CODE-A
08/09/2021
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456
INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021
MM : 720
Time : 3 Hrs.
CST – 23
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A
1.
de Broglie
electron
wavelength
accelerated
3.
associated
through
a
with an
potential
difference of 200 V is nearly
(1) 0.1 Å
(2) 0.86 Å
4.
(3) 0.25 Å
(4) 2.1 Å
2.
The work function of metal A (atomic number x)
The wavelength of first spectral line in the Balmer
series of hydrogen atom is 6561 Å. The
wavelength of the second spectral line in the
Balmer series of singly ionized Helium atom is
(1) 617 Å
(2) 1836 Å
(3) 2525 Å
(4) 1215 Å
The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16
is 5×10–15 m. The radius of other nucleus with
nucleon number 128 will be
(1) 5 × 10−15 m
(2)
3
× 10−16 m
5
(3) 10−14 m
(4)
128
× 10−15 m
16
and metal B(atomic number y) are 4.3 eV and
3.1 eV respectively. The ratio of slopes of the
stopping potential versus frequency plot for metal
5.
A to that of metal B is
(1)
4.3
3.1
(2)
(3)
y
x
(4) 1
x
y
(1)
The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 60 days.
The time interval ∆t between the time when 2/3 of
it has decayed and time when 1/3 of it had
decayed is
(1) 60 days
(2) 90 days
(3) 30 days
(4) 75 days
CST-23 (Code-A)
6.
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
11.
wedge of inclination θ as shown in the figure. A
force F is applied over the wedge such that block
remains stationary over the wedge. Value of F is
12.
7.
8.
(2) d5
(3) d5/3
(4) d–5/2
(1) (m + M)g
(2) (m + M)g cotθ
(3) mg cosecθ
(4) (m + M)g tanθ
(1) 2 π s
A small ball of mass 2m, moving with speed v
collides with another stationary ball having mass
5m. If the lighter ball comes to rest after collision,
then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will
be
(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.4
(3)
(2)
3
5
(3)
5
3
(4)
2
7
(2) 28.75
(3) 66.67
(4) 18.57
following
statement(s)
is/are
(4) Both (1) & (3)
14.
15.
A rope is wound around a solid cylinder of mass
5 kg and radius 30 cm. If the rope is pulled with a
force of 50 N, then what is the angular
acceleration of the cylinder (in rad/s2)?
(1) 33.34
the
π
s
4
(2) Friction force opposes the relative motion


(3) Value of limiting friction is given by fL = µs N
M
and radius 2R are
2
3
10
(4)
(1) Rolling friction is greater than sliding friction
A solid sphere of mass M and radius R and a
(1)
(2) π s
π
s
2
13. Which of
incorrect?
spinning with the same angular speed ω about
their own symmetry axes. The ratio of amount of
work required to bring them to rest is
10.
(1) d2
Point of suspension of a simple pendulum having
length l = 1 m is moving vertically upward such
that its position as a function of time t (in second)
is given by y = (3t2 + 4) m. Time period of small
oscillations of this pendulum is
hollow sphere of mass
9.
A small spherical ball of diameter d falls from rest
in any viscous liquid. During this, heat is
produced due to viscous force. If the ball is
moving with terminal velocity in the liquid then
rate of production of heat is proportional to
Two moles of oxygen is mixed with eight moles
of helium. Effective molar specific heat of the
mixture at constant volume is
(1) 1.0R
(2) 1.4R
(3) 1.7R
(4) 1.6R
Two conducting rods are joined to each other to
form a composite rod as shown in the figure.
Their thermal conductivities and lengths are
shown. Temperature of junction of two rods will
be
16.
(1) 23.8 ºC
(2) 57.1 ºC
(3) 76.2 ºC
(4) 88.5 ºC
(2) 7.8 × 108 km
The power radiated by a black body is P and it
radiates maximum energy at wavelength λ0. If the
temperature of the black body is now changed so
that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength
5
λ , the power radiated by it becomes NP. The
7 0
value of 625N is
(3) 11.86 × 108 km
(1) 1024
(2) 1420
(4) 4.5 × 108 km
(3) 2401
(4) 4102
A Jupiter year is 11.86 times the earth year. How
far is the Jupiter from the Sun if the Earth is
1.50×108 km away from the Sun?
(1) 9.2 × 108 km
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
17.
CST-23 (Code-A)
In an adiabatic process, pressure is increased by
C
4
3
% . If P = , then the volume in the process is
5
CV
2
(1) π
decreased by about
18.
(3) 2π
(1)
9
%
12
(2)
8
%
15
(3)
7
%
13
(4)
4
%
15
23.
20 gram of ice at 0ºC is mixed with 160 gram of
water at 10ºC in a calorimeter. Contents and final
temperature of the mixture will be (Water
equivalent of calorimeter is negligible)
24.
20.
21.
The fundamental frequency of an open organ
pipe is equal to the fifth harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of the open organ pipe is
30 cm, then the length of the closed organ pipe is
(4) 75 cm
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 40%
(3) Zero
(4) Sphere cannot hold this charge
25.
An electric dipole is placed at the centre of an
imaginary sphere. Which of the following option
is/are correct?
(1) Electric field is not zero anywhere on the
sphere
A person have a whistle, emitting continuously a
sound of frequency 660 Hz. While producing this
sound he is running towards a vertical wall with a
speed of 5 m/s. If the speed of sound in air is 335
m/s then number of beats heard by him will be
(2) Electric potential is not zero anywhere on the
sphere
(3) Net flux through the sphere is zero
(4) Both (1) & (3)
26.
