A secondary social group and a formal social group
HBSE 1 FIRST WEEK 1-50 JINN T.
201. In Jungian psychology, this is considered the most original and
controversial concept, which includes primordial past of the entire species
and contains the archetypes.
A. Personal unconscious
B. Complexes
C. Collective unconscious
D. Archetypes
202. One of the statements below does not correspond to Kohlberg’s view
on morality
A. Moral wrongness is linked to the violation of rights and justice
B. Logic tends to be based on justice, rights and autonomy
C. Emphasizes interdependence and responsibility to self and others
D. Components of morality is the sanctity of the individual, rights of
self and fairness
203.
Rogerian theory mentioned that one if the necessary processes of
becoming a person is to develop need to be loved, liked or accepted by
another person. This need is referred to as _______.
A. Conditional valuing
B. Positive regard
C. Condition of worth
D. Self-esteem
204. You encountered a client in a child welfare agency, you conducted an
intake interview with the mother and as a social worker you were observing
the way she believes, talk, and laugh. This approach in studying behavior is
what we call?
A. Psychoanalytical
B. Behavioral
C. Humanistic
D. All of the above
205. Jenny’s room is always a mess and her mother often nags here for this
behavior. Irritated with her, constant nagging. Jenny decided to clean her
room so she would not hear her mother’s grating voice anymore. Jenny
modifies here undesirable behavior due to what type of reinforcement.
A. Shaping
B. Time out
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Negative reinforcement
206. The core of observational learning ad espoused by Bandura is
__________.
A. Attention
B. Retention
C. Modelling
D. Persuasion
207. Justice, beauty, goodness are examples of ____.
A. Basic needs
B. Meta- needs or growth needs
C. Hierarchy of needs
D. Deficiency needs
208. I was thinking of a friend in New Zealand and have a strong desire to
call her. When I picked up the phone, she was at the other end of the line.
She said she was thinking of me and was also trying to reach me. Jung called
this occurrence of two events not linked causally but meaningfully related as
the principle of _____.
A. Entropy
B. Equivalence
C. opposites
D. synchronicity
209.
Concerning pure extroversion and pure introversion, it is most
accurate to say
A. a person is either one or the other.
B. most people fall somewhere between these extremes.
C. these terms were coined by the famous Swiss psychologist,
Gordon Allport.
D. they represent basic physical traits
210. Which personality theorist strongly rejected Sigmund Freud’s claim that
males are dominant or superior to females?
A. Alfred Adler
B.
Karen Horney
C. Carl Jung
D. Erich Fromm
211. You have been working with a client who has been describing a
behavior which causes them to feel uncomfortable, distressed, and
burdened. According the tenets of Ego psychology, this type of behavior
would be BEST described as…
A. Ego Synthesis
B. Ego Dystonic
C. Ego Syntonic
D. Ego Harmonic
212. Which of the following does NOT describe stagnation in stage 7?
A. People who cannot form real friendships with others
B. People who are self-centered
C. Young parents who cannot take care of their children
D. People who are afraid of death
213. You have accepted a position working in a sheltered workshop. You will
be trained by the last social worker before she leaves her post for a new job.
The workshop is specifically designed to help individuals suffering from a
developmental delay. You would expect the social worker training you to us
a primarily focused in a behavioral approach. Of the following interventions,
which would she be LEAST LIKELY to use to train you?
A. Provide positive reinforcement to strengthen enhance work
performance
B. Assess current familial relationships
C. Create a performance contract with the client
D. Review a new clients past workplace behavior
214. The developmental tasks of self-evaluation and skill learning are
associated with what lofe stage?
A. toddlerhood 2-4 years
B. early childhood 4-6 years
C. middle school 6-12 years
D. early adolescence 12-18 years
215. Parents of a 4-year old are referred to a social worker after a physical
exam reveals no physical problem preventing the child from being toilet
trained. The parents reveal that the child has not been able to separate from
them to attend nursery school and he sleeps with them most nights. The
most important area to focus on in the assessment phase is the:
A. parents use of rewards and punishments with the child
B. early developmental and family history of each parent
C. parents understanding of the child’s developmental processes
D. ways in which the child interferes with the parents own relationship
216. Sara goes to bed extremely late every night and this has an effect
her school performance, which level does this reflect?
A. Self- actualization
B. Self- esteem
C. Physiological
D. Safety
on
217. The major goal of behavioral treatment of depression reflects the view
that depression is the result of
A. role confusion
B. negative cognition
C. poor interpersonal skills
D. absence of positive reinforcement
218. The view that learning takes place through observation and that new
responses are acquired through the process of imitating models is
associated with.
A. cognitive behaviorism
B. operant conditioning
C. social learning
D. classic conditioning
219. Mrs. Bride Chicken asks for help with her 6 year old daughters frequent
temper tantrums. The tantrums often occur when shopping. When the child
sees something she wants she screams and kicks until her mother gives her
the item. When asked how she responds, Mrs. Bride Chicken says she
usually gives in to avoid being embarrassed. Which behavior principle is
demonstrated?
A. The child is negatively reinforcing mother’s compliance with the
child’s demands
B. The child is positively reinforcing mother’s giving in
C. Mother is negatively reinforcing the child’s behavior
D. Mother is positively reinforcing the child’s behavior
220. Maslow believed that basic needs should be met in order to move to a
higher level.
A. True
B. False
C. More true than false
D. More false than true
221. People who achieve a sense of integrity.
A. Consolidate a sense of self
B. Want to make personal changes
C. Treat themselves as the most important person in the world
D. Sink into despair
222. Psychoanalytic psychology focuses mainly on
A. Rewards and punishments
B. Self-esteem and self-actualization
C. Internal conflict and unconscious desires
D. Sensation and Perception
223. “Give me a dozen healthy infants and my own special world to bring me
up in, and I’ll guarantee to take any one at random and train him to become
any type of specialist, lawyer, doctor…” what psychological approach would
support this statement?
A. Cognitive
B. Structural
C. Behavioral
D. Psychoanalytic
224. The idea that psychology is not based on scientific fact or human
shortcomings but instead should focus on human experience is the basis for
which psychological approach.
A. Cognitive psychology
B. Structuralism
C. Behaviorism
D. Humanism
225. Clients who work for their therapists to explore their past to discover the
source of their illness would be seeking what type of therapy?
A. Psychoanalytic
B. Humanist
C. Cognitive
D. Eclectic
226. Psychodynamic psychology focuses mainly on which of the following?
A. Free will and self- actualization
B. Experiments in controlled settings
C. The collective unconscious
D. Thoughts, impulses and desires beyond the conscious being
227. Of the following approaches to understanding behavior, which is most
likely going to focus on the way that adults process information?
A. Biological
B. Cognitive
C. Psychodynamic
D. Humanistic
228. What is the difference between cognitive psychology and behavioral
psychology?
A. Behavioral psychology deals with reinforcement and
punishment, while cognitive deals with Information processing.
B. Cognitive psychology focuses only on observable behavior,
while behavioral psychology focuses on internal processes
C. Both focus on observable behavior; there is no difference
D. Cognitive psychology focuses only on the ego, while
behavioral focuses on the id
229. Of the following approaches to psychology, which area would be most
concerned with the idea that people strive toward self-actualization?
A. Biological
B. Cognitive
C. Psychodynamic
D. Humanistic
230. Those who believe that the key to understanding behavior is to
understand the role of the environment in shaping organisms are called?
A. Cognitive psychologists
B. Humanistic psychologists
C. Developmental psychologists
D. Behavioral psychologists
231. According to operant conditioning, the _____ of behavior are the best
predictor of whether or not that behavior is performed again.
A. Derivatives
B. Consequences
C. Antecedents
D. Causes
232. Social Change is:
A. The process of planned alterations in social phenomena
B. The process of unplanned alterations in social phenomena
C. The process of planned and unplanned alterations in social
phenomena
D. None of the above
233. The study of various social change theories helps social workers:
A. Accept existing social realities
B. Analyze existing social realities
C. Analyze existing realities and identify possibilities for transformative
actions
D. None of the above
234. Toennies described the evolution of society from
A. Gemeinschaft to Gesseischaft
B. Gesseischaft to Gemeinschaft
C. Gemeinschaft to universal Gemeinschaft
D. None of the above
235. Which Theory believes the capitalist society rules all?
A. Marxist
C. Functionalists
B. Feminist
D. Post Modern
236. We inherit a social position because of the family background and
reputation of our parents and siblings.
A. Conflict view
C. Functionalist view
B. Feminist view
D. Interactionist view
237. The abolition of restrictions that impede market entry or competition or
capital flows and investments is associated with.
A. Privatization.
C. Social protection
B. Deregulation.
D. Individual responsibility
238. Sociological perspective that focuses on the power relationships within
the family, the family’s roles in perpetuating social inequality, and the
dominance of men over women:
A. Functionalist.
B. Conflict
C. Symbolic interaction
D. None of the above
239. Philippine government moves to attract foreign investments are related
to the adaptation of:
A. Social democracy
B. Postmodernism
C. Neoliberalism
D. All of the above
240. Marginalization of women is manifestation of
A. Gender inequality.
B. Gender oppression
241. Which is the most appropriate statement?
C. Structural oppression
D. All of the above
A. Economic growth is the goal of social development
B. Modernization of society is the goal of social development
C. Promoting free trade is the goal of social development
D. Improving/ enhancing the quality of life of all people is the goal of social
development
242. What are the three stages of social movements?
A. Emergence, convergence and institutionalization
B. Conception, expansion and routinization
C. Emergence, coalescence and bureaucratization
D. Conception, adaptation and coalescence
243. According to ______, collective action happens when people with
similar ideas and tendencies gather in the same place.
A. Resource-mobilization theory
B. Convergence theory
C. Emergent norm theory
D. Contagion theory
244. Postmodernity is characterized by _______.
A. the notion that history is driven by clashes between opposing forces
B. a questioning of the power and relevance of social movement
organizations
C. great cultural conflict that leads to social isolation and stagnation
D. a questioning of the notion that society is always progressing forward,
building on it’s knowledge and inventions of the past to create a better future
245. Residents of a small city learn that a big-box retailer is considering
opening a new store near their community. Some people are in favor of the
development because they think it will bring more jobs and lower prices;
others are against it because they think it will hurt local businesses and
create traffic headaches. Advocates in each side of the issue organize to
promote their point of view-they hang banners and signs around town, they
write letters to local officials and the local newspaper, they make
presentations at community meetings, and they conduct research about how
such stores have impacted similar communities. All of this is an example of
which type of social movement organization?
A. A professional movement organization
B. A reformative organization
C. A mass protest organization
D. A grassroots organization
246. Which of the following is an example of a reformative social movement?
A. a movement that encourages individuals to return to a simpler way of
life, including renouncing the use of technology such as cars and phones
and growing food and other items to provide the necessities of life
B. a movement by an oppressed majority in a country to overthrow the
government and create a more equitable society
C. a movement that promotes a switch from standard incandescent light
bulbs to energy-saving compact fluorescent bulbs in all American
households
D. movement to get people who wear clothing items made with animal
fur to switch to products
made with synthetic fur.
247. After several years of rising crime and hooliganism among teenagers in
a particular city, citizens of the city band together to create more
opportunities for recreational activities, job, and leadership training for young
people. This is an example of what type of social movement?
A. reformative social movement
B. alternative social movement
C. revolutionary social movement
D. redemptive social movement
248. What is the Social-conflict approach (Marx)?
A. Refers to the particular experience of African Americans where in
which they are forced to see themselves their status as citizens who are
never able to escape identification based on the color of their skin.
B. Is the ability to “think ourselves away” from the familiar routine in order
to see things from a different, more sociological perspective
C. Says the organization of society (stratifications based on class,
ethnicity,gender,age,etc.) and the changes in society can be explained by
the conflicts inherent to social relations.
D.Is a theory that focuses on the social structures that shape society as
a whole. It sees society as a complex system whose parts work together to
maintain stability and to promote solidarity.
249. Evolutionary theories:
A. Focus in how societies adapt to changes in the environment over time
B. Focus on how societies resist changes over time
C. Focus in identifying successive stages in the progress of the societies
D. All of the above
250. For Parsons, indicative of modernity are
A. Affectivity and collective orientation
B. Particularism and ascription
C. Diffuseness and affectivity
D. Universalism and achievement
JINN HBSE 2ND WEEK
1.
This type of feminism emphasizes women’s oppression as part of
structured inequality within a class-based social system.
a. Liberal feminism
b. Marxist feminism
c. Radical Feminism
d. None of the above
2.
Uses this approach to study the broad framework of social problem
such as poverty, homelessness, urban crime, to help comprehend
the whole society, how it is organized and how it changes:
a. Sociology
b. Micro-analysis
c. Social work
d. Macro-analysis
3.
Defined as an organized model rationally designed to perform task
efficiently:
a. Organization
b. Democracy
c. Standards
d. Bureaucracy
4.
Characterized by a larger in membership, less intimate and less longlasting, tends to be less significant in emotional life of people and
members pursue specific goal or activity, involve weak emotional ties
and little personal knowledge of one another, this group is known as:
a. Primary group
b. Reference group
c. Secondary group
d. Therapy group
5.
A principle of organization that is characterized by the number of
people the manager controls, the authority flows which is a clear
unbroken line from top to bottom (hierarchical) and breaks down
activities into specialized group (departmentalization):
a. Span of control
b. Division of labor
c. Authority and responsibility
d. Unity of command
6.
This refers to the links among members – who talks to whom, how
information’s is transmitted, whether communication between
members is direct or uses a go-between and assumes that groups
function more effectively when the members are able to use this easily
and with competence:
a. Socialization
b. Communication networks
c. Social network
d. Communication style
7.
Impersonal evaluation, according to set standards and monitors the
performance, contrast with the ancient custom of favoring relatives,
whatever the talents, over strangers is an element of ideal bureaucratic
organization and this refers to:
a. Specialization
b. Rules and regulations
c. Hierarchy of positions
d. Technical competence
8.
A function of community which facilitate the transmission of values,
culture, beliefs and norms to new community members:
a. Socialization
b. Mutual support
c. Social control
d. Providing for the participation of its residents
9.
A type of group consisting of intimate, face to face interaction and
relatively long-lasting relationships that has a powerful influence on
individual’s personality and self-identity and gives people intimacy,
companionship and emotional support:
a. Primary group
b. Reference group
c. Secondary group
d. Therapy group
10.
A type of group leadership that focuses on the group’s well-being and
take less interest in achieving goals than in raising group morale and
minimizing tension and conflict among members.
a. Expressive leadership
b. Authoritarian leadership
c. Instrumental leadership
d. Lalssez-faire leadership
11.
The faceless bureaucrat where rules are put ahead of personal whim
so that both clients and workers are treated in the same way:
a. Impersonality
b. Hierarchy of positions
c. Formal
d. Rules and regulations
12.
Classify community as a group of people living together in one place
or a political jurisdiction:
a. Political community
b. Functional community
c. Geographical community
d. Relational community
13.
This group develops in spontaneous manner on the basis of friendship,
location or some natural occurrence without external initiative, the
members simply come together:
a. Formed group
b. Open group
c. Natural group
d. Closed group
14.
Theory of group process which believes that members who have
contributed successful suggestions for task accomplishment in the
past tend to carry more power and prestige within the group:
a. Power theory
b. Expectation states theory
c. Exchange theory
d. Status characteristics theory
15.
Referred to as a collection of people working together in a coordinated
and structured fashion to achieve one or more goals or are social
entitles that are designed as deliberately structures and coordinated
activity systems and are linked to the external environment:
a. Group
b. Community
c. Organization
d. Society
16.
Patterns of relationship in this community are described to be more
direct and personal, more total and more significant and meaningful:
a. Gemeinshaft
b. Gesellshaft
c. Urban
d. Rural
17.
Principle of organization which believes that no member of the
organization should report to more than one superior to ensure that
conflicting demands are not received by the employee:
a. Span of control
b. Authority and responsibility
c. Division of labor
d. Unity of command
18.
A feeling that members have sense of belonging, a feeling that
members matter to one another and to the group, and a shared faith
that members’ need will be met through their commitment to be
together:
a. Sense of acceptance
b. Sense of camaraderie
c. Sense of loyalty
d. Sense of community
19.
People bound either by geography or by network links, sharing
common ties and interacting with one another is called:
a. group
b. community
c. organization
d. society
20.
A type of small group that is not professionally led, an informal leader
may emerge in the group or leadership may be rotated among
membership, are often used as a supplement to professional
treatment:
a. therapy group
b. self-help group
c. task group
d. psychoeducational group
21.
