Upper Level SSAT
Practice Test 2
Writing Sample
Time - 25 Minutes
1 Topic
Writing Sample
Schools would like to get to know you better through a an essay you write. If you choose to write a personal essay, base
your essay on the topic presented in A. If you choose to write a general essay, base your essay on the topic presented
in B. Please fill in the circle next to your choice.
A Describe a time you encountered an obstacle and how you dealt with
it.
B Describe what you believe is the world’s most important invention
and why.
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
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375
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376
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
Section 1
Time - 30 Minutes
25 Questions
1
Following each problem in this section, there are five suggested answers. Work each problem in your head or in the
blank space provided at the right of the page. Then look at the five suggested answers and decide which one is best.
Note: Figures that accompany problems in this section are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated
in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.
Sample Problem:
5,413
– 4,827
1.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
586
596
696
1,586
1,686
A
B
C
D
E
If 12 ´ B = 24, then 24 – B =
(A) 0
(B)
1
24
(C) 2
(D) 12
(E) 22
2.
When 7,497 is divided by 198, the result is closest to
which one of the following?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
25
30
40
45
450
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
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377
3.
Based on the figure provided, approximately how much
snow accumulated during the 7 hours?
Hour
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
4.
inches of snow
2.3
3.5
5.4
6.0
3.9
1.2
0.8
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
1
6 in
11 in
20 in
23 in
24 in
0.025 ´ 30 =
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
5.
0.0075
0.075
0.075
0.75
7.5
If Z > 3, then 5Z + 7 could be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
19
20
21
22
23
3
3
- 2
6.
(A)
9
6
(B)
27
8
(C)
-
9
6
(D) -
9
8
(E)
27
8
-
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378
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
7.
A large square box is made up of smaller square boxes.
Each of these smaller boxes has a side length of 4 inches.
How many of these smaller boxes are used to create the
larger box if the larger box’s base has a perimeter of 32
inches?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
8.
1
4
8
16
64
124
Evaluate: (–15) + (–19) + 39
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
9.
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
–73
–5
0
5
73
What is the value of the greatest of four consecutive
integers if the greatest is three less than one-third of
the least?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
–9
–6
0
6
9
10. The perimeter of a hexagon is 42 units. If the length
of each side is reduced by 3 units, what is the perimeter
of the new figure?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
20
24
30
36
39
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
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379
Questions 11 and 12 are based on the accompanying graph.
11. What fraction of the people chose Documentary?
3
(A)
8
(B)
(C)
1
4
1
5
(D)
3
20
(E)
1
8
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
FAVORITE MOVIE GENRE
Documentary
200
Romance
240
Thriller
320
12. The number of people who chose Romance is what
percent of the number of people who chose Thriller?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
1
Action
400
Comedy
440
25%
50%
67%
75%
90%
13. A particular entrance is 84 inches tall. Kyle is planning a
costume party and wants to enter the room through this
doorway. If Kyle is 1.5 meters tall, the tallest hat he can
place on his head and still be able to walk through the doorway without his hat touching the frame of the entrance must
be less than which of the following?
(1 m = 39 in)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
24 in
25 in
25.5 in
39 in
58.5 in
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380
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
14. Carol works 60 yards from the coffee shop, and Mike
works 80 yards from the same coffee shop. What is
the distance, in yards, from Carol’s place of work to
Mike’s place of work?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
15.
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
1
10 yards
20 yards
100 yards
140 yards
It cannot be determined from the information given.
3-2 a 2 b-4
=
9c 3 d -6
(A)
a 2 c3
81b-4 d -6
(B)
a2
3b-4 c 3 d -6
a2d 6
81c 3b 4
2 6
(D) a d
18c 3b 4
2 6
(E) a d
c 3b 4
(C)
)
16. 5 855 =
8 5 5
(A)
+ +
5 5 5
(B)
80 55
+
5
5
(C)
850
+5
5
(D)
800 50 5
+
+
5
5
5
(E)
800 50 5
´
´
5
5
5
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
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381
17. For a certain number, 40% of that number is 240. What is
60% of that number?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
1
60
100
260
360
2,400
18. The length of a rectangle is four times its width. If the
perimeter of the rectangle is 50, what is the area of the
rectangle?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
5
10
20
50
100
19. In the figure, P is the center of the circle, and triangle QPR
is a right triangle with vertices Q and P on the circle. If the
circumference of the circle is 12p, what is the area of the
shaded region?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
36 – 18p
18p – 36
9p – 18
18 – 9p
It cannot be determined from the information given.
Q
R
P
20. Which of the following gives the value, in cents, of a dimes,
b quarters, and 6 pennies?
