Air Regulation Important Revision The transition level: *a) Is calculated by ATS* b) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome c) Is calculated by the commander What is Changeover points ( COP) The point on a victor airway where you switch from one NAVAID to the next is called a changeover point. If there isn't one published, you can take half of the total distance between the NAVAIDs and consider that as your changeover point 1.) Series of red flashes from tower to aircraft in airport circuit. 2.) How is 3500 Transmitted ? 3.) High degree in cockpit automation effects. 4.) Maximum flying hours a crew can done in 12 months. 5.) Red blood cell haemoglobin carry O2. 6.) Minimum descent angle is 6.5. The minimum descent gradient in the final approach of a non-precision procedure with FAF is 4.3% (2.5 deg) whereas the maximum is 6.5% 7.) question on primary area on instrument approach that it has full obstacle clearance ? 8.) question on minimum obstacle clearance in the intermittent segment. 9.) give right of way? 10.) Notam (R) ? 11.) 2nd freedom of air 12.) AIC full form.( or definition) 13.) Meaning of standard phrase CANNOT ? b. unable to comply c. Cannot comply 14.) Decompression sickness. 15.) How many rescue coordination center in India 16.) VHF band frequency 17.) When do you choose a route preference? (MNPSA or NAT based ) 18.) Clear air turbulence (definition) 19.) You've been intercepted which squawk code will you choose 20.) Category B aircraft speed. 21.)When a pilot requests for radar service which of them will not be asked by the controller a.) VOR/DME POSITION b.) Squawk ident c.) None of the above 22.) When should you fly after you dive less than 30 feet 23.) If you want to throw petals but you don't have C of A. Whom will you ask permission. 24.) How is the aircraft position in a cross wind landing. 25.) Which part will the sound travel after the ear drum .. ans is eustation tube . 26.) Family death (stress related ) 27.) Vfr min visibility 28.) 2 questions Heavy aircraft MTOW. 29.) 25 NM from the nav air you'll get full obsticle clearance. (MSA) 30.) No one below the rank of sub inspector shouldn't check your documents. 31.) IFR min obsticle clearance. 32.) How do you over come hypoxia? 33.) Morphine drug is not given to whom? HEAD INJURY 34.) Rvsm where 1000 feet is applied, starts from FL290- FL410. 35.) Race track pattern. 36.) Sector 3 entry. 37.) State should tell the difference between it's practice immediately. 38.) How do you avoid wake of a heavy aircraft in front of you. 39.) RVSM IN ODD LEVELS 40.)Who should file a Flight plan. 41.) Aircraft can enter atz without permission when in emergency. 42.) Report at mandatory reporting point. Stop bar light lighted (Meaning) During Emergcy /hospital Emergency frequency in VHF/UHF Aerodrome beacon light (land, sea, military ,heliport) Aerodrome Identification beacon (land, sea) ? Annexure 17/1 (know all 19) DOCS know all important White and flashing red -flying away Single engine -ri8 of way Day traffic view -10 degreewind shield swipe- 2questions ( May be related to AC category or intensity of rain ) Aerodrome elevation threshold to calculate och 7ft above or below? OCA/H for Non-precision Approach. This is defined as the lowest altitude or height Below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance Criteria. For non-precision procedures the reference datum is the aerodrome elevation or the Elevation of the relevant runway threshold (if the threshold is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the Aerodrome elevation). Depth of slush -0.3cm/1cm/3cm Montreal convention-6months Separation between two aircraft Departing from same runway (a/c 40kts) faster -2mins Position report order ( PSN, TIME, ROUTE ,FL) Hyperventilation- Hypoxia-oxygen pressure in lungs Rbc-hemoglobin Rules of air who follow-pic/commander disregarding who is flying/copilot The PIC is the pilot who is responsible for the safety of the Aircraft and compliance with the rules of the air, during flight time. Pic is responsible-checklist/food for passengers/both Short term memory-burn in chemical substace/limited access/intereption or interference If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR in VMC, he/she Must inform ATC and include the phrase: a. “cancelling my flight plan”. b. “cancelling my IFR flight”. c. “cancelling my IMC flight plan”. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect of terrain avoidance? a. ATC. b. The ATSU when accepting the FP. c. The PIC. An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to “resume own navigation”. What Does this mean? a. The pilot is responsible for own navigation. b. Radar vectoring is terminated. c. The pilot should contact next ATC unit. Automation of cockpit 300m/600m (Obstacle clearance in primary/secondary area (Initial, intermediate and final segments) Consecutive days 10 RPL (repetitive flight plan) Below 290 1000ft (nominal separation ) Populated area-VFR ( 1000ft 600m radius) ETOPS /EDTO Changes in Flight plan (ETA ) conditions 10kts or 19kmph 2 mins 0.02 Mach Deviate from IFR route -tell to atc ( Check above ) GPAY – yellow fever (remains cannot be brought to india ) Daltons law -hypoxia. CO poison -smoking /when mixed with oxygen no