POLITY |
1
C HA PT E R
01
POLITY
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
2
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
1.1
HISTORICAL BACKGROUND,
MAKING OF THE CONSTITUTION,
SALIENT FEATURES OF
CONSTITUTION
Q.1)
Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State?
(2021)
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing
an organized government
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and
possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and
order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means
of sustenance
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite
territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with
a central authority, an executive responsible to the central
authority and an independent judiciary
Q.2)
What was the exact constitutional status of India on
26th January, 1950? (2021)
(a) A democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Q.3)
Constitutional government means : (2021)
(a) A representative government of a nation with federal
structure
(b) A government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) A government whose Head enjoys real powers
(d) A government limited by the terms of the Constitution
1.2
PREAMBLE, UNION & ITS
TERRITORY, CITIZENSHIP,
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS,
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF
STATE POLICY, FUNDAMENTAL
DUTIES
Q.4)
‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of
the Constitution of India? (2021)
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29
Q.5)
Consider the following statements:
1) ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the
UN -Habitat monitors the commitments made by each
country in this regard.
2) ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city right
to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the
city.
3) ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any
public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in
the city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2021)
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Q.6)
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled
discretionary power in the matter of application of law
violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021)
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44
Q.7)
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1) There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2) A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3) A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be
deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2021)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Q.8)
Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth
violates (2021)
(a) The Right to Equality
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Right to Freedom
(d) The Concept of Welfare
POLITY |
1.3
AMENDMENT OF CONSTITUTION,
BASIC STRUCTURE OF
CONSTITUTION
Q.9)
Consider the following statements :
1) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2) When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the
President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India
to give his/her assent.
3) A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority
and there is no provision for joint sitting.
3
tial feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
(2021)
(a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from
constituent units.
(c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from
regional parties.
(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of
Law.
1.5
PRESIDENT, VICE-PRESIDENT, PRIM
MINISTER, PRIME MINISTER,
CENTRAL COUNCIL OF MINISTERS,
CABINET COMMITTEES
Which of the statements given above are correct ? (2022)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.10)
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
(2021)
(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
1.4
PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM, FEDERAL
SYSTEM, CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS,
INTER-STATE RELATIONS,
EMERGENCY PROVISIONS
Q.11)
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the
British model, but how does our model differ from that
model?
1) As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme
or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to
legislate is limited.
2) In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the
Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the
Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Q.13)
Consider the following statements:
1) The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into
four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2) The total number of ministers in the Union Government,
including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent
of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(2022)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
1.6
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
PARLIAMENT, PARLIAMENTARY
COMMITTEES, PARLIAMENTARY
COMMITTEES, PARLIAMENTARY
FORUMS, PARLIAMENTARY GROUPS
Q.14)
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of
Lok Sabha?
1) To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2) To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of
Ministers
3) To impach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(2021)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(2022)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q.12)
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essenWWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
4
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
Q.15)
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider
the following statements:
1) As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall
be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2) There is a mandatory provision that the election of a
candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from
either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3) The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the
Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and
no appeal lies against his rulings.
4) The well established parliamentary practice regarding
the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is
moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime
Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(2022)
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
1.7
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
SUPREME COURT, JUDICIAL
REVIEW, JUDICIAL ACTIVISM,
PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION,
HIGH COURT, TRIBUNALS,
SUBORDINATE COURTS
Q.16)
Consider the following statements:
1) Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the
Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2) The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court
and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3) The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and
Criminal Contempt.
4) In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to
make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(2022)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
Q.17)
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1) Government law officers and legal firms are recognised
as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys
are excluded from recognition as advocates.
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
2) Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2022)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.18)
With reference to the writs, issued by the Courts in
India, consider the following statements :
1) Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation
unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2) Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though
it may be a Government Company.
3) Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move
the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(2022)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.19)
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of
the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up
in police station, not in jail.
2) During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of
the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without
the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2021)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.20)
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole
cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a
matter of his/her right.
2) State Governments have their own Prisoners Release
on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2021)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
POLITY |
Q.21)
With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
1) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can
be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge
by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the
President of India.
2) A High Court in India has the power to review its own
judgement as the Supreme Court does.
5
1) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of
India are the only officers of the Government who are
allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of
India.
