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Biology Chapter test A
Biology (Memorial University of Newfoundland)
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Modern Biology ®
Chapter Tests
with Answer Key
General and Advanced
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
The Science of Life
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. hypothesis
a. variable that is measured in an experiment
______ 2. resolution
b. the maintenance of a stable level of
internal conditions
______ 3. magnification
______ 4. base unit
______ 5. dependent variable
______ 6. independent variable
______ 7. homeostasis
______ 8. peer review
c. a proposed explanation to a scientific
question
d. a factor that differs in the control group
and the experimental group of an
experiment
e. the increase of an object’s apparent size
f. critique of a scientific paper by an expert
in the field
g. the power to show details clearly in an
image
h. fundamental SI unit
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 9. A theory, in the scientific sense, is
a. the same as a hypothesis.
b. an uncertain guess.
c. a set of tested and confirmed related hypotheses.
d. a prediction.
______10. The function of the eyepiece in a compound light microscope is to
a. provide light for viewing the image.
b. support the slide containing the specimen.
c. magnify the image.
d. stain the specimen.
______11. During a scientific investigation, a researcher generally forms a
hypothesis and makes predictions
a. before asking questions.
b. after drawing conclusions.
c. before collecting observations.
d. after collecting observations.
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The Science of Life, Chapter Test A continued
______12. The presence of viruses inside a cell can best be seen using a
a. compound light microscope.
b. transmission electron microscope.
c. scanning electron microscope.
d. hand lens.
______13. All of the following are important themes in biology EXCEPT the
a. classification of living organisms.
b. diversity and unity of life.
c. interdependence of living organisms.
d. evolution of life.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
14. A(n)
functions.
is the smallest unit capable of all life
15. The hierarchy of organization in a multicellular organism consists of cells,
,
, and
.
16. All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment
through the process of
.
17. Parents produce offspring through
.
18. Organisms that are
that are close together in a tree of life.
19.
related are placed on branches
as a theme in biology helps biologists understand
how organisms are related to other living organisms and to organisms that
have lived in the past.
20. When an owl dilates its pupils in response to decreased light, it is responding
to a
.
21. An organism’s
is all of the chemical reactions that
it carries out in order to run the processes of life.
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The Science of Life, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. How does the publication of research in a scientific journal benefit scientists?
23. Explain why biology is important to a person’s daily life and to human society.
24. What is the role of metabolism in life?
25. Why is reproduction an essential part of living?
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Chapter Test A
Chemistry of Life
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. A substance that cannot be
broken down by chemical
means into simpler kinds of
matter is a(n)
a. element.
b. atom.
c. molecule.
d. electron.
______ 5. Water is _______ , therefore
_______ substances dissolve
in it.
a. polar, nonpolar
b. polar, polar
c. nonpolar, polar
d. nonpolar, nonpolar
______ 6. Chemical reactions may
_______ energy.
a. absorb
b. release
c. require
d. All of the above
______ 2. The bonds between the
atoms that make up water
molecules are called
a. covalent bonds.
b. hydrogen bonds.
c. ionic and covalent bonds.
d. covalent and hydrogen
bonds.
______ 7. Without energy, organisms
could NOT
a. maintain homeostasis.
b. carry out chemical
reactions.
c. make their own food.
d. All of the above
______ 3. An atom is called an ion
when it has
a. either lost or gained
electrons.
b. either lost or gained
protons.
c. more neutrons than
protons.
d. lost its nucleus.
______ 8. Compounds are formed
when
a. atoms of an element lose
an electron.
b. atoms of an element gain
an electron.
c. atoms of the same
element join together.
d. atoms of two different
elements join together.
______ 4. A solution is a mixture of
a. polar and nonpolar
substances.
b. protons and neutrons.
c. unevenly distributed
substances.
d. evenly distributed substances.
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Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. Enzymes
a. are usually carbohydrates.
b. can only catalyze a reaction once.
c. reduce the activation energy of chemical reactions.
d. eliminate the activation energy of chemical reactions.
______10. Water stores heat much longer than other substances do, allowing
organisms to
a. heat themselves through evaporation.
b. maintain a stable internal temperature.
c. dissolve nonpolar compounds.
d. maintain surface tension.
______11. The concentration of hydronium ions in a solution with a pH of 4
is how many times that of a solution with a pH of 2?
a. 2
c. 100
b. 10
d. 1,000
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______12. alkaline
a. an attraction between substances of the
same kind
______13. cohesion
b. a reactant loses an electron
______14. adhesion
c. bond found in a water molecule
______15. acid
d. a reactant gains an electron
e. an attraction between different substances
______16. oxidation
f. having a pH above 7
______ 17. reduction
g. bond found between water molecules
______18. covalent bond
h. a compound that forms hydronium ions
when dissolved in water
______19. hydrogen bond
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Chemistry of Life, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
20. Molecules that are
dissolve best in water, while
molecules do not dissolve well in water.
21. The weak chemical attraction between water molecules are
bonds, while the stronger chemical bonds between
the atoms of each water molecule are
22. Unlike most solids, solid
bonds.
is less dense than its
liquid form.
23. A hydrogen ion reacts with a water molecule to form a
ion.
24. When sodium chloride is dissolved in water, it dissociates to form
and
.
25. Enzymes are a type of
, which reduces the
activation energy of a chemical reaction.
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Chapter Test A
Biochemistry
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. All organic compounds
contain
a. nitrogen.
b. oxygen.
c. carbon.
d. amino acids.
______ 5. A substrate attaches to the
________ of an enzyme.
a. peptide bond
b. R group
c. active site
d. activator
______ 2. Enzymes
a. are usually carbohydrates.
b. can only catalyze a
reaction once.
c. reduce the activation
energy of chemical
reactions.
d. eliminate the activation
energy of chemical
reactions.
______ 6. A model of enzyme action
is the
a. induced fit model.
b. lipid bilayer model.
c. activator action model.
d. active site model.
______ 7. Monomers link to form polymers through a chemical
reaction called a ________
reaction.
a. hydrolysis
b. redox
c. condensation
d. ionic
______ 3. Which of the following
groups of terms is associated with carbohydrates?
a. monosaccharide, glycogen, cellulose
b. monosaccharide, cellulose, lipid
c. disaccharide, polysaccharide, steroid
d. polysaccharide, amino
acid, collagen
______ 8. All of the following are
functional groups EXCEPT
a. a hydroxyl group.
b. an amino group.
c. a carboxyl group.
d. a carbonate group.
______ 9. A phospholipid molecule
contains all of the following
EXCEPT
a. two fatty acids.
b. three fatty acids.
c. a phosphate group.
d. glycerol.
______ 4. Two polysaccharides that
store glucose are
a. starch and waxes.
b. starch and glycogen.
c. sucrose and cellulose.
d. cellulose and glycogen.
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Biochemistry, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
a. subunit of most lipids
______10. carbohydrate
b. molecule that stores energy
______11. functional group
c. molecule made of repeating units
______12. monomer
d. functions in protein synthesis
e. cluster of atoms that influence the
molecules they compose
______13. polymer
______14. ATP
f. contains genetic information
______15. DNA
g. subunit of protein
______16. RNA
h. small simple molecule that makes up a
larger molecule
______ 17. amino acid
i. ratio of 1 carbon: 2 hydrogen: 1 oxygen
______18. nucleotide
j. contains a phosphate group, a sugar,
and a nitrogenous base
______19. fatty acid
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided. Refer to the
diagrams below to answer questions 20–22 .
CH2OH
H
C
OH
C
O
H
OH
H
C
C
H
OH
A
OH
C
H
Amino
acids
O H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H
HO
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C H
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H
B
C
20. Identify the class of organic compound represented by each of the molecules
shown above.
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Biochemistry, Chapter Test A continued
21. For each type of compound shown in the diagram, explain the role it plays
in your body.
22. How can you tell whether a compound is organic or not?
23. Explain why living things need energy and where they get it.
24. Briefly describe the function of ATP in cells.
25. Why is cholesterol needed by the body?
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Chapter Test A
Cell Structure and Function
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. cytoplasm
a. outer boundary of the cell
______ 2. ribosome
b. hairlike structure that enables cell
movement
______ 3. flagellum
c. interior of a cell
______ 4. plasma membrane
d. internal compartment that houses a
cell’s DNA
______ 5. nucleus
e. cellular structure on which proteins
are made
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 6. Which scientist determined
that cells come only from
other cells?
a. van Leeuwenhoek
b. Schleiden
c. Schwann
d. Virchow
______ 9. Which of the following
could be found in a
prokaryote?
a. chloroplast
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. flagellum
d. mitochondrion
______ 7. Which of the following is
NOT part of the cell theory?
a. All living things are made
of one or more cells.
b. All cells contain the
same organelles.
c. Cells are the basic units
of structure and function
in organisms.
d. All cells arise from
existing cells.
______10. Which part of the plasma
membrane helps cells
recognize each other?
a. phospholipid bilayer
b. peripheral proteins
c. integral proteins
d. carbohydrates
______11. Which of the following
helps plant cells remain
rigid?
a. plasma membrane
b. nucleus
c. chloroplast
d. central vacuole
______ 8. As a cell becomes smaller,
its surface area-to-volume
ratio
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. stays the same.
d. becomes less important.
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Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Which of the following
organelles enables plants to
make carbohydrates from
carbon dioxide and water?
a. central vacuole
b. nucleus
c. chloroplast
d. cell wall
______15. Which type of molecule
is found in the plasma
membrane?
a. carbohydrate
b. protein
c. phospholipid
d. All of the above
______16. The lipid bilayer of the
plasma membrane
a. provides a boundary
between the cell and its
surroundings.
b. forms vesicles.
c. transports substances
into and out of the cell.
d. All of the above
______13. Which of the following is
one difference between
prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a. Nucleic acids are found
only in prokaryotes.
b. Eukaryotes contain
mitochondria.
c. Organelles are found
only in prokaryotes.
d. Prokaryotes have a
nuclear envelope.
______14. The nucleus of a cell contains all of the following
EXCEPT
a. chromosomes.
b. mitochondria.
c. DNA.
d. RNA.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
17. The statement “Cells arise only from existing cells” is part of the
.
18. Cilia and
are structures that enable cell movement
and sometimes move substances across a cell’s surface.
19. The system of microscopic protein fibers that supports the shape
of the cell is called the
.
20. Ribosomes are found on the
endoplasmic reticulum.
21. Newly made
are transported to the smooth
endoplasmic reticulum for further processing.
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Cell Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. Explain the role of DNA in cells.
23. Why can small cells exchange substances more readily than large cells?
24. Why are mitochondria important to the functioning of eukaryotic cells?
25. Describe the structure and function of the cytoskeleton.
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Chapter Test A
Homeostasis and Cell Transport
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. sodium-potassium pump
a. helps a cell rid itself of wastes
______ 2. hypertonic solution
b. double layer that makes up cell
membrane
______ 3. isotonic solution
c. may be open or closed
______ 4. facilitated diffusion
d. shields molecule from interior of
lipid bilayer
______ 5. exocytosis
e. transports potassium ions into
the cell
______ 6. phospholipids
f. transport of a specific substance
down its concentration gradient by
a carrier protein
______ 7. gated ion channel
______ 8. hypotonic solutions
g. may cause a cell to burst
______ 9. carrier protein
h. should have no affect on a cell
i. causes a cell to shrivel
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______10. In the cell membrane, ion channels serve as
a. food molecules.
c. information receivers.
b. cell identifiers.
d. passageways.
______11. The diffusion of water through a membrane is called
a. exocytosis.
c. active transport.
b. osmosis.
d. endocytosis.
______12. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of active transport?
a. It moves substances against a concentration gradient.
b. It requires energy from the cell.
c. It involves facilitated diffusion.
d. It relies on carrier proteins that often function as pumps.
______13. Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a. through only a lipid bilayer.
b. from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c. only in liquids.
d. from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
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Homeostasis and Cell Transport, Chapter Test A continued
______14. An ion channel is a transport protein that
a. moves substances against a concentration gradient.
b. pumps ions only out of a cell.
c. allows ions to move across the cell membrane so that the ions do
not come in contact with the nonpolar interior of the lipid bilayer.
d. has pores that are always open.
______15. When particles move out of a cell through facilitated diffusion, the cell
a. gains energy.
c. first gains and then uses energy.
b. uses energy.
d. does not use energy.
______16. The sodium-potassium pump
a. helps cells maintain homeostasis.
b. carries ions across the membrane from an area of high
concentration to an area of lower concentration.
c. helps maintain a sodium ion gradient, which cells use to
conduct electrical impulses.
d. Both (a) and (c)
______ 17. Molecules that are too large to be moved through the cell membrane
can be transported into the cell by
a. osmosis.
c. exocytosis.
b. endocytosis.
d. diffusion.
______18. If the concentration of a sugar solution is lower outside the cell than
inside the cell, which of the following will happen by osmosis?
a. Sugar will move into the cell.
b. Water will move into the cell.
c. Sugar will move out of the cell.
d. Water will move out of the cell.
______19. Which of the following is an example of osmosis?
a. the movement of ions from an area of high concentration to an area
of lower concentration
b. the movement of ions from an area of low concentration to an area
of higher concentration
c. the movement of water molecules from an area of high
concentration to an area of lower concentration
d. the movement of water molecules from an area of low
concentration to an area of higher concentration
______20. The excretion of materials to the outside of a cell by discharging them
from vesicles is called
a. exocytosis.
c. osmosis.
b. endocytosis.
d. diffusion.
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Homeostasis and Cell Transport, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
21. The processes of endocytosis and exocytosis both require
.
22. Osmosis and diffusion are both examples of
.
23. When the concentration of dissolved particles is the same throughout a
solution, the system is said to be in
.
24. Using energy to transport molecules through a membrane from an area
of low concentration to an area of higher concentration is called
.
25. In facilitated diffusion,
move substances down their concentration gradient.
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Chapter Test A
Photosynthesis
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. organic compounds
______ 2. light reactions
a. site of Calvin cycle
b. consume food to get energy
c. accessory pigment
______ 3. thylakoids
______ 4. stroma
______ 5. chlorophyll b
d. site of light reactions
e. relies on a concentration gradient of
protons
f. first stage of photosynthesis
______ 6. sun
g. contain chemical energy
______ 7. heterotrophs
h. pigment directly involved in light
reactions
______ 8. chemiosmosis
______ 9. autotrophs
i. use energy from light or inorganic substances to make organic compounds
j. source of energy for living systems
______10. chlorophyll a
k. adaptation to hot, dry climate
______11. CAM pathway
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______12. When electrons of a chlorophyll molecule are excited to a higher
energy level,
a. carotenoids break down to become ions.
b. they enter the Calvin cycle.
c. they are transferred to a primary electron acceptor.
d. carotenoids are converted to chlorophyll.
______13. What is the source of oxygen produced during photosynthesis?
a. carbon dioxide
c. air
b. water
d. glucose
______14. When a chlorophyll molecule absorbs light,
a. some of its electrons are excited to a higher energy level.
b. some of the atoms in the molecule disintegrate.
c. it absorbs mostly green light.
d. it absorbs all wavelengths of light.
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Photosynthesis, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figures below to answer questions 15 and 16.
Effect of Light Intensity
on Photosynthesis
Rate of photosynthesis
Rate of photosynthesis
Effect of Temperature
on Photosynthesis
5
10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
Increasing light intensity
Temperature (°C)
Graph A
Graph B
______15. Graph A demonstrates that the rate of photosynthesis
a. decreases in response to increasing light intensity.
b. increases indefinitely in response to increasing light intensity.
c. increases in response to increasing light intensity but only to
a certain point.
d. All of the above
______16. Taken together, these graphs demonstrate that
a. photosynthesis is independent of environmental influences.
b. increases in light intensity cause increases in temperature.
c. the rate of photosynthesis increases as the temperature
eventually decreases.
d. the rate of photosynthesis is affected by changes in the
environment.
______ 17. The Calvin cycle is a common method of which of the following?
a. respiration
c. carbon fixation
b. fermentation
d. electron transport
______18. The production of ATP during photosynthesis requires
a. energy released when protons move down their concentration
gradient.
b. ATP synthase to catalyze the addition of a phosphate group to a
molecule of ADP.
c. energy from electrons passing through electron transport chains.
d. All of the above
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Photosynthesis, Chapter Test A continued
______19. The Calvin cycle can occur
a. only in the light.
b. only in the dark.
c. in either light or dark.
d. only in the presence of oxygen.
______20. NADPH is formed when the electron acceptor NADPⴙ combines with
a. a proton and excited electrons.
b. excited electrons and ATP.
c. hydrogen ions and glucose.
d. excited electrons and proteins.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
21. In the Calvin cycle, a molecule of
is added to a five-carbon compound, and a
three-carbon sugar is produced.
22. During photosynthesis, oxygen gas is produced when water molecules are
split to provide replacement
for photosystem II.
23. The less carbon dioxide that is available to a plant, the
photosynthesis proceeds.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. Does increasing the temperature always increase the rate of photosynthesis?
Explain.
25. Where does the energy used in the Calvin cycle come from?
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Chapter Test A
Cellular Respiration
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. organic compounds
______ 2. fermentation
a. first stage in cellular respiration
b. citric acid is involved
c. produces up to 38 ATP
______ 3. ATP
d. produced by cellular respiration
______ 4. glycolysis
______ 5. aerobic respiration
______ 6. Krebs cycle
e. electrons are transferred from molecule
to molecule
f. regenerates NAD⫹ so cell can continue
producing ATP in the absence of oxygen
______ 7. electron transport chain
g. used by organisms to store chemical
energy
______ 8. chemiosmosis
h. involved in glycolysis
______ 9. G3P
i. involves a concentration gradient
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______10. For each molecule of glucose entering glycolysis, there is a net gain of
a. six ATP molecules.
b. four ATP molecules.
c. three ATP molecules.
d. two ATP molecules.
______11. During cellular respiration,
a. the complete breakdown of glucose yields only carbon dioxide
and water.
b. the complete breakdown of glucose yields ATP molecules.
c. NADPH is produced.
d. carbon dioxide is required.
______12. In the Krebs cycle, production of ATP requires
a. acetyl-CoA.
b. the gradual breakdown of a six-carbon compound.
c. the transfer of a phosphate group to ADP.
d. All of the above
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Cellular Respiration, Chapter Test A continued
______13. To maximize ATP production, glycolysis must be
followed by
a. fermentation.
c. the Calvin cycle.
b. the Krebs cycle.
d. photosynthesis.
______14. Glycolysis yields
a. two six-carbon molecules.
b. four NADH molecules.
c. a large amount of ATP and NADH.
d. two pyruvic acid molecules, two NADH molecules, and
four ATP molecules.
______15. ATP releases energy when
a. new phosphate groups are added.
b. the five-carbon sugar detaches.
c. the bonds between phosphate groups are broken.
d. the nitrogen-containing base breaks down.
______16. The final electron acceptor for the electron transport chain of aerobic
respiration is which of the following?
a. hydrogen
c. ATP
b. nitrogen
d. oxygen
______ 17. In glycolysis,
a. aerobic processes occur.
b. four ATP molecules are produced.
c. four ADP molecules are produced.
d. glucose is produced.
______18. Which of the following is NOT part of cellular respiration?
a. electron transport chain
c. Krebs cycle
b. glycolysis
d. Calvin cycle
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
19. During glycolysis, NADH is formed when hydrogen atoms are transferred to
an electron acceptor called
.
20. The reaction that removes a(n)
from ATP results
in ADP and provides energy for the cell.
21. Fermentation allows the continued production of
even though
is not present.
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Cellular Respiration, Chapter Test A continued
22. During anaerobic processes, NADH transfers electrons to the pyruvic acid
produced during
.
23. During aerobic respiration, pyruvic acid is first converted to acetyl-CoA,
which enters the
.
24. During cellular respiration, a cell produces most of its energy through
respiration.
Write your answer in the space provided.
25. In order for pyruvic acid to be used for the production of ATP, oxygen must
be present. What happens to pyruvic acid produced during glycolysis if
oxygen is not available to a cell?
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Chapter Test A
Cell Reproduction
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. chromatids
a. a cell that contains one set of chromosomes
______ 2. centromere
b. preparations are made for the nucleus to
divide
______ 3. homologous
chromosomes
c. phase of meiosis during which crossing-over
occurs
______ 4. diploid
d. misregulation of the proteins that control cell
growth and division
______ 5. haploid
e. the point at which two chromatids are
attached
______ 6. prophase I
______ 7. cancer
f. the two copies of DNA on each chromosome
that form just before cell division
______ 8. first growth
(G1) phase
g. the cell grows and carries out routine functions
______ 9. mitosis checkpoint
h. chromosomes that are similar in shape and
size and have similar genetic information
______10. second growth
(G2) phase
i. a cell that contains two sets of chromosomes
j. triggers the exit from mitosis
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______11. A student can study a karyotype to learn about the
a. process of binary fission.
b. genes that are present in a particular strand of DNA.
c. medical history of an individual.
d. chromosomes present in an individual’s cells.
______12. Spindles are composed of which of the following?
a. microtubules and cleavage furrows
b. kinetochore fibers and polar fibers
c. chromatids and centromeres
d. the centriole
______13. Chromatids are
a. made of microtubules.
b. bacterial chromosomes.
c. strands of duplicate genetic material.
d. supercoils of protein.
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Cell Reproduction, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows the stages of mitosis, to answer
questions 14 and 15 .
A
B
C
D
______14. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which mitosis
occurs?
a. A, B, C, D
c. C, B, A, D
b. B, A, C, D
d. A, C, B, D
______15. Which stage shows metaphase?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Refer to the figures below to answer questions 16 and 17.
______16. The stage of the cell cycle that these cells are in is
a. first growth (G1) phase.
c. mitosis.
b. synthesis (S) phase.
d. cytokinesis.
Animal Cell
Plant Cell
______ 17. The structure in the center of the animal cell that pinches the cell in
half is called the
a. cleavage furrow.
c. centromere.
b. Golgi apparatus.
d. spindle apparatus.
______18. If an organism has 12 chromosomes in each body cell, how many
chromosomes would you expect to find in the organism’s gametes?
a. 4
c. 10
b. 6
d. 12
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Cell Reproduction, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
19. Describe the role that the spindle fibers play in mitosis.
20. Explain why crossing-over is an important source of genetic variation.
21. What is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
22. Compare the processes of spermatogenesis with those of oogenesis.
23. Explain the difference between asexual reproduction and sexual
reproduction.
24. Describe the difference between cytokinesis in animal cells and in plant cells.
25. Describe the structure of a chromosome.
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Chapter Test A
Fundamentals of Genetics
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
1. When two members of the F1 generation are crossed, the offspring are
referred to as the
generation.
2. Parents with genotypes Pp and pp can produce offspring of genotypes
and
.
3. Crossing two pea plants heterozygous for flower color should produce a
phenotypic ratio of
in the offspring.
4. Mendel allowed each variety of garden pea to
-
for several generations. This ensured that each plant
in the P generation was
-
for
a particular trait.
5. The genotypic ratio expected when two Pp plants are crossed is
.
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 6. When two different alleles occur together, the one that is expressed is
called
a. dominant.
c. recessive.
b. phenotypic.
d. superior.
______ 7. An organism that has inherited two of the same alleles of a gene from
its parents is
for that trait.
a. hereditary
c. homozygous
b. heterozygous
d. a mutation
______ 8. The law of segregation states that
a. alleles of a gene separate from each other during gamete formation.
b. different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c. each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d. each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.
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Fundamentals of Genetics, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. The probability of a coin toss yielding heads is
a. 0.25
b. 0.50
c. 1.00
d. 0.00
______10. The law of independent assortment applies only to genes that are
a. codominant.
b. located on different chromosomes or are far apart on the same
chromosome.
c. located on the same chromosome.
d. dominant.
Refer to the figure below, which shows a cross between two rabbits, to answer
questions 11–14. In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b).
B
b
B
1
2
b
3
4
Bb ⴛ Bb
______11. The device illustrated above, which is used to organize genetic
analysis, is called a
a. Mendelian box.
c. genetic graph.
b. Punnett square.
d. phenotypic paradox.
______12. The fur in both of the parents in the cross is
a. black.
c. homozygous dominant.
b. brown.
d. homozygous recessive.
______13. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by Box 3 would be
a. brown.
b. a mixture of brown and black.
c. black.
d. The phenotype cannot be determined.
______14. The genotypic ratio (BB : Bb) of the F1 generation would be
a. 1:1.
b. 3:1.
c. 1:3.
d. None of the above
______15. The first step in Mendel’s garden pea experiments was to
a. remove the stamens of flowers on the plants.
b. cross-pollinate two P generation plants with contrasting traits.
c. allow each plant variety to self-pollinate for several generations.
d. allow the F1 generation to self-pollinate.
______16. Which ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes did Mendel find in
his F2 generation?
a. 1:3
b. 3:1
c. 2:1
d. 4:1
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Fundamentals of Genetics, Chapter Test A continued
______ 17. When a cross between a red flower and a white flower yields pink
offspring, the trait is
a. dominant.
c. incompletely dominant.
b. recessive.
d. codominant.
______18. Black fur is dominant over brown fur in rabbits. White and gray fur
exhibit incomplete dominance. How can you find out the genotype
of a rabbit with black fur?
a. Mate the black rabbit with a white rabbit.
b. Mate the black rabbit with a another black rabbit.
c. Mate the black rabbit with a gray rabbit.
d. Mate the black rabbit with a brown rabbit.
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______19. allele
a. an organism’s genetic makeup
______20. pollination
b. pollen grains are transferred to the stigma
c. an organism’s appearance
______21. trait
d. genetically determined variant of a characteristic
______22. genotype
e. alternative form of a gene
______23. phenotype
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. What approximate ratio of plants expressing contrasting traits did Mendel
calculate in his F2 generation of garden peas? What steps did he take to
calculate this ratio?
25. Describe Mendel’s two laws of heredity.
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Chapter Test A
DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. nucleotide
______ 2. deoxyribose
______ 3. adenine
a. a nitrogenous base that forms hydrogen
bonds with cytosine
b. a nitrogenous base that forms hydrogen
bonds with guanine
c. a nitrogenous base that forms hydrogen
bonds with thymine
______ 4. guanine
______ 5. cytosine
d. enzymes that have a proofreading role in
DNA replication
______ 6. thymine
e. a class of organic molecules, each having
a double ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms
______ 7. purines
______ 8. pyrimidines
f. portions of DNA where the double helix
separates during DNA replication
______ 9. DNA polymerases
g. a five-carbon sugar
______10. replication forks
h. consists of a phosphate group, a
sugar molecule, and a nitrogen base
______11. codon
______12. genome
i. a nitrogenous base that forms hydrogen
bonds with adenine
j. a class of organic molecules, each having
a single ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms
k. complete gene content of an organism
l. 3-nucleotide sequence of mRNA
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______13. What did Griffith observe in his transformation experiments?
a. Virulent bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b. Heat-killed bacteria changed into S bacteria.
c. Harmless bacteria changed into S bacteria.
d. Virulent S bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
______14. In 1944, Avery conducted a series of experiments that showed that the
material responsible for transformation is
a. RNA.
b. DNA.
c. protein.
d. bacteriophage.
______15. The nucleotides in DNA are bonded to each other by
a. covalent bonds.
c. ionic bonds.
b. hydrogen bonds.
d. peptide bonds.
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DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the mRNA sequence CUC-AAG-UGC-UUC and the table below, which lists
mRNA codons, to answer questions 14–16.
Codons in mRNA
Second base
First
base
U
C
A
Third
base
G
U
UUU
Phenylalanine
UUC
UUA
Leucine
UUG
UCU
UCC Serine
UCA
UCG
UAU
Tyrosine
UAC
UAA
Stop
UAG
UGU
Cysteine
UGC
UGA Stop
UGG Tryptophan
U
C
A
G
C
CUU
CUC
CUA
CUG
Leucine
CCU
CCC
CCA
CCG
CAU
CAC
CAA
CAG
CGU
CGC
CGA
CGG
U
C
A
G
AUU
AUC
AUA
AUG
Isoleucine
A
G
Start
GUU
GUC Valine
GUA
GUG
ACU
ACC
ACA
ACG
Proline
Threonine
GCU
GCC Alanine
GCA
GCG
AAU
AAC
AAA
AAG
GAU
GAC
GAA
GAG
Histidine
Glutamine
Asparagine
Lysine
Aspartic
acid
Glutamic
acid
AGU
AGC
AGA
AGG
Arginine
Serine
Arginine
U
C
A
G
U
C
A
G
GGU
GGC Glycine
GGA
GGG
______16. Which of the following would represent the sequence of DNA from
which the mRNA sequence was made?
a. CUC-AAG-UGC-UUC
c. GAG-TTC-ACG-AAG
b. GAG-UUC-ACG-AAG
d. AGA-CCT-GTA-GGA
______ 17. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA sequence above are
a. GAG-UUC-ACG-AAG.
c. CUC-GAA-CGU-CUU.
b. GAG-TTC-ACG-AAG.
d. CUU-CGU-GAA-CUC.
______18. Which of the following represents the portion of the protein molecule
coded for by the mRNA sequence above?
a. serine-tyrosine-arginine-glycine
b. valine-aspartic acid-proline-histidine
c. leucine-lysine-cysteine-phenylalanine
d. glutamic acid-phenylalanine-threonine-lysine
______19. The two chains of the DNA molecule are held together by
a. covalent bonds.
c. ionic bonds.
b. hydrogen bonds.
d. peptide bonds.
______20. At the end of the replication process, each of the two new DNA
molecules is composed of which of the following?
a. two new DNA strands
b. one new and one original DNA strand
c. one new and one mutated DNA strand
d. two original DNA strands
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DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
21. What is the difference between transcription and translation?
22. Explain how RNA differs from DNA.
23. Describe the role of DNA helicases during replication.
Refer to the figure below to answer questions 24 and 25.
C
A
B
24. What does the figure above represent?
25. Identify the structures labeled A–C.
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Gene Expression
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
1. When a(n)
mutates,
appendages may form in unusual places.
2. A(n)
can be used as a
tool to determine which genes are being expressed.
3. In a(n)
tumor, the uncontrolled dividing cells may
invade and destroy healthy tissues elsewhere in the body.
4. The spread of cancer cells beyond their original site is called
.
5. Usually more than one
is needed to produce a
cancer cell, a fact that may explain why the risk of cancer increases with age.
6. When there is no lactose present in a bacterial cell, a(n)
turns the lac operon
.
7. A repressor protein can physically block
from binding to a promoter site on the lac operon.
8. In
after transcription.
9. A(n)
cancer.
, gene regulation can occur before, during, and
is any substance that can induce or promote
10. An abnormal proliferation of cells that results from uncontrolled cell division
is called a
.
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______11. The piece of DNA that overlaps the promoter and serves as the on-off
switch in operons is called a(n)
a. promoter site.
c. enhancer.
b. operator.
d. repressor.
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Gene Expression, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Tumor-suppressor genes
a. code for proteins that control cell division.
b. do not occur in prokaryotes.
c. can result in cancer when they mutate.
d. All of the above
______13. In eukaryotes, gene expression is regulated by
a. operons.
c. transcription factors.
b. operators.
d. All of the above
______14. Which of the following occurs in eukaryotes?
a. Exons are cut out after transcription.
b. Only exons are translated.
c. Only introns are transcribed.
d. Introns are joined together and then translated.
______15. In the absence of lactose, a repressor protein binds to
a. the operator.
c. the enhancer.
b. another repressor.
d. an exon.
______16. Which of the following is an advantage of regulating gene expression?
a. The organism conserves energy.
b. The organism can prevent mutations.
c. Most genes are never transcribed.
d. Fewer genes have to be passed on to the next generation.
______ 17. Eukaryotic genes
a. contain operons.
b. have long, unbroken stretches of DNA called spliceosomes.
c. are long, unbroken stretches of nucleotides that all code for a single
protein.
d. are interrupted by non-coding segments called introns.
______18. After mRNA has been transcribed in eukaryotes,
a. its introns are cut out.
b. its exons are joined together.
c. it leaves the nucleus through pores in the nuclear envelope.
d. All of the above
______19. An operon is composed of which of the following?
a. a group of proteins, their promoter site, and their operator
b. a group of genes, their operator, and RNA polymerase
c. a group of genes, their promoter site, and their operator
d. an enhancer, an operator, and RNA polymerase
______20. Regulatory proteins in eukaryotes that are involved in controlling the
onset of transcription are called
a. repressors.
c. operators.
b. transcription factors.
d. enhancers.
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Gene Expression, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
21. How is RNA polymerase affected by the presence of lactose in bacterial cells?
22. What are introns?
23. Describe how eukaryotic genes are organized.
24. Summarize the role of transcription factors in regulating eukaryotic gene
expression.
25. What is the lac operon?
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Both sickle cell anemia and hemophilia
a. are caused by genes coding for defective proteins.
b. are seen in homozygous dominant individuals.
c. provide resistance to malaria infections.
d. are sex-linked traits.