A bureaucratic element that arrange workers in vertical ranking, each
is supervised by someone “higher up” in the organization while others
in lower positions:
a. Specialization
b. Rules and regulations
c. Hierarchy of positions
d. Technical competence
22.
Type of a group where those to which you may or may not belong, but
you use as a standard for evaluating your values, attitudes and
behaviors:
a. Primary group
b. Reference group
c. Secondary group
d. Therapy group
23.
This bureaucratic element counts cultural tradition for little, instead
rationally enacted rules and regulations guide a bureaucracy
operation, in completely predictable way:
a. Specialization
b. Rules and regulations
c. Hierarchy of positions
d. Technical competence
24.
A collection of Individuals who interact with one another, share
common goals and norms, and have subjective awareness as “we” is
known as:
a. Crowd
b. Organization
c. Group
d. Community
25.
A community perspective that focuses on social interaction rather than
on the physical aspects of the community:
a. Social action perspective
b. Systems perspective
c. Social network perspective
d. Social relation perspective
26.
Patterns of relationship in this society are described to more formal or
impersonal, more abstract and more instrumental or utilitarian:
a. Gemeinshaft
b. Urban
c. Gesellshaft
d. Rural
27.
Refers to social group with two members, viewed as unstable as both
members of a must work to keep the relationship working; if either
withdraws, the group collapses
a. Peer
b. Dyads
c. Team
d. Triads
28.
This theory or group reflect cultural beliefs that may be or may not be
objectively true, merely assumed that if people believe something is
true, they will act as if it were true, thus it will tend to be true in its
consequences:
a. Power theory
b. Expectation states theory
c. Exchange theory
d. Status characteristics theory
29.
The following are aspects of community structure, except for:
a. Pattern of interaction
b. Economic factors
c. Pattern of meanings
d. Political factors
30.
A type of small group defined by an alliance of individuals who need
each other, in varying degrees, to work on certain problems:
a. Psychoeducational group
b. Self-help group
c. Therapy group
d. Mutual aid group
31.
The objectivist conception of deviance defines deviance as:
a. Norm violating behavior
b. Labeling
c. Something identified as “device” by social audience
d. Associated with social disorganization
32.
This view focuses on how sex differences between men and women
are translated by cultural assumptions into gender differences, which
then affect social relations.
a. Liberal feminism
b. Marxist feminism
c. Radical Feminism
d. None of the above
33.
This theory regulates behavior and thus lead to conformity and
compliance of the rules of the society
a. Social Learning theory
b. System Theory
c. Social Control Theory
d. None of the above
34.
In understanding human behavior, this theory states that crime is a
learned behavior
a. Conflict theory
b. Social Learning theory
c. Chaos theory
d. None of the above
35.
Based on who wields authority, the family of this type is one in which
the husband and the wife exercise more or less equal amount of
authority
a. Egalitarian Family
b. Bilocal Family
c. Bilateral Family
d. Matricentric family
36.
Factors that affect individual differences
a. Family
b. Social Environment
c. Culture
d. All of the above
37.
This refers to relaxation of government restrictions in an industry
a. Liberalization
b. Deregulation
c. Privatization
d. None of the above
38.
This is the hallmark of neuroses which is characterized by vague
feelings of dread, fearfulness and apprehension of anticipated future
events.
a. Hostility
b. Aggression
c. Anxiety
d. Depression
39.
A psychotic disorder or mood disorder characterized by a period of
excited elation, agitation and alternates with episodes of extreme
sadness and hopelessness.
a. Affective disorder
b. Schizo-manic disorder
c. Manic-depressive disorder
d. Schizo-depressive disorder
40.
This definition of deviance assumes that no act is inherently deviant,
thus, it is not the act itself that is deviant, but society’s reaction to it that
determines whether or not the act is deviant.
a. Natural law
b. Critical
c. Normative
d. Labeling
41.
Edwin Lemert, a labeling theorist identified 2 types of deviance. A
person who is involved in isolated case of cheating for example, which
is not regarded by the public as deviant, belongs to this category
a. Primary deviance
b. Secondary deviance
c. Positive deviance
d. Negative deviance
42.
Ne-Yo Zep generally obeys his parents, is a good student in school
and a good member of his community. He believes in doing what is
right and is concerned of the reaction of his parents, friends, teachers
and people in the community, thus, he refrains from doing negative
activities that would ruin his good reputation. What theory in deviant
behavior could explain Ne-Yo Zep’s behavior?
a. Social control
b. Social learning
c. Labeling
d. Cultural transmission
43.
They tend to be rigid, with well-defined roles.
a. Open families
b. Enmeshed families
c. Closed families
d. Random families
44.
The boundaries between some or all of the members are
undifferentiated, permeable and fluid
a. Enmeshed families
b. Healthy family
c. Open families
d. None of the above
45.
The boundary among family members is neither too rigid nor too
diffuse
a. Closed families
b. Enmeshed families
c. Open families
d. Healthy family
46.
It has to do with human interaction having to do with mutual aid or
alliance of persons seeking for common goal or reward.
a. competition
b. cooperation
c. accommodation
d. socialization
47.
It is a form of emotionalized and violent opposition in which major
concern is to overcome the opponent a means of securing a given goal
or reward.
a. cooperation
b. conflict
c. competition
d. none of the above
48.
Refers to a process of conscious efforts of men or women to develop
a working arrangements among themselves so as to suspend conflict
and make their relationships more tolerable
a. cooperation
b. accommodation
c. assimilation
d. amalgamation
49.
Known as a cultural fusion-a blending of values, attitudes and beliefs.
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. amalgamation
d. acculturation
50.
Which of these statements does not describe accurate criteria for
PTSD, as described by the DSM-5?
a. Persistent avoidance of memories, thoughts, feelings, or external
reminders associated with the traumatic event(s) lasting for more
than one month.
b. Exposure to serious injury, sexual violence, or threatened
or actual death lasting more than one month.
c. The presence of memories, dreams, or dissociated reactions that
are involuntary, intrusive, distressing, and recurrent lasting for
more than one month.
d. Negative, distorted, or exaggerated, beliefs, cognitions, or
moods associated with the traumatic event that lasts for more
than one month.
JINN HBSE 3RD WEEK
51.
Jamie, while meeting with the psychologist, states that she has been
experiencing frequent panic attacks brought on by feelings of anxiety
in social situations. The feelings of fear and anxiety are strongest
whenever she is alone in a large crowd or in public spaces where there
is no easily identifiable exits in case of an emergency. Jamie could be
exhibiting symptoms of which of these disorders?
a. Agoraphobia
b. Panic disorder
c. Social anxiety disorder
d. Generalized anxiety disorder
52.
Which of the following information must be included for the family of a
client diagnosed with dependent personality disorder?
a. Address coping skills
b. Explore panic attacks
c. Promote exercise programs
d. Decrease aggressive outbursts
53.
In planning care for a client with borderline personality disorder, a
worker must be aware that this client is prone to develop which of the
following conditions?
a. Binge eating
b. Memory loss
c. Cult membership
d. Delusional thinking
54.
A client with a diagnosis of narcissistic personality disorder has been
given a day pass from the psychiatric hospital. The client is due to
return at 6pm. At 5pm the client telephones the worker in charge of the
unit and says “6 o’clock is too early. I feel like coming back at 7:30.”
The worker would be most therapeutic by telling the client to:
a. Return immediately, to demonstrate control
b. Return on time or restrictions will be imposed
c. Come back at 6:45, as a compromise to set limits
d. Come back as soon as possible or the police will be sent
55.
A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the unit after
slashing his wrist. Which of the following goals is most important after
promoting safety?
a. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
b. Identify whether splitting is present in the client’s thoughts
c. Talk about the client’s acting out and self-destructive tendencies
d. Encourage the client to understand why he blames others
56.
A worker notices other clients on the unit avoiding a client diagnosed
with antisocial personality disorder. When discussing appropriate
behavior in group therapy, which of the following comments is
expected about this client by his peers?
a. Lack of honesty
b. Belief in superstitions
c. Show of temper tantrums
d. Constant need for attention
57.
A client with a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder has negative
feelings toward the other clients on the unit and considers them all to
be “bad.” The worker understands this defense is known as:
a. Splitting
b. Ambivalence
c. Passive aggression
d. Reaction formation
58.
The client with antisocial personality disorder:
a. Suffers from a great deal of anxiety
b. Is generally unable to postpone gratification
c. Rapidly learns by experience and punishment
d. Has a great sense of responsibility toward others
59.
A worker discusses job possibilities with a client with schizoid
personality disorder. Which suggestion by the worker would be
helpful?
a. “You can work in a family restaurant part-time on the weekend
and holidays.”
b. “Maybe your friend could get you that customer service job
where you work only on the weekends.”
c. “Your idea of applying for the position of filing and
organizing records is worth pursuing.”
d. “Being an introvert limits the employment opportunities you can
pursue.”
60.
Which of the following statements is typical for a client diagnosed with
a personality disorder?
a. “I understand you’re the one to blame.”
b. “I must be seen first; it’s not negotiable.”
c. “I see nothing humorous in this situation.”
d. “I wish someone would select the outfit for me.
61.
Which of the following statements is expected from client with
borderline personality disorder with a history of dysfunctional
relationships?
a.
b.
c.
d.
“I won’t get involved in another relationship
“I’m determined to look for the perfect partner.”
“I’ve decided to use better communication skills
“I’m going to be an equal partner in a relationship.”
62.
Which of the following characteristics or client histories substantiates
a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder?
a. Delusional thinking
b. Feelings of inferiority
c. Disorganized thinking
d. Multiple criminal charges
63.
Which of the following types of behavior is expected from a client
diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder
a. Eccentric
b. Exploitative
c. Hypersensitive
d. Seductive
64.
A worker is orienting a new client to the unit when another client rushes
down the hallway and asks the worker to sit down and talk. The client
requesting the worker’s attention is extremely manipulative and uses
socially acting out behaviors when demands are unmet. The worker
should:
a. Suggest that the client requesting attention speak with another
staff member
b. Leave the new client and talk with the other client avoid
precipitating acting out behaviour
c. Tell the interrupting client to sit down and be client, stating,
“I’ll be back as soon as possible.”
d. Introduce the two clients and suggest that the client join the new
client and the worker on the tour
65.
Which of the following conditions is likely to coexist in clients with a
diagnosis of borderline personality disorder?
a. Avoidance
b. Delirium
c. Depression
d. Disorientation
66.
Which of the following behaviors by a client with dependent personality
disorder shows the client has made progress toward the goal of
increasing problem solving skills?
a. The client is courteous
b. The client asks questions
c. The client stops acting out
d. The client controls emotions
67.
A person with antisocial personality disorder has difficulty relating to
others because of never having learned to:
a. Count on others
b. Empathize with others
c. Be dependent on others
d. Communicate with others socially
68.
A worker notices that a client is mistrustful and shows hostile behavior.
Which of the following types of personality disorder is associated with
these characteristics?
a. Antisocial
b. Avoidant
c. Borderline
d. Paranoid
69.
A young, handsome man with a diagnosis of antisocial personality
disorder is being discharged from the hospital next week. He asks the
worker for her phone number so that he can call her for a date. The
worker’s best response would be:
a. “We are not permitted to date clients.”
b. “No, you are a client and I am a worker.”
c. “I like you, but our relationship is professional.”
d. “It’s against my professional ethics to date clients.”
70.
Which of the following characteristics is expected for a client with
paranoid personality disorder who receives bad news?
a. The client is overly dramatic after hearing the facts
b. The client focuses on self to not become over-anxious
c. The client responds from a rational, objective point of view
d. The client doesn’t spend time thinking about the information.
71.
A worker is assessing a client diagnosed with dependent personality
disorder. Which of the following characteristics is a major component
to this disorder?
a. Abrasive to others
b. Indifferent to others
c. Manipulative of others
d. Over reliance on others
72.
A 20-year old college student has been brought to the psychiatric
hospital by her parents. Her admitting diagnosis is borderline
personality disorder. When talking with the parents, which information
would the worker expect to be included in the client’s history? Select
all that apply.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Choices:
Impulsiveness
Lability of mood
Psychomotor retardation
Self-destructive behavior
a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. I, II and IV
d. II, III and IV
73.
Which of the following assessment findings is seen in a client
diagnosed with borderline personality disorder?
a. Abrasions in various healing stages
b. Intermittent episodes of hypertension
c. Alternating tachycardia and bradycardia
d. Mild state of euphoria with disorientation
74.
A hospitalized client, diagnosed with a borderline personality disorder,
consistently breaks the unit’s rules. This behavior should be confronted
because it will help the client:
a. Control anger
b. Reduce anxiety
c. Set realistic goals
d. Become more self-aware
75.
Which of the following characteristics or situations is indicated when a
client with borderline personality disorder has a crisis?
a. Antisocial behavior
b. Suspicious behavior
c. Relationship problems
d. Auditory hallucinations
76.
A client with antisocial personality is trying to convince a worker that
he deserves special privileges and that an exception to the rules
should be made for him. Which of the following responses is the most
appropriate?
a. “I believe we need to sit down and talk about this.
b. “Don’t you know better than to try to bend the rules?”
c. “What you’re asking me to do is unacceptable.”
d. “Why don’t you bring this request to the community meeting?”
77.
A client with schizotypal personality disorder is sitting in a puddle of
urine. She’s playing in it, smiling, and softly singing a child’s song.
Which action would be best?
a. Admonish the client for not using the bathroom
b. Firmly tell the client that her behavior is unacceptable
c. Ask the client if she’s ready to get cleaned up now
d. Help the client to the shower, and change the bedclothes.
78.
When working with the worker during the orientation phase of the
relationship, a client with a borderline personality disorder would
probably have the most difficulty in:
a. Controlling anxiety
b. Terminating the session on time
c. Accepting the psychiatric diagnosis
d. Setting mutual goals for the relationship
79.
When caring for a client with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality
disorder, the worker should:
a. Set limits on manipulative behavior
b. Encourage participation in group therapy
c. Respect the client’s needs for social isolation
d. Understand that seductive behavior is expected.
80.
Which of the following nursing interventions has priority for a client with
borderline personality disorder?
a. Maintain consistent and realistic limits
b. Give instructions for meeting basic self- care needs
c. Engage in daytime activities to stimulate wakefulness
d. Have the client attend group therapy on a daily basis
81.
A worker at Workerslabs Medical Center is developing a care plan for
a female client with post-traumatic stress disorder. Which of the
following would she do initially?
a. Instruct the client to use distraction techniques to cope with
flashbacks.
b. Encourage the client to put the past in proper perspective.
c. Encourage the client to verbalize thoughts and feelings
about the trauma.
d. Avoid discussing the traumatic event with client.
82.
A group of community workers sees and plans care for various clients
with different types of problems. Which of the following clients would
they consider the most vulnerable to post- traumatic stress disorder?
a. An 8-year-old boy with asthma who has recently failed a grade
in school
b. A 20-year-old college student with DM who experienced date
rape
c. A 40-year-old widower who has recently lost his wife to cancer
d. A wife of an individual with a severe substance abuse problem
83.
Which outcome is most appropriate for Francis who has a dissociative
disorder?
a. Francis will deal with uncomfortable emotions on a
conscious level.
b. Francis will modify stress with the use of relaxation techniques
c. Francis will identify his anxiety responses.
d. Francis will use problem-solving strategies when feeling
stressed.
84.
The psychiatric worker uses cognitive-behavioral techniques when
working with a client who experiences panic attacks. Which of the
following techniques are common to this theoretical framework? Select
all that apply.
a. Helping the client to use controlled relaxation breathing
b. Helping the client examine evidence of stressors
c. Questioning the client about early childhood relationships
d. Teaching the client about anxiety and panic
85.
Anne Bajo only attends social events when a family member is also
present. She exhibits behavior typical of which anxiety disorder?
a. Agoraphobia
b. Generalized anxiety disorder
c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. Post-traumatic stress disorder
86.
Mr. Dingdong Dentist is newly admitted to a psychiatric unit because
of severe obsessive compulsive behavior. Which initial response by
the worker would be most therapeutic for him?
a. Accepting the client’s ritualistic behaviors
b. Challenging the client’s need for rituals
c. Expressing concern about the harmfulness of the client’s rituals
d. Limiting the client’s rituals that are excessive
87.
Victoria Malihim is a client with a fear of air travel. She is being treated
in a mental institution for phobic disorder. The treatment method
involves systematic desensitization. The worker would consider the
treatment successful if:
a. Victoria Malihim plans a trip requiring air travel
b. Victoria Malihim takes a short trip in an airplane.
c. Victoria Malihim recognizes unrealistic nature of the fear of riding
on airplanes.
d. Victoria Malihim verbalizes a decreased fear about air travel.
88.