2) According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney
General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(2022)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2021)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q.25)
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency
to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.22)
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best
safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)
(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
1.8
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers
GOVERNOR, CHIEF MINISTER,
STATE COUNCIL OF MINISTER,
STATE LEGISLATURE, SPECIAL
PROVISIONS FOR SOME STATES
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
1.10
Q.23)
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule
of the Constitution of India, which one of the following
statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022)
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people
to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that
area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a special
Category State.
1.9
ELECTION COMMISSION, UPSC,
SPSC, FINANCE COMMISSION, GST
COUNCIL, NATIONAL COMMISSION
FOR SCs, NATIONAL COMMISSION
FOR STs, NATIONAL COMMISSION
FOR BCs, CAG, SPECIAL OFFICER
FOR LINGUISTIC MINORITIES,
ATTORNERY GENERAL OF INDIA,
ADVOCATE GENERAL OF INDIA
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
POLITICAL PARTIES, ROLE OF
REGIONAL PARTIES, ELECTIONS,
ELECTION LAWS, ELECTORAL
REFORMS, VOTING BEHAVIOUR,
COALITION GOVERNMENT, ANTI
DEFECTION LAW, PRESSURE
GROUPS, NATIONAL INTEGRATION,
NATIONAL COMMISSION TO
REVIEW THE WORKING OF THE
CONSTITUTION
Q.26)
With reference to anti defection law in India, consider
the following statements:
1) The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot
join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2) The law does not provide any time-frame within which
the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(2022)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.24) Consider the following statements:
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
6
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
1.11
GOVERNANCE
Q.27)
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?
(a) CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
(b) It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/
Lignite blocks.
(c) It hears any objection to the Government’s notification
relating to acquisition of coal - bearing areas.
(d) It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to
end users in the prescribed time.
==========ANSWERS===========
Q.1) a
Explanation:
Knowledge
State is a political organization
of society. The state is a form of
human association distinguished
from other social groups based
on its purpose of formation.
Common
Sense
The essential attributes of a
state are: 1. Defined territory
2. Population 3. Organized
government 4. Sovereignty and
independence
Elimination
Trick
Permanent occupancy by people
should be there for referring
any area as state. Hence, we can
eliminate options (b) and (c).
Independent judiciary is not a
pre-requisite for a state.
Smartness
These terms are important and
usually they are present in news
and current affairs but students
often ignore them. One should
try to google the meaning of
important terms which are there
in news.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(2022)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Q.28)
With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the
following statements:
1) The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2) It is a regulatory body attached to the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3) The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4) The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Q.29)
With reference to the Union Government, consider the
following statements:
1) N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a
minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing
the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2) In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted
on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms
Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime
Minister’s charge.
Q.2) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
As the original preamble, during
26th January-1950, constitutional status of India was a “Sovereign Democratic Republic.”
Later, with 42nd Constitutional
Amendment two more words
were added to constitutional
status of India, i.e., “Socialist
and Secular.”
Common
Sense
As the question is asking constitutional status on 26 Jan 1950 it
simply means that original status
of constitution is being asked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2021)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
POLITY |
Elimination
Trick
Smartness
It is a static question. No trick
applicable. Option A can be
eliminated since sovereign
democratic republic is certainly
better option than democratic
republic. We know that India became a sovereign with independence in 1947.
It is important for students that
they emphasise on the amendments which were made in
original constitution.
Q.3) d
Explanation:
Knowledge
Constitutionalism is a doctrine in which a government’s
authority is determined by a
body of laws or constitution.
Although constitutionalism or
constitutional government is
sometimes regarded as limited
government.
Common
Sense
Constitutional government is a
government governed by the
constitution. Option D says the
same thing in different words.
Elimination
Trick
Option (a), (b), and (c) are
nowhere related to question.
Naturally after looking at all
options only (d) makes most
sense. The head may enjoy
nominal or real powers in a
constitutional government. The
government might be federal or
non-federal, if governed by the
constitution.
Smartness
One should dig deeper into the
basics features of constitution
as they form core of Indian
polity.
7
Q.4) c
Explanation:
Knowledge
In K. S. Puttaswamy Case
(2017), Supreme Court of India
has held that right to privacy is
a Fundamental Right and it is
protected under Article 21 of the
Constitution of India.
