CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 1 of 20
1. A 150.0 g sample of a metal alloy requires 59.3 kJ to raise the temperature of the sample from 298 K
to 398 K. Determine the specific heat capacity of the alloy in units of J g–1 oC–1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1.87 J g–1 oC–1
4.38 J g–1 oC–1
2.29 J g–1 oC–1
2.53 J g–1 oC–1
3.95 J g–1 oC–1
2. In which reaction as written is there the greatest amount of work done by the surroundings at
constant pressure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
O2(g) + N2(g) → 2 NO(g)
2 NaN3(s) → 2 Na(s) + 3 N2(g)
Fe(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → FeCl2(aq) + H2(g)
H2(g) + 2 O2(g) + N2(g) → 2 HNO2(aq)
2S(s) + 3 O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 2 H2SO4(l)
3. Consider the combustion of propane, C3H8:
C3H8 (g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l)
ΔH = –2220.0 kJ
How much heat is released, in units of kJ, when 15.5 L of O2 at 298 K and 1.00 bar reacts with a
stoichiometric amount of propane?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
91.0 kJ
199 kJ
219 kJ
278 kJ
785 kJ
4. Determine the enthalpy of reaction, ΔH° for the following reaction,
2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g)
ΔH° = ?
. the following data:
N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g)
½ N2(g) + O2(g) → NO2(g)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
–333 kJ
–150 kJ
–117 kJ
+115 kJ
+238 kJ
ΔH° = +183 kJ
ΔH° = +33 kJ
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 2 of 12
5. Determine the standard enthalpy of formation ΔfH° for aqueous sulfuric acid, H2SO4(aq) using the
data provided below:
SO2Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 2 HCl(g) + H2SO4(aq)
ΔHf°[SO2Cl2(g)] = –364 kJ mol–1
ΔHf°[H2O(l)]
= –286 kJ mol–1
ΔHf°[HCl(g)]
= –92 kJ mol–1
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
ΔH° = –62 kJ
+774 kJ mol–1
+476 kJ mol–1
–135 kJ mol–1
–543 kJ mol–1
–814 kJ mol–1
6. Which one of the following statements is false?
a. Heat and work are path functions, while enthalpy and internal energy are state functions.
b. When an endothermic reaction takes place inside the calorimeter, the temperature inside the
calorimeter decreases.
c. Bond breaking releases energy and is thus an exothermic process.
d. In an exothermic reaction, the change in chemical potential energy between the products and
reactants results in heat released.
e. The heat released by a reaction during a coffee cup (constant pressure) calorimeter experiment is
equal to the change in enthalpy for the reaction.
7. A household water heater containing 50 gallons (227 L) of water is heated via the burning of natural
gas (methane, molar mass = 16.043 g mol–1) via the following reaction:
CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l)
ΔH⁰ = –891 kJ
What mass of methane, in units of g, is needed to heat the 227 L of water in the heater from 25.0°C
to 38.9°C? Assume:
• the heater is 100% efficient in its use of heat energy
• no heat is lost to the surroundings
• specific heat of water is: 4.184 J g–1 °C–1
• density of water is: 0.9970 g–1 mL
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
159 g
237 g
372 g
401 g
546 g
8. For a hydrogen atom, which electronic transition would result in the absorption of a photon with
the highest frequency?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1s → 6d
2s → 4d
3s → 5p
5p → 2s
7f → 5d
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 3 of 20
9. Silver has a threshold frequency of 1040 THz, while gold has a threshold frequency of 1330 THz.
Lasers having a wavelength of 255 nm are shone on sheets of silver and gold in a photoelectric effect
experiment. Will any electrons be ejected from the samples?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Electrons will not be ejected from the silver or the gold sheets.
Electrons will be ejected from the gold sheet but not from the silver sheet.
Electrons will be ejected from the silver sheet but not from the gold sheet.
Electrons will be ejected from both the silver and the gold sheets, and the electrons ejected from
silver sheet will have more kinetic energy than the electrons ejected from the gold sheet.
e. Electrons will be ejected from both the silver and the gold sheets, and the electrons ejected from
gold sheet will have more kinetic energy than the electrons ejected from the silver sheet.
