English
(CMD303021230070)
CMD303021230070
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2023-2024)
Test Pattern
NEET (UG)
MAJOR
20-01-2024
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER & ENTHUSIAST
Test Booklet Code
M9
Important Instructions :
This Booklet contains 24 pages.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
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1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination
Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :
Form Number
: in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature :
Invigilator's Signature :
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024
2
English
Topic : FULL SYLLABUS
SECTION-A ( PHYSICS )
1.
5.
Three charges Q,(+q) and (+q) are placed at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ℓ as
shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic
energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal to :-
(1)
(
−
q
)
2
6.
(2) ( – q)
(1) 500 V
(2) 400 V
(3) 350V
(4) 200 V
Current I is flowing in infinitely long wire.
Which of the following graphs represents the
variation of B w.r.t. axial distance r from the axis
of wire :-
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(3) (+ q)
A capacitor of 20 μ F is charged to 500 volt and
a capacitor 10 μ F is charged to 200 volt and
connected. Then after connecting both of them,
the common potential for each will be : –
(4) Zero
2.
If an insulated non conducting sphere of radius R
has charge density ρ , the electric field at a
distance r from the centre of sphere (r < R) will :(1) ρ R
(2)
3∈0
ρr
∈0
ρr
(3)
3∈0
(4)
3.
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
∈0
If heat produced in 4 Ω is H cal/sec. then in 6 Ω
it is : – (in cal/sec.)
(1)
4.
3ρR
(1)
3H
2
2H
3
9H
4
4H
9
A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ω is to be
converted into an ammeter of range 1A. If a
current of 1 mA produces full scale deflection,
the shunt required for the purpose is :-
7.
The figure illustrate how B, the flux density
inside a sample of unmagnetised ferromagnetic
material varies with B0, the magnetic flux
density in which the sample is kept. For the
sample to be suitable for making a permanent
magnet :-
(1) OQ should be large, OR should be small
(2) OQ and OR should both be large
(1) 0.01 Ω
(2) 0.05 Ω
(3) OQ should be small and OR should be
large
(3) 0.02 Ω
(4) 0.04 Ω
(4) OQ and OR should both be small
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8.
A rod AB moves with a uniform velocity v in a
uniform magnetic field as shown in figure then :-
13.
Match the following and select the correct
alternatives given below :
unit of magnetic
(p)
(u) M1L1 T – 2 A – 2
induction (B)
(q) Dimensions of B (v) M1L0T – 2 A – 1
Newton/Amp of
μ0
(r) unit
(x) meter
(permiability)
(s) dimensions of μ 0 (y) Newton/(Amp)2
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The rod becomes electrically charged.
The end A becomes positively charged.
The end B becomes positively charged.
The rod becomes hot because of joule
heating.
In the circuit shown below, what will be the
reading of the voltmeter and ammeter :(1) 200 V, 1 A
of
(z) M0L2T0 A1
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dimensions
(t) magnetic
moment
9.
(2) p→x, q→u, r→y, s→z, t→v
(2) 800 V, 2 A
(3) p→x, q→v, r→y, s→u, t→z
(3) 100 V, 2 A
(4) p→y, q→z, r→x, s→u, t→v
(4) 220 V, 2.2 A
10.
(1) p→y, q→v, r→x, s→z, t→u
14.
In the following sequences, decreasing order of
wavelength of EM radiations is :(1) Infra-red waves, Radio waves, X-rays,
Visible light
(2) Radio waves, Infra-red waves, Visible light
, X-rays
(1) 3 : 1
15.
(3) Radio waves, Visible light, Infra-red
waves, X-rays
(4) X-rays, Visible light, Infra-red waves,
Radio waves
11.
If the electric field associated with a radiation of
frequency 10 MHz is E = 10 sin(kx – ω t) mV ,
m
then its total energy density is _____Jm – 3.
[ ε 0 = 8.85 × 10 – 12 C2N – 1m – 2]
(1) 4.425 × 10 – 16
(2) 6.26 × 10 – 14
(3) 8.85 × 10 – 16
12.
(4) 8.85 × 10 – 14
If refractive index of red, violet and yellow lights
are 1.42, 1.62 and 1.50 respectively for a
medium, its dispersive power will be :(1) 0.4
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(2) 0.3
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.1
Young's double slit experiment the amplitude of
two sources are 3a and a respectively. The ratio
of intensities of bright and dark fringe will be :(2) 9 : 1
(4) 4 : 1
A photoelectric effect supports quantum nature
of light because :
(A) there is a minimum frequency of light below
which no photoelectrons are emitted.
(B) the maximum kinetic energy of photo
electrons depends only on the frequency of light
and not on its intensity
(C) Above thresold frequency even when the
metal surface is faintly illuminated, the
photoelectrons leave the surface immediately
(D) electric charge of photoelectrons is
quantized
In the above true statement is :(1) A,B,C (2) A,B
16.
(3) 2 : 1
(3) A
(4) All
The kinetic energy of an electron is 5 eV.
Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength associated
with it (h = 6.6 × 10 – 34 Js, me = 9.1 × 10 – 31 kg) :(1) 5.47 Å
(2) 10.9 Å
(3) 2.7 Å
(4) 12.01 Å
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17.
(1)
r=
(3)
r=
e2
8 π ∈ 0 mr2
(2)
r=
(4)
r=
22.
Assertion (A) :- Two similarly charged bodies
may attract each other.
Reason (R) :- When charge on one body (Q) is
much greater than that on another (q) and they
are close enough to each other, then force of
attraction between Q and induced charges
exceeds the force of repulsion between Q and q.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
e2
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
8 π ∈ 0r
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18.