Common
Sense
Article 21 deals with protection
of life and personal liberty.
Elimination
Trick
None of the article mentioned
in options (a),(b), and (d) are related to personal liberty. Hence,
they all will get eliminated.
Smartness
Article 1-35 are most important
from examination perspective.
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
8
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
Q.5) d
Explanation:
Knowledge
Q.6) a
Explanation:
‘Right to the City’ (RTC) is not
agreed as a human right by all
countries yet. In 2016, India
had opposed the inclusion of
the Right to the City in the draft
New Urban Agenda that aimed to
define the way cities world-wide
are shaped over the next two
decades. Following negotiations,
the revised draft agenda’s opening section titled the ‘the Quito
Declaration on Sustainable Cities
and Human Settlements’ retained
the reference to RTC. It states,
“Cities for all is also recognised
as the Right to the City in some
countries, based on a people-centered vision of cities as places
that strive to guarantee a decent
and full life for all inhabitants.”
So, statement 1 is not correct.
Knowledge
Article 14 ensures that all citizens are equal and that no person
shall be discriminated on the basis of sex, religion, race or place
of birth. It ensures that there is a
separation of power between the
three wings of the government
and the executive.
Common
Sense
Discretion results in discrimination. Article 14 is equality of
law and equal protection of laws.
Equality of any kind means no
discrimination. Hence, A14 is in
sync with the question statement.
Elimination
Trick
Article 28 is related to religion
and Article 44 is related to uniform civil code hence, these both
can get eliminated.
RTC gives every occupant, irrespective of their legality, a claim
over the city. It requires the State
to act on the principles of social
justice and provide equal services to each and every resident
Common
Sense
Elimination
Trick
Smartness
Statement 2 is very positive by
nature. Every right is framed
with the objective of easing the
life of citizens. Any student who
uses common sense will mark
this statement correct.
Here, the word cannot might
make you think that it is the incorrect statement but UPSC has
played very smart here by giving
the correct statement.
This topic was there in current
affairs. It is important to complete current affairs of one year
before exam.
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
Article 32 is one of the most
famous fundamental rights,
which states that individuals has
right to approach Supreme Court
seeking enforcement of other
fundamental rights.
Smartness
Fundamental rights are very
crucial for exams. Make sure to
learn all of them.
Q.7) a
Explanation:
Knowledge
In India, there is single citizenship, i.e., a person can have
only one citizenship. Also, at a
particular time, a person can have
only one domicile. Any citizen
(Citizen by birth or Naturalised
Citizen) can become the Head of
State, i.e., the President, in India.
POLITY |
Common
Sense
Third statement is very assertive by nature and assertive
statements are usually incorrect.
There is no point in the statement
that citizenship once granted
cannot be taken away.
Elimination
Trick
One needs to be very cautious
when the word ONLY is there
in any statement as this word
is usually inserted to make the
statement incorrect. But do not
make it a rule. It is a general
observation that the word ONLY
often makes an option incorrect.
Smartness
This question has been asked
from second part of constitution.
Students should prepare other
parts of the constitution for
upcoming exam.
Elimination
Trick
9
Freedom is not just economic, it
can also be of other kinds. Thus,
not the best option.
Concept of welfare is close to the
answer but it is an applied option
that matches with the main objective of the constitution.
It is specifically mentioned in
the constitution under DPSPs
that concentration of wealth
can violate different rights and
welfare of citizens. Thus, option
B is the closest and other options
are applications.
Smartness
Fundamental rights, DPSP are
the most lovable topics of UPSC.
In between 2019 – 2021 a lot of
questions were asked by UPSC
from these topics.
Q.9) b
Explanation:
Q.8) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
In Part IV (Directive Principles
of State Policy) of the constitution, Article 39(c) says that,
“the operation of the economic
system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means
of production to the common
detriment.”
Common
Sense
Right to Equality means equality before law, ruling out any
prejudice on the basis of race,
religion, caste, creed, gender, or
place of birth.
Knowledge
Constitution Amendment
Bill means a bill that seeks to
change parts of the Constitution.
Part XX (Article 368) of the
Indian Constitution lays forth
the method for amending the constitution.
The bill can be filed by either a
minister or a private member and
does not require the president’s
previous approval. This mechanism maintains the Constitution
of India’s integrity and limits the
Parliament of India’s arbitrary
authority.