______ 2. If a characteristic is sex-linked, it
a. occurs most commonly
c. can never occur in females.
in males.
b. occurs only in females.
d. is always fatal.
______ 3. Which of the following is an example of gene therapy?
a. A genetic counselor studies a pedigree.
b. A student studies the colors of flowers in pea plants.
c. A geneticist explains the inheritance of albinism by using a Punnett
square.
d. A physician transfers a normal gene into the DNA of a person with
a mutated form of the gene.
Refer to the figure below, which shows the inheritance of sickle cell anemia in a
family, to answer question 4.
______ 4. Which of the following is true based on the information provided in
the pedigree?
a. Both parents have sickle cell anemia.
b. Both parents carry an allele for sickle cell anemia.
c. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a dominant allele.
d. All three children are carriers of a defective gene that causes
sickle cell anemia.
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Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics, Chapter Test A continued
______ 5. Which of the following is true when analyzing a pedigree?
a. If a disorder is caused by a recessive trait, every offspring afflicted
with the disorder will have a parent with the disorder.
b. If a disorder is caused by a dominant trait, two normal parents can
produce an offspring with the disorder.
c. If a disorder is caused by a recessive trait, the normal parents of
every offspring with the disorder are carriers.
d. If a disorder is caused by a sex-linked trait, only male offspring will
have the disorder.
______ 6. Genetic disorders are caused by
a. faulty proteins.
b. genetic mutations.
c. damaged genes.
d. All of the above
______ 7. Which of the following human genetic disorders is caused by a dominant
allele?
a. cystic fibrosis
c. Huntington’s disease
b. hemophilia
d. sickle cell anemia
______ 8. What do genetic counselors do?
a. They look for cures for deadly genetic disorders.
b. They try to replace defective genes with healthy ones, using an
approach called gene therapy.
c. They inform people about genetic disorders that could affect them.
d. All of the above
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
9. Characteristics such as eye color, height, weight, and hair and skin color are
examples of
several genes act together to influence a trait.
because
10. Mutations in genetic material may cause
, such as cystic fibrosis and muscular dystrophy.
11. In a pedigree, if two normal parents produce a child with a genetic disorder,
then the disorder is caused by a(n)
allele.
12. The percentage of crossing-over for two traits is proportional to the number
of
between the genes
for the traits.
13. The
chromosome contains a gene that causes the
gonads of an embryo to develop as testes.
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Inheritance Patterns and Human Genetics, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
14. linked genes
15. map unit
a. frequency of crossing-over of 1 percent
b. chromosome segment that is inserted backwards
16. pedigree
c. chromosome segment attached to nonhomologous
chromosome
17. polygenic
d. diagram that shows how a trait is inherited
18. multiple alleles
e. technique that allows analysis of fetal cells
f. genes with more than two alleles
19. translocation
g. genes that are inherited together
20. inversion
h. chromosome that is not a sex chromosome
21. amniocentesis
i. trait influenced by several genes
22. autosome
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. Explain how polygenic traits occur.
24. Explain why sex-linked traits are more common in males than in females.
25. Explain the causes and symptoms of cystic fibrosis.
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Chapter Test A
Gene Technology
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Recombinant DNA is formed by joining DNA molecules
a. from two different species.
b. with a carbohydrate from a different species.
c. with RNA molecules.
d. with a protein from a different species.
______ 2. Fragments of DNA that have complementary sticky ends
a. are found only in bacterial cells.
b. can join with each other.
c. can only join with complementary fragments from the same species.
d. are immediately digested by enzymes in the cytoplasm of the cell.
______ 3. Which of the following is a potential benefit of genetically modified
crops?
a. Pesticide use is reduced.
b. Tolerance of environmental stress is increased.
c. Plant diseases are reduced.
d. All of the above
______ 4. Which of the following does NOT describe a probe?
a. single strand of nucleotides
b. complementary to the gene of interest
c. short pieces of artificial DNA used to make copies of genes
d. labeled with fluorescent or radioactive substances
______ 5. What role does electrophoresis play in identifying a specific gene?
a. It cuts the gene of interest out of DNA at specific points.
b. It kills all cells that have not taken up the gene of interest.
c. It binds the gene of interest with probes.
d. It separates DNA fragments by size.
______ 6. Which of the following was a surprise to scientists working on the
Human Genome Project?
a. There were fewer genes than they had predicted.
b. There were many more exons than they had predicted.
c. There were many more base pairs than they had predicted.
d. The DNA was much longer than they had predicted.
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Gene Technology, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. The Human Genome Project has brought scientists from around the
world together in order to
a. identify the base pair sequence of all human genes.
b. reduce the number of base pairs needed to code for human genes.
c. eliminate the introns in human DNA.
d. All of the above
______ 8. Genetic engineering researchers are trying to prevent
a. AIDS.
c. malaria.
b. certain cancers.
d. All of the above
______ 9. Which of the following is NOT a use of DNA fingerprints?
a. distinguishing whether a cell contains a plasmid
b. establishing whether two people are related to each other
c. identifying genes that cause specific genetic disorders
d. determining whether suspects could have been involved in violent
crimes
______10. Genetic engineers are developing approaches for improving agriculture
in all of the following ways EXCEPT
a. making plants resistant to insects.
b. making plants resistant to weedkillers.
c. enabling plants to produce medically useful proteins.
d. improving the nutritional value of certain plants.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
11. The pattern of dark bands on X-ray film made when an individual’s DNA
fragments are separated, probed, and then exposed to an X-ray film is called
a(n)
.
12. Small, circular forms of bacterial DNA that can replicate independently of the
main bacterial chromosome are called
.
13. Genetically identical cells grown from a single cell are called
.
14. Enzymes that cut DNA at specific sequences, producing fragments of DNA,
are called
.
15. Radioactive or fluorescent-labeled RNA or single-stranded DNA pieces that
are complementary to the gene of interest are called
.
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Gene Technology, Chapter Test A continued
16. When cut with restriction enzymes, DNA fragments have short single-stranded
ends that are
to each other. These ends are called
ends.
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 17. telomere
a. caused by the CFTR gene
______18. proteome
b. repeated DNA sequences at the end of
chromosomes
______19. primer
c. has improved nutritional value
______20. cystic fibrosis
d. all the proteins in an organism
______21. GM crop
e. artificial single-stranded DNA
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. Describe three ways genetic engineering has been used to improve plants.
23. Summarize two ways genetic engineering techniques have altered farm
animals for human benefit.
24. Describe two different uses for DNA fingerprints.
25. Explain how gel electrophoresis is used in genetic engineering experiments.
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
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Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
History of Life
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. biogenesis
a. atoms of an element that have different
numbers of neutrons
_____ 2. ozone
b. method that organisms use to obtain
energy from inorganic substances
_____ 3. isotope
c. length of time it takes one-half of a radioactive isotope to decay to a more stable form
_____ 4. half-life
d. principle which states that all living things
come from other living things
_____ 5. chemosynthesis
e. absorbs ultraviolet radiation
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 9. Determining the age of a
rock by comparing relative
proportions of its radioactive isotopes is called
a. radioactive decay.
b. radiometric dating.
c. isotope dating.
d. half-lives.
______ 6. Cyanobacteria changed the
early Earth’s atmosphere by
giving off
a. carbon dioxide.
b. ammonia.
c. hydrogen.
d. oxygen.
______ 7. In Redi’s experiment, the
control group consisted of
a. jars without meat.
b. jars covered with netting.
c. covered jars in the sun.
d. jars not covered with
netting.
______10. Scientists theorize that
Earth formed
a. from the melting of
asteroids.
b. about 10 billion years ago.
c. about 1 billion years ago.
d. from collisions of space
debris circling the sun.
______ 8. Eukaryotes may have
evolved from
a. cyanobacteria.
b. prokaryotes and engulfed
small aerobic prokaryotes.
c. prokaryotes and engulfed
small anaerobic
prokaryotes.
d. None of the above
______11. The forerunners of the first
cells may have been the
gathering of protein molecules into
a. macromolecules.
b. isotopes.
c. microspheres.
d. DNA molecules.
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History of Life, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Organisms were able to live
safely on dry land after
a. cyanobacteria made
oxygen, and ozone
began to form.
b. the fifth mass extinction.
c. continental drift stopped.
d. archaebacteria made
oxygen, and ozone began
to form.
______16. Scientists hypothesize that
Earth’s early atmosphere
contained substances such as
a. oxygen, carbon dioxide,
hydrogen gas, and
nitrogen.
b. nitrogen, methane,
ozone, and water vapor.
c. methane, water vapor,
oxygen, and ammonia.
d. ammonia, hydrogen gas,
water vapor, and methane.
______13. Which of the following
enabled the formation of
true cells?
a. the ozone layer
b. heredity
c. microspheres
d. endosymbiosis
______ 17. The Miller-Urey experiment
used gases circulating in a
chamber and electric sparks
to
a. date the age of Earth.
b. produce a variety of
organic compounds.
c. produce ozone.
d. produce cyanobacteria.
______14. Scientists have estimated
the age of Earth to be
a. about 4.6 million years
old.
b. about 10 billion years old.
c. about 4.6 billion years old.
d. about 100,000 years old.
______15. Radiometric dating of a
charcoal sample from an
ancient human dwelling
was done using carbon-14.
The site was dated as 17,195
years old. How many halflives of carbon-14 does this
represent?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
______18. An RNA molecule that can
act as a catalyst and promote
specific chemical reactions
is called
a. an enzyme.
b. DNA.
c. a ribozyme.
d. a protein.
______19. The first cells were most
likely
a. aerobic heterotrophic
prokaryotes.
b. anaerobic heterotrophic
eukaryotes.
c. aerobic autotrophic
eukaryotes.
d. anaerobic heterotrophic
prokaryotes.
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History of Life, Chapter Test A continued
______20. The oldest known fossil
organisms are about
3.5 billion years old
and are similar to
a. modern plants.
b. modern cyanobacteria.
c. modern eukaryotic
bacteria.
d. modern coacervates.
______21. Which scientist conclusively
demonstrated that the
principle of spontaneous
generation was not correct?
a. Francesco Redi
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Lazzaro Spallanzani
d. Alexander Oparin
______22. What theory proposes a
method for the evolution of
photosynthetic eukaryotic
organisms from prokaryotes?
a. endosymbiosis
b. chemosynthesis
c. RNA replication
d. radioactive decay
______24. Oxygen began to enter the
atmosphere of the early
Earth as a result of
a. respiration by
microspheres.
b. respiration by plants.
c. photosynthesis by
cyanobacteria.
d. endosymbiosis of
prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.
______25. The total number of protons
and neutrons in the nucleus
is
a. an isotope.
b. the mass number.
c. the atomic number.
d. always the same.
______23. A mechanism for heredity
was necessary in order to
begin
a. microspheres.
b. life.
c. RNA.
d. proteins.
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Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Theory of Evolution
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. The evolution of beak sizes in Galápagos finches is a response to
a. how finches use their beaks.
b. the types of seeds available.
c. whether the populations interbreed.
d. the particular island on which each finch lives.
______ 2. According to Darwin, evolution occurs
a. in response to use or disuse of a characteristic.
b. because of catastrophic geologic events.
c. by natural selection.
d. within an individual’s lifetime.
______ 3. The inference that evolution occurs gradually over time,
a. is not supported by any fossil evidence.
b. is known as coevolution.
c. is supported by many transitional forms in the fossil record.
d. was proposed by Lyell.
______ 4. The traits of individuals best adapted to survive become more
common in each new generation because
a. offspring do not inherit those traits.
b. the adaptations responsible for those traits increase through
natural selection.
c. those individuals do not breed.
d. natural selection does not affect well-adapted individuals.
______ 5. Natural selection causes
a. changes in the environment.
b. plants and animals to produce more offspring than can survive.
c. changes in the frequency of certain adaptations in a population.
d. genetic variation within populations.
______ 6. The similarity in the body shape of a whale and of a fish is an
example of
a. divergent evolution.
c. coevolution.
b. convergent evolution.
d. vestigial structures.
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Theory of Evolution, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. Which of the following must exist in a population in order for natural
selection to act?
a. genetic variation
b. overproduction
c. struggle for survival
d. All of the above
______ 8. Natural selection is the process by which
a. the age of Earth is calculated.
b. organisms with traits well suited to the environment survive
and reproduce at a greater rate than other organisms.
c. acquired traits are passed from one generation to the next.
d. All of the above
______ 9. Modern evolutionary theory predicts all of the following EXCEPT
a. If species have changed over time, their genes should have changed.
b. Closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences.
c. If species share a common ancestor, they will share all of the
characteristics of that ancestor.
d. Closely related species will show similarities in amino acid sequences.
Refer to the figures below to answer questions 10–12.
Penguin
Bat
A
B
Alligator
Human
D
C
______10. The bones labeled A–D are known as
a. vestigial structures.
c. homologous structures.
b. divergent structures.
d. embryonic structures.
______11. The similarity of these structures suggests that the organisms
a. have a common ancestor.
b. have different ancestors.
c. no longer use these structures.
d. live in the same kind of environment.
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Theory of Evolution, Chapter Test A continued
______12. The scientist who proposed that individuals could pass on traits
acquired during their lifetime was
a. Jean Baptiste Lamarck.
c. Georges Cuvier.
b. Charles Darwin.
d. Charles Lyell.
______13. Strong evidence for evolution comes from
a. nuclear physics.
b. phylogenetic trees.
c. works of philosophy.
d. the fossil record.
______14. Structures that are reduced in size and have no function are called
a. vertebral structures.
b. vestigial structures.
c. convergent structures.
d. embryological homologies.
______15. Darwin theorized that natural selection is
a. the mechanism of evolution.
b. how modern species have come to exist.
c. the explanation for beak variation in finches.
d. All of the above
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______16. evolution
______ 17. genetic variation
______18. natural selection
______19. convergent evolution
______20. coevolution
______21. strata
a. the number of individuals who possess
favorable characteristics will increase in
a population
b. two or more species evolve adaptations
to each other’s influence
c. species change over time
d. the different traits that can be inherited
within a population
e. different species evolve similar traits
______22. artificial selection
f. trace or remains of ancient life
______23. homologous structure
g. rock layers
______24. analogous structure
______25. fossil
h. similar function, different origin
i. breeding of faster horses by humans
j. related function, similar origin
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Population Genetics and Speciation
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. genetic drift
a. results from immigration and emigration
______ 2. stabilizing selection
b. does not apply when evolutionary forces
act on a population
______ 3. gene flow
______ 4. Hardy-Weinberg principle
______ 5. natural selection
c. can result from a small group being
separated from the main population
d. one of the most powerful agents of genetic
change
e. range of phenotypes becomes narrower;
more individuals in the middle range
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 6. Not all mutations
a. result in genetic changes.
b. result in phenotypic changes.
c. result in genotypic changes.
d. cause emigration.
______ 7. Actual proportions of homozygotes and heterozygotes can differ from
Hardy-Weinberg predictions because of
a. the occurrence of mutations.
b. nonrandom mating among individuals.
c. genetic drift within the population.
d. All of the above
______ 8. The movement of alleles into or out of a population is called
a. mutation.
c. nonrandom mating.
b. gene flow.
d. natural selection.
______ 9. Cheetahs are in danger of extinction because of the effects of
a. mutations.
c. gene flow.
b. genetic drift.
d. natural selection.
______10. Natural selection shapes populations by acting on
a. genes.
c. phenotypes.
b. recessive alleles.
d. All of the above
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Population Genetics and Speciation, Chapter Test A continued
______11. Allele frequency is least affected by
a. genetic drift.
c. mutations.
b. gene flow.
d. nonrandom mating.
______12. The type of selection that eliminates one extreme from a range of
phenotypes is called
a. directional selection.
c. natural selection.
b. disruptive selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
______13. The Hardy-Weinberg principle applies to all populations as long as
evolutionary forces are not working, and
a. the population is large enough that its members are not likely to
mate with one another.
b. the ratio of genotypes and phenotypes differ significantly from
each other.
c. genotypes can be predicted using an equation.
d. frequencies of alleles are not changing.
______14. A demographer studying the adult height in males finds that more men
are of average height now than 100 years ago, and there are fewer men
who are very short or very tall. Which of the following may explain
this trend?
a. directional selection
c. stabilizing selection
b. genetic drift
d. gene flow
______15. When directional selection eliminates one extreme from a range of
phenotypes, the alleles promoting the extreme trait
a. increase in the population.
b. do not change from generation to generation.
c. become less common in the population.
d. None of the above
______16. Scientists studying the remains of extinct dinosaurs would use
which of the following to determine whether or not the remains
were different species?
a. geographic isolation
b. allopatric speciation
c. the biological species concept
d. the morphological concept of species
______ 17. Two closely related species of salamanders that live in the same area,
but mate at different times of the year would
a. be geographically isolated.
b. undergo allopatric speciation.
c. have prezygotic isolation.
d. have postzygotic isolation.
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Population Genetics and Speciation, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
18. Explain how stabilizing selection decreases genetic diversity.
19. What are the three major ways variations in genotype can occur?
Number of animals
Refer to the graph below to answer questions 20–21.
Body color
20. What type of selection is shown by the graph?
21. What traits are being selected for?
22. How is the allele frequency calculated?
23. What assumptions form the basis for the Hardy–Weinberg genetic equilibrium?
24. What is genetic drift?
25. Explain the difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation.
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Classification of Organisms
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. The science of naming and classifying organisms is called
a. binomial nomenclature.
c. taxonomy.
b. polynomial nomenclature.
d. cladistics.
______ 2. The domain Eukarya is composed of all
a. prokaryotes.
b. archaebacteria.
c. animals.
d. eukaryotes.
______ 3. Which of the following do biologists NOT use to classify organisms?
a. homologous structures
c. appearance
b. derived characters
d. analogous structures
______ 4. An organism’s scientific name consists of its
a. genus and species.
b. genus and family.
c. species and family.
d. common name and Latin name.
______ 5. The two kingdoms that are made up of prokaryotes are
a. Protista and Archaebacteria.
b. Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.
c. Eubacteria and Fungi.
d. Fungi and Protista.
______ 6. Honeybees, as members of the kingdom Animalia, are related to
a. wasps.
c. spiders.
b. birds.
d. All of the above
______ 7. Linnaeus’s classification system was based on which of the following
characteristics?
a. form and structure
c. behavior
b. DNA
d. phylogenetic relationships
______ 8. Fungi obtain their nutrition by
a. carrying out photosynthesis.
b. secreting digestive enzymes onto whatever they grow on.
c. ingesting primary producers.
d. ingesting primary or secondary consumers.
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Classification of Organisms, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. Classes with similar characteristics are grouped into the same
a.
b.
c.
d.
kingdom.
phylum.
species.
order.
______10. Analogous characters are derived from
a.
b.
c.
d.
a recent common ancestor.
inferred relationships.
a distant common ancestor.
independent sources.
______11. Biologists use cladograms to
a. evaluate the importance of characters.
b. estimate the degree of difference between organisms.
c. hypothesize the sequence in which different groups evolved.
d. analyze evolutionary relationships subjectively.
______12. Which of the following is a characteristic of plants but NOT of animals?
a. eukaryotic cell type
b. multicellularity
c. cell walls made of cellulose
d. heterotrophic nutrition
Refer to the table below to answer questions 13 and 14.
Classification of Three Different Organisms
Organism
Class
A
Family
Genus
Bacterium
Scotobacteria
Spirochaetales
Spirochaetaceae
Cristispira
Box elder
Dicotyledones
Sapindales
Aceraceae
Acer
Human
Mammalia
Primates
Hominidae
B
______13. Which level of classification is represented by the box labeled A?
a. kingdom
c. division
b. phylum
d. order
______14. Which of the following best fits the box labeled B?
a. sapiens
c. Homo
b. Canis
d. Animalia
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Classification of Organisms, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
a. the most inclusive classification
of organisms
______15. taxonomy
______16. binomial nomenclature
b. an organism’s evolutionary
history
______ 17. domain
c. family tree
______18. phylogeny
d. the science of naming and
classifying organisms
______19. cladistics
e. two-word system for naming
organisms
______20. phylogenetic diagram
f. uses shared and derived characters
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
21. The only kingdom that consists of organisms without cell walls is
.
22. Prokaryotes that inhabit harsh environments belong to the kingdom
.
23. Kingdom
contains both unicellular and multicellular
organisms, has cell walls made of chitin, and are all heterotrophic.
24. Plants, animals, fungi, and protists are all classified in the domain
.
25. The domain Bacteria consists of the kingdom
.
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Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Introduction to Ecology
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. A typical ecosystem might include which of the following?
a. large and small mammals
b. microscopic eukaryotes
c. birds, trees, and flowers
d. All of the above
______ 2. All the organisms that live in a particular place and the physical
aspects of that place make up a(n)
a. ecosystem.
c. population.
b. habitat.
d. food chain.
______ 3. The number of trophic levels in an ecological pyramid
a. is limitless.
b. is limited by the amount of energy that is lost at each trophic level.
c. never exceeds two.
d. never exceeds three.
______ 4. In a meadow food chain, which is the correct sequence of the path
of energy flow?
a. hawk→snake → mouse → grass
b. mouse → grass→ hawk → snake
c. grass→ mouse → snake → hawk
d. snake → mouse → hawk→ grass
______ 5. In a marine food web, there is far more total biomass in algae than
in all the killer whales. Why is this so?
a. Whales are bigger than algae.
b. An alga has more mass than a killer whale.
c. Whales don’t eat algae.
d. It takes a massive amount of algae to support a food web with
a killer whale at the top.
______ 6. The ultimate source of energy for most producers and consumers is
a. plants.
c. algae.
b. the sun.
d. the ocean.
______ 7. The production of ammonia by bacteria during the decay of nitrogencontaining urine is called
a. assimilation.
c. nitrification.
b. ammonification.
d. denitrification.
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Introduction to Ecology, Chapter Test A continued
______ 8. In a living portion of the water cycle, water passes through plants and
evaporates into the atmosphere through the process of
a. photosynthesis.
c. transpiration.
b. respiration.
d. nitrification.
______ 9. The carbon in the remains of organisms that lived long ago is released
in the burning of
a. wood.
c. calcium carbonate.
b. limestone.
d. fossil fuels.
______10. Most nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in
a. the human intestine.
b. soil and plant roots.
c. rotting logs.
d. the atmosphere.
______11. Grizzly bears, snakes, and worms are most likely to be members
of the same
a. species.
b. trophic level.
c. community.
d. population.
______12. An example of an abiotic factor is
a. a tree.
b. sunlight.
c. a bird.
d. grass.
______13. Which material is required in the greatest quantity in all ecosystems?
a. manganese
b. sodium
c. water
d. iron
______14. Organisms that obtain their energy from the organic wastes and dead
bodies that result from all the energy levels in an ecosystem are called
a. omnivores.
b. detritivores.
c. herbivores.
d. All of the above
______15. Which type of bacteria plays a significant role in the nitrogen cycle?
a. nitrogen-fixing bacteria
b. decomposers
c. denitrifying bacteria
d. All of the above
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Introduction to Ecology, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______16. habitat
______ 17. decomposers
______18. net primary
productivity
______19. food web
______22. nitrogen
b. indicates an organism’s position in a sequence
of energy transfers.
c. of abiotic factors, this has the greatest
influence on an ecosystem’s inhabitants
d. the rate at which biomass accumulates
______20. trophic level
______21. water
a. complicated, interconnected group of food
chains
e. cycled throughout the living world
primarily by bacteria
f. the place where an organism or population
of organisms lives
g. release nutrients back to the environment to be
recycled by other organisms.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. Why are both bacteria and fungi important organisms in an ecosystem?
24. Why are energy pyramids always larger at the bottom than at the top?
25. Why are producers an essential component of an ecosystem?
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Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Populations
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
a. pattern of increase in number due
to a steady growth rate
______ 1. exponential growth
______ 2. demographic transition
b. how crowded a population is
______ 3. population
c. model showing how human
population trends have changed
______ 4. uniform dispersal
d. group of individuals of the same
species in a place at the same time
______ 5. population density
e. located at regular intervals
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 6. Which of the following does NOT represent a population?
a. all the robins in Austin, Texas
b. all the grass frogs in a pond in Central Park, New York City
c. all the birds in Chicago, Illinois
d. all the black bears in Yosemite National Park
______ 7. Weather and climate are environmental conditions that affect
populations, and are often categorized as
a. density-dependent factors.
c. logistical factors.
b. density-independent factors.
d. dispersion factors.
______ 8. In a population study, if the rate of growth of the population is found
to have a negative value, the population size is
a. increasing.
c. decreasing.
b. staying the same.
d. extinct.
______ 9. Carrying capacity is
a. the population size an environment can sustain over time.
b. the maximum number of offspring a female can support at one time.
c. the amount a population grows in a given time.
d. a density-independent factor.
______10. Barnacles crowded together on a rock exhibit a type of dispersion
called
a. random dispersion.
c. clumped dispersion.
b. uniform dispersion.
d. negative dispersion.
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Populations, Chapter Test A continued
______11. Cheetahs are in danger of extinction because of
a. a large population.
b. an evenly distributed population.
c. a small population.
d. lack of food.
Refer to the figure below to answer questions 12 and 13.
Number of individuals
Population Growth
A
B
C
D
Time
______12. Which time period shows exponential growth of the population?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
______13. The rate of growth of a population is represented by r. During which
time period will r equal zero?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
______14. Which of the following countries has the least population density?
a. China
b. Russia
c. Japan
d. Mexico
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
15. If you were a scientist who wanted to describe a population of birds in a
forest, what four basic features of the population would you examine first?
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Populations, Chapter Test A continued
16. A population that increases by a greater number in each time interval has
what type of population growth?
17. Two populations have very different age structures. In population A, there are
a high percentage of people over 60 years of age. In population B, there are a
high percentage of people between the ages of 18 to 25 years. Which population has the greater potential for rapid population growth? Explain.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
18.
factors are limiting
factors for population growth that are based on population size.
19.
is how long on average
an individual is expected to live.
20. The movement of individuals out of a population is
.
21. Amount of food is an example of a
.
22. In very small populations,
population’s genetic variability.
can reduce the
23. Small population are
large populations.
vulnerable to extinction than
24. Canada and Japan are both
countries.
25. The
human populations have changed.
model shows how
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Community Ecology
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Mutualism and commensalism are two types of
a. symbiosis.
c. parasitism.
b. competition.
d. predation.
______ 2. A tick feeding on a human is an example of
a. parasitism.
c. symbiosis.
b. mutualism.
d. predation.
______ 3. Over time, selection pressure from predators will cause prey species
to evolve
a. into parasites.
c. secondary compounds.
b. into a new niche.
d. ways to avoid predation.
______ 4. The sequential replacement of species in a community after a forest
fire is
a. a disturbance.
c. primary succession.
b. secondary succession.
d. pioneer succession.
______ 5. A dandelion that grows in a newly plowed field is an example of a(n)
a. pioneer species.
c. disturbance.
b. climax species.
d. extinct species.
______ 6. Which of the following is NOT related to species richness?
a. interactions of species
b. size of ecosystems
c. proximity to the tropics
d. species evenness
______ 7. Primary succession would occur
a. in a desert.
b. on an island just formed by a volcanic eruption.
c. in an area after a forest fire.
d. in an abandoned farm field.
______ 8. Which of the following is an example of parasitism?
a. a lion hunting a zebra
b. a horse grazing on grass
c. a tick sucking blood from a cat
d. a fungus that grows on rotting wood
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Community Ecology, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figures below to answer questions 9–11.
A. The barnacle Chthamalus
stellatus can live in both shallow
and deep water on a rocky coast.
B. The barnacle Semibalanus balanoides C. When the two barnacles live
lives mostly in deep water
together, Chthamalus is restricted
to shallow water.
______ 9. Figure B indicates that Semibalanus balanoides lives mostly in deep
water. Deep water is this barnacle’s
a. competitive niche.
b. realized niche.
c. fundamental niche.
d. exclusive niche.
______10. Figure C indicates that when the two barnacles live together,
Chthamalus is restricted to shallow water. Shallow water is its
a. competitive niche.
b. realized niche.
c. fundamental niche.
d. exclusive niche.
______11. Because the two species of barnacles attempt to use the same
resources, they
a. are parasites on each other.
b. are in competition with each other.
c. have a mutualistic relationship.
d. have a symbiotic relationship.
______12. A lion that eats an antelope is an example of a(n)
a. herbivore.
b. prey species.
c. parasite.
d. carnivore.
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Community Ecology, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______13. predation
______14. commensalism
______15. pioneer species
______16. ecological succession
______ 17. niche
a. first weeds, then grasses and shrubs,
then trees
b. a symbiotic relationship in which both
participating species benefit
c. predator that eats plants and animals
d. chemicals from plants that are poisonous,
irritating, or bad-tasting
______19. omnivore
e. a relationship in which one species
benefits and the other is neither harmed
nor helped
______20. secondary compounds
f. species that predominate early in
succession
______18. mutualism
______21. species-area effect
______22. resource partitioning
g. when species avoid competition by using
part of the available resources
h. when one species eats another species
for food
i. role a species plays in its environment
j. pattern where larger areas contain more
species than the smaller areas
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
23. An interaction where two or more species use the same limited resources is
called
.
24. A symbiotic relationship in which one individual that lives in or on another
benefits while the other is harmed is known as
25. An earthquake is an example of a
.
.
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Ecosystems
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Caribou, musk oxen, snowy owls, and snowshoe hares are common
animals in the
a. desert.
b. tropical rain forest.
c. tundra.
d. taiga.
______ 2. What biome once covered large portions of the interior of North
America, supporting huge herds of bison?
a. temperate grasslands
b. chaparral
c. temperate deciduous forests
d. taiga
______ 3. The neritic zone in the oceans
a. occurs between high and low tides.
b. extends over the continental shelf.
c. extends beyond the continental shelf.
d. occurs along the ocean bottom.
______ 4. Estuaries are characterized by
a. chemosynthetic bacteria.
b. sphagnum mosses.
c. large variations in salinity.
d. coral reefs.
______ 5. Which terrestrial biome is characterized by tall grasses and
scattered trees?
a. taiga
b. desert
c. savanna
d. chaparral
______ 6. About one-half of the world’s species are found in
a. tropical dry forests.
b. tropical rain forests.
c. estuaries.
d. temperate forests.
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Ecosystems, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. The most productive zone in the oceans is the
a. neritic zone.
b. intertidal zone.
c. pelagic zone.
d. benthic zone.
______ 8. Marshes, swamps, and bogs are types of
a. freshwater wetlands.
b. eutrophic lakes.
c. oligotrophic lakes.
d. rivers.
______ 9. Streams in mountainous areas have rocky bottoms, clear water, and
a. low oxygen levels.
b. steep gradients.
c. low gradients.
d. no gradients.
______10. Temperate deciduous forests are characterized by
a. trees that lose their leaves in the fall.
b. warmer winters and longer summers than taiga.
c. mammals such as bears, white-tailed deer, foxes, raccoons, and
squirrels.
d. All of the above
______11. Deserts commonly receive
a. less than 25 cm of rainfall per year.
b. between 25 and 100 cm of rainfall per year.
c. more than 100 cm of rainfall per year.
d. more than 25 cm of rainfall per year.
______12. Which of the following is NOT an example of a freshwater ecosystem?
a. oligotrophic lake
b. estuary
c. river
d. All of the above
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Ecosystems, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______13. tundra
a. boreal forest
______14. benthic zone
b. low rainfall with cactus and succulent
plants
______15. taiga
c. freshwater lake rich in organic matter
______16. pelagic zone
d. northernmost biome
______ 17. deciduous trees
e. freshwater lake with little organic
matter
______18. eutrophic lake
f. ocean bottom
g. open ocean
______19. coniferous trees
h. trees that lose their leave each year
______20. oligotrophic lake
i. trees that bear seeds in cones
______21. desert
j. zone in ocean where photosynthesis
occurs
______22. photic zone
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
23. The tundra’s layer of soil in which the water is always ice is called the
.
24. An aquatic ecosystem where organisms must be adapted to withstand
dehydration and crashing waves is known as the
.
25.
are distinguished by the presence of particular
plants and animals.
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Humans and the Environment
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. The heat-absorbing ability of some gases in the atmosphere is
responsible for
a. acid precipitation.
b. the greenhouse effect.
c. the creation of CFCs.
d. increased levels of ultraviolet radiation.
______ 2. Molecules of chemical pollutants become increasingly concentrated in
higher trophic levels in a process called
a. species magnification.
c. biological magnification.
b. the toxic effect.
d. the greenhouse effect.