Pick out the unmatched pair from the following :(1) Moderator – Heavy water
(2) Nuclear fuel – 92U235
(3) Pressurized water reactor – water as the
heat exchange system
(4) Safety rods – Carbon
In the Bohr model of H-atom, if v is velocity of
electron and r is its orbital radius, then in case of
a hydrogen atom is :-
English
19.
e2
4 π ∈ 0 mv2
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
e2
4 π ∈ 0v
The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs
A and B and an output C. The voltage wave
forms of A, B and C are as given, then logic
circuit will be equivalent to :-
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
23.
24.
20.
21.
(1) AND gate
(2) NAND gate
(3) OR gate
(4) NOR gate
In the given circuit, current through the zener diode is :(1) 30 mA
(2) 24 mA
(3) 36 mA
(4) 6mA
Assertion (A) :- Photodiode always works under
reverse bias condition.
Reason (R) :- It is easier to detect current
changes in reverse bias.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
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If number of divisions on circular scale is 50 in a
screw gauge and pitch of screw is 1 mm then
find least count of screw gauge.
(1) 0.01 mm
(2) 0.002 mm
(3) 0.2 mm
(4) 0.02 mm
A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity
at half of the maximum height is 10m/s. The
maximum height attained by it is (g=10 ms – 2) : –
(1) 8m
(2) 20m
(3) 10m
(4) 16m
25.
The stream of a river is flowing with a speed of 2
km/h. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 4
km/h. What should be the direction of the
swimmer with respect to the river flow to cross
the river perpendicular to river flow ?
(1) 60° (2) 150° (3) 90° (4) 120°
26.
A flywheel of moment of inertia 3 × 10 – 2 kg m2
is rotating with angular velocity of 10 rad/sec.
The torque (constant) required to bring it rest in
2 sec will be
(1) 0.6 N m
(2) 0.3 N m
(3) 0.15 N m
27.
(4) 0.8 N m
When a disc is rolling on level surface the
percentage of its total kinetic energy which is
translational, is nearly
(1) 50%
(2) 33%
(3) 67%
(4) 25%
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28.
Energy required to shift a body of mass m from an
orbit of radius 2R to 3R is (mass of planet is M)
(1)
(3)
29.
(2)
(4)
GMm
3R
GMm
6R
The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.1 × 108 N/m2.
To what depth a rubber ball be taken in a lake so
that its volume is decreased by 0.1%?
(1) 25m (2) 91m (3) 200 m (4) 500 m
A capillary glass tube records a rise of 20 cm
when dipped in water. When the area of crosssection of the tube is reduced to half of the
former value, water will rise to a height of:-
A particle is executing S.H.M. its potential
energy v/s displacement graph is given by
The value of restoring force constant is :(1) 12 N/m
(2) 24 N/m
(3) 6 N /m
(4) 48 N/m
35.
Two pipes are each 50 cm in length. One of them
is closed at one end while the other is open at
both ends. The speed of sound in air is 340 m s – 1.
The frequency at which both the pipes can
resonate is :(1) 680 Hz
(2) 510 Hz
(3) 85 Hz
(4) None of these
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30.
GMm
12R
GMm
8R
34.
(1)
10√2 cm
(3) 20 cm
31.
32.
33.
(2) 10 cm
(4)
20√2 cm
Length v/s temperature graph of A and B is given
below. Find the relation between α A & α B.
(1) α A > α B
(2) α A = α B
(3) α A < α B
(4) None
Which of the following material is most suitable
for making cooking utensil?
(1) Low conductivity and low specific heat
(2) High conductivity and low specific heat
(3) High conductivity and high specific heat
(4) Low conductivity and high specific heat
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have
r.m.s. velocity of 200 m/s at 127°C and 1.0 × 105
N/m2 pressure. When the temperature and
pressure of the gas are respectively, 227°C and
0.05 × 105 N/m2, the r.m.s. velocity of its
molecules is :
(1)
100√2 ms – 1
(2)
(3)
100√2
3
(4)
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ms – 1
400
√
3
ms – 1
100√5 ms
–1
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
36.
In the above diagram, balance length for E' is ℓ 0.
If cross sectional area of wire AB is doubled
then what will be new balancing length ?
37.
(1) 1.5 ℓ 0 (2) 2 ℓ 0 (3) 2.5 ℓ 0 (4) 0.5 ℓ 0
In a step up transformer, if ratio of turns of
primary to secondary is 1 : 10 and primary
voltage is 230 V. If the load current is 2A, then
the current in primary is :(1) 20 A (2) 10 A (3) 2 A
38.
(4) 1 A
An object 1 cm tall is placed at 4 cm infront of a
mirror, In order to produce an upright image of 3
cm height one needs a :(1) Convex mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm
(2) Concave mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm
(3) Concave mirror of radius of curvature 4 cm
(4) Plane mirror of height 12 cm
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39.
A radioactive sample decays by 63% of its initial
value in 10s. It would have decayed by 50% of
its initial value in :(1) 7s
(3) 0.7s
43.
(4) 1.4s
The current gain for a common emitter transister
is 69. If the emitter current is 7 mA then base
current will be
(1) 0.1 mA
(2) 1 mA
(3) 0.2 mA
(4) 2 mA
A charge particle goes undeflected in a region
containing electric and magnetic field. It can be
possible if :(a)
(b) E→ is not parallel to B→
(c)
but E→ is not parallel to B→
(d)
but is not parallel to E→
(1) only a (2) only b (3) c, d
44.
(4) a, b
A rope of length L is pulled by a constant force
F. What is the tension in the rope at a distance x
from the end where the force is applied :-
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40.
(2) 14s
English
41.
Assertion (A) :- When constant current is
passing through a conductor of variable area of
cross section, electric field inside conductor is
inversely proportional to cross sectional area.
Reason (R) :- Microscopic form of Ohm's law is
→ = ρ→J , where E
→ stands for electric field, ρ
E
stands for ressistivity, and →J stands for current
density.
45.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
42.
