needed work so late - he
(A) does (B) needs (C) did (D) need
9. If I had known he would come, I - have gone to meet him
(A) may (B) will (C) should (D) must
10. He - thirty when I first met him
(A) must have been (B) will have (C) ought to be (D) must have to be
11. Where is that brother of- now?
(A) you (B) yours (C) our (D) your
12. Someone told me where it was, but I can't remember –
(A)whom (B) it (C) who (D) didn't
From the list of words choose the one that best
completes each sentence from 1 to 15
13. I guessed it was going to rain— ?
(A) did I (B) was it (C) wasn't it (D) didn't I
14. Would you like the door — ?
(A) close (B) closes (C) closed (D) closing
15. You shouldn't put off- the assignment
(A) to do (B) to have done (C) having done (D) to have been
Choose the word(s) that is/are nearly composite in meaning to the underlined word
and which correctlyfill the blank in the sentence. From 16 to 20
16. The able-bodied should take care of the --(A) feeble (B) weak-minded (C) suffering (D) soft-hearted
17. The chairman ordered him either to withdraw or to – his allegations
(A) affirm (B) draw (C) express (D) complete
18. He shows plenty of good-willto his neighbours, but they bear nothing except - towards him
(A) bad luck (B) malice (C) anger (D) unhappiness
19. I supported you said but I - the way you said it
(A) argued about (B) objected to (C) interfered with (D) investigated
20. Though many of us were poor quite a few were
(A) arrogant (B) prodigal (C) affluent (D) Luxurious
21. Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate during
(A) cytolysis (B) cleavage (C) mitosis (D) meiosis
22. An example of caryopsis is
(A) guava (B) maize grain (C) coconut (D) tomato
23. The response of plants to external stimuli in a non-directional manner is known as
(A) tactic movement (B) phototropism (C) geotropism (D) nastic movement
24. The most important hormone that includes the ripening of fruit is
(A) ethylene (B) indole acetic acid (C) gibberellin (D) cytokinin
25. One example of fossil fuels is
(A) limestone (B) coral (C) coal (D) firewood
26. The most effective method of dealing with non-degradable pollutants is by
(A) dumping (B) recycling (C) incineration (D) burying
27. Mycorrhiza is an association between fungi and
(A) protozoan (B) roots of highest plants (C)
bacteria (D) filamentous algae
28. A limiting factor in a plant population near a
chemical factory is likely to be
(A) light (B) humidity (C)wind (D)pH
29. Soil fertility can best be conserved and renewed
by the activities of
(A) earthworms (B) man (C) rodents (D) microbes
30. The pioneer organisms in ecological succession
are usually the
(A) mosses (B) ilohens (C) ferns
(D) algae
31. The type of reproduction that leads to variant in
animal and plant populations is
(A) budding (B) sexual (C) vegetative (D) asexual
32. An insect with a mandibulate mouth part will
obtain its food by
(A) biting and chewing
(B) chewing and sucking (C) chewing
(D) sucking
33. Spines and shells on animals are adaptations of
(A) camouflage (B) chemical defence (C) physical
defence (D) minicry
34. The rods in the retina of the eye are examples of
(A) cells (B) tissues (C) organs (D) systems
35. A plant-like feature in Euglena is the
(A) pellicle (B) pigment spot (C) large spot (D) gullet
36. The larval stage of mosquito is called (A) wriggler
(B) grub (C) maggot (D) caterpillar
37. A peculiar characteristic of mammals is that they
(A) have teeth (B) are warm-blooded
(C) have lungs (D) have sebaceous glands
38. The gall bladder of a mammal has a duct connected to the
(A) liver (B) duodenum (C) small intestine (D) pancrease
39. Rodent gnaw in food with their
(A) molar teeth (B) strong jaws (C) flat-ridged teeth (D) chisel-like front teeth
40. An example of a radically symmetrical organism
(A) planarian (B) hydra (C) tapeworm (D) roundworm
MATHEMATICS
41. Find the slope of the curve y = 2x2 + 5x - 3 at (1,4)
(A) 4 (B) (C) 7 (D) 9
42. Determine the maximum value of y = 3x – x
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
43. By how much will the mean of 30, 56, 31, 55, 43 and 44 less than the median
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.17
44. The range of 4, 3, 11,9, 6, 15, 19, 23,27, 24, 21 and 61 is (A) 16 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 24
45. The mean of the numbers 3, 6, 4, x and 7 is 5, Find the standard deviation
(A) V2 (B) V3 (C)
46. Find the remainder when 3x3 + 5x2 - 1 Ix + 4 is divided by x + 3.
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) -4
47. What are the integral values of x which satisfy the inequality -1<3 - 2x < 5?
(A) 2, 1,0,-1 (B)-1,0, 1,2 (C)- 1,0,1 (D) 0,1,2.
48. Find the derivative of (2 + 3x)(l - x) with respect to x.
(A) 6x - 1 (B) 1 - 6x (C) 6 (D) -3
49. Find the derivative of the function y = 2x2(2x -1) at the point x = -1
(A) -6 (B) -4 (C) 16 (D) 18
50. Find the mean deviation of 1, 2, 3 and 4
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5
51. Find the value of t if the standard deviation of
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
52. In how many ways can 6 coloured chalks be arranged if are of the same colour?
(A) 60 (B) 120 (C)240 (D) 360
53. A final examination requires that a student answers any 4 out of 6 questions. In how many
ways can this be done?
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 45
54. If the mean of five consecutive integers is 30, find the largest of the numbers
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D)34
55. A bag contains 5 black, 4 white and x red marbles. If the probability of picking a red marble
is 2/5 find the value of x
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 4 (D) 6.
56. For what values of n is n+1 C3 = 4(nC 3)?
(A)6 (B)5 (C) 4 (D) 3
57. Find the roots of x3 - 2x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
(A) 1,2, -3 (B)-l,2, 3 (C)-l,2,-3 (D) 1,-2, 3
58. Find the value of k if the' expression kx3 +x2 - 5x – 2 leaves a remainder 2 when divided by
2x + 1
(A) 10 (B) 8 (C) -10 (D) -8
59. If y = x2 - x –12 find the range of values of x for which y > 0.
(A) x< -3 or x > 4 (B) x < -3 or x > 4 (C) -3 < x < 4 (D) -3 < x < 4
60. How many terms of the series 3, -6, +12, -24 + ...are needed to make a total of 1 -28?
(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 9 (D) 8
61. The wavelength of the first overtone of a note in a closed pipe of length 33cm is
(A) 44cm (B) 33cm (C) 22cm (D) 17cm
62. None-luminous objects can be seen because they
(A) are polished (B) are near (C) reflect light (D) emit light
63. The correct unit of energy density is
(A) kg m-3s-2 (B) kg m-1s-2 (C) kg m3s-2 (D) kg m2s-2
64. The motion of smoke particles from a chimney is typical of
(A) oscillatory motion (B) rotational motion (C) circular motion (D) random motion
65. One of the properties of gamma rays is that they are
(A) negatively charged (B) massive (C) neutral (D) positively charged
66. The process whereby the molecules of different substances moves randomly is called
(A) surface tension (B) diffusion (C) capillarity (D) osmosis
67. The process whereby a liquid turns spontaneously into vapour is called
(A) evaporation (B) regelation (C) boiling (D) sublimation
68. The velocity of sound in air will be doubled if its absolute temperature is
(A) doubled (B) halved (C) constant (D) quadrupled
69. A thin converging lens has a power of 4.0 diopters, determine its focal length
(A) 0.25m (B) 0.03m (C) 5.00m (D) 2.50m
70. An electric device is rated 2000W, 250V. The correct fuse rating of the device is
(A)8A (B)9A (C)7A (D) 6A
71. Satellite communication network makes use of
(A) infra-reds (B) sound wave (C) visible light (D) radio wave r
72. If two inductors of inductances 3H and 6H are arranged in series, the total inductance is
(A)18.0H (B)9.0H (C) 2.0H (D) 0.5H
73. The current in a reverse-biased junction is due to
(A) electrons (B) majority carriers (C) holes (D) minority carriers
74. In an a.c circuit that contains only a capacitor, the voltage lags behind the current by
(A) 90° (B) 180° (C)600 (D) 300
75. The ray which causes gas molecules to glow is known as
(A) molecular ray (B) gamma ray (C) anode ray (D) cathode ray
76. The charge carriers in gases are
(A) ions only (B) electrons and holes (C) electrons only (D) electrons and ions
77. Which of the following materials is a conductor?
(A) plastic (B) sodium (C) wax (D) glass
78. The instrument used for securing a large number of similar charges by induction is called
(A) capacitor (B) electrophorous (C) electroscope (D) proof-plane.
79. The pitch of a sound note depends on
(A) timbre (B) harmonics (C) quality (D) frequency
80. In which of the following material media would sound travel fastest?
(A) water (B) oil (C) metal (D) gas
81. The shape of the s-orbital is
(A) spherical (B) elliptical (C) spiral (D) circular
82. A carcinogenic substance is
(A) Asbestos dust (B) saw dust (C) nitrogen (II) oxide(D) carbon (II) oxide
83. In the electrolysis of brine the anode is
(A) platinum (B) copper (C) zinc (D) carbon
84. Which of the following halides has the highest entropy value
(A) HF (B) HC1 (C) HBr (D) HI
85. The allotrope of carbon used in the decolourization of sugar is
(A) graphite (B) soot (C) charcoal (D) lampblack
86. Sulphur (IV) oxide bleaches by
(A) reduction (B) oxidation (C) hydration (D) absorption
87. Aluminum hydroxide is used in the dyeing industry as a
(A) salt (B) dye (C) mordant (D)dispersant
88. An isomer of C5H12 is
(A) Butane (B) 2-methybutane (C) 2-methylpropanc (D) 2-ethylbutane
89. Vulcanization involves the removal of
(A) A monomer (B) The single bond (C) The double bond (D) a polymer
90. Phenolphthalein in acid solution is
(A) red (B) orange (C) colourless (D) yellow
91. When iron is exposed to moisture and it rusts, the value of G for the reaction is
(A) neutral (B) zero (C) positive (D) negative
92. A substance that is used as a ripening agent for fruits is
(A) Ethene (B) propene (C) Methane (D) Butane
93. The shape of the hydrocarbon compound CH4 is
(A) square plannar (B) plannar (C) linear (D) tetrahedral
94. Sugar is separated from its impurities by
(A) precipitation (B) crystallization (C) distillation (D) evaporation
95. The component of an atom that contributes least to its mass is the
(A)proton (B) nucleus (C) neutron (D) electron
96. An element will readily form an electrovalent compound if its electron configuration is
(A) 2, 8, 1 (B) 2,8,4 (C) 2, 8, 8 (D) 2, 8, 5
97. The most suitable metal that can be used as a lightening conductor is
(A) silver (B) copper (C) iron (D) aluminum
98. The most abundant element on the earth's crust is
(A) Nitrogen (B) hydrogen (C) oxygen (D) fluorine
99. Metalloids are also referred to as
(A) semi-metals (B) metals (C) colloids (D) non-metals
100. The ores that can be concentrated by floatation are
(A) nitride ores (B) sulphide ores
(C) oxide ores (D) chloride ores
SOLUTIONS TO POST UME 13/14
1. C 8. C 15. A
2. B 9. A
3. C 10. A
4. D 11. B
5. D 12. C
6. A 13. D
7. B 14. C
16. Able-bodied: physical healthy, fit and strong in contract to somebody who is weak or disable
ANS feeble = A
17. Withdraw: to move back or away from a place or situation; to make somebody or something
do this ANS affirm = A
18. good-will: friendly or helpful feelings towards other people or countries ANS malice = B
19. Supported: to help or encourage somebody or something by saying/showing that you agree
with them/it ANS objected to = B
20. Poor: you should know the proper definition of poverty if you are a Nigerian. Affluent:
having a lot of money and a good standard of living = C
21. C 27. B 33. C 39. D
22. B 28. D 34. A 40. B
23. D 29. A 35. B
24. A 30. B 36. B
25. C 31. B 37. B
26. B 32. A 38. D
41. From the equation of a straight line: y = mx + c
where m is the slope
m = y2 – –
when x = 1: dy = 4(1) + 5 = 9= D dx
42. y = 3x2 – x3 and dy = 6x – 3x2 we that at Max.
value dy = 0 dx dx
6x – 3x3 = 0; x(6 – 3x) = 0 Hence either:
X = 0 or 6 – 3x = 0; x = 2 or 0 = B
43. The Mean x o31 + 55 + 43 + 44 = N 6 = 43.17
The median, after rearranging the data; 30, 31, 43,
44, 55, 56
Median (n+1) =6 + 1 = 3 ½th position = 43 + 44 = 43.5 (2) 2 2
Median – Mean = 43.5 – 43.17 = 0.33 = C
44. Range = 61 – 3 = 58= 5
20 + x = 25 and x = 25 – 20 = 5 NB x = 5-x) =
3 – 5)2+ (6 – 5)2(4 – 5)2 + (x – 5)2 + (7 – 5)2 =10
N 5 5 = 2= A
46. From the remainder theorem; we take from x + 3
and factor out for when
x = -3. f(-3) = 3(-3)3 + 5(-3)2 – 11(-3) + 4 = 1. You
can solve this by LONG division but it is LONG OK?
Remainder
=1=B
47. -1 < 3 – 2x < 5 -1 < 3 - 2x 3 – 2x < 5
-1 – 3 < 2x -2x < 5 – 3
-4 < -2x -2x < 2
X < 2 x > -1
The integral values of x which satisfy the inequality
can be obtained from the range above. They are -1,
0, 1= C
48. y = (2 + 3x)(1 – x) = 2 – 2x + 3x – 3x2
y = 2 + x – 3x2 dy = 1 – 6x = B dx
49. y = 2x2 (2x – 1) = 4x3 – 2x2 and dy = 12x2 – 4 x 6
and when x = -1
Dx dy = 12(-1)2 – 4(-1) = 12 + 4 = 16= C
dx– x) = (1 – 2.5) + (2 – 2.5) + (3 – 2.5) + (4 – 2.5) =10 N 4 =A
51. x = 2t + 3t + 4t + 5t = 20t
5 5 = 4t
(x – x)2 = (2t – 4t)2 + (3t – 4t)2 + (4t – 4t)2+ (5t – 4t)2= 10t2 N 5 2
1 and t = 1 =A
52. Since 2 are of the same colour, we have: 2x6P2
= 2 x 6! = 2 x 6!= 60= A (6-1)! 4!
53. Selection entails combination thus; 6C4 = 15 ways = A
54. Let the first integer of the numbers be x:
X= x + (x + 1) + (x – 2) + (x – 3)+ (x - 4) = 5x + 10
5 5 = 30
5x + 10 = 150; 5x = 140 and x = 28
Hence largest of the numbers is = x + 4 = 28 + 4 = 32 = C
55. n(Black) = 5, n(White) = 4, n(Red) = x; hence
total = x + 9 and P (red) = x
x+9. From the question we have that; P (red) =
2/5 thus from above
x = 2/5. 5x = 2(x + 9) = 2x + 18
x+9. 5x – 2x = 18 and x 6 = D
56. n+1C3 = 4(nC3) = (n+1)!= 4 n!
3!(n + 1 -3)!3!(n – 3)!
(n+1)(n)(n-1)(n-2)!= 4 n(n – 1)(n – 2)(n – 3) (n – 4)!
3!(n -2!) 3!(n – 3(n – 4)!
n(n + 1)(n - 1) = 4 [n(n - 1)(n – 2)]
n – 4n = -8 – 1 = -9. Hence n = 3 = D
57. f(1) = 13 – 2(1)2 – 5(1) + 6 = 0, thus (x-1) is a
factor ad by long division we get x2 – x – 6.
(x – 1)(x2 – x – 6) are factors thus we have
(x – 1) (x – 3) (x + 2) = 0
X = 1, -2, 3 = D
58. kx3 + x2 – 5x – 2
2x + 1 = 0 thus x = - ½
F(-½) = k(- ½ )3 + (-½)2 – 5(-½) – 2 = 2 =>-k + 1 + 5 – 2 – 2
8 4 2 simplifying further we have -k = 16 – 2 – 20 + 16- k = 32 – 22 = 10
K = -10 = C
59. To find the range of x for which y > 0:i.e. x2 – x – 12 = 0
(x + 3) (x - 1) = 0 thus x = 3 or -4
we can plot the inequality graph for this to obtain x < 3 and x > 4 = B
60. Sum of the series = 1 – 28 = -255
r = -6/3 = -2, a = 3
sum = a(1 = r)n = 3(1 – (-2))n = -255
1=r1+2
-256 = 1 – (-2n) : and 256 = (-2n)
(-28) = (-2)n hence n = 8 = D
6 l. = 132 hence l = 44cm = A
62. C 65. C 68. A
63. D 66. B
64. D 67. A
69. The power of the lens is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length
and is measured in dioptres when f is inmeters.
P = 1/f => f = 1/P = 0.25m = A
70. P = IV and l = P/V 2000/250 = 8A = A 71. D
72. Since it all acts as resistance; resistance in series R = R1 + R2
Hence inductance = 3H + 6H = 9H = B
73. Reverse-biased junction (.i.e P-semiconductors) have more holes than electrons
but the holes are the majoritycarriers of current= C
74. Vc lags Ic by 900= A
75. D 78. B
76. D 79. D
77. B 80. D
81. The s-orbital electrons move about to produce the effect of a spherical cloud round the
nucleus. Thus s-orbitals are spherically symmetrical
82. A 88. B 94. B 100. D
83. A 89. C 95. D
84. D 90. C 96. A
85. C 91. D 97. D
86. A 92. A 98. A
87. C 93. D 99. A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN POST - UTME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
PHYSICS
1. Shadows and eclipses result from the
(A). refraction of light (B).rectilinear propagation of light
(C). diffraction of light (D).reflection of light
2. An object which is 3cm high is placed vertically 10cm in front of a concave mirror. If this
object produces an image 40cm from the mirror, the height of the image is
(A). 0.75cm (B).4.00cm (C).8.00cm (D).12.00cm .
3. A boy looks at the image of an object in a plane mirror. He observes two images, a main bright
one and the other faint. The observe image result from
(A). reflection only (B). refraction only (C). diffraction and interference (D). reflection and
refraction
4. What must be the distance between an object and a converging lens of focal length 20cm to
produce an erect image two times the object height?
(A) 2Ocm (B) 15cm (C) 10cm (D) 5cm
5. For a short sighted person, light rays from a point on a very distant object is focused.
(A) in front of the retina (B) on the retina by a converging lens
(C) behind the retina by a diverging lens (D) in front of the retina at a distance of 2F from the
lens
6. When light is incident on an object which is magenta in colour, which of the following colours
would be absorbed?
(A). red and blue (B).green only (C). red and green (D). red only
7. In a resonance tube experiment, the effective length of’ the air column for the first resonance is
20cm when set into vibration by a tuning fork of frequency 480Hz. Neglecting end effect, the
velocity of sound air is
(A). 96ms’ (B).255ms’ (C).340ms’ (D). 384ms’
8. A some wire of’ length I 00cm under a tension of’ ION, has a frequency of 250Hz. Keeping
the length of ’the wire constant, the tension is adjusted to produce
a new frequency of 35011,. The next tension is
(A) 5.1 N (B). 7. N (C). 14.ON (D). I 9.6N
9. One of the properties of the earth’s magnetic field is that the
(A). north pole lies in the northern hemisphere
(B). geographic and magnetic meridians coincide
(C). earth’s magnetic flux entirely horizontal
(D). earth’s magnetic flux is entirely vertical at a place where the magnetic dip is zero
10. There cells each of e.m.f 1.5V and an internal the load
(A)0.26A (B)0.4lA (C)0.50A (D)0.79A
11. A government spokesman announced that efforts ________release of the hostages are
continuing
(A). to obtain (B). obtaining (C).for obtaining (D). of obtaining
12. l know you think I’m talking nonsense, Shehu, but _____ you realize that I was right
(A). at one time (B). on time (C). in time (D). at time
13. The Inspector of Education who made several trips on the bad road returned yesterday
completely _______ by fever
(A) brought down (B).putdown (C).worn down (D).worn off
14. The vice principal asked the students to always _______ this answers only from the
textbooks recommended for the course.
(A). look out (B).search out (C). look up (D). bring up
15 I know that your friend will not accept the proposal, ________
(A). and you neither (B) and neither you (C).neither do you (D) neither will you
16. Mark is a very handsome fellow who informs me that he has I pretty girls
(A). a heart (B). a lip (C). an eye (D).a check
17. Wale Agun, in creating his characters, draws freely _______experience in life
(A) by (B) in (C) on (D) of
18. When I have an appointment with someone, I hate waiting
(A). to be keeping (B). for (C). being kept (D). in being kept
19. It’s no good about the result until you have sat form examination
(A). to worry (B). for worrying (C). worrying (D) to have worried
20. If you don’t want to your car to robbers, then don’t travel in the night.
(A). loose (B). loss (C). lose (D). lost
21. The number 25 when converted from the tens and units base the binary base (base two) is
one of the following.
(A) 10011 (B)111011 (C).111000 (D)11001 (E).110011
22. Evaluate (6.3 x l0’)/(8 I x l0) to 3 significant figures (A) 71J(B). 778.8 (C). 7.870 (D).8.770
(E). 88.70
23. The positive root of t in the following equation, 4t + 7tl:correct to 4 places of decimal, is
(A). 1.0622 (B)1O.6225 (C)0.1328 (D). 0.3218 (E). 2.0132
24. The difference between the length and width of a rectangle6cm and the area is 135cm1. What
is the length’?
(A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24crn (E) 27cm
25. The first term of an Arithmetic Progression is 3 and the fifth term is 9. Find the number of
terms in the progression if the sum is 8.
(A) 12 (B) 27 (C) 9 (D) 4 (E) 36
26. The difference between 4’/ greater than the sum of and
(A) 2328 (B).24/28 (C).5056 (D).27/28 (E). 48/56
27. Multiplyx2+x+lbyx2-x+l.
A. x1+3+2x+l B. x2x2+x+l C. x2+4x2-6x+1 D. x4-6x2-4x+1 E. X4-x-x3-x21+I
28. A baking recipe calls for 2.5kg of sugar and 4.5kg flour. With this recipe some cakes were
baked using 24.5kg of a mixture of sugar and flour. How much
sugar was used?
(A) 12.25g (B) 6.5kg (C) 8.75kg (D) 15.75kg (E) 8.25kg
29. The sum of the root of a quadratic equation is 5/2 and the product of its roots is 4. The
quadratic equation is
(A). 2x2 + 5x +8 = 0 (B).2x2 - 5x + 8 = 0 (C), 2x2 - 8x + 5 = 0
(D).2x2 + 8x -5 = 0 (F). 2x2 - 5x +8 0=> 2x2 - 5x -8 0
30. Solve the given equation (log1 x)1 - 6log, x + 9 = 0
(A). 27 (B). 9 (C). L (D). 18 (F). 81
31. In which order are the following salts sensitive to light?
(A). AgI>AgCI>AgBr (B).AgCI>AgI>AgBr (C).AgBr>AgCI>Agl (D).AgCI>AgBr>Agl
32. The pOH of a solution of0.25 mol dm-3 of hydrochloric acid is
(A). 12.40 (B). 13.40 (C). 14.40 (D). 14.60
33. MnO-4 + 8H + Y —* Mn1(q + 4H,O() Y in the equation represents
(A). 2e- (B). 3e- (C). Se- (D). 7e34. Given that M is the mass of substance deposited in an electrolysis and Q the quantity of
electricity consumed, then Faraday’s law can be written as
(A). ZIQ (B). Q/Z (C). Z/2Q (D) M = QZ
35. 0.46g of ethanol when burned raised the temperature of 50g of water by 14.3k. Calculate the
heat of combustion of ethanol. (0= 16, H = 1, Specific heat capacity of water=’4.2Jg ‘K)
(A). +33000 KJ mol’ (B).+300 KJ mof’ (C).-3000KJmol (D). -3000KJmoI’= 12,
36. Powered marble reacts faster with hydrochloric acid solution than the granular form because
the powered form has
(A). More molecules (B).more atom (C). larger surface area (D). Relatively large mass
37. For a reaction in equilibrium, the species involved in the equilibrium constant expression are
(A). gaseous and solid species
(B). liquid and sod species
(C). solid and dissolved species
(D). gaseous and dissolved species
38. A phenomenon where an element exists indifferent forms in the same physical state is known
As
(A).isomerism (B). amorphism (C). allotropy (D). isotropy
39. The substance often used for vulcanization of rubber is
(A). chlorine (B). hydrogen peroxide (C). Sulphur (D). tetraoxosulphate(Vl) acid
40. A gas that is not associated with global warming is
(A)C0, (B)SO, (C)CH4 (D)H,
41. Which of the following structures is capable of producing more tissues in the stem of a
herbaceous flowering plant?
(A). epidermis (B).pericycle (C). xylem (D). cambiurn
42. The manufacture of carbohydrates by plants takes place only in
(A). the leaves (B). the green sterns (C).chlorophyllous parts (D). flower plants
43. A water culture experiment, a plant showed poor growth and yellowing of the leaves. These
maybe due to deficiency of
(A).copper (B). iron (C). magnesium (D). calcium
44. In million’s test, when the reagent is added to a protein fool item. a white precipitate is
produced which turns
(A). blue on heating (B). yellow on heating (C). green on heating (D). red on heat
45. Regulation of blood sugar level takes place in the
(A). pancreases (B). ileum (C). liver (D). kidney
46. Unicellular organism transport essential nutrients directly to all parts of their bodies by the
process of diffusion because they have
(A). a large volume to surface area ratio
(B). a large surface area to volume ratio
(C).their bodies immersed in the nutrients
(D).their outer membrane made of cellulose
47. The heart of the adult frog consists of
(A). two auricles and two ventricles (B). one auricle and one ventricle
(C). two ventricles and one auricle
(D). one ventricle and two auricles
48. In adult mammalian blood, the cell which lack nuclei are the
(A). erythrocytes (B). lymphocytes (C).leucocytes (D). phagocytes
49. Which of the following movements occur during
exhalations?
(A). the diaphragm and intercostals muscles relax
(B). the thoracic cavity increases in volume
(C). the diaphragm and intercostals muscles contrast
(D). the diaphragm contrasts and the intercostals muscles relax
50. In which of the following groups of animals is the Malphigian tubule found?
(A). lizards, snakes and frogs
(B).crickets, houseflies and grasshoppers
(C). millipedes, centipedes and scorpions
(D). earthworms, roundworms and flatworms
ANSWERS:
1B 2D 3D 4 5A 68 7D 8C 9C I0D 11A 12C 13C 14C 15D16A 17C 18C 19C 20C 2W 22A 23
24C 25C 26B 27B
28C29B 30A 31A 328 33D 34D 35C 36C 37D 38D 39C 40 4lA42C 43C 44D 45A 46B 47D 48C
49A 50B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN POST –UME SCREENING
Answer all questions: shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
PHYSICS
1. Which of the following is not an example of a force?
(A) tension (B) weight (C) friction (D) mass (E) thrust.
2. A body moves along a circular path with uniform angular speed of 0.6 rads-1 and at a constant
speed of 3.oms-1. Calculate the acceleration of the body towards the centre of the circle
(A) 25.0ms-1 (B) 5.4ms-1 (C) 5.0ms-1 (D) 1.8ms-1 (E) 0.2ms-1
3. Which of the following is a derived unit?
(A) Ampere (B) Kilogramme (C) second (D) Ohm (E) Kelvin
4. A boy timed 20 oscillations of a certain pendulum three times and obtained 44.3s, 45.5s and
45.7s respectively. Calculate the mean period of oscillation of the pendulum
(A) 0.13s (B) 2.22s (C) 2.26s (D) 44.30s (E) 45.17s.
5. A particular starts from reset and moves with a constant accelerations of 0.5ms-2. Calculate the
time taken by the particle to cover a distance of 25m
(A) 2.5s (B) 7.1s (C) 10.0s (D) 50.0s (E) 100.0s
6. A block of material of volume 2x0-5m3 is suspended from a spring balance with half the
volume of the block immersed in water. What is the reading of the spring balance? (Density of
water = 1.0x103kg3, g=10ms-2)
(A)0.10N (B)0.25N (C) 0.30N (D) 0.40N (E) 0.50N
7. An object is projected with a velocity of 100ms- vertical. If the total time of flight of the
projectile -1)
(A) 00 (B) 300 (C) 450 (D) 600 (E) 900
8. How far will a body move in 4 seconds if uniformly accelerated from rest at the rate of 2ms-27
(A) 32m (B) 24m (C) 16m (D) 12m (E) 8m
9. If the temperature of water is gradually increased form 00 to 40C, the density of the water
within this range
(A) increases for a while and then decreases (B) decreases for a while and then increases
(C) increases gradually (D) decreases gradually (E) remains the same
10. The expansion of solid can be considered a disadvantage in the
(A) fire alarm system
(B) thermostat
(C) riveting of steel plates
(D) balance wheel of a watch
(E) flitting of wheels on rims
11. A solid metal cube of side 10cm is heated from 100C to 600C. if the linear expansivity of the
metal is 1.2x10-5K-1, calculate the increase in its volume
(A) 0.6cm3 (B) 1.2cm3 (C)1.8cm3 (D) 3.6cm3 (E) 6.0cm3
12. A gas has a volume of 546cm3 at 00C. What is the volume of the gas at-1000C if its pressure
remains constant?
(A) 346cm3 (B) 446cm3 (C) 546cm3 (D) 646cm3 (E) 746cm3
13. An image which cannot be formed on a screen is said to be
(A) inverted (B) real (C) virtual (D)erect (E) blurred
14. Longitudinal waves cannot be
(A) diffracted (B) refracted (C) polarized (D)reflected (E) superposed
15. The images formed by a diverging lens are always
(A) diminished, virtual and inverted
(B) diminished, inverted and real
(C) diminished, virtual and erect
(D) magnified, virtual and erect
(E) magnified, real and inverted.
16. In the normal use of a simple microscope, a person sees an
(A) inverted, virtual and magnified image
(B) erect, virtual and magnified image
(C) erect, real and magnified image
(D) inverted, real and magnified image
(E) inverted and real image the same size as the object
17. A lens of focal length 15.0cm forms an upright image four times the size of an object,
calculate the distance of the image form the lens
(A) 11.ccm (B) 18.8cm (C) 37.5cm (D) 45.0cm (E) 75.0cm
18. An object is placed between two mirrors which are inclined at an angle of 1200 and facing
each other. Determine the number of images observed in two mirrors
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
19. In a ripple tank experiment, a vibrating plate is used to generate ripples in the water, if the
distance between two successive troughs in 3.,5cm and the wave travels a distance of 31.5cm in
1.5s, calculate the frequency of the vibrator
(A) 3.0Hz (B) 6.0Hz (C) 12.0Hz (D) 27.0Hz (E) 73.5Hz
20. Which of the following have the longestwavelengths?
(A) infra-red rays (B) gamma rays (C) x-rays (D) ultra-violet rays (E) radio waves
21. Simplify 125-1/3 x 49-1/2 x 100 (A) 350 (B) 35 (C) 1/35 (D) 1/350 (E) 0
22. If 32x = 27, what is x?
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 4.5 (D)18 (E) 40.5
23. Express 0.00562 in standard form
(A) 5.62x10-3 (B) 5.62x10-2 (C)5.62x10-2x (D)5.62x102 (E) 5.62x103
24. Given that 1/3 log10P=1, find the value of P,
(A) 1/10 (B) 3 (C) 10 (D) 100 (E) 1000
(A) 1/3 (B) ½
25. Correct to three significant figures?
(A) 1.18 (B) 1.3 (C) 9.03
(D) 9.44 (E) 9.46
27. While doing his Physics practical, Idowu recorded as 1.12cn instead of 1.21cm calculate his
percentage error
(A) 1.17% (B) 6.38% (C) 7.44% (D) 8.05% (E) 9.00%
28. Find the 4th term of an A.P whose first term is 2 and the common difference is 0.5
(A) 0.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 3.5 (D) 4 (E) 4.5
29. An arc of length 22cm subtends an angle of 0 at the centre of the circle. What is the value of
(A) 700 (B) 840 (C)960 (D) 1560 (E) 1680
30. Find the sum of the first five terms of the GP 2,6,18,
(A) 484 (B) 243 (C) 242 (D) 13 (E) 121
31. Let J be the set of positive integers. If H =
(A) H{1} (B) H is an infinite set (C) H {0,1,2} (D) H={} (E) J<H
32. In a class of 80 students, every student has to study Economics or Geography, or both
Economics and Geography if 65 students studied Economics and 50 studied Geography, how
many studied both subjects?
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 45 (E) 50
33. Factorize x2 + 4x – 192
(A) (x-4)(x+48)
(B) (x+48)(x+4)
(D) (x-12)(x-16)
(E) (x+12) (x+16)
(C) (x-12)(x-16)
34. Factorize 2e2 – 3e + 1
(A) (2e-1)(e-1)
(B) e+1)(2e+1)
(D) (2e-3)(e-1)
(E)(e2-3)(2e-1)
(C) (2e+3)((3-2)
35. Solve the equation 7y2 =3y
(A) y=3 or 7 (B) y=0 or 7 (C) y=0 or 3/7 (D) y=0 or 9 (E) y=0 or 10
36. Solve the equation 2a2–3a–27=0 (A) 3/2, 9 (B) -2/3 ,9 (C) 3, -9/2 (E) -3, 9/2
37. A sector of a circle of radius 7cm has an area of 44cm2, calculate the angle of the sector,
correct to the nearest degree. (A) 60 (B) 260 (C) 520 (D) 1030 (E) 2060
38. If the shadow of a pole 7m high is ½ its length, what is the angle of elevation of the sun,
correct to the nearest degree?
(A) 900 (B) 630 (C) 600 (D) 260 (E) 00
39. From the top of a building 10m high, the angle of depression of a stone lying on the
horizontal ground is 690. Calculate, correct to 1 decimal place the distance of the stone from the
foot of the building
(A) 3.6m (B) 3.8m (C) 6.0m (D) 9.3m (E) 26.1m
40. The bearing of a point x from Y is 0740. What is the bearing of Y from X?
(A) 1060 (B) 1480 (C) 1640 (D) 2540 (E) 2860
41. The nucleus is considered the central of a cell because it
(A) contains the genetic material
(B) contains the nuclear sap
(C) is bounded by the nuclear membrane
(D) is located at eth centre of the cell
42. The prokaryotic cell type is characterized by
(A) complex cytoplasm in which different regions are poorly defined
(B) localization of different regions of the cell into tissue
(C) collection of organelles and macromolecular complexes
(D) simple cytoplasm with well defined regions
43. The natural tendency of organisms as they evolve is to
(A) decrease in size (B) increase in number (C) develop specialized structures
(D) feed indiscriminately
44. In snails, the hard calcareous shells are secreted by the
(A) radula (B) tenidium (C) pneumostome (D) mantle
45. The ability of the cockroach to live in cracks and crevices is enhanced by the possession of
(A) wings and segmented body
(B) compound eyes
(C) claws on the legs
(D) dorso-ventrally flatted body
46. The caste of termite that lacks pigmentation is the
(A) king (B) worker (C) soldier (D) queen
47. The structures that prevent food particles from escaping through the fish gills are called gill
(A)arches (B) filaments (C) rakers (D) lamellae
48. A distinguishing feature of mammals is the possession of
(A) skin (B) scale (C) nail (D) hair
49. Which of the following structures is capable of producing more tissues in the stem of a
herbaceous flowering plant?
(A) epidermis (B) pericycle (C) xylem (D) cambium
50. The manufacture of carbohydrates by plants takes place only in
(A) the leaves (B) the green stems (C)chlorophyllous parts (D) flowering plants
51. In a water culture experiment, a plant showed poor growth and yellowing of the leaves. These
may be due to deficiency of
(A) copper (B) iron (C) magnesium (D) calcium
52. In millions test, when the reagent is added to a protein food item, a white precipitate is
produced which turns
(A) blue on heating (B) yellow on heating (C) green on heating (D) red on heating
53. Regulation of sugar level takes places in the
(A)pancreas (B) Ileum (C) liver (D) kidney
54. Unicellular organisms transport essential nutrients direct to all parts of their bodies by the
process of diffusion because they have
(A) a large volume to surface area ratio
(B) a large surface area to volume ratio
(C) their bodies immersed in the nutrients
(D) their outer membrane made of cellulose auricles
55. The heart of the adult frog consists of
(A) two auricles and two ventricles
(B) one auricle and one ventricle
(C) two ventricles and one auricle
(D) one ventricle and two auricles
56. In adult mammalian blood, the cells which lack nuclei are the
(A) erythrocytes (B) lymphocytes (C) Leucocytes (D) phagocytes
57. Which of the following movements occurs during exhalation?
(A) the diaphragm and intercostals muscles relax
(B) the thoracic cavity increases in volume
(C) the diaphragm and intercostals muscles contract
(D) the diaphragm contrasts and the intercostals muscles relax.
58. In which of the following groups of animals is the malphigian tubule found?
(A) lizards, snakes and frogs
(B) crickets, house files and grasshoppers
(C) millipedes, centipedes and scorpions
(D) earthworms, roundworms and flatworms.
59. Which of the following is not a function of the mammalian skeleton?
(A) protection (B) respiration (C) transportation (D) support
60. The most reliable estimate of growth is by measuring changes in
(A) length (B) volume (C) surface area (D) dry weight
61. Which of the following is a physical change?
(A) the bubbling of chlorine
(B) the bubbling of chlorine into a jar containing hydrogen
(C) the dissolution of sodium chloride in water
(D) the passing of steam over heated iron
62. In the reaction SnO2 + 2C Sn2CO, the mass of coke containing 80% carbon required to
reduce 0.302kg of pure tin oxide is
(A) 40kg (B) 0.20kg (C) 0.06kg (D) 0.0kg (Sn = 119, O=16 C=12)
63. The Avogadro number of 24g of magnesium is the same as that of
(A) 1g of hydrogen molecules
(B) 16g of oxygen molecules
(C) 12g of carbon molecules
(D) 35.5g of chlorine molecules.
64. If gas occupies a container of volume 146cm3 at 180C and 0.971atm, its volume in cm3 at
STP is
(A) 133 (B) (C) 266 (D) 292
65. The volume occupied by 1.58g of a gas at STP is 500cm3. what is the relative molecular mass
of the gas?
(A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 44 (D) 71 (GMV at STP = 22.40dm3)
66. Equal volume of CO2, SO2, NO2 and H2S were released into a room at the same point and
time. Which of the following gives the order of diffusion of the gases to the opposite comer of
the room?
(A) CO, SO2, NO2, H2S
(B) SO2, NO2 SO2, H2S, CO
(C) CO, H2S, SO2 NO2
(D) CO, H2S, NO2 SO2 (S=32, C=12; O=16, N=14, H=1)
67. A basic postulate of the kinetic theory of gases is that the molecules of a gas move in straight
lines between collisions. This implies that
(A) collisions are perfectly elastic
(B) forces of repulsion exist
(C) forces of repulsion and attraction are in equilibrium
(D) collisions are inelastic.
68. Which of the following terms indicates the number of bonds that can be formed by an atom?
(A) oxidation number (B) valence (C) atomic number (D) electronegativity
69. X(g)X(g): The type of energy involved in the above transformation is
(A) ionization energy (B) Sublimation energy (C) lattice energy (D) electron affinity
70. Chlorine, consisting of two isotopes of mass number 35 and 37, has an atomic mass of 35.5.
The relative abundance of the isotopes of the isotopes of mass number 37 is
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
71. 10.0dm3 of air containing H2S as an impurity was passed through a solution of Pb(NO3)
until all the H2S had reacted. The precipitate of PbS was found to weigh 5.02g. according to the
equation, Pb(NO3)2 + H2S PbS + 2HNO3 the percentage by volume of hydrogen sulphide
(A) 50.2 (B) 47.0 (C) 4.70 (D) 0.47 (Pb =207, S = 32 GMV at STP = 22.4dm3)
72. A blue solid, T, which weighed 5.0g was placed on a table. After 8 hours, the resulting pink
solid was found to weigh 5.5g it can be inferred that substrate T.
(A) is deliquescent (B) is hydroscopic (C) has some molecule of water of crystallization
(D) is efflorescent.
73. The effluent of an industrial plant used plant used in the electrolysis of concentrated brine,
with a flowing mercury cathode may contain impurities like
(A) oxygen (B) hydrogen (C) mercury(II) chlorine (D) hydrogen chloride
74. The solubility in moles per dm3 of 20g of CuSO4
dissolved in 100g of water at 1800C is
(A) 0.13 (B) 0.25 (C) 1.25 (D) 2.00 (Cu = 63.5; S = 32, O = 16)
75. Smoke consists of
(A) solid particle dispersed in liquid
(B) solid particles dispersed in gas
(C) gas or liquid particles dispersed in liquid
(D) liquid particles dispersed in liquid
76. Na2C2O4 + CACl2CACO2O4NaCl. Given a solution of 1.9g of sodium oxalate in 50g of
water at room temperature, calculate the minimum volume of 0.1 M calcium chloride required to
produce maximum calcium oxalate using the above equation
(A)1.40 x 102dm3 (B) 1.40x10-2dm3 (C) 1.40x10-2dm3 (D) 1.40x10-2dm3
77. 2.0g of a monobasic acid was made up to 250cm3 with distilled water 25.00cm3 of this
solution required 20.00cm3 of 1.0M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The molar mass
of the acid is
(A) 200g (B) 150g (C) 100g (D)50g
78. What is the concentration of H+ ions in moles per dm3 of a solution of pH 4.398?
(A) 4.0x10-5 (B) 0.4x10-5 (C) 4.0x10-3
(D) 0.40x10-3
79. What volume of 11.0M hydrochloric acid must be diluted to obtain 1dm3 of 0.05M acid?
(A) 4.5cm3 (B) 5.65cm3 (C) 6.76cm3 (D) 7.78cm3
80. If 10.8g of silver is deposited in a silver coulometer connected in series with a copper
coulometer, the volume of oxygen liberated is
(A) 0.56cm3 (B) 5.60dm3 (C) 11.20dm3 (D)
22.40dm3 (Ag = 108; Cu = 64; GMV at STP =22.40dm3)
Instruction: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word
81. The young engineer is good at terminating other people’s products but has not been capable
of ___ any of his own. (A) integrating (B) finishing (C) completing (D) initiating (E) organizing
82. The manager who expected to be given respect was treated with ______
(A) dignity (B) scorn (C) shame (D) cruelty (E) disloyalty
83. Those who had invitation cards were admitted to the party while those who had none were
_____
(A) barred (B) repelled (C) expelled (D) compelled (E) restricted
84. Nobody expects him to show _____ for his children but he certainly bestows too much
affection on them. (A) love (B) concern (C) intimacy (D) devotion (E) hatred
85. The challenger was crude and inexperienced in contrast to the champion who was ____
(A) great (B) exposed (C) celebrated (D) refined (E)Strong
From the words lettered A to E, choose the word that best complete each of the following
sentences
86. The fishermen threw a stone into the river and this caused a _________
(A) sprinkle (B) sparkle (C) splash (D) spring (E) storm
87. The play was so interesting that the ____ clapped for quite a long time at the end.
(A) spectators (B) watchers (C) congregation (D) people (E) audience
88. The building ____ because of weak structural foundation
(A) tumbled (B) succumbed (C) somersaulted (D) collapsed (E) caved
89. The magazine was ____ by the government for an offensive publication.
(A) prescribed (B) proscribed (C) suspended (D) condemned (E) persecuted
90. Many people reacted to the brutal murder of the popular journalist with strong ____
(A) indignation (B) demonstration (C) mobilization (D) condemnation (E) accusation
From the words of groups of words lettered A to E below each of the following sentences,
choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word or
group of words as used in the sentence
91. It takes a great deal of stamina to run the marathon race.
(A) courage (B) determine (C) energy (D) intelligence (E) cleverness
92. But for the principal actor the play would have been dull.
(A) important (B) head (C) master (D) famous (E) main
93. An open car has no protection against the elements
(A) weather (B) emergency (C) molecule (D) atoms (E) atmosphere
94. He was reluctant to grant my request.
(A) disposed (B) delighted (C) reticent (D) unwilling (E) agreeable
95. The detective was perplexed when the clues in the murder case pointed to at least a dozen
different suspects.
(A) surprised (B)confused (C) excited (D) discouraged (E) disappointed
96. The military governor called a concerted effort in solving the problems of the state.
(A) a dramatic (B) an agitated (C) a joint (D) a directed (E) an unfailing
97. My financial situation is so precarious that very soon I may be insolvent
(A) borrowing (B) stealing (C) soluble (D) dependent (E) bankrupt
98. The chairman is of the opinion that accepting the proposal would be inimical to the objectives
of the association.
(A) harmful (B) relevant (C) irrelevant (D) indispensable (E) helpful
99. The famous politician was noted for his pragmatic approach to issues of national interest.
(A) idealistic (B) romantic (C) compromising (D) practical (E) inconsistent
100. Kunle is very pessimistic about our chance of success
(A) sad (B) despondent (C) unconvinced (D) worried (E) concerned
SOLUTIONS TO POST UTME QUESTIONS
1. A FORCE is an agent that changes or tends to change the state of rest or of uniform motion in
a straight line of a body but MASS is the quantity of matter or stuff contained in a body = D
2. V = wr = 0.6 x 3 = 1.8m/s = D
3. = B
4. 44.3 + 45.5 + 45.7 = 45.17 and 45.17 = 2.26s = C 320
5. u = 0, a = 0.5ms-2, s = 25, t = ?
using v2 = u2 + 2as = 0 + 2(0.5)(25) = 25 if v2 = 25 then v = 5 now using
v = u + at we get t = v - u = 5 – 0 = 10s = C a 0.5
6. From -1(Tg) = sin-1 (10x10) = sin-1 (0.5) = 300= B (2U) (2x100)
7. S = ut + ½ at2 = 0 + ½ (2)(42) = 16m = C
8. = C 10 = C
– l1 = e
- -5 x 10 x (60 – 10) = 6.0cm3= E
12. From Charles’s Law V1 = V2, V2 = V1T2 =546x173
T1 T2 T1 273 = 346cm3= A
13. = C 14. C 15. C 16. B
– distance of image from lens and u – u distance ofobject from lens
v = - v = 4u (any upright image is virtual and thus negative)
From 1 + 1 = 1 we put 1+ 1 = 1 thus 3 = 1 v u f -4u u
15 4u 15
4u = 45 and u = 11.25. hence v = 4u = 45.0cm = D
18. = D
19. STV
20. C
21. 125-1/3 x 49-1/2 x 100= 1 1/3 x 1 1/2x 100 = 1x 1 x 1 = 1
125 49 5 7 35= C
22. 32x = 27 and 27 = 33
2x = 3 and x = 3/2 = 1.5= B
23. 5.62 x 10-3= A
24. 1/3 log10P = 1thus log10 P1/3 = 1 = log101
P1/3 = 10 so P = 103 = 1000 = E
25. log8½ = ½ = B log 81
26. Log x = 2.3675, log y = 0950
X + y = logx x log y = 2.3675 x 0.9750 = 2.3083 =
2.31 (3s.f) = B
27. 1.21 – 1.12 = 0.09 x 100% = 9% = E
28. U4= ?, a = 2, d = 0.5 Using Un = a + (n – 1)d
U4 = 2 + (4 – 1) 0.5 = 2 + (3) 0.5 = 3.5 29. STV
30. Sn = a (rn – 1) =2(35 – 1) = 2(242)
r – 1 5 – 1 4 = 121 = E
31. = A
32. = C
33. (x – 12) (x + 16)
34. 2e2 – 3e + 1 = e (2e – 3) + 1 = (2e – 3) (e + 1)
35. 7y2 = 3y so 7y2 – 3y = 0
36. 2a2 – 3a – 27 = 0 thus x = 9/2 or x = -3 = E
37. = D 360 360 7
38. = B
39. tan 69 = x/10 thus x = 26.1 = E
40. 180 + 74 = 2540= D
41. A 46. B 51. B 56. A
42. A 47. C 52. D 57. A
43. C 48. D 53. A 58. B
44. A 49. 54. B 59. C
45. D 50. C 55. D 60. D
61. C 62. STV
63. Avogadro’s Number: at the same temperate and
Pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain the
same number of molecules. N = 6.022 x 1023 units
of a specified item. H2 = 2.02, O2 = 32.00, Cl2 =
70.91 = C
64. Using P1V1 =P2V2 thus V2 = 0.971 x 146 x 273
T1 T2 1 x 291 = 133 = A
65. Using PV = nRT but n m/M where m = given
mass and M = Molar mass
PV = m RT and M = mRT = 1.58 x 8.314 x 272
M PV 101325 x 5 10-4= 71= D
66. CO2 = 12 + 2(16) = 44 NO2 = 14 + 2(16) = 46
SO2 = 32 + 2(16) = 64 H2S = 2(1) + 32 = 34
The order should be: H2S, CO2, NO2 SO2
67. = A
68. B
X(g)X- (g) Z. Electron affinity
70. K x 37 (100 – K) x 35 = 35.5
100 100
0.37K + 35 – 0.35 = 35.5
0.37K – 0.35K = 35.5 – 35
0.02K = 0.5 Thus K 0.5 = 25 = B 0.02
71. Pb (NO3)2 + H2SPbS + 2HNO3
1 mole of H2S 1 mole of PbS
22.4dm3(207) + 32 = 239
X 5.02
X =22.4dm3 x 5.02g = 0.47dm3 239g
Percentage by volume is 0.47dm3 x 100 = 4.7 = C
10.0dm3 1
72. = B
73. C
74. CuSO4 = 63.5 + 32 + 32 + 4(16) = 159.5
Moles =20 = 0.125 159.5
100 0.125 and 1000 x hence1000 x 0.125 = 1.25 = C 100
75. = B
76. STV
77. STV
78. pH: The negative logarithm of the concentration (mol/L) of the H3O+ or (H+) ion;
the commonly used scale ranges from 0 – 14. pH = -log(H+) and –log(H+) = 4.398
Multiplying through by -1 gives log (H+) = -4.398
Taking antilog of both sides gives (H+) = 10-4.398 = 4.0 x 10-5
79. STV
80. If 10.8g of sulphur is deposited in a silver coulometer connected in series with a
copper coulometer, the volume of oxygen liberated is?
81. D 86. C 91. C 96. C
82. B 87. E 92. E 97. E
83. A 88. D 93. A 98. A
84. E 89. B 94. D 99. A
85. D 90. A 95. B 100. B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN POST UME SCREENING EXERCISE
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
PLEASE ENSURE THAT YOU HAVE SUBMITTED ONLINE REGISTRATION FORM BEFORE
AND AFTER THE
EXAMINATION.
ANSWER ALL QUESTION TIME ALLOWED 1 ½ HOURS
MATHEMATICS
1. Simplify 12 B. 2 2. Without using tables, the numerical value of log749 + log7(1/7) is
A. 0 B. -1 C. 1 D. ½ E. 36
3. If x2 – 6x + 1 = 0, has coincident roots, the value of n is A. 9 B. -9 C. 3 D. 4 E. 36
4. The roots of y2 – y – 12 = 0 are A. 4, -3 B. -4, 3 C. -4, -3 D. 4,3 E. 36 - C. 6. If 8x/2 = 23/8 x 43/4 the value of x is A.1 B.11/4 C. 15/8 D. ¼ E. ½
7. In set theory, an empty set is represented with B. { } C. {.} D. A and B E. All of the above
8. If A = {xeN:x2 – 3X + 2 = 0}, B = xeN: x(x – 3) = 0}, AB us A. {3} B. {12} D. {2} E. {1,2,3}
9. What value of x satisfy the inequality 2x + 2 < 5. A. x<1 B. x<1 C. x>1 D. x>1 E. 0<x<1
10. If the 39th term of an arithmetic progression is 141, what is the first term if the common
difference is 2 A. 65 B. 141 C. 39 D. None of the above E. All of the above
11. The sum to infinity of the series 1 + ½ + ¼ + 1/8 Z. Is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. ½ E. 1/3
12. The value of sin 3000 is A. B. ½ C. –½ E. 1
13. How many sides has a rectangular polygon whose interior angle is 144?
A. 12 B. 9 C. 8 D. 10 E. 11
14. Simplify 272/3 x 322/5 A. 36 B. 9 C. 4 D.1/36 E. None of the above
15. The equation n2 – 16n + 64 has A. equal roots B. imaginary roots C. Distinct roots D.
No roots E. None of the above
16. The values of C for which 2c2 – 11c + 12 = 0 are A. 4, ½ B. -4, 3/2 C. 4, -3/2 D. -4, -3/2 E.
4,3
17. Which of the following is not a surd E. None of the above
18. Simplify 4 – 1 1 C. 1 - D. 4 – 1
19. Solve 7/8 of 2¼ + (25/16 – 17/24) A.12/27 B. 15/22 C.63/32 D.48/77 E. 17/24
20. For what values of x and y are x + y = 2 and 2x –y = 7?
y = 3 E. x = -1, y = 3
Use the following data to answer: questions 21 –25
6,0,1,2,6,8,2,1,5,1,4,9,6,1,5,6,5,6,8,6,6
21. The range of the values is A. 8 B. 9 C. 6 D. 7 E. 5
22. The sum of the numbers and the number of items are
A. 85, 20 B. 85, 19 C. 80, 20 D. 95, 21 E. 80,19
23. The mean value is A. 4.47 B. 4.0 C. 4.25 D. 4.05 E. 4.21
24. The medium mark is A. 6 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8 E. 4
25. The mode of the marks is A. 7 B. 6 C. 8 D. 5 E. 4
CHEMISTRY
1. Rhombic sulphur, monoclinic sulphur and amorphous sulphur are:
A. Isomels B. Isotopes C. Allotropes D. Monomers E. Polymorphs
2. Laughing gas is
A. nitrogen (II) oxide B. Nitrogen (I) oxide C.
Nitrogen (III) oxide D. Nitrogen (V) oxide E. Ammonia
3. The correct name of the compound CH3CH2CONH3is
A. N-methyl-propionyl amide
B. Propionyl amide
C. Methyl propanamide
D. Methyl propionylamide
E. Propionylmethamide
4. The name pentanone is not specific and proper because it can refer to
A. 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone
B. 1- pentanone and 5-pentanone
C. Methyl propanone and propyl methanone
D. Methyl propanonne and methyl propyl butanone
5. The oxide that remains unchanged when heated with hydrogen is
A. CUO B. Fe2O3 C PoO2 D. ZnO E. Ag2O
6. What is the most metallic element in the set A. Na B. Ar C. P D. A E. Mg
7. What is the mole fraction of water in a solution prepared by mixing 12.5g of H2O with 220g of
acetone? A. 0.817 B. 0.845 C. 0.183 D. 0.155 E. 0.205
8. A consequence of global warming is:
A. Air pollution B. Wafer pollution C. Increased
humidity D. Flooding E. Little sunshine
9. Gunpowder is made from charcoal, Sulphur and Potassium trioxonitrate(V). The salt in the
mixture perform^ function of:
A. An oxidant B. A reductant C.A solvent, D. A catalyst E. Exploder
10. Which one of the following group II elements has the highest first ionization energy?
A. Be B. Mg C. Ca D. Sr E. B
11. In which one of the following compounds does sulphur have an oxisation number of +4?
A. H2SO4 B. H2S C. SO2 D. Na2SO3 E. H2S2O7
12. Which one of the following does not show allotropy at room temperature and pressure?
A. Nitrogen B. Phosphorous C. Oxygen D. Carbon E.Sulphur
13. Cellulose and starch can classified as one of the following:
A. Sugar B. Sucrose C. hydrocarbon D. Carbohydrates E. Fibres
14. What mass of anhydrous solution of sodium trioxocarbonate (IV) is required to prepare
250cm3 of 0.10m solution? (Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16)
15. How many isomers can be formed from organic compounds with molecular formular
C3H8O?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6
16. Which of the following is not a property of magnesium oxide?
A. High melting point
B. Dissolution in polar solvent
C. Pressure of ionic bonds
D. Possession of crystal lattice
E. low binding energy
17. Catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes produces compounds with general formula
A. CnH2n+1OH. B. CnH2n+1 C. CnH2n+2 D. CnH2n-1 E. Cn(H20)y
18. Tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid is described as strong acid because it is highly
A. Corrosive B. Concentrated C. Reactive D. Soluble in water E. Ionized in water
19. Which of these metals. Mg, Fe, Pb, and Cu will dissolve in dilute HCl if air is blown through
the solution?