______ 3. Ozone depletion in the upper atmosphere can lead to increased
incidences of which of the following?
a. skin cancer
b. smog
c. air pollution
d. acid precipitation
______ 4. What measure of biodiversity is most likely to enable the survival of a
species in the face of environmental change?
a. species evenness
b. species richness
c. genetic distribution
d. genetic variation
______ 5. Although pesticides with DDT are banned in the United States, they
still pose an ecological threat because
a. they break down quickly in the environment.
b. they are still used in the U.S.
c. they become increasingly concentrated at the top of the food chain.
d. they cause acid precipitation.
______ 6. What group of organisms has the highest known biodiversity on Earth?
a. plants
b. insects
c. mammals
d. crustaceans
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Humans and the Environment, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below to answer questions 7 and 8.
0.4
340
320
0.2
CO2
0.0
300
–0.2
280
Temperature
260
1860
–0.4
–0.6
1890
1920
1950
Temperature change (°C)
(parts per million)
Concentration of CO2
Amount of Carbon Dioxide in the Atmosphere and
Average Global Temperature Change
1980
Year
______ 7. The graph above shows
a. that there is probably no relationship between temperature and
carbon dioxide concentration.
b. that both the average global temperature and the carbon dioxide
concentration were higher in 1980 than in 1860.
c. that the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere has increased
since 1860.
d. that the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has
decreased since 1860.
______ 8. According to the graph above,
a. the average global temperature remained constant from
1900 to 1950.
b. the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is too high.
c. the concentration of carbon dioxide remained constant from
1890 to 1940.
d. the average global temperature has increased since 1890.
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 9. ecotourism
a. portion of Earth that is water
b. tourism that supports conservation
______10. CFCs
______11. hydrosphere
c. species that is very sensitive to
ecological disturbance
______12. smog
d. chemicals used as coolants that
break down and destroy ozone
______13. atmosphere
e. gaseous envelope around Earth
______14. bioindicator
f. visible pollution which is a mix of
water vapor and chemicals
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Humans and the Environment, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
15. The
is made up of all the water on Earth.
16. The variety of organisms in an area is known as
.
17. When habitats are disrupted, some organisms may face
.
18. In cities, air pollution can result in visible
19. A
.
is one species that affects many other species
in a community.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
20. What kinds of action can individuals take to help solve environmental problems?
21. Explain what “sustainability” is.
22. Explain why acid precipitation was not an environmental issue 200 years ago.
23. Why is it important to prevent the extinction of species?
24. What do scientists know about the relationship between the greenhouse
effect and global warming?
25. How does the presence of the ozone layer affect life on Earth?
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Bacteria
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Many bacteria have long appendages for movement that are called
a. pili.
c. plasmids.
b. flagella.
d. ribosomes.
______ 2. Many Gram-negative bacteria have pili, which are used to
a. aid in the process of binary fission.
b. propel the bacteria through their environment.
c. enclose the genetic material of the bacteria.
d. adhere to surfaces and to join bacterial cells prior to conjugation.
______ 3. An example of a bacterial disease carried from animals to humans is
a. tuberculosis.
c. cholera.
b. botulism.
d. Lyme disease.
______ 4. Groups of staphylococci look like
a. chains.
c. clusters of grapes.
b. spirals.
d. filaments.
______ 5. You would expect the bacterial genus Bacillus to have the shape of
a. cocci.
c. spirilla.
b. rods.
d. None of the above
______ 6. One difference between bacteria and eukaryotes is that
a. bacterial flagella are more complex than eukaryotic flagella.
b. bacterial chromosomes are circular, while eukaryotic chromosomes
are linear.
c. bacterial cells are much larger than eukaryotic cells.
d. many bacteria are multicellular, while all eukaryotes are unicellular.
______ 7. Bacterial cells lack
a. chromosomes.
b. reproductive capability.
c. flagella.
d. a cell nucleus.
______ 8. Which of the following does NOT characterize the structure of E. coli?
a. a rigid cell wall
c. organelles
b. flagella
d. pili
______ 9. In a process called nitrification, chemoautotrophic bacteria that live in
the soil play an important role in oxidizing ammonia, forming
a. nitrite, NO2.
c. nitrous oxide.
b. nitrogen gas.
d. sulfur.
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Bacteria, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Cholera is a disease of the
a. brain.
b. heart.
c. liver.
d. intestines.
______11. One way that bacteria cause disease is
a. by destroying body tissues.
b. by producing antibiotics.
c. by producing R-plasmids.
d. None of the above
______12. Bacteria are used in industry to
a. make cheese.
b. mine minerals.
c. kill plant pests.
d. All of the above
______13. One habitat of archaea is
a. drinking water.
b. air.
c. food.
d. hot springs.
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______14. capsule
______15. heterotrophs
a. a thick-coated structure formed by some
bacteria in times of environmental stress
______16. chemotrophs
b. a process in which two organisms exchange
genetic material
______ 17. conjugation
c. the polysaccharide layer outside of the cell
wall of many bacteria
______18. endospore
______19. photosynthesis
______20. peptidoglycan
______21. R-plasmids
______22. yogurt
d. found in bacterial cell walls but not in archaeal
cell walls
e. carry resistance genes to antibiotics
f. the method of obtaining energy used
by cyanobacteria
g. bacteria that obtain energy from chemicals
in the environment
h. bacteria that obtain carbon from other
organisms
i. useful product made by Lactobacillus species
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Bacteria, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. List four diseases caused by bacteria.
24. Describe the common methods used to identify and classify bacteria.
25. Explain how bacterial toxins cause disease.
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Viruses
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. The tobacco mosaic virus
a. becomes a crystal when purified.
b. causes disease in tobacco plants.
c. is smaller than a bacterium.
d. All of the above
______ 2. Biologists now know that viruses
a. are the smallest organisms.
b. consist of a protein surrounded by a nucleic acid coat.
c. contain RNA or DNA in a protein coat.
d. all form the same crystalline shape.
______ 3. Viruses must rely on host cells for replication because
a. they need the DNA of the host to replicate.
b. they lack the enzymes necessary for metabolism and have no
structures to make protein.
c. all viruses are really fragments of host genes and must therefore
recombine with a host cell to replicate.
d. None of the above
______ 4. Once inside a cell, HIV is able to produce thousands of new viruses
with the help of
a. specialized prions.
b. glycoproteins specific to the host cell.
c. the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
d. the repeated division of proviruses over time.
______ 5. In biologist Wendell Stanley’s 1935 investigation of the tobacco mosaic
virus, he found that the purified virus
a. consisted of living organisms that did not retain the ability to infect
healthy tobacco plants.
b. was a crystal that could infect healthy tobacco plants.
c. was a crystal that could not infect healthy tobacco plants.
d. consisted of bacteria that could infect healthy tobacco plants.
______ 6. Each particle of TMV is
a. helical.
b. polyhedral.
c. enveloped.
d. spherical.
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Viruses, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. Viruses are not considered to be living because they do not
a. maintain homeostasis.
c. metabolize.
b. grow.
d. All of the above
______ 8. Polyhedral virus refers to the structure of a virus’s
a. nucleic acid.
c. capsid.
b. phage.
d. lipid layer.
______ 9. How can HIV be transmitted?
a. through casual contact
b. through contact with infected body fluids
c. in food products
d. All of the above
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______10. capsid
a. a host chromosome with a viral gene
inserted into it
______11. envelope
b. specific site where a virus attaches to a
host cell
______12. receptor
______13. bacteriophage
______14. pathogen
______15. lytic cycle
c. a virus’s protein coat
d. a cycle in which the viral genome replicates
without destroying the host cell
e. a bacteria-infecting virus
______16. provirus
f. a cycle of viral infection, replication, and
cell destruction
______ 17. lysogenic cycle
g. an agent that causes disease
h. surrounds the capsid of many viruses and
helps them enter cells
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
18. A(n)
a protein coat.
is a segment of nucleic acids contained in
19. Viruses must rely on
replication.
for
20. The capsid of viruses may enclose either the nucleic acid
or the nucleic acid
.
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Viruses, Chapter Test A continued
21. Infectious particles called
proteins and have no nucleic acid.
are composed of
22. HIV gradually infects and destroys so many
cells
that people with AIDS often die of infections that a healthy immune system
would normally resist.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. List four viral diseases that are transmitted through person-to-person contact.
24. Viruses are not considered to be living, yet they still have a major impact on
the living world. Explain how this is so.
25. How may have the first viruses originated?
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Protists
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 5. In Chlamydomonas, the
mature zoospores grow to
become
a. mature diploid cells.
b. mature haploid cells.
c. a pair of zygospores.
d. a pair of diploid cells.
______ 1. The process of sexual
reproduction that involves
the side by side alignment
of two filaments to
exchange genetic material
is called
a. mitosis.
b. conjugation.
c. alternation of
generations.
d. meiosis.
______ 6. Protists get energy by
a. ingesting food.
b. absorbing food.
c. photosynthesis
d. All of the above
______ 2. The kingdom Protista
includes
a. most of the single-celled
eukaryotes.
b. slime and water molds.
c. multicellular algae.
d. All of the above
______ 7. Green algae contain the
same pigments found in
a. sporozoans.
b. amoebas.
c. plants.
d. paramecia.
______ 3. Protists thrive
a. on rocks.
b. only in damp soil.
c. in water and moist
environments.
d. only in marine
environments.
______ 8. A protist that can surround
and engulf food particles is
most likely a(n)
a. sporozoan.
b. water mold.
c. plasmodial slime mold.
d. alga.
______ 4. Zoospores can be
a. produced as a result of
meiosis.
b. diploid.
c. produced as a result of
mitosis.
d. Both (a) and (c)
______ 9. During conjugation, two
paramecia come together to
exchange
a. enzymes.
b. undigested food.
c. excess water.
d. haploid micronuclei.
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Protists, Chapter Test A continued
______10. The species of Plasmodium that cause malaria are found in
a. contaminated water.
c. certain mosquitoes.
b. infected tsetse flies.
d. contaminated food.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
11. Protists probably originated when ancient prokaryotes lived inside larger
prokaryotes and eventually became organelles, a process called
.
12.
have two shells that fit together like a box and lid.
13.
forms the base of nearly all marine and freshwater
food chains.
14. Brown algae resemble plants because they have a rootlike
, a stemlike
leaflike
, and a
.
15. The stage of the Plasmodium life cycle that infects the liver is the
. The stage that infects red blood cells is the
.
Refer to the figures below, which show three single-celled organisms, to answer
questions 16–21.
Organism A
Organism B
16. Organism A moves by means of
Organism C
.
17. Organism A is a type of protist called a(n)
.
18. Organism B moves by means of a(n)
.
19. Organism B is a type of protist called a(n)
20. Organism C moves by means of
.
.
21. Organism C is a type of protist called a(n)
.
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Protists, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. Why is the kingdom Protista considered the most diverse kingdom?
23. List three diseases, other than malaria, that are caused by protists, and
explain how they are transmitted.
24. After a vacation in the tropics, you become seriously ill. Your symptoms
include cycles of chills and fever every 48 hours. Why does your doctor
suspect malaria?
25. Explain how protists can be both beneficial and harmful to humans.
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Fungi
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Fungi play an important role in the biosphere because they
a. break down organic molecules. c. are decomposers.
b. help recycle nutrients.
d. All of the above
______ 2. The individual filaments that make up the body of a fungus are called
a. vascular tissue. b. hyphae.
c. rhizoids.
d. stems.
______ 3. Fungi
a. do not contain chloroplasts.
b. have cell walls made of chitin.
c. do not produce their own food.
d. All of the above
______ 4. In both phylum Ascomycota and phylum Basidiomycota,
a. sexual spores form in basidia.
c. sexual spores form in asci.
b. hyphae are divided by walls.
d. the mycelia are called stolons.
______ 5. Amanita muscaria has which of the following?
a. cell walls made of chitin
b. club-shaped reproductive cells called asci
c. the polysaccharide cellulose
d. All of the above
______ 6. Fungi are used to
a. produce antibiotics.
b. ferment soy sauce.
c. flavor cheese.
d. All of the above
______ 7. Mycorrhizae
a. aid in the transfer of minerals from the soil to a plant.
b. cause a variety of plant diseases.
c. aid in the transfer of minerals to fungi.
d. are found only on aquatic fungi.
______ 8. Sexual reproduction does not occur among the
a. zygomycetes.
c. basidiomycetes.
b. ascomycetes.
d. deuteromycetes.
______ 9. The classification of organisms in the three phyla of the kingdom
Fungi is based on
a. food.
c. cellular structure.
b. digestive structures.
d. sexual reproductive structures.
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Fungi, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows the life cycle of a mold, to answer
questions 10–12.
A
+
–
B
C
+
–
______10. The structure labeled A produces
a. asci.
b. haploid spores.
c. rhizoids.
______11. The structure labeled B is
a. a rhizoid.
b. vascular tissue.
c. a stolon.
d. a stem.
d. stolons.
______11. The process that takes place at stage C is known as
a. meiosis. b. budding.
c. mitosis.
d. fusion.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
13. Most fungi obtain food by decomposing
in dead or living organisms.
14. A fungal
is a haploid reproductive cell that is
capable of developing into a new organism.
15. A(n)
are formed.
is a saclike structure in which haploid spores
16. Fungi secrete
that break
down organic matter so they can then absorb the decomposed molecules.
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Fungi, Chapter Test A continued
17. A(n)
of a fungus, made of a tangled mass of
, is usually hidden within the substrate on which
the fungus is growing.
18. The three kinds of sexual structures formed by fungi are
, and
,
.
19. Fungi that absorb nutrients in a person’s body can cause life-threatening
.
20. The underside of a mushroom cap is lined with rows of
, which contain thousands of club-shaped
structures called
.
21. The unicellular fungi used in the production of baked goods and the produc-
tion of alcoholic beverages are called
.
22. Sexual reproduction in fungi is initiated when two
of opposite mating types fuse and form a reproductive structure.
23.
lichens grow as a layer on the surface of rocks
and trees.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. Both mycorrhizae and lichens have symbiotic relationships. Describe how
they differ from each other.
25. Describe a hypothesis about the origin of fungi.
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
The Importance of Plants
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Plants are used by humans to provide which of the following?
a. food crops
c. clothing
b. medicine
d. all of the above
______ 2. The plant most widely used as a source of clothing is
a. leather.
c. cotton.
b. wheat.
d. the flax plant.
______ 3. What food crop provides about half of the calories in the average
human diet?
a. root crops
c. legumes
b. fruits
d. cereals
______ 4. What plants are fermented into alcohol and mixed with gasoline to
make gasohol?
a. fruits
c. potatoes
b. grains
d. nuts
______ 5. The foods from the leaves, stems, seeds, and roots of nonwoody plants
are called
a. vegetables.
c. legumes.
b. fruits.
d. herbs.
______ 6. Plant ecologists study
a. plants.
b. plant diseases.
c. the interaction between plants and the environment.
d. the interaction between plants and fungi.
______ 7. Photosynthetic plants are considered to be
a. mycorrhizae.
c. parasites.
b. consumers.
d. producers.
______ 8. Invasive plants, such as water hyacinths and kudzu, are considered
to be
a. food crops.
c. mycorrhizae.
b. weeds.
d. poisonous.
______ 9. Substances that supply essential mineral nutrients to plants are called
a. pesticides.
c. fertilizers.
b. cultivars.
d. fuels.
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The Importance of Plants, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Grasses that contain grains are called
a. root crops.
c. forages.
b. cereals.
d. vegetables.
______11. What high protein plants are considered to be nuts, but are actually
classified as legumes?
a. soybeans.
c. clover.
b. peanuts.
d. cassavas.
______12. What is the world’s most widely used medicine which comes from a
plant?
a. quinine
c. aspirin
b. tannin
d. cortisone
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______13. botany
a. grasses that contain grains
b. undesirable plants
______14. spice
c. allergic reaction
______15. pesticides
______16. cereal
d. study of plants
e. study of interaction between plants and
the environment
______ 17. legume
f. flavoring from plant parts other than the
leaf
______18. aspirin
______19. plant ecology
g. member of the pea family
h. roots or underground stems
______20. weed
i. medicine from white willow
______21. root crop
j. chemicals that kill undesirable organisms
______22. hay fever
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
23.
comes from the bark of the cinchona tree and is
used to treat malaria.
24. A food crop that is a hard, dry fruit that does not split open to release its seed
is called a
.
25. Beets, carrots, cassava, and turnips are examples of
.
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Plant Evolution and Classification
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Which organisms do botanists think may have helped early land plants
obtain nutrients from Earth’s rocky surface?
a. earthworms
c. bacteria
b. viruses
d. fungi
______ 2. The sperm of which organisms do NOT swim through water to reach
and fertilize eggs?
a. gymnosperms
c. mosses
b. ferns
d. liverworts
______ 3. To reduce water loss, plants have a waxy layer, which covers the nonwoody aboveground parts, called the
a. guard layer.
c. stoma.
b. cuticle.
d. rhizoid.
______ 4. In vascular plants, the dominant generation is the
a. sporophyte.
c. bryophyte.
b. gametophyte.
d. sporangium.
______ 5. Seeds provide the offspring of plants with all of the following
advantages EXCEPT
a. nourishment of the embryo.
b. dispersal of the plant.
c. attraction of a pollinator.
d. protection of the embryo.
______ 6. The phylum containing the most successful gymnosperms is
a. Hepatophyta.
c. Pterophyta.
b. Coniferophyta.
d. Ginkophyta.
______ 7. Plants in phylum Sphenophyta that have joint vertical stems and
whorls of scalelike leaves are commonly called
a. ferns.
c. hornworts.
b. horsetails.
d. club mosses.
______ 8. Fiddleheads are characteristic of
a. horsetails.
b. liverworts.
c. club mosses.
d. ferns.
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Plant Evolution and Classification, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows the life cycle of a plant, to answer
questions 9–11.
Fertilization
Meiosis
Sporophyte
(2n)
Gametes
(1n)
1
2
Gametophyte
(1n)
______ 9. The gametophytes can be found growing
a. on the undersides of fronds.
b. on moist soil.
c. inside spore capsules.
d. within clusters of nongreen, spore-bearing leaves.
______10. The structures produced at stage 1 are
a. spore capsules.
c. haploid spores.
b. diploid spores.
d. zygotes.
______11. What process occurs at stage 2 to produce the gametes?
a. fertilization b. pollination
c. meiosis
d. mitosis
______12. The primary function of a fruit is
a. to provide nutrition for the seed. c. seed dispersal.
b. photosynthesis.
d. to permit cross-fertilization.
______13. The xylem in a plant transports
a. food from the leaves.
b. water and minerals in one direction from the roots.
c. organic nutrients in any direction.
d. All of the above
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
14. All plants exhibit
of
, in
which a diploid generation, or
, alternates with a
haploid generation, or
.
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Plant Evolution and Classification, Chapter Test A continued
15. Vascular plants contain vascular tissue, which enables
and
to reach all parts of the plant.
16. Seeds
embryo.
and
17.
the plant
carries water and nutrients from the roots to the
stems and leaves.
18. Mosses are
plants.
19. Plants with flowers and fruits are known as
.
20. The three phyla of nonvascular plants are called
21. Ferns are classified in the phylum
.
.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. Explain why mosses need a film of water for fertilization to occur, but rose
plants do not.
23. List four advantages of seeds and describe how each advantage has helped
seed plants become successful.
24. Some species of flowering plants produce fruit that smells sweet when ripe.
Explain how sweet-smelling fruit might benefit a particular plant species.
25. Describe how certain characteristics of flowers promote pollination.
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Assessment
Chapter Test A
Plant Structure and Function
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Depending on the type of plant or plant part, the dermal tissue is
a. xylem or phloem.
c. cork or epidermis.
b. heartwood or sapwood.
d. mesophyll or xylem.
______ 2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nonwoody stems?
a. They are covered by cork.
b. They are flexible.
c. The vascular tissue is arranged in bundles.
d. They are usually green.
______ 3. The primary function of root hairs is
a. support.
b. transport of food.
c. absorption of water and minerals.
d. water storage.
______ 4. Transpiration is the process by which
a. plants reproduce.
c. seeds are produced.
b. food is transported.
d. water is lost by a plant.
______ 5. Leaves can be referred to as being either
a. woody or nonwoody.
c. vascular or nonvascular.
b. fibrous or adventitious.
d. simple or compound.
______ 6. The spines of a cactus are examples of modified
a. leaves.
c. roots.
b. stems.
d. shoots.
______ 7. Which of the following is NOT a type of tissue in the roots of
vascular plants?
a. ground tissue
c. dermal tissue
b. xylem
d. cuticle
______ 8. The cork of a woody stem
a. conducts water.
b. prevents physical damage
and water loss.
c. aids in transpiration.
d. aids in photosynthesis.
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Plant Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. In translocation, organic compounds move
a. through phloem.
c. from leaves and roots.
b. through living cells.
d. All of the above
Questions 10–15 refer to the figure below, which shows the structure of a leaf.
Upper epidermis
A
B
Spongy mesophyll
Lower epidermis
______10. The structure labeled B is
a. epidermal tissue.
b. ground tissue.
c. a vascular bundle.
d. a strand of heartwood.
______11. Which of the following events is likely to occur in the structure
labeled B?
a. gas exchange
b. manufacture of starch
c. absorption of sunlight
d. transport of water, minerals, and sugars
______12. Most of the photosynthesis in a leaf occurs in
a. the upper epidermis.
c. structure B.
b. structure A.
d. the spongy mesophyll.
______13. Stomata are found in
a. structure A.
b. structure B.
c. the spongy mesophyll.
d. the lower epidermis.
______14. Xylem and phloem are located in
a. the upper epidermis.
b. structure A.
c. structure B.
d. the lower epidermis.
______15. During translocation, organic compounds move through
a. the upper epidermis.
c. structure B.
b. structure A.
d. the lower epidermis.
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Plant Structure and Function, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
16. Garden-pea tendrils are modified
climbing.
17.
specialized for
cell walls are thicker and irregular in shape, which
helps provide support for the plant.
18. A potato stem is modified for
of nutrients.
19. Photosynthesis takes place in the
cells, which
make up a leaf’s
tissue.
20. The diffusion of water vapor through the
is called
of a leaf
.
21. In nonwoody dicot stems, cells of
and
, called vascular bundles, are arranged in the
shape of a(n)
.
22. The spongy layer of a leaf contains large
through which gases can travel.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. Describe how stomata open and close.
24. Define the terms source and sink in relation to the translocation of organic
compounds in the phloem of plants. Give examples of each.
25. Summarize the pressure-flow model of translocation.
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Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Plant Reproduction
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. In the life cycle of a fern, fertilization occurs within the
a. antheridium.
c. sorus.
b. archegonium.
d. sporangium.
______ 2. Mosses and ferns are alike in that they can reproduce sexually only
when
a. a film of water covers the gametophyte.
b. a film of water covers the sporophyte.
c. the gametophytes germinate.
d. the sporophytes are small.
______ 3. The seed part that protects the embryo from mechanical injury and
keeps out water and oxygen is called the
a. sorus.
c. seed coat.
b. cotyledon.
d. ovule.
______ 4. In gymnosperms, gametophytes form on
a. flowers.
c. stamens.
b. the scales of cones.
d. the scales of sepals.
______ 5. In the life cycle of a pine tree,
a. both male and female cones are produced.
b. seeds with wings travel away from the parent tree.
c. microscopic gametophytes develop from spores.
d. All of the above
______ 6. A zygote and endosperm are produced in the process called
a. alternation of generations.
c. double fertilization.
b. meiosis.
d. vegetative propagation.
______ 7. Which of the following represent stems modified for vegetative
reproduction?
a. runners
c. tubers
b. bulbs
d. All of the above
______ 8. The female reproductive parts of a flower are called
a. petals.
c. sepals.
b. stamens.
d. pistils.
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Date
Plant Reproduction, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. Which of the following is NOT a method of vegetative plant propagation?
a. grafting
c. cuttings
b. seeds
d. tissue culture
Refer to the figure at right,
which shows the structure
of a flower, to answer
A
questions 10–13.
Stigma
D
Style
B
C
Filament
______10. The structure labeled B produces
a. male gametophytes.
c. female gametophytes.
b. seeds.
d. antheridia.
______11. Which of the following occurs during pollination?
a. Pollen grains from B are transferred to C.
b. Eggs from C are transferred to B.
c. Eggs from B are transferred to D.
d. Pollen grains from A are transferred to D.
______12. The pollen-producing sac is labeled
a. A.
c. C.
b. B.
d. D.
______13. In angiosperms, ovules are produced in the structure labeled
a. A.
c. C.
b. B.
d. D.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
14. In a flower, female
develop in ovules within the
ovary, which is the lower portion of the
15. In seed plants, sperm that develop within
travel through a(n)
.
grains
to
the egg, which develops within a multicellular structure called
a(n)
.
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Plant Reproduction, Chapter Test A continued
16. A leaflike structure of a seed that transfers nutrients to the embryo is called
a(n)
.
17. Most angiosperm flowers have four basic types of parts, which are the
, the
, the
, and the
.
18. In angiosperm reproduction, the zygote and the tissues of the ovule develop
into seed, which grows into a new
.
19. The union of haploid gametes resulting in a diploid zygote is called
.
20. Plant propagation is the process of growing new plants from seeds or
.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
21. Beginning with the sporophyte stage, describe the life cycle of a fern.
22. Describe how sperm reach eggs in the life cycle of a conifer.
23. In angiosperms, what happens after a pollen tube is formed?
24. List five examples of structures by which plants reproduce asexually.
25. Describe how the stolons of strawberry plants are involved in vegetative
reproduction.
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Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Plant Responses
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Cells on the dark side of a stem elongate more than the cells on the
light side because the hormone
a. ethylene inhibits the cells on the light side.
b. ethylene stimulates cell growth on the dark side.
c. auxin accumulates on the dark side and causes the cell walls
to become more flexible.
d. auxin accumulates on the light side and causes the cell walls
to become less flexible.
______ 2. When vines grow, their tendrils coil around objects for support.
This action is called a
a. phototropism.
c. thigmotropism.
b. gravitropism.
d. photoperiodism.
______ 3. When commercial growers artificially control the lengths of days and
nights, they are relying on a response called a
a. photoperiodism.
c. thigmotropism.
b. phototropism.
d. gravitropism.
______ 4. The bending of plants toward light is caused by a chemical called
a. auxin.
c. abscisic acid.
b. Agent Orange.
d. ethylene.
______ 5. A tropism is a growth response
a. toward light.
b. to touch.
c. toward or away from a stimulus.
d. toward gravity.
______ 6. A plant hormone that is used to make plants grow larger is
a. ethylene.
c. abscisic acid.
b. gibberellin.
d. cytokinin.
______ 7. A thigmotropism is a response to
a. gravity.
b. light.
c. temperature.
d. touch.
______ 8. The orange and red colors of leaves in the fall is caused by the
a. pigment chlorophyll.
b. pigment gibberellin.
c. formation of carotenoids pigments.
d. degradation of chlorophyll causing the carotenoid pigments
to become visible.
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Date
Plant Responses, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows a seedling, to answer questions 9 and 10.
B
D
A
C
______ 9. Which part of the plant exhibits a positive phototropism?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
______10. Which part of the plant exhibits a positive gravitropism?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______11. apical dominance
______12. dormancy
______13. hormone
______14. Agent Orange
a. condition in which a plant or seed remains
inactive
b. plant growth in response to a chemical
c. growth-promoting chemical that causes
stems to bend
d. plant response to length of days and nights
______15. photoperiodism
e. flowers move to follow the sun
______16. auxin
______ 17. solar tracking
f. chemical produced within an organism and
transported to another part to cause a
response
______18. chemotropism
g. inhibition of buds along a plant stem
h. chemical used to defoliate
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Plant Responses, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
19. Auxins sprayed on fruit trees can cause the fruit to drop off the trees or prevent
the fruit from dropping. How can the same hormone have opposite effects?
20. What causes roots that are placed in a horizontal position to grow in a particular
direction?
21. What is heliotropism?
22. How can plants be categorized based on their response to the length of days
and nights?
23. What are the major actions of cytokinins?
24. What are nastic movements in plants? Give two examples.
25. What causes the leaves of deciduous plants to turn red, orange, and yellow in
the fall?
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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Introduction to Animals
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. A unique characteristic of animals that distinguishes them from
the members of the other kingdoms is that in general animals
a. are capable of more complex and rapid movements than are
members of the other kingdoms.
b. have cells with rigid cell walls.
c. have organs but no tissues.
d. include both aquatic and terrestrial species.
______ 2. In an open circulatory system, the route of the blood is
a. heart, blood vessels, tissues, heart.
b. heart, open spaces, body cavity, tissues, heart.
c. heart, blood vessels, heart.
d. heart, blood vessels, body cavity, tissues, vessels, heart.
______ 3. A true coelom
a. becomes the cavity within the digestive tract.
b. develops between the mesoderm and the endoderm.
c. is located between the ectoderm and the mesoderm.
d. develops completely within the mesoderm.
______ 4. The cells of all animals are organized into structural and functional
units called tissues EXCEPT for the cells of
a. sponges.
c. flatworms.
b. cnidarians.
d. roundworms.
______ 5. Scientists studying the evolutionary relationships of living animals
might compare the animals’
a. DNA and embryonic development.
b. anatomy, and they might study fossils of the species.
c. physiology.
d. All of the above
______ 6. Asexual reproduction
a. involves the mass release of gametes.
b. does not require an egg and sperm.
c. requires internal fertilization.
d. is used by fish and amphibians.
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Introduction to Animals, Chapter Test A bcontinued
______ 7. All animals except sponges and single-celled organisms digest their
food
a. in the coelom.
c. extracellularly.
b. in a one-way gut.
d. intracellularly.
______ 8. In acoelomates, the gut is formed by
a. cells from the mesoderm.
b. fluid.
c. cells from the endoderm.
d. skin from the ectoderm.
______ 9. An animal in which the space between the body wall and gut is
completely filled with tissues and organs is called a(n)
a. acoelomate.
c. coelomate.
b. pseudocoelomate.
d. vertebrate.
______10. Specialized areas for food storage and chemical digestion are found
in a(n)
a. excretory system.
c. central chamber of cnidarian.
b. one-way digestive system.
d. coelom.
Refer to the figures below to answer questions 11 and 12.
Organism A
Organism B
______11. The position of the arrow next to organism A can be referred to as
a. posterior.
c. dorsal.
b. anterior.
d. ventral.
______12. Organism B is
a. radially symmetrical.
b. bilaterally symmetrical.
c. unilaterally symmetrical.
d. asymmetrical.
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Introduction to Animals, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
a. body parts arranged around
a central axis
______13. heterotrophs
______14. one-way digestive tract
b. having two copies of
each chromosome
______15. radial symmetry
c. fluid containing oxygen is
pumped into the body cavity
______16. cephalization
d. having similar halves on either
side of a central plane
______ 17. tissue
______18. open circulatory system
e. cannot make their own food
______19. closed circulatory system
f. having a definite head end
______20. bilateral symmetry
g. having a mouth and an anus
______21. diploid
h. group of cells working together
to perform a function
i. blood pumped through a system
of vessels in a loop
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
22. Muscles, most of the skeleton, the circulatory system, and the inner layer of
skin arise from the
.
23. A sea anemone’s body plan is an example of
because its body parts are arranged around a
central axis.
24. An animal that is a(n)
has both ovaries and testes.
25. The ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm undergo
to give rise to all the tissues and organs of an adult body.
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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Sponges, Cnidarians, and Ctenophores
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement.
______ 1. Choanocytes draw water through the sponge’s many pores and into
the internal cavity of the sponge by beating their
a. osculum.
c. flagella.
b. cilia.
d. tentacles.
______ 2. Sessile animals are defined as
a. living in marine environments.
b. being made of cells.
c. remaining attached to a fixed surface during their lives.
d. having a large internal cavity.
______ 3. Hydras attach themselves to rocks or water plants by means of
a sticky secretion produced by the
a. spicules.
c. tentacles.
b. colloblast.
d. base.
______ 4. Sponges exhibit
a. radial symmetry.
b. no symmetry.
c. bilateral symmetry.
d. a predatory lifestyle.
______ 5. Water leaves the internal cavity of a sponge through the
a. food vacuoles.
c. oscula.
b. spicules.
d. mesohyl.
______ 6. Skeletal support in sponges may be provided by
a. spicules of calcium carbonate.
b. spicules of silica.
c. spongin fibers.
d. All of the above
______ 7. Anthozoans include organisms known as
a. sea anemones and corals.
b. hydras.
c. the Portuguese man-of-war.
d. jellyfish.
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Sponges, Cnidarians, and Ctenophores, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 8. spongin
a. formed during asexual reproduction in
hydrozoans
______ 9. spicules
b. tough, flexible protein fibers that make up the
skeleton of most sponges
______10. Hydrozoa
c. releases forcefully when triggered
______11. Scyphozoa
d. could describe the lifestyle of sponges
or cnidarians
______12. Anthozoa
______13. bud
e. has an alternating life cycle of medusa and polyp
stages in which the polyp is dominant
______14. Obelia
f. class that includes Portuguese man-of-war
______15. sponges
g. tiny needles of silica or calcium carbonate that
make up the skeletons of some sponges
______16. nematocyst
h. fertilize their eggs in the mesohyl
i. the largest class of cnidarians, which includes
sea anemones and corals
______ 17. sessile
j. class of cnidarians that includes jellyfish
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
18. Facing into the internal cavity of a sponge are flagellated collar cells called
.
