FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER – 2019
(Big Bang Edge Test / Talent Recognition Exam)
for students presently in
Class 8 (Paper 1)
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm)
Maximum Marks: 210
Code 8000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1.
You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60
Minutes on Section-III.
2.
This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
correct answer
wrong answer
Section
Subject
Question no.
SECTION – I
APTITUDE
1 to 30
+3
0
SECTION – II
SECTION – III
PHYSICS
(PART-A)
31 to 39
+2
0
CHEMISTRY
(PART-B)
40 to 48
+2
0
MATHEMATICS
(PART-C)
49 to 57
+2
0
BIOLOGY
(PART-D)
58 to 66
+2
0
PHYSICS
(PART-A)
67 to 78
+1
0
CHEMISTRY
(PART-B)
79 to 90
+1
0
MATHEMATICS
(PART-C)
91 to 102
+1
0
BIOLOGY
(PART-D)
103 to 114
+1
0
3.
Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5.
Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number
: _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre
: _____________________________________________________________
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (Q.1 – Q.2): Series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the
given ones that will complete the series.
1.
2.
79, 159, 199, 219, ?
(A) 229
(C) 239
(B) 234
(D) 222
JAZ, LEX, NIV, PMT, ?
(A) QUR
(C) SUR
(B) RQR
(D) RUS
3.
In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives
Fan : Blades : : ? : ?
(A) Bonnet : Car
(B) Room: House
(C) Arc: Circle
(D) Book : Chapter
4.
If “+” means “minus”, “x” means “divided by”, “÷” means “plus” and “-” means “multiplied by”, then
300 × 10 – 5 + 36 ÷ 57 = ?
(A) 150
(B) 171
(C) 230
(D) 234
5.
Choose the odd one out.
(A) HSRI
(C) OLKP
6.
(B) MVUN
(D) PJQX
If "A" means "subtraction", "B" means "division", "C" means "addition" and "D" means
"multiplication", then
294 B 6 A 30 C 31 D 4 = ?
(A) 16
(B) 156
(C) 143
(D) 163
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Directions (Q.7 – Q.9): In the following questions, answers are to be based on the diagrams given
below, where the triangle represents doctors, the circle represents players and the rectangle represents
artists.
7.
Which numbered space in the diagram represents doctors who are also players and artists?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
8.
Which number represents artists who are also players only?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
9.
Which number represents artists who are neither players nor doctors?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
10.
From the given answer figures (A), (B), (C) & (D) select the one in which the question figure (X)
is hidden/embedded.
Question Figure
Answer Figures
(X)
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11.
If 'A + B' means 'A is father of B', 'A – B' means 'A is mother of B', 'A * B' means 'A is brother of B'
and 'A % B' means 'A is sister of B', then how is Q related to S in 'P + Q * R – S'?
(A) Husband
(B) Uncle
(C) Brother
(D) Father
12.
Anil introduces Akash as the son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Akash related to
Anil?
(A) Cousin
(B) Son
(C) Uncle
(D) Son-in-law
13.
Five boys are sitting facing towards South. Raj is between Rohit and Vishal. Vishal is to the
immediate right of Manoj and Manoj is to the immediate right of Shekhar. Who is sitting in the
middle?
(A) Vishal
(B) Manoj
(C) Raj
(D) Shekhar
14.
A man walks 20 m towards north, then he turns right and walks 3 m, then turns left and walks 4 m
and from there he walks 4 m towards east. How far and in which direction is he from his initial
position?
(A) 25 m east
(B) 25 m north-east
(C) 20 m north
(D) 24 m north
15.
Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.
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16.
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Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Soul
2. Strain
3. Syrup
4. Sand
5. Strained
(A) 41253
(C) 54312
(B) 42153
(D) 45312
17.
In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given
word.
Precipitation
(A) Reaction
(B) Patient
(C) Reacts
(D) Petition
18.
Blueberries cost more than strawberries.
Blueberries cost less than raspberries.
Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Uncertain
(D) Cannot be determined.
19.
In a queue, A is eighteenth from the front while B is sixteenth from the back. If C is twenty-fifth
from the front and is exactly in the middle of A and B, then how many persons are there in the
queue?
(A) 45
(B) 46
(C) 47
(D) 48
20.
In a row of girls, there are 16 girls between Priya and Natasha. Priya is thirty-second from the left
end of the row. If Priya is nearer than Natasha to the right end of the row, then how far away is
Natasha from the left end of the row?
