Air Regulation Important Revision
The transition level:
*a) Is calculated by ATS*
b) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome
c) Is calculated by the commander
What is Changeover points ( COP)
The point on a victor airway where you switch from one NAVAID to the next is called a changeover
point. If there isn't one published, you can take half of the total distance between the NAVAIDs and
consider that as your changeover point
1.) Series of red flashes from tower to aircraft in airport circuit.
2.) How is 3500 Transmitted ?
3.) High degree in cockpit automation effects.
4.) Maximum flying hours a crew can done in 12 months.
5.) Red blood cell haemoglobin carry O2.
6.) Minimum descent angle is 6.5.
The minimum descent gradient in the final approach of a non-precision procedure with FAF is 4.3%
(2.5 deg) whereas the maximum is 6.5%
7.) question on primary area on instrument approach that it has full obstacle clearance ?
8.) question on minimum obstacle clearance in the intermittent segment.
9.) give right of way?
10.) Notam (R) ?
11.) 2nd freedom of air
12.) AIC full form.( or definition)
13.) Meaning of standard phrase CANNOT ?
b. unable to comply
c. Cannot comply
14.) Decompression sickness.
15.) How many rescue coordination center in India
16.) VHF band frequency
17.) When do you choose a route preference? (MNPSA or NAT based )
18.) Clear air turbulence (definition)
19.) You've been intercepted which squawk code will you choose
20.) Category B aircraft speed.
21.)When a pilot requests for radar service which of them will not be asked by the controller
a.) VOR/DME POSITION
b.) Squawk ident
c.) None of the above
22.) When should you fly after you dive less than 30 feet
23.) If you want to throw petals but you don't have C of A. Whom will you ask permission.
24.) How is the aircraft position in a cross wind landing.
25.) Which part will the sound travel after the ear drum .. ans is eustation tube .
26.) Family death (stress related )
27.) Vfr min visibility
28.) 2 questions Heavy aircraft MTOW.
29.) 25 NM from the nav air you'll get full obsticle clearance. (MSA)
30.) No one below the rank of sub inspector shouldn't check your documents.
31.) IFR min obsticle clearance.
32.) How do you over come hypoxia?
33.) Morphine drug is not given to whom?
HEAD INJURY
34.) Rvsm where 1000 feet is applied, starts from FL290- FL410.
35.) Race track pattern.
36.) Sector 3 entry.
37.) State should tell the difference between it's practice immediately.
38.) How do you avoid wake of a heavy aircraft in front of you.
39.) RVSM IN ODD LEVELS
40.)Who should file a Flight plan.
41.) Aircraft can enter atz without permission when in emergency.
42.) Report at mandatory reporting point.
Stop bar light lighted (Meaning)
During Emergcy /hospital
Emergency frequency in VHF/UHF
Aerodrome beacon light (land, sea, military ,heliport)
Aerodrome Identification beacon (land, sea) ?
Annexure 17/1 (know all 19)
DOCS know all important
White and flashing red -flying away
Single engine -ri8 of way
Day traffic view -10 degreewind shield swipe- 2questions ( May be related to AC category or intensity of rain )
Aerodrome elevation threshold to calculate och 7ft above or below?
OCA/H for Non-precision Approach. This is defined as the lowest altitude or height
Below which the aircraft cannot descend without infringing the appropriate obstacle clearance
Criteria. For non-precision procedures the reference datum is the aerodrome elevation or the
Elevation of the relevant runway threshold (if the threshold is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the
Aerodrome elevation).
Depth of slush -0.3cm/1cm/3cm
Montreal convention-6months
Separation between two aircraft Departing from same runway (a/c 40kts) faster -2mins
Position report order ( PSN, TIME, ROUTE ,FL)
Hyperventilation-
Hypoxia-oxygen pressure in lungs
Rbc-hemoglobin
Rules of air who follow-pic/commander disregarding who is flying/copilot
The PIC is the pilot who is responsible for the safety of the Aircraft and compliance with the rules
of the air, during flight time.
Pic is responsible-checklist/food for passengers/both
Short term memory-burn in chemical substace/limited access/intereption or interference
If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR in VMC, he/she
Must inform ATC and include the phrase:
a. “cancelling my flight plan”.
b. “cancelling my IFR flight”.
c. “cancelling my IMC flight plan”.
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect of terrain avoidance?
a. ATC.
b. The ATSU when accepting the FP.
c. The PIC.
An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to “resume own navigation”. What Does this mean?
a. The pilot is responsible for own navigation.
b. Radar vectoring is terminated.
c. The pilot should contact next ATC unit.
Automation of cockpit
300m/600m (Obstacle clearance in primary/secondary area (Initial, intermediate and final segments)
Consecutive days 10 RPL (repetitive flight plan)
Below 290 1000ft (nominal separation )
Populated area-VFR ( 1000ft 600m radius)
ETOPS /EDTO
Changes in Flight plan (ETA ) conditions
10kts or 19kmph
2 mins
0.02 Mach
Deviate from IFR route -tell to atc ( Check above )
GPAY – yellow fever (remains cannot be brought to india )
Daltons law -hypoxia.
