BLESSING IN TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION(TLE)
(ANSWER KEY)
1. Lumber is as good as its preparation. When it is dried the process involved is ___.
A. seasoning
C. Lumbering
B. staining
D. Logging
2. There are numerous kinds of saw. The one used for sawing along the grain of wood is called ____.
A. back saw
C. Rip saw
B. cross cut saw
D. Turning saw
3. When the diameter of cylindrical object is to be measured, the tool to be used is ___.
A. ruler
C. Pull-push rule
B. calliper
D. Meter stick
4. Fastening materials are important in woodworks. The most common of these materials is ___.
A. dowel
C. Screw
B. bolts
D. Nails
5. The smallest division of the metric scale that you can find in the steel rule is _____.
A. decimeter
C. Millimeter
B. centimetre
D. meter
6. The strongest form of wood joint applicable for table legs is ___.
A. miter
C. Dado
B. mortice and tenon
D. Butt and tap
7. You are almost finished with your project. One of the procedures below is done before the application of
finishing materials.
A. cutting
C. Sanding
B. spraying
D. Varnishing
8. What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to centimetres?
A. 25.4
C. 0.254
B. 2.54
D. 0.0254
9. A surfaced lumber where four of its sides are smooth or planed is called ____.
A. S3S
C. Rough
B. S2S
D. S4S
10. In carpentry, splicing or joining of wood using two side blocks is called ___.
A. Lapping
C. Fishing
B. Scarfing
D. Jointing
11. A seasoned lumber is ideal for carpentry works. Which among the following is best to use?
A. sun dried
C. Air dried
B. kiln dried
D. Natural dried
12. There is considerable number of wood joints. The simplest and easiest to make is ___.
A. Lap joint
C. Miter Joint
B. Dado joint
D. Butt joint
13. In a wooden floor system, the major horizontal support member upon which the floor system is laid is ___.
A. Floor joist
C. Girder
B. Sill
D. Header
14. A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles used to distribute loads and stiffen the structure of the
roof.
A. Girts
C. Truss
B. Rafter
D. Purlins
15. A wood product made of three or more veneer slice that are laid one upon the other and bonded with
synthetic resin.
A. Pressed wood
C. Particle wood
B. Plywood
D. Soft wood
16. Which of the following tools is used in checking the squareness of the corners and flatness of a surface?
A. Trammel point
C. Sliding T-bevel
B. Steel square
D. Try square
17. Find the total number of board feet of six pieces of lumber with a dimension of 2” x 4” x 12”
A. 8 bd. Ft
C. 48 bd. ft.
B. 98 bd. ft.
D. 4 bd. Ft.
18. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this instrument
A. t-square
C. Meter stick
B. ruler
D. Triangles
19. To completely describe a cone, sphere, and rectangular pyramid the number of views needed is ____.
A. one
C. Three
B. two
D. Six
20. This line is projected as a shorter line in a drawing.
A. inclined line
c. Curve line
B. vertical line
D. Horizontal line
21. Geometrical solids are usually drawn in ___.
A. two views
C. Six views
B. Four views
D. Eight views
22. These lines are used to indicate the measurement of objects and are represented by fine dark solid lines.
A. leader lines
C. Dimension lines
B. extension lines
D. Center lines
23. If a drawing has an equal measure then it refers to ____.
A. perspective drawing
C. Mechanical drawing
B. isometric drawing
D. Oblique drawing
24. Boxing method is most widely used method of drawing a/an __.
A. isometric view
C. Mechanical view
B. pictorial view
D. Perspective view
25. When parts that are not seen are represented by series of light dash lines then this line is classified as ___.
A. reference line
C. Section line
B. visible line
D. Invisible line
26. If all the information needed to complete construction of a product is shown then this type of mechanical
drawing is called__.
A. schematic drawing
C. Working drawing
B. orthographic drawing
D. Pictorial drawing
27. One of the best practice of a good draftsman is to NEVER letter without ____.
A. guidelines
C. Lettering pens
B. pencil
D. Ink
28. If a drawing has one surface that is parallel to the picture plane then this method is called ___.
A. oblique drawing
C. Perspective drawing
B. isometric drawing
D. Orthographic drawing
29. This pictorial view is normally seen by the observer’s eyes. Which one is it?
A. isometric drawing
C. Perspective drawing
B. oblique drawing
D. Orthographic drawing
30. A drawing instrument that serves as guide in drawing vertical and diagonal lines as in triangles. It is
generally used in drawing horizontal lines. Which one is it?