(2) 10 Hz
(3) 8 Hz
(4) No beats will be heard
A spring of force constant k and natural length L
3L
L
and
is cut into two parts of length
4
4
respectively and connected with a block of mass
m as shown in the figure. If the mass is displaced
slightly and then released the time period of
oscillation of the block is
3 L/ 4
A metallic sphere of radius 1 cm in air is given a
charge of 1 coulomb. Electric potential at the
surface of sphere will be
(2) 9×109 V
(1) 20 Hz
22.
If a piece of polythene is rubbed with wool, a
charge of –3×10–7 C is developed on polythene.
Amount of mass which is transferred to polythene
is nearly
(1) 9×1011 V
The efficiency of Carnot heat engine working
between the temperature 273 K and 273ºC is
(1) Zero
3m
4k
(4) 1.7×10–18 kg
(4) Water at 12°C
(3) 90 cm
(4) 2π
(3) 9.1×10–31 kg
(3) Water at 0ºC
(2) 105 cm
π 3m
2 k
(2) 1.9×10–19 kg
(2) 10 gram ice and 170 gram water both at 0ºC
(1) 15 cm
m
3k
(2)
(1) No mass is transferred
(1) Water at 3ºC
19.
m
16k
L/ 4
(3)
A parallel plate capacitor of capacity 20 µF with
air in the gap between the plates. Now if one half
of the space is filled with a dielectric of dielectric
constant K = 4 as shown in the figure, then new
capacity of the capacitor becomes
(1) 30 µF
(2) 50 µF
(3) 48 µF
(4) 60 µF
CST-23 (Code-A)
27.
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
31.
In the given circuit if point Q is connected to the
earth as shown in the figure. Potential of point R
is (Given potential of point P is + 2000 V)
32.
28.
29.
(1) 1500 V
(2) 1000 V
(3) 500 V
(4) Zero
A cylindrical copper rod is reformed to thrice its
original length. Resistance between its ends
before the change was R. Now its new resistance
becomes
(1) 3R
(2) 6R
(3) 9R
(4)
33.
R
9
Three resistors are connected to form a T shape
network as shown in the figure. The current
through the resistor 8R is
34.
35.
(1)
67
28R
47
(3)
53R
30.
(2)
32
41R
63
(4)
31R
36.
37.
(3)
µ0I ( R1 + R2 )
4R1R2
µ0  1
1 
−
I 

2π  R1 R2 
(2)
(4)
µ0 2I (R1 − R2 )
4π
(1) 1 MeV
(2) 4 MeV
(3) 7 MeV
(4) 2 MeV
If current in a coil changes uniformly from 2 A to
0.5 A in 0.3 s, then an emf of 20 V is induced in
it. Self-inductance of the coil is
(1) 4 H
(2) 5 H
(3) 3 H
(4) 2 H
Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
is 30 division/mA and its voltage sensitivity
(angular deflection per unit voltage) is
20 division/V. The resistance of the galvanometer
is
(1) 500 Ω
(2) 1700 Ω
(3) 800 Ω
(4) 1500 Ω
Two coils have a mutual inductance of 0.05 H.
Current changes in the first coil according to the
equation I = 20A sin ωt, where ω = 100π rad/s
and t is time in s. The maximum value of emf
induced in second coil is
(1) 10π V
(2) 5π V
(3) 50π V
(4) 100π V
RMS value of the current in a circuit given by
I = (5sin ωt + 7 cos ωt)A, will be
(1)
32 A
(2)
(3)
74 A
(4)
37 A
12
2
A
SECTION-B
If there are two semicircles of radii R1, R2 in
which a current is flowing as shown in the figure.
The magnetic field at point ‘O’ will be
(1)
A proton carrying 4 MeV kinetic energy is moving
in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic
field. Energy of α-particle to describe a circle of
same radius in same field should be
R1 + R2
An alternating voltage of 220 V, 50 Hz is applied
across a capacitor of capacitance 20 µF. The
impedance of the circuit is
(1)
500
Ω
π
(2)
50
Ω
π
(3)
5000
Ω
π
(4)
5
Ω
π
A plane
25 MHz
direction.

E = 7.5 j
electromagnetic wave of frequency
travels in free space along the xAt a particular point in space and time

V/m . The value of B at this point is
( )
 1
1
+
2I 

4π  R2 R1 
µ0
(4)
(1) 7.5 × 10−8 −kˆ T
(2) 3.5 × 108 kˆ T
(3) 2.5 × 10 −8 kˆ T
(4) 2.5 × 108 kˆ T
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
38.
CST-23 (Code-A)
43.
A thin lens which is cut into two equal halves are
kept in contact as shown in the figure. Focal
length of original lens was 30 cm. If an object is
placed at a distance of 20 cm left from the
system of lens then position of image will be
should be nearly (θR = 1 arc min)
44.
(1) 30 cm, left of the system
(2) 60 cm, right of the system
(3) 30 cm, right of the system
(4) 60 cm, left of the system
39.
40.
A person is having hypermetropic eye whose
near point is at 125 cm. What is the power of the
spectacles required for that person?
(1) 2.5 D
(2) –3.2 D
(3) 3.2 D
(4) – 3.6 D
45.
Which of the following statement is not true
regarding the communication through optical
fibre?
(1) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive
index
(2) Optical
fibres
transmission loss
have
extremely
46.
high
A ray of light is travelling from glass to air.
