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CESSNA 208B TECHNICAL EXAMINATION
GENERAL DESCRIPTION
1.
The wingspan is:
a.
b.
c.
54 ft 1 in.
47 ft 8 in.
52 ft 1 in.
FLIGHT CONTROLS
2.
The elevator tip leading edge extensions provide:
a.
b.
c.
3.
All control cables are:
a.
b
c.
4.
Trimmable servo tab attached to the right aileron.
A geared tab attached to the left aileron.
A spring tab attached to the right aileron.
The rudder trim system:
a.
b.
c.
8.
A trim tab on the left elevator.
A trim tab on the right elevator.
A trim tab on either elevator.
Aileron trimming is achieved by:
a.
b.
c.
7.
A single horn on each elevator trim tab.
Duel horns on each elevator trim tab.
A single horn for both elevator trim tabs.
Elevator trimming is achieved by:
a.
b.
c
6.
Spring steel.
Stainless steel.
Teleflex solid drawn.
The actuator rods transmit actuator movement to:
a.
b.
c.
5.
Aerodynamic balance only.
Balance weights only.
Both.
Operates a trim tab on the rudder.
Is electrically operated.
Operates against the nosewheel steering bungee.
The aircraft is fitted with the following trim systems:
a.
b.
c.
Manual elevator, aileron and rudder trim.
Manual rudder and aileron trim and both manual and electrical elevator trim.
All electrical trims.
1
9.
The wing spoilers are designed to:
a.
b.
c.
10.
Spoiler travel is proportional to aileron travel deflections:
a.
b.
c.
11.
Large span, fowler flaps.
Large span, split flaps.
Large span, single-slotted, semi-fowler flaps.
The wing flaps are:
a.
b.
c.
13.
In excess of 5° up.
For any deflection.
Only at low speeds.
What type of flaps are fitted to the aircraft:
a.
b.
c.
12.
Be used as speed reduction devices.
Improve lateral control at low speeds.
Increase effectiveness of the flaps.
Electrically driven.
Hydraulically driven.
Mechanically operated.
The standby flap system should be operated:
a.
b.
c.
Until just after the point where the flaps reach their mechanical stops.
Until the flaps reach the desired position as per the indicator.
Only once the autopilot has been engaged.
ANNUNCIATOR WARNING PANEL
14.
Placing the DAY/NIGHT switch in the night position:
a.
b.
c.
15.
A red vacuum low light indicates that the vacuum system suction is less than:
a.
b.
c.
16.
4.5 in. Hg.
3.6 in. Hg
3.0 in. Hg.
The red reservoir fuel low light indicates the fuel level in the reservoir tank is:
a.
b.
c
17.
Dims all the illuminated annunciator lamps.
Dims only the illuminated green annunciator lamps.
Dims all illuminated green and some amber lamps.
Less than 25 lbs.
Less than 25 gallons.
Less than half full.
The amber fuel low level light indicates that the fuel in each tank is:
a
b.
c.
Less than 25 gallons.
Less than 25 lbs.
Less than 25 gallons in both tanks.
2
18.
The amber fuel pressure low light indicates that the fuel pressure is:
a.
b.
c.
Below 4.5 psi.
Below 3.75 psi.
Below 4.75 psi.
LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES
19.
If the nose gear has been turned past its 56° maximum travel:
a.
b.
c.
20.
The brake system consists of:
a.
b.
c.
21.
A frangible stop will sheared off and fall into view.
No damage has been done as the nose gear can rotate through 360°.
It is not possible as the drag link will limit travel to 56°.
A master cylinder to each pilot's rudder pedal.
A master brake cylinder in the engine compartment which pressurizes the wheel brakes.
A master cylinder for each wheel.
The aircraft is fitted with the following brake system:
a.
b.
c.
Hydraulic, single drum type brake system actuated by a hydraulic pump and accumulator.
Single disc, hydraulic actuated brake on each main wheel.