(A)
10 25
+
+1
a
b
(B)
10 25
+
+6
a
b
(C) 10a + 10b + 6
(D) 10a + 25b + 1
(E) 10a + 25b + 6
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382
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
21. If 70% of 3k is 12, what is 35% of 6k?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2
6
12
24
28
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
1
22. What is the fifth term of the following sequence?
1,
1
1
5
, - , - , ____
4
2
4
(A) - 5
2
(B)
-
7
4
(C) –2
(D) - 9
4
(E)
-
9
2
23. A survey found that each of 400 people has a smart phone,
a tablet, or both. If 350 of these people have smart phones,
and 150 have tablets, how many people have both a smart
phone and a tablet?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
50
100
150
200
250
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
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383
24. If y is an integer greater than 1, which of the following is
greatest?
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
(A) y + 2
(B) 2y + 2
(C) 2y – 2
1
y
(D)
y+
(E)
y +1
y
25. What is the sum of the exterior angles of an equilateral
triangle?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
60°
90°
120°
240°
360°
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
384
|
Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
1
Upper Level SSAT
Section 2
2
Time - 40 Minutes
40 Questions
Read each passage carefully and then answer the questions about it. For each question, decide on the basis of the
passage which one of the choices best answers the question.
The reading passages in this test are brief excerpts or adaptations of excerpts from published material. To make the text
suitable for testing purposes, we may have, in some cases, altered the style, contents, or point of view of the original.
Since the early 1900s, the temperature of the air and sea at Earth’s surface has increased approximately
0.8°C (1.8°F), and roughly 66% of that increase has taken place in the last 30 years. Scientists are nearly
certain that this increase, commonly known as ‘global warming,’ is caused primarily by rising concentrations
of greenhouse gases, which are produced by human activities such as fossil fuel combustion and deforestation.
The long-term effects of global warming will differ around the world and will likely include an increase
in sea levels, more frequent extreme weather occurrences, and the extinction of species due to changes in
temperature. Most countries are part of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change and
have agreed that major cuts in emissions are required to stem the tide of global warming.
1.
This passage was likely an excerpt from
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2.
a romance novel
a dictionary
a political advertisement
a poem
a newspaper article
According to the passage, global warming
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
3.
has escalated in the last 30 years
began well before the nineteenth century
is caused entirely by humans
will have negligible long-term effects
is tapering off
This passage is mostly about
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
4.
deforestation
fossil fuel combustion
need for reduced emissions
warming of the air and sea
possible causes and effects of climate change
This passage gives evidence to answer which of the
following questions?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
When did global warming begin?
How will global warming be slowed?
Which countries are taking steps to cut emissions?
How much has the global temperature increased in
the last 30 years?
(E) What will the lasting consequences of global
warming be?
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
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385
5
10
15
20
5.
Born to a teenage mother, choreographer Alvin Ailey grew up in Texas in the
1940s, when racial segregation was rampant. After moving to Los Angeles during
his preteen years, Ailey began dancing during high school. A friend introduced him
to the Horton Dance Company, where Lester Horton became a significant influence
on his dance style. When the opportunity to perform on Broadway came along,
Ailey moved to New York and sought a new dance studio. Unable to find one like
the Horton Dance Company, he started his own group, and the Alvin Ailey American
Dance Theater was born.
The Alvin Ailey American Dance Theater has since become one of the most
revolutionary dance companies in the world. The company debuted a unique
experience for the audience, combining multiple dance influences with theatrical
elements. Ailey was particularly proud that his company was multiracial and that
hiring decisions were always made based solely on a dancer’s talent—not his race.
The company’s overseas travel began in 1962, when the US State Department
sponsored its first overseas tour. In the five decades since then, the Alvin Ailey
American Dance Theater has performed for an estimated 25 million people in theaters
in 48 states in the US and in 71 countries on six continents—and that doesn’t include
the millions who have watched the company perform through television broadcasts.
This organization, which started out of one man’s vision of enriching American
dance customs and preserving the distinctiveness of the African-American cultural
experience, was designated “a vital American cultural ambassador to the world” in
a 2008 US Congressional resolution.
The author’s primary purpose is to
8.
(A) explain how one dance company has impacted
others
(B) describe the evolution of one dance company
(C) compare the philosophies of several dance
companies
(D) promote multiracial dance companies
(E) discuss one dancer’s influences
6.
Without changing the author’s intent, “elements”
(line 12) could be replaced by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
7.
items
particles
aspects
hints
roots
2
The author implies which of the following about the
Horton Dance Company?
(A) It was founded in the 1940s.
(B) It had a style that appealed to Alvin Ailey.
(C) It was comprised entirely of African American
dancers.
(D) Its dancers traveled internationally.
(E) It became well known for its diversity.
9.