Refractive index of glass is 3/2. If the angle of
incidence is 57º, then the deviation of the ray is
[cosec 42º = 1.5]
47.
(2) 66º
 sin57º 
−1  sin57º 
(3) 57º − sin−1 
 − 57º
 (4) sin 
 32 
 32 
42.
The intensity of the polarized light becomes
1
th of its initial value after passing through the
20
analyser. Angle between the transmission axis of
the analyser and the initial direction of electric
field of polarized light is
 1 
(1) sin−1 

2 5 
 2 
(2) cos –1 

 5
 1 
(3) cos−1 

2 5 
(4) tan−1 2 5
(
(2) 40 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 120 cm
A spaceship is moving away from Earth with
speed 0.03c, where c is speed of light in air. The
spaceship emits signal of frequency 6×107 Hz.
Frequency of signal observed by the observer on
Earth will be
(1) 1.2 × 107 Hz
(2) 1.8 × 107 Hz
(3) 4.8 × 107 Hz
(4) 5.82 × 107 Hz
If only 8% of the energy supplied to a bulb is
radiated as visible light, then number of photons
emitted per second by a 100 watt bulb
are (Assume wavelength of visible light is
5.6×10–7 m)
(1) 2.3 × 1019
(2) 1.43 × 1019
(3) 3.15 × 1019
(4) 8.12 × 1019
A force acting on an object is given in terms of
time t and displacement x by the equation
of
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) 57º
(1) 30 cm
F = Acos αx + Bsin βt. The dimensional formula
(3) Refractive index of core is lesser than the
refractive index of cladding
41.
A person wants to resolve two thin poles
standing near each other from the distance of 2
km. The minimum separation between poles
48.
β
is
α
(1) [M0L–1T–1]
(2) [M0L–1T1]
(3) [M0L1T–1]
(4) [M0L0T0]
The heat generated in a circuit is dependent
upon the resistance, current and time for which
the current is flown. If the errors in measuring the
above are 2%, 1% & 3% respectively, then the
maximum error in measuring heat will be
(1) 5%
(2) 11%
(3) 9%
(4) 7%


If vectors A =iˆ − 3 jˆ + 5kˆ and B = 7iˆ + 2 ˆj − xkˆ
are perpendicular to each other, then the value of
x is
(1) –
)
(3)
(5)
3
2
1
5
(2)
1
5
(4) –
3
2
CST-23 (Code-A)
49.
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
A particle starts with a velocity of (10 m/s) iˆ at
t = 0 from origin and moves in x – y plane with a
constant acceleration of 2iˆ + 3 j m/s2. Speed of
(
)
the particle at t = 2 second will be
50.
(1)
232 m/s
(2)
289 m/s
(3)
342 m/s
(4)
175 m/s
Velocity-time graph of two particles A and B
moving in a straight line are shown in the figure.
Acceleration of A with respect to B will have
magnitude
(1)
4
3
(2)
3
4
(3)
1
3
(4)
7
3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
is
Which one of the following is a negatively
charged sol.?
(1) CdS
(2) TiO2 sol
(3) Al2O3⋅xH2O
(4) Haemoglobin
The compound which will not exhibit tautomerism
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
In sodium chloride, having the rock salt structure,
the coordination number for Na+ ion and chloride
ion are respectively
(1) 4 and 4
(2) 6 and 6
(3) 8 and 8
(4) 4 and 8
At 27°C, the osmotic pressure of 8% (w/v) urea
solution is
(1) 46.12 atm
(2) 32.84 atm
(3) 13.3 atm
(4) 36.12 atm
58.
(2) Ba(OH)2
(3) Ca(OH)2
(4) Sr(OH)2
Methemoglobinemia
pollutant?
is
caused
(1) Lead
(2) Fluoride
(3) Sulphate
(4) Nitrate
59.
by
among
the
following
is
not
electrophile?
Which compound is least soluble in water?
(1) Mg(OH)2
Which
+
(1) Br+
(2) NO2
(3) :CCl2
(4) NH4
+
Major product of the given reaction is
which
Arrange the given carbonium ion in decreasing
order of stability
60.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Paramagnetic species among the following is
(1) II > I > III
(2) I > II > III
(1) C2
(2) O2
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > III > I
(3) H2
(4) N2
(6)
an
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
61.
CST-23 (Code-A)
The compound which will undergo fastest
nucleophilic substitution reaction is
(1)
67.
(2)
An ether which cannot be directly prepared by
Williamson’s synthesis method is
(1) C2H5–O–C2H5
(2) Ph–O–CH2–Ph
(3) (CH3)3C–O–C2H5
(4) Ph–O–Ph
68.
Identify B in the above reaction
(3)
62.
63.
69.
(4)
Which among the following is a basic oxide?
(1) Cl2O7
(2) Al2O3
(3) ZnO
(4) CaO
70.
Shape and hybridisation of [ICI4]– ion respectively
are
(1) See-saw and sp3d
71.
(2) Tetrahedral and sp3
64.
65.
(2) Propyne
(3) Propanone
(4) Propanal
Which of the following complex ions is not an
inner orbital complex?
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) [CoF6]3–
(4) [Co(H2O)6]3+
Most acidic compound among the following is
(1) CH3OH
(2) C2H5OH
(3)
(4)
Magnetic moment of a trivalent metal ion is
5.91 BM. The atomic number of the metal is
(3) Square planar and sp3d2
(1) 26
(2) 27
(4) Square pyramidal and
(3) 28
(4) 21
sp3d2
The compound which is least soluble in water is
72.