(A) Data inadequate
(B) 14th
(C) 15th
(D) 16th
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Directions (Q.21 – Q.22): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
21.
22.
Statements:
Some pearl is jam.
All jam is block.
No block is iron.
All iron is sword.
Conclusions:
I. Some pearl is block.
II. No jam is iron.
III. No block is sword.
(A) Only I and II follows
(C) Only II and III follows
(B) Only I and III follows
(D) All I, II and III follows
Statements:
Some holy is ice.
Some ice is snow.
Some snow is cream.
Some cream is honey.
Conclusions:
I. Some holy is honey
II. Some ice is cream
III. Some snow is honey.
(A) None follow
(C) Only II follow
(B) Only I follow
(D) Only III follow
23.
In a certain code language, "BALL" is written as "27" and "CANE" is written as "23". How is
"YELL" written in that code language?
(A) 50
(B) 39
(C) 54
(D) 61
24.
What was the day of the week on 28thMay, 2006?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
25.
Today is Saturday. After 60 days, it will be:
(A) Wednesday
(C) Saturday
(B) Thursday
(D) Sunday
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Directions (Q.26 – Q.30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each in such a way that there is an
equal distance between adjacent persons. In the first row, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are
facing south. In the 2nd row, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in
the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. S
sits third to the left of P. A faces an immediate neighbour of S. C sits second to the right of A. Only one
person sits between B and D. Q and T are immediate neighbours. T does not face A and B.
26.
How many persons are seated between B and E?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
27.
Who amongst the following faces D?
(A) P
(C) R
(B) Q
(D) T
28.
Which of the following is true regarding Q?
(A) P and R are immediate neighbours of Q.
(B) Q sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(C) E is an immediate neighbour of the person who is facing Q.
(D) S sits on the immediate left of Q.
29.
Who amongst the following are sitting exactly in the middle of the rows?
(A) A and T
(B) D and S
(C) D and P
(D) A and Q
30.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) R
(D) E
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31.
The physical quantity expressed in the terms of force acting per unit area is called _______ .
(A) thrust
(B) pressure
(C) torque
(D) none of these
32.
What is the minimum time period between two sounds, so that our ears can distinguish between
them?
1 th
of a second
10
1 th
(C)
of a second
20
1
15
1
(D)
25
(A)
33.
34.
(B)
Mechanical waves (sound waves) in a gas are
(A) longitudinal
(C) either (A) or (B)
th
of a second
th
of a second
(B) transverse
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
What is the correct relationship between S.I. unit and gravitational unit of force?
(A) 1 N = 9.8 kgf
(B) 9.8 N = 1 kgf
(C) 105 kgf = 1 N
(D) 105 N = 1 kgf
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35.
Which of the following is/are ways to reduce friction?
(A) By using anti-friction metals
(B) By using lubricants
(C) By making stream lined bodies
(D) all of these
36.
Earthquake produces __________ kind of sound before the main shock wave begins.
(A) Infrasound
(B) Ultrasound
(C) Audible sound
(D) none of these
37.
Corrugation in the tyres of vehicle _________ the friction.
(A) increases
(B) reduces
(C) makes no effect on
(D) none of these
38.
The maximum displacement of a vibrating body from its mean position is called its____
(A) frequency
(B) amplitude
(C) wavelength
(D) none of these
39.
The set of forces acting on a body which does not produce any acceleration in body is
called _______ .
(A) Resultant force
(B) Balanced force
(C) Unbalanced force
(D) None of these
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 40 to 48. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
40.
The metal which is stored in kerosene:
(A) Phosphorus
(C) Sodium
(B) Magnesium
(D) Zinc
41.
Black soot which is deposited on kerosene lamps after burning is called
(A) coke
(B) lampblack
(C) gas carbon
(D) charcoal
42.
The monomeric unit of the polymer Teflon is:
(A) Ethylene
(C) Tetrafluoro ethylene
(B) Vinyl chloride
(D) Isoprene
The monomer units of PAN is
(A) Acrylonitrile
(C) Vinyl chloride
(B) Styrene
(D) Tetrafluorothene
Metal oxides are of nature:
(A) Acidic
(C) Neutral
(B) Basic
(D) All of these
43.
44.
45.
The useful substances obtained from petroleum are called
(A) petrochemicals
(B) petroleum gas
(C) petrol
(D) natural gas
46.