A. Mg and Fe only B. All the metals
C. Mg, Fe and Cu D. Mg, Fe and Pb
E. Mg, Pb and Cu. —
20. A correct electrochemical series can be obtained
from K, Na, Ca, Al, Mg, Zn, Fe, Pb, H. Ag, Au by
interchanging
A. Zn and Fe B. Zn and Pb C. Al and Mg
D. Au and Ag E. None of the above. '
21. The oxidation of CH3CH2(CH3)OH gives:
A. 2-butanone E. Methyl butane
B. 2-butanal C. Butane D. Butanoic
22. The solubility of alkanols in water is due to:
A. Their ionic character
B. Their covalent nature
C. Ability to form hydrogen bond
D. Their low boiling points
E. Their low dielectric com
23. The gas that is not associated with global warming is A. CO2 B. H2 C. CH4 D. SO
24. In which order are the following salts sensitive to light:
A. AgBr>AgCl>Agl
B.AgCl>Agl>AgBr
C. Agl>AgCl>AgBr
D. AgCl>AgBr>Agl
E. AgBr>Agl>AgCl
25. A phenomenon where an element exists in different forms in the same physical state known
as:
A. Isomerism B. Amorphism
C. Isotopy D. Allotropy E. Enantiomerism
PHYSICS
1. A piece of rubber 10cm long stretches 6mm when a load of 100N is hung from it. What is the
strain?
A. 6 x 10'2 B. 60 C. 6 D. 0.6 E. 2 x 10-2
2. Which of the following does not cause a reduction of the surface tension of water?
A. Soap solution B. Alcohol C. Camphor D. Grease E. Solvent
3. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body is
A. Thermal capacity B. Thermal energy
C. Specific heat capacity D. Heat lost E. heat gain
4. Water shows anomalous behavior? A. below 100C B. At exactly 4°C C. between 4°C and
100°C D. Between 0°C and 4°C E. Above 1000C
5. Which of the following phenomena cannot be explained by the molecular theory of matter?
A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Convection D. Evaporation E. Saturation
6. A gas occupies a volume of 300cm3 at a temperature of 27°C. What is its volume at 540C,
when the pressure is constant?
A. 150cm3. B 273cm3 C.327cm3 D. 600cm3 E. 125cm3
7. A man clapping his hands at regular intervals observes that the echo of a clap coincides with
the next clap. If the reflecting cliff is 160m away and the speed of the sound is 320mS-1, what is
the frequency of the clapping? A. 2HzK B.4Hz C. 8Hz D. 1Hz E. 12Hz
8. Which of the fallowing properties is/are common to all waves?
I Diffraction II Refraction III Frequency
A. IIonly B. I and II only C.I, II and III only D. I and III
only E. II only
9. Which of the following factors affects the speed of sound in air?
I Temperature II Pressure III Frequency
A. II only B.I and II only C. I only D. II and III only E.
Ill only :
10. When white light is dispersed by a spectrometer, the component having the shortest
wavelength is
A. Orange B. Green C. Red D. Violet E. Black
11. Shadows and eclipses result from the
A. Refraction of light
B. Diffraction of light
C. Rectilinear propagation of light
D. Reflection of light
E. Above tight
12. Which of the following media allow the transmission of sound waves through them:
I Air II Liquid III Solid.
A. I, II and III B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only
E. Ill only
13. The power dissipated in an a.c circuit with an r.m.s of 5A, r.m.s voltage of 10V and a phase
angle of 60° is
A. SOW B. 120W C. 125W D. 25W E. 12W
14. A light of energy 5eV falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of
2eV are ejected. The work fraction of the metal is
A. 0.4eV B. 7.0eV C. 2.5eV D. 3.0eV E. 1.0eV
15. In semiconductors, the carriers of current at temperature are
A. Electrons only B. Electrons and holes
C. Holes only D. Electrons and ions E. Ions only
16. The temperature at which water vapour present in the air saturates the air and begins to
condense is known as
A. Boiling point B. Melting point
C. Dew point D. Triple point E. Violet light
17. Which of the following pairs is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum?
I Radio wave II Beta waves III Gamma rays IV Alpha rays
A. I and II B. II and IV C. Ill and IV
D. I and III E. all of the above
18. A wave of frequency 10Hz forms a stationary wave pattern in a medium where the velocity is
20cmS-1. The distance between the adjacent modes is
A. 15cm B. 1.0cm C. 2.0cm D. 5.0cm E. 6.0cm
19. The length of a displaced pendulum bob which passes its lowest point twice every second,
assuming g = 10ms-1 is
A. 0.25m B. 0.45m C. 0.58m D. 1.00m E. 1.2m
20. The inner diameter of a small test tube can be measured accurately using a
A. micrometer screw gauge B. Pair of dividers C. Meter rule D. Pair of vernier calipers E. meter
screw
21. An object is projected with a velocity of 80ms-1 at an angle of 300 to the horizontal. The
maximum height reached, assuming g = 10m/s, is
A. 20m B. 80m C. 160m D. 320m E. 40m
22. A cone in an unstable equilibrium has its potential energy,
A. Decreased B. Increased C. Oscillating D. Unchanged E. Undulating
23. A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25ms-1 in 20 seconds. The power developed in the
engine is
A. 12.5KW B. 25.0KW C. 1.25MW D. 2.50MV E. 1MV
24. When a ship sails from salt water into fresh water, fraction of its volume above the water
surface will
A. Decrease B. Remain the same C. Increase D. Increase then decrease
E. All of the above
25.A machine gun with a mass of 5kg fires a 50g bullet at a speed of 100ms-1. The recoil speed
of the machine gun is
A. 0.5m/s B. 3.5m/s C. 1m/s D. 2m/s E. 4m/s
ENGLISH
A. In the flowing questions choose the expression or word which best completes each
sentence.
1. The student who went home without an exit has apologized ____ his misconduct.
A. On B. At C. About D. For E. It
2. The man has atoned ___ his sins. A. Upon B. On C. For D. At E. Against
3. I am ____ seeing your family. A. Forward to B. Ahead to C. Forward on D. Ahead to E. At
4. These folk tales have been landed ____ from generation to generation
A. In B. At C. Over D. Over E. Eat
5. The young lovers first met _____ the University of Ibadan Night dancer
A. In B. At C. Inside D. In course of E. From
6. I have not seen my house master _____ the beginning of this session
A. From B. In C. For D. Since E. Concerning
7. Get ______ the untimely death of his son. A. Off B. By C. Through D. Over E. Eat 8.
8. If you keep playing with this door handle, it will get ___
A. lose B. Loose C. lost D. Loosing E. Renewed
(B) In each of the following questions, choose the option nearest in meaning to the
underlined word.
9. She was dressed in a gorgeous costume
A. Richly coloured B. Loose C. Badly sewn D. Tight fitting E. Bad Colour
10. Obi's reaction is too subtle to be understood A. Violet B. Real C. Clever D. Wild E. Cold
11. Many people are often deceived by superficial knowledge
A. Cheap B. Shallow C. Attractive D. Penetrating E. All of the above
12. His subjects rejoiced in the end of his tyrannical rule
A. Cruel B. Long C. Just
D. Peaceful E. Ancient
13. Danqual is a very versatile scholar things.
A. Dull B. Clever at his special field C. Interested in many different things D. Slow E. lazy
14. Nigerian sailors are very virile
A. Strong and manly B. Vindictive C. Virtuous D. Vicious and cunning E. Friendly
15. I have to wade through that stream
A. Walk hurriedly B. Swain C. Toddle D. Walk with difficulty E. Walk up
16. His rise to fame was metoric.
A. Well deserved B. Very gradual C. Very swift D. Too slow E. All of the above
17. Martha came late this morning but she gave plausive excuse
A. Reasonable B. Very interesting C. Detailed D. Pathetic E. Stupid
(C) In each of the following questions choose the optio opposite in meaning to the
underlined word
18. A tentative date was given
A. definite B. A provisional C. An amicable D. Convincing E. None of the
19. Obi was the hero of the story. A. Assassin B. Villain C. Devil D. Criminate E. Goliath
20. The man drew a sword as people congregated round him
A. Fled from B. Praised C. Gathered round D. Mobbed E. Bent
21. The point you have made is quite apt
A. Helpful B. Irrelevant C. Illogical D. Insensitive E. All of the above
22. That little boy has become quite chubby. A. Intelligent . B. Tall C. Thin D. Huge E. Large
23. The action was premeditated
A. Unplanned B. Unnecessary C. Catastrophic D. Uncoordinated E. Good
24. The boy made flippant remark A. serious B. well-meant C. A correct D. An expected E. Yes
25. The weather is getting warmer, so the ice should thaw soon
A. Frost B. Freeze C. Melt D. Escape E. Run
SOLUTIONS TO MATHS CONTINUED
12. Sin 3000 = sin (3600 – 600) = sin 3600. cos 600 – sin 600 . cos 3600 = (0 x 1/2 ) – = B
13. For a regular polygon: internal angle + external angle = 1800
144 + x = 1800
X = 1800 – 1440 = 360
No of sides of regular polygon = 360/36 = 10sides = D
14. 272/3 x 322/3 = (33)2/3 x (25)2/5 = 32 x 22 = 36 = A
15. n2 – 16n + 64 = n2 – 8n – 8n + 64
n = 8(twice) – Equal roots = A
16. 2c2 – 11c + 12 = 0 Using the quadratic equation on
-(--11)2 – -96 2(2) 4 = A 4 4 = D
19. = B
– 17/24)
= 7/8 x 9/4 x 48/77 = 15/22= B
20. x + y = 2 ZZZZZZ.. (1)
2x – y = 7 ZZZZZZ.. (2) subtracting (1) from (2)
3x = 9 x = 9/3 = 3
Substituting the value of x into (1) we have 3 + y = 2
hence y = -1 = A
21. Range = highest value –lowest value 9 – 0 = 9 = B
22. (94, 21) = D
23. 94/21 = 4.47 = A
24. The Median is obtained by rearranging to order and then picking the middle term.
0,1,1,1,1,2,2,4,5,5,5,6,6,6,6,6,6,8,8,9
The median is 5 = B
25. The mode is the most occurring value is 6 = B
CHEMISTRY
1. = C 7. D 13. D 19. A 25. D
2. = B 8. D 14. A 20. C
3. = A 9. E 15. A 21. A
4. = A 10. A 16. E 22. C
5. = D 11. C 17. C 23. A
6. = A 12. A 18. E 24. D
PHYSICS
1. Strain = elongation = L = 6mm
Original – length L0 (10 x 10)
28 = 0.06 = 6 x 10-2= A
2. = D 3. = C 4. = D 5. = A
6. Since pressure is constant: V1 =V2 T1 T2
300 = V2thus V2 = 327 x 300 = 327 = C
300 327 300320 = 2 x f x 160 thus f = 320 = 1Hz = D 2 x 160
8. = C 9. C 10.D 11. C 12 A
10 x 5 x cos 60 = 25W = D
14. EK =hv – W
W = Ek – hv = 5 – 2 = 3eV = D
15. B 16. C 17. B
But distance between adjacent nodes is 2.0/2 =
1.0cm = B
=A
20. = D
2g 2 x 10 = 80m = B
22. = A decreased
23. B 24. A 25. STV
ENGLISH
1. = D 2. = C 3. = A 4. = B
5. = B 6. = D 7. = D 8. = B
9. Gorgeous: very beautiful and attractive; giving pleasure and enjoyment (2) of colours clothes
etc) with very deep colours: impressive ANS Richly coloured = A
10. Subtle: not very noticeable or obvious (2) (of a person or their behaving in a clever way and
using indirect methods, in order to achieve something ANS Clever = C
11. Superficial: ANS shallow = B
12. Tyrannical: using power or authority over people in an unfair and cruel way ANS cruel =A
13. Versatile = C
14. Virile: strong and full of energy = A
15. Wade: to walk with an effort through something especially water or mud = D
16. Meteoric: achieving success very quickly = C
17. Plausible: reasonable and likely to be true = A
18. Tentative: not definite of certain because you may want to change it later ANS Definite = A
19. Hero: ANS viliain = B
20. Congregated round: to come together in a group ANS gathered round = C
21. Apt: suitable or appropriate in the circumstances ANS irrelevant = B
22. Chubby: slightly fat in a way that people usually find attractive ANS thin = C
23. Premeditated: planned in advance ANS unplanned = A
24. Flippant: showing that you do not take something as seriously as other people think you
should ANS serious=A
25. Thaw: to turn back into water after being frozen ANS freeze = B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
1.
…………………….. is an example of plant propagated by leaf. (A) Zoophyte (B) Allelopathy (C)
Bryophyte (D) Angiosperm
D
2.
A tree species introduced from another country is called-------- (A) International species;
(B) Exotic species; (C) Exogenous species (D) Crossbreed species
B
3.
Agriculture can be broadly classified into........... and.......... (A) Livestock, Soil (B) Animal, Soil
(C) Animal, Crop (D) Poultry, Fruit
C
4.
An insect vector is important because (A) it helps to habour and transmit pathogens which
cause diseases (B) it helps pathogens to develop only at the egg stage (C) it helps to carry
pathogens to the environment for control (D) it is efficient in killing pathogens
A
5.
Birds are important pests of (A) tree crops (B) legumes (C) Cereals (D) vegetables crops
C
6.
Broad spectrum pesticides are dangerous because (A) they kill all pests and other nontarget organisms indiscriminately; (B) they allow non-target organisms to survive; (C) they
allow target organisms to survive; (D) they kill target organisms only.
A
7.
Contact insecticides are used to control (A) pod borers of legumes (B) stem borers of
cereal (C) leaf beetles of legumes (D) eel worm of legumes
C
8.
Entomology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D)
study of Bacteria
A
9.
Nematology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D)
study of Bacteria
C
10.
Olericulture involves the cultivation of ……………… (A) Tropical fruits (B) Ornamental plants
(c) Vegetables (d) Orchards
C
11.
One of these is a natural agricultural resource
potatoes
A
12.
Pesticides that are translocated to plant parts such that pests that feed on them are
poisoned are called
A. Systemic pesticides (B) Attractants (C) Fumigants (D)
Repellents.
A
13.
Pests of crops that feed by piercing and sucking plants include the following except (A) stem
borer (B) aphids (C) cassava mealy bugs (D) cotton stainers
Plants that are capable of carrying out photosynthesis contain
(A) No Chlorophyll (B)
Only Xanthophyll (C) Chlorophyll (D) No plant pigment
Problems of agriculture in Nigeria include: (A) higher education and land; (B) poor rural
infrastructure and low soil fertility (C) human capital and extension services; (D) mineral
resources and poor storage facilities.
A
16.
Reduction of ten seedlings of pawpaw to two per stand is referred to as (A) pruning (B)
thinning (C) weeding (D) spacing
B
17.
The equilibrium price rice is the price at which --- (A) its demand exceeds supply (B) its
supply exceeds demand (C) its supply equals demand (D) its demand encourages supply.
C
14.
15.
1
(A) water; (B) petroleum; (C) calcium (D)
C
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
18.
The following are examples of formulated pesticide product except (A) dusts e.g. Actellic
dust (B) active ingredient (C) Emulsifiable Concentrate e.g. Gammalin 20 (D) Soluble
Concentrate e.g. Novacron 40 .
B
19.
The following are micronutrients, except: (A) Sulphur; (B) Iron (C) Copper (D)
Molybdenum
The force which results from attraction between the two unlike materials is called.......
Adhesion (B) Cohesion (C) Friction (D) Couple.
A
The forest is made up of - (A) Stone, rock, gravel and trees (B) Animals, trees, shrubs and
herbs (C) Teak, Elephant, paper and fire (D) Wood, coal, gas and leaves
The general name for a plant that is considered to be a pest is (A) tree (B) shrub (C) Weed
(D) Herb
B
23.
The list below consists of fiber sources, which one is not correct? (A) Coir, wood, bast,
asbestos (B) Wool, asbestos, sisal, pineapple (C) Glass, Plantain, Okra, Hemp (D) Banana,
flax, sisal, kenaf
A
24.
The most effective method of controlling or preventing viral diseases in plant is by (A)
Planting resistant varieties (B) Spraying crops regularly (C) Treating seeds with chemicals
(D) Burning affected crops
A
25.
The process by which green plant manufacture their food is called......... (A) Osmosis (B)
Photosynthesis (C) Transpiration (D) Respiration
The process by which soil gets wetted up is known as............ (A)Wetting (B) Erosion (C)
Capillarity (D) swelling
The removal of excess water from a plant through the stomata is.......(A) Transpiration (B)
Pollination (C) Absorption (D) Photosynthesis
B
20.
21.
22.
26.
27.
A
C
C
A
28.
29.
The reproductive cells of crops are called (A) gametes (B) genes (C) anthers (D) zygote
Trees can be classified into two classes namely (A) Wood and woodlot (B) Mediterranean
wood and temperate wood (C) Hardwoods and softwoods (D) Badwoods and Deciduous
wood
A
C
30.
Virology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) study of
Bacteria
B
31.
What is mycology? (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D)
study of Fungi
When species of plant or animal disappears completely from a place where it previously
existed, it is said to be: (A) Endangered; (B) Threatened; (C) Extinct; (D) Rare; (e) Out
dated
D
Which of the following crops can be propagated by stem cutting? (A) Onion (B) Yam (C)
Lettuce (D) Cassava
Which of the following crops exhibits hypogeal germination? (A) Millet (B) Cowpea (C)
Groundnut (D) Soybean
D
Which of the following crops is a raw material for the production of chocolate? (A) Kolanut
(B) Coffee (C) Banana (D) Cocoa
D
32.
33.
34.
35.
2
C
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
36.
Which of the following crops produces latex? (A) Mango (B) Citrus (C) Palm tree
Rubber
(D)
D
37.
38.
Which of the following fruits is a capsule? (A) mango (B) coconut (C) apple (D) okra
Which of the following is a storage pest of maize? (A) Weevil (B) Beetle (C) Grasshopper
(D) Aphid
D
A
39.
Which of the following is for body building? (A) Protein, (B) Fat, (C) Minerals, (D)
Water
A
40.
Which of the following is not a factor influencing the availability of agricultural land? (A)
Topography (B) Soil types (C) Population pressure (D) Transportation
D
41.
Which of the following is not a method of controlling pests? (A) Quarantine (B) Crop
rotation (C) Fumigation (D) Mulching.
D
42.
Which of the following is not a monocotyledon plant? (A) Orange (B) Banana (C) Rice (D)
Bamboo
A
43.
Which of these is not involved in forest land enforcement? (A) Forest guards (B) Forest
rangers (C) Police officers (D) Forest officers (E) Immigration officers
C
44.
Why should a seed-producing farmer spray an insecticide on his crops only when the bees
are not around? (A) the bees would sting him and he therefore avoids them (B)the
farmer does not want to waste his chemicals (C) bees are important for pollination of his
crops (D) bees are harmless insects.
C
45.
Wildlife Management includes one of the following: (A) Habitat Conservation; (B) Habitat
Consumption (C) Habitat Liberation
A
46.
Yam stored in a barn should be inspected at least once a week to (A) remove rotting
tubers (B) remove sprout from the yam (C) prevent termite attack (D) remove sprout
and rotten tuber
D
47.
............ is to manipulate soil to obtain a desired soil tilth for seed placement, its
germination and emergence. (A) Ploughing (B) Tillage (C) Harrowing (D) Harvesting.
B
48.
An example of sprayers used in crop protection is (A) Nasdac (B) Nafdac (C) Knapsack (D)
Capsack.
C
49.
50.
An example of a stem tuber is......... (A) Cassava (B) Yam (C) Groundnut (D) Maringa
An example of fungal disease of stored grains is: (A) rosette (B) mould (C) soft rot (D)
damping off.
Horticulture is a branch of Agriculture that involves: (A) Rearing of animals; (B) Cultivation
of food crops; (C) Study of farm machines and tools; (D) Cultivation of fruit, vegetables and
ornamental plants.
B
B
51.
D
52.
If a crop requires 1.5kg phosphorus per hectare, how many kg of manure will be required
per hectare if 1kg of manure contains 0.5kg of phosphorus? (A) 2.52 (B) 2.95 (C) 3.0
(D) 4.15.
C
53.
54.
Maize grow best on (A) sandy soil (B) sand-clay soil (C) loamy soil (D) clayey-loam soil
Root knot of tomato is caused by a (A) fungus (B) bacterium (C) protozoon (D) nematode
C
D
3
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
55.
Soil textural class can be determined using:
Triangle (D) Rain gauge
56.
The average seed rate for maize is 25kg per hectare. Allowing for seed wastage of 5
percent, how many kilograms of seeds would be required in planting 2 hectares of farm
land? (A) 40.75 (B) 47.50 (C) 50.05 (D) 52.75.
B
57.
The correct definition of a soil profile is (A) Horizontal section of the earth crust showing all
the layers of soil. (B) Diagonal representation of the soil from top to bottom (C) Vertical
section of the soil from the soil surface to the top of the parent materials showing the
horizons (D) Perpendicular cross section of the soil showing all the layers from the top of
the subsoil. .
C
58.
The mosaic symptom commonly associated with viral diseases of crops can be best
observed on (A) roots (B) stem (C) leaves (D) fruits
C
59.
The most important part of a crop plant to a horticulturist are the(A) Roots (B)Leaves (C)
Buds (D) Branches
B
60.
The pest designated as a national pest by Nigerian Agricultural Advisory Council is (A)
variegated grasshopper (B) thrips (C) weevil (D) cricket
A
61.
The process by which plant nutrients are washed down beyond the root zone in the soil is
known as (A) Bleaching (B) Leaching (C) Infiltration (D) Erosion .
B
62.
The process of additional source of water in nursery practices for seedlings is called (A)
Fertilization (B) Irrigation (c) Ploughing (d) Espacement
The use of Chemical pesticides is being discouraged because they (A) Degrade the
environment (B) Pollute the environment and kill non target organisms in the
environment (C) They contaminate water bodies (D) All of the above
B
63.
64.
(A) Meter rule (B) Vernier caliper (C) Textural
C
D
Vertical description of soil column is called.......... (A) Soil tilth (B) Soil profile (C) Soil
moisture (D) Soil compaction .
What are the 3 basic types of rock? (A) Metamorphic, granite and Igneous (B) Sedimentary,
Igneous and slate (C)Igneous, metamorphic and Sedimentary (D) Igneous, metamorphic and
slate
B
66.
What is soil texture? (A) The proportion of sand, silt and gravel in the soil. (B) The
percentages of all the components of the soil (C) The average composition of the soil
particles (D) The proportion of sand, silt and clay in the soil.
D
67.
What is the process by which soil particles are washed away? (A) Leaching (B) Erosion
(C) Ponding (D) Wetting
Which of the following diseases of crops causes stunting in maize? (A) blast (B) rosette (C)
blight (D) streak
B
65.
68.
C
D
69.
Which of the following is not an effect on man of the various preventive and control
measures of diseases and pest of crops? (A) air pollution (B) water poisoning (C) poor
health (D) poor utilization
D
70.
A strain is a chicken breeding stock bearing a given value and produced by a breeder
through at least _______________ generations of closed breeding. (A) two (B) three (C)
four (D) five .
D
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
71.
A term used to designate groups of breeds which have been developed in a particular area
is (A) Breed (B) Variety (C) Class (D) Strain
C
72.
All except____________ are bred for their meat quality (A) Australorp (B) New Hampshire
(C) Rhode Island Red (D) Minorca
D
73.
74.
75.
All of these are poultry except (A) Chicken (B) Duck (c) Pet (d) Turkey
Chindulla is a breed of (A) Goat (B) Gorilla (C) Rabbit (D) Grasscutter (E) Pig
Fowl pox is commonly transmitted by …………………. (A)Testes fly (B) Bees (C) Mosquitoes
(D) Rats .
C
C
C
76.
In which of the following farm animals is the need for protein supplement in the diet not
critical? (A) Rabbit, (B) Poultry, (C) Pigs, (D) Cattle
One of the animals that has been successfully domesticated in Nigeria is (A) Cockroach; (B)
Earthworm; (C) Grasscutter
D
One of the branches of the poultry industry is (A) Backward farming (B) Poultry housing (C)
Disease control (D) Integrated companies
Salmonella and Mycoplasma can only be controlled through (A) Vaccination (B) Proper
sanitation (C) Bio-security (D) Destruction of contaminated breeders.
D
The __________ contains enzymes that helps to dissolve the membrane of the yolk before
fertilization takes place (A) Ovary (B) Sperm (C) Seminal fluid (D) Acrosome
The female sheep is known as (A) ewe, (B) lamb, (C) sow, (D) mare
The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum
(C) Uterus (D) Magnum
The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone; (B) Testis; (C) Thiamine; (D)
Globulin; (E) Progesterone
D
The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B)
Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading
The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about ………………… (A) 10mls (B) 5.0mls (c)
0.5mls (d) 0.10mls.
C
86.
What is poultry science? (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d)
Study of cattle.
A
87.
What is the gestation period of a cow? (A) 5 months (B) 18½ months (C) 9 months (D) 24
months (E) 15 weeks
C
88.
Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed?
(A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry
equipment
C
89.
Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of
Nigeria? (A) Sun-drying; (B) Gas drying; (C) Oven drying
A
90.
91.
Which of the following is monogastric animal? (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep
A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15,000 in 2004, at the end of fifth year, he sold it for
N5,000. What is the salvage value? (A) N10,000 (B) N5,000 (C) N15,000
(D) N
3,000.
C
B
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
5
C
B
A
D
A
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92.
Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information
to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these.
B
93.
Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity
supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity
supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D) .
the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price
B
94.
Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C)
Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives
A
95.
One of the factors that influence supply is: (A) Income; (B) prices of other products; (C)
social capital; (D) level of technology
D
96.
People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the
grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community
approach (D) bottom up approach.
D
97.
The law of demand states that: (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B)
higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a
commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above.
B
98.
The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as
(A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value.
C
99.
Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria? (A) Lack of
transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D)
Lack of good packaging and processing facilities
C
100. Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics? (A) Agribusiness
management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural
development and policy
C
6
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
1.
Sno
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
7
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
8
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
9
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
10
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
11
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
12
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
1. Give the correct Arabic option for the
English sentence: I will never write to
her
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
.................... ‫ﺖ إِﻟَْﻴـ َﻬﺎ‬
ُ ‫َﻣﺎ َﻛﺘَْﺒ‬
A.
........ ً‫ﺐ ﺧﻄَﺎﺑًﺎ ُﻣ ﱠﺪ ًة ﻃَ ِﻮﻳﻠَﺔ‬
ُ ُ‫َﻻ أَ ْﻛﺘ‬
.......... ‫ﺐ إِﻟَْﻴـ َﻬﺎ َداﺋِ ًﻤﺎ‬
َ ‫َﺳ ْﻮ‬
ُ ُ‫ف أَ ْﻛﺘ‬
................... ‫ﺐ إِﻟَْﻴـ َﻬﺎ‬
َ ُ‫ﻟَ ْﻦ أَ ْﻛﺘ‬
Êƪ ǴÌǐ È
..........ƢǔÅÌȇÈ
¢ƢÈ
đ
É Èƫ¦ƢǷÈ
2. Give the option which best completes
the Arabic translation of the English
sentence: Nigeria is situated in the
African continent.
ِ‫ﺑ‬
...................... ً‫ﺎﺧَﺮة‬
َ
C.
...................... ً‫َدﺑﱠﺎﺑَﺔ‬
D.
..................... ً‫َﻏ ﱠﻮ َﺻﺔ‬
E.
..................... ‫َﺳﻴﱠ َﺎرًة‬
5. Give the correct Arabic option for the
English sentence: Do not leave your book
in the school
A.
A.
ِْ
......................... ‫اﻹﻓْ ِﺮﻗِﻴﱠ ِﺔ‬
B.
B.
.......................... ‫اﻟْ ِﻮﻻَﻳَﺔ‬
C.
C.
.......................... ِ‫اﻟْ َﻘﺎ ﱠرة‬
D.
D.
......................... ُ‫اﻟﺪ ْﱠوﻟَﺔ‬
E.
...........................‫اﻟْ َﻘ ِﺮﻳَِﺔ‬
B.
C.
......... ‫ﻻَ ﺗَـْﺘـ ُﺮْك َدﻓْـﺘَـَﺮَك ِﰲ اﻟْ َﻤ ْﺪ َر َﺳ ِﺔ‬
.......... ‫ﻚ ِﰲ اﻟْ َﻤ ْﺪ َر َﺳ ِﺔ‬
َ َ‫ﻻَ ﺗَـْﺘـ ُﺮْك ُﻛﺘُﺒ‬
.......... ‫ﻚ ِﰲ اﻟْ َﻤ ْﺪ َر َﺳ ِﺔ‬
َ َ‫ﺗَـْﺘـ ُﺮْك ِﺧﻄَﺎﺑ‬
........ ‫ﻚ ِﰲ اﻟْ َﻤ ْﺪ َر َﺳ ِﺔ‬
َ َ‫ﻻَ ﺗَـْﺘـ ُﺮْك ِر َﺳﺎﻟَﺘ‬
......... ‫ﻚ ِﰲ اﻟْ َﻤ ْﺪ َر َﺳ ِﺔ‬
َ َ‫ﻻَ ﺗَـْﺘـ ُﺮْك ﻛِﺘَﺎﺑ‬
6. Translate into Arabic: Beggars cannot
be chooser. ‫ﻻﺧﺘِﻴَﺎ ِر‬
ْ ْ‫ا‬
3. Give the correct Arabic option for the
English sentence: This lesson is easy.
A.
...................‫ي‬
ْ ‫ﺎق‬
‫اﳉُْﻨ ِﺪ ﱡ‬
َ ‫َﺳ‬
B.
..................... ‫ﺗَـ َﻘ ُﻊ ﻧَـْﻴ ِﺠ ِﲑﻳَﺎ ﰱ‬
E.
Give the option which best
completes the Arabic translation of
the English sentence: The soldier
drove an armoured car
4.
A.
......... ‫ﺐ‬
ْ ‫س‬
ٌ ‫ﺻﻌ‬
ُ ‫َﻫ َﺬا اﻟﺪ ْﱠر‬
B.
.......... ‫س َﺳ ْﻬ ٌﻞ‬
ُ ‫َﻫ َﺬا اﻟﺪ ْﱠر‬
C.
........... ‫ﻬﻞ‬
ٌ ‫َﻫ َﺬا َد ْر‬
ٌ ‫س َﺳ‬
D.
ِ ‫ﻫ َﺬا اﻟ ﱠﺪر‬
َ
ٌ‫س ﻗَﺼﲑ‬
ُْ
E. ........... ‫ﺐ‬
َ ‫س‬
ٌ ‫ﺻ ْﻌ‬
ٌ ‫َﻫ َﺬا َد ْر‬
‫ ﻻَ ﳝَْﻠِ ُﻜﻮ َن َﺣ ﱠﻖ‬......
...................... ‫اﻟْ ُﻤ ْﺬﻧِﺒُﻮ َن‬
....................... ‫ﻮص‬
ُ ‫اَﻟﻠﱡ‬
ُ ‫ﺼ‬
...................... ‫اﻟْ ُﻤﺘَ َﺴ ﱢﻮﻟُﻮ َن‬
....................... ‫اﻟْ ُﻤﺘَﻄَﱢﻔﻠُﻮ َن‬
7. Translate into Arabic: Usman joined
the army after his secondary education
D. ..........
ِ ِ‫ ﺑـﻌ َﺪ ﺗَـﻌﻠ‬........ ‫ْاﳔَﺮ َط ﻋﺜْﻤﺎ ُن ِﰲ‬
‫ي‬
‫ﻴﻤ ِﻪ اﻟﺜﱠﺎﻧَ ِﻮ ﱢ‬
ْ َْ
َُ َ
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
A.
B.
C.
D.
ِ ‫اﳉَْﻴ‬
.......................... ‫ﺶ‬
ْ
A.
........................... ‫اﻟﺸ ْﱡﺮﻃَِﺔ‬
B.
........................... ‫ﻀ ِﺎء‬
َ ‫اﻟْ َﻘ‬
C.
......................... ِ‫اﻟْ ُﻤ َﺤ َﺎﻣﺎة‬
D.
8. Translate into Arabic: The strike is over
E.
‫اب‬
ْ ‫ اْ ِﻹ‬............
ُ ‫ﺿَﺮ‬
A. ............................ ‫ﺸﺮ‬
َ َ َ‫اﻧﺘ‬
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
............................. ‫اﻧْـ َﻘ َﺸَﺮ‬
C.
............................ ‫ﻀﻰ‬
َ ‫اﻧْـ َﻘ‬
D.
9. Translate into Arabic: I appreciate your
A.
B.
ِ
ِ ‫ﺻﺪﻳﻘﻪ‬
........... ‫أﻣﺲ‬
‫ﺐ َإﱃ‬
َ ‫ذَ َﻫ‬
ِ ‫َذﻫﺐ َإﱃ‬
ِ ‫زﻣﻴﻠﻪ‬
............ ‫أﻣﺲ‬
َ َ
ِ ‫ﺐ إِ َﱃ ُﻣ َﺪ ﱢرِﺳ ِﻪ أ َْﻣ‬
.......... ‫ﺲ‬
َ ‫ذَ َﻫ‬
ِ ‫ﺐ َإﱃ َﺣﺒِﻴﺒِ ِﻪ أ َْﻣ‬
............ ‫ﺲ‬
َ ‫َذ َﻫ‬
12. Translate into Arabic: The teachers are
absent today
........................... ‫اِﻧْ َﻜ َﺴَﺮ‬
effort. ......
ِ ‫ﺐ إﱃ ﻃَﺒِﻴﺒِ ِﻪ ْأﻣ‬
......... ‫ﺲ‬
َ ‫َذ َﻫ‬
‫ﱢر‬
ُ ‫أﻗﺪ‬
E.
........................ ‫ﻮد َك‬
َ ‫َْﳎ ُﻬ‬
......................... ‫ِﺟ َﻬ َﺎد َك‬
ِ ‫اَﻟْﻤﻌﻠﱢﻤﻮ َن ﺣ‬
......... ‫ﺎﺿ ُﺮو َن اﻟْﻴَـ ْﻮَم‬
َ ُ َُ
............. ‫س َﻏﺎﺋِﺐ اﻟْﻴَـ ْﻮَم‬
ُ ‫اَﻟْ ُﻤ َﺪ ﱢر‬
............... ‫ﺎﺋﺐ اﻟْﻴَـ ْﻮَم‬
ٌ ‫اَﻟْ ُﻤ َﻌﻠﱢ ُﻢ َﻏ‬
.......... ‫اﻟْ ُﻤ َﺪ ﱢر ُﺳﻮ َن َﻏﺎﺋِﺒُﻮ َن اﻟْﻴَـ ْﻮَم‬
ِ ‫ﺎن ﺣ‬
ِ
......... ‫ﺎﺿَﺮ ِان اﻟْﻴَـ ْﻮَم‬
َ ‫اﻟْ ُﻤ َﺪ ﱢر َﺳ‬
13. Whatever Allah desires shall come to
pass
A.
.................. ‫إن ﺷﺎء اﷲ ﻛﺎن‬
C.
........................ ‫ﻚ‬
َ ‫ﺎﺣ‬
َ َ‫َﳒ‬
B.
D.
........................ ‫ﻚ‬
َ َ‫ﺻ َﻮاﺑ‬
َ
.................. ‫ﻣﺎ ﺷﺎء اﷲ ﻛﺎن‬
C.
................. ‫إذا أراد اﷲ ﻳﻜﻮن‬
D.
............ ...... ‫إن ﻛﺎن اﷲ ﻛﺎن‬
10. Translate into Arabic: The king's
daughter is a thorn in his flesh.
ِ ِ‫ﺑﻨﺖ اﻟْﻤﻠ‬
..... ‫ﻚ ﻗَ َﺬى ِﰲ‬
َ ُ
A.
B.
C.
D.
14. Allah does not love evil-doers
............................. ‫ﻋﻴﻨِ ِﻪ‬
ْ
............................ ‫َﳊْ ِﻤ ِﻪ‬
.......................... ‫ِﺟ ْﺴ ِﻤ ِﻪ‬
............................. ‫َد ِﻣ ِﻪ‬
11. Translate into Arabic: He went to his
doctor yesterday.
2
A.
...................... ‫اﻟﺴﺎرﻗﲔ‬
B.
....................... ‫اﻟﻜﺎﻓﺮﻳﻦ‬
C.
....................... ‫اﻟﻜﺎذﺑﲔ‬
D.
...................... ‫اﻟﻈّﺎﻟِﻤﲔ‬
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
‫اﻟﻄﺎﻟﺐ رﺳﺎﻟﺔ إﱃ واﻟﺪﻩ أﻣﺲ‬......
15. The chairman is free between nine and
ten o’clock
ِ ‫ﱠﺎﺳﻌ ِﺔ واْﻟﻌ‬
ِ ِ ‫ ﺑـﲔ اﻟ ﱠﺴﺎﻋﺘَـ‬... ‫اَﻟﱠﺮﺋِﻴﺲ‬
.ِ‫ﺎﺷَﺮة‬
َْ
َ َْ ُ
َ َ َ ‫ﲔ اﻟﺘ‬
A.
....................... ‫ﺐ‬
ُ ُ‫ﻳَﻜْﺘ‬
A.
B.
......................... ‫ﺐ‬
َ َ‫َﻛﺘ‬
C.
........................ ‫ﺐ‬
ُ ُ‫ﺗَﻜْﺘ‬
........................ ‫ﺐ‬
ُ ُ‫ﻧَﻜْﺘ‬
B.
............................. ‫ُﺣﱞﺮ‬
............................ ٌ‫ﺑَِﺮيء‬
C.
ِ
............................ ‫ﻴﻖ‬
ٌ ‫ﻃَﻠ‬
D.
D.
......................... ٌ‫ُﻣﺘَـ َﻔﱢﺮغ‬
19. Give the option which best completes
the English translation of the Arabic
sentence:
E. Necessity is the mother of
Ibrahim is a……
invention.
A. Popular herbalist.
16. Necessity is the mother of invention.
B. Medical doctor.
...... ‫ﺎﺟﺔُ أُﱡم‬
َ َ‫اَ ْﳊ‬
A.
B.
C.
D.
C. Competent surgeon.
....................... ‫اْ ِﻹ ْﺧِ َﱰ ِاع‬
D. Medical consultant
20. Give the option which best completes
the English translation of the Arabic
ِ ‫اْ ِﻹﺣﺘِ َﻔ‬
...................... ‫ﺎظ‬
ْ
sentence:
....................... ‫اْ ِﻹﻓْﺘِ َﻜﺎ ِر‬
B.
C.
D.
E.
‫ﺖ ﺑـَ ْﺮﻗِﻴﱠﺔً ِﻣ ْﻦ أ َِﺧﻲ‬
ُ ‫اﺳﺘَـﻠَ ْﻤ‬
ْ
I received a …… from my brother
...................... ‫اْ ِﻹ ْﺷِ َﱰ ِاك‬
A. pleasant
B. message
17. Translate into Arabic: The students
study so that they may succeed in the
examinations.
A.
ِ ِ
ِ
‫ﱯ‬
‫ﻴﻢ ُﻣ ْﺴﺘَ َﺸ ٌﺎر ﻃ ﱢﱞ‬
ُ ‫إﺑْـَﺮاﻫ‬
C. Phone call
D. Telegram
ِ ‫ﻳ ْﺪرس اﻟﻄﱡﻼﱠب ﻟِ َﻜﻲ ﻳﺄْﺧ ُﺬو اْﻻﻣﺘِﺤ‬
‫ﺎن‬
ُ َْ ُ
َ ْ
َُُ
21. Give the option which best completes
the English translation of the Arabic
ِ
‫ﻻﻣﺘِ َﺤﺎن‬
ْ ْ‫س اﻟْ ُﻤ َﺪ ﱢر ُﺳﻮ َن ﻟ َﻜ ْﻲ ﻳـَْﻨ َﺠ ُﺤﻮا ِﰲ ا‬
ُ ‫ﻳَ ْﺪ ُر‬
sentence. ‫اْﻷُﻓُ ِﻖ‬
ِ ‫ﻳ ْﺪرس اﻟﻄﱡﻼَب ﻟِ َﻜﻲ ﻳـْﻨﺠﺤﻮا ِﰲ اْﻻﻣﺘِﺤ‬
‫ﺎن‬
َ ْ
َُ َْ ُ
َُُ
‫وﺧﺎ ُﻣ ْﻠﺘَ ِﻬﺒًﺎ ِﰲ‬
ً ‫ﺻ ُﺎر‬
َ ‫َرأَﻳْـﻨَﺎ‬
We saw a blazing …... on the horizon
A. Jet
ِ
‫ﻻﻣﺘِ َﺤﺎن‬
ْ ْ‫س اﻟْ ُﻤ َﻌﻠّ ُﻢ ﻟ َﻜ ْﻲ ﻳـَْﻨ َﺠ َﺢ ِﰲ ا‬
ُ ‫ﻳَ ْﺪ ُر‬
B. Star
ِِ
‫ﻻﻣﺘِ َﺤﺎن‬
ْ ْ‫س َوﻟَ َﺪان ﻟ َﻜ ْﻲ ﻳـَْﻨ َﺠ َﺤﺎ ِﰲ ا‬
ُ ‫ﻳَ ْﺪ ُر‬
C. Rocket
D. Bomb
18. Indicate the correct option for the
sentences.
3
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
22. Give the option which best completes
the English translation of the Arabic
sentence:
B. I have a book in which there is a
beautiful picture.
C. I have a magazine in which there is a
beautiful picture.
ِ
ِ َ‫ت ا ْﳊ ُﻜﻮﻣﺔُ اﻟْﻤﻨ‬
‫ﺎﻃ َﻖ اﻟﱢﺮ ِﻳﻔﻴﱠﺔ ﺑِﺎﻟْ َﻜ ْﻬَﺮﺑَ ِﺎء‬
َ َ ُ ‫َزﱠوَد‬
D. I have a book in which there is an
ugly picture.
Government supplied electricity to…..
A. Selected territories
E. I have a magazine in which there is
an interesting story.
B. Local headquarters
26. Translated into English means
C. Major villages
‫ﻆ ُﻣﺒَ ﱢﻜًﺮا؟‬
َ ‫َﻣ ْﻦ ﻧَ َﺎم ُﻣﺒَ ﱢﻜًﺮا اِ ْﺳﺘَـْﻴـ َﻘ‬
D. Rural areas
23. Give the correct English translation of
the Arabic sentence.
A. Whoever sleeps late wakes up late
ِْ
ِ ‫ﺼﺎ ُن أَ ْﻛﺒَـﺮ ِﻣﻦ اﻟْ َﻜ ْﻠ‬
‫ﺐ‬
َ ‫اﳊ‬
َ ُ
B. Whoever buys a cow sells a cow.
B. The dog is bigger than the cat.
D. Whoever sleeps early wakes up
early?
C. Whoever arrives on time departs on
time.
A. The cow is bigger than the cat.
C. The horse is bigger than the dog.
E. Whoever buys a sheep sells a sheep
D. The lion is bigger than the dog.
27. Translate into English.
E. The elephant is bigger than the dog.
‫ﺐ َﻛﺒِﲑٌ؟‬
ْ ‫أ ََﻣ َﺎم اﻟْ َﻘ‬
ٌ َ‫ﺼ ِﺮ َﻣﻜْﺘ‬
24. Translate into English
A. There is a market in front of the
palace.
ِ ‫ﻫﻞ ﺗَـﺘَـﻌﻠﱠﻢ اﻟْﻌﻠُﻮم اﻟﱢﺮﻳ‬
‫اﳉَ ِﺎﻣ َﻌ ِﺔ؟‬
ْ ‫ﺎﺿﻴَ ِﺔ ِﰲ‬
َ َ ُ َُ َْ
A. Do you study science in the society?
B. There is a police station in front of
the palace.
B. Will you read religion sciences in the
Mosque?
C. There is a large hall in front of the
palace.
C. Do you learn mathematics in the
university?
D. There is a big office in front of the
palace.
D. Does she know general knowledge
in the school?
E. There is a field in front of the palace.
E. Does she study science or games on
Jumat day?
28. Translate into English
‫اﳊَ ْﻔﻠِ ِﺔ؟‬
ْ ‫ﺎك إِ َﱃ‬
َ ‫َﻣ ْﻦ َد َﻋ‬
A. Who organized the party?
25. Translate into English
ِ ‫ِﻋْﻨ ِﺪي ﻛِﺘَﺎب‬
َِ ٌ‫ﻓﻴﻪ ﺻﻮرة‬
‫ﲨﻴﻠَﺔٌ؟‬
ٌ
َ
B. Who invited you to the party?
C. Whom did you see at the party?
A. I have a book in which there is an
interesting story.
D. Who played at the party?
E. Where was the party held?
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
29. Translate into English
answer to each of the five questions (33
to 37) that follow the passage.
‫ﺎل ﻓَﻼﱠ ُﺣﻮ َن؟‬
ُ ‫َﻫ ُﺆﻻَِء اﻟﱢﺮ َﺟ‬
ِ ِ ِِ ِ
.‫ﻳﺢ ِﰲ َﻣ ِﺪﻳﻨَ ِﺔ إِﺑَ َﺎد ْن‬
ٌ ‫ﻟ َﻮاﻟﺪ َﻋْﺒﺪ اﷲ ﺑَـْﻴ‬
ٌ ‫ﺖ َﻛﺒِﲑٌ َﻣ ِﺮ‬
ِ‫ﻴﺪة‬
َ ِ‫ اﻟْﺒَﻌ‬،‫ﺖ ِﰲ إِ ْﺣ َﺪى اْﻷ ََﻣﺎﻛِ ِﻦ ا ْﳍَ ِﺎد ِﺋﺔ‬
ُ ‫ﻳَـ َﻘ ُﻊ اﻟْﺒَـْﻴ‬
ِ ِ ِ ‫ﻋﻦ ﺻﺨ‬
ِ ِ َ ‫ﺿ ْﻮ‬
‫ﺖ‬
َ ‫ﺐ اﻟْ َﻤﺪﻳﻨَﺔ َو‬
ْ َ َْ
ُ ‫ﲏ َﻫ َﺬا اﻟْﺒَـْﻴ‬
َ ُ‫ ﺑ‬.‫ﺿﺎﺋ َﻬﺎ‬
ٍ ‫ﻣْﻨ ُﺬ ﺳﺒ ِﻊ ﺳﻨَـﻮ‬
‫ات َوﻳَـﺘَ َﻜ ﱠﻮ ُن ِﻣ ْﻦ َد ْوَرﻳْﻦ َوﻓِ ِﻴﻪ أ َْرﺑَ ُﻊ‬
َ َ َْ ُ
ٍ ‫ﻏُﺮ‬
ِ ‫ ﺗُﻮﺟ ُﺪ وراء اﻟْﺒـﻴ‬.‫ف‬
‫ﺖ َﺣ ِﺪﻳ َﻘﺔُ َو ِاﺳ َﻌﺔٌ ﻓِ َﻴﻬﺎ‬
َْ َ ََ َ
َ
ْ
ٌ‫ﻮر َواْﻷَ ْﺷ َﺠ ُﺎر اﻟْ ُﻤﺜْ ِﻤَﺮةُ َوأ ََﻣ َﺎﻣﻪُ أَﻧْـ َﻮاعٌ ﳐُْﺘَﻠِ َﻔﺔ‬
ُ ُ‫اﳋ‬
ُ‫ﻀ‬
.‫ِﻣ َﻦ اﻟﱡﺰُﻫﻮِر‬
A. These men are workers.
B. These men are teachers.
C. These men are carpenters.
D. These men are farmers.
E. These men are traders.
30. Translate the underlined word into
ِ
English‫ﻣﺸﻬﻮر‬
ٌ‫َﻋﺎﱂ‬
ٌ
‫ﻋﻠﻲ‬
‫ﱡ‬
A. trader
B. learned man
C. caliph
33.
D. governor
........... ‫ﻳـَ َﻘ ُﻊ اﻟْﺒَـْﻴﺖ ﰱ ﻣﻜﺎن‬
31. Translate the underlined word into
English
ِ
‫ﻴﺐ؟‬
ٌ ‫ﻫﻞ ﻫﻮ ﻃﺒ‬
A. a doctor
B. a farmer
A.
............... ‫َﺣﺎ ﱢر‬
B.
‫َﺟ ﱢ‬
.............. ‫ﺎف‬
C.
C. an engineer
D. a teacher
D.
32. Indicate the correct option for this
sentence.
E.
ِِ
‫ﺎل "ﻻَ" ﻗَ ﱡ‬
َ َ‫َﻣﺎ ﻗ‬
َ ‫ﻂ إِﻻﱠ ِﰲ ﺗَ َﺸ ﱡﻬﺪﻩ ﻟَ ْﻮ ﻻَ اﻟﺘ‬
ْ َ‫ﱠﺸ ﱡﻬ ُﺪ َﻛﺎﻧ‬
ُ‫ﺖ ﻻَُؤﻩ‬
ِ ‫اﳊ ِﺪ‬
ِ
......... ‫ﻳﺚ‬
َْ .... ‫ﻧـَ َﻌ ُﻢ َوَرَد َﻫ َﺬا اﻟْﺒَـْﻴﺖ ﰲ اﻟْ َﻌ ْﺼ ِﺮ‬
34.
A. ......................
D.
................ ‫ﺑَﺎ ِرٍد‬
.............. ‫َﻫ ِﺎدئ‬
................ ‫َﻋ ٍﺎل‬
ِ
‫ﺖ؟‬
ُ ‫ﲏ اﻟْﺒَـْﻴ‬
َ ُ‫َﻣ َﱴ ﺑ‬
.............. ‫اﻟﺒﻴﺖ ﻣﻨ ُﺬ‬
ُ ‫ﺑﲏ‬
ِ ‫ا ْﳊ ِﺪ‬
‫ﻳﺚ‬
َ
‫ي‬
‫اْﻷ ََﻣ ِﻮ ﱢ‬
ِِ ْ
...................... ‫ﻲ‬
‫اﳉَﺎﻫﻠ ﱢ‬
ِ
......................... ‫ﻲ‬
‫اﻟﺘـ ْﱡﺮﻛ ﱢ‬
B. .......................
C.
‫ﺖ َواﻟِ ِﺪ َﻋْﺒﺪ اﷲ‬
ُ ‫أﻳﻦ ﻳـَ َﻘ ُﻊ ﺑـَْﻴ‬
َ
A.
............. ‫ﺳﺒﻌﺔ أﺳﺎﺑﻴﻊ‬
B.
............. ‫ﺗﺴﻊ ﺳﻨﻮات‬
C.
.............. ‫ﺳﺒﻌﺔ أﺷﻬﺮ‬
D. ..............
Read the following passage carefully,
and then select the most appropriate
E.
5
‫أرﺑﻊ ﺳﻨﻮات‬
............. ‫ﺳﺒﻊ ﺳﻨﻮات‬
‫‪UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.‬‬
‫‪POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS‬‬
‫‪ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE‬‬
‫ﺐ ‪.............................‬‬
‫َﻛﺘَ َ‬
‫ﺐ ‪.............................‬‬
‫ﺗَﻜْﺘُ ُ‬
‫ﺐ ‪.............................‬‬
‫ﻧَﻜْﺘُ ُ‬
‫ﺖ ِﻣﻦ ‪................‬‬
‫ﻳـَﺘَ َﻜ ﱠﻮ ُن اﻟﺒَـْﻴ ُ‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫دور‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫َد ْوَرﻳ ِﻦ‬
‫ﻏﺪا‪.‬‬
‫س ً‬
‫‪ ........‬اﻟْﻤﺪ ﱢر ُ‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫ﻗﺮﻳﺐ ﻣﻦ‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫َر ِاﺟ ْﻊ ‪...................‬‬
‫اﺟ َﻊ ‪...................‬‬
‫ﺗَـَﺮ َ‬
‫ِﰱ َﺣ ِﺪﻳ َﻘﺔ اﻟﻔﻨﺪق‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪A...................‬‬
‫أﻗْ َﻤ ًﺎرا‪.............‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫ﻗَ َﻤًﺮا‪...............‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫اﻟْ َﻤ ْﻮُز‬
‫اﻷ ْﺷ َﺠ ُﺎر‬
‫ﺎل‬
‫اﻟْ ُﱪﺗـُ َﻘ ُ‬
‫ﺎح‬
‫اﻟﺘﱡـ َﻔ ُ‬
‫‪37.‬‬
‫‪B. ...............‬‬
‫‪C. ................‬‬
‫ﻮر ‪...............‬‬
‫اﻟﱡﺰُﻫ ُ‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪E. .................‬‬
‫‪38. Indicate the correct option for the‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪sentence .‬‬
‫أَﻗْ َﻤﺎ ٍر‪D. ..............‬‬
‫ﱠِ‬
‫ﺐ ِر َﺳﺎﻟَﺔً إِ َﱃ َواﻟِ ِﺪ ِﻩ أ َْﻣ ِ‬
‫ﺲ‪.‬‬
‫‪ ........‬اﻟﻄﺎﻟ ُ‬
‫‪42. Indicate the correct option for the‬‬
‫اْﻷُﱠﻣﻬﺎت ‪ ......‬اْ ِ‬
‫ﺎع‬
‫ﻹﺟﺘ َﻤ َ‬
‫َ ُ‬
‫ْ‬
‫‪E. .............‬‬
‫ﻳﻮﺟ ُﺪ أَﻣﺎم اﻟْﺒـﻴ ِ‬
‫ﺖ ‪.........‬‬
‫ُ َ َ َ َْ‬
‫‪sentence‬‬
‫ﻗَ َﻤٌﺮ‪................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﻣﺬا ﻳﻮﺟ ُﺪ أﻣﺎم اﻟْﺒـﻴ ِ‬
‫ﺖ؟‬
‫ُ َ َ َ َْ‬
‫‪41. Indicate the correct option for the‬‬
‫وس ‪......‬‬
‫َﻛﺄَ ﱠن اﻟْ َﻌ ُﺮ َ‬
‫اﻟﺴﻮق‪B. ...............‬‬
‫ﻳﺐ ِﻣ َﻦ‬
‫ﻗَ ِﺮ ٌ‬
‫ﻗَ ِﺮﻳﺐ ِﻣﻦ ﻣ َﻜ ِ‬
‫ﺿ ِﺎء‪.....‬‬
‫ﺎن اﻟﻀ ْﱠﻮ َ‬
‫ٌ ََ‬
‫‪sentence‬‬
‫اﺟ َﻊ ‪...................‬‬
‫َر َ‬
‫ﻳـَُﺮ ِاﺟ ُﻊ ‪...................‬‬
‫‪36.‬‬
‫اﻟْﻤﻄَ ِﺮ‪C. ...............‬‬
‫‪40. Indicate the correct option for the‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺐ‪.‬‬
‫وﺳ َ‬
‫‪ُ ........‬د ُر َ‬
‫ﻚ‪ ،‬ﻳَﺎ ﻃَﺎﻟ ُ‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﻏُ ْﺮﻓٍَﺔ َوَﻣﻄْﺒَ ٍﺦ‬
‫ﺖ واﻟِ ِﺪ َﻋْﺒ ِﺪ اﷲِ ‪..............‬‬
‫ﺑـَْﻴ ُ‬
‫ِ ِ‬
‫ﻦ اﻟﺴﻮق ‪A................‬‬
‫ﺑَﻌﻴ ٌﺪ ﻣ َ‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫َﺳﺘُ َﺴﺎﻓُِﺮ ‪.......‬‬
‫ﺗُ َﺴﺎﻓُِﺮ ‪........‬‬
‫‪C. ...................‬‬
‫‪E. ..................‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫َﺳﺎﻓَـَﺮ ‪.........‬‬
‫‪B. ........................‬‬
‫َﻏﺮﻓَـﺘَـ ْ ِ‬
‫ﲔ ‪.....................‬‬
‫ْ‬
‫‪sentence‬‬
‫َﺳﻴُ َﺴﺎﻓُِﺮ‪........‬‬
‫‪A..........................‬‬
‫ﲬَْ َﺴ ِﺔ ْأد َوا ٍر‬
‫‪39. Indicate the correct option for the‬‬
‫‪35.‬‬
‫ﺐ ‪............................‬‬
‫ﻳَﻜْﺘُ ُ‬
‫‪sentence‬‬
‫‪6‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
A.
