Exercise Quiz
1) Here is beginning of a protein-encoding gene sequence.
’5AATCGGTTAAGCC 3’
1. Give the complementary sequence.
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2. Give RNA sequence of gene.
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3. Translate RNA sequence.
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2) This is an antisence of DNA séquence, get the sence, mRNA, and protein
sequences. 5’ A T G G G G C C C T T T A A A G G C T A A 3’
Antisense DNA -------------------------------------------------------------------Sense DNA -----------------------------------------------------------------------mRNA --------------------------------------------------------------------------Protein ---------------------------------------------------------------------------Proteins are made up of a string or amino acids
3) Is DNA a polymer?
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4) If a DNA molecule contains 10% Thymine, what percentages of thymine, guanine,
and cytosine are there?
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5) Chargaff's rule practice
 In humans, there is approximately 30% adenine. What is the percentage of
other nitrogenous bases?
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 In DNA, guanine is 10%. The content of adenine is
a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 40% (d) 20% (e) 10%
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7) True/False questions
1- What is the backbone of DNA? → alternating phosphate groups and deoxyribose
sugars
(
)
2- What holds the nitrogen bases together in DNA? → They are held together by
hydrogen bonds
(
)
3- What is the shape of DNA? → double helix (twisted ladder) -two strands twisted
together
(
)
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8) Multiple choice questions
1.Chargaff's rule
a) Pyrimidines are the single ring bases
b) Purines are the double ring bases
c) Percentages of Adenine and Thymine bases are equal
2. What is the pairing arrangement of nitrogen bases in DNA?
a) Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine
b) Adenine pairs with Thymine and Cytosine pairs with Guanine
c) Alternating phosphate groups and deoxyribose sugars
d) Double helix (twisted ladder) - two strands twisted together
3. What is one strand of DNA in terms of nucleotides?
a) Thymine and cytosine
b) Millions of nucleotides
c) Adenine and guanine
d) A polymer of nucleotides
4. How many nucleotides does one strand of DNA have
a) A polymer of nucleotides
b) Millions of nucleotides
c) adenine and guanine
d) Thymine and cytosine
5. What is the name for when DNA makes another copy of itself?
a) transcription
b) translation
c) replication
d) duplication
6. What is the name for when the RNA info is read and turned into a protein?
a) transcription
b) transcribation
c) translation
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d) replication
7. In translation, the language of the bases is turned into the language of ___.
a) proteins
b) amino acids
c) nucleic acids
d) nucleotides
8. Where does transcription take place?
a) nucleus
b) cytoplasm
c) rough ER
d) mitochondrion
9. Where does translation take place?
a) nucleus
b) smooth ER
c) lysosome
d) cytoplasm
10. What is the name for this RNA --> proteins?
a) translation
b) transcription
c) replication
d) none of these
11. The genetic code is read three "letters" at a time, so that each "word" is three
bases long and corresponds to a single amino acid. What is each three-letter "word"
in mRNA know as?
a) an anitcodon
b) a codon
c) a decoding band
d) a gene
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12. Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?
a) nitrogenous base
b) nucleic acid
c) cholesterol
d) fatty acid
13. DNA codes for...
a) cholesterol
b) proteins
c) fatty acids
d) carbohydrates
14. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a) ATG TGA CAG
b) TAC ACT GTC
c) GTA AGT GAC
d) CAT TCA CTG
15. Looking at the mRNA strand, how many codons are there.
UCGAGACU
a) 8
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1
16. A long strand of RNA nucleotides that are formed complementary to one strand
of DNA. They also travel from the nucleus to the ribosome to direct the making of a
specific protein.