A. straight rule
C. Triangle
B. t-square
D. Lettering guide
31. The fine line used to show clearly the dimension limits is called ___.
A. center line
C. Dimension line
B. Extension line
D. Phantom line
32. A type of section used to emphasize the interior construction of an object without destroying the
continuity of the exterior view.
A. Phantom section or Hidden section
C. Revolved section
B. Removed or detailed section
D. Full section
33. A horizontal guide line used to determine the general height of lower case letters.
A. Base line
C. Waist line
B. Cap line
D. Drop line
34. Letters that are composed of uniform width elements are classified as ___.
a. italic letters
C. Gothic letters
b. Text letters
D. Roman letters
35. The most widely used masonry materials for construction works
A. Ashlar
C. Rubble stones
B. Bricks
D. Concrete hollow blocks
36. It is the masonry material manufactured from clay and other materials
A. stones
C. Bricks
B. Adobe
D. Course rubbles
37. What is the tool used to guide the vertical position in laying bricks?
A. plumb bob
C. Spirit level
B. Water hose
D. String or chord
38. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to consider in proportioning concrete mixture?
A. economy
C. Strength
B. workability
D. Flexibility
39. Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded or deformed without segregation. This characteristic is
known as ___.
A. consistency
C. Mobility
B. plasticity
D. Workability
40. Following are factors that regulate the strength of concrete except one . Which is it?
A. Correct proportion of ingredients
B. Proper method of mixing
C. Adequate protection of concrete during curing
D. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation.
41. What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag cement, 2 cu. Ft. of sand, and 4 cu. Ft. of gravel or
1:2:4?
A. Class AA
C. Class B
B. Class A
D. Class C
42. Which among the following is a surface finishing tool for concrete?
A. crandal
C. Float
B. Bolster
D. Spade
43. Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to view. This arrangement is called ___.
A. Header
C. Bond
B. Stretcher
D. Ashlar
44. In setting up concrete pavers, what material is used to prevent erosion from drainage?
a. Filter fabric
C. Compacted gravel
B. Jute sack
D. Bed of Sand
45. A person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey the supply water in buildings and to
dispose and discharge waste water.
A. Carpenter
C. Mason
B. Plumber
D. Mechanic
46. What must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow of the water seal in the drainage system?
A. vent pipe
C. Soil pipe
B. Drain pipe
D. Cleanout
47. Which of the following is NOT required by the National Plumbing Code?
A. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward gravity flow of water
B. Drainage pipe should be provided with adequate cleanout
C. No ventilation pipe is needed
D. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected
48. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the water closet.
A. waste pipe
C. Vent pipe
B. soil pipe
d. Drain pipe
49. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back passage of air.
A. Loop
C. Sewer
B. fixture
D. Trap
50. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal fittings.
A. Pipe vise
C. Wrenches
B. Pliers
D. Threader
51. It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste discharged from the house sewer.
A. septic tank
C. Water tank
B. manhole
D. Waste tank
52. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.
A. scum
C. Sludge
B. sediment
D. Silt
53. What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as recommended by the National Plumbing Code?
A. 2% slope
C. 4% slope
B. 3% slope
D. 0% slope or level position
54. For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of flow. What must be installed in the pipe system?
A. vent pipe
C. Drain
B. cleanout
D. Tee fitting
55. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter from a home or town is called __.
A. Drainage system
C. Sewerage
B. Fixture
D. Sewer
56. The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a ____.
A. wye fitting
C. Union fitting
B. Tee fitting
D. Reducer
57. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent backflow of water.
A. inlet valve
C. Suction valve
B. check valve
D. Gate valve
58. It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to allow installation or troubleshooting
of fixtures
A. check valve
C. Gate valve
B. inlet valve
D. Float valve
59. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pipe
A. reducer
C. Nipple
B. bushing
D. Coupling
60. What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid leakage?
A. masking tape
C. Scotch tape
B. Teflon tape
D. Adhesive gum
61. Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture installation nowadays. Which of the following is
preferred?
A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
C. Unplasticized PVC (uPVC)
B. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
D. Styrene rubber plastic (SR)
62. Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical circuits. What is the ampacity rating of the
breaker used for convenience outlets or general purpose circuits?
A. 20 ampere
C. 15 amperes
B. 30 amperes
D. 60 amperes
63. A form of electricity where the flow of current is always in the same direction ____.
A. voltage
C. Alternating current
B. power
D. Direct current
64. The force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical current is recognized as _____.
A. power
C. Electromagnetic force
B. resistance
D. Frequency
65. A part of an electric current which converts electrical energy into another form of energy to do work
A. load
C. Source
B. circuit
D. Control
66. A part of an electrical circuit, consist of batteries, generator or a main electrical power which supplies
electricity.