CO poison -smoking /when mixed with oxygen no psyological/
Vfr speed -250IAS
5th freedom-
Morphine- Not uses for head injures
QFE- Quebec foxtrot echo
Gradient non precision – 6.5 ( read all Gradient)
Endurance-0249 ( numerical)
The navigation plan reads:
Trip fuel: 100 kg
Flight time: 1 hr 35 min
Taxi fuel: 3 kg
Block fuel: 181 kg
How should INDURANCE be shown on the flight plan?
A. 0204
B. 0240
C. 0249
Radar identification ATC less likely to askvor_dme position
squawk ident
both
If you are given an instruction by ATC to steer heading 030, the heading is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Degrees true and must be corrected for wind.
Degrees magnetic and must be corrected for wind.
Degrees true no correction to be applied.
Degrees magnetic no correction to be applied.
Registration available – (VT- PAN) Read other codes as well.
Distress-May day May day May day
Star- Standard instrument arrival/special terminal arival
Acknowledgments- landing light 2 times
IFR flight deviates- inform atc (speed/time)
Light turbulace –
Short term memory-
Intense arousal increases speed and accuracy/intense arousal increases speed and decrease
accuracy/ visual stimulation more than aural stimulation
Vor/dme
Tuc 30000
Drop in pressure effect of climbing
Item 7
Decrease in head wind effect ?
Options – increase in wind speed
-
Decrease in wind speed
Yellow diagonal
Gliders
Human performance error
Hypoxiya ( cyanosis )
Less body temperature
Fuel jet engine 30 mins hold
Lateral speration ocean
When going increasing size slowly and gets big at impact ( aircraft on head on )
Anti collision (>5700 kg)
7600 - RCF
IFR flying IMC condition communication failure ( 2 options similar one option was to Send signal
twice ) -check RCF procedure
Before using radar for
1 check for serviceability
2 put 2 inputs and check
3 direct use squawk and then inform pilot
Circling manoeuvre near OCA which classes for flight are allowed
FDR CVR uses
Where does Wind shear occur (height)
Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of thebiological rhythm,
thus leading to reduced human performance?
A – Liveware – Environment
B – Liveware – Hardware
C – Liveware – Software
D – Liveware – Livewar
SPL 10 years
CPL A 5700
Transmission of transponder code/mode.?
*Read back mode and code*
Read back code only
Which one was correct
Which is not a function of hyperventilation
A dizziness
*B reduction in heart rate*
C anxiety
Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
A) Constant altitude and airspeed.
*B) Constant angle of attack.*
C) Level flight attitude.
1. Galactical radiation increase with altitude
2. Rapid decompression misting
3. 3500 in aviation prasholoy
4. Hyperventilation increased prss in lungs
5. Shell full form
6. Shell another question
7. Pg 660-48
rk bali
8. Mistake made in TX and phrase to correct it? Correction
9. Human hearing range?20-20k hz
10. Medical disqualification high BP low BP and poor circulatory system
11. Closed runways or taxiways are Horizontal board with yellow or white X
12. Vfr flight above which Fl shouldn’t fly transonic and supersonic above Fl150
13. Vfr while coming for app whose responsibility to clear for obstacles WRONG
14. Vfr minimas 5km 1000 vertical expect class g clear of clouds
15. Wind variations given as per aggrment when 10° east and west.
16. Odd fl 350 and fl410.
17. 243 in 400 ques
19.Crosswind what should be heading of aircraft at the moment of touchdown
Lateral axis perpendicular to rwy
*Longitudinal axis paraller to rwy centre line*
One downwind wing to avoid drift
20. Min altitude are given by state or dgca
21 aerobatic flight cannot flow over congested areas towns
22.Transition level calculation.
Transition altitude is mentioned in the Charts used for approach.
Transition Level Is based on QNH ( ATC )
Which means :
If QNH is less than or equal to 1013 hpa , than add 1500 ft for TA
If QNH is greater than 1013 hpa, than add only 1000 ft to TA.
What was the ans for acft showing white and red light?
Pilots log book
A)rule65
B)rule24B
C)rule 67A
Aircraft rules 1937, What is rule 25?
A)danger flying
B) aircraft in distress
C) smoking in aircraft
Turbulence occur and change in altitude/attitude,but aircraft in control?
A) Light
B) severe
C) moderate
Aircraft in severe turbulence, what pilot should maintain?
A) constant speed Va
B) constant altitude
C) constant speed and altitude
An Aircraft flying over a territory a pilot should follow whose rules of air?
A) registration of aircraft state
B) territory state
C)state who gave Airworthiness certificate
Aircraft in approaching to land at initial approach what is the obstacles clearance height?
A)at least 984ft
B)500ft
C) atleast 500ft
The phrase ‘Radar contact ‘ means?
A)no report required
B)A/c is in +ve control
C) identified under radar
ATC tells immediately t/off?