Common
Sense
Money bill, bill seeking to
change or alter name, boundaries,
area of state or form a new state
which needs prior approval of
president.
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
10
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
Elimination
Trick
You need some sort of knowledge
to solve this question. A blind
guess might lead you towards
negative marking.
You can include option 3 since it
logically makes sense. The provision on constitutional amendment
bill was made keeping in mind
protection of the constitution
from majority misuse. If joint
sitting and majority was allowed,
lok sabha might over power rajya
sabha in case of an amendment
bill.
Smartness
Q11.) c
Explanation:
Knowledge
Special majority since it is trying
to amend the constitution, which
is a big deal.
Smartness
Knowledge
Common
Sense
Elimination
Trick
According to Article 300A of the
Indian Constitution, “no person
shall be deprived of his property
save by authority of law.”
It is the most famous legal right.
You can’t get these type of questions wrong as 99% of the serious
candidates will be doing it right.
“Since, the article says that no
person shall be deprived, so the
statement, “legal rights are available to citizens only”, is incorrect.
Hence, it will get eliminated.
Option C can also be eliminated.
Right to property was the first right
to be amended from Fundamental
rights. The amendment started in
1950 itself, just 3 years after independence.
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
Parliamentary sovereignty means
that parliament is superior to the
executive and judicial branches
of government, and can therefore
enact or repeal any law it chooses. It is a cornerstone of the UK
constitutional system.
Parliament of India is neither
sovereign nor supreme. The
authority and jurisdiction of
Parliament are limited by the
Powers of the other organs.
In future questions might be
asked from the kind of majority
needed for passing various bills
and when joint sitting can be
called in parliament.
Q.10) b
Explanation:
Fundamental rights should be on
your tips before approaching the
exam hall as it is of paramount
importance.
Common
Sense
In India the constitution of India
is supreme.
Elimination
Trick
Not needed as both statements
are correct.
Smartness
One should do proper research
on topic of “parliament” as every
year questions from topics like
Lok sabha, Rajya sabha, Parliamentary committees are being
asked in exams.
Polity/ constitution from Laxmikanth does not mean merely
mugging up facts. This question
is more conceptual in nature and
needs an understanding of Indian
constitution too.
POLITY |
Q12.) a
Explanation:
Q13.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
The federal character of the
Indian Polity is indicated by
following features: Written
Constitution, Supremacy of the
Constitution, Rigid Constitution,
Division of Powers, Independent
Judiciary, Bicameral Legislature,
Dual Government Polity, etc.
Common
Sense
Only option (a) is the most valid
feature.
The structure of the government
can be unitary and yet it can have
an elected representative from
constituencies. In fact, Union
parliament has elected representatives from constituencies.
But mere existence of elected
representative from constituencies does not guarantee a federal
structure. The Constitution of
India establishes an independent
judiciary headed by the Supreme
Court for two purposes: one,
to protect the supremacy of
the Constitution by exercising
the power of judicial review;
and two, to settle the disputes
between the Centre and the states
or between the states (an essential characteristic of federalism)
Elimination
Trick
Smartness
11
Option (c) is indicating a possibility and question is asking
something that is DEFINITE,
hence, it will get eliminated.
Fundamental rights enforceability is not a feature of federalism.
Thus, option (d) will also get
eliminated.
Federal features, unitary features
and basic structure of Indian
constitution are important topics
and every year questions are
asked from these either directly
or indirectly.
Knowledge
The Council of Ministers is a
constitutional body. Article 74
of the Constitution provides
that there shall be a Council of
Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise
the President who shall, in the
exercise of his functions, act in
accordance with such advice.
Common
Sense
Constitution has given a broad
framework for various bodies like constitutional bodies,
supreme court, high court and
others but it has not done precise
classification like deciding the
level of minister.
Elimination
Trick
If you go by orthodox elimination trick then you might
eliminate statement 2.Till 2021
UPSC used to play with numbers
and write the incorrect number in
statement. Students had made a
habit of not trusting on numbers
given by UPSC and mark that
statement wrong which ultimately leads them to correct answer.
This trick failed in 2022 as UPSC
has given right number here.