(1) Ethanol
(2) Acetone
The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral
(∆O) and tetrahedral complexes (∆t) is related as
(3) Ethanal
(4) Hexane
(1) ∆O =
9
∆t
4
(2) ∆O =
(3) ∆O =
3
∆t
4
(4) ∆O = 4∆ t
The major product (Z) of the given reaction
sequence is
73.
(1)
74.
(2)
75.
(3)
66.
(1) Propene
(4)
Highest positive electron gain enthalpy (∆Heg) is
shown by
76.
4
∆t
9
Which of the following is water soluble vitamin?
(1) Vitamin D
(2) Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin A
(4) Vitamin C
The biodegradable polymer is
(1) Buna-S
(2) Nylon-6
(3) PHBV
(4) Terylene
Which among the following artificial sweetener
has the highest sweetness value in comparison
to cane sugar?
(1) Alitame
(2) Aspartame
(3) Saccharin
(4) Sucralose
Which mixture of gases is called synthesis gas?
(1) N
(2) Ne
(1) CO2 + H2
(2) N2 + CO
(3) He
(4) Ar
(3) CO + H2
(4) N2 + CO2
(7)
CST-23 (Code-A)
77.
The product (D) of the following reaction is
(1) Aniline
(3) Benzoic acid
78.
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
83.
84.
(2) Benzenamide
(3)
(4)
85.
(4) BiH3
For first order reaction, t 1 will be ([R]0 is the
(1)
[R]0
2k
(2)
ln2
k
(3)
[R]0
k
(4)
2.303
k
Standard
E°cell
The major product (B) is
(1)
(3)
Gibbs
energy
Cu2+(aq)

(∆rG°)
of
Mg2+(aq)
+ Cu(s);
86.
(2)
(4)
88.
Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic
addition reaction?
(1) CH3CHO
(2)
(3) CH3COCH3
(4)
89.
Wolff-kishner reduction of ketone is carried out in
the presence of which of the following?
(1) NaBH4
= 2.71 V at 298 K is
(1) –5.23 kJ mol–1
(2) –52.30 kJ mol–1
(3) –523.03 kJ mol–1
(4) –52303 kJ mol–1
90.
Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of the
given ions in water at 298 K is
(1) H+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+
(2) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < H+
(3) Mg2+ < Ca2+ < H+
(4) Mg2+ < H+ < Ca2+
Distillation is used for refining of
(1) Silicon
(2) Zinc
(3) Nickel
(4) Copper
Chlorine on reaction with cold and dilute sodium
hydroxide gives
(1) NaCl and NaClO3
(2) NaCl + NaOCl
(3) HCl and NaCl
(4) HCl + Na2O
Platinised asbestos is used as a catalyst in the
manufacture of
(1) Ammonia
(2) Nitric acid
(3) Phosphine
(4) Nitrogen
Consider the given molecules
(2) H2 and Pt as catalyst
(3) Zn–Hg with HCl
(4) NH2–NH2 + KOH/ethylene glycol
82.
the
SECTION-B
87.
81.
(3) AsH3
reaction Mg(s) +
79.
80.
(2) SbH3
2
Which of the following compounds is most basic?
(2)
(1) PH3
initial concentration, k is rate constant).
(4) Benzene nitrile
(1)
Select the hydride of group 15 which has the
highest boiling point
Maximum number of electrons present in sodium
atom having quantum numbers m = 0 and
1
s = ± is
2
The correct order of boiling point will be
(1) 5
(2) 4
(1) III > I > II
(2) I > III > II
(3) 1
(4) 7
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > III > I
(8)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
CST-23 (Code-A)
When 1 mol of A reacts with 1.4 mol of B.
According to the following reaction, A + 2B  C,
then the mol of C formed will be
96
100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH is mixed with 100 mL
0.2 M HCl solution. pH of the mixture is,
approximately (pKa of CH3COOH = 4.74)
(1) 2
(2) 2.4
(1) 1
(2) 5.74
(3) 0.7
(4) 1.7
(3) 3.74
(4) 4.74
97.
Mass of CH3COOH required to prepare 500 mL
of 0.1 M aqueous solution is
(1) 1.5 g
(2) 3 g
(3) 4.5 g
(4) 6 g
98.
30 mL of methane gas diffuses out through a
small hole of a vessel in 15 minutes. The time
taken by 20 mL of helium to diffuse out from the
same hole is
(1) 10 minutes
(2) 5 minutes
(3) 15 minutes
(4) 20 minutes
99.
Which of the following mixture of gases follows
Dalton’s Law of partial pressure?
(1) O2 and H2
(2) H2 and Cl2
(3) He and Ne
(4) NH3 + HCl
Which of the following is not a state function?
(1) H – TS
(2) S
(3) q + w
(4) w
pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of CH3COONH4 is
(given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.76, pKb of
NH4OH = 4.74)
(1) 7.01
(2) 10.37
(3) 4.37
(4) 6.26
Entropy change during the isothermal reversible
expansion of 2 mol ideal gas from 10 L to 100 L
at 100 K is nearly
(1) 2.3 R
(2) 4.6 R
(3) –2.3 R
(4) –4.6 R
100. Ratio of moles of PH3 and NaH2PO2 formed
during the disproportionation of P4 in alkaline
medium is
Among the following, Lewis base is
(1) SO3
(2) NH4+
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) NH3
(4) BF3
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 2 : 3
BOTANY
104. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. viroids
SECTION-A
(1) They were discovered by T.O. Diener
101. Which of the following taxonomic category is not
related to Mango?