A)take off immediately after all mandatory checks
B)take off after clearance of 30sec
C)rollout and t/off
Does hypoxia cause hyperventilation, or only pressure breathing
Minima for operations at aerodrome by operator can be lower than the set minima?
A/c in final approach pilot suffers from hyperventilation
A)Descend
B)Control the depth of breathing
What’s the accuracy of measuring slush
Stages of hypoxia compensation disturbance or all
Effects of rapid decompression, there might be a delay once you land or you see it 2-3 days later
3500 in radio is read as?
OCA/OCH is measured wrt : MSL, threshold or ARP
For precision approach 3 degree glideslope can be reduced if?
Stages of hypoxia – compensation, disturbance or both?
In one question option were given (priority of AFTM emergency codes )
A FF
B GG
C SS
Congnitive function is affected by?
A- Astma, decompression sickness or someting
b- about memory, unable to do task
B- Fatigue
ATC tells immediately t/off?
A)take off immediately after all mandatory checks
B)take off after clearance of 30sec
*C)rollout and t/off*
We can see red light of an aircraft, may be white too
A- Aircraft moving away from you
B- Crossing left
C- Crossing right
Who isresponsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
A T h e pilot in command
b. The ATC
.c The aircraft operator
1 omi directions
2 met
3 holding points
4 blood without cells
5 Wake turbulence weight
6 oca/h
7 refueling a/C min dist
8 pic
9 obstacle clearance
10 fatigue
11 spl liscence
12 Roger
13 alternate destination
14 visual approach
15 windshear
16 visibility fir
17 ear
18 tas
19 high point on land
20 surface friction
21 NAT44
22 cannot comply
23 the signs require medical assistance
24 airspace
1. Air Traffic Service unit means:
A) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices
B) Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices
C) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers, or Air Services reporting offices
2. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at the same cruising
level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, and the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft, is:
A) 5 minutes
B) 3 minutes
C) 10 minutes
3. Friction Coefficient due to snow – in how many segments is runway divided based on friction
level:
A) ½
B) 1/3
C) ¼
4. An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find
the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an “X.” This
indicates:
A) “All occupants alive”
B) “Need mechanical assistance”
C) “Need medical assistance”
5. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate
the situation by setting the transponder to:
A) 7500
B) 7700
C) 7000
6. A controller may ask a pilot to carry out one or more actions when the pilot requests a radar
service. Which of the following would not be a request?
a) A VOR/DME position
b) ‘Squawk ident’
c) All of the above may be requested
7. The minimum visibility and separation, from cloud for VFR is:
a) 5 Km, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface in all classes of airspace.
b) 5 Km below 10000 feet and 1000 feet vertically in all classes of airspace
except class G.
c) 5 Km and 1500 ft horizontally in class G airspace.
8. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
a) The pilot in command
b) The ATC
c) The aircraft operator
9. Turbulence that is encountered above 15,000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform
cloudiness, including thunderstorm, should be reported as:
a) Severe turbulence
b) Clear air turbulence
c) Convective turbulence
10. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
a) 120 m (384 ft)
b) 30 m (98 ft)
c) 50 m (164 ft)
1. Air Traffic Service unit means:
A) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices
B) Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices
C) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers, or Air Services reporting offices
1. FLY HEADING 030
2. Signs of hyperventilation : a) nausea b) dizziness c) both
3. Highest point on the landing area?
4. Commercial or aerial work ?
5. —— an aerodrome when there was emergency ? a) alternate aerodrome b) en route aerodrome
c) take off aerodrome
6. NAT flight contingency procedure ?
7. Otitic barotrauma
8. Calculation of DA/DH
9. Changed from IFR to VFR ?
10. Collision between two aircraft taxing ?
The options was 1000 at night, 1900 at night , 1000 at morning .. (NAT / MNPSA)
11.If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common
language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to
communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
A) UNABLE TO COMPLY
B) CAN NOT
C) CAN NOT COMPLY
11. When, in airspace where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFRflight wishes to
continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
1 He must inform the control unit (“cancel IFR”)
2 He must request and obtain clearance
3 He may request his IFR flightplan to be changed to a VFR flightplan
4 The flightplan automatically becomes a VFR flightplan The combination of correct statements
isNot Exactly Same Question)
A) 2,4
B) 1,3
C) 1,4
12. When a RADAR operators says the following to an aircraft: “fly heading 030”, the pilot must
fly heading:
A) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track
B) 030º compass in still air conditions (thereby flying the compass heading)
C) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
13. The factors considered in the calculations of DA /DH are:
A) The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach a margin for height loss on any go
around
B) The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the missed approach path only plus an allowance for
height loss on any go around
C) The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an
allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go around, plus a margin for operational factors
14. Validity of SPL according to Indian Aircraft Act 39C-
A. 10 year
B. 5 year
C. 3 year
15. The letter ‘M’ is used to designate which type of Wake Turbulence Category-(Not exact
option)
A. Less than 7000kg
B. Between 136,000kg and 7000kg
C. More than 136,000kg
17. Different type of HypoxiaA. Anaemia
B. Stagnant
C. Both of the above
18. At holding point ATC transmits “cleared for immediate take off”, what does it mean?
A) Take off immediately after completing all checks on runway.