B.
C.
D.
ِ ‫ﺣﻀﺮ‬
.................... ‫ت‬
ََ َ
46. Indicate the correct option for the
sentence
...................... ‫ﻀَﺮﺗَﺎ‬
َ ‫َﺣ‬
.A
......................... ‫ﻀ ْﺮ َن‬
َ ‫َﺣ‬
B.
........................ ‫ﻀ ُﺮوا‬
َ ‫َﺣ‬
C.
43. Indicate the correct option for the
sentence
A.
B.
C.
D.
D.
ِ
.‫اﻟﻜﺘﺎب‬
‫ ﻣﻦ‬.... ‫اﻟﻌﺒﺎرةُ ِﰲ‬
47.
..................... ‫اﻷوِل‬
‫ﺑﺎب ﱠ‬
ِ ‫اﻟْﺒ‬
..................... ‫ﺎب اْﻷ ﱠَوِل‬
َ
ِ
...................... ‫ُوﱃ‬
َ ‫ﺑﺎب اْﻷ‬
B.
44. Indicate the correct option for the
ِ ْ ‫أﻳﺖ ﻫ‬
ِ
‫ﰲ اﻟ ﱠﺴﻴﱠ َﺎرِة‬..........
‫ﺎﺗﲔ‬
ُ ‫ر‬
ِ َ‫اﻟﻄﱠﺎﻟِﺒﺘ‬
A. ...................... ‫ﺎن‬
َ
ِ ْ ‫اﻟﻄﱠﺎﻟِﺒَﺘَـ‬
B. .......................... ‫ﲔ‬
sentence
C.
D.
........................... ِ‫ﺛَـ ْﺮَوة‬
ِ
............................ ‫ﻴﻢ‬
َ ‫ﺗَـ ْﻌﻠ‬
C.
........................... ‫ِﺻ ﱠﺤ ِﺔ‬
D.
........................... ‫أ َْﻣ ِﻦ‬
48. Indicate the correct option for the
ِ
sentence ...... ‫ﺢ‬
ْ َ‫اﻟْ َﻮاﺣ َﺪةُ ﻻَ ﺗ‬
ُ ُ‫ﺼﻠ‬
A..........................
ِ ْ ‫ﻃَﺎﻟِﺒَﺘَـ‬
........................... ‫ﲔ‬
B.
D.
‫اﻟﻴﻮم؟‬
َ ‫ ﻗﺮ‬.......... ‫َﻛ ْﻢ‬
َ ‫أت‬
........................ ‫ﻛِﺘَﺎﺑًﺎ‬
sentence
‫اﻟْﻴَ ُﺪ‬
‫ﻟﻸَ ْﻛ ِﻞ‬
...................... ‫ﻟِْﻠ ِﻜﺘَﺎﺑَِﺔ‬
C. ........................
ِ َ‫ﻃَﺎﻟِﺒﺘ‬
.......................... ‫ﺎن‬
َ
45. Indicate the correct option for the
A.
Indicate the correct option for the
ِ
sentence .‫ﱠوﻟَ ِﺔ‬
ٌ ُ‫ﻣﺴﺌ‬
ْ ‫ اﻟﺪ‬...‫ﻮل َﻋ ْﻦ‬
ْ ‫َوزﻳ ُﺮ اﻟ ﱢﺪﻓَ ِﺎع‬
A.
ِ ‫اﻟْﺒ‬
.................... ‫ُوﱃ‬
َ ‫ﺎب اﻷ‬
َ
.... ‫ﺎﺟﺎ ﻋﻠﻰ‬
ُ ‫أﺿﺮب اﻟْﻌ ﱠﻤ‬
َ
ً ‫اﺣﺘﺠ‬
َ ‫ﺎل‬
ِ ِ‫ﺿﺂﻟَِﺔ اﻟﱠﺮواﺗ‬
.............. ‫ﺐ‬
َ
َ
.................. ِ‫اﳊََﺮ َارة‬
ْ ِ‫ِﺷﺪﱠة‬
ِ ‫َﻛﺜْـﺮِة اْﻷ َْﻋ‬
................... ‫ﻤﺎل‬
َ
.................... ‫ﻹﻫﺘِ َﻤ ِﺎم‬
ْ ْ‫َﻋ َﺪِم ا‬
‫ﱠﺼ ِﻔ ِﻴﻖ‬
ْ ‫ﻟﻠﺘ‬
......................... ‫ﻟﻠﺘـ ْﱠﻮِدﻳ ِﻊ‬
49. Indicate the correct one among the
options given for each of the
following questions
ِ َ‫َﻛﺎﻧ‬
.... ُ‫ﺖ اْﻷ َِﻣ َﲑة‬
B.
ِ
....................... ‫ﺎب‬
ٌ َ‫ﻛﺘ‬
A.
C.
....................... ‫ﺐ‬
ٌ ُ‫ُﻛﺘ‬
B.
................. ٌ‫ﻛِ ِﺮﱘ‬
C.
……………..‫ﻛﺮﳝﺘَﺎن‬
D.
........................ ‫ُﻛﺘُﺒًﺎ‬
7
............ ً‫ﻛﺮﳝﺔ‬
‫‪UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.‬‬
‫‪POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS‬‬
‫‪ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﻴﺤﺘَ ِ‬
‫ﲔ‬
‫ﻓَﺼ َ‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺼﻴﺤﺘَ ِ‬
‫ﺎن‬
‫ﻓَ َ‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫ﻟِﺘَْﺒ َﻖ ‪...............‬‬
‫ﻟِﻴَْﺒـ َﻘﻰ ‪.....................‬‬
‫ﻟِﺘَْﺒـ َﻘﻰ ‪.....................‬‬
‫ﻛﺮﻣﺎء‪………………..‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﻤﺠﺮم ‪......‬‬
‫ب اﻟْ ُ‬
‫ﻛ َﺬ َ‬
‫ﻋﻠﻰ ِ‬
‫اﳊ ِ‬
‫ﻴﺎة ﻟِﻴَْﺒ َﻖ ‪.............‬‬
‫ﻗﻴﺪ ْ‬
‫ﻛﺮﳝﺔٌ‬
‫َُ‬
‫"ﺳﺎﻛِ ٍﻦ"‬
‫ﲨَْ ُﻊ َ‬
‫‪54.‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫َﺳ َﻜ ٌﻦ ‪............................‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﻜﲔ ‪...........................‬‬
‫ﻣ ْﺴ ٌ‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫ُﺳ ﱠﻜﺎ ٌن ‪........................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﺐ‬
‫ُﻣ ِﻜ ﱞ‬
‫ﻣِ‬
‫ﻜﺒﱠﺔٌ ‪B. ..............‬‬
‫ُ‬
‫ﺐ ‪C. ..............‬‬
‫ُﻣ ِﻜ ﱟ‬
‫‪D. .........Ƣč‬‬
‫‪ƦǰÊǷÉ‬‬
‫َﺳﻠﱠ َﻢ اﻟْ َﻤﺎ ﱡر ﻋﻠﻰ ‪......‬‬
‫اﳉَﺎﻟِﺲ ‪A..................‬‬
‫ْ ُ‬
‫‪55.‬‬
‫َﻋْﻴـﻨَـ ْ ِ‬
‫ﲔ‬
‫َﻋْﻴـﻨَﺎ‬
‫‪51.‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺼ ُﻔﻪُ‪A.‬‬
‫ﻧْ‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺼ َﻔﻪُ‪B.‬‬
‫ﻧْ‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺼ َﻔ َﻬﺎ ‪C.‬‬
‫ﻧْ‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺼ ُﻔ َﻬﺎ‬
‫ﻧْ‬
‫‪56.‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫‪52.‬‬
‫اَﻟ ﱠﺴﻴﱢ َﺪات ‪ .....‬إِ َﱃ ِزﻓَ ٍ‬
‫ﺎف‬
‫ُ‬
‫ﺐ‬
‫ﺗَ ْﺬ َﻫ ُ‬
‫ﱭ‬
‫ﻳَ ْﺬ َﻫ ْ َ‬
‫‪C. ..............‬‬
‫ﲔ‬
‫ﺗَ ْﺬ َﻫﺒِ َ‬
‫‪57.‬‬
‫ﻳَ ْﺬ َﻫﺒُﻮ َن‬
‫‪A........................‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪53. Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫‪B. .......................‬‬
‫أت ِر َﺳﺎﻟَﺘَـ ْ ِ‬
‫ﲔ ‪ ِ......‬أﻟْ َﻔﺎﻇُ ُﻬ َﻤﺎ‬
‫ﻗَـَﺮ ُ‬
‫‪C. .........................‬‬
‫َﻋْﻴ ِﲏ ‪.......................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﺖ اﻟْﻤﺮأَةُ ﻋﺼﲑ ﺑﺮ ٍ‬
‫َﺷ ِﺮﺑ ِ‬
‫‪......‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺗﻘﺎﻟﺔ‬
‫َ‬
‫ْ َََ‬
‫‪B. ..............‬‬
‫اﳉَﺎﻟِ ُﺴﻮ َن ‪...........‬‬
‫ْ‬
‫‪ ......‬اﻟْ َﻔﺘَﺎةِ َزْرﻗَ َﺎو ِان‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﻋﻴـﻨَ ِ‬
‫ﺎن‬
‫َْ‬
‫‪50. Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫ﻣﺴ َﻜﻨَﺔٌ ……‪.....................‬‬
‫ْ‬
‫‪A.............‬‬
‫اﳉَﺎﻟِ ُﺴﻮ َن‬
‫ْ‬
‫‪E.‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫َﻣﺎ َز َال اﻟﺸْﱠﻴ ُﺦ ‪َ ......‬ﻋﻠَﻰ اﻟﺘﱠ ْﺪ ِر ِ‬
‫ﻳﺲ‬
‫اﳉَﺎﻟِ َﺴﺎن‬
‫ْ‬
‫‪D.............‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﻴﺤﺔٌ‬
‫ﻓَﺼ َ‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﻴﺤﺔً‬
‫ﻓَﺼ َ‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪58. Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫‪8‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.‬‬
‫‪POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS‬‬
‫‪ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ِ ِ‬
‫ﻳﺲ‬
‫ﻗَ َ‬
‫ﻀْﻴ ُ‬
‫ﺖ أﻳﱠ َﺎم اﻟْﻌُﻄْﻠَﺔ ‪ ....‬ﰲ ﺑَﺎر َ‬
‫ﻀ َﻬﺎ ‪A. ..................‬‬
‫ْﺑﻌ َ‬
‫‪62. Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺑﺈﺧﻼَ ِﺻ ِﻪ‬
‫ﻻ ﺗـُ َﻌﺎﺷ ْﺮ إﻻﱠ ‪ ......‬ﺗَﺜ ُﻖ ْ‬
‫ﱠار ِان‬
‫اَﻟﺪ َ‬
‫اﻟﱠِﱵ ‪....................‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫ﱠِ‬
‫ﻳﻦ ‪...................‬‬
‫اﻟﺬ َ‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫اﻟﱠ ِﺬي ‪...................‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫اﻟﻼﱠِﰐ ‪...................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﻀﻪُ ‪..................‬‬
‫ﺑـَ ْﻌ َ‬
‫ﺑـﻌ ِ‬
‫ﻀ َﻬﺎ ‪.................‬‬
‫َْ‬
‫ﻀﻪُ ‪...................‬‬
‫ﺑـَ ْﻌ َ‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪59. Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫ﻳﺾ ‪ .......‬ﺗَـﻨَ ُﺎوِل اﻟﻄﱠ َﻌ ِﺎم‬
‫ﺐ اﻟْ َﻤ ِﺮ ُ‬
‫ﻳـَ ْﺮ َﻏ ُ‬
‫‪63. Indicate the correct option......‬‬
‫‪A......................‬‬
‫إِ َﱃ ‪.......................‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B. ...................‬‬
‫ﻓَﺎ ِر َﻏﺔٌ ‪C. ......................‬‬
‫ِﻣ ْﻦ ‪....................‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫َﻣ َﻊ ‪.......................‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫َﻋ ْﻦ ‪......................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﻓَﺎ ِرغٌ‬
‫ﻓَﺎ ِر َﻏ ِ‬
‫ﺎن‬
‫ﻓَﺎ ِر َﻏﺘَ ِ‬
‫ﺎن ‪.................‬‬
‫‪Indicate the correct one among the‬‬
‫‪options given for each of the‬‬
‫‪following questions‬‬
‫ﺎﻋﺪةٍ ‪...................‬‬
‫ُﻣ َﺴ َ‬
‫ات ‪.................‬‬
‫ﺎﻋ َﺪ ٌ‬
‫ُﻣ َﺴ َ‬
‫ﻣﺴﺎﻋ َﺪﺗَ ِ‬
‫ﺎن ‪..................‬‬
‫َُ َ‬
‫ﺎﻋ َﺪ ًة ‪....................‬‬
‫ُﻣ َﺴ َ‬
‫ﺗَـْﻨ َﺪ ُم ‪.....................‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫ﻳـَْﻨ َﺪ َم‪......................‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫ﻳـَْﻨ َﺪ ُم ‪.....................‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫ﺗَـْﻨ َﺪ ْم ‪....................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺴ ِﺮﻳﻌﺔَ ‪....................‬‬
‫‪64.‬‬
‫‪61. Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫اَﻟْﻐَﺮض اﻟﱠﺮﺋِ ِ‬
‫ﻴﺴ ﱡﻲ ِﻣ ْﻦ ﺗَـ َﻌﻠﱡ ِﻢ اﻟﻠﱡﻐَ ِﺔ اﻟْ َﻌَﺮﺑِﻴﱠ ِﺔ ِﰲ ﻧـَْﻴ ِﺠ ِﲑﻳَﺎ‬
‫َ ُ‬
‫ﻻﺳﺘِ ْﻌ َﻤﺎ ِر ‪ِ....‬‬
‫ﻗَـْﺒ َﻞ اْ ْ‬
‫ﻛﺘَﺎﺑﺔُ ِ‬
‫اﻟﻠﻐﺔ اﻟﻌﺮﺑﻴﱠ ِﺔ ‪A. .................‬‬
‫َ‬
‫ﺼﺎﺋِ ِﺪ اﻟﻌﺮﺑﻴﱠ ِﺔ ‪B. .............‬‬
‫َﻣﻌﺮﻓﺔُ اﻟْ َﻘ َ‬
‫ﻗﺮاءةُ ِ‬
‫اﻟﻘﺮآن ‪C. ....................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪E.‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﻣﺎت ‪...‬‬
‫ﻌﺖ أ ﱠن ْ‬
‫اﳊﺼﺎ َن ‪َ ..........‬‬
‫َﲰ ُ‬
‫ﻳﻊ ‪.....................‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺴ ِﺮ َ‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺲ ِﻋْﻨ َﺪ اﻟ ﱡﺴ َﻔ َﻬ ِﺎء ‪.......‬‬
‫إ ْن َْﲡﻠ ْ‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫ﻫﻞ ﺗﺮﻳﺪ أﻳﺔ ‪...........‬‬
‫ﺎﻋﺪةٌ ‪...................‬‬
‫ُﻣ َﺴ َ‬
‫‪60. Indicate the correct option‬‬
‫‪65.‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪9‬‬
‫ﻓَـ ْﻬ ُﻢ ا ِﻹ ْﺳﻼَِم ‪....................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.‬‬
‫‪POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS‬‬
‫‪ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﲔ ‪....................‬‬
‫ﺗَ ْﺴﺒَﺤ َ‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺴ ِﺮ َﻳﻌ ْ ِ‬
‫ﲔ ‪...................‬‬
‫‪E.‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺎﻋ ًﺔ‬
‫ﻳﻦ َﺳ َ‬
‫‪ ..........‬ﻳَـ ْﻮٌم ْ‬
‫ﻣﻦ أ َْرﺑَ ِﻊ َوﻋ ْﺸ ِﺮ َ‬
‫ﻳَـﺘَﺄَﻟﱠﻔﻮا ‪A. ...................‬‬
‫ﺗﺄﻟﱠﻔﺎ‪......................‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫ﻒ ‪...................‬‬
‫ﻳﺘﺄﻟﱠ َ‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪69.‬‬
‫َﺳﻠﱢ ْﻢ ‪.....................‬‬
‫َﺳﻠﱢ َﻤﺎ ‪...................‬‬
‫ﻳُ َﺴﻠﱢ ْﻢ ‪....................‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺬﻛِﻴﱠﺎن ‪.....................‬‬
‫اﻛﺘﺒُﻮا ‪....................‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺬﻛِ َﻲ ‪.......................‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺬﻛِﻴﱠـ ْﲔ ‪....................‬‬
‫‪70.‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺬﻛِ ﱢﻲ ‪.....................‬‬
‫َﺣ َﺴ ٌﻦ ‪.....................‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫َﺣ َﺴﻨًﺎ ‪.....................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫َﺣ َﺴﻨَﺔٌ ‪...................‬‬
‫‪E.‬‬
‫ﺣﺴﻨَ ِ‬
‫ﺎن ‪....................‬‬
‫ََ‬
‫‪71.‬‬
‫ﺣﺴﻨَﺘَ ِ‬
‫ﺎن ‪.....................‬‬
‫ََ‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪E.‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪E.‬‬
‫اُ ْﻛﺘُِﱯ ‪.....................‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪E.‬‬
‫ﻳﺴﺒﺤ ِ‬
‫ﺎن ‪.................‬‬
‫َ َْ َ‬
‫ﺗﺴﺒﺢ ‪....................‬‬
‫ُ‬
‫ﻳَ ْﺴﺒَ ُﺤﻮن‬
‫‪72.‬‬
‫‪10‬‬
‫‪67.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫ﻳﺴﺒﺢ ‪.....................‬‬
‫ُ‬
‫‪ ..........‬اﳉﻴﺸﺎن‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫ﱭ ‪...................‬‬
‫ا ْﻛﺘُ ْ َ‬
‫ا ْﻛﺘُﺒَﺎ ‪......................‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫اُ ْﻛﺘُِﱯ‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫اﻟْ َﻮﻟَ َﺪان ‪ِ ..........‬ﰲ اﻟﻨـ ْﱠﻬ ِﺮ ‪..........‬‬
‫‪D. .....................‬‬
‫‪66.‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫ﻟِ ُﻜ ﱢﻞ رﺟ ٍﻞ ﻋﻴـﻨَ ِ‬
‫ﺎن ‪..............‬‬
‫َ ُ َْ‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫اﲰَ ِ‬
‫ﻚ ﻋﻠَﻰ اﻟ ﱠﺴﺒُ َﻮرةِ‪.‬‬
‫ﻳﺎ ﻓﺎﻃﻤﺔُ ‪ْ ..........‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱡﺴ ْﺮ َﻋﺎ ُن ‪....................‬‬
‫‪E.‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺬﻛِ ﱡﻲ ‪.......................‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﻒ‬
‫ﻳﺘﺄﻟ ْ‬
‫ﻒ ‪E. ....................‬‬
‫ﻳﺘﺄﻟﱠ ُ‬
‫ﺳﻠﱢ ْﻤ َﻦ ‪.....................‬‬
‫اﻟ ﱠﺴ ِﺮﻳﻌ ِ‬
‫ﺎت ‪....................‬‬
‫َ‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﻟﺪ ‪ِ .......‬ﰲ اْﻻﻣﺘِﺤ ِ‬
‫ﺎن ‪......‬‬
‫ﻓﺸ َﻞ اﻟْﻮ ُ‬
‫ْ َ‬
‫‪D. ...................‬‬
‫ﻳﺎ ِ‬
‫ﺎح‬
‫ﺻﺒَ ٍ‬
‫أﺧﻲ‪َ ......... ،‬ﻋﻠَﻰ أَﺑِ َ‬
‫ﻴﻚ ُﻛ ﱠﻞ َ‬
‫َ‬
‫ﻳﺴﻠﱢﻢ ‪A. .......................‬‬
‫َ‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪D. ................‬‬
‫‪68.‬‬
‫‪UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.‬‬
‫‪POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS‬‬
‫‪ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE‬‬
‫اﻟﺬﻛﺮ واﻷﻧﺜﻰ ‪.............‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫اﳌﻄﻌﻢ واﳌﺸﺮب ‪...........‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫ﺗَـ َﻘﺎﺗَ َﻞ‬
‫ﺗَـ َﻘﺎﺗَﻼَ ‪B. ...............‬‬
‫اﻟﺸﻤﺲ واﻟﻘﻤﺮ ‪...........‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪C. ................‬‬
‫اﻟﻠﻴﻞ واﻟﻨﻬﺎر‬
‫‪A................‬‬
‫ﺗَـ َﻘﺎﺗَـﻠَﺘَﺎ‬
‫‪D. ..............‬‬
‫دﻳﻮان اﳌﺘﻨﱯ ﲟﺪاﺋﺤﻪ اﻟﺮاﺋﻌﺔ ‪..........‬‬
‫ﻟﻠﻤﻌﺎوﻳﺔ ‪...........................‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫ﻟﺴﻴﻒ اﻟﺪوﻟﺔ ‪.......................‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫ﻟﺮﺳﻮل اﷲ ‪.........................‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫ﳊﺠﺎج ﺑﻦ ﻳﻮﺳﻒ ‪..................‬‬
‫ّ‬
‫ﺗَـ َﻘﺎﺗَـﻠُﻮا ‪..............‬‬
‫ﺖ اﻟْﻤﺮأَةُ ‪ ......‬ﺑـﻨَ ٍ‬
‫ِ‬
‫ﺎت‪.‬‬
‫َ‬
‫أ َْﳒَﺒَ َ ْ‬
‫‪77.‬‬
‫َﻋ ْﺸَﺮَة ‪................‬‬
‫َﻋ َﺸَﺮ ‪.................‬‬
‫َﻋ ْﺸَﺮ ‪..................‬‬
‫َﻋ َﺸَﺮةَ‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫ﺗﺰوج اﻟﻨﱯ ﲞﺪﳚﺔ وﻋﻤﺮﻩ ﲬﺲ وﻋﺸﺮﻳﻦ‬
‫ﺳﻨﺔ ﺣﻴﻨﻤﺎ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ ﻫﻲ ﰲ ‪..........‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪D. .................‬‬
‫َﲪَ ُﺪ ‪ِ ......‬ﰲ اﻟْ َﻤ ْﺴ ِﺠ ِﺪ‬
‫َرأَى أ ْ‬
‫‪78.‬‬
‫ﻮك ‪...................‬‬
‫أَﺑُ َ‬
‫اﻟﺜﻼﺛﲔ ‪.......................‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫ﲬﺲ وﺛﻼﺛﲔ ‪.................‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫اﻷرﺑﻌﲔ ‪......................‬‬
‫ﻴﻚ ‪.................‬‬
‫أَﺑِ َ‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫أَﺑَـ َﻮ َاك‬
‫ِ ِ‬
‫وﳏَ ﱠﻤ ٌﺪ ‪......‬‬
‫ﻴﻢ ُ‬
‫إﺑْـَﺮاﻫ ُ‬
‫اﻟﺸﻨﻔﺮي ‪.....................‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫اﳌﻬﻠﻬﻞ ‪...................‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫اﻷﻋﺸﻰ ‪...................‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫اﻣﺮؤ اﻟﻘﻴﺲ ‪..................‬‬
‫‪D.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪D. .................‬‬
‫‪D. ..................‬‬
‫أﺑﺮز اﻟﺸﺨﺼﻴﺎت ﰲ اﻟﺸﻌﺮ اﳉﺎﻫﻠﻲ ﻗﺎﻃﺒﺔ‬
‫ﻫﻮ ‪..........‬‬
‫‪74.‬‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫ﺎك ‪..................‬‬
‫أَﺑَ َ‬
‫ﲬﺲ وأرﺑﻌﲔ‬
‫‪73.‬‬
‫َﺧ َﻮ ِان ‪................‬‬
‫أْ‬
‫‪79.‬‬
‫َﺧ َﻮﻳْ ِﻦ ‪..............‬‬
‫أْ‬
‫إِ ْﺧ َﻮا ٌن ‪..................‬‬
‫إِ ْﺧ َﻮاﻧًﺎ‬
‫‪A.‬‬
‫‪B.‬‬
‫‪C.‬‬
‫‪D. .................‬‬
‫ﻓﺎﳉﺪﻳﺪان ﳘﺎ ‪..........‬‬
‫‪11‬‬
‫‪75.‬‬
‫‪76.‬‬
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
80. Indicate the correct option for the
D.
ِ ِ‫ﱠ‬
sentence. ...... ‫ﺴ ﱠﻤﻰ‬
َ ُ‫إ ﱠن ﻃَ َﻌ َﺎم اﻟﻈﻬ َﲑة ﻳ‬
............................ ‫ﻟ ِﻺ ْﻋﻼَ ِن‬
84. Indicate the correct option He paid a
paltry price for the car.
A. ........................... َ‫اﻟْﻐَ َﺪاء‬
B. ......................... َ‫ﺸﺎء‬
َ ‫اﻟْ َﻌ‬
‫ ﻟِﻠ ﱠﺴﻴﱠ َﺎرِة‬...... ‫دﻓﻊ َﲦَﻨًﺎ‬
C. ........................... ‫ﻮر‬
َ ُ‫اﻟْ َﻔﻄ‬
A.
D. ............................. َ‫اﻟْ َﻮ ْﺟﺒَﺔ‬
B.
81. Indicate the correct option
C.
ِ
....... ‫ﺲ ِﻋْﻨ َﺪ اﻟ ﱡﺴ َﻔ َﻬ ِﺎء‬
ْ ‫إ ْن َْﲡﻠ‬
A.
D.
.............................. ‫ﺗَـْﻨ َﺪ ُم‬
B.
..............................‫ﻳـَْﻨ َﺪ َم‬
C.
.............................. ‫ﻳـَْﻨ َﺪ ُم‬
D.
.............................. ‫ﺗَـْﻨ َﺪ ْم‬
A. legislature
B. executive
C. judiciary
D. security
86. We travelled to the … during vacation
ِ ِ ِ
‫اﻹﺟ َﺎزِة‬
َ َ‫ﺳﺎﻓﺮﻧَﺎ َإﱃ اﻟْ َﻤ ْﻤﻠَ َﻜﺔ اﻟْﻤﺘﱠﺤ َﺪة أﺛﻨﺎء‬
ْ
A. United States
B. United Nations
C. United Kingdom
........................ ‫ﻓَـ ْﻬ ُﻢ ا ِﻹ ْﺳﻼَِم‬
D. United Arab Emirates
83. Indicate the correct option Journalism
has an important role in society.
87. The weather is …. today
.‫ﺎﰊ اﻟْﻴَـ ْﻮَم‬
ْ
‫ﺿﺒَ ِ ﱡ‬
َ ‫اﳉَﱡﻮ‬
.‫دور ﻫﺎمﱞ ِﰲ اﻟْ ُﻤ ْﺠﺘَ َﻤ ِﻊ‬
ٌ .........
B.
C.
............................ ‫ﻀ ﱠﻌ ًﻔﺎ‬
َ ‫ُﻣ‬
‫ﻓﺮﻋﺎ ﻟﻠﺤﻜﻮﻣﺔ‬
ً ُ‫ﺗﺸ ﱢﻜ ُﻞ اﻟ ﱡﺴ ْﻠﻄَﺔُ اﻟﺘﱠ ْﺸ ِﺮﻳﻌﻴﱠﺔ‬
ِ ‫اﻟﺪﱢﳝُْﻘﺮ‬
.‫اﻃﻴﱠ ِﺔ‬
َ
ِ ِ‫اَﻟْﻐَﺮض اﻟﱠﺮﺋ‬
‫ﻴﺴ ﱡﻲ ِﻣ ْﻦ ﺗَـ َﻌﻠﱡ ِﻢ اﻟﻠﱡﻐَ ِﺔ اﻟْ َﻌَﺮﺑِﻴﱠ ِﺔ ِﰲ ﻧـَْﻴ ِﺠ ِﲑﻳَﺎ‬
ُ َ
....
ِ ‫ﻻﺳﺘِ ْﻌ َﻤﺎ ِر‬
ْ ْ‫ﻗَـْﺒ َﻞ ا‬
ِ ُ‫ﻛﺘَﺎﺑﺔ‬
A. ................. ‫اﻟﻠﻐﺔ اﻟﻌﺮﺑﻴﱠ ِﺔ‬
َ
B. ............. ‫ﺼﺎﺋِ ِﺪ اﻟﻌﺮﺑﻴﱠ ِﺔ‬
َ ‫َﻣﻌﺮﻓﺔُ اﻟْ َﻘ‬
ِ ُ‫ﻗﺮاءة‬
C. ...................... ‫اﻟﻘﺮآن‬
A.
........................... ‫ُﻣﺘَـ َﻮ ﱢﺳﻄًﺎ‬
85. The … forms an organ of a democratic
government
82. Indicate the correct option
D.
............................ ‫ﺗَﺎﻓِ ًﻬﺎ‬
ِ‫ﺑ‬
........................... ‫ﺎﻫﻈًﺎ‬
َ
A. bright
......................... ‫ﺼ َﺤﺎﻓَِﺔ‬
‫ﻟِْﻠ ﱢ‬
........................... ‫ﻟِْﻠ َﺠَﺮاﺋِ ِﺪ‬
ِ
........................... ‫َﺧﺒَﺎ ِر‬
ْ ‫ﻟﻸ‬
B. dull
C. unpleasant
D. foggy
88. Indicate the correct option
12
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
ِ
ِ
‫ﺑﺈﺧﻼَ ِﺻ ِﻪ‬
ْ ‫ ﺗَﺜ ُﻖ‬...... ‫ﻻ ﺗـُ َﻌﺎﺷ ْﺮ إﻻﱠ‬
ِ ‫ِ ِﻣﻦ اﻟْﻤﺨﺘـﺮﻋ‬......
.‫اﳊَ ِﺪﻳﺜَِﺔ‬
ْ ‫ﺎت‬
َ ََ ْ ُ َ
A.
A.
........................ ‫ﻮب‬
ُ ‫ﺎﺳ‬
ُ َ‫اَ ْﳊ‬
B.
.......................... ُ‫اَ ْﳊَْﺮﺑَﺔ‬
B.
C.
D.
............................ ‫اﻟﱠِﱵ‬
ِ‫ﱠ‬
........................... ‫ﻳﻦ‬
َ ‫اﻟﺬ‬
........................... ‫اﻟﱠ ِﺬي‬
.......................... ‫اﻟﻼﱠِﰐ‬
89. Indicate the correct option
B.
C.
........................... ٌ‫ﻓَﺎ ِر َﻏﺔ‬
D.
D.
......................... ‫اَ ْﳍَْﻮَد ُج‬
teaches Arabic..
A. culture
............................ ٌ‫ﻓَﺎ ِرغ‬
ِ ‫ﻓَﺎ ِر َﻏ‬
.......................... ‫ﺎن‬
ِ
...................... ‫ﻴﻖ‬
ُ ‫اَﻟْ َﻤْﻨ َﺠﻨ‬
93. Indicate the correct option: Ibrahim
...... ‫ﱠار ِان‬
َ ‫اَﻟﺪ‬
A.
C.
B. custom
C. tradition
D. literature
94. Please, check the ….
ِ َ‫ﻓَﺎ ِر َﻏﺘ‬
......................... ‫ﺎن‬
ِ َ‫ِﻣﻦ ﻓ‬
ِ ‫ اِﻓْ َﺤ‬،‫ﻚ‬
.‫ﺺ اﻟْ َﻔَﺮ ِاﻣ َﻞ‬
ْ ْ
َ ‫ﻀﻠ‬
90. Indicate the correct option
.... ُ‫ﺗَ ْﺸﺘَ ِﻬ ُﺮ ِوﻻَﻳَﺔُ ﺑِﻼَﺗُﻮ اﻟﻨـْﱠﻴ ِﺠ ِﲑﻳﱠﺔ‬
A. tyres
A.
C. gears
............................ ‫ﺑِﺎﻟﻨﱠـ ْﻔ ِﻂ‬
C.
............................ ‫ﺑِﺎﻟْ َﻤ ْﻮِز‬
D.
B. brakes
......................... ‫ﺑِﺎﻟﺒُـ ْﺮﺗـُ َﻘ ِﺎل‬
B.
ِ ِ
َ‫س اﻟﺜـﱠ َﻘﺎﻓَﺔَ اﻟْ َﻌَﺮﺑِﻴﱠﺔ‬
ُ ‫ﻴﻢ ﻳُ َﺪ ﱢر‬
ُ ‫إﺑْـَﺮاﻫ‬
D. plugs
95. Indicate the correct option
Ubaydullah was a ….. orator
ِ ‫َﻛﺎ َن ﻋﺒـﻴ ُﺪ‬
‫اﷲ َﺧ ِﻄﻴﺒًﺎ َﻣ ْﻮُﻫﻮﺑًﺎ‬
ْ َُ
ِ َ‫ﺑِﺎﻟْﺒﻄ‬
ِ ‫ﺎﻃ‬
....................... ‫ﺲ‬
َ
A. great
91. Indicate the correct option
...... ‫ت ِﻣ ْﻦ َو َﺳﺎﺋِ ِﻞ‬
‫اَﻟ ﱡ‬
ُ ‫ﺼ ُﺤ‬
ُ ‫ﻒ واﻟْ َﻤ َﺠﻼﱠ‬
B. crafty
A.
D. courageous
B.
C.
D.
C. gifted
.......................... ‫ﱢﺼ ِﺎل‬
َ ‫اْﻻﺗ‬
........................... ‫اْ ِﻹﻓْـﺘَﺎء‬
Choose the correct Arabic options for the
underlined words or expressions
........................... ‫اْ ِﻹ ْﻋﻼَِم‬
96. My book is green
......................... ‫اْ ِﻹ ْر َﺷ ِﺎد‬
92. Indicate the correct option
13
A.
.................... ‫أﲰﺮ‬
ْ
B.
.................... ‫أرزق‬
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
C.
.................. ‫أﺧﻀﺮ‬
D.
................... ‫أﺑﻴﺾ‬
97. Everywhere is quiet
A.
.............................. ‫ط‬
ٌ ‫ﺳﻘﻮ‬
B.
............................. ‫ﺳﻜﻮت‬
ٌ
C.
D.
.............................. ‫ﻇﻼَ ُم‬
............................. ‫ﻮب‬
ٌ ُ‫ُﺣﺒ‬
98. The Ka'abah has been sacred since
the time of Abraham.
....................... ‫ﺻﺎرت‬
‫ﻗﺪ‬
ْ
ِ
B. ....................... ‫ﺖ‬
ْ ‫ﻗﺪ أُﺳ َﺴ‬
C. ........................ ‫ﻗﺪ رﻓِ َﻌ ْﺔ‬
ُ
A.
D.
....................... ‫ﻛﺎﻧﺖ‬
ْ ‫ﻗﺪ‬
99. I don't like to tell a lie
A.
B.
C.
D.
ِ
.......................... ‫ب‬
ُ ‫أ ْﻛﺬ‬
.......................... ‫ﺐ‬
ُ ُ‫أﺧﻄ‬
............................ُ‫َﺧﻄَﺄ‬
ْ‫أ‬
......................... ‫ﺐ‬
ْ‫أ‬
ُ ‫َﺣ َﺴ‬
100. The city is clean
A.
............................ ‫ﲨﻴﻠﺔ‬
B.
.......................... ‫ﺟﺪﻳﺪة‬
C.
........................... ‫ﻧﻈﻴﻔﺔ‬
D
.......................... ُ‫واﺳﻌﺔ‬
14
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
ANSWERS
34.
E
1.
D
35.
B
2.
C
36.
A
3.
B
37.
D
4.
B
38.
B
5.
E
39.
A
6.
C
40.
C
7.
A
41.
C
8.
D
42.
C
9.
A
43.
B
10.
B
44.
B
11.
A
45.
A
12.
D
46.
C
13.
B
47.
D
14.
D
48.
C
15.
D
49.
A
16.
A
50.
D
17.
D
51.
C
18.
B
52.
B
19.
D
53.
B
20.
D
54.
C
21.
C
55.
D
22.
D
56.
D
23.
C
57.
C
24.
C
58.
A
25.
B
59.
D
26.
D
60.
D
27.
D
61.
C
28.
B
62.
C
29.
D
63.
D
30.
B
64.
B
31.
A
65.
A
32.
B
66.
A
33.
D
67.
E
15
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ARABIC LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
68.
C
69.
E
70.
C
71.
C
72.
A
73.
D
74.
C
75.
B
76.
A
77.
B
78.
C
79.
D
80.
A
81.
D
82.
C
83.
A
84.
A
85.
A
86.
C
87.
D
88.
C
89.
D
90.
D
91.
C
92.
A
93.
A
94.
B
95.
C
96.
C
97.
B
98.
D
99.
C
100.
A
16
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
1.
____________ is an end product of digestion of fat. (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)
Fructose (E) Galactose#
B
2.
Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp. is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b. Fragmentation c.
Budding d. Separation (E) Regeneration
C
3.
Benedict’s solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)
Minerals
C
4.
5.
Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A). Starch (B). Sugar (C). Lipid (D). Fat (E). Protein
The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called –– (A)
Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion#
E
B
6.
The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A). Pepsin (B). Ptyalin (C). Renin (D). Amylase
(E). Trypsin
C
7.
Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth? (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)
Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase
A
8.
A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)
biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment.
C
9.
A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a common
boundary. (B) a place in which plants and animals live. (C) a community living together in the
same place. (D) different areas, with a common animal and plant population. (E) None of the
above.
B
10.
A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism is
called ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
A
11.
An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)
symbiosis. (B) commensalism. (C) ammensalism. (D) mutualism. (E) saprophytism.
D
12.
An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) a
wind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer.
D
13.
At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals. At other times, hyenas
themselves kill animals for food. Therefore hyenas may best be described as –– (A) scavengers
and herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores and
predators e. herbivores and parasites
C
14.
Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and their
environment (B) same species of organisms and their environment. (C) organisms in the
atmosphere. (D) organisms under the earth’s surface. (E)None of the above. #
B
15.
Autotrophs are also described as –– (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)
Producers (E) Herbivores
D
16.
If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay, sand and loamy soils
respectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)
Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil
(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil
E
17.
In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as –– (A) producers (B) consumers (C)
scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
E
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
18.
Puddles, Ponds, Rivers, Seas and Oceans are grouped together as –– (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere
(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment#
C
19.
The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is called………….. (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)
Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology
B
20.
The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a given
area over a period of time until a stable community is established is called –– (A)
Transformational change (B) ecological succession. (C) survival of the fittest. (D) weather
change (E) environmental change.
B
21.
The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains, while 0 is used where an
organism is unaffected. An association indicated as +0 is known as –– (A) predation (B)
commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism#
B
22.
The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology. (B)
ecosystem. (C) habit. (D) habitat. (E) niche
E
23.
Which of the following factors does not control population growth? (A) Food shortage (B)
Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster
D
24.
Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem? (A) A place where living
organisms can live successfully. (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and the
non-living part of the environment. (C) A biological association between a plant and an
animal. (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat. (E) None of the above.
B
25.
Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature? (A) Crustacea → diatom →fish → man
(B) Diatom → crustacea → fish → man (C) Fish → crustacea → man → diatom (D) Diatom → fish
→ crustacea → man (E) None of the above.
B
26.
___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during the
process of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole, Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuole,
Phagocytosis (C) Food vacuole, Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole, Pinocytosis (E) Cell membrane,
Pinocytosis@
A
27.
______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp. (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)
Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle#
C
28.
A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats
(E) Worms
D
29.
Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cell
wall (E) Golgi body#
D
30.
Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B
E
31.
Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jelly
fish
D
32.
Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 2/2, c2/2, pm2/2, m3/3 (B) i1/1, c2/2, pm2/2, m3/3 (C)
i2/2, c1/1, pm3/2, m2/2 (D) i2/2, c1/1, pm2/2, m2/2 (E) i2/2, c1/1, pm2/2, m3/3
E
33.
During digestion of food, passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become a
watery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Soluble
food (E) Dissolved food
C
2
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
34.
Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)
Maltase (E) Bile
E
35.
Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) Four
Kidneys (E) None of the above
C
36.
Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination
(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation
B
37.
Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e).
Stomach#
D
38.
In the respiratory system of man, diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)
Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above
C
39.
Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)
Crushing food
B
40.
Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)
Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods#
D
41.
One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis
(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D
D
42.
Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)
Chicken
D
43.
Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)
Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowper’s gland (E) Prostate gland
C
44.
Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)
Amphibians (E) All of the above
A
45.
Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon
C
46.
The excretory organ in the earthworm is………….. (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)
Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills
C
47.
The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called –– (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves
(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves.
E
48.
The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called –– (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves
(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves.
E
49.
The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Control
the activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)
Increased metabolism#
B
50.
The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)
Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard
E
51.
The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential is
called –– (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
D
52.
The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae. (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4
(D) 12 (E) 10
D
53.
Which of the animal below is poikilothemic? (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove
A
3
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
54.
Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)
Claws (E) All of the above
A
55.
Which of these animals is photosynthetic? (A) Paramecium sp. (B) Amoeba sp. (C) Euglena sp.
(D) Hydra sp. (E) None of the above
C
56.
Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood? (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen
(D) Lung (E) Pancreas#
E
57.
The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is
Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation.
C
58.
The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remain
constant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis
(E) oogenesis
C
59.
Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms? (A) Inbreeding (B)
Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance
D
60.
____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin#
A
61.
____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)
Beetle
D
62.
_____________ are flatworms (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Nematoda (D) Diplopoda (E)
Chilopoda#
A
63.
_____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp. (B) Hydra sp. (C) Ascaris
sp. (D) Taenia sp. (E) Obelia sp.
A
64.
_____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals. (A) System (B) Tissue (C)
Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic
A
65.
Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of the
above#
E
66.
The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo de
Vrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes.
D
67.
The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin and
Wallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin.
B
68.
Which is the odd animal in the list below? (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad
E
69.
Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution? (A) Fossil records B. Comparative
anatomy C. Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
D
70.
_______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)
Tsetse fly
B
71.
The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia
A
72.
In lower plants like mosses, the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plants
is called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli.
D
(A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
73.
One common feature of fungi, algae, mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)
show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)
conjugate
D
74.
The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)
Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta
B
75.
_____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)
Conjugation (E) Regeneration
D
76.
Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)
Reproduction (E) Mutualism
C
77.
The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)
chloroplast (E) gene
E
78.
All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)
Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen
E
79.
Growing yam tendrils climb for support. This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism
(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism.
A
80.
Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups? (A)
Bacteria → ferns → algae → mosses → seed plants. (B) Bacteria → ferns → mosses → algae →
seed plants. (C) Bacteria → algae → mosses → ferns → seed plants. (D) Bacteria → mosses →
algae → ferns → seed plants. (E) Seed plants → ferns → mosses → algae → bacteria.
C
81.
------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower.(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)
Antheridium (E)Gynoecium#
D
82.
A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)
aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp
E
83.
A dry indehiscent, winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)
Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle
C
84.
A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) a
fertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and other
floral parts
B
85.
86.
Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber
One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnosperms
are borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule
D
A
87.
Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)
mesocarp (E) all parts
C
88.
What type of fruit is a mango fruit? (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit
C
89.
Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root? (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema
(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia
A
90.
Which of these plants has an emerginate apex? (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)
Terminalia
A
91.
Which plant stores food in its roots? (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)
yam.
A
5
(C) Antigonon
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
BIOLOGY
92.
An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis
(E) Parenchyma
B
93.
The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)
cytoplasm#
B
94.
Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)
cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade
B
95.
A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals, sugars, salts, pigments and crystals (B) waste
products of metabolism, DNA, RNA and crystals (C) pigments, crystals, DNA and waste products
of metabolism (D) RNA, DNA, sugars and salts
A
96.
Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)
Excretion
Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)
Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen
Which of the following is a plant excretory product? (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)
amino acids (E) gibberellins.
C
99.
A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called –– (A) a
parasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey. #
C
100.
Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are
mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes.
C
97.
98.
6
(A) bryophytes (B)
E
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
1.
200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)
oxide. When cooled, the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3. Estimate the percentage of
oxygen in the air. (A) 31% (B) 27% (C) 21% (D) 19%
C
2.
30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container. Calculate the new
pressure if temperature is kept constant. (A) 6.7 atm (B) 15.0 atm (C) 60.0 (D) 66.0
B
3.
Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalent
bonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding.
A
4.
A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)
dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene
B
5.
A mixture of sand, ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)
sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition of
water and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) addition
of water followed by crystallization and sublimation
A
6.
A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range of
temperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature as
the impure one
B
7.
A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube; the solid
gradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases. Later a white cloudy deposit was
observed on the cooler part of the test tube. The ammonium chloride is said to have
undergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
B
8.
CH4 has this geometry: (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear.
C
9.
Chlorine, consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37, has an atomic mass of 35.5.
The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75
B
10.
Elements P, Q, R, S, have 6, 11, 15 and 17 electrons respectively, therefore (A) P will form an
electrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalent
bond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
D
11.
In the oil drop experiment, Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)
mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton
C
12.
One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0
C
13.
Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20% oxygen by volume. Which of
the reactants was in excess? (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
A
14.
The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalent
bonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding.
E
15.
The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)
electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency.
C
16.
The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)
chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides.
C
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
17.
The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V
A
18.
The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) the
Avogadro’s number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant
B
19.
The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)
number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity.
C
20.
The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period
(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number
E
21.
The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg. If the total Pr pressure 780
mmHg, what is the mole fraction of the oxygen? (A) 0.64 [B (B) 5.73 (C) 1.56 (D) 0.70 (E) 0.54
A
22.
The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their
(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers
D
23.
The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)
dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction.
D
24.
The shapes of CO2, H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent, linear and tetrahedral (B) bent,
tetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral, linear and bent (D) linear, bent and tetrahedral
D
25.
This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF.
C
26.
This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)
hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-derwaals bonding.
B
27.
Which one of the following changes is physical? (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)
Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydrated
salt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice
D
28.
A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated
(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes
D
29.
Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a /an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)
reactive (D) basic (E) acidic
B
30.
Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid and
citric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclic
acid (E) Sulphuric acid
A
31.
Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid is
dispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
C
32.
The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain.(A) CO2, SO3 and N2O (B) CO2, CO
and N2O (C) SO2, CO and NO2 (D) PH3, H2O and CO2
C
33.
The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that while
colloids (A) do not scatter light, suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration, suspensions
cannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane, suspensions cannot (D) do not
settle out on standing, suspensions do
D
34.
The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) acetic
acid (D) NaCl (E) C and D.
E
2
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
35.
The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution
(D) hot solution (E) all of the above
A
36.
The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S, SO2 and
oxides of nitrogen (B)NH3, HCl and CO (C) CO2, NH3, and H2S (D) dust, NO and Cl2
A
37.
What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid? (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0
A
38.
Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant? (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)
Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide
D
39.
Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount? (A) Ca2+ (B)
Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
B
40.
Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3
(E) NaCl
B
41.
0.16g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C), what is
the heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 4.2 Jg-10C-1? (CH4=16). (A)
1,160kJmol-1 (B) 1,180kJmol-1 (C) 1,560kJmol-1 (D) 1,600kJmol-1 (E) 1,680kJmol-1
E
42.
A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___
energy (A) Chemical, electrical (B) mechanical, chemical (C) heat, mechanical (D) light,
electrical (E) light, heat
A
43.
Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper. The reaction is
an example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)
oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization
A
44.
For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant, there is an oxygen atom
which acts as a /an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
B
45.
Given the change of phase: CO2(g) changes to CO2(s), the entropy of the system (A) decreases
(B) increases (C) remains the same
A
46.
In which of the following is the entropy change positive? (A) Reaction between an acid and a
base. (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water. (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water.
(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride.
C
47.
One of these elements is the best reducing agent. (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N
B
48.
The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___
( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride
B
49.
The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2
D
50.
The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6.
C
-
BrO3-
-
51.
The oxidizing agent in the reaction, 3Br2 + 6OH =
BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2O.
52.
When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be ___
(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
3
+ 5Br + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)
A
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
53.
Given the reaction at equilibrium: 2CO(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected to
stress, a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants, only (B) products, only (C)
both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
C
54.
Given the reaction at equilibrium: N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)
increases, the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)
vanishes (E) pours away
A
55.
If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder, it means that (A) The reaction is in a
state of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a large
decrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static.
B
56.
In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D, more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A is
reduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) if
the concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture
E
57.
In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reverse
reaction? (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one. (B) The product of two is
expected to be one. (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical. (D) The product of the
two is always greater than one.
C
58.
In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the system
is increased? (A) C(s) + O2(g) ↔ CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) ↔
2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) ↔2H2O(g)
B
59.
The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)
(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate
(IV)
Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium? (A) The amount of products is
greater than the amount of reactants. (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount of
reactants. (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction.
(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
D
61.
Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemical
reaction. (A) Decrease in temperature, increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase in
temperature, addition of a catalyst, decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase in
temperature, increase in concentration, addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface area
of the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature, concentration and surface area of the reactants
(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light.
C
62.
“Quicklime” has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO4.2H2O (E) CaCl2
B
63.
A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octet
configuration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons
(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital.
D
64.
Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)
neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acids
on bleaching powder.
B
60.
4
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
65.
Chlorine, bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) react
violently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) are
gases (E) are liquids.
A
66.
Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus
(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane.
D
67.
One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)
water.
One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr
68.
B
C
69.
One of these reactions represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen. (A) C(s) + H2O(l)→
CO(g) + H2(g) (B) 2 Na(s) + 2H20(1) → 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g) (C) Cu(s) + H2O(l) → CuO(s) + H2(g) (D)
2Al(s) + 3H2O(l) → Al2O3(s) + 3H2(g) (E) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
E
70.
The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upper
atmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these.
A
71.
The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)
chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine.
The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur
(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur
B
72.
B
73.
The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balanced
are…HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O
(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
B
74.
What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production? (A) dehydrating agent
(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
B
75.
When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water, the solution becomes milky due
formation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4
B
76.
Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall? (A)
Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide
D
77.
Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon? (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buck
minsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above
E
78.
Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric)? (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO
D
79.
Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extract
magnesium ions? This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)
most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ions
has great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion. (E) None of the
above.
B
80.
___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars: (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)
Fehling’s solution (D) de-ionized water
C
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
81.
2CH3COOH + Zn → ? The product of this reaction is: (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +
Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
C
82.
A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitroso
compound (D) an oxime
D
83.
Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give: (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)
RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
B
84.
An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydrated
to give mostly: (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane
B
85.
Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with: (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Bromine
water (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide
Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the following
reasons except that: (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)
detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is less
expensive
B
86.
D
87.
In the manufacture of soap industrially, brine is used to.__________.the acid salt. (A) oxidise
(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate
D
88.
Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation
2CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) + CO2(g). Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 8.75 x 1025
molecules of CH4? {At masses: C=12.011, H= 1.008, O = 15.999, Avogadro’s no: 6.022 x
1023molecules /mole.} (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 32.00g (E) 20.35g
A
89.
Potassium ethanoate is formed when: (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acid
reacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH
B
90.
Saponification is defined as: (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil
(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess of
simple alkanol
B
91.
Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of the
fatty acid in detergent is replaced by: (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester
(D) acids
B
92.
The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to: (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding
(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding
C
93.
Two important sources of detergent are : (A) fat/oils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)
pulp and wood (D) water and gas
A
94.
What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap? (A) Esterification (B)
Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification
B
95.
When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst in
the presence of air, the product is: (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
D
96.
When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap, it has the following advantages
except it gives: (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) more
soluble soap
B
6
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
97.
When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days, it goes sour. The bacteria in the air
oxidises.________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol, ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acid,
ethanol (C) ester, ethanoic acid (D) ether, ethanol
A
98.
Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid? (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can be
manufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimes
readily
C
99.
Which of the following reactions is correct? (A) C6H5COOH + CaO → C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)
C6H5COOH + CaO → C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 → C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +
C2H5OH → C6H6 + C3H8COOH
B
100. Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid? (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acid
but weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It is
soluble in cold water
C
7
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
COMMERCE
1.
A businessman who undertakes the hull insurance policy is aiming at (A) covering losses on
damages to the cargo (B) protecting injured crew in the ship (C) averting payment of the
freight (D) covering damages to the body of the ship.
D
2.
A company that is registered with the Corporate Affairs Commission only without being
enlisted on the Stock Exchange is a (A) public liability company (B) joint venture (C) limited
company (D) registered company.
D
3.
A contract for the sales of goods involved the (A) producer, the sellers and the buyers of the
goods (B) offering of goods to customers (C) transfer of title to goods for money (D) exchange
of goods.
C
4.
A core investors in the current phase of privatization in Nigeria is one who (A) can afford to
buy most of the shares of the enterprises (B) will be at the core of the enterprises (C) can
mobilize foreign currency equivalent to the value of the enterprises (D) has the technical
know-how of the enterprises.
A
5.
A crossed cheque with the inscription ‘not negotiable’ must be paid into the (A) current
account of the drawer (B) current account of the payee (C) savings account of the payee (D)
fixed account of the payee.
B
6.
A distinguishing characteristic of a limited liability company is: (A) It is a collection of many
sole proprietors (B) It is a multiple partnership (C) It can sue and be sued (D) It has limited
resources.
C
7.
A doctor who attends to patients at home after his official duty is (A) A community
development worker (B) a direct service worker (C) an indirect service worker (D) a direct
and an indirect service worker.
B
8.
A document sent by a seller to inform a buyer about the prices of goods is the (A) catalogue
(B) price list (C) credit note (D) proforma invoice.
B
9.
A floating policy is an example of (A) Marine insurance. (B) Actuaries insurance. (C) Motor
insurance. (D) Fire insurance.
B
10.
A function generally performed by authorities of both the air and seaports is the (A)
maintenance of warehouses where goods can be stored (B) provision of facilities for loading
and unloading of cargoes (C) maintenance of security and order at the ports (D) provision of
facilities for landing and refueling the ports.
C
11.
A group of companies is a collection of (A) subsidiaries and their holding company (B) firms
(C) associates and their holding company (D) industries.
A
12.
A machine which enables sales without the physical presence of a sales attendants is a (A)
computer machine (B) vending machine (C) telex machine (D) Fax machine.
B
13.
A major disadvantage of the privatization policy is that the (A) economy would be private
sector-led (B) citizen would benefit less from government. (C) more money would be
brought into circulation (D) government would lose control of the economy.
D
14.
A major factor hindering effective communication process is (A) climatic condition (B) social
unrest (C) distance (D) noise
D
15.
A major function of a chamber of commerce is (A) increasing productivity (B) promoting both
home and foreign trade (C) promoting trade in a particular line (D) maximizing profit.
B
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
COMMERCE
16.
A major hinderance to tourism growth in Nigeria is (A) absence of genuine tour operators (B)
lack of tourism master plan (C) inadequate tourist centres (D) non-compliance to immigration
laws.
C
17.
A pre-requisite for admission into the second-tier securities market is for a company to make
(A) make 20% of its equity share available to the public for subscription (B) have a minimum of
100 shareholders (C) have a maximum of 100 shareholders. (D) make 10% of its equity share
available to the public for subscription.
D
18.
A printed copy of processed information from the computer is the (A) soft copy (B) file copy
(C) scanned copy (D) hard copy.
D
19.