Ailey’s attitude toward the use of race in making hiring
decisions was
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
critical
ambivalent
supportive
subjective
sarcastic
The author’s attitude toward the Alvin Ailey American
Dance Theater can most accurately be described as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
guarded skepticism
appreciative enthusiasm
puzzled uncertainty
restrained adoration
sullen resentment
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386
|
Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
On the 18th of August, 1920, I walked into the Tennessee state legislature, gripping
my mother’s letter and wearing my anti-suffrage red rose boutonniere. On this day, 35
other states had already ratified the 19th Amendment to the US Constitution. Only one
more state’s vote was necessary to finally grant suffrage to women. The measure had
already passed through the State Senate, but progress stalled when the vote came up
before the House of Representatives. We had lobbied for weeks, firmly against the idea of
allowing women to vote, with still others in the opposite corner. Pro- and anti-suffragists
had descended upon Nashville in swarms, and it seemed that, even after a motion to
table the vote was defeated in a tie, today’s vote would not allow the amendment to pass
its last barrier en route to adoption. As the proceedings began, words from my mother’s
letter rang in my head: “Hurrah, and vote for suffrage! Don’t keep them in doubt.” When
asked for my vote on the matter, my response was so quick, the looks of surprise on my
fellow legislators’ faces could not be disguised. With that single utterance, a half-century
of activism by the likes of Susan B. Anthony and Alice Paul came to an end. The next
day, I shared: “I know that a mother’s advice is always safest for her boy to follow.”
10. Which of the following events occurred in August 1920?
(A) Women began campaigning for equal rights.
(B) Women were granted equal employment
opportunities.
(C) Pro- and anti-suffragists traveled to Nashville.
(D) Susan B. Anthony was born.
(E) The 19th Amendment was defeated.
11. In the context of the passage, suffrage most likely means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
right to work
right to bear arms
right to vote
right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness
right to free speech
2
13. According to the passage, the red rose was a symbol of
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
anti-suffrage beliefs
the author’s love for his mother
Nashville
Susan B. Anthony
nothing
14. The author’s main purpose in writing this passage was
most likely to
(A) tell a fictional story
(B) explain the challenges of the women’s suffrage
movement
(C) recount a significant event in his life
(D) criticize anti-suffrage beliefs
(E) compare women’s suffrage to equal rights
12. You can tell that the author had previously voted against
women’s suffrage because
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
his mother’s letter said “don’t keep them in doubt”
he knew a mother’s advice is always best to follow
the Senate had voted against the bill
his colleagues were surprised by his affirmative
vote
(E) he was wearing a yellow rose
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
|
387
Florence Nightingale was born into a rich, well-connected British family, and if her
parents had had their way, she would have married a rich gentleman and settled into
a conventional upper-class woman’s life. Alas, at 17 she had several encounters that
she felt were calls from God, compelling her to serve others; by 24 she renounced her
parents’ wishes and undertook the task of educating herself to become a nurse.
During the Crimean War, Florence Nightingale and a team of 38 volunteer nurses—
whom she had trained herself—were sent to the Ottoman Empire, near modern day
Istanbul. When they arrived, they found soldiers receiving poor care from overworked
doctors, living in squalor, and developing infections as a result of neglected hygiene.
Nutrition was paltry and supplies were extremely limited, which Nightingale believed
profoundly influenced the death rate. Ultimately, her experience in Crimea led her to
advocate for sanitary living conditions, which reduced peacetime deaths in the army and
influenced how future hospitals were designed. After two years in Crimea, Nightingale
returned to England and established the Nightingale Training School for nurses at St.
Thomas’ Hospital. After nurse training, nurses were sent all over Britain to work in
hospitals using the Nightingale model. Florence Nightingale’s theories, particularly
regarding sanitation, military health, and hospital planning, still influence the medical
field today.
15. It can be inferred that Nightingale’s parents believed that
(A) maintaining sanitary conditions was a necessary
component of overall good health
(B) Nightingale should not have gone to the Ottoman
Empire
(C) nursing was an inappropriate vocation for an upperclass woman
(D) Nightingale was too young to decide her own
career
(E) Nightingale should have become a nun
16. The author implies that Nightingale believed soldiers
were dying especially from
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
unsanitary conditions
poor medical care from overworked doctors
fetid living conditions
inadequate nutrition
infections
17. According to the author, upper-class women of Nightingale’s generation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
pursued a variety of interests
had few vocational options
typically got married
went to college
followed callings from God
2
18. According to the passage, upon her return to England,
Nightingale
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
found soldiers receiving poor care
got married
advocated for sanitary conditions
influenced hospital planning
established a nursing school
19. It can be inferred that Nightingale believed in
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
fulfilling her parents’ aspirations
God
the Crimean War
conforming to conventions
St. Thomas
20. The author refers to modern-day Istanbul as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
the Ottoman Empire
the location of St. Thomas’ hospital
Nightingale’s first nursing assignment
an area near which Nightingale worked
Nightingale’s birthplace
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388
|
Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
More than fifty years ago, Jane Goodall arrived in Tanganyika (now Tanzania), East
Africa, where she planned to study chimpanzees in what would become Gombe Stream
National Park. At that time, there was not much known about chimpanzees, and scientists
hoped that studying these animals would lead to insights about human evolution.