B) Inform ATC when you are ready to take off with out waiting on runway.
C) Taxi immediately to runway and commence take off with out stop.
19. No refilling near building/ hanger within-(Not exact question and option)
A. 15m
B. 25m
C. 43m
20.A person can bring to India human remains of a person who has died of yellow fever:
A) If enclosed in a wooden box.
B) Cannot bring them.
C) If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority
20. Authority of PIC includes(Not exact question)
A. Related to controlling of aircraft
B. Ensuring that enough food and water supplies are carried for the passenger
21. Question related toMDH is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m
(7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation.
23.With the study of human performance it is observed that-(and other options as well)
A. There are many factors contributing for accident
24. Validity of IFRA. Uptill Landing
B. Till clearance
C.
25. Question related to Takeoff clearance ( Not sure)
Tried to confuse between 90m and 90ft
26. What will be the FL for magnetic track of 125-
A. FL160
B. FL290
C. FL 310
27. Who has the right of way on ground- ( Not the exact option and question)
A.overtaken
B. Heavy body
C. Overtaking
Obstacle clearance for
MSA
MOCA
MORA
MEA/MEL
MHA
What event can cause a Hyperventilation (not required by Physical need)?
1. Pressure breathing
2. Anxiety or fear.
3. Overstress
4. Strong pain.
5. Jogging
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false
1. Threshold light Color
2. Info lasting for more than 2 hrs
3. In flight lights on aircraft
4. MHA vertical clearance
5. Decompression can be handled using
6. Decompression in flight can be Arrested by
7.Flight navigator min age
8. Validity of medical from when to when
9. Inform dgca prior__ days or more of Sickness and seek permission
10. Navigation light identification
11. Air composition
12. Right of way for towing aircraft vs Taxiing aircraft
13. Flashing red for flying aircraft
14. Red flare for flying aircraft
15. Flashing green for a/c on aerodrome
16. SAR signal for need assistance
17. Unlawful interference mode and Frequency
18. Lateral limits of control zones
19. VOR separation
20. Normal BP
21. In IMC if communication failure Occurs what is expected from PIC
22Surveillance radar identification
23. VHF frequency
24. Rules of the air: contracting state Follows?
25. Communicating number 3500 in R/T
26. Hypoxia types; disturbance or Compensatory or both?
27. PIC’s action when aircraft on RB is 270?
28. CAT is higher from below?
1. Which ICAO document covers Operations of Aircraft?
(A) Annexure 2
(B) Annexure 6
(C) Annexure 9
2. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
(A) the convention of Rome
(B) the convention of Tokyo
(C) the convention of Chicago
3. Cabotage refers to
(A) a national air carrier
(B) crop spraying
(C) domestic air services by a foreign state
4. Rules of the Air is applicable to
(A) IFR flights only
(B) VFR flights only
(C) Both IFR & VFR
5. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These
sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
(A) 20NM
(B) 5NM
(C) 25NM
6. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the
situation by setting the transponder to:
(A) 7700
(B) 7600
(C) 7500
7. When entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you
squawk?
(A) 7500
(B) 7700
(C) 2000
8. At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC?
(A) On engine start
(B) In the taxi clearance
(C) In the ATC clearance
9. When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle clearance height is referenced to:
(A) Threshold
(B) Highest obstacle within 25 nm of aerodrome
(C) Mean Sea Level
10. What is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment?
(A) 300 m (984 feet)
(B) 200 m (656 feet)
(C) 900 m (2952 feet)
11. A steady red light from the ground to an aircraft in the air means:
(A) Return for landing
(B) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
(C) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
12. What does a red flashing light from the control tower to an aircraft on the manoeuvring area
mean?
(A) Cleared to taxi
(B) Return to the start point
(C) Move clear of the landing area
13. A red pyrotechnic addressed to a flying aircraft means:
(A) Dangerous airfield. Do not land
(B) Not withstanding previous instructions, do not land for the time being
(C) Return for landing
14. Which of the following is not a straight departure?
(A) When the initial departure track is 25° from the alignment of the runway centerline
(B) When the initial departure track is 15° from the alignment of the runway centreline
(C) When the initial departure track is 10° from the alignment of the runway centreline
15. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:
(A) 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at maximum certified landing mass
(B) 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass
(C) 1.3 times the stalling speed in landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass
16. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to
standard setting 1013.25hPa when passing:
(A) Transition layer
(B) The level specified by ATC
(C) Transition altitude
17. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in VOR approach continue its descent below
the OCA?
(A) When it seems possible to land
(B) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
(C) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the runway and with the runway lights in sight.