psyological/ Vfr speed -250IAS 5th freedom- Morphine- Not uses for head injures QFE- Quebec foxtrot echo Gradient non precision – 6.5 ( read all Gradient) Endurance-0249 ( numerical) The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kg Flight time: 1 hr 35 min Taxi fuel: 3 kg Block fuel: 181 kg How should INDURANCE be shown on the flight plan? A. 0204 B. 0240 C. 0249 Radar identification ATC less likely to askvor_dme position squawk ident both If you are given an instruction by ATC to steer heading 030, the heading is: a. b. c. d. Degrees true and must be corrected for wind. Degrees magnetic and must be corrected for wind. Degrees true no correction to be applied. Degrees magnetic no correction to be applied. Registration available – (VT- PAN) Read other codes as well. Distress-May day May day May day Star- Standard instrument arrival/special terminal arival Acknowledgments- landing light 2 times IFR flight deviates- inform atc (speed/time) Light turbulace – Short term memory- Intense arousal increases speed and accuracy/intense arousal increases speed and decrease accuracy/ visual stimulation more than aural stimulation Vor/dme Tuc 30000 Drop in pressure effect of climbing Item 7 Decrease in head wind effect ? Options – increase in wind speed - Decrease in wind speed Yellow diagonal Gliders Human performance error Hypoxiya ( cyanosis ) Less body temperature Fuel jet engine 30 mins hold Lateral speration ocean When going increasing size slowly and gets big at impact ( aircraft on head on ) Anti collision (>5700 kg) 7600 - RCF IFR flying IMC condition communication failure ( 2 options similar one option was to Send signal twice ) -check RCF procedure Before using radar for 1 check for serviceability 2 put 2 inputs and check 3 direct use squawk and then inform pilot Circling manoeuvre near OCA which classes for flight are allowed FDR CVR uses Where does Wind shear occur (height) Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of thebiological rhythm, thus leading to reduced human performance? A – Liveware – Environment B – Liveware – Hardware C – Liveware – Software D – Liveware – Livewar SPL 10 years CPL A 5700 Transmission of transponder code/mode.? *Read back mode and code* Read back code only Which one was correct Which is not a function of hyperventilation A dizziness *B reduction in heart rate* C anxiety Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain? A) Constant altitude and airspeed. *B) Constant angle of attack.* C) Level flight attitude. 1. Galactical radiation increase with altitude 2. Rapid decompression misting 3. 3500 in aviation prasholoy 4. Hyperventilation increased prss in lungs 5. Shell full form 6. Shell another question 7. Pg 660-48 rk bali 8. Mistake made in TX and phrase to correct it? Correction 9. Human hearing range?20-20k hz 10. Medical disqualification high BP low BP and poor circulatory system 11. Closed runways or taxiways are Horizontal board with yellow or white X 12. Vfr flight above which Fl shouldn’t fly transonic and supersonic above Fl150 13. Vfr while coming for app whose responsibility to clear for obstacles WRONG 14. Vfr minimas 5km 1000 vertical expect class g clear of clouds 15. Wind variations given as per aggrment when 10° east and west. 16. Odd fl 350 and fl410. 17. 243 in 400 ques 19.Crosswind what should be heading of aircraft at the moment of touchdown Lateral axis perpendicular to rwy *Longitudinal axis paraller to rwy centre line* One downwind wing to avoid drift 20. Min altitude are given by state or dgca 21 aerobatic flight cannot flow over congested areas towns 22.Transition level calculation. Transition altitude is mentioned in the Charts used for approach. Transition Level Is based on QNH ( ATC ) Which means : If QNH is less than or equal to 1013 hpa , than add 1500 ft for TA If QNH is greater than 1013 hpa, than add only 1000 ft to TA. What was the ans for acft showing white and red light? Pilots log book A)rule65 B)rule24B C)rule 67A Aircraft rules 1937, What is rule 25? A)danger flying B) aircraft in distress C) smoking in aircraft Turbulence occur and change in altitude/attitude,but aircraft in control? A) Light B) severe C) moderate Aircraft in severe turbulence, what pilot should maintain? A) constant speed Va B) constant altitude C) constant speed and altitude An Aircraft flying over a territory a pilot should follow whose rules of air? A) registration of aircraft state B) territory state C)state who gave Airworthiness certificate Aircraft in approaching to land at initial approach what is the obstacles clearance height? A)at least 984ft B)500ft C) atleast 500ft The phrase ‘Radar contact ‘ means? A)no report required B)A/c is in +ve control C) identified under radar ATC tells immediately t/off? A)take off immediately after all mandatory checks B)take off after clearance of 30sec C)rollout and t/off Does hypoxia cause hyperventilation, or only pressure breathing Minima for operations at aerodrome by operator can be lower than the set minima? A/c in final approach pilot suffers from hyperventilation A)Descend B)Control the depth of breathing What’s the accuracy of measuring slush Stages of hypoxia compensation disturbance or all Effects of rapid decompression, there might be a delay once you land or you see