A pro forma invoice is NOT required when; (A) Quoting for the supply of goods (B) Goods are
sent on approval (C) Dealing regularly with a customer (D) Final prices are uncertain.
C
20.
A provision in the charter of a company which gives holders of common stock option to
purchase additional issues of firm’s common stock is the (A) Pre-emptive right (B)
shareholders right (C) Ex- dividend right. (D) Over subscription right.
B
21.
A public company with an authorized capital of N60,000, issued 36,000 shares at 150k each.
What is its capital? (A) N60,000 (B) N36,000 (C) N54,000 (D) N90,000.
C
22.
A step-by-step method of carrying out functions in an office is known as (A) procedure (B)
organizing (C) policy (D) programme.
A
23.
An acquired firm in a merger will receive a; (A) Premium (B) grant (C) share (D) discount
C
24.
An association to which all chambers of commerce in Nigeria are affiliated is the (A) Nigeria
Labor Congress (B) National Association of Chambers of Commerce, Industry, Mines and
Agriculture (C) Nigeria Association of Chambers of Commerce, Industry, Mines and Agriculture
(D) Nigeria Stock Exchange.
C
25.
26.
An example of a cartel is (A) OPEC (B) ECOWAS (C) AU (D) EU
An example of a consumer protection agency is the (A) Nigerian Bar Association (B) Nigerian
Medical Association (C) Federal Environmental Protection Agency (D) Manufacturers
Association of Nigeria.
A
C
27.
An opportunity to reject a binding contract at will by a third party is said to be a (A) valid
contract (B) quasi contract (C) voidable contract (D) conditional contract.
C
28.
An underlying principle in the marketing of goods is that firms should (A) Train their personnel
(B) Be consumer oriented. (C) Advertise the goods. (D) Sell through outlets
B
29.
Balance of payments is made up of (A) visible and current items (B) invisible and capital items
(C) current and capital items (D) visible and invisible items.
D
30.
Capital as a factor of production can be used as (A) money that regarded as asset (B) goods
that are used in business (C) input for further production (D) Services that provides
satisfaction.
C
31.
Commercialization of government corporation brings about an increase in the level of (A)
money supply in the economy (B) competition among business operators (C) distrust among
business operators (D) social responsibility.
B
2
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
COMMERCE
32.
Debentures differ from shares in that; (A) They are secured on the company assets (B)
ownership is open to the public (C) they form part of the capital of the business (D) rewards
are usually paid out of profit.
C
33.
Division of labour ultimately leads to (A) conservation (B) integration (C) specialization (D)
repetition
C
34.
Emeka ordered goods for his retail shop. The manufacturer sell the goods at retail price of N
500 but would give it to Emeka at N400.What kind of discount did he gets? (A) Cash discount
(B) trade discount (C) quality discount (D) Seasonal discount.
A
35.
Entrepot trade usually occurs in (A) exchanging goods within a nation (B) exchanging goods
among countries (C) importing goods to be re-exported (D) exporting goods to be reimported
C
36.
Extractive industries may also be denominated as (A) Direct industries (B) Serving industries
(C) Primary industries (D) Indirect industries.
C
37.
For the establishment of a powerful consumers’ association in Nigeria to exist, there must be
(A) financial and moral support from the public (B) honest and committed leadership (C)
allocation of goods from the producers (D) Freedom from external influence.
D
38.
Given: i. Shoe maker ii. Policeman iii. Fisherman iv. Gardener v. Broker. The persons engaged in
primary occupation are (A) I, III and IV (B) III and IV (C) III and V (D) I, II and V.
B
39.
Goods discharged from ships on which import duties have not been paid are kept in the (A)
Ordinary warehouse (B) Public warehouse (C) Private4 warehouse (D) Bonded warehouse.
D
40.
I. Companies must be registered as private limited liability companies. II. Companies must
have not less than 100 shareholders. III. No shareholders may have more than 75% of issued
share capital. Which of the above are requirements for admission into the second-tier
securities market? (A) I and II only (B) I and III only (C) I.II. and III (D) II and III only.
D
41.
If a firm’s turnover is 15,000 and the cost of goods sold is 10,000, what is the percentage of
gross profit on sales? (A) 23.3% (B) 33.3% (C) 50.0% (D) 66.6%
B
42.
In a common market, member countries agree basically to (A) Place bans on other countries’
product (B) wages war against countries products (C) establish common barriers against
countries outside the market (D) Negotiate with outside the market for favorable terms of
trade.
C
43.
In CIF, contracts risk passes at the time of shipment but the property does not pass until ; (A)
there is physical transfer of goods (B) the shipping manifests are signed (C) the shipping
documents are transferred (D) the goods on the board are delivered.
B
44.
In product pricing, which of these elements needs more consideration than others? (A) The
demand for the product (B) The demography of the buyers of the product (C) The economic
conditions in the markets (D) The cost of producing the product.
D
45.
In the long run, all factors of production are; (A) Fixed (B) variable (C) marginal (D) constant.
B
3
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
COMMERCE
46.
Initial public is undertaken through the (A) secondary securities market (B) first tier securities
market (C) primary securities market (D) second-tier securities market.
D
47.
Maimani Plc, whose norminal capital is made up of 5,000,000 ordinary shares of 50k each,
decided to offer 80% of it to the public and realized only 50% of the amount due. What is the
company’s authorized share capital? (A) N2,500,000 (B) 4,000,0000 (C) 5,000,000 (D)
7,500,000.
A
48.
Manufacturing and constructive activities are classified under (A) primary production (B)
tertiary production (C) secondary production (D) direct service.
C
49.
Most of the barriers to international trade have been eliminated through (A) diversification
(B) globalization (C) commercialization (D) privatization.
B
50.
NACCIMA stands for (A) Nigerian-American Centre for Culture, Industries, Mines and Arts (B)
Nigeria Association for Culture, Civics, Industries. Minerals and Arts (C) National Agency for
Culture, Civilization, Investments, Manufacturing and Agriculture. (D) Nigeria Association of
Chambers of commerce, Industries, Mines, and Agriculture.
D
51.
Occupations are classified into (A) production, labour and economics (B) extraction,
construction and manufacturing (C) industry, commerce and services (D) trades, aids to trade
and services.
C
52.
One advantage of a crossed cheque is that it can (A) only be paid into saving account (B) be
cashed over the banks counter (C) only be paid into the owners account (D) be cashed by
anyone.
C
53.
One advantage of the co-operative society over the ordinary company is; (A) Latter pays tax
while the former does not (B) Former attracts more capital than the latter (C) Membership of
the former is usually more than of the latter (D) Former, unlike the latter, has limited and
liabilities.
A
54.
One of the main features of a partnership is (A) limited liability (B) lack of corporate existence
(C) unlimited membership (D) lack of mutual confidence
B
55.
One way by which a business can discharge its social responsibility to its community is to (A)
hold monthly meetings of its customers (B) build houses for its executive’s (C) award
scholarship to staff children (D) build public health centres.
D
56.
Sabo and Gambo entered into a contract for the sale of two baskets of tomatoes belonging to
Gambo. Before the date of delivery and without any default by Gambo, the tomatoes were
stolen. This is an example of termination of contract by (A) Breach (B) Performance (C) Fault
(D) Frustration.
D
57.
Ships used for international transport are (A) trawlers (B) yachts (C) ocean liners (D)
launchers.
C
58.
The activity which entails buying of goods in bulk and selling in small quantities to retailers is
(A) assembling (B) wholesaling (C) retailing (D) merchandizing.
B
59.
The art of soap-making is an example of (A) primary occupation (B) secondary occupation (C)
tertiary occupation (D) construction occupation.
B
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
COMMERCE
60.
The assets, liabilities and general management of a distressed bank may be taken over by (A)
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (B) Nigeria Industrial Development
Bank (C) Nigeria Deposit Insurance Corporation (D) Nigerian Bank for Commerce and
Industries.
C
61.
The association that comprises all types of businesses is referred to as (A) Chamber of
commerce (B) trust (C) Trade associate (D) cartel.
C
62.
The availability of goods and services is brought to the notice of consumers through (A)
personal selling (B) public relation (C) the telephone (D) advertising
D
63.
The best mean of sending unwritten messages simultaneously to many branches of an
organization within the country is the (A) television (B) telephone (C) Telegraph (D) Radio
C
64.
The body charged with divesting government interests in public enterprises is (A) SON (B) NPC
(C) BPE (D) NDE.
C
65.
The body that organizes, promotes and participates in local and foreign trade fairs is the (A)
Ministry of Commerce and Tourism (B) Ministry of Finance (C) Chambers of Commerce (D)
Export Promotion Council.
C
66.
The central focus of commercial activities is; (A) Pricing (B) advertising (C) trading (D)
marketing
C
67.
The comparison of a country’s visible and invisible exports and imports expressed in monetary
term is (A) balance of payment (B) terms of trade (C) balance of trade (D) terms of payment.
A
68.
The details of the goods required by the purchaser is outlined in (A) a consular invoice (B) an
indent (C) an invoice (D) a certificate of origin
B
69.
The difference between trademark and patent right is that the latter (A) gives exclusive right
to import a particular good (B) is conferred by the government (C) confers monopoly on a
product (D) confers exclusive right to publish literary works.
D
70.
The distribution and exchange of goods and services for the satisfaction of wants is the
concern of (A) Production (B) Utility (C) Commerce (D) Industry.
C
71.
The document issued to a port authority when goods are deposited is a (A) dock landing
account (B) bill of sight (C) billing of lading (D) dock warrant.
A
72.
The document that gives an importer a freehand to obtain goods from any manufacturer is (A)
a consular invoice (B) a closed indent (C) an open indent (D) a freight note.
C
73.
The document with which a manufacturing enterprises releases stock of raw materials to the
factory for production is called (A) stock release form (B) goods received notes (C) store
issues voucher (D) Materials release note.
C
74.
The factor essential for tourism are; (A) accessibility, capital amenities, and schools (B) good
weather, amenities, accessibility and scenery (C) amenities, capital, accessibility and market
(D) good weather, capital, schools and scenery.
B
75.
The factor of production that is subject to depreciation is (A) capital (B) land (C) labour (D)
entrepreneur.
A
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
COMMERCE
76.
The fear of many communities concerning tourism development is the (A) influence of foreign
culture (B) fear of the disease transmission (C) fear of pollution (D) religious intolerance.
A
77.
The financial institution established to boost Nigeria’s trade with the rest of the world is called
(A) Nigerian Deposit insurance corporation (B) Nigerian Economic Reconstruction Fund (C)
Nigerian Industrial Development Bank (D) Nigerian Export-import Bank.
D
78.
The form of capital which easily transferred in the form desired is known as (A) Working
capital (B) Liquid capital (C) Circulating capital (D) Capital employed.
C
79.
The four Ps of marketing are (A) product, place, process and promotion (B) price, product,
property and place (C) price, product, place and promotion (D) price, production, place and
property.
C
80.
The harmonious relationship among the various units in an organization is ensured through (A)
cooperation (B) motivation (C) planning (D) Leadership.
D
81.
The label on a product such as “pampers” is a type of (A) trademark (B) branding (C)
packaging (D) patient right.
A
82.
The lake Chad Basin commission was formed in (A) 1974 (B) 1984 (C) 1954 (D) 1964.
D
83.
The major problem confronting cyber café operator is (A) advance fee fraud by clientele (B)
poor network coverage (C) high operating costs (D) copyright violations by clients.
C
84.
The major responsibility of an entrepreneur is to; (A) employ all factors of production in the
business (B) coordinate and determine the proportion of what to produce (C) plan and
organize all activities in the business (D) Direct and control all the affairs of the business.
A
85.
The media used for inter-departmental communication includes (A) circulars, advertisement
and notice boards (B) memoranda circular and the telephone (C) memoranda, advertising and
face-face (D) memoranda, advertising and the grapevine.
B
86.
The most essential element of a product is the (A) Price (B) Utility (C) Design (D) Colour.
B
87.
The most important benefit of insurance is that it provides (A) control over activities (B) the
insured with a right to premium (C) the insured with a right to full compensation (D)
protection against risks.
D
88.
The most important difference between community banks and people’s bank is that the (A)
Latter is owned solely by government while the former are not (B) Former cater for rural
dwellers while the latter caters for both rural and urban dwellers. (C) Former are services
oriented while the latter is profit oriented (D) Latter advanced loans to the public while the
former advance loans to rural dwellers only.
A
89.
The most important factor that delayed the developments of commerce in Nigeria was (A) the
inefficient means of communication (B) that there were few entrepreneurs (C) the
unavailability of infrastructural facilities (D) that there were few developed markets.
C
6
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
COMMERCE
90.
The necessary documents used in foreign trade are. (A) bill of lading invoice and letter of
inquiry (B) .indent bill of exchange, bill of lading and invoice (C) invoice, shipping note, bill of
lading and freight note (D) shipping note, certificate of origin and visible exports.
C
91.
The practice whereby government relinquishes its ownership interest in a public enterprise is
(A) commercialization (B) indigenization (C) privatization (D) nationalization.
C
92.
The primary objective of a business organization is to (A) Cater for the needs of its owners (B)
Work towards making returns (C) Assist the government to serve the citizen (D) Improve the
standard of living of its proprietors.
B
93.
The promotion of savings culture is a feature of a (A) trade association (B) consumers’
cooperative society (C) thrift cooperative society (D) business association.
C
94.
The quality and quantity of production mostly depend on the (A) effectiveness of factors (B)
availability of factors (C) level of education of entrepreneurs (D) level of cooperation among
workers.
A
95.
The rewards of rents, wages, interests and profits accrue from (A) capital, labour, land and
entrepreneur, respectively (B) land, entrepreneur, labour and capital, respectively (C) land,
labour, capital and entrepreneur, respectively (D) labour, entrepreneur, land and capital,
respectively.
C
96.
The Stock Exchange is a market where (A) Long –term securities are sold (B) All type of
securities are sold (C) Short term securities are sold (D) Medium- term securities are sold.
B
97.
The sum of money paid by a policy-holder to an insurer is referred to as (A) interest (B)
premium (C) gross profit (D) sales revenue
B
98.
The type of activity which turns processed raw material into consumer and industrial goods
described as (A) Extractive (B) Manufacturing (C) Constructive (D) Processing.
B
99.
The type of communication from superior to a subordinate in an organization is referred to as
(A) horizontal communication (B) lateral communication (C) downward communication (D)
upward communication.
C
100.
The West African Clearing House became legally operational on; (A) 1st July, 1976 (B) 25th
June, 1975 (C) 14th March, 1975 (D) 3rd May, 1974.
A
101.
To increase the supply of money in a country, the central bank has to; (A) Reduce cash ratio
(B) sell securities in the open market (C) call on special deposits (D) raise cash ratio.
A
102.
When ‘FOB’ is written on a document, it implies that the buyer bears the (A) cost of goods and
advert (B) loading costs and insurance (C) insurance and transport costs (D) transport and
communication costs.
C
103.
When a price is quoted at F.O.B, it means that the price; (A) excludes loading charges incurred
in bringing the goods to the dock (B) excludes all necessary shipping charges payable for
insurance (C) Includes all charges payable on shipping a consignment to the port of
destination. (D) Includes charges for loading goods onto the ship.
C
7
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
COMMERCE
104.
Where two or more companies agree to work on a project too large for one of them, this is
called; (A) Consortium (B) Merger (C) Combination (D) Cartel
A
105.
Which of the following confirms the accuracy of the duty charge on imported goods? (A) An
indent (B) consular invoice (C) consignment note (D) shipping note.
D
106.
Which of the following groups is paid first when a firm liquidates? (A) Preference share
holders (B) Debenture holders (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Cumulative preference
shareholders.
B
107.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of nationalization? (A) It promotes poor economic
planning (B) The cost services are not determined by market forces (C) It may lead to
rationalization of resources (D) Development of local skills and technology is retarded.
D
108.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the use of teleprinters in communication? (A)
Transmission speed is slow (B) Pictures cannot be transmitted (C) Transmission quality is poor
(D) It cannot transmit during bad weather.
B
109.
Which of the following is a form of social responsibility of a business? (A) selling goods at
cheaper prices (B) using the best technology available (C) maintaining tidy and sage
environment (D) meeting contractor’s obligations.
C
110.
Which of the following is an example of conglomerate? (A) National Electric Power Authority
(B) United African Company Nigeria Plc. (C) The Nigeria Railway Corporation (D) First Bank of
Nigeria Plc
B
111.
Which of the following is an example of trade association? (A) European union (B) National
marketing board (C) Organization of Africa unity (D) National farmers’ council.
B
112.
Which of the following is both direct and indirect credit enterprise? (A) Co-operative and thrift
society (B) Retail co-operative society. (C) Consumer co-operative society. (D) Wholesaler
co-operative society.
A
113.
Which of the following is the most important business resource? (A) Money (B) Management
(C) Materials. (D) Man-power.
D
114.
Which of the following maxims negates the principle of collective bargain? (A) Individual
employees have weak bargaining base (B) Individual employees attain strength when they
come together in a union (C) Only members of the union can benefit from agreement
negotiated by the union. (D) Collective bargaining covers the vast majority of employees,
whether union members or not.
C
115.
Which software program can be used to generate financial reports from a company’s client
list? (A) MS word (B) Database (C) MS Excel (D) Adobe.
C
8
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
1.
"Behold, the people of Israel are too many, come let us deal shrewdly with them, lest they
multiply..." In the statement, the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all
Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male
children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens
D
2.
"I will go out as at other times, and shake myself free."' When Samson made the statement
above, he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze
fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D). his eyes had been gouged out.
C
3.
"Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land
appear. In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B)
firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas
D
4.
"Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her." Saul
made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C)
Amalekites (D) Moabites
A
5.
"Why did you bring trouble on us? The LORD brings trouble on you today” What happened to
Achan after the statement above by Joshua? (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain
(C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly.
C
6.
An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of
the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour.
D
7.
David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph. (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon.
C
8.
For worshipping the molten calf, God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an
unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people
C
9.
God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His
work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D)
human beings were recreated on that day.
A
10.
God called Abraham when he was how many years old? (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C)
100 years old (D) 120 years old
A
11.
In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai,
they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments
everyday (D) not to go near a woman
C
12.
Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potiphar’s wife (B) he
was very lazy (C) Potiphar’s wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaoh’s cup
C
13.
Samuel's lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His
untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David
as king.
A
14.
Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B)
Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied
concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne.
D
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
15.
The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a
man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel.
B
16.
The rainbow as the sign of God's covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation
(C) mercy (D) Redemption
C
17.
What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD? (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The
LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great
B
18.
What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwise— Policies? (A) Jeroboam was
empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he
built (C) He raised up Hadad, the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was
torn from him and given to his servant
19.
What was Samson's major achievement as Israel's leader?— (A) He suppressed the Philistines
(B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He
secured permanent independence for Israel
20.
When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites, he resisted because he could not speak and
he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with
Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him
21.
When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speaking— to it ,God said to him that
he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise
land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years
22.
When the Israelites left Egypt, God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of
the Philistines because— (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might
go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to
suffer and appreciate Him
23.
Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared
King Agag?— (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin
(B) David was a man after God's heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of
praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was
stubborn
24.
"...And in the last days it shall be, God declares, that I will pour out my Spirit upon all
flesh..." Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C)
Jeremiah (D) Isaiah.
25.
"Am I God, to kill and to make alive, that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his
leprosy..." Prophet Elisha responded to the king's reaction in the statement above by (A)
directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C)
directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice
B
26.
"Behold, I am the LORD, the God of all flesh; is anything too hard for me..." The statement
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable.
C
2
D
A
D
B
B
D
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
27.
"Behold. 1 am the LORD, the God of all flesh; is anything too hard for me" The statement
above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable.
B
28.
"Do you understand what you are reading?" Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question
above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D)
Isaiah.
D
29.
"My spirit shall not abide in man forever, for he is flesh". When God made the statement, He
concluded that man's days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years
(C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years.
D
30.
"Test your servants for ten days; let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink..." In the
statement above, Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the
steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes.
C
31.
According to Amos, what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew?
(A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed
for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD.
A
32.
According to Prophet Jeremiah, one of the promises of God was that He would give the
Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds
after His own heart.
D
33.
According to Proverbs, a son that is attentive to a father's instruction will (A) be rich (B) have
eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins
C
34.
Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel, God declared that (A) He
would require the blood of Naboth from Ahab’s hand (B) Ahab's descendants would never
ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahab's blood where they had licked Naboth (D)
the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab
C
A
35.
Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins, they would (A)
Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from
captivity.
36.
God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonah's message (B) the
king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way. (D) they
made sacrifices of sin offering to God.
C
37.
Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel, Elijah prayed and God answered him with
(A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm
In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon, King Cyrus ordered for (A)
free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish, slaves in the
empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in
Babylon
B
38.
39.
Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom
and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for
his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them
3
A
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
40.
Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal
prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two
years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water.
D
41.
Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil, love good and establish justice in the gate so that God
would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply
their descendants
C
42.
Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
43.
Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)
kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
44.
Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call when— (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King
Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity
D
D
B
A
45.
Saul learnt from Samuel's spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands
(B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaac's future wife (D) pardon his iniquity
46.
The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiah's death
(B) Josiah's reforms (C) Israel's stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiah's rebellion against Babylon
47.
The effect that the faith of Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar
and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were
converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver.
48.
The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered
(B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last
two kings made unwise policies.
D
49.
The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him
to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his
grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign.
C
50.
The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B)
Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected
type of sacrifice.
B
51.
What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord?(A) He removed all the idols of his
father. (B) He killed all the priests of Baal; (C) His reign was peaceful. (D) He killed all the
Baal worshippers.
A
52.
What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem? (A) They
praised God for sending him to rebuild. Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah
about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged
one another to rise up and build the walls. .
D
4
C
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
53.
"...but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and
from what is strangled and from blood..."' The statement above was made at the Council of
Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter
C
54.
"...His office let another take..." The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot
(C) Barnabas (D) John Mark.
B
55.
"...Truly, I say to you, not even In Israel have I found such faith..." The statement above by
Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D). centurion's
servant.
D
56.
"Depart from me, for I am a sinful man, O Lord." This statement was uttered by Peter at
the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration
C
57.
"If I tell you, you will not believe; and if I ask you, you will not answer..."' Jesus' statement
above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C)
Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees.
B
58.
"If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down from here; for it is written, 'He will give his
angels charge of you…" According to Luke, the statement above was made by Satan during
Jesus'(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation.
A
59.
"Teacher, do you not care if we perish?" Where was Jesus Christ when this question was
asked? (A) On the sea, walking. (B) In the wilderness. (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the
ship, asleep
D
60.
"Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in paradise...'" Jesus made the statement
above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his
partner (D) was repentant
D
61.
"Unbind him, and let him go." The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life
the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurion's
servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him.
A
62.
"Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved" The
statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in
Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem.
D
63.
"You son of the devil, you enemy of all righteousness, full of all deceit and villainy" This
statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas, the magician (B) Paulus, the proconsul (C)
Simon, the Magician (D) Demetrius, the silversmith
A
64.
‘ As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.’ Jesus made the statement above
on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C)
restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break.
A
65.
According to Luke, the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in
Jordan (D) in Bethlehem.
B
66.
According to Luke, when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration, they spoke of
Jesus’ (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials
A
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
67.
According to Matthew, the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary
Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John.
A
68.
According to Romans, salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are
true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lord's vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness
B
69.
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy
Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother
B
70.
'And, they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow, for it was already
evening.' In the statement above, the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B)
Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas.
D
71.
Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A)
looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth, his wife (D)
did not believe God's words.
D
72.
Following the death of Stephen, the only group of believers not scattered by the great
persecution was the __ (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples.
B
73.
Following the resurrection of Jesus, the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the
guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away
from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately
to the rulers.
A
74.
In His Sermon on the Mount, Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A)
be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit
the earth
C
75.
In Luke, at the Last Supper, Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C)
love for His disciples (D) ascension
C
76.
In the country of the Gerasenes, Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic
at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man
A
77.
In the mission of the seventy, Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among
wolves, implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep
(C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties.
D
78.
In the story of the Transfiguration, Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old
Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age.
C
79.
Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to
know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the
mother (D) loved the young man that died.
C
80.
Jesus' reply to the devil's first temptation of Him was _ (A) "...Him only shall you serve" (B)
"...Man shall not live by bread alone..." (C) '"You shall not tempt the Lord your God"' (D)
"...You shall worship the Lord your God..."
81.
Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to
rejoice with those who rejoice. (B) no person can hide from God (C) God's love is unlimited
(D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents
6
B
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
82.
Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power
(B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of
wine
B
83.
Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over
forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devil's power
C
84.
The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher.
D
85.
The impact of Jesus' miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were
astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people
glorified God.
C
86.
Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan
woman?(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to
buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him.
B
87.
According to Ephesians, children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go
to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great
C
88.
According to Peter, God shows no partiality, but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A)
diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him.
B
89.
According to Romans, the new life is comparable to Jesus' (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C)
ascension (D) crucifixion.
A
90.
According to Thessalonians, the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first
(B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first.
C
91.
Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A)
pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal
to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters
B
A
92.
In his teaching on partiality, James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B)
righteousness (C) grace (D) faith.
93.
In Paul's arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians, the last is (A) the utterance of
wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues
B
94.
In Romans, Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of
(A) greediness (B) wickedness (C) sadness (D) foolishness
B
95.
In Timothy Paul urges Christians to pray for kings and those in authority for the achievement
of (A) a successful Christian life (B) godly and acceptable life (C) peace and exaltation in life
(D) quiet and peaceable life
D
96.
Paul in Romans enjoins all Christians to cast off works of darkness end put on the (A) armour
of light (B) armour of faith (C) works of grace (D) works of light.
A
97.
Peter admonishes that Christians should endure suffering because anyone who has suffered
in the flesh (A) shall live the rest of his life in peace (B) shall clothe himself with humility (C)
has ceased from sin (D) has overcome death.
A
7
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
98.
Peter enjoins Christians to wait in expectation of the new heavens and the new earth in which
(A) evil will be destroyed (B) there will be no more corruption (C) there will be perfection (D)
righteousness dwell.
D
99.
What does Paul advise Roman Christians to do to those who persecute them? (A) Give them
drink when thirsty (B) Forgive them (C) Bless them (D) Feed them when hungry.
C
100. Which of the following are opposed to each other according to Galatians? (A) Believers and
unbelievers (B) Freedmen and salves (C) Jews and Gentiles (D) Flesh and Spirit.
8
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
1.
…………….is the term that describes the cost of one product in terms of forgone
production/acquisition of others. (A) Marginal cost (B) Production/acquisition cost (C)
Optimum cost (D) Opportunity cost (E) Implicit cost
D
2.
An activity does not have a cost when (A) the activity does not require the giving up of
any other activity or thing (B) the government pays for it (C) it is carried out by a nongovernmental organisation (D) it is not priced (E) it is easy to undertake.
A
3.
Choices arise on account of …… (A) numerous wants (B) enough money to undertake
effective demand (C) scale of preference (D) human wants being numerous but the
time, money and influence to satisfy them are limited. (E) needs
D
4.
Economics is best defined as (A) the study of allocation of resources to satisfy human
wants (B) the study of human behaviour in the process of buying and selling (C) study
of how nations grow and improve their welfare (D) the study of how to allocate scarce
resources to satisfy human wants (E) all of the above.
D
5.
Economics may be described as (A) the study of demand and supply of things in our
environment (B) the study of production and distribution (C) the study of human
behaviour in the allocation of scarce resources (D) the study of the employment of
labour, capital, land and capital (E) the study of money and banking.
C
6.
From an economics point of view, an activity does not have cost when (A) someone else
pays for it (B) the returns are greater than costs (C) the choice involves given up
nothing (D) government pays for it (E) it is paid for from gift
Opportunity cost is a term which describes (A) initial cost of setting up a business
venture (B) a study of the ways man devices to satisfy his unlimited wants from limited
resources (C) cost of one product in terms of forgone production of others (D) the
mandatory equivalent of the utility of a commodity (E) cost related to an optimum level
of production
Scarcity in economics means (A) a period of scarce things (B) when things are costly to
acquire (C) monopolisation of available resources by a few (D) nationalisation of
natural resources such as petroleum in Venezuela (E) none of the above.
C
9.
Which of these is the real cost of satisfying any want in the sense of the alternative that
has to be forgone (A) variable cost (B) opportunity cost (C) total cost (D) prime cost
(E) marginal cost
B
10.
Economic analyses and conclusions can be divided into (A) consumption and production
(B) positive and normative (C) microeconomics and macroeconomics (D) demand and
supply (E) none of the above
Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency? (A) mean (B) median (C)
Mode (D) average (E) standard deviation
B
12.
Which of the following is NOT a measure of dispersion (A) standard deviation
mean deviation (C) variance (D) range (E) mean
E
13.
A normal good with close substitutes is likely to have its price elasticity of demand (A)
between zero and one (B) equal to unity (C) greater than unity (D) less than unity
(E) none of the above
C
14.
Demand for a factor of production is (A) A composite demand (B) ajoint demand (C)
a derived demand (D) an elasticity of demand (E) cross elasticity of demand
C
15.
Given Demand function: Qd = 5P + 10; Supply function: Qs = 7P – 5. If the price is at N5, the
excess demand is (A) 35 (B) 30 (C) 10 (D) 5 (E) 65
D
7.
8.
11.
1
(B)
C
E
E
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
16.
If an increase in the price of a commodity leads to an increase in total revenue, then it
follows that the demand for the commodity is (A) normal (B) elastic (C) inelastic (D)
abnormal (E) unitary
C
17.
If the price of a commodity rises, the quantity demanded of the commodity remains the
same, then the demand for the commodity is (A) static (B) infinitely elastic (C)
externally determined (D) perfectly inelastic (E) perfectly elastic
The impact of a change in the price of commodity A on the quantity demanded of
commodity B is best explained using the concept of (A) price-elasticity of demand (B)
cross-price elasticity of demand (C) income elasticity of demand (D) elasticity of
substitution (E) A-price elasticity of demand for B
D
The change that is due to a movement from one supply curve to another along the same
price is called (A) change in supply (B) change in quantity supplied (C) elasticity
change (D) control price effect (E) change in equilibrium quantity
When the supply of a commodity is fixed, its price elasticity of supply is said to be (A)
perfectly elastic (B) perfectly inelastic (C) undefined (D) elastic (E) inelastic
A
21.
Given Demand function: Qd = 5P + 10; Supply function: Qs = 7P – 5. The equilibrium
quantity is (A) 50 (B) 55 (C) 75.5 (D) 47.5 (E) 55.5
D
22.
In market economies, resources are allocated through the (A) government authorities
(B) price system (C) banking system (D) central planning bureau (E) revenue
allocation formula
In the operation of market forces, the market is in equilibrium at the point where (A)
demand and supply curve intersects in more than one point (B) the excess in the market
can be conveniently stored (C) excess demand is positive (D) demand and supply
curves intersect (E) excess demand is negative
The basic feature of a market economy is (A) the reduction in the power of sellers (B)
the enthronement of consumer sovereignty (C) the dismantling of barriers to trade
(D) the perfectly elastic price for every transaction (E) the intersection of demand and
supply curves
B
18.
19.
20.
23.
24.
B
B
D
B
25.
The following are the conditions that must be fulfilled for price determination EXCEPT
(A) market merger (B) market segmentation (C) demand elasticities (D) product
differentiation (E) none of the above
A
26.
The main function of price mechanism is to (A) limit consumer demand (B) enable
producers make profits (C)allocate scarce resources among competing ends (D) ensure
consumer sovereignty (E) achieve excess capacity
C
27.
When government intervenes in price-setting, the regulated price is usually (A) higher
than the last price (B) lower than the last price (C) higher than the equilibrium price
(D) lower than the equilibrium price (E) higher than the ceiling price
D
28.
A firm achieves least cost in production by substituting factors until (A) their factor
prices are equal (B) their marginal products are equal to the factor prices (C) their
marginal products are each equal to zero (D) the ratios of their marginal product equals
the ratio of their prices (E) none of the above
B
29.
A production possibility curve shows (A) how much of resources a society uses to
produce a particular commodity (B) the rate of inflation (C) the rate of unemployment
in an economy (D) the various combinations of the commodities that can be produced
(E) all of the above
D
2
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
30.
A rightward shift in the production possibility frontier may be due to (A) use of inferior
inputs (B) inefficiency (C) improvement in production techniques and practices (D)
changes in the product mix (E) changes in consumer taste
C
31.
Direct payment incurred for producing a commodity is called
cost (C) opportunity cost (D) due cost (E) explicit cost
E
32.
Diseconomies of scale can be caused by the following EXCEPT (A) managerial inefficiency
(B) increased resource-cost (C) large market (D) inefficient business environment (E)
technology
Diseconomies of scale operates when (A) doubling inputs brings about more than
proportionate increase in output (B) doubling inputs leads to a doubling of output (C)
doubling input brings about less than proportionate increase in output (D) decrease in
profit (E) increase in revenue
C
34.
Economic efficiency means (A) obtaining maximum output from available resources
(B) equitable distribution of nation’s resources (C) carrying out production without any
waste (D) producing the maximum output from available resources at the lowest
possible cost
(E) efficient utilisation of the nation’s resources.
D
35.
External economies are (A) the advantages accruing to firm as a result of its expansion
(B) the advantages accruing to one firm as a result of the existence of other firms in the
same locality (C) benefits derived by a firm as a result of its own external economies
policy (D) economies reaped only by firms that are externally focused (E) bound to
increase the cost of production
If a firm doubles its output and its costs increase by 60%, the firm is experiencing (A)
increasing costs (B) economies of scale (C) decreasing returns (D) decreasing costs
(E) none of the above
B
In economics, production is complete when (A) Goods are produced in the factories (B)
Goods are sold to the wholesaler (C) Goods and services are produced by the
government (D) Prices are fixed for goods and services (E) Goods and services finally
reach the consumer
In the study of economics, land, labour, capital and entrepreneur are referred to as
factors of production. These factors produce commodities only if they are — (A)
profitable to the production process (B) purchased for the purpose of production (C)
combined in the production process (D) produced adequately for the production process
(E) brought into factory
E
33.
36.
37.
38.
(A) implicit cost
(B) real
C
B
C
39.
Production that takes place within the production possibility curve is said to be (A)
inefficient (B) possible (C) with increased output (D) x-efficient (E) pareto-compliant
A
40.
The act of combining factor inputs in order to obtain specific output is known as (A)
factor procurement (B) manufacturing (C) investment (D) industrialisation (E)
production
The additional output obtained by using one more unit of a factor is called (A) marginal
income (B) additional product (C) marginal revenue (D) average product (E)
marginal physical product
E
The amount of labour a producer hires relative to other factor input depends on the (A)
price of labour or its wage (B) price of labour, machinery and other inputs (C) price of
machinery (D) price of other inputs (E) type of machinery
B
41.
42.
3
E
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
43.
The concept of economic efficiency primarily refers to (A) obtaining the maximum
output from available resources at the lowest possible cost (B) conservation of our
petroleum resources (C) equity in the distribution of the nation’s wealth (D) producing
without waste (E) none of the above
The law of diminishing returns often operates in the — (A) long run (B) short run (C)
medium term (D) small scale production (E) none of the above
A
45.
The main economic objective behind the production of goods and services in an economy
is to (A) maximise profits (B) satisfy human wants (C) become self-reliant (D) create
job opportunities (E) make people wealthy
A
46.
The residual of production which accrues to the ownership of land after all other expenses
have been met is called (A) wages (B) profit (C) rent (D) interest (E) discount
C
47.
Average fixed cost is (A) average total cost less the sum of average variable cost (B)
half the sum of all costs (C) total fixed cost divided by the level of output (D) total fixed
cost plus marginal cost (E) total variable cost divided by output
C
48.
Average fixed cost is a rectangular hyperbola (A) since unit cost increases as output
increases (B) unit cost increases as output decreases (C) unit cost decreases as output
increases (D) unit cost remains the same as output increases (E) none of the above
C
49.
Long run cost is U-shaped because of the operation of (A) economies of scale on the
left hand side and diseconomies of scale on the right hand side (B) diseconomies of scale
on the left and right hand sides (C) economies of scale on the left and right hand sides
(D) constant return to scale (E) diseconomies of scale of the left hand side and
economies of scale of the right hand side
A
50.
Marginal cost is the cost (A) the lowest cost of producing goods (B) the cost of
production of the most efficient firm in an industry (C) the cost of production of the
most inefficient firm in an industry (D) the cost of production of the last unit of goods
produced by a firm (E) the cost of production at which minimum profit is obtained by
the firm
Which of the following is NOT part of the fixed cost of a firm (A) interest on loans (B)
rent on buildings (C) depreciation reserves (D) management expenditure (E) wages
D
52.
Which of the following is used to describe a payment representing a surplus in excess of
transfer earnings? (A) interest rates (B) opportunity costs (C) economic rent (D)
indirect costs (E) wages
C
53.
A perfectly competitive firm produces the most profitable output where its (A) marginal
revenue equals average cost (B) price equals average cost (C) price equals marginal
cost (D) marginal cost equals marginal revenue (E) average revenue equals average
cost
Advertising is the main technique used for effecting in a monopolistic competition (A)
market segmentation (B) product differentiation (C) price (D) profit (E) supply
D
Output of a monopolist is usually determined at a point where (A) P=MC (B) MR=MC
(C) AR=AC (D) marginal cost is rising (E) marginal revenue is rising
B
44.
51.
54.
55.
4
B
E
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
56.
Product homogeneity is one of the characteristics of (A) perfect competition (B)
monopoly (C) monopolistic competition (D) oligopoly (E) competition
A
57.
Which of the following is compatible with a firm in a purely competitive market? (A)
demand is inelastic (B) demand is infinitely elastic (C) marginal cost is falling (D) price
is greater than marginal cost (E) price is less than marginal cost
B
58.
The difference between gross national product and net national product is equal to (A)
Gross investment (B) Net investment (C) Net foreign income (D) Capital depreciation
(E) Net and gross
D
59.
The difference between the Gross Domestic Product and the Gross National Product is the
(A) Allowance for total depreciation (B) Total interest payments (C) Total tax and
interest payments (D) Net income from abroad (E) none of the above
D
60.
The multiplier is defined as (A) The ratio of the change in income to the change in
investment (B) The change in investment divided by the change in income (C) 1/(MPC)
(D) 1/(1-MPS) (E) Process of multiplying initial increase in income
A
61.
A decrease in aggregate spending in an economy will ultimately lead to (A) Boom (B)
Deflation (C) Inflation (D) Recession (E) stagnation
B
62.
Money serves well as a store of value in an environment devoid of (A) unemployment
(B) bank robbery (C) development-oriented central/reserve bank (D) inflationary
pressure (E) substitutes like ATMs, cheques and bank draft.
D
63.
The ability of deposit money banks to create money is mainly affected by
(A)
reserve ratio (B) liquidity ratio (C) capital base (D) monetary policy rate (E) all of
the above
A
64.
A document that shows the details of government revenue and expenditure in a year is
called (A) budget (B) development plan (C) rolling plan (D) perspective plan (E)
financial plan
A
65.
The basic fiscal relation that exists among the three tiers of government in Nigeria is (A)
national budget appropriation (B) State-Local Government joint account (C) revenue
allocation from the federation account (D) federal road projects (E) federal character
principle
C
66.
The biggest source of government revenue in Nigeria is (A) Mining rents and royalties
(B) Company income tax (C) Import duties (D) Export duties (E) Petroleum profits tax
E
67.
A major obstacle to economic development is (A) A rise in industrial output (B) Low
farm productivity (C) Free trade (D) Ineffective trade unions (E) corruption
B
68.
A sustained increase in the per capita income of a country over a period of time is called
(A) Economic growth (B) Economic development (C) Structural change (D) Stagflation
(E) Sustainable income growth
A
69.
In recent years, Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth in…….
Sector in the last ten years. (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D)
transport (E) distribution
C
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
70.
Nigeria, being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara, has put together a
development blue-print called Vision 20:2020 which can ensure that the country becomes
(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic ‘Tiger’
by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of
the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
C
71.
The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit
of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase
aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E)
Increase access to education
The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B)
Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International
development index
D
Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria? (A) Operation
Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and
cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of
agriculture
Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of
labour in the country? (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and
petroleum (E) Transport and communications
B
75.
Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local
raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational
facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above
B
76.
Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are
introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily
protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E)
Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence
D
77.
The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally
imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for
domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
C
78.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries? (A) Reaping of
external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C)
Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth
of conurbations
E
79.
The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are
availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to
source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports
B
80.
The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nation’s revenue (B) The
oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the
decline in the nation’s foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC
In a limited liability company, the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures
(B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E)
Board of directors
C
72.
73.
74.
81.
6
B
B
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
82.
In a public company, shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C)
Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief
Executive (E) none of the above
C
83.
The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows: (A) It is always successful (B)
Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are
easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured
C
84.
The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B)
Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested
D
85.
Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area
divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total
population divided by the total area (E) All of the above
To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a country’s population, one has to know
the country’s annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of
immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual
death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country
D
87.
Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population? A. It is possible
for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to
make the most effective use of its other factors B. The quantity of labour, which
combines with other factors, gives the minimum output, is known as optimum population
C. The quantity of labour, which combined with the other factors, gives the maximum
output, is known as optimum population D. The test of over-population is whether it
exceeds the optimum E. It is possible for a thinly populated country to be overpopulated if it has a poor supply of other factors
B
88.
Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population
growth? (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of
population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above
E
89.
Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country? (A) Increase in death
rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities
A
90.
An improvement in the Nigeria’s terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her
imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria
goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeria’s domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to
an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeria’s exports of
petroleum
A
91.
By ‘trade by barter’, we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of
goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade
of the Middle Ages
D
92.
Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C)
Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above
A
93.
International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative
advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within
regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the
world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above
B
86.
7
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ECONOMICS
94.
Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B)
Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget
surplus (E) None of the above
B
95.
The expression ‘Terms of Trade’ is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The
direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate
at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing
The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A)
exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price
D
97.
Under a system of freely floating exchange rates, an increase in the international value of
a country’s currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to
flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation
B
98.
When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the
currency that exchanges for another currency, there is (A) devaluation (B)
depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above
Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible
transaction? (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D)
Tourism (E) Import of building materials
A
96.
99.
100. A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B)
Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E)
Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast
8
C
D
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
1.
A financial analyst needs accounts information to (a) maintain the production section of the
business (b) know why transactions cause increases and decreases in asset (c) advice on how
to manage the business (d) know how to record transactions in T account.
C
2.
Creditors use accounting information for the purpose of (A) planning sales to a company (B)
controlling a company's affairs (C) investing in a company (D) assessing a company's liquidity.
D
3.
In preparing accounting records, the owners of a business and the business are treated as (A)
the same person (B) having business relationship (C) separate legal entities (D) partners.
C
4.
One of the major features of bookkeeping is that it (a) provides permanent records for all
financial transactions (b) is futuristic in nature (c) accepts responsibility for all wrong posting
(d) does not give room for double entry procedure
A
5.
The accounting principle which states that for every debit entry, there is a corresponding
credit entry is recognized as ___ concept. (A) realization (B) entity (C) going concern (D)
duality
The art of collecting, recording, presenting and interpreting accounting data is ___. (A) cost
accounting (B) management accounting (C) financial accounting (D) data processing
D
The assumption that a business has perpetual existence is recognized by ___. (A) entity
concept (B) periodicity concept (C) going concern concept (D) realization concept
The most important reason for studying accounting is that (A) the information provided by
accounting is useful in making decisions (B) accounting plays an important role in a society (C)
the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit
Information.
C
6.
7.
8.
C
A
9.
Which of the following accounting conventions suggests that accountants should use a method
of valuation that understates rather than overstates results? (a) Conservatism (b) Historical
(c) Monetary (d) Cost
A
10.
Which of the following concepts is expected to hold when a proprietor makes a drawing of
goods or cash from the business? (A) Business entity (B) Realization (C) Going concern (D)
Dual-aspect
A payment of cash of N20 to John was entered on the receipt side of the cash book in error
and credited to John's account. Which of the following journal entries can be used to correct
the error? (A) John: N40 Dr, Cash: 40 Cr. (B) Cash: N40 . (C) John: N20 Dr, Cash: N20 Cr. (D)
Cash: 20 Dr, John: N20 Cr.
A
A Sales Day Book is used for recording ___. (A) credit sales (B) sales returns (C) hire purchase
(D) cash sales
A trial balance is usually prepared by an accountant from account balances in the ledger for
the purpose of (A) classifying in the ledger. (B)Testing arithmetical accuracies of the ledger
account balance (C) identifying the balance sheet items (D) providing a basis for establishing
the accountant's competence.
A
14.
Bola, UTC's regular customer, owed NI 000 on account of a radio bought. If he sent in a cheque
for N500, UTC would send him a (A) credit note (B) debit note (C) journal voucher (D) way bill.
A
15.
Books of original entry are used for (A) recording business transactions (B) the adjustment of
accounts (C) reminding the book keeper to-post transactions in the ledger (D) informing the
bookkeeper about the state of affairs.
A
11.
12.
13.
1
A
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
16.
If salary account is debited instead of stationery account, the error committed is that of (a)
commission (b) omission (c) principle (d) compensation
A
17.
Ledger account is mainly classified into (a) nominal, real and personal accounts (b) fixed and
current accounts (c) management, financial and public sector accounting (d) bankand cash
accounts
A
18.
One major advantage of a ledger is that it (A) is a book of original entry (B) is only accessible to
shareholders during distribution (C) removes the need for preparing a balance sheet after each
transaction (D) can be used by any type of business.
D
19.
Return inwards is also known as ___. (A) purchases returns (B) sales returns (C) goods on sale
or return. (D) goods in transit
The account which refers to the tangible assets of a company that is of permanent nature is
the (a) personal account (b) real account (c) nominal account (d) cash account
B
The document that is used to acknowledge the acceptance of the return of goods by the seller
from the buyer is known as (A) credit note (B) debit note (C) invoice (D) voucher.
The effect of payment of a liability is that it (A) increases both assets and liabilities (B)
increases assets and decreases liabilities (C) decreases assets and increases liabilities (D)
decreases both assets and liabilities.
The term posting in accounting refers to (A) recording entries in the journal (B) transferring the
balances in the ledger to the trial balance (C) tracing amounts from the journal to the ledger to
find errors (D) transferring entries to the ledger from the journal.
Which of the following is not a real account? (A) Buildings account (B) Motor vehicle account
(C) Patents account (D) Furniture account
Which of the following is not a revenue account? (A) Sales (B) Purchases (C) Discount received
(D) Interest received
A
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
B
D
D
C
B
26.
Which of the following is the basic accounting equation? (A) Assets= Capital + Liabilities (B)
Capital= Assets + Liabilities (C) Liabilities= Assets + Capital (D) Assets= Liabilities – Equity
A
27.
A system where a separate cash book is maintained for small payments is ___. (A) single entry
(B) imprest (C) float (D) reimbursement
An analytical cash book is used to ___. (A) indicate sources of cash received (B) Categorise
petty cash payment (C) separate cash and bank balance (D) analyse amounts due from
debtors
The sum of money given to a petty cashier out of which small payments are made is called ___.
(A) bonus (B) loan (C) advance (D) float
A rent of 250,000 was paid by John to his landlord by cheque. The double entry in John’s books
is ___. (A) debit Rent account, credit Bank account (B) debit Rent account, credit John’s
account (C) debit Bank account, credit Rent account (D) debit John’s account, credit Rent
account
B
28.
29.
30.
B
D
A
31.
Items in the bank statement of a business but not in the cash book before preparation of bank
reconciliation statement do not include? (A) Bank charges (B) Standing order (C) presented
cheque (D) interest on overdraft
C
32.
The correct sequence in data processing is ___. (A) input →process→ output (B) input→
output →process (C) process→ input→ output (D) process→ output→ input
When a sum of money appears on the credit side of the cash book, but not on the debit side of
the bank statement, the sum is regarded as .(A) uncredited cheques (B) dishonoured cheques
(C) direct remitance to the bank. (D) unpresented cheques.
Which of the following is not a data processing method? (A) Manual (B) Mechanical (C)
Electronic (D) Formatting
2
A
33.
34.
D
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
35.
Fatima withdraws goods from the business for personal use. The accounting treatment is to
debit (a) stock account and credit profit and loss account (b) drawings account and credit
stock account (c) Profit and loss account and credit drawings account (d) Stock account and
credit drawings account
B
36.
Given N - Net Profit 25,000, Cost of sales 25,000, Sales 85,000, Determine the total expenses
(A) N45,000 (B) N35,000 (C) N25,000 (D) N15,000
The objective of a trading account is to establish the (a)cost of goods sold (b) gross profit (c)
manufacturing profit (d) net profit
B
The process of allocating the cost of an intangible asset over its useful life is known as (A)
depreciation (B) extraction (C) depletion (D) amortization.
The profit of a sole trader increases his ___. (A) stock (B) asset (C) liability (D) capital
The recording of wages due but not yet paid is an example of, an adjustment for (A)
apportionment of revenue between two periods (B) recognizing accrued expenses (C)
recognizing unaccounted revenue (D) recognizing prepaid expenses.
The trial balance showed wages, N2,500 and a note stated that N500 wages were due but
unpaid. When preparing final accounts and balance sheet, it is required to debit profit and
loss account with (A) N3,000 and show wages accrued N500 in the balance sheet (B) N2,000
and show ages accrued N500 in the balanced sheet. (C) N3,000 and show wages prepaid N500
in the balance sheet. (D) N2,000 and show wages paid in advance N500 in the balance sheet.
D
Which of the following is the effect of an increase in the provision for discount allowed? (A)
Increase in net profit (B) Decrease in gross profit (C) Decrease in net profit (D) Increase in gross
profit
Why are adjustments in the profit loss account necessary? (A) To cover some expenses of the
following year. (B) To ascertain the actual expenses during the year. (C) To show the
provisions made during the year. (D) To show the total expenses paid and income received
during the year.
C
44.
A seller of vegetables and fruits should be encouraged to value his stock at the end of a period
using the (a) weighted average method (b) simple average method (c) FIFO method (d) LIFO
method
C
45.
Stock valuation is useful because it informs the sales department on the (a) prices of the
competing goods (b) prices that will affect profitability (c) number of goods to produce (d)
number of goods to sell
B
46.
Which of the following stock valuation methods is suitable under inflationary conditions? (A)
FIFO (B) LIFO (C) Simple average (D) Weighted average.
In the absence of a sales day book or sales account, credit sales can be computed from (A)
creditor control account (B) debtors' control account (C) opening figures of the balance sheet
(D) closing figures of the balance sheet.
Sales ledger control account contains the total amount in respect of (A) Creditors (B) Debtors
(C) Investors (D) Shareholders.
A
The difference in the sales ledger control account is transferred to the (a) profit and loss
account (b) sales account (c) balance sheet (d) trading account
B
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
47.
48.
49.
3
B
D
B
A
B
B
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
50.
The following represents extracts from the trading account of a retail outlet for a given month:
Opening stock 2,400 Closing stock 6,400 Other expenses 2,000 Sales 11,000 Profit 900
What is the purchase figure for the month? (A) N13,000 (B) N12, 100 (C) N12,000 (D) N11 ,200
B
51.
The objective of the purchases ledger control account is to establish the (a) credit purchases
(b) net profit (c) total purchase (d) gross profit
A
52.
The principal use of control accounts is to (A) localise errors within the ledgers (B) prevent
fraud (C) Increase Sales (D) record assets and liabilities.
The purchases ledger control account of a company had an opening balance of N45 600 and
closing balance of N72600 credit. The company made payments of N437 000 to credit
suppliers during the period; and had discount received of N18 600 on this account. What were
the credit purchases for the period? (A) N509 600 (B) N482 600 (C) N428 600 (D) N418 400
A
54.
The total of the creditors at the beginning of the year was N4600 and at the end of the year
N5250. During the year, N26500 was paid to suppliers and N130 was received in discounts
from these suppliers. The purchases for the year
Would be (A) N26630 (B) N27 038 (C) N27
150 (D) N27 280
D
55.
Tunde purchased goods from Femi by cash worth N1,000 with 10% cash discount Tunde’s
purchases ledger control account it to be (a) debit by N100 (b) credited by N100 (c) credited
by N1,000 (d) debited by N1,000
A
56.
Which of the following conditions best represents the net effect of discount allowed on credit
sales on the accounts of a business? (A) Decrease in the closing balance of sales ledger control
account (B) Increase in net profit.
(C) Increase in the value of sales. (D) Decrease in the
value of purchases in the trading account.
A
57.
Given: N - Capital at the beginning 20,000, Drawings 3,000, Capital at end 30,000, New
capital introduced 8,000. What is the profit for the period? (A) N4,000 (B)N5,000 (C) N6,000
(D) 8,000
Sundry debtors in the balance sheet of Onoja Bakery and Sons totaled N800,000. A provision
of 2%was made for discount and 5% provision for bad and doubtful debts. Find the amount for
sundry debtors after provision. (a) N 760,000 (b)N N744,800 (c) N 744,000 (d)N 784,000
B
59.
The starting point for the production of accounts from incomplete records is to __ (A)
ascertain the total sales. (B) compute the opening stock of goods sold. (C) verify the total
purchases (D) prepare an opening statement of affairs.
D
60.
A factory cost excluding prime cost is ___. (A) overhead (B) material cost (C) fixed cost (D)
administration cost
Given: N - Prime cost 220,000, Factory cost 32,000, Work in progress at beginning 25,000,
Work In progress at close 19,000, Administrative expenses 21,000 , Determine the
production cost (A) N296,000 (B) N277,000 (C) N258,000 (D)N246,000
A
Given: N - Direct material 10,000, Direct labour 5,000, Direct expenses 2,000, Factory
overhead 4,000. What is the prime cost? (A)N21,000 (B) N17,000 (C) N15,000 (D) N6,000
B
53.
58.
61.
62.
4
B
B
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
63.
The difference between a trading account and a manufacturing account is that while
manufacturing account (A) has no particular period, the trading account has (B) does not
consider cost of goods involved, the trading account does (C) is concerned with the cost of
production, the trading account is not. (D) is not concerned with stock of raw materials, the
trading account is.
C
64.
The factory cost of goods produced is made up of (A) prime cost and factory overhead (B)
prime cost and office overhead (C) raw materials consumed and fixed cost (D) raw materials
and administrative overhead.
A
65.
The following information is provided for Amusa Company Ltd a manufacturer: N- Prime cost
999,000, Manufacturing overhead 132,000, Closing work in progress 75,000, Value of finished
goods- Transferred to the Trading Account 1116000, If included in the manufacturing
overhead were rents of 5,000 paid in advance, what is the opening work in progress for the
period? (A) N85,000 (B) N80,000 (C) N70,000 (D) N65,000
D
66.
The manufacturing account is prepared to determine the cost of ___. (A) trading (B)
production (C) factory overhead (D) raw materials used
Subscription in arrears are (A) credited to the income and expenditure account and shown as a
liability in the balance sheet (B) debited to the income and expenditure account and shown as
an asset in the balance sheet (C) credited to the income and expenditure account and shown
as an asset in the balance sheet (D) debited to the income and expenditure account and shown
as a liability in the balance sheet.
B
68.
Where a non-profit organization prepares the accounts using accruals basis of reporting, the
statement showing how well the organization is doing is the (A) appropriation account (B)
balance sheet (C) income and expenditure account. (D) receipt and payment account.
C
69.
Departmental accounts are maintained to ascertain the (A) profits of the entire organization
(B) contribution of each department (C) expenses of each department (D) sales of each
department.
B
70.
The gross profit disclosed in the branch stock adjustment account represents (a) Head office
profit (b) unrealized profit (c) estimated profit (d) branch profit
D
71.
A partnership on admitting a new member, revalued the business' land and building from N30
000 to N70 000. The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account
(B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited
to profit and loss appropriate account.
C
72.
Adamu, Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 3:2:1.
Their respective capitals are N20,000, N15,000, N5,000 on which they are entitled to interest
at 5% per annum. The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to
N5,500. Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1,000 (C) N1,167 (D) N1,750
D
73.