18. Prisoners can be carried on board with the permission of:
(A) Police Commissioner
(B) DM
(C) DGCA
19. The Alerting Service is provided by
(A) Search and Rescue centres
(B) Air Traffic Centers and Flight Information Centers
(C) Area Control Centers
20. What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome?
(A) It must be big enough to contain all signals
(B) It must be clearly visible from all parts of the manoeuvring area
(C) It is only used for VFR operations
21. The minimum descent altitude for a non-precision approach is not lower than:
(A) 200 feet
(B) Obstacle Clearance Altitude
(C) 400 feet
22. As a result of automation in cockpits,
(A) coordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more precise and more
important information
(B) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew members
(C) man-made communication has been significantly improved.
23. Gases of physiological importance to man are:
(A) oxygen and carbon dioxide
(B) nitrogen and carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen and carbon monoxide
24. What are the characteristics of short-term-memory?
(1) Easy to access
(2) Capacity of information is limited
(3) They are subject to bio-chemical burn in
(A) 1, 2
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3
25. Carbon monoxide poisoning
(A) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT
(B) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied by coating the
exhaust
(C) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high engine efficiency.
26. Carbon monoxide is a
(A) colourless and odourless gas
(B)
(C)
27. Which of the following are the symptoms of hypoxia?
(A) Tingling, Headache, seizure
(B) Headache, fatigue, impaired judgement
(C) Increase in body temperature, fatigue, convulsions.
28. Aerobatics within 2NM of airport can not be done below:
(A) 2000’
(B) Over congested towns and settlements
(C) 6000’
29. It is estimated that due to a repair at an airport, some facilities will remain inoperative for a
period of more than 2 hrs. It is notified by NOTAM:
(A) Series A
(B) Series B
(C) Series C
30. Nitrogen bubbles in the lungs causes
(A) Creeps
(B) Chokes
(C) Staggers
31. Time of useful consciousness after a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is
(A) 10 - 15 mins
(B) 5 - 10 mins
(C) 45 secs to 1 min 30 secs.
32. When instructed by ATC to hold short of runway pilot should stop:
(A) With nose gear on hold line
(B) So that no part of the a/c extends beyond the hold line
(C) So that the Flt Deck Area of a/c is even with the hold line.
33. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
(A) The flight manual
(B) The operations manual
(C) The minimum equipment list.
34. Photography is restricted at
(A) Terminal buildings
(B) Civil aerodromes
(C) Military aerodromes
35. Clearance limit is valid
(A) Up to the point specified in the clearance
(B) After the point specified in the clearance
(C) as per pilot discretion
36. The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be determined by:
(A) ICAO
(B) The operator’s state
(C) The state of registry
37. You plan to take off behind a departing heavy aircraft from a parallel runway with a light
crosswind
(A) Depart before the rotation point of the preceding aircraft and stay clear of its wake
(B) Depart well after the preceding aircrafts rotation point
(C)
38. ATC will provide the winds when
(A) The variation is between 5°E and 5°W
(B) The latitudes of the airport is between 75°N and 75°S
(C) To all aircraft before landing or taking off.
39. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
(A) If the commander so requests
(B) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
(C) Only when leaving controlled airspace.
40. If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, you
should:
(A) Continue the flight according to flight plan
(B) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATS
(C) Try to contact another aircraft for relay
41. A flight condition where there are slight changes in attitude/altitude
(A) Light chop
(B) Light turbulence
(C) Moderate turbulence.
42. Which of the following is true regarding change in partial pressure of oxygen with altitude
(A) Increases with increase in altitude
(B) Decreases at the same rate as atmospheric pressure
(C) Decreases at thrice the rate as increase in altitude.
43. Susceptibility to hypoxia
(A) Increases with altitude
(B) Is normally experienced below 8000 feet
(C) Is due to over breathing.
44. At holding point ATC transmits “cleared for immediate take off”, what does it mean?
(A) Take off immediately after completing all mandatory power checks
(B) Takeoff within 30 seconds of receiving the clearance
(C) Taxi immediately to runway and commence rolling takeoff
45. Readability 3 signifies
(A) Readable
(B) Perfectly readable
(C) Readable but with difficulty.
46. To check if the ELT has been inadvertently activated,
(A) Turn OFF ELT after the flight
(B) Ask Air Traffic Control
(C) Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
47. Radar separation minima can be reduced to what value
(A) 1.5 NM
(B) 2 NM
(C) 5 NM.
48. A position report shall consist of the following information in the order listed:
(A) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level/altitude, next ensuing position
(B) Aircraft identification, position, flight level/altitude, time, next ensuing position
(C) Aircraft identification, position, flight level/ altitude, time.
49. The reduced visibility upto which a helicopter is permitted to operate at a speed that will give
adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacle in time to avoid collision:
(A) 1500 m
(B) 800 m
(C) 1000 m.