it 2-3 days later 3500 in radio is read as? OCA/OCH is measured wrt : MSL, threshold or ARP For precision approach 3 degree glideslope can be reduced if? Stages of hypoxia – compensation, disturbance or both? In one question option were given (priority of AFTM emergency codes ) A FF B GG C SS Congnitive function is affected by? A- Astma, decompression sickness or someting b- about memory, unable to do task B- Fatigue ATC tells immediately t/off? A)take off immediately after all mandatory checks B)take off after clearance of 30sec *C)rollout and t/off* We can see red light of an aircraft, may be white too A- Aircraft moving away from you B- Crossing left C- Crossing right Who isresponsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? A T h e pilot in command b. The ATC .c The aircraft operator 1 omi directions 2 met 3 holding points 4 blood without cells 5 Wake turbulence weight 6 oca/h 7 refueling a/C min dist 8 pic 9 obstacle clearance 10 fatigue 11 spl liscence 12 Roger 13 alternate destination 14 visual approach 15 windshear 16 visibility fir 17 ear 18 tas 19 high point on land 20 surface friction 21 NAT44 22 cannot comply 23 the signs require medical assistance 24 airspace 1. Air Traffic Service unit means: A) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices B) Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices C) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers, or Air Services reporting offices 2. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: A) 5 minutes B) 3 minutes C) 10 minutes 3. Friction Coefficient due to snow – in how many segments is runway divided based on friction level: A) ½ B) 1/3 C) ¼ 4. An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an “X.” This indicates: A) “All occupants alive” B) “Need mechanical assistance” C) “Need medical assistance” 5. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to: A) 7500 B) 7700 C) 7000 6. A controller may ask a pilot to carry out one or more actions when the pilot requests a radar service. Which of the following would not be a request? a) A VOR/DME position b) ‘Squawk ident’ c) All of the above may be requested 7. The minimum visibility and separation, from cloud for VFR is: a) 5 Km, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface in all classes of airspace. b) 5 Km below 10000 feet and 1000 feet vertically in all classes of airspace except class G. c) 5 Km and 1500 ft horizontally in class G airspace. 8. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? a) The pilot in command b) The ATC c) The aircraft operator 9. Turbulence that is encountered above 15,000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, including thunderstorm, should be reported as: a) Severe turbulence b) Clear air turbulence c) Convective turbulence 10. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is: a) 120 m (384 ft) b) 30 m (98 ft) c) 50 m (164 ft) 1. Air Traffic Service unit means: A) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices B) Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices C) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers, or Air Services reporting offices 1. FLY HEADING 030 2. Signs of hyperventilation : a) nausea b) dizziness c) both 3. Highest point on the landing area? 4. Commercial or aerial work ? 5. —— an aerodrome when there was emergency ? a) alternate aerodrome b) en route aerodrome c) take off aerodrome 6. NAT flight contingency procedure ? 7. Otitic barotrauma 8. Calculation of DA/DH 9. Changed from IFR to VFR ? 10. Collision between two aircraft taxing ? The options was 1000 at night, 1900 at night , 1000 at morning .. (NAT / MNPSA) 11.If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received? A) UNABLE TO COMPLY B) CAN NOT C) CAN NOT COMPLY 11. When, in airspace where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFRflight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached: 1 He must inform the control unit (“cancel IFR”) 2 He must request and obtain clearance 3 He may request his IFR flightplan to be changed to a VFR flightplan 4 The flightplan automatically becomes a VFR flightplan The combination of correct statements isNot Exactly Same Question) A) 2,4 B) 1,3 C) 1,4 12. When a RADAR operators says the following to an aircraft: “fly heading 030”, the pilot must fly heading: A) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track B) 030º compass in still air conditions (thereby flying the compass heading) C) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track) 13. The factors considered in the calculations of DA /DH are: A) The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach a margin for height loss on any go around B) The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the missed approach path only plus an allowance for height loss on any go around C) The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go around, plus a margin for operational factors 14. Validity of SPL according to Indian Aircraft Act 39C- A. 10 year B. 5 year C. 3 year 15. The letter ‘M’ is used to designate which type of Wake Turbulence Category-(Not exact option) A. Less than 7000kg B. Between 136,000kg and 7000kg C. More than 136,000kg 17. Different type of HypoxiaA. Anaemia B. Stagnant C. Both of the above 18. At