In a partnership business, the net profit serves as opening figure for ___. (A) trading account
(B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account
In the absence of a partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared ___. (A) in the ratio of
capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered
D
67.
74.
5
C
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
75.
Interest on a partner's drawings is debited to the (A) partner's current account and credited to
the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited
to the partner's current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partner's
account (D) partner's current account and credited to the profit and loss account.
A
76.
Partners’ share of profit is credited to (a) a partner’s current account (b) a partner’s capital
account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account
A
77.
Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership? (A) The life of the partnership is
generally assumed to be indefinite. (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the
business. The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The
partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements.
B
78.
A bond, acknowledging a loan to a company under the company’s seal, bearing a fixed rate of
interest is known as? (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture
D
79.
Alabede (Nig.) Limited issued 50,000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N2.50 each.
The share premium is (A) N125,000 (B) N100,000 (C) N75,000 (D) N50,000.
All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves. (A) Share premium (B)
Revaluation surplus (C) Pre-incorporation profit (D) debenture premium
Holders of ordinary shares do not have the right to ___. (A) participate in additional issue of
shares (B) vote at annual general meetings (C) elect the board of directors (D) receive
dividend at a predetermined rate
In company accounts, profit after tax is shared in the ___ account. (A) appropriation (B)
revaluation (C) current (D) profit realization
C
80.
81.
82.
D
D
A
83.
The amount set aside out of profits earned by a company which is not meant for liability or
contingency are ___. (A) dividends (B) provisions (C) retained profits (D) reserves
D
84.
Which of the following attracts a fixed rate of dividend? (A) Ordinary shares (B) Founders’
shares (C) Preference shares (D) Deferred shares
Which Of the following ratios gives an idea of the liquidity of a firm? (A) Turnover ratio (B)
Quick ratio (C) Debt ratio (D) Dividend yield.
C
86.
A pension granted to any past president or vice-president shall be charged to the (a)
consolidated revenue fund (b) special pension fund (c) contingency fund (d) development
fund
B
87.
Public sector accounting is practiced in ___.A. public limited companies (B) government
organizations (C) profit making organizations (D) public trading companies
B
88.
The basis of accounting which eliminates debtors and creditors is ___. (A) cash basis (B)
accrual basis (C) fund basis (D) commitment basis
A
89.
Which of the following is a source of revenue to a local government authority? (A) Poll tax (B)
Excise duty (C) PAYE tax (D) Value added tax
Adama's bank account showed an overdraft of N600 on 31st March. On going through the
account, it was discovered that the 1 080 paid into the account on 29th march had not been
credited. What should be the balance in Adama’ s cash accounts. (A) N1,680 Dr. (B) N1,080 Cr.
(C)N600 Dr. (D) N480 Cr.
A
85.
90.
6
B
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINE ART
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
A major medium used during the early Medieval Architecture was(A) bricks(B) clay(C) stone (D)
terra cotta(E) wood
An art folio is a container where…………………... are kept. (A) all artworks (B) 2-dmantiona paper
works (C) 3-dimentional works (D) paintings (E) sculptures
Benin Art is often regarded as COURT ART because the artworks were (A) done in the courts.
(B) meant for the judges in the Benin Kingdom. (C) made for the Oba’s Court and glorification
of the Oba (D) made with royal items (E) produced by court workers
Impressionism is an art movement that thrived in the……………century. (A) 15th (B) 16th
(C)17th (D) 18th h (E) 19th
Madona was a theme in Renaissance Art which talks about (A) mother and child (B) naturalism
(C) nudity (D) virginity (E) womanhood
Naturalism is a characteristic often associated with (A) Benin (B) Ife (C) Igbo Ukwu (D) Nok (E)
Owo
One of the following art cultures has ONLY Stone Sculptures (A) Benin (B) Esie (C) Ife (D) Nok (E)
Owo
One of the following aspects of art needs firing (A) ceramics (B) graphics (C) painting (D)
textiles (E) crafts
One of the following is not a medium used in producing sculptures (A) bronze (B) clay (C)
pastel (D) plaster of paris (E) wood
Sculpture is in the discipline of ------------ art. (A) Commercial art (B) Functional art (C) Fine art
(D) Industrial art. (E) Performing
Soap stone carving is associated with(A) Egypt(B) Esie(C) Ife(D) Nok(E) Nupe
The ‘RISEN CHRIST’ at the Chapel of The Resurrection, University of Ibadan was made by (A)
Lamidi Fakeye (B) Aina Onabolu (C) Kenneth Murray (D) Ben Enwowu (E) Bruce
Onobrakpeya
The Glass Mural at the Muritala Mohammed Airport in Lagos was made by(A) Aina Onabolu(B)
Akinola Lasekan(C) Ben Enwonwu(D) Bruce Onobrakpeya(E) Felix Idubor
The most popular art movement in the 20th Century was (A) Cubism (B) Dadaism (C)
Expression (D) Naturalism (E) Post Impressionism
The oldest art culture in Nigeria is from (A) Benin (B) Ife (C) Esie (D) Igbo Ukwu (E) Nok
Traditional African art is expressed through ----------(A) Ceramics (B) Murals (C) paintings (D)
sculptures (E) theatres
Which of the following areas of Art would you associate LadiKwali with? (A) graphics (B)
painting (C) printing (D) pottery(E) textiles
Who among the following is one of the proponents of Impressionism Art Movement? (A)
Claude Monet (B) Geoges Braque (C) George grosz (D) Kandisky (E) William Morris
Who among the following is regarded as the Father of Nigeria Modern Art?(A) Aina Onabolu(B)
Akinola Lasekan(C) Lamidi Fakeye(D) Kenneth Murray(E) Ben Enwowu
Who among the following painted the portrait of Mrs. Spencer? (A) AinaOnabolu(B)
AkinolaLasekan(C) Ben Enwonwu(D) Dele Jegede(E) Yusuf Grillo
Paintings done on wet plaster are called (A) collage (B) fresco (C) mosaic (D) mural (E)
portraiture
The use of beads, pebbles, seeds and broken pieces of glass to produce an artwork is often
called (A) collage (B) Mosaic (C) assemblage (D) bead painting (E) puppetry
1
C
B
C
E
A
B
B
A
C
C
B
D
D
A
E
D
D
A
A
A
B
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINE ART
23.
This diagram is best referred to as (A) human head (B) black head (C)
profile (D) side view (E) silhouette
E
24.
This diagram is best regarded as (A) life drawing (B) figure drawing (C)
profile (D) side view (E) silhouette
C
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
When painting in the studio, the artist hangs his painting board on(A) a donkey chair (B) a table
(C) an easel (D) the wall (E) wooden plank
Which of the following groups would you regard as Neutral colours? (A) blue and white (B)
blue and red (C) green and red (D) white and black (E) white and purple
A unit of design in pattern making is called (A) form (B) motif (C) object (D) shape (E) solid
colour
Drawing of a scene off-hand is known as (A) imaginative composition (B) landscape drawing
(C) life drawing (D) off-hand drawing (E) scene composition
Hatching is a technique in shading used in …………..dimensional art. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
In a design, what colour should be used to represent vitality (A) black (B) blue (C) brown (D)
purple (E) white
In perspective, the farther an object, the………………… it becomes (A) better (B) bigger (C)
brighter (D) narrower (E) smaller
In the absence of a pencil, which of the following is best used as a substitute? (A) biro (B)
colour pencil (C) charcoal (D) pastel (E) plastercine
Leaf prints can be classified as an aspect of (A) craft (B) design (C) drawing (D) painting (E)
sculpture
Still life drawing encourages students to draw from A .imagination (B) imitation (C) life (D)
memory (E) observation
The drawing of a boy with his pet dog can best be regarded as…………….. drawing. (A)
imaginative (B) life (C) nature (D) still life (E) animal live
What colour should be used to express royalty (A) silver and gold (B) silver and blue (C)
white and gold (D) purple and gold (E) purple and silver
What is a Vanishing Point ? (A) A point where all lines meet (B) A point where all lines become
small (C) The place where all objects meet (D) A point where all parallel lines meet (E) A point
where all receding parallel lines meet
Which of the following grades of pencils has the darkest shade? (A) 2H (B) H (C) B (D) 2B (E) 3B
Which of the following would you apply to create depth and farness in a two dimensional art?
(A) elements of art (B) colour wheel (C) principles of design (D) principles of perspective (E) all
of the above
The special chair on which the artist sits when drawing in or outside the studio is called (A)
camel chair (B) donkey chair (C) horse chair (D) monkey chair (E) stool
2
C
D
B
A
B
C
E
C
B
E
B
D
A
E
D
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FINE ART
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
A textile designer would need ………….. colour dye to change a red colour fabric to orang(E) (A)
black (B) blue (C) green (D) white (E) yellow
The Batik technique of dyeing is otherwise called (A) mabling (B) resist (C) splashing (D) tiedye (E) waxing
When dyeing a cloth, one of the following materials is not required (A) Caustic soda (B) Dye
(C) Easel (D) Hydrosulphite (E) Water
Relief sculpture can be classified as (A) Sculpture- in –the round (B) 2-dimensional sculpture
(C) 3-dimensional art (D) carving (E) casting
The first thing the sculptor should do before casting is to produce(A) a marquette(B) a mould (C)
a pole(D) some sand(E) a slab
The skeletal frame which supports a sculpture is regarded as (A) armature (B) Marquette (C)
frame (D) prototype (E) mould
When modeling with Papier Mache, which of the following is best used as a Binder? (A)
Evostic (B) paper gum (C) starch (D) super glue (E) white glue
All are crafts EXCEPT ………….. (A) calabash decoration (B) dyeing (C) leatherworks (D)
photography (E) weaving
Calabash decoration is most commonly practiced in one of the following towns (A) Ibadan (B)
Ile Ife (C) Ilesa (D) Oyo (E) Saki
One of the following is not a term used in Ceramics.(A) biscuit ware (B) Green ware (C) Grog
(D) Mesh (E) Slip
Warp and Weft are applicable in one of the following(A) basketry (B) collage (C) mosaic (D)
painting (E) sculpture
Which of the following does not belong to the group? (A) ceramics (B) drawing (C) Sculpture
(D) Painting (E) architecture
Which of the following moulding methods is not likely used by a local potter? (A) coil (B) cast
(C) slab (D) throwing (E) cast
A book illustrator must have specialized in (A) Ceramics (B) Graphics (C) Painting (D) Sculpture
(E) Textile
Cartooning is to drawing as Calligraphy is to (A) cursive writing (B) block lettering (C) gothic
lettering (D) free-hand pen lettering (E) script lettering
Slanting form of writing describes (A) calligraphy (B) gothic (C) italics (D) Old English (E) text
The two classifications of lettering are ………………. and ………………. cases. (A) big, small (B)
medium, big (C) small, capital (D) upper, lower (E) upper, small
Which of the following colours connotes growth? (A) blue (B) green (C) orange (D) purple (E)
white
Which of the following colours symbolizes peace? (A) black (B) green (C) orange (D) red (E)
white
Which of the following letters occupies the widest space? (A) A (B) C (C) M (D) W (E) X
3
E
B
C
B
B
A
C
D
D
D
A
A
D
B
D
C
D
B
E
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FRENCH
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Quel pays? (A) Codevoir (B) Côte d’Ivoire (C) Gbagbo (D) Ouattara (E) Burkina Faso
____ est un fleuve en France (A) La Rhône (B) Le massif central ©Le jura (D) Les Pyrénées
‘bonjour’ est pour: (A) insulter (B) saluer (C) préparer (D) harasser (E) refuser
‘bonjour’ se dit: (A) le matin (B) l’après-midi (C) le soir (D) la nuit (E) minuit
C’est un nom français : (A) John (B) Paul (C) Pele (D) Bolu (E) Persie
C’est une ville française: (A) Marseille (B) Québec (C) Bingerville (D) Jacqueville (E)
Bruxelles
B
A
B
A
B
A
7.
8.
9.
Ce n’est pas une ville française: (A) . Lille (B) Lyon (C) Paris (D) Bruxelles (E) Strasbourg
Ce sont des noms français, excepté: (A) Henri, (B) Dumont, (C) Michel, (D) Alice, (E) Platini
Comment s’appelle l’Hymne national de la France? (A) La comédie (B) La farce (C) La
champagne (D) L’harmonie (E) La Marseillaise
D
E
E
10.
L’habitante de Cameroun s’appelle comment? (A) Un Cameroun (B) Une Camerounaise (C)
Un Camerounais (D) un autochtone (E) Un étranger
B
11.
L’hymne national de la France est (A) La marseillaise (B) Le coq (C) Le mouton (D) La vache
A
12.
13.
La courant électrique produit : (A) NEPA ; (B) lumière ; (C) PHCN ; (D) gasoil ; (E) joule
La devise de la France est (A) Liberté, Fraternité, Egalité(B) Liberté, Paix, Unité(C) Fraternié,
Unité, Liberté (D) Foi, Fraternité, Egalité
B
A
14.
La France est aussi appelée (A) la polygone (B) l’hexagon (C) l’octagone (D) la nonagone
B
15.
16.
La France est dans quelle organisation ? (A) UE (B) ECOWAS (C) ASEAN (D) AU (E) NURTW
La France est: (A) Royaume, (B) an Empire, (C) Fédération, (D) République, (E)
Confédération
La France s’appelle Hexagone parce qu’elle ressemble à une figure géométrique qui a combien
de côtés ? (A) 3, (B) 4, (C) 5, (D) 6, (E) 8
La langue: (A) France (B) francess (C) francaise (D) française (E) françoise
La résidence du président de la république est (A) (C) hamps Elysée(B) Aso Rock(C) Place de la
concorde (D) . Le Château
La ville ‘Rouen’ se trouve en…………….. (A) Angleterre (B) Italie (C) Espagne (D) France (E)
Egypte
A
D
21.
Le français est la langue officielle du Nigéria (A) VRAI (B) FAUX (C) Aucune idée (D) Pas idée
B
22.
Le français est langue maternelle, excepté à: (A) . France (B) Belgium (C) Canada (D) USA
(E) Togo
Le pays de Goodlock Jonathan s’appelle : (A) . Nigerie (B) Nigérie (C) Niger (D) Nigeria (E)
Nigie
E
17.
18.
19.
20.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
Les couleurs du drapeau de la France sont (A) Bleu, Blanc, Rouge (B) Vert, Jaune, Bleu (C)
Bleu, Rouge, Blanc (D) Violet, rouge, jaune
Les gens qui viennent du Burkina-Faso sont (A) Burkinabés (B) Burkinée (C) Burkinafasée (D)
Burkinafasoen
Marseille est : (A) pays, (B) ville, (C) club, (D) parti politique, (E) mer
N’est pas un certificat français: (A) DELF, (B) DALF, (C) BAC, (D) BEPC, (E) n ce
1
D
D
A
D
D
A
A
B
E
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FRENCH
28.
On dit bon appétit au moment de__ (A) nager (B) manger (C) se lever (D) se lever
B
29.
30.
On parle la langue en: (A) . France (B) francess (C) francais (D) français (E) François
Quelle est la montagne la plus haute du monde? (A) Le mont Ekiti (B) Le mont Everest (C) Le
mont Idanre (D) Le mont Tapa—(E) Le mont Okeodan
A
B
31.
Un des pays suivants n’est pas un pays francophone(A) Le Mali (B) Le Niger (C) La Gambie
(D) Le Sénégal
C
32.
Un Français est une personne qui ... (A) . parle français (B) est né en France (C) a la
nationalité française (D) a une épouse française (E) possède la monnaie française
C
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
Une des couleurs du drapeau français est: (A) blanc, (B) vert, (C) jaune, (D) brun, (E) orange
‘comment ça ......?’ (A) ta (B) va (C) vas (D) ma (E) la
Chinua Achebe est (A) cinéaste (B) écrivain (C) pianiste (D) Américain
Compléter: asseyez-….. : (A) tu ; (B) nous ; (C) ils ; (D) je ; (E) vous
L’auteur de Une Vie de boy est ___ (A) Racine (B) Corneille (C) Molière (D) Ferdinand
Oyono
A
B
B
E
D
38.
39.
40.
41.
Le roi soleil est (A) Louis XIV (B) Louis XVI (C) Louis XVII (D) Louis XVIII
Les colonies françaises dans les continents : (A) . tous les continents (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2 (E) 1
Mot correct : (A) radiot ; (B) radyo ; (C) radiôt ; (D) radio ; (E) redio
N’est pas une colonie française: (A) . Egypte (B) Afrique du sud (C) Burkina Faso (D) Maroc
(E) Togo
A
A
D
B
42.
Un romancier c’est quelqu’un qui écrit (A) des poems (B) des journaux (C) des contes (D) des
romans
D
43.
44.
‘ça va bien, .........’ : (A) bien (B) merci (C) mercy (D) bonjour (E) comment
‘comment tu ……………… ?’ (A) . s’appelles (B) t’appelles (C) vous appelles (D) vous appelez(E)
vous vous appelez
B
B
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
‘J’ai dix .......’: (A) cents (B) ans (C) sans (D) zans (E) âge
‘manger’ = (A) eat (B) sleep (C) change (D) mango (E) manger
…. table: (A) la ; (B) le ; (C) les ; (D) de ; (E) l’
…. tableau : (A) la ; (B) le ; (C) les ; (D) de ; (E) l’
…. Travaux : (A) la ; (B) le ; (C) les ; (D) de ; (E) l’
….. nez : (A) la ; (B) le ; (C) ma ; (D) de ; (E) l’
A la librairie, on vend (A) des oranges (B) de la viande (C) des livres (D) des bonbons
B
A
A
B
C
B
C
52.
53.
Au cinéma on regarde (A) les films (B) les tableaux (C) les écrans (D) les souris
Avec la radio (A) On écoute les nouvelles (B) On appelle nos amis (C) On regarde la télévision
(D) On joue au football
A
A
54.
55.
Ayo et moi___toujours. (A) chantent (B) chantez (C) chantons (D) chantes
Celui qui désigne le plan d’une maison s’appelle …………….. (A) un architecte (B) un peintre (C)
un chauffeur(D) un maître (E) un agent—
C
A
56.
Celui qui enseigne le français s’appelle (A) Professeur (B) Maître (C) Madame (D) Malim
A
2
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FRENCH
57.
Celui qui ne sait pas parler s’appelle un(e) ………………. (A) sourd (B) muet (C) bavard (D) bossu
(E) aveugle
B
58.
Comment allez-vous? (A) Je vais bien merci (B) tout va bien (C) pas de quoi (D) c’est gratuity
A
59.
60.
61.
62.
Compléter: lève-….. : (A) toi ; (B) nous ; (C) ils ; (D) je ; (E) vous
Donnez-moi votre crayon s’il__plait. (A) te (B) vous (C) nous (D) se
Ici, on parle ……… (A) . France (B) français (C) française (D) francess (E) françois
Il travaille à Punch Newspaper, il est (A) journalier, (B) Journaliste, (C) écrivain, (D) nationalité,
(E) photographe
A
B
B
B
63.
L’endroit où l’on peut emprunter des livres s’appelle une …………… (A)
bibliothèque (C) maison(D) boutique (E) vendeuse—
B
64.
65.
L’ordinateur sert à (A) taper (B) courir (C) manger (D) marcher
Laquelle des réponses suivantes est correcte ?(A) Papa va à l’église (B) Papa aller à l’église
(C) Papa vont à l’église (D) Papa allez à l’église
A
A
66.
Laquelle des réponses suivantes est correcte ? (A) Papa va à l’église (B) Papa aller à l’église
(C) Papa vont à l’église (D) Papa allez à l’église
A
67.
Le nom formé du verbe ‘chanter’ c’est ………….. . (A) chanson (B) chanteur (C) chantent (D)
chantant (E) chant
A
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
Mon ….. : (A) ami ; (B) amis ; (C) amies ; (D) nami ; (E) namis
Mot intrus : (A) dix ; (B) deux ; (C) demi ; (D) neuf ; e seize
Mot intrus : (A) janvier ; (B) dimanche ; (C) juillet ; (D) avril ; (E) mai
Mot intrus : (A) premier ; (B) primaire ; (C) secondaire ; (D) tertiaire ; (E) universitaire
Mot intrus : (A) stylo ; (B) style ; (C) règle ; (D) crayon ; (E) gomme
On dit__aux amis qui voyagent (A) allo (B) voilà (C) d’accord (D) au revoir
On entend avec le ……………. . (A) le nez (B) les oreilles (C) la main (D) cou (E) les pieds
A
C
B
A
B
D
B
75.
On prend le petit déjeuner pendant__ (A) l’après midi (B) le jour (C) le matin (D) le soir
C
76.
77.
78.
79.
On utilise les pieds pour (A) marcher (B) respirer (C) regarder (D) travailler
Pour respirer, on utilise . (A) la bouche (B) la tête (C) le nez (D) les yeux
Quand on a__on boit de l’eau (A) soif (B) froid (C) peur (D) sommeil
Un basketteur c’est quelqu’un (A) joue de la guitare (B) joue au basketball (C) joue au
football (D) joue au tennis
A
C
A
B
80.
Un homme qui n’est pas encore marié est un ……………. (A) nubile (B) ami (C) célibataire (D)
marié (E) chômeur—
C
81.
Une personne qui vient de Madagascar s’appelle un(A) Madagascar (B) Malgache (C) Mada
(D) Malien
B
82.
83.
Vous……………. enseignant ? (A) être, (B) êtes, (C) es, (D) est, (E) avez
12.00 p.m. est ____ en français (A) Midi (B) Treize heures (C) Quatorze heures (D) Quinze
heures
B
A
84.
Je mange signifie _____ en anglais (A) I am eating (B) I am drinking (C) I am happy (D) I am
cooking
A
3
librairie (B)
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
FRENCH
85.
86.
L’eau signifie ___ en anglais (A) water (B) rain (C) milk (D) Salt
____ est la date de la fête nationale en France(A) 15 juillet (B) 14 juillet (C) 16 juillet (D) 17
juillet
A
B
87.
88.
89.
_____ est une montagne en France (A) Alpes (B) La Loire (C) La Seine (D) Le Niger
Badagry se trouve à (A) Kano (B) Kaduna (C) Lagos (D) Rivers
Combien de langues officielles parle-t-on en Afrique de l’ouest? (A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 19 (D) 2 (E)
22
A
C
D
90.
91.
92.
93.
L’ambassade de France est à (A) Abuja, (B) Ibadan, (C) Port-Harcourt, (D) Kano, (E) Enugu
La capitale de la Belgique est (A) Belgia (B) Belge (C) Bruxelles (D) Ottawa
La capitale du Nigéria est (A) Kano (B) Kaduna (C) Abuja (D) Kano
La date de l’indépendance du Nigéria est (A) 1er Octobre (B) Le 2 Mai (C) Le 4 Juin (D) Le 14
juillet
A
C
C
A
94.
La fête de noël est dans quel mois de l’année? (A) avril (B) août (C) décembre (D) novembre
C
95.
96.
La première guerre mondiale a commencé en (A) 1915 (B) 1914 (C) 1916 (D) 1925
La première université du Nigéria est (A) Université d’Ibadan (B) Université du Nigeria (C)
Université de Jos (D) Université de Calabar
B
A
97.
Le gouverneur de l’état de Lagos s’appelle (A) Raji Fasola (B) Raji Omotola (C) Raji Fafunwa
(D) Aliu Fafunwa
A
98.
Le Président de la France est: (A) Nicolas Sarkozy, (B) Zinedine Zidane, (C) Dominique StrassKhan, (D) Arsène Wenger, (E) Carla Bruni
A
99.
Le président du Nigéria s’appelle (A) Goodluck Jonathan (B) Musa Yaradua (C) Aguyi Ironsi
(D) Tafawa Balewa
A
100. Les français aiment manger du pain (A) VRAI (B) FAUX (C) Aucune idée (D) Pas d’idée
4
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GEOGRAPHY
1.
A map drawn to a scale of 1:180 000 is reduced three times. What is the scale of the new map?
(A) 1:60 000 (B) 1:90 000 (C) 1: 360 000 (D) 1:540 000
D
2.
A map with a scale of 1:60,000 was reduced by ½, the scale of the new map will be?
(A)1:90,000(B)1:120,000 (C) 1:30,000 (D) 1:60,000 (E) 1: 40,000
B
3.
Closed (circular) contours with increasing height inwards indicate a (A) Valley(B)Conical hill (C)
Spur (D) Waterfall
B
4.
If the distance between two points on a map with a scale 1:50 000 is 35mm, what is the
distance between them on the ground? (A). 1.50km (B). 1.55km (C) 1.75km (D). 1.85km
C
5.
Lines joining places of equal sunshine hours on a map are called (A) isobars (B) isotherms (C)
isohels (D) isohyets
C
6.
The topographical map is a __ (A) map showing physical and socio-cultural features of a rather
small area. b Maps generally published in the books and atlases(C)Large sized wall map of
large territories showing political and economic detail (D) Large scale map using a variety of
colours and shades to show economic activities
A
7.
The main purpose of any ground survey is to (A) measure and record lines and angles of places
(B) derive accurate baseline data for urban planning (C) have a detailed knowledge of the
geology of a place (D) make an accurate map of a part of the earth’s surface.
D
8.
The main use of Abney level in survey is to determine the (A)Angle of inclination(B)Relative
location (C) Area coverage (D) Spot height
A
9.
Two points on a river are 10.4 km apart and one stands 400 meters above the other. What is
the gradient along the river between the points ?(A) 1 in 20 b 1 in 24 (C) 1 in 32 (D) 1 in 36
C
10.
Which of the following scales should show the greatest amount of detail on a map? (A) 1:
2500 000 (B)1: 63 360(C)1:32 (D)1:2
D
11.
A major feature of the tropical continental climates is the (A) relatively low annual range of
temperature (B) regular and reliable rainfall (C) excess of evaporation over rainfall (D) excess
of rainfall over evaporation
C
12.
A ship radioed message on the high sea at 5.45 pm was heard at Abidjan (50W) at 11.15 am on
the same day. Find the position of the ship. (A) 900E(B) 920 30E (C) 950E(D) 87030E
D
13.
A soil sample consisting of 49% sand, 28% silt and 23% clay is classified as (A) sand (B) loam (C)
sandy clay (D) clay
A solution to wind erosion in semi-arid areas is the establishment of (A) Crop strips (B)
Terrace bounds (C) Shelter belts (D) Diversion channels
A
15.
A traveler crossing the International Date Line from America to Asia at 12 midnight on Sunday
would have to change his watch to 12 midnight on (A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D)
Saturday
B
16.
After condensation, the rate of cooling of a rising air mass decreases because it becomes (A)
stable (B) lighter (C) denser (D) warm
All the following are causes of mechanical weathering except—(A) Temperature changes (B)
Rain action (C) Alternate wetting and drying (D) Frost action (E) Action of plants and animals
C
14.
17.
1
C
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GEOGRAPHY
18.
An example of a set of chemically formed sedimentary rocks is (A) sandstone and grit (B)
dolomite and gypsum (C) peat and coal (D) flint and shale
B
19.
An avalanche is a (A) mass of glacial debris transported to the sea (B)mass of snow and rocks
moving downslope under gravity (C)broad crack in the upper part of a glacier (D)steep rock in
the coastal area made by wave erosion
B
20.
At which of the following latitudes would you expect more than 24 hours of continuous
sunshine or darkness at a particular time of the year? (A) 400N and S (B) 500N and S (C) 600N
and S (D) 700N and S
D
21.
Basaltic plateau are usually formed by a lava that is (A) basic and fluid (B) acidic and fluid (C)
acidic and viscous (D) basic and viscous
Geomorphology is the study of (A) Surface features of the earth (B) Interior of the earth (C)
The earth as biosphere (D) Earth as a planet
D
In the hydrological cycle, the transfer of water from the earth surface to the atmosphere is
(A) precipitation (B) infiltration (C) evaporation (D) condensation
In the interior of the earth (A) The temperature falls with increasing depth (B) The pressure
falls with increasing depth (C) The temperature rises with increasing depth (D) Pressure
remains constant with varying depth
C
25.
Koppen’s classification of climate is based on (A) Temperature and pressure (B) Pressure only
(C) Precipitation and temperature (D) Rainfall only (E) Temperature only
C
26.
Lakes formed as a result of landslides, screes or avalanches are known as (A) Man-made lakes
(B) Barrier lakes (C) Caldera lakes (D) Rock-hollow lakes
Mountains formed as a result of compressional forces in the earth’s crust are (A) Block
mountain (B) Fold mountain (C) Volcanic mountain (D) Residual mountain (E) Rocky mountain
B
28.
Plant growth normally ceases, when the temperature falls below (A) 00C (B) 60C (C) 100C (D)
150C
A
29.
Rainfall caused by the movement of air over a mountain is called (A) Orographic rainfall
(B)Cyclonic rainfall (C)Frontal rainfall (D)Thunder shower
A
30.
Rotation of the earth is (A) The movement of the earth in the atmosphere (B) The movement
of the earth on its axis (C) The movement of the earth round the sun (D) The movement of
the moon round the earth
B
31.
Seasons are recognized within the tropics primarily on the basis of (A) air masses (B)
temperature (C) rainfall (D) evaporation (E) wind velocity
C
32.
Soil formation includes 1. Weathering, 2. organic activity, 3. Erosion, 4. leaching .(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3 (C) 1,2 and 4 (D) all the four
D
33.
Temperature is usually depicted by the line graph because it is a property that (A) fluctuates
over space (B) varies continuously over time (C) measures sensible heat(D) is measured in
terms of quantity
B
34.
The circulations of the oceans and the atmosphere, primarily help to redistribute and equalize
global (A) Heat (B) Flora (C) Oxygen (D) Fauna
A
22.
23.
24.
27.
2
A
C
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GEOGRAPHY
35.
The cold current that flows northwards through the coast of West Africa is known as (A)
Canaries current (B) Cayenne current (C) Benguela current (D) South equatorial current
A
36.
The fundamental role played by the decomposers in the functioning of the ecosystem is the
(A) disposal of plant and animal waste products (B) release of energy and nutrients locked up
in organic litter (C) precipitation of organic and mineral elements from the soil (D) cycling of
water and chemical elements
B
37.
The Gulf stream is a (A) cold current in southern Atlantic (B) warm current in north Pacific (C)
warm current in north Atlantic (D) cold current in southern Pacific
C
38.
The intensity of the sun’s heat is not much in polar regions because (A) the earth is flat at the
poles (B) the atmosphere is thick at the poles (C) the angle of insolation is low (D) the angle of
insolation is high
C
39.
The major constituents of a typical soil are (A) gravel, sand ,silt and clay(B) mineral matter,
organic matter, air and water(C) stone, mineral matter, pore spaces and micro- organism (D)
calcium, magnesium, potassium and sodium
B
40.
The most important environmental resource that sustains natural processes in an ecosystem is
(A) light (B) water (C) air (D) energy
B
41.
The north pole experience continuous dark at the time of (A)Summer solstice (B) Winter
solstice (C) Vernal equinox (D) Autumnal equinox
B
42.
The pedogenic regime of podzolization is typical in areas of (A) coniferous forests (B) high
temperature and humidity (C) dry climate (D) tropical monsoon regions
A
43.
The period when the earth is furthest from the sun is (A) Aphelion (B) Summer (C) Perihelion
(D) Spring
A
44.
The polar radius of the earth measures (A) 6400km (B) 6357km (C) 6227km (D) 6340km
B
45.
The portion of the earth that contains life is the (A) atmosphere (B) hydrosphere (C)
lithosphere (D) biosphere
D
46.
The processes by which materials are physically transferred from one soil layer to another is
called (A) leaching (B) physical weathering (C) illuviation (D) eluviation
A
47.
The processes of weathering include all but one of the following (A) Alternate heating and
cooling of rocks (B) Peeling off of exposed layers of rounded crystalline rocks (C) Rock rotting
because of chemical changes (D) Movement of rock particles downslope because of pull of
gravity
D
48.
The stars are not scattered regularly in space but occur in clusters described as (A) Elliptical
bank (B) Galaxies (C) Solar system (D) Star Condensation (E) The milky way
B
49.
The sun is vertical over the Tropic of Cancer on (A) March 21 (B) June 22 (C) Sept. 23 (D) Dec.
22
The term ‘catena’ describes the (A) effect of topography on soil series (B) sequence of
modified soils along a slope profile (C) changes in soil fertility along a slope profile (D) colour
differences in soils along a slope profile
B
50.
51.
The time difference between new Orleans on longitude 900W and Cairo on longitude 300E is
(A) 4 hours (B) 8 hours (C) 12 hours (D) 16 hours
3
A
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GEOGRAPHY
52.
The vegetation belt associated with valuable hardwood is the (A) Sahel savannah (B) Tropical
rainforest (C) Coniferous forest (D) Mediterranean forest (E) Swampy forest
B
53.
The wind system that brings the harmattan to West Africa is called (A) The north-east trade (B)
The north-west trade (C) The south-west trade (D) The south-east trade
A
54.
What do the Canaries and Guinea currents have in common? (A) they are warm currents (B)
they are cold currents (C) they wash the western coast (D) they flow away from the equator
C
55.
What is an estuary? (A) stream valley continuing into sea making no delta (B) a part of the
stream valley separating delta from sea (C) sand clogged mouth of a river (D) mouth of an
aggrading stream
A
56.
What is the length of the equatorial diameter of the earth? (A) 12,737 km (B) 12, 797km (C)
12, 717km (D) 12, 757km
D
57.
What is the most accurate description of the shape of the earth? (A) A circle (B) A sphere (C) A
geoid (D) An oblate sphere
C
58.
What is the most important element of climate? (A) rainfall (B) temperature (C) pressure (D)
humidity
B
59.
What is the point of origin of an earthquake called? (A) Quakecentre (B) Epicentre (C)
Seismic focus (D) Tectonic point
C
60.
What is the scale of measurement of earthquake based on the amount of energy released
during earthquake? (A) Rossi-Forril scale (B) Mercalli scale (C) Richter scale (D) Beufort scale
C
61.
When condensation occurs in a rising air mass. Latent heat is (A) absorbed by carbon dioxide
(B) lost to the atmosphere (C) stored in the water molecules (D) released as sensible heat
B
62.
Which of the following climates is characterized by an alternate hot season, wet season and
dry season? (A) Equatorial (B) Mediterranean (C) Tropical desert (D) Tropical Monsoon (E)
Temperate
D
63.
Which of the following best explains why wind action is more predominant in arid regions than
in humid regions? (A) Loose surface materials and the absence of vegetation cover (B)
Excessively high temperatures during the day and night (C) Insufficient and unreliable rainfall
(D) Lack of surface drainage and the presence of strong winds (E) Gently rolling terrain and
fast-flowing rivers
A
64.
Which of the following environmental hazards is predominant in the southern Coastlands of
Nigeria? (A) Drought (B) Deforestation (C) Pollution (D) Flooding (E) Cyclones
C
65.
Which of the following features is associated with glacial erosion? (A) Esker (B) Moraine
(C) Erratic (D) Cirque
D
66.
Which of the following is a passive soil former?(A) Temperature (B) moisture (C) time (D)
organisms
C
67.
Which of the following is associated with a rejuvenated river? (A) waterfall (B) meander (C)
sand deposits (D) wide U-shaped valley
B
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GEOGRAPHY
68.
Which of the following is not a form of precipitation? (A) Snow (B) Sleet (C) Fog (D) Haze
D
69.
Which of the following rocks is composed of the skeletons of microscopic sea plants and
animals? (A) sandstone (B) slate (C) Chalk (D) Clay
C
70.
Which planet has the largest number known of satellites? (A) Jupiter (B) Saturn (C) Uranus (D)
Neptune
A
71.
In Nigeria, geographical location poses the greatest hindrance to economic development in
the (A) Eastern scarplands (B) Eastern highlands (C) Western highlands (D) Niger-Benue
Trough
B
72.
Nigeria’s Federal capital territory shares boundaries with four states , namely (A) Benue,
Kwara,Niger and Kaduna (B) Kano, Kaduna, Niger and kwara (C) Nasarawa, Kogi, Niger and
Kaduna (D) Gongola, Bauchi, kwara and Niger
C
73.
The highest highland area in Nigeria is found in the (a) Eastern part(B)North Central (C) North
Eastern (D) South Western
C
74.
The sequence of savanna vegetation zones in Nigeria towards the northern part is (A) Derived,
Sahel, Guinea and Sudan (B) Derived, Guinea , Sudan and Sahel (C) Derived, Sudan, Guinea
and sahel (D) Derived, Guinea, Sahel and Sudan
B
75.
Which of the following best describes the relief of West Africa? (A) Swamps and lowlands (B)
hills and mountains (C) scarp slopes and dip slopes (D) plains and plateau
D
76.
Which of the following best explains the increasing importation of food to West African
countries? (A) Bad soils which cannot produce enough food (B) Progressive neglect of food
production (C) Unfavourable climates for enough food production (D) too large populations
which cannot be satisfied locally
B
77.
Three land-locked countries in West Africa are (A) Republic of Benin, Mauritania and Niger
(B) Togo, Ghana, and Chad (C) Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger (D) Mali, Chad, Senegal
C
78.
A country well known for the production of copper in Africa is (A) Egypt (B) Ghana (C) Republic
of Benin (D) Zambia
D
79.
Tropical Africa is slow in industrial development because of (A) Adequate skilled labour (B)
Inadequate capital (C) Inadequate essential social services (D) Unavailability of raw materials
B
80.
A city may be differentiated from a rural settlement by considering its (A) population size and
age structure (B) skilled and unskilled manpower (C) population and functions (D) road
network and industrial estates
C
81.
A good example of tertiary industry is (A) Transportation (B) Manufacturing (C) Mining (D)
Fishing
A
82.
A hinterland is (A) the central part of a country (B) an area which is far from the coast (C) a
landlocked country (D) an area surrounding a city
B
83.
84.
A rural settlement is a settlement classified by (A) Site (B) Attitude (C) Pattern (D) Function
A type of industry that is carried on usually at or near the residence and based on largely
native skills and simple technology is referred to as a (A) local industry (B) light industry (C)
consumer industry (D) cottage industry
D
D
85.
Air transportation has a low patronage because it (A) Is fast (B) Is irregular (C) Is useful in war
time only (D) Is costly
D
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GEOGRAPHY
86.
An agricultural practice where water has to be artificially provided during the rainy season is
known as (A) full irrigation (B) supplementary irrigation (C) sprinkler irrigation (D) flood
irrigation
C
87.
In a chain of communities in a succession each community is a (A) link (B) step (C) sere (D)
climax
C
88.
One relative advantage of water transport over road transport is its(A) Capacity for passenger
traffic only(B) Ability to link all parts of any country (C) Suitability for bulky and heavy cargo (D)
Great speed over long distances.
C
89.
OPEC countries trade in international trade is majorly on (A) Agricultural resources (B)
Petroleum resources (C) Platinum (D) Electronics
B
90.
The area served by a given city is called its (A) Sphere of influence (B) Hinterland (C) Territory
(D) Satellite
A
91.
The driving of cattle from valleys to the pastures on the mountains especially in summer is
known as (A) Trans-location of cattle (B) Trans-movement of cattle (C) Transhumance(D)
Summer movement of cattle
C
92.
The G7: the world’s top seven trading nations are (A) USA, South Africa, Japan, UK Italy,
Canada, France (B) UK, Nigeria, USA Japan, Columbia, Spain, Argentina (C) USA, Germany,
Japan, France UK, Italy, Canada (D) USA, Zimbabwe, Germany, France, Russia, South Korea
C
93.
94.
The greatest world’s rice producer is (A) China (B) Indonesia (C) India (D) Japan
The level of utilization of resources in a country does not depend only on the population size
but also on the (A) Standard of living (B) Population density (C) Life expectancy (D) Population
mobility
A
A
95.
The world’s principal fishing regions are located on continental shelves where (A) there are no
noticeable ocean currents (B) there are cold ocean currents (C) there are warm ocean currents
(D) cold and warm currents meet
C
96.
Which of the following are the advanced market economies of the world (A) EU, the USA and
Japan(B)The USA, Nigeria and France(C)Japan, South Africa and Bangladesh (D) Libya, Scotland
and Russia
A
97.
Which of the following groups of industries can be classified as light? (A) textiles, clothing,
footwear, and printing (B) Iron and steel, cement and sugar (C) Non-metallic products and
chemicals (D) Tobacco, chemicals, and automobiles
A
98.
Which of the following is a major environmental problem in heavily industrialized regions? (A)
Accelerated erosion (B) Water pollution (C) Frost damage (D) Acid rain
D
99.
Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw
materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital
B
100. Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village
school gains admission to the university in the town. (B) Moving to the urban centre for
medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets
transferred from one town to another
C
6
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
1.
A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system. (B) Patriotism. (C) Quota system.
(D) Transparency.
A
2.
A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by members
of the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D)
competition from private firms
C
3.
A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Public
corporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C)
Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations are
not involved in production of tangible goods
C
4.
A primary agency of political socialization is: (A) the government B the family C the mass
media D the School
B
5.
A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to private
individuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C)
Privatization (D) Acquisition
C
6.
Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote. (B) All adult males can
vote. (C) All men can vote. (D) All adults can vote.
B
C
7.
All of the following are obligations of citizens, except (A) Obedience to laws. (B) Voting. (C)
Giving alms to beggars. (D) Payment of taxes.
8.
An electoral district is (A) A local government area. (B) A ward. (C) A polling booth. (D) A
constituency.
D
9.
Fascism was practiced in Italy under: (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) Benito
Mussolini (D) Benito Mandela
C
10.
Governmental powers are _________ in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated
(B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated
D
A
A
11.
12.
In a democracy, franchise is limited by (A) Age. (B) Sex. (C) Wealth. (D) Education.
In the civil service, anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit or
blame for any good. (B) Serve any government impartially. (C) Avoid nepotism and
favouritism. (D) Be politically neutral.
13.
In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated. (A)
Nigeria and Ghana. (B) The United States and the United Kingdom. (C) France and Germany.
(D) India and China.
B
14.
One of the advantages of direct election is that: (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct
(B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable to
the electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money
C
15.
One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Population
of People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty
A
16.
One of the following is not a source of constitution? (A) Customs and conventions (B) civil
service regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents.
B
17.
One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption. (B) Prevent
rigging. (C) Provide alternatives. (D) Avoid ethnicity.
C
18.
Political sovereignty lies with: (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament
(D) the electorate
D
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
19.
Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raise
revenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote public
accountability
C
20.
Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy. (B) Monitor the
economic situation in the country. (C) Punish opposition to its policies. (D) Develop the
country in line with the people’s aspirations.
D
21.
Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections. (B)
Duties. (C) Rights. (D) Services.
B
22.
Separation of powers denotes __________________ (A) Separation of governmental powers
but not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation of
persons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only
B
23.
The assent of the President is required to convert a/an ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C)
Proclamation (D) Decree
24.
The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as: (A) the bureaucracy
(B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
25.
The capitalist economy is dictated by: (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumers’
requirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply
D
26.
The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as --------------------------Assembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress
C
27.
The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was. (A)
Chief P.C Asiodu. (B) Chief Edwin Clerk. (C) Chief Allison Ayida. (D) Chief Simeon Adebo.
C
28.
The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre. (B) Administrative cadre.
(C) Technical cadre. (D) Clerical cadre.
B
29.
The law of libel limits a citizen’s right to freedom of (A) Association. (B) Expression. (C)
Worship. (D) Movement.
B
30.
The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter.
(B) It is faster than other systems. (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting. (D) It extends
the franchise to all adults.
A
31.
The permanent executive includes: (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servants
and politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected and
appointed politicians
C
32.
The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called
(A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group
D
33.
The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life, liberty and property. (B) Salvation,
property, freedom of thought. (C) Employment, property and social security. (D) Free
education, employment and property.
A
34.
When a constitution is not difficult to amend, it is said to be: (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C)
Flexible (D) Federal
C
35.
Which of the following best describes a sovereign state? (A) a member of the African Union
(B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military, political and
economic independence
D
2
(A) National
A
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
36.
Which of these is an element of state power? (A) Geographical location, population &
economic resources (B) Geographical location, elite interests & economic resources (C)
Geographical location, ethnicity & economic resources (D) Geographical location, political
crisis & economic resources
A
37.
Which of these is not a method of election? (A) Simple majority. (B) Proportional
representation. (C) Primary election. (D) Co-option.
D
38.
___________ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature
(C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary
D
39.
A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multiparty
functions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operate
by law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties
D
40.
An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade.
(B) Ozo-title holders. (C) Council of Chiefs. (D) Assembly of lineage heads.
A
41.
Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not make
provisions for them. (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome. (C) Made traditional rulers too
powerful. (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive.
C
42.
Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B)
unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy
B
43.
In Nigeria, the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution. (B)
Richard constitution. (C) Clifford constitution. (D) Lyttleton constitution.
B
B
44.
In the Hausa pre-colonial political system, sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir
(C) Waziri (D) Galadima
45.
In the pre-Colonial Hausa/Fulani system, the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate was
approved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu. (B) Galadima and the Waziri. (C)
Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali. (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima.
46.
Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A)
Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain. (B) Of the return of the educated elite from
abroad. (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation. (D) Africans were nominated to the
executive council.
47.
Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford
constitution. (B) 1946 Richard constitution. (C) 1953 London conference. (D) 1954 Lytelton
constitution.
48.
Nigeria’s First Constitution (A) Lytelton constitution. (B) Clifford constitution. (C)
Macpherson Constitution. (D) Independence constitution.
B
49.
One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A)
Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation
C
50.
One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform of
the civil service was. (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries. (B) Change
from Permanent Secretary to Director General. (C) Change from Director General to
Permanent Administrators. (D) Permanent Professionals.
A
51.
The ………..Local government reforms recognized local government as the third tier of
government (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989
B
52.
The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A)
NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP
A
3
A
B
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
53.
The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe. (B) Sir Abubakar Tafawa
Balewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari
54.
The first military coup in Nigeria took place on — (A) July 15, 1966 (B) July 27, 1967 (C)
January 15, 1966 (D) January 13, 1966
D
C
55.
The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN, ANPP
and PDP (B) AD, APP and PDP (C) PPA, PDP, CAN (D) APGA, CAN and PDPB
56.
The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) More
military institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civil
unrest in the North
57.
The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court. (B) Civil Service
Commission. (C) Police Affairs Commission. (D) Public Complaints Commission.
A
58.
The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress
(B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress
B
59.
The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) MidWestern state (D) North central state
C
60.
The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties among
these: (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) Nigerian
National Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalition
and Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern Elements
Progressive Union
B
61.
Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total of………. Local
government councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774
B
D
D
C
62.
Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system? (A)
Hausa/ Fulani. (B) Yoruba. (C) Igbo. (D) Edo.
63.
which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficient
funding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levels
of government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number of
local government
64.
Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government? —
(A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limited
resources.
65.
Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) Nigerian
Railway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank of
Nigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation
66.
Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Both
had provisions for the office of the president. (B) Both had provision for the office of the
constitutional president. (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president.
(D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president.
A
67.
Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment of
ECOWAS? (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa
B
68.
In 1975, Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisis
in Angola. (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico
C
4
D
D
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
69.
Nigeria’s non – aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non – Proliferation Treaty
(B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo – Nigeria Defence Pact
D
70.
The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was
(A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war in
Sudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries
B
71.
The head of Nigeria’s foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressed
as (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative
C
72.
What determines Nigeria’s relations with other countries? (A) Its national interest (B) Its
level of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture
A
73.
Which of the following best defines foreign policy? (A) The ways in which some actors on the
domestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B)
The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regards
to the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed to
achieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state
74.
Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy? (A)
Gowon administration (B) Murtala Mohammed administration (C) Sani Abacha regime (D)
Abubakar regime
75.
Which of these is an example of Nigeria’s external cultural relations? (A) Exchange of students
with friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economic
assistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries
A
76.
Which of these is correct about Nigeria’s foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It was
pro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French
A
77.
Which of these is NOT part of a country’s core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B)
Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha
D
78.
Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy? (A) Promotion and defence of a nation’s
vital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nation’s strategic interest (C) Protection and
promotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence of
the economic interest of a nation
C
79.
Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC? (A) Alhaji
Rilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen. Ike Nwachukwu
A
80.
Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated? (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D)
1961
A
81.
A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B)
lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democratic
leadership
82.
An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation of
international trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C)
Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developing
countries
83.
In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible? (A)
ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth
5
C
B
A
C
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
84.
Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as the
Head of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as the
Head of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen as
the Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen as
the Head of all independent states
85.
One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be
reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oil
price (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non –
OPEC members
86.
One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana and
Zaire (B) Guinea, Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau, Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D)
Liberia Benin and Ethiopia
87.
The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban, South Africa (B) On
8th July 2003 at Abuja, Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at Accra,
Ghana
88.
The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B)
Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India
89.
The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2, 2004 at Addis Ababa,
Ethiopia (B) On February 3, 2003 at Addis Ababa, Ethiopia (C) On February 3, 2003 at Abuja,
Nigeria (D) On February 2, 2004 at Lagos, Nigeria
90.
The Non-aligned Movement was established at----------- in ----------. (A) Bombay, 1955 (B)
Bandung, 1955 (C) Lagos, 1972 (D) Addis Ababa, 1955
91.
The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo
B
A
C
A
D
B
B
D
C
92.
The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The
Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) The
Trusteeship Council
93.
To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU? (A)
Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group
94.
What is the full meaning of ECOWAS? (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B)
Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West African
States (D) Economic Community for West African States
95.
Where and when was the African Union inaugurated? (A) Durban, 2000 (B) Addis Ababa,
1963 (C) Lagos, 1972 (D) Tripoli, 2001
96.
Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A)
Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D)
African Union
C
97.
Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU? (A) The Assembly Conference (B) The
Executive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission
C
98.
Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations? (A) voluntary
association of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of free
nations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independent
African States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the French
colonial empire
A
6
B
C
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GOVERNMENT
99.
Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO? (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council
(C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly
100. Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations? (A) International Labour
Organization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU
7
A
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HISTORY
1.
2.
______ is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin
_______ was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of
the Muni, the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries. (A)
Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad
B
A
3.
Before getting to Nigeria, River Niger passed across _____ (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D)
Morocco
A
4.
5.
Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto
The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A)
Oyo empire (B) Benin empire (C) Dahomey Kingdom (D)Ghana
A
C
6.
The Form of economy of pre-colonial Nigerian peoples was _______ (A) capitalist (B) socialist
(C) communist (D) subsistence
D
7.
The Fulani Jihadists were halted in 1840 at the battle of _____ (A) Tondibi (B) Ngala (C) Adowa
(D) Oshogbo
D
8.
The god of thunder and lightning in the Yoruba Pantheon is called _______ (A) Oduduwa (B)
Oramiyan (C) Sango (D) Afonja
C
9.
The Igbo in the pre-colonial era had _______ (A) dictatorial government (B) government of
chiefs (C) no central government (D) warrant chiefs
C
10.
11.
The language of the Fulani is _______ (A) Hausa (B) Kush (C) Mereo (D) Fulfude
The leader of the Jihad that took place in northern Nigeria between 1804 and 1805 was _____
(A) Uthman dan Fodio (B) Elkenemi (C) Ahmadu Bello (D) Tafawa Balewa
D
A
12.
The longest Dynasty in West Africa was ______ (A) Saifawa of Kanem-Born (B) Umayid of Arab
(C) Oranmiyan of Oyo (D) Bayajidda of Daura
A
13.
The name of the traditional head of Nupe is called _____ (A) Etsu (B) Emir (C) El Kanem (D)
Obong
A
14.
15.
16.
The old Oyo empire had as its capital (A) Katunga (B) Ijabe (C) Igboho (D) Sepeteri
The original home of the Fulani was (A) Niger (B) Senegambia (C) Egypt (D) Chad
The original home of the Kanuri people in Borno is said to be in _____ (A) Kenem (B) Buganda
(C) Kenya (D) Zulu
A
B
A
17.
18.
The political head of Yoruba towns is known as ______ (A) Oba (B) Alaafin (C) Obi (D) Emir
The provinces and towns under Oyo were headed by local chiefs known as the (A) Oyo Mesi (B)
Baale (C) Oba (D) Baba kekere
A
B
19.
______ was the capital of the Western Region in the colonial period. (A) Ife (B) Ibadan (C) Oyo
(D) Abeokuta
B
20.
It was through the activities of _____ that the Niger area became a British sphere of influence
(A) Lord Lugard (B) The United Africa Company (C)Herbert Macaulay (D) The Royal Niger
company.
D
21.
Nigeria as we know it today is a product of amalgamation of northern and southern
protectorates in the year ______ (A) 1906 (B) 1910 (C) 1912 (D) 1914
D
22.
23.
Nigeria became a Republic in ______ (A) 1960 (B) 1963 (C) 1965 (D) 1962
Palm Produce was heavily concentrated in _____ (A) Northern Nigeria (B) North Eastern Nigeria
(C) North western Nigeria (D) Southern Nigeria.
B
D
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HISTORY
24.
The first nationalist political party in post-world war II Nigeria was (A) NEPU (B) NPC (C) NCNC
(D) AG.
B
25.
26.
The First railway in Nigeria was constructed in (A) 1916 (B) 1898 (C) 1914 (D) 1960
The headquarters of Department of Agriculture in colonial Nigeria was ______ (A) Kaduna (B)
Sokoto (C) Ibadan (D) Lagos
B
C
27.
The missionary responsible for the abolition of killing of twins in Calabar was (A) Mary Slessor
(B) Magaret Thatcha (C) Lindsa Lisau (D) Judith By field
A
28.
29.
The Nigerian Youth Movement was founded in ____ (A) 1920 (B) 1922 (C) 1936 (D) 1937
The system of administration used by the British in Nigeria was _____ rule. (A) direct (B)
indirect (C) divide and (D) warrant
C
B
30.
The three well known nationalist leaders in Nigeria between 1948 and 1966 were— (A) Dr.
NnamdiAziwe, Chief ObafemiAwolowo and AlhajiAhmadu Bello (B) Lord Lugard, Sir Arthur
Richards and Sir John Macpherson (C) Herbert Macaulay, Earnest Ikoli and OkonkwoNkem (D)
Alhaji Isa Kaita, Dr. K.O. Mbadiwe and chief S.L Akintola ANS; A—
31.
The trading company which conquered most of the northern Nigeria was _____ (A) UAA (B)
Royal Niger Company (C) PZ (D) John Holt
32.
33.
The University College, Ibadan was established in (A) 1960 (B) 1958 (C) 1948 (D) 1900
Who was the first woman to drive a car in Nigeria? (A) Dora Akunyuli (B) Farida Waziri (C) Laila
Dongoyaro (D) Funmilayo Ransome kuti
C
D
34.
_______ was not part of the policy of General Gowon’s administration immediately after the
Nigerian Civil War. (A) redistrcution (B) rehabilitation (C) reconciliation (D) reconstruction
A
35.
National Institute of Social and Economic Research is located in ______ (A) Abuja (B) Ibadan (C)
Lagos (D) Enugu
B
36.
37.
38.
Nigeria became a federation of 19 states in ______ (A) 1875 (B) 1976 (C) 1967 (D) 1978
Nigeria was divided into 12 states in (A) 1960 (B) 1963 (C) 1967 (D) 1970
Oodua people’s Congress is a cultural organization in (A) Southwestern Nigeria (B)
Southeastern Nigeria (C) North Central Nigeria (D) North eastern Nigeria
B
C
A
39.
The Attorney General of the Federation that was assassinated in Nigeria during Obasanjo’s
Administration was (A) Bola Ige (B) Babawale Idowu (C) Patrick Ndoka (D) Dele Olawale .
A
40.
41.
The capital of Taraba state is (A) Dutse (B) Jalingo (C) Yola (D) Damaturu
The first Governor-General of Independent Nigeria was ______ (A) Okoti Eboh (B) Nnamdi
Azikwe (C) Tafawa Balewa (D) Obafemi Awolowo
C
B
42.
43.