10. The first ionization energy of fluorine is 1.68×103 kJ mol–1. What is the maximum wavelength of
photons that can ionize a fluorine atom, in units of nm?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
71.2 nm
343 nm
616 nm
724 nm
978 nm
11. Determine the orbital label (e.g. 1s) that corresponds to each of the following two sets of quantum
numbers, and list them in order from lower to higher energy for a multielectron atom:
Set 1: n = 3, l = 2
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3p
3d
3d
5s
5p
<
<
<
<
<
Set 2: n = 5, l = 1
5s
5p
5s
3p
3d
12. How many different values of the magnetic quantum number ml are possible in the 4f subshell?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1
2
3
5
7
13. Which one of the following statements is false about the 2p and 3p atomic orbitals?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Both the 2p and the 3p have similar shapes.
Both the 2p and the 3p have the same number of nodes.
Both the 2p and the 3p have zero probability of finding an electron at the nucleus.
Both the 2p and the 3p are subshells that consist of three perpendicular p-orbitals.
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 4 of 12
14. Consider the average distances from the nucleus to the electrons in the 2p, 3d, and 4s atomic orbitals
of the Mn atom. Rank these from the shortest to the longest average distance from the Mn nucleus.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
2p
2p
3d
4s
4s
<
<
<
<
<
3d
4s
2p
2p
3d
<
<
<
<
<
4s
3d
4s
3d
2p
15. Which one of the following orbital diagrams represents the ground state electron configuration of a
sulfur atom?
1s
2s
2p
3s
3p
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
16. Which of the following is the ground state electron configuration for Cr3+?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
[Ar]
[Ar] 3d3
[Ar] 4s1 3d2
[Ar] 4s2 3d1
[Ar] 4s2 3d6
17. Select the answer that provides the best words or phrases for (i), (ii), and (iii) that make the
following statement true:
An anion has a
(i)
atomic radius than its corresponding neutral atom. This is due to
___(ii)___ shielding of the valence electrons of the anion, resulting in ___(iii)___ effective
nuclear charge experienced by the valence electrons of the anion.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
(i)
smaller
smaller
larger
larger
larger
(ii)
less
more
less
more
more
(iii)
smaller
larger
smaller
larger
smaller
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 5 of 20
18. List the following in order of increasing atomic radius: Br, K, Rb
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Br < K < Rb
Br < Rb < K
K < Rb < Br
Rb < Br < K
Rb < K < Br
19. Which one of the following reactions represents the first ionization energy of bromine?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Br(l) → Br(g)
Br(l) → Br+(l) + e–
Br–(g) → Br(g) + e–
Br+(g) → Br2+(g) + e–
Br(g) → Br+(g) + e–
20. Which one of the following third period elements has the highest third ionization energy (IE3)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Mg
Al
Si
P
S
21. Which one of the following statements is true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
None of the noble gas elements can form stable compounds.
Sodium metal and chlorine gas react in a 1:1 ratio to produce solid sodium chloride.
Like hydrogen, the halogens atoms can only form a single bond to other atoms in molecules.
When sodium metal reacts with water, aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas are produced.
An alkaline earth metal will react more vigorously with water than the alkali metal in the same
period.
22. Consider elements X and Y:
• Element X has the highest (most exothermic) first electron affinity in its period; the ground state
electron configuration of its most common ion is: [Kr] 5s2 4d10 5p6
• Element Y is the second largest atomic radius in its period; its valence electrons are in orbital(s)
that have n = 6.
What is the most stable compound formed when elements X and Y are combined?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
BaI2
CdBr2
SrBr2
SrTe
TeI2
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 6 of 12
23. List the following compounds in decreasing magnitude of lattice energy: BaO, CaO, SrO
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
BaO > CaO > SrO
BaO > SrO > CaO
CaO > SrO > BaO
CaO > BaO > SrO
SrO > BaO > CaO
24. Which one of the following compounds has the longest carbon-carbon bond length?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
HCCH
CH2CH2
CH3CH3
C6H6 (see bonding skeleton to the right)
All C–C bond lengths are the same
H
H
H
C
C
C
C
C
H
C
H
H
25. Use the bond energies provided below to estimate ΔrH° for the reaction below.
XeF2 + 2 F2 → XeF6
Bond
Xe – F
F–F
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
ΔH° = ?