At first, the chimpanzees fled from Jane, but she persisted, climbing peaks to watch
them through binoculars, and hiding behind palm fronds when she came near them
during her hikes.
Jane made a major discovery just a few months after she first arrived in Gombe,
when she observed a chimp feeding on a baby pig. Until then, scientists had believed
that chimpanzees were vegetarians; further studies showed the chimps frequently
hunting smaller animals.
An even more significant discovery occurred just weeks after she first saw chimps
eating meat: she watched two chimps strip the leaves off twigs in order to fashion tools
they used to dig termites out of a termite mound. This was revolutionary because up
until this time anthropologists considered tool-making a distinctly human characteristic.
The research Jane was conducting was beginning to blur the lines distinguishing humans
from apes.
21. The passage is primarily about
(A) how chimpanzees accepted Goodall’s presence
(B) discovering similarities between chimpanzees and
humans
(C) creating a national park
(D) teaching chimps to make tools
(E) learning about chimpanzee mating rituals
22. According to the passage, studying chimpanzees is helpful because
(A) their hunting habits can be replicated by humans
(B) they are an endangered species
(C) anthropologists may learn more about human
evolution
(D) they are hunted by larger animals
(E) their population is on the rebound
23. The passage implies that scientists
2
24. It can be inferred from the passage that Gombe Stream
National Park was
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Tanganyika’s first national park
the best place to study chimpanzees
not a national park when Jane first arrived
the first place Jane ever studied chimpanzees
was a hard place to study chimpanzees
25. The author indicates the line between humans and
chimps was blurring because
(A) the chimpanzees’ dietary needs are very similar to
that of humans
(B) the chimpanzees look very much like humans
(C) the evolution of chimpanzees and humans is very
comparable
(D) the chimpanzees could do something that only
humans were thought to do
(E) chimpanzees and humans are both shy and do not
like to be watched
(A) have completed learning about chimpanzees in the
last fifty years
(B) thought making tools was common among many
species
(C) had believed chimpanzees did not eat meat
(D) had never studied chimpanzees more than fifty
years ago
(E) believed chimpanzees were very similar to humans
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
|
389
On July 13, 1863, New York City saw the most destructive civil disturbance in
its history, a direct response to the U.S. government’s attempt to enforce the draft.
Only recently had the U.S. Congress passed a law that required all men between the
ages of 20 and 45 to register to be drafted into military service. The idea of serving in
5 the war wasn’t the problem. Instead, the devil was in the details: conscription could
be avoided with a simple payment of only three hundred dollars.
In the middle of the Civil War, inflation was sky-high, competition for jobs was
immense, and racial tension and prejudice were monumental. A vast majority of those
affected by the law were incredibly poor, and thus could never dream of paying the
10 three hundred dollar sum. This combination of economic hardship, political struggle,
and ethnic strife came to a head in the New York Draft Riots. Government buildings
were burned, and on July 15, 1863, rioters fought with troops who had been sent in
to restore order. By the time all was said and done, 119 people perished—most of
them rioters, but some were black New Yorkers who fell prey to racists who used
15 them as scapegoats for perceived injustices.
26. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?
(A) The New York Draft Riots were the worst civil
disturbance in New York City history.
(B) Racism caused the New York Draft Riots.
(C) Poor men didn’t want to serve in the Civil War.
(D) The New York Draft Riots occurred because of a
variety of factors.
(E) The New York Draft Riots could have been
avoided.
27. It can be inferred that
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
all rioters were between the ages of 20 and 45
no rioters were black New Yorkers
more than 100 people died in the riots
July 1863 was the first time the U.S. government
attempted to enforce the draft
(E) black New Yorkers took jobs from white New
Yorkers
2
29. Which of the following is probably true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The New York Draft Riots lasted only a few days.
All of the rioters were white.
The U.S. government wanted to incite riots.
The U.S. government hoped to raise money
through the draft avoidance payment.
(E) Men under the age of 20 could not be drafted.