The former Capital of Nigeria was (A) Calabar (B) Lagos (C) Abuja (D) Ibadan
The head of the electoral body that conducted the June 12, 1993 Election was (A) Humphrey
Nwosu (B) Ovie whiskey (C) Eme Awa (D) Dagogo Jack
B
A
44.
The Lingua franca of the peoples of Nigeria is ______ (A) English (B) Yoruba (D) Hausa (D) French
A
45.
The Niger Delta Environmentalist that was killed with eight others in Nigeria is (A) Leedum
mitee (B)Ken Saro wiwa (C) Isaac Boro (D) Nana olomu
B
46.
The question of the Nigerian civil war was raised for the first time at the meeting of the OAU in
September 1967 in ______ (A) Kampala (B) Kinshasa (C) Nairobi (D) Lagos
B
2
A
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HISTORY
47.
The winner of annulled electoion of 1993 was ______ (A) Alhaji Bashiru Tofa (B) Chief M.K.O.
Abiola (C) Dr. Alex Ekwueme (D) Fashola
B
48.
War against indiscipline was a brainchild of _______ (A) Ibrahim Babangida (C) Sani Abacha (C)
Gen. Muhammadu Buhari (D) Aninu Kano
C
49.
Who was the military Head of State that transferred power to Civilian regime in 1999 (A)
Ibrahim Babangida (B) Sanni Abacha (C) Abubakar Abdul Salam (D) Yakubu Gowon
C
50.
Who was the military Head of State that was killed in the second bloody coup of 1966 in Nigeria
(A) Gen. Sanni Abacha (B) Gen. shehu Yaradua (C) Gen. Murthala Muhammed (D) Major Gen.
Aguiyi Ironsi
D
51.
Acculturation in colonial administration was associated with the (A) French policy of
Assimilation (B) British policy of direct rule (C) French policy of Association (D) British indirect
rule system
A
52.
53.
54.
Banjul is the capital of ______ (A) Niger Republic (B) Britain (C) France (D) Gambia
ECOMOG is a peace monitoring organ of the (A) ECOWAS (B) UNO (C) AU (D) EU
Ghana and Mali were known for ______ production before European incursion. (A) basket (B)
gold (C) tin (D) salt
D
A
B
55.
Gold Coast was the former name of which of these countries (A) Nigeria (B) Namibia (C)
Mozambique (D) Ghana
D
56.
57.
Idris Aloma was a revered king of _______ (A) Kebbi (B) Katsina (C) Kanem-Borno (D) Zauzau
Maghrib is a name used to describes countries in North Africa except ______ (A) Algeria (B)
Morocco (C) Tunisia (D) Egypt
C
D
58.
59.
Mansa Musa is the name of the king of ______ (A) Tekular (B) Gobir (C) Mali (D) Kanem
Nationalist movements started late in French West Africa because (A) Africans were allowed to
enlist in the army (B) Africans felt they were free (C) France suppressed political associations
and parties (D) France did not allow Africans to travel abroad.
C
C
60.
Policy of assimilation was used in West Africa by the ______ (A) French (B) British (C) Dutch (D)
Italians
A
61.
The Berlin Conference of 1884 was convened at the instance of (A) Winston Churchill (B) Otto
von Bismarck (C) Woodrow Wilson (D) Mussolini
B
62.
The first Country to regain Independence in West Africa is (A) Cameroon (B) Senegal (C) Ghana
(D) Gambia
C
63.
The first European explorers to navigate the shores of the Atlantic ocean into the West African
coasts were the ______ (A) Swedish (B) Dutch (C) Portuguese (D) Spanish
C
64.
The French policy of Assimilation in West Africa was a form of _____ (A) Indirect rule (B) direct
rule (C) democracy (D) monarchy
B
65.
The Italians were defeated by the Ethiopians at the battle of Adowa under the leadership of
_______ (A) Emperor Theodore (B) Emperor Yoahnes (C) Emperor Menelik (D) Emperor Jesuit
C
66.
The Mande speaking people could be found in (B)a Gambia (B) Sierra Leone (C) Mali (D) Nigeria
B
67.
The militant group formed by Abdullahi Ibn Yacin was known as the ________ (A) Almorarids
(B) Sijilmesa (C) Tartars (D) Mameluks
A
3
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HISTORY
68.
The pioneered institution of Higher Education in West Africa is (A) Fourah Bay college (B)
Baptist Academy (C)Birch Freeman (D) Hope Waddel Institute.
A
69.
70.
The Suez canal in Egypt was constructed in_____ (A) 1840 (B) 1875 (C) 1869 (D) 1890
The treaty of Ucciali was signed between ______ and ______ (A) Italy and Libya (B) Italy and
Ethiopia (C) Italy and Morocco (D) Italy and Tunisia.
C
B
71.
The use of forced labour was one of the features of _____ (A) British Colonial policy (B) French
colonial policy (C) American colonial policy (D) Japanese colonial policy
B
72.
Which of the following countries was not involved in the peace –keeping effort in Liberia? (A)
Sierra Leone (B) Togo (C) Nigeria (D) Cameroon
B
73.
Who was the king of the Mali empire that displayed wealth in Gold in the Middle East while on
pilgrimage to Mecca (A) Muhmmed Askia (B) Sonni Ali (C) Mansa Musa (D) Sundiata
C
74.
In the mid nineteen century, the king of Buganda that accommodated the first Arab and
Swanhili traders was (A) Kaberaga (B) Kabaka (C) Katriko (D) Lat Dior
B
75.
In the Nineteenth Century Gold and Diamonds were discovered in commercial quantities in
which of these territories in Africa _____ (A) Nairobi (B) Lagos (C) Kimeberley (D) Cairo
C
76.
77.
78.
Namibia is a country in (A) Europe (B) Asia (C) North America (D) Africa
Shaka was a brave warrior in (A) Zulu land (B) Ndebele (C) Mexico (D) Tripoli.
The majority of the slaves were taken from all but except one of these African countries (A) Gold
Coast (B) Dahomey (C) Nigeria (D) Zambia
D
A
D
79.
The progress in the Economy of Zanzibar in the first decade of the nineteenth century is
synonymous with (A) Sayyid Said (B) Mamoud Iraq (C) Kabir Muktar (D) Muhammed Ali
A
80.
Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is one of the specilised agencies of the _________ (A)
AU (B) UNO (C) ECOWAS (D) EEC
B
81.
82.
How many Continents are in the world (A) 10 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
Indirect rule as a British Colonial policy was first introduced in (A) India (B) Uganda (C) Ghana
(D) Nigeria
B
A
83.
One of these could be used as a tool to understand the African past. (A) Microscope (B) Satellite
(C) Internet (D) Archaeology
D
84.
Sahara desert was maintained during the trans-Saharan trade by the _____ (A) Berbers (B)
Tuaregs (C) Fulanis (D) Marauders
B
85.
The explorer who discovered the new world was (A) Christopher Columbus (B) Henry the
Navigator (C) Queen Isabela (D) John Cabot
A
86.
The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is at _______ (A) New York (B) Geneva (C)
The Hague (D) Moscow
C
87.
88.
The most –spoken language in Africa is ______ (A) Igbo (B) Hausa (C) Yoruba (D) Ki-Swahili
The place in the desert where travelers stop by to refresh themselves is called ____ (A) Oasis
(B) Eldorado (C) Paradise (D) Aso Rock
D
A
89.
The principle of non-alignment means that a country (A) is neutral in international trade (B)
does not belong to any world organization (C) does not belong to any of the power blocs (D) has
no diplomatic missions abroad
C
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HISTORY
90.
The resolutions and programmes of the AU are executed by the _______ (A) secretariat (B)
council of ministers (C) secretary general (D) commission of mediation
B
91.
92.
93.
The second most-spoken language in Africa is (A) Hausa (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Ki-Swahili
The Second World War ended in (A) 1944 (B) 1945 (C) 1950 (D) 1960
The United Nations Organisation has its headquarters in ______ (A) British (B) USSR (C) USA (D)
China
A
B
C
94.
Which of the following bodies is the most representative organ of the United Nations
Organization (A) The Security Council (B) The Trusteeship council (C) The General Assembly (D)
The International Court of Justice
C
95.
Which of the following countries did not join the League of Nations (A) France (B) Britain (C)
Spain (D) USA
D
96.
Which of the following countries have the right to veto the decision of the Security Council (A)
Australia (B) Switzerland (C) China (D) Canada
C
97.
Which of the following countries is a permanent member of the security council of the UNO? (A)
India (B) Canada (C) China (D) Italy
C
98.
Which of the following was not a colony of Britain in Africa? (A)Nigeria (B) Gambia (C) SierraLeone (D) Senegal.
D
99.
Which of the following was once Nigeria’s Permanent Representative at the United Nations? (A)
Professor Bolaji Akinyemi (B) Major General Ike Nwachukwu (C) Professor Jubril Aminu (D)
Major General Joseph Garba
D
100. Within the United Nations, the veto power is exercised by ______ (A)UNESCO (B) WHO (C)
General Assembly (D) Security Council
5
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
1.
Adequate meal contains (A) All the food nutrients (B) Some of the food nutrients (C) Few
food nutrients (D) Essential food nutrients
A
2.
All these factors affect food habit except (A) Religious belief (B) Cultural belief (C) Economic
factors (D) Carbohydrate factor
D
3.
Another name for vitamin A (A) Retinol (B) Riboflavin (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Cobalamin
A
4.
5.
Another name for vitamin C is (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin
Food contains chemical substances called (A) Nutrition (B) Carbohydrate (C) Nutrients
(D)Water
C
C
6.
Food poisoning occur when (A) Food is covered (B) Food is warm (C) Food is frozen (D)
Food is infected
D
7.
Fried foods are— (A) Easy to digest (B) Not hard to digest (C) Not easy to digest (D) None of
the above
C
8.
Kwashiorkor is mainly due to Lack of (A) Carbohydrate (B) Fat and oil (C) Protein (D) Minerals
C
9.
Rechauffe dishes are (A) Freshly prepared foods (B) Cold foods (C) Vegetable foods (D) Left
over foods
D
10.
Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C
D
11.
The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D)
Promote too much eating
A
12.
The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A, B, E and K (B) A, D, E and K (C) A, C, E and K (D) A, D, C and K
B
13.
The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of the
above
D
14.
Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D)
Diabetes
D
15.
Vitamin D is for the
(A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formation
of bones (D) Formation and digestion
C
16.
Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot
D
17.
Water soluble vitamins are (A) A, C and B complex (B) A, E and B complex (C) C and B
complex (D) A and B complex
C
18.
What is an appetizer?
(A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eaten
as the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal
C
19.
What is steaming? (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cooking
with dry heat (D) All of the above
A
20.
What is under nutrition? (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption of
adequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods
A
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
21.
Which is not a communicable disease? (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D)
Tuberculosis
B
22.
Which is not a type of food storage? (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage
(D) Freezer storage
A
23.
Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient? (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C)
Steaming (D) Frying
C
24.
Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is to
build the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital for
life
A
25.
Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation? (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C)
Calcium (D) Cobalamin
C
26.
A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B)
Society (C) Home (D) Family
D
27.
Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week
(D) Once a week
B
28.
Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society
(D) Entire society
C
29.
Home Management involves: (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort and
happiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C)
Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness. (D) Dedicating a home and
making it a place of comfort and happiness
C
30.
Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning, organizing, implementing,
Evaluation (B) Organizing, planning, implementing, Evaluation (C) Implementing Planning,
organizing, , Evaluation (D) Planning, implementing, organizing, Evaluation
A
31.
In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except: (A) Colour of the wall (B)
Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours
D
32.
In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except: (A) Open the windows (B) Close the
windows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor
B
33.
Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Health
status of family members (D) All of the above
D
34.
Money management depend on all except one: (A) How money is dedicated (B) How money
is utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent
A
35.
Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Money
spent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget
A
36.
Steps in making family budget does not include: (A) List all the commodities and services
needed (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent
D
37.
Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria? (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C)
Polyandry family (D) Extended family
C
38.
Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C)
Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage
C
2
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
39.
Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management? (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminates
fatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task
C
40.
Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam
(D) English seam
C
41.
Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is the
fabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the not
the fabric used in sewing
B
42.
Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye
D
43.
Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of the
above
D
44.
Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D)
None of the above
C
45.
46.
Tie-dye involves (A) Wax tying (B) Dye tying (C) Fabric tying (D) Stick tying
Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection? (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair
C
D
47.
Which of these is a basic stitch? (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shell
hem
A
48.
Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection? (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C)
Figure shoe (D) Figure choice
A
49.
Which of these is not used in tie-dye? (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide
C
50.
51.
Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal
Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B)
Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester
D
D
52.
In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)
Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology
C
53.
In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)
Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics
A
54.
In law of heat as applied to toaster, iron, Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)
Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology
B
55.
Someone who studied Family and child development can work as: (A) Childhood Caterer in
schools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhood
educator
D
56.
Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a: (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D)
Vendor
A
57.
The scope of Home Economics include: (A) Food and Nutrition, Home Economics, Clothing
and textile (B) Food and Nutrition, Home management, Clothing and textile (C) Food and
Nutrition, Home management, Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition, Home Design, Clothing
and textile
B
3
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
HOME ECONOMICS
58.
What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and
services used by individuals, families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs
of the individual, family, institution and community (C) How to become responsible
member of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve
individual, family, institution and community
D
59.
What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and services
used by individuals, families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of the
individual, family, institution and community (C) How to become responsible member of
families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual, family,
institution and community
D
60.
A pregnant woman is carrying -------------- in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D)
Pregnancy
C
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
IGBO
1.
37 Years pụtara (A) Afọ iri atọ na asaa (B) Afọ iri atọ na asatọ (CH) Afọ iri asatọ (D) Afọ iri atọ
A
2.
5.30 p.m. pụtara (A) Elekere ise na ọkara (B) Ejirila ọkara gafee elekere ise nke mgbede (CH)
Elekere ise (D) Elekere ise nakwa ọkara iri atọ
B
3.
5/9 pụtara
ise——
B
4.
675 pụtara. (A) Nari isii na iri asatọ (B) Nari iri na iri isii (CH) Nari isii na iri asaa na ise (D)
Nari isii na isii.
CH
5.
6.
80 Years pụtara (A) Afọ asatọ (B) Afọ iri na asatọ (CH) Afọ iri asatọ (D) Afọ anọ
A bịa na nọmbanke, 187th n’asụsụ bekee bụ (A) Nke otu narị na iri asatọ na asaa —(B) Nke
otu narị iri asatọ na isii (CH) Nke na narị isii— (D) Nke otu narị , iri asatọ na iri asaa—
CH
A
7.
Ada gara ahịa. “GARA” na-arụ ọrụ dịka? (A) Nsonihu (B) Nsonaazụ (CH) Ngwaa (D)
Enyemaka ngwaa.
CH
8.
AKARA AJỤJỤ (A) Hyphen—(B) Question mark— (CH). Fullstop— (D) Exclamation——
9.
10.
11.
AKARA MKPU (A) Hyphen (B) Comma (CH) Fullstop (D) Exclamation
Anwụọla moo! (A) Ntimiwu (B) Ntimkpu (CH) Ahịrịnkwe (D) Edemede
Gịnị bụ ‘Mmalite’ na bekee? (A) Coherence (B) Speech (CH) Introduction (D) Introtech
12.
Gịnị bụ ‘Nkeji’ na bekee? (A) Coherent division (B) Paragraphs (CH) Monograph (D)
Spectographs
B
13.
Gịnị ka a na-akpọ Airconditioner n’Igbo—(A) Ntụ ọkụ—(B) Ntụ oyi— (CH). Ntụ aka— (D)
Ntụ ka ụgụrụ—
B
14.
Gịnị ka a na-akpọ Television n’Igbo—(A) Onye ngosi—(B) Onye ọgba ama— (CH). Ihe
onyonyoo— (D) Igbe ngosi————
CH
15.
16.
Gịnị ka a na-akpọ ụlọụka na bekee? (A) Church (B) Mars (CH) Mass (D) Altar
Gịnị ka ị na-eme? Ahịrịokwu ana-egosi—(A) Ntimkpu—(B) Echiche ọma— (CH). Ajụjụ— (D)
Arịrịọ————
A
CH
17.
Gịnị ka ndị Igbo na-akpọ HIPPOPOTAMUS n’asụsụ Igbo? (A) Enyimmiri (B) Agụiyi (CH). Enyi
(D) Ehi
A
18.
Gịnị ka ndị Igbo na-akpọ nwa nke ikpeazụ?—(A) Ọdụ nwa—(B) Ego nwa— (CH). Eriri nwa—
(D) Nwa oge ochie—
A
19.
Gịnị ka ndị Igbo na-akpọ WEEK n’asụsụ Igbo? (A) Izu abụọ (B) Izu atọ (CH). Izu anọ (D) izu
ụka
D
20.
Gosi nke a haziri n’usoro e si ede ha ugbua:— (A) g, gb, gh, gw—(B) g, gh, gw, gb— (CH). g,
gw, gh, gb— (D) gw, g, gh, gb——
A
21.
Ha eriela nri ehihie. Okwu a a kara ihe n’okpuru bụ— (A) Isingwaa—(B) Nganiiru— (CH).
Nsonaazụ— (D) Nnọniime—
CH
22.
Họpụta nke nwere ndakọrịta ụdaume n’ime okwu ndịa: (A) Myiriụdaume (B) Nwakaego (CH)
Omume (D) Ụdaume
CH
23.
Igbo Izugbe bụ ndịa ma ewezuga otu? (A) asụsụ e ji ede agụmagụ Igbo. (B) asụsụ a na- asụ na
nzukọ. (CH). asụsụ nwere nghọta ọfụma (D) Olumba dị iche iche a na- asụ n’ala Igbo.
D
(A) Iri ise na itolu—(B) Ise n’ime itolu— (CH). Asatọ n’ime iri— (D) Itolu n’ime
1
B
D
B
CH
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
IGBO
24.
25.
Kedu ebe ana-asụkarị Igbo Izugbe? (A) Ime Obodo (B) N’ụlọ gị (CH). Na nzukọ (D) Olumba
Kedụ Ihe ndị Igbo na-akpọ eze ji? (A) ndị na-enweghi ji n’ọba ha (B) ndị kwara sọọsọ ede
n’ọba ha (CH) ndị nwere nnukwu ji n’ọba ha (D) ndị ohi ji
CH
CH
26.
27.
Kedụ ndị enweghi Izugbe asụsụ na Naịjirịa? (A) Awụsa (B) Yoruba (CH). Igbo (D)O nweghi
Kedụ nke na akwụsị ahịrịokwu? (A) Rịkọm (B) Kpọm (CH) Kpọmkpọm (D) Kpọrịkpọrị
D
B
28.
Kọmiti onye wepụtara mkpụrụedemede Igbo nke ọgbara ọhụrụ (A) Dr. F. C. Ọgbalụ—(B) Dr.
Akanụ Ịbịam— (CH) Dr. Innocent Nwadịke— (D) Dr. S. E Ọnwụ—
D
29.
30.
Mba ndịa nwere olundi dị iche iche ewezuga (A) Awụsa (B) Yoruba (CH). Igbo (D)O nweghi
Mgbochiume ole ka e nwere na mkpụrụokwua ‘Chukwuemeka’— (A) Anọ—(B) Isii— (CH).
Atọ— (D) Asaa—
D
A
31.
N’elu oche gosipụtara “NA” na-arụ ọrụ dịka? (A) Mbuụzọ — B Mbụihu — (CH). Mbụazụ
— D Nnọnaetiti—
A
32.
Ndị bụ ụdaume ihu na ndịa bụ: (A) /u/ na /o/—(B) /o/ na /u/— (CH). /e/ na /ụ/— (D) /i/ na
/e/——
D
33.
Ndịa bụ ụzọ ọgbara ọhụụ esi ezisa ozi ewezuga (A) Ekwe ntị (B) Intaneetị (CH) Ogene (D) Ide
leta
CH
34.
Nkea bụ ụdi olu asụsụ Igbo ndị e nwere. (A) Igbo Izugbe na olumba (B) Izugbe naanị (CH)
Olumba naanị (D) Igbo Izugbe, olumba na oluonye
B
35.
Ọ na-aza ime ụlọ m (A) He is sweeping my room—(B) He is sweeping the compound— (CH).
He is sweeping the kitchen— (D) He is sweeping only our room——
A
36.
Ọ sị mụ abịakwala be ya taa. Okwu a kara ihe n’okpuru bụ— (A) Nsokwụnye—(B) Nnọnetiti—
(CH). Nsonaazụ— (D) Nnọniime—
A
37.
Olee ihe na-ebute ndiiche n’asụsụ obodo na obodo?— (A) Usoro—(B) Ọsụsụ— (CH). Odide—
(D) Olu—
D
38.
Olee nke nupụrụ isi n’iwu ndakọrịta ụdaume? (A)Akamu—(B) Anya— (CH). Okwute— (D)
Nkọlị——
A
39.
Olu e jiri mara otu mmadụ ka a na-akpọ? (A) Olu ikwu na ibe (B) Oluonye (CH). Oluọma (D) O
nweghi
B
40.
Onye Omekoome bụ onye....—(A) na-akpa agwa ọjọọ—(B) na-akpa agwa ezigbo agwa— (CH).
Onye na-eme omume ọma— (D) Onye na-eme ka mmadụ mee ihe—
A
41.
42.
Onye sụrụ asụsụ obodo ha sụrụ gịnị?(A) Igbo Izugbe (B) Awụsa (CH). Olumba (D) Olumbe.
Otu n’ime ndịa esoghi n’akara edemede (A) !—(B) ;— (CH). ?— (D) =—
CH
A
43.
Otu n’ime ndịa esoghi n’akara edemede Igbo (A) Rịkọm (B) Kpọm (CH) Edemede (D)
Kpọmrịkọm
CH
44.
Otu na ndịa esoghi n’olu ana-asụ n’Anambra Steeti.— (A) Ọnịcha—(B) Nnewi— (CH). Oko—
(D) Ngwa—
D
45.
Pịta na Pọlụ ndị apọstụlụ. “NA” na-arụ ọrụ dịka (A) Mmadụ (B) Nwoke (CH) Mbuụzọ (D)
Njikọ
D
46.
Plural bụ gịnị n’asụsụ Igbo? (A) Aha (B) Ụbara (CH) Mkpoolu (D) Nnọchi
B
2
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
IGBO
47.
48.
Ụzọ ole ka e kere ụdaụme? (A) Anọ (B) Atọ (CH) Asatọ (D) Abụọ
A bịa n’edemede, a na-agbadokarị ụkwụ na ndịa ewezuga (A) Mmalite (B) Nkeji (CH) Mmechi
(D) Ụbụbọ
D
D
49.
Abalị ole ka nwata ga-anọ tupu ebee ya ugwu n’ala Igbo? (A) asaa (B) asatọ (CH) ise (D) iri na
abụọ
B
50.
Afọ tara ya mmiri (A) O nwere obi ọjọọ (B) Afọ ya di ntakịrị (CH) O nweghi mmiri dị ya n’afọ
(D) Obi ya tara ata
A
51.
Anyụkọọ amịlị ọnụ ọ gbaa ụfụfụ (A) Mmadụ ma ibe ya (B) Ejikọọ aka ọnụ emepụta ihe. (CH)
Mmadụ ga na-anyụkọ amịlị (D) Amịlị dị oke mkpa
B
52.
Dịka nkerisi Naịjịrịa siri dị, ala Igbo adịghị n’otu n’ime ndịa (A) Imo (B) Abia (CH) Owere (D)
Bini
D
53.
Edemede dị n’aghọtaazaa na-abụkarị n’ụdị— A Ilu— B. Akpaalaokwu— CH. Akụkọ— D.
Agwụgwa—
CH
54.
Ego ya bụ atụrụ tawa (A) O nweghi ego (B) O nwere nnukwu ego (CH) Ego ya di nta (D) Ego
gbaara ya ọsọ
Ejighị akpata atụfuo aba ọgaranya bụ:— (A) Ilu—(B) Akpaalaokwu— (CH). Akụkọ— (D)
Ụkabụilu—
55.
56.
57.
58.
Ejula kpụrụ isi wọrọ onwe ya nri (A) Ejula agaghi agbali ọsọ (B) Onye achọghị ịta ahụhụ anaghị
eri uru. (CH) Ejula di mma oriri (D) Nwa ejula nwere nnukwu ọbara
Gịnị ka afọ nri pụtara? (A) Okwuntuhi— (B) Mmemmadụ— (CH). Okwu ntabi ire— (D)
Akpaalaokwu
Gịnị ka e ji mara agụmagụ Igbo? (A) Ọ bụ ederede maọbụ akọrọakọ (B) Ọ bụ echiche (CH). Ọ
bụ mmadụ (D) Ọ dị njọ
59.
60.
Gwam gwam gwam, gwam anụ enweghi ajị? (A) Oke (B) Ele (CH) Ngwere (D) Ewu
Gwam gwam gwam, gwam ihe kụrụ kpa m baa ọhịa? (A) Ụgba (B) Atụ (CH) Ube (D) Ụtụ
61.
Gwam gwam gwam, gwam ihe kuru mmiri laa elu? (A) Ụgba bekee (B) Akị bekee (CH) Ube
bekee (D) Ụtụ ndị ọcha
Gwam gwam gwam, gwam ihe mere ka eze raa ntụ? (A) Ede (B) Ube (CH) Akị (D) Atụ
Gwam gwam gwam, gwam ihe kuru mmiri laa elu? (A) Ụgba bekee—(B) Akị bekee— (CH) Ube
bekee— (D) Ụtụ ndị ọcha——
Gwam gwam gwam, gwam ite ọkụ ụwa ji ahụ ụzọ? (A) Ọnwa (B) Ọji (CH) Eluigwe (D)
Kpakpando
Gwam gwam gwam, gwam ọgba aka baa ọhịa chịrị ụmụ lọta? (A) Ede (B) Ji (CH) Akị (D) Atụ
Gwam gwam gwam, gwam otu ibe ji zuru ụwa ọnụ? (A) Ụtụ ndị ọcha (B) Akị bekee (CH) Ọnwa
(D) Kpakpando
Họputa nke n’esoghi dee akwụkwọ Igbo: (A) Emenanjọ. (B) Tony Ubesie. (CH) B.I.N Osuagwu
(D) Maazị Ụwadiegwu
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
Kedụ aha e ji mara ndị Police n’ala Igbo?(A) ndị ọchụ nta (B) ndị abalị agba aka (CH). ndị uwe
ojii (D) ndị uwe ọcha
3
B
A
B
D
A
CH
A
B
B
B
D
A
CH
D
CH
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
IGBO
69.
Kedu ihe e jiri mara abụ a? Chineke nke igwe, ịgbapụtawo m, mgbe mmadụ nọ na nsogbu,
aga enye gị ekele.... (A) Abụ ngụgụ nwa (B) Abụ agha (CH) Abụ mkpesa (D) Abụ otito
D
70.
Kedu ihe e jiri mara abụ a? Nzọgbu Nzọgbu Enyi mba Enyi (A) Abụ ngụgụ nwa (B) Abụ agha
(CH) Abụ mkpesa (D) Abụ otito
B
71.
Kedu ihe e jiri mara abụ a? Onye tiri nwa n’ebe akwa, egbe tiri nwa n’ebe akwa(A) Abụ ngụgụ
nwa (B) Abụ agha (CH) Abụ mkpesa (D) Abụ otito
A
72.
Kedu nke esoghi n’agụmagụ ọdịnaala e nwere? (A) Akụkọ ifo (B)Ejije (CH). Abụ (D) Ndị ahịa
D
73.
Kedụ onye dere akwụkwọ Igbo a na-akpọ Mmiri Ọkụ e jị Egbu Mbe: (A) Emenanjọ. —(B)
Tony Ubesie. — (CH). B.I.N Osuagwu — (D) Maazị Ụwadiegwu——
B
74.
Kọwaa ilu a n’uju ya; Nza ga-agba ọbara ka ike ya ha. (A)Ọ ga-adị mma—(B)Mmadụ anaghi eme
ihe karịa otu ike di ya.— (CH) Mmadụ ga na-azụ ahịa— (D) Nwa nza nwere nnukwu ọbara——
B
75.
76.
Mejuo okwu ndịa: Ọ na-ehi ụra dịka (A) Oke (B) Atụrụ (CH) Ewu (D) Edi
Ndị Igbo si na adịghi agba aka aghụ/egho nwata gịnị? (A) Akpụka ndị — (B) Abụ — (CH). Eze
— (D) Otito——
D
D
77.
78.
Ndị Igbo si na adịghi agba aka egho nwata gịnị? (A) Akpụka ndị (B) Abụ (CH). Eze (D) Otito
Ndị Igbo si na agbịsị gbaa otule .... (A) Ya afụọ ụfụ (B) Ya ebee akwa (CH) Ya agba fuo (D)
Ya amụrụ akọ
D
D
79.
Ndị Igbo si na anyụ kọọ mamịrị ọnụ...... (A) Ọ bụrụ manụọ (B) Ọ bụrụ aja (CH) Ọ gbaa ụfụfụ
(D) Ọ bụrụ mmịrị mmịrị
CH
80.
Ndị Igbo si na Awo adịghi agba ọsọ....n’efu (A) Ụtụtụ (B) abalị (CH) ehihie (D) anwụ
CH
81.
Ndị Igbo si na nwata kwụọ aka......... (A) O soro okenye rie nri (B) O soro okenye taa anụ
(CH) O soro okenye lụọ ọgụ (D) O okenye baa ime obodo
A
82.
83.
Ndị Igbo sị na onye wetere Ọjị wetere gịnị? (A)akpụ (B)ndụ (CH). ihụnanya (D) ezinaụlọ
Obi fere ya azụ (A) Ọ bụghị onye obi ebere (B) Obi ya nọ n’azụ (CH) O nweghi obi (D) Obi ya
amaka
B
A
84.
Onye e gburu mma ma ọ gbaghị ọbara bụ onye: (A) Azụ —(B) Ụdara — (CH). Ụkwa— (D)
Eju——
D
85.
Otu n’ime ndịa esoghi n’ihe ana- akọ n’akụkọ?(A) Akụkọ mmadụ (B) Akụkọ anụmanụ (CH).
Akụkọ ndị mmụọ (D) Onweghi
D
86.
A bịa n’ịlụ nwaanyị n’ala Igbo, nkea kachasị dị mkpa? (A) ewu (B) atụrụ (CH) azụ (D) onye
akaebe
A
87.
A na-ezisa ozi site n’ụzọ ndịa ewezuga (A) Omenaala (B) Ekwe (CH) Ogene (D) Egbe
D
88.
89.
90.
Gịnị bụ omenaala n’asụsụ bekee? (A) Tradition (B) Incantation (CH). Progression (D) Peace
Gịnị ka ndị Igbo ji Oji eme? (A) anabata onye ọbịa (B) ezu ohi (CH). atụ asị (D) agba egwu
Họpụta nke abụghị omenaala Igbo (A) Eyọ (B) Ọkọnkọ (CH) Iru mgbede (D) Ịwa akwa
A
A
A
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
IGBO
91.
Kedụ ihe a ga-akpọ nwa nwoke mbụ nwaanyị nke abụọ mụrụ? (A) Ọ bụkwa ọkpara n’afọ nne
ya (B) Ọ bụkwa ọkpara karịa nke mbụ amụrụ. (CH) Ọ bụkwa ọkpara kacha ọkpara (D)
Onweghi onye ma ya.
A
92.
Kedụ nke abụghi ọrụ ndị otu ọgbọ? (A) Ịbọcha ụzọ (B) Iweta ọgba aghara (CH) Ọganiihu
obodo (D) Ịtụ ụtụ obodo
B
93.
94.
Kedụ onye na-anọchite anya nna n’ezinaụlọ? (A)Ada B.Ọkpara (CH). Ụlụ (D)none
Kedụ otu ihe e ji mara ndị nze na ọzọ n’ala Igbo? (A) ndị na-ekpu okpu ọbara ọbara (B) ndị
okpu ọcha (CH). ndị asị. (D) ndị ohi
B
A
95.
N’ala Igbo, nwoke na-alụ nwaanyị ga-eme ihe ndịa? (A) Ọ ga-abụ ọfọ ogori (B) Ọ ga na-anọ
n’ụlọ (CH) Ọ ga-etozu etozu ma nweekwaa aka ọrụ (D) Ọ ga na–akọ sọọsọ ji
CH
96.
N’ụbọchị a ka ụmụaka na- enyekarịrị nne na nna ha aka n’ọrụ ha dị iche iche:— (A) Tuzdee—
(B) Wednesdee— (CH). Tọzụdee— (D) Satọdee—
D
97.
Ọjị gbara anọ na-egosipụta gịnị? (A) otu ọjị (B) ahịa anọ ndị Igbo (CH). ahịa abụọ (D)a nọ m
n’ahịa ndị Igbo
B
98.
Omenaala Igbo na omenaala otu n’ime ndịa yiri onwe ha n’ihe ole na ole:— (A) Egypt—(B)
Hausa— (CH). Juu— (D) Rome————
CH
99. Onye isi mmụọ n’ala obodo bụ? (A) Eze mmuọ (B) Nze (CH) Ọzọ (D) Ichie
100. Otu na ndịa abụghi ndị agbataobi ndị Igbo:— (A) Yoroba—(B) Ibibio— (CH). Ikwere— (D)
Ogoni—
5
A
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ISLAMIC STUDIES
1.
‘…the parties should either hold together on equitable terms or…’ (Q.2:229) This verse of the
Glorious Qur`an stresses the need for a Muslim to be kind to his wife at the time of (A) Divorce
(B) Disagreement (C) Pregnancy (D) Distress
A
2.
‘Verily when He intends a thing His command is ‘Be’ and it ‘is’ (Q.36:82) From this Qur`anic
passage derives the Muslim belief in (A) Predestination (B) Fatalism (C) Providence (D)
Premonition.
A
3.
“Allah doth command you to render back your Trusts to those to whom they are due; and
when ye judge between man and man, That ye Judge with justice…’ (Q. 4:58) Inherent in the
Qur’anic verse above are the virtues of amanah and (A) Diyafah (B) Karamah (C) Khusha‘ (D)
‘Adalah
D
4.
According to Q.24:6, those who accuse their wives of adultery but have no witnesses would
have to resort to (A) zihar (B) Ila’ (C) mubarah (D) Li‘an.
C
5.
According to Q9.103, the spiritual aim of Zakah is (A) the redemption of the giver (B) helping
the poor and the needy (C) purifying and sanctifying the giver (D) fulfilling the injunctions of
the Glorious Qur`an.
C
6.
Allah swears by the Fig and the Olive in Surah (A) Al-Zilzal (B) At-tin (C) Al-qadr (D) Al-‘A`laq
B
7.
As ‘Allah’s creative work is discussed in Q.27:59-64, the passage intermittently cautions man
against (A) Distrust (B) Disobedience (C) Extravagance (D) Exploitation
B
8.
As part of the general condemnation of interest, Q.3:130 is particularly critical of (A) simple
interest (B) compound interest (C) interest on loans (D) interest on savings
B
9.
Cheating and fraud referred to in the Glorious Qur`an 83:1-5 deal specifically with (A) the
hoarding of goods (B) landed property (C) measure and weight (D) monetary matters.
C
10. Forbidding Munkar in Islam means discouraging others from (A) abominable acts (B) injustice
(C) waywardness (D) double standard.
A
11. In addition to the Glorious Qur`an, other revealed books mentioned in Q.3:3 are (A) at-Tawrah
and az-Zabur (B) at-Tawrah and al-Injil (C) al-Injil and al-kitab (D) as-Suhf and az-Zabur.
B
12. In surah 17:23 ‘Allah decrees that (A) None should be worshipped but Him (B) Believers
should not say what they will not do (C) Prayers should be observed at their appointed times
(D) No distinction should be made between the prophets
A
13. In surah al- Qari’ah, mankind is compared to (A) Scattered moths (B) Laden camels (C)
Pampered creatures (D) Humiliated being
A
14. Mutilation which is stipulated in Q.5:41 for theft is described as (A) An exemplary punishment
(B) A retaliatory sanction (C) A punitive measure (D) An incontrovertible disgrace
A
15. One of the lessons taught in surah Al-Ma‘un is that;— (A) Man’s obligation towards Allah is
constant (B) People should be cautious about their devotions (C) A hypocrite is one who
shows off in his worship (D)A good Muslim should always be honest in his works and worship.
16. One of the revealed books ‘Allah promised to protect against distortion is (A) As-Suhf (B) AzZabur (C) Al-Injĩl (D) Al-Furqan
1
B
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ISLAMIC STUDIES
17. Q. 17:26-27 warns Muslims not to squander their wealth as squanderers are brothers of the
(A) Evil ones (B) Misguided (C) Hypocrites (D) Unbelievers
A
18. Q.27:64 describes Allah as the Originator of (A) Man (B) The universe (C) Creation (D) The
heavens.
C
19. Surah al-Falaq and an-Nas are popularly known as (A) Mysterious chapters (B) Macuthatayn (C) Invisible spiritual forces (D) Mutamathilayn.
B
20. Suratul-Fatihah is also referred to as (A) Suratul-Hidayah (B) Kitabul-mathani (C) Ummul-kitab
(D) Suratud-du‘a`
C
21. Tafsir bil-ma‘thur is considered the most reliable while the weakest is tafsir — (A)Bil-‘ilm (B)Birra‘y (C) Bil-Hadith (D) Bil-Qur`an.
22. The admonition against arrogance in surah 31:18 is directed to the son of (A) Ibrahim (B)
Musa (C) Luqman (D) Yusuf
23. The art of witchcraft is disapproved of in surah (A) Ash-shams (B) Al-falaq (C) Al-Ikhlas (D)
An-Nas
24. The assertion that those endowed with knowledge are not equal to those without knowledge
is contained in (A) Q.39:9 (B) Q.42:6 (C) Q.50:3 (D) Q.60:9
25. The basic theme of surah al-Zil Zal is the description of (A) Fearful events of the Day of
Judgement (B) How people will be rewarded with Paradise (C) Events before the actual
doomsday (D) Punishment of the unbelievers in hell
26. The contents of surah al-fatihah can be summed up to mean;— (A) Mercy is always from Allah
(B) Man must always fear Allah and obey Him (C) Man must worship Allah and seek His help
(D) It is the first surah that was revealed.
27. The final and total prohibition of intoxicants is contained in Surah (A) al-Baqarah (B) al-‘Imran
(C) al-Nisa (D) al-Maidah.
28. The forbidden types of food listed in surah 2:173 include carrion, blood, swine flesh and that
which is (A) Dedicated to other gods (B) Killed through beating (C) Killed by goring (D)
Devoured by wild beasts.
B
C
B
A
A
C
D
A
29. The forms of revelations are explained in (A) Q.40:51 (B) Q.41:50 (C) Q.42:51 (D) Q.43:50
30. The main theme of Surah al-Bayyinah is (A) Prayer to and praise of Allah (B) Sincere devotion
to Allah and reward from Him (C) The subservience of all creatures to Allah (D) Charity as a
practical necessity to please Allah.
C
B
31. The most important use of Tafsir of the Glorious Qur’an is in the (A) Proper understanding of
the message (B) Acknowledgement of the spiritual value (C) Application of the legal
provisions (D) Interpretation of the moralprinciple
A
32. The people described as sharrul-bariyyah in Suratul-Bayyinah are the (A) Jews and Christians
(B) Ahlul-kitab and mushrikun (C) Makkan unbelievers and polytheists (D) Kuffar and the
munafiqun
B
33. The Tafsir of the Glorious Qur`an which is modern in its approach to commentary is known as
(A) at-tafsiir bir-r‘ay (B) tafsir al-ma`thur (C) tafsir al-madhahib (D) at-tafsir al-‘asri
34. Wahy in relation to the Glorious Qur’an means (A) Explanation (B) Communication (C)
Revelation (D) Information
D
2
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ISLAMIC STUDIES
35. What differentiates the Qur`anic revelation from other revelations is that (A) It is thrilling (B)
Prophetic dreams are always added to it (C) Angel Gabriel is always seen by the Prophet (D)
visions remain the most significant.
C
36. Which surah is named after women (A) Baqarah (B) Tawbah (C) Tin (D) Al-Nisa
37. ‘Whosoever has two wives but deals unjustly between them would be resurrected with half of
his body falling off” This hadith talks about (A) Justice (B) Brotherhood (C) Perseverance (D)
Decency.
D
A
38. A Hadith is regarded as hasan if it is (A) Next to sahih in strength (B) Defined as mauduc (C)
Found in Bukhari’s collection (D) Contradictory to the Glorious Qur`an.
A
39. Hadith 28 of an-Nawawi warns the Muslims against (A) cultural revival (B) innovations (C) bad
culture (D) syncretism.
A
40. Hadith 7 of an-Nawawi’s collection warns Muslims against (A) Disobedience to Allah (B)
Asking unnecessary questions (C) Failing to keep promises (D) Acts of unbelief.
41. Musnad as a work on Hadith is credited to (A) ‘Abu Daud (B) IbnHanbal (C) IbnMajah (D) An
Nasai‘
42. The main emphasis of Hadith 19 of an-Nawawi is that one should. (A) give unflinching support
to the authority (B) have strong faith in `Allah (C) recognize `Allah as the creator of the
universe (D) recognize the importance of one’s community.
B
43. The Prophet (S.A.W) enjoins that if anyone sees an abomination, the least thing to do is to (A)
Change it with his hands (B) Condemn it in public (C) Hate it in his heart (D) Turn his eyes away
C
44. The term al-Matawatir refers to Hadith narrated by (A) Bukhari and Muslim (B) The six sound
collectors (C) The Prophet’s closest companions (D) Large number of narrators
D
45. Al-Muqaddimah was written by (A) Ibn Khaldun (B) al-Maghili (C) Ahmad Baba (D) al-Ghazali.
A
46. Apart from being a renowned philosopher, IbnRushd was also (A) A jurist (B) An astronomer
(C) A scientist (D) A mathematician.
47. Caliph Abu Bakr reigned for (A) 2 years (B) 3 years (C) 4 years (D) 5 years
48. Idris Alooma contributed to the spread of Islam by (A) Institutionalizing the jihad movement
(B) Promoting Islamic brotherhood (C) Putting an end to syncretism (D) Making it a state
religion.
D
49. In the early part of Islam in West Africa, the ribat was primarily a centre for (A) Religious
propagation (B) Sufi indoctrination (C) Social reform (D) Fraternal movement
A
50. One of the contributions of Islam to women welfare is the introduction of (A) inheritance (B)
family planning (C) marriage (D) women seclusion.
51. One of the factors which helped the spread of Islam in West Africa was (A) The building of a
mosque in Timbuktu (B) The establishment of many schools (C) Effective trade relationships
(D) The existence of clans and kingdoms.
A
3
B
B
A
C
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ISLAMIC STUDIES
52. One of the most outstanding developments after the Hijrah was the (A) Emergence of a new
religion (B) Increase in hostilities against the Muslims (C) Emergence of the Muslim ‘Ummah
(D) Increase in cooperation with theJews
53. One of the Sahabah considered most knowledgeable in Tafsĩr was;— (A) Ali b. Abĩ Talib
(B)‘Ubay b. Ka‘ab (C)‘Abdullah b. ‘Abbas (D) Sa‘ad b. ‘Abĩ Waqas
54. Prophet Muhammad (SAW) was sent as a (A) Prophet to believers (B)Universal messenger (C)
Prophet to the Arabs (D) Prophet to those who meditate.
55. The Battle of Siffin was fought under the Caliphate of— (A)Abu Bakr (B)‘Umar (C)‘Uthman
(D)‘Ali.
56. The Battle of Uhud was fought in the month of — (A)Shawwal (B)Rajab (C)Rabi‘ u-al-awwal
(D)Jumada ath-thani.
57. The cobwebs and the two wild pigeons are some of the miracles cited on the occasion of the
Prophet’s (SAW);— (A)hijrah to Abyssinia (B)hijrah to Yathrib (C)meditation in Cave Hira
(D)construction of Quba mosque.
58. The first civil war fought in the history of Islam took place during the reign of;— (A)Caliph Abu
Bakr (B)Caliph ‘Umar (C) Caliph ‘Uthman (D)Caliph ‘Ali.
59. The first man on earth, Adam (A.S) was exalted above other creatures because of his (A)
Intelligence (B) Obedience (C) Insight (D) Knowledge
C
C
B
D
D
B
A
D
60. The first social commitment of the Prophet was to (A) Build a mosque (B) Strengthen blood
lies among the Muslim Ummah (C) Establish brotherhood amongMuslims (D) Re-position the
Jews
C
61. The greatest mobilization of the Muslim forces under the Prophet (S.A.W) took place during
the (A) Battle of Khandaq (B) Conquest of Makkah (C) Campaign of Khaybar (D) Battle of
Hunain
A
62. The Imam who was given 70 lashes in Madinah for refusing to compromise was (A) Abu Hanifa
(B) Ibn Hambal (C) Malik (D) ash-Shafi’.
C
63. The important trading terminal which aided the spread of Islam in West Africa was; —(A)
Katsina (B)Gao (C) Borno (D)Jenne
64. The leader of the Muslims who made the Hijrah to Abyssnia was;— (A) Ja‘afar b. ‘Abĩ Talib (B)
Sa‘ad b. Abĩ Waqas (C) Abu Musa al-Ash‘ari (D)Zubair b. al-Awwam.
65. The main purpose of the Battle of Uhud was to (A) Punish the Jews of Madĩnah (B) Punish the
people of Makkah (C) Destroy the people of Madĩnah (D) Avenge the defeat at Badr.
D
A
D
66. The man who analyzed the first encounter of the Prophet (S.A.W) with Angel Jibril was (A)
Haub b. Abĩ Balta’a (B) Waraqah b. Nawfal (C) Arqam b. Arqam (D) ‘Uthman b. ‘Affan
B
67. The man who established the Muslim city of Qurawan was (A) ‘Uqbah b. Nafi’ (B) ‘Ubaidah b.
Sa‘ad (C) Irshad b. Waq’s (D) Musa b. Naufal
A
68. The messenger of Allah sent to the people of Thamud was (A) Isa (A.S) (B) Musa (A.S) (C) Hud
(A.S) (D) Salih (A.S).
D
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ISLAMIC STUDIES
69. The oldest university in West Africa is (A) Qairawan (B) Nizamiyyah (C) Sankore (D) Al-Azhar.
C.
70. The Prophet (SAW) granted general amnesty to all enemies of Islam after the;— (A)Battle of
Yamamah (B)Conquest of Makkah (C)Campaign of Tabuk (D)Battle of Hunain
71. Which Prophet was thrown into fire (A) Muhammad (B) Jesus (C) Ibrahim (D) Dawud
72. Who among the prophets of ‘Allah was sent to his people to warn against deceit in terms of
measurement and weight? (A) Shuaib (A.S) (B) Hud (A.S) (C) Salih (A.S) (D) Nuh (A.S)
B
C
A
73. Who established Sokoto caliphate —(A)Abubakr (B)Sa‘sid (C)Uthman b. Fudi (D)Dasuki
74. Who married Prophet’s daughter (A) ‘Ali (B) ‘Uthman (C) ‘Umar (D) Abubakr
75. A Muslim who cannot marry for genuine reasons is advised to ;— (A) Be reciting the Glorious
Qur’an for spiritual uplift (B) Engage in supererogatory prayers at night (C) Give sadaqah to
the poor and needy (D) Fast periodically for self- discipline
76. Al-‘awrah for a man is from the (A) Navel to the feet (B) Navel to the knee (C) Head of the
toe (D) Head to the waist
C
A
D
B
77. Fard and Haram in the scope of sharĩ‘ah mean;— (A) Tolerable and abominable (B) Permissible
and punishable (C) Compulsory and disliked (D) Obligatory and prohibited
78. Fasting on the day of doubt is (A) forbidden (B) allowed (C) obligatory (D) supererogatory.
D
A
79. If a husband divorces his wife before the consummation of the marriage, it is considered (A)
Revocable (B) Irrevocable (C) Redeemable (D) Abominable
B
80. In the Islamic law of inheritance, the share of the mother of the deceased who has no children
is (A) ½ (B) 1/3 (C) ¼ (D) 1/6
B
81. One of the impediments to inheritance is (A) differences of religion (B) differences of sex (C) a
disagreement between the heir and the deceased (D) an instruction by the estate owner to
exclude the heir.
A
82. One of the peculiarities of Muwatta Malik is that it contains reports on (A) The battles of the
Prophet Muhammad (SAW) (B) The practices of the people of Madinah (C) Disagreement
between early Muslim scholars (D) The history of past prophets.
B
83. Qiyas as a source of Shari‘ah is resorted to when an issue (A) is covered by the Glorious
Qur`an only (B) requires urgent attention (C) is not treated by the primary sources (D) is
related to a very serious crime.
C
84. Salah becomes vitiated when takbirah al-ihram is (A) Omitted (B) Repeated (C) Said silently
(D) Delayed unduly.
A
85. Shariah law is different from man-made law because it involves jurisprudence based on (A)
The philosophy of life (B) Judicial decisions (C) Customs and traditions (D) Divine revelation.
D
86. Taharah is a symbolic preparation of the (A) soul (B) body (C) clothes (D) place.
B
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ISLAMIC STUDIES
87. Taking the ritual bath for Friday prayers is (A) Wajib (B) Sunnah (C) Mustahab (D) Mubah
B
88. Talaq al Bain means divorce that is (A) revocable (B) permissible (C) detestable (D)
irrevocable.
A
89. Tatfif in business transaction occurs when one of the partners— (A) Overprices the goods (B)
Underprices the commodity (C) Tampers with the measure (D )Refuses to pay for the goods.
90. The field of study dealing with Ibadat and Muamalat is known as; —(A) Fiqh (B) Aqĩdah (C)
Tasawwuf (D) Tahdhĩb
91. The ill-treatment of a wife in Islam is called —(A) Hadd (B)Idrar (C)Shiqaq (D)Fitnah
92. The jamrat that pilgrims are expected to stone on the 10th day of Dhul hijjah is —(A) AlAqabah (B) Al-Wusta (C) As-Sughra (D) Al-adna
93. The legal status of Jihad in Islam is (A) fard’ain (B) mustahabb (C) mubah (D) fard kifayah.
C
A
B
A
D
94. The major difference among the Sunni schools of law borders on (A) Jurisprudential
interpretation (B) Judicial rulings (C) Legal application (D) Customary usage.
A
95. The most important right which both Muslims and non-Muslims have under the Islamic
political system is that of (A) Worship (B) Justice (C) Honour (D) Life.
A
96. The most popular means of alleviating poverty in the Muslim society is through (A) baitul-mal
(B) zakah (C) rawarib (D) waqf.
B
97. Where the father is the only heir who survives his son, he will inherit;— (A) One sixth of his
property (B) One third of his property (C) Half of his property (D) The whole of his property
98. Zakatul-fitr is not permissible on (A) Rice (B) Maize (C) Millet (D) Kolanut
99. Atid and Raqib are Angels responsible for (A) causing death (B) Sending down the rain (C)
recording our deeds (D) inflicting calamities.
100. Sovereignty of Allah is the (A) Root of Shariah (B) Foundation of knowledge (C) Source of
political freedom (D) Basis of the Islamic political system.
6
D
D
C
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1.
"Conceits more rich in matter than in words/Brags of his substance, not of ornament" (Act
II.SC.IV). The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of .................. (A) paradoxical
structure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis.
D
2.
A drama form that teaches godliness, righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers and
ordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroic
farce (D) satire
A
3.
A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B)
Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert
B
4.
A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy
(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque
C
5.
A play is a tragedy when------------------ (A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B)
the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) a
weakness in the main character leads to his downfall.
D
6.
A play that ends on a sad note is a ----------- (A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D)
farce
C
7.
A play that stirs readers to pity, fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C)
absurd (D) melodrama
A
8.
A play that tells a single story, has one setting and takes place within a specified period is said
to-------- (A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D)
have tragic elements
C
9.
A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called---(A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce
D
10. A play with a single character is called .................................. (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama
(C) play let (D) All of the above.
D
11. A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c)
unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed.
C
12. A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy
(A) comedy
A
13. A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment, with characters who are
usually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D)
burlesque
B
14. According to Aristotle, the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C)
representation(D) plot
A
15. Aristotle’s word for a tragic hero’s shortcoming is
(d) dilemma
(a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement
B
16. As a comic dramatic piece, a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are
(A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor
A
17. Both comedy and tragedy have ------------- (A) climax
ending
A
(B) tragic hero (C) stanza
(D) happy
18. Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by----------- (A) movement from serious to
the light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D)
gloomy actions with momentary reliefs
1
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
19. In -----, the major character is selfish, devilish, wicked and exploitative.
Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama
(A) Comedy
(B)
D
20. In a play, tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversal,
recognition and suffering (B) weakness, suffering and resolution (C) flaw, fear and
recognition
(D) reversal, suffering and conclusion.
A
21. In de Graft’s Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with ...................... (A) ridicule (B)
dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle
B
22. In drama, a flashback occurs when ...................................... (A) a character’s inner mind is
revealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a character’s past (C) a character drops
an idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past.
D
23. In drama, light, furniture, custom and make-up are part of ........................ (A) stage décor (B)
stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics.
A
24. In most of Shakespeare’s drama, when a character speaks in aside, the act is referred to as
......................... (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue.
C
25. In Romeo and Juliet, Romeo died ................................ (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered by
Friar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins.
A
26. In Sons and Daughters, Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C)
youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy
A
27. In Sons and Daughters, the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C)
new values (D) wealth.
B
28. In tragedy, everything must be artistically balanced; this means that (A) the setting must be
in one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) character
and action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters
29. -------------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens. (A)
Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) Satire
B
A
30. -----------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences are
resolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce
A
31. --------------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minor
problems. (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D. Comedy
D
32. Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) Sierra
Leone
A
33. Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over
(A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view
A
C
34. One basic feature of melodrama is ...................................... (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C)
triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good
35. One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------------ (A) humour (B) satire
sarcasm (D) action
(C)
D
36. Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of the
society (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate
A
2
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
37. The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a play’s
exposition (C) rising action (D) climax
(A) envoy (B)
B
38. The most basic feature of drama is ………………………….. (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action
(D) plot
C
39. The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love
fight (D) secret marriage
C
(C) street
40. The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C)
satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy
B
41. The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs
(B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot
A
(A) mistaken identity
42. The tragic hero’s flaw is called .......................... (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D)
peripeteia.
43. The word “cast” in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All the
actors (D) An exclusive social class in the play
44. Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem
ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic
45. Tragecomedies developed in which century?
(A) unfortunate (B)
(A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21st C
46. When a play includes witty and graceful situation, it can be classified as
(A) comedy of
manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurd
47. When the plot of a play begins in the middle, and only unfolds the past through flashback, it is
called ............................ (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of the
foregoing
B
C
B
C
B
B
48. Which of the following is true of Opera? (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They are
plays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B.
49. Which of the following statements best describes comedy? (A) A play in which nobody dies
(B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which ends
happily
D
50. A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B)
fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable
A
51. Considering the way Nnu Ego’s life ends in The Joys of Motherhood, the title of the novel can
be said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic
52. In ‘The Old Man and the Medal’, when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelara
answered “I counted the matting in the roof”, she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) she
was awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)
there was a hole in the roof
A
53. In a novel, the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown
54. In Nineteen Eighty-four, the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith
(B) Julia (C) O’Brien (D) Big Brother
55. In Nineteen Eighty-Four, the poet is (A) O’Brien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin
3
D
B
C
A
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
56. In The Joys of Motherhood, Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running away
from his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving him
jobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure
B
57. In The Joys of Motherhood,Nnu Ego at one point, tried to commit suicide because (A)
someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear the
shame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaife’s appearance
B
58. In The Old Man and the Medal, when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelara
answered “I counted the matting in the roof”, she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) she
was awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)
there was a hole in the roof
B
59. Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire
tragedy (D) chronicle
(C)
A
60. The expression “to break the leg of an antelope”, which is found in The Old Man and the Medal
means______ (A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting
D
61. The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers and
husbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciate
hardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands
A
62. The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is
emancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism
C
(B) comedy
(A) politics (B) economic
63. “The piercing chill I feel,
My dead wife’s comb in our bedroom
Under my heel”(trans. By
Harold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem? (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D)
quatrain
64. A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12
65. A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a________ (A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet
(D) quatrain
A
B
C
66. From David Rubadiri’s “An African Thunderstorm” “Clouds come hurrying with the wind”
contains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme
A
67. In poetry, double rhyme can be used to bring out
conclusion
A
(A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D)
68. The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9
69. The tone in ‘Heritage of Liberation’ is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory
(D) melancholic
C
B
70. The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) abab cdcd efef gg
gg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg
A
71. The words “prove” and “above” are examples of the rhyme called
(D) slant
(B) abab cdcd eeff
(A) exact (B) half (C) eye
C
72. When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way, it is referred to as________ (A) rhyme
(B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism
B
73. Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression? (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D)
Elegy
A
4
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
74. ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A)
Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron
B
75. A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock
(D) dynamic
B
76. A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry with
a rhythmic effect is called_______ (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D)
euphemism
A
77. A literary work that appropriates matter and/or manner from a previous work is
....................... (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text.