Bond Energy
147 kJ mol–1
159 kJ mol–1
+376 kJ
+152 kJ
–270 kJ
–329 kJ
–617 kJ
26. List the following elements in order of increasing electronegativity: Al, Ba, O, F
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Al < O < Ba < F
Al < O < F < Ba
Al < F < Ba < O
Ba < Al < O < F
O < F < Ba < Al
27. Which of the following is the best Lewis structure for CH2Cl2?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 7 of 20
28. Which one of the following is not a valid Lewis structure for the given molecular species?
a.
SO32–
b.
HOBr
c.
POCl3
d.
ClO4–
Cl
S
O
O
Br
O
O
H
O
P
O
Cl
O
Cl
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
O
O
Cl
N
H
H
N
N
H
Bond length (pm)
147
128
116
O
O
O
29. Consider the best Lewis structure for the cation [C(NH2)3]+.
The bonding skeleton for this cation is provided to the right.
Which of the following is the best estimate of the three C–N
bond lengths in the “real-life” structure of [C(NH2)3]+ as
predicted by the Lewis model?
Bond
C–N
C=N
C≡N
e.
NO3–
H
C
N
H
H
All three C–N bond lengths are the same, and are approximately 147 pm.
All three C–N bond lengths are the same, and are approximately 128 pm.
All three C–N bond lengths are the same, and are approximately between 128 pm and 147 pm.
All three C–N bond lengths are the same, and are approximately between 116 pm and 128 pm.
Two C–N bond lengths are approximately 147 pm and the third C–N bond length is 128 pm.
30. One resonance structure for SCN– is shown below. What is the formal charge on each atom?
a
b
c
d
e
S
0
0
–1
–1
+1
C
0
0
–1
+1
0
N
0
–1
+1
–1
–2
S
C
N
31. Determine the molecular geometry for the anion IF4–. I is the only central atom.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Seesaw
Square planar
Square pyramidal
Tetrahedral
Trigonal planar
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 8 of 12
32. Which of the following three molecules is(are) polar: GaF3, GeF2, AsF3
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Only AsF3 is polar
AsF3 and GaF3 are polar
GeF2 and AsF3 are polar
GaF3 and GeF2 are polar
All of GaF3, GeF2, and AsF3 are polar
33. The molecular structure of ibuprofen is provided below. What is the hybridization of the four atoms
that are labelled in the molecular structure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
C1
sp2
sp3
sp2
sp3
sp
C2
sp3
sp2
sp
sp2
sp2
O3
sp3
sp
sp3
sp2
sp2
C4
sp2
sp2
sp3
sp2
sp
O3
C2
C1
CH3
H
C
HC
CH3
C
CH
H 3C
C
H2
CH
OH
C
C
CH
O
C4
C
H
34. Determine the best Lewis structure for CH2NOH. What are the ideal (VSEPR) values of the three
bond angles listed below:
H–C–N
a. 109.5°
b. 109.5°
c. 120°
d. 120°
e. 120°
C–N–O
120°
180°
109.5°
120°
120°
N–O–H
120°
180°
180°
120°
109.5°
35. Draw the Lewis structure for the CH2CHCCH. How many sigma and pi bonds does it contain?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
5 sigma, 2 pi
5 sigma, 5 pi
6 sigma, 3 pi
7 sigma, 3 pi
8 sigma, 2 pi
36. Consider the three molecular species CF, CF–, and CF+. According
to Molecular Orbital (MO) theory and using the MO diagram to the
right, which of the three species has the longest bond and what is its
magnetic property?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
+
CF has the longest bond and is diamagnetic.
CF+ has the longest bond and is paramagnetic.
CF has the longest bond and is paramagnetic.
CF– has the longest bond and is diamagnetic.
CF– has the longest bond and is paramagnetic.
E
σ2p*
——
π2p* —— ——
σ2p
——
π2p —— ——
σ2s*
——
σ2s
——
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 9 of 20
37. How many π molecular orbitals (bonding and antibonding) are there in the retinol (pictured below)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
5
6
9
10
12
38. Consider the following reactions at dynamic equilibrium in sealed containers. For which reaction
will changing the volume of the container make no change to the equilibrium concentrations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
4 NH3(g) + 3 O2(g) ⇌ 2 N2(g) + 6 H2O(g)
SO3(g) + NO(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + NO2(g)
2 N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 N2O(g)
2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g)
PCl3(g) + ½ O2(g) ⇌ PCl3O(g)
39. Which one of the following statements is false:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
An equilibrium is established when exactly half of the reactants react to form products.
A change in temperature will change the value of the equilibrium constant for a reaction.
