CHI
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following groups would be best
1. served by the development of a scientific base
for nursing practice?
Nursing administrators
Practicing nurses
Nurses' clients
Health care policymakers
C
Feedback:
Nursing research is systematic inquiry
designed to develop trustworthy evidence
about issues of importance to nurses and their
clients. Nurse leaders recognize the need to
base specific nursing decisions on evidence
indicating that the decisions are clinically
appropriate, cost-effective, and result in
positive client outcomes. Although all of the
people listed would benefit from the
development of a scientific base for nursing
practice, ultimately it is the clients themselves
who would most benefit, as they would then
receive the most appropriate and most
effective care.
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
An especially important goal for the nursing
profession is to do which of the following?
Conduct research to better understand the
context of nursing practice
Establish a solid base of evidence for practice
through disciplined research
Document the role nursing serves in society
Establish research priorities
B
Feedback:
Nurses are increasingly expected to
understand and undertake research and to
base their practice on evidence from research.
Evidence-based practice is the use of the best
evidence in making patient care decisions and
typically comes from research conducted by
nurses and other health-care professionals. All
of the other answers are possible goals for the
nursing profession, but none is as important
as establishing evidence for practice.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
through disciplined research
Document the role nursing serves in society
Establish research priorities
B
Feedback:
Nurses are increasingly expected to
understand and undertake research and to
base their practice on evidence from research.
Evidence-based practice is the use of the best
evidence in making patient care decisions and
typically comes from research conducted by
nurses and other health-care professionals. All
of the other answers are possible goals for the
nursing profession, but none is as important
as establishing evidence for practice.
Which of the following is a fundamental
3. belief of those who hold to the constructivist
paradigm?
A fixed reality exists in nature for humans to
understand
The nature of reality has changed over time
Reality is multiply constructed and multiply
interpreted by humans
Reality cannot be studied empirically
C
Feedback:
In the constructivist paradigm, it is assumed
that reality is not a fixed entity but is rather a
construction of human minds—and thus
“truth” is a composite of multiple
constructions of reality. However,
constructivists do believe that reality can be
studied empirically. Belief in a fixed reality
that exists in nature for humans to understand
would be an example of a positivist belief, not
a constructivist one. The constructivist belief
does not hold so much that the nature of
reality has changed over time as that it has
always been constructed by human minds.
Which of the following is a fundamental
4. belief of those who hold to the positivist
paradigm?
The researcher is objective and independent
of those being studied
The researcher cannot interact with those
being studied
The researcher instructs those being studied to
be objective in providing information
The distance between the researcher and those
being researched is minimized to enhance the
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is a fundamental
4. belief of those who hold to the positivist
paradigm?
The researcher is objective and independent
of those being studied
The researcher cannot interact with those
being studied
The researcher instructs those being studied to
be objective in providing information
The distance between the researcher and those
being researched is minimized to enhance the
interactive process
A
Feedback:
In the positivist paradigm, it is assumed that
there is an objective reality and that natural
phenomena are regular and orderly. In the
constructivist paradigm, it is assumed that
reality is not a fixed entity but is rather a
construction of human minds—and thus
“truth” is a composite of multiple
constructions of reality.
Which of the following attributes is least
5. characteristic of the traditional scientific
method?
Control over external factors
Systematic measurement and observation of
natural phenomena
Testing of hunches deduced from theory or
prior research
Emphasis on a holistic view of a
phenomenon, studied in a rich context
D
Feedback:
Quantitative research (associated with
positivism) involves the collection and
analysis of numeric information. Quantitative
research is typically conducted within the
traditional scientific method, which is
systematic and controlled. Quantitative
researchers base their findings on empirical
evidence (evidence collected by way of the
human senses) and strive for generalizability
beyond a single setting or situation.
Constructivist researchers emphasize
understanding human experience as it is lived
through the collection and analysis of
subjective, narrative materials using flexible
procedures; this paradigm is associated with
qualitative research.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
prior research
Emphasis on a holistic view of a
phenomenon, studied in a rich context
D
Feedback:
Quantitative research (associated with
positivism) involves the collection and
analysis of numeric information. Quantitative
research is typically conducted within the
traditional scientific method, which is
systematic and controlled. Quantitative
researchers base their findings on empirical
evidence (evidence collected by way of the
human senses) and strive for generalizability
beyond a single setting or situation.
Constructivist researchers emphasize
understanding human experience as it is lived
through the collection and analysis of
subjective, narrative materials using flexible
procedures; this paradigm is associated with
qualitative research.
6. Empiricism refers to which of the following?
Making generalizations from specific
observations
Articulating a study purpose in terms of an
appropriate classification system
Gathering evidence about real-world
phenomena through the senses
Verifying the assumptions on which the study
was based
C
Feedback:
Empiricism is gathering and analyzing
evidence through their senses. Quantitative
research involves the collection and analysis
of numeric information. Quantitative research
is typically conducted within the traditional
scientific method, which is systematic and
controlled. Quantitative researchers base their
findings on empirical evidence and strive for
generalizability beyond a single setting or
situation. Constructivist researchers
emphasize understanding human experience
as it is lived through the collection and
analysis of subjective, narrative materials
using flexible procedures; this paradigm is
associated with qualitative research.
7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is a hallmark of the
scientific method?
Rigorous
Holistic
Systematic
Flexible
C
Feedback:
Quantitative research is typically conducted
within the traditional scientific method, which
is systematic and controlled. Quantitative
researchers base their findings on empirical
evidence and strive for generalizability
beyond a single setting or situation.
Constructivist researchers emphasize
understanding human experience as it is lived
through the collection and analysis of
subjective, narrative materials using flexible
procedures; this paradigm is associated with
qualitative research.
Which of the following limits the capacity of
8. the scientific method to answer questions
about humans?
The necessity of departing from traditional
beliefs
The difficulty of accurately measuring
complex human traits
The lack of funding for research
The shortage of theories about human
behavior
B
Feedback:
Nursing research focuses on human beings,
who are inherently complicated and diverse.
The traditional scientific method typically
focuses on a relatively small aspect of human
experiences in a single study. Complexities
tend to be controlled and, if possible,
eliminated rather than studied directly, and
this narrowness of focus can sometimes
obscure insights.
C)
The lack of funding for research
The shortage of theories about human
behavior
B
Feedback:
Nursing research focuses on human beings,
who are inherently complicated and diverse.
The traditional scientific method typically
focuses on a relatively small aspect of human
experiences in a single study. Complexities
tend to be controlled and, if possible,
eliminated rather than studied directly, and
this narrowness of focus can sometimes
obscure insights.
D)
Ans:
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The classic scientific method has its
intellectual roots in which of the following?
Positivism
Determinism
Constructivism
Empiricism
A
Feedback:
In the positivist paradigm, it is assumed that
there is an objective reality and that natural
phenomena are regular and orderly. The
related assumption of determinism refers to
the belief that phenomena result from prior
causes and are not haphazard. In the
constructivist paradigm, it is assumed that
reality is not a fixed entity but is rather a
construction of human minds—and thus
“truth” is a composite of multiple
constructions of reality. Although the word
empiricism has come to be allied with the
classic scientific method, researchers in both
traditions gather and analyze evidence
empirically, that is, through their senses.
Constructivist qualitative research typically
does which of the following?
Involves deductive processes
Attempts to control the research context to
better understand the phenomenon being
studied
Involves gathering narrative, subjective
materials
Focuses on numeric information
C
Feedback:
In the constructivist paradigm, it is assumed
that reality is not a fixed entity but is rather a
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Attempts to control the research context to
better understand the phenomenon being
studied
Involves gathering narrative, subjective
materials
Focuses on numeric information
C
Feedback:
In the constructivist paradigm, it is assumed
that reality is not a fixed entity but is rather a
construction of human minds—and thus
“truth” is a composite of multiple
constructions of reality. In the positivist
paradigm, it is assumed that there is an
objective reality and that natural phenomena
are regular and orderly. Constructivist
researchers emphasize understanding human
experience as it is lived through the collection
and analysis of subjective, narrative materials
using flexible procedures; this paradigm is
associated with qualitative research. The other
answers are truer of positivist, quantitative
research.
Quantitative and qualitative research share
11. which of the following features? Select all
that apply.
A desire to understand the true state of human
affairs
An emphasis on formal measurement
A reliance on external evidence collected
through the senses
Utility to the nursing profession
A, C, D
Feedback:
Both quantitative and qualitative research
share a desire to understand the true state of
human affairs, a reliance on external evidence
collected through the senses, and utility to the
nursing profession. However, quantitative, not
qualitative, research emphasizes formal
measurement.
Which of the following is a descriptive
12. question that a qualitative researcher most
likely would ask?
What is the nature of this phenomenon?
What is the average intensity of this
phenomenon?
How frequently does this phenomenon occur?
What is the average duration of this
phenomenon?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is a descriptive
12. question that a qualitative researcher most
likely would ask?
What is the nature of this phenomenon?
What is the average intensity of this
phenomenon?
How frequently does this phenomenon occur?
What is the average duration of this
phenomenon?
A
Feedback:
Description of phenomena is an important
purpose of research. In descriptive studies,
researchers count, delineate, and classify.
Nurse researchers have described a wide
variety of phenomena, such as patients' stress,
health beliefs, and so on. Quantitative
description focuses on the prevalence, size,
and measurable aspects of phenomena.
Qualitative researchers describe the nature,
dimensions, and salience of phenomena
A researcher wants to investigate the effect of
13. patients' body position on blood pressure. The
study would most likely be of which type?
Qualitative
Quantitative
Either quantitative or qualitative (researcher
preference)
Insufficient information to determine
B
Feedback:
Because this study would involve a
measurable, numeric outcome—blood
pressure—it should most likely be a
quantitative study.
A researcher wants to explore the process by
which men make decisions about treatment
14.
for prostate cancer. The researcher's paradigm
is most likely which of the following?
Positivism
Determinism
Empiricism
Constructivism
D
Feedback:
As this study involves gathering subjective,
non-measurable data, the researcher's
paradigm is most likely constructivism.
Positivism is not likely, as there is no
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
is most likely which of the following?
Positivism
Determinism
Empiricism
Constructivism
D
Feedback:
As this study involves gathering subjective,
non-measurable data, the researcher's
paradigm is most likely constructivism.
Positivism is not likely, as there is no
emphasis on an objective, orderly reality.
Determinism, which refers to the belief that
phenomena result from prior causes and are
not haphazard, is not pertinent here. Although
the research will involve empiricism, or
gathering information using the senses, this is
not the primary paradigm.
Which of the following would be most
15. strongly associated with cause-probing
research?
Identification
Description
Exploration
Explanation
D
Feedback:
A fundamental distinction that is especially
relevant in quantitative research is between
studies whose primary intent is to describe
phenomena and those that are cause-probing.
Specific purposes on the description/
explanation continuum include identification,
description, exploration, prediction/control
and explanation. Many nursing studies can
also be classified in terms of a key EBP aim:
therapy/treatment/intervention; diagnosis and
assessment; prognosis; etiology and harm;
and meaning and process.
Nursing has experienced constant change over
the past decades as a result of increased
16. research. When determining best practices,
nursing decisions should do which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Be based on tradition
Include holistic approaches
Be clinically appropriate
Be cost effective
C, D
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
the past decades as a result of increased
16. research. When determining best practices,
nursing decisions should do which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Be based on tradition
Include holistic approaches
Be clinically appropriate
Be cost effective
C, D
Feedback:
Nurse leaders recognize the need to base
specific nursing decisions on evidence
indicating that the decisions are clinically
appropriate, cost-effective, and result in
positive client outcomes. Holistic treatments
may be appropriate in some, but not all,
circumstances. Tradition alone is an
inadequate basis for practice.
Evidenced-based nursing primarily uses
17. which of the following to answer clinical
questions?
Consulting an authority
Using intuition
Obtaining the newest research
Relying on experience
C
Feedback:
Nurses are increasingly expected to
understand and undertake research, and to
base their practice on evidence from research
—that is, to adopt an evidence-based practice
(EBP). EBP, broadly defined, is the use of the
best evidence in making patient care
decisions. Experience, intuition, and authority
are not wholly ignored in the EBP process,
but research is a priority.
The major difference between quantitative
and qualitative research is that qualitative
18.
research seeks to find answers based on which
of the following?
Solid factual data
Experiences or descriptions
Etiology
Systematic process
B
Feedback:
Human experiences, and people's descriptions
and interpretations of these experiences, are
the main focus of qualitative research.
Systematic process, etiology, and factual data
of the following?
Solid factual data
Experiences or descriptions
Etiology
Systematic process
B
Feedback:
Human experiences, and people's descriptions
and interpretations of these experiences, are
the main focus of qualitative research.
Systematic process, etiology, and factual data
are more closely aligned with the quantitative
tradition.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following research focuses is
qualitative?
Weekend and night outcomes of patients
admitted to a specific hospital system's
trauma departments
Trends in hospitalizations of patients with
antibiotic-resistant tuberculosis
Predicting risks for serious complications
with abdominal surgery
Needs of nursing students living with chronic
illness
D
Feedback:
Constructivist studies are heavily focused on
understanding the human experience as it is
lived, through the careful collection and
analysis of qualitative materials that are
narrative and subjective. Human needs, and
individuals' perceptions of those needs, are a
common focus of qualitative research.
Outcomes, risk factors, and treatment
modalities are often addressed with
quantitative research.
When little is known about a phenomenon or
the phenomenon is not clearly identified, the
20.
best type of research suited to uncover this is
which of the following?
Exploration
Description
Identification
Prediction
C
Feedback:
Qualitative researchers sometimes study
phenomena about which little is known. In
some cases, so little is known that the
phenomenon has yet to be clearly identified or
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Exploration
Description
Identification
Prediction
C
Feedback:
Qualitative researchers sometimes study
phenomena about which little is known. In
some cases, so little is known that the
phenomenon has yet to be clearly identified or
named or has been inadequately defined.