For real object match the corresponding entries
of column-1 with column-2 (where m is the
magnification produced by the mirror) :Column-1
Column-2
(A) m = – 4 a Convex mirror
(1)
FL
x
(3)
FL
L−x
(2)
F (L − x)
(4)
Fx
L
L
For a body moving in a circular path of radius R = 1m
in anticlockwise direction with constant speed V.
ColumnColumn-I
II
Angle
between
instantaneous velocity
(A)
(P) Non-zero
and
instantaneous
acceleration
Total acceleration of the
(B)
(Q) Zero
body
Tangencial acceleration of
(C)
(R) π/2
the body
(S) π/3
(1) A-a and c, B-a and d, C-a and b, D-c and d
(1) A → P, R, B → P, C → Q
(2) A → P, B → Q, C → R
(3) A → Q, B → R, C → P
(4) A → P, R, B → Q, C → P
A particle of mass m travelling along x-axis with
speed v0 shoots out 1/3rd of its mass with a speed
2v0 along y-axis. The velocity of remaining
piece is:-
(2) A-a and d, B-b and c, C-b and d, D-b and d
(1)
3
v0 ( i^ − j^)
2
(2)
v0 ^ ^
(3i − j )
2
(3)
1^
^
v0 ( i − 3j )
2
(4)
v0 ^
^
(i + 3j )
2
(B) m = – 1/4 b Concave Mirror
(C) m = + 3 c Real image
(D) m = +1/3 d Virtual image
(3) A-c and d, B-b and d, C-b and c, D-a and d
(4) A-b and c, B-b and c, C-b and d, D-a and d
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47.
(1) 100 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
(4)
49.
10√10 m/s
Time taken by a 836 W heater to heat one liter of
water from 10°C to 40°C is :
50.
One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at
temperature 'T0' expands slowly according to law
P = KV (K is constant). If final temperature is
2T0, then Heat supplied to gas is :
(1) 2RT0
(2)
(3) RT0
(4)
3
RT0
2
RT0
2
The position x(in m) of a particle of mass 1 kg
moving along x-axis varies with time t(in sec) as
t = x + 3 under the action of a force. The work
done by the force from t = 1 to t = 5 sec. :√
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48.
A manometer connected to a closed tap reads 3.5
× 105 newton/metre2. When the valve is opened,
the reading of manometer falls to 3.0 × 105
newton per metre2, then velocity of flow of
water is :
(1) 50 s
(2) 100 s
(3) 150 s
(4) 200 s
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(1) zero
(2) 4J
(3) 6J
(4) 10J
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS
SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY )
51.
Which of the following have one lone pair on the
central atom ?
(I) NH3
(II) SF4
(III) XeOF4
(IV) XeF6
58.
(2) I, II, IV
Which of following does not obey EAN rule :(1) [Fe(CO)5]
(2) [V(CO)6]
(3) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(4) [Mn2(CO)10]
Correct match is :
Complexes
No. of unpaired electron
–
4
A [CrF6]
P
5
B [MnF6] – 4
Q
2
C [Cr(CN)6] – 4 R
1
–4
D [Mn(CN)6] S
4
(1) (A – S), (B – Q), (C – P), (D – R)
(2) (A – P), (B – R), (C – Q), (D – S)
(3) (A – S), (B – P), (C – Q), (D – R)
(4) (A – R), (B – S), (C – Q), (D – P)
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(1) I, II
57.
(3) I, IV
52.
(4) I, II,III, IV
How many p π – p π and p π – d π bond present in
SO3(s):
(1) p π – p π = 5, p π – d π = 2
(2) p π – p π = 10, p π – d π = 2
59.
(3) p π – p π = 0, p π – d π = 6
53.
(4) p π – p π = 12, p π – d π = 2
If ionisation energy of an element is as follows :
X → X+ + 1e – ; 1E1 = x kJ/mol
X+ → X2+ + 1e – ; 1E2 = 1.5 x kJ/mol
X2+ → X3+ + 1e – ; IE3 = 15x kJ/mol
This element may have the electronic
configuration :(1)
ns1
2
(3) ns np
54.
55.
(2)
4
2
(4) ns np
(1) H2Te
(2) H2S
(3) H2Se
(4) H2O
(2) HOI
(3) HOIO2
(4) HOIO3
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(4) MnO
Which of the following give Bad smell when
treated with CHCl3 / KOH?
(4)
61.
(4) 4
Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to
give :(1) HI
(3) Mn2O3
(3)
3
(3) zero
(2) MnO2
(2) CH3 – NH – CH3
Number of S-O-S bond in H2S2O6 :(2) 2
(1) MnO42 –
(1)
ns2
Which of following is most Acidic in aqueous
solution :-
(1) 1
56.
60.
In weakly alkaline solution, MnO4 – changes to –
62.
Glucose and fructose are ......................... of each
other
(1) homologus
(2) functional group isomers
(3) mirror image isomers
(4) nonisomers
Which of the following compound will not
undergo Friedel craft's Reaction :(1) Toluene
(2) Cumene
(3) Xylene
(4) Nitro benzene
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68.
Br2
63.
Sn/HCl
NaNO2 /HCl
−−→ A−−−−−→ B
−−−−−−−−→ C
Fe
H2 O/H3 P O2
273−278 K
KMnO4 /OH −
−−−−−−−−→ D −−−−−+−−−−→ E
E is :
How many compounds are formed upon the
oxidative ozonolysis of the following
compound :(1) 2
H
69.
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Alkyl iodides can be best prepared by :(1) Swart reaction
(2)
(1)
(2) Finkelestin reaction
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(3) Sand meyer's reaction
(4) 1 & 3 both
(3)
64.
The
(4)
IUPAC
70.
name
CH3 CH2 OH
of
HCHO
B −−−−→ C
is :-
65.
66.