The psychoanalytic theory explains the etiology of anorexia nervosa
as:
a. the achievement of secondary gain through control of eating.
b. a conflict between mother and child over separation and
individualization.
c. family dynamics that lead enmeshment of members.
d. the incorporation of thinness as an ideal body image
89.
Oliver Orongsolong has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk
at least three times in the past month. Which action by Oliver would
best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the coworker?
a. Ignore the co-worker’s behavior, and frequently assess the
clients assigned to the co-worker
b. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff
meeting
c. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate
supervisor
d. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
90.
Ursula Tinamisan is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She
tells the worker that she only uses drugs when under stress and
therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense
mechanism is the client using?
a. Compensation
b. Denial
c. Suppression
d. Undoing
91.
Lolita Magtanan recommends that the family of a client with substancerelated disorder attend a support group, such as Al Anon and Alateen.
The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the
problem and to:
a. change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
b. learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
c. maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
d. prevent substance problems vulnerable family members.
92.
Malou Ang, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder,
tells the worker that she calls out her sick sister Lulu. Ang occasionally
when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior
can be described as:
a. caretaking
b. codependent
c. helpful.
d. supportive.
93.
A client tends to be insensitive to others, engages in abusive behaviors
and does not have a sense of remorse. Which personality disorder is
he likely to have?
a. Narcissistic
b. Paranoid
c. Histrionic
d. Antisocial
94.
A teenage girl is diagnosed to have borderline personality disorder.
Which manifestations support the diagnosis?
a. Lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs and
impulsive behaviour
b. Social withdrawal, inadequacy, sensitivity to rejection and
criticism
c. Suspicious, hypervigilance and coldness
d. Preoccupation with perfectionism, orderliness and need for
control
95.
Five months after the incident the client complains of difficulty to
concentrate, poor appetite, inability to sleep and guilt. She is likely
suffering from:
a. Adjustment disorder
b. Somatoform Disorder
c. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d. Post traumatic disorder
96.
Anxiety is caused by:
a. an objective threat
b. a subjectively perceived threat
c. hostility turned to the self
d. masked depression
97.
Which factors are associated with the development of post-traumatic
stress disorder?
a. Anxiety and low self-esteem.
b. Distorted and negative cognitive functioning,
c. Excess serotonin and norepinephrine levels.
d. Severity of the stressor and availability of support systems.
98.
Deviance refers to
a. A trait
b. A behavior or action
c. Something that is always a crime
d. Both A and B
99.
In regard to the function of deviance and society, what does Durkheim
argue will happen if we eliminate all serious crime?
a. We will eliminate the need for a criminal justice system
b. People will continue to disagree about what is deviant
c. We will live in a utopia that is completely free from all deviance
d. Society will criminalize less serious action
100.
Mitch, who is very muscular and active, engages in criminal activity.
What somatotype would he fit, according to William Sheldon?
a. Endomorph
b. Ectomorph
c. Mesomorph
d. Sonomorph
JINN HBSE 4TH WEEK
101.
Winnie Kaldero has suffered from schizophrenia since her early teens.
She adopts the idea that she will never be able to hold a steady job or
have a family, so she finds life and mental illness more bearable when
she gets high on high-strength pain killers every day. This mode of
adaptation is an example of?
a. Rebellion
b. Conformity
c. Ritualism
d. Retreatism
102.
Which of the following statements regarding Conflict Theory is not
true?
a. Karl Marx developed Conflict Theory
b. The class conflict was between the proletariat and the
bourgeoisie
c. Conflict Theory focused on macro-structures
d. The proletariat own the means of production
103.
Which theoretical tradition in sociology emphasizes that social life is
only possible because people attach meaning to things?
a. Symbolic Interactionism
b. Conflict Theory
c. Functionalism
d. Sociological Imagination
104.
An example of someone who is deviant but not criminal is:
a. Someone who steals a pack of gum at Walmart
b. Someone who has committed murder
c. Someone who regularly speeds (around 10 km over the
speed limit)
d. None of the above
105.
Raising eyebrows and gossip are examples of
a. informal punishment
b. formal punishment
c. stigma
d. none of the above
106.
Lisa is negatively evaluated by her peers because she is 16 and
pregnant. According to symbolic interactionist contributions, Lisa is
being
a. punished
b. shamed
c. ostracized
d. stigmatized
107.
The chief distinguishing feature of psychotic disorders is
a. confusion of fantasy and reality.
b. antisocial conduct
c. overwhelming anxiety.
d. obsessive behavior.
108.
A common form of mental disorder afflicting 10-20% of the population
is
a. schizophrenia.
b. senile dementia.
c. depression
d. delusional disorder.
109.
If you met an individual who appeared to be very charming at first, but
later you discovered that he or she manipulated people, caused others
hurt without a second thought, and could not be depended upon, you
might suspect him of being
a. dependent
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. antisocial
110.
A person who has an extreme lack of self- confidence and who allows
others
to
run
his
or
her
life
is
said
to
have
a(n)_____________personality
a. dependent
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. antisocial
111.
112.
Persons who suffer from paraphilias are categorized as having
a. somatoform disorders.
b. generalized anxiety.
c. sexual disorders.
d. personality disorders.
Irrational and very specific fears that persist even when there is no
real danger to a person are called
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
114.
anxieties.
dissociation’s.
phobias.
obsessions.
In some countries, it is normal to defecate or urinate in public. This
makes it clear that judgments of the normality of behavior are
a. culturally relative.
b. statistical.
c. a matter of subjective discomfort.
d. related to conformity
.
Three-year old Harry Porter ate lead paint which was chipping off the
walls in an old home. Consequently, he developed a psychosis based
on brain damage due to lead poisoning. Shawn’s psychosis would be
called a(n)
a. functional psychosis.
b. organic psychosis.
c. neural psychosis.
d. neo-cortical psychosis.
115.
False beliefs that are held even when the facts contradict them are
called
a. fantasies.
b. hallucinations.
c. illusions.
d. delusions.
116.
Gym Paredes is in a constant state of anxiety and also has brief,
sudden periods of panic. He also believes these periods of panic will
occur when he’s in a public location; therefore, Gym is afraid to leave
his house. Gym’s diagnosis is
a. agoraphobia.
b. panic disorder.
c. panic disorder with agoraphobia.
d. panic disorder without agoraphobia.
When Nemo Saragero returned from combat in the Gulf War, she
began experiencing high anxiety that has persisted without any
improvement. This example illustrates which anxiety related disorder?
a. panic
b. post-traumatic stress
c. phobia
d. obsessive-compulsive
117.
118.
Guess Abelgas has been homeless for the past 3 years. The stress of
being homeless seems to have contributed to the onset of psychosis.
This example illustrates what risk factor for mental disorders?
a. social
b. family
c. psychological
d. biological
119.
You have begun working with a family in which there is a verified
history of incestuous relationships. Of the following characteristics,
which one is MOST often found in families in which incestuous
relationships have occurred?
a. Enmeshment of family members
b. Relaxed attitude toward sexuality
c. Symbiotic mother-child relationships
d. Distorted communication patterns
120.
The distinction between obsessions and compulsions is the distinction
between
a. engaging in behaviors that are merely inconvenient and those
that are severely disruptive.
b. having positive and negative feelings toward an object or event.
c. thoughts that are evidence of neurosis or those that are evidence
of psychosis.
d. having repetitious thoughts or engaging in repetitious
actions.
121.
Hearing voices that are not really there would be called a(n)
a. hallucination.
b. delusion.
c. auditory regression.
d. depressive psychosis.
122.
Obsessive-compulsive behavior, panic, and phobias are formally
classified as___________ disorders.
a. psychotic
b. manic
c. anxiety
d. mood
123.
“I believe Amanda’s anxiety and defensiveness are the result of an
unrealistic self-image and an inability to take responsibility for her
feelings.” This statement would most likely have been made by a
a. psychodynamic theorist.
b. Freudian therapist.
c. humanistic psychologist.
d. behavioristic theorist.
124.
Irrational acts a person feels driven to repeat are called________.
They help control anxiety caused by____________.
a. obsessions; compulsions
b. compulsions; obsessions
c. compulsions; defense mechanisms
d. defense mechanisms; obsessions
125.
John has a lack of interest in friends or lovers and experiences very
little emotion. He can be described as having which of the following
personality disorders?
a. avoidant
b. schizoid
c. borderline
d. paranoid
126.
Behavioral problems caused by senility, drug damage, brain injury or
disease, and the toxic effects of poisons are classified_______as
disorders.
a. organic
b. psychotic
c. somatic
d. substance use
127.
Which of the following personality disorders describes a person who
has an extremely unstable self-image, is moody, and does not develop
stable relationships?
a. borderline
b. histrionic
c. narcissistic
d. schizoid
128.
Julie can’t stop thinking about germs and dirt. She spends all day
cleaning her house. She is suffering from
a. phobic disorder.
b. paranoia.
c. delusional disorder.
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder,
129.
Which of the following personality disorders descibes a person who
has an exaggerated sense of self-importance and who needs constant
admiration?
a. dependent
b. histrionic
c. narcissistic
d. schizoid
130.
A core feature of all abnormal behavior is that it is
a. culturally absolute.
b. learned
c. maladaptive.
d. dependent on age.
131.
Johnny Deep, a high school sophomore, occasionally drinks one
beer. His friends don’t care. His parents, however, are very upset and
punish him severely. Johnny responds by sneaking alcoholic
beverages whenever he can. Johnny’s drinking illustrates
a. Primary deviance
b. Secondary deviance
c. Positive sanction
d. Formal control
132.
According to Robert Merton’s strain theory, an educated person who
stays in the same job without advancement for years is a
a. Retreatist
b. Ritualist
c. Innovator
d. Conformist
133.
Which contribution has conflict theory made to the understanding of
deviance?
a. Deviance is behavior labeled deviant by society
b. If a society doesn’t provide approved means to achieve specific
goals, people will act out in a defiant manner
c. Deviance is defined by the people in control of society
d. People rely on their inner and outer controls to keep them from
committing crime.
134.
Those who view social control as an indispensable requirement for
social life are using the _________perspective
a. Functionalist
b. Conflict
c. Symbolic interactionist
d. Relativist
135.
Bruno Mars is a very inteligent student. Last wear he was on the honor
roll. Recently he began hanging out with friends who spend more time
playing video games than studying; they routinely earn C’s and D’s.
Over time, Fred slowly stops doing his homework and turning in work
for extra credit. He drops out of his honors classes, and his grades
drop from mostly A’s to C’s. The________of deviance best explains
what has happened.
a. Structural strain theory
b. social control theory
c. diferential association theory
d. anomie theory
136.
According to conflict theorists
a. criminal prosecution of deviance serves all members of society.
b. the capitalist ruling class protects the masses.
c. criminal acts are acts that the ruling class brands as
criminal.
d. adolescents learn crime from subcultures.
137.
Labeling theorists contend that
a. those in power choose to label as deviant anything that is against
their interests.
b. some acts, such as rape, are always labeled criminal,
c. labeling people as deviant has no effect on their behavior.
d. after being labeled deviant, people think of themselves as
deviant and act accordingly.
138.
Travis Hirschi argues that young people's strong four-part bond to
society favorably influences their social conformity. Which of the
following is NOT one of the four parts of this bond?
a. affection
b. involvement
c. attachment
d. commitment
139.
140.
In the study of deviance, control theory advocates would ask
a. "Why are people deviant?"
b. "Why are people not deviant?"
c. "How does labeling contribute to deviance?"
d. "How does social control cause deviance?”
In order for a deviant act to be considered a crime
a. the state must undertake the political process of
criminalizing it.
b. it must be committed by someone labeled a criminal.
c. it must involve the violation of a person or property.
d. the majority of the population must consider the act criminal.
141.
A child struggles to learn how to read and is frequently teased about
it by his siblings and is referred to as "slow" by his parents and
teachers. He underperforms in school and never thinks about going to
`college. Ultimately he drops out before graduating from high school,
telling the school counselor that he's just not a smart guy who can learn
from books. This is an example of which theory of deviance?
a. Labeling theory
b. Strain theory
c. Cultural transmission theory
d. Role theory
142.
Bulgari Valenciano goes to a training session for election volunteers in
his precinct. There are 15 participants and two trainers. This would be
an example of which kind of group?
a. А party
b. A large group
c. A primary group
d. A small group
143.
A secondary group is characterized by _______________.
a. Members who are not interchangeable
b. Intimate relationships
c. A limited number of members
d. Voluntary membership in the group
144.
Ely Pante's parents divorced when she was five years old. By the time
she was eight, both her parents had remarried and she had two stepsiblings on her father's side and a half- brother on her mother's side.
Josephine's two new families are examples of what type of family?
a. A blended family
b. A nuclear family
c. An extended family
d. A kinship network
145.
When a number of nuclear families are linked together by virtue of the
kinship between parents and children and/or siblings,
a. Group family
b. Extended family
c. Clannish family
d. Polygamous family
Families whose parents are unavailable to take care and/or supervise
their children before and after school and/or vacation days
a. Forgetful family
b. Latchkey family
c. Indifferent family
d. Carefree family
146.
147.
What is a folkway?
a. Are formally defined and are enforced by designated people
b. Norms for routine or casual interaction. "Everyday
behaviors."
c. Specific statements that people hold to be true or false
d. Have great moral significance. "taboos"
148.
This value means being taken by one's fellow for what he is and being
treated in accordance with his status known as:
a. Saving race
b. Social acceptance
c. Pakikisama
d. Personalism
149.
A politician's refusal to cooperate and support community project
because he was not consulted by those in-charge could be attributed
to the cultural value of:
a. Pakikisama
b. Pakikipagkapwa-tao
c. Amor propio
d. None of the above
150.
The family is both
a. A formal social group and an institution
b. A primary and a secondary social group
c. A primary social group and an institution
A secondary social group and a formal social group
JINN HBSE 5th WEEK
1. It is the scientific study of human social relationship with special
emphasis upon groups and institutions.
a. Sociology
b. Ecology
c. Demography
d. All of the above
2. A problem in human relationships which seriously threatens society
or impedes the important aspirations of many people.
a. Social problem
b. Social norms
c. Social issue
d. Social responsibility
3. Refers to any standard or rule that states what human beings should
or should not think.
a. Values
b. Norms
c. Culture
d. All of the above
4. Any failure to conform the customary norms.
a. Social change
b. Social deviation
c. Social action
d. Social disorganization
5. Innovation of machine technology have had and are continuing to
have a revolutionizing influences and economic and social political
system.
a. Heterogeneity
b. Mobility
c. Industrialization
d. Urbanization
6. A significant result of the increasing concentration of population in the
cities has been a corresponding multiplication of contact among
people of the different ethnic, religious, regional and cultural
backgrounds.
a. Heterogeneity
b. Mobility
c. Industrialization
d. Urbanization
7. The ff. are societal factors and risk condition of social problem,
except.
a. Official society
b. Common customs
c. Mass media
d. Peer group
8. It deals with children, minor or youth below twenty one years of age
who break laws or fail to do what law requires.
a. Juvenile delinquency
b. Children with special needs
c. Street children
d. Orphaned
9. Except one are the ff. classes of delinquency.
a. Environmental
b. Emotional maladjustment
c. Psychiatric
d. Separation
10. A written, graphic or other forms of communication intended to
excite lascivious feelings.
a. Sexual abuse
b. Pornography
c. Gangs
d. Violence
11. These delinquent s are the chronic lawbreakers
laws a habit they cannot escape or avoid from it.
who breaking of
a. Emotional mal adjustment
b. Environmental
c. Psychiatric
d. Separation
12. It is related to serious emotional disturbances in the family or to
mental ill-health.
a. Emotional mal adjustment
b. Environmental
c. Psychiatric
d. Separation
13. The ff. are formal criminal justice system,except.
a. Police
b. Prosecution
c. Courts and correction
d. Social worker
14. It is considered the fifth component of entire criminal justice
system.
a. Community
b. School
c. Church
d. All of the above
15. A person not at work for more than a specified minimum period of
time.
a. Underemployment
b. Unemployed
c. Employed
d. All of the above
16. This type of unemployment which consequence a labor displacing
inventions.it has been observed the industrialization, thought of as
vehicle to progress, was capital- intensive and import substituting.
a. Seasonal unemployment
b. Technological unemployment
c. Cyclical unemployment
d. All of the above
17. This type of unemployment is that which occurs during certain
periods resulting from reductions in demands for labor attributable
either to the seasonal pattern of consumers habits and customs or
to variation in production associated with climatic change.
a. Seasonal unemployment
b. Technological unemployment
c. Cyclical unemployment
d. All of the above
18. The following are causes of unemployment, except.
a. Change season
b. Technological unemployment
c. Lack of adequate training
d. Poverty
19. A sexual deviation which is the indiscriminate provision of sexual
relations in return for money.