30. In the context of the passage, the word strife (line 11)
most nearly means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
conflict
heritage
identity
understanding
neighborhood
28. According to the author, some rioters
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
took their frustrations out on innocent people
were not poor
were black
paid 300 dollars
disapproved of the Civil War
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390
|
Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
While with reverence and resignation we contemplate the dispensations of Divine
Providence in the alarming and destructive pestilence with which several of our cities
and towns have been visited, there is cause for gratitude and mutual congratulations
that the malady has disappeared and that we are again permitted to assemble in safety
5 at the seat of Government for the discharge of our important duties. But when we
reflect that this fatal disorder has within a few years made repeated ravages in some
of our principal sea ports, and with increased malignancy, and when we consider the
magnitude of the evils arising from the interruption of public and private business,
whereby the national interests are deeply affected, I think it my duty to invite the
10 Legislature of the Union to examine the expediency of establishing suitable regulations
in aid of the health laws of the respective States; for these being formed on the idea
that contagious sickness may be communicated through the channels of commerce,
there seems to be a necessity that Congress, who alone can regulate trade, should
frame a system which, while it may tend to preserve the general health, may be
15 compatible with the interests of commerce and the safety of the revenue.
31. What best summarizes the main point of the passage?
(A) Congress has the power to regulate trade.
(B) Congress should enact laws related to public health.
(C) An absence of order is inconsistent with a free
society.
(D) Good manners are as important in government as
in private business.
(E) Religion must remain a part of public and private
life.
2
33. The “ravages in some of our principal sea ports”
(lines 6-7) refers to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
losses during a battle
damage from a hurricane
spoilage of food to be shipped
disease affecting people in business
work stoppages relating to a bitter strike
34. It can be inferred from the passage that Congress
32. The author expresses gratitude that
(A) a disease has vanished and Congress may without
worry meet
(B) Congress has the ability to enact laws to protect
health
(C) sea ports were unaffected by a recent health
problem
(D) commerce and revenue continue to grow
(E) public and private business have been cleansed
of evil
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
has failed in its duties
has power to regulate commerce
is revered by the people
previously passed health laws
raised insufficient revenues
35. The word “visited” (line 3) most closely corresponds to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
called upon
joined in
traveled
remained
afflicted
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391
By eight o’clock everything was ready, and we were on the other side of the river.
We jumped into the stage, the driver cracked his whip, and we bowled away and left “the
States” behind us. It was a superb summer morning, and all the landscape was brilliant
with sunshine. There was a freshness and breeziness, too, and an exhilarating sense of
emancipation from all sorts of cares and responsibilities, that almost made us feel that
the years we had spent in the close, hot city, toiling and slaving, had been wasted and
thrown away. We were spinning along through Kansas, and in the course of an hour
and a half we were fairly abroad on the great Plains. Just here the land was rolling—a
grand sweep of regular elevations and depressions as far as the eye could reach—like
the stately heave and swell of the ocean’s bosom after a storm. And everywhere were
cornfields, accenting with squares of deeper green, this limitless expanse of grassy land.
But presently this sea upon dry ground was to lose its “rolling” character and stretch
away for seven hundred miles as level as a floor!
We changed horses every ten miles, all day long, and fairly flew over the hard, level
road. We jumped out and stretched our legs every time the coach stopped, and so the
night found us still vivacious and unfatigued.
36. The passage focuses on the
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
39. The narrator of the passage is
variety of landscapes throughout Kansas
lives of people in a foreign country
enjoyment of a journey away from a city
importance of taking proper care of horses
fellowship of men with a common goal
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
37. The passage is written from the point of view of which
of the following?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
in a stagecoach, leaving an old life behind
aboard a ship sailing from the United States
on a train heading to work in a city
riding a horse through cornfields
aboard a boat sailing down a river
40. The mood of the author and his companions is
the driver
an outlaw
a Kansas resident
a passenger
an observer
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
disconcerted
excited
brooding
concerned
calm
38. The sensory image most important to this passage is the
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
sound of the crack of the whip
sensation of brilliant sunshine
smell of horses
sound of the ocean
view of the terrain
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
2
Section 3
3
Time - 30 Minutes
60 Questions
This section consists of two different types of questions.
each type.
There are directions and a sample question for
Each of the following questions consists of one word followed by five words or phrases. You are to select the one word
or phrase whose meaning is closest to the word in capital letters.
Sample Question:
CHILLY:
(A) lazy
(B) nice
(C) dry
(D) cold
(E) sunny
A
B
C
D
E
1.
HABITUAL:
(A) routine
(B) moral
(C) probable
(D) primary
(E) conditional
6.
STUMBLE:
(A) pray
(B) remind
(C) clarify
(D) test
(E) trip
2.
INVESTIGATE:
(A) wonder
(B) study
(C) destroy
(D) shred
(E) energize
7.
SINGULAR:
(A) unusual
(B) indifferent
(C) creative
(D) unappealing
(E) sincere
3.
CONSIDER:
(A) pretend
(B) delight
(C) ponder
(D) create
(E) shatter
8.
ARTICULATE:
(A) evenhanded
(B) cross-sectional
(C) self-evident
(D) all-inclusive
(E) well-spoken
4.