Ranks of ministers are provided
in general but the constitution
does not talk about it. It does not
NEED to talk about it since it is a
rule that need not be discussed in
the constitution.
Smartness
A lot of questions have been
asked in past from the topic of
parliament. Please cover this topic from all dimensions as UPSC
has a habit of asking questions
based on previous year themes.
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
12
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
Q15.) a
Explanation:
Q14.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
Common
Sense
Elimination
Trick
The proclamation of National
Emergency must be approved by
both the Houses of Parliament
within one month from the date
of its issue. A proclamation
imposing President’s Rule must
be approved by both the Houses
of Parliament within two months
from the date of its issue. A
proclamation declaring financial
emergency must be approved by
both the Houses of Parliament
within two months from the date
of its issue.
Article 75 of the Constitution
says that the council of ministers
shall be collectively responsible
to the Lok Sabha. Hence, it is
very obvious that Lok Sabha
has the power to remove the
ministers from office by passing
a no-confidence motion.
There is no point on giving
exclusive power to Lok Sabha
and giving no power to Rajya
Sabha for impeachment of president. Hence, third statement is
incorrect.
Knowledge
The well-established parliamentary practice is that a motion is
moved by the Parliamentary Affairs Minister and duly seconded
by the treasury benches or by
the opposition, which is carried
by the House.
Common
Sense
“While the office of Speaker is
vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the
Deputy Speaker”. The Deputy
Speaker has the same powers as
the Speaker.
Elimination
Trick
Mandatory is very assertive
word and in most of the cases
statements having such assertive
words would be incorrect.
Smartness
Make sure you cover Lok Sabha
and Rajya Sabha well. It’s all
about knowing Indian parliamentary system well.
The same logic applies in case
of Option A
Smartness
Prepare topic of president well
for upcoming examination like
his powers, appointment criteria,
impeachment. UPSC has asked
so many questions from topic of
president in past.
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
In Lok Sabha, the election of
Deputy Speaker is governed by
Rule 8 of The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business
in Lok Sabha. According to the
Rule, the election “shall be held
on such date as the Speaker may
fix”, and the Deputy Speaker is
elected once a motion proposing
his name is passed.
Asked in the exam due to
prolonged delay in election of
deputy speaker in 2021. Connect
newspaper articles with static /
syllabus to predict such questions in advance and ace them.
POLITY |
Q16.) b
Explanation:
Q17.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
H. N. Sanyal committee set up
in 1961 made a comprehensive
examination of the law and
problems relating to contempt
of court. The recommendations
of the committee were generally
accepted. Pursuant to the report
of the committee, the Contempt
of Court Act, 1971 was passed
by the parliament.
Common
Sense
It is a well known fact that supreme and high courts to initiate
contempt cases on its own and
parliament has right to make
laws on majority of things.
Contempt of court act was also
passed by parliament only. If
you eliminate both option 1
and 4, you will be left with just
option 3 in the answer. Option
2 is certainly correct, which
means that option 1 and 4 must
be correct. Get it!!!
Elimination
Trick
Smartness
13
Constitution of India is completely silent on defining
various terms. There is no point
of defining civil and criminal
contempt under constitution.
Hence, we can eliminate statement 3 and we will be left with
only option (a) and (b).
Recommendation of certain
committees, panels like Kasturirangan committee, Kelkar
committee etc are very crucial
for prelims.
Knowledge
An Advocate is a person authorized to appear in a litigation on
behalf of a party and who possess
a law degree, enrolled with the
Bar Council in accordance to the
prescriptions laid by the Advocates Act, 1961. In this case,
law firms are not recognised as
advocates.
Common
Sense
Functions of Bar Councils include
to promote legal education and
to lay down standards of legal
education.
Elimination
Trick
Generally, when two statements
are connected with connectors
like ‘and, but’ there is a chance of
flipping of statements. Same has
happened in this question. But
eliminating statement 1 without
any knowledge will really appear
a difficult task in examination
hall.
Smartness
Questions based on law and legal
terms have already made debut
in UPSC. It is high time to start
preparing on aspects related to
lndian law.
Q18.) c
Explanation:
Knowledge
Mandamus literally means ‘we
command’. It is a command
issued by the court to a public
official asking him to perform the
official duties that he has failed
or refused to perform. It can be
issued against any public body, a
corporation, an inferior court, a
tribunal or government company
for the same purpose.