a. Promiscuity
b. Prostitution
c. Deviance
d. Escort service
20. It refers to any conduct that violates social expectations.
a. Deviance
b. Delinquency
c. Crimes
d. Norms
21. These are apartments to which a girl who may have an office work
or who may be a student during the day is called so that she may
ply her clandestine at night.
a. Motel
b. Hotel
c. Call houses
d. None of the above
22. Is an infection transmitted from one person to person by intimate
body contact or other form of skin to skin contact with an infected
person.
a. Syphilis
b. Venereal disease
c. Gonorrhoea
d. HIV
23. It causes an acute local infections accompanied by itching and pain,
but it is without any serious known consequences.
a. Herpes virus
b. Gonorrhea
c. Syphilis
d. HIV
24. It is viral disease that destroys the body’s ability to resist infection.
a. AIDS
b. Herpes virus
c. Syphilis
d. All of the above
25. The term used to refer to a man or a boy who is effeminate or who
has qualities or traits of a woman or a girl.
a. Homosexual
b. Gays
c. Lesbian
d. transgender
26. except one are the following factors of origin and nature of
Homosexuality.
a. Genetic
b. Overindulgent mother
c. Cruel or detached parents
d. None of these
27. A process whereby the therapist help people utilize their own
mental associations, memories, and life potentials to achieve their
own therapeutic goals.
a. Psychotherapy
b. Hypnotherapy
c. Group therapy
d. Psychiatric therapy
28. This therapy sessions help the homosexual focus on social and
interpersonal relationships, since the homosexual is a person who
has difficulty relating to the opposite sex, the opportunity to engage in
social interaction in mixed therapy session is valuable.
a. Psychotherapy
b. Hypnotherapy
c. Group therapy
d. Psychiatric therapy
29. Refers to a girl or woman who has born a child out of wedlock.
a. Unwed mother
b. Single mother
c. Early pregnancy
d. All of the above
30. What law revokes all powers and authority of local government to
grant franchise, licence, or permit and regulating wagers or betting by
the public on horse and dog races and other form of gambling
activities.
a. PD 449
b. PD519
c. PD1157
d. PD 771
31. Is the condition that is said to exist when people lack the means to
satisfy their basic need.
a. Poverty
b. Malnutrition
c. Mendicant
d. All of the above
32. A resolution passed by the United Nations, by placing the child in the
center of the world’s attention, it aims to invite the community to
renew and re affirm its concern for the present condition and the
future of the children.
a. International year of the child
b. International day of the children
c. International week of the child
d. International month of the children
33. Using a drugs and substance having no legitimate medical
application for purpose other than research.
a. Drug dependence
b. Drug addiction
c. Drug abuse
d. All of the above
34. Is a state of psychic or physical dependence or both on a dangerous
drug following administration or use of that drug on a periodic or
continuous basis.
a. Drug dependence
b. Drug addiction
c. Drug abuse
d. All of the above
35. A state of periodic and chronic intoxication produced by the habitual
consumption of drug either in its material or synthetic form, which
is detrimental to both individual and society.
a. Drug dependence
b. Drug addiction
c. Drug abuse
d. All of the above
36. The following the common signs of drug abuse, except.
a. Change in behaviour
b. Change in mood
c. Change in appearance
d. Change in nutrition
37. A physiological and psychological dependence on alcohol which
affects adversely any one important area oa person’s life.
a. Alcoholic
b. Alcoholism
c. Alcohol
d. All of the above
38. A type of divorce where either of the parties has no right lawfully to
marry again.
a. Legal separation
b. Divorce
c. Concubinage
d. Adultery
39. Is an act which is committed by any married woman who shall have
sexual intercourse with a man not her husband.
a. Adultery
b. Concubinage
c. Separation
d. Reconciliation
40. Is on the part of the husband who shall keep a mistress in the
conjugal dwelling place and shall have a sexual intercourse under
scandalous circumstances with other woman not his wife.
a. Adultery
b. Concubinage
c. Separation
d. Reconciliation
41. A divorce which does not dissolve the bonds of matrimony, leaves
the way open for the future reconciliation.
a. Relative divorce
b. Absolute divorce
c. Legal separation
d. None of the above
42. The betting or staking of something of value, with consciousness of
risk and hope of gain, on the outcome of a game a contest or an
uncertain event the result of which may be determined by chance or
accident or have an unexpected result by reason of the bettor’s
miscalculation.
a. Gambling
b. Cock fighting
c. Horse races
d. All of the above
43. The spacing of children and that parents are completely free to
choose the number of children they want.
a. Birth spacing
b. Birth control
c. Family planning
d. All of the above
44. The law which established an integrated system for the control and
education of begging and providing penalties for both giver and
receiver.
a. Anti drug law
b. Anti- fencing law
c. Solicitation law
d. Anti –mendicancy law
45. When the definition deviance is brought about by labelling of a
social audience, deviance is hence viewed from?
a. Neo Marxist perspective
b. Neo- classical theory
c. Objectivist perspectives
d. Subjectivist perspective
46. What measures deprivation?
a. Gender development index
b. Human development index
c. Gender related development index
d. Human poverty index
47. One of the focused programs of DSWD that seeks to encourage
people’s participation in the conceptualization and planning of
program based on their needs and analysed problems, implement
and monitor, evaluate and reflect on their projects.
a. Top down approach
b. Cooperative approach
c. Bottoms up approach
d. Empowerment approach
48. The phenomenon of people marching in the streets with placards
and/or mass delegation presenting petitions to congress is an
example of.
a. Social protest
b. Mobilization
c. Social action
d. Rallying
49. A gambling den in a remote rural area in the mountain province is
operating very near school premises, resulting in school truancy and
other problems on the part of teen – age children like hanging around
with undesirable characters and taking alcoholic drinks. A group of
mothers was able to pressure the town mayor to order the closure of
the gambling den. What category of group use is manifested?
a. For change in the school situation or condition outside the
group
b. For collective problem solving
c. For effect on participants
d. For un learning
50. An order that can be issue even without medico legal certificate for
the safety of women victims of domestic violence good for 15 days.
a. Barangay protection order
b. Permanent protection order
c. Temporary restraining order
d. Temporary protection order
Pre final JAYRALD TORREJOS, RSW 1ST WEEK
SWPPS
SOCIAL WELFARE POLICIES PROGRAMS AND SERVICES
1. Which among the following diversion programs maybe resorted to at the level of the
court?
a. Restitution of Property
b. Counseling of the child in conflict with the law child’s family
c. Care, guidance and supervision orders
d. Confiscation and forfeiture of the proceeds or instrument of the crime
e. Written or oral reprimand or citation
f. Institutional care and custody
g. Payment of the cause of the proceeding and fine
Choices:
A.) abcdefg
B.) acde
C.) abcd
D.) def
2. Dingdong Dentist was charged of destructive arson. At the time of the commission of
the offense, he was sixteen years old 3 months and 8 days and acted with discernment.
The court find him guilty of the offense charged. When he was convicted, he is already
19 years old. Which among the following statement is applicable in this case?
a. The child will apply through the local social welfare officer for a suspended sentence
b. The right to suspension of sentence cannot be applied because he is already at the
age of emancipation at the time he was convicted of the offense charge
c. The child is entitled to suspension of sentenced without the need for an
application even if the child is already 18 at the time of the pronouncement of
his/her guilt.
d. The child is entitled to suspension of sentence because at the time of the commission
of the offense he was minor because it is the consideration under the law
3. Which among the following is incorrect?
a. A child below 15 years old who is allowed to work with the approval of DOLE will not
work between 8pm to 6am while a child 15 years old but below 18 will not work
between 10pm to 6am
b. A children below 15 years old who is allowed to work with the approval of DOLE
shall have 20 hours work a week but not more than 4 hours a day while a child 15
years but below 18 is allowed to work 8 hours a day but not more than 40 hours a
week
c. Where a child’s employment or participation in public entertainment or information
through cinema, radio, theater, TV or other form of media, employment contract
concluded by parents with express agreement of the child and with approval of DOLE
d. Children below 15 years old shall not be employed even if the child works
directly under the sole responsibility of parents unless there is an approval of
dole
4. Which among the following are the changes brought about by Republic Act 9523?
a. Declaration of a child abandoned and available for adoption from judicialta an
administrative process
b. Petition to be filed by heads of the NGOs, LGUs to the DSWD field office to be
endorsed to DSWD secretary for the certification of availability for adoption
c. Period of abandonment of a child from six (6) months to three (3) continuous months
from the last contact with the parents
d. Period for petition for restoration of parental authority of from DSWD from 6 months
to 3 months
e. Social case study report to be assigned only registered social workers with an
updated license number with the attached pieces of evidence to prove that the child
is abandoned
f.
DSWD certification of the child’s availability for adoption is the sole basis for the
issuance of foundling certificate by the Local Civil Registrar who shall transmit the
same to PSA
Choices: A.) abcdef
B.) bcde
C.) def D.) abde
5. In the Republic Act No. 9523, registered social worker/s are required to conduct, sign
and submit a social case study report with attached pieces of evidence to prove that the
child is abandoned. Which among the following are the pertinent documents attached to
the social case study report?
a. Tri-media certification for 3 consecutive times
b. Publication in a newspaper of general circulation
c. Birth Certification
d. Returned registered mail to last address of the parent/s
e. Police report
f.
Barangay certificate
Choices: A.) abcdef
B.) bcde
Case Study No. 1- A Love Affair
C.) def D.) abde
Angelica Sinaniban has an enormous relationship with Loydie Cruz and eventually
became pregnant without the benefit of marriage. Angelica and Loydie into believing that
she had an abortion but in fact completed her pregnancy and gave birth to baby Julian.
She intended the child to have the child adopted through Sun and Moon Home for
Children in Manila. On August 13, 2009, Angelica voluntarily surrendered baby Julian by
way of Deed of Voluntary Committed to DSWD. On November 27, 2009, the DSWD
issued Certificate Declaring the Child Legally Available for Adoption (CDCLAA).
Thereafter, a local matching conference was held and baby Julian was matched to
spouses. Medina from the Kaisahang Bahay Foundation. On May 5, 2010, Angelica
changed her mind about the adoption and wrote a letter to DSWD asking for suspension
of baby Julian’s adoption proceedings. She also said that she wanted her family back
together.
6. Based on the issue of the case, what law is the most applicable?
a. Republic Act No. 7610
b. Republic Act No. 8552
c. Republic Act No. 8043
d. Republic Act No. 9523
7. Can Angelica Sinaniban reacquire her parental authority over baby Julian?
a. Yes, because she has the right to under the law to exercise parental authority over
her child
b. Yes, because the law allows that a mother may reacquire her parental authority over
the person of her child even if she already relinquished it
c. No, she cannot reacquire parental authority over the person of her child
because the law only allows it within three months
d. Not, she cannot reacquire it because baby Julian is already adopted
8. Supposing there is no problem in the adoption case of baby Julian, however, spouses
Medina discovered that Julian has a different behavior while growing up and he was
diagnosed to have a personality disorder. Can spouses Medina rescind the adoption
decree of Baby Julian?
a. Yes, because they only discovered the behavior Julian lately while he was growing
up
b. Yes, because the behaviour of Julian already affects adoptive parents and they can
file it with the court where the adoption decree was granted
c. No,because the adoption decree was already granted by the court of competent
jurisdiction
d. No, because the adoption proceeding is for the best interest of the child
9. Supposing baby Julian was not subjected to adoption and Angelica told Loydie that
she gave birth to baby Julian. In this current situation, what is the most applicable law?
a. Republic Act No. 7610
b. Republic Act No. 9858
c. Republic Act No. 9255
d. Republic Act No. 9523
10. Base on the case, Angelica and Loydie begot a child without the benefit of marriage.
Can baby Julian automatically use the surname of his father?
a. Yes, because under the United Nation Convention on the Rights of the child, the child
has the right to his/her identity
b. Yes, because the law allows illegitimate children to use the surname of their father
c. No, because the civil registry law requires that the birth certificate of the illegitimate
child shall be signed and sworn to jointly by his/her parents or only by the mother
d. No, because the child may only use the surname of his/her father when an
admission in a public document or private hand written instrument is made.
11. Supposing Angelica and Loydie got married after one year when baby Julian was
born. What is the legal status of baby Julian?
a. Illegitimate
b. Legitimated
c. Legitimate
d. Marital child
12. Which among the following cases shows the family court has jurisdiction over with?
a. Petitions for guardian ship of minors
b. Petitions for custody for children
c. Petitions for beasts corpus
d. Petitions for adoption of children and revocation thereof
e. Criminal case where one or more of the accused below 18 years old
f. Violation of Republic Act No. 7610
Choices:
A.) abcdef B.) abdef C.) abcde D.) abef
13. Under the solo parent act, who among the following considered solo parent?
a. A woman who gives birth as a result of rape or crimes against chastity, even without
final conviction of the offender
b. Parents left solo or alone with the responsibility of parenthood
c. Parent left solo or alone with the responsibility of parenthood due to physical and/or
mental incapacity of spouses as certified by a public medical practitioner
d. Parent left solo or alone with responsibility of parenthood due to abandonment of
spouse for at least one (1) year
e. Unmarried mother/father who has preferred to keep and rear his/her child/ren instead
of having others care for them or give them up to a welfare institutions
f.
Any person who solely provides parental care and support to a child/ren provided he
is a licensed foster parent
g. Any family member within the 4th civil degree by consanguinity who assumes
responsibility of head of family as a result of prolonged absence of the parents
Choices:
A.) abcdefg
B.) abcde C.) cdefg
D.) abdf
14. The following is the definition of social policy. Which one is not included?
a. It is a guide for a settled course of action composed of collective decisions directly
concerned with promoting the well-being of all or part of the population.
b. Rules that govern people’s lives in dictate expectation for behavior.
c. Societal responses to specific needs and problem such as poverty
d. Principles that govern action directed toward given ends-changing situations, system,
practices, behavior; is problem and actions-oriented
15. It refers to an order issued under Republic Act No. 9262 for the purpose of preventing
further acts against violence of women and children and granting necessary relief?
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary Protection Oder
c. Protection Order
d. Permanent Protection Order
16. Who among the following may file a protection order?
a. Parents
b. Collateral relatives within 4th degree of consanguinity or affinity
c. Social worker from LGUs
d. Social workers from DSWD
e. Barangay Kagawad
a. At least to (3) concerned citizens
Choices:
A.) abcdef B.) bcdef
C.) abde
D.) cdef
17. Which among the following statement is incorrect?
a. An application for protection order filed with the court shall be considered for both
TPO and PPO
b. All protection orders issued under Republic Act No. 9262 shall be enforceable
anywhere in the philippines
c. If the Punong Barangay is unavailable to act on the application for a BPO, the
application shall be acted upon by any available Barangay Kagawad
d. Where the court is an able to conduct hearing within one (1) they in the TPO issued
is due to expire, the TPO shall be continuously renewed
18. It refers to the protection order issued by the court on the date of filing of the
application after ex-parte determinations that such order should be issued and its
effectively is thirty (30) days.
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary Protection Order
c. Protection Order
d. Permanent Protection Order
19. It refers to the protection order issued by the court after due notice and hearing.
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary Protection Order
c. Protection Order
d. Permanent Protection Order
Case No 2. -Goblin
Both Kim Shin (Kim) and Ji Eun-Tak (Ji) met in 2010 but started to date seriously in 2013.
Ji was then a medical student
and was raising her first child born from a previous
relationship, a boy named Wang Yeo, with the help of her parents. During the relationship
with Kim, Ji bore two more children namely, Yoo Deok-Hwa (born on December 11,2013)
and Kim Sun (born on October 19, 2014).
To legalize the relationship, Kim and Ji married in civil rights on October 10, 2015, and
thereafter, the birth certificates of children, including Wang Yeo’s, was amended to
change their civil status to legitimated by virtue of the said marriage.
The relationship, both admit, was far from ideal and has had its share of happy moments
and heated arguments. Ji, alleges that their heated arguments were often due to Kim’s
incessant womanizing. When confronted about it, Kim, instead of denying the same,
would even curse Ji. The breaking point for Ji came when, Kim’s alleged mistress, a
woman by the name of Min Jae, insulted and humiliated Ji in public, in the presence of
Kim himself, who according to Ji, did nothing to stop the same. Extremely hurt, Ji decided
to leave the conjugal home with the children and live temporarily at the friend’s house.
She however when back to the conjugal home with their two children after sometime,
leaving her eldest son at her friend’s house.