19. Freshwater sponges protect themselves during harsh weather by forming
a(n)
, a structure that encloses amoebocytes in a
protective covering until conditions are more favorable.
20. An organism that produces both eggs and sperm is called a(n)
.
21. A
downward.
is mobile and has tentacles that generally point
22. A
upward.
is usually sessile and has tentacles that point
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Sponges, Cnidarians, and Ctenophores, Chapter Test A continued
23. The
enables the animal to detect orientation.
of a ctenophore
24. The
enables the animal to respond to touch.
of a cnidarian
25. A
has rows of comblike cilia.
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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Flatworms, Roundworms, and Rotifers
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Flatworms have no need for circulatory and respiratory systems
because
a. their cells are close to the animal’s exterior surface.
b. the digestive system performs these functions.
c. the spherical body shape allows diffusion of materials into tissues.
d. the coelom is bathed in blood and oxygen.
______ 2. Which of the following statements about tapeworms is NOT true?
a. They can infect a person who eats improperly cooked beef.
b. They belong to the genus Schistosoma.
c. They can grow large in human intestines.
d. They do not have a digestive system.
______ 3. Which of the following has a snail as an intermediate host and
humans as a final host?
a. blood flukes
c. Planaria
b. Ascaris
d. Obelia
______ 4. The eggs of Ascaris
a. are carried by human waste.
b. can survive for years in the soil.
c. develop into larvae in the intestine.
d. All of the above
______ 5. A type of roundworm that lives a parasitic life is
a. Ascaris.
c. Trichinella.
b. Enterobius.
d. All of the above
______ 6. The simplest animal that has a one-way digestive system is the
a. fluke.
c. roundworm.
b. flatworm.
d. trematode.
______ 7. Which of the following holds excess water, eggs, and
digestive wastes?
a. mastax
c. anus
b. cloaca
d. proglottid
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Class
Date
Flatworms, Roundworms, and Rotifers, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 8. flukes
______ 9. proglottids
a. in planarians, specialized cells with beating
tufts of cilia that draw water through pores
to the outside of the worm’s body
______10. pseudocoelom
b. protective covering of fused cells
______11. flame cells
c. the rectangular body sections of the
tapeworm
______12. tegument
d. type of body cavity found in roundworms
______13. hookworm
e. protective noncellular covering
______14. rotifer
f. parasitic roundworm with cutting plates
for attaching to host’s intestine
______15. cuticle
g. has flame cells for excretion
h. parasitic flatworms of the class Trematoda
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
16. The
is a thick, protective covering of the bodies of
endoparasitic flukes and prevents them from being digested by their hosts.
17. Tapeworms grow by producing a string of rectangular body segments called
. Each segment is a complete reproductive unit.
18. Schistosoma, sometimes called a blood fluke, must live in a(n)
before it can infect humans.
19. The
of a planarian is a light-sensitive structure and
helps the planarian seek out favorable environments.
20. A tapeworm’s
enable the worm to attach to its host.
contains hooks and suckers that
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
21. Roundworms are characterized by a pseudocoelom. Explain how a pseudocoelom functions.
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Flatworms, Roundworms, and Rotifers, Chapter Test A continued
22. What are three things that people can do to protect themselves from
parasites.
23. How do planarians reproduce?
24. How do tapeworms obtain nutrients without a mouth or a digestive system?
25. How do rotifers obtain nutrients?
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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Mollusks and Annelids
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. All of the following are
characteristics of mollusks
EXCEPT
a. a pseudocoelomate body
plan.
b. bilateral symmetry.
c. a complete digestive
tract.
d. an open circulatory
system.
______ 4. Polychaetes have parapodia,
which
a. are fleshy, paddlelike
structures.
b. are used in gas exchange.
c. usually have setae and
are used in movement.
d. All of the above
______ 5. Earthworms must stay
moist because they
a. absorb nutrients through
skin.
b. lose moisture through
skin.
c. respire through skin.
d. None of the above
______ 2. In annelids, a significant
evolutionary change in
body plan is
a. the ability to burrow.
b. the existence of a coelom.
c. segmentation.
d. bilateral symmetry.
______ 6. Bivalves open and close
their valves by
a. relaxing and contracting
the adductor muscles.
b. drawing sea water in
through a siphon.
c. expelling water from
their shell.
d. means of sensory cells
along the edge of their
valves.
______ 3. To digest the nutrients in
soil, earthworms must
a. have nephridia to filter
out nutrients.
b. grind the soil in their
gizzard.
c. coordinate muscular
activity in each body
segment.
d. alternately contract
circular and longitudinal
muscles.
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Date
Mollusks and Annelids, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. Which characteristic
distinguishes mollusks and
annelids from all simpler
invertebrates?
a. one-way digestion
b. organs
c. bilateral symmetry
d. a coelom
______ 9. In an annelid, sensory
information is delivered
from the segments to the
brain by the
a. setae.
b. nerve cord.
c. nephridia.
d. mesoderm.
______ 8. Which of the following
pairings is correct?
a. clams—closed circulatory
system
b. slugs—closed circulatory
system
c. snails—open circulatory
system
d. squids—open circulatory
system
______10. Which of the following
animals has setae but
lacks parapodia?
a. earthworm
b. polychaete
c. leech
d. octopus
______11. A segment of an earthworm
increases in diameter
because the
a. skin absorbs water.
b. adductor muscles relax.
c. circular muscles contract.
d. longitudinal muscles
contract.
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______12. visceral mass
a. a snail or slug
______13. circular muscle
b. the part of an earthworm’s digestive tract
where soil particles are crushed
______14. foot
c. the central section of a mollusk that contains
the organs
______15. crop
d. a cephalopod that builds a chambered shell
______16. gastropod
______ 17. mantle cavity
e. a storage chamber in an annelid’s digestive
tract
______18. valve
f. the structure that encloses the gills of many
mollusks
______19. nautilus
g. a structure that enables movement in an
earthworm
______20. gizzard
h. one of the shells of a mollusk such as a mussel
i. a muscular structure in mollusks used mainly
for locomotion
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Mollusks and Annelids, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
21. All mollusks except bivalves have a tonguelike organ called a(n)
.
22. Leeches differ from other annelids because leeches lack both
and
23. The
mollusks and annelids.
.
larva is a distinguishing characteristic of
24. Aquatic snails respire by means of
cavity.
in the mantle
25. Water is drawn into the body of bivalves through tubes called
.
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Arthropods
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. nauplius
a. part of a decapod’s tail
______ 2. cephalothorax
b. a type of crustacean that includes pill bugs
and sow bugs
______ 3. millipede
c. aquatic crustacean that is part of the plankton
______ 4. carapace
d. the larval form of crustaceans
______ 5. telson
e. a characteristic shared by arthropods and
annelids
______ 6. isopod
f. legs modified into large pincers
______ 7. segmentation
______ 8. mite
g. a living member of the subphylum Crustacea
h. a member of the subphylum Myriapoda that
has two pairs of legs on most segments
i. terrestrial crustacean
______ 9. shrimp
______10. centipede
j. the shield that covers a decapod’s
cephalothorax
______11. green gland
k. a member of the subphylum Myriapoda that
has one pair of legs per segment
______12. chelipeds
l. excretory structure
m. a body section in some arthropods formed by
the fusion of the head with the thorax
______13. pill bug
______14. copepod
______15. book lung
n. an arthropod in which the head, thorax, and
abdomen are fused
o. respiratory structure
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______16. The appendages that scorpions and spiders use to capture and handle
their prey are called
a. chelipeds.
c. pedipalps.
b. walking legs.
d. uropods.
______ 17. Malpighian tubules
a. remove wastes.
b. carry blood.
c. function in digestion.
d. are important in respiration.
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Date
Arthropods, Chapter Test A continued
______18. The structures on a spider’s abdomen that secrete silk are called
a. spiracles.
c. chelicerates.
b. pedipalps.
d. spinnerets.
______19. Which of the following is a characteristic of the brown recluse spider?
a. book lungs
b. poison glands connected to fanged chelicerae
c. a violin-shaped mark on its cephalothorax
d. All of the above
______20. Arthropods periodically shed and discard their exoskeletons as they
grow in a process called
a. molting.
b. cephalization.
c. reproduction.
d. segmentation.
______21. Members of the arthropod subphylum Chelicerata include
a. crabs and lobsters.
c. insects.
b. spiders and scorpions.
d. millipedes and centipedes.
______22. What are the three main body segments of arthropods?
a. cephalothorax, abdomen, and appendages
b. head, cephalothorax, and appendages
c. thorax, appendages, and spiracles
d. head, thorax, and abdomen
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
23. Mites, including chiggers and ticks, have bodies in which the
,
, and
are fused into a single body.
24. The only arthropods with two pairs of antennae are
.
25. Arachnids have
pairs of legs.
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Insects
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. insect antennae
______ 2. innate
______ 3. insect wings
a. a characteristic shared by insects and
spiders
b. a harmless viceroy that looks like a
foul-tasting monarch butterfly
c. causes African sleeping sickness
______ 4. mandible
d. chewing mouthpart
______ 5. trachea
e. communicates a willingness to mate
______ 6. tsetse fly
f. communicates distance to a food source
g. consist of only one pair
______ 7. termite
______ 8. Batesian mimicry
______ 9. pheromone
h. describes certain altruistic behaviors in
honeybees
i. forest nutrient recycler
j. may be leathery or membranous
______10. waggle dance
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______11. The tagma that bears the first pair of walking legs is the
a. abdomen.
c. head.
b. thorax.
d. metathorax.
______12. A honeybee giving up its opportunity to reproduce by helping to raise
the offspring of a relative is an example of
a. altruistic behavior.
b. territorial behavior.
c. scouting behavior.
d. Batesian mimicry.
______13. The ovipositors of a grasshopper
a. are used to deposit ovaries.
b. incubate eggs.
c. contain developing ovaries.
d. are used to dig holes.
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Insects, Chapter Test A continued
______14. In complete metamorphosis, the larva develops into an adult during the
a. nymph stage.
b. pupa stage.
c. growth stage.
d. molt stage.
______15. Insect wings are an outgrowth of
a. a network of chitin.
b. the body wall of the thorax.
c. the body wall of the abdomen.
d. the cephalothorax.
______16. The correct sequence of stages during complete metamorphosis is
a. egg, chrysalis, larva, and adult.
b. egg, larva, nymph, and adult.
c. egg, nymph, larva, and adult.
d. egg, larva, pupa, and adult.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
17. An insect has three tagmata: the
,
, and
.
18. Circulatory fluid, called
, circulates throughout
an insect’s
19. The
circulatory system.
shreds food as it passes through a
grasshopper’s digestive tract into the
.
20. In a grasshopper, the antennae contain sensory structures that respond
to
and
.
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Insects, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below, which shows the internal structure of a grasshopper, to
answer questions 21-23.
a
b
c
21. What is the function of the structure labeled a?
22. What is the function of the structure labeled b?
23. What is the function of the structure labeled c?
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. What is the importance of complete metamorphosis in insects?
25. List three ways in which the mouthparts of insects are adapted to different
functions.
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. skin gill
a. a plate in the endoskeleton of
echinoderms
______ 2. pedicellaria
b. extends through the mouth during
feeding
______ 3. bipinnaria
______ 4. ossicle
c. connects to digestive glands in each
arm
______ 5. water-vascular system
d. pincerlike structure
e. sea star larva
______ 6. pyloric stomach
f. aids respiration and waste removal
______ 7. cardiac stomach
g. found in lancelets
______ 8. atriopore
h. a network of interconnected canals
in an echinoderm
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 9. Echinoderms share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. an endoskeleton composed of ossicles.
b. a radially symmetrical body plan in adulthood.
c. a water-vascular system.
d. a notochord.
______10. Although the tube feet of echinoderms serve to move them across the
seafloor, tube feet also
a. aid in gas exchange and waste excretion.
b. serve as reproductive organs.
c. serve as the primary circulatory system.
d. All of the above
______11. Chordates are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. radial symmetry.
b. pharyngeal pouches.
c. a tail that extends beyond the anus.
d. a dorsal, hollow nerve cord.
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Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Pedicellaria
a. prevent small organisms from attaching to a sea star.
b. are pincerlike structures.
c. are found in sea urchins.
d. All of the above
______13. Chordate characteristics can be observed in
a. annelids and echinoderms.
b. arthropods and annelids.
c. echinoderms and vertebrates.
d. lancelets and tunicates.
______14. Chordates tend to grow larger and move more quickly than other
animals because they
a. reproduce more often.
b. have an endoskeleton with muscles attached to it.
c. have a tail that provides added balance.
d. All of the above
______15. Invertebrate chordates are so named because they have
a. a notochord but no backbone.
b. no notochord and no backbone.
c. a notochord and a backbone.
d. no notochord but do have a backbone.
______16. An adult tunicate develops a tough sac around its body called a(n)
a. tunic.
b. scale.
c. endoskeleton.
d. ossicle.
______ 17. Each tube foot of a sea star is connected to a(n)
a. skin gill.
b. ossicle.
c. ampulla.
d. pedicellaria.
______18. Which of the following characteristics is retained by an adult tunicate?
a. nerve cord
b. notochord
c. pharyngeal slits
d. postanal tail
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Date
Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure below to answer questions 19 and 20.
X
______19. The structure labeled X is a
a. pharyngeal slit.
b. dorsal nerve cord.
c. pharynx.
d. tail.
______20. The organism in the figure above is a(n)
a. invertebrate chordate.
c. hermaphrodite as an adult.
b. freshwater organism.
d. vertebrate chordate.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
21. Many echinoderms crawl across the seafloor by means of a(n)
-
system.
22. Because echinoderms and chordates develop similarly as embryos, it is likely
that they are derived from a(n)
.
23. Echinoderms have no head or brain, but they do have a central
with branches that
extend into each of the arms.
24. Unlike other echinoderms,
have ossicles that are small and not fused together.
25. Of all the chordate characteristics, only
are retained by adult tunicates.
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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Fishes
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
a. method of reproduction in
lampreys
______ 1. shark
______ 2. hagfish
b. method of reproduction in
sharks
______ 3. coelacanth
c. class Myxini
______ 4. bass
d. fleshy fins
______ 5. internal fertilization
e. class Chondrichthyes
______ 6. external fertilization
f. rayed fins
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 7. Early vertebrates
a. were jawless and had paired fins.
b. had jaws and unpaired fins.
c. were jawless and lacked paired fins.
d. had jaws and paired fins.
______ 8. Jaws and paired fins
a. appeared about one million years ago.
b. increase maneuverability and the ability to capture prey.
c. first appeared in sharks and bony fish.
d. All of the above
______ 9. Gills and a vertebral column are found in
a. bony fishes.
c. jawless fishes.
b. cartilaginous fishes.
d. All of the above
______10. The living jawless fishes are
a. lampreys and sharks.
b. sharks and rays.
c. hagfishes and coelacanths.
d. lampreys and hagfishes.
______11. Cartilaginous fishes have all of the following EXCEPT
a. kidneys.
c. a swim bladder.
b. internal fertilization.
d. gill slits.
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Fishes, Chapter Test A continued
______12. Freshwater fishes tend to take in water through osmosis and
therefore excrete which of the following?
a. small amounts of concentrated urine
b. large amounts of concentrated urine
c. small amounts of dilute urine
d. large amounts of dilute urine
______13. A fish absorbs oxygen through its
a. gill slits.
c. gill filaments.
b. swim bladder.
d. mouth.
______14. A yellow perch propels itself forward with its
a. caudal fin.
c. pectoral fins.
b. pelvic fins.
d. dorsal fins.
______15. Bony fishes regulate their buoyancy with their
a. pectoral fins.
c. gills.
b. swim bladder.
d. lateral line.
______16. The lateral line system enables a fish to
a. detect vibrations in the water.
b. see objects at a distance.
c. smell.
d. swim rapidly.
______ 17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ray-finned fish?
a. highly mobile fins
b. very thin scales
c. an operculum
d. skeleton made of cartilage
______18. Marine fishes maintain salt and water balance by
a. excreting large amounts of dilute urine.
b. pumping excess ions into their body.
c. drinking sea water.
d. All of the above
______19. In a fish heart, the thick-walled chamber that contracts strongly is the
a. sinus venosus.
b. atrium.
c. ventricle.
d. conus arteriosus.
______20. All modern fishes have a vertebral column that
a. surrounds the spinal cord.
b. is made of cartilage.
c. is made of bone.
d. is part of an external skeleton.
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Date
Fishes, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
21. By moving the
their gills while remaining stationary.
, bony fishes can move water over
22. The only jawless fishes that survive today are
and
.
23. The
of a yellow perch grow throughout its life and
can be used to estimate the
of the fish.
24. In a perch, visual, auditory, and lateral-line information are processed by the
.
25. In fish,
efficient respiration.
allows for
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Chapter Test
lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Amphibians
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. pulmonary vein
______ 2. cloaca
a. chamber through which urine, gametes,
and undigested material pass
b. eardrum of a leopard frog
______ 3. tympanic membrane
______ 4. urostyle
c. structure made of fused vertebrae in
a leopard frog
d. transfers body weight to the limbs
______ 5. pelvic girdle
e. structure that carries blood from the
lungs to the heart
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 6. Preadaptations in the transition from aquatic to terrestrial life included
which of the following?
a. well-developed lungs
b. internal nostrils for breathing air
c. a pelvic girdle that supported legs
d. All of the above
______ 7. Amphibians and lobe-finned fish have similar
a. patterns of metamorphosis.
b. nervous systems.
c. skeletal features.
d. diets.
______ 8. Living amphibians
a. exhibit metamorphosis.
b. have moist, scaleless skin.
c. lay their eggs in moist places.
d. All of the above
______ 9. Male frogs attract females by
a. grasping them firmly during amplexus.
b. pheromones.
c. displaying bright skin colors.
d. vocalizing.
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Amphibians, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Reproduction in frogs involves
a. internal fertilization and eggs coated with a jellylike material.
b. external fertilization and shelled eggs.
c. external fertilization and eggs that are coated with a jellylike material.
d. internal fertilization and shelled eggs.
______11. Which of the following represents the sequence of metamorphosis in a
leopard frog?
a. fertilized egg, tadpole, hind legs appear, front legs appear, tail and
gills disappear, young frog
b. fertilized egg, tadpole, front legs appear, hind legs appear, tail
disappears, young frog
c. fertilized egg, hind legs appear, front legs appear, tadpole, young
frog
d. fertilized egg, tadpole, hind legs appear, tail and gills disappear,
front legs appear, young frog
______12. The hormone that controls metamorphosis in amphibians is
a. urostyle hormone.
c. axolotl.
b. thyroxine.
d. amphioxus.
______13. Members of the order Anura
a. retain gills as adults.
b. have neither jaws nor legs.
c. undergo metamorphosis.
d. have small, bony scales embedded in their skin.
______14. Most salamanders have
a. gills as adults.
b. rough, dry skin.
c. unpaired fins.
d. an elongated body.
______15. Members of the order Gymnophiona do NOT
a. use cutaneous respiration.
c. have legs.
b. lay eggs.
d. bear live young.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
16. Besides breathing with their lungs, amphibians also engage in
respiration.
17. Urine, undigested food, and gametes all exit the body of a leopard frog
through the
opening, called a
.
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Amphibians, Chapter Test A continued
18. The changes that transform a tadpole into an adult frog are called
.
19. In an amphibian, the
pumps blood out of the heart.
20. In amphibians, one circulatory loop carries blood from the heart to the
, while a second loop carries blood to the rest
of the body.
21. Salamanders are members of the order
.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. How is a caecilian adapted to its lifestyle?
23. What enables a leopard frog to keep its skin moist? Why is moist skin
important for this animal?
24. Trace the circulation of blood through the amphibian heart.
25. Describe one example of parental care in amphibians.
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Reptiles
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. pit organs
______ 2. Jacobson’s
organs
a. retaining fertilized eggs within the female’s
body until the eggs hatch
b. structures on a rattlesnake that can detect the
odor of chemicals
______ 3. ovoviviparity
c. structures on a rattlesnake that can detect heat
______ 4. oviparity
d. producing offspring that hatch from eggs
outside the female’s body
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 5. Which of the following is NOT a method that reptiles use to regulate
their body temperature?
a. basking in the sunshine to warm themselves
b. resting in the shade to cool themselves
c. generating large amounts of heat through metabolism
d. absorbing heat from their surroundings
______ 6. Crocodilians are distinguished from other reptiles by having
a. air sacs.
c. a partially divided ventricle.
b. a fully divided ventricle.
d. shelled eggs.
______ 7. Unlike other reptiles, crocodilians
a. care for their young after the young hatch.
b. use internal fertilization.
c. are oviparous.
d. are ectothermic.
______ 8. One adaptation that helps reptiles succeed on land is
a. gills.
c. external fertilization.
b. watertight skin.
d. endothermic metabolism.
______ 9. The geographical range of reptiles is limited mainly because reptiles
a. cannot move easily on land.
b. cannot swim or survive in water.
c. live in a very limited variety of habitats.
d. generally cannot function in cold environments.
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Date
Reptiles, Chapter Test A continued
______10. For a reptile that lives on land, internal fertilization is an important
adaptation because it
a. protects the gametes from predators.
b. protects the gametes from drying out.
c. ensures that both parents are of the same species.
d. ensures that both parents will care for the offspring.
______11. In the heart of most reptiles, oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood
a. mix completely in the atria.
b. mix completely in the ventricle.
c. mix somewhat in the ventricle.
d. remain completely separate in the ventricle.
______12. Which of the following is NOT true of a turtle’s shell?
a. Vertebrae are fused to the inside of the carapace.
b. The shell provides support for muscle attachment.
c. The carapace is always dome shaped.
d. The shell is made of fused plates of bone.
______13. Dinosaurs out-competed thecodonts because they
a. were herbivorous.
b. had legs positioned for faster running.
c. were able to survive the asteroid that fell on the Yucatan.
d. None of the above
______14. Crocodiles can feed underwater because they
a. have a valve at the back of the throat.
b. have a Jacobsen’s organ.
c. exhibit autotomy.
d. are ectoterms.
______15. Tuataras are
a. members of the order Chelonia.
b. herbivorous lizards.
c. active at lower temperatures.
d. abundant in New Zealand.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
16. Reptiles are
, which are animals that warm their
bodies by absorbing heat from their environment.
17. Numerous
area of a reptile’s lungs.
greatly increase the respiratory surface
18. The lower (ventral) portion of a tortoise’s shell is called the
.
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Date
Reptiles, Chapter Test A continued
19. Reptiles, birds, and mammals reproduce by means of
eggs, which is evidence that they share a common
20. The
.
, is often called
the Age of Reptiles.
21. The
suggests that the mass extinction of dinosaurs
was due to severe climatic changes resulting from a celestial phenomenon.
22. Lizards can elude predators by detaching their tail, an ability that is called
.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. Explain how the unique jaw structure of snakes help snakes feed.
24. List the four orders of present-day reptiles, and give an example of each.
25. Describe the structure and function of a turtle’s shell.
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Birds
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______ 1. preen gland
a. able to walk, swim, and feed at hatching
______ 2. barbule
b. chamber of a bird’s stomach where food is
crushed
______ 3. wishbone
c. structure that secretes oil to be spread over
a bird’s feathers
______ 4. gizzard
d. geese and ducks
______ 5. altricial
e. hummingbirds and swifts
______ 6. precocial
f. fused collarbones of a bird
______ 7. Apodiformes
g. one of the projections on the branches of a
contour feather
______ 8. Anseriformes
h. blind, naked, and helpless at hatching
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 9. A bird’s skeleton is
a. composed of thin, hollow bones.
b. more rigid than a reptile’s skeleton.
c. composed of many fused bones.
d. All of the above
______10. A bird’s crop
a. temporarily stores food.
b. is the first chamber of its stomach.
c. is critical for flight.
d. excretes uric acid.
______11. In flying birds, large flight muscles are directly attached to
a. leg muscles.
c. the keeled breastbone.
b. feathers.
d. air sacs.
______12. What characteristics are required for a beak that is used to tear apart
prey or vegetation?
a. long, spear-shaped
b. hooked, curved, and pointed
c. chisel-shaped
d. thin, slightly curved
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Date
Birds, Chapter Test A continued
______13. What is the function of a bird’s air sacs?
a. to allow one-way air flow through the lungs
b. to help provide lift during flight
c. to increase the buoyancy of diving birds
d. to provide additional area for gas exchange
______14. A short, thick, strong beak is usually found on birds that
a. sip nectar.
b. spear fish.
c. crack seeds.
d. probe for insects.
______15. The second chamber in the stomach of a bald eagle is known as the
a. crop.
b. gizzard.
c. esophagus.
d. cloaca.
______16. Which of the following characteristics are shared by birds and
dinosaurs?
a. dense, fused bones
b. feathers
c. flexible S-shaped neck
d. fused collarbone
______ 17. To produce song, birds regulate air flow through which of the
following structures?
a. posterior air sacs
b. syrinx
c. lungs
d. anterior air sacs
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
18. Like reptiles, birds lay
eggs and have
on their legs and feet.
19. The body of an adult bird is covered by
, which give the birds their shape.
20. In birds, the
have been modified into wings.
21. A long, flattened, rounded bill, as found in
adapted for sieving.
22. Feathers are modified reptilian
, is
.
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Birds, Chapter Test A continued
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. Name two types of feathers, and describe their functions.
24. Which is more efficient—a bird lung or a reptile lung? Explain.
25. Briefly summarize the two main hypotheses for the evolution of flight.
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Chapter Test
lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Mammals
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. All ungulates are able to
digest cellulose with the
help of
a. rumens.
b. microorganisms.
c. premolars.
d. flat molars.
______ 5. Monotremes and marsupials
are limited to the Australian
region because of
a. limited food supply.
b. heavy predation in other
parts of the world.
c. loss of habitat.
d. isolation caused by
continental drift.
______ 2. Dugongs and manatees are
a. toothless mammals.
b. hoofed mammals.
c. sirenians.
d. marine hunters.
______ 6. Which part of the brain is
responsible for higher
mental functioning?
a. cerebellum
b. thalamus
c. cerebrum
d. medulla oblongata
______ 3. In the development of cats,
gorillas, and whales, nourishment and oxygen are
provided by the mother to
the fetus through the
a. placenta.
b. excretory system.
c. pouch.
d. Both (a) and (c)
______ 7. Premolars and molars are
specialized for
a. biting and cutting.
b. stabbing and holding.
c. crushing and grinding.
d. nipping and grasping.
______ 4. Mammals achieve a high
metabolic rate in order to
maintain internal body
temperatures higher than
ectotherms by
a. staying active.
b. finding sources of
warmth.
c. eating more food.
d. hibernating.
______ 8. Which group reproduces
by laying eggs?
a. all mammals
b. monotremes
c. marsupials
d. placental mammals
______ 9. The only mammals capable
of flight belong to
a. Order Insectivora.
b. Order Chiroptera.
c. Order Perissodactyla.
d. Order Cetacea.
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Class
Date
Mammals, Chapter Test A continued
______11. Because DNA sequences in
humans and chimpanzees
are very similar,
a. humans must have
evolved from chimpanzees.
b. chimpanzees must have
single-stranded DNA.
c. humans and chimpanzees
must have a common
ancestor.
d. humans and chimpanzees
are the same species.
______10. Mammals that chew cud
belong to
a. Order Artiodactyla.
b. Order Perissodactyla.
c. Order Proboscidea.
d. Order Lagomorpha.
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
a. grape-shaped chambers within the lungs
of mammals, which aid in respiration
______12. endotherm
______13. echolocation
b. lemurs, tarsiers, and lorises
______14. mammals
c. a member of the group that includes humans,
apes, monkeys, and prosimians
______15. alveoli
d. the only animal group with hair
______16. Homo habilis
e. the oldest hominids found with stone tools
______ 17. prosimians
f. sensory tool used by both bats and
whales to navigate using high-frequency
sound waves
______18. primate
g. an animal that generates heat internally
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
19. The direct ancestor of modern humans was probably
.
20. Analysis of DNA indicates that Homo sapiens evolved in
.
21. All vertebrates have a(n)
heart.
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Date
Mammals, Chapter Test A continued
22. Mammals likely evolved from
, terrestrial
vertebrates that were probably
23. A
.
has a single opening in the skull.
24. The extinction of
radiation of mammals into new habitats.
allowed for the adaptive
25. An ungulate with an even number of toes is a(n)
while a(n)
,
has an odd number of toes.
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Chapter Test
lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Animal Behavior
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Traits that increase an individual’s ability to attract a mate appear with
increased frequency as a result of
a. a fixed action pattern behavior.
b. behavioral selection.
c. sexual selection.
d. communication.
______ 2. The ability to perform a behavior is often innate, but the final shape of
the inherited behavior is often the result of
a. learning.
c. operant conditioning.
b. habituation.
d. imprinting.
______ 3. A scientist asks questions about a behavior to understand the
a. role of genetics in the behavior.
b. evolution of the behavior.
c. affect it has on survival.
d. All of the above
______ 4. Extreme traits—such as antlers, horns, and lion manes—that are
found in male animals but not in female animals are the result of
a. evolution.
c. natural selection.
b. sexual selection.
d. All of the above
______ 5. In the figure at right, the bird
providing food to its young is
engaging in
a. foraging behavior.
b. parental care.
c. imprinting.
d. territorial behavior.
______ 6. When imprinting, young birds
will follow
a. only their mother.
b. only members of other species.
c. the first moving object they see.
d. only members of their species.
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Date
Animal Behavior, Chapter Test A continued
______ 7. Animal signals are used to
a. influence an animal’s behavior.
b. solicit play.
c. attract a mate.
d. All of the above
______ 8. Sexual selection is a(n)
a. innate behavior.
b. evolutionary mechanism.
c. behavioral signal.
d. genetic trait.
______ 9. Which of the following is NOT a signal?
a. feeding
c. color
b. sound
d. scent
______10. Fiddler crabs emerging from their burrows at specified intervals is an
example of a
a. lunar cycle.
c. annual rhythm.
b. circadian rhythm.
d. weekly cycle.
______11. A benefit of living in a social group is
a. sharing of mates.
c. protection from predators.
b. reduced risk of disease.
d. All of the above
______12. A cost of living in a social group is
a. reduced success in foraging.
c. increased predation.
b. competition for mates.
d. All of the above
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______13. habituation
______14. competition
______15. territorial behavior
______16. mate choice
a. ability to analyze a problem and use
past experience to develop insight
b. a male animal establishing boundaries
during mating season by not allowing
another male to go near females
______ 17. reasoning
c. strategy for locating, obtaining, and
consuming food
______18. imprinting
d. occurs only during a specific period
early in an animal’s life
______19. optimality hypothesis
e. birds that ignore a scarecrow in the
garden every day
f. female evaluation of male for
reproduction
g. results when resources are limited
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Date
Animal Behavior, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
20. When new male lions in a pride kill cubs of other males, they are
demonstrating an innate behavior influenced by
.
21. When rats locked in a box learned to depress a lever to get food, they
demonstrated
in a
famous study conducted by B. F. Skinner.
22. Birds flying south for the winter are demonstrating
.
23. When Pavlov’s dogs learned to
a ringing bell with
meat and salivated in response, they demonstrated
.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
24. Explain how imprinting in ducks and geese is influenced by both heredity
and learning.
25. List five types of communication animals can use to send and receive signals.
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Chapter Test
lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Skeletal, Muscular, and Integumentary Systems
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. The main components of the epidermis are
a. epithelial tissue and nervous tissue.
b. connective tissue and muscle tissue.
c. connective tissue and epithelial tissue.
d. nervous tissue and muscle tissue.
______ 2. Which of the following is NOT a hinge joint?
a. elbow
c. finger knuckle
b. wrist
d. toe knuckle
______ 3. Smooth muscle is also called
a. rhythmic muscle.
b. voluntary muscle.
c. interconnected muscle.
d. involuntary muscle.
______ 4. Which of the following sets of bones are part of the axial skeleton?
a. skull, legs, hips
b. vertebrae, skull, arms
c. skull, vertebrae, sternum
d. ribs, legs, arms
______ 5. Hair and nails are derived from cells of the
a. dermis.
b. subcutaneous tissue.
c. oil glands.
d. epidermis.
______ 6. When a sarcomere is fully contracted,
a. myosin and actin completely overlap each other.
b. the sarcomere is at its longest length.
c. myosin and actin are not connected at all.
d. ATP is not being used.