a) tRNA
b) rRNA
c) DNA
d) mRNA
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17. What is the correct DNA complementary base to AAT CGT TAC
a) AAT GCA TAC
b) TTA CGT ATG
c) TTA GCA ATG
d) UUA GCA AUG
18. Which is a difference between DNA and RNA
a) RNA is double stranded
b) RNA is not made of nucleotides
c) RNA contains Uracil instead of Thymine
d) RNA does not contain a sugar
19. Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a) DNA-protein-RNA
b) Protein-RNA-DNA
c) RNA-protein-DNA
d) DNA-RNA-protein
20. What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code
AUGCCAGUAUGA
a) Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b) Met-Pro-Val
c) Tyr-Gly-His
d) Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
21. Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA
template: TGGCAAGTACGT
a) ACCGTTCATGCA
b) UGGCAAGUACGU
c) UCCGUUCUUGCU
d) ACCGUUCAUGCA
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Exercise Quiz
Choose the correct answer
1. PCR is a DNA amplifying in vivo method ______
a) True
b) False
2. Which of the following is a mismatch?
a) Polymerase – Taq polymerase
b) Template – double stranded DNA
c) Primer – oligonucleotide
d) Synthesis – 5’ to 3’ direction
3. Annealing of primer is facilitated by complementary region ___________
a) True
b) False
4. Primer used for the process of polymerase chain reaction are ______________
a) Single stranded DNA oligonucleotide
b) Double stranded DNA oligonucleotide
c) Single stranded RNA oligonucleotide
d) Double stranded RNA oligonucleotide
5. Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from _____________
a) Escherichia coli
b) Homo sapiens
c) Thermus aquaticus
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
6. How many DNA duplex is obtained from one DNA duplex after 4 cycles of PCR?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
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7. At what temperature do denaturation of DNA double helix takes place?
a) 60˚
b) 54˚
c) 74˚
d) 94˚
8. At what temperature do annealing of DNA and primer takes place?
a) 42˚
b) 54˚
c) 74˚
d) 96˚
9. The temperature at which DNA synthesis takes place is 74˚C _______________
a) True
b) False
10. What would be the effect on the PCR reaction if any of the following
circumstances arose: 1) there are no primers in the reaction, 2) there are no dNTPs
in the reaction, 3) there is no Taq polymerase in the reaction?
a) PCR would proceed normally
b) Non-specific PCR of random templates will occur
c) The reaction will cease after a few cycles
d) The PCR reaction will not commence
11. What would the generally expected effect on the PCR reaction be of adjustments
that increase the temperature of the annealing phase and the length of the elongation
phase?
a) Precision and yield will be reduced
b) Precision will be reduced, but yield will be increased
c) Precision will be increased, but yield will be reduced
d) Precision and yield will be increased
12. In principle, what outcome would be least expected in a failure to separate prePCR and post-PCR activities?
a) False positive reactions
b) False negative reactions
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c) Mixed or non-specific PCR products
d) Increased reliability of PCR results
13. What outcome would you least expect if the amount of template in a multiplex
PCR fell significantly below the optimal amount?
a) Longer targets amplify poorly or fail to amplify
b) Allelic drop out
c) Increased yield
d) Heterozygote imbalance
14. What would the expected effect be on a PCR reaction if the primers used were
slightly shorter and more variable than the intended oligonucleotide sequences?
a) The PCR reaction would not commence
b) The PCR reaction would end after one cycle
c) The reaction would generate a single short PCR product
d) The reaction would yield a mixture of non-specific products
15. hat are the three basic steps of conventional PCR?
a. Denature, anneal, & strand displacement
b. Denature, anneal & extension
c. Strand displacement, synthesis & release
d. Reverse-transcription, anneal & extend
16. Which of the following is not a stage of PCR
a. Decay
b. Plateau
c. Stochastic / lag
d. Exponential
17. A PCR efficiency of ‘2’ means
a. 100% efficiency / initial target copies are doubled by the end of the reaction
b. 95% efficiency / each target copy is doubled every cycle
c. 100% efficiency / each target copy is doubled every cycle
d. 95% efficiency / initial target copies are doubled by the end of the reaction
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Exercise Quiz
Choose the correct answer
1. RNA is copied into complementary DNA (cDNA) by:
a. Taq DNA polymerase
b. RNA polymerase II
c. Reverse transcriptase
d. Uracil-N-Glycosylase
2. The reverse transcriptase reaction can be primed by
a. Target sequence specific primers
b. Random hexamers
c. Oligo dT primers
d. All of the above
3.The cycle threshold is:
a. The total number of cycles performed during a real-time PCR reaction
b. The cycle that a sample crosses a certain point during a real-time PCR reaction