A chemical reaction that has an equilibrium constant that equals 1×1015 is product-favoured.
A chemical reaction that has an equilibrium constant that equals 1×10–10 is reactant-favoured.
An equilibrium is established when the rate of the reverse reaction equals the rate of the forward
reaction.
40. Consider the following reaction and its equilibrium constant at 350°C:
4 CuO(s) + CH4(g) ⇌ 4 Cu(s) + CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g)
K = 675
A 1.00 L sealed container at 350°C contains 20.0 g of solid CuO, 5.45 bar of CH4 gas, 0.10 g of
solid Cu, 16.6 bar of CO2 gas, and 32.2 bar of H2O gas. Which of the following statements is true
concerning this system?
a. The system is at dynamic equilibrium.
b. The equilibrium constant will increase.
c. The equilibrium constant will decrease.
d. The reaction will shift in the direction of products until dynamic equilibrium is established.
e. The reaction will shift in the direction of reactants until dynamic equilibrium is established.
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 10 of 12
41. When 0.10 mole of methylamine is dissolved in 500. mL of water, the following equilibrium is
established:
H2O(l) + CH3NH2(aq) ⇋ CH3NH3+(aq) + OH−(aq)
K=?
At equilibrium, the hydroxide ion (OH−) concentration is found to be 8.6×10–3 mol L–1. What is the
value of the thermodynamic equilibrium constant K for this reaction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1.7×10–5
1.1×10–4
2.8×10–4
3.9×10–4
2.4×10–3
42. Determine the value of the thermodynamic equilibrium constant K at 298 K for the following reaction:
2 NO(g) ⇌ N2(g) + O2(g)
K = ? at 298 K
using the following data:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
NO(g) + ½ Br2 ⇌ NOBr(g)
N2(g) + O2(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2 NOBr(g)
K = 1.41 at 298 K
K = 9.52×10–31 at 298 K
8.44×10–31
6.35×10–30
2.09×1030
1.39×1031
4.46×1061
43. Nitrous acid, HNO2 has the following equilibrium in aqueous solution:
HNO2(aq) + H2O(l) ⇋ NO2– (aq) + H3O+(aq)
K = 7.2×10–4 at 25°C
If nitrous acid is added to enough water to form a solution with an initial concentration of
0.65 mol L–1 HNO2 at 25°C, what is the concentration of the hydronium cation, H3O+ when
the system reaches dynamic equilibrium?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
0.0083 mol L–1
0.022 mol L–1
0.066 mol L–1
0.094 mol L–1
0.11 mol L–1
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 11 of 20
44. The disproportionation of carbon monoxide in high temperature industrial processes forms graphite
soot that irreversibly damage catalysts.
2 CO(g) ⇋ CO2(s) + C(s, graphite)
K = 61 at 1000°C, ΔH° = –172.5 kJ
Consider the above equilibrium established in a sealed industrial reaction vessel at 1000°C. What
will happen when the temperature is raised to 1200°C?
a. The equilibrium constant will decrease, reducing the amount of graphite soot.
b. The equilibrium constant will increase, increasing the amount of graphite soot.
c. The equilibrium constant will remain unchanged, and the reaction will shift to the left reducing
the amount of graphite soot.
d. The equilibrium constant will remain unchanged, and the reaction will shift to the right
increasing the amount of graphite soot.
e. No change in the amount of graphite soot will be observed since graphite will not appear in the
equilibrium expression.
45. Consider the following equilibrium:
C2H4(g) + Cl2(g) ⇋ C2H4Cl2(g)
Ethylene (C2H4) and chlorine are added to a sealed container and the system is allowed to reach
equilibrium at 25°C. What change(s) would you make to the system to maximize the amount of the
product 1,2-dichloroethane (C2H4Cl2) formed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Increase the pressure inside the container by adding argon gas to the container.
Increase the pressure inside the container by decreasing the volume of the container.
Increase the pressure inside the container by adding more chlorine gas to the container.
Both b and c
All of a, b, and c
CHEM 1100 Final Exam from Fall 2022
Modified for Fall 2023 curriculum
Page 12 of 12
Answer Key:
1. E
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. E
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. A
11. B
12. E
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. E
18. A
19. E
20. A
21. D
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. D
27. B
28. E
29. C
30. B
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. E
35. D
36. E
37. D
38. B
39. A
40. E
41. D
42. C
43. B
44. A
45. D