A. control
C. Source
B. load
D. Voltage
67. What is the voltage required by an automatic pressure cooker having a resistance of 20 0hms when the
current flowing is 8 amperes.
A. 240 volts
C. 120 volts
B. 480 volts
D. 160 volts
68. A law that states that current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance is
known as ____.
A. PEC
C. Kirchoff’s law
B. law of resistivity
D. Ohm’s Law
69. In ohm’s law to find the unknown voltage in the circuit, the formula to be used is ___.
A. E=IXR
C. I=E/R
B. E=I/R
D. E=R/I
70. What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp draw from a 220 volts power source?
A. 5.5 amperes
C. 25.5 amperes
B. 0.18 amperes
D. 50.5 amperes
71. There are several factors involved in electrical wiring installation but the foremost consideration is ______.
A. cost
C. Safety
B. labor
D. Function
72. The standard number or diameter of wires for convenience outlet layout should be
A. No. 12
C. No. 18
B. No. 14
D. No. 10
73. To comply with the requirements of the Philippine Electrical Code the appropriate fuse rating for lighting
outlet should be ___.
A. 15 amperes
C. 60 amperes
B. 30 amperes
D. 20 amperes
74. Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is being done in order to ___.
A. provide efficient and effective wiring system of the building
B. maintain quality workmanship
C. avoid overloaded circuit
D. protect the circuit from high current
75. In a 220- volt power line, three 50 watt incandescent bulbs are connected in parallel. How many more
bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is open?
A. one
C. All
B. two
D. None
76. An electrical component used to control electrical circuit in two different locations.
A. four-way switch
C. Push button switch
B. Three-way switch
D. Remote controlled switch
77. In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of the source is connected to ___.
A. Terminal 1 of the load
C. Terminal 1 of the switch
B. Terminal 2 of the load
D. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
78. Which of the following electrical symbols means that there are three wires running in a line?
A.---- ---C. ------------B. -----D. S3W
79. To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be used in lighting fixtures?
A. incandescent lamp
C. Compact fluorescent lamp
B. mercury lamp
D. Neon lamp
80. The size of electrical wire recommended for installing lighting fixtures
A. No. 12 AWG
C. No. 18 AWG
B. No. 10 AWG
D. No. 14 AWG
81. In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with an arrow is the ____
A. emitter
C. Collector
B. base
D. Cathode
82. You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier. What is it?
A. Anode
C. Gate
B. cathode
D. Main terminal
83. An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The electronic component responsible for this
function is the ____
A. tuning capacitor
C. IF transformer
B. oscillator coil
D. Detector diode
84. If the transistor is an NPN type the base is ____.
A. negative & positive
C. Positive
B. negative
D. Common
85. Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering _____.
A. 76khz – 90Mhz
C. 16Hz – 20kHz
B. 88 – 108 Mhz
D. 535 – 1605kHz
86. Volt Ohm Milliameter or VOM, is a measuring instrument. Which of the following VOM function uses its
internal battery?
A. DC milliameter
C. DC voltmeter
B. Ohmmeter
D. AC voltmeter
87. When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means the diode is ____.
A. shorted
C. Leaky
B. Open
D. Good
88. If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing inward it tells us that the transistor is:
A. NPN
C. Bipolar
B. PNP
D. Injunction
89. Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of a soldering iron refers to:
A. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper C. Cutting the tip
B. Making the tip pointed
D. Applying flux to the tip
90. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using one of the ranges listed below
A. R x 1K
C. R x 1
B. R x 10
D. R x 10K
91. One of the following is a non-polarized electronic equipment
A. transistor
C. Diode
B. resistor
D. Electrolytic capacitor
92. A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of ___.
A. symbol
C. Physical appearance
B. construction
D. Linear appearance
93. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called ____
A. peak-reverse voltage
C. Blow-up voltage
B. working voltage
D. Breakdown voltage
94. There are various types of diodes. The diode that acts as a regulator is the ___.
A. silicon diode
C. Light emitting diode
B. tunnel diode
D. Zener diode
95. Which of the following is the value and tolerance respectively of a resistor coded with Yellow-Violet-BlackGold?
A. 47 ohms, 5%
C. 4.7 ohms, 5%
B. 0.47 ohms, 5%
D. 470 ohms, 5%
96. A diode is an electronic part that at all times is expected to do one of the following functions. Which one is
it?