Identification is thus necessary. Exploration
(which addresses causation), predication, and
description would likely be subsequent
efforts.
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Consumers of research do which of the
following?
Design studies
Undertake studies
Produce research
Read research
D
Feedback:
In the current EBP environment, every nurse
is likely to engage in one or more activity
along a continuum of research participation.
At one end of the continuum are users
(consumers) of nursing research—nurses who
read research reports to keep up-to-date on
findings that may affect their practice. EBP
depends on well-informed nursing research
consumers. At the other end of the continuum
are the producers of nursing research: nurses
who actively design and undertake studies.
When nurses rely primarily on tradition, they
are most likely to do which of the following?
Produce a precise range of answers
Increase new knowledge
Maintain an unbiased perspective
Undermine effective problem solving
D
Feedback:
Tradition may undermine effective problem
solving. There is growing concern that many
nursing actions are based on tradition,
custom, and “unit culture” rather than on
sound evidence. This prevents the acceptance
of new knowledge and increases bias and is
unlikely to produce a precise range of
answers.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Increase new knowledge
Maintain an unbiased perspective
Undermine effective problem solving
D
Feedback:
Tradition may undermine effective problem
solving. There is growing concern that many
nursing actions are based on tradition,
custom, and “unit culture” rather than on
sound evidence. This prevents the acceptance
of new knowledge and increases bias and is
unlikely to produce a precise range of
answers.
A research nurse understands that evidenced23. based practice in nursing does which of the
following?
Relies on tradition
Consults recognized authorities
Depends primarily on textbooks
Is based on the latest research
D
Feedback:
EBP prioritizes research findings, which are
found primarily in primary sources, such as
journals, rather than in secondary sources,
such as textbooks. It is not dependent on
tradition or authority.
24.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Non-research-based evidence includes which
of the following? Select all that apply.
Unit culture
Nurse's experience
Qualitative studies
Trial and error
C
Feedback:
Clinical reports, experience and beliefs are
non-research based sources of evidence,
which are considered to be comparatively
weak. Qualitative studies are research-based.
CHIA
's
.
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Research utilization is a process that begins
with which of the following?
A clinical problem that needs to be solved
A problem-focused trigger
A knowledge-focused trigger or research
finding
A well-worded clinical question
C
Feedback:
Research utilization (RU) is the use of
findings from disciplined research in a
practical application that is unrelated to the
original research. Evidence-based practice is
broader than RU because it integrates
research findings with other factors. Several
models of EBP, such as the Iowa Model, have
distinguished two types of stimulus
(“triggers”) for an EBP endeavor—(1)
problem-focused triggers—the identification
of a clinical practice problem in need of
solution, or (2) knowledge-focused triggers—
readings in the research literature. A second
catalyst for an EBP project is the research
literature—knowledge-focused triggers,
which is the origin akin to research
utilization.
Which of the following is an example of a
systematic review?
An RCT study published in the journal
Nursing Research
A meta-analysis from the Cochrane database
A synopsis published in Evidence-Based
Nursing
A clinical practice guideline from the
National Guideline Clearinghouse
B
Feedback:
A meta-analysis is a type of systematic review
and a technique for integrating quantitative
research findings statistically. In essence,
meta-analysis treats the findings from a study
as one piece of information. The findings
from multiple studies on the same topic are
combined and then all of the information is
analyzed statistically in a manner similar to
that in a usual study. Unlike systematic
reviews, clinical practice guidelines (which
C)
Nursing
A clinical practice guideline from the
National Guideline Clearinghouse
B
Feedback:
A meta-analysis is a type of systematic review
and a technique for integrating quantitative
research findings statistically. In essence,
meta-analysis treats the findings from a study
as one piece of information. The findings
from multiple studies on the same topic are
combined and then all of the information is
analyzed statistically in a manner similar to
that in a usual study. Unlike systematic
reviews, clinical practice guidelines (which
often are based on systematic reviews) give
specific recommendations for evidence-based
decision-making. Guideline development
typically involves the consensus of a group of
researchers, experts, and clinicians. A
randomized controlled trial (RCT) is an
individual study that focuses on the
effectiveness of therapies rather than on
broader health-care interventions. Synopses,
or summaries, of systematic reviews and of
single studies are available in evidence-based
abstract journals such as Evidence-Based
Nursing.
D)
Ans:
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Most evidence hierarchies put which of the
following at the pinnacle?
Randomized clinical trials (RCTs)
Systematic reviews of multiple studies
Quality improvement projects
It depends on the research question
B
Feedback:
In all evidence hierarchies that include
randomized clinical trials, quality
improvement projects and research questions,
systematic reviews are at the pinnacle.
Which of the following can be used to
critically appraise clinical practice guidelines?
A systematic review from the Cochrane
Collaboration
The Iowa model
The AGREE instrument
An evidence hierarchy
C
Feedback:
Evidence-based clinical practice guidelines
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following can be used to
critically appraise clinical practice guidelines?
A systematic review from the Cochrane
Collaboration
The Iowa model
The AGREE instrument
An evidence hierarchy
C
Feedback:
Evidence-based clinical practice guidelines
distill a body of evidence into a usable form.
Unlike systematic reviews, clinical practice
guidelines, which often are based on
systematic reviews, give specific
recommendations for evidence-based
decision-making. Several appraisal
instruments are available to evaluate clinical
practice guidelines, but one with broad
support is the Appraisal of Guidelines
Research and Evaluation (AGREE)
Instrument. The Iowa model is used in
selecting a problem for an institutional
evidence-based project. An evidence
hierarchy is a tool for ranking evidence
sources according to the strength of the
evidence they provide.
Which of the following models was explicitly
5. developed with the idea that individual nurses
could engage in RU-type activities?
Iowa Model
Johns Hopkins Model
Cochrane Model
Stetler Model
D
Feedback:
Some models focus on the use of research
from the perspective of individual clinicians
such as the Stetler Model, one of the oldest
models that originated as an RU model, but
most focus on institutional EBP efforts such
as the John Hopkins Nursing EBP Model and
the Iowa Model. There is no Cochrane Model;
the Cochrane Collaboration is an organization
that prepares, maintains, and promotes the
accessibility of systematic reviews.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In the following clinical question, what is the
Outcome (O component): What is the effect
6. of relaxation therapy versus biofeedback on
the functional ability of patients with
rheumatoid arthritis?
Functional ability
Rheumatoid arthritis
Biofeedback
Relaxation therapy
A
Feedback:
In the PIO acronym, P stands for the
population or patients (rheumatoid arthritis); I
stands for the intervention, influence, or
exposure (biofeedback or relaxation therapy);
and O stands for the outcomes (functional
ability).
In the following clinical question, what is the
Intervention/influence/exposure (I
7. component): Does taking antidepressants
affect the risk of suicide in cognitively
impaired adolescents?
Adolescence
Suicide
Antidepressant use
Cognitive impairment
C
Feedback:
In the PIO acronym, P stands for the
population or patients (cognitively impaired
individuals); I stands for the intervention,
influence, or exposure (antidepressants); and
O stands for the outcomes (risk of suicide).
In the following clinical question, what is the
Population (P component): Do stress and
8. depression affect dyspnea in patients with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)?
Patients who are stressed
Patients who are depressed
Patients who experience dyspnea
Patients with COPD
D
Feedback:
In the PIO acronym, P stands for the
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
8. depression affect dyspnea in patients with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)?
Patients who are stressed
Patients who are depressed
Patients who experience dyspnea
Patients with COPD
D
Feedback:
In the PIO acronym, P stands for the
population or patients (patients with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease); I stands for
the intervention, influence, or exposure (stress
and depression); and O stands for the
outcomes (dyspnea).
In the following clinical question, what is the
Comparison (C component): Does chronic
9.
stress affect inflammatory responses in older
men with atherosclerotic disease?
Chronic stress
Inflammatory response
Atherosclerotic disease
There is no “C” component
D
Feedback:
In the PICO acronym, P stands for the
population or patients (older men with
atherosclerotic disease); I stands for the
intervention, influence, or exposure (chronic
stress); C stands for the component that is
needed (there is no intervention or influence
of interest contrasted with a specific
alternative); and O stands for the outcomes
(inflammatory response).
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In which of the following clinical questions is
fatigue the “I” component?
Does fatigue affect agitation in cognitively
impaired elders?
Does a physical activity intervention affect
fatigue in patients undergoing cardiac
rehabilitation?
What is the meaning of fatigue among
patients with sleep apnea?
Does the level of depression of patients
suffering from chronic fatigue improve by
participating in an exercise intervention?
A
Feedback:
Fatigue is the “I” component (intervention,
influence, or exposure) in the question, “Does
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Does a physical activity intervention affect
fatigue in patients undergoing cardiac
rehabilitation?
What is the meaning of fatigue among
patients with sleep apnea?
Does the level of depression of patients
suffering from chronic fatigue improve by
participating in an exercise intervention?
A
Feedback:
Fatigue is the “I” component (intervention,
influence, or exposure) in the question, “Does
fatigue affect agitation in cognitively
impaired elders?” In the other answers,
fatigue is one of the other components.
Which of the following is a question that
11. would be asked as part of the process of
appraising research evidence?
What are the P, I, and O components?
How rigorous and reliable is the evidence?
What type of trigger should I use?
Is a relevant systematic review available?
B
Feedback:
Individual nurses have opportunities to put
research into practice. The five basic steps for
individual EBP are: (1) asking an answerable
clinical question as evidenced by, “What are
the P, I, and O components?” (2) searching for
relevant research-based evidence as
evidenced by, “Is a relevant systematic review
available?” (3) appraising and synthesizing
the evidence as evidenced by, “How rigorous
and reliable is the evidence?” Triggers for an
organizational project include both pressing
clinical problems (problem-focused) and
existing knowledge (knowledge-focused) such
as asked by the question, “What type of
trigger would I use?”
Which of the following activities is part of an
12. organizational—but not an individual—EBP
endeavor?
Asking a good question/identifying a problem
Searching for evidence
Assessing implementation potential
Synthesizing and appraising evidence
C
Feedback:
EBP in an organizational context involves
many of the same steps as individual EBP
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
12. organizational—but not an individual—EBP
endeavor?
Asking a good question/identifying a problem
Searching for evidence
Assessing implementation potential
Synthesizing and appraising evidence
C
Feedback:
EBP in an organizational context involves
many of the same steps as individual EBP
efforts, but is more formalized and must take
organizational factors into account. Triggers
for an organizational project include both
pressing clinical problems (problem-focused)
and existing knowledge (knowledge-focused),
such as assessing implementation potential.
Individual nurses have opportunities to put
research into practice. The five basic steps for
individual EBP are: (1) asking an answerable
clinical question; (2) searching for relevant
research-based evidence; (3) appraising and
synthesizing the evidence; (4) Integrating the
evidence with your own clinical expertise,
patient preferences, and local context; (5)
Assessing the effectiveness of the decision,
intervention, or advice.
Asking a clinical question is the first step in
13. evidence-based practice. What are the four
components of a PICO clinical question?
Population, implication, comparison, outcome
Population, intervention, clinical, outcome
Population, intervention, comparison,
outcome
Population, implication, clinical, outcome
C
Feedback:
A crucial first step in evidence-based practice
(EBP) involves asking relevant clinical
questions that reflect uncertainties in clinical
practice. Most guidelines for EBP use the
acronyms PIO or PICO to help practitioners
develop well-worded questions that facilitate
a search for evidence. In the acronym PIO,
the P stands for population or patients; the I
stands for intervention; and the O stands for
outcome. The acronym PICO includes these
same three components plus a fourth, C,
which stands for comparison.
Population, intervention, comparison,
outcome
Population, implication, clinical, outcome
C
Feedback:
A crucial first step in evidence-based practice
(EBP) involves asking relevant clinical
questions that reflect uncertainties in clinical
practice. Most guidelines for EBP use the
acronyms PIO or PICO to help practitioners
develop well-worded questions that facilitate
a search for evidence. In the acronym PIO,
the P stands for population or patients; the I
stands for intervention; and the O stands for
outcome. The acronym PICO includes these
same three components plus a fourth, C,
which stands for comparison.
C)
D)
Ans:
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which following level of evidence includes
systematic reviews of multiple studies?
Level IV
Level III
Level II
Level I
D
Feedback:
Systematic reviews are at the pinnacle of the
hierarchy (Level I), because the strongest
evidence comes from careful syntheses of
multiple studies. The next highest level (Level
II) includes individual randomized controlled
trials (RCTs). Going down the “rungs” of the
evidence hierarchy for Therapy questions
results in less reliable evidence—for example,
Level III evidence comes from a type of study
called quasi-experiment. In-depth qualitative
studies are near the bottom, in terms of
evidence regarding intervention effectiveness.
A nurse in the United States is scheduled to
care for a child with an ostomy. Which of the
15. following resource would best assist the nurse
with specific guidelines for evidence-based
decision making for this patient?
MEDLINE
TRIP
www.guidelines.gov
www.rnao.org/bestpractices
C
Feedback:
Finding clinical practice guidelines can be
challenging, because there is no single
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
with specific guidelines for evidence-based
decision making for this patient?
MEDLINE
TRIP
www.guidelines.gov
www.rnao.org/bestpractices
C
Feedback:
Finding clinical practice guidelines can be
challenging, because there is no single
guideline repository. A standard search in
bibliographic databases such as MEDLINE
will yield many references—but could yield a
mixture of citations to not only the actual
guidelines, but also to commentaries,
implementation studies, and so on.
A recommended approach is to search in
guideline databases, or through specialty
organizations that have sponsored guideline
development. In the United States, nursing
and health-care guidelines are maintained by
the National Guideline Clearinghouse
(www.guideline.gov). In Canada, the
Registered Nurses Association of Ontario
(RNAO) (www.rnao.org/bestpractices)
maintains information about clinical practice
guidelines. Two sources in the United
Kingdom are the Translating Research into
Practice (TRIP) database and the National
Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE).