holding point ATC transmits “cleared for immediate take off”, what does it mean? A) Take off immediately after completing all checks on runway. B) Inform ATC when you are ready to take off with out waiting on runway. C) Taxi immediately to runway and commence take off with out stop. 19. No refilling near building/ hanger within-(Not exact question and option) A. 15m B. 25m C. 43m 20.A person can bring to India human remains of a person who has died of yellow fever: A) If enclosed in a wooden box. B) Cannot bring them. C) If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission id obtained from proper authority 20. Authority of PIC includes(Not exact question) A. Related to controlling of aircraft B. Ensuring that enough food and water supplies are carried for the passenger 21. Question related toMDH is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. 23.With the study of human performance it is observed that-(and other options as well) A. There are many factors contributing for accident 24. Validity of IFRA. Uptill Landing B. Till clearance C. 25. Question related to Takeoff clearance ( Not sure) Tried to confuse between 90m and 90ft 26. What will be the FL for magnetic track of 125- A. FL160 B. FL290 C. FL 310 27. Who has the right of way on ground- ( Not the exact option and question) A.overtaken B. Heavy body C. Overtaking Obstacle clearance for MSA MOCA MORA MEA/MEL MHA What event can cause a Hyperventilation (not required by Physical need)? 1. Pressure breathing 2. Anxiety or fear. 3. Overstress 4. Strong pain. 5. Jogging 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false 1. Threshold light Color 2. Info lasting for more than 2 hrs 3. In flight lights on aircraft 4. MHA vertical clearance 5. Decompression can be handled using 6. Decompression in flight can be Arrested by 7.Flight navigator min age 8. Validity of medical from when to when 9. Inform dgca prior__ days or more of Sickness and seek permission 10. Navigation light identification 11. Air composition 12. Right of way for towing aircraft vs Taxiing aircraft 13. Flashing red for flying aircraft 14. Red flare for flying aircraft 15. Flashing green for a/c on aerodrome 16. SAR signal for need assistance 17. Unlawful interference mode and Frequency 18. Lateral limits of control zones 19. VOR separation 20. Normal BP 21. In IMC if communication failure Occurs what is expected from PIC 22Surveillance radar identification 23. VHF frequency 24. Rules of the air: contracting state Follows? 25. Communicating number 3500 in R/T 26. Hypoxia types; disturbance or Compensatory or both? 27. PIC’s action when aircraft on RB is 270? 28. CAT is higher from below? 1. Which ICAO document covers Operations of Aircraft? (A) Annexure 2 (B) Annexure 6 (C) Annexure 9 2. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is: (A) the convention of Rome (B) the convention of Tokyo (C) the convention of Chicago 3. Cabotage refers to (A) a national air carrier (B) crop spraying (C) domestic air services by a foreign state 4. Rules of the Air is applicable to (A) IFR flights only (B) VFR flights only (C) Both IFR & VFR 5. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: (A) 20NM (B) 5NM (C) 25NM 6. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to: (A) 7700 (B) 7600 (C) 7500 7. When entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk? (A) 7500 (B) 7700 (C) 2000 8. At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC? (A) On engine start (B) In the taxi clearance (C) In the ATC clearance 9. When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle clearance height is referenced to: (A) Threshold (B) Highest obstacle within 25 nm of aerodrome (C) Mean Sea Level 10. What is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment? (A) 300 m (984 feet) (B) 200 m (656 feet) (C) 900 m (2952 feet) 11. A steady red light from the ground to an aircraft in the air means: (A) Return for landing (B) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land (C) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling 12. What does a red flashing light from the control tower to an aircraft on the manoeuvring area mean? (A) Cleared to taxi (B) Return to the start point (C) Move clear of the landing area 13. A red pyrotechnic addressed to a flying aircraft means: (A) Dangerous airfield. Do not land (B) Not withstanding previous instructions, do not land for the time being (C) Return for landing 14. Which of the following is not a straight departure? (A) When the initial departure track is 25° from the alignment of the runway centerline (B) When the initial departure track is 15° from the alignment of the runway centreline (C) When the initial departure track is 10° from the alignment of the runway centreline 15. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon: (A) 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at maximum certified landing mass (B) 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass (C) 1.3 times the stalling speed in landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass 16. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPa when passing: (A) Transition layer (B) The level specified by ATC (C) Transition altitude 17. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA? (A) When it seems possible to land (B) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet (C) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the runway and with the runway lights in sight. 18. Prisoners can be carried on board with the permission of: (A) Police Commissioner (B) DM (C) DGCA 19. The Alerting Service is provided by (A) Search and Rescue centres (B) Air Traffic Centers and Flight Information Centers (C) Area Control Centers 20. What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome? (A) It must be big enough to contain all signals (B) It must be clearly visible from all parts of the manoeuvring area (C) It is only used for VFR operations 21. The minimum descent altitude for a non-precision approach is not lower than: (A) 200 feet (B) Obstacle Clearance Altitude (C) 400 feet 22. As a result of automation in cockpits, (A) coordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more precise and more important information (B) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew members (C) man-made communication has been significantly improved. 23. Gases of physiological importance to man are: (A) oxygen and carbon dioxide (B) nitrogen and carbon dioxide (C) oxygen and carbon monoxide 24. What are the characteristics of short-term-memory? (1) Easy to access (2) Capacity of information is limited (3) They are subject to bio-chemical burn in (A) 1, 2 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 2, 3 25. Carbon monoxide poisoning (A) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT (B) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied by coating the exhaust (C) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high engine efficiency. 26. Carbon monoxide is a (A) colourless and odourless gas (B) (C) 27. Which of the following are the symptoms of hypoxia? (A) Tingling, Headache, seizure (B) Headache, fatigue, impaired judgement (C) Increase in body temperature, fatigue, convulsions. 28. Aerobatics within 2NM of airport can not be done below: (A) 2000’ (B) Over congested towns and settlements (C) 6000’ 29. It is estimated that due to a repair at an airport, some facilities will remain inoperative for a period of more than 2 hrs. It is notified by NOTAM: (A) Series A (B) Series B (C) Series C 30. Nitrogen bubbles in the lungs causes (A) Creeps (B) Chokes (C) Staggers 31. Time of useful consciousness after a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is (A) 10 - 15 mins (B) 5 - 10 mins (C) 45 secs to 1 min 30 secs. 32. When instructed by ATC to hold short of runway pilot should stop: (A) With nose gear on hold line (B) So that no part of the a/c extends beyond the hold line (C) So that the Flt Deck Area of a/c is even with the hold line. 33. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is: (A) The flight manual (B) The operations manual (C) The minimum equipment list. 34. Photography is restricted at (A) Terminal buildings (B) Civil aerodromes (C) Military aerodromes 35. Clearance limit is valid (A) Up to the point specified in the clearance (B) After the point specified in the clearance (C) as per pilot discretion 36. The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be determined by: (A) ICAO (B) The operator’s state (C) The state of registry 37. You plan to take off behind a departing heavy aircraft from a parallel runway with a light crosswind (A) Depart before the rotation point of the preceding aircraft and stay clear of its wake (B) Depart well after the preceding aircrafts rotation point (C) 38. ATC will provide the winds when (A) The variation is between 5°E and 5°W (B) The latitudes of the airport is between 75°N and 75°S (C) To all aircraft before landing or taking off. 39. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible (A) If the commander so requests (B) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes (C) Only when leaving controlled airspace. 40. If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, you should: (A) Continue the flight according to flight plan (B) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATS (C) Try to contact another aircraft for relay 41. A flight condition where there are slight changes in attitude/altitude (A) Light chop (B) Light turbulence (C) Moderate turbulence. 42. Which of the following is true regarding change in partial pressure of oxygen with altitude (A) Increases with increase in altitude (B) Decreases at the same rate as atmospheric pressure (C) Decreases at thrice the rate as increase in altitude. 43. Susceptibility to hypoxia (A) Increases with altitude (B) Is normally experienced below 8000 feet (C) Is due to over breathing. 44. At holding point ATC transmits “cleared for immediate take off”, what does it mean? (A) Take off immediately after completing all mandatory power checks (B) Takeoff within 30 seconds of receiving the clearance (C) Taxi immediately to runway and commence rolling takeoff 45. Readability 3 signifies (A) Readable (B) Perfectly readable (C) Readable but with difficulty. 