What made matter worse, according to Ji, was the apparent biases of Kim in favor of their
two children. That despite his promise to treat the latter differently from the two kids,
putting Ji’s first child at a disadvantage. Ji, cites as example the instances when, Kim
would buy food and toys for their two children only, buying nothing for her first child.
While living separately from Kim, Ji discovered that Kim was not paying the rentals due
on the condominium unit they were occupying, forcing Ji to move out. Ji was likewise
compelled to find work to support the family, after Kim has started to be remiss in his
financial obligations to the family. According to Ji, the amount given by Kim were not
sufficient to cover the family expenses, forcing her to request for loans from friend. Ji
likewise feels threatened after discovering that Kim was stalking her and/or their children.
Ji alleges that she found out that Kim has sought the help of one
Gu Jun Pyo, a friend
of Kim who lives within the same compound where Ji lives, to go through the guard’s
logbook to monitor their every move, i.e., who visits them, what time Ji leaves and return
back home etc.
20. What is the law that can be applied in this case?
a. Republic Act No. 7610
b. Republic Act No. 9262
c. Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimination Against Women
d. United Nation Convention on the Rights of the Child
21. Based on the case, what kind/s of violence against women was committed?
a. Physical Violence
b. Psychological Violence
c. Economic abuse
d. Sexual violence
Choices: A.) abcd
B.) bc
C.) cd
D.) acd
22. Who is entitled to the custody of their children?
a. Kim Shin
b. Ji Eun- Tak
c. Both of them
d. None of them
23. Which among the following agencies are included in the inter- agency council on
Violence against women and their children (IAC-VAWC)?
a. Civil service commission
b. Department of Service
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. Department of Education
e. Philippine National police
f. Department of Health
Choices
a.) abcdef
C) . bce
b.) bcef
d) bcf
24. Ji eun_tak is also entitles to the following except for_____.
a. Temporary shelters, counseling and psycho- social services
b. Recovery, rehabilitation programs and livelihood assistance
c. Counseling with coping with anger and emotional outbursts
d. Paid leave of absence up to ten (10) days in addition to other paid leaves
25. It refers to a private, non- profit or charitable institutions or government agency duly
licensed and/ or accredited by the DSWD that provides 24- hours residential care services
for abandoned, orphaned neglected or voluntarily committed children.
a. Child caring agency
b. Child pacing agency
c. Child study report
d. Home study report
26. It refers to a private, non- profit or charitable institutions or government agency duly
licensed and/ or accredited by the DSWD that provides but not limited to receiving
applications for adoption/ foster care, evaluating the prospective adoptive/ foster parents,
preparing the home study and all other processes required for adoption.
a. Child caring agency
b. Child pacing agency
c. Child study report
d. Home study report
27. It refers to a child whose parents or legal guardian knowingly and willingly relinquished
parental authority to the DSWD or any duly accredited child- placement or child- caring
who has been surrendered in writing by her/ his parent/s or guardian through a notarized
deed of voluntarily commitment (DVC).
a. Involuntarily Committed Child
b. Voluntarily committed child
c. Abandoned child
d. Neglected child
28. It refers to a child whose basic needs have been deliberately not attended to or
inadequately attended to, physically or emotionally, by his/ her parents guardian.
a. Involuntarily Committed Child
b. Voluntarily committed child
c. Abandoned child
d. Neglected child
29. It refers to a child who has no proper parental care or guardianship or whose parents
have died or who have deserted him/ her for a period at least three (3) continuous months
which includes the foundling.
a. Involuntarily Committed Child
b. Voluntarily committed child
c. Abandoned child
d. Neglected child
30. This refers to child whose parent/ s known or unknown, have been permanently and
administratively deprived of parental authority over him/ her due to abandonment,
substantial, continuous or repeated neglected and abuse or incompetence to discharge
parental responsibilities.
a. Involuntarily Committed Child
b. Voluntarily committed child
c. Abandoned child
d. Neglected child
31. The following are the rights and privileges of domestic workers or kasambahay,
except for____.
a. Board, lodging and medical attendance
b. Daily and weekly rest period
c. Access to outside communication
d. Right to educate and training
32. The barangay is often the nearest place where a child victim or witness of child abuse
may run to and seek assistance. In such cases, when receiving a report, the barangay
must observe the following except____.
a. If the report made by the child victim, interview the child and determine the
necessity of referring the child for immediate medical attention.
b. Within 24 hours, contact the LSWDO and refer the case to the social worker for
validation of complainant and assessment.
c. Refer the child to the nearest women and child protection unit (WCPU), or if none
exist, to the medico- legal officer or the city or municipal health officer.
d. Enter the report in the barangay blotter exclusively for child abuse and domestic
violence
cases.
33. The following are some of the general policies on the giuidelines on the issuance of
certification declaring that the child is legally available for adoption which one is not
included?
a. Secure a certificate true copy of birth certificate fro the local registrar, if
available.
b. The child best interest and welfare shall questions relating to his/ her care and
custody.
c. A certification declare a child legally available for adoption shall be secured thru a
petition to be filed in the DSWD- field office where the child was found or is presently
residing.
d. All deed of voluntary commitments (DVCs) must be duly signed
by the biological
parent/ s and or/ or legal guardian of the child, and notarized.
34. This refers to the provision, availability, and accessibility of opportunities , services,
and observance of human rights which enable women to actively participate and
contribute to development of the nation as well as those which shall provide them equal
access to ownership, management and control of production, and of material and
informational resources and benefits in the family, community and society.
a. Women empowerment
b. Marginalization
c. Marginalized
d. Discriminating against women
35. This refers to any gender- based distinction, exclusion, or restriction which has the
effect or purpose of impairing or nullifying the recognition, employment, or exercise by
women, irrespective of their marital status, on basis of equality of men and women, o
human rights and fundamental freedoms in the political, economic, social cultural, civil or
any other fields.
a. Women empowerment
b. Marginalization
c. Marginalized
d. Discriminating against women
36. It refers to condition where a whole category of people is excluded from useful and
meaningful participation in political, economic, social and cultural life.
a. Women empowerment
b. Marginalization
c. Marginalized
d. Discriminating against women
37. This refers to the basic, disadvantaged, or vulnerable persons or groups who re
mostly living in poverty and have little or no access to land and other resources basic
social and economic services such as health care, education, water and sanitation,
employment and livelihood opportunities, housing, social security, physical infrastructure,
and the justice system.
a. Women empowerment
b. Marginalization
c. Marginalized
d. Discriminating against women
38. Under the Magna Carta for Women, this agency is the primary policy- making and
coordinating body of the women and gender equality concerns under the office of the
president. This is also the agency who shall be the overall monitoring body and oversight
to ensure the effective implementation of the said Magna Carta.
a. National Commission on the role of Filipino Women
b. Philippine Commission on women
c. Commission on human Rights
d. Gender and Development office
39. Under R. A. 7910, this agency is acting as the Gender and Development Ombud, and
shall undertake measures such as to assist in the filling of cases of individuals, agencies,
institutions, or establishments that violate the provisions of Magna Carta for Women.
a. National Commission on the role of Filipino Women
b. Philippine Commission on
women
c. Commission on human Rights
d. Gender and Development office
40. Under Republic Act. No. 9775, the crime of child pornography is deemed committed
by a syndicate if carried out by a group of______.
a. 5 or more persons conspiring and confederating with one another.
b. 4 or more persons conspiring and confederating with one another.
c. 3 or more persons conspiring and confederating with one another.
d. 2
or more persons conspiring and confederating with one another.
41. Under Republic Act. No. 9775, complaints on cases of any form of child pornography
and other offenses punishable under this act may be filled by the following.
a. Offended party
b. Ascendant or collateral relative within the third degree of consaguinity or affinity.
c. Officer, social worker or representative of a licensed child- caring agency
d. Officer or social worker of the DSWD
e. Local social welfare and development officer
f. Barangay Chairman
Choices:
A) abcdef
C) Acde
B) acdef
D) abcde
42. Which among the following are the mandatory services to victims of child pornography?
a. Emergency shelter and appropriate housing
b. Counseling
c. Free legal service
d. Technical and material support
e. Medical or psychological services
f. Livelihood training skills
g. Educational assistance
Choices:
A) abcdefg
C.) abcdef
B) abcefg
D). abcfg
43. under the foster care act the termination of foster palcement shal be done by
the____________.
a. Foster Parent
b. Foster Child
c. Department of Social Welfare Development Office
d. Agency
44. Which among the following are the grounds for termination of foster placement under
foster care act?
a. Return of the child to the biological parents
b. Placement for adoption of the child
c. Death of the child
d. Death of the bot foster parents
e. Death of either the foster parents
f.
Expiration of the foster placement authority
g. Cases where the placement becomes prejudicial to the welfare of the child such as
abandonment, ma;treatment, sexual assault, violence or other forms of abuse.
Choices:
C ) abcefg
A) abcdefg
B.) abcdfg
D) cdefg
45. It refers to the state of complete physical, mental and social well- being and not merely
the absence of disease or infirmity, in all matters relating to the reproductive system and
to its functions and processes.
a. Reproductive health
b. Reproductive health care
c. Reproductive health care program
d. Reproductive health rights
46. It refers to the systematic and integrated provision of reproductive prioritizing women,
the poor marginalized and those in vulnerable or crisis situations.
a. Reproductive health
b. Reproductive health care
c. Reproductive health care program
d. Reproductive health rights
47. It refers to the privileges of the individuals and couples, to decide freely and
responsibly whether or not to have a children; the number, spacing and timing of their
children; to make other decisions concerning reproduction, free of discrimination,
coercion and violence; to have the information and means to do so ; and to attain the
highest standard of sexual health and reproductive health.
a. Reproductive health
b. Reproductive health care
c. Reproductive health care program
d. Reproductive health rights
48. This refers to the access to a full range of methods, facilities, services and supplies
that contribute to reproductive health and well- being by addressing reproductive health
problems. It also include sexual health, the purpose of which is the enhancement of life
and personal relations.
a. Reproductive health
b. Reproductive health care
c. Reproductive health care program
d. Reproductive health rights
49. It refers to the lifelong learning process of providing and acquiring complete, accurate
and relevant age- and development- appropriate information and education on
reproductive health and sexuality through life skills education and other approaches.
a. Sustainable human development
b. Sexual health
c. Responsible parenthood
d. Reproductive health and sexuality education
50. It refers to a state of physical, mental and social well- being in relation to sexuality. It
requires positive and respectful approach to sexuality and sexual relationship, as well as
the possibility of having pleasurable ad safe sexual experiences, free from coercion,
discrimination and violence.
a. Sustainable human development
b. Sexual health
c. Responsible parenthood
d. Reproductive health and sexuality education
51. It refers to bringing people, particularly the poor and the vulnerable, to the center of
development process, the central purpose of which is the creation of an enabling
environment in which all can enjoy long, healthy and productive lives, done in the manner
that promotes their rights and protects their life opportunities of future generations and
the natural ecosystem on which all life development.
a. Sustainable human development
b. Sexual health
c. Responsible parenthood
d. Reproductive health and sexuality education
52. It refers ti will and ability of a persons to responds to the need and aspirations of the
family and children. It is likewise a shared responsibility between parents to determine
and achieve the desired number of children, spacing and timing of their children according
to their own family life aspirations, taking into account physiological and economic
concerns consistent with their religious convictions.
a. Sustainable human development
b. Sexual health
c. Responsible parenthood
d. Reproductive health and sexuality education
53. Which among the following statements is incorrect?
a. a child witness is any person who at the time of giving testimony is below the age of
18 years.
b. In- depth investigative interview or disclosure interview is an inquiry or proceeding
conducted by duly trained members if a multidisciplinary team or representatives of
law enforcement or child protective whether child abuse has been committed.
c. Best interest of the child means the least detrimental available alternative for
safeguarding the growth and development of the child.
d. A guardian ad litem is a person choose by the child to accompany him to testify
or to attend a judicial proceeding to provide emotional support to him.
54. The following devices may be used during the examination of a child witness. Which
one is not included?
a. Live- link television
b. Screens, one- war mirrors, and other devices to shield child from accused
c. Videotaped dispositions
d. Testimonial aids such as dolls, anatomically- correct dolls, puppets drawings,
mannequins and the like
e. Leading questions
Choices:
A.) abcde
C ) abcd
B) abc
D) cde
55. Who among the following who may file a petition for appointment of guardian?
a. Any relative or other person on behalf of minor
b. The minor himself if 14 years of age or over
c. The secretary of social welfare and development in the case f insane minor who
needs to be hospitalized
d. The secretary of health in the case of insane minor who needs to be hospitalized
Choices
A) abcd
C ) ab
B) acd
D) abd
56. Which among the following are the grounds for the appointment of guardian over the
person or property, or both of a minor?
a. Death, continued absence, or incapacity of persons
b. Suspension, deprivation or termination of parental authority
c. Remarriage of surviving parent, if the latter is found unsuitable to exercise parental
authority
d. When the best interest of the minor so require
Choices
C ) ad
A) abcd
B) acd
D) ac
57. Which among the following concepts is incorrect?
a. The terms public policy always refers to the action of both the private and
government institutions and their intentions that determine those actions
b. Public policy is an commitment to a course or plan of action agreed to by a group of
people with the power to carry it out.
c. A board guide to present and future decisions, selected in light of given conditions
from a number of alternatives; the actual decision or set of decisions designed to
carry out the chosen course of actions; a projected programs consisting of desired
objectives and the means of achieving them.
d. A proposed course of action of a person, group or government within a given
environment providing obstacles and opportunities which the policy was proposed to
utilized and overcome in an effort to reach a goal or realize an objective or purpose.
58. This term was used to replace he category children in especially difficult
circumstances (CEDC), trend that seemed to emerge in national and international child
rights legal documents.
a. Council of the protection of children
b. Child protection
c. Child special protection
d. Children in need of special program
59. This has been drawn in an attempt to concrete the vision in child 21:
a. National plan of action for children
b. Millennium development goals
c. Sustainable development goals
d. World fit for children
60. This is the primary implementing structure closest to children. This unit, however, has
to implement many other duties in compliance to a multitude of directives coming from
the local chief executive and national level agencies.
a. Local Government Unit
b. Barangay Council for the Protection of Children
c. Barangay
d. Local Council for the protection of children
61. The following are the components of the Philippine Social Protection framework.
Which one is not included?
a. Social Insurance
b. Social Safety Nets
c. Child Protection
d. Labor Market Programs
62. The following are relevant national government agencies relaed to trafficking in
person. Which one does not belong the group?
a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. Philippine Information Agency
c. Department of Education
d. Council of Welfare of Children
63. This program is a range of interventions to individuals, families and communities in
crisis or difficult situations, such as those affected by or vulnerable to disasters.
a. Protective service program
b. Assistance to individual/ families in crisis situation
c. Assistance to communities in need
d. Disaster response operations program
64. It is human development program of the national government that invests in health
and education of poor households, particularly children aged 0-18 years old.
a. Sustainable livelihood program
b. Kapit- Bisisg Laban sa kahirapan Comprehensive and integrated delivery of Social
Services.
c. Pantawid Pamilyang PIlipino Program
d. Social Pension program
65. It is one of the proverty alleviations prograns of the philippines government being
implemented by the DSWD. It uses community- driven development approach, a globally
recognized startegy for achieving service delivery, poverty reduction, and good
governance outcomes.
a. Sustainable livelihood program
b. Kapit- Bisisg Laban sa kahirapan Comprehensive and integrated delivery of
Social Services.
c. Pantawid Pamilyang PIlipino Program
d. Social Pension program
66. It is the additional government assistance on the amount of five hundred (500. 00)
monthly stipend to augment the daily subsistence and other medical needs of indigent
senior citizens.
a. Sustainable livelihood program
b. Kapit- Bisisg Laban sa kahirapan Comprehensive and integrated delivery of Social
Services.
c. Pantawid Pamilyang PIlipino Program
d. Social Pension program
67. This is strategy to spread prosperity among communities in the philippines. This
encourages the poor families to engage in resource- based and market driven community
micro- enterprise, or explore employment opportunities.
a. Sustainable livelihood program
b. Kapit- Bisisg Laban sa kahirapan Comprehensive and integrated delivery of Social
Services.
c. Pantawid Pamilyang PIlipino Program
d. Social Pension program
68. This is also called the national household targeting system for poverty reduction. It is
an information who and where the poor are in the country. The system makes available
to national governments agencies and other social protection stakeholders a database of
poor families as reference in identifying potential beneficiaries of social protection
programs.
a. Residential and Non- Residential
b. Gender and Development
c. Listahanan
d. Pamana
69. It is the national governments program and framework for peace and development. It
is implemented in areas affected by conflict and communities covered by existing
agreements.