Which of following study types is a
16. systematic review used for integration of
statistical quantitative research findings?
Meta-synthesis
Meta-analysis
Randomized controlled trial
Quasi-experiment
B
Feedback:
Systematic reviews can take various forms.
One form is a narrative (qualitative)
integration that merges and synthesizes
findings, much like a rigorous literature
review. For integrating evidence from
quantitative studies, narrative reviews
increasingly are being replaced by a type of
systematic review known as a meta-analysis.
Meta-analysis is a technique for integrating
quantitative research findings statistically. For
qualitative studies, integration may take the
form of a meta-synthesis. A meta-synthesis,
however, is distinct from a quantitative meta-
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Meta-analysis
Randomized controlled trial
Quasi-experiment
B
Feedback:
Systematic reviews can take various forms.
One form is a narrative (qualitative)
integration that merges and synthesizes
findings, much like a rigorous literature
review. For integrating evidence from
quantitative studies, narrative reviews
increasingly are being replaced by a type of
systematic review known as a meta-analysis.
Meta-analysis is a technique for integrating
quantitative research findings statistically. For
qualitative studies, integration may take the
form of a meta-synthesis. A meta-synthesis,
however, is distinct from a quantitative metaanalysis: a meta-synthesis is less about
reducing information and more about
interpreting it. Randomized controlled trials
and quasi-experiments are not types of
systematic reviews.
The best-known early research utilization
(RU) project sought to bridge the gap between
17.
research and practice. Which following is the
name of that well-known project?
Cochrane Collaboration
Stetler Model of Research Utilization
Conduct and Utilization of Research in
Nursing (CURN) Project
Promoting Action on Research
Implementation in Health Services
C
Feedback:
Recognition of the gap between research and
practice led to formal attempts to bridge the
gap. The best-known of several early RU
projects is the Conduct and Utilization of
Research in Nursing (CURN) Project, which
was awarded to the Michigan Nurses'
Association by the Division of Nursing in the
1970s. The Stetler Model of Research
Utilization and Promoting Action on Research
Implementation in Health Services are
evidence-based practice models, not projects.
One keystone of the EBP movement is the
Cochrane Collaboration, which was founded
in the United Kingdom based on work by
British epidemiologist Archie Cochrane. It is
not a research utilization project.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Nursing (CURN) Project
Promoting Action on Research
Implementation in Health Services
C
Feedback:
Recognition of the gap between research and
practice led to formal attempts to bridge the
gap. The best-known of several early RU
projects is the Conduct and Utilization of
Research in Nursing (CURN) Project, which
was awarded to the Michigan Nurses'
Association by the Division of Nursing in the
1970s. The Stetler Model of Research
Utilization and Promoting Action on Research
Implementation in Health Services are
evidence-based practice models, not projects.
One keystone of the EBP movement is the
Cochrane Collaboration, which was founded
in the United Kingdom based on work by
British epidemiologist Archie Cochrane. It is
not a research utilization project.
The Iowa Model identifies problem-focused
triggers for implementing an EBP project.
18.
Which of the following is a problem-focused
trigger in the Iowa Model?
A finding published recently in a nursing
journal
A new clinical guideline issued by a federal
agency
An increase in latex allergy among emergency
room nurses
Questions from hospital committee
C
Feedback:
Several models of EBP, such as the Iowa
Model, have distinguished two types of
stimulus (“triggers”) for an EBP endeavor—
(1) problem-focused triggers—the
identification of a clinical practice problem in
need of solution, or (2) knowledge-focused
triggers—readings in the research literature. A
second catalyst for an EBP project is the
research literature—knowledge-focused
triggers, which is the origin akin to research
utilization. The catalyst might be a new
clinical guideline or a research article
discussed in a journal club.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
As a nurse, you must understand the
difference between research utilization and
19. evidence-based nursing practice. Which of the
following best defines evidence-based
practice?
Begins with research itself, clinical expertise,
and patient preference
Uses new evidence and translates research
findings into real-world applications
Uses findings from disciplined research in
practical application unrelated to original
research
Integrates best research evidence, with
clinical expertise, patient preference, and a
particular clinical situation
D
Feedback:
Advocates of EBP do not minimize the
importance of clinical expertise. Rather, they
argue that evidence-based decision-making
should integrate best research evidence with
clinical expertise, patient preferences, and
local circumstances. Research utilization
(RU) is the use of findings from disciplined
research in a practical application that is
unrelated to the original research. In research
utilization, the emphasis is on translating
research findings into real-world applications.
The starting point in RU is new evidence or a
research-based innovation. EBP is broader
than RU because it integrates research
findings with other factors. Whereas RU
begins with the research itself (how can I put
this innovation to good use in my clinical
setting?), EBP starts with a clinical question
(what does the evidence say is the best
approach to solving this problem?).
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Some EBP models recommend a formal
assessment of organizational “fit,” known as
implementation potential, when an
organization is considering undertaking an
20.
EBP project. Which following issue is of
particular importance to address to determine
the implementation potential of the EBP
project for the organization?
Effectiveness of the innovation
Nurses' attitude toward the innovation
Patient benefit of the innovation
Transferability of the innovation
D
Feedback:
Some EBP models recommend a formal
assessment of organizational “fit,” often
called implementation potential (or,
environmental readiness). In determining the
implementation potential of an innovation in a
particular setting, several issues should be
considered, particularly the transferability of
the innovation (i.e., the extent to which the
innovation might be appropriate in new
settings), the feasibility of implementing it,
and its cost-benefit ratio.
A nurse is observing how the time of feeding
impacts an inpatient's gastric reflux. In which
of the following steps of the EBP process
21.
would the nurse determine whether a specific
feeding time alleviated the patient's gastric
reflux symptoms?
Searching for and collecting evidence that
addresses the question
Appraising and synthesizing the evidence
Integrating the evidence with own clinical
expertise, patient preferences, and local
context
Assessing the effectiveness of the decision,
intervention, or advice
D
Feedback:
It would be during step 5 of the EBP process,
assessing the effectiveness of the decision,
intervention, or advice, that the nurse would
determine whether a specific feeding time (an
intervention) is effective in alleviating the
patient's gastric reflux symptoms.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
context
Assessing the effectiveness of the decision,
intervention, or advice
D
Feedback:
It would be during step 5 of the EBP process,
assessing the effectiveness of the decision,
intervention, or advice, that the nurse would
determine whether a specific feeding time (an
intervention) is effective in alleviating the
patient's gastric reflux symptoms.
After an institutional project has been
developed, the next step is to conduct a pilot
22. study (a trial study). Based on the Iowa
Model, which step would identify the success
or failure of a pilot study?
Developing an evaluation plan
Measuring client outcomes prior to
implementation
Training relevant staff in the use of the new
guideline
Evaluating the project in terms of both the
process and the outcomes
D
Feedback:
The success or failure of the pilot study would
be assessed in the evaluation of the study,
which is the last step. The other answers refer
to earlier steps in the implementation of the
study.
A narrative integrated review of qualitative
studies focuses on interpretation of the
23. studies. Which of the following study types
would be considered an systematic integrated
review of qualitative studies?
Meta-synthesis
Meta-analysis
Randomized controlled trial
Quasi-experiment
A
Feedback:
Systematic reviews can take various forms.
One form is a narrative (qualitative)
integration that merges and synthesizes
findings, much like a rigorous literature
review. For integrating evidence from
quantitative studies, narrative reviews
increasingly are being replaced by a type of
systematic review known as a meta-analysis.
Meta-analysis is a technique for integrating
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Meta-analysis
Randomized controlled trial
Quasi-experiment
A
Feedback:
Systematic reviews can take various forms.
One form is a narrative (qualitative)
integration that merges and synthesizes
findings, much like a rigorous literature
review. For integrating evidence from
quantitative studies, narrative reviews
increasingly are being replaced by a type of
systematic review known as a meta-analysis.
Meta-analysis is a technique for integrating
quantitative research findings statistically. For
qualitative studies, integration may take the
form of a meta-synthesis. A meta-synthesis,
however, is distinct from a quantitative metaanalysis: a meta-synthesis is less about
reducing information and more about
interpreting it. Randomized controlled trials
and quasi-experiments are not types of
systematic reviews.
The Iowa Model identifies several
knowledge-focused triggers for implementing
24. an EBP project. Which following statement is
considered a knowledge-focused trigger in the
Iowa Model?
A report in the New England Journal of
Medicine regarding a potential flu epidemic
Readmission rate of heart failure patients
Poor patient survey results
Increase in pediatric falls
A
Feedback:
Several models of EBP, such as the Iowa
Model, have distinguished two types of
stimulus (“triggers”) for an EBP endeavor—
(1) problem-focused triggers—the
identification of a clinical practice problem in
need of solution, or (2) knowledge-focused
triggers—readings in the research literature. A
report in a medical journal regarding a
potential flu epidemic is an example of a
reading in a research literature, and thus
would be a knowledge-focused trigger. The
other answers are examples of problemfocused triggers.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Readmission rate of heart failure patients
Poor patient survey results
Increase in pediatric falls
A
Feedback:
Several models of EBP, such as the Iowa
Model, have distinguished two types of
stimulus (“triggers”) for an EBP endeavor—
(1) problem-focused triggers—the
identification of a clinical practice problem in
need of solution, or (2) knowledge-focused
triggers—readings in the research literature. A
report in a medical journal regarding a
potential flu epidemic is an example of a
reading in a research literature, and thus
would be a knowledge-focused trigger. The
other answers are examples of problemfocused triggers.
Which of the following is the best resource to
25. use when beginning the search for evidence
necessary for an individual EBP project?
Hayat, M. (2010). Understanding statistical
significance. Nursing Research, 59(3),
219-223.
Durbin, C. R., Fish, A. F., Bachman, J. A., &
Smith, K. V. (2010). Systematic review of
education intervention for improving
advanced directive completion. Journal of
Nursing Scholarship, 42, 234-241.
Polit, D. R., & Beck, C. T. (2014). Essentials
of Nursing Research: Appraising Evidence for
th
Nursing Practice (8 ed.). Philadelphia:
Wolters Kluwer| Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins.
Aggarwal, B., Liao, M., & Mosca, L. (2010).
Predictors of physical activity at 1 year in a
randomized controlled trial of family
members of patients with cardiovascular
disease. Journal of Cardiovascular Nursing,
29(6), 444-449.
B
Feedback:
For an individual EBP endeavor, the best
place to begin is by searching for evidence in
a systematic review, clinical practice
guideline, or other preprocessed source
because this approach leads to a quicker
answer—and, if your methodologic skills are
limited, potentially a superior answer as well.
Of the answers, only Durbin et al is a
systematic review. The study by Aggarwal et
al is an individual randomized controlled trial,
D)
Ans:
members of patients with cardiovascular
disease. Journal of Cardiovascular Nursing,
29(6), 444-449.
B
Feedback:
For an individual EBP endeavor, the best
place to begin is by searching for evidence in
a systematic review, clinical practice
guideline, or other preprocessed source
because this approach leads to a quicker
answer—and, if your methodologic skills are
limited, potentially a superior answer as well.
Of the answers, only Durbin et al is a
systematic review. The study by Aggarwal et
al is an individual randomized controlled trial,
not a systematic review. The article by Hayat
provides general information on statistical
significance and does not appear to be
primary research. Polit and Beck is the
textbook you are using, which is a secondary
source, not primary research.
CHI
CH 3
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following terms would likely be
used only by qualitative researchers, as
1.
opposed to quantitative researchers, to refer to
people who participate in a study?
Informants
Study participants
Subjects
Investigators
A
Feedback:
The people who provide information to the
researchers in a study are referred to as
subjects or study participants in quantitative
research, or study participants or informants
in qualitative research; collectively they
comprise the sample. The person who
conducts the research is the researcher or
investigator.
Which of the following terms is used by both
2. qualitative and quantitative researchers to
refer to the abstractions under study?
Concept
Theory
Phenomenon
Variable
A
Feedback:
Researchers investigate concepts and
phenomena, which are abstractions inferred
from people's behavior or characteristics. In
quantitative studies, concepts are called
variables. A variable is a characteristic or
quality that takes on different values. The
term phenomena is also more associated with
qualitative studies than with quantitative
studies, whereas concept is used for both. A
theory is an explanation of some aspect of
reality, not an abstraction inferred from
people's behavior or characteristics.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following would be most likely
called a construct?
Gender
Body temperature
Self-care
Blood type
C
Feedback:
Researchers sometimes use the term
construct, which also refers to an abstraction,
but often one that is deliberately invented (or
constructed). For example, self-care in Orem's
model of health maintenance is a construct. A
variable is a characteristic or quality that takes
on different values such as body temperature
and blood type. Gender can be coded in a
quantitative study.
4. "Male" is which of the following?
Not a variable
An independent variable
A dependent variable
An outcome variable
A
Feedback:
A variable is a characteristic or quality that
takes on different values (i.e., varies from one
person or object to another). The dependent
(or outcome) variable is the behavior,
characteristic, or outcome the researcher is
interested in explaining, predicting, or
affecting (the “O” in the PICO scheme). The
independent variable is the presumed cause of
or influence on the dependent variable. The
independent variable corresponds to the “I”
and the “C” components in the PICO scheme.
Thus, “male” is not a variable, but a constant.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The dependent (outcome) variable in the
research question, "Is the quality of life of
5. nursing home residents affected by their
functional ability or hearing acuity?” is which
of the following?
Quality of life
Functional ability
Hearing acuity
Residence in a nursing home
A
Feedback:
The dependent (or outcome) variable is the
behavior, characteristic, or outcome the
researcher is interested in explaining,
predicting, or affecting (the “O” in the PICO
scheme). Quality of life is the dependent
variable. The independent variable is the
presumed cause of or influence on the
dependent variable. Independent variables are
nursing home residents, functional ability, and
hearing acuity. The independent variable
corresponds to the “I” and the “C”
components in the PICO scheme.