______ 7. Which of the following is the correct order of structures that compose
a bone from the outermost structure to the innermost structure?
a. periosteum, bone marrow, compact bone, spongy bone
b. periosteum, compact bone, spongy bone, bone marrow
c. compact bone, spongy bone, bone marrow, periosteum
d. spongy bone, periosteum, compact bone, bone marrow
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Class
Date
Skeletal, Muscular, and Integumentary Systems, Chapter Test A continued
______ 8. The structures in the dermis that help regulate body temperature are
a. hair follicles and blood vessels.
b. blood vessels and sweat glands.
c. oil glands and sweat glands.
d. nerve cells and blood vessels.
______ 9. The functions of the skin include all of the following EXCEPT
a. protecting the body from injury.
b. preventing the body from drying out.
c. protecting the body from infection.
d. absorbing nutrients from food.
______10. Energy for muscle contraction can be supplied by
a. glycogen.
c. ATP.
b. glucose.
d. All of the above
______11. Which of the following is NOT part of the immune system?
a. heart
c. skin
b. lymph nodes
d. white blood cells
______12. In early development, bone tissue is made mostly of
a. groups of osteocytes.
c. periosteum.
b. bone marrow.
d. cartilage.
______13. The nervous system consists of which of the following organs?
a. stomach, liver, pancreas
b. lungs, nose, trachea
c. kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder
d. brain, spinal cord, sense organs
______14. Cell is to tissue as
a. cell is to organ system.
b. tissue is to organ.
c. organ system is to tissue.
d. organ system is to organ.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
15. In the degenerative joint disease
, the cartilage
covering the bone surface becomes thin and rough, while
is a result of the
immune system attacking body tissues.
16. The
contains the heart,
esophagus, and lungs, while the
contains the digestive system.
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Class
Date
Skeletal, Muscular, and Integumentary Systems, Chapter Test A continued
17.The bones of the skull, spine, and rib cage make up the
.
18. Muscles that cause a joint to bend are called
19.
.
leads to an accumulation
of lactic acid in muscle fibers and may result in
.
20. Hair is produced by
.
Refer to the figure below, which shows three different joint, to answer questions
21–25. In the space provided, write the letter of each joint that best matches the
term or phrase. Some choices may be used more than once.
A
C
B
______21. ball and socket joint
______22. gliding joint
______23. hinge joint
______24. joint also found in the ankles
______25. joint also found in the hip
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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Excess fluids and proteins in the body are returned to the
bloodstream by
a. the heart.
c. the respiratory system.
b. arteries.
d. the lymphatic system.
______ 2. If a blood vessel has valves, it probably is
a. a vein.
c. a capillary.
b. an artery.
d. mutated.
______ 3. A person with type B blood can receive type
a. AB blood.
c. O or B blood.
b. AB or B blood.
d. A blood.
______ 4. The pulmonary circulation loop carries blood to the
a. kidneys.
c. intestines.
b. liver.
d. lungs.
______ 5. The respiratory control center in the brain is most sensitive to the
concentration of
a. oxygen.
b. carbon dioxide in the lungs.
c. carbon dioxide in the blood.
d. carbon dioxide in the cells.
______ 6. The cardiovascular system transports
a. oxygen.
c. hormones.
b. nutrients.
d. All of the above
______ 7. The natural pacemaker of the heart is the
a. aorta.
c. left atrium.
b. sinoatrial node.
d. superior vena cava.
______ 8. The structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea
is called the
a. pharynx.
c. alveolus.
b. larynx.
d. epiglottis.
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Circulatory and Respiratory Systems, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure at right, which shows the human heart,
to answer questions 8 and 9.
______ 9. Blood in the chamber labeled A
a. is full of oxygen.
b. is returning from the lungs.
c. is oxygen-poor.
d. has very little plasma.
______10. The vessel labeled B, which
carries deoxygenated blood, is
a. a pulmonary artery.
b. a pulmonary vein.
c. part of the aorta.
d. part of the atria.
B
A
______11. What happens during inhalation?
a. The diaphragm contracts and moves downward, and the rib cage
moves upward and outward.
b. The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, and the rib cage
moves upward and outward.
c. The diaphragm contracts and moves downward, and the rib cage
moves downward and inward.
d. The diaphragm and the rib cage return to their normal resting
positions.
______12. Hemoglobin contains four atoms of iron that bind reversibly with
a. carbonic acid.
b. oxygen.
c. bicarbonate atoms.
d. water.
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______13. erythrocytes
______14. white blood cells
______15. plasma
______16. platelets
______ 17. fibrin
a. the largest blood cells; also known as
leukocytes
b. the portion of blood containing metabolites, wastes, salts, proteins, and water
c. red blood cells
d. the sticky protein threads that function in
blood clotting
e. cell fragments needed to form blood clots
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Circulatory and Respiratory Systems, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
18. The large veins called
carry oxygen-poor blood from the body into the
of the heart.
19. Breathing occurs because of differences between the
inside the lungs and outside the body.
20. Oxygen molecules diffuse from the air into the
,
air sacs within the lungs.
21. The
loop transports
blood from the left side of the heart to body tissues and then to the right side
of the heart.
22. The presence of carbon dioxide in the blood makes the blood more
.
23. The contractions of the heart, initiated by the sinoatrial node, cause the right
and left
to contract first.
24. The first step in clotting is the congregation of
at
the damaged site.
25. During inhalation, the
at the base of the ribs
.
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Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
The Body’s Defense Systems
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. HIV can be transmitted in which of the following ways?
a. through the air
c. by mosquitoes
b. through sexual contact
d. None of the above
______ 2. In an immune response, helper T cells
a. activate cytotoxic T cells and B cells.
b. release antibodies into the blood.
c. develop into plasma cells.
d. release interleukin-1.
______ 3. cytotoxic T cells : infected cells ::
a. antigens : antibodies
c. macrophages : pathogens
b. B cells : plasma cells
d. helper T cells : B cells
______ 4. Robert Koch developed a procedure for
a. producing vaccines.
c. treating allergic reactions.
b. identifying specific pathogens. d. reducing the spread of pathogens.
______ 5. After an immune response, some B cells and T cells develop into cells
that continue to patrol the body’s tissues. These cells are called
a. neutrophils.
c. helper T cells.
b. macrophages.
d. memory cells.
______ 6. HIV causes AIDS by attacking and destroying
a. red blood cells.
c. helper T cells.
b. neutrophils.
d. B cells.
______ 7. White blood cells are covered with receptor proteins that recognize
and bind to
a. antibodies.
c. B cells.
b. T cells.
d. antigens.
______ 8. Severe pain and inflammation of the joints is a symptom of
a. psoriasis.
c. type I diabetes.
b. rheumatoid arthritis.
d. Crohn’s disease.
______ 9. During which phase of an HIV infection do symptoms first appear?
a. phase I
c. phase III
b. phase II
d. phase IV
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The Body’s Defense Systems, Chapter Test A continued
______10. Mucus is produced by cells lining the walls of the bronchi and
bronchioles
a. only when a person has a severe respiratory infection.
b. to allow oxygen to diffuse into the blood more efficiently.
c. to protect against pathogens that might be inhaled.
d. as a lubricant for the expulsion of food that might “go down the
wrong pipe.”
______11. The stomach is involved in defense against infection because it
a. contains acid that destroys pathogens that are swallowed.
b. regurgitates any pathogen that might be swallowed.
c. secretes mucus, which is carried away by cilia.
d. sends potential pathogens to the liver for destruction.
______12. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly associated?
a. cytotoxic T cells—attack and kill infected cells
b. helper T cells—activate cytotoxic T cells and B cells
c. B cells—engulf cells that are infected with pathogens
d. macrophages—consume pathogens and infected cells
______13. Vaccines are effective in preventing disease because they
a. trigger an immune response without causing disease.
b. contain antibodies directed against specific pathogens.
c. contain specific B cells and T cells.
d. contain pathogens to which the person is already immune.
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______14. complement system
______15. natural killer cell
______16. pathogen
______ 17. inflammatory response
______18. mucous membranes
______19. macrophages
a. layers of epithelial tissues that produce
mucus to trap pathogens
b. series of events that suppress infection
c. protein that helps the body resist viral
infection
d. white blood cells that ingest and kill
pathogens
e. disease-causing agent
______20. interferon
f. white blood cells that destroy infected
cells by puncturing their cell membranes
______21. interleukin 2
g. produced by T cells
h. proteins that become active when they
encounter certain pathogens
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The Body’s Defense Systems, Chapter Test A continued
Read the question, and write your answer in the space provided.
22. The chemical that is released during an allergic reaction is
.
23. Any substance that can trigger an immune response is an
.
24.
and
are barriers in the first line of defense.
25. In the figure below, which period of time would involve the most rapid
division of B cells? Explain.
Antibody concentration in blood
A
Immune Responses
B
C
Time
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Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Digestive and Excretory Systems
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. Most of the absorption of nutrients into the blood and lymph occurs in
a. the stomach.
c. the large intestine.
b. the small intestine.
d. the liver.
______ 2. The digestive enzyme released by the stomach that breaks down
proteins is
a. amylase.
c. chyme.
b. pepsin.
d. bile.
______ 3. Which of the following wastes is produced as a result of the
metabolism of proteins and nucleic acids?
a. carbon dioxide
c. ammonia
b. urea
d. salt
______ 4. The base of the USDA food guide pyramid consists of
a. vegetables.
c. meat, beans, and nuts.
b. fats, oils, and sweets.
d. grains.
______ 5. Vitamins are compounds that
a. are coenzymes.
b. provide energy.
c. form cell membranes.
d. are inorganic.
______ 6. Food passes from the stomach into the
a. colon.
c. small intestine.
b. esophagus.
d. liver.
______ 7. Which of the following is true about bile?
a. It breaks globules of fat into tiny droplets.
b. It is stored in the gallbladder.
c. It is produced by the liver.
d. All of the above
______ 8. Urine is formed when molecules are reabsorbed and
secreted as the filtrate passes through the
a. Bowman’s capsules.
c. ureters.
b. renal tubules.
d. urethra.
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Date
Digestive and Excretory Systems, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure at right to answer questions 9–11.
______ 9. The structure labeled B is a
a. villus.
b. nephron.
c. ureter.
d. urethra.
A
B
C
______10. Structure B is found in the
a. kidneys.
b. esophagus.
c. small intestine.
d. tongue.
______11. Structure B allows for an
increase in
a. absorption area.
b. mechanical digestion.
c. acid production.
d. bile production.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
12. In the small intestine, sugars and amino acids enter
in the villi, where as fatty acids and glycerol enter
in the villi.
13. The
secretes digestive enzymes that travel to the
small intestine to help complete the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and
lipids.
14. The distal convoluted tubule empties into a tubule called a(n)
that moves urine
towards the ureter.
15. Filtration of the blood occurs in the
within the
kidneys.
16. The outer region of the kidney is called the
, and the inner region is called the
.
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Digestive and Excretory Systems, Chapter Test A continued
17. Insufficient vitamin D in the diet can result in a condition known as
, in which the bones soften and the teeth
do not develop properly.
18. Insufficient
in the diet can affect the production
of thyroid hormone.
19. The surface area of food particles is increased through
, and enzymes are
involved in the
of food into molecules the body can use.
Study the following steps of urine formation and expulsion from the body.
Determine the order in which the steps are carried out. Write the number of
each step in the space provided.
______20. Collecting ducts receive fluid from the nephrons and empty urine
into areas of the kidneys that lead to ureters.
______21. Blood is filtered as it passes through the glomerulus.
______22. Filtrate passes through the renal tubules where reabsorption and
secretion of molecules occurs.
______23. Ureters carry urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.
______24. Filtrate collects in the Bowman’s capsule.
______25. Urine exits the body through the urethra.
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lOMoARcPSD|33175239
Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Nervous System and Sense Organs
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. The brain and spinal cord
make up the
a. central nervous system.
b. peripheral nervous
system.
c. autonomic nervous
system.
d. None of the above
______ 5. Myelin sheaths
a. are found on all neurons.
b. increase the speed of
nerve impulses.
c. decrease the speed of
nerve impulses.
d. All of the above
______ 6. Which part of the brain
smoothes and coordinates
movements such as walking?
a. cerebrum
b. cerebellum
c. brain stem
d. hypothalamus
______ 2. In times of stress, the
division of the autonomic
nervous system that
dominates is the
a. sympathetic nervous
system.
b. parasympathetic nervous
system.
c. motor division.
d. sensory division.
______ 7. Addiction to a drug occurs
because
a. increasing amounts of
the drug are needed to
achieve the desired
sensation.
b. the drug is removed from
the body.
c. the drug alters the normal
functioning of neurons
and synapses so that
they cannot function
normally unless the
drug is present.
d. drugs stimulate the
central nervous system.
______ 3. Alcohol consumption can
a. alter neurons throughout
the nervous system.
b. affect normal brain
function.
c. cause abnormalities in
the circulatory system.
d. All of the above
______ 4. The peripheral nervous
system connects the body
to the
a. upper brain stem.
b. hypothalamus.
c. brain and spinal cord.
d. autonomic nervous
system.
______ 8. Visual information is
processed by which lobe
of the cerebrum?
a. occipital
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. frontal
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Date
Nervous System and Sense Organs, Chapter Test A continued
______ 9. semicircular canals :
balance ::
a. retina : hearing
b. cochlea : hearing
c. cochlea : sight
d. taste cells : smell
______14. Motor neurons that stimulate skeletal muscles are
part of the
a. somatic nervous system.
b. autonomic nervous
system.
c. parasympathetic nervous
system.
d. corpus callosum.
______10. The photoreceptors of the
retina
a. convert light energy into
electrical signals.
b. convert sound waves
into electrical signals.
c. convert light energy into
chemical signals.
d. convert chemical signals
into electrical signals.
______15. Nicotine mimics the action
of the neurotransmitter
a. dopamine.
b. acetylcholine.
c. glutamate.
d. None of the above
______16. Nitrous oxide, ether, paint
thinner, and glue belong to
a class of psychoactive
drugs called
a. stimulants.
b. inhalants.
c. depressants.
d. hallucinogens.
______11. Which of the following
connects the cerebral
hemispheres with the
cerebellum?
a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. brain stem
d. spinal cord
______ 17. When a neuron is at rest,
a. sodium ions are more
concentrated outside
the cell.
b. potassium ions are more
concentrated inside the
cell.
c. the inside of the cell is
negatively charged.
d. All of the above
______12. The myelin sheath
a. transmits impulses.
b. insulates synapses.
c. insulates axons.
d. None of the above
______13. The two principal components of the peripheral
nervous system are the
a. somatic and the autonomic nervous systems.
b. sensory and motor
divisions.
c. autonomic and central
nervous systems.
d. sympathetic and the
parasympathetic
divisions.
______18. During a nerve impulse,
a. sodium ions first rush
out of the cell.
b. there is a reversal of
polarity in the axon.
c. the membrane potential
of the cell does not
change.
d. potassium ions are
pumped into the axon.
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Nervous System and Sense Organs, Chapter Test A continued
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space
provided.
19.
are found between
papillae, in the throat, and on the roof of the mouth.
20. Sensory receptors that respond to physical stimuli that cause distortion or
bending of tissue are
.
21. Chemoreceptors that detect odors and are located in the roof of the nasal
passage are called
receptors.
22. Sensory information about hearing is processed in the
lobe of the brain.
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. How is a signal from a presynaptic neuron transmitted to a postsynaptic cell?
24. Explain how drug use can lead to drug addiction.
25. Describe the action of cocaine at a synapse.
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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Endocrine System
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. The part of the brain that
issues instructions to the
pituitary gland is the
a. hypothalamus.
b. cerebellum.
c. cerebrum.
d. brain stem.
______ 5. All of the following are
functions of hormones
EXCEPT
a. maintaining homeostasis.
b. regulating growth, development, and behavior.
c. exchanging oxygen and
carbon dioxide between
the air and the lungs.
d. responding to stimuli
from outside the body.
______ 2. Steroid and thyroid
hormones form hormonereceptor complexes
a. inside the cell.
b. that bind to DNA.
c. that activate protein
synthesis.
d. All of the above
______ 6. The endocrine system and
nervous system are similar
in that
a. both are involved in
coordinating the body’s
activities.
b. both use chemical
messengers.
c. the effects of both systems are fast-acting and
short-lived.
d. Both (a) and (b)
______ 3. If iodide salts are lacking in
the diet, the thyroid gland
a. becomes totally inactive.
b. becomes greatly enlarged
as it attempts to make
more thyroid hormones.
c. shrinks from lack of
thyroid hormones.
d. uses calcium to produce
thyroid hormones.
______ 7. Prostaglandins
a. regulate emotions, influence pain, and affect
reproduction.
b. can cause pain, fever,
and changes in blood
pressure.
c. inhibit pain messages
traveling toward the
brain.
d. regulate blood glucose
levels.
______ 4. In a negative feedback
mechanism, high levels
of a hormone
a. inhibit production of
more hormone.
b. stimulate production of
more hormone.
c. increase nerve impulses.
d. decrease nerve impulses.
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Endocrine System, Chapter Test A continued
______ 8. A specific cell that a
hormone binds to and
acts on is called a
a. blood cell.
b. liver cell.
c. target cell.
d. bone cell.
______12. Insulin and glucagon are
involved in regulating
a. blood calcium levels.
b. blood glucose levels.
c. the amount of oxytocin
in the blood.
d. the release of prolactin
by the pituitary gland.
______ 9. The hormones estrogen (in
females) and testosterone
(in males)
a. stimulate the development of secondary sex
characteristics.
b. affect the formation of
gametes.
c. establish daily
biorhythms.
d. Both (a) and (b)
______13. The instructions that
hormones carry are
determined by
a. the hormone itself.
b. both the hormone itself
and the cell it binds.
c. the target cell.
d. the messenger cell.
______14. Compared with a neurotransmitter, the life span
of a hormone is
a. shorter.
b. longer.
c. unpredictable.
d. the same.
______10. Which of the following
hormones does NOT need
to bind to a cell membrane
receptor to pass though the
membrane of a target cell?
a. thyroid hormones
b. amino-acid-based
hormones
c. steroid hormones
d. Both (a) and (c)
______15. Which of the following are
endocrine glands?
a. pancreas
b. testes
c. pituitary gland
d. All of the above
______11. Parathyroid hormone is
released in response to
a. increasing blood calcium
levels.
b. increasing blood glucose
levels.
c. decreasing blood calcium
levels.
d. decreasing blood glucose
levels.
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Date
Endocrine System, Chapter Test A continued
Refer to the figure at right, which shows the glands of the human endocrine
system, to answer questions 16–20.
______16. The pituitary gland is labeled
a. A.
b. B.
______ 17. Development of secondary sex
characteristics and gamete
formation in females are
stimulated by secretions of
the gland labeled
a. C.
b. D.
A
c. C.
d. D.
B
C
D
E
c. E.
d. F.
F
______18. The gland that produces the hormones
insulin and glucagon is labeled
a. A.
c. C.
b. B.
d. D.
______19. The gland that produces the hormones
cortisol and aldosterone is labeled
a. A.
c. C.
b. B.
d. E.
______20. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is secreted by the gland labeled
a. A.
c. C.
b. B.
d. D.
Complete each statement by writing the correct term or phrase in the space provided.
21. After hormones are released, they bind and act only on specific
.
22. When a(n)
–
hormone binds to a receptor protein, the result
is the activation of a second messenger.
23. The
controls many body functions by issuing
instructions to the pituitary gland.
24. Hormones that can pass through target cell membranes are called
hormones and
hormones .
25. The hormone
is secreted by the pineal gland and is
thought to be involved in establishing daily sleep patterns.
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Name
Class
Date
Assessment
Chapter Test A
Reproductive System
In the space provided, write the letter of the term or phrase that best completes
each statement or best answers each question.
______ 1. As sperm move through the urethra, they mix with fluid secreted
by the
a. seminal vesicles.
c. bulbourethral glands.
b. prostate gland.
d. All of the above
______ 2. The fallopian tubes
a. secrete estrogen.
b. produce eggs.
c. are passageways through which an ovum travels.
d. All of the above
______ 3. In an embryo, major internal organs are evident
a. during the sixth month.
b. by the end of the third trimester.
c. during the second month.
d. just before birth.
______ 4. A leading cause of birth defects is
a. alcohol and drug use by pregnant women.
b. exercise during pregnancy.
c. poor diet during the second trimester of pregnancy.
d. improper implantation.
______ 5. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are involved in
a. sperm production.
c. implantation.
b. the ovarian cycle.
d. Both (a) and (b)
______ 6. Eggs do not mature until
a. the production of sex hormones increases.
b. meiosis resumes.
c. a female reaches puberty.
d. All of the above
______ 7. In the first week after fertilization, the zygote undergoes a series of
divisions called
a. ultrasound.
c. cleavage.
b. implantation.
d. gestation.
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Reproductive System, Chapter Test A continued
______ 8. When sperm exit the body, they pass through the
a. epididymis, vas deferens, and then the urethra.
b. vas deferens, epididymis, and then the urethra.
c. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and then the urethra.
d. vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, and then the urethra.
______ 9. During fertilization, enzymes at the tip of the head of a sperm cell help
the cell
a. swim to an egg.
b. penetrate an egg.
c. find an egg.
d. obtain energy for movement.
______10. Sperm mature and become mobile in the
a. epididymis.
b. vas deferens.
c. seminal vesicles.
d. prostate gland.
______11. Sperm are deposited in the female reproductive system by the
a. vas deferens.
b. seminal vesicles.
c. scrotum.
d. penis.
______12. After a female reaches puberty, one immature egg cell completes its
development about every
a. day.
b. week.
c. month.
d. trimester.
______13. On average, both the ovarian and menstrual cycles last
a. 14 days.
b. 28 days.
c. 35 days.
d. 45 days.
______14. From 8 weeks until birth, a developing human is called a(n)
a. fetus.
b. embryo.
c. zygote.
d. blastocyst.
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Date
Reproductive System, Chapter Test A continued
In the space provided, write the letter of the description that best matches the
term or phrase.
______15. umbilical cord
a. external skin sac that holds the testes
b. contractions of uterine muscles
______16. scrotum
c. the forceful expulsion of semen
______ 17. ejaculation
______18. urethra
d. blood vessel connection between
mother and embryo
e. the entrance to the uterus
______19. ovary
f. used to transport both urine and semen
______20. vas deferens
g. where eggs are produced
______21. cervix
h. sperm move from the epididymis to the
urethra through this tube
______22. labor
Read each question, and write your answer in the space provided.
23. Describe the structures of a sperm cell and their roles in cell function.
24. Describe the development that occurs in a fetus from the end of the first
trimester to the end of the third trimester.
25. Explain how hormone levels regulate the menstrual cycle.
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Answer Key
The Science of Life
Chapter Test A (General)
The Science of Life
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
c
8. f
g
9. c
e
10. c
h
11. d
a
12. b
d
13. a
b
cell
tissues, organs, organ systems
homeostasis
reproduction
closely
evolution
stimulus
metabolism
Scientists can use information in an
article in a scientific publication to
develop or modify their own hypotheses. They can also use the information
to repeat the experiments and confirm
the author’s results. Science journals
provide a means of communication for
scientists all over the world.
23. A knowledge of biology is important
so that you can make informed personal
decisions about your health, your
environment, and the way you live.
Pollution, new technologies, the
world’s food supplies, and curing
diseases are all problems that affect
human society. It is important to be
scientifically informed about these
issues.
24. Because all living things need energy
to grow, move, and interpret information, there must be a mechanism by
which organisms obtain this energy
and use it. Metabolism is the sum of
all the chemical reactions an organism
uses to carry out life.
25. Because no organism lives forever,
reproduction ensures the continuation
of a species. If organisms did not
reproduce, their species would soon
disappear.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
f
c
h
d
g
e
a
b
hypothesis
division, enlargement
electron
Magnification, resolution
Derived units
d
b
a
a
d
b
d
b
d
c
diversity and unity of life; interdependence of organisms; evolution of life
organization and cells; response to
stimuli; homeostasis; metabolism;
growth and development; reproduction;
change through time
No; scientists use scientific methods in
a way that is best suited to answer the
questions they ask.
Communication allows scientists to
build on the work of other scientists.
Scientists publish their findings in
journals or present them at
conferences.
The SI is a universal, standardized
form of measurement that allows
scientists to compare results.
organizing and analyzing collected
data
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is dissolved. The concentration is the
amount of solute in a fixed amount of
the solution.
27. Acids have a sour taste and are highly
corrosive in concentrated forms.
Bases have a bitter taste and tend
to feel slippery.
28. The pH scale is a system of comparing
the relative concentrations of hydronium ions and hydroxide ions in a
solution. Its values range from 0 to 14,
30. (a) about 24 hours (b) Medium B
(c) Medium A (d) The descending part
of the curves represents a decline in
the growth rate over time because of
the depletion of nutrient media.
(e) The growth rate should eventually
reach zero for the bacteria in both
media.
Chemistry of Life
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
a
a
a
d
b
d
d
d
c
b
c
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
polar, nonpolar
hydrogen, covalent
water
hydronium
sodium ions, chloride ions
catalyst
f
a
e
h
b
d
c
g
with values less than 7 denoting acidity and those greater than 7 denoting
alkalinity.
29. atomic mass: 14; atomic number: 6
30. (a) pepsin (b) trypsin (c) The liquid
must become alkaline. (d) According
to the graph, enzymes function best at
certain pH levels. (e) No; according to
the graph, a low pH is required for
pepsin to function, and a high pH
is required for trypsin to function.
Biochemistry
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
20.
21.
Chemistry of Life
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
d
g
f
e
h
a
b
c
a
c
d
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
a
a
b
b
a
d
b
a
d
d
a
c
24. In redox reactions, electrons are trans-
ferred between atoms, so the reactions
always occur together.
25. In living things, enzymes act as catalysts
to speed up chemical reactions.
26. A solute is the substance that is
dissolved in a solution. A solvent
is the substance in which the solute
c
11. e
c
12. h
a
13. c
b
14. b
c
15. f
a
16. d
c
17. g
d
18. j
b
19. a
i
A—carbohydrate; B—lipid; C—protein
Carbohydrates such as the monosaccharide glucose shown here are found
in cells as a source of energy (glucose), as energy storage molecules
(glycogen and starch), or as structural
molecules (cellulose). Lipids such as
the fatty acid shown here are found in
cells as energy storage molecules
(fats) or in cell membranes as structural molecules (phospholipids).
Proteins are found in cells as enzymes
and structural proteins in the body
(hair, muscles).
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22. Organic compounds are composed
28. The polar, hydrophilic heads of phos-
primarily of carbon atoms (have a
carbon backbone) covalently bonded
to other elements—typically hydrogen
and oxygen.
23. Living things require energy for all
of the processes of life. Energy is
required for the chemical reactions
that make up an organism’s metabolism. Organisms also use a great deal
of energy to maintain homeostasis.
24. ATP is the main energy currency of
cells.
25. Cholesterol is needed by the body for
nerve and other cells to function. It is
also a component of cell membranes.
pholipids comprise the interior and
exterior surfaces of the cell membrane, and the nonpolar, hydrophobic
tails of phospholipids form the middle
of the cell membrane.
29. (from left to right) alternating double
bonds between carbons; CH2 ⫽ CH2;
CH2 ⫽ C(CH3) ⫺ CH ⫽ CH2
30. a. disaccharide; b. fatty acid; c. water;
d. dipeptide; e. nucleotide
Biochemistry
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
25.
e
13. b
h
14. c
f
15. a
g
16. c
a
17. b
c
18. c
b
19. a
d
20. d
i
21. b
d
22. c
a
23. a
b
24. c
Monomers link to form polymers
through a condensation reaction.
Hydrolysis is a reversed condensation
reaction and causes the breakdown of
complex molecules.
26. A monosaccharide is a simple sugar
that is a monomer of carbohydrates. A
disaccharide consists of two monosaccharides bonded together. A polysaccharide consists of at least three
bonded monosaccharides.
27. The shape of a protein is determined
by the way the protein’s amino acids
interact with one another. Amino acid
interactions can cause a protein to
bend or fold. Protein shape can also
be influenced by temperature and the
type of solvent in which a protein is
dissolved.
Cell Structure and Function
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
c
9. c
e
10. d
b
11. d
a
12. c
d
13. b
d
14. b
b
15. d
a
16. d
cell theory
flagella
cytoskeleton
rough
proteins
DNA contains information about
heredity. DNA determines the characteristics of a cell, and it directs the
cell’s activities.
23. Small cells can exchange substances
more readily than large cells can
because small objects have a higher
surface area-to-volume ratio. As a
result, substances do not need to
travel as far to reach the center of
a smaller cell.
24. Mitochondria harvest energy from
organic compounds to make ATP.
25. The cytoskeleton is a network of thin
protein tubes and filaments that crisscross the cytosol. They give shape to
the cell from the inside and act as a
system of internal tracks on which
items move around inside the cell.
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Cell Structure and Function
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
g
13. b
e
14. a
f
15. c
c
16. c
h
17. d
d
18. b
a
19. d
b
20. d
b
21. c
c
22. a
d
23. d
c
(1) All living things are composed of
one or more cells. (2) Cells are the
basic units of structure and function in
an organism. (3) Cells come only from
the reproduction of existing cells.
Answers will vary. Skin cells are flat
and platelike for covering and protecting the body’s surface. Nerve cells are
specialized for transmitting nerve
impulses.
Answers include the following: eukaryotes contain a membrane-bound nucleus
and other organelles; prokaryotes do
not.
a. secondary cell wall; b. central
vacuole; c. nucleus; d. chloroplast;
e. primary cell wall. f. The central
vacuole, chloroplast, and cell wall
are found in plants but not in animals.
Answers include the following: The
nucleus contains DNA and RNA.
Ribosomes are synthesized and
partially assembled in the nucleolus.
The contents of the nucleus are
enclosed by the nuclear envelope.
RNA is synthesized in the nucleus
and then passes into the cytoplasm
through pores in the nuclear envelope.
A colonial organism is a collection of
genetically identical cells that live
together in a closely connected group.
It is thought that multicellular organisms
arose from a colonial ancestor.
a. plasma membrane; b. mitochondria;
c. cytoplasm and other organelles
Homeostasis and
Cell Transport
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
e
11.
i
12.
h
13.
f
14.
a
15.
b
16.
c
17.
g
18.
d
19.
d
20.
energy
passive transport
equilibrium
active transport
carrier proteins
b
c
d
c
d
d
b
b
c
a
Homeostasis and
Cell Transport
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
23.
d
12. a
b
13. b
h
14. c
g
15. d
f
16. b
a
17. c
c
18. b
e
19. a
c
20. d
b
21. b
d
22. b
The rigid cell walls of plants prevent
them from expanding too much as the
cells take in water through osmosis.
Some unicellular eukaryotes have
contractile vacuoles that collect
excess water and pump it out of the
cell. Many animal cells increase the
water concentration inside the cell by
removing dissolved particles from the
cytoplasm to maintain homeostasis. If
cells are not able to prevent excess
water from entering the cell, they may
expand and eventually burst.
24. passive: diffusion, osmosis, and
facilitated diffusion; active: sodiumpotassium pump, endocytosis, and
exocytosis
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25. Ink molecules at a high concentration
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
in the water would move to an area of
lower concentration by a process
called diffusion.
Carrier proteins do not need to provide
additional energy in facilitated diffusion
because substances move down their
concentration gradients.
Ions cross the cell membrane by passing through proteins known as ion
channels.
During a cycle of the sodium-potassium
pump, three sodium ions are actively
transported out of the cell and two
potassium ions are actively transported
into the cell.
In endocytosis, cells ingest external
substances by folding the cell membrane inward to form a vesicle. In
exocytosis, cells release substances
by the fusion of a vesicle with the cell
membrane and the expulsion of the
vesicle’s contents into the extracellular
environment.
a. endocytosis; b. diffusion through
ion channels; c. passive diffusion;
d. sodium-potassium pump;
e. facilitated diffusion; f. exocytosis;
g. endocytosis, sodium-potassium
pump, and exocytosis
25. The energy used in the Calvin cycle is
supplied by the ATP and NADPH that
are produced in the first stage (light
reactions) of photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
24.
25.
Photosynthesis
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
21.
22.
23.
24.
g
11. k
f
12. c
d
13. b
a
14. a
c
15. c
j
16. d
b
17. c
e
18. d
i
19. c
h
20. a
carbon dioxide
electrons
slower (less)
No, the rate of photosynthesis will
increase with temperature up to a
certain point, beyond which temperature becomes too high for cellular
enzymes to function properly. When
the temperature exceeds this point, the
rate of photosynthesis will decrease.
26.
27.
28.
29.
f
5. g
a
6. c
h
7. b
e
8. d
Calvin cycle
photosynthesis
pigments, thylakoids
II, I
water
d
19. c
a
20. b
c
21. c
a
22. d
a
23. c
Each chloroplast is surrounded by a
pair of membranes. Inside the inner
membrane is a system of membranes
arranged as flattened sacs called
thylakoids. Thylakoids are layered
in stacks called grana, and they are
surrounded by a solution called the
stroma.