a. Residential and Non- Residential
b. Gender and Development
c. Listahanan
d. Pamana
70. This serves as the safety net or a stop- gap mechanism to support recovery of
individuals and families form unexpected crisis such us illness or death of a family
member, natural and man- made calamities, and other crisis situations. It provides
immediate rescue and protection, direct financial and material assistance, referrals for
medical, legal, psychological, temporary, shelter, and other services.
a. Assistance to individuals in crisis situation
b. Disaster response operation program
c. Assistance to communities in need
d. Protective services program
71. The following are the services included in the assistance to communities in need.
Which one does not belong to the group?
a. Repair/ upgrading/ construction of the day care centers
b. Cash/ fond for work
c. Food and non- food assistance to individuals and families
d. Senior citizen center
72. It serves as the blueprint for national government units and non- government
organizations to achieve the goals and targets for the realizations of Filipino Children’s
rights.
a. Child 21
b. National Pan of Action for Children
c. Philippine plan for action for Children
d. International Commitment to children
73. This enables poor families to have access to credit for their increased income,
enhancement f their socio- economic skills and development of positive entrepreneurial
values.
a. Sustainable livelihood Program
b. Self- Employment assistance para sa kaunlaran
c. Pantawid pamilyang pilipino program
d. Assistance to Individuals/ Families in Crisis Situations
74. This is called mitigating risks of its participants through advocacy and facilitating
access of its participants to micro- insurances and agricultural/ crop insurances to be
more resilient in shocks, developing and widening asset base to have more diverged
livelihood options through the cash for building asset strategy, and provision of grant to
acquire physical assets for enterprising activities and engagement in gainful employment
opportunities.
a. Labor market intervention
b. Social welfare
c. Social safety nets
d. Social insurance
75. This is an elaboration of the National Plan Action for Chldren Child Protection
Component. It espouses vigorous advocacy and public consciousness- raising, capacity
building, alliance building, family and community participation and empowerment, civil
society mobilization and resource generation towards a broad- based response for
promotion, protection and fulfillment of the rights of children particularly those needing
special protection.
a. National Framework to end Violence against Children
b. National Framework for Children’s Participation
c. Comprehensive Program on Child Protection
d. Philippines National Strategic Framework for plan development for children
76. This is an equivalent term for Child 21.
a. National Framework to end Violence against Children
b. National Framework for Children’s Participation
c. Comprehensive Program on Child Protection
d. Philippines National Strategic Framework for plan development for children
77. Statement 1: to participate in local governance, the children support the strengthening
of barangay councils, where they can be represented. Statement 2:
Chidren must be
trained to advocate for the enactment of local ordinances and setting up programs for
child participation.
a. Statement 1 is true while
statement 2 is false
b. Statement 1 is false while statement 2 is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statement are false.
78. Statement1: values education classes can also promotes the discussion on children’s
rights. Statement 2: school administrators should provide a venue where students can
freely express their views, feelings and talents.
a. Statement 1 is true while
statement 2 is false
b. Statement 1 is false while statement 2 is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statement are false.
79. Statement 1: establishment of broad network of NGO’s supporting children’ s rights
cannot strengthen initiatives on children aware of children’ s issues and participate in the
discussions and advocacy efforts.
a. Statement 1 is true while
statement 2 is false
b. Statement 1 is false while statement 2 is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statement are false.
80. It refers to any work or economic activity performed by a child that subjects him/ her
to any form of exploitation or is harmful to hie/ her health and safety or physical, mental
or psychosocial assessment.
a. Child labor
b. Child Poverty
c. Child Protection
d. Child abuse
81. As defined by UNICEF, it refers to preventing and responding to violence, exploitation
and abuse.
a. Child labor
b. Child Poverty
c. Child Protection
d. Child abuse
82. It is the maltreatment, whether habitual or not, of a child, which includes any of the
following: psychological and physical abuse, neglect, cruelty, sexual abuse and emotional
maltreatment.
a. Child labor
b. Child Poverty
c. Child sexual Abuse
d. Child abuse
83. It is the employment, use, persuasion, inducement, excitement, or coercion of a child
to engaged in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct, or the molestation, prostitution, or
incest with children.
a. Child labor
b. Child Poverty
c. Child Sexual Abuse
d. Child abuse
84. These measured aimed at enhancing employment opportunities and protection of the
rights and welfare of workers. Employment enhancing measures include trade policies
and skills development and training.
a. Labor market intervention
b. Social welfare
c. Social safety nets
d. Social insurance
85. The following are the social elements of the social protection framework, except for
one.
a. Identifying and responding to major risks and vulnerabilities
b. Identifying and responding to priority targets and sectors
c. Working towards universal coverage
d. Sustain standard of living ins spite of exposure to risk of different types
86. DSWD internally started to orchestrate its social protection programs. This is
called______.
a. Scaling up community driven development
b. Convergence
c. Building adaptive capacity
d. Institutionalized monitoring and evaluation system
87. This setting provides a approximation of family under the guidance of trained staff,
but it if used as a last recourse, resorted to in the absence of foster families.
a. Adoption
b. Foster care
c. Legal guardianship
d. Residential/ institutional care
88. This is the road map of the implementation of the United Nations Conventions on the
right of Child
a. United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF)
b. Child Protection
c. Child 21
d. Chi;d Fund
89. Which among the following context is not correct?
a. Policies and programs should be developed based on adult’s
understanding
so that it will become more integrated and holistic.
b. Children who participate in various activities gain more exposure to social realities
and they realize their important role in the society
c. When children interact with people, their capacities are developed and they discover
new strengths, limitations and potentials.
d. The right to participate enables children to express what they think and feel on matters
important to them.
90. The following are the important roles in facilitating children’s participation, which one
is not included?
a. They help develop methodologies that are culturally appropriate and child- friendly,
which help children express their views and feelings.
b. They help and work with children in evaluating their activities, formulating their
recommendations and in developing their capacities.
c. Child participation help fulfills their rights such as nutrition, immunization,
early childhood care and education in their communities.
d. They work with the children in making decision. They help explain the available
choices and possible consequences.
91. This was launched to recognized and promote child- friendly programs. It aimed to
guide parents in the choice od appropriate programs for their productions for children.
a. Kabataan News Network
b. Anak- Tv seal
c. 5 and up
d. Batibot
92. The following non- government agencies were included in the core group formulation
in 2005 as a follow- up at the regional consultation study excpet for one.
a. Christian Children’ s Fund
b. Parental Guidance
c. Separation From Parents
d. Family reunification
93. The goal of this national strategic framework is to build a child- sensitive and childfriendly society as the country’s promise to fiipino children.
a. Child 21
b. Millennium Development Goals
c. Sustainable Development Goals
d. Convention on the rights of the child
94. Which among the following concepts is incorrect?
a. There is a need for more deliberate efforts on the part of member agencies to integrate
child protection program thrusts and priorities into their respective annual investment
plans
b. Evidence, based policies, programs, guidelines and procedure for child protection are
only possible with the existence of accurate updated in disaggregated data base and
information system
c. Activating, strengthening and sustaining local councils for the protection of children,
particularly the Barangay Council for the Protection of Children (BCPC), has remained
perennial challenge
d. Adjudication
of
child
abuse
cases
has
been
finalized and
adopted
comprehensive protocols on case management of child victims of abuse neglect
and exploitation.
95. Government should respect the rights and responsibility of families to direct and guide
their children so that as they grow they learn to use their rights properly. This concept
is based on the right of the child, under the convention to ___?
a. Survival and Development
b. Parental Guidance
c. Seperation from Parents
d. Family reunification
96. Government should take steps to stop children being taken out from their own country
illegally. This article is particularly concerned with with parental abduction. The
Convention Optional Protocol on the sale of children, child prostitution and child
pornography has a provision that concerns abduction for financial gain. This concept is
based on the right of the child ___?
a. Against kidnapping
b. Against abduction, sale, or trafficking
c. Against sexual exploitation
d. Against other forms of exploitation
97. This agency is primarily responsible for ensuring participation of women as recipients
of foreign aid, grants, loans. It shall determine and recommend the amount to be allocated
for the development activity involving women.
a. National Commission on the Role of Filipino Women
b. Philippine Commission of Women
c. National Organization for Women
d. National Economic and Development Authority
98. This is the focal inter-agency body of the Philippine government for children concern.
a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. United Nation Convention on the Rights of the child
c. Council for the Welfare of Children
d. Child Fund
99. This is a Preventive and Developmental intervention that seeks to support the
minimum basic requirements of the poor, particularly the poorest of the poor, and reduce
risk associated with an employment, resettlement marginalization, illness, disability, old
age, and loss of family care.
a. Labor Market intervention
b. Social Welfare
c. Social safety nets
d. Social insurance
e. Social Welfare
100. Which among the following national laws of the Philippines serves as the legal bases
in the implementation of temporary shelter assistance and prioritization of victims of
disaster/internally displaced person?
a. Republic Act No. 10121
b. Republic Act No. 7160
c. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010
d. Magna Carta for Women
Choices: A.) abcd
B.) bcd C.) ab
D.) a
JAYRALD TORREJOS 2ND WEEK SWPPS
SOCIAL WELFARE POLICIES, PROGRAMS AND SERVICES
1. Management as an element of administration is concerned with _________?
a. Administrative process in a social welfare agency
b. Setting up the framework of different units in social agency
c. Allocation and utilization of resources in a social agency
d. Process of identifying the goals of an agency
2. Social welfare administration is also known as _________,
a. Social work administration
b. Social agency administration
c. Social administration
d. Administration
3. Supervision is an administrative function which aims to enable the _______.
a. supervisor to become a better supervisor
b. supervisee to more effective in delivering social services the goals
c. supervisor to exercise her functions toward the supervisee
d. supervisee to accept supervisor from her designated supervisor
4. Staffing involves recruitment, hiring, and placement of workers for the purpose of
_________.
a. Maximizing efficiency and economy in achieving the goal of the agency
b. Advancing the workers to a better job or position
c. Training the workers required for the adequate performance of their tasks
d. Placing the right person for the right job
5. Records are permanent accounts of an event in an agency and used primarily
_________.
a. For public relations or propaganda for the agency
b. For administrative purposes, research, training, teaching and supervision
c. For information upward and down ward
d. coordinating the achievement of the goals of the agency
6.
The steps in controlling include __________.
a. Transmitting problems, ideas and suggestions
b. Decision- making process relative to staff relationship
c. Setting standards or strategic points
d. Coordinating the achievement of the goals of agency
7. In the private sector, policy- making is the responsibility of the ________.
a. Board of trustees or board of directors
b. First-line supervisors
c. executive director
d.
Direct service providers and clients
8. The starting point of planning is ____________.
a. Investigating and analysis
b. Identification or setting if objectives
c. Documentation of actions to be
undertake
d. Designing the program, available resources and time table.
9. Linking together the functions of the organization and the people is known as
___________.
a. Communication
b. Controlling
c. Coordination
d. Cooperation
10. One of the duties of the public relations officer is _____________.
a. Participating in the formulation of policies and programs
b. Providing support and assistance to workers
c. Providing information about the agency, programs and services
d. Checking and reporting on performance
11. One of the administrative functions of a supervisor is ____________.
a. Holding workers to account for the quality and quantity of production
b. Providing for a climate for learning
c. Helping the supervisees deal with job related stress
d. Motivating workers to learn
12. Classifying the expenditures based
on an analysis of objectives and resources and
the interrelations among them to achieve a comprehensive program of action is
___________.
a. cost- benefits analysis
b. financial management
c. line item budgeting
d. program, planning, budgeting system
13. Blending bureaucratic and democratic characteristics in an organization results to
_______.
a. adhocracy
b. a bureaucratic model
c. a collegial/ professional model
d. a democratic model
14. The tutorial model of supervision is best for _______.
a. experienced supervisees
b. peer group
c. inexperienced supervisees
d. a team
15. In student supervision, the primary function of the supervisor is __________.
a. administrative function
b. tutorial function
c. supportive/ helping function
d. teaching function
16. Evaluation as a management function in operational terms involves the ________.
a. establishment of the agency’s identity in the community
b. assessment of the effectiveness of an on- going programs and services
c. documentations of programs and services for management
d. report of progress of projects in the community
17. The process of interrelating the various parts of the work of an agency is called
_________.
a. recording
b. reporting
c. communication
d. coordination
18. Programming as an administrative function is the __________.
a. the unit of planned purposive action
b. setting up of a program involving a specific period of time per service
c. summarizing the main features of a program/ project
d. designing the organization structure of the agency
19. Private welfare agencies/ NGO’s are characterized by the following excluding one.
a. governed by their own constitution and by- laws and governing board
b. required to be registered at the securities and exchange commission
c. source of funds are from donations, private endowments and others
d. functions, programs and structure created by law
20. It provides the framework for social work practice that relates to other.
a. Social work profession
b. Social work administration
c. Social administration
d. Social welfare administration
21.Social administration also refers to _______.
a. administration in the field of health, education and social services
b. the activity that allocates and utilizes resources to achieve objectives
c. social agency administration
d. secondary method of social work
22. In a line and staff organization, the staffs performs the functions of ________.
a. advising ad providing expert knowledge/ opinions to line executives
b. providing social services to identified clientele groups
c. focusing of functions/ activities
of each unit by a functional supervisor
d. operating consistently according to a body of laws and rules
23. The supervisory relationship can be best described as _________.
a. a social relationship between the supervisor and the
supervisee
b. an interdependent relationship with both parties having responsibilities
c. a dependent relationship with
supervisor
d. a professional relationship between the management and supervisor
d. a professional relationship between the management and supervisor
24. Among the components of a social system, the throughput is the ________.
a. Ms – manpower, money, methods, materials, etc.
b. programs and services to achieve agency’s goals
c. conversion process of inputs to outputs
d. interrelationships of components of the different
units
25. The following are the principles of policy determination excluding one.
a. policy must be based on agency purpose
b. policy should be expressed in positive form
c. the entire agency should participate in policy formulation
d. policy recommendations should only come from the board of directors
26. A pictorial presentation of the organizational structure of an agency is the _____.
a. line and staff organization
b. bureaucratic form of organization
c. organizational chart
d. formal organizational
27. A short chain of command reflected in the organization is _________.
a. a step pyramid or several levels between top management and workers
b. a flatter pyramid/ fewer level between top management and workers
c. a smaller limit of a number of supervisees by a supervisor
d. a delegation of authority to a supervisor by top management
28. The cost effective form of administrative communication is through ________.
a. formal communication
b. the grapevine
c. informal communication
d. verbal/ oral communication
29. Person assisting social workers deliver services supervised by social worker are
called _______.
a. volunteers
b. service providers
c. paraprofessional
d. students
30. Perpendicular or vertical coordination users is based on _______.
a. homogenous assignment
b. hierarchical or scalar principle
c. division of labor
d. unity of command
31. Social welfare agencies are also social systems in view of their being ________.
a. subjected to pressures from outside and within the organization
b. established to attain specific goals, have internal structures, procedure
c. made up of various levels of staff, volunteers and management
d. created by law and supported by taxes and the public
32. For a group supervision to be effective should be done only by _________.
a. inexperienced supervisees
b. members of the group participating as equals
c. homogenous group and member have facility to communicate
d. two group members deciding to function apart from a bigger group
33. Supervision of volunteers to enable them contribute to agency’s goals include
__________.
a. ensuring that quality service are rendered to the clients
b. planning and budgeting for specific program/ service
c. orienting them of agency’s programs and assigned task along their capacity
d. performance appraisal of task assigned to them
34. The performance appraisal of a staff in an agency is primarily the basis for _________.
a. compulsory retirement of personnel
b. promotions, incentives, transfer and separation
c. personnel, policies contained in the personnel manual of agency
d. job descriptions and orientation for new personnel
35. Program planning and proposal writing are part of the function of ___________.
a. policy formulation
b. staffing
c. planning
d. budgeting
36. Government agencies re examples of a bureaucratic form of organization due
__________.
a. to standard operating procedures observed during transactions
b. to nepotism, red tape and corruption.
c. to a short chain of command
d. efficiency and effectiveness of its programs/ services
37. One of the functions of social work administration is _________.
a. organizing social welfare agency
b. identifying social needs and social welfare programs to address these needs
c. directing the allocation of resources for specific programs/ services
d. recruitment, selection, and hiring of social work personnel n an agency
38. The direct service providers have the unique position to ___________..
a. be responsible to policy formulation
b. place, evaluate and promote personnel
c. interact with the clients needing services and providing these to them
d. supervise staff, volunteers and paraprofessionals
39. The organizational chart of an agency should show the _________.
A. resource generated by the agency
b. pictorial presentation of the physical plant/ facilities of the agency
c. job descriptions, wages and benefits of all personnel
d. line of authority showing the superior- subordinate relationships
40. As a supervisor, one should stimulate learning of supervisees by __________.
a. giving of recognition for a good work done
b. giving of transactions to correct work done
c. giving of material rewards of workers and families
d. providing a threatening environment during supervisory sessions
41.The responsibility of recording the task and activities as a basis for reports and further
decisions belongs to ___________.