MEANDER:
(A) flabbergast
(B) trade
(C) forget
(D) roam
(E) try
9.
CUMBERSOME:
(A) infrequent
(B) bulky
(C) abnormal
(D) attractive
(E) secretive
5.
ANSWER:
(A) flee from
(B) delight over
(C) reply to
(D) look upon
(E) forget about
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10. GLEAN:
(A) pester
(B) clinch
(C) enrage
(D) garner
(E) adorn
18. CORRODE:
(A) crumble
(B) drive
(C) write
(D) charge
(E) speed
11. PATRIOTIC:
(A) devoted
(B) careful
(C) armed
(D) objective
(E) obnoxious
19. CONSUME:
(A) pant
(B) spy
(C) clap
(D) dent
(E) eat
12. TEDIOUS:
(A) amusing
(B) clever
(C) savage
(D) awkward
(E) boring
20. MNEMONIC:
(A) style
(B) joyfulness
(C) reminder
(D) warning
(E) favoritism
13. LOGICAL:
(A) rational
(B) selective
(C) sensory
(D) apparent
(E) muscular
21. PEDESTRIAN:
(A) athletic
(B) ordinary
(C) intelligent
(D) studious
(E) muddled
14. GRATITUDE:
(A) confidence
(B) understanding
(C) appreciation
(D) talent
(E) devotion
22. FURTIVE:
(A) secret
(B) satisfied
(C) cherished
(D) protected
(E) shocking
15. FOOLHARDY:
(A) unbelievable
(B) intolerant
(C) ambiguous
(D) impatient
(E) unwise
23. COPIOUS:
(A) skilled
(B) illustrative
(C) energized
(D) plentiful
(E) pompous
16. DEVIOUS:
(A) stormy
(B) tricky
(C) degraded
(D) challenged
(E) particular
24. AVARICE:
(A) assortment
(B) fortune
(C) sorrow
(D) benefit
(E) greed
3
17. CAPITULATE:
(A) give up
(B) step in
(C) act for
(D) move on
(E) fade out
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25. MISGIVING:
(A) selfishness
(B) threat
(C) error
(D) doubt
(E) generosity
28. ACRID:
(A) disgust
(B) convincing
(C) dry
(D) sharp
(E) flip
26. TEMPERATE:
(A) restrained
(B) irritated
(C) frenzied
(D) passionate
(E) weakened
29. OBSTINATE:
(A) pregnant
(B) moderate
(C) judgmental
(D) indecent
(E) stubborn
27. STOIC:
(A) sinister
(B) marvelous
(C) impassive
(D) tortured
(E) believable
30. TEMPEST:
(A) storm
(B) nuisance
(C) quickness
(D) phlegm
(E) destiny
3
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395
The following questions ask you to find relationships between words. For each question, select the answer choice that
best completes the meaning of the sentence.
Sample Question:
Kitten is to cat as
(A) fawn is to colt
(B) puppy is to dog
(C) cow is to bull
(D) wolf is to bear
(E) hen is to rooster
A
B
C
D
E
Choice (B) is the best answer because a kitten is a young cat, just as a puppy is a young dog. Of all the answer choices,
(B) states a relationship that is most like the relationship between kitten and cat.
31. Sweet is to flavor as
(A) warm is to blanket
(B) cacophony is to sound
(C) pretty is to sight
(D) robust is to effort
(E) excited is to anticipation
36. Miner is to jeweler as
(A) fisher is to chef
(B) nurse is to doctor
(C) carpenter is to painter
(D) engineer is to conductor
(E) designer is to photographer
32. Wheat is to bread as
(A) oil is to gasoline
(B) earring is to jewelry
(C) syrup is to pancakes
(D) fruit is to basket
(E) hospital is to wing
37. Table is to delay as
(A) yell is to whisper
(B) cover is to prevent
(C) grow is to shift
(D) color is to distort
(E) improve is to escalate
33. Pen is to writing as
(A) table is to reading
(B) trumpet is to marching
(C) pillow is to sleeping
(D) knife is to framing
(E) mop is to cleaning
38. Acumen is to shrewdness as flamboyance is to
(A) friendliness
(B) generosity
(C) sorrow
(D) cruelty
(E) showiness
34. Insistent is to tenacious as concerned is to
(A) arrogant
(B) worried
(C) eager
(D) serene
(E) established
39. Scale is to weight as
(A) speedometer is to sound
(B) protractor is to angle
(C) pipette is to area
(D) tachometer is to direction
(E) thermometer is to energy
35. Mohair is to goat as
(A) thread is to cap
(B) wool is to sweater
(C) down is to pillow
(D) angora is to rabbit
(E) cage is to mouse
40. Precocious is to developed as
(A) insolent is to impolite
(B) lengthy is to round
(C) scared is to terrified
(D) teary is to sad
(E) happy is to joyful
3
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
41. Car is to transportation as
(A) table is to chair
(B) faucet is to water
(C) oven is to cooking
(D) sofa is to cushion
(E) sheet is to pillow
48. Buckle is to belt as
(A) lace is to shoe
(B) scarf is to coat
(C) collar is to shirt
(D) code is to alarm
(E) cuff is to wrist
42. Display is to artwork as
(A) brandish is to sword
(B) pretend is to scene
(C) dazzle is to brooch