1 Which convention defines the rights and obligation of the commander of the aircraft?
Ans. Tokyo convention (1963)
2. If a member state wants to leave Tokyo convention, it must inform to
Ans. ICAO only (this answer subject to query; but as far as I read this is the answer)
Choice answer: 1.ICAO and to all states 2. Do nothing
3. Transition altitude is 5000ft amsl. QNH is 943mb. Assume (1 mb = 30ft). Depth of the
transition layer is 500ft. What is the transition level?
Ans.FL75.
4. Red blood cells contain.
Ans. hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the cells and
Tissues of the body.
5. In parallel runway operations, missed approach angle diverges by at least
Ans. 30 degree
6. Aircraft speed category is defined by?
Ans. Vat=speed at threshold based on 1.3 X Vso or1.23 X stall speed (Vs1g) in landing
configuration at max landing mass.
7. In SHELL concept “S” stands for
Ans. Software
8. In Readability scale, 3 is.
Ans. Ready with difficulty.
9. The factor in brain which determines pulse rate and breathing is.
Ans. Carbon dioxide (the choice seems difficult in exam so refer answer once again)
10. This question is about engine failure the answer is ETOPs
Ans. Refer Extended twin engine operations well.
11. BAROTRAUMA cause severe damages to middle ear when
Ans. Aircraft landing with rapid descent. (Refer chapter Health and flying-Otic barotrauma.)
12. Dizziness, tingling effect, visual disturbances, impaired judgement in bad weather whilelanding is
the effects of?
Ans. Hyperventilation (Hypoxia is also having some of the effects so refer well)
13. Carbon monoxide is?
Ans. (please refer the chapter about carbon monoxide along with lungs)
14. This question is about Tokyo convention (very simple)
Ans. Please refer the conventions.
16. Emergency procedures in NAT regions while RTF failure?
Ans. Please refer the NAT region agreement ATS on Nat region.
16. Squawk code for RTF failure.
Ans. Mode A +7600/C.
17. In independent parallel approaches, the NTZ space must be at least
Ans. 610m wide.
18. Runway touchdown zone lights are.
Ans. Transverse and unidirectional white lights.
18. Who Creates SARPS for ICAO?
Ans. The Air Navigation commission.
19. What is AIC?
20. What is AIP?
21. Difference between ICAO and Member states will be intimated through?
22. Significant Reports will be given to the PIC while landing. What are they?
Ans. (The answer is simple but the choice made by dgca , made me lose my mark)-
Mean headwind component 10 knots
Mean tailwind component 2 knots
Mean cross-wind component 5 knot
23. Maximum RVR of a runway is?
Ans. (2000m as per wiki) but if any knows perfect answer please update it via telegram.
24. Airspace visibility horizontally is?
Ans. 1500m (the choices were within the limits and above FL10 also having the same visibilityfrom
cloud).
25. A question about “Dysbarism”?
Ans. Some of you might wonder about this, it is just a Decompression sickness. But cleverthough!
But please refer some other dysbarism also because I could not figure exact question!
26. Night vision problem caused by?
Ans. Both vitamin A deficiency and smoking
27. A Decompression sickness question?
28. A question about oxygen in lungs
29. A question about Hyperventilation
30. A question about underwater diving problem
31. An alcoholic pilot resting time before duty?
32. A question about ILS glideslope on approach.
Ans. 3 degree + (I don’t remember the answer because the choice almost same with small diff)
Please refer ILs glideslope and I will update it soon)
33. The lowest level of CTA must be at least?
Ans.200m or 700ft Agl. (Dgca asked 200ft in choice so give attention)
34. Annex 2 related to?
Ans. Rules of the air (Easy isn’t it?)
35. An aircraft on cross wind, while landing what its relative position to ground?
Ans. Will be updated soon!
36. On Radar control, an ATC controller gives instruction to turn heading 90 degree, then youturn?
Ans. 90 degree magnetic.
37. Aerobatic performance area in an aerodrome?
Ans. 2 NM at 6000 ft
38. A white dumbbell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shafts means?
Ans. Landing on runway but movement is not confined to taxiway.
39. A Dangerous Areas can be flown
Ans. After stipulated time period.
40. Which freedom give over flying a territory without stopping?
Ans. First Freedom
41. A question about QDM boards in tower?
Ans. Runway in use
42. If a flight involved in accident in a country. The aircraft can only fly again if
Ans. Answer will be updated soon.
43. Incubation period for relapsing fever?
Ans. 8 days
44. Missed approach gradient is
Ans. 2.5 degree
45. Smoking on an aircraft is permitted only, if?
Ans. C of A, if states so.
46. Requires assistant on ground is?
Ans. V
47. On night flying in same altitude, you see an aircraft’s steady white light with flashing red light
means.
Ans. The Aircraft is flying away.