(2) Infectious agent smaller than viruses
(1) Anacardiaceae
(3) They can cause Cr-Jacob disease in humans
(2) Sapindales
(4) They have free RNA molecule
(3) Dicotyledonae
105. Which of the following is related to both
chloroplast and mitochondria?
(4) Poaceae
102. Which of the following kingdoms
unicellular organisms having nucleoid?
(1) Site of aerobic respiration
includes
(2) To possess circular DNA molecule
(1) Monera
(2) Fungi
(3) To contain 80S ribosomes
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia
(4) Single membranous organelle
103. How
many organisms
Basidiomycetes?
Aspergillus,
Mucor
Neurospora,
are
related
Puccinia,
106. When centromere is present slightly away from
the middle of chromosome. It is said to be
to
(1) Metacentric
Agaricus,
(2) Telocentric
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Sub-metacentric
(3) Four
(4) Five
(4) Acrocentric
(9)
CST-23 (Code-A)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
107. Which characteristic is related to anaphase?
(1) Both A and B are correct
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Spindle fibres get attached to kinetochores of
chromosomes
(3) Only A is correct
(2) Centromeres split and chromatids separate
(4) Only B is correct
(3) Nucleolus, ER, Golgi complex reappear
115. Nitrates present in soil is converted into free
nitrogen by a bacterium named
(4) Nuclear membrane start to dissolve
108. Diplotene of Meiosis-I is recognized by
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) Bivalent or tetrad formation
(4) Crossing over or recombination
109. Stem is modified into tendrils in all the given
plants, except
(2) Opuntia
(3) Pumpkins
(4) Watermelon
(2) Plum
(3) Rose
(4) Peach
(3) Thiobacillus
(4) Azotobacter
(1) Iron
(2) Zinc
(3) Molybdenum
(4) Calcium
117. Photosystem II
(1) Is attached to OEC
(2) Participates in cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Has P700 reaction center
110. Superior ovary is found in
(1) Mustard
(2) Frankia
116. Which of the following elements is required for
the activation of catalase?
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(1) Cucumber
(1) Rhizobium
(4) Does not involve in NADPH formation
118. RuBisCO enzyme
(1) Is responsible for primary CO2 fixation in C4
plants
111. Collenchymatous cells
(1) Have lignified cell wall
(2) Is present in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
(2) Are highly thickened dead cells
(3) Is absent in C3 plants
(3) Provide mechanical strength to young stem
and petiole of leaf
(4) Require Mn2+ and Ca2+ for activation.
119. Which of the following enzyme catalyses
conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl-CoA during
the link reaction?
(4) Are commonly found in seed coats of
Iegumes
(1) Hexokinase
112. Select the odd one out w.r.t. sapwood
(1) Lighter in colour
(2) Phosphofructokinase
(2) Involved in conduction of water
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(4) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(3) Involved in mineral transport
(4) Comprises dead elements with
lignified walls and darker in colour
120. NADH dehydrogenase enzyme
highly
(1) Is the first enzyme of Krebs cycle
(2) Is involved in only EMP pathway
113. Facilitated diffusion
(1) Is that where membrnae proteins set up the
concentration gradient
(3) Transfers the electrons to ubiquinone during
ETC.
(2) Requires the ATP during transport
(4) Donate the electrons to NADH2
121. Which of the following is not a function of
gibberellins?
(3) Requires the membrane protein for transport
(4) Cannot be inhibited by inhibitor
(1) Increase the length of stem in sugarcane
114. If a pressure greater than the atmospheric
pressure is applied to a solution
(2) Hasten the
conifers
A. Its water potential will decrease
maturity
period
in
juvenile
(3) Promotes bolting in beet and cabbage
B. Its free energy of water will increase
(4) Antagonist of auxin in terms of apical
dominance
Select the correct statement(s)
(10)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
CST-23 (Code-A)
122. In the terms of seed germination, which of the
following enzymes are antagonist?
130. In eukaryotes 5.8S rRNA is synthesised by/in
(1) Auxin and cytokinin (2) Zeatin and ethylene
(3) GA and ABA
(4) Ethylene and IAA
(1) RNA polymerase I
(2) RNA polymerase III
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) RNA polymerase II
131. Wheat variety which was developed through
biofortification with increased protein content is
123. Plant, which reproduces mainly by rhizome is
(1) Banana
(2) Onion
(1) Kalyan Sona
(2) Sonalika
(3) Aloe
(4) Agave
(3) Atlas-66
(4) Pusa Komal
132. Parbhani Kranti
124. Life span of
(1) Is a variety of bhindi/okra
(1) Crow is more than parrot
(2) Is resistant to powdery mildew
(2) Parrot is less than banana
(3) Is a wheat variety with high amino acid
content
(3) Banana is greater than tortoise
(4) Crocodile is approximately 60 years
(4) Was developed through induced mutation
125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. anther
133. Blood cholesterol lowering agent statins are
produced by
(1) Outermost layer is called epidermis
(2) Endothecium
dehiscence
layer
is
responsible
for
(1) Trichoderma
(3) Monascus purpureus (4) Pseudomonas
(3) Tapetum is responsible for nourishing to
developing pollen grains
134. Clot buster agent is commercially produced by
(4) Middle layers are permanent layers
126. Female gametophyte of majority of the flowering
plants
(3) Contains two celled egg apparatus
(4) Contains two synergids at micropylar end
(4) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Penicillium
(4) Clostridium
organisms
given
below
are
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
SECTION-B
127. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant
disorder in humans?