a. the executive
b. the public relation officer
c. the supervisor
d. every worker
42. Distance, time, availability of adequate facilities, ability and competence of workers
are factors that affect _________.
a. homogenous assignment
b. cooperation
c. span of control
d. evaluation
43. The key to effective coordination is ___________.
a. organization
c. delineation
b. cooperation
d. delegation
44. This identifies which principles of organization is involved when the agency executive
reduces to as few as possible, the levels of supervision between top management and
the rank and file:
a. homogenous assignment
b. short chain of command
c. line and staff
d. balance
45. It is a tool used by the administrator to help him make a choice among viable
competing programs designed to achieve certain objectives _________.
a. management and information system
b. cost- benefit analysis
c. the budget
d. financial report
46. In planning, when we are concerned with day to day details, we are doing ______.
A. substantive planning
b. procedural planning
c. fiscal planning
d. general planning
47. The process of bringing together related units into a working whole is referred to as
________.
a. unification
c. organization
b. coordination
d. cooperation
48. Evaluation of the process of helping is necessary for _______.
a. determining budget programs
b. weeding out inefficient staff
c. improvement of practice
d. its organized value
49. A bureaucracy has certain strength. From the following, identify which is not regarded
as strength.
a. economy
c. role clarity
b. depersonalization
d. security
50. It is the procedure for introducing a new worker to this agency’s history, objectives,
operating policies, rules and regulations, etc.
a. orientation
c. selection
a. recruitment
d. staffing
51. All delegated responsibility must be accompanied by corresponding ________.
a. assignments
c duties
b. authority
d. guidelines
52. It is the art of enabling workers and students to perform their functions under the
guidance of a trained person.
a. consultation
b. administration
c. supervision
d. social planning
53. Administration, supervision and research are examples of ______.
a. primary methods of social work
b. secondary methods of social work
c. primary setting
d. secondary setting
54. It is the ability of the social work administrator to see his organization as a whole which
includes the recognition of how the various functions of his organization depend on one
another and how a change in one part affects the others:
a. human skill
b. conceptual skill
c. technical skill
d. administrative skill
55. The ability of the social work administrator to get things done through the efforts of
his subordinate is _______.
a. technical skill
b. conceptual skill
c. human skill
d. management skill
56. The process by which the objectives of social welfare agency or organization are met
is called ______.
a. planning
b. delivery system
c. policy- making
d. administration
57. To ensure the quality of service delivery of the agency, it provides adequate _____.
a. vehicles
b. supervision
c. direct service workers
d. resources
58. A social agency is ______.
a. a government
institution
b. the provider of the resources that clients need to alleviate their problems
c. a social policy
d. a private society
59. Secondary methods of social work are those which _______.
a. are not necessary in order to render social services
b. facilitate an agency’s
operation without touching the client directly
c. do not require social worker skills for discharge of its functions
d. provides funds for the agency
60. The systematic way of achieving an objective or goal or blue print for action is called
_______.
a. policy formulation
b. programming
c. planning
d. organizing
61. The model of organization
which is informal and employees participate and share in
decision making called ______.
a. bureaucratic
c. adhocracy
b. democratic
d. collegial
62. Among the models of administration this model is concerned with the provision and
distribution of societal resources and helping and distribution of societal resources and
helping persons to use maximally the social resources available to them.
a. social administration
b. social work administration
c. social welfare administration
d. social development
63. A process involved in staffing to advertise in national papers, journal, and contacts
with school and through personal contacts is called as _________.
a. placement
b. recruitment, selection and hiring
c. promotion
d. transfer
64. The work of constraining, coordinating and regulating of action in accordance with
plans for the achievement of specified objectives is known as _______.
a. controlling
c. coordinating
b. directing
d. supervising
65. The ratio of output over input is a high criteria
of ___________.
a. equity
b. responsiveness
c. efficiency
d. effectiveness
66. Which the following best defined social administration?
a. administration is a continuous, dynamic process
b. the process is set into motion in order to accomplish a common goal.
c. the resources of people and material are harnessed so that the common goal can
be achieved.
d. implicit in the definition are the elements of planning, organizing, staffing, monitoring
and evaluation ad leadership.
Choices:
a.) a,b,c,d
b.) b,c,d
b.) a,d
d.) a,b,d
67. The following are the principles of scientific management except for one.
a. hierarchy of authority
b. describes and break down to task to its smallest unit
c. uses time and motion studies to find
one’s best way to waork
d. restricts behavioural alternatives facing worker- remove worker dicretion in planning,
organizing, controlling.
68. This referred to as secondary method of SW that is concerned with the provision
distribution of societal resources to enable clientele
and
groups to meet theier needs and
fulfil their potentials SW direct practice.
a. social planning
b. SW administration
c. SW research
d. SW action
69. As the chief executive of the organizations/he is tasked to organized people and
resources, motivating the workforce to perform and achieve the end of the agency.
a. manager
b. chairman of the board of directors
c. supervisor
d. HRD/ personal officer
70. Day care, immunization, capability building
a. program
b. service
c. tactic
d. strategy
71. It is the coordinated group
of activities
maintained over a period of time aimed at
producing services to various individuals, groups and communities.
a. program
c. plan
b. services
d. policy
72. It is a course of action tha involves matching needs and resources, of organizational
intentions and resources, capability and transforms a present state to a desired state.
a. resources mobilization
b. planning
c. policy formulation
d. program implementation
73.. These are the basis for policy making
a. social problem
b. demand service
c. data from the community
d. services rendered
Choices:
a.) abcd
b.) abd
c.) abc
d.) ac
74. It is a purposive course of actions manifesting the organization’s
goals and
prescribing the ways by which these could be accomplished.
a. social policy
b. social legislations
c. plan of action
d. service rendered
75. RA 7160 or the local government Code way for programs and services within the
reach of the people through evaluation. This service delivery characteristic is _____.
a. comprehensive delivery system
b. continuous program development
c. plan of action
d. program plan
76.
One of its major flagship strategies of the SRA is the comprehensive and integrated
delivery of social services
(CIDSS) that brought
together various services to respond
to the minimum basic needs (MBN) of people. This service delivery strategy is referred to
as ______.
a. accessibility
b. converges of services
c. focused targeting
d. comprehensiveness of service delivery
Choices:
a.) abcd
c.) ac
c.) abc
d.) bd
77. The following are the resources of social policy. Which one is not included?
a. Philippines constitution
b. UN- MFG
c. social legislations
d. programs and services
78. This management function tries to answer the questions WHY. WHWT, and
HOW
that require a through needs assessment, goal setting, methods of meeting the oals,
decisions to be made, and a blueprint of implementing guidelines.
a. planning
b. policy formation
c. program implementation
d. evaluation of programs
79. It is a principle of organization that limits the authority of supervisor over a specified
number of supervisee.
a. unity of command
b. organizational structure
c.
span of control
d. division of labor
80. This staffing function involves effective recruitment, selection, hiring, and placement.
a. organization
b. acquiring
c. maintaining
d. developing
81. Regulating action by interpreting, explaining, and giving of instructions regarding
expected performance of a task or plan is called _________.
a. coordination
b. organization
c. directing and control
d. implement guidelines
82. To ensure compliance by the employees/ social workers of the requirements of their
task and accomplish agency objectives, the manager needs feedbacks through ______.
A. period evaluation of work accomplishment
b. performance appraisal and control
c. regular staff meeting
d. reporting
83. The management function meets the following purposes: teaching, research and
administrative purpose like evaluation.
a. program development
b. reporting
c. records
d. plan
84. They are blueprints of the organization for thecoming months or years expressed in
monetary terms ______.
a. plan of actions
b. programs
c. budgets
d. records
85. It involves periodic gathering, processing, and consolidation of data to identify
deviations or gaps and needs in the actual conduct of work or activities and applications
of corrective or support inputs if warranted.
a. evaluation
b. monitoring
c. planning
d. controlling
86. It is a management function that is used for making decision for the continuance or
termination of a programs after
assessment of its strength s and weaknesses, and
application of corrective or goals/ objectives and gaps in the implementation.
a. monitoring.
b.Evaluation
c. recording
d. program implementation
87. It is an evaluation tool that assesses or identifies
the changes brought about by the
implementation of a program/ project.
a. summative evaluation
b. cost benefits analysis
c. impact analysis
d. monitoring
88. An
evaluation tool that is used to determine merits
for increase in salary or
promotion of the staff.
a. monitoring
bb. Performance appraisal
c. impact analysis
d. staff evaluation
choices:
A.) abcd
B.) abc
C.) ac
D.) db
89. This management function requires the ability to integrate various parts of
organization and motivate the workforce to work in a collaborative and cooperative
manner.
a. organization
b. unity command
c. leadership
d. coordination
90. Thes are basis for budgeting
a. expected income
b. needs for the coming year
c. program priorities
d. program cost
choices:
C.) ab
A.) abcd
C.) abc
D.) cd
91. It is a management function that requires overseeing and enabling subordinates to
perform their task to the best of their ability ensuring satisfaction to themselves and to
the agency.
a. evaluation
b.
directing and controlling
c. supervision
d. organization
92. This is the ability to inspires and motivate people to work for the achievement of an
objective.
a. leadership
b. management
c. administration
d. supervision
93. The statement, “ It is hereby declared that it is the responsibility of te state to provide
a comprehensive program services through the coverage
of government agencies
resources” is called_____.
a. plan
b. policy
c. principle
d. philosophy
94. As a tool determine situation of barangays for CIDSS implementation, the maximum
basic needs such as the following are assessed.
a. food, nutrition, health, water, clothing
b. shelter, peace and order
c. basic education, literacy, people’s participation
d.
gainful employment and adequate income
choices:
A.) abcd
C.) abc
B.) bcd
D.)cd
95. The is to foster growth and development of the capacities of people by ensuring a
more equitable distribution of goods and services and provisions of sufficient
opportunities of raising the living standards of the population.
a. social justice
b. social equity
c. people empowerment
d. social development
96. Poor communities may benefits from economic activities, such as, income- generating
projects may be prioritized by the social work I her work in the barangays. For the project,
the social worker may be able to tap the following agencies:
a. the local government unit that can provide capital for the projects.
b. any non- government organization
c. the DSWD to launch CIDSS
d. the PCSO for the other needs of the community
choices:
A.) abcd
C.) acd
B.) abc
D.) abd
97. Poverty reduction is a major goal for the Philippines and many international
organizations like UN. This is specially articulated in the following
social policies and
social legislations.
a. social reform
b. millennium development goal
c. R.A 8425
d. Philippines constitution
choices:
A.) abcd
B.) bcd
C.) abd
D.) bd
98. It is the art of enabling staff and
students to perform their functions
under the
guidance of a trained person.
a. consultation
b. administration
c. supervision
d. social planning
99. The tasks of giving assignment, of organizing, of coordinating and facilitating the
manpower and agency resources are among the roles of this supervisory function..
a. administration function
b. educational function
c. expressive- supportive function
d. planning function
100. This means that linkages must be established between the program, the budget and
the goals..
a. social system
b. system analysis
c. cost- benefits
analysis
d. development plan
JAYRALD TORREJOS 3RD WEEK SWPPS PREBOARD
SOCIAL WELFARE POLICES PROGRAMS AND
SERVICES
1. The following are the classification of social welfare services, EXCEPT for one
a. Semi-private
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencie
d. People’s organization
2. It is created by a constitutional mandate, legislative act and by executive order of
the President.
a. Semi-private
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People’s organization
3. It is created by a group of citizens who have decided to organize to meet the felt/
identified needa of a community resources to render social services to the
people. It has constitution and by-laws, a governing board responsible for policy
formulation, policies to guide its program and trained personnel to implement its
programs. It generally draws volunteers from the community that help in social
services delivery.
a. Semi-private
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People’s organization
4. Their creation, functions and programs are determined by law and can be
changed only by law. Their organizational structure is bureucratic and they are
less flexible than programs of private agencies. These are the characteristrics of.
a. Semi-private agencies
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People’s organization
5. They are created, not by law, but organized as a voluntary response of private
citizens to meet people’s need in the community. They may also be national
chapters of international welfare organizations such as the Red Cross, ,YWCA,
Girl and Boys scouts. These characteristics are the characteristics of.
a. Semi-private/ NGO
b. Pivate agencies
c. Givernment agencies
d. People’s organization
6. Their organizational structure does not follow a bureucratic pattern and, therefore
they are more flexible in their policies and programs and can responds to
people’s needs more quickly. In the case of religious sponsored agencies they
adhere to policies of their doctrinal beliefs and this makes them less flexible.
Their concepts, philosophies and methods of work follow their religious beliefs.
These are the characteristics of.
a. Semi-private agencies
b. Private agencies
c. Government agencies
d. People’s organization
7. It is the process of developing guidelines for an agreed course of action- a
process by which statements of intention adopted by the board or policy-making
body are for the implementation by the management and staff to achieve agency
goals.
a. Policy
b. Social policy
c. Social welfare policy
d. Policy formulation
8. It is a verbal or written or implied expression of agency purpose that provides the
guideline for execution of action. It is a stated course of action adopted and
followed by the agency in doing its work.
a. Policy
b. Social policy
c. Agency policy
d. Policy formulation
9. These are written statements formally adopted by the Board of legal authority
and made public so that persons will know the conditions under which services
will be rendered. The community, the constituency, and the staff should be clear
on the nature and purpose of the specific policy and its interpretation.
a. Policy
b. Social policy
c. Agency policy
d. Policyformulationn
10. It is the laying out or charting the course of translating agency policies into
programs and services. It involves looking ahead, assessing future probabilities,
getting the facts and arranging systematically the steps to be taken and the
methods of doing them to give focus and direction.
a. Planning
b. Coordinating
c. Directing
d. Programming
11. It is developing a set of planned purposive activities. This is a unit of planned
activities. It is a coordinated group of activities maintained over a period of time,
aimed at producing a specific type of services.
a. Planning
b. Coordinating
c. Directing
d. Programming
12. The following are the parameters of programming EXCEPT for one.
a. Defining existing resources in the community including agency resources
and identifying service areas.
b. Identifying gaps in service areas/ or resources
c. Identifying the factors related to gaps
d. Setting specifics objectives
13. It is the setting up of the framework of structure of the different units of the
system to carry on or perform distinct tasks for a specified objective.
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Planning
14. It is the function of selecting, hiring, training and maintaining the competent work
force in such a way as to accomplish with maximum efficiency and economy, the
functions and objectives of the agency.
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Coordination
15. It is the overseeing, guiding and supervising of people in the organization the
social work administrator is the professional leader of the staff. He carries major
responsibilities for helping the staff to set goals, achieve high standards of work
productivity, and provide high quality of services.
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Coordinating
16. It is an activity that inter-relates the various parts of the agency so that it
functions as a whole.
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Coordination
17. The following are the characteristics of budget and financing except for one.
a. The agency budget is the annual estimate of the financial needs of the
organization.
b. A budget is a document containing words and figures, which proposes
expenditures for certain items and purposes. The words describe items of
expenditures or purposes and the figures attached to each item or
purpose.
c. The budget is a link between financial resources and human behavior to
accomplish policy objectives.
d. A decision is made as to the resources required to achieve the purposes.