(1) 1,5 – hexanedione
(2) 2,6 – hexanedione
(3) 5 – formyl pentan – 2 – one
(4) 5 – oxohexanal
Which of the following is homocyclic compound?
(1) Phenol
(2) Thiophene
(3) Furan
(4) Pyridine
Find the strongest acid among the following
compounds.
Mg
H2 O
Ether
−−→ D.
71.
(1) n-propyl alcohol
(2) propanal
(3) butanal
(4) n-butyl alcohol
In the given reaction -
(1) LiAlH4
(2) NaBH4
(3)
(4) All
How many faradays are required to reduce 0.1
mole of MnO−4 to Mn+2 ?
(2) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(1) 5F
(2) 2F
(3) CH3CH2COOH
(3) 0.5 F
(4) 7 F
(4)
67.
P +I2
−−−→ A −−−→
The compound 'D' is :
72.
(1)
In the following sequence of reactions,
73.
Tautomerism is not exhibited by :(1)
(2)
Electrophoresis is useful in determining which
property of colloidal solution.
(1) Viscosity
(2) Solubility
(3) Charge on colloidal particles.
(3)
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(4)
(4) Size of Colloidal particles.
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74.
In the dissociation reaction PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) +
Cl2(g) degree of dissociation of PCl5 will be
affected by –
English
78.
(1) Adding inert gas at constant volume.
(2) Adding inert gas at constant pressure.
(1) 15
(2) 21
(3) 18
(4) 6
The crystal with metal deficiency defect is-
(3) Increase of temperature.
(1) NaCl
(2) FeO
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) KCl
(4) ZnO
Assertion : For zero order reaction rate law is
same as law of mass action.
Reason : Zero order reactions can be elementary
reactions.
80.
A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen
in the ratio of 1 : 4 by weight. Therefore, the
ratio of their number of molecules is.
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75.
79.
The total number of spectral lines formed when
an electron jumps from n7 → n1 energy level.
(1) Assertion and reason are correct and reason
is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are correct and reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion.
81.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
76.
Select the correct match :
Salt
(A) NaCl
pH
May be > 7
(P)
or < 7
(Q) < 7
(R) 7
(B) NaCN
(C) NH4Cl
Salt of weak acid and
(D)
(S) > 7
weak base
(2) 1:8
(3) 7:32
(4) 3:16
The number of hydroxide ions in 1 cm3 of a
solution of pH = 13 is :
(1) 6.022 × 107
(2) 6.022 × 1022
(3) 6.022 × 1019
(4) 6.022 × 1016
Which of the following is strongest oxidising
agent?
(1) MnO4 – /Mn2+, E° = + 1.52 V
(2) Fe3+/Fe2+, E° = + 0.76 V
(3) BrO3 – /Br2, E° = + 0.15 V
(4) Cr2O72 – /Cr3+, E° = + 1.33 V
(1) A → R; B → Q; C → S; D → P
The vapour pressure of a diluted aqueous
solution of glucose is 750 mm of mercury at 373
K. The mole fraction of solute is:-
(2) A → P; B → Q; C → R; D → S
(1)
(3) A → R; B → S; C → Q; D → P
(3)
(4) A → P; B → S; C → Q; D → R
77.
82.
(1) 1:4
Real gases behaves like an ideal gas at
(1) Low temperature and low pressure
(2) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(4) High temperature and low pressure
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83.
84.
1
10
1
35
(2)
(4)
1
7.6
1
76
For the reaction : N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g); Δ H =
30 kJ mol – 1,
Δ S = 75 J K – 1 mol – 1. The temperature at which
above reaction is spontaneous?
(1) 400 K
(2) 300 K
(3) 150 K
(4) 425 K
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English
85.
In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible
when:-
90.
(1) Surroundings and system change into each
other
(2) There is no boundary between system and
surroundings
91.
(3) The surroundings are always in equllibrium
with the system
92.
Which of the following contain both polar & non
polar bonds
(1) NH3
(2) H2O2
(3) XeO3F2
(4) All
Caustic soda is absorbent for :(1) CO
(3) NH3
(4) N2O
Which is most reactive towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution reaction :(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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(4) The system changes into surroundings
spontaneously
(2) CO2
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )
86.
87.
Which of following is an example of super octet
molecule ?
(1) ClF3
(2) PCl5
(3) IF7
(4) All of the three
93.
(1)
Assertion (A) :- Graphite is used as anode but
not diamond.
Reason (R) :- Mobile electron are present in
graphite layer which helps in the electrical
conductivity.
(3)
(4) All of these
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
94.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
88.
89.
(2) [Co(H2O)6]+2
(3) [Ti(H2O)6]+3
(4) [Co(NH3)6]+3
Which one of the following ions is the most
stable in aqueous solution ?
(At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn=25)
(1) Mn3+ (2) Cr3+
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(3) V3+
(4) Ti3+
will show :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which of the following complex is paramagnetic,
inner orbital complex and coloured :(1) [Ni(NH3)6]+2
→
(2)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
Which of the following will not give ether as
product :-
95.
Geometrical isomerism
Optical isomerism
Both 1 and 2
Neither G.I. nor O.I.
C2H2
dil. H2 SO4
−
−−−−−→ A
1% HgSO
NaOH /CaO
−−−−−−−→ D
NaOH
B −−−−→ C
4
[D] is –
(1) CH4
(2) CH3-CH3
(3) C3H3
(4) C4H10
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Consider following table –
Column-I
(A) Best and latest technique for isolation,
purification and separation of organic
compounds
(B) In lassaigne's test for ‘N’
(C) In Lassaigne's test for ‘S’
(D) Aniline is purified from water by
(E) Glycerol is purified from spent lye
Column-II
(i) Chromatography
(ii) Vacuum distillation
(iii) Violet coloured complex is formed
(iv) Prussian blue coloured complex is formed
(v) Steam disstillation
The correct match is –
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (iv) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii)
(4) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
98.