1. The privileges of a license can be exercised by a pilot involved in an incident after:
a. He is cleared by the medical authority
*b. He is cleared by the DGCA*
c. He is the cleared by the ATS authority
2. For knowing the current watch hours of a station you should look into:
a. AIC
b. CAR
c. AIP*
3. Any three information to be provided under section 3 for position reporting at compulsory met
reporting points, are:
a. Turbulence, aircraft icing, air temperature*
b. Air temperature, visibility, cabin temperature
c. Aircraft icing, spot winds, clouds above
4. AIP is made up of three parts, which are:
a. GEN, NAV, RAC
b. GEN, ENR, AD*
c. NAV, GEN, RAC
5. The minimum number of cabin attendants to be carried on board a public transport aircraft is:
a. The discretion of the PIC
b. The discretion of the operator
c. The seating capacity*
During nighttime, you observe a steady white light and flashing red light ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft:
a. The other aircraft is flying away from you*
b. The other aircraft is crossing to the left
c. The other aircraft is crossing to the right
7. IFR flight within controlled airspace shall immediately report any deviations from flight plan
resulting in:
a. Variation of TAS by 5%
b. Change in ETA over reporting point by more than 2 minutes*
c. All the above are correct
8. ICAO Annexure dealing with Security safeguarding International Civil Aviation against acts of
unlawful interference is:
a. Annexure – 7
b. Annexure – 16
c. Annexure – 17*
9. A certificate of registration is valid from the date of registration to:
a. 1 year
b. Till the aircraft is destroyed in an accident
c. Till it is cancelled by DGCA*
10. When instructed by ATC to “Hold short of runway (ILS critical area, etc.)”, the pilot should stop:
a. With the nose gear on the hold line
b. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line*
c. so that the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line
11. A white dumbbell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft indicates that you
should use only:
a. Runways
b. Runways and taxiways
c. Runway for landing and take off *
12. The take off alternate aerodrome shall be located from the aerodrome of departure, not more
than a distance equivalent to flight time of
a. One hour for a two engine aeroplane and 2 hours for 3 or more engines aeroplane*
b. 30 minutes for a two engine aeroplane and 1 hours for 3 or more engines aeroplane
c. Two hours for a 2 engine aeroplane and 3 hours for 3 or more engines aeroplane
13. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for
determining
a. Who was responsible for any accident or incident
b. Evidence for use in civil penalty or court of enquiry
c. Possible causes of accidents or incidents*
14. International standards on aircraft operations are specified in
a. Annexure 11
b. Annexure 2
c. Annexure 6*
15. .Which would most likely result in hyperventilation
a. Insufficient oxygen
b. Excessive carbon monoxide
c. Insufficient carbon dioxide*
16. The period of incubation for a passenger suffering from relapsing fever, on arrival from foreign
country, is
a. Eight days*
b. Six days
c. Fourteen days
17. If a passenger falls sick on board a flight from any place outside India and shows symptoms of any
infectious disease, the commander of the aircraft
a. Should inform the Health Officer of the airline, DGCA and Ministry of Health
b. Should fly back to the last aerodrome from where the passenger has boarded the flight
c. Should inform the health officer of the airport two hours before its arrivals in India*
18. A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants, is
a. Uncertainty phase ( INCERFA)*
b. Distress phase ( DISTRESSFA)
c. Alert phase ( ALERFA)
19. A series of projectiles discharged towards an aircraft in flight at intervals of 10 seconds, each
showing on bursting red and green lights, will indicate that aircraft is flying in or about to enter
a. A prohibited area over which navigation of aircraft is prohibited
b. A danger area
c. A prohibited area or a restricted area or a danger area*
20. A flight to be operated with a pressurized airplane shall not be commenced unless sufficient
quantity of stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply
a. All crew members
b. All crew members and passengers
c. All crew members and passengers, when the atmospheric pressure in any compartment occupied
by them is less than 700mb*
Q1.After a diving of less than 30ft,he/she can fly after?
(a)12hrs*
(b)24hrs
(c)36hrs
Q2.DER is?
(a)Departure end runway*
(b)dead end runway
(c)dead reckoning
Q3. Advertisement leaflets can be dropped from a private ac
without C of A ?
(a) With DGCA permission
(b) With permission of DM
(c) None of the above*
Q4. Requirement for a VFR flight?
(a)Visibility 5km, no cloud in sight and cloud ceiling 1500ft
(B) visibility 5km, 10,000 feet an1000 feet horizontally distance from clouds
(C)visibility 5 km,Clouds 1500ft horizontally in class G
Q5. what transfers audio from air drum to middle ear?
(A) Eustachian tube
(b) Three tiny bones*
©Vestibular appartus
Q6. NDB sector 3 entry is?
(a) Direct
(B) parallel
© offset
Q7. What is a primary approach segment area?
(a) Area with MOC of 300 ft.
(b) Symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in
which full obstacle clearances provided*
(c) First area of approach segment
Q8. height for primary approach segment is?
(a)300ft
(B)150ft
(C)150m
Q9. How hypoxia effect can be reduced?
(A) breathing 100% oxygen, descend to 10,000 feet reduce
physical activity*
(B) Climb above 10,000ft
(C) breathing into paper bags.
Q10.during decompression useful consciousness depends on?
(A)strength of hypoxia and physical activity
Q11.Oxygen is carried by RBC through?