Generally, non-metals are not conductors of electricity, which of the following is a good conductor
of electricity?
(A) Fullerenes
(B) Graphite
(C) Diamond
(D) Sulphur
47.
Select the synthetic polymer whose filament was first obtained that could be stretched several
times its original length.
(A) nylon
(B) polyester
(C) acrylic
(D) none of these
48.
Coal is used in generating electricity in a
(A) nuclear power station
(C) hydro power station
(B) thermal power station
(D) geothermal power station
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 49 to 57. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
49.
If the mean of 5 observation x, x  2, x  4, x  6 and x  8 is 11, then the mean of the last
three observations is:
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 15
(D) 17
50.
The median of first 100 whole numbers is equal to:
(A) 50
(B) 49.5
(C) 48
(D) 50.5
51.
Which of the following fractions is less than
1
4
11
(C)
12
(A)
52.
7
1
and greater than ?
8
3
13
(B)
14
17
(D)
24
In a class 50 students, 20% of them are girls and rest is boys, then the ratio of boys to the girls is
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 1 : 5
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 5 : 1
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53.
(Paper-1)-AT+S&M-12
If the difference between the reciprocal of a positive proper fraction and the fraction it self be
9
,
20
then the fraction is
3
5
4
(C)
5
(A)
54.
If 2.52525........... 
(A) 0.4
(C) 0.0396
55.
5
12
10
(C)
14
(B) 0.42525
(D) 0.396
7
12
1
(D)
3
(B)
A dice rolled once what is the probability of rolling a prime number
2
3
1
(C)
6
(A)
57.
p
q
(in the lowest form), then what is the value of ?
q
p
In a class there are 14 boys and 10 girls. If one child is absent, the probability that it is a boy is
(A)
56.
3
10
5
(D)
4
(B)
1
2
5
(D)
6
(B)
The ratio of two sides of a parallelogram is 3 : 5 and its perimeter is 48m, then the sides of the
parallelogram are :
(A) 9 m, 15 m
(B) 3 m, 5 m
(C) 33 m, 25 m
(D) None of these
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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 58 to 66. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
58.
Before sowing, good quality seeds are selected. Select one property of good quality seeds from
the options given below.
(A) Good seeds are lighter in weight
(B) They float on the surface of water when soaked
(C) Good seeds become hollow
(D) They are heavier and sink in water
59.
Continuous growing of crops makes the soil poorer in certain nutrients. Therefore, farmers have
to add something to the fields to replenish the soil with nutrients. This process is called
_________.
(A) Manuring
(B) Sowing
(C) Seeding
(D) Farming
60.
Polio and chicken pox are
(A) Bacterial diseases
(C) Fungal diseases
(B) Viral diseases
(D) Protozoan diseases
61.
Find out the pair of disease caused by protozoans.
(A) Amoebiasis and Malaria
(B) Typhoid and Tuberculosis
(C) Common cold and Influenza
(D) Cholera and Malaria
62.
Major part of nitrogen fixation is done by bacteria but sometimes a small part is fixed by _______.
(A) Animals
(B) Lightening
(C) Gases
(D) None of the above
63.
The major cause of deforestation is/are
(A) Procuring land for cultivation
(C) Building houses and factories
(B) Making furniture and using wood as fuel
(D) All of the above
64.
Which of the following represents the three R’s?
(A) Reduce – Reuse – Recycle
(B) Reduce – Rearrange – Recycle
(C) Reduce – Respect – Recycle
(D) Reduce – Reconsider – Respect
65.
Fertilizers become a source of ________ pollution.
(A) Air pollution
(B) Water pollution
(C) Noise pollution
(D) All of these
66.
In 1778, Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine for __________.
(A) Small pox
(B) Cholera
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Tuberculosis
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III
Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 78. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
67.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) sound travels as waves
(C) sound is a form of energy
(B) sound travels in straight lines
(D) all of these
68.
Friction is considered to be wasteful. Why?
(A) Friction causes wear and tear
(B) Friction leads to loss of energy in the form of heat and sound
(C) Friction reduces the efficiency of machines
(D) All of these
69.
Pitch of a sound changes with change in __________.
(A) frequency
(B) amplitude
(C) loudness
(D) none of these
70.
Which of the following is/are unit(s) of force?
(A) Newton
(C) Dyne
71.
(B) Kilogram force
(D) All of these
The frequency of a source of sound is 200 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?