HCP crystal is made of A ions and B ions are
arranged in 2/3rd of octahedral voids. The
simplest formula of compound is :(1) A4B6
(2) A6B4
(3) A2B3
(4) A3B2
99.
The standard enthalpy of combustion at 25°C of
hydrogen, cyclohexene (C6H10) and cyclohexane
(C6H12) are – 241, – 3800 and – 3920 kJ mol – 1
respectively. Calculate the standard enthalpy of
hydrogenation of cyclohexene.
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96.
English
97.
Enthalpy of neutralisation of CH3COOH by
NaOH is – 50.6 kJ/mol and the heat of
neutralisation of a strong acid with NaOH is –
55.9 kJ/mol. The value of Δ H for the ionisation
of CH3COOH is :
(1) – 121 kJ mol – 1
(2) 121 kJ mol – 1
(3) 131 kJ mol – 1
(4) – 131 kJ mol – 1
100. At 25°C the standard emf of cell having
reactions involving two electrons change is
found to be 0.295 V. The equilibrium constant of
the reaction is :
(1) 29.5 × 10 – 2
(2) 10
(1) 3.5 kJ / mol
(2) 4.6 kJ / mol
(3) 1010
(3) 5.3 kJ / mol
(4) 6.4 kJ / mol
(4) 29.5 × 1010
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English
Topic : FULL SYLLABUS
SECTION-A ( BOTANY )
(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Bryophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperm
110. In Gymnosperms, male gametophyte
(1) Is highly developed
(2) Has an independent life
(3) Is highly reduced and confined to only
limited no. of cells
(4) Is produced in megasporangiate cone
111. In Mangifera indica :(1) Mangifera represents the species
(2) indica represents the genus
(3) indica represents the Generic name
(4) indica represents the particular species of
Mangifera genus
112. Correct sequence stages of sexual reproduction
in Mucor and Rhizopus are :(1) Karyogamy → Plasmogamy →
Zygospore → Meiosis → Haploid spores
(2) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy →
Zygospore → Meiosis → Haploid spores
(3) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Meiosis
→ Zygospore → Haploid spores
(4) Zygospore → Plasmogamy →
Karyogamy → Meiosis → Haploid spores
113. Which of the following class of fungi is
commonly called as sac fungi?
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101. Choose the incorrect statement for microbodies
(1) It is single membrane bound
(2) Minute vesicles that contain enzymes
(3) It is absent in plants but present in animals
(4) Present in both plant and animal cells
102. In animal cells. How many of the following can
have ribosomes?
cytoplasm, centrosome, endoplasmic reticulum,
chloroplast, Golgi body, mitochondria.
(1) Five (2) Four (3) Three (4) Two
103. In a diploid cell before S-phase quantity of DNA
is 20 pico gram (pg) after meiosis I what will be
the quantity of DNA in each daughter cell ?
(1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg (3) 5 pg (4) 40 pg
109. Gametophyte and sporophyte phases are
independent in
104. In which stage of cell division condensation of
chromosome is completed and they can be
observed clearly under the microscope:
(1) Anaphase
(2) Telophase
(3) Prophase
(4) Metaphase
105. Floral formula of Mustard is (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
106. Sweet Potato store food in
(1) Tap Root
(2) Stem
(3) Adventitious root (4) Bud
107. In Calotropis and Guava which type of
phyllotaxy present (1) Alternate
(2) Opposite
(3) Whorled
(4) Spiral
108. Embryonic development in bryophytes take
place in
(1) Sporangium
(2) Antheridium
(3) Archegonium
(4) Capsule
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(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Ascomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes
114. Which of the following statement is incorrect (1) Auxins induces flowering in pineapple
(2) Gibberellins does not promotes bolting
(3) Auxins promote parthenocarpy in tomato
(4) Cytokinins overcome apical dominance
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115. Primary carboxylation in C3 and C4 plants occurs
respectively by the enzymes :(1) PEP carboxylase and RUBP carboxylase
(2) RUBP carboxylase oxygenase and PEP
carboxylase.
(3) RUBP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
(4) PEP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
116. Identify the A, B and C in given pathway :
English
119. A husband and wife have normal vision but
fathers of them were colour blind. Probability of
their first daughter to be colour blind is
(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 15%
(4) 0%
120. Which of the following r-RNA in bacteria is the
enzyme-ribozyme ?
(1) 5 S r-RNA
(2) 16 S r-RNA
(3) 28 S r-RNA
(4) 23 S r-RNA
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121. Match the column :A
B
(A) rRNA (i) Peptide bond formation
Codon
(B) tRNA (ii)
identification
(C) SnRNA (iii) Splicing
(D) mRNA (iv) Genetic information
(3) (A) 3 – PGAL; (B) PEPA; (C) Pyruvic acid
Option :
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) (A) DHAP; (B) 3 – PGAL; (C) Pyruvic acid
122. A + G = C + T is applicable to :-
(1) (A) 3 – PGAL; (B) DHAP; (C) Citric acid
(2) (A) 3 – PGA; (B) DHAP; (C) Pyruvic acid
117. Which of the following statements regarding
food chain is not true ?
(1) Animals like cockroaches and crows are
omnivores
(2) Primary consumers belong to the first
trophic level
(3) The detritus food chain begins with dead
organic matter
(4) Only 10% at the energy is transferred to
each trophic level
118. If in a pond there are 40 Lotus plants last year
and through reproduction 16 new plants are
added, taking the current population 56, the birth
rate will be :(1) 5.6
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(2) 0.4
(3) 0.5
(4) 1.6
(1) rRNA
(2) tRNA
(3) mRNA
(4) dsDNA
123. Assertion: In flowering plants, primary
endosperm nucleus is triploid.