(3) Phenylketonuria
(2) Lactobacillus
Snake, Fish, Rat, Human, Frog
(2) Has three antipodal cells at micropylar end
(2) Haemophilia
(1) Streptococcus
135. How many
conformers?
(1) Has total 8 cells
(1) Sickle cell anemia
(2) Acetobacter aceti
136. Antibiotic production by Penicillium inhibit the
growth of bacteria is an example of
128. Enzyme which do not take part in DNA
replication is
(1) Commensalism
(2) Amensalism
(3) Mutualism
(4) Parasitism
137. Decomposition process is
(1) Largely anaerobic process
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) Faster when detritus contains lignin
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) Faster in moist and warm environment
(3) Helicase
(4) Slower when detritus has water soluble
sugars
(4) Topoisomerase
129. Person suffering from which of the given
disorders has only 45 chromosomes?
138. Pioneer community
succession is
during
(1) Turner’s syndrome
(1) Emerged vegetation stage
(2) Down’s syndrome
(2) Lichen
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Phytoplankton
(4) Thalassemia
(4) Reed-swamp
(11)
the
hydrarch
CST-23 (Code-A)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
145. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. extinct animal
and the region from where they got extinct
139. How many beverages given below are produced
without distillation?
Wine, Brandy, Whiskey, Beer, Rum
(1) Dodo – Mauritius
(1) Two
(2) Three
(2) Quagga – Africa
(3) Four
(4) Five
(3) Thylacine – India
(4) Steller’s Sea Cow – Russia
140. Read the statements and select the correct
option.
146. Passenger pigeon become extinct mainly due to
A. Euryhaline organisms can tolerate wide
range of salinities in water.
(1) Alien species invasion
B. Stenothermal organisms cannot tolerate wide
range of temperature.
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Co-extinction
(4) Over-exploitation
(1) Both A and B are correct
147. All the given are the in-situ conservation
strategies, except
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
(1) National park
(4) Only B is correct
(2) Zoological park
(3) Sacred groves
141. The interaction in which one species is benefited
and other species neither harmed nor benefited,
is called
(4) Sanctuaries
148. Eutrophication
(1) Commensalism
A. Is the natural ageing of lake by nutrient
enrichment of its water
(2) Amensalism
B. Is the process in which fertility of lake
decreases
(3) Mutualism
(4) Parasitism
C. Is always seen in young lakes
142. Bacterial enzyme and fungal enzyme degrade
the fragmented detritus into simpler inorganic
substances by a process named
(1) All A, B and C are correct
(2) Only C is incorrect
(1) Fragmentation
(3) Only B is correct
(2) Leaching
(4) Only A is correct
149. In the following food chain DDT concentration will
be highest in
(3) Catabolism
(4) Humification
Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fishes →
Bird
143. Amount of inorganic nutrients present in the soil
at any given time is referred to as the
(1) Phytoplanktons
(1) Standing crop
(2) Zooplanktons
(2) Standing state
(3) Small fishes
(3) Secondary productivity
(4) Birds
(4) Primary productivity
150. Relative contribution of various green house
gases to total global warming in ascending order
is
144. Maximum biodiversity amongst the vertebrates is
of
(1) Mammals
(1) CH4 < N2O < CFCs < CO2
(2) Fishes
(2) N2O < CFCs < CH4 < CO2
(3) Reptiles
(3) CO2 < CH4 < N2O < CFCs
(4) Amphibians
(4) CFCs < N2O < CO2 < CH4
(12)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
CST-23 (Code-A)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. The opening of hepato-pancreatic duct into
duodenum is guarded by
(1) Pyloric sphincter
(2) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(3) Sphincter of Oddi
(4) Ileocecal valve
(2) Cholesterol
(4) Lipase
column II w.r.t. partial
gases and choose the
Column I
pO2 in alveoli
(i)
40 mmHg
b.
pO2 in oxygenated
blood
(ii)
45 mmHg
c.
pO2 in tissues
(iii)
0.3 mmHg
d.
pCO2 in
deoxygenated
blood
(iv)
104 mmHg
(v)
C
D
(1) T
T
F
T
(2) F
T
F
T
(3) T
T
F
F
(4) T
F
T
F
(1) A healthy adult man has 5 to 5.5 million of
RBCs mm –3 of blood
(2) RBCs are formed only in yellow bone marrow
in adults
(3) The average life span of RBCs is around 120
days
Column II
a.
B
156. All of the following statements are correct
regarding RBCs except
152. All of the following are present in bile except
(1) Bilirubin
(3) Phospholipids
153. Match column I with
pressure of respiratory
correct option.
A
(4) Spleen is known as the graveyard of RBCs
157. A person having anti-A and anti-B antibodies in
his plasma can receive blood from people with
blood group(s).
95 mmHg
(1) A and B only
(2) O and A only
(3) O
(4) AB
158. Read the following statements w.r.t. urine
formation and choose the option that correctly
fills the blank A, B and C.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
154. How many of the following items given in box,
are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the
oxyhaemoglobin?
a. The descending limb of loop of Henle is
to water but almost
B
A
to electrolytes.
b. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
takes place in C .
Low pCO2, Low pO2, High H+ concentration,
Low temperature, High concentration of 2,3
BPG
(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two
155. Read the statements regarding regulation of
respiration and choose the option that correctly
states them true (T) or false (F).