C
78. A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents
(C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action.
D
79. An expression or word which stands for a whole is called_______ (A) metonymy (B) allegory
(C) synecdoche (D) repetition
C
80. Assonance refers to the _______ (A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetition
of vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonant
sounds in a line
B
81. Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called .............................. (A)
Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters.
C
82. Identical vowel sounds create one of the following: (A) euphony (B) cacophony
alliteration (D) assonance
D
(C)
83. Identify the odd one out of the following ……………….. (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative
(D) Stage
C
84. Identify the odd one out of the following : (A) Décor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime.
85. In a novel, the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject
(D) setting
D
D
86. Point out the odd item: (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo and
Juliet
C
87. Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as “pregnant” because (A)
no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D)
they move clumsily
C
88. The antagonist in a tragedy is ------------ (A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of the
protagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition to
the main character
89. The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A)
foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue
D
B
90. The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) present
tense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns “I” and “we”
D
91. The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is ........................ (A) plot (B) imitation (C)
character (D) action.
C
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
92. The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B)
climax (C) imagery (D) plot
D
93. When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships, it is called ......... (A)
episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above.
B
94. ".. I would / Love you ten years before the Flood / And you should, if you please, refuse / Till
the conversion of the Jews" The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B)
innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype
95. “That pierced the fearful hollow of thine ear” is an example of ........................... (A) relative
clause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause
96. “Wilt thou be gone? It is not yet near day; It was the nightingale and not the lark, That pierced
the fearful hollow of thine ear”. The first sentence here is an example of ............. (A)
interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request
A
D
C
97. From Andrew Marvell’s “To His Coy Mistress” Had we but world enough, and time, / This
coyness, lady, were no crime. / We could sit down and think which way / To walk, and pass our
long love’s day. This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C)
ballad (D) dramatic monologue
D
98. Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration
99. In the village / Screams of delighted children / Toss and turn / In the din of whirling wind, /
Women / Babies clinging on their backs / Dart about / In and out / Madly / The Wind whistles
by / Whilst trees bend to let it pass. In the above extract, the movement of the women is (A)
leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow
C
100. Tossing up things on its tail / Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example
of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradox
6
B
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
(1.28 x 104 ) ÷ (6.4 x 102 ) equals
(A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105
A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400. The woman had 10% of the cost and
the man 40% of the remainder. How much did they have altogether?
(A)
N216 (B)
N200 (C)
N184 (D)
N144 (E)
N100
Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of 3/18. If the resulting fraction is
½, then the number added is
(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 (E) 11
After getting a rise of 15%, a man’s new monthly salary is N345. How much per month
did he earn before the increase?
(A) N330 (B) N396.75 (C) N300 (D) N293.25 (E) N360
Assuming loge 4.4 = 1.4816 and loge 7.7 = 2.0142, then the value of loge ¼ is
(A) 0.5326 (B) 3.4958 (C) 0.4816 (D) 0.0142 (E) 1.3594
D
Evaluate ൫2଴ + 4ିଵ/ଶ൯
(A) ¼
(B) 5/4
(C) 9/4
(D) 4
(E) 9
Evaluate correct to 4 decimal places 827.51 x 0.015.
(A) 8.8415 (B) 12.4127 (C)
124.1265
(D)
12.4120(E)
114.1265
Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour.
(A) 7.8 x 105 (B)
468 x 106 (C) 7,800,000 (D) 4.68 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6
Find the square root of 170-20√30
(A) 2√10-5√3 (B) 3√5-8√6 (C) 2√5-5√6 (D) 5√5-2√6 (E) 5√10-2√3
If (25)x-1 = 64(5⁄2)6, then x has the value
(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 64 (E) 5
If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in the
ratio 2:5, in what ratio is the surface area reduced?
(A) 8:125 (B) 2:5 (C) 8:25 (D) 4:25 (E) 4:10
In base ten, the number 101101 (base 2) equals
(A) 15 (B) 4 (C) 45 (D) 32 (E) 90
C
ଶ
Simplify
(A)
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
ହೣ ୶ ଶହ౮ష భ
5୶ାଶ
(C)
(௔ିଵ/௔)൫௔ర/యାଵ/௔మ/ళ൯
(௔మିଵ/௔మ)
(A)
ܽଶ/ଷ (B)
ܽିଵ/ଷ (C)
Simplify ݂ଵ/ଶ݃ଶℎଵ/ଷ ÷ ݂ହ/ଶ݃଴ℎ଻/ଷ
(A) (݃/݂ℎ)ଶ (B) ݂ହ݃ଶℎ଻
Simplify 2
ହ
−
ଵଶ
଻
଼
1 x
D
C
A
B
B
C
B
D
C
C
ଵଶହ౮శభ
5ଶ୶ିଵ (B)
Simplify
C
଺
ହ
5ିହ
(D)
5୶ାଵ
ܽଶ + 1
(D)
(C) ݂ହ/ସ݃଴ℎ଻/ଽ
(D)
(E)
a
௚మ
௙ఱ௛ళ
(E)
(E)
5ଷ
E
ܽଵ/ଷ
A
ଵ
௙మ௛మ
(A) 1/6
(B) 13/20 (C) 11/30
(D) 9/4
(E) 5/3
௫ା௬
ଷ௬ି௫
Solve the system of equations: 2
= 32, 3
= 27
(A) (3, 2)
(B) (-3, 2) (C)
(3, -2) (D)
(-3, -2) (E)
(2, 2)
The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and B
in the ratio 3:5. If B receives N3,000 more than A, the total profit was:
(A) N5,000 (B) N1,800 (C) N12,000 (D) N24,000 (E) N8,000
The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 23.40cm to four significant figures. What is
1
A
A
C
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
20.
21.
22.
23.
the maximum error in the measurement?
(A)
0.05cm (B) 0.5cm
(C) 0.045cm
(D) 0.005cm
(E) 0.004cm
The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r :t, in
1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25% and that of a packet of sugar by 10%. Their new
ratio is now
(A) 40r:50t (B) 44r:50t (C)
50r:44t (D)
55r:44t (E)
44r:55t
The sum of 37/8 and 11/3 is less than the difference between 3/8 and 12/3 by (A) 32/3 (B)
5¼ (C) 6½ (D) 0 (E) 81/8
Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre of
the circle. Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio
(A)
1:100 (B)
3:1
(C) 5:2
(D)
10:3
(E)
13:30
௔)
(49
(0.01)?
What is ݈‫଻݃݋‬
− ݈‫݃݋‬ଵ଴
49ܽ⁄100 (B) ܽ/2 + 2
(C) 7ଶ௔ + 2 (D)
2ܽ + 2
(E)
2ܽ/2
What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is .3482?
(A)
223.6
(B)
0.2228
(C)
2.235
;
(D)
22.37
(E)
0.02229
When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8%. What did he pay for the
bicycle?
(A)
N73
(B)
N74.52
(C)
N75
(D)
N75.52
(E)
N87.48
Write the decimal number 39 to base 2.
(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D)
100101
(E)
19.5
A father is now three times as old as his son. Twelve years ago, he was six times as old as
his son. How old are the son and the father?
(A) 20 and 45 (B) 100 and 150 (C) 45 and 65 (D) 35 and 75 (E) 20 and 60
A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm. If the
cylinder is now filled with water, what is the volume of the water in the cylinder?
(A) 44/3ߨcm3 (B) 12 ߨcm3 (C) 38/3 ߨcm3 (D) 40/3 ߨcm3 (E) 32/33 ߨcm3
Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the units
digit, and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits.
(A) 24 (B)
42
(C)
74
(D)
47
(E)
72
Find the roots of the equation 10‫ݔ‬ଶ − 13‫ ݔ‬− 3 = 0
(A) x = 3/5 or –½ (B) x = 3/10 or -1 (C) x = -3/10 or 1 (D) x = 1/5 or -3/2 (E) x
= -1/5 or 3/2
If a function is defined by ݂(‫ ݔ‬+ 1) = 3‫ݔ‬ଶ − ‫ ݔ‬+ 4, find ݂(0).
(A)
4
(B)
6
(C)
0
(D)
8
(E)
2
If sin x equals cosine x, what is x in radians?
(A) π/2 (B) π/3
(C) π/4 (D) π/6 (E) π/12
2
If x + 4 = 0, then x =
(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these
In a geometric progression, the first term is 153 and the sixth term is 17/27, the sum of the
first four terms is
(A) 860/3 (B) 680/3 (C) 608/3 (D) 806/3 (E) 680/27
List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality −1 < 2‫ ݔ‬− 5 ≤ 5
(A) 2,3,4,5 (B) 2,5
(C) 3,4,5
(D) 2,3,4
(E) 3,4
ହ
Make c the subject of the equation ܽ(ܾ + ܿ) + ௗ − 2 = 0
C
C
D
D
(A)
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
2
E
C
A
E
A
D
E
D
C
E
B
C
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
(A)
ܿ = 2݀ − 5 − ܾ/ܽ݀
(B) ܿ = 5 − 2݀ − ܾ/ܽ݀
(C)
ܿ = 5 − 2݀ −
ܾܽ݀/ܽ݀ (D) ܿ = 2݀ − 5 − ܾܽ݀/ܽ݀ (E)
ܿ = 2݀ − ܾܽ − 5/ܽ݀
Multiply (3‫ ݔ‬+ 5‫ ݕ‬+ 4‫ )ݖ‬by (2‫ ݔ‬− 3‫ ݕ‬+ ‫)ݖ‬
(A)
6‫ݔ‬ଶ + ‫ ݕݔ‬− 15‫ݕ‬ଶ + 4‫ݖ‬ଶ + 11‫ݖݔ‬− 7‫ݖݕ‬
(B)
6‫ݔ‬ଶ + 3‫ ݕݔ‬− 15‫ݕ‬ଶ + 4‫ݖ‬ଶ + 11‫ݖݔ‬− 5‫ݖݕ‬
(C)
6‫ݔ‬ଶ + 3‫ ݕݔ‬− 15‫ݕ‬ଶ + 4‫ݖ‬ଶ + 13‫ݖݔ‬− 8‫ݖݕ‬
(D)
6‫ݔ‬ଶ + 5‫ ݕݔ‬− 15‫ݕ‬ଶ + 4‫ݖ‬ଶ + 13‫ݖݔ‬+ 6‫ݖݕ‬
(E)
6‫ݔ‬ଶ + ‫ ݕݔ‬− 15‫ݕ‬ଶ + 4‫ݖ‬ଶ + 13‫ ݕݔ‬− 7‫ݖݕ‬
Multiply (‫ ݔ‬+ 3‫ ݕ‬+ 5) by (2‫ݔ‬ଶ + 5‫ ݕ‬+ 2)
(A)
2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 3‫ݔݕ‬ଶ + 10‫ ݕݔ‬+ 15‫ݕ‬ଶ + 13‫ ݕ‬+ 10‫ݔ‬ଶ + 2‫ ݔ‬+ 10
(B)
2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 6‫ݔݕ‬ଶ + 5‫ ݕݔ‬+ 15‫ݕ‬ଶ + 31‫ ݕ‬+ 10‫ݔ‬ଶ + 2‫ ݔ‬+ 10
(C)
2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 3‫ݔݕ‬ଶ + 5‫ ݕݔ‬+ 10‫ݕ‬ଶ + 13‫ ݕ‬+ 5‫ݔ‬ଶ + 2‫ ݔ‬+ 10
(D)
2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 6‫ݔݕ‬ଶ + 5‫ ݕݔ‬+ 15‫ݕ‬ଶ + 13‫ ݕ‬+ 10‫ݔ‬ଶ + 2‫ ݔ‬+ 10
(E)
2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 2‫ݔݕ‬ଶ + 10‫ ݕݔ‬+ 10‫ݕ‬ଶ + 31‫ ݕ‬+ 5‫ݔ‬ଶ + 2‫ ݔ‬+ 10
Multiply ‫ݔ‬ଶ + ‫ ݔ‬+ 1 by ‫ݔ‬ଶ − ‫ ݔ‬+ 1
(A) ‫ݔ‬ସ + 3‫ݔ‬ଶ + ‫ ݔ‬+ 1 (B) ‫ݔ‬ସ + ‫ݔ‬ଶ + 1 (C) ‫ݔ‬ସ + 4‫ݔ‬ଶ − 6‫ ݔ‬+ 1 (D) ‫ݔ‬ସ −
6‫ݔ‬ଶ − 4‫ ݔ‬+ 1
(E) ‫ݔ‬ସ − ‫ݔ‬ଷ − ‫ݔ‬ଶ + ‫ ݔ‬+ 1
The factors of 6‫ ݔ‬− 5 − ‫ݔ‬ଶ are
(A) – (‫ ݔ‬+ 3)(‫ ݔ‬+ 2) (B) (‫ ݔ‬− 5)(‫ ݔ‬− 1)
(‫ ݔ‬+ 5)(1 − ‫)ݔ‬
(C) – (‫ ݔ‬+ 5)(‫ ݔ‬+ 1) (D) (‫ ݔ‬− 5)(1 − ‫( )ݔ‬E)
The quantity (x + y) is a factor of A.
(A) ‫ݔ‬ଶ + ‫ݕ‬ଶ
(B) ‫ݔ‬ଷ − ‫ݕ‬ଷ
(C) 2‫ݔ‬ଶ − 3‫ ݕݔ‬+ ‫ݕ‬ଶ − ‫ ݔ‬+ 1
(D)
2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 2‫ݔ‬ଶ‫ ݕ‬− ‫ ݕݔ‬+ 3‫ ݔ‬− ‫ݕ‬ଶ + 3‫ݕ‬
(E)
‫ݔ‬ହ − ‫ݕ‬ହ
The set of values of x and y which satisfies the equations <i>x² - y - 1 = 0
</i> and <i>y – 2x + 2 = 0</i>
(A)
1, 0
(B)
1, 1
(C)
2, 2
(D)
0, 2
(E)
1, 2
The solution of the equation ‫ݔ‬ଶ − 2‫ = ݔ‬8 is
(A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4 (C) x = 2
(D) x = -4
(E) x = 2 or 4
The solution of the quadratic equation ܾ‫ݔ‬ଶ + ܿ‫ ݔ‬+ ܽ = 0 is given by
(A) ‫= ݔ‬
(D)
45.
46.
47.
48.
‫=ݔ‬
ି௖±ξ ௖మିସ௔௕
ଶ௕
௕±√௕మାସ௔௖
ଶ௔
(B)
‫=ݔ‬
ି௕±ξ ௕మିସ௔௕
ଶ௔
(E)
‫=ݔ‬
(C)
‫=ݔ‬
௖±√௖మିସ௔௕
ଶ௕
ହ
is and the
ଶ
B
B
D
D
A
B
A
௖±ξ ௕మିସ௔௖
ଶ௕
The sum of the root of a quadratic equation
product of its roots is 4. The
quadratic equation is
(A) 2‫ݔ‬ଶ + 5‫ ݔ‬+ 8 = 0
(B) 2‫ݔ‬ଶ − 5‫ ݔ‬+ 8 = 0
(C)
2‫ݔ‬ଶ − 8‫ ݔ‬+ 5 = 0
(D) 2‫ݔ‬ଶ + 8‫ ݔ‬− 5 = 0
(E) 2‫ݔ‬ଶ + 5‫ ݔ‬− 8 = 0
ସ
ସ
Three numbers x, y and z are connected by the relationships ‫ ݔ = ݕ‬+ 1 and ‫ ݕ = ݖ‬+ 1.
ଽ
ଽ
If x = 99, find z.
(A) 61/3 (B)
20
(C) 21 (D)
1764/9
(E)
None of the above
What factor is common to all the expressions: ‫ݔ‬ଶ − ‫ݔ‬, 2‫ݔ‬ଶ + ‫ ݔ‬− 1 and ‫ݔ‬ଶ − 1?
(A) x (B)
x – 1 (C)
x+1
(D) No common factor
(E) (2x – 1)
A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m. If water of uniform
density 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute, the adjacent
sea is
3
A
B
C
D
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
(A) 100,000 (B) 1,000,000
(C) 120,000 (D) 30,000 (E) 350,000
A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm. What is its height?
(A)
9cm
(B) √65cm
(C)
4√2cm (D) 7cm
(E)
6.5cm
A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end. Its surface area is
(A) 2πrh (B) πr2h (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D) πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2
A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid. The figure has
(A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges
A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm long
and 18cm wide. Find the perimeter of the remaining figure.
(A) 38cm (B) (38 + 12ߨ)ܿ݉ (C) (86 − 12ߨ)ܿ݉ (D) (86 − 6ߨ)ܿ݉ (E) (86 +
12ߨ)ܿ݉
A rectangular picture 6cm by 8cm is enclosed by a frame ½cm wide. Calculate the area of
the frame.
(A) 15sq.cm (B) 20sq.cm (C) 13sq.cm (D) 16sq.cm (E) 17sq.cm
A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm. The area of the
hexagon is
(A) 36ߨܿ݉ ଶ (B) 36/ ߨܿ݉ ଶ (C) 54√3cm2 (D) 54/√3cm2 (E) 54√3‫ݔ‬cm2
A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm. The area of the
hexagon is
(A) 36ߨܿ݉ ଶ (B) 36/ ߨܿ݉ ଶ (C) 54√3cm2 (D) 54/√3cm2 (E) 54√3‫ݔ‬cm2
A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface area of 36πcm2. Find its height.
(A)
2cm
(B)
3cm
(C)
4cm
(D)
5cm
(E)
6cm
A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long. What is
the area of the board?
(A) 20sq.cm (B) 25sq.cm (C) 36sq.cm (D) 100sq.cm (E) 16sq.cm
A triangle has angles 300, 150 and 1350, the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cm.
The side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to
(A) 12cm
(B) 6cm
(C) 6√2cm (D) 12√2cm (E) 6√3cm
An isosceles triangle of sides 13cm, 13cm, 10cm is inscribed in a circle. What is the
radius of the circle?
ଵ
(A)
7 cm (B) 12cm
(C) 8cm
(D) 7cm
(E) √69cm
ଶସ
ଵ ଶ
Differentiate ቀ‫ݔ‬ଶ − ቁ with respect to x.
௫
(A) 4‫ݔ‬ଷ − 2 − 2/‫ݔ‬ଷ
(B) 4‫ݔ‬ଷ − 2 + 2/‫ݔ‬ଷ (C) 4‫ݔ‬ଷ − 3‫ ݔ‬+ 2/‫( ݔ‬D) 4‫ݔ‬ଷ − 4‫ ݔ‬− 2/‫( ݔ‬E) 4‫ݔ‬ଷ − +6 +
2/‫ݔ‬ଷ
Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whose
height is 8cm (Take π = 22/7).
(A) 188.57cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 188.08cm2 (E) 100cm2
Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2√3cm and slanting side 4√3cm.
(A) 8√3ߨcm3 (B) 24ߨcm3 (C) 15√3ߨcm3 (D) 36ߨcm3
(E) 30ߨcm3
0
0
0
If the four interior angles of a quadrilateral are (p+10) ,(p-30) ,(2p-45) and (p+15)0, then
p is
(A) 1250 (B) 820 (C) 1350 (D) 1050 (E) 600
If the hypotenuse of a right angled isosceles triangle is 2, what is the length of each of the
other sides?
(A) √2
(B)
1/√2
(C)
2/√2 (D)
1
(E)
√2 − 1
If the value of π is taken to be 22/7, the area of a semicircle of diameter 42m is
4
B
E
E
B
A
C
C
B
B
C
A
E
A
D
B
A
E
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
(A) 5544m2 (B) 1386m2 (C) 132m2 (D) 264m2 (E) 693m2
In a circle of radius 10cm, a cord of length 10cm is xcm from its centre where x is
(A) 10√2
(B) 5√3
(C) 10√3
(D) 5√2
(E) 10
PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle. If PQS = 150, find
QRS.
(A) 750
(B) 37½0
(C) 127½0 (D) 1050
(E) None of the above
The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is
135cm2. What is the length?
(A) 25cm
(B) 18cm
(C) 15cm
(D) 24cm
(E) 27cm
At what value of x does the function y= -3 – 2x +x2 attain a minimum value?
(A)
4
(B)
2
(C)
-1
(D)
-4
(E)
1
ଵ ଶ
ଵ
ହ
C
E
4‫ݔ‬ଷ −
ܿ‫(ݏ݋‬2‫ݔ‬ଷ +
C
D
C
௫మ
(A) ‫ݔ‬ଶ/2 −sin ‫ ݔ‬+ ܿ (B) ‫ݔ‬ଶ − sin ‫ ݔ‬+ ܿ (C)
+ sin ‫ ݔ‬+ ܿ
ଶ
ଶ
ଶ
(D) ‫ ݔ‬+ sin ‫ ݔ‬+ ܿ
(E) ‫ ݔ‬/4 + sin ‫ ݔ‬+ ܿ
If the maximum value of y = 1+ hx -3x2 is 13, find h.
(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 11. (D) 10 (E) 14.
ௗ௦
ସ
If ‫( = ݏ‬2 + 3‫()ݐ‬5‫ݐ‬− 4), find when ‫ܿ݁ݏ =ݐ‬
ௗ௧
ହ
(A) 0 unit per sec.
(B) 15 units per sec. (C) 22 units per sec.
sec.
(E) 24 units per sec.
ௗ௬
If ‫( = ݕ‬1 − 2‫)ݔ‬ଷ, find the value of at x = -1
ௗ௫
(A)
-6
(B)
57
(C)
-54
(D)
27
(E)
ௗ௬
If ‫ = ݕ‬3 cos 4‫ݔ‬, equals
ௗ௫
(A) 6sin8x
(B) -24sin4x (C)
ଵି௫
Integrate య with respect to x
௫ି௫మ
௫ర
௫
+݇
(B)
ଵ
ଵ
(E) ௫ − ଶ௫మ + ݇
ଵି௫
Integrate ௫య with
(A)
80.
(D)
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C)
(D)
(E)
ଶ
Find the derivative of ‫(݊݅ݏ = ݕ‬2‫ ݔ‬+ 3‫ ݔ‬− 4).
(A) −ܿ‫(ݏ݋‬2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 3‫ ݔ‬− 4) (B) −(6‫ݔ‬ଶ + 3)ܿ‫(ݏ݋‬2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 3‫ ݔ‬− 4) (C)
3‫ ݔ‬− 4) (D) (6‫ݔ‬ଶ + 3)ܿ‫(ݏ݋‬2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 3‫ ݔ‬− 4)
(E) ܿ‫(ݏ݋‬2‫ݔ‬ଷ + 3‫ ݔ‬− 4)
ௗ௬
If = ‫ ݔ‬+ cos ‫ݔ‬, find y.
(A)
79.
4‫ݔ‬ଷ − 3‫ ݔ‬+ 2/‫ݔ‬
ଵ
ଷ
ௗ௫
D
E
Differentiate ቀ‫ݔ‬ଶ − ቁ with respect to x.
௫
(A)
4‫ݔ‬ଷ − 2 − 2/‫ݔ‬ଷ (B) 4‫ݔ‬ଷ − 2 + 2/‫ݔ‬ଷ (C)
4‫ ݔ‬− 2/‫( ݔ‬E) 4‫ݔ‬ଷ − +6 + 2/‫ݔ‬ଷ
ଷ
Evaluate ∫ଶ (‫ݔ‬ଶ − 2‫ݔ݀)ݔ‬
ସ
ଷ
B
௫ି௫మ
+݇
௫ర
ଵ
ଵ
− మ+݇
௫
ଶ௫
ସ
௫ర
−
ଷ
௫య
+݇
12sin4x
(D)
B
C
(D) 26 units per
C
-27
D
-12sin4x (E) 24sin4x
E
(C)
ଵ
௫
+
ଵ
ଶ௫మ
+݇
(D)
ଵ
ଷ௫మ
−
ଵ
ଶ௫
+݇
E
respect to x
(B)
ସ
ଷ
− య
௫ర
௫
(E)
The derivative of cosec x is
+݇
ଵ
ଵ
+ మ+
௫
ଶ௫
(C)
5
݇
(D)
ଵ
ଷ௫మ
−
ଵ
+
ଶ௫
݇
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
(A) tanx cosec x (B) –cot x cosec x (C) tan x sec x (D) –cot x sec x (E) cot x
cosec x
The minimum value of y in the equation ‫ݔ = ݕ‬ଶ − 6‫ ݔ‬+ 8
(A)
8
(B)
3
(C)
0
(D)
-1
(E)
5
The slope of the tangent to the curve ‫ = ݕ‬2‫ݔ‬ଶ − 2‫ ݔ‬+ 5 at the point (1, 6) is
(A)
4
(B)
1
(C)
6
(D)
5
(E)
3
ௗ௬
Two variables x and y are such that = 4‫ ݔ‬− 3 and y = 5 when x = 2. Find y in terms of
ௗ௫
x.
(A) 2‫ݔ‬ଶ − 3‫ ݔ‬+ 5 (B) 2‫ݔ‬ଶ − 3‫ ݔ‬+ 3 (C) 2‫ݔ‬ଶ − 3‫( ݔ‬D) 4
(E)
6
7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years. If 6
new pupils of average age 11 years join the class, what is the average age of the pupils now
in the class?
(A) 13years (B) 12years 7½months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months
(E) 11 years
A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls. Two balls are taken from the bag without
replacement. What is the probability that they are both red?
1
2
2
1
3
(A)
/3
(B)
/9
(C)
/15
(D)
/5
(E)
/5
Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300. What is the probability that the
number is divisible by 4?
(A) 1/3 (B) ¼ (C) 1/5 (D) 4/300 (E) 1/300
Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the following
frequency distribution:
Monthly salary
Frequency
N20,000.00
10
N32,500.00
5
N10,000.00
20
N12,000.00
2
N6,000.00
10
N8,000.00
3
(A) N21,500.30
(B)
N13,400.10 (C)
N14,300.10
(D)
N8,000.00
(E)
N5,000.30
Find the mean deviation of 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(A)
2.5
(B)
2.0
(C)
1.0
(D)
1.5
(E)
1.2
If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5, 9, 3, 5, 7, 5, 8,
then (M, D) is
(A)
(6, 5) (B)
(5, 8) (C)
(5, 7) (D)
(5, 5) (E)
(7, 5)
In a basket of fruits, there are 6 grapes, 11 bananas and 13 oranges. If one fruit is chosen at
random, what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana?
17
11
6
5
7
(A)
/30
(B)
/30
(C)
/30
(D)
/30
(E)
/3
In a school, 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both, 125 offer Biology and 110
Mathematics. How many offer Biology but not Mathematics?
(A)
95
(B)
80
(C)
125
(D)
110
(E)
120
In a school, there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B. The mean score for class
2A in an English literature examination is 60.0 and that for 2B in the same paper is 52.5.
Find to one place of decimals, the mean for the combined classes.
6
D
C
B
A
E
B
B
C
D
A
D
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MATHEMATICS
93.
94.
95.
(A)
1.5
(B)
56.0
(C)
56.2
(D)
56.3
(E)
56.5
In a soccer competition in one season, a club had scored the following goals: 2, 0, 3, 3, 2,
1, 4, 0, 0, 5, 1, 0, 2, 2, 1, 3, 1, 4 and 1. The mean, median and mode are respectively
(A) 1, 1.8 and 1.5 (B) 1.8, 1.5 and 1 (C) 1.8, 1 and 1.5 (D) 1.5, 1 and 1.8 (E)
1.5, 1.8 and 1
In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debating
competition?
(A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E)
16 ways
The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 15.3 years. One boy leaves the
class and one girl is enrolled, and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes
15.2 years. How much older is the boy than the girl?
(A) 30 years (B) 6 years (C) 9 years (D) 3 years (E) 1 year
The letters of the word “MATRICULATION” are cut and put into a box. One letter is
drawn at random from the box. Find the probability of drawing a vowel.
7/
5/
6/
8/
4/
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
13
13
13
13
13
97. The mean of the numbers 3, 6, 4, x and 7 is 5. Find the standard deviation.
(A)
(B)
(C)
2
(D)
3
(E)
5
√2
√3
98. The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows: 6, 9, 5, 7, 6, 7, 5, 8, 9, 5, 7, 5,
8, 7, 8, 7, 5,6, 5, 7, 6, 9, 9, 7, 8, 8, 7, 8, 9, 8. The mode is
(A)
6
(B)
5
(C)
8
(D)
7.
(E)
10
99. Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test. The mean of the boys’ scores and that of the girls
were respectively 6 and 8. Find x if the total score was 468.
(A)
38
(B)
24
(C)
36.
(D)
22
(E)
41
Two
fair
dice
are
rolled.
What
is
the
probability
that
both
show
up
the
same number of
100.
1
7
1
1
points? (A)
/36
(B)
/36
(C)
½
(D)
/3
(E)
/6
96.
7
B
D
D
C
A
D
C
E
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MUSIC
1.
2.
3.
4.
An opera can be described as…
(A) Staged drama set to music (B) Religious ritual music (C) Tribal music of the aborigines (D) European
secular music of the Baroque era
An oratorio is…
(A) Music based on Religious text
(B) Music for children (C) A kind of opera
(D) Relaxation
music
Arrange the following music periods in history in the chronological order starting from the first to the last.
(A) Classical, Romantic, Renaissance, Baroque (B) Baroque, Classical, Renaissance, Romantic
(C) Renaissance, Baroque, Classical, Romantic (D) Romantic, Renaissance, Classical, Baroque
Composer J. S. Bach was born in…?
(A) Germany (B) Italy
5.
6.
8.
9.
(B) Classical
(B) J. S. Bach (C) G. F. Handel
14.
A
B
A
B
D
C
(D) F. J. Haydn
10. The period known as Baroque era in music history is generally believed to have existed around when?.
(A) 1600 to 1750 (B) 1900 to 1999 (C) 1450 to 1600 (D) 1750 to 1820
11. Which of the following musical instruments does not use reeds to produce sounds?
(A) Clarinet (B) Alto saxophone
(C) Oboe
(D) French horn
12.
13.
C
(C) Twentieth Century (D) Middle Ages
The composer Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart belongs to which era?
(A) Medieval Period (B) Classical Period (C) Romantic Period (D) Renaissance Period
The Harpischord, clavichord and Spinet are all
(A) Strings instruments (B) Brass instruments (C) Horn instruments (D) Keyboard instruments
The Oratorio Messiah was composed by:
(A) W. A. Mozart
A
(D) France
Point out which of the following instruments is not a member of the Brass family?
(A) Trumpet (B) Saxophone (C) Trombone (D) French Horn
The composer of the Oratorio Messiah belongs to which era?
(A) Baroque
7.
(C) Greece
A
The above piece of music can be said to be in the key of…?
(A) E flat minor (B) D major (C) A major (D) C sharp minor
Which of the following will be an appropriate time signature for the above music?
(A) 2/4 (B) 4/4 (C) 6/8 (D) ¾
A
D
B
D
A
This is known as:
(A) C Clef
(B) Treble Clef
(C) G Clef
(D) F Clef
15.
B
The above piece of music can be said to be in the key of…?
(A) E flat minor
(B) D major (C) A major
(D) C sharp minor
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MUSIC
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
B
The appropriate description of the above passage is:
(A) Major scale in the key of F (B) Harmonic minor scale in D (C) Minor tetrachord
Diatonic major scale
What interval is illustrated above?
(A) Minor second
(B) Perfect octave
(C) Perfect fourth
(D)
(D) Diminished seventh
When the above interval is inverted, it becomes…
(A) Perfect fourth
(B) Imperfect fifth
(C) Major third
(D) Minor sixth
A ‘variation’ is a piece of music whereby
(A) The music varies from key to key (B) A set of variations are provided over a basic theme (C) There is
variation of timing (D) There are variations in the chord progressions
A hexatonic scale is made of how many notes?
(A) 5 notes (B) 7 notes (C) 6 notes (D) 12 notes
In the key of F major, the note C is…
(A) Supertonic (B) Submediant (C) Dominant (D) Leading note
Point out which of the following instruments is not a member of the Strings family?
(A) Cello
23. This is:
(B) Viola
(C) Double Bass
C
A
B
C
C
D
(D) Harpischord
(A) A minor triad (B) A diminished triad (C) An augmented triad (D) A major triad
D
24. The act of simultaneous composition and performance of music is known as
(A) Harmonization (B) Improvisation (C) Jazzification (D) Augmentation
25. The appropriate description of this passage is:
(A) Major scale in the key of F (B) Harmonic minor scale in D (C) Minor
tetrachord (D) Diatonic major scale
B
26. The musical term “Diminuendo” means
(A) Gradually getting softer (B) Diminished chord (C) Diminished fifth (D) Gradually getting slower
27. The relative major of G minor is…
(A) F major
(B) A sharp major
(C) B flat major
(D) G major
28. The subdivision of a beat into three equal parts results in:
A
(A) Trio
(B) Triplet
(C) Triple Time
B
C
B
(D) Third Movement
29. The subdominant of the A major scale is…
(A) F sharp (B) D natural (C) A flat (D) F sharp
30. Transposing a piece of music in the F major down by a minor third results in…
(A) C major (B) D major (C) F minor (D) B flat major
31.
What interval is illustrated here?
(A) Minor second (B) Perfect octave (C) Perfect fourth (D) Diminished seventh
2
B
B
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MUSIC
32. Which of the following chordal progressions represents a Perfect Cadence?
(A) II to V
(B) V to I
(C) IV to I
(D) V to VI
33. Which of the following instruments is not a chordophone?
(A) Flute (B) Violin (C) Piano (D) Harpischord
34. Which of the following instruments is not a member of the Strings family?
(A) Cello (B) Viola (C) Double Bass (D) Harpischord
35. Which of the following is a compound Time Signature?
(A) 3/4
(B) 4/4
(C) 5/4
(C) F A C E D
D
D
D
A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38. Which of the following words is spelt out by the notes in the staff below:
(B) F E D A B
A
(D) 6/8
36. Which of the following is not a transposing instrument?
(A) Trumpet (B) Clarinet (C) Euphonium (D) Violin
37. Which of the following is the correct key signature of B flat minor?
(A) G A C E D
B
C
(D) D A D D A
39.
C
What type of cadence is represented in the following passage?
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
(A) Plagal (B) Final (C) Interrupted (D) Imperfect
The above chord is in which position
(A) Second inversion (B) First inversion (C) Root position (D) Third inversion
The above is:
(A) A minor triad
(B) A diminished triad (C) An augmented triad
(D) A major triad
One of the following Nigerian artists is not a Highlife musician.
(A) Victor Olaiya
(B) I. K. Dairo (C) Sir Victor Uwaifo (D) King Sunny Ade
Musical instruments that are self-sounding, where sound is produced through the instrument‟s main body
are classified as…
(A) Chordophones (B) Aerophones (C) Francophones (D) Idiophones
One of the essential elements that usually accompany African music performance is
(A) Cheering (B) Clapping (C) Dancing (D) Chanting
One of the following Nigerian artists is not a Fuji musician.
(A) Kollington Ayinla (B) Ayinde Barrister (C) Sir Shina Peters (D) Taiye Currency
The Nigerian National Anthem was composed by…
(A) King Sunny Ade
(B) Chinua Achebe
(C) Fela Sowande
(D) Ben Odiase
3
A
D
D
D
C
C
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
MUSIC
47. Which of the following musicians practised Nigerian traditional music?
(A) Felix Liberty (B) Sunny Okosun (C) Herbert Ogunde (D) Victor Olaiya
48. Reggae music is believed to have originated from…
(A) Asia (B) The Caribbean (C) Latin America (D) Europe
49. The full meaning of MUSON is
(A) Masters Under Sovereignty of Nigeria (B) Music Students of Nigeria (C) Musical Society of Nigeria (D)
Musical Symphony Orchestra of Nigeria
50. Which of the following artists played a major role in the 1985 hit song We are the World?
(A) Mary J. Blige
(B) Michael Jackson (C) Beyonce (D) R. Kelly
4
C
B
C
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
1.
A ball is thrown up into the air. At the highest point of its trajectory the ball: (A) Is accelerating
downwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
B
2.
A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 m/s collides and sticks with another ball of
mass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 m/s. What is the common velocity of
the balls after the collision? (A) 5.6 ms-1 (B) 2.8 ms-1 (C) 11.2 ms-1 (D) 1.4 ms-1
A
3.
A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball, if the boy whirls the
ball in a horizontal circle, keeping his hand still. If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at a
point on the circle, in what direction will the ball move? (A) towards the hand of the boy B.
away from the hand of the boy C. in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point of
break D. None of the above
C
4.
A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make a
block of mass 4 kg set for motion. Find the acceleration when the force is doubled. (A) 2 ms-2
(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2
C
5.
A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north. His displacement is (A) 1 km N15°E (B) 1
km N30°E (C) √2 km N45°E (D) 2 km N75°E
C
6.
A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers a
displacement of 50 m. Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and the
ground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 0.3 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4
D
7.
A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with an
initial speed of 10.0 m/s. The instant before the stone hits the ground below, it is traveling at
a speed of 30.0 m/s. If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward from
the cliff instead, with the same initial speed of 10.0 m/s, what is the magnitude of the velocity
of the stone just before it hits the ground?
(A)
10.0 m/s
(B)
20.0 m/s
(C)
30.0 m/s
(D)
40.0 m/s
A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unit
length. Which of the following is its SI unit? (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1
C
8.
C
9.
A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flat
surface. What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface? (A) 816.6 Nm-2
(B) 816. 6 Nm2 (C) 408.3 Nm-2 (D) 608.4 Nm
C
10.
A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in most
common liquids. It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly. Which of the
following is NOT correct? (A) When placed in a liquid, it displaces exactly its own weight of the
liquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid, it displaces
exactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquid
displaced is equal to its mass
C
11.
A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 2.2 s. How deep is the well? (Take
g=10m/s) (A) 40.4 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 48.4 m (D) 24.2 m
A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 2.4 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw. At what distance from
the fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw? (A) 2.8 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 3.2 m (D)
3.8 m
D
12.
1
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
13.
An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface. Which of the following is true
about its mass and density as it rises? (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constant
while its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant. (D) Its mass is constant while
its density increases.
B
14.
Complete the following sentence: The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)
Pascal's principle. B. Archimedes’ principle. (C) Bernoulli's principle. (D) irrotational flow.
A
15.
Complete the following statement: Today, the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) the
distance from the earth’s equator to the north pole. (B) the wavelength of light emitted from a
krypton atom. (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom. (D) the speed of light.
D
16.
Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20,000 cm/min (B) 180,000
cm/min (C) 120,000 cm/min (D) 150,000 cm/min
B
17.
During a football match, player A kicks the ball 40 m, 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it
30 m, 60o E of N. What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball? (A) 30 m (B)
40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
C
18.
How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth plane
that is inclined at 30o to the horizontal? (g = 9.8 ms-2) (A) 9.8 J (B) 19.8 J (C) 16.2 J (D) 4.9 J
D
19.
If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r, what is its
kinetic energy? (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r/2 (C) m ω r2/2 (D) m ω 2r2/2
D
20.
In free fall, two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height. If the ball with
the smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s, what is the difference between the time the
two balls reach the ground? (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s
C
21.
In what distance can a 1,500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speed
is 20 m/s and the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.7 between the tyres and the ground?
(A) 98.10 m (B) 71.67 m (C) 29.15 m (D) 20.10 m
C
22.
The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as it
swings to and fro between the two extreme ends. At what velocity does it swing past the
lowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical? (take g = 10 m/s2) (A) 1 m/s (B) 2
m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 10 m/s
A
23.
Three vectors A, B, and C add together to yield zero: A + B + C = 0. The vectors A and C point in
opposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression: A = 2C. Which one of
the following conclusions is correct? (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in opposite
directions. (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction. (C) B and C
have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions. (D) A and B point in the same
direction, but A has twice the magnitude of B.
B
24.
Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force? (A) Energy/distance (B)
Energy x distance (C) Energy/time (D) Momentum x distance
Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid?
(A) Surface area of the liquid. (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below the
surface (D) Strength of the gravitational field
A
25.
2
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
26.
Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity? (A) Displacement:
acceleration (B) Force : kinetic energy (C) Momentum : velocity (D) Power : speed
B
27.
Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniform
velocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply nonzero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration
C
28.
Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers? (A) 2.0 cm (B)
2.00 cm (C) 2.000 cm (D) 2.0000 cm
B
29.
Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived? I. Area II. Thrust III.
Pressure IV. Mass. (A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II and III only (C) I, II and IV only (D) I and II only
B
30.
Which one of the following situations is not possible?
A.
A body has zero velocity and non-zero acceleration.
B.
A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward acceleration.
C.
A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying acceleration.
D.
A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity.
31.
If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity, then (A)
C= s/m (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = m/s
C
C
32.
A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it is
hot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heaters
installed in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them
B
33.
A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct sound
easily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of current
flowing through them. (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surrounding
atmosphere. (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surrounding
atmosphere.
D
34.
A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC. If its linear expansivity is
1.8 ×10-4/ k, its new length is (A) 166.6 cm (B) 101.6 cm (C) 180.6 (D) 1.08 cm
B
35.
A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 °C. What is the final temperature of the
gas if both the pressure and volume are doubled? (A) 5 °C (B) 80 °C (C) 20 °C (D) 899 °C
B
36.
A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water
(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium
Complete the following statement: A temperature decrease of 30 C° is equal to a temperature
decrease of (A) 30 F°. (B) 17 F°. (C) 30 K. (D) 86 F°.
Complete the following statement: Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electric
appliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass. (B) volume. (C) length.
(D) expansion coefficients.
A
37.
38.
39.
Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other end
which is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)
Evaporation
3
D
D
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
40.
Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change in
temperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat
C
41.
How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas, initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphere
and temperature -20oC, be after it has been compressed to ½ litre at 40oC?
A. 2.47 atm.
(B) 4.5 atm. (C) 8.0 atm. (D) 3.8 atm. (E) 16.8 atm.
A
42.
On a cold day, a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because
(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conducts
heat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
D
43.
The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the external
pressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above
C
44.
The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectively.
What will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C ? (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a
(D) 34a
D
45.
The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively. Its reading at
60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88
D
46.
The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container is
heated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of the
container is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
B
47.
The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)
steel (D) conductor
Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC. Which of the following is correct? (A)
Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and
4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreases
between 0oC and 4oC
B
48.
D
49.
50.
What is the Celsius equivalent of 50.0° F? (A) 10° C (B) 20° C (C) 30° C (D) 40° C
When water is heated in a glass vessel, the level first falls and then rises because (A) The
apparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases. (B) There is anomalous
expansion of water. (C)The glass vessel does not expand. (D)Glass vessel expands first before
water starts a more rapid expansion.
A
D
51.
Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heat
content at melting point? (A) 0.5 kg of water at 3oC (B) 0.2 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0.005 kg of
water at 80oC (D) 0.1 kg of water at 12oC
B
52.
Which would cause a more serious burn: 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water, both at 100 °C;
and why is this so?
(A) Water, because it is denser than steam. (B) Steam, because of its specific heat capacity.
(C) Steam, because of its latent heat of vaporization. (D) Water, because its specific heat is
greater than that of steam.
4
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
53.
54.
A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years. How long will it take the activity to
become ¼ of its original?
(A)
20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
B
A plane progressive wave is represented by y  2 sin100t  0.2x  where all the symbols
A
have their usual meanings. What is the velocity of the wave?
(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
55.
A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node
(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude
A
56.
A uniform wave has a speed of 10m/s and a period of 0.5 s. The distance between two nearest
crests is (A) 0.2 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m
A vibrating string has a tension of 40ܰ and produces a note of 200‫ݖܪ‬when plucked in the
middle. When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160ܰ, the
frequency becomes
(A) 1600‫( ݖܪ‬B) 800‫( ݖܪ‬C) 400‫( ܼܪ‬D) 200‫ݖܪ‬
An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long. Determine the frequency of the fundamental
note assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340m/s? (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)
106Hz
D
57.
58.
C
D
59.
As transverse wave moves through a medium, the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in a
path parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular to
the path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
C
60.
The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo
(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration
Which of the following properties is not common to all waves? (A) Reflection (B) interference
(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves? (A) They are
longitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travel
at the same speed in a vacuum
A
61.
62.
D
D
63.
Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false? (A)
Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves. (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energy
through space. (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell. (D)
Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance.
A
64.
Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false? (A) A wave can have both
transverse and longitudinal components. (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another.
(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium. (D) A transverse
wave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel.
D
65.
A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot
(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
D
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
66.
A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm and
a real image is produced. Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance. (A) 6cm
(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm
D
67.
An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm. The image formed is
(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and
40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity
B
68.
How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erect
image is four times its natural size? (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm
C
69.
How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that are
inclined at angle 30o to each other? (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12
C
70.
Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 0.25 m/s. Determine the
speed of the image relative to him.
(A)
0.13 m/s
(B)
0.50 m/s
(C)
0.25 m/s
(D)
0.75 m/s
B
71.
The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense
medium is 90° is called a
(A) Critical angle (B) Reflected angle (C) Incident angle (D) Emergent angle
A
72.
The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick plane
mirror
The following are types of a converging lens except
(A) biconvex
(B) plano-convex
(C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
73.
B
C
74.
When the Sun, the earth and the moon are in line during their movement, with the earth being
the opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon, we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Total
eclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse
A
75.
Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun? (A)
Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant
D
76.
Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors? (A)
Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope
Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines?
(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces
interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinct
shadows of opaque objects
B
77.
78.
79.
Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission? It is: (A) the splitting of a heavy
nucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in a
controlled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) the
spontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms
A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 0.2eV are
ejected. If the work function of the metal is 0.3eV, what is the value of E? (A) 0.10eV (B)
0.06eV (C) 0.50eV (D) 1.50eV
6
D
A
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
80.
A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficient
to hold nuclear particles together. (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has no
significant mass.
B
81.
A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years. If its activity today is 200 dps, its activity in 8
years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps
A
82.
A substance has a half-life of 3min. After 6min, the count rate was observed to be 400.What
was its count rate at zero time? (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600
D
83.
An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)
protons (D) irons
B
84.
Complete the following sentence: When electrons from a heated filament accelerate through
vacuum toward a positive plate, (A) only an electric field will be produced. (B) only a
magnetic field will be produced. (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced. (D) longitudinal
waves will be produced.
C
85.
Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earth
elements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation
D
86.
The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)
neutrons
A
87.
Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend? (A) mass
(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency
D
88.
Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray? (A) It moves in a straight line (B) It
causes fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles
D
89.
Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus? (A) J. J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)
Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie
C
90.
X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detect
finger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art
B
91.
1 farad is equivalent to: (A) 1 coulomb/volt (B) 1 volt/coulomb (C) 1 joules/coulomb (D) 1
ampere/sec. (E) volts per unit charge
A
92.
A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10A
ammeter by using (A) 0.03ohm series resistor (B) 9.99ohm shunt resistor (C) 0.03ohm shunt
resistor (D) 9.99ohm series resistor
C
93.
A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V. The terminal voltage when a load
of 20 Ω is connected across it is: (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V
B
94.
A conducting sphere has a net charge of 4.8  1017 C. What is the approximate number of
excess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -1.6 x 10-19C? (A) 100 (B)
300 (C) 200 (D) 400
B
95.
A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)
the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing
An a.c voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω, inductance 3 mH and a
capacitance of 0.05 µF. Calculate the resonance frequency. (A) 11.0 kHz (B) 12.0 kHz (C)
13.0 kHz (D) 14.0 kHz
C
96.
7
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
97.
An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100%
efficiency. The power produced is (A) 0.5 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W
A
98.
Complete the following statement: The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potential
difference between the terminals of a battery. (B) the force that accelerates electrons through
a wire when a battery is connected to it. (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wire
when a battery is connected to it. (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of a
battery.
A
99.
If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane, what is the general direction of
the resulting magnetic field? (A) In the plane of the circle. (B) At an angle 45o to the plane of
motion. (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle. (D) Along the
tangent to the circle.
C
100. If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled, then the ratio of the
D
101. The angle between the earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)
B
102. The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of the
B
103. The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing it.
B
104. The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude. If Ohm’s law is
C
105. The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)
A
106. Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volume
C
107. Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer: (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)
A
108. Which of the following devices is odd in the list ? (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) d.c.
B
109. Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses? (A)
C
old current to the new current is (A) 1:3 (B) 3:1 (C) 6:1 (D) 1:6
declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination
magnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft iron
armature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangular
coil in the
This is a statement of (A) Faraday’s Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Ampere’s law
obeyed, one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true? (A) The
resistance is one half of its original value. (B) The resistance is twice its original value. (C) The
resistance is not changed. (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four.
Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening
and density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity.
Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
generator (D) solar cell
high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
8
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
PHYSICS
110. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle in
a magnetic field is true? (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary. (B) It is a maximum if
the particle moves parallel to the field. (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positively
charged particle. (D) It depends on the component of the particle's velocity that is
perpendicular to the field.
9
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow:
PASSAGE A
Every discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo House
last week. Only a few days before, reports were rife about the AC reaching out to
some PDP legislators to cross-carpet. The intention being to gain a majority and
then assume the Speakership with the least constraint. Zakawanu Garuba, the then
Speaker, retorted with a fiat, threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defector.
This in spite of the constitutional support for such action, as evidenced, for
example, by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State. The party has two
factional chairmen in the state, even though one is more vociferous.
The desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speaker’s chair is condemnable. He
was not being recalled from the legislature; and so, he still has his seat as a floor
member. As speaker, he was only first among equals. The Speakership is not his
birthright. With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC, the legislature
reconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker, while
impeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others. They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian, Thursday, March 4, 2011, p.14)
1. Why did AC woo PDP members?
A.
they are few in number
B.
they want speakership without stress
C.
PDP members are faithful
D.
The House is tough
B
2. The legislators impeached
A.
Garuba
B.
PDP lawmakers
C.
Garuba and some PDP lawmakers
D.
Garuba and some lawmwkers
A
3. According to the passage, the constitution supports
A.
The speaker
B.
Defecting
C.
Edo State
D.
Factional chairmen
D
4. The lawmakers reconvened
A.
After the defection of a PDP member
B.
After the bloodbath
C.
After suspending the Speaker
D.
After electing a protem Speaker
B
1
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
5. At the end, what happened to Garuba
A.
He was vindicated
B.
He was indicted
C.
He was honoured
D.
He was humiliated
B
6. To cross-carpet, as used in the passage, means to
A.
change party
B.
renew membership of a party
C.
change one’s carpet
D.
buy new carpet
C
7. The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted by
A.
The lawmakers
B.
Edo State indigenes
C.
The protem Speaker
D.
All conscious observers
A
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms that,
hopefully, should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownership
and management of generation and distribution. In this transitory phase, it is crucial
to lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for the
industry. That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gas
sub-sector, where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum, as revealed by
the Petroleum Technology Development Fund.
The PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement of
equipment and materials, but what is playing out is an institutional orientation,
evinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeria’s
aspiration for local content development. In 1998, the defunct National Electric
Power Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel, Alhaji
Bashir Dalhatu, to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries, some of
which are of high standards. Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in the
foundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange, the Minister applied
appropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustrated.
The acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from the
fact that the only local manufacturer then, the Federal Government-owned
electricity Meter Company in Zaria, Kaduna State, established in 1976, but sold to
Dantata Investments Limited in December 2002, is not performing.
(Adapted from The Punch, Wednesday, May 25, 2011. Pg. 18)
8. Why is there shortage of meter?
A. Non-performance of PHCN
B. Non-performance of NEPA
C. Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
2
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
Meter Company
D. Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd.
9. According to the passage, the solution to the problem in the power sector lies in
A. Sourcing for materials locally
B. Getting costable components
C. Obeying the minister
D. Getting $ 16 billion per annum
A
10. From the passage it is clear that
A. There is money in the country
B. There is shortage of electricity meter
C. NEPA is better than PHCN
D. NEPA was formed in 1998
B
11. Which of these is not true of the power sector
A. There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meter
B. The power sector is undergoing reforms
C. The problem of the power sector cannot be solved
D. there was procurement of equipment and materials
C
12. Which of these is undergoing reforms?
A. NEPA
B. PHCN
C. Nigeria
D. The power sector
D
13. A suitable title for this passage is
A. Nigeria and her problems
B. NEPA versus PHCN
C. Electricity meter
D. Problems in the power sector
Choose the option that best completes the gap:
14. University students ……………..behave well. (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)
must
15. Gloria ………….. have finished the project two days ago. (A) must (B) may (C)
can (D) supposed to
16. You are Goodluck, .....? (A) are you? (B) aren’t you? (C) are’nt you? (D) don’t
you?
17. He ……………. not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need
18. Janet .....to know that we are all here. (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is
supposed (D) should suppose
19. Let it be ..... that there was no king in Ayegun. (A)know (B) knew (C) known
(D) knows
20. We shall see you soon, .....? (A) shall we? (B) shan’t we? (C) shouldn’t we (D)
should we
D
3
B
A
B
C
C
C
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
Neither of the presidential candidates ....... suitable. (A) are (B) is (C) is been
(D) are been suitable.
Ten miles ____ a great distance. (A) is (B) are (C) is been
If I were the president, I ..... ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) can
I will see you after I ..... spoken with your supervisor. (A) might have (B) have
(C) will have (D) would have
“You .....- now see the director”, the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)
may (C) should (D) would
She isn’t Gloria ..... ? (A) is she? (B) isn’t she? (C) aren’t she? (D) doesn’t she?
We have a bus, .....? (A) didn’t we? (B) haven’t we? (C) doesn’t we? (D) hasn’t
we?
I knew David .... let us down. (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can
You ……….. me last week. (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to
have seen (D) had to have seen
Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch. (A) are (B) is (c ) are just
The pests ____ our farm every year. (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades
If I were the Governor, I ..... ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would
(D) can
When ……... the Cleric ..... today? (A) does/arrives (B) does/arrived (C)
does/arrive (D) do arrive
We shall see you soon, .....? (A) shall we? (B) shan’t we? (C) shouldn’t we (D)
should we
You missed the match, .....? (A) don’t you? (B) didn’t you? (C) hadn’t you? (D)
doesn’t you?
Walk the dog right now, .....? (A) walkn’t you? (B) will you? (C)shall you?
(D)would you?
I am a student, ..........? (A) I’m I? (B) aren’t I? (C) isn’t I? (D) wouldn’t I?
Pick out the odd/wrong expression in each of the following :
(A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) I
heard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology
(A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) I
suppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way
(A)
I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travel
next week (D) I should travel next week
(A) Having discovered the error, he apologized (B) Having discovered the
error, the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error, he apologised
(D) Having found out the error, he tendered an apology
(A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They have
done the job (D) They can have done the job
(A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project two
days ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought to
have finished the project two days ago
(A) If I went in there, I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there, I
would beat the security officer (C) If I go in there, I will beat the security
officer (D) If I go in there, I can beat the security officer
4
B
A
C
B
B
A
B
C
C
B
A
C
C
B
B
B
B
D
B
C
B
D
B
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in the
underlined expression.