The independent variable in the research
question, "What is the effect of noise levels
6. on postoperative pain and blood pressure
fluctuations in ICU patients?" is which of the
following?
Blood pressure
ICU patients
Noise levels
Postoperative pain
C
Feedback:
The dependent (or outcome) variable is the
behavior, characteristic, or outcome the
researcher is interested in explaining,
predicting, or affecting (the “O” in the PICO
scheme). Postoperative pain, blood pressure,
and being a patient in the ICU are the
dependent variables. The independent
variable is the presumed cause of or influence
on the dependent variables. The independent
variable is noise levels. The independent
variable corresponds to the “I” and the “C”
components in the PICO scheme.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
ICU patients
Noise levels
Postoperative pain
C
Feedback:
The dependent (or outcome) variable is the
behavior, characteristic, or outcome the
researcher is interested in explaining,
predicting, or affecting (the “O” in the PICO
scheme). Postoperative pain, blood pressure,
and being a patient in the ICU are the
dependent variables. The independent
variable is the presumed cause of or influence
on the dependent variables. The independent
variable is noise levels. The independent
variable corresponds to the “I” and the “C”
components in the PICO scheme.
In the question, "Do Baccalaureate degree–
prepared nurses practice more rehabilitative
nursing procedures on a client in an ICU than
7.
associate degree–prepared nurses?" the
independent variable is which of the
following?
Associate degree–prepared nurses
Baccalaureate degree–prepared nurses
Rehabilitative nursing measures
Type of educational background of nurse
D
Feedback:
The dependent (or outcome) variable is the
behavior, characteristic, or outcome the
researcher is interested in explaining,
predicting, or affecting (the “O” in the PICO
scheme). A rehabilitative nursing measure is
the dependent variable. The independent
variable is the presumed cause of or influence
on the dependent variable. The independent
variable is type of educational background of
nursing, not a particular degree. The
independent variable corresponds to the “I”
and the “C” components in the PICO scheme.
The purpose of an operational definition in a
8. quantitative study is to do which of the
following?
Assign numeric values to variables
Specify how a variable will be measured
State the expected relationship between the
variables under investigation
Designate the conceptual underpinnings of the
variable
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
The purpose of an operational definition in a
8. quantitative study is to do which of the
following?
Assign numeric values to variables
Specify how a variable will be measured
State the expected relationship between the
variables under investigation
Designate the conceptual underpinnings of the
variable
B
Feedback:
A conceptual definition describes the abstract
or theoretical meaning of a concept being
studied. An operational definition specifies
how the variable will be measured. Data—the
information collected during the course of a
study—may take the form of narrative
information (qualitative data) or numeric
values (quantitative data).
Which of the following is a datum from a
9. quantitative study of the labor and delivery
experiences of women over age 40?
Length of time in labor
107 oz
“I practically slept through the whole thing!”
Vaginal versus cesarean delivery
B
Feedback:
Research data (singular, datum) are the pieces
of information gathered in a study. In
quantitative studies, researchers identify and
define their variables, and then collect
relevant data from subjects. The actual values
of the study variables constitute the data.
Quantitative researchers collect primarily
quantitative data—information in numeric
form. In this question it is 107 oz. Length of
time in labor, “I practically slept through the
whole thing,” and vaginal versus cesarean
delivery are not documented as numeric
values in this example.
Which of the following is a datum from a
10. qualitative research study on the labor and
delivery experiences of women over age 40?
14.6 hours in labor
60-minute interviews one day after delivery
"It was a nightmare—much more painful than
I ever imagined."
15 women with a vaginal delivery
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is a datum from a
10. qualitative research study on the labor and
delivery experiences of women over age 40?
14.6 hours in labor
60-minute interviews one day after delivery
"It was a nightmare—much more painful than
I ever imagined."
15 women with a vaginal delivery
C
Feedback:
Quantitative researchers collect primarily
quantitative data—information in numeric
form. 14.6 hours in labor, 60 minute
interviews one day after delivery, and 15
women with a vaginal delivery are examples
of quantitative data. In qualitative studies,
researchers collect primarily qualitative data,
that is, narrative descriptions. Narrative data
can be obtained by conversing with
participants, by making notes about their
behavior in naturalistic settings, or by
obtaining narrative records, such as diaries.
“It was a nightmare – much more painful than
I ever imagined,” is an example of datum
from a qualitative research study.
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In quantitative studies, the most basic
distinction is between which of the following?
Grounded theory and phenomenological
research
Empirical and nonempirical research
Experimental and nonexperimental research
Population-based and sample-based research
C
Feedback:
A key distinction in quantitative studies is
between experimental research, in which
researchers actively intervene to test an
intervention or therapy, and nonexperimental
(or observational) research, in which
researchers make observations of existing
phenomena without intervening. Grounded
theory seeks to describe and understand key
social psychological processes that occur in a
social setting. Phenomenology focuses on the
lived experiences of humans and is an
approach to gaining insight into what the life
experiences of people are like and what they
mean. In quantitative research, the empirical
phase involves collecting data; and preparing
data for analysis (e.g., coding data).
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Empirical and nonempirical research
Experimental and nonexperimental research
Population-based and sample-based research
C
Feedback:
A key distinction in quantitative studies is
between experimental research, in which
researchers actively intervene to test an
intervention or therapy, and nonexperimental
(or observational) research, in which
researchers make observations of existing
phenomena without intervening. Grounded
theory seeks to describe and understand key
social psychological processes that occur in a
social setting. Phenomenology focuses on the
lived experiences of humans and is an
approach to gaining insight into what the life
experiences of people are like and what they
mean. In quantitative research, the empirical
phase involves collecting data; and preparing
data for analysis (e.g., coding data).
Population-based and sample-based research
are examples of types of research studies.
Which of the following is the least likely
12. research tradition to be used by qualitative
nurse researchers?
Experimental
Phenomenologic
Ethnographic
Grounded theory
A
Feedback:
Qualitative research often is rooted in
research traditions that originate in other
disciplines. Three such traditions are
grounded theory, phenomenology, and
ethnography.
Grounded theory seeks to describe and
understand key social psychological processes
that occur in a social setting. Phenomenology
focuses on the lived experiences of humans
and is an approach to gaining insight into
what the life experiences of people are like
and what they mean.
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. A key
distinction in quantitative studies is between
experimental research, in which researchers
actively intervene to test an intervention or
therapy, and nonexperimental (or
observational) research, in which researchers
make observations of existing phenomena
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Phenomenologic
Ethnographic
Grounded theory
A
Feedback:
Qualitative research often is rooted in
research traditions that originate in other
disciplines. Three such traditions are
grounded theory, phenomenology, and
ethnography.
Grounded theory seeks to describe and
understand key social psychological processes
that occur in a social setting. Phenomenology
focuses on the lived experiences of humans
and is an approach to gaining insight into
what the life experiences of people are like
and what they mean.
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. A key
distinction in quantitative studies is between
experimental research, in which researchers
actively intervene to test an intervention or
therapy, and nonexperimental (or
observational) research, in which researchers
make observations of existing phenomena
without intervening.
The research tradition that focuses on
13. understanding phenomena within a cultural
context is which of the following?
Experimental
Phenomenologic
Ethnographic
Grounded theory
C
Feedback:
Qualitative research often is rooted in
research traditions that originate in other
disciplines. Three such traditions are
grounded theory, phenomenology, and
ethnography.
Grounded theory seeks to describe and
understand key social psychological processes
that occur in a social setting. Phenomenology
focuses on the lived experiences of humans
and is an approach to gaining insight into
what the life experiences of people are like
and what they mean.
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. A key
distinction in quantitative studies is between
experimental research, in which researchers
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Phenomenologic
Ethnographic
Grounded theory
C
Feedback:
Qualitative research often is rooted in
research traditions that originate in other
disciplines. Three such traditions are
grounded theory, phenomenology, and
ethnography.
Grounded theory seeks to describe and
understand key social psychological processes
that occur in a social setting. Phenomenology
focuses on the lived experiences of humans
and is an approach to gaining insight into
what the life experiences of people are like
and what they mean.
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. A key
distinction in quantitative studies is between
experimental research, in which researchers
actively intervene to test an intervention or
therapy, and nonexperimental (or
observational) research, in which researchers
make observations of existing phenomena
without intervening.
The research tradition that is an approach to
14. understanding people's experiences as they
are lived is which of the following?
Experimental
Phenomenologic
Ethnographic
Grounded theory
B
Feedback:
Qualitative research often is rooted in
research traditions that originate in other
disciplines. Three such traditions are
grounded theory, phenomenology, and
ethnography.
Grounded theory seeks to describe and
understand key social psychological processes
that occur in a social setting. Phenomenology
focuses on the lived experiences of humans
and is an approach to gaining insight into
what the life experiences of people are like
and what they mean.
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. A key
distinction in quantitative studies is between
experimental research, in which researchers
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Phenomenologic
Ethnographic
Grounded theory
B
Feedback:
Qualitative research often is rooted in
research traditions that originate in other
disciplines. Three such traditions are
grounded theory, phenomenology, and
ethnography.
Grounded theory seeks to describe and
understand key social psychological processes
that occur in a social setting. Phenomenology
focuses on the lived experiences of humans
and is an approach to gaining insight into
what the life experiences of people are like
and what they mean.
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. A key
distinction in quantitative studies is between
experimental research, in which researchers
actively intervene to test an intervention or
therapy, and nonexperimental (or
observational) research, in which researchers
make observations of existing phenomena
without intervening.
A researcher's expectations about the
relationships between variables in a
15.
quantitative study are generally formulated as
which of the following?
Hypotheses
Frameworks
Research questions
Conceptual definitions
A
Feedback:
Hypotheses state researchers' deductively
derived expectations about relationships
between study variables. To answer research
questions and test hypotheses, researchers
analyze their data in an orderly fashion. When
quantitative research is performed within the
context of a theoretical framework, the
findings may have broader significance and
utility. Even when the research question is not
embedded in a theory, researchers should
have a conceptual definition rationale and a
clear vision of the concepts under study.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Frameworks
Research questions
Conceptual definitions
A
Feedback:
Hypotheses state researchers' deductively
derived expectations about relationships
between study variables. To answer research
questions and test hypotheses, researchers
analyze their data in an orderly fashion. When
quantitative research is performed within the
context of a theoretical framework, the
findings may have broader significance and
utility. Even when the research question is not
embedded in a theory, researchers should
have a conceptual definition rationale and a
clear vision of the concepts under study.
The overall plan for answering a research
16. question—the architectural backbone of a
study—is called which of the following?
Sampling plan
Proposal
Hypothesis
Research design
D
Feedback:
The research design is the overall plan for
obtaining answers to the research questions
and for handling challenges that can
undermine the study evidence. The
researcher's sampling plan specifies how the
sample will be selected and how many
subjects there will be. Researchers seeking
financial support submit a proposal to a
funding source, and reviewers usually suggest
improvements. Hypotheses state researchers'
deductively derived expectations about
relationships between study variables.
The aggregate of those to whom a researcher
17. wishes to generalize study results is which of
the following?
Gatekeepers
Population
Sample
Sampling plan
B
Feedback:
A population is all the individuals or objects
with common, defining characteristics (the
“P” component in PICO questions). Gaining
the following?
Gatekeepers
Population
Sample
Sampling plan
B
Feedback:
A population is all the individuals or objects
with common, defining characteristics (the
“P” component in PICO questions). Gaining
entrée to a research site for a particular
population typically involves negotiations
with gatekeepers who have the authority to
permit entry into their world. Researchers
typically collect data from a sample, which is
a subset of the population. Using samples is
more practical than collecting data from an
entire population, but the risk is that the
sample might not adequately reflect the
population's traits. The researcher's sampling
plan specifies how the sample will be selected
and how many subjects there will be.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Gaining entrée in a qualitative project usually
18. requires negotiation with one or more of
which of the following?
Gatekeeper
Researcher
Informant
Consultant
A
Feedback:
Gaining entrée typically involves negotiations
with gatekeepers who have the authority to
permit entry into their world. Researchers are
the ones who conduct the research study. The
people who provide information to the
researchers in a study are referred to as
subjects or study participants in quantitative
research, or study participants or informants
in qualitative research; collectively they
comprise the sample. A consultant would be
an expert in some field who would provide
guidance for some aspect of the study.
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Research design in qualitative studies is often
described as:
Experimental
Narrative
Interpretive
Emergent
D
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Research design in qualitative studies is often
described as:
Experimental
Narrative
Interpretive
Emergent
D
Feedback:
The flow of activities in a qualitative study is
more flexible and less linear. Qualitative
studies typically involve an emergent design
that evolves during data collection. A key
distinction in quantitative studies is between
experimental research, in which researchers
actively intervene to test an intervention or
therapy. Narrative data can be obtained by
conversing with participants, by making notes
about their behavior in naturalistic settings, or
by obtaining narrative records, such as
diaries. There is no interpretive research
design in qualitative studies.
At what point does a qualitative researcher
20. typically make a lot of decisions about data
collection and sampling?
While reviewing the literature
During the development of a research report
While the study is in progress in the field
After developing an intervention protocol
C
Feedback:
In qualitative studies, the tasks of sampling,
data collection, data analysis, and
interpretation typically take place repeatedly
while the study is in progress. Qualitative
researchers begin by talking with or observing
people with first-hand experience with the
phenomenon under study. The discussions and
observations are loosely structured, allowing
participants to express a full range of beliefs,
feelings, and behaviors. Analysis and
interpretation are ongoing, concurrent
activities that guide choices about the kinds of
people to question next and the types of
question to ask or observations to make.
Reviewing the literature, developing a
research report, and developing an
intervention protocol are steps in quantitative
research.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
During the development of a research report
While the study is in progress in the field
After developing an intervention protocol
C
Feedback:
In qualitative studies, the tasks of sampling,
data collection, data analysis, and
interpretation typically take place repeatedly
while the study is in progress. Qualitative
researchers begin by talking with or observing
people with first-hand experience with the
phenomenon under study. The discussions and
observations are loosely structured, allowing
participants to express a full range of beliefs,
feelings, and behaviors. Analysis and
interpretation are ongoing, concurrent
activities that guide choices about the kinds of
people to question next and the types of
question to ask or observations to make.