18. It is a conversational activity between the social work supervisor and social work
supervisee.
a. Administration
b. Supervision
c. Intervention
d. Conference
19. The following are the essential components of supervision. Which does not
belong to the group?
a. Sanction and support by organizations
b. Acknowledgement and practice by the supervisor of her/his positional
authority
c. Meetings that use a formal structure and format
d. Promotion of social justice
20. The following are some of the five-fold purposes of supervision to provide quality
service. Which does not belong to the group?
a. Knowledge and skill development
b. Evaluation by and of all participants
c. Professional development as a social worker
d. Administrative tasks
21. It is oriented toward agency policy and organizational demands and focuses on
supervisee’s level of functioning on the job and work assignment.
a. Administrative supervision
b. Educational supervision
c. Supervision
d. Supportive supervision
22. It decreases job stress that interferes with work performance and provides the
supervisee with nurturing conditions that compliment their success and
encourage self-efficacy.
a. Administrative supervision
b. Educational supervision
c. Supervision
d. Supportive supervision
23. It focuses on professional concerns and relates to specific cases. It helps
supervisee to better understand social work philosophy, become more self
aware, and refine their knowledge and skills.
a. Administrative supervision
b. Educational supervision
c. Supervision
d. Supportive supervision
24. It focuses on staff development and the training needs of a social worker to a
particular caseload. It includes activities in which the supervisee is guided to
learn about assessment, treatment and intervention, identification, and resolution
of ethical issues, and evaluation and termination of services.
a. Administrative supervision
b. Educational Supervision
c. Supervision
d. Supportive supervision
25. For purposes of risk management, social work supervisor should.
a. Maintain the documentation of supervision
b. Ensure that the services provided to clients by supervisees meet or
exceed the standards of practice.
c. Monitor supervisee’s professional work activities
d. All of the above
26. Social work supervisors and supervisees may face ethical dilemmas when
providing services to clients. To address those dilemmas, the supervisor and the
supervisee should:
a. Have a through knowledge of the agency policy and procedures under
which they are employed.
b. Have a through knowledge of the code of ethics under which they
practice.
c. Consult with the president of the agency
d. Terminate the services
27. Supervisors help supervisees learn ethical decision-making, a process that is
both cognitive and emotional. Supervisors should
a. Discuss and model the process of identifying and exploring problems,
looking at issues, values, principles, and regulations.
b. Discuss with their supervisees possible with consequences, as well as
cost and benefits of certain actions.
c. Should explore what actions best achieve fairness, justice and respect for
others, make a decisions about actions to be taken, and evaluate them
after implementation.
d. All of the above
28. What are the ethical considerations that are included in supervision?
a. A supervisor should always focus on the goals of supervision and the
nature of supervisory relationship and avoid providing psychotherapy
services to the supervisee.
b. Supervisor working with more than one supervisee should see each
supervisee as an individual and adapt to that supervisee’s needs.
c. Supervisors must be fair and consistent when providing supervision to
multiple supervisees.
Choices: A.) abc
B.) ab
C.) ac
D.) None of the above
29. Which of the statements are true as regards to evaluation and outcomes?
a. The evaluation and outcome of the supervisor process is an integral part
to the development of professional social workers.
b. The evaluation of supervisee, as well as the evaluation of the impact and
outcome of supervision, is a significant responsibility of the supervisor.
c. An evaluation serves many purposes, which vary depending on the setting
and context.
Choices: A.) abc
B.) ac
C.) bc
D.) ab
30. It is the one who is responsible for providing direction to the supervisee, applies
social work theory, standardized knowledge, skills, competency, and applicable ethical
content in the practice setting is called the.
a. Manager
b. Field instructor
c. Supervisor
d. Professor
31. The supervisory relationnship is built on.
a. Sympathy, mutuality,security and acceptance.
b. Trust, confidentiality, support and empayhic experiences
c. Individualism, self- determination, acceptance and comfidentiality
b. Trust, empathy, acceptance and support.
32. These qualities are also inherent in the supervisory relationship.
a. Constructive feedback
b. Safety
c. Respect
d Self-care
Choices: a. abcd
b. cd
c. ab
d. abd
33. It occurs when the supervisor or supervisee leaves the organization or is promoted
or when the supervisee obtains licensure.
a. Ending phase
b. Beginning phase
c. Termination
d. Termination phase
34. This may also occur when the goals are achieved in the agreement between the
supervisor and supervisee.
a. Ending phase
b. Beginning phase
c. Termination
d. Termination phase
35. They defined supervision in social work as the process of overseeing, directing,
coordinating, engancing, and evaluating the on the job performance of workers for
whom the supervisor is responsible.
a. Horejs and Sheafor
b. Kadushin and Markness
c. Zastrow and Williams
d John and Skidneight
36. The following are the short terms objectives of supervision. WHICH ONE ARE NOT
INCLUDED?
a. Provides workers with the work structure and agency resources that enable them to
do their jobs effectivelyd.
b. Increases workers knowledge skills and ability to do their jobs effectively and help
workers develop professionally
c. Sustains workers emotionally with the performance of their job.
d. Provudes clients the most efficient and effective service possible, consistent, with
agency policies and procedures.
37. It encompasses all of the procedures and agency uses to improve job related
knowledge, skills and attitudes of its staff.
a. Staff development
b. Educational supervision
c. In service training
d. Administrative supervision
38. It is a formal training that is planned and advance provided to circumscribed group
of personnel at an agency who have the same the job responsibilities or same job
classification. The content taught at an service training applies to all members of the
group but is specifically relevant to none of them.
a. Staff development
b. Educational supervision
c. In service training
d. Administrative supervision
39. It refers to a training that is tailored to the needs of a specific worker who has a
specific caseload and is dealing with specific problems- I,e., The program education is
individualized to meet the needs of this worker. Through this, the supervisor helps the
worker apply the generic training offered by in-service training.
a. Staff development
b. Educational supervision
c. In-service training
d. Administrative supervision
40. It refers to the ability to implement one’s authority.
a. Command
b. Power
c. Unity of command
d. Coercion
41. This is the ability to control tangible punishments (demotion, poor performance,
rating, etc.) And psychic punishments (cristicism, disapproval). To be effective, workers
must believe that the supervisor is like to take disciplinary action.
a. Reward power
b. Coercive power
c. Legitimate/ positional power
d. Referent power
42. It stems from the authority associated with the position of supervisor, regardless of
the person Holding the position. the worker believes that the supervisor simply because
of his position has a legitimate right to expect workers to follow his authority.
a. Reward power
b. Coercive power
c. Legitimate/ positional power
d. Referent power
43. This is the ability to control tangible rewards (raises, work assignments, etc.) And
psychic rewards (e.g., praise). For reward power to be effective, workers must believe
that their supervisor has an authority to make decisions concerning rewards, and it must
be apparent to workers that rewards are diatributed based on job performance.
a. Reward power
b. Expert power
c. Legitimate/ positional power
d. Referent power
44. It is derived from the worker’s identification with her supervisor and eagerness to be
like him and liked by him. Having a positive relationship with a worker provides a
supervisor with a source of power for influencing the worker’s behavior and attitudes.
When a worker identifies with her supervisor, she internalizes his expectations.
a. Reward power
b. Expert power
c. Formal power
d. Referent power
45. It exists when the supervisor has special knowledge and skills that his supervisees
need. This form of power is confined to areas in which the supervisor has expetise and
can diminish as a workers own expertise grows and she relies less on the supervisor for
help. This may also stem from the supervisors expert knowledge of the policies,
procedures, and operations in the agency.
a. Reward power
b. Expert power
c. Formal power
d. Functional power
46. It is the power which is related to the title/position a supervisor (or other leader)
holds and the holds delegated to that position. This power is acquired automatically
when a person becomes a supervisor and there is little difference between supervisors
in the same agency in regard to their formal power.
a. Reward power
b. Expert power
c. Formal power
d. Functional power
47. The most common kind of meeting between supervisors and workers is.
a. Individual supervisory conference
b. Group supervisor conference
c. Case presentations
d. Focused group diacussions
48. The supervisor watches the interview from behind; he can see and hear the
interaction but cannot be seen or heard by the worker or client.
a. One-way mirror
b. Co-therapy supervision
c. Sitting in
d. Focused group discussions
49. He is the father of scientific management.
a. Frederick Taylor
b. Max Weber
c. Henry Fayol
d. Abraham Maslow
50. The father of modern management is.
a. Frederick Taylor
b. Max Weber
c. Henri Fayol
d. Abraham Maslow
51. In this type of supervision, the members of the group participate as equals. There is
no designated supervisor.
a. Group supervisor
b. Peer-group supervisor
c. Case consulation
d. Tutorial supervisor
52. The development of supervisor originated in.
a. Great Britain
b. U.S.A
c. Philippines
d. Canada
53. Supervision is significant to SW practice for.
a. The protection of the client
b. Maintining the agency’s prestige
c. Promoting the good-will
d. Meeting the accreditation requirments
54. This type of supervision is effective with homogeneous participants.
a. Tandem supervision
b. Tutorial supervision
c. Group supervision
d. Case consultation
55. In this supervisory function the supervisor’s role is directly related to helping the
supervise deals with job-related stress.
a. Administrative function
b. Educational function
c. Expressive-supportive function
d. Coordinating function
56. In this level of supervision, the use of andragogy is a must in a teaching function.
a. Supervisor-Student level
b. Supervisor-Staff level
c. Supervisor-Paraprofessional level
d. Supervisor-Volunteer level
57. This type of supervision developed out of the peer-group model with many
similarities and there is no leader.
a. Tutorial model
b. Group supervision
c. Tandem Supervision
d. Team
58. One off the following is a supervisory tool.
a. Questionnare
b. Case records
c Information sheet
d. Interview guide
59. It is a component of a supervision that increase the worker’s knowledge in
understanding her client and in managing her cases.
a. Teaching
b. Discipline
c. Efficiency rating
d. Recording
60. The process of enabling workers to perform their functions more effectively is called.
a. Supervision
b. Training
c. Facilitating
d. Structuring
61. The key to effective or successful supervision is.
a. Discipline
b. Relationship
c. Authority
d. Knowledge
62. This law stipulated the completion of 1,000 hours of supervised field work as a
requirment for board exammination.
a. RA 5413
b. RA 6104
c. RA 7530
d. RA 4373
63. The turn key for the whole process of supervision is.
a. Relationship
b. Communication
c. Planning
d. Control
64. Starting with the simple and moving on to the complex is a factor to consider in this
supervisory function.
a. Administrative
b. Educational
c . Supportive
d. Facilitative
65. It is the type of supervision most commonly used for new and inexperienced worker
including students.
a. Tutorial model
b. Case consulation
c. Group supervision
d. Peer-group supervision
66. This model of supervision is economical in terms of administrative time, money
effort and expertise.
a. Individual supervision
b. Group supervision
c. Tandem supervision
d. Team
67. The membership is deliberately varied within the agency in this supervisory model.
a. Case consulation
b. Group supervision
c. Team
d. Peer-group
68. This worker serves as the bridge or human link between the agency and the client.
a. Social worker
b. Paraprofessional
c. Supervisor
d. Psychologist
69. In the teaching function of the supervisor of the paraprofessional this process is
preferred since the supervisee is an adult.
a. Pedagogy
b. Facilitative
c. Androgogy
d. Lecture
70. This type of paraprofessional is selected to match the ethnic, racial, educational and
socia-economic background of the client group.
a. Ubiquitos
b. Indigenous
c. Volunteer
d. Enabler
71. Which of the following function is not the task of the paraprofessionals.
a. Conducting survey
b. Distributing aids
c. Conducting casework
d. Contacting leaders
72. Providing short daily conferences rather than a weekly one is one of the roles of this
type of supervisory functions of paraprofessionals.
a. Administrative function
b. Educational function
c. Supportive function
d. Planning function
73. Defind administration as the process of setting objectives and stablishing policies,
creating and maintaining an organization, making plans and carrying them out, and
evaluating the results.
a. Kidneight
b. Johns
c. Stein
d. Scwarts
74. According to, social work administration can be defined as the process of
transforming social policy into social services, and the use of experience in
recommending modification of policy.
a. Kidneight
b. Johns
c. Stein
d. Scwarts
75. Defined administration as a process of defining and attaining the objectives of an
organization through a system of coordinated and cooperative effort.
a. Kidneight
b. Johns
c. Stein
d. Scwarts
76. According to, administrative is the process and the organization of people toward
objective which entail the production of goods or provision of services.
a. Kidneight
b. Johns
c. Stein
d. Scwarts
77. It is the setting up of the framework or structure of the different units of the system to
carry out or perform disticnt task for specified objectives.
a. Administration
b. Supervision
c. Organization
d. Management
78. This is called the scientific ulilization of manpower, money, machines, materials,
methods, time and space for the achievements of agency goals.
a. Administration
b. Supervisib
c. Organization
d. Management
79. In the filipino style of management, valuing ahrd work means.
a. Kayod
b. Libro
c. Lusot
d. Oido
80. In the Filipino style of management, by the book means.
a. Kayod
b. Libro
c lusot
d. Oido
81. In the Filipino style of management, playing it by ear and gut feeling means.
a. Ugnayan
b. Libro
c . Lusot
d. Oido
82. In the Filipino style of management, capitalizing on loophole to avoid work or cover
failure means.
a. Kayod
b. Libro
c Lusot
d. Ugnayan
83. In the Filipino style of management, putting emphasis on relationships means.
a. Kayod
b. Libro
c lusot
d. Ugnayan
84. According to trecker, which akong the following are the common elements of
administrations.
a. Administration is a continuous, dynamic process.
b. The process is set into motion in order to accomplish a common purpose or goal
c. The resources of people and material are harnessed so that the common purpose or
goal may be achieved
d. Coordinating and cooperation are the means by which the resources of people and
material are harnessed
e. Implicit in the definition ate the elements of planning, organization and leadership
Choices: A.) Abcde
B.) Bde
C.) BCDE
D.) Abe
85. It is been as a method practiced by soci work administrators to enable all people
involved in the agency’s work to fulfill their reponsibilities in accordance with their
functions and to make maximum use of resources to the end that agency provides the
best possible services to the people of the community.
a. Social work Supervision
b. Social work administration
c. Social work Methods
d. Social work Research
86. It is work with people. It is a dynamic process based upon an ever- increasing
knowledge and understanding of human behavior, human relations and human
organization.
a. Social work Supervision
b. Social work Administration
c. Social work Methods
d. Social work Research
87. The following are the dimensions of social work administration, EXCEPT for one.
a. The community within which the agency work
b. The pyschosocial dimension within which people release their feelings and energies
which are properly channeled and directed by administrators to enable people to
accomplish their tasks in relation to the goals of agency service.
c. A central dimension is the tasks or work assignment within the agency structure
d. People resources and purpose are brought together by administration in a contiuous,
dynamic process.
88. It is the structural framework within which administrative tasks are carried out. The
agency structure inevitaly conditions and controls the specifics of the administrative
process in a given situation. Inasmuch as social agencies are wholes and their parts are
interrelated, administration likewise must be thought of as a total process rather as a
series of segment acts.
a. Social Work Agency
b. Social Work
c. Social Welfare Agency
d. Modern Socil Agency
89. It is a complex social system involving many people. These may include the board,
administrative staff, other staff, volunteers, supporting community. It is a social syatem
with each bearing a relation to every other part and all are interdependet.
a. Social Work Agency
b. Social Agency
c. Social Welfare Agency
d. Modern Social Agency
90. It is a insteument of society. It has benn stablished by governmental or voluntary
effort to meet the social needs of people to achieve a social goal.
a. Social Work Agency
b. Social Agency
c. Social Welfare Agency
d. Modern Social Agency
91. It is a whole with each part, bearing in relation to every other part and all are interdependent. It is joy impermeable to other social sysytems and is affected by other social
systems.
a. Social Role
b. Social Unit
c. Social System
d. Social System Theory
92. The following are the elements of a social system.
a. Interaction, education, roles, status, empowerment, sanctions, psychological
indentification and boundary maintenance
b. Interaction, position, mission, goals, power, vision, pyschological identification and
boundary mantenance
c. Interaction, position, roles, status, power, sanctions, pyschological identification and
boundary maintenance
d. Interaction, objectives, roles, vision, mission, sanctions, psychological indentification
and boundary maintenance
93. It is the knowledge of performance of tasks; tenchniques are used in transforming
inputs into outputs.
a. Technical subsystem
b. Psycho-social system
c. Organizational structure system
d. Managerial system
94. It spans the entire organization by relating it to the environent, setting the goals,
planning, organizing, programming and controlling activities.
a. Technical subsystem
b. Psycho-social system
c. Organizational structure system
d. Managerial system
95. It consist of individual behavior and motivation, status role relationship, group
dynamics, and influence systems. This is influenced by external enviroment,
technology, task and structure.
a. Technical subsystem
b. Pyscho- social system
c. Organizational structure system
d. Managerial system
96. It involves tasks differentiation and division of labor and coordination of activities.
a. Technical subsystem
b. Psycho-social system
c. Organizational structure system
d. Managerial system
97. It may be defined as inquiring to aid in the process of decision-making to choose the
course of action by investigating proper objectives, comparing qualitatively, where
possible, the cost of strategies for achieving them and formulating additional
alternatives. This is necessary when objectives ate multiple, conflicting and involves a
large element of judgement.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefit Analys
d. Developing Plan
98. It is an orderly study of the system designed to help the decision maker identifya a
preferred course of action among possible altenatives.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefit Analysis
d. Developing Plan
99. In this analysis, the comparison is expressed in terms of their cost and effectivebess
in attaining a desired abjective.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefits Analysis
d. Developing Plan
100. This means that linkages must be established between the program, the budget
and the goals.
a. Social System
b. System Analysis
c. Cost-benefits Analysis
d. Developing Plan