Reason: When male gamete is fused with two
polar nuclei located in central cell then primary
endosperm nucleus is formed.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True &
Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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124. Identify the odd one w.r.t endosperm from the
category
(1) Rice
(2) Coconut
(3) Maize
(4) Orchid
125. A cell divides every minute. At this rate of
division it can fill a 100 ml of beaker in one
hour. How much time does it take to fill a 25 ml
beaker?
(2) 30 minutes
131. Rubisco enzyme in C4 plant is found in
(1) Mesophyll cell
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Peroxisome
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(1) 15 minutes
130. Extrinsic growth is the property of :(1) Living organisms
(2) Non-living objects
(3) Mountains
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) 58 minutes
(4) 29 minutes
126. It is significant to note that in the 24hour average
duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell division
proper lasts for only about
(4) Bundle Sheath cell
132. Factors related to increase in population density
are :-
(1) four hours
(2) 90 minutes
(1) Natality & emigration
(3) an hour
(4) 10 hours
(2) Natality & mortality
127. Select the wrong pair :
(1) Succinate dehydrogenase – Inner membrane
of mitochondria
(2) F0 – F1 complex – oxysome
(3) Hexokinase-matrix of mitochondria
(4) Pyruvic dehydrogenase complex-link reaction
128. Electron transport system occurs in :-
(1) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(2) Cristae of mitochondria
(3) Matrix of mitochondria
(4) Oxysomes
129. Which of the following is not true for
dinoflagellates?
(1) They are mostly marine
(2) They are photosynthetic
(3) They have protein rich layer called pellicle
(4) They have two flagella, one lies
longitudinally and the other transversely.
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(3) Natality & immigration
(4) Emigration & predation
133. Which of the following is not a favourable factor
for increasing the rate of decomposition ?
(1) Oxygen richness of soil.
(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture
134. Optional or non-obligatory relationship between
two organism in which both are benefited is
called ?
(1) Proto cooperation (2) Amensalism
(3) Commensalism
(4) Mutualism
135. Which of the following character can not
represent in pedigree chart :(1) Mendelian character
(2) X – linked trait
(3) Y – linked trait
(4) Incomplete dominance
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SECTION-B ( BOTANY )
136. Select erroneous (wrong) pair ?
(1) Asymmetric flower - Canna
(2) Epipetalous Stamens - Brinjal
(3) Valvate aestivation in petals - Calotropis
(4) Free central placentation - Marigold
140. Read the following statements :
(i) One organism is benefitted and other
unaffected in mutualism.
(ii) Both partners are benefitted in commensalism.
(iii) One organism kills and feeds on another in
predation.
(iv) Both partners are benefitted in symbiosis.
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
141. The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in
South America has the greatest biodiversity on
earth. Read the following carefully in terms of
rain forest :
(A) At least two million insects species waiting
to be discovered.
(B) It is home for more than 40000 species of
plants
(C) More than 125000 invertebrates found.
(D) 378 species of amphibians are present.
(E) 427 species of reptiles are present.
How many of the above statements are not
correct?
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137. Match the column-I with column-II & select the
correct option :Column-I
Column-II
(a) Psilopsida i Dryopteris
(b) Pteropsida ii. Lycopodium
(c) Sphenopsida iii. Psilotum
(d) Lycopsida iv. Equisetum
English
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
138. Identify the following pathway and its product :
Product/products is/are :
(1) Lactic Acid
(2) Ethanol only
(3) Lactic acid & CO2 (4) Ethanol & CO2
139. Which of the following statements are correct :(a) Enzyme speed up the reaction by reducing
activation energy without affecting the free
energy change for reaction.
(b) Enzyme speed up the reaction by increasing
activation energy without affecting the free
energy change for reaction.
(c) Enzyme slow down the reaction by reducing
activation energy without affecting the free
energy change for reaction.
(d) Substrate speed the reaction by reducing
activation energy without affecting the free
energy change ( Δ G) for reaction.
(1) a only
(2) c only
(3) b & c both
(4) b & d both
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(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Only one
142. Read the following statements carefully and find
out how many of them belong to the feature of a
stable community ?
(A) Should not show much year to year
variations in productivity.
(B) Must be either resistant 'or' resilient to
occasional disturbances.
(C) Should be resistant to invasions by alien
species.
(D) Should be have less number of species.
Choose the correct option :
(1) A, B and C
(2) Only C and D
(3) Only B and D
(4) Only A
143. A child with blood group genotype IAIB is born
of a woman with genotype IBIB the father of
child could not be a man of genotype.
(1) IAIA
(2) IBIB
(3) IAIB
(4) IAIO
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147. Identify the type of given karyotype diagram:-
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144. The punnet square shown below represents the
pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross when
round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds
and yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y) seeds.
RY Ry rY ry
RY F J N R
Ry G K O S
rY H L P T
ry I M Q U
Find out the odd one.
(1) G
(2) H
(3) L
(4) U
145. Statement-I : The length of DNA is usually
defined as number of nucleotides present on it.
Statement-II : Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 106 bp.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
146. Stages of a microspore maturing into a pollen
grain are given in the diagrams. Identify labelled
cells [A] and [B] of given diagram :-
(1) Turner's Syndrome
(2) Down's Syndrome
(3) Edward's Syndrome
(4) Klinefelter's Syndrome
148. Ingenhousz in a elegent experiment with an
aquatic plant showed that in bright sunlight,
small bubbles were formed around the green
parts while in the dark they did not, later be
identified these bubbles to be of :(1) CO2
(2) NO2
(3) O2
(4) NH3
149. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was
proposed by ............ using a ........... :(1) Englemann - green algae
(2) Van niel - bacteria
(3) Robert bill - Stellaria media
(4) Blackman - Chlorella
150. Which of the following structure is present in
dicot stem on the inner side of the endodermis
and above the phloem in the form of semi-lunar
patches of sclerenchyma ?