Reviewing the literature, developing a
research report, and developing an
intervention protocol are steps in quantitative
research.
In a qualitative study, the people cooperating
21. in the study are called which of the
following?
Subjects
Investigators
Researchers
Informants
D
Feedback:
In a qualitative study, the people cooperating
in the study are called study participants or
informants. In a quantitative study, the people
being studied are called subjects or study
participants. The person who conducts the
research is the researcher or investigator.
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In qualitative research, theory is which of the
following?
A method to test hypotheses
A tool to direct the research project
A product of the research
A way to test relationships between two
different groups
C
Feedback:
A theory is an explanation of some aspect of
the study. In qualitative studies, theory often
is the product of the research. It is not used to
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A method to test hypotheses
A tool to direct the research project
A product of the research
A way to test relationships between two
different groups
C
Feedback:
A theory is an explanation of some aspect of
the study. In qualitative studies, theory often
is the product of the research. It is not used to
test hypotheses, to direct the research project,
or to test relationships between two different
groups.
The dependent variable in the research
question, “Is the quality of life of nursing
23. home residents affected by their functional
ability or hearing acuity?” is which of the
following?
Quality of life
Functional ability
Hearing acuity
Residence in a nursing home
A
Feedback:
The presumed cause is the independent
variable and the presumed effect is the
dependent or outcome variable. Variation in
the dependent variable is presumed to depend
on variation in the independent variable. In
this case, the presumed causes are functional
ability or hearing acuity. The presumed effect
is quality of life, which is thus the dependent
variable. Residence in a nursing home is not
the effect.
The independent variable in the research
question, “What is the effect of noise levels
24.
on postoperative pain in ICU patients?” is
which of the following?
Surgery
ICU patients
Noise levels
Postoperative pain
C
Feedback:
The presumed cause is the independent
variable and the presumed effect is the
dependent or outcome variable. Variation in
the dependent variable is presumed to depend
on variation in the independent variable. In
this case, the presumed cause is noise levels,
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
ICU patients
Noise levels
Postoperative pain
C
Feedback:
The presumed cause is the independent
variable and the presumed effect is the
dependent or outcome variable. Variation in
the dependent variable is presumed to depend
on variation in the independent variable. In
this case, the presumed cause is noise levels,
which is thus the independent variable.
Postoperative pain is the presumed effect, and
thus the dependent variable. Neither surgery
nor ICU patients are the independent variable.
The purpose of an operational definition in a
25. quantitative study is to do which of the
following?
Assign numeric values to variables
Specify how a variable will be measured
State the expected relationship between the
variables under investigation
Designate the conceptual underpinnings of a
variable
B
Feedback:
An operational definition indicates what the
researchers specifically must do to measure
the concept and collect needed information.
The operational definition does not assign
numeric values to variables, state the expected
relationship between the variable under
investigation, or designate the conceptual
underpinnings of a variable.
A researcher conceptualizes pain as “the
subject's statement of intensity of pain.” What
26.
operational definition is consistent with this
conceptualization?
Measurement of subject's pulse and blood
pressure
Nurse's observation of subject's pain behavior
Subject's score on self-reported pain rating
scale
Frequency of subject's use of pain medication
C
Feedback:
An operational definition indicates what the
researchers specifically must do to measure
the concept and collect needed information.
This conceptualization could be measured by
B)
Nurse's observation of subject's pain behavior
Subject's score on self-reported pain rating
scale
Frequency of subject's use of pain medication
C
Feedback:
An operational definition indicates what the
researchers specifically must do to measure
the concept and collect needed information.
This conceptualization could be measured by
the subject's score on self-reported pain rating
scale.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
For which of the following pairs of variables
27. is there most likely to be a relationship that
could be described as causal?
Degree of physical activity and heart rate
Stress and coping style
Age and health beliefs
Gender and depression
A
Feedback:
A clear causal relationship exists between
degree of physical activity and heart rate.
Heart rate typically increases with physical
activity. A causal relationship between the
other paired variables is less likely.
28.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In quantitative studies a basic distinction is
between which of the following?
Grounded theory and phenomenological
research
Empirical and nonempirical research
Experimental and nonexperimental research
Population-based and sample-based research
C
Feedback:
A basic distinction in quantitative studies is
the difference between experimental and
nonexperimental research. In experimental
research, researchers actively introduce an
intervention or treatment, most often to
address therapy questions. In nonexperimental
research, researchers are bystanders; they
collect data without introducing treatments or
making changes. Grounded theory and
phenomenological research are types of
qualitative, not quantitative, research. The
empirical phase is the third phase of
quantitative studies. Identifying the
population of a study and determining the
study sample (a subset of the population) are
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Empirical and nonempirical research
Experimental and nonexperimental research
Population-based and sample-based research
C
Feedback:
A basic distinction in quantitative studies is
the difference between experimental and
nonexperimental research. In experimental
research, researchers actively introduce an
intervention or treatment, most often to
address therapy questions. In nonexperimental
research, researchers are bystanders; they
collect data without introducing treatments or
making changes. Grounded theory and
phenomenological research are types of
qualitative, not quantitative, research. The
empirical phase is the third phase of
quantitative studies. Identifying the
population of a study and determining the
study sample (a subset of the population) are
steps in carrying out a quantitative studies.
29.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
30.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is true of an
experimental study? Select all that apply.
It includes an intervention or treatment.
It is a type of qualitative research.
It can be called a clinical trial.
It tests causal relationships.
A, C, D
Feedback:
Experimental studies are a type of
quantitative, not qualitative, research.
Experimental studies include an intervention
or treatment, can be called a clinical trial, and
test causal relationships.
The conceptual phase of the research process
involves which of the following activities?
Formulating the problem and reviewing the
related literature
Selecting an appropriate research design for
the study
Finalizing and reviewing the research plan
Interpreting the results of data analysis of key
variables
A
Feedback:
The conceptual phase (Phase 1) of the
research process involves formulating the
problem and reviewing the related literature,
among other things. Selecting an appropriate
research design for the study and finalizing
C)
Finalizing and reviewing the research plan
Interpreting the results of data analysis of key
variables
A
Feedback:
The conceptual phase (Phase 1) of the
research process involves formulating the
problem and reviewing the related literature,
among other things. Selecting an appropriate
research design for the study and finalizing
and reviewing the research plan are steps in
Phase 2, the design and planning phase.
Interpreting the results is a step in Phase 4,
the analytic phase.
D)
Ans:
31.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
32.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The purpose of ethnographic research is to do
which of the following?
Study situations to aid in theory development
Describe experiences as they are lived
Observe and document interactions within a
culture
Examine events of the past
C
Feedback:
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. It does not
study situations to aid in theory development,
nor describe experiences as they are lived
(phenomenology). It does not examine events
of the past.
In qualitative research, saturation indicates
which of the following?
There are too many subjects
Themes in the data are repeating
Too many variables are included in a study
The quality of the data is excellent
B
Feedback:
Many qualitative researchers use the principle
of saturation, which occurs when themes and
categories in the data become repetitive and
redundant, such that no new information can
be gleaned by further data collection.
Saturation does not indicate that there are too
many subjects or too many variables or that
the quality of the data is excellent.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Themes in the data are repeating
Too many variables are included in a study
The quality of the data is excellent
B
Feedback:
Many qualitative researchers use the principle
of saturation, which occurs when themes and
categories in the data become repetitive and
redundant, such that no new information can
be gleaned by further data collection.
Saturation does not indicate that there are too
many subjects or too many variables or that
the quality of the data is excellent.
33.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Putting evidence into practice is in which
phase of the quantitative research process?
Dissemination
Analytic
Empirical
Conceptual
A
Feedback:
Dissemination is Phase 5 of a quantitative
research study, in which research evidence is
put into practice. The other answers refer to
earlier phases of a quantitative research study.
CHU
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Nurses are most likely to encounter research
1. results in which of the following? Select all
that apply.
Poster sessions
Journal articles
Textbooks
Dissertations
A, B
Feedback:
Nurses are most likely to encounter research
evidence in journals or at professional
conferences. Research journal articles are
descriptions of studies published in
professional journals. At conferences,
research findings are presented as oral
presentations or poster sessions. A textbook is
not a primary source for research results, but
rather an overview of established knowledge
in a field. Dissertation is defense of research
that has been conducted.
When a research report undergoes a “blind”
2. review for a journal, it means which of the
following?
The journal editors do not know who
submitted the report.
The authors of the report do not know who
the editor of the journal is.
The report is published without indicating the
authors' names.
The reviewers making recommendations
about publication are not told who the authors
are.
D
Feedback:
Usually, manuscripts are reviewed by two or
more peer reviewers (other researchers) who
make recommendations about whether to
accept or reject the manuscript, or to suggest
revisions. Reviews are usually “blind”—
reviewers are not told researchers' names, and
authors are not told reviewers' names. As a
result of peer review, consumers have some
assurance that journal articles have been
critiqued by other nurse researchers.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The reviewers making recommendations
about publication are not told who the authors
are.
D
Feedback:
Usually, manuscripts are reviewed by two or
more peer reviewers (other researchers) who
make recommendations about whether to
accept or reject the manuscript, or to suggest
revisions. Reviews are usually “blind”—
reviewers are not told researchers' names, and
authors are not told reviewers' names. As a
result of peer review, consumers have some
assurance that journal articles have been
critiqued by other nurse researchers.
In a quantitative research article, a review of
3. prior research on the problem under study is
most likely to be found in which section?
Introduction
Method section
Results section
Discussion
A
Feedback:
The introduction to a research article
acquaints readers with the research problem
and its context. The method section describes
the methods used to answer the research
questions. The results section presents the
findings that were obtained by analyzing the
study data. The text presents a narrative
summary of key findings, often accompanied
by more detailed tables. In the discussion, the
researcher presents conclusions about the
meaning and implications of the findings, i.e.,
what the results mean, why things turned out
the way they did, how the findings fit with
other evidence, and how the results can be
used in practice.
In which section would the following
sentence most likely appear: “The study
4.
sample consisted of 135 mother-infant dyads
from an inner-city neighborhood”?
Introduction
Method section
Results section
Discussion
B
Feedback:
The method section describes the methods
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
sentence most likely appear: “The study
sample consisted of 135 mother-infant dyads
from an inner-city neighborhood”?
Introduction
Method section
Results section
Discussion
B
Feedback:
The method section describes the methods
used to answer the research questions
including the sampling plan. The introduction
to a research article acquaints readers with the
research problem and its context. The results
section presents the findings that were
obtained by analyzing the study data. The text
presents a narrative summary of key findings,
often accompanied by more detailed tables. In
the discussion, the researcher presents
conclusions about the meaning and
implications of the findings, i.e., what the
results mean, why things turned out the way
they did, how the findings fit with other
evidence, and how the results can be used in
practice.
In which section would the following
sentence most likely appear: “The results may
5.
have been influenced by the patients' desire to
please the researchers and the hospital staff”?
Introduction
Method section
Results section
Discussion
D
Feedback:
In the discussion, the researcher presents
conclusions about the meaning and
implications of the findings, i.e., what the
results mean, why things turned out the way
they did, how the findings fit with other
evidence, and how the results can be used in
practice. The method section describes the
methods used to answer the research
questions including the sampling plan. The
introduction to a research article acquaints
readers with the research problem and its
context. The results section presents the
findings that were obtained by analyzing the
study data. The text presents a narrative
summary of key findings, often accompanied
by more detailed tables.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Method section
Results section
Discussion
D
Feedback:
In the discussion, the researcher presents
conclusions about the meaning and
implications of the findings, i.e., what the
results mean, why things turned out the way
they did, how the findings fit with other
evidence, and how the results can be used in
practice. The method section describes the
methods used to answer the research
questions including the sampling plan. The
introduction to a research article acquaints
readers with the research problem and its
context. The results section presents the
findings that were obtained by analyzing the
study data. The text presents a narrative
summary of key findings, often accompanied
by more detailed tables.
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
When a finding is statistically reliable, it
means which of the following?
The finding is very important
The same results are likely to occur with a
new sample of subjects
The researcher's hypothesis is correct
Changes in nursing procedures are needed
B
Feedback:
Statistical reliability refers to the probability
that the same results would be obtained with a
new sample of subjects—that is, that the
results are an accurate reflection of a wider
group than just the particular people who
participated in the study. It does not
necessarily mean that the finding is very
important, that the researcher's hypothesis is
correct, or that changes in nursing procedures
are needed.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In which section of a research report would
the following sentence most likely appear:
“Patients who coughed were significantly
7.
more likely to have spontaneous dislodgement
of small-bore nasogastric tubes than patients
who did not”?
Introduction
Method section
Results section
Discussion
C
Feedback:
The results section presents the findings that
were obtained by analyzing the study data.
The method section describes the methods
used to answer the research questions
including the sampling plan. The introduction
to a research article acquaints readers with the
research problem and its context. The text
presents a narrative summary of key findings,
often accompanied by more detailed tables. In
the discussion, the researcher presents
conclusions about the meaning and
implications of the findings, i.e., what the
results mean, why things turned out the way
they did, how the findings fit with other
evidence, and how the results can be used in
practice.
In a qualitative research article, the thematic
8. analysis of the data would be presented in
which section?
Introduction
Method section
Results section
Discussion section
C
Feedback:
In qualitative reports, researchers often
organize findings according to the major
themes, processes, or categories that were
identified in the data. The results section of
qualitative reports sometimes has several
subsections, the headings of which
correspond to the researcher's labels for the
themes. The introduction to a research article
acquaints readers with the research problem
and its context. The text presents a narrative
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Method section
Results section
Discussion section
C
Feedback:
In qualitative reports, researchers often
organize findings according to the major
themes, processes, or categories that were
identified in the data. The results section of
qualitative reports sometimes has several
subsections, the headings of which
correspond to the researcher's labels for the
themes. The introduction to a research article
acquaints readers with the research problem
and its context. The text presents a narrative
summary of key findings, often accompanied
by more detailed tables. In the discussion, the
researcher presents conclusions about the
meaning and implications of the findings, i.e.,
what the results mean, why things turned out
the way they did, how the findings fit with
other evidence, and how the results can be
used in practice.