1
times
200
(A) 200 times
(B)
(C) 12000 times
(D) 1200 times
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72.
Which of the following is correct relationship between Newton and dyne?
(A) 1 N = 10000 dyne
(B) 105 N = 1 dyne
(C) 100000 dyne = 1 N
(D) 1000 dyne = 1 N
73.
Which of the following is a good reflector of sound?
(A) Clothes
(B) Cork
(C) Metallic sheets
(D) Thermacole
74.
Which of the following is true, if f stands for frequency,  stands for wavelength and v stands for
velocity of wave?
f
1
v
f 
(C)   1
v v
(A)
(B) v = f
(D)
vf
1

75.
The speed of sound in air
(A) remains the same with increase in temperature.
(B) remains the same with decrease in temperature.
(C) increase with increase in temperature.
(D) decrease with increase in temperature.
76.
According to Newton’s __________ law of motion, force  rate of change of momentum.
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) None of these
77.
On which of the following, velocity of sound in any gas depends?
(A) amplitude
(B) intensity
(C) volume and temperature
(D) density and elasticity
78.
A wooden block of weight 50 N is placed on a table. The force exerted by the surface of the table
on the block will be __________ .
(A) zero
(B) 25 N
(C) 50 N
(D) 100 N
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 79 to 90. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
79.
Polystyrene has following uses:
(A) for insulating refrigerators & cold stores
(B) for containers which are used as ice box
(C) for packing expensive items such as cell phones, TV
(D) All of these
80.
The alloy brass consists of
(A) copper and tin
(C) copper and aluminium
(B) copper and zinc
(D) tin and lead
81.
Select the one that is NOT derived from fossil fuel.
(A) LPG
(B) Kerosene
(C) Diesel
(D) Biogas
82.
Water gas is
(A) CO  CO 2
(B) CO  N2
(C) CO  H2
(D) CO  N2  H2
Select the one that is a natural polymer.
(A) nylon 6, 6
(C) cellulose
(B) polyester
(D) none of these
The rocky material present in ore is known as
(A) gangue
(C) slag
(B) flux
(D) none of these
83.
84.
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85.
The solution used by goldsmith for cleaning tarnished jewellery is a mixture of two acids X and Y
in the ratio 1 : 3, X and Y are:
(A) Conc. H2SO4 and Conc. HCl
(B) Conc. H2SO4 and Conc. HNO3
(C) Conc. HNO3 and Conc. HCl
(D) None of these
86.
Polymers can be copolymer if
(A) monomers are of more than one kind
(B) monomeric units are linked together to form 3-dimensional network
(C) Some examples are Melamine, Bakelite
(D) All of these
87.
Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(C) Hydrogen
(B) Carbon monoxide
(D) Nitrogen
88.
Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are known as
(A) hydrogen carbides
(B) hydrocarbons
(C) carbohydrides
(D) hydrogen carbines
89.
Natural gas mainly contains
(A) ethane
(C) propane
90.
(B) butane
(D) methane
The frothing agent used in froth floatation process is:
(A) Mustard oil
(B) Pine oil
(C) Coconut oil
(D) Olive oil
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 91 to 102. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
91.
An integer is divisible by 8 if and only if its last x digits are divisible by 8. The value of x would be
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
92.
After 12 years I shall be 3 times as old as I was 4 years ago. Then my present age is equal to:
(A) 12 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 24 years
(D) 30 years
93.
If all the fractions
3 1 8 4 2 5
5
, , , , , and
are arranged in descending order of their values,
5 8 11 9 7 7
12
which one will be the third?
(A)
(C)
94.
1
8
5
12
In the expression 2.5  0.05  1.6  3.2  3.2  2.1  x  0.65 , then the value of x is
(A) 6.7
(C) 8
95.
3
5
8
(D)
11
(B)
(B) 6
(D) None of these
 0.3467  0.1333  is equal to
(A) 0.48
(B) 0.4803
(C) 0.4801
(D) 0.481
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BBE/TRE-2019-C-VIII
96.
If 47.2506  4A 
(Paper-1)-AT+S&M-19
7
5
 2C   6E then the value of 5A  3B  6C  D  3E is
B
D
(A) 53.6003
(C) 153.6003
(B) 53.603
(D) 213.0003
97.