A. Respiratory rhythm centre present in medulla
region of forebrain is primarily responsible for
regulation
B. Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can
reduce the duration of inspiration
C. Oxygen plays a very important role in the
regulation of respiratory rhythm
D. A chemo-sensitive area adjacent to rhythm
centre is highly sensitive to pCO2 and
hydrogen ions
(13)
(1) A – Permeable,
B – Impermeable,
C – Ascending limb of Henle's loop
(2) A – Permeable,
B – Impermeable,
C – PCT
(3) A – Impermeable,
B – Permeable,
C – DCT
(4) A – Permeable,
B – Impermeable,
C – DCT
CST-23 (Code-A)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
166. Select the odd one among the given second
messengers in a cell.
159. Which hormone is directly involved with
reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal parts of
the tubules in a nephron?
(1) Renin
(2) Aldosterone
(3) ANF
(4) Cortisol
(1) IP3
(3)
(2) Hydrocarbons
(3) Sterols
(4) Lactic acid
161 The cells present in human body that exhibit
amoeboid movement are
(4) MSH
(1) Kupffer cells
(2) Osteoblasts
(3) Chondroblasts
(4) Chondrocytes
168. Read the statements w.r.t. morphology of
cockroach and choose the option that correctly
fill the blanks A, B and C.
(1) RBCs
(2) Platelets
a. Sclerites present on the dorsal side of
cockroach body are called A and on the
(3) Macrophages
(4) Squamous epithelial cells
ventral side are called
162. Match column I with column II w.r.t. parts of
human brain and choose the correct option
Column I
(2) cAMP
167. A young boy fell from stairs while playing outside.
His mother took him to doctor, where he was
diagnosed with a fracture in femur. Which of the
following cells are involved in the healing
process?
160. All of the following are eliminated by sebaceous
glands through sebum except
(1) Waxes
Ca++
B .
Column II
b. The sclerites are joined to each other by a
thin and flexible articular membrane called
C .
(1) A – Tergites
a.
Hind brain
(i)
Pia mater
b.
Fore brain
(ii)
Corpora
quadrigemina
c.
Cranial meninx
(iii)
Pons
d.
Mid brain
(iv)
Cerebrum
B – Sternites
C – Fibrous membrane
(2) A – Tergites
B – Sternites
C – Arthrodial membrane
(3) A – Sternites
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
B – Tergites
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
C – Arthrodial membrane
163. The body temperature, urge for eating etc. are
regulated by
(4) A – Sternites
(1) Hypothalamus
B – Tergites
(2) Cerebral aqueduct
C – Fibrous membrane
(3) Corpora quadrigemina
169. Read the following statements about alimentary
canal of cockroach and choose the incorrect
one.
(4) Cerebellum
164. All of the following are pituitary hormones except
(1) Prolactin
(2) TSH
(3) Somatostatin
(4) Growth hormone
(1) The alimentary canal is divided into 3 regions
foregut, midgut and hindgut
(2) Malpighian tubules are present at the junction
of midgut and hindgut
165. Cholecystokinin acts on
(3) The crop has an outer layer of thick circular
muscles and a thick inner cuticle forming
chitinous teeth
(1) Pancreas only
(2) Gastric glands
(3) Both pancreas and gall bladder
(4) Hepatic caeca are present at the junction of
foregut and midgut
(4) Gall bladder only
(14)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
CST-23 (Code-A)
175. The main function of fimbriae present in human
female reproductive tract is to
170. Study the given picture and choose the option
that correctly identifies it.
(1) Hold the ovary in position
(2) Act as site for fertilization
(3) Hold the uterus in position
(4) Help in collection of ovum after ovulation
(1) Uracil
(2) Thymine
(3) Cytosine
(4) Adenine
176. Read the following statements regarding
oogenesis and choose the incorrect one.
(1) At puberty, only 60000 – 80000 primary
follicles are left in each ovary
171. Match column-I with column-II regarding proteins
and their function and choose the correct option.
Column I
(2) Secondary follicles are characterised by a
fluid filled cavity called antrum
Column II
a.
Globulins
(i)
Osmotic balance
b.
GLUT-4
(ii)
Intercellular ground
substance
c.
Albumin
(iii)
Defense mechanism of
body
d.
Fibrinogen
(iv)
Enable glucose
transport into the cell
(v)
Coagulation of blood
(3) The theca layer organise itself into theca
interna and theca externa in a tertiary follicle
(4) The primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle
grows in size and completes its first meiotic
division
177. Which of the following is a diploid cell?
(1) Primary spermatocyte
(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Spermatozoa
(4) First polar body
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(v) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
178. Which of the following is not the working
mechanism for steroidal oral contraceptive pills?
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(ii)
172. Enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms
are different from other enzymes and has an
important quality of
(1) They inhibit ovulation
(2) They facilitate phagocytosis of sperms by
causing inflammation
(1) Higher catalytic power
(3) They inhibit implantation
(2) Thermal stability
(4) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent the entry of sperms
(3) pH independence
(4) Higher substrate affinity
179. How many of the following are associated with
the complications due to STIs?
173. The percentage of nitrogen bases in four different
dsDNA samples are given. Study the given data
and choose the option that shows the mutated
DNA sample.