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In a research report, limitations of the study
are normally discussed in which section?
Introduction
Method section
Results section
Discussion section
D
Feedback:
A discussion section that presents the
researcher's grasp of study limitations
demonstrates to readers that the authors were
aware of the limitations and probably took
them into account in interpreting the findings.
The introduction to a research article
acquaints readers with the research problem
and its context. The method section describes
the methods used to answer the research
questions including the sampling plan. The
results section presents the findings that were
obtained by analyzing the study data. The text
presents a narrative summary of key findings,
often accompanied by more detailed tables.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The criterion used by quantitative researchers
10. involving the soundness of the evidence is
which of the following?
Reliability
Validity
Credibility
Generalizability
B
Feedback:
Validity is a more complex concept that
broadly concerns the soundness of the study's
evidence—that is, whether the findings are
cogent, convincing, and well grounded.
Reliability (a key challenge in quantitative
research) refers to the accuracy and
consistency of information obtained in a
study. Credibility is achieved to the extent
that the methods engender confidence in the
truth of the data and in the researchers'
interpretations. Generalizability in a
quantitative study concerns the extent to
which the findings can be applied to other
groups and settings.
Which of the following is an aspect of
11. trustworthiness used in evaluating the strength
of evidence in a qualitative study?
Triangulation
Reflexivity
Reliability
Credibility
D
Feedback:
Credibility is achieved to the extent that the
methods engender confidence in the truth of
the data and in the researchers' interpretations.
Triangulation, the use of multiple sources or
referents to draw conclusions about what
constitutes the truth, is one approach to
enhancing credibility. Reliability (a key
challenge in quantitative research) refers to
the accuracy and consistency of information
obtained in a study. Reflexivity, the process of
reflecting critically on the self and of
scrutinizing personal values that could affect
data collection and interpretation, is an
important tool in qualitative research.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Reflexivity
Reliability
Credibility
D
Feedback:
Credibility is achieved to the extent that the
methods engender confidence in the truth of
the data and in the researchers' interpretations.
Triangulation, the use of multiple sources or
referents to draw conclusions about what
constitutes the truth, is one approach to
enhancing credibility. Reliability (a key
challenge in quantitative research) refers to
the accuracy and consistency of information
obtained in a study. Reflexivity, the process of
reflecting critically on the self and of
scrutinizing personal values that could affect
data collection and interpretation, is an
important tool in qualitative research.
A nurse researcher compared men's and
women's level of stress following cardiac
surgery and made sure that both groups were
12.
comparable with regard to length of stay in
hospital. Length of stay in hospital is which of
the following?
Independent variable
Dependent variable
Mediating variable
Confounding variable
D
Feedback:
Researchers seek to control confounding (or
extraneous) variables—variables that are
extraneous to the purpose of a specific study
but that might contaminate the results because
they may be the actual cause or influence on
the dependent variable. In this case, length of
stay in the hospital may be the actual cause
or at least one cause of the level of stress,
instead of the cardiac surgery. The dependent
variable is the behavior, characteristic, or
outcome the researcher is interested in
explaining, predicting, or affecting, which in
this case is level of stress. The independent
variable is the presumed cause of or influence
on the dependent variable, which is cardiac
surgery, in this case. The independent variable
corresponds to the “I” and the “C”
components in the PICO scheme. A mediating
variable is a factor through which another
factor has an effect on a dependent variable.
In this case, for example, the effect of cardiac
surgery on stress is mediated by length of
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Dependent variable
Mediating variable
Confounding variable
D
Feedback:
Researchers seek to control confounding (or
extraneous) variables—variables that are
extraneous to the purpose of a specific study
but that might contaminate the results because
they may be the actual cause or influence on
the dependent variable. In this case, length of
stay in the hospital may be the actual cause
or at least one cause of the level of stress,
instead of the cardiac surgery. The dependent
variable is the behavior, characteristic, or
outcome the researcher is interested in
explaining, predicting, or affecting, which in
this case is level of stress. The independent
variable is the presumed cause of or influence
on the dependent variable, which is cardiac
surgery, in this case. The independent variable
corresponds to the “I” and the “C”
components in the PICO scheme. A mediating
variable is a factor through which another
factor has an effect on a dependent variable.
In this case, for example, the effect of cardiac
surgery on stress is mediated by length of
stay, making length of stay the mediating
factor.
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In which section of the research report might
the research problem be stated?
Abstract
Introduction
Methods section
Results section
B
Feedback:
An abstract is a synopsis of the study. The
introduction states the research problem and
its context. The methods section lists the
strategies used to answer the research
question. The results show the study findings.
Key variables and the population of the study
14. are most likely to be communicated in which
of the following?
Title
Abstract
Introduction
Methods
A
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Key variables and the population of the study
14. are most likely to be communicated in which
of the following?
Title
Abstract
Introduction
Methods
A
Feedback:
In quantitative studies, the title communicates
key variables and the population (in other
words, PICO components). An abstract is a
synopsis of the study. The introduction states
the research problem and its context. The
methods section lists the strategies used to
answer the research question.
Questions such as “What were the research
questions?” and “What were the findings?”
15. and “What methods were used to address
those questions?” can all be answered in
which of the following sections?
Discussion
Abstract
Introduction
Results
B
Feedback:
The abstract is the one place in the article
where most if not all of the “what” questions
can be answered. Although other sections can
answer some of these questions, only the
abstract, which is a synopsis of the study as a
whole, can address most or all of them. The
introduction states the research problem and
its context. The results show the study
findings. The discussion is the part of the
research study that interprets the findings.
The discussion of the central phenomena or
variables of a study, along with the theoretical
16.
or conceptual framework of the study, is
found in which section of the study?
Discussion
Abstract
Introduction
Results
C
Feedback:
The discussion of the central phenomena or
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The statement “the results of this study are
17. statistically significant” means which of the
following regarding the findings?
Passed a Chi test
Are clinically important
Are the strength of the study
Are probably true and replicable
D
Feedback:
The statement “the results of this study are
statistically significant” means that the
findings are probably true and replicable.
Findings that are statistically significant have
a high probability of being “real.” Statistically
significant does not mean that the study
findings passed a Chi test, are clinically
important, or are the strength of the study.
18.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
variables of a study, along with the theoretical
or conceptual framework of the study, is
found in which section of the study?
Discussion
Abstract
Introduction
Results
C
Feedback:
The discussion of the central phenomena or
variable of a study, along with the theoretical
or conceptual framework of the study, is
found in the introduction. The discussion
section interprets the study findings. An
abstract is a synopsis of the study. The
introduction states the research problem and
its context. The results show the study
findings.
The level of significance of the findings in a
research study can be found in which section?
Discussion
Introduction
Methods
Results
D
Feedback:
The results show the level of significance of
the study findings. The introduction states the
research problem and its context. The
discussion section interprets the study
findings. An abstract is a synopsis of the
study. The introduction states the research
problem and its context. The methods sections
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Introduction
Methods
Results
D
Feedback:
The results show the level of significance of
the study findings. The introduction states the
research problem and its context. The
discussion section interprets the study
findings. An abstract is a synopsis of the
study. The introduction states the research
problem and its context. The methods sections
consists of strategies used to answer research
questions.
An objective assessment of a research study's
19. strengths and limitations is called which of
the following?
Evidenced-based practice
Peer review process
Research critique
Literature review
C
Feedback:
The research critique is an objective
assessment of a research study's strengths and
limitations. Assessment of strengths and
weaknesses is not called evidence-based
practice, peer review process, or a literature
review.
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A conclusion drawn from evidence presented
in a study is called which of the following?
Statistically significant
Valid
Inference
Credible
C
Feedback:
An inference is a conclusion drawn from
evidence presented in the research study.
Statistically significant means that the study
has a high probability of being “real.” Validity
is the soundness of the study. Credibility is
achieved to the extent that the methods
engender confidence in the truth of the data
and in the researchers' interpretation.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Research findings that are organized by
21. categories or labels can be found in which
type of study?
Clinical trial
Qualitative
Quantitative
Quasi-Experimental
B
Feedback:
Research findings that are organized by
categories or labels can be found in
qualitative research studies. They are not
found in clinical trials or in quantitative or
quasi-experimental research studies.
The presentation of the study's conclusions
22. and implications for further study are found in
which section?
Discussion
Introduction
Methods
Results
A
Feedback:
The discussion section interprets the study
findings, draws conclusions, and states
implications for further study. The results
show the level of significance of the study
findings. The introduction states the research
problem and its context. An abstract is a
synopsis of the study. The introduction states
the research problem and its context. The
methods sections consists of strategies used to
answer research questions.
The accuracy and consistency of information
23. that is obtained from a study is which of the
following?
Credibility
Reliability
Validity
Trustworthiness
B
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The accuracy and consistency of information
23. that is obtained from a study is which of the
following?
Credibility
Reliability
Validity
Trustworthiness
B
Feedback:
The accuracy and consistency of information
that is obtained from a study is its reliability.
Validity is the soundness of the study.
Credibility is achieved to the extent that the
methods engender confidence in the truth of
the data and in the researchers' interpretation.
Trustworthiness in qualitative research
encompasses several difference dimensions,
including credibility, dependability,
confirmability, transferability, and
authenticity.
The soundness of the evidence collected and
24. the relationship between the variables is
known as which of the following?
Credibility
Reliability
Validity
Trustworthiness
C
Feedback:
Validity is the soundness of the study the
quality of evidence about the relationship
between the independent variable and the
dependent variable. The accuracy and
consistency of information that is obtained
from a study is its reliability. Credibility is
achieved to the extent that the methods
engender confidence in the truth of the data
and in the researchers' interpretation.
Trustworthiness in qualitative research
encompasses several difference dimensions,
including credibility, dependability,
confirmability, transferability, and
authenticity.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The use of multiple data collection methods to
25. draw conclusions about the area being studied
is called which of the following?
Bias
Statistical test
Research control
Triangulation
D
Feedback:
Triangulation is the use of multiple sources or
referents to draw conclusions about what
constitutes the truth. A bias is an influence
that results in an error in an inference or
estimate. Researchers use statistical tests to
test their hypotheses and assess the
probability that the results are accurate.
Research control usually involves holding
constant influences on the outcome variable
so that the true relationship between the
independent and outcome variables can be
understood.
CHS
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Based on what we know from this chapter, the
1. Tuskegee Syphilis Study violated which of
the following? Select all that apply.
Freedom from harm
Right to self-determination
Right to fair treatment
Privacy rule
A, B, C
Feedback:
The Tuskegee Syphilis Study, sponsored by
the U.S. Public Health Service, investigated
the effects of syphilis among 400 poor
African-American men. Medical treatment
was deliberately withheld to study the course
of the untreated disease and violated the
ethical principles of freedom from harm, right
to self-determination, and the right to fair
treatment. The Privacy Rule refers to the
Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act of 1996, which articulates
federal standards to protect patients' medical
records and health information.
The regulations affecting the ethical conduct
of research sponsored by the U.S. federal
2.
government were based on which of the
following?
Nuremberg Code
Declaration of Helsinki
Belmont Report
Code of Ethics of the American Nurses
Association
C
Feedback:
In the United States, an important code of
ethics was adopted by the National
Commission for the Protection of Human
Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral
Research. The commission issued a report in
1978, known as the Belmont Report, which
provided a model for many guidelines
adopted by disciplinary organizations in the
United States. The Belmont Report also
served as the basis for regulations affecting
research sponsored by the U.S. government.
The Nuremberg Code was developed in
response to the Nazi atrocities. Several other
international standards have subsequently
C)
Belmont Report
Code of Ethics of the American Nurses
Association
C
Feedback:
In the United States, an important code of
ethics was adopted by the National
Commission for the Protection of Human
Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral
Research. The commission issued a report in
1978, known as the Belmont Report, which
provided a model for many guidelines
adopted by disciplinary organizations in the
United States. The Belmont Report also
served as the basis for regulations affecting
research sponsored by the U.S. government.
The Nuremberg Code was developed in
response to the Nazi atrocities. Several other
international standards have subsequently
been developed, including the Declaration of
Helsinki. ANA (2001) published a revised
Code of Ethics for Nurses with Interpretive
Statements, a document that covers ethical
issues for practicing nurses primarily but also
includes principles that apply to nurse
researchers.
D)
Ans:
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Debriefing sessions are which of the
following?
Discussions with prospective participants to
obtain informed consent
Discussions with participants after a study to
explain various aspects of the study and
provide a forum for questioning
Discussions with a human subjects committee
before a study to obtain permission to proceed
Recruitment discussions with prospective
participants
B
Feedback:
Debriefing sessions following data collection
so that participants can ask questions or air
complaints. Respect for human dignity
involves the participants' right to selfdetermination, which includes participants'
right to participate in a study voluntarily.
Informed consent procedures, which provide
prospective participants with information
needed to make a reasoned decision about
participation, normally involve signing a
consent form to document voluntary and
informed participation. Another method of
protecting research subjects involves external
review of the ethical aspects of a study by a
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
before a study to obtain permission to proceed
Recruitment discussions with prospective
participants
B
Feedback:
Debriefing sessions following data collection
so that participants can ask questions or air
complaints. Respect for human dignity
involves the participants' right to selfdetermination, which includes participants'
right to participate in a study voluntarily.
Informed consent procedures, which provide
prospective participants with information
needed to make a reasoned decision about
participation, normally involve signing a
consent form to document voluntary and
informed participation. Another method of
protecting research subjects involves external
review of the ethical aspects of a study by a
human subjects committee or Institutional
Review Board (IRB).