46. To check if the ELT has been inadvertently activated, (A) Turn OFF ELT after the flight (B) Ask Air Traffic Control (C) Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown. 47. Radar separation minima can be reduced to what value (A) 1.5 NM (B) 2 NM (C) 5 NM. 48. A position report shall consist of the following information in the order listed: (A) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level/altitude, next ensuing position (B) Aircraft identification, position, flight level/altitude, time, next ensuing position (C) Aircraft identification, position, flight level/ altitude, time. 49. The reduced visibility upto which a helicopter is permitted to operate at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacle in time to avoid collision: (A) 1500 m (B) 800 m (C) 1000 m. 1 Which convention defines the rights and obligation of the commander of the aircraft? Ans. Tokyo convention (1963) 2. If a member state wants to leave Tokyo convention, it must inform to Ans. ICAO only (this answer subject to query; but as far as I read this is the answer) Choice answer: 1.ICAO and to all states 2. Do nothing 3. Transition altitude is 5000ft amsl. QNH is 943mb. Assume (1 mb = 30ft). Depth of the transition layer is 500ft. What is the transition level? Ans.FL75. 4. Red blood cells contain. Ans. hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the cells and Tissues of the body. 5. In parallel runway operations, missed approach angle diverges by at least Ans. 30 degree 6. Aircraft speed category is defined by? Ans. Vat=speed at threshold based on 1.3 X Vso or1.23 X stall speed (Vs1g) in landing configuration at max landing mass. 7. In SHELL concept “S” stands for Ans. Software 8. In Readability scale, 3 is. Ans. Ready with difficulty. 9. The factor in brain which determines pulse rate and breathing is. Ans. Carbon dioxide (the choice seems difficult in exam so refer answer once again) 10. This question is about engine failure the answer is ETOPs Ans. Refer Extended twin engine operations well. 11. BAROTRAUMA cause severe damages to middle ear when Ans. Aircraft landing with rapid descent. (Refer chapter Health and flying-Otic barotrauma.) 12. Dizziness, tingling effect, visual disturbances, impaired judgement in bad weather whilelanding is the effects of? Ans. Hyperventilation (Hypoxia is also having some of the effects so refer well) 13. Carbon monoxide is? Ans. (please refer the chapter about carbon monoxide along with lungs) 14. This question is about Tokyo convention (very simple) Ans. Please refer the conventions. 16. Emergency procedures in NAT regions while RTF failure? Ans. Please refer the NAT region agreement ATS on Nat region. 16. Squawk code for RTF failure. Ans. Mode A +7600/C. 17. In independent parallel approaches, the NTZ space must be at least Ans. 610m wide. 18. Runway touchdown zone lights are. Ans. Transverse and unidirectional white lights. 18. Who Creates SARPS for ICAO? Ans. The Air Navigation commission. 19. What is AIC? 20. What is AIP? 21. Difference between ICAO and Member states will be intimated through? 22. Significant Reports will be given to the PIC while landing. What are they? Ans. (The answer is simple but the choice made by dgca , made me lose my mark)- Mean headwind component 10 knots Mean tailwind component 2 knots Mean cross-wind component 5 knot 23. Maximum RVR of a runway is? Ans. (2000m as per wiki) but if any knows perfect answer please update it via telegram. 24. Airspace visibility horizontally is? Ans. 1500m (the choices were within the limits and above FL10 also having the same visibilityfrom cloud). 25. A question about “Dysbarism”? Ans. Some of you might wonder about this, it is just a Decompression sickness. But cleverthough! But please refer some other dysbarism also because I could not figure exact question! 26. Night vision problem caused by? Ans. Both vitamin A deficiency and smoking 27. A Decompression sickness question? 28. A question about oxygen in lungs 29. A question about Hyperventilation 30. A question about underwater diving problem 31. An alcoholic pilot resting time before duty? 32. A question about ILS glideslope on approach. Ans. 3 degree + (I don’t remember the answer because the choice almost same with small diff) Please refer ILs glideslope and I will update it soon) 33. The lowest level of CTA must be at least? Ans.200m or 700ft Agl. (Dgca asked 200ft in choice so give attention) 34. Annex 2 related to? Ans. Rules of the air (Easy isn’t it?) 35. An aircraft on cross wind, while landing what its relative position to ground? Ans. Will be updated soon! 36. On Radar control, an ATC controller gives instruction to turn heading 90 degree, then youturn? Ans. 90 degree magnetic. 37. Aerobatic performance area in an aerodrome? Ans. 2 NM at 6000 ft 38. A white dumbbell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shafts means? Ans. Landing on runway but movement is not confined to taxiway. 39. A Dangerous Areas can be flown Ans. After stipulated time period. 