(1) Epidermis
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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[A] Generative cell, [B] Vegetative cell
[A] Generative cell, [B] Tube cell
[A] Vegetative cell, [B] Tube cell
[A] Vegetative cell, [B] Generative cell
(2) Pericycle
(3) Endodermis
(4) Hypodermis
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS
SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY )
151. In which type of epithelium, nuclei are located at
the base of cells ?
(1) Squamous
(2) Cuboidal
(3) Columnar
(4) Ciliated cuboidal
152. Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in
the body of complex animals are _________
(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
(3) a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv
(4) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
158. In male frog the ureters act as urinogenital duct
which opens into ?
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(1) Epithelium tissue (2) Muscular tissue
157. Match the column A and column B & choose the
correct option :
Column A
Column B
a Ommatidia
i 6-8
Heart chambers
b
ii 100-150
of cockroach
c Malpighian tubules iii 13
d Hepatic caeca
iv 2000 in each eye
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Connective tissue
153. On the basis of following diagrams of coelom
animals are :-
(1) Coelomate and Acoelomate respectively
(2) Acoelomate and Pseudocoelomate respectively
(3) Coelomate and Pseudocoelomate respectively
(4) Acoelomate and coelomate respectively
154. Which of the following statement is incorrect
about phylum Echinodermata ?
(1) They have endoskeleton of calcareous oscicles.
(2) All are marine.
(3) They are triploblastic and acoelomates.
(4) Mouth is present on the ventral side.
155. In Hemichordates :(1) Fertilization is external, Development is
indirect.
(2) Fertilization is internal, Development is
indirect.
(1) Cloaca aperture
(2) Cloaca
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) Urethra
159. Choose incorrect option :
(1) Amphibia have incomplete double
circulation
(2) Human heart present in between two lungs
& slightly tilted to the left
(3) In fishes heart pumps out mixed blood
(4) Human heart is protected by double layered
pericardium
160. Nodal system of heart consists of :
(1) A.V. node
(2) Bundle of HIS
(3) S.A. node
(4) All of the above
161. Any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity
will be reflected in the :
(3) Fertilization is external, Development is direct.
(1) Oral cavity
(2) Pulmonary cavity
(4) Fertilization is internal, Development is direct.
(3) Abdomen
(4) Larynx
156. Which of the following is not a cartilaginous fish ?
162. Marasmus is caused by deficiency of
(1) Pristis
(2) Carcharodon
(1) Energy
(2) Protein
(3) Clarias
(4) Trygon
(3) Vitamins
(4) Both 1 and 2
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163. Digestion is accomplished by :(1) Mechanical and biochemical process
(2) Chemical process only
(3) Mechanical process only
(4) Muscular Process only
164. Which hormone causes pupillary dilation,
piloerection and sweating ?
(1) Thyroxine
(2) Growth hormone
(3) Insulin
(4) Adrenaline
(1) Brain and spinal cord
(2) Cerebrum and cerebellum
(3) Forebrain and hindbrain
(4) medulla and spinal cord
170. Which of the following statement is true for
ampulla ?
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165. Thymus gland secretes __a___ hormone called
___b____.
(1) a - steroid, b - thymosine
(2) a - peptide, b - tyrosine
(3) a - steroid, b - tyrosine
(4) a - peptide, b - thymosine
166. Statement - I : Towards inner convex surface of
kidney a notch like structure hilum is present.
Statement - II : Renal artery enter into kidney
through hilum.
(1) Statement I and II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.
167. A = Amphioxus has kidney for excretion.
R = Kidney is a complex excretory organ
169. Brain stem which comprises midbrain, pons and
medulla oblongata, forms the connection
between _____.
(1) Both A and R are True and R explains A
(2) A is True but R is false
(1) It is part of cochlea.
(2) Here impulses are analysed and the sound
is recognised
(3) In it movements of the basilar membrane
bends the hair cells
(4) It contains a projecting ridge called crista
ampullaris
171. Which of the following is not correct for red
muscle fibres ?
(1) Myoglobin content is very high
(2) Amount of mitochondria is very high
(3) The have very less endoplasmic reticulum
(4) They are also called anaerobic muscle fibre
172. Each rib is thin ___A____ bone connected
dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally
____B_____ Here A and B are :-
(3) A is false but R is true
(1) A - Flat, B - Sternum
(4) Both A and R true but R does not explains
A.
(2) A - Cartilagenous, B - Vertebral column
168. Reflex action occurs :
(1) In response to a peripheral nervous stimulation
(2) Requires the involvement of a part of the
CNS
(3) Voluntarily
(4) Both 1 and 2
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(3) A - Sternum, B - Vertebral column
(4) A - Cervical, B - Flat
173. Sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain,
constipation, loss of appetite are some of the
symptoms found in which disease ?
(1) Typhoid
(2) Penumonia
(3) Malaria
(4) Amoebiasis
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181. Which of following methods are not considered
as direct gene transfer.
(A) Micro injection
(B) Biolistic
(C) Chemical mediated (PEG)
(D) Agrobacterium mediated
(E) Retroviral mediated
(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) D and E
(4) C, D and E
182. Fill in the blanks with suitable word I. In case of cloning vector pBR322 the ___A___
will grow on ampicillin containg medium but not
on that containing ___B___.
II. In PCR repeated amplification of DNA is
achieved by the use of a ___C___ DNA
polymerase enzyme.
(1) A-Recombinant, B-Tetracycline, CThermostable
(2) A-Non recombinant, B-Ampicillin, CThermosensitive
(3) A-Non recombinant, B-Tetracycline, CThermosensitive
(4) A-Recombinant,
B-Ampicillin,
CThermosensitive
183. Which of the following is not a genetically
modified plant ?
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174. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like :
(1) Adrenaline
(2) Histamine
(3) Lymphokine
(4) Monokines
175. Charas and ganja affects ?
(1) Respiratory system
(2) Cardiovascular system
(3) Digestive system
(4) Nervous system
176. Which of the following is directly originated
from sauropsids?