A purse contains 1 rupees and 2 rupee coins in the ratio 5 : 4. If the total value of the coins in the
purse is Rs. 65, then the number of 2 rupees coins is equal to:
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 20
(D) 25
98.
The difference between the smallest perfect square of 5 digits and greatest perfect square of 4
digits is
(A) 89
(B) 120
(C) 189
(D) 199
99.
The coordinates of two points are A (3, 4) and B (–2, 5), then (abscissa of A) – (abscissa of B) =?
(A) 1
(B) –1
(C) 5
(D) –5
100.
What is the least number by which 8640 should be divided, so that the quotient is a perfect cube
number?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 8
101.
A quadrilateral ABCD has four angles x o , 2x o ,
5x o
7x o
and
respectively. What is the difference
2
2
between the value of biggest and the smallest angle.
(A) 40o
(B) 100o
o
(C) 80
(D) 20o
102.
The sum of two numbers is 15 and the difference of their squares is 15. The difference of the
numbers is :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 6
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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 103 to 114. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
103.
When plants of the same kind are grown and cultivated at one place on a large scale, it is called a
_________.
(A) Crop
(B) Soil
(C) Food distribution
(D) Sowing
104.
The rainy season in India is generally from _______ to _______ and crops sown in rainy season
are called _______.
(A) March to July, Kharif
(B) June to September, Kharif
(C) March to July, Rabi
(D) June to September, Rabi
105.
The tilling or ploughing of soil is done by using a
(A) Wood
(B) Iron
(C) Plough
(D) none of these
106.
The mode of transmission of viral disease measles is:
(A) Water
(B) Food
(C) Air
(D) Mosquito
107.
During pasteurization, milk is heated to about
(A) 70oC for 15 to 30 seconds
(C) 78oC for 45 seconds
(B) 50oC for 15 to 30 seconds
(D) none of the above
Which of the following is an antibiotic?
(A) Alcohol
(C) Sodium chloride
(B) Streptomycin
(D) Sodium Benzoate
108.
109.
In India, the law for the protection of wildlife was framed in the year ________.
(A) 1970
(B) 1971
(C) 1972
(D) 1973
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110.
What do Black Buck, Elephant, Python and Golden cat together forms ______ part of forest?
(A) Fauna
(B) Flora
(C) Ecosystem
(D) Species
111.
The excessive use of fertilizers has made the soil _______.
(A) more fertile
(B) less fertile
(C) porous
(D) provide humus
112
Weeds can be removed by using–
(A) Pesticides
(C) Weedicides
(B) Fungicides
(D) Bactericides
113.
The cutting of mature crop is called _____________.
(A) Winnowing
(B) Threshing
(C) Harvesting
(D) Weeding
114.
Project tiger was launched by the government. The objective of this was
(A) to ensure the survival and maintenance of tiger population
(B) to ensure poaching of tigers
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) to utilize tiger’s skin in various textile industries.
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FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER – 2019
(Big Bang Edge Test / Talent Recognition Exam)
for students presently in
Class 8 (Paper 1)
ANSWERS
1.
A
2.
B
3.
D
4.
B
5.
D
6.
C
7.
D
8.
B
9.
A
10.
B
11.
B
12.
A
13.
A
14.
B
15.
D
16.
A
17.
C
18.
A
19.
C
20.
C
21.
A
22.
A
23.
C
24.
D
25.
A
26.
C
27.
D
28.
D
29.
D
30.
B
31.
B
32.
A
33.
A
34.
B
35.
D
36.
A
37.
A
38.
B
39.
B
40.
C
41.
B
42.
C
43.
A
44.
B
45.
A
46.
B
47.
A
48.
B
49.
B
50.
B
51.
D
52.
C
53.
C
54.
D
55.
B
56.
B
57.
A
58.
D
59.
A
60.
B
61.
A
62.
B
63.
D
64.
A
65.
B
66.
A
67.
D
68.
D
69.
A
70.
D
71.
C
72.
C
73.
C
74.
A
75.
C
76.
B
77.
D
78.
C
79.
D
80.
B
81.
D
82.
C
83.
C
84.
A
85.
C
86.
D
87.
A
88.
B
89.
D
90.
B
91.
A
92.
A
93.
B
94.
D
95.
C
96.
C
97.
C
98.
D
99.
C
100.
C
101.
B
102.
B
103.
A
104.
B
105.
C
106.
C
107.
A
108.
B
109.
C
110.
A
111.
B
112.
C
113.
C
114.
A
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