Which of the following are potential benefits
4. from participating in a study? Select all that
apply.
Monetary gains
Access to a new and potentially beneficial
treatment
Opportunity to discuss personal feelings and
experiences with an objective listener
Opportunity to help determine the research
question that the study is based on
A, B, C
Feedback:
One strategy that researchers use to protect
participants is to conduct a risk/benefit
assessment. Such an assessment is designed
to evaluate whether the benefits of
participating in a study are in line with the
costs, be they financial, physical, emotional,
or social—i.e., whether the risk/benefit ratio
is acceptable. Major potential benefits to
participants include access to a potentially
beneficial intervention, opportunity to discuss
a problem with an objective person, increased
knowledge about self or conditions, escape
from normal routine, satisfaction in helping
others by information gained through study,
and direct monetary or material gains. Study
participants are not given the opportunity to
help determine the research question for the
study; that is done by the researchers.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
experiences with an objective listener
Opportunity to help determine the research
question that the study is based on
A, B, C
Feedback:
One strategy that researchers use to protect
participants is to conduct a risk/benefit
assessment. Such an assessment is designed
to evaluate whether the benefits of
participating in a study are in line with the
costs, be they financial, physical, emotional,
or social—i.e., whether the risk/benefit ratio
is acceptable. Major potential benefits to
participants include access to a potentially
beneficial intervention, opportunity to discuss
a problem with an objective person, increased
knowledge about self or conditions, escape
from normal routine, satisfaction in helping
others by information gained through study,
and direct monetary or material gains. Study
participants are not given the opportunity to
help determine the research question for the
study; that is done by the researchers.
Which of the following comprise the three
5. primary ethical principles articulated by the
Belmont Report? Select all that apply.
Beneficence
Respect for human dignity
Anonymity
Justice
A, B, D
Feedback:
The Belmont Report articulated three primary
ethical principles on which standards of
ethical research conduct are based:
beneficence, respect for human dignity, and
justice. Anonymity is a method used by
researchers to protect study participants'
confidentiality by not linking the participants
to their data.
If a researcher unobtrusively studies
6. interactions among patients in a psychiatric
hospital, what might this be called?
Research misconduct
Breach of confidentiality
Covert data collection
Deception
C
Feedback:
Covert data collection or concealment is
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
If a researcher unobtrusively studies
6. interactions among patients in a psychiatric
hospital, what might this be called?
Research misconduct
Breach of confidentiality
Covert data collection
Deception
C
Feedback:
Covert data collection or concealment is
collecting data without participants'
knowledge and thus without their consent.
This might happen if a researcher wanted to
observe people's behavior and was concerned
that doing so openly would change the
behavior of interest. Ethical conduct in
research involves not only protecting the
rights of human and animal subjects, but also
efforts to maintain high standards of integrity
and avoid such forms of research misconduct
as plagiarism, fabrication of results, or
falsification of data. Another challenge that
many qualitative researchers face is
adequately disguising participants in their
reports to avoid a breach of confidentiality.
Deception can involve deliberately
withholding information about the study, or
providing participants with false information.
The safeguard mechanism by which even the
researcher cannot link the participant with the
7.
information provided is called which of the
following?
Confidentiality
Anonymity
Informed consent
Right to privacy
B
Feedback:
Privacy can be maintained through anonymity
(wherein not even researchers know
participants' identities) or through formal
confidentiality procedures that safeguard the
information participants provide. Informed
consent procedures provide prospective
participants with information needed to make
a reasoned decision about participation. Right
to privacy is protected through confidentiality
procedures.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Anonymity
Informed consent
Right to privacy
B
Feedback:
Privacy can be maintained through anonymity
(wherein not even researchers know
participants' identities) or through formal
confidentiality procedures that safeguard the
information participants provide. Informed
consent procedures provide prospective
participants with information needed to make
a reasoned decision about participation. Right
to privacy is protected through confidentiality
procedures.
Confidentiality of study participants can be
8. most effectively protected by which of the
following?
Avoiding the collection of any identifying
information
Performing a risk/benefit assessment
Placing all identifying information on
computer files rather than manual files
Obtaining informed consent from participants
before the study
A
Feedback:
Study participants have the right to expect
that any data they provide will be kept in
strict confidence, and this right is most
effectively protected by avoiding the
collection of any identifying information.
Placing identifying information in a computer
file rather than in a manual file does not help
protect patients' confidentiality, and may in
fact increase the risk for a breach of
confidentiality. Performing a risk/benefit
assessment helps researchers minimize the
risk that participants are exposed to, and
obtaining informed consent ensures that
participants are fully informed of the nature of
the study and can make an informed decision
as to whether to participate. Neither of these
addresses confidentiality, however.
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Vulnerable study participants would include
which of the following?
Women hospitalized for a mastectomy
Members of a senior citizens group
People who do not speak English
Pediatric patients
D
Feedback:
Vulnerable populations may be incapable of
giving fully informed consent (e.g., pediatric
patients, developmentally delayed people,
mentally/emotionally disabled people,
severely ill or physically disabled people) or
may be at high risk of unintended side effects
(e.g., pregnant women). Vulnerable
populations do not include women
hospitalized for a mastectomy, members of a
senior citizens group or people who do not
speak English.
In what situation is informed consent not
needed?
The researcher pays the participants a stipend
The risk/benefit ratio is low
A Certificate of Confidentiality has been
obtained
Informed consent is always needed
D
Feedback:
Informed consent procedures, which provide
prospective participants with information
needed to make a reasoned decision about
participation, normally involve signing a
consent form to document voluntary and
informed participation. Informed consent is
needed even when the researcher pays the
participants a stipend or the risk/benefit ratio
is low. A Certificate of Confidentiality is a
legal document that researchers may obtain
that protects them against the forced
disclosure of confidential information in any
civil, criminal, administrative, or legislative
proceeding. However, it does not negate the
need to obtain informed consent from
participants of studies.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A Certificate of Confidentiality has been
obtained
Informed consent is always needed
D
Feedback:
Informed consent procedures, which provide
prospective participants with information
needed to make a reasoned decision about
participation, normally involve signing a
consent form to document voluntary and
informed participation. Informed consent is
needed even when the researcher pays the
participants a stipend or the risk/benefit ratio
is low. A Certificate of Confidentiality is a
legal document that researchers may obtain
that protects them against the forced
disclosure of confidential information in any
civil, criminal, administrative, or legislative
proceeding. However, it does not negate the
need to obtain informed consent from
participants of studies.
In a qualitative study that involves multiple
contacts between the researcher and study
11.
participants, the researcher may negotiate
which of the following?
Implied consent
Stipend
Process consent
Risk/benefit ratio
C
Feedback:
In qualitative studies, consent may need to be
continually renegotiated with participants as
the study evolves, through process consent
procedures. Researchers often assume implied
consent by the return of a completed
questionnaire, which reflects the person's
voluntary consent to participate. A major
potential benefit to participants is direct
monetary or material gains through stipends
or other incentives; however, these are not
typically negotiated during the study but are
determined at the beginning of the study. In a
risk/benefit assessment, the potential benefits
of the study to individual participants and to
society are weighed against the costs to
individuals.
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Who may sign the informed consent for a
13. child to participate in a study? Select all that
apply.
Grandmother with legal guardianship
Parent
Sibling over 18 years of age
Child over 7 years old
A, B
Feedback:
Children are an identified vulnerable group
and do not have the competence to give
informed consent. Consent must be obtained
from a parent or legal guardian. However, it is
appropriate—especially if the child is at least
7 years of age—to obtain the child's assent, as
well.
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is an example of
research misconduct?
Fabrication of data
Concealed observation
IRB rejection
A high monetary incentive to study
participants
A
Feedback:
Ethical conduct in research involves not only
protecting the rights of human and animal
subjects but also efforts to maintain high
standards of integrity and avoid such forms of
research misconduct as plagiarism, fabrication
of results, or falsification of data. Concealed
observation, IRB rejection, or a high
monetary incentive to study participants does
not constitute research misconduct.
Vulnerable groups include which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Prisoners
Pregnant women
Young adults between 19 and 24 years of age
Infants and toddlers
A, B, D
Feedback:
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Vulnerable groups include which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Prisoners
Pregnant women
Young adults between 19 and 24 years of age
Infants and toddlers
A, B, D
Feedback:
Vulnerable populations need extra
protections, and prisoners, pregnant women,
and children are considered vulnerable
populations. Young adults are not considered
a vulnerable population.
In a qualitative study, process consent is used
for which of the following reasons?
The researcher may need to renegotiate
consent to gather more data.
The researcher needs consent for each of the
surveys to be answered.
The participant may divulge private
information and then regret it.
The participant may forget the risks involved
in a study after being initially informed.
A
Feedback:
In some qualitative studies, the researcher
adjusts the data collection as the data is
collected and thus the need to obtain informed
consent may change. The other answers are
not valid reasons for using process consent.
Which of the following best describes an
assent form?
The assent form allows a child to agree to be
part of a research study.
The assent form is read by the researcher for
those who do not speak or read English.
The assent form protects study participants
from discrimination due to cultural diversity.
The assent form allows the child over 7 years
of age to give informed consent to participate
in a study.
A
Feedback:
Children can give assent—or affirmative
agreement to be in a study—but cannot give
informed consent because they are a
vulnerable population.
C)
from discrimination due to cultural diversity.
The assent form allows the child over 7 years
of age to give informed consent to participate
in a study.
A
Feedback:
Children can give assent—or affirmative
agreement to be in a study—but cannot give
informed consent because they are a
vulnerable population.
D)
Ans:
17.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
18.
A)
B)
C)
The nurse researcher protects study
participants by which of the following?
Performing a risk/benefit assessment to
evaluate the cost compared with the benefit of
participation.
Keeping painful procedure information from
the study participant until the study is
completed.
Preventing psychological discomfort during
and after the study.
Proposing a study that ultimately benefits
society despite the risk to the participants.
A
Feedback:
The researcher considers risks and the
benefits of the study for the client in order to
protect the participants. Informed consent
means that participants have adequate
information about the study, comprehend the
information, and have the power of free
choice, enabling them to consent to or decline
participation voluntarily. Keeping painful
procedure information from the study
participant would violate informed consent
and should not be done. The nurse is not
always able to prevent psychological
discomfort during and after the study. Simply
because a study may ultimately benefit
society, it does not necessarily follow that this
benefit will outweigh the risks to participants.
Which of the following statements is true of
confidentiality and anonymity?
Confidentiality is implemented when a
researcher cannot guarantee anonymity.
Confidentiality of participant information
may occur during a research study whereas
anonymity is required.
Confidentiality is a sign of respect for the
participant by the researcher but anonymity is
a legal issue.
18.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements is true of
confidentiality and anonymity?
Confidentiality is implemented when a
researcher cannot guarantee anonymity.
Confidentiality of participant information
may occur during a research study whereas
anonymity is required.
Confidentiality is a sign of respect for the
participant by the researcher but anonymity is
a legal issue.
Confidentiality procedures require a
researcher to disclose illegal behavior
whereas anonymity protects the researcher
from disclosing a participant's illegal
behavior.
A
Feedback:
Anonymity, the most secure means of
protecting confidentiality, occurs when the
researcher cannot link participants to their
data. When anonymity is impossible,
appropriate confidentiality procedures need to
be implemented. A promise of confidentiality
is a pledge that any information participants
provide will not be publicly reported in a
manner that identifies them and will not be
made accessible to others.
In a legal case, a participant is protected if a
19. Certificate of Confidentiality was issued by
which of the following?
The National Institutes of Health to prevent
forced disclosure
The Internal Review Board of the institution
to protect the participant
The principle researcher to avoid a breach of
confidentiality
The court to protect a member of a vulnerable
group
A
Feedback:
To avoid the risk of forced disclosure of
sensitive information (e.g., through a court
order), researchers in the United States can
apply for a Certificate of Confidentiality from
the National Institutes of Health (NIH). The
certificate allows researchers to refuse to
disclose information on study participants in
any civil, criminal, administrative, or
legislative proceeding.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
confidentiality
The court to protect a member of a vulnerable
group
A
Feedback:
To avoid the risk of forced disclosure of
sensitive information (e.g., through a court
order), researchers in the United States can
apply for a Certificate of Confidentiality from
the National Institutes of Health (NIH). The
certificate allows researchers to refuse to
disclose information on study participants in
any civil, criminal, administrative, or
legislative proceeding.
In both qualitative and quantitative studies,
20. researchers use debriefing to do which of the
following?
Allow participants to ask questions and give
feedback to the researcher
Allow the researcher to assess the participant
before they leave the study site
Explain to the participant what information
they can tell others
Describe the purpose of the study and the
consent form
A
Feedback:
Debriefing is used by researchers at the end of
the study session to answer participants'
questions and concerns about the study,
especially if the study creates stress in the
participants.
Which of the following is an ethical principle
21. cited by the Belmont Report as a standard for
research?
Beneficence
Philanthropy
Duty
Morality
A
Feedback:
Beneficence is the only choice which is a
principle of the Belmont Report.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Offering prisoners a $50.00 payment for
22. participation in a clinical trial for toothpaste
violates which of the following?
The right to self-determination
The right to full disclosure
The right to protection from exploitation
The right to privacy
A
Feedback:
Offering money to low-income groups is
viewed as mildly coercive and a violation of
the right to self-determination because the
participants may consent to a study because
they need the money rather than because they
fully consent to the conditions of the study.
The right to protection from exploitation
means that involvement in a study should not
place participants at a disadvantage. The right
to full disclosure means that the researcher
must fully describe the study, the person's
right to refuse participation, and possible risks
and benefits. The right to privacy means that
participants have the right to expect that any
data they provide will be kept in strict
confidence.
To protect the right to fair treatment, the
researcher who seeks federal grant funding
23.
for research is required to do which of the
following?