A. allow current to flow in both directions
B. multiply voltage
C. allow current to flow in one direction only
D. not allow any current flow
97. The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero periodically and is produced in rectifier is known as
A. Pulsating Direct Current
C. Varying Direct Current
B. Damped Alternating Current
D. Saw tooth wave
98. The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound of a transistor radio is a defective __.
A. amplifier
C. Antenna
B. volume control
D. Tuner
99. An appliance with 110 Volts AC supply is accidentally plugged to a 220 volts Ac outlet. What component is
usually destroyed?
A. Switch
C. Line fuse
B. AC plug
D. Power transformer
100. What happens to a transistor radio when batteries are connected in reverse polarity?
A. it will not operate
B. it will operate for a while and eventually stops
C. it will erratically operate
D. it will operate normally
101. What do you call the activity being undertaken in the factory that results to a product?
A. packaging
C. Technology
B. dressing
D. Manufacturing
102. What do you call the proof of equality of the entire debit and the credit balances in the ledger at the end
of a period of time?
A. income statement
C. Trial balance
B. balance diet
D. Footing
103. What kind of business relies on sales as the principal income?
A. investment
C. Manufacturing
B. trading
D. Service
104. What quality an entrepreneur must possess is characterized by believing in his ability to get things done
and overcome obstacles?
A. competency
C. Perseverance
B. decision making
D. Self-confidence
105. Aside from planning on how to hire employees, what else is a task of management?
A. how to feed them
C. How to keep them in the company
B. how to make them pay taxes
D. How to be productive
106. In what part of a business plan can you find a study of the business competitors, the supply and demand
of the product, the marketing program, and projected sales?
A. market feasibility
C. Financial feasibility
B. production plan
D. Organizational plan
107. Mr. Santos is an entrepreneur who needs to pay taxes and other accounts payable before the end of the
year. This should be reflected in his financial statement as
A. asset
C. Credit
B. liabilities
D. Debit
108. What theory believes that the government should not interfere in economic activities
A. Ricardian Theory
C. Keynesian Theory
B. Laissez Faire
D. Scientific management theory
109. The term used to describe the ability to create a new product and find ways and means to improve it is
known as
A. management
C. Ability
B. judgement
D. Creativity
110. Every customer should be protected against the marketing goods hazardous to health. This is right __.
A. to safety
C. To be informed
B. to be heard
D. To choose
111. Production of goods and services through entrepreneurship paves the way for a healthy competition and
encourage ___.
A. production and more quality products
B. production of less quality products
C. high prices
D. profit
112. Modernization of technology and streamlining of functions lead to ___.
A. development
C. Security
B. diffusion
D. Responsibility
113. If an entrepreneur accepts full responsibility for problems in the completion of a job for customers then
he is ___.
A. committed worker
C. Hard worker
B. risk taker
D. Salesman
114. In management, “putting the right person in the right job” is a ___
A. behavioural approach
C. Contingency approach
B. situational approach
D. Scientific management approach
115. The theory that explains that there are two extreme assumptions management makes about people.
A. Modern Operational Management
C. Theory A and Theory B
B. Scientific Management theory
D. Theory X and Theory Y
116. Quality control refers to the firm’s evaluation of its ____
A. overall performance
C. Employee’s performance
B. operational control
D. Organizational control
117. If an entrepreneur acts to do things that meet or even exceed existing standards of excellence then he is
considered to be ____.
A. hardworker
C. Committed worker
B. risk taker
D. Goal setter
118. Profit is a concrete indicator of how well an entrepreneur has managed his ____
A. business
C. Affairs
B. sales
D. Credits
119. If a lot of unknown and uncontrollable factors affect the success or failure of a firm then an entrepreneur
should be competent in ______.
A. making decision
C. Introducing innovation
B. seeking opportunity
D. Planning ahead
120. Accounting refers to the whole process of recording and interpreting results of ___
A. business transactions
C. Capital outflow
B. means of production
D. Stock market
121. The book of original entry which contains records of transaction in their chronological order, accounts to
be debited and credited and their amount is ___.