Four electrons become available to
replace those lost by chlorophyll molecules in photosystem II. Protons remain
inside the thylakoid, while oxygen
diffuses out of the chloroplast.
Energy from excited electrons is used
to pump a high concentration of protons
into the thylakoid. These protons then
flow into the stroma and down their
concentration gradient, providing the
energy to drive the conversion of ADP
into ATP, which is catalyzed by ATP
synthase.
Most of the G3P is converted back
into RuBP, but some G3P is used to
make organic compounds.
CAM plants take in carbon dioxide at
night and release it into the Calvin
cycle during the day. CAM plants lose
less water than either C3 or C4 plants.
It means that the rate of photosynthesis does not increase when the CO2
concentration exceeds a certain level.
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30. a. primary electron acceptor; b. primary
electron acceptor; c. photosystem II;
d. electron transport chain; e. photosystem I; f. electron transport chain;
g. ATP synthase
Cellular Respiration
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
g
10. d
f
11. b
d
12. d
a
13. b
c
14. d
b
15. c
e
16. d
i
17. b
h
18. d
NAD⫹
phosphate
ATP, oxygen
glycolysis
Krebs cycle
aerobic
In cells deprived of sufficient oxygen
for aerobic respiration, pyruvic acid
will undergo fermentation to recycle
NAD⫹. This recycled NAD⫹ is needed
to continue making ATP through
glycolysis.
Cellular Respiration
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
c
13. b
g
14. a
a
15. d
h
16. d
f
17. b
d
18. c
e
19. a
b
20. b
c
21. b
b
22. c
a
23. d
d
Two ATP molecules are used in step
one.
25. When muscle cells are involved in
strenuous exercise and the body cannot
supply them with oxygen rapidly
enough to carry out aerobic respiration,
lactic acid fermentation will occur.
26. Much of the energy originally contained
in glucose is held in pyruvic acid.
27. Oxaloacetic acid regenerates coenzyme
A when it reacts with acetyl CoA to
form citric acid in step one of the
Krebs cycle. Coenzyme A is needed to
begin the Krebs cycle again.
28. The electrons react with oxygen to
form water.
29. the mitochondrial matrix; NADH and
FADH2
30. a. glycolysis; b. lactic acid fermentation;
c. alcoholic fermentation; d. Krebs
cycle; e. electron transport chain
Cell Reproduction
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
19.
f
10. b
e
11. d
h
12. b
i
13. c
a
14. c
c
15. b
d
16. d
g
17. a
j
18. b
During anaphase, the spindle fibers
help to separate the chromatids by
dragging them to the opposite poles
of the cell.
20. Crossing-over results in the exchange
of genetic material between maternal
and paternal chromosomes. This
results in genetic recombination
because a new genetic mixture is
created.
21. Sexual reproduction creates genetic
recombinations that may change the
characteristics of the organisms. If
there has been a change in environmental conditions that would require
an adaptation by the organism, the
new combinations of genes might
enable a species to adapt rapidly to
new conditions.
22. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis both
produce gametes. Spermatogenesis
occurs in males in the testes; oogenesis occurs in females in the ovaries.
Spermatogenesis results in four
haploid sperm cells. Oogenesis results
in one haploid ovum and three polar
bodies, which eventually die.
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23. In asexual reproduction, a single par-
28. Spermatogenesis yields four sper-
ent passes copies of all of its genes to
each of its offspring. In contrast, in
sexual reproduction, two parents each
form reproductive cells (gametes) that
have one-half the number of chromosomes. These gametes join to form a
diploid offspring.
24. Animal cells lack cell walls. In animal
cells, the cytoplasm is divided when
a cleavage furrow pinches the cell in
half. In plant cells, the Golgi apparatus
forms vesicles that fuse in a line along
the center of the cell and form a cell
plate. A new cell wall then forms on
each side of the cell plate.
25. Each chromosome is a single molecule
of DNA wrapped tightly around histones.
The DNA-histone coils are coiled
further to pack the DNA into a
chromosome.
matids. Oogenesis yields one egg cell
and three polar bodies.
29. Independent assortment is the random
separation of the homologous chromosomes. It results in genetic variation.
30. a. metaphase (3); b. cytokinesis (6);
c. prophase (2); d. telophase (5);
e. interphase (1); f. anaphase (4);
g. mitosis; two diploid cells are
produced
Cell Reproduction
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
25.
e
5. d
g
6. b
h
7. f
a
8. c
cell cycle
DNA synthesis
interphase
microtubules
cancer
copied
b
20. b
a
21. a
c
22. c
d
23. d
c
24. c
A prokaryote would have a circular
molecule of DNA attached to the inner
surface of the plasma membrane. A
eukaryote would contain the following
structures at some stage of cell division:
nucleus, centrosome, mitotic spindle,
kinetochore fibers, polar fibers, individual rod-shaped chromosomes,
nucleolus, and other organelles.
26. Meiosis results in haploid cells. The
cells produced during meiosis differ
genetically from the original cell.
27. Diagrams should include G1, S, G2, M
(mitosis), and C (cytokinesis) phases.
Fundamentals of Genetics
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
24.
F2
Pp and pp
3:1
self-pollinate, true-breeding
1:2:1
a
15. c
c
16. b
a
17. c
b
18. d
b
19. e
b
20. b
a
21. d
c
22. a
d
23. c
Mendel calculated an approximate 3:1
ratio of contrasting traits. He derived
this ratio by counting plants expressing each type of trait he was comparing. Using division, he found that the
ratio of plants expressing the dominant trait to plants expressing the
recessive trait was about 3:1.
25. The law of segregation states that the
two factors for a trait are separated
during the formation of gametes. The
law of independent assortment states
that the factors for two different traits
separate independently of one another
during the formation of gametes. We
now know that this is true only when
the genes for the two traits are located
far apart on the same chromosome or
on separate chromosomes.
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Fundamentals of Genetics
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30. (a) The Punnett square represents a
g
12. d
e
13. c
b
14. d
h
15. c
c
16. b
d
17. b
f
18. a
a
19. b
a
20. b
b
21. a
a
22. b
Mendel produced true-breeding plants
by allowing plants to self-pollinate.
He cross-pollinated plants pure for
contrasting traits (P generation). He
allowed the flowers from the F1 generation to self-pollinate to produce the
F2 generation.
Probability equals the number of times
an event is expected to happen divided
by the number of times an event could
happen.
In incomplete dominance, two or more
alleles influence the phenotype, resulting in a phenotype intermediate
between the dominant trait and the
recessive trait, as with four o’clock
flowers. In codominance, both alleles
are expressed in a heterozygous offspring, as in human blood types.
Use a test cross. Cross the purpleflowering plant (PP) with a whiteflowering plant (pp). Students should
draw a Punnett square for each of the
following genotypes: PP and Pp.
Students should predict that 100
percent of the offspring will be
heterozygous for fruit color.
Students should predict a
1YY : 2Yy : 1yy.
Mendel allowed each variety of garden
pea to self-pollinate for several generations, selecting plants from each generation that exhibited one form of a
trait. He did this until all of the offspring of a given variety produced
only one form of a particular trait.
dihybrid cross because two traits are
tracked. (b) both parents are QqTt (c)
QQTT, QQTt, QQtt, QqTT, QqTt, Qqtt,
qqTT, qqTt, qqtt (d) 1/16 QQTT: 2/16
QqTT: 2/16 QQTt: 4/16 QqTt: 1/16 QQtt:
2/16 Qqtt: 1/16 qqTT: 2/16 qqTt: 1/16
qqtt (e) 9/16 with smooth, green seeds;
3/16 with wrinkled, green seeds, 3/16
with smooth, yellow seeds, and 1/16
with wrinkled, yellow seeds
DNA, RNA, and
Protein Synthesis
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
h
11. l
g
12. k
c
13. c
a
14. b
b
15. a
i
16. c
e
17. a
j
18. c
d
19. b
f
20. b
A gene’s instructions for making a
protein are transferred from DNA to
mRNA during the process of transcription. In translation, tRNA, rRNA, and
ribosomes use the instructions on the
mRNA to put together the amino acids
that make up the protein.
RNA consists of a single strand of
nucleotides instead of the two strands
that form the DNA double helix. RNA
nucleotides have the five-carbon sugar
ribose rather than the sugar deoxyribose found in DNA nucleotides. RNA
nucleotides have a nitrogenous base
called uracil instead of the base
thymine found in DNA nucleotides.
DNA helicases are enzymes that separate the strands of the double helix of
the DNA molecule. The separation is
accomplished by breaking the hydrogen
bonds that link the complementary
bases.
a piece of double-stranded DNA
A–hydrogen bonds; B–sugar-phosphate
chain; C–nitrogenous base
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DNA, RNA, and
Protein Synthesis
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
f
c
g
h
b
e
a
d
translation
anticodons
uracil
transforming agent or genetic material
RNA polymerase
codons
b
b
b
c
c
d
a
c
a
In transcription, RNA is produced
from DNA. In translation, polypeptides
are assembled from information in
mRNA.
25. DNA is a double helix formed from
nucleotides that have deoxyribose and
a phosphate group as the backbone.
The bases of DNA are cytosine, guanine, thymine, and adenine. RNA is
formed from nucleotides that have
ribose and a phosphate group as the
backbone. The bases of RNA are
cytosine, guanine, adenine, and uracil.
26. These codons mark the beginning and
ending of a gene that is being translated.
27. mRNA is a single, uncoiled chain of
nucleotides that carries genetic information from the nucleus to the site of
translation in eukaryotes. tRNA consists
of nucleotides folded into a hairpin
shape and binds to amino acids. rRNA
consists of nucleotides in a globular
form. Along with proteins, rRNA
makes up ribosomes.
28. (1) Helicases separate the two strands
of DNA at replication forks. (2) DNA
polymerases construct a complementary chain one nucleotide at a time.
(3) Replication ends with two identical
copies of the original DNA molecule.
29. Radioactive elements were used
because they can be followed or
traced. They were used to locate the
genetic material of bacteriophages
after they infected bacteria.
30. (a) guanine, cytosine, adenine, and
thymine (b) Guanine pairs with cytosine; adenine pairs with thymine.
(c) Yes; the percentage of cytosine is
about the same as the percentage of
guanine, and the percentage of thymine
is about the same as the percentage of
adenine. (d) Yes; DNA of vastly different
organisms contains the same four
nucleotides. (e) 34.7 percent; the
percentage of uracil should match
the amount of thymine because
uracil replaces thymine in mRNA.
Gene Expression
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
homeotic gene
DNA chip
malignant
metastasis
mutation
repressor protein, off
RNA polymerase
eukaryotes
carcinogen
tumor
b
d
c
b
a
a
d
d
c
b
When present in prokaryotic cells,
lactose binds to the repressor protein
and changes the protein’s shape. The
repressor prevents RNA polymerase
from binding to the promoter. The
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22.
23.
24.
25.
change in shape releases the repressor.
With the blocking effect eliminated,
the transcription of genes that code
for lactose-metabolizing enzymes
proceeds.
Introns are long segments of nucleotides
in eukaryotic genes with no coding
information. After transcription,
enzymes remove introns from the
mRNA molecule before the mRNA is
transcribed.
Many eukaryotic genes are interrupted
by segments of non-coding DNA called
introns. The segments of DNA that are
expressed are called exons. After transcription, exons are joined together
and then translated.
Transcription factors are regulatory
factors, which control mostly transcription in eukaryotes. In eukaryotes,
an enhancer must be activated for a
gene to be expressed. Transcription
factors initiate transcription by binding
to enhancers and to RNA polymerases.
The lac operon consists of a cluster of
genes that enables a bacterium to
build the proteins needed for lactose
metabolism only when lactose is
present. Some of the genes determine
whether or not other genes will be
expressed; the other genes code for
enzymes that break down lactose.
Gene Expression
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
d
g
h
a
c
e
f
b
RNA polymerase
operator
repressor protein
transcription factors
introns
c
c
a
d
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
c
b
c
d
a
c
By controlling gene expression and
making only needed proteins, cells
conserve resources.
The diagram shows transcription of
DNA into pre-mRNA and of pre-mRNA
into mRNA in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. Structures labeled A represent
introns, and those labeled B represent
exons.
Cancer cells divide when densely
packed or when they are no longer
attached to other cells; they continue
to divide indefinitely.
Mutations could affect the regulatory
abilities of these genes, allowing cells
to multiply uncontrolled and leading
to cancer.
In Drosophila, homeotic genes determine where certain anatomical structures will develop.
The genomes of eukaryotes are larger
than those of prokaryotes and are
located on several chromosomes
rather than on a single circular
chromosome.
(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 5 (e) 4 (f) 1 (g) 3
Inheritance Patterns and
Human Genetics
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
a
a
d
b
c
d
c
c
polygenic inheritance
genetic disorders
recessive
map units
Y
g
a
d
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17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
i
f
c
b
e
h
Some traits are controlled by several
genes rather than by only one. Each
gene contributes to the final gene
expression.
24. Most sex-linked characteristics are
carried as alleles on the X chromosome.
A male would express a sex-linked
recessive trait if he gets the gene for
the trait from his mother. He cannot get
an X chromosome from his father. A
female would have to get the gene for
the recessive trait on both of the X
chromosomes she receives—the one
from her mother and the one from her
father.
25. An individual with cystic fibrosis has
two copies of a defective gene that
makes a protein necessary to pump
chloride into and out of cells. The airways of the lungs of these individuals
become clogged with thick mucus.
Treatments can relieve some of the
symptoms, but there is no cure for this
disorder.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
Inheritance Patterns and
Human Genetics
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
29.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
d
f
a
e
h
c
g
b
Down syndrome
Somatic-cell
nucleotides
Polygenic, genes
environment, genes
Y chromosome
35
d
c
b
25.
26.
27.
28.
30.
c
a
c
c
a
Hemophilia is caused by a recessive
X-linked gene. Thus, a female would
have to receive two copies of the gene
to express the disease. Males only
have one X chromosome, so the allele
is always expressed if it is present.
The principle of independent assortment states that genes separate independently during the formation of
gametes. Genes that are linked remain
together during the formation of
gametes.
Chromosome mutations are changes
in the structure of a chromosome or
loss of an entire chromosome. Gene
mutations may involve large segments
of DNA or a single nucleotide.
Multiple-allele traits are controlled by
three or more alleles of the same gene
that code for a single trait. Polygenic
traits are controlled by two or more
different genes.
The chromosome map sequence is A—
C—B with five map units between A
and C, 15 map units between C and B,
and 20 map units between A and B.
A sex-linked trait is controlled by a
gene found on a sex chromosome.
Because of sex hormones, a sexinfluenced trait is expressed differently in men and women who have
the same genotype.
(a) The pedigree should be completed
according to the information about
cystic fibrosis in the family. (b) A possible key may include the following:
ⵧ = male noncarrier; 䊊 = female
noncarrier; 䊏 = male with cystic fibrosis; 䊉 = female with cystic fibrosis;
䊑 = male carrier; 䊋 = female carrier.
(c) A child born to the F2 son with
fibrosis and a female noncarrier
would be a carrier of the trait.
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Gene Technology
Chapter Test A (General)
Gene Technology
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
a
b
d
c
d
a
a
d
a
c
DNA fingerprint
plasmids
clones
restriction enzymes
probes
complementary, sticky
b
d
e
a
c
Answer should include any three of
the following: made crop plants more
tolerant of environmental conditions,
more resistant to weed-controlling
herbicides, less susceptible to insect
damage, resistant to certain diseases,
and more nutritious.
23. Goats have been altered and cloned
to produce milk that contains human
blood-clotting factors. Pig organs have
been altered so they do not trigger
organ rejection if transplanted into
human recipients. Animals are being
cloned as models for the study of
human disease, such as cystic fibrosis.
24. DNA fingerprints are used in paternity
cases, in forensics, and in the identification of the genes that cause genetic
disorders.
25. Gel electrophoresis uses an electrical
field within a gel to separate DNA fragments by their size and charge, allowing the fragments to be identified.
d
e
f
g
a
h
b
c
another species
complementary
insulin
polymerase, nucleotides, primers
20,000
d
d
b
c
d
a
a
d
d
b
A cloning vector is used to clone the
gene for insulin and then transfer it to
another organism. An insulin gene is
isolated from a human cell and then
transferred to a host organism via a
cloning vector. The host organism
receives the recombinant DNA.
25. Gene therapy is the treatment of a
genetic disorder by introducing a gene
into a cell or by correcting a gene
deficit in a cell’s genome. It differs
from traditional treatments in that it
attempts to correct the gene defect
that causes the disorder.
26. DNA fingerprinting has been used to
compare samples of blood or tissue
found at a crime scene with those of a
suspect, and it has been used to determine whether two individuals are
related.
27. DNA fingerprints are very accurate
because they compare segments of
DNA that tend to vary the most
between individuals. If all 13 sites are
used, the odds of two people having
the same profile is smaller than the
number of people on Earth.
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28. Advantages include the development
of safer, more-effective vaccines and
pharmaceutical products and products
that will improve agricultural yields.
Disadvantages include the development
of superweeds and the possibility that
genetically engineered crops will harm
the environment.
29. a. 3; b. 1; c. 4; d. 2
30. (a) Labeled diagrams should resemble
the similar image in the chapter text.
(b) Restriction enzymes are used to cut
DNA at specific sites within nucleotide
sequences. The pieces of DNA that are
cut by these enzymes can bind with
DNA from another source that has
been cut with the same restriction
enzyme. (c) hydrogen bonds (d) The
restriction enzyme would cut the DNA
at a different nucleotide sequence, and
the sticky ends would not match.
History of Life
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
d
e
a
c
b
d
d
b
b
d
c
a
b
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
c
c
d
b
c
d
b
b
a
b
c
b
History of Life
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
20.
g
11. b
e
12. a
h
13. d
a
14. d
f
15. b
d
16. c
b
17. a
c
18. b
c
19. b
a
The half-life of carbon-14 is relatively
brief (5,730 years) so most of it has
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
decayed by 60,000 years. More accurate
measurements of older samples can
be made using isotopes with longer
half-lives.
The control group consisted of open
jars containing meat; in the experimental group, the jars were covered by netting. The independent variable was the
presence of adult flies; the dependent
variable was the appearance of maggots.
Critics held that Spallanzani had boiled
his flasks of broth too long, destroying
the “vital force” in the air. Pasteur’s
flasks remained open to the air.
Microspheres or coacervates—or
structures like them—can grow and
might have contained early self-replicating RNA molecules.
The shapes of both depend on the
sequences of their nucleotide components and on the hydrogen bonds
between those nucleotides.
Chloroplasts are thought to have
originated as photosynthetic bacteria
that were engulfed by a larger, nonphotosynthetic cell. Similarly, mitochondria are thought to have
originated as aerobic bacteria.
4 billion
spontaneous generation
upper atmosphere
archaebacteria
(a) water (b) water vapor, or steam (c)
electrode; it provides energy to start
chemical reactions (simulates lightning) (d) H2O, or water vapor, H2, CH4,
and NH3 (e) organic compounds
Theory of Evolution
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
b
c
c
b
c
b
d
b
c
c
a
a
d
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
b
d
c
d
a
e
b
g
i
j
h
f
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Theory of Evolution
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
g
13. b
f
14. c
e
15. b
h
16. b
b
17. c
a
18. d
c
19. b
d
20. a
l
21. d
i
22. d
k
23. b
j
Lamarck wrongly suggested that
organisms acquired traits that helped
them survive and that they passed these
traits to offspring. He was correct in
observing that populations change
over time.
Sample answer: Darwin observed
species in many different areas which
had similar body forms and occupied
similar habitats; he also observed
many similar species of finches on the
Galápagos Islands with beaks adapted
to different foods.
The breeding of animals by humans—
artificial selection—is similar to natural selection in that it modifies the
genetic material of a species over generations. It is different in that humans,
rather than the environment, select the
traits to be amplified.
Newer forms of organisms are actually
the modified descendants of older
species.
The environment selects traits that
increase an organism’s fitness, that is,
its reproductive success.
same general body shape; backbone;
tail; eye; homologous arm/wing and leg
(a) A is the oldest; C is the youngest.
(b) yes (c) Species A and B and species
B and C are most closely related;
species A and C are least closely
related.
Population Genetics
and Speciation
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
c
10. c
e
11. c
a
12. a
b
13. a
d
14. c
b
15. c
d
16. d
b
17. c
b
Stabilizing selection results in fewer
individuals in a population that have
alleles promoting extreme types.
Individuals become more similar, and
genetic diversity decreases.
The three major ways that genotypic
variation occurs are by mutations, by
recombination during meiosis, and by
the random pairing of gametes.
disruptive selection
The extreme traits of body color are
being selected for.
The allele frequency is calculated by
dividing the number of a certain allele
by the total number of alleles of all
types in the population.
no net mutations occur, individuals
neither enter or leave the population,
large population, individuals mate randomly, and selection does not occur
Genetic drift is when allele frequencies in a population change as a result
of chance or random events.
Allopatric speciation occurs when
species form as a result of geographic
isolation. Sympatric speciation occurs
when species form as a result of
reproductive isolation in the same
geographic area.
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Population Genetics
and Speciation
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
c
12. c
f
13. b
a
14. a
h
15. b
e
16. c
b
17. b
d
18. d
g
19. c
a
20. a
b
21. d
c
In a small population, an individual
accounts for a relatively large fraction
of the total number of alleles. Thus,
the reproductive success of an
individual can have a large impact on
allele frequencies in the population.
no net mutations; no immigration or
emigration; large population; random
mating; no selection
Gene flow results in changes in allele
frequencies.
The graphic representation of a trait
in a population is a bell-shaped curve
because the average form of the trait
is found in most members, while
extreme forms of the trait are found
in few members.
In punctuated equilibrium, a species
does not change for a long period of
time but then changes rapidly over a
short period of time. In gradual evolutionary change, a species changes
slowly and steadily over a long period
of time.
allele frequencies: R = 10/16 = 0.625;
r = 6/16 = 0.375; phenotype frequencies:
red = 3/8 = 0.375, pink = 4/8 = 0.5,
white = 1/8 = 0.125
Morphological species are classified
based on the internal and/or external
structure and appearance of an organism. Biological species are classified
by whether a group of organisms can
successfully interbreed, but cannot
breed with other groups.
To be in genetic equilibrium, individuals in a population must only mate
randomly. In sexual selection, females
choose to mate with males based on
certain traits.
30. (a) stabilizing (b) disruptive (c) about
6.0 cm in 1940; about 3.25 and 8.0 cm
in 1980 (d) The fish prefers mediumsize (4 cm–7 cm long) leeches
(e) Answers will vary. For example,
fish in captivity could be offered a
number of leeches ranging from
1 cm to 10 cm long, and the fishes’
preferences could be noted.
Classification of Organisms
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
c
d
d
a
b
d
a
b
b
d
Animalia
Archaebacteria
Fungi
Eukarya
Eubacteria
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
c
c
d
c
d
e
a
b
f
c
Classification of Organisms
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
b
13. i
h
14. c
f
15. a
d
16. d
g
17. c
e
18. b
c
19. d
a
20. a
m
21. d
l
22. d
k
23. c
j
kingdom, phylum/division, class,
order, family, genus, species
25. Aristotle grouped organisms as plants
and animals, as did Linnaeus. Aristotle
also grouped organisms by habitat.
Linnaeus grouped morphologically
related organisms into a seven-level
hierarchy.
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26. Kingdom Protista includes all eukary-
27.
28.
29.
30.
otes that are not plants, animals, or
fungi. It contains unicellular and
multicellular organisms that lack
specialized tissues.
A cladogram for a group of organisms
represents one possible interpretation
for the evolutionary relationships
between the organisms in the group
being investigated.
Animals that have similar embryological development probably shared a
relatively recent ancestor.
In the three-domain system, domain
Archaea consists of kingdom
Archaebacteria; domain Bacteria is
composed of kingdom Eubacteria; and
domain Eukarya is composed of kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and
Animalia. The three-domain system is
based on comparisons of rRNA, which
indicates how long ago any two organisms shared a common ancestor.
(a) This divergence might have been
caused by a decreased availability of
food preferred by the ancestral birds.
(b) Insects probably were a more
plentiful food source than cactus.
(c) Their beaks are adapted for cracking
seeds. (d) A cladistic taxonomist might
use evidence of shared derived characters, such as a beak shape that differed
from that of an ancestor. (e) analyses
of genetic material
24. Energy is always lost when it is trans-
ferred from one trophic level to the
next.
25. Producers capture from the sun all the
energy for an ecosystem.
Introduction to Ecology
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
20.
21.
22.
23.
Introduction to Ecology
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
23.
d
12. b
a
13. c
b
14. b
c
15. d
d
16. f
b
17. g
b
18. d
c
19. a
d
20. b
b
21. c
c
22. e
Without bacteria and fungi, dead
organisms would not decompose, and
the nutrients within their bodies
would be unavailable to other living
organisms.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
d
11. a
f
12. c
g
13. b
h
14. b
a
15. c
c
16. b
b
17. c
e
18. b
c
19. b
d
A trophic level indicates an organism’s
position in a sequence of energy
transfer levels in an ecosystem that
is occupied by one or more types of
organisms. An organism’s trophic level
is determined by its source of food.
Models help ecologists understand the
environment and make predictions
about how it might change. Models are
limited in their applications because
they cannot account for every variable
in an environment.
A species with a broad niche can live
in a variety of places and can use a
variety of resources.
biosphere, ecosystem, community,
population, and organism
Trees, grass, animals, flowers, and all
other living components are biotic
factors. Sunlight, seasonal changes,
storms, fires, and earthquakes are
some examples of abiotic factors.
Each is a response that allows
organisms to avoid unfavorable
environmental conditions.
A regulator could tolerate a wider
range of environmental conditions,
because their internal conditions are
kept at the optimal range over a wide
range of external conditions.
photosynthesis and chemosynthesis
The three major processes in the
water cycle are evaporation, precipitation, and transpiration. Evaporation is
the change from liquid water to water
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vapor and adds water to the atmosphere. Precipitation is the process by
which water vapor leaves the atmosphere as rain, snow, fog, sleet, etc.
Transpiration is the process by which
plants take in water through their
roots and release water through their
leaves.
29. Carbon is converted from an inorganic
form into an organic form during
photosynthesis.
30. (a) It is a tolerance curve that represents plant growth under varying
temperatures. (b) No; improvement
in growth will not be observed. Both
plants are outside their temperature
tolerance range. (c) Plant 2 would
begin to grow faster and plant 4
would exhibit slowed growth.
Populations
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
Populations
Chapter Test A (General)
23.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
a
8. c
c
9. a
d
10. c
e
11. c
b
12. b
c
13. c
b
14. b
population size, population density,
age structure, and dispersion
exponential growth
Population B has the greater potential
for rapid population growth because
of the high percentage of people of
reproductive age. Population A will
most likely have a higher death rate
than population B, due to the high
percentage of older people in
population A.
Density-dependent
Life expectancy
emigration
limiting factor
inbreeding
more
developed
demographic transition
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
22.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
d
12. c
g
13. b
e
14. d
h
15. a
f
16. d
a
17. d
b
18. c
c
19. b
b
20. b
d
21. c
a
When viewed up close, the individuals
in a population may be evenly spaced.
When viewed from farther away, however, the individuals may be found to
be clustered around a food or water
source.
Density-independent limiting factors
reduce the population by the same
amount, regardless of its size. Examples
include weather, floods, and fires.
Density-dependent limiting factors
place greater limits on population
growth as the population density
increases. Examples include limited
resources, such as food.
The death rate decreased.
The country probably has more young
people than old people.
The country probably has more old
people than young people.
Type I
Type III
Type II
Solve the proportions as follows:
T
ᎏᎏ
N
t
⫽ ᎏnᎏ, Tn ⫽ tN
6
N
3
12
72
3
(a) ᎏ ᎏ = ᎏ ᎏ , 6(12) ⫽ 3N, ᎏ ᎏ ⫽ N,
N ⫽ 24 ferrets
6
N
6
12
72
6
(b) ᎏ ᎏ = ᎏ ᎏ , 6(12) = 6N, ᎏ ᎏ ⫽ N,
N ⫽ 12 ferrets (half of the original estimate)
(c) No; t would equal zero, incorrectly
indicating an infinite number of
ferrets.
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Community Ecology
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
a
a
d
b
a
d
b
c
c
b
b
d
h
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
e
f
a
i
b
c
d
j
g
interspecific competition
parasitism
disturbance
Community Ecology
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
c
13. a
f
14. d
e
15. c
d
16. b
g
17. c
h
18. d
b
19. a
a
20. d
i
21. b
j
22. b
d
23. b
c
Thorns, tough leaves, and toxins, such
as strychnine and nicotine, protect
plants from herbivorous predators by
providing structures or chemicals that
discourage the herbivores from eating
the plants.
25. These two species are competitors.
Chthamalus stellatus grows best in
areas exposed to prolonged dry
periods. Under these conditions,
Chthamalus outcompetes Semibalanus
balanoides. Semibalanus usually
grows best underwater. Under these
conditions, it outcompetes
Chthamalus.
26. commensalism; mutualism
27. Humans are reducing the size of natural habitats. This reduction causes a
decrease in the number of species
(species richness) that can be supported in these habitats. This is the
species-area effect.
28. Following retreat of the last glaciers,
only barren rock and till remained.
Freezing and thawing gradually broke
the rock into smaller pieces. Lichens
eventually colonized the barren rock
and released minerals from the rock,
forming a thin layer of soil that
enabled small grasslike plants and
shrubs to grow.
29. Species richness is the number of
species in the community, while species
evenness is the relative abundance of
each species.
30. (a) plots with both ants and rodents
(b) The seed density did not change
significantly. (c) The seed density
greatly increased (almost tripled).
Ecosystems
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
23.
24.
25.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
b
d
f
a
g
h
c
i
e
b
j
Ecosystems
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
22.
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved.
Modern Biology
c
a
b
c
c
b
a
a
b
d
a
permafrost
intertidal zone
Biomes
e
12. d
g
13. b
h
14. a
b
15. d
f
16. c
d
17. b
c
18. d
a
19. d
j
20. b
i
21. a
c
The different terrestrial biomes are
distinguished by the characteristic
plants and animals that occur, but
most are identified by their dominant
plant life.
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23. The three types of grasslands are
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
temperate grasslands, savannas, and
chaparral. Temperate grasslands are
characterized by thick, rich soils, with
dense, tall grasses in moist areas and
short grasses in drier areas. Savannas
have dry, thin, porous, and nutrientpoor soils, with tall grasses and scattered trees. Chaparral areas have
thick, rocky, nutrient-poor soil, with
evergreen shrubs and scattered trees.
Trees are rare because of the short
growing season and because the
permafrost doesn’t allow the tree
roots to penetrate down into the soil.
The forest floors of tropical rain forests
are relatively free of vegetation because
little sunlight can penetrate the thick
forest canopy down to the forest floor.
Organisms that live in the intertidal
zone must be able to tolerate periodic
exposure to air and avoid dehydration.
They must also be able to withstand
the force of strong waves.
Freshwater wetlands are important
because they filter pollutants out of
the water that flows through them,
they provide spawning grounds for
many economically important species,
they are important stopovers for
migratory birds, they are home to
many endangered species, and they
control flooding.
Tropical rain forests are located near
the equator and have year-round growing seasons, abundant precipitation, tall
trees, and the highest species richness
of all biomes. Temperate deciduous
forests are located farther from the
equator and have pronounced seasons,
lower annual precipitation, and lower
species richness than tropical rain
forests do.
Lakes and ponds are characterized
as either eutrophic or oligotrophic.
Eutrophic lakes and ponds are rich
in organic matter and vegetation.
Oligotrophic lakes and ponds contain
little organic matter.
(a) savanna, (b) tropical forest,
(c) temperature: approximately ⫺ 6º C
to 5º C; precipitation: approximately 0
cm to 200 cm, (d) approximately 125 cm
to 450 cm.
Humans and the
Environment
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
b
8. d
c
9. b
a
10. d
d
11. a
c
12. f
b
13. e
b
14. c
hydrosphere
biodiversity
extinction
smog
keystone
Sample answer: Knowledge of ecology
is an essential tool to solving environmental problems. Individuals can take
steps to conserve energy such as by
using bicycles or public transportation
and by recycling or other conservation
efforts.
Sustainability is the desired condition
of the relationship between humans
and the environment. It means the wise
use of renewable resources in a way
that will enable the human population
to survive indefinitely.
Acid precipitation began to be produced
when industries and cars began to
release air polluntants that combined
with water vapor in the atmosphere to
form acidic precipitation. Such sources
of air pollution did not exist 200 years
ago.
Many species offer possible benefits to
humans, and we could lose our chance
to learn about these species. For
example, plant and animal species
are used as food and medicine.