(A)haemoglobin
(B)plasma
Q12. Max number of hours a pilot can fly?
(A)1200hrs in 12 months
(B)1500hrs in 12 months
(c)1000hrs in 12 months
Q13. Symptoms of decompression in flight?
(A)Starts coming after 2-3 days
(B)Can be delayed and can appear when aircraft lands.
Q14. Two aircraft are converging on same track?
(A)power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to
airships, gliders and balloons
(B)balloons shall give way to gliders
Q15.Flashing red light indicates to a aircraft in flight
(A)give way to aircarft and hold
(B)Do not land,airfield not available
(c)Return for landing
Q16.A notices which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative
matters.?
(A)AIP
(B)AIC
© AIRAC
Q17.When are ATIS broadcasts updated??
(A)Upon receipt of any official weather, regardlessof content change or reported
values
B) Every30 minutesif weatherconditionsare belowthosefor VFR;.otherwise hourly
C) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
Q18.MSA are established for each aerodrome and provide at least 300m(1000 ft) obstacle clearance
in a circle of radius ?
(A)10NM
(B)5NM
(C)25NM
Q19.3500 will be Transmitted as?
(A)Three thousand five hundred
(B)Three five zero zero
©Thirty five hundred
Q20.If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common
language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to
communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
(a)UNABLE TO COMPLY
(B)CAN NOT*
©CANNOT COMPLY
Q21.When aircraft is intercepted,squawk ?
(A)7700
(B)7600
©7500
Q22.Turbulence near thunderstorm,which is not due to
cumuliform clouds ?
(A)Severe Turbulence
(B)Convective turbulence
©CAT
Q23.H in ATC flight plan means?
(A)Aircraft is of highest wake category
(B)Aircraft is certified for MTOW of 1,40,000kg or more
Q24. Aircraft is certified for MTOW 1,40,000 kgs and but now it’s weight is 1,30,000 KG what shall be
written on flight plan wake category ?
(A)M
(B)H
©L
Q25. To avoid wake turbulence of aircraft on finals?
(A) Fly above path of preceding aircraft and try to land ahead
of it’s touchdown point
(B) Fly slightly left of the path of preceding aircraft
(C) Fly below enough of flight path of preceding aircraft and
land 2000 feet before.
Q26. Ascending order of stress is ?
(a)Mortgage,Marriage,divorce,family death
(B)Family death,divorce,mortgage,marriage
©divorce, mortgage,marriage,family death
Q27.When a pilot requests radar service,what will not be
expected by controller?
(A)DME/NDB position
(B)Squawk ident
©Both (A) and (b) can be asked
Q28.Steepest descent gradient on a non precision runway?
(A)6%
(B)5%
(C)4.5%
Q29.NOTAM(R) is?
(A)Notam -replacement
(B)Notam renewal
©Notam retraction
Q30. as per aircraft rule 1937 inspection permit on demand by any magistrate any police officer of
rank not below rank of ………………any officer of customs Any gazetted officer of civil aviation?
(A)Constable
(B) Sub Inspector
©superintendent of police
Q31.There are ……..RCC in india ?
(A)5
(B)3
©7
Q32. Morphine not be used for?
(A) For a unconscious person
(B) A person with severe head injuries
Q33.Speed of Cat 2 aircraft on approach is?
(a)121-141 knots
(B)350kts
(c)91-120kts
Q34.Permission is need to be taken? (I don’t know this question completely )
(A)1000UTC for day flying
(B)1900UTC for night flying
(C)1000UTC for night flying
Q35.VHF Frequency is ?
(A)118KHZ
(B)118GHZ
(C)118.1MHZ
Q36.Flight level for rvsm is ?
(A)FL290-FL410
(B)FL310-430
Q37. The state has to notify the council of ICAO,if a state finds that it is impractical to comply with an
international standard?
(a) It shall give immediate notice
(B) it shall give 60 days notice to account of the differences between its own practices and the
international standard
© it shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and international
standards
Q36.As a result of automation in cockpits,?
(A)coordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more preciseand more
importantinformation
(B)man-mancommunicationhasbeensignificantlyimproved
©communicationand coordinationcall for an even greater effort on the part of the crew member
Q39.Technical landing in another state ?
(A)Second freedom of air
(B)5th freedom of air
Q40.Cabotage means?
(A)a national carrier
(B) Domestic air service by international carrier or by flight registered in another state
Q41.What is race track procedure?
(A)Take off and landing at same airport within 01hours
(B)Descending in a holding type pattern
Q42.Type rating is done for a/c?
(A)For multi engines only
(B)only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
(C)for any type of aircraft whenever consider necessary by the authority
Q43.If aircraft enters ATZ without permission will it be allowed to land?
(A)yes
(B)no
©yes only if emergency exists
Q44.Q which two groups for non-RVSM from (FL290-410) shows odd flight level?
(a)FL330 , FL 350
(B)FL310 , FL370
(C)FL350, FL410