Single disc, mechanical brake system on each main wheel.
CABIN ENTRY DOORS
22.
Locking of the crew entry doors when leaving the aircraft is facilitated by means of the following:
a.
b.
c.
Manually operated inside door lock on the right door.
A key operated door lock on the right door.
A lock override knob on the right door.
POWER PLANT
23.
The power turbine is mounted on a shaft that drives :
a.
b.
c.
d.
24.
Air induced into the engine:
a.
b.
c.
25.
The gas generator.
The accessory gearbox.
The reduction gear.
The propeller directly.
Enters at the rear and is exhausted at the front.
Enters at the front and is exhausted at the rear.
Passes from the power turbine to the first compressor stage.
The engine is flat rated at:
a.
b.
c.
675 SHP.
650 SHP.
600 SHP.
3
26.
The maximum permissable speed of the gas generator is:
a.
b.
c.
27.
The torque meter indicates the power:
a.
b.
c.
28.
37500 RPM at 100%.
33000 RPM at 101.6%.
38100 RPM at 101.6%.
Developed by the gas generator.
Delivered by the propeller.
Delivered to the propeller.
What does the ITT indicator display.
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29.
What does the Ng% RPM indicator display.
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30.
When the fuel condition lever is in the LOW IDLE and HIGH IDLE positions, the control
rod and stop is positioned to provide a RPM of:
a.
b.
c.
31.
A failure of any pneumatic signal input to the fuel control unit will result in the fuel flow decreasing
to a minimum idle of:
a.
b.
c.
32.
46% Ng.
18% Ng.
52% Ng.
The total oil and drain and refill oil capacities are:
a.
b.
c.
34.
48% at 5000 ft.
65% at 5000 ft.
52% at 5000 ft.
The generator control unit provides automatic starter cut-off when the gas generator section speed is:
a.
b.
c.
33.
48% and 52%.
46% and 65%.
52% and 65%.
12 US gallons and 9 US gallons.
14.5 litre and 9.5 litre.
14 US quarts and 9.5 US quarts.
What is the function of the inertial seperator in the BYPASS mode.
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35.
The function of the ignition switch in the ON position is to:
a.
b.
c.
36.
The function of the start switch in the START position is to:
a.
b.
c.
37.
Arm the ignition system so that ignition will be obtained when the starter switch is placed in
the START position.
Provide continuous ignition when the starter switch is placed in the START position.
Provide continuous ignition regardless of the position of the starter switch.
Energize the ignition system, provided the ignition switch is placed in the START position.
Energize the starter/generator which rotates the gas generator portion of the engine.
To activate the generator system.
The MOTOR position of the starter switch motors the engine without having the ignition circuit
energized. This is only possible when the ignition switch is in the NORMAL position.
True / False
38.
In order to de-energize the ignition system and activate the generator system after start:
a.
b.
c.
Manually place the starter switch in the OFF position.
Place the fuel condition lever in the cutoff position.
The ignition cycle is automatically terminated at 46% Ng.
PROPELLER
39.
What is the function of the propeller overspeed governor.
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40.
The function of the power turbine governor in the propeller governor is to:
a.
b.
c.
41.
Protect the engine against possible turbine overspeed in the event of a propeller governor
failure by regulating the fuel flow to the fuel divider.
Act as a safeguard against propeller overspeed should the propeller governor fail by
regulating the fuel flow to the fuel divider.
Act as a safeguard against possible propeller overspeed by regulating the flow of oil to the
propeller pitch-change mechanism.
How is the propeller moved into the low pitch (increasing RPM) position:
a.
b.
c.
Oil pressure from the propeller governor furnished from the engine oil system.
Springs and counterweights.
Smoke and mirrors.
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42.
Why should the propeller be feathered when the engine is shut down:
a.
b.
c.
43.
The propeller RPM indicator is electrically operated and receives its information from the:
a.
b.
c.
44.