Since 1960, the levels of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere and the average
global temperature have both risen
steadily. The correlation of increasing
temperatures with increasing carbon
dioxide levels is very close. Many
scientists believe that the two are
related. However, correlation does
not prove cause and effect. Both
global temperature and levels of
greenhouse gases may be changing
because of other variables that have
not yet been recognized.
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25. The ozone layer protects life on Earth
from ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
Humans and the
Environment
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
c
13. l
d
14. a
b
15. d
g
16. c
h
17. c
e
18. c
a
19. b
f
20. d
m
21. d
i
22. a
k
23. c
j
The greenhouse effect has a positive
effect on life on Earth. Without the
greenhouse effect Earth would be too
cold to support life as we know it.
A thinning of the ozone layer would
allow more ultraviolet radiation to
reach Earth’s surface, possibly resulting in an increase in mutations, such
as those that cause skin cancer, in
humans and other organisms.
Upper atmospheric ozone levels are
expected to decrease. Atmospheric
carbon dioxide levels are expected to
increase. Global temperature is
expected to increase. Undeveloped
land areas are expected to decrease,
and various natural resources, such as
clean water, fossil fuels, and forested
areas, are expected to decrease.
Humans have caused biodiversity to
decrease by causing extinctions of
other species, through pollution, overhunting, and habitat destruction from
activities such as mining, agriculture,
and construction. However, humans
have also tried to protect and restore
biodiversity in some cases.
Both debt-for-nature swaps and ecotourism originated to help conserve
biodiversity in poor countries. In a
debt-for-nature swap, a richer country
or private organization pays some of
the debts of a poorer country in
exchange for the poorer country’s
taking steps to protect its biodiversity.
In ecotourism, natural areas are
preserved in order to attract tourist
business.
29. Some problems that have been faced
in the attempt to reintroduce whooping cranes include the low genetic
diversity of the species; the need to
recreate aspects of the crane’s behavior,
such as the courtship dance, to insure
that the birds will successfully mate;
and the need to teach the young
cranes the migration route using small
aircraft. Other problems include the
need to protect the crane’s habitat
along the entire migration route.
30. (a) release of chemicals into the environment (b) increased atmospheric
carbon dioxide levels and global warming (c) biodiversity (d) debt-for-nature
swaps or ecotourism (e) conservation
efforts (f) reintroducing the whooping
crane
Bacteria
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
23.
b
12. d
d
13. d
d
14. c
c
15. h
b
16. g
b
17. b
d
18. a
c
19. f
a
20. d
d
21. e
a
22. i
any four of the following: cholera,
tooth decay, anthrax, Lyme disease,
botulism, gonorrhea, tuberculosis,
food poisoning
24. Bacteria can be identified and classified
by their shapes, by their reaction to
Gram staining, by their biochemical
properties, and by their evolutionary
relationships.
25. Bacteria secrete exotoxins into their
environment. These toxins, which are
poisonous to eukaryotic cells, can
cause disease. Bacteria also produce
endotoxins, which are released when
the cell dies.
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Bacteria
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
Viruses
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
h
4. b
g
5. f
e
6. c
d
a
obligate anaerobes
eukaryotes, bacteria
pink
antibiotic resistance
domains
b
d
c
c
b
a
d
c
b
d
Answers include food production or
processing by fermentation, digestion of
proteins in foods, digestion of carbohydrates in foods, production of industrial
and organic chemicals and fuels in mining and petroleum recovery, and the
cleanup of chemical and oil spills.
Chemoautotrophs extract energy from
chemicals taken from the environment,
while photoautotrophs harvest energy
from sunlight.
Recombination is a nonreproductive
means by which bacteria acquire new
combinations of genes. Recombination
includes transformation, conjugation,
and transduction.
Bacteria cause disease by secreting
endotoxins or exotoxins and by
destroying body tissues.
The overuse of antibiotics has encouraged the evolution of resistant strains
of bacteria.
a. spirillum; b. bacillus; c. coccus
(a) Pili allow bacteria to adhere to
surfaces and enable conjugation.
(b) The cell wall protects and gives
shape to bacteria. (c) The chromosome
carries genetic information.
(d) Plasmid contains genes obtained
through genetic recombination.
(e) Flagella enable movement.
d
10. c
c
11. h
b
12. b
c
13. e
b
14. g
a
15. f
d
16. a
c
17. d
b
virus
living cells or host cells
DNA, RNA
prions
macrophage or immune
any four of the following: chickenpox;
influenza; smallpox; colds; hepatis B,
C, and D; AIDS.
24. Viruses cause disease in many living
organisms and therefore have a major
impact on the living world.
25. The first viruses may have evolved from
early cells, since viruses need host cells
for replication. Early viruses may have
been naked pieces of nucleic acid from
early cells. Over time, a protective
protein coat evolved.
Viruses
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
24.
d
5. b
g
6. c
f
7. a
h
8. e
cells
lysozyme
mutates
shingles
oncogene
a
19. c
b
20. c
b
21. c
a
22. a
c
23. b
Because viruses depend on cells in
order to replicate, it is thought that
viruses were probably pieces of
nucleic acid that were able to travel
from one cell to another.
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25. A virulent virus undergoes the lytic
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
cycle and causes disease by invading a
host cell, producing new viruses,
destroying the host cell, and then
releasing the newly formed viruses. A
temperate virus replicates via the lysogenic cycle and does not kill the host
cell immediately.
No; viruses do not have all of the
characteristics of life, such as cells,
metabolism, homeostasis, growth,
and reproduction.
a. glycoprotein; b. capsid; c. RNA
genome; d. reverse transcriptase;
e. envelope
Viroids and prions are like viruses in
that they cause disease, are very small,
and are not composed of cells. Viroids
are composed of RNA only, prions are
made of protein only, and viruses
contain DNA or RNA and protein.
When humans enter previously undeveloped habitats, they may come into
contact with animals that carry previously unknown viruses and become
infected through contact. This contact
may cause infection and spread of the
disease.
(a) When the virus was temperate, its
DNA became integrated into the host’s
genome. During viral replication, parts
of the bacterial genome were probably
replicated with the viral genome and
integrated into the viral capsid during
assembly. (b) The lysogenic cycle
begins with the attachment of the
virus to a host cell, injection of viral
DNA into the host cell, and integration
of the viral DNA into the host genome.
As the host cell multiplies, the viral
DNA is also replicated and included in
each offspring cell. (c) a. 2; b. 5; c. 1;
d. 4; e. 3
Protists
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
11.
12.
b
6.
d
7.
c
8.
c
9.
b
10.
endosymbiosis
Diatoms
d
c
c
d
c
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
Phytoplankton
holdfast, stipe, blade
sporozoite, merozoite
pseudopodia
amoeba
flagellum
mastigophoran or euglenoid
cilia
ciliate
The kingdom Protista is considered
the most diverse kingdom because its
members are classified by exclusion.
Eukaryotes that cannot be classified
as fungi, plants, or animals are classified
as protists.
23. Possible answers include the following: amebiasis through contaminated
food or water, giardiasis through
contaminated food or water, sleeping
sickness through the bite of an
infected tsetse fly, leishmaniasis
through sand flies, and cryptospordiosis
through contact with feces from
infected animals.
24. In the second stage of the life cycle of
Plasmodium, merozoites infect the
host’s red blood cells and divide rapidly. In about 48 hours, the blood cells
rupture, releasing more merozoites
and toxic substances into the host’s
body and initiating a cycle of chills and
fever. The cycle repeats itself every 48
hours as new blood cells are infected.
25. Protists produce large amounts of
oxygen and organic matter; they help
recycle materials; they form the foundation of food webs. Protists also cause
serious diseases in humans and livestock. The cost of treating infected
livestock is passed on to consumers.
Protists
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
g
5. h
c
6. a
f
7. b
d
8. e
organelles
micronuclei
phytoplankton
holdfast, stipe, blade
liver, red blood cells
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14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
c
19. a
a
20. b
d
21. d
a
22. d
c
23. d
A motile protozoan; it is able to move
toward food sources and to escape
harsh environments.
Algae constitutes one of the primary
energy sources in aquatic ecosystems.
Known collectively as phytoplankton,
they form the base of nearly all marine
and freshwater food chains.
A protist is any member of kingdom
Protista. A protozoan is a protist that
moves without cilia or flagella.
(from left to right) sexual; asexual
Rhodophyta and Phaeophyta; Seaweeds
are large, multicellular algae that store
food as carbohydrates, live in marine
environments, and have structures
that resemble leaves, stems, and
roots of plants. Most other algae
are unicellular.
Pseudopodia are cytoplasmic extensions that enable ameboid movement.
Cilia beat in synchronized strokes,
causing the protist to rotate on its
axis. The rapid whipping motion of
flagella pushes or pulls the protist
through water.
(a) a. anal pore; b. gullet; c. cilia; d.
oral groove; e. food vacuole; f. pellicle;
g. contractile vacuole (b) Ciliophora;
Paramecium (c) Cilia sweep food
down the oral groove to the mouth
pore and into the gullet, which forms
food vacuoles that circulate throughout the cytoplasm. The food is then
digested, and waste exits from the
anal pore.
Fungi
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
13.
14.
d
7. a
b
8. d
d
9. d
b
10. b
a
11. c
d
12. d
organic matter
spore
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
ascus
digestive enzymes
mycelium, hyphae
zygosporangia, asci, basidia
infections or diseases
gills, basidia
yeasts
hyphae
crustose
A mycorrhiza is a relationship between
a fungus and the roots of vascular
plants. The fungus transfers minerals
from the soil to the plant. The plant
provides the fungus with carbohydrates.
A lichen is a relationship between a
fungus and a photosynthetic partner
such as an alga, a cyanobacterium, or
both. The fungus, usually an
ascomycete, protects the photosynthetic partner and provides it with
mineral nutrients. The photosynthetic
partner provides the fungus with
carbohydrates.
25. Fungi are thought to have arisen from
unicellular endosymbiotic prokaryotes
about 460 million years ago.
Fungi
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
d
5. a
f
6. h
c
7. g
e
8. b
deuteromycotes
chitin
dikaryotic
prokaryotes
aflatoxin
a
b
c
b
b
d
d
d
c
b
Some fungi produce sporangiospores
on the tips of stalked sporangiophores;
some fungi produce conidia on the
tips of stalklike conidiophores; some
fungi produce cells that dry and
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25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
fragment off from the parent hyphae;
and some fungi produce new cells
(spores) by budding.
A gametangium is a single cell that
contains a haploid nucleus of one
mating type. A zygosporangium is
a structure that forms when two
gametangia of compatible mating
types merge and their nuclei fuse
to form a zygote.
Mycorrhizae are symbiotic associations
between a fungus and the roots of a
plant. They increase mineral uptake
from the soil by plants and thus
promote plant growth.
Fungi are primarily multicellular, while
most protists are unicellular; fungi are
heterotrophic, while plants are
autotrophic; fungi are nonmotile,
while animals are motile.
When the environment is favorable,
asexual reproduction ensures a rapid
spread of the species. When the environment is unfavorable, sexual reproduction enables genetic
recombination, increasing the likelihood that offspring will survive in the
environment.
Both are reproductive structures of
fungi, are composed of dikaryotic
hyphae, and are large and easily visible.
The basidiocarp has basidia, which
produce basidiospores. The ascocarp
has asci, which produce ascospores.
(a) The hypothesis is that symbiotic
organisms can grow where the
individual organisms cannot grow.
(b) location; diameter of organism
(c) In location 1, the lichen grew well,
but the fungus and the alga grew
poorly. In location 2, the lichen grew
well, but neither the fungus nor the
alga survived. In location 3, all three
organisms grew well. (d) The hypothesis is supported by the results;
lichens grow where neither the fungus
nor the component alga can grow.
(e) Lichens contribute to ecological
succession by producing soil from
bare rock.
The Importance of Plants
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
23.
24.
25.
d
c
d
b
a
c
d
b
c
b
b
Quinine
nut
root crops
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
c
d
f
j
a
g
i
e
b
h
c
The Importance of Plants
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
e
12. b
d
13. a
c
14. d
g
15. c
h
16. c
b
17. a
f
18. d
a
19. d
c
20. c
d
21. a
a
Answers will vary but may include
medicines derived from plants, clothing
fibers, fuels, and any other nonfood
uses of plants.
Answers include the use of irrigation,
fertilizers, and pesticides; improvements
in cultivars; farm machinery; food
preservation techniques; and methods
of controlling diseases, weeds, and
pests.
Scientists hope to find sources of new
medicines in wild plants that have not
yet been researched, such as those
growing in the tropics.
Water hyacinth grows in dense populations, impedes the passage of boats,
shades underwater plants, and
consumes oxygen in the water.
The insect on the left can harm the
plant by eating it, and the plant might
benefit from an insecticide. The insect
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27.
28.
29.
30.
on the right can benefit the plant by
pollinating it. Eliminating the pollinator
with an insecticide could affect the
plant’s reproduction.
Answers will vary but may include
nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, iron,
magnesium, oxygen, carbon dioxide,
and water.
Answers will vary, but could include
tobacco, cocaine, alcohol, opium, poison ivy, poison oak, holly, mistletoe,
and various types of pollen.
rice—cereal, nutmeg—spice,
oregano—herb, zucchini—vegetable,
lentils—legume, sweet potato—root
crop, and pear—fruit.
(a) tofu (b) millet (c) No; legumes are
high in isoleucine and lysine, while
grains are high in tryptophan, cysteine,
and methionine.
Plant Evolution and
Classification
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
d
a
b
a
c
b
b
d
b
c
d
c
b
alternation, generations, sporophyte,
gametophyte
water, nutrients
protect, nourish
Xylem
nonvascular
angiosperms
bryophytes
pterophyta
Like all nonvascular plants, mosses
require a film of water for fertilization
to occur because the sperm must
swim to the egg. In vascular plants
with seeds (such as roses), sperm are
able to reach and fertilize eggs without
swimming through a film of water.
23. Seeds protect the plant embryo before
it starts to grow and nourish it during
early growth. Seeds help disperse, or
spread, the embryos of seed plants,
thus reducing or eliminating competition for resources between parent and
offspring. Finally, seeds make it possible for plant embryos to wait until
environmental conditions are favorable before beginning to grow.
24. Fruit that smells sweet when ripe is
likely to attract animals who will eat
the fruit. The seeds inside the fruit will
then be dispersed when they pass
undigested from the animals’ bodies.
25. Some flowers, such as roses, have
brightly colored petals or strong scents.
These characteristics attract insects
and other animals that carry pollen and
therefore increase the likelihood of
cross-pollination. Other flowers, such
as garden peas, are adapted for selfpollination. The flowers of oaks and
grasses have small greenish flowers
that are adapted for wind pollination.
Plant Evolution and
Classification
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
e
5. g
f
6. a
h
7. b
c
8. d
sporophyte, gametophyte
gymnosperms
fiddleheads, fronds
Bryophyta, Hepatophyta, and
Anthocerophyta
strobilus
c
a
c
d
b
a
c
d
b
c
The primary function of spores and
seeds is to protect and disperse the
plant’s reproductive cells.
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25. Green algae require water for disper-
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
sal of reproductive structures, and
they lack protection from water loss
and structural support.
Nonvascular plants must live near
water because they lack means of
transporting water and require water
for sexual reproduction.
Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are
bryophytes. They are mostly terrestrial; live in moist environments; are
nonvascular; lack true roots, leaves,
and stems; and have an alternation of
generations life cycle.
Coniferophyta; seed plants
Their leaves are needle-shaped and
have a small surface area.
(a) meiosis (b) spores; haploid;
mitosis (c) gametes (eggs and sperm);
haploid (d) fertilization (e) zygotes;
seed
Plant Structure and Function
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
c
8. b
a
9. d
c
10. c
d
11. d
d
12. b
a
13. d
d
14. c
c
leaves
Collenchyma
storage
mesophyll, ground
stomata, transpiration
xylem, phloem, ring
air spaces
Most stomata open during the day and
close at night. When epidermal cells of
leaves pump potassium ions into guard
cells, water moves into the guard cells
by osmosis. This water influx make
the guard cells swell, which causes
them to bow apart and form a pore.
During darkness, potassium ions are
pumped out of the guard cells. Water
then leaves the guard cells by osmosis,
causing the guard cells to shrink and
the pore to close.
24. Organic compounds move from a
source, where they are made or
stored, to a sink, where they are used.
Leaves and roots are sources. Roots,
stems, and developing fruits are sinks.
25. Sugar from a source enters the phloem
by active transport. This increases the
sugar concentration in the phloem and
causes water to enter the phloem cells
from the xylem by osmosis. Pressure
builds up inside the phloem and forces
the sugar through the phloem. Sugar
then moves from the phloem into a
sink by active transport.
Plant Structure and Function
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
d
13. a
c
14. b
f
15. d
g
16. a
a
17. d
e
18. c
h
19. b
b
20. a
j
21. d
i
22. c
k
23. b
d
The function of tracheids is to transport water and minerals.
The lateral meristems of plants are
the vascular cambium and the cork
cambium. They cause secondary
growth.
Root hairs, branch roots, and mycorrhizal associations increase the
absorbing surface area of roots.
Water moves from the soil to the
epidermis, cortex, endodermis, and
pericycle of the vascular cylinder,
and then into the xylem.
Guard cells; they accumulate potassium
ions and water, which causes them to
swell and bow apart, forming a stoma.
In leaves, stomata regulate the
exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen
and water loss.
Carbohydrates are actively transported
into sieve tubes, and water enters the
sieve tubes by osmosis. Osmotic
pressure pushes the carbohydrates
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into adjacent sieve tubes and to parts
of the plant that lack carbohydrates.
Carbohydrates are then actively
transported out of the sieve tubes
into storage or energy-requiring cells.
30. (a) gas exchange; occurs through
stomata (b) photosynthesis; occurs
primarily in palisade mesophyll cells
of leaves (c) translocation; occurs in
sieve tubes of roots, stems, and leaves
(d) water pulled upward; occurs in
tracheids and vessel elements of roots,
stems, and leaves (e) transpiration;
occurs through stomata
Plant Reproduction
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
b
8. d
a
9. b
c
10. a
b
11. d
d
12. b
c
13. c
d
gametophytes, pistil
pollen, pollen tube, ovule
cotyledon
sepals, petals, stamens, pistil
sporophyte
fertilization
vegetative parts
The diploid sporophyte produces haploid spores by meiosis. The spores fall
to the ground and grow into haploid
gametophytes, which produce
gametes—sperm and eggs—by
mitosis. When water covers the
gametophytes, sperm can swim to the
archegonia and fertilize the eggs inside
of them. The zygotes, or fertilized
eggs, grow into new sporophytes.
22. At the time of pollination, the scales of
a female cone are open, exposing the
ovules. When a pollen grain lands near
an ovule, a slender pollen tube grows
out of the pollen grain and into the
ovule. The sperm moves through the
pollen tube and enters the ovule to
reach the egg. The pollen tube provides
a way for the sperm to reach the egg
without having to swim through water.
23. The pollen tube links a pollen grain
with an ovule. Each grain contains two
sperm that travel through the tube to
the ovule. One sperm fuses with the
egg and forms the zygote. The other
sperm fuses with two other haploid
nuclei and develops into the
endosperm. The zygote and the
endosperm develop into a seed,
which grows into a new sporophyte.
24. Many plants produce structures that
can grow into new plants. Some examples are bulbs, corms, rhizomes, and
tubers, which are modified stems.
Pieces of roots, stems, and leaves may
also grow into new plants.
25. The stolon of a strawberry plant is a
horizontal runner or aboveground
stem that can produce leaves and
roots at its nodes. When the runner
node reaches the ground it will grow
roots and leaves to produce a new
strawberry plant.
Plant Reproduction
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
e
13. d
g
14. b
f
15. c
h
16. a
d
17. d
b
18. b
a
19. c
c
20. c
j
21. d
i
22. d
b
23. d
c
mature sporophyte, sporangium, spores,
mature gametophyte, antheridium and
archegonium, egg and sperm cells,
zygote
25. Meiosis in megaspore mother cells
produces four megaspores. Three of
these degenerate and one produces an
embryo sac containing an egg cell.
26. Meiosis in microspore mother cells
produces four microspores. Each of
these produces pollen grains. The tube
cell produces a pollen tube leading to
an ovule. The generative cell produces
two sperm cells, which move into the
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27.
28.
29.
30.
ovule and fuse with the egg cell and
the polar nuclei there.
Making cuttings involves growing new
plants from pieces of stem, root, or
leaf. Layering involves inducing root
formation on a stem. Grafting involves
attaching two or more plant parts to
form a single plant. Tissue culture
involves growing new plants from small
pieces of tissue in sterile nutrient media.
Factors required to break dormancy
in certain seeds include light, low
temperature, and abrasion by acid or
other agents. These help prevent seeds
from germinating before environmental
conditions are suitable for growth of
the plant.
water, oxygen, and the appropriate
temperature range
(a) 1. spores; 2. sperm; 3. eggs; 4. zygote
(b) B and C (c) A (d) D (e) spores, male
gametophyte, female gametophyte,
sperm, and eggs
22.
23.
24.
25.
Plant Responses
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
19.
c
10. a
c
11. g
a
12. a
a
13. f
c
14. h
b
15. d
d
16. c
d
17. e
b
18. b
The result of the auxin spray on fruit
trees depends on the plant’s stage of
development when the spray is
applied. If auxin is sprayed on young
fruits, some will drop off allowing the
remaining fruits to grow larger. If it is
sprayed on fruits several weeks before
they are ready to be picked, it will
prevent the fruits from dropping.
20. Roots grow downward under the influence of gravity. This is an example of
gravitropism. Roots are positively
gravitropic, because auxins accumulate
along the lower side of the roots and
the roots grow downward.
21. Heliotropism or solar tracking is
the movement of leaves or flowers
as they follow the sun’s movements
across the sky.
Plants are categorized as either shortday plants, long-day plants, or dayneutral plants. Short-day plants flower
in the spring or fall when days are
short and nights are long. Long-day
plants flower in the summer when
days are long and nights are short.
Day-neutral plants are not affected
by day length.
Cytokinins promote cell division and
promote lateral bud development in
dicots.
Nastic movements are plant movements
that occur in response to environmental
stimuli, but are independent of the
stimuli direction. Examples include
the Venus’ flytrap that closes when
touched and the prayer plant that has
leaves that fold up at night.
The changing leaf colors are a photoperiodic response and a temperature
response to the short day, longer
nights, and cooler temperatures of
autumn. The leaves stop producing the
green pigment chlorophyll, allowing
the red, orange, and yellow pigments
in the leaves to become visible.
Plant Responses
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
e
13. b
d
14. c
h
15. d
g
16. d
b
17. b
a
18. c
c
19. d
f
20. b
j
21. a
i
22. c
a
23. b
c
Ethylene; one rotting apple will produce
ethylene gas, which stimulates nearby
apples to ripen and spoil.
25. Leaf abscission causes dead, damaged,
or infected leaves to drop to the
ground rather than shading healthy
leaves or spreading disease.
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26. Auxins accumulate on the lower sides
27.
28.
29.
30.
of horizontally oriented stems and
roots. Auxins stimulate stem cells to
elongate, resulting in upward growth
of the shoot, and inhibit elongation of
root cells, resulting in downward
growth of the root.
Thigmonastic movements; some thigmonastic movements occur within a
few seconds of a stimulus.
Long-day plants will flower when the
number of hours of continuous darkness is shorter than critical night
length, or when a period of darkness
longer than critical night length is
divided into two dark periods each
shorter than critical night length.
Biennial plants flower in the spring of
their second year of growth.
(a) auxin (b) step B; the agar block did
not contain plant hormones, and no
changes in growth were observed.
(c) Synthetic auxin could be applied to
an agar block and then the agar block
placed on one side of a decapitated
shoot tip. If the shoot tip were to bend
in the direction opposite the location
of the agar block, then the results
would indicate that auxin causes the
results observed in part A of Went’s
experiments.
Introduction to Animals
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
27.
Introduction to Animals
Chapter Test A (General)
1. a
12.
2. d
13.
3. d
14.
4. a
15.
5. d
16.
6. b
17.
7. c
18.
8. c
19.
9. a
20.
10. b
21.
11. b
22. mesoderm
23. radial symmetry
24. hermaphrodite
25. organogenesis
a
e
g
a
f
h
c
i
d
b
28.
29.
30.
f
13. g
h
14. d
m
15. b
e
16. b
k
17. a
j
18. d
a
19. c
b
20. b
l
21. c
i
22. b
d
23. d
c
Scientists have inferred that multicellular invertebrates may have developed from colonies of loosely
connected flagellated protists.
Colonial protists may have lost their
flagella over the course of evolution as
individualized cells in the colony grew
more specialized.
Sponges have no body symmetry and
no true tissues.
Segmentation refers to a body composed of a series of repeating similar
units. It is not found in all animals;
some invertebrate phyla are not segmented.
The coelom forms from rapid cell division in the blastocoel. The newly differentiated mesodermal cells spread
out and completely line the newly
formed coelom.
a. blastocoel; b. archenteron; c. coelom;
d. schizocoely; e. blastocoel; f. coelom;
g. archenteron; h. enterocoely
A human embryo undergoes radial,
indeterminate cleavage; the coelom
forms by enterocoely; and the blastopore becomes the anus. In contrast,
a clam embryo undergoes spiral,
determinate cleavage; the coelom
forms by schizocoely; and the blastopore becomes the mouth.
a. invertebrates; b. both; c. invertebrates; d. both; e. both; f. invertebrates;
g. vertebrates; h. both; i. vertebrates;
j. both; k. both; l. invertebrates; m. both;
n. both; o. vertebrates
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Sponges, Cnidarians,
and Ctenophores
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
c
c
d
b
c
d
a
b
g
choanocytes
gemmule
hermaphrodite
medusa
polyp
apical organs
nerve net
ctenophore
10.
11.
12.
13.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
26. Both sponges and cnidarians have two
f
j
i
a
a
e
h
c
d
27.
28.
29.
30.
Sponges, Cnidarians,
and Ctenophores
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
e
13. b
f
14. b
c
15. a
a
16. d
l
17. c
i
18. c
m
19. b
k
20. d
j
21. a
h
22. d
g
23. b
d
The food that a sponge collects is
engulfed and digested by collar cells.
Nutrients then pass to amebocytes,
which spread the nutrients among the
sponge’s other body cells. Waste products diffuse out of cells and leave the
sponge’s body through the osculum.
25. Sponges reproduce asexually by budding or by regeneration. When sponges
reproduce sexually, sperm from one
sponge are released in the water and
join with the egg of another sponge,
producing a swimming larva that eventually becomes a sessile adult sponge.
cell layers (though only cnidarians
have true tissues); the central body
cavity of both has one opening, and
cnidarians have mesoglea.
The dominant body form found in
scyphozoans is the medusa, while the
dominant body form found in anthozoans is the polyp.
Algae; the conditions of shallow equatorial seas allow the algae to live and
undergo photosynthesis.
a. epidermis; b. gastrovascular cavity;
c. mouth; d. medusa; e. mouth; f. gastrovascular cavity; g. epidermis; h.
polyp
(a) external (b) blastula (c) Planula; it
attaches to the sea floor. (d) The polyp
forms a stack of medusae that are
released into the water.(e) Identical;
they are the result of the union of
a single egg and sperm.
Flatworms, Roundworms,
and Rotifers
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
a
9. c
b
10. d
a
11. a
d
12. b
d
13. f
c
14. g
b
15. e
h
tegument
proglottids
snail
eyespot
scolex
The pseudocoelom contains fluid. This
fluid serves as a simple circulatory
and gas exchange system, carrying
nutrients, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
throughout the animal’s body. The
materials move into and out of cells
by diffusion.
22. cooking meat thoroughly to kill all
larvae it may contain; wearing shoes
in areas where animal hosts are commonly found; and wearing protective
clothing when wading in waters that
may be contaminated with Schistosoma
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23. Planarians are hermaphrodites that
28. Planaria swim with a wavelike motion.
reproduce sexually when two individuals transfer sperm to each other. They
also reproduce asexually by splitting
in two to form two individuals.
24. They absorb food from the host’s
intestine directly through their skin.
25. Rotifers sweep food into the mouth
with a crown of beating cilia. The food
moves from the mouth to the mastax,
where it is ground into smaller particles. The food is further digested in
the stomach, and the nutrients are
absorbed in the intestine.
They move over a surface on a layer of
mucus they secrete, propelled by the
cilia that cover their bodies.
29. a. eyespots; b. excretory tubule;
c. nerve; d. pharynx
30. (a) No; horses do not eat meat.
(b) after the pig (c) by eating only
meat that has been inspected for
cysts and by cooking meat thoroughly
(d) larval (the larvae are contained in
cysts embedded in muscle) (e) Worms
are animals, and medicines that kill
them can also affect their animal
hosts. Bacteria are very different from
eukaryotic animal cells, and many
antibiotics attack bacterial structures
that animal cells do not share, such
as the cell wall.
Flatworms, Roundworms,
and Rotifers
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
d
13. l
f
14. a
j
15. c
h
16. d
b
17. d
a
18. b
k
19. b
i
20. b
e
21. c
g
22. c
m
23. c
c
Fertilized eggs are released in the
urine and feces of humans, the primary host. In water, ciliated larvae
develop and invade the bodies of
snails, the intermediate host. The larvae develop tails and become freeswimming. The tailed larvae enter the
skin of a human swimming or wading
in the water, and the cycle repeats.
25. feeding only cooked meat scraps to
animals used for food; inspecting meat
for the presence of cysts; cooking
meat thoroughly
26. The tegument is composed of cells;
the cuticle is not.
27. An acoelomate does not have a body
cavity. A pseudocoelomate has a body
cavity, and mesoderm lines the outer
body wall. Platyhelminthes, or flatworms, are acoelomates with three
germ layers.
Mollusks and Annelids
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
a
11.
c
12.
b
13.
d
14.
c
15.
a
16.
d
17.
c
18.
b
19.
a
20.
radula
setae, parapodia
trochophore
gills
incurrent siphons
d
c
g
i
e
a
f
h
d
b
Mollusks and Annelids
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
c
e
d
a
h
g
b
f
b
c
d
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
a
b
b
c
d
d
d
c
a
b
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22. The mantle that lines a terrestrial
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
snail’s mantle cavity must be moist
for respiration to occur. During dry
conditions, the snail closes itself up
in its shell.
Cephalopods have strong, beaklike
jaws and tentacles with suction cups
for seizing prey. They have welldeveloped nervous systems, including
a lobed brain and complex eyes, and
are capable of complex behavior. They
have a closed circulatory system for
more rapid transport of nutrients and
wastes, and they have jet propulsion.
Both allow for a highly active lifestyle.
Answers include the trochophore
larva and the coelom. Annelids are
segmented, while mollusks are not.
No; an important function of the mantle
is secretion of a shell. Annelids do not
have a shell.
In a closed circulatory system, blood
moves more rapidly. Members of
Cephalopoda have a closed circulatory
system.
Oxygen diffuses through the skin of
the earthworm. The environment must
be moist and cool.
Polychaetes differ from other annelids
in that polychaetes have antennae and
specialized mouthparts. They are also
the only annelids that have a trochophore stage of development.
There are some differences in habitat:
Oligochaeta live in soil or fresh water;
Polychaeta are mostly marine; and
Hirudinea live in calm, fresh water or
in moist vegetation on land.
(a) a. shell; b. gill; c. mantle cavity;
d. anus; e. heart; f. mantle; g. stomach;
h. ganglia (b) The mantle secretes
hard shells that protect the mollusk.
(c) The evolution of gills has maximized
the area available for gas exchange in
the mollusk.
Arthropods
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
23.
24.
25.
d
12. f
m
13. i
h
14. c
j
15. o
a
16. c
b
17. a
e
18. d
n
19. d
g
20. a
k
21. b
l
22. d
head, thorax, abdomen
crustaceans
four
Arthropods
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
b
13. g
j
14. c
a
15. d
m
16. c
d
17. c
f
18. d
h
19. c
l
20. d
i
21. a
c
22. c
e
23. b
k
Segmented appendages around the
mouth and eyes are examples of
features associated with cephalization.
25. Before a molt, an arthropod’s tissues
swell, straining the exoskeleton. A
hormone that induces molting is then
produced, causing epidermal cells to
secrete enzymes that digest the inner
layer of the exoskeleton. The epidermis synthesizes a new exoskeleton,
and the old exoskeleton is shed.
26. Trilobita (the extinct trilobites),
Crustacea (lobsters, crayfish, sow
bugs, pill bugs), Chelicerata (spiders,
scorpions, mites, ticks), Myriapoda
(millipedes, centipedes), and
Hexapoda (insects)
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27. Abdominal muscles; the telson and
uropods, which together act as a paddlelike tail, help propel the crayfish
during tailflips.
28. Spiders use chelicerae (fangs) to
inject poison into their prey. Venom
is produced in poison glands in the
cephalothorax.