40. Which freedom give over flying a territory without stopping? Ans. First Freedom 41. A question about QDM boards in tower? Ans. Runway in use 42. If a flight involved in accident in a country. The aircraft can only fly again if Ans. Answer will be updated soon. 43. Incubation period for relapsing fever? Ans. 8 days 44. Missed approach gradient is Ans. 2.5 degree 45. Smoking on an aircraft is permitted only, if? Ans. C of A, if states so. 46. Requires assistant on ground is? Ans. V 47. On night flying in same altitude, you see an aircraft’s steady white light with flashing red light means. Ans. The Aircraft is flying away. 1. The privileges of a license can be exercised by a pilot involved in an incident after: a. He is cleared by the medical authority *b. He is cleared by the DGCA* c. He is the cleared by the ATS authority 2. For knowing the current watch hours of a station you should look into: a. AIC b. CAR c. AIP* 3. Any three information to be provided under section 3 for position reporting at compulsory met reporting points, are: a. Turbulence, aircraft icing, air temperature* b. Air temperature, visibility, cabin temperature c. Aircraft icing, spot winds, clouds above 4. AIP is made up of three parts, which are: a. GEN, NAV, RAC b. GEN, ENR, AD* c. NAV, GEN, RAC 5. The minimum number of cabin attendants to be carried on board a public transport aircraft is: a. The discretion of the PIC b. The discretion of the operator c. The seating capacity* During nighttime, you observe a steady white light and flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft: a. The other aircraft is flying away from you* b. The other aircraft is crossing to the left c. The other aircraft is crossing to the right 7. IFR flight within controlled airspace shall immediately report any deviations from flight plan resulting in: a. Variation of TAS by 5% b. Change in ETA over reporting point by more than 2 minutes* c. All the above are correct 8. ICAO Annexure dealing with Security safeguarding International Civil Aviation against acts of unlawful interference is: a. Annexure – 7 b. Annexure – 16 c. Annexure – 17* 9. A certificate of registration is valid from the date of registration to: a. 1 year b. Till the aircraft is destroyed in an accident c. Till it is cancelled by DGCA* 10. When instructed by ATC to “Hold short of runway (ILS critical area, etc.)”, the pilot should stop: a. With the nose gear on the hold line b. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line* c. so that the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line 11. A white dumbbell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft indicates that you should use only: a. Runways b. Runways and taxiways c. Runway for landing and take off * 12. The take off alternate aerodrome shall be located from the aerodrome of departure, not more than a distance equivalent to flight time of a. One hour for a two engine aeroplane and 2 hours for 3 or more engines aeroplane* b. 30 minutes for a two engine aeroplane and 1 hours for 3 or more engines aeroplane c. Two hours for a 2 engine aeroplane and 3 hours for 3 or more engines aeroplane 13. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining a. Who was responsible for any accident or incident b. Evidence for use in civil penalty or court of enquiry c. Possible causes of accidents or incidents* 14. International standards on aircraft operations are specified in a. Annexure 11 b. Annexure 2 c. Annexure 6* 15. .Which would most likely result in hyperventilation a. Insufficient oxygen b. Excessive carbon monoxide c. Insufficient carbon dioxide* 16. The period of incubation for a passenger suffering from relapsing fever, on arrival from foreign country, is a. Eight days* b. Six days c. Fourteen days 17. If a passenger falls sick on board a flight from any place outside India and shows symptoms of any infectious disease, the commander of the aircraft a. Should inform the Health Officer of the airline, DGCA and Ministry of Health b. Should fly back to the last aerodrome from where the passenger has boarded the flight c. Should inform the health officer of the airport two hours before its arrivals in India* 18. A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants, is a. Uncertainty phase ( INCERFA)* b. Distress phase ( DISTRESSFA) c. Alert phase ( ALERFA) 19. A series of projectiles discharged towards an aircraft in flight at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing on bursting red and green lights, will indicate that aircraft is flying in or about to enter a. A prohibited area over which navigation of aircraft is prohibited b. A danger area c. A prohibited area or a restricted area or a danger area* 20. A flight to be operated with a pressurized airplane shall not be commenced unless sufficient quantity of stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply a. All crew members b. All crew members and passengers c. All crew members and passengers, when the atmospheric pressure in any compartment occupied by them is less than 700mb* Q1.After a diving of less than 30ft,he/she can fly after? (a)12hrs* (b)24hrs (c)36hrs Q2.DER is? (a)Departure end runway* (b)dead end runway (c)dead reckoning Q3. Advertisement leaflets can be dropped from a private ac without C of A ? (a) With DGCA permission (b) With permission of DM (c) None of the above* Q4. Requirement for a VFR flight? (a)Visibility 5km, no cloud in sight and cloud ceiling 1500ft (B) visibility 5km, 10,000 feet an1000 feet horizontally distance from clouds (C)visibility 5 km,Clouds 1500ft horizontally in class G Q5. what transfers audio from air drum to middle ear? (A) Eustachian tube (b) Three tiny bones* ©Vestibular appartus Q6. NDB sector 3 entry is? (a) Direct (B) parallel © offset Q7. What is