Propeller governor.
Propeller tachometer-generator.
The gas generator tachometer-generator.
With the propeller control lever in the MAX position:
a.
b.
c.
d.
45.
The propeller reverse linkage could be damaged.
As no lubrication is available to the forward section of the engine after shutdown, rotation
of the forward section of the engine is not desirable.
It may result in excessive oil pressure from the propeller governor when the engine is started.
The propeller speed is governed at 1900 RPM.
The engine delivers maximum torque.
The propeller governor is bypassed.
The gas generator rpm is maximum.
In BETA range the propeller blade angle is controlled by the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Power lever.
Propeller governor.
The computing section of the FCU.
Both A and B.
FUEL SYSTEM
46.
The total fuel and total usable fuel capacities are:
a.
b.
c.
47.
The aircraft fuel system consists of the following type of vented fuel tank:
a.
b.
c.
48.
Four inter-connected tanks, two per wing with shutoff valves.
Two integral tanks with shutoff valves.
Two bladder type tanks inter-connected with one shutoff valve.
Fuel flows from the wing tanks to the reservoir tank by:
a.
b.
c.
49.
2244 lbs and 2224 lbs.
2244 lbs and 2044 lbs.
2224 lbs and 2024 lbs.
Auxiliary fuel boost pump.
Ejector boost pump.
Gravity.
Fuel is pumped from the reservoir tank primarily by the:
a.
b.
c.
Ejector boost pump.
Auxiliary boost pump.
Engine driven pump.
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50.
If the fuel filter becomes blocked:
a.
b.
c.
51.
Fuel rejected by the engine on shutdown drains:
a.
b.
c.
52.
d.
Shut off all fuel flow from the reservoir to the engine.
Shut off fuel flow from the ejector boost pump to the reservoir.
Shut off fuel flow from the filter to the FCU.
When the auxiliary boost pump is in the NORMAL position it will:
a.
b.
c.
55.
Both left and right fuel tank shutoff valves are closed.
Either the left or right fuel shutoff valves are closed during engine start operation.
One fuel selector is in the OFF position and the fuel remaining in the tank being used
is less than 25 gallons.
All above.
The function of the firewall fuel shutoff valve is to:
a.
b.
c.
54.
Onto the ground from the manifold.
Into a fireproof fuel can on the firewall.
Drains into the reservoir tank.
The fuel-selector-warning system sounds when:
a.
b.
c.
53.
Fuel starvation occurs and the engine flames out.
The red FUEL FILTER annunciator light illuminates.
The red filter bypass flag pops out.
Operate continuously.
Operate only when the fuel pressure drops below 4.75 psi.
Be inoperative.
Where are the fuel drain valves situated.
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ELECTRICAL
56.
The starter/generator output limits are:
a.
b.
c
57.
28 volt and 220 amp.
24 volt and 200 amp.
28 volt and 200 amp.
The output specifications of the lead-acid battery is:
a.
b.
c
28 volt, 40 amp-hour.
24 volt, 45 amp-hour.
24 volt, 40 amp-hour.
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58.
The output specification of the Ni-Cad battery is:
a.
b.
c.
59.
The generator control unit (GCU) controls the operation of:
a.
b.
c.
60.
c.
d.
67.
Operate the number 2 avionics bus.
Operate the clock and cockpit lighting.
Operate the memory-keep-alive clock and courtesy lights.
The standby electrical system is connected to:
a.
b.
c.
66.
The battery.
The engine-driven generator.
A belt-driven alternator.
The battery bus is energized continuously to:
a.
b.
c.
65.
Three general busses, two avionics busses, two AC busses and a battery bus.
Two general busses, two avionics busses, one AC bus and a battery bus.
Two general busses, two avionics busses and two AC busses and a battery bus.
The 75 amp standby electrical system is powered by:
a.
b.
c.
64.
When the battery switch is turned on and isolates the ground power unit.