(D) entertain is to dinner
(E) locate is to map
49. Wolf is to pack as
(A) lawyer is to courtroom
(B) flower is to garden
(C) puddle is to ocean
(D) school is to fish
(E) division is to country
43. Camera is to filmmaker as ladle is to
(A) waiter
(B) dishwasher
(C) diner
(D) writer
(E) cook
50. Talented is to actor as
(A) loud is to teacher
(B) unusual is to physician
(C) happy is to detective
(D) strong is to weight lifter
(E) gracious is to salesperson
44. Problem is to fiasco as
(A) mistake is to error
(B) puzzle is to question
(C) complaint is to lamentation
(D) correction is to improvement
(E) amalgamation is to collection
51. Agony is to pleasure as interference is to
(A) restraint
(B) listening
(C) cooperation
(D) beauty
(E) charm
45. Rules is to parents as
(A) arguments is to fights
(B) laws is to governments
(C) schools is to children
(D) obligations is to promises
(E) instructions is to systems
52. Connive is to scheme as
(A) suspend is to satisfy
(B) grow is to flourish
(C) prevent is to remove
(D) question is to answer
(E) promise is to engage
46. Immature is to callow as
(A) smart is to skilled
(B) movie is to set
(C) fresh is to salad
(D) hurried is to rushed
(E) prepared is to careful
53. Page is to website as
(A) violin is to string
(B) scenery is to drama
(C) photograph is to portfolio
(D) elegy is to song
(E) dog is to kennel
47. Talkative is to loquacious as
(A) implicating is to congratulating
(B) articulate is to understandable
(C) socialized is to mesmerized
(D) presumptive is to possible
(E) interesting is to fascinating
54. Dubious is to doubtful as
(A) idiosyncratic is to peculiar
(B) lovely is to polished
(C) quick is to serious
(D) honest is to kind
(E) fearful is to annoyed
3
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397
55. Qualm is to conviction as
(A) yank is to pull
(B) box is to carton
(C) manager is to owner
(D) joy is to pleasure
(E) compliment is to criticism
58. Glare is to yell as
(A) pucker is to kiss
(B) sneer is to bow
(C) laugh is to sneeze
(D) sob is to weep
(E) stand is to deliver
56. Breeze is to hurricane as
(A) warmth is to coldness
(B) whirlpool is to maelstrom
(C) day is to week
(D) downpour is to drizzle
(E) gold is to silver
59. Dishonest is to speaking as
(A) noxious is to gas
(B) muggy is to summer
(C) furry is to cat
(D) cloudy is to mountain
(E) healthy is to look
57. Debilitate is to strengthen as
(A) eradicate is to destroy
(B) neglect is to cultivate
(C) bend is to snap
(D) decorate is to adorn
(E) simulate is to pretend
60. Subtle is to obvious as
(A) false is to affected
(B) wonderful is to terrific
(C) assumed is to understood
(D) clean is to classy
(E) possible is to guaranteed
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
3
Section 4
4
Time - 30 Minutes
25 Questions
Following each problem in this section, there are five suggested answers. Work each problem in your head or in the
blank space provided at the right of the page. Then look at the five suggested answers and decide which one is best.
Note: Figures that accompany problems in this section are drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated
in a specific problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.
Sample Problem:
5,413
– 4,827
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
586
596
696
1,586
1,686
A
B
C
D
E
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
1.
Alexandra plans to give a stapler to each of her 17 new
employees. Four staplers come in a box. How many
boxes of staplers must she buy?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2.
3
4
5
6
13
100 - 39
(A)
59
3
4
(B)
60
1
4
(C)
60
1
2
(D)
60
3
4
(E)
61
1
4
3
=
4
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
|
399
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
2
yards long can be cut into how many
3
2 foot long pieces?
3.
A wire that is 8
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
4.
4
5
13
16
26
Calculate 10a + b2 when a = 4 and b = 5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
5.
40
45
65
66
95
Sarah receives a standard rate of $12 for every flower
bouquet she assembles. When she makes more than
15 bouquets in a week, Sarah makes $16 per bouquet
for every bouquet after the 15th one she assembles.
How much will Sarah make during a week in which
she assembles 19 flower bouquets?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
6.