A. journal
C. Ledger
B. balance sheet
D. Columnar sheet
122. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to create market and produce new goods and services
A. entrepreneurship
C. Proprietorship
B. partnership
D. Salesman
123. The difference between the actual cost and the retail price is
A. mark up
C. Cost
B. profit
D. Selling price
124. The probable problems that a business and entrepreneur face are:
A. weakness
C. Strengths
B. Opportunities
D. Threats
125. Reviewing at any point of the business period the strength and weaknesses of the venture is referred to
as
A. monitoring and evaluating
C. Opportunity seeking
B. risk taking
D. SWOT analysis
126. Overcooking fish is a common problem because fish contains very little
A. iron
C. Carbohydrate
B. collagen
D. Iodide
127. Which of the following is not an acidic food ingredient?
A. egg white
C. Sour cream
B. buttermilk
D. Lime juice
128. When comparing quick cake mixes with conventional cake mixes, we note that quick cake mixes
A. have more eggs
C. Have a lower sugar/flour ratio
B. have a higher sugar/flour ratio
D. Have much less fat
129. To retard ripening in fruits it would be useful to store them in an atmosphere that was
A. high in oxygen
C. Low in oxygen, high in carbon dioxide
B. low in carbon dioxide
D. Low in carbon dioxide, high in helium
130. The “wake-up” temperature for dry active yeast is in the range
A.55-60 °F
C. 105-110 °F
B. 85-95 °F
D. 130-140 °F
131. Which of the following is not a promoter of oxidative rancidity in unsaturated cooking fats?
A. water
C. Metal ions such as copper and iron
B. heat
D. Light
132. Increased temperatures will not increase solubility for which of the following food substances?
A. carbon dioxide
C. Salt
B. sugar
D. Baking soda
133. In crystalline candies, to produce a smooth texture, it is desirable to have what size sugar crystals?
A. very large
C. Large
B. small
D. Medium
134. Garlic and onions (the sulphur-containing vegetables) contain which of the following phytochemicals?
A. isoflavones
C. Flavanoids
B. allicin
D. Terpenes
135. Lycopene gives which color to vegetables?
A. Red
C. White
B. Yellow
D. Green
136. When you chop onions, your eyes can burn because a chemical reaction produces
A. Sulfuric Acid
C. Nitric Acid
B. Hydrochloric Acid
D. Acetic Acid
137. The best way to eliminate the soggy crust problem in a one crust, uncooked filing pie such as apple pie is
to
A. coat the crust with egg white or whole egg and bake briefly to coagulate
B. bake crust and filling separately
C. bake at high temperature (450 °F) initially, then reduce temperature to 325 °F to finish baking
138. The rate of heat transfer into and out of any material is governed principally by
A. specific heat
C. Density
B. mass
D. Volatility
139. For serving and storage purposes, hot food should be kept above ____ °F and cold food should be kept
below ____ °F.
A. 120,80
C. 140,60
B. 130,70
D. 135,41
140. How does one “sear” a piece of meat?
A. Grill it slowly on low heat
B. Shave the skin carefully using a paring knife and then simmer it in oil
C. Brown the meat’s surface with intense initial heat
D. Brown the meat with sugar
141. Which of the following collars is drafted and cut together with the front bodice pattern?
A. baby collar
C. Continuous collar
B. sports collar
D. Trubenized collar
142. A skirt with at least two tapered sections is the
A. one-piece skirt
C. Skirted skirt
B. gored skirt
D. A-line skirt
143. A button should be sewn immediately as soon as it loosens. Which of the following is the first step in
sewing on buttons?
A. remove the pins and bring needle and thread through fabric
B. take several stitches over the pin and through the fabric
C. using double thread, take one or two small stitches at the point where the button will be attached
D. hold a pin across the top of the button and take a stitch over it.
144. The neckline area is often the most decorative part of the dress. It is close to the face and is easily noticed
before other parts of the garments. What kind of neckline is recommended for a round face?
A. Sabrina
C. Square
B. round
D. V-shape
145. Which of the following elements is most prominent in the composition of human hair?
A. Carbon
C. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
D. Sulfur
146. What is the proper term for the practice of dividing the hair into smaller, more workable pieces for the
purpose of control?
A. splitting
C. Texturizing
B. bunching
D. Sectioning
147. During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is applied to the skin using:
A. Download circular motion
C. Upward circular movements
B. Rounded strong movements
D. Outward movements
148. A deep rubbing massage movement pressure is applied to the skin while moving over an underlying
structure is
A. Kneading
C. Fiction
B. Tapotement
D. Rubbing
149. Which of the following is not one of the layers that compose strands of hair?
A. Dermal Papilla
C. Cuticle
B. Cortex
D. Medulla
150. A liquid or cream used to remove excess tissue around the nails is ____.
A. cuticle pusher
B. cuticle nipper
C. Cuticle scissors
D. Cuticle remover