My friend’s parent’s are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable and
lovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy
My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient
(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful
There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)
old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings
Post UME is a hurdle to cross. (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) an
unnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam to
pass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass
His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of no
value (C) of little value (D) can not be valued
That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)
immodest
Concerning my admission, I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for the
best (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk
My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes
(C) not decided (D) not concerned
We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)
advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary
The student’s reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)
showed (C) reduced (D) increased
His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)
above average (D) excellent
That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)
ineffective
On the matter of worship, some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) are
decisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined:
In this matter, we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty. (A)
inquisitiveness (B) weakness (C) profligacy (D) innovation.
I detest his lackadaisical attitude. (A) carefree (B) lazy (C) supercilious (D)
disloyal.
Nobody will endure such profligate spending habits. (A) generous (B)
arrogant (C) wasteful (D) mindless.
Is he oblivious of the political situation in his community? (A) unconscious (B)
conscious (C) afraid (D) intolerant.
Many people look into the future with trepidation . (A) certainty (B)
uncertainty (C) fear (D) faith.
Can you marry such a lanky man? (A) tall and thin (B) sturdy (C) fat and short
(D) tall and short.
The election system we adopted was his brainchild. (A) undoing factor (B)
invention (C) power (D) fabrication
Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word underlined.
Peter always approaches issues optimistically.
(A) realistically (B)
5
C
C
C
D
A
B
A
D
D
C
C
C
D
B
A
C
A
C
A
B
B
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
pessimistically (C) carelessly (D) unrealistically.
Why should Dixon be evasive in answering the question? (A) indirect (B)
direct (C) guessing (D) sure.
John and Ahmed’s ideas were speculative (A) stipulative (B) superlative (C)
factual (D) attractive.
Henry was admitted to the hospital with profuse bleeding. (A) much (B) little
(C) internal (D) continuous
Many people regard him as prolific. (A) diplomatic (B) productive (C)
unproductive (D) unacademic.
Our success is paramount in his mind. (A) unimportant (B) important (C)
certain (D) uncertain.
In all, I consider the behaviour unpalatable. (A) unacceptable (B) offensive (C)
acceptable (D) inoffensive.
Her action will certainly exacerbate the situation. (A) ameliorate (B) worsen
(C) aggravate (D) clarify.
Is he really behaving oddly ? (A) abnormally (B) normally (C) evenly (D)
properly.
He always approaches issues optimistically. (A) realistically (B) pessimistically
(C) carelessly (D) unrealistically.
Her health deteriorated rapidly. (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)
declined.
Which of the following sentences is correct?
(A) One should mind his business. (B) One should mind one’s business (C) One
should mind her business.
(A) This case is between you and I. (B) This case is between you and me. (C)
This case is between the two both of us.
(A) With them around, we have a great problem on our hands. (B) With them
around, we have a great problem on our hand. (C) With them around, we
have a great problem on hand.
(A) The dog wagged it’s tail. (B) The dog wagged its tail. (C) The dog wagged
its’ tail.
(A) A ten year old boy is missing. (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing. (C) A ten
year-old boy is missing.
Choose the option that sounds the same with: two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)
to
Choose the option that sounds the same with bear : (A) bare (B) beer (C)
bared (D) beard
Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word. Key (A) kiss
(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed
Choose the word that is correctly spelled.
(A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation
(A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment
(A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic
As soon as Joy arrived, she started looking for food. The underlined
expression is an -----------. (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clause
of reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
6
B
C
B
C
A
C
A
D
B
B
B
B
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
A
A
D
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
USE OF ENGLISH
88.
My friend, a brilliant lecturer, won many prizes. The underlined expression is
a(n) ... ... (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)
subject of ‘won’
89. I passed very well because I studied hard. The underlined expression is a (A)
relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)
subordinating conjunction
90. Bello and I love each other. (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) noun
phrase (D) adjectival phrase
91. I prefer writing to acting. The underlined expressions is a(n) --------. (A) verb
(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object
92. Having finished my assignment, I started watching television. The underlined
expression is a(n) --------. (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participial
phrase (D) noun clause
93. If you leave early, you’ll meet Sola at home. The underlined expression is a ----------. (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)
adjectival clause
94. Wounded by a lion, the hunter trudged home. The underlined expression is a
-----------.(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)
adjectival clause
95. I’m proud of you. The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositional
complement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbal
complement
96. A noun phrase lacks one of the following: (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)
adverb
97. Eve gave Adam an apple. An apple in the sentence functions as------------.(A)
subject of the verb ‘gave’ (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object of
the verb (D) object complement
98. I wonder if you know where he lives. This sentence is a(n) ...... (A) thoughtful
statement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation.
99. An example of gradable adjectives is … (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)
live
100. A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains ………. (A) a larger
number of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a nonfinite verb
7
C
D
B
C
C
C
C
B
B
B
A
B
C
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
YORUBA
1.
2.
3.
----------- jẹ́ atọ́ka àyísódì nínú èdè Yorùbá (A) kò (B) náà (D) kúkú (E) n
______ jẹ́ àpẹẹrẹ àfipè àsúnsí (A) ètè ìsàlẹ̀ (B) ètè òkè (D) eyín òkè (E) ihò imú
______ jẹ́ àpẹẹrẹ kọ́ńsónàńtì àkùnyùn (A) àránmúpè àti àìránmúpè (B) arehọ́n àti alàìrehọ́n
(D) alàmì àti alàìláími (E) àdámọ̀ àti alàìdámọ̀
A
A
B
4.
______ kò lè gbà ẹ̀ yán ninú èdè Yorùbá (A) ọ̀ rọ̀ -orúkọ (B) ọ̀ rọ̀ arọ́pò orúkọ kúkúrú (D) ọ̀ rọ̀
arọ́pò orúkọ gígùn (E) ọ̀ rọ̀ atọ́kun
B
5.
________ jẹ́ ẹ̀ yà ara tí ó ṣe pàtàkì fún ìró èdè pípè (A) ẹnu (B) ètè ìsàlẹ̀ (D) àfàsé (E) ahọ́n
E
6.
7.
________ jẹ kọ́ńsónàńtì aréhọ́n (A) m (B) r (D) f (E) g
_________ ni ọ̀ rọ̀ tí a máa ń lò láti so ọ̀ rọ̀ tàbí gbólóhùn méjì pọ̀ nínú èdè Yorùbá (A) ọ̀ rọ̀
atọ́kun (B) ọ̀ rọ̀ àsopọ̀ (D) ọ̀ rọ̀ ìṣe (E) ọ̀ rọ̀ àlàyé
B
B
8.
Àfi ènìyàn di àfènìyàn nípa igbésẹ̀ ___________ (A) Àrànmọ́ (B) Ìsúnkì (D) Ìpajẹ (E) Àsúnkì
D
9.
Àìfẹ̀ sọ̀ ké ìbòòsí_______ (A) ni ò jẹ́ ká mọ̀ n ọ́n jo (B) ni arìwo fi gbalé (D) ni ijó fi dàrú (E) ni
ŞũăŞŐďŽƌŽĨŝďҮǵƐşůҮǰ^Ҹ0ƚƵŵҸǰǁ ҸŶŬăŶůž Ěğt ҊDZ
ŶLJş
A
10.
A
11.
Ajá náà kú Kú jẹ́ àpẹẹrẹ ọ̀ rọ̀ -ìṣe______ (A) aláìgbàbọ̀ (B) alálààyé (D) aṣèpèjuẃe (E)
asọpàtó
Alága ọjọ́ ayẹyẹ ìkẹ́kọ̀ ọ́ jáde Àjàní ni (A) Jẹnríọgbé (B) Dúrójayé (D) Àkànní (E) Adépèlé
D
12.
Àpólà orúkọ sába máa ń ní ọ̀ rọ̀ -orúkọ àti ______ (A) atọ́kùn (B) ẹ̀ yán (D) ìṣe (E) arọ̀ pò
B
13.
14.
Àwọn fáwẹ̀ lì àrańmúpè Yorùbá jẹ ________ (A) mẹ́fà (B) méje (D) mẹ́ta (E) mẹ́rìn
Àwọn ọ̀ rọ̀ -orúkọ tí a kò lè fojú rí tàbí dìmú ní a mọ̀ sí ----------- (A) ọ̀ rọ̀ orúkọ afòyemọ̀ (B) ọ̀ rọ̀
orúkọ aláìlẹ́mìí (D) ọ̀ rọ̀ -orúkọ asọpàtó (E) ọ̀ rọ̀ orúkọ àirí
E
A
15.
Ẹni tó ń ṣe atìlẹyin fún Bàbá kéreké láti jogún olóògbé ni (A) Ṣọlábòmí (B) Ìyálóde (D)
Akíndélé (E) Èèbúdọlá
B
16.
17.
18.
Fara soko túmọ̀ sí ________ (A) sá (B) sálọ̀ (D) lo sóko (E) dúró soko
Fáwẹ̀ lì iwájú òkè Ahánupè ni ________ (A) i (B) e (D) ọ (E) u
Fẹ́mi fi owo sí àpò Ìsọ̀ rí ọ̀ rọ̀ wo ni sí? (A) ọ̀ rọ̀ -àpèjúwe (B) ọ̀ rọ̀ -atọ́kùn (D) ọ̀ rọ̀ -ìṣe (E)
ọ̀ rọ̀ -àpọ́nlé
B
A
B
19.
Fì ọ̀ bẹ ẹ̀ yìn jẹ ni iṣu túmọ sí _______ (A) fi ọbẹ ge lọ́wọ́ (B) fi ọbẹ ge iṣu rẹ̀ jẹ (D) yàn án jẹ
(E) fi ọbẹ jẹsu
D
20.
21.
Gbólóhùn alábọ́dé máa ń ní ọ̀ rọ̀ ìṣe _________ (A) mẹ́ta (B) méjì (D) ọkan (E) òfo
Ìgbésẹ̀ gírámà tí ó ní ṣe pẹ̀ lú bí àwọn fáwẹ̀ lì ṣe lè jọ̀ ṣisẹ́ papọ̀ ní a mọ̀ si_______ (A) Àrànmọ́
(B) Ìpajẹ (D) Ìjeyọpọ̀ fáwẹ̀ lì (E) Ìdàpọ̀ fáwẹ̀ lì
D
D
22.
Ìlànà ______ ni a lè gbà yá ọ̀ rọ̀ wọ inú èdè Yorùbá (A) méjì (B) mẹ́ta (D) mẹ́rin (E) márùn
ún
A
23.
24.
Ilé-ìwé di iléèwé nípa ìgbésẹ̀ __________ (A) Àrànmọ́ (B) Ìsúnkì (D) Ìpajẹ (E) Àsúnkì
Ìsọ́rí ọ̀ rọ̀ wo ni ‘ní’ nínú gbólóhùn ìsàlẹ̀ yìí ‘Mo ní ìpàdé ní Ìbàdàn’ (A) ọ̀ rọ̀ -orúkọ (B) ọ̀ rọ̀ -ìṣe
(D) ọ̀ rọ̀ -atọ́kùn (E) ọ̀ rọ̀ -arọ́pò orúkọ
A
B
25.
Ìwé dúdú ni mo ra.Ìwé jẹ ìsọrí ọ̀ rọ̀ ________ (A) ọ̀ rọ̀ ìṣe (B) olùwà (D) ọ̀ rọ̀ orúkọ (E) ọ̀ rọ̀
atọ́kun
D
1
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POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
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26.
Mófíìmù tí kò lè dá dúró fúnra rẹ̀ ní a mọ̀ sí ______ (A) mọ́fíìmú alámì (B) mọ́fíìmú
àfarahẹ́ (D) mọ́fíìmú adádúró (E) gbólóhùn mọ́fíìmú
B
27.
Nínú ______ ni èémí ti máa ń tú jáde fún ìró èdè pípè (A) ètè ìsàlẹ̀ (B) káà ọ̀ fun (D) ẹ̀ dọ̀ fóró
(E) gògóńgò
D
28.
Nípa ________ ní a ṣẹda ọ̀ rọ̀ orúkọ ‘Wólewolé’ (A) àpètúnpè (B) òfin ìfibọ̀ (D) gbólóhùn
àyìsódi (E) ìpàjẹ
A
29.
Olùkọ́ ra bàtà “Bàtà” nínú gbólóhùn òkè yìí wà ní ipò (A) olùwà (B) aàbọ̀ (D) orí (E) ẹ̀ yán
B
30.
Olúyoko ọjọ́ ayẹyẹ ìkẹ́kọ̀ ọ́ jáde Àjàní ni (A) Dúrójayé (B) Akíndélé (D) Àkànní (E)
Adédìran
E
31.
Ọmọ dúdú pa eku Dúdú nínú gbólóhùn òkè yìí ń ṣíṣẹ́ ________ (A) olùwà (B) ọ̀ rọ̀ àpèjúwe
(D) ẹ̀ yàn (E) atọ́kùn
ҊDZ
ŶăŵĠũŞƚşĂůğŐďăLJĄĂǁ ҸŶҸǰƌҸǰğĚğ' ҮǰҮǵƐŞƚşƉĂƌşǁ ҸŶǁ ҸŝŶƷğĚğzŽƌƶ ďĄŶşͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ (A)
fífí fáwẹ̀ lì kún kọ́nsónáǹtì parí àti yíyọ́ kọ́nsónáǹtí ìparí (B) fífí fáwẹ̀ lì kún kọ́nsónáǹtì ìparí àti
yíyọ fáwẹ̀lì ìparí (D) fífí fáwẹ̀ lì kún kọ́nsónáǹtì ìparí àti yíyọ àmì ìparí (E) fífí àmì kún
kọ́nsónáǹtì ìparí àti yíyọ kọ́nsónáǹtì ìparí
D
33.
ҊDZ
ŶăŵĠũŞƚşĂůğƉşŶҸǰƌҸǰ-orúkọ sí ni________ (A) àìsẹ̀ dá àti ìṣẹ̀ dá (B) kúkúrú àti gígún
(D) alámàlóò àti aláìṣàmúlò (E) ẹlẹ́là àti aláìlẹ́là
A
34.
Onílé kì í lọ kálejò ó dúró Olojò ikùn lo jẹ́ Máa yára tú ká nínú rẹ̀ Àkókò tí a máa ń lo ọfọ̀ òkè yìí
ni tí a bá fẹ́ (A) rìnrìn àjò (B) poró ejò (D) poró inú rírun (E) ẹ bímọ
D
35.
Orí yeye ni Mògún _____ (A) tàìsẹ̀ ló pọ̀ (B) iku ló pa wọn porongodo (D) tàìsẹ̀ ló ṣọ̀ wọ́n (E)
orí lẹlẹ̀ jọ́
A
36.
37.
Oríṣi àfipè mélòó ní ó wà fún ìró-èdè pípè? (A) mẹ́ta (B) mẹ́rin (D) méjì (E) méje
Oríṣi ọ̀ nà méjì ti èémí lè gbà jáde láti inú ẹ̀ dọ̀ fòró ni ________ (A) tán-ánná àti gògóńgò (B)
káà imú àti káà ẹnu (D) àfàsé àti òlélé (E) ètè ìsàlẹ̀ àti ètè òkè
D
B
38.
ҊDZ
ƌҸǰĂƌҸǵƉž ŽƌƷŬҸzŽƌƶ ďĄǁ ĂŶşŝƉž ҮŶŝͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ (A) mẹ́rin (B) méje (D) mẹ́jọ (E) mẹta
E
39.
ҊDZ
ƌҸǰƚşĂůğůŽůĄƚŝƌҸǵƉŽҸǰƌҸǰŽƌƷŬҸŶşŶƷğĚğzŽƌƶ ďĄŶŝͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ (A) ọ̀ rọ̀ -ìṣe (B) ọ̀ rọ̀ atọ́kùn (D) ọ̀ rọ̀ -arọ̀ pò orúkọ (E) ọ̀ rọ̀-aṣàpèjúwe
D
40.
ҊDZ
ƌҸǰƚşſ ůğƐŝƐҮǵŐҮǵŐҮǵﺎůƶ ǁ ĂƚăďşăďҸĨƷŶҸǰƌҸǰŞ‫ܙ‬ĞŶşŶƷŐďſ ůſ Śƶ ŶŶŝ(A) ọ̀ rọ̀ orúkọ (B) ọ̀ rọ̀ ìṣe
(D) ẹ̀ yán (E) ọ̀ rọ̀ atọ́kùn
ҊDZ
ƌҸǰƚşſ ŵĄĂŷ‫ܙ‬ăƉğũƷǁ ĞŬşŬƷŶŶşƉĂҸǰƌҸǰŽƌƷŬҸŶşŶƷŐďſ ůŽǰǵŚƶ ŶŶşͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ ͺ (A) ọ̀ rọ̀ àpèjúwe (B)
ẹ̀ yán (D) àpólà (E) ọ̀ rọ̀ atọ́ka
A
42.
ҊDZ
ƌҸǰƚşſ ŷƐşƐҮǵŐҮǵŐҮǵďşŬſ Ŭſ ŝŶƷŐďſ ůſ Śƶ ŶŶŝ(A) ọ̀ rọ̀ atọ́kun (B) ọ̀ rọ̀ ìṣe (D) ọ̀ rọ̀ arọ́pò (E) ọ̀ rọ̀
àpèjúwe
B
43.
44.
Sílébù mélòó ni ó wà nínú “Àga” (A) ọ̀ kan (B) mẹ́ta (D) mèjì (E) òfo
Ta ni ń jó ________ (A) téwurẹ ń jó (B) taja ń yọ̀ rù (D) tádìẹ n fẹ̀ sẹ̀ walẹ̀ (E) tẹ́yẹ n fò
lókè
E
B
45.
_______ ni ó darí ètò ayẹyẹ ìgbèyàwó Àjàní àti ìyàwó rẹ̀ (A) Adédìran (B) Dúrójayé (D)
Kàrímù (E) Àkànní aládùúgbò Àjàní
E
46.
________ ni Bàbá kékeré jẹ́ sí olóògbé (A) Àbúrò (B) ҀDZ
ŐďҸǵŶ (D) Aládùúgbò (E) Alájọgbélé
A
32.
41.
2
A
B
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47.
‘Adìẹ kì í kú ká da ẹyin rẹ̀ nù’. Ta a ni adìẹ? (A) Dúrójayé (B) Àjàní (D) Bàbá Àjàní (E) Akíndélé
D
48.
“Agbe ní í gbére pàdé Olókun Àlùkò ní í gbére pàdé ọlọ́ṣà” Ìrètí akéwì nínú ọfọ̀ yìí ni pé (A) ki
òun má tíì (B) kì í ire jẹ tirẹ̀ (D) kì ó bímọ (E) kírìn àjò rẹ sunwọ̀ n
B
49.
“Bí ẹni bá kú, ẹni ní í kù”. Ta a ni ó kù fún ọmọ olóògbé (A) Adéògún (B) Aṣiyanbí (D)
Dúrójayé (E) Adédìran
C
50.
“Itún ló ní ẹ máa tún mi ṣe Ìfà ló ní ẹ máa fà mí mọ́ra Abèrè ló ní kí ẹ fohun rere bèèrè mi wò”
ҊDZ
ŬĂŶůĄƌĂğĚğƚſ ũҮLJҸŶşŶƷҸĨҸǰž ŬğLJŞşŶŝ(A) ìfidípò (B) ìfọ̀ rọ̀ dárà (D) ẹ̀ dà-ọ̀ rọ̀ (E) èdè
àyàló
B
51.
“Mo jí ginni lónìí Mo rìn ginni Mo rìn-gìnnì wọja Iná ewú kì í jó ewú Iná ẹ̀ wìrì kì í jó ẹ̀ wìrì” Irúfẹ́
ọfọ̀ òkè yìí ni a máa ń lò fún (A) ọ̀ wọ̀ (B) àwúre (D) ìṣọ̀ yé (E) àpèta
A
52.
Abẹ́rẹ́ mélòó ni wọ́n fi ṣe Ifá fún ejò nínú ìtàn Ejò kọ fífi di igi? (A) ogún (B) méje (D)
mẹ́wàá (E) mẹ́sàn-án
B
53.
54.
Agbẹjọ́rọ̀ tí ó kọ rìbá gbígbà ni (A) Adédọ̀ tun (B) Kọ́lápọ̀ (D) Adérìntọ́ (E) Adédìran
Àwọn ènìyàn ǹ fi ejò di igi nínú ìtàn Ejò kọ fífi di igi nítorí pé (A) ejò gọ̀ (B) ejò kò léyín (D)
ejò kì í bínú (E) ejò kò lóró
E
B
55.
Àwọn tó gbìnàyá ìjà pẹ̀ lú oníṣẹ́ ọba l’Ákàn-án-rán bó ṣe hàn nínú ewì Ìjà kan tó ṣẹlẹ̀ lÁkàn-ánrán ni (A) alàkọ̀ wé (B) ọlọ́kọ̀ (D) òṣìṣẹ́ ìjọba (E) àgbẹ̀
E
56.
ҀDZ
Ě ĄŞƚăŶƚſ ŵƷƌĂďşŝďăďĄĂƌƷŐďſ ͕ ƚſ ƚҸƌҸ báárà gba ojúde Lápàdé kọjá ni (A) Tàfá (B)
Lápàdé (D) Aúdù (E) Paramọ́lẹ̀
A
57.
Ẹni tí aládùúrà kan ríran sí pé kí ó kìlọ̀ fún ẹni tí wọn jọ ń gbélé ni (A) Àjàní (B)
Ṣọ́lábòmí (D) Jẹ́nríọgbé (E) Dúrójayé
B
58.
Ẹni tí òwe àgbà tí ń yọ́’lẹ̀ dà bámu jù ni (A) Àdiìgún (B) Dúrójayé (D) Àjàní (E) Adédìran
B
59.
Èwo ni kò sí lára iṣẹ́ tí Arẹ̀ sà dán wò nígbà tí ojú owó pọ́n ọn nínú ìtàn Arẹ̀sà Àjèjé? (A) ẹja
pípa (B) agbọ́n híhun (D) ọ̀ pẹ kíkọ (E) oko dídá
D
60.
Èwo nínú àwọn orúkọ wọ̀ nyí ni kò sí lára àwọn ọlọ́sà tó ń dọdẹ ẹ̀ mí Lápàdé (A) Bọ́lugi (B)
Kúrúnà (D) Sùbérù (E) Jídé
E
61.
Èwo nínú àwọn wọ̀ nyí ni akéwì kò tọ́ka sí gẹ́gẹ́ bí alátìlẹyìn ọmọ ogun Nàìjíríà bó ṣe hàn nínú
ewì Ҁ٨ĞƵŶҀDZ
LJŝŶҊŵҸK ŐƵŶE ăŞũşƌşă͍ (A) Awólọ́wọ (B) Odúduà (D) Jéésù (E) Àbúyàzídù
A
62.
Ilé-iṣẹ́ wo ni ó gba ọmọ olóògbé ṣíṣẹ́? (A) Báǹkì ìjọba (B) Báǹkì aládàáni (D) Ilé-iṣẹ́
adójútòfò (E) Ilé-iṣẹ́
A
63.
Ìpinnu Onílàjà nígbà tó ṣíwọ́ oore-ṣíṣe nínù ìtàn Onílàjà Ìlú Akẹ̀ sàn ni (A) kó pokùn so (B) kó
sá lọ (D) kó máa ṣe iṣẹ́ mìíràn (E) kó máa ṣe òwò
Irú aṣọ tí alága wọ̀ níbi ayẹyẹ ìkẹ́kọ̀ ọ́ jáde Àjàní ni (A) dàǹdòógó (B) bùbá àti sòkòtò (D)
agbádá (E) kóòtú
A
65.
Nínú ewì “Ẹ ṣeun ẹyin ọmọ Ogun Nàìjíríà, òrìṣà tí Akéwì ni kí wọn dúpẹ́ lọ́wọ́ rẹ bí wọ́n bá mọyì
ůҀǶ
ƌŝŶŶŝ(A) Olúfọn (B) Ògèdẹ̀ ǹgbé (D) Ògùnmọ́lá (E) Àfọ̀ njá
A
66.
Nínú ìtàn “Onílàjà ìlú Akẹ̀sán”, irúfẹ́ èèyàn wó ni onílàjà (A) òsónú (B) alágbaja (D)
onínúure (E) oníjà
D
64.
3
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
YORUBA
67.
Nínú ìtàn Ejò kọ fífi dì igi”, ìdí tí wọn fì ń fi ejò digi nígbà kan ni pé (A) kò ní ìrù (B) kò le sáré
(D) kò ní ẹsẹ̀ (E) kó ní eyín
E
68.
Nínú ìtàn ҊDZ
ŶŞůſ ŶŝŝďƷ’; ohun tó mú kí ọ̀ nì gba oko aláwo lọ ni (A) ìrìn àjò tó fẹ́ lọ (B) ogun tó
fẹ́ lọ jà (D) iṣẹ́ tó fẹ́ dáwọ́lé (E) ọ̀ tẹ̀ tí wọ́n dì mọ́ ọn
D
69.
Nínú ìtàn”Atiro ìlú Ògèlé” níbo ni Atiro sọ pé kí wọ́n gbé ohun ìrúbọ lọ? (A) Ìrékọjá odi ìlú (B)
Ìrékọjá àkìtàn ìlú (D) Ìrékọjá odò ìlú (E) Ìrékọjá ọjà ìlú
D
70.
Nínú ọfọ̀ bí inú bá ń run ènìyàn, tí ó lo bàyìí pé: “… Tó o ní ìwọ ń lọ sínú ọmọ eku Tó o ní ìwọ ń
lọ sínú ọmọ ẹyẹ… Tó o ní ìwọ ń lọ sínú ọmọ ènìyàn Ta ni osùnsùn ọfọ̀ òkè yìí? (A) àjànà (B)
ejò-inú (D) ọ̀ rùnmílá (E) ọ̀ pọ̀ lọ́
B
71.
Nínú ọfọ̀ ti a fi ń ti òjò, ọmọ tá a ní òjò kò gbọdọ̀ pa kó fún aṣọ wọ̀ lú ni (A) Ewíwó (B) Afẹ́fẹ́lẹ́gẹ́lẹ́gẹ́ (D) Aworogbo (D) Àrọ̀ nì
DZ
Ohun tó mú akéwì nì kí omidan gbére máa ṣẹ nínú ewì DZ
ƐğLJş٨ăŵҸĚƷŶ ni (A) kó máa sùn láyà
olùgbàlà (B) kó máa bínú (D) kó ló lọ́kọ (E) ko lọ sí ìrìn àjò
A
73.
ҊDZ
ŬĂŶůĄƌĂăǁ ҸŶƚſ ǁ ĄůĄƚŝƉşŶŽŐƷŶŶŝ(A) Àkànní (B) Adérójú (D) Adédìran (E) Adérìntọ́
D
74.
ҊDZ
ŬĂŶůĄƌĂŞLJăǁ ſ ăďĄ<ĠŬĞƌĠƚſ ůҸƐҸǵĚҸǰĚşĨĄ‫ܙ‬Ү-lóòjọ́ ni (A) Sọlábòmí (B) Àkànkẹ́
(D) Fàwọ̀ rajà (E) Kẹ̀múyẹ
B
75.
ҊDZ
ŬĂŶůĄƌĂŶ‫ڸ‬ŬĂŶğƚƶ ƚƶ ƚşĚşĨĄ‫ܙ‬Үůſ ž ũҸǵŬăƐşůҮǰŶŝ(A) Garawa epo kan (B) Garawa epo mẹ́ta (D)
Garawa epo méje (E) Garawa epo méjì
A
76.
Oríṣìíríṣìí àwọn ènìyàn méjì wo ni ọ̀ tá fún Lápàdé (A) Ọlọ́sà àti Ọlọ́pàá (B) Tàfá àti Délé (D)
Bàbá arúgbó àti Ọdẹ (E) Jayéọlá àti Dàda
A
77.
Orúkọ ọ̀ kan lára àwọn ọlọ́ṣà a máa jẹ́ ______ (A) Àdìgún (B) Kàsálí (D) Kàrìmù (E) Ràímì
B
78.
Orúkọ ọ̀ kan lára àwọn ọ̀ nì nínú ìtàn ҊDZ
ŶŞůſ ŶŝŝďƷ ni (A) ìrágbèjí (B) Bàrà-ò-fà-l’ájà (D) àkùrà
(E) òkodó
B
79.
Oyè wo ni àwọn ará ìlú Ògèlé fi dá Atiro lọ́lá nínù ìtàn Atiro ìlú Ògèlé (A) Ọtún (B) Òsì (D)
Igbákejì ọba (E) Balógun
D
80.
Ta ni akéwì tọ́ka sí nínú ìran Lámúrúdu tó hu ìwà tí Ojúku hù nínú ewì Ҁ٨ĞƵŶҀDZ
LJŝŶҊŵҸK ŐƵŶ
Nàìjíríà? (A) Kúrunmí (B) Ẹfúnṣetán (D) Ṣódẹkẹ́ (E) Àfọ̀ njá
E
81.
82.
Taa ni àgbàlagbà akàn? (A) Lápàdé (B) Jídé (D) Tàfá (E) Aúdù
“Àìlejà ni ìtà baba mi o déhìn-ín”. Ìwà tí òwe yìí ń fi hàn ni (A) ọ̀ lẹ (B) àrífín (D) ìgboyà
(E) àpà
E
D
83.
“Ka rí nì ka yẹ́ni sí, o yoni o jú oúnjẹ lọ”. Àṣà ọmọlúàbí wo ni ìpèdè òkè yi fihàn (A) Imoore
(B) Inú rere (D) Ìbọ̀ wọ̀ (E) ҊDZ
LJăLJĂ
E
84.
“N o lè ku kan kì í royè ilé baba rẹ jẹ”. Ìwà wo ni ìpèdé èyí ń tọ́ka sí? (A) ọ̀ lẹ (B) akin (D)
àfojúdi (E) ojúkòkòrò
B
85.
86.
Àbọrúbọyè ni à ń kí (A) àbọ̀ rìṣà (B) aláró (D) babaláwo (E) Ọdẹ
Àìsàn wo lákéwì pè ní ìdàkejì àpólò nínú ewì ŐďŞŶƌŞŶҊDZ
ƚҮǰ? (A) ibà (B) ẹ̀ fọ́rí (D) sòbìà
(E) onígbáméjì
D
E
87.
88.
Ami fún àwọn ògbóni ni ilẹ̀ Yorùbá ni (A) Aṣọ (B) Ẹdan (D) Iyùn (E) Ìrùkẹ̀ rẹ̀
Àṣà Yorùbá wo ni yóò ta ọmọdé jí láti gba ẹrù lórí àgbà (A) àfojúdi (B) àrífín (D) ìbọ̀ wọ̀
(E) ìmoore
B
D
72.
4
A
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
YORUBA
89.
Àwọn ìpèdè ti a máa ń lò nígbà tí ọba ìlú kan bá papò dà ni_________ à fi (A) òpó yẹ̀ (B) ọbá
wàjà (D) ọba gbé ṣẹ̀ (E) ọbá kú
B
90.
91.
Àwọn wọ̀ nyí ni Àkàndá ẹ̀ dá, àfi _________ (A) òyìnbó (B) àfin (D) Abuké (E) Adẹtẹ̀
Bá mì na ọmọ mi ______ (A) kì í ṣe tọlọ́mọ (B) kò dénú ọlọ́mọ (D) níí mọ́mọ gbọ́n (E) níí
jẹ kọmọ yàpátá
A
B
92.
Bì adẹ́tẹ̀ tàbí wèrè bá kú níbo ni a máa sin wọ́n sí? (A) inú ilé (B) ìta gbangba (D) ẹ̀ yìnkùlé
ẹbí wọn (E) inú igbó
E
93.
Ẹni a ní kó kín ni lẹ́yìn ______ (A) ó fata sọ́wọ́ (B) ó fèṣó sọ́wọ́ (D) ó fata sẹ́nu (E) ó fẹ̀ gún
ṣọ́wọ́
E
94.
Ẹnì kan tí Yorùbá gbà pé kò sé bá ṣe iṣẹ́ àjùmọse ni (A) alàìmèrọ̀ (B) arìnrìnajò (D) olè (E)
olófòófó
D
95.
Ẹni tí ó máa ń gbẹ́lẹ̀ òkú ni ________ (A) Àbígbẹ̀ yìn òkú (B) Àkọ́bí òkú (D) Àna òkú tí ó
dàgbòjú (E) Àwọn ọmọlokú
D
96.
Ẹni tí ó ní àṣẹ ìsìnkú àti àṣẹ ogún pínpín nì ìwọ̀ nyí (A) Bàbá-ǹ-sìnkú (B) Báálé ilé òkú (D)
Bẹ́ẹ́rẹ̀ òkú (E) Dáwódù òkú
A
97.
Ènìyàn tí o ti kú ní ilẹ̀ Yorùbá tì o tún fi ara rẹ hàn àwọn ènìyàn káàkiri ni à ń pè ni_______ (A)
Elére (B) Ẹlẹ́gbẹ́ (D) Àkúdàáyá (E) Emèrè
D
98.
Ètò ìṣèlú ni ilẹ̀ Yorùba bẹ̀ rẹ̀ láti __________ (A) ilè ìjọsìn (B) Inú ilé (D) ààrin ìlú (E) ibi ti a
tí ń ta ọjà
B
99.
Ètùtù pàtàkì tí wọn máa ń ṣe fún òkú obìnrin ni (A) àárọ̀ òkú ṣíṣe (B) adìyẹ ìrànà òkú ṣíṣe (D)
òkú ṣíṣe (E) sàráà òkú
A
100. Ewo ni kì í ṣe ọmọ ìyá àwọn yòókú____________ (A) Baálé ilé (B) Ìyàwó ilé (D) Ara àdúgbó
(E) Ọmọ ilé
D
101. Ìdí ti a fi lè ṣígun nìwọ̀ nyí àyàfi _______ (A) láti pa ẹnu olóyè ogun ìlú mìíràn mọ (B) láti ṣe
àfikún amọ̀ nà ìlú kan (D) láti gbọn ìyà tàbí ìwọ̀ sí nù u (E) láti lè fi dá ara yá.
E
102. Irú ènìyàn wo ni a ̀ ń pè ni àwòrò ní ilẹ̀ Yorùbá (A) Ẹni tí a fi ẹnu kò lé lórí pé kí o máa bọ òrìṣà
ní ọjọ́ tí a bá fẹ́ bọ ọ́ (B) Ẹni tí ó mọ̀ nípa òrìṣà yìí (D) Ẹni tí ó jẹ́ olórí ilé olórìṣà náà (E) Ẹni tí
ó gbóyà tí ò sì dàjú
A
103. Irú òrìṣà wo ni ó lè pa ènìyàn tí ẹnì kankan kò gbọdọ̀ sunkún? (A) òrìṣà ńlá (B) òrìṣà oko (D)
Sànpọ̀ nná (E) òrìṣà ìbejì
D
104. Irúfẹ́ ènìyàn wo ni Yorùbá ń pè ní opó? (A) Ìyàwó ẹni tí ó kú (B) Àwọn ọmọ òkú tí ó kú (D)
Àwọn ẹbí ẹni tí ó kú (E) Àwọn ibátan òkú
A
105. Irúfẹ́ ikú yìí ni Yorùbá máa ń pè ni ikú ayàfi_________ (A) ikú ọ̀ dọ́ (B) ikú ọmọdékùnrin (D)
ikú ọmọdébìnrin (E) ikú àgbà lóbìnrin tàbí lọ̀ kùnrin
E
106. Ìwà àìtọ́ tí ènìyàn ń fi hàn nígbà tí ọmọdé bá bú àgbàlagbà ni (A) ọ̀ lẹ (B) àrifín (D) ojo (E)
ojúkòkòrò
B
107. Lára àwọn nǹkan tí a máa fi n jagun ni ayé àtijọ ni ìwọnyí ayafi____________ (A) ibọn
lóríṣìíríṣìí (B) ọkọ́ àti ádá (D) kùmọ̀ ati apó (E) ọfà àti ọ̀ pá
D
108. Nínú etò ìṣèlú ilẹ̀ Yorùbá, lẹ́yin Agbo ilé, ibi ti ó tún kan ni (A) ọ̀ dẹ̀ dẹ̀ (B) ìlú (D) ọjà (E)
ojúde
B
109. Ó dúdú bí i _________ (A) isin (B) èèpo isin (D) èédú (E) kóró isin
E
5
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN.
POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
YORUBA
110. Obìnrin ti ó jẹ ìyáálé nínú ìdílé ni (A) èyí tí a kọ́kọ́ fẹ́ (B) èyí tí ó dàgbà jù (D) èyí tí ó tẹ̀ wà jù
(E) éyí tí ó lọ́lá jù
A
111. Ohun tí Yorùbá mọ̀ sí Àlà ni (A) ohun pupa (B) osùn (D) ohun funfun (E) kàlákìnní
112. Ojúṣe àwọn ọ̀ dọ́ láwùjọ ni (A) yíyẹ ọ̀ nà ẹsẹ̀ kùkú (B) gbígba ìyàwó oníyàwó (D) kíkó obìnrin
jọ (E) sísọná sóko àgba
D
A
113. ҊDZ
ŬĂŶůĄƌĂŶŝăǁ ҸŶŽůſ ƌŝŽŐƵŶƉăƚăŬŞƚŝǁ ҸǵŶǁ ăŶşŝůҮǰzŽƌƶ ďĄůĄLJĠăƚŝũҸǵ(A) ăƌҮǰҊDZ
ŶăŬĂŬă‫ڸ‬Ĩž (B)
Basọ̀ run (D) Olórí ogun (E) Baálé ilé
A
114. ҊDZ
ŬĂŶůĄƌĂŽũƷ‫ܙ‬Ğăǁ ҸŶŞďĄƚĂŶҮďşŬĂŶŶĄăŶŝ(A) jíjin ara ẹni léṣẹ̀ (B) kík ó ẹbí ẹni jọ (D) ṣíṣe
ìlàra ara ẹni (E) títabùkù ara ẹni
B
115. ҊDZ
ŬĂŶůĄƌĂŽũƷ‫ܙ‬ĞҸŵҸƐşž ďşƌҮŶŝƉĞ(A) kí ó máa jíṣẹ́ fún wọn (B) kí ó máa bú wọn (D) kí ó
máa nà wọn (E) kí ó máa yọ sùtì ètè sí wọn
A
116. Orin tí wọn ń ló níbi ayẹyẹ tí wọn máa ń ṣe fún òkú ọdẹ ni à ń pè ní (A) ìrèmọ̀ je (B) orin ọdẹ
(D) rárà sísun (E) ìjálá sísun
A
117. Òrìṣà ti ipo rẹ ga julọ nínú gbogbo òrìṣà ni _________ (A) Ìyámọ̀ pó (B) Ọbàtálá (D)
Yemọja (E) ҀDZ
ůă
B
118. Oṣù mélòó ni ọba tuntun ti o ba jẹ lẹyìn ti ọba tí o ba wa níbẹ̀ tẹ́lẹ̀ bá ti wàjà gbọ́dọ̀ lò lọ́dọ̀
ìjòyé ọ̀ dọ̀ fin (A) oṣù mẹ́fà (B) oṣù márùn-ún (D) oṣù mẹta (E) oṣù méjì
D
119. Wọ káà ilẹ̀ túmọ̀ sí______ (A) Kì ènìyàn kú (B) ki ènìyàn sùn fọnfọn (D) kì ènìyàn wọ inù ilẹ̀
(E) Ki ènìyàn sùn sí káà
A
120. Yorùbá gbàgbọ́ pè òògùn ló ní ọjọ́ kan ìpọ́njú (A) orí ẹni ló lọjọ́ gbogbo (B) iṣẹ́ ẹni ló lọjọ́
gbogbo (D) ìwà ẹni ló lọjọ́ gbogbo (E) ẹbí ẹni ló lọjọ́ gbogbo
A
6
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN
2011/2012 ADMISSIONS
2nd CHOICE/SUPPLEMENTARY POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE
NAME
JAMB REG.NO.: 16249214JG
VENUE: SOCIAL SCIENCE LLT/004/004
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions
DEPARTMENT: Educational Management
FACULTY: EDUCATION
SEAT NO.: 55
TIME: 1 HOUR 30 Mins
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MATHEMATICS
x
x-1
x+1
(A) 52x-1
(B) 5x+2
(C) 5-5
(D) 5x+1
(E) 53
1
Simplify 5 x25 /125
2
Evaluate (20+4-1/2)2
3
The ratio of the areas of similar triangles is necessarily equal to
(A) the ratios of the corresponding sides
(B)the ratios of squares on corresponding sides
(C)the ratios of the corresponding heights on the triangle
(D)half the ratio of the corresponding heights of the triangle
(E)the ratio of the corresponding bases to the heights of the triangle
Write the decimal number 39 to base 2.
(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 11101 (D) 100101
(E) 19.5
Simplify f1/2g2h1/3/f5/2g0h7/3
(A) (g/fh)2 (B) f5g2h7 (C) f5/4 g0 h7/9 (D) g2 /f5 h7 (E) 1/f2 h2
Multiply (x+3y+5) by (2x2+5y+2)
(A)2x3 + 3yx2 +10xy + 15y2 + 13y + 10x2 + 2x + 10
(B) 2x3 + 6yx2 +5xy + 15y2 + 31y + 10x2 + 2x + 10
(C) 2x3 + 3yx2 +5xy + 10y2 + 13y + 5x2 + 2x + 10
(D) 2x3 + 6yx2 +5xy + 15y2 + 13y + 10x2 + 2x + 10
(E) 2x3 + 2yx2 +10xy + 10y2 + 31y + 5x2 + 2x + 10
An arithmetic progression has first term 11 and fourth term 32. The sum of the first nine
terms is
(A) 351 (B) 531 (C) 135 (D) 315
(E) 153
The solution of the equation x2-2x=8 is
(A) x=0 or 2 (B) x= -2 0r 4 (C) x= 2 (D) x= -4 (E) x=2 or 4
Make c the subject of the equation a(b+c) +5/d-2=0
(A) c = 2d – 5 – b/ad
(B) c = 5 – 2d - b/ad
(C) c = 5 – 2d - abd/ad
(D ) c = 2d – 5 – abd/ad
(E) c = 2d – ab – 5/ad
What factor is common to all the expression: x2-x, 2x2+x-1 and x2-1?
(A) x (B) x-1 (C) x+1 (D) No common factor (E) (2x-1)
The factors of 6x-5-x2 are
(A) –(x+3)(x+2)
(B) (x-5)(x-1)
(B) –(x+5)(x+1)
(D) (x-5)(1-x)
(E) (x+5)(1-x)
In a circle of radius 10cm, a cord of length 10cm is xcm from its centre where x is
(A) 10root2 (B) 5root3 (C) 10root3 (D) 5root2 (E) 10
PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle. If<PQS=150, find <QRS
(A) 75˚ (B) 37½° (C) 127½° (D) 105° (E) None of the above
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
(A) 1/4
(B ) 5/4
(C) 9/4
(D) 4 (E) 9
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whose height is
8cm(Take π=22/7)
(A) 188.57cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 188.08cm2 (E) 100cm2
An isosceles triangle of sides 13cm, 13cm 10cm is inscribed in a circle. What is the radius of
the circle (A) 71/24cm (B) 12cm (C) 8cm (D) 7cm (E) root69cm
The different between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is 135cm.
what is the length? (A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm
In a regular polygon of n sides, each interior angle is 1440. Find n.
(A) 12
(B)
11
(C)
10
(D) 8
(E) 6
2
2
3
Differentiate (x -1/x) with respect to x.
(A) 4x -2-2/x3
3
3
3
3
(B) 4x -2+2/x
(C) 4x -3x+2/x
(D) 4x -4x-2/x
(E) 4x3-+6+2/x3
3
If y = (2x + 1) , find dy/dx.
(A) 5(2x+1)
(B) 3(2x+1)2 (C) 6(2x+1) (D) 3(2x+1) (E) 6(2x+1)2
At what value of x does the function y=-3-2x+x2 attain a minimum value?
(A)
4
(B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1
Integrate 1-x/x3 with respect to x
(A) x-x2/x4+K
(B) 4/x4-3/x3+K
(C) 1/x+1/2x2+K
(D) 1/3x2 -1/2x+K (E) 1/x-1/2x2+K
The mean of the numbers 1.2,1.0,0.9,1.4,0.8,0.8,1.2, and 1.1 is
(A) 1.5
(B) 0.8
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.02
(E) 1.05
The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as
follows:6,9,5,7,6,7,5,8,9,5,7,5,8,7,8,7,5,6,5,7,6,9,9,7,8,8,7,8,9,8. The mode is
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D)
7 (E) 10
If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5,9,3,5,7,5,8, then (M,D) is
(A) (6,5)
(B) ( 5,8) (C) (5,7) (D) (5,5) (E) (7,5)
The letters of the word “MATRICULATION” are cut and put into a box. One letter is drawn at
random from the box. Find the probability of drawing a vowel.(A)7/13 (B)5/13 (C)6/13
(D)8/13 (E)4/13
ECONOMICS
26
27
28
29
30
Economics may be described as
(A) the study of demand and supply of things in our environment
(B) the study of production and distribution
(C) the study of human behavior in the allocation of scarce resources
(D) the study of the employment of labour, land and capital
(E) The study of money and banking.
Nigeria, being a developing Africa country in the sub-sahara, has put together a development
blue-print called Vision 20:2020 which can ensure that the country becomes
(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020
(B) an African economic “Tiger” by the year 2020
(C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020
(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-saharan Africa by the year 2020
(E) one of the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
Which of the following is NOT a measure of dispersion
(A) standard deviation (B) mean deviation (C) variance (D) range (E) mean
The impact of a change in the price of commodity A on the quantity demanded of commodity
B is best explained using the concept of
(A) price-elasticity demand
(B) cross-price elasticity of demand
(C) income elasticity of demand (D) elasticity of substitution
(E) A – price elasticity of demand for B
A normal goods with close substitutes is likely to have its price elasticity of demand
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
(A) between zero and one (B) equal to unity
(C)greater than unity
(D) less than unity
(E) none of the above
Diseconomics of scale operates when
(A) doubling inputs brings about more than proportionate increase in output
(B) doubling inputs leads to a doubling of output
(C) doubling inputs brings about less than proportionate increase in output
(D) decrease in profit
(E) increase in revenue
A firm achieves least cost in production by substituting factors until
(A)their factor price are equal
(B)their marginal product are equal to the factor prices
(C) their marginal products are each equal to zero (D) the ratios of their marginal product
equals the ratio of their prices (E) none of the above
The basic fiscal relation that exists among the three tiers of government in Nigeria is
(A) national budget appropriation
(B) State Local Government joint account
(C) revenue allocation from the federation account (D) federal road projects
(E) federal character principle
In recent years, Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth in……… Sector in
the last ten years
(A) Agriculture
(B) Education
(C) telecommunication
(D transport (E) distribution
Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of
labour in the country?
(A) Construction (B) Agriculture
(C) Distribution
(D) Mining and petroleum
(E) Transport and communications
Which of the following is a term used to describe a payment representing a surplus in excess
of transfer costs?
(A) Interest rate (B) Opportunity cost (C) Economic rent (D) Indirect cost (E) Wages
By trade by bater, we mean
(A)Trade done by people in the village (B) Exchange of goods for money
(C)International trade
(D) Exchange of goods for goods
(E) The trade of the Middle Ages
In the limited liability company, the greatest risk is borne by
(A) Shareholders debentures
(B) Company executives
(C) Ordinary shareholders
(D) preference shareholders
(E) Board of directors
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Economic Community of West
African States? (A) Sierra Leone (B) Sudan (C) The Gambia (D) Nigeria (E) Guinea
Population density refers to
(A)Densely populated urban centers (B) The total area divided by the total population
(C) Densely populated rural areas
(D) The total population divided by the total area
(E)All of the above
The most common index used for measuring development is
(A)The level of literacy (B) Per capital income
(C) Nutritional levels
(D) Population growth rate
(E) International development index.
The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing.
(A) Consumer goods originally imported
(B) Machinery for industries
(C) More goods for exports
(D) More goods for domestic consumption
(E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries
A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is(A)the absence of common currency (B)political
instability (C)high poverty rate (D)non-implementation of decisions (E)trade-related political
crisis in ivory coast
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The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is
(A)twenty
(B)seven (C) five (D)infinity
(E)limited to the number of individuals that are interested
The major objective of economic growth is to
(A) redistribute income and other benefit of growth
(B)equalize opportunity for education and employment
(C) increase aggregate expenditure on goods and services
(D)increase the real per capita income
(E)increase access to education
Industries contribute to national economic development because they
(A)utilize local raw material
(B)employ an increase number of labour
(C)provide recreational facilities
(D) use modern machines which replace human labour
(E) all of the above
An effective does not have a cost when
(A) the activity does not require the giving up of any activity or thing
(B)the government pays for it
(C) it is carried out by a non-governmental organisation
(D)it is not priced
(E) it is easy to undertake
Which of the following is compatible with a firm in a purely competitive market?
(A) demand is inelastic
(B) demand is infinitely elastic
(C) marginal cost is falling
(D) price is greater than marginal cost
(E) price is less than marginal cost
In economics, production is complete when
(A) goods are produced in the factories
(B) goods are sold to the wholesaler
(C) goods and services are produced by the government
(D) prices are fixed for goods and services
(E)goods and services finally reach the consumer
Which of following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population growth?
(A) the rate of natural increase
(B)the net migration rate
(C) the rate of population increase (D) the fertility rate
(E) all of the above
ENGLISH LANGUGE
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He……….not come now
(A ) needs
(B) needed (C) need (D)will need
Janet ………. To know that we are all here
(A) suppose (B)supposes (C)is supposed (D)should suppose
Let it be …………. That there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C )known (D) knows
PICK OUT THE ODD/WRONG EXPRESSION
(A) I heard his supposed apology
(C) I heard his suppose apology
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(B)I heard his unconvincing apology
(D) I heard he was supposed apology
PICK OUT THE ODD/WRONG EXPRESSION
(A) I suppose you know the way
(B) I am supposed you know the way
(C) I suppose he knows the way
(D) they suppose he knows the way
We shall see you soon……………(A) shall we? (B)shan’t we? (C)shouldn’t we? (D)should we
We shouldn’t eat today…………… (A) shall we? (B) shan’t we? (C) shouldn’t we? (D)should we
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in the underline expression
below
His contribution to the project is invaluable
(A) extremely useful
(B) of no value (C)of little value
(D)can not be valued
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Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in the underline expression
below
That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B)ordinary (C)practical (D)immodest
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in the underline expression
below
Concerning my admission, I have to cross my fingers
(A) wait and hope for the best (B)wait In frustration (C)wait confidently (D) take some risk
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in the underline expression
below
On the matter of worship, some sit on the fence
(A)go to the extreme (B)are decisive (C) are fanatics (D)are undecided
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined
Can you marry such a lanky man?(A) tall and thin (B)sturdy (C)fat and short (D)tall and short
Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined
The election system we adopted was his brainchild
(A) undoing factor (B)invention (C)power (D)fabrication
Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the word underlined
He always approaches issues optimistically.
(A)realistically (B)pessimistically (C)carelessly (D)unrealistically
Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the word underlined
Her health deteriorated rapidly.(A) worsened (B)improved (C)stagnated (D)declined
Choose the option that sounds the same with bear
(A) bare
(B)beer (C)bared (D)beard
Choose the option that is correctly spelled.
(A) acomodation (B)accommodation (C)accommodation (D)acommodation
Neither of the presidential candidates………suitable.(A)are (B)is (C)is been (D)are been suitable
Which of this sentence is correct
(A) a ten year old boy is missing (B)a ten-year-old is missing (C)a ten year-old boy is missing
Ten miles ……….. a great distance. (A) is (B)are (C)is been
A noun phrase lacks one of the following: (A) noun (B)verb (C)adjective (D)adverb
My friend, a brilliant lecturer, won many prizes. The underlined expression is a(n)
(A)adjectival clause (B)relative clause (C)appositive phrase (D)subject of won
Eve gave Adam an apple. An apple in the sentence function as…………..
(A)subject of the verb ‘gave’
(B)direct object of the verb
(C)indirect object of the verb (D)object compliment
I passed very well because I studied hard. The underlined expression is a
(A) relative clause introducer (B)linking verb (C)adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction
Bello and I love each other.
(A) preposition (B)reciprocal pronoun (C)noun phrase (D)adjectival phrase
GOVERNMENT
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The organ of government that applies the rules and policies of a society is:
(A) the judiciary (B)the legislature (C)the civil service (D)the executive
Which of the following best describes a sovereign state?
(A)a member of the Africa union (B)freedom from economic control
(C)Geographical contiguity
(D)military, political and economic independence
The branch of Government that that sets agenda for other organs is known as:
(A)the bureaucracy (B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media
Political sovereignty lies with:
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(A) head of state (B)head of government (C)the parliament (D) the electorate
In the civil service, anonymity means that civil servants must
(A) not receive the credit or blame for any good (B) serve any government impartiality
(C) avoid nepotism and favouritism
(D)be politically
In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated.
(A) Nigeria and Ghana
(B)the united state and united kingdom
(C) France and Germany
(D) india and china
The three fundamental rights of citizens are
(A) life liberty and property
(B)salvation, property freedom of thought
(C) Employment, property and social security
(D) free education, employment and property
The major advantage of state power?
(A) it ensures the anonymity of each voter
(B)it is faster than other systems
(C)nobody can be prevented from voting
(D)it extends franchise to all adults
Which of these is an element of state power?
(A) Geographical location, population & economic resources (B) ) Geographical location, elites
interests & economic resources (C) ) Geographical location, ethnicity & economic resources (D)
) Geographical location, political crisis & economic resources
In which of these International Organizations is African membership NOT possible?
(A)ECOWAS
(B)EU
(C)OPE C
(D)Commonwealth
All of the following affect Nigerias foreign policy EXCEPT?
(A) Economic resources (B) Nuclear capability (C)African perspective (D)population
In the Hausa pre-colonial political system, sovereignty was located in the
(A) Alkali
(B)Emir
(C) Waziri (D)Galadima
The First Executive president of Nigeria was
(A) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe
(B)Sir bubakar Tafawa Balewa
(C) General Yakubu Gowon
(D)Alhaji Shehu Shagari
Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the
(A) 1922 Clifford constitution
(B)1946 Richard constitution
(C) 1953 London conference
(D) 1954 Lytelton constitution
Under the Babangida regime. Director Generals who replaced the Permanent Secretaries can
be appointed from.
(A) Anywhere (B)only the civil service (C) local government (D)professionals
An essential principle that guides the work of the United Nations
(A) the regulation of international trade
(B) the protection of the United State of America against terrorism
(C) respect for sovereign equality of member state
(D)the transfer of technology to developing countries
Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations?
(A)voluntary association of the independent countries of the former british colonies
(B)association of free nations enjoying equal rights under the British
(C) a free association of sovereign independent Africa states
(D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the French colonial empire
Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations?
(A)international labour organization (B) league of Nations (C)UNESCO (D)OAU
ECOMOG was created under the auspices o f(A) The UNO (B)OAU (C)ECOWAS (D)AU
Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU?
(A) The assembly conference
(B)the executive council
(C) African court of justice
(D)the commission
The 1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties
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(A)All progressive grand alliance and the northern people’s alliance
(B)Nigeria national alliance and united progressive grand alliance
(C)National democratic coalition and Nigeria peoples alliance
(D)National Democratic Alliance and Northern Elements Progressive Union
Public corporations are established principally to
(A) compete with private firms
(B)raise revenue for the government
(C)provide essential services for the public
(D) promote public accountability
A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to private
individuals or organizations is called
(A) Indeginisation (B)commercialization (C) privatization (D)Acquisition
Which of the following is not a major problem of local Government in Nigeria
(A) insufficient funding and limited internally generated revenue
(B) ) interference and control by higher levels of government
(C)lack of competent and qualified staff
(D)lack of sufficient number of local government
A major problem associated with military rule in Nigeria is
(A)decentralization of political power
(B)slow decision making process
(C)frequent violation of human rights
(D)conservative foreign policies
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