Still births, Ectopic pregnancies, Tubectomy,
Infertility, Pelvic inflammatory disease, Abortions
(1) A = 32%, C = 18%, T = 32%, G = 18%
(1) Six
(2) Four
(2) G = 24%, A = 26%, T = 26%, C = 24%
(3) Two
(4) Five
180. The best assisted reproductive technology to
conceive in case of a female who cannot produce
ovum, but can provide suitable environment for
fertilization and further development is
(3) C = 20%, T = 28%, G = 24%, A= 28%
(4) T = 17%, G = 33%, A = 17%, C = 33%
174. All of the following are bisexual animals except
(1) Tapeworm
(2) Cockroach
(1) GIFT
(2) ICSI
(3) Leech
(4) Earthworm
(3) IUI
(4) ZIFT
(15)
CST-23 (Code-A)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
188. Which of the following is not among the three
basic steps used in genetically modifying an
organism?
181. During post industrialization period, the increase
in the number of melanised moth is an example
of
(1) Stabilizing selection (2) Balancing selection
(1) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
(3) Directional selection (4) Disruptive selection
(2) Introduction of identified DNA into host
182. Consider the following statements regarding
Homo habilis and choose the option that
correctly states them true (T) or false (F).
A. Their brain
650-800 cc
capacities
were
(3) Maintenance of introduced DNA into host and
transfer of DNA to its progeny
(4) Purification and separation of the desired
protein produced in a bioreactor
between
189. Recognition site for restriction endonuclease
EcoRI is
B. They were first human like being the hominid
C. They probably did not eat meat
D. They used hides to protect their body
A
B
C
D
(1) T
T
T
F
(2) F
T
T
F
(3) F
T
F
T
(4) T
F
T
F
183. The possible direct ancestors of herbaceous and
arborescent lycopods were
(1) Psilophyton
(2) Zosterophyllum
(3) Rhynia-type plants
(4) Progymnosperms
(2) Antihistamine
(3) Concanavalin-A
(4) Steroids
(1) A – CD8, B – CD4
5′ - G A A T T C - 3′
3′ - C T T A A G - 5′
(3)
5′ - G G A T C C - 3′
3′ - C C T A G G - 5′
(4)
5′ - C C C G G G - 3′
3′ - G G G C C C - 5′
(2) Only ampicillin
(3) Both tetracycline and ampicillin
(4) Only Kanamycin
191. The inactive Bt protoxin is converted into active
form in the gut of the insect, due to the
Main receptors present on the Helper T
A
and on cytotoxic T
lymphocytes are
B
(2)
(1) Only tetracycline
185. Read the statements and choose the option that
correctly fills the blank A and B.
lymphocytes are
5′ - G T C G A C - 3′
3′ - C A G C T G - 5′
190. If a foreign gene is inserted at Pvu I recognition
site of E.coli cloning vector pBR322, then the
transformed non-recombinants will be resistant to
184. All of the following are the drugs used to reduce
the symptoms of allergy except
(1) Adrenaline
(1)
(1) High temperature of the gut
.
(2) Acidic pH of the gut
(2) A – CD4, B – CD20
(3) Alkaline pH of the gut
(3) A – CD8, B – CD21 (4) A – CD4, B – CD8
SECTION-B
(4) Special solubility of proteins in gut
186. The opioid heroin, commonly called smack is
obtained by acetylation of
(1) Curcumin
(2) Morphine
(3) Concanavalin-A
(4) Carotenoids
192. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. Insulin.
(1) Insulin is produced as a pro-hormone
187. Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology
has been used to obtain
(1) A new breed of sheep called Hisardale
(2) The mature insulin contains only A and B
peptide chains
(3) Earlier insulin was extracted from pancreas
of slaughtered cattles and pigs
(4) Eli lilly, an American company produced
chain A and B together, extracted and
combined them by creating disulfide bonds to
form human insulin
(2) Increase in herd size in a short time
(3) The domesticated mule
(4) Superior males and females of cattle only
(16)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021
CST-23 (Code-A)
193. In 1997, an American company got patent rights
on Basmati Rice through the US patent and
Trademark office, but these rice were not an
invention or novelty rather
197. The type of junctions present between the
epithelial cells lining the urinary bladder, which
prevent urine from leaking out into extracellular
space are
(1) A distant relative of basmati rice
(1) Tight junctions
(2) Gap junctions
(2) Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
varieties
(3) Adhering junctions
(4) Zonula adherens
(3) Indian basmati was
resistant varieties
crossed
with
198. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. gastric glands
pest
(4) An indigenous variety of basmati rice from
Punjab
(3) Length of H-zone decreases
(3) There is clotting in the aorta
(4) I-band reduced in width
(4) The heart is not beating
200. Consider the following statements regarding
skeletal system.
195. The sino-atrial node (SAN) can generate the
maximum number of action potentials
(4) 40-50 min–1
(4) Chief cells
(2) A-band decreases in size
(2) Atrial depolarisation is very weak
(3) 100-120 min–1
(3) Paneth cells
(1) Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten in
length
(1) Ventricular depolarisation is very weak
(2) 70-75 min–1
(2) Mucus neck cells
199. Select the incorrect statement regarding sliding
filament theory of muscle contraction.
194. In an ECG, if P wave, QRS complex and T wave
appear as a straight line, it implies
(1) 60-65 min–1
(1) Oxyntic cells
a. The facial region consists of 14 bones.
b. There are 12 lumbar and 7 thoracic vertebrae
in our vertebral column.
196. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t.
subphylum vertebrata.
c. There are two pairs of vertebrochondral ribs.
d. Each limb is made of 30 bones.
(1) Cyclostomata – Petromyzon
(2) Osteichthyes – Trygon
Choose the option that mention only correct
statements.
(3) Amphibia – Ichthyophis
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only a, c and d
(4) Mammalia – Ornithorhynchus
(3) Only a and d
(4) a, b, c and d
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Edition: 2020-21