(1) Crocodile
(2) Birds
(3) Turtles
(4) Pelycosaurs
177. Which of the following technique is not include
in ARTs ?
(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) Amniocentesis
(4) ICSI
178. The spermatids are transformed into
spermatozoa (sperm) by the process called :
(1) Spermiation
(2) Spermiogenesis
(3) Oogenesis
(4) Ejaculation
179. During which phase of menstrual cycle the
remaining of Graafian follicle transform as the
corpus luteum ?
English
(1) Menstrual phase
(2) Follicular phase
(3) Luteal phase
(4) Ovulatory phase
180. Identify A, B, C and D in given diagram of
E.coli cloning vector pBR322
(1) Bt-Cotton
(2) Flavr Savr tomato
(3) Pusa Swarnim
(4) Golden Rice
184. For permanent cure of ADA deficiency, ADA
gene isolated from marrow cells are introduced
in which cell?
(1) In any cell, after birth of an organism
(2) In cells of late embryonic stage
(3) In cells of early embryonic stage
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A-EcoRI, B-BamHI, C-Ori, D-ampR
A-ampR, B-Ori, C-BamHI, D-EcoRI
A-Ori, B-ampR, C-BamHI, D-EcoRI
A-BamHI, B-EcoRI, C-ampR, D-Ori
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(4) All of the above
185. Which is essential amino acid ?
(1) Methionine
(2) Serine
(3) Valine
(4) Both (1) & (3)
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SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )
186. Out of following how many are the examples of
specialised connective tissue
Cartilage, Bone, Skin, Areolar tissue, Tendon,
Blood
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
187. Which type of animals found in phylum porifera ?
191. Which of the following statements are true
regarding multiple ovulation embryo transfer
technology (MOET)?
(A) Elite bull is administered FSH like hormones
to induce super ovulation.
(B) 8 – 32 eggs are produced, by female, instead
of 1.
(C) Embryos are recovered non-surgically and
transfered to surrogate mothers.
(D) Superior males and females have been breed
successfully to increase herd size in a short time.
(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(2) Mostly marine and Bilateral symmetrical
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) None
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(1) Mostly marine and asymmetrical
(3) Mostly fresh water and Bilateral symmetrical
(4) Mostly marine and radial symmetrical
188. The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles
and alveoli comprises which structure ?
(1) Pleura
(2) Lungs
(3) Alveoli
(4) Trachea
189. Choose incorrect match :Column I
Column II
1. Bolus
Saliva
2. Chyme
Gastric Juice
3. Starch
Trypsin
4. Castle Intrinsic factor Vitamin B12
190. Match the column – I with columns – II
Column – I
Column – II
Wax secreting
h.
i.
gland
Middle ear
v. Ear ossicles
ii. Cochlea
c. Endolymph
iii.
Auditory
meatus/canal
192. Statement-I : The principle of immunisation or
vaccination is based on the property of 'memory'
of the immune system.
Statement-II : The yellowish fluid colostrum
secreted by mother during the initial few days of
lactation has abundant IgG antibodies to protect
the infant.
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are
correct.
(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are
incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.
193. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is based on which
of the following equation?
(1) p2 + p2q2 + q2 = 1 (2) p + pq + q = 1
(3) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 (4) p2 + 2p2q2 + q2 = 1
194. Match the column Column-I
(A) Mammal
(i)
(B) Fish like reptile
(ii)
(C) Dinosaurs disappear (iii)
Column-II
Ichthyosaurs
About 65 mya
viviparous
Which of the following is correctly match?
(1) h – i, v – ii, c – iii
(2) h – ii, v – i, c – iii
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i) (2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
(3) h – iii, v – ii, c – i
(4) h – iii, v – i, c – ii
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii) (4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii)
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198. Read the following statements (a-d)(a) α -1 antitrypsin used to treat albinism.
(b) Rosie, produced human fat enriched milk.
(c) Transgenic animals are not used for chemical
toxicity test.
(d) The diversity of rice in India is one of the
richest in the world.
How many of the above statements are correct.
(1) One
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195. Given below are three abbreviations (A - C) in
column A select their correct matching with points
(a - d) given in column (B), from the four option that
below :
Column
Column B
A
A IUI
a A popular contraceptive method
special case of artificial
B IUT
b A
insemination
technique of embryo transfer
C IUD
c A
in test tube baby programme
procedure to form an embryo
d A
in the laboratory
(1) A - (c), B - (b), C - (a)
(2) B - (c), C - (d), A - (b)
(3) A - (b), C - (a), B - (c)
(4) C - (b), B - (a), A - (d)
196. The head of a mature mammalian sperm is made
up of :
(1) An acrosome only
(2) Elongated nucleus covered by acrosome
(3) Mitochondria elongated nucleus and acrosome
(4) Two centrioles and an axial filament
197. Match the column I with column II
Column I
Column II
Introduction
of
Insertional
desired
gene
into
(a) inactivation
(i) bacterial cell with the
help of bacteriophage
Identification and
elimination of non
(b) Transformation (ii) transformations and
helps in selection of
transformants
Inactivation
of
gene due to
(c) Selectable
(iii) particular
marker
insertion of desired
gene
A process through
a piece of
(d) Transduction (iv) which
DNA is introduced in
host bacterium
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
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(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two
199. Specificity of different types of proteins is due
to:(1) Types of amino acids
(2) Sequence of amino acids
(3) Number of amino acids
(4) Relative amino acid composition
200. Match the column-I with column-II and choose
correct option :ColumnI
A Insulin
Column-II
i
B Antibody ii
Fights infectious agents
Enables glucose transport
into cells
C Receptor iii Hormone
D GLUT-4 iv Sensory reception
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
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