a primary approach segment area? (a) Area with MOC of 300 ft. (b) Symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearances provided* (c) First area of approach segment Q8. height for primary approach segment is? (a)300ft (B)150ft (C)150m Q9. How hypoxia effect can be reduced? (A) breathing 100% oxygen, descend to 10,000 feet reduce physical activity* (B) Climb above 10,000ft (C) breathing into paper bags. Q10.during decompression useful consciousness depends on? (A)strength of hypoxia and physical activity Q11.Oxygen is carried by RBC through? (A)haemoglobin (B)plasma Q12. Max number of hours a pilot can fly? (A)1200hrs in 12 months (B)1500hrs in 12 months (c)1000hrs in 12 months Q13. Symptoms of decompression in flight? (A)Starts coming after 2-3 days (B)Can be delayed and can appear when aircraft lands. Q14. Two aircraft are converging on same track? (A)power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons (B)balloons shall give way to gliders Q15.Flashing red light indicates to a aircraft in flight (A)give way to aircarft and hold (B)Do not land,airfield not available (c)Return for landing Q16.A notices which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters.? (A)AIP (B)AIC © AIRAC Q17.When are ATIS broadcasts updated?? (A)Upon receipt of any official weather, regardlessof content change or reported values B) Every30 minutesif weatherconditionsare belowthosefor VFR;.otherwise hourly C) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value Q18.MSA are established for each aerodrome and provide at least 300m(1000 ft) obstacle clearance in a circle of radius ? (A)10NM (B)5NM (C)25NM Q19.3500 will be Transmitted as? (A)Three thousand five hundred (B)Three five zero zero ©Thirty five hundred Q20.If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received? (a)UNABLE TO COMPLY (B)CAN NOT* ©CANNOT COMPLY Q21.When aircraft is intercepted,squawk ? (A)7700 (B)7600 ©7500 Q22.Turbulence near thunderstorm,which is not due to cumuliform clouds ? (A)Severe Turbulence (B)Convective turbulence ©CAT Q23.H in ATC flight plan means? (A)Aircraft is of highest wake category (B)Aircraft is certified for MTOW of 1,40,000kg or more Q24. Aircraft is certified for MTOW 1,40,000 kgs and but now it’s weight is 1,30,000 KG what shall be written on flight plan wake category ? (A)M (B)H ©L Q25. To avoid wake turbulence of aircraft on finals? (A) Fly above path of preceding aircraft and try to land ahead of it’s touchdown point (B) Fly slightly left of the path of preceding aircraft (C) Fly below enough of flight path of preceding aircraft and land 2000 feet before. Q26. Ascending order of stress is ? (a)Mortgage,Marriage,divorce,family death (B)Family death,divorce,mortgage,marriage ©divorce, mortgage,marriage,family death Q27.When a pilot requests radar service,what will not be expected by controller? (A)DME/NDB position (B)Squawk ident ©Both (A) and (b) can be asked Q28.Steepest descent gradient on a non precision runway? (A)6% (B)5% (C)4.5% Q29.NOTAM(R) is? (A)Notam -replacement (B)Notam renewal ©Notam retraction Q30. as per aircraft rule 1937 inspection permit on demand by any magistrate any police officer of rank not below rank of ………………any officer of customs Any gazetted officer of civil aviation? (A)Constable (B) Sub Inspector ©superintendent of police Q31.There are ……..RCC in india ? (A)5 (B)3 ©7 Q32. Morphine not be used for? (A) For a unconscious person (B) A person with severe head injuries Q33.Speed of Cat 2 aircraft on approach is? (a)121-141 knots (B)350kts (c)91-120kts Q34.Permission is need to be taken? (I don’t know this question completely ) (A)1000UTC for day flying (B)1900UTC for night flying (C)1000UTC for night flying Q35.VHF Frequency is ? (A)118KHZ (B)118GHZ (C)118.1MHZ Q36.Flight level for rvsm is ? (A)FL290-FL410 (B)FL310-430 Q37. The state has to notify the council of ICAO,if a state finds that it is impractical to comply with an international standard? (a) It shall give immediate notice (B) it shall give 60 days notice to account of the differences between its own practices and the international standard © it shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and international standards Q36.As a result of automation in cockpits,? (A)coordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more preciseand more importantinformation (B)man-mancommunicationhasbeensignificantlyimproved ©communicationand coordinationcall for an even greater effort on the part of the crew member Q39.Technical landing in another state ? (A)Second freedom of air (B)5th freedom of air Q40.Cabotage means? (A)a national carrier (B) Domestic air service by international carrier or by flight registered in another state Q41.What is race track procedure? (A)Take off and landing at same airport within 01hours (B)Descending in a holding type pattern Q42.Type rating is done for a/c? (A)For multi engines only (B)only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots (C)for any type of aircraft whenever consider necessary by the authority Q43.If aircraft enters ATZ without permission will it be allowed to land? (A)yes (B)no ©yes only if emergency exists Q44.Q which two groups for non-RVSM from (FL290-410) shows odd flight level? (a)FL330 , FL 350 (B)FL310 , FL370 (C)FL350, FL410