The voltage level applied to the external power receptacle and closes the external power
contactor when the applied voltage is within limits.
Airplane bus voltage and illuminates the VOLTAGE LOW annunciator when the bus
voltage drops below 24.5 volts.
Both b and c.
Power is supplied to most of the general electrical and all avionics busses via:
a.
b.
c.
63.
Voltage regulation and high voltage protection.
Voltage regulation only.
Voltage regulation, high voltage protection and reverse current protection.
The ground power unit senses:
a.
b.
62.
The standby alternator.
The generator only.
The starter-generator.
The GCU also provides:
a.
b.
c.
61.
24 volt, 40 amp-hour.
28 volt, 40 amp-hour.
24 volt, 45 amp-hour.
The avionics busses only via a separate switch.
The power distribution bus.
Has a separate alternator bus.
Avionics number 1 and 2 switches must be in the OFF position when using the standby electrical
system as:
a.
To reduce the load and prevent battery discharge.
b.
To enable the standby electrical system to override power supply to the avionics busses.
c.
To avoid feeding a possible fault in the primary power system.
When the external power switch is placed in the STARTER position:
8
a.
b.
c.
External power is supplied to the starter circuit only and battery power to the main bus.
External power is supplied to the main bus and no power is available to the starter.
External power is supplied to the generator control circuit.
LIGHTING
68.
The courtesy lights are controlled by the:
a.
b.
c.
69.
Exterior lighting switch.
Cabin light switch.
Battery switch.
The cabin lights are connected to the battery bus. Therefor it:
a.
b.
c.
Does not require the battery switch to be on for operation.
Requires the battery to be on for operation.
Has its own battery.
ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
70.
The airframe is protected by:
a.
b.
c.
71.
The propeller is maintained free from ice by:
a.
b.
c.
72.
Engine bleed air heated intakes lips.
Electrically heated intake lips.
Inertia seperator.
The windscreen is protected from ice by means of:
a.
b.
c.
74.
Electrically heated anti-ice boots.
Bleed air.
Pneumatic deice boots.
The engine is protected from ice, hail or rain by means of:
a.
b.
c.
73.
Wing, tailplane and vertical fin pneumatic deice boots.
Wing, wing-strut, tailplane and vertical fin pneumatic/vacuum deice boots.
Bleed air heated leading edge on all above mentioned in b.
Electric elements in the pilot’s window only.
Hot bleed air from the engine.
A removable windshield heater shield.
Each segment of the wing surface deice boot inflation lasts approximately:
a.
b.
c.
3 seconds.
9 seconds.
6 seconds.
75.
When the BOOT PRESS switch is moved to the AUTO position:
76.
a.
All deice boots inflate simultaneously.
b.
The deice boots inflate in sequence for one cycle.
c.
The deice boots inflate in sequence every 30 seconds.
When the PROP ANTI-ICE switch is placed in the AUTO position:
9
a.
b.
c.
Emergency propeller anti-icing is achieved for 90 seconds.
Electric current flows to the anti-ice timer which cycles the current simultaneously to the
heating elements in intervals of 90 seconds on and 90 seconds off.
Current flows to the heating elements and each blade is heated in sequence for a period of
90 seconds.
CABIN HEATING AND VENTILATION
77.
The function of the mixing air push-pull control in the FLT position is to mix:
a.
b.
c.
78.
What will the result be if the mixing air push-pull control is not in the FLT position in flight:
a.
b
c.
79.
Warm compressor bleed air with hot compressor outlet air in the mixer/muffler.
Cabin return air with hot compressor outlet air in the mixer/muffler.
Cabin return air with warm compressor bleed air in the mixer/muffler.
Compressor stall.
The system will overheat and shut down.
Both.
What is the function of the cabin heat shutoff firewall knob in the PULL OFF position:
a.
b.
c.
The bleed air supply line to the cabin heating system is shutoff.
The cabin air return line is shutoff.
Both.