4
7.
$228
$244
$260
$266
$304
3
1
3
3 4 4
4
4
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
11.75
12.25
12.50
12.75
13.25
The average length of two female hamsters is 4.1 inches,
and the average length of six male hamsters is 5.3
inches. What is the average length, in inches, of all eight
hamsters?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
400
4
|
1.175
2.93
4.7
5
6
Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
8.
4
15
falls between
4
which of the following two numbers?
On the number line to the right, (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
0 and –1
–1 and –2
–2 and –3
–3 and –4
–4 and –5
–5
–3
–4
–2
–1
0
Questions 9 and 10 are based on the accompanying table.
9.
Among those who rated dalmatians their favorite, what is
the approximate fractional part from suburban areas?
Key
Rural
Suburban
(A)
3
20
(B)
6
10
(C)
(D)
(E)
1
2
13
20
7
10
Urban
RANKINGS OF FAVORITE DOG BREED
IN DIFFERENT AREAS
Hounds
Bulldogs
Retrievers
Dalmatians
Terriers
Poodles
0
20
40
60
80
100
percent
10. If 20,000 people selected bulldogs as their favorite breed
of dog, approximately how many more suburban people
than rural people chose that breed?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2,000
4,000
6,500
13,000
15,000
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
|
401
11. Kelsey is participating in a walk-a-thon to raise money
for a charity. Her parents are going to contribute twenty
cents for the first mile, forty cents for the second mile,
and sixty cents for the third mile. If her parents continue
to donate money in this manner, how much money will
Kelsey’s parents contribute to her charity if Kelsey
walks 26 miles?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
4
$68.00
$68.20
$70.00
$70.20
$71.20
12. Select the inequality represented by the statement “The
sum of five times a number and two times a different
number is less than or equal to 44.”
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
5x + 2x £ 44
5x ´ 2y £ 44
5x + 2y £ 44
5x ´ 2y ³ 44
5x + 2y ³ 44
13. If the line segment AB is 24 meters long, based on the
figure, how long is line segment CB?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
6m
8m
12 m
16 m
18 m
A
C
2s
B
4s
14. –2(–5)2 =
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
–100
–50
–20
50
100
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
15. Approximately what percent of the figure is shaded?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
15%
33%
50%
66%
75%
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
4
16. If two numbers, P and Q, have an average of 80, and
P – Q ≠ 0, which of the following must be true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
P + Q = 80
P – Q = 40
P =30 and Q = 50
80 – P = Q – 80
80 + P = Q + 80
17. At the beginning of March, Alice gave Luke 40% of her
baseball card collection. At the end of that month, she
decides to give Luke 40% of the remaining cards in her
baseball card collection. What percent of her original
collection does Alice still have?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
20%
24%
36%
60%
80%
18. Amy is selling a concert ticket for 55% of the price. If
Amy paid $72.75, including tax, for the ticket, which
amount is the closest to how much Amy is charging to
sell the ticket?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
$32.00
$33.00
$36.00
$36.50
$40.00
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403
19. Combine and simplify:
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
(6x5 – 2x3 + 8) – (4x5 – x4 + 3x2 + 12)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2x5 – x4 – x3 + 20
2x5 – x4 + x3 – 4
2x5 + x4 – 2x3 + 3x2 – 4
2x5 + x4 – 5x3 + 20
2x5 + x4 – 2x3 – 3x2 – 4
4
20. Let b represent the base of a rectangle. If the height of the
rectangle is 4 less than the base, which expression would
represent the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2b – 4
2b – 8
4b – 4
4b – 8
b2 – 4
21. Simplify the variable expression:
(A)
k 2u
3
(B)
2u
5k
(C)
2k 2 s 2 u
5
(D)
2k 2 u
5
(E)
3k 3 s 2 u 4
5ks 2 u 3
12k 3 s 2 u 4
30ks 2 u 3
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
22. If the dots shown below are connected by starting at J
and then going to K, for which answer choice is it necessary to retrace a line or lift the pencil in order to draw it?
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
4
J
K
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
|
405
23. The average of five consecutive even integers is 12.
What is the greatest of these integers?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
USE THIS SPACE FOR FIGURING.
8
10
13
14
16
24. If p + q is divisible by 13, which of the following is also
divisible by 13?
(A) (p ´ 3) + (q ´ 3)
(B)
( p ´ q)
13
(C) (p ´ 13) + q
(D) p + (q ´ 13)
(E) (p ´ q) – 13
25. What could be the sum of M, N, P, and Q if each letter
represents a different digit?
MNQ
+P NQ
6 7 0
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
18
17
16
13
10
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
Copyright © 2023 by TPR Education IP Holdings, LLC. All rights reserved.
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Upper Level SSAT Practice Test 2
4