29. Centipedes kill their prey with poison
claws and tear the meat apart with
mandibles and maxillae.
30. (a) a. stomach; b. poison gland;
c. chelicera (fang); d. pedipalp;
e. Malpighian tubule; f. silk gland;
g. gut; h. book lung (b) The excretory
system of spiders is adapted to life on
land by Malpighian tubules, which
enable spiders to conserve water by
reabsorption. (c) The main disadvantage of molting is that each new
exoskeleton takes a few days to harden,
rendering an arthropod vulnerable to
predation and desiccation.
Insects
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
Insects
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
g
9. e
h
10. f
j
11. b
d
12. a
a
13. d
c
14. b
i
15. b
b
16. d
head, thorax, abdomen
hemolymph, open
gizzard, midgut
touch, smell
vibrates in response to sound
exchanges gases with the environment
contains digestive, respiratory, circulatory, and reproductive organs
24. During development, the larva uses
habitats and food sources different
from those of the adult. Competition
between larva and adult is reduced,
thus increasing the chance for survival
in each stage of the insect life cycle.
25. biting and chewing, piercing and
sucking, sponging and lapping
27.
28.
29.
30.
d
13. e
j
14. a
f
15. b
b
16. d
m
17. a
a
18. a
h
19. d
l
20. c
k
21. b
g
22. b
i
23. c
c
The bombardier beetle defends itself
by spraying a hot stream of a noxious
chemical from an opening on its
abdomen that can be rotated.
Ants lay a pheromone on the ground
to guide other ants to food sources.
Female moths secrete pheromone to
attract mates.
The mouthparts of drones are too short
to feed on flower nectar, so drones
must be fed by workers. You would
expect the mouthparts of workers to
be functional because workers collect
food, work in the hive, and feed the
members of the colony.
Grasshoppers have two kinds of eyes,
simple and compound. There are three
simple eyes and two compound eyes.
The simple eyes detect light intensity.
The compound eyes detect intensity,
movement, and form images.
Isoptera (termites)
The honeybee has a barbed stinger
and displays altruistic behavior. After
it stings another animal, the honeybee
flies away. The stinger remains in the
animal, and the bee’s internal organs
are ripped out. The wasp has a smooth
stinger that can be removed from its
enemy when the wasp flies away.
a. incomplete metamorphosis; b. egg;
c. nymph; d. adult grasshopper;
e. complete metamorphosis; f. egg;
g. larva; h. pupa; i. butterfly; j. Larvae
and adults do not compete for food
and space. k. The pupa and chrysalis
protect an insect during the winter
and thus enhance the insect’s chances
of survival.
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Echinoderms and
Invertebrate Chordates
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
f
11. a
d
12. d
e
13. d
a
14. b
h
15. a
c
16. a
b
17. c
g
18. c
d
19. b
a
20. a
water, vascular
common ancestor
nerve ring
sea cucumbers
pharyngeal pouches or slits
Echinoderms and
Invertebrate Chordates
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
f
13. d
i
14. a
m
15. d
k
16. b
l
17. c
a
18. b
b
19. c
e
20. b
h
21. c
j
22. b
c
23. d
g
In vertebrates, it leaves only a trace
after the backbone is developed.
In cephalochordates, it is retained.
In tunicates, it is lost during
metamorphosis.
notochord, dorsal nerve cord, post-anal
tail, and pharyngeal pouches or slits
Young tunicates have all four chordate
characters, whereas adults have only
the pharyngeal pouches or slits.
The arms of a sea star can detach and
regenerate as a defense mechanism.
Regeneration is important to reproduction because each arm of a sea star
contains a pair of ovaries or testes.
Tunicates are hermaphrodites. Sperm
and eggs are released through the
excurrent siphon into the surrounding
water, where fertilization occurs.
29. Aristotle’s lantern is the jawlike feeding
structure of sea urchins that consists
of teeth and muscles.
30. (a) Cephalochordata (b) Urochordata
(c) Vertebrata (d) Cephalochordata
and Urochordata; In the water; most
sessile animals filter food from water.
(e) Cephalochordata: lancelet;
Urochordata: tunicates; Vertebrata:
sample answers include any fish,
amphibian, reptile, bird, or mammal.
Fishes
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
e
11. c
c
12. d
d
13. c
f
14. a
b
15. b
a
16. a
c
17. d
b
18. c
d
19. c
d
20. a
opercula
lampreys, hagfish
scales, age
optic tectum
countercurrent flow
Fishes
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
d
13. m
j
14. b
a
15. a
f
16. c
l
17. d
b
18. a
c
19. b
h
20. b
e
21. d
g
22. a
i
23. b
k
The lateral-line system consists of a
row of sensory structures that run
along each side of the fish’s body and
are connected by nerves to the brain.
The structures detect vibrations in
the water.
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25. Members of Myxini and Actinopterygii
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
use external fertilization, where the
male releases sperm as the female
releases eggs. Members of Chondrichthyes use internal fertilization, in
which the male transfers sperm into
the female’s body with claspers.
Answers include the following: sense
of smell (detects chemicals with
nostrils); lateral-line system (detects
vibrations in water); vision; sensitive
to electric fields.
Deoxygenated blood enters the sinus
venosus and then moves into the larger
atrium. Contraction of the atrium
moves the blood to the ventricle, the
main pumping chamber of the heart.
The ventricle pumps blood through
the conus arteriousus and eventually
to the gills.
Jaws allow fish to seize and manipulate
prey; paired fins increase stability and
maneuverability.
Cartilaginous fishes either keep moving
to maintain a vertical position or store
large amounts of low-density lipids.
Bony fishes have a swim bladder,
which contains a mixture of gases
from the bloodstream and regulates
the amount of gas in the body to
adjust body density.
(a) 1. bony fish; 2. mammals;
3. Myxini; 4. Aves; 5. cartilage;
6. yes (b) all of them (c) Vertebrata
(d) aquatic (e) The skeleton is
composed of cartilage.
Amphibians
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
e
a
b
c
d
b
c
d
cutaneous
cloacal, vent
metamorphosis
ventricle
lungs
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
d
c
a
b
c
d
c
21. Caudata
22. Caecilians are blind and legless. They
have teeth for capturing and consuming
prey, and chemosensory tentacles for
detecting prey. All of these are adaptations for a burrowing lifestyle.
23. Mucous glands embedded in the skin
supply a lubricant that keeps the skin
moist. This moist surface is necessary
for cutaneous respiration.
24. Oxygen-poor blood from the body
enters the right atrium. Oxygen-rich
blood from the lungs enters the left
atrium through the pulmonary veins.
The blood from both atria enters the
ventricle, which pumps the blood to
the conus arteriosus and then to the
lungs and the body. Oxygen-poor is
sent to the lungs. Oxygen-rich blood
is sent to the body.
25. The male Darwin’s frog broods the
eggs in his vocal sacs where they
hatch and undergo metamorphosis.
Female gastric-brooding frogs swallow
their eggs, which hatch and mature in
the stomach. Females of some species
sit on their eggs until they hatch.
Amphibians
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
c
13. i
g
14. c
a
15. d
d
16. a
k
17. c
f
18. a
b
19. b
j
20. a
l
21. a
m
22. d
e
23. c
h
During inhalation, the floor of the
mouth drops and the nostrils open. Air
is then pushed into the lungs as the
floor of the mouth is raised and the
nostrils close.
25. Accept four of the following: metamorphosis; moist, thin skin without scales;
feet that lack claws; gills, lungs, and
skin for respiration; eggs laid in water
or moist places; external fertilization.
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26. The moist skin of amphibians is
27.
28.
29.
30.
vulnerable to dehydration, so most
amphibians live in moist environments
and are active at night. Desert amphibians remain in moist burrows deep in
the soil, coming out to feed and reproduce only after heavy rains.
Answers include a rigid spine to bear
the weight of the body; strong limbs to
support the body while moving or
standing; and a fused lower forelimb
(radio-ulna) and hind limb
(tibiofibula).
The tadpole gradually changes from its
aquatic form to its terrestrial form,
growing legs, losing its tail and gills,
and developing jaws and functional
lungs.
The male Darwin’s frog takes the eggs
into his vocal sacs, where the eggs
hatch and undergo metamorphosis.
Females of some species of frogs sit
on their eggs to keep them moist.
(a) 5; young frog coming onto land
(b) 3; tadpole lives in water (c) 6; adult
frog (d) 1; male fertilizes eggs (e) 4;
tadpole is growing legs and still living
in water (f) 2; fertilized eggs in water
Reptiles
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
c
9. d
b
10. b
a
11. d
d
12. c
c
13. b
b
14. a
a
15. c
b
ectotherms
alveoli
plastron
amniotic, ancestor
Mesozoic era
asteroid impact hypothesis
autotomy
A snake’s jaw is very flexible because
it has several points of movement. At
one of these points––the chin––the
halves of the lower jaw are connected
by an elastic ligament that permits the
lower jaw to spread apart when a
large meal is being swallowed.
24. Chelonia—turtles; Rhynchocephalia—
tuataras; Squamata—lizards and snakes;
Crocodilia—crocodiles and alligators
25. A turtle’s shell is streamlined and disk
shaped. Depending on the species, the
carapace (top) and plastron (bottom)
are made of fused plates of bone
covered with horny shields or tough,
leathery skin. In most species, the
vertebrae and ribs are fused to the
inside of the carapace. The shell
provides protection and support
for muscle attachments.
Reptiles
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
d
13. k
b
14. b
m
15. d
f
16. a
a
17. c
j
18. c
l
19. b
h
20. c
c
21. a
e
22. c
g
23. d
i
This hypothesis suggests that a huge
asteroid hit Earth, sending so much
dust into the atmosphere that the
amount of sunlight reaching Earth’s
surface was greatly reduced. The
resulting climatic changes led to mass
extinction.
25. The body of a turtle is covered by a
shell; the pelvic and pectoral girdles
lie within the ribs; and turtles have a
sharp beak instead of teeth.
26. The upper and lower jaws are loosely
hinged and move independently; the
lower jaw, palate, and parts of the
skull are joined by a flexible ligament
that allows the snake’s head to stretch
around its prey.
27. A crocodile lies waiting until an animal
approaches and then attacks quickly.
It can see and breathe while it is quietly submerged in water, and it can
feed underwater due to a valve that
prevents water from entering its air
passages.
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amount of oxygen transported to the
body cells. Also, because the flow of
blood in the lungs runs in a different
direction than the flow of air, oxygen
absorption is increased.
25. One hypothesis states that the ancestors of birds were tree dwellers that
glided between the branches; a second
hypothesis holds that winglike structures were used for stability and prey
capture in ground-dwelling species.
28. Answers include three of the following:
Dinosaurs were a diverse group of reptiles that varied in size, form, and habitat. Icthyosaurs were aquatic reptiles
that resembled dolphins. Plesiosaurs
were also aquatic, with long, flexible
necks and compact bodies. Pterosaurs
were flying reptiles.
29. The amnion is a membrane that
surrounds the embryo; it encloses
the salty fluid in which the embryo
floats and develops.
30. (a) Arrows should be drawn from the
body to the right atrium, then to the
lungs, then from the lungs to the left
atrium, then to the ventricle, and back
to the body. (b) 1. deoxygenated;
2. mixed; 3. oxygenated; 4. mixed
(c) 1. deoxygenated; 2. deoxygenated;
3. oxygenated; 4. oxygenated
(d) Crocodilia (e) Bypassing the lungs
allows an inactive reptile to conserve
energy and raise its temperature quickly.
Birds
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
Birds
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
c
10. a
g
11. c
f
12. b
b
13. a
h
14. c
a
15. b
e
16. c
d
17. b
d
amniotic, scales
contour feathers
forelimbs
ducks
scales
Contour feathers cover an adult bird’s
body and give it shape. Specialized
contour feathers on the wings and
tail help provide lift for flight. Down
feathers cover young birds and are
found beneath the contour feathers
of adults. Down feathers conserve
body heat by providing insulation.
24. A bird lung is more efficient. The lungs
are connected to a series of air sacs
that make one-way air flow possible.
Thus, the lungs are exposed only to
oxygenated air, which increases the
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
a
13. f
l
14. a
c
15. c
h
16. c
d
17. c
j
18. d
b
19. b
k
20. c
i
21. d
e
22. a
g
23. a
h
Both types of air sacs store air. The
anterior air sacs receive oxygen-rich
air and send it to the lungs. The posterior air sacs receive oxygen-depleted
air leaving the lungs.
Precocial refers to birds that lay many
eggs and incubate them for long periods
of time. Altricial refers to birds that
lay few eggs that hatch quickly.
Answers include three of the following:
position of stars, topographical landmarks, Earth’s magnetic field, changes
in air pressure, and low-frequency
sounds.
Both have a sharp, curved beak and
talons, which are used for hunting.
Members of Strigiformes hunt at night
and rely on their sense of hearing.
Members of Ciconiiformes hunt during
the day and use their keen sense of
vision.
Answers include feathers; wings; a
lightweight, rigid skeleton; endothermic
metabolism; a beak; oviparity; and an
efficient respiratory system consisting
of air sacs connected to the lungs.
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29. Answers may include that flight
evolved in tree-dwellers that jumped
between branches, glided, and eventually flapped wings, or that flight
evolved on the ground and wings were
used to stabilize animals leaping after
prey.
30. (a) a. proventriculus; b. gizzard;
c. kidney; d. large intestine; e. cloaca;
f. crop; g. heart (b) digestive and
excretory systems (c) In birds, the
passage of food through the digestive
system is very rapid. The excretory
system is efficient and lightweight;
most birds do not store liquid waste.
(d) The gizzard often contains small
stones that aid in the grinding of food.
(e) The crop stores and moistens food.
24. Once dinosaurs became extinct, new
25.
26.
27.
Mammals
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
b
10. a
c
11. c
a
12. g
c
13. f
d
14. d
c
15. a
c
16. e
b
17. b
b
18. c
Homo erectus
Africa
four-chambered
therapsids, endotherms
synapsid
dinosaurs
artiodactyl, perissodactyl
28.
29.
30.
Mammals
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
g
j
h
d
b
e
l
a
i
c
m
f
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
k
b
d
a
c
b
b
d
c
d
c
habitats and ecological roles became
available to mammals without the
danger of predation by dinosaurs,
allowing mammals to diversify.
Both are ungulates, or hoofed mammals. Artiodactyls have an even number of toes and a rumen for breaking
down cellulose. Perissodactyls have an
odd number of toes and a cecum.
Separated ventricles of the heart
prevent the mixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood. Mammals also
have a large internal lung surface area
and a diaphragm. These adaptations
increase the supply of oxygen, which
is needed for the fast metabolism of
endothermic animals.
All have streamlined bodies similar to
those of fish. The forelimbs and hind
limbs of pinnipeds are paddlelike for
swimming. The forelimbs of cetaceans
and sirenians are flippers; a broad tail
replaces their hind limbs.
All produce milk to feed their young.
Monotremes lay eggs, while marsupials
and placental mammals give birth to
live young. Marsupial females have a
pouch in which their young continue
early development after birth.
Placental mammals nourish their
young internally through a placenta.
endothermy, hair, a completely divided
heart, milk production by mammary
glands, a single jawbone, and specialized teeth
(a) a. Carnivora; b. Insectivora;
c. Cetacea (b) The long canines of
carnivores aid in tearing flesh and
grasping prey. The baleen serves to
filter invertebrates from the water.
(c) Skull b; the nose is long and
pointed and enables probing in soil
for insects, worms, and other invertebrates. The teeth are sharp, an adaptation that is useful for catching and
grasping insects. (d) Baleen; it is used
to filter and trap invertebrates in the
water. (e) the cerebrum
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Animal Behavior
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
26. The killing of cubs benefits the indi-
c
11. c
a
12. b
d
13. e
d
14. g
b
15. b
c
16. f
d
17. a
b
18. d
a
19. c
a
natural selection
operant conditioning
migratory behavior
associate, classical conditioning
A young bird’s ability to imprint, or to
follow the first moving object it sees
after hatching, is genetically programmed. The object the young bird
follows, or imprints on, is learned
immediately after it hatches.
25. Animals can use sight, sound, chemicals,
touch, and sometimes language.
27.
28.
29.
Animal Behavior
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
c
13. j
m
14. c
l
15. a
g
16. d
b
17. b
e
18. d
i
19. a
d
20. c
k
21. a
f
22. c
a
23. b
h
Sample answer: Innate behaviors are
genetically determined, such as the
orb spider’s web building. Learned
behaviors are created or modified
through experience, such as Pavlov’s
dogs or the rats in the Skinner boxes
that associated response actions to
stimuli with food rewards.
25. It ensures that individuals will mate
only with members of their own
species.
30.
vidual male lion that carries out the
killing because it increases the likelihood that he will father more cubs.
Natural selection favors traits that
contribute to the survival and reproduction of individuals.
The rat accidentally pressed a lever
that released food. Then it learned to
press the lever to obtain food. The
chimpanzee stacked boxes to obtain a
banana hanging overhead without
using any experimentation or trial-anderror strategies. The chimpanzee analyzed the situation and reasoned the
best way to obtain the banana.
Courtship rituals help in species identification and help to identify individuals
receptive to mating. Examples include:
flash patterns of fireflies (species identification); pheromones produced by
female silk moths (identification of
individuals receptive to mating); and
songs and sounds produced by birds,
insects, and amphibians.
Benefits include protection from predators and increased success in foraging. Costs include increased
competition for food, mates, and other
resources. There is also the increased
risk of spreading diseases.
(a) a. annual; b. lunar; c. circadian (b)
Sample examples: a. ground squirrels
hibernating during the winter; b. fiddler
crabs emerging from their burrows at
low tide; c. mice and owls being active
at night and quiet during the day
(c) Cyclical behavior is influenced by
changes in the environment, including
temperature changes, variations in
availability of food, and likelihood
of predation.
Skeletal, Muscular, and
Integumentary Systems
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
c
b
d
c
d
a
b
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
b
d
d
a
a
d
b
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15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis
thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity
axial skeleton
flexors
oxygen debt, muscle soreness
hair follicles
a
c
b
c
a
Skeletal, Muscular, and
Integumentary Systems
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
f
13. a
h
14. d
e
15. d
g
16. d
a
17. d
c
18. b
d
19. a
b
20. d
b
21. c
d
22. b
c
23. d
b
Myosin filaments attach to actin filaments. The myosin filaments bend
inward, causing the actin filaments to
overlap. This shortens the length of
sarcomeres and causes the muscle to
contract.
25. The skin provides protection from and
interaction with the external environment, retains body fluids, eliminates
waste, and helps regulate body
temperature.
26. Tissue is a collection of cells that are
similar in structure and that work
together to perform a particular
function. An organ consists of
various tissues that enable the
organ to perform a specific function.
27. The epidermis, the tough outer layer
of skin, consists primarily of dead,
keratin-filled cells and serves as the
body’s protective barrier. The dermis,
the inner layer of skin, consists of
blood vessels, sensory neurons, hair
follicles, glands, and other structures
that enable the body to respond to
external stimuli.
28. Red bone marrow produces red blood
cells and some white blood cells.
Yellow bone marrow consists primarily of fat cells and serves as an energy
store.
29. a. ball-and-socket joint; b. hinge joint;
c. gliding joint
30. (a) biceps; flexor (b) triceps; extensor
(c) An insertion is the point where a
muscle attaches to a moving bone.
The insertion of a is the radius, and
the insertion of c is the ulna. (d) An
origin is the point where a muscle
attaches to a stationary bone. The
origin of both a and c is the scapula.
(e) elbow; hinge joint
Circulatory and
Respiratory Systems
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
d
10. a
a
11. a
c
12. b
d
13. c
c
14. a
d
15. b
b
16. e
d
17. d
c
venae cavae, right atrium
air pressure
alveoli
systemic circulation
acidic
atria
platelets
diaphagm, contracts
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to diffuse back into the blood from the
alveoli. (d) Red blood cells transport
oxygen and, to a lesser extent, carbon
dioxide. (e) In the lungs, bicarbonate
ions combine with a proton to form
carbonic acid, which in turn forms
carbon dioxide and water.
Circulatory and
Respiratory Systems
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
b
13. d
f
14. d
i
15. c
h
16. c
g
17. a
j
18. b
a
19. c
d
20. b
k
21. c
c
22. b
e
23. c
b
No; the problem associated with
the transfusion of whole blood is the
agglutination of the donor blood cells
caused by the antibodies of the recipient. There are no donor blood cells if
only plasma is being used; thus, there
is no need to know the blood type of
the donor.
Valves in the veins prevent the backflow of blood.
Systemic circulation is the circulation
of blood between the heart and all
other body tissues except the lungs.
Mucus decreases friction created by
the movement of the lungs during
breathing.
When a deep breath is taken, the chest
expands as rib muscles contract. The
rib cage expands and the diaphragm
contracts and moves downward. The
reduced air pressure in the thoracic
cavity causes air from the atmosphere
to move into the lungs.
a. aorta; b. superior vena cava; c. right
atrium; d. right ventricle; e. inferior
vena cava; f. pulmonary artery; g. left
atrium; h. pulmonary veins; i. left
ventricle
(a) concentration gradients (b) Carbon
dioxide is more concentrated in the
blood. (c) The concentration of oxygen
in alveoli decreases as the remaining
oxygen diffuses from alveoli into the
blood. In addition, the concentration
of carbon dioxide in alveoli increases,
causing the concentration gradient to
shift. This shift causes carbon dioxide
The Body’s Defense Systems
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
b
13. a
a
14. h
c
15. f
b
16. e
d
17. b
c
18. a
d
19. d
b
20. c
b
21. g
c
22. histamine
a
23. antigen
c
skin, mucous membranes
The most rapid division of B cells
occurs during the time period labeled
C because this is the interval during
which antibody production increases
at the fastest rate.
The Body’s Defense Systems
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
k
13. b
j
14. c
g
15. b
d
16. d
f
17. b
b
18. b
e
19. b
i
20. d
c
21. b
a
22. a
h
23. d
b
A primary difference is that the specific
recognition of an antigen is required to
activate the immune system’s specific
defenses. Specific recognition is not
required for nonspecific defenses.
25. When an injury such as a cut occurs,
damaged cells release histamine, which
increases blood flow to the wounded
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26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
area. Phagocytes and neutrophils then
engulf and destroy most of the
pathogens.
In an autoimmune disease, the immune
system responds to the body’s own
cells, attacking them as if they were
pathogens.
HIV mutates rapidly and suppresses
the immune system. These two characteristics make the development of an
effective HIV vaccine difficult.
No; it is possible to be infected with
HIV without showing the symptoms
associated with AIDS. Following
exposure to HIV, the immune system
is able to respond to and control the
virus for a limited time.
The first antibodies are produced during
the time period labeled b, or the cellmediated immune response. The most
rapid division of B cells occurs during
the time period labeled c, or the
humoral immune response.
(a) Presentation of antigen A by
macrophages is required for the
secretion of interleukin 2 (IL-2) by
helper T cells. (b) The unknown
substance prevents helper T cells from
secreting IL-2 even in the presence of
antigen A, which is presented by the
macrophages. (c) Answers will vary
but may include the following: The
unknown substance could bind to or
interfere with receptors on the surface
of helper T cells that recognize antigen
A. It could bind to antigen A as it is
presented by macrophages, preventing
the helper T cells from binding to the
antigen. It could inhibit production of
IL-2 by helper T cells. It could also
destroy interleukin-1 before it reaches
the T cells.
Digestive and
Excretory Systems
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
b
b
c
d
a
c
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
d
b
a
c
a
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
capillaries, lymphatic vessels
pancreas
collecting duct
nephron
renal cortex, renal medulla
rickets
iodine
mechanical digestion, chemical
digestion
4
1
3
5
2
6
Digestive and
Excretory Systems
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
m
13. j
h
14. c
f
15. c
g
16. c
i
17. b
e
18. a
c
19. d
a
20. c
l
21. b
d
22. b
b
23. d
k
Nutrients are chemical substances that
are necessary for organisms to function and grow properly.
25. Carbohydrates are broken down by a
series of enzymes within the digestive
system. The final product of carbohydrate digestion, glucose, is absorbed
through the wall of the small intestine
and transported to blood capillaries.
26. The lining of the stomach is composed
of cells that secrete mucus. The mucus
lines the stomach and prevents the
gastric fluid from contacting the
stomach cells.
27. The circulatory system is responsible
for removing metabolic wastes from
cells throughout the body. Blood
transports these wastes to the urinary
system, which subsequently excretes
them from the body. The intersection
of the two systems occurs at the
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glomerulus–Bowman’s capsule
complex.
28. No; bile is secreted by the liver and
stored in the gallbladder until released
into the small intestine.
29. Osmotic pressure in the kidney is
necessary for the reabsorption of
water from the filtrate into the
bloodstream.
30. (a) a. esophagus; b. liver; c. large
intestine, or colon; d. stomach;
e. small intestine; f. rectum (b) Liver;
the liver stores glycogen and breaks
down toxic substances, such as alcohol.
The liver also secretes bile, which is
vital in the digestion of fats. (c) In
mechanical digestion, the body physically breaks down chunks of food into
small particles that can be digested
easily. In chemical digestion, digestive
enzymes and fluids change the chemical
nature of nutrients so that the nutrients
can be absorbed and used by the body.
(d) Nutrients are absorbed into the
circulatory system through blood and
lymph vessels in the lining of the small
intestine. Nutrients are absorbed by
microvilli through diffusion and active
transport. (e) When the pH value in
the stomach is low, pepsin splits
complex proteins into peptides.
Nervous System and
Sense Organs
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
a
10. a
a
11. c
d
12. c
c
13. b
b
14. a
b
15. b
c
16. b
a
17. d
b
18. b
Taste buds
mechanoreceptors
olfactory
temporal
Signals are transmitted at a synapse
by neurotransmitters. When a nerve
impulse reaches the end of an axon,
neurotransmitters are released from
the presynaptic neuron into the synap-
tic cleft. The neurotransmitters move
across the synapse and bind to receptors on the postsynaptic cell. This
either excites or inhibits the postsynaptic cell.
24. Addiction is a physiological response
caused by the use of a drug that alters
the normal functioning of neurons and
synapses. Once a neuron or synapse
has been altered by a drug, it cannot
function normally unless the drug is
present.
25. Cocaine blocks the reuptake of
dopamine by the presynaptic neuron.
The excess dopamine overstimulates
the postsynaptic cell, which thereby
decreases the number of dopamine
receptors. This causes the postsynaptic
cell to become less sensitive, requiring
more cocaine for adequate stimulation.
Nervous System and
Sense Organs
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
l
13. f
m
14. b
e
15. d
c
16. d
i
17. d
k
18. d
a
19. d
g
20. b
h
21. a
j
22. c
d
23. c
b
An afferent neuron carries information
toward the central nervous system. An
efferent neuron carries information
away from the central nervous system.
25. During an action potential, the inside
of a neuron momentarily becomes
positively charged as sodium ions
rapidly flow into the cell. Potassium
ions then flow out of the cell to
reestablish the resting potential.
26. When the tendon below the patella is
stretched, a sensory neuron detects
stretching of the quadriceps. In the
spinal cord, the sensory neuron stimulates motor neurons that excite the
quadriceps. It also stimulates interneurons that inhibit motor neurons that
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27.
28.
29.
30.
stimulate the hamstrings. Thus, the
quadriceps contract, the hamstrings
relax, and the leg rapidly extends.
Saliva causes food to release chemicals
that can be detected by chemoreceptors
in taste buds (the sensory receptors
for taste). In response to the chemicals,
the taste buds transmit action potentials
to the thalamus and then to the cerebral
cortex, where taste is interpreted.
A neurotransmitter is a chemical
released by one neuron that has a
specific effect on another neuron.
Neurotransmitters diffuse across
synaptic clefts between neurons and
either increase or decrease the activity
of the postsynaptic neuron.
a. axon terminals; b. nodes of Ranvier;
c. Schwann cells; d. axon; e. cell body;
f. nucleus; g. dendrites
a. The graph illustrates the changes in
membrane potential that occur in a
neuron during an action potential.
b. The permeability of the membrane
changes when a dendrite or cell body
is stimulated by a neurotransmitter.
c. During period A sodium ions rapidly
flow into the cell, causing the inside
of the neuron to momentarily become
more positive than the outside.
d. During period B potassium ions
flow out of the cell, restoring the
resting potential of the cell membrane
(about –70 millivolts). e. The resting
potential must be restored before
another action potential can occur.
The period after an action potential
during which neurons cannot fire is
called the refractory period.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
Endocine System
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
25.
26.
Endocine System
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a
d
b
a
c
d
b
c
d
d
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
c
b
b
b
d
a
c
d
c
a
target cells
amino acid–based
hypothalamus
steroid, thyroid
melatonin
27.
28.
29.
e
13. j
k
14. c
i
15. b
c
16. b
m
17. a
a
18. c
g
19. d
l
20. c
b
21. c
d
22. b
f
23. b
h
Releasing hormones are chemicals
produced by neurosecretory cells that
regulate secretion of the anterior-pituitary hormones. Examples include
PRL-releasing hormone, TSH-releasing
hormone, LH-releasing hormone, FSHreleasing hormone, GH-releasing hormone, and ACTH-releasing hormone.
In a positive feedback mechanism, an
increase in the regulated hormone or
substance increases the secretion of
the regulating, or initial, hormone. In a
negative feedback mechanism, an
increase in the regulated hormone or
substance decreases the secretion of
the regulating hormone.
The requirement of a hormone binding
to a receptor: Without this event, the
correct target cell would not be recognized and the hormone would have no
effect.
Answers will vary but may include
that the transplanted islet cells secrete
insulin the way normal islet cells do.
“Hypoglandular” refers to a condition
of abnormally low gland activity, such
as hypothyroidism, type I diabetes
mellitus, and pituitary dwarfism.
Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble and
thus can diffuse through the lipid
bilayer of a target cell.
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30. (a) The immediate cause for not expe-
riencing puberty is a low level of
testosterone. (b) the hypothalamus
and the anterior pituitary (c) The anterior pituitary; because the injection of
LH-releasing hormone failed to
increase LH secretion, receptors on
LH-secreting cells of the anterior pituitary could be defective. Alternatively,
LH secretion from these cells could be
deficient. (d) In the negative feedback
mechanism, testosterone secretion
inhibits LH secretion from the anterior
pituitary. (e) Testosterone-secreting
cells in the testes could be unresponsive
to LH.
Reproductive System
Chapter Test B (Advanced)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
24.
Reproductive System
Chapter Test A (General)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
23.
d
12. c
c
13. b
c
14. a
a
15. d
d
16. a
d
17. c
c
18. f
a
19. g
b
20. h
a
21. e
d
22. b
A sperm cell consists of a head, a
midpiece, and a long tail. Enzymes in
the head help a sperm cell penetrate
an egg. The head also contains the
nucleus, which can fuse with the
nucleus of an egg cell. In the midpiece,
mitochondria produce ATP and supply
the energy that the sperm cell needs to
use its tail to propel itself through the
reproductive system.
24. During the second and third
trimesters, the fetus grows rapidly and
its organs become functional.
25. Prior to ovulation, increasing levels of
estrogen cause the lining of the uterus
to thicken. After ovulation, high levels
of both estrogen and progesterone
maintain the uterine lining and cause
it to thicken more. If pregnancy does
not occur, the levels of estrogen and
progesterone decrease, causing the
lining of the uterus to shed. This
marks the end of the menstrual cycle.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
k
13. j
e
14. c
m
15. d
l
16. b
a
17. b
g
18. c
c
19. d
i
20. d
d
21. b
b
22. a
f
23. c
h
The corpus luteum forms from the
follicle that ruptures during ovulation.
The corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen, which cause the
uterine lining to thicken.
No; menopause occurs when menstruation ceases after a woman’s follicles
have either ruptured or degenerated.
The epididymis conducts sperm from
the testis to the vas deferens, stores
sperm between ejaculations, and is
the site of the final steps of sperm
maturation.
No; ovulation normally occurs in one
ovary during each menstrual cycle.
Gennerally only one mature egg is
ovulated per cycle.
The cervix connects the vagina with
the uterus.
a. outer jellylike layer; b. cell membrane
of ovum; c. sperm head; d. sperm tail;
e. sperm midpiece; f. nucleus of ovum.
The diagram illustrates the fusion of a
sperm’s head region with an ovum’s
cell membrane—one of the steps
required for fertilization.
(a) a. egg cell; b. corpus luteum;
c. ovary; d. follicle. The diagram illustrates egg maturation and ovulation.
(b) FSH, LH, and estrogen (c) The
corpus luteum secretes estrogen and
progesterone, which cause the uterine
lining to thicken. (d) menstruation
(e) After ovulation, the egg is swept
into a fallopian tube and travels toward
the uterus. If the egg is not fertilized, it
dies within 48 hours of ovulation and
leaves the body during menstruation.
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Modern Biology
449
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Answer Key