c. The cycle number that a sample enters the plateau phase of PCR
d. None of the above
4. Which of the following is an advantage of nested PCR (nPCR)?
a. Provides a quantitative assessment of initial starting copy number
b. Second round PCR products can be a source of laboratory contamination
c. Is less time consuming than single round conventional PCR
dTypically has high sensitivity and specificity
5. Which of the following is not an advantage of quantitative PCR (qPCR)
a. Reliable indicator of viable infection
b. No post-PCR handling of products
c. Highly sensitive, specific and repeatable
d. Can obtain quantitative results
6. Which is not a property of real-time PCR assays?
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57
a. Incorporate dyes that bind double-stranded DNA
b. Incorporate an internal hydrolysis probe
c. Be performed at single temperature with no specialized instrumentation required
d. Be interpreted as a plus / minus result or as a quantitative result
7. Which of the following is not a method for stabilizing RNA
a. 95% ethanol
b. Liquid nitrogen
c. RNA later
8. DNA is typically more stable than RNA
a. True
b. False
9. Primers must be stored at -80°C
a. True
b. False
10. Samples of known concentration/copy number used to construct a standard
curve are called:
a. Controls
b. Standards
c. Exogenous normalizing variables
d. Endogenous normalizing variables
11. Various samples that ensure the validity of positive and negative results are
called
a. Controls
b. Standards
c. Exogenous normalizing variables
d. Endogenous normalizing variables
12. Expression of a housekeeping gene would be an example of a
a. Control
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b. Standard
c. Exogenous normalizing variable
d. Endogenous normalizing variable
13. RNA is highly stable and can be frozen and thawed many times without
degrading.
a. True
b. False
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Ain Shams University
Faculty of Agriculture
Practical exam of Molecular Genetics for the 3rd
level students - Biotechnology Program
2018/2019
(Model 2)
Genetics Department
Question
Number
1st Semester
Answer
A
B
C
D
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Practical Molecularr Genetics (2019)
60
Ain Shams University
Faculty of Agriculture
Practical exam of Molecular Genetics for the 3rd
level students - Biotechnology Program
Genetics Department
1st Semester
(Model 2)
2018/2019
1. Choose the correct answer and submit your answer to the external answer sheet:
1) DNA washing occurs using ………………. ethanol
a) 95%
b) 70%
c) 60%
d) 30%
2) Free nucleotides in PCR reaction act as …………….
a) DNA primer
b) Co-enzyme
c) Building blocks
d) Adjust pH
3) ………………technique is consider as a dominant technique
a) RT-PCR
b) qRT-PCR
c) RAPD
d) SSR
4) How many bands will amplified during PCR?
a) Zero
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
5) …………….... technique uses probe
a) qRT-PCR
b) RAPD
c) RT-PCR
d) SSRs
6) This gel refers to ……………… technique.
a) SSRs
b) RT-PCR
c) RAPD
d) qRT-PCR
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7) During DNA extraction, phenol removes ……..……..
a) NaCl
b) Protein
c) RNA
d) SDS
8) Manual-RNA extraction yields …………..
a) High overall yield
b) Low overall yield
c) More than kit-based method
d) No yield
9) The genotype for the sample two (2) is…
a) A1A2
b) A2A3
c) aaB-C-ddee
d) A-B-C-D-E-
10) Before RNA extraction, materials treat with ………………
a) RNases
b) NaCl
c) EDTA
d) DEPC
11) The dye that stains DNA samples in the gel electrophoresis, is……………….
a) SYPR green
b) Ethidium bromide
c) Coomassie brilliant blue
d) Bromophenol blue
12) The enzyme that responsible for synthesis cDNA depending on RNA template called …..
a) Taq polymerase
b) Reverse transcriptase
c) DNA primase
d) DNA polymerase
13) During DNA extraction, EDTA acts as ……………
a) Chelating agent
b) Disruption cell membrane
c) Disruption cell wall
d) DNase inhibitor
14) In SYBR green assay, the SYBR green has fluorescence when it be ……………
a) Bound with single stranded DNA
b) Bound with double stranded DNA
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c) Unbound with DNA
d) In both cases
15) ……………. technique uses random primers.