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
14
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
Common Sense
India is a democratic country
which emphasises on equality
which gives rights to its citizens
like RTI, PIL, claiming of Writs.
This much knowledge is enough
to mark statement 3 correct.
Elimination
Trick
Even if you know basic meaning
of mandamus then you can eliminate statement 2 as it makes no
sense to exclude govt. company
from the ambit of mandamus.
Smartness
Get a hold on various types of
writs being issued.
Smartness
Q20.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with suspension of the sentence. The
release is conditional, usually subject to behaviour, and
requires periodic reporting to
the authorities.
Common Sense
As police is the state subject
a student can guess that state
governments must have the
right to frame parole rules.
Elimination
Trick
First statement is not logical
at all. There is no point in
the fact the prisoner can’t
be denied to get parole. This
statement can get easily
eliminated.
Smartness
It has been observed that
UPSC has started asking
questions on law related
concepts. Hence, it is the
time that students should
start finding out the meaning
of legal terms that are coined
in news.
Q19.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
Police Custody means that
police has the physical
custody of the accused while
Judicial Custody means an
accused is in the custody of
the concerned Magistrate.
During Judicial Custody,
the police is not allowed
to interrogate the suspect.
However, the court may
allow the interrogations to
be conducted if it opines interrogation being necessary
under the facts produced
before the court.
Common Sense
Jail is also called prison but
after getting punishment
from court. Lock-up is there
in police station to keep a
suspect or a person named in
cognizable offence.
Elimination
Trick
Word “NOT” is used here in
both the statements. Hence,
you need to be cautious
while solving this question if
you don’t know the correct
explanation.
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
When examination was held
in 2021, Aryan Khan drug’s
case was in news and he was
in jail. The examiner must
have derived inspiration to
frame this question from that
case. Therefore, it is important to study the root of
current affairs.
POLITY |
Q21.) a
Explanation:
Knowledge
Article 128: Chief Justice of
India may at any time, with the
previous consent of the president, request any person who has
held the office of a Judge of the
Supreme Court or of the Federal
Court or who has held the office
of a Judge of a High Court and
is duly qualified for appointment
as a Judge of the Supreme Court
to sit and act as a Judge of the
Supreme Court.
Common
Sense
There are some exclusive powers given to Supreme Court.
Elimination
Trick
Knowledge is needed to solve
this question. Elimination trick
won’t work here.
Smartness
Topics related to Supreme Court,
High Court and judiciary get
repeated in UPSC.
Elimination
Trick
Centralization of power can’t
be said as the best safeguard of
liberty as it leads to authoritarianism. Hence, we can eliminate
this statement.
Smartness
The terms mentioned in preamble are the guiding light for
examiners to make questions.
Make sure that you know meaning of each term mentioned in
preamble of constitution.
Q23.) a
Explanation:
Knowledge
Common
Sense
Separation of power (executive,
legislature and judiciary) checks
the abuse of power by other
organs. So, this helps in checking the authoritarian tendencies.
This is the best safeguard to
safeguard liberty.
Committed judiciary i.e., a judiciary committed to the policies
of the government. Such judiciary will never go against the
governments policies. Therefore,
will not be able to protect the
liberty.
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled
Areas as well as of Scheduled
Tribes residing in any State other
than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
If a particular area is brought
under the Fifth Schedule, it
means that all land in Scheduled
Area is presumed to have been
Adivasi land; hence, not only
should no land now pass into
the hands of non-Adivasis, but
any land presently owned by
non-tribal should, if being transferred, come back to the hands
of Scheduled Tribes.
Q22.) d
Explanation:
Knowledge
15
Common
Sense
The Indian Constitution provides autonomy to tribal areas in
matters of governance under the
Fifth and Sixth Schedules.
Elimination
Trick
If you have basic knowledge
and can apply common-sense in
exam hall then you can easily
eliminate options (b), (c), and
(d).
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
16
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
Smartness
This question seeks to test the
fundamental knowledge. So,
make your basics of polity
strong.
Q25.) d
Explanation:
Knowledge
Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the
nodal agency at the national level to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes
and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006.
Common
Sense
The question is related to
schedule tribes and it is the
tribal affairs ministry which is
responsible for implementation
of programs related to scheduled
tribes.
Elimination
Trick
All other ministries are not related to scheduled tribes. Hence,
they can get eliminated.
Smartness
Even if you don’t know the
correct answer still you can get
to the answer if there is some
clearly visible linkage between
question and answer.
Q24.) d
Explanation:
Knowledge
Article 76 of the constitution
provides for the office of Attorney General of India and he
is the highest law officer in the
country. The Solicitor General
of India assists Attorney General
to fulfil his official duties and
responsibilities. In the performance of his official duties, the
Attorney General (AG) has the
right of audience in all courts in
the territory of India.
Common
Sense
Conventionally, attorney general
resigns when the government
(council of ministers) resigns or
is replaced, as he is appointed on
its advice.
Elimination
Trick
Statement 1 is partially correct
but addition of word solicitor
general has made it incorrect.
So, please be very-very attentive
and calm while reading question
because if you are in hurry then
you might mark it wrong.
Smartness
Q26.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
As per the Anti-defection Law,
a nominated member of a House
becomes disqualified for being
a member of the House if he
joins any political party after
the expiry of six months from
the date on which he takes his
seat in the House. Thus, she/he
can join a political party before
the expiration of 6 months after
becoming a member.
Common
Sense
It is the call of presiding officer
when to take a decision in an
anti defection case.
A good weightage has been given to constitutional bodies while
framing questions. You should
be on your toes while preparing
these.
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
POLITY |
Elimination
Trick
Smartness
Use of word CANNOT has
made the statement 1 very
complicated. On first reading it
might confuse you. It is advised
to read the question twice before
jumping to the answer.
Anti defection remains in news
most of the time. You should not
get surprised if you encounter
this topic again in examination.
Elimination
Trick
Common
Sense
Under Collection of Statistics
Act, 2008 -Coal Controller’s
Organization (CCO) has been
made the statistical authority
with respect to coal and lignite
statistics. Entrusted the responsibility of carrying out Annual
Coal & Lignite survey and
publishing of Provisional Coal
Statistics and Coal Directory of
India. It also monitors progress
of development of Captive Coal/
Lignite blocks.
Smartness
Recently, government inaugurated an extended office of Coal
Controller’s Organization, a subordinate office under the Ministry of Coal. You should keep an
eye on all recent developments
by government of India.
Q28.) d
Explanation:
Knowledge
The Tea Board is a statutory
body set up under section 4 of
the Tea Act, 1953 was constituted
on 1st April 1954.
The present Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the
Central Government under the
Ministry of Commerce. The head
office of the Tea board is in Kolkata. Currently, the Tea Board
has two overseas offices located
at Dubai and Moscow.
Statement 1 has to be definitely
true. You will get this vibe just
after the first read. It is quite
evident that if CCO is especially formed for coal sector then
definitely it will keep statistics
of coal.
Once you realise statement 1
is right you will automatically
figure out that statement 2 is also
right even if you have no idea
about statement 2 because all the
options which has statement 1
has statement 2 also.
After realising statement 1 and
2 are correct. You will observe
through options that either 3rd
and 4th statements both are incorrect or one is correct.
Statement 4 is quite unobvious.
Hence, it can be eliminated.
Q27.) a
Explanation:
Knowledge
17
Common
Sense
Only one statement can be true
between statement 1 and 2 as
both are contradictory.
Elimination
Trick
Some knowledge is needed to
solve this question otherwise
there is chance of negative
marking.
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN
18
| 2022 - 2021 GS-1 PAST YEAR PAPERS
Smartness
This question has inspiration
from recent amendment in Tea
Act. So, keep all the developments related to amendments
handy.
Q29.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge
In 1949, the Gopalaswami
Ayyangar Committee while
recommending restructuring of
the Central Secretariat, suggested that a Department should
be identified with a Secretary’s
charge and a Ministry should
be identified with a Minister’s
charge. It makes no mention of
a minister and a secretary to be
solely responsible for pursuing
the subject of administrative
reform and promoting it.
Common
Sense
Department of Personnel was
constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative
Reforms Commission.
Elimination
Trick
Not applicable
Smartness
Read out the recommendation of
major committees and commissions like Punchhi commission,
Sarkaria Commision.
ANUJJINDAL.IN
WWW.ANUJJINDAL.IN