a) RAPD
b) SSRs
c) Both of them
d) No one of them
16) DNA precipitating occurs using ………………. ethanol
a) 30%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 95%
17) The Isoamyl function during RNA purification is a/an ……………… agent
a) Anti-chelating
b) Anti-foaming
c) Chelating
d) Foaming
18) Enzymes which degrade DNA are called …………………
a) DNA polymerases
b) DNA primases
c) DNases
d) Taq
19) Quantitation of DNA occurs using …….
a) Spectrophotometer
b) Reverse transcription
c) Real time PCR
d) Gel electrophoresis
20) Translation of the following mRNA strand 5’AUGACUAAUUAAUUAGUA3’, is …
a) Met -Thr- Asn- Stop
b) Met- leu- trp- Stop
c) Met -Ile- Asn- Stop
d) Met- Asn- Arg- Stop
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Ain Shams University
Faculty of Agriculture
Practical exam of Molecular Genetics for the 3rd
level students - Biotechnology Program
Question
Number
2018/2019
(Model 1)
Genetics Department
1st Semester
Answer
A
B
C
D
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Practical Molecularr Genetics (2019)
64
Ain Shams University
Faculty of Agriculture
Practical exam of Molecular Genetics for the 3rd
level students - Biotechnology Program
Genetics Department
(Model 1)
1st Semester
2018/2019
Q1. Choose the correct answer and submit your answer to the external answer sheet:
21) DNA precipitation occurs using ………………. ethanol
e) 30%
f) 60%
g) 70%
h) 95%
22) Magnesium chloride in PCR reaction acts as …………….
e) Adjust pH
f) Building blocks
g) Co-enzyme
h) DNA primer
23) Before RNA extraction, materials treat with ………………
e) DEPC
f) EDTA
g) NaCl
h) RNases
24) The dye that allows the samples to be seen when loading onto the gel, and increases the density of the
samples, is……………….
e) Bromophenol blue
f) Coomassie brilliant blue
g) Ethidium bromide
h) SYPR green
25) The enzyme that responsible for synthesis cDNA depending on RNA template called …..
e) DNA polymerase
f) DNA primase
g) Reverse transcriptase
h) Taq polymerase
26) ………………technique is consider as a Co-dominant technique
e) ISSR
f) qRT-PCR
g) RAPD
h) SSR
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27) How many bands will amplified during PCR?
e) Zero
f) One
g) Two
h) Three
28) The probe that used in TaqMan assay match……………..
a) After reverse primer
b) At promoter sequence
c) Before forward primer
d) Between forward and reverse primer
29) This gel refers to ……………… technique.
e) qRT-PCR
f) RAPD
g) RT-PCR
h) SSRs
30) During DNA extraction, ammonium acetate removes ……..……..
e) NaCl
f) Protein
g) RNA
h) SDS
31) Kit-RNA extraction yields …………..
e) High overall yield
f) Low overall yield
g) More than any manual method
h) No yield
32) The genotype for the sample two (2) is…
e) A1A2
f) A2A3
g) aaB-C-dd
h) A-B-C-D-
33) During DNA extraction, sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) acts as ……………
e) Chelating agent
f) Disruption cell membrane
g) Disruption cell wall
h) DNase inhibitor
34) In SYBR green assay, the SYBR green has no-fluorescence when it be ……………
e) Bound with single stranded DNA
f) Bound with double stranded DNA
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g) Unbound with DNA
h) In both cases
35) ……………. technique uses specific primers.
e) RAPD
f) SSRs
g) Both of them
h) No one of them
36) DNA washing occurs using ………………. ethanol
e) 30%
f) 60%
g) 70%
h) 95%
37) The Isoamyl function during RNA purification is a/an ……………… agent
e) Chelating
f) Foaming
g) Anti-chelating
h) Anti-foaming
38) Enzymes which degrade RNA are called …………………
e) RNA polymerases
f) RNA primases
g) RNases
h) Reverse transcriptases
39) Quantitation of DNA occurs using …….
e) Gel electrophoresis
f) Real time PCR
g) Reverse transcription
h) Spectrophotometer
40) Translation of the following mRNA strand 5’AUGAAUCGGUAAUCAGUA3’, is …
e) Met- Asn- Arg- Stop
f) Met -Thr- Asn- Stop
g) Met -Ser- Gly Asn- Gly- Stop
h) Met- leu- trp- Stop
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