Include minority populations in their research
study
Disclose the benefits of the research to
participants
Offer participants a stipend for participation
in the study
Obtain informed consent from participants
A
Feedback:
The right to fair treatment is an aspect of
justice that requests researchers to include all
groups that may benefit from research.
Historically, researchers excluded women and
minority groups, meaning study results were
not generalizable to those groups. Disclosing
the benefits of the research to participants
protects their right of full disclosure. Offering
participants a stipend for participation in the
C)
D)
Ans:
Offer participants a stipend for participation
in the study
Obtain informed consent from participants
A
Feedback:
The right to fair treatment is an aspect of
justice that requests researchers to include all
groups that may benefit from research.
Historically, researchers excluded women and
minority groups, meaning study results were
not generalizable to those groups. Disclosing
the benefits of the research to participants
protects their right of full disclosure. Offering
participants a stipend for participation in the
study is a possible violation of their right to
self-determination. Obtaining informed
consent from participants protects their right
to self-determination and their right to full
disclosure.
CHG
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The research question, “What is the decisionmaking process among intensive care unit
1.
nurses who decide to discuss spiritual issues
with patients?” is which of the following?
Most likely to be addressed using a
quantitative approach
Most likely to be addressed using a qualitative
approach
Not researchable
Not appropriately worded
B
Feedback:
Quantitative studies usually involve concepts
that are fairly well developed and for which
reliable methods of measurement have been
(or can be) developed. Qualitative studies are
often undertaken because a researcher wants
to develop a rich and context-bound
understanding of a poorly understood
phenomenon. In this case, a qualitative
approach would be most appropriate for
addressing this question.
Which of the following is a major source of
2. ideas for research problems? Select all that
apply.
Theories or conceptual frameworks
Personal nursing experience
Nursing code of ethics
Nursing literature
A, B, D
Feedback:
Common sources of ideas for nursing
research problems are clinical experience,
relevant literature, social issues, theory, and
external suggestions. The nursing code of
ethics is not a major source of ideas for
research problems.
"Does maternal stress during the first
3. trimester of a pregnancy affect the infant's
birth weight?" is which of the following?
A research question
A portion of a problem statement
A statement of purpose
A hypothesis
A
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
"Does maternal stress during the first
3. trimester of a pregnancy affect the infant's
birth weight?" is which of the following?
A research question
A portion of a problem statement
A statement of purpose
A hypothesis
A
Feedback:
Research questions are the specific queries
researchers want to answer in addressing the
research problem. The problem statement
articulates the nature, context, and
significance of a problem to be studied. A
statement of purpose, which summarizes the
overall study goal, identifies the key concepts
(variables) and the study group or population.
A hypothesis states predicted relationships
between two or more variables—that is, the
anticipated association between independent
and dependent variables.
"This study aimed to explore the meaning of
4. the experience of living with a colostomy” is
which of the following?
A research question
A portion of a problem statement
A statement of purpose
A hypothesis
C
Feedback:
A statement of purpose, which summarizes
the overall study goal, identifies the key
concepts (variables) and the study group or
population. Research questions are the
specific queries researchers want to answer in
addressing the research problem. The problem
statement articulates the nature, context, and
significance of a problem to be studied. A
hypothesis states predicted relationships
between two or more variables—that is, the
anticipated association between independent
and dependent variables.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In a research report, the statement of purpose
is normally found where?
In the abstract
In the first paragraph of the report
At the end of the introduction
At the beginning of the method section
C
Feedback:
Researchers most often state their purpose at
the end of the introduction or immediately
after the review of the literature. A problem
statement is presented early in a research
article and often begins with the first sentence
after the abstract. The first paragraph of a
research report is often the starting point of a
problem statement. The method section
describes the methods used in the research
study.
In a statement of purpose, the researcher often
communicates information beyond the
6.
substantive content through which of the
following?
The specification of the population to be
studied
The operational definition of the research
variables
The prediction of anticipated relationships
among variables
The choice of verbs that suggest the state of
knowledge on the topic or the approach to be
used
D
Feedback:
In the statement of purpose researchers also
communicate the manner in which they
sought to solve the problem, or the state of
knowledge on the topic, through their choice
of verbs. The statement of purpose does not
provide the operational definition of the
research variables. In a quantitative study, a
statement of purpose identifies the key study
variables and their possible interrelationships,
as well as the population of interest. A
hypothesis states predicted relationships
between two or more variables—that is, the
anticipated association between independent
and dependent variables.
The choice of verbs that suggest the state of
knowledge on the topic or the approach to be
used
D
Feedback:
In the statement of purpose researchers also
communicate the manner in which they
sought to solve the problem, or the state of
knowledge on the topic, through their choice
of verbs. The statement of purpose does not
provide the operational definition of the
research variables. In a quantitative study, a
statement of purpose identifies the key study
variables and their possible interrelationships,
as well as the population of interest. A
hypothesis states predicted relationships
between two or more variables—that is, the
anticipated association between independent
and dependent variables.
D)
Ans:
7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A research hypothesis indicates the expected
relationship between which of the following?
The functional and causal nature of the
variables
The statement of purpose and the research
questions
The independent variable and the dependent
variable
Statistical testing and the null hypothesis
C
Feedback:
A hypothesis states predicted relationships
between two or more variables—that is, the
anticipated association between independent
and dependent variables. Directional
hypotheses predict the direction of a
relationship; nondirectional hypotheses
predict the existence of relationships, not their
direction. Research hypotheses predict the
existence of relationships; null hypotheses,
which express the absence of a relationship,
are the hypotheses subjected to statistical
testing.
The hypothesis, "Women who jog regularly
8. are more likely than those who do not to have
amenorrhea" is which of the following?
Null
Not testable
Directional
Nondirectional
C
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The hypothesis, "Women who jog regularly
8. are more likely than those who do not to have
amenorrhea" is which of the following?
Null
Not testable
Directional
Nondirectional
C
Feedback:
Directional hypotheses predict the direction of
a relationship; nondirectional hypotheses
predict the existence of relationships, not their
direction. A hypothesis states predicted
relationships between two or more variables
—that is, the anticipated association between
independent and dependent variables.
Testable research hypotheses, such as this
one, predict the existence of relationships;
null hypotheses, which express the absence of
a relationship, are the hypotheses subjected to
statistical testing.
The hypothesis, "A person's emotional status
9. is not affected by a relocation to a nursing
home" is which of the following?
Null
Not testable
Directional
Nondirectional
A
Feedback:
Null hypotheses, which express the absence
of a relationship, are the hypotheses subjected
to statistical testing. A testable research
hypothesis, such as this one, states predicted
relationships between two or more variables
—that is, the anticipated association between
independent and dependent variables.
Directional hypotheses predict the direction of
a relationship; nondirectional hypotheses
predict the existence of relationships, not their
direction.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The hypothesis, "Women who live in rural
10. areas are unlikely to practice breast selfexamination" is which of the following?
Null
Not testable
Directional
Nondirectional
B
Feedback:
Null hypotheses, which express the absence
of a relationship, are the hypotheses subjected
to statistical testing. This hypothesis is not
testable, as it does not make a prediction
about a relationship. A testable hypothesis
states predicted relationships between two or
more variables—that is, the anticipated
association between independent and
dependent variables. Directional hypotheses
predict the direction of a relationship;
nondirectional hypotheses predict the
existence of relationships, not their direction.
A researcher includes a statement of purpose
that indicates that the goal of the study is to
understand the lived experiences of family
11.
members caring for a terminally ill child with
cancer. What type of research design would
most likely be used?
Ethnography
Grounded theory
Phenomenology
Quasi-experimental
C
Feedback:
Phenomenology is concerned with the lived
experiences of humans. Buzz words
associated with this tradition include the
following: experience, lived experience,
meaning, and essence. The grounded theory
tradition seeks to describe and understand the
key social psychological processes that occur
in a social setting. Buzz words associated
with this tradition include the following:
processes, social structures, and social
interactions. Ethnography provides a
framework for studying the meanings,
patterns, and lifeways of a culture in a holistic
fashion. Buzz words associated with this
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Grounded theory
Phenomenology
Quasi-experimental
C
Feedback:
Phenomenology is concerned with the lived
experiences of humans. Buzz words
associated with this tradition include the
following: experience, lived experience,
meaning, and essence. The grounded theory
tradition seeks to describe and understand the
key social psychological processes that occur
in a social setting. Buzz words associated
with this tradition include the following:
processes, social structures, and social
interactions. Ethnography provides a
framework for studying the meanings,
patterns, and lifeways of a culture in a holistic
fashion. Buzz words associated with this
tradition include the following: culture, roles,
lifeways, and cultural behavior. The scenario
proposed is not associated with a quasiexperimental study, which is a type of
quantitative study.
A researcher wants to explore the ways in
which gender issues are evident in the day-today interactions between male and female
nurses and their patients in an acute-care
inpatient unit. The purpose statement of her
12. research study indicates that she wants to
study whether and how gender issues
influence the culture and behaviors of nurses
as they interact with patients. Of the
following, which type of study design would
be most appropriate to use?
Qualitative ethnography
Qualitative phenomenology
Quantitative descriptive
Quantitative Randomized Controlled Trial
(RCT)
A
Feedback:
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. Buzz words
associated with this tradition include the
following: culture, roles, lifeways, and
cultural behavior. The other study designs
listed would not be as appropriate for this
study.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Quantitative descriptive
Quantitative Randomized Controlled Trial
(RCT)
A
Feedback:
Ethnography provides a framework for
studying the meanings, patterns, and lifeways
of a culture in a holistic fashion. Buzz words
associated with this tradition include the
following: culture, roles, lifeways, and
cultural behavior. The other study designs
listed would not be as appropriate for this
study.
Select the best description for the following:
“Is there a relationship between elective labor
13.
induction and an unintended cesarean
delivery?”
It is a directional hypothesis
It is a directional research question
It is a non-directional hypothesis
It is a non-directional research question
D
Feedback:
The statement is a non-directional research
question. It is non-directional because it does
not indicate whether the researcher believes
that elective labor induction will increase or
decrease the likelihood of unintended
cesarean delivery. It is a research question
because it indicates the purpose of the study
in the form of a question. It is not a
hypothesis because it is not in the form of a
statement.
Select the best description for the following:
“Children who watch an average of 2 or more
14. hours of television per day will have higher
BMIs than children who watch less than 2
hours of TV per day.”
It is a directional hypothesis
It is a directional research question
It is a non-directional hypothesis
It is a non-directional research question
A
Feedback:
Directional hypotheses, such as this one,
specify not only the existence but the
expected direction of the relationship between
variables. The statement is not a nondirectional research question or a directional
research question. A non-directional
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
It is a directional research question
It is a non-directional hypothesis
It is a non-directional research question
A
Feedback:
Directional hypotheses, such as this one,
specify not only the existence but the
expected direction of the relationship between
variables. The statement is not a nondirectional research question or a directional
research question. A non-directional
hypothesis does not stipulate the direction of
the relationship.
Which of the following statements, if used in
15. a hypothesis, is not readily testable by
empirical means?
Less than
Meaning of
More than
Related to
B
Feedback:
Hypotheses that do not make a relational
statement are problematic. If a hypothesis
lacks a phrase such as more than, less than,
different from, related to, or something
similar, it is not readily testable. “Meaning
of” is not a relational phrase, and thus the
hypothesis would not be readily testable by
empirical means.
A hypothesis that states there is no
relationship between the independent
16.
variable(s) and the dependent variable(s) is
called which of the following?
Non-directional hypothesis
Null hypothesis
Research hypothesis
Simple hypothesis
B
Feedback:
A null hypothesis is a hypothesis that states
there is no relationship between the
independent variable(s) and the dependent
variable(s). Directional hypotheses specify
not only the existence but the expected
direction of the relationship between
variables. A non-directional hypothesis
stipulates a relationship between variables but
not the direction of the relationship. A
research hypothesis is a statement of expected
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Null hypothesis
Research hypothesis
Simple hypothesis
B
Feedback:
A null hypothesis is a hypothesis that states
there is no relationship between the
independent variable(s) and the dependent
variable(s). Directional hypotheses specify
not only the existence but the expected
direction of the relationship between
variables. A non-directional hypothesis
stipulates a relationship between variables but
not the direction of the relationship. A
research hypothesis is a statement of expected
relationships between variables. Hypotheses
can be either simple hypotheses (with a single
independent variable and dependent variable)
or complex (multiple independent or
dependent variables).
Which of the following statements made by a
new nurse researcher indicate that he
17. correctly understands the purpose of using
statistical analysis in quantitative research?
Select all that apply.
“Statistical analysis allows the formal testing
of hypotheses.”
“Statistical analysis might lead a researcher to
reject a hypothesis.”
“Statistical analysis provides proof of the
relationships between variables.”
“Statistical analysis supports inferences that a
hypothesis is most likely correct (or most
likely not correct).”
A, B, D
Feedback:
Hypotheses are formally tested through
statistical analysis. Researchers use statistics
to test whether their hypotheses have a high
probability of being correct (i.e., has a
probability < .05). Statistical analysis does not
provide proof, it only supports inferences that
a hypothesis is probably correct (or not).
Hypotheses are never proved (or disproved);
rather, they are accepted or supported (or
rejected). “Statistical analysis provides proof
of the relationships between variables”
indicates that the nurse educator does not
understand the purpose of using statistical
analysis of quantitative research.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
“Statistical analysis supports inferences that a
hypothesis is most likely correct (or most
likely not correct).”
A, B, D
Feedback:
Hypotheses are formally tested through
statistical analysis. Researchers use statistics
to test whether their hypotheses have a high
probability of being correct (i.e., has a
probability < .05). Statistical analysis does not
provide proof, it only supports inferences that
a hypothesis is probably correct (or not).
Hypotheses are never proved (or disproved);
rather, they are accepted or supported (or
rejected). “Statistical analysis provides proof
of the relationships between variables”
indicates that the nurse educator does not
understand the purpose of using statistical
analysis of quantitative research.
Which of the following components are
usually included in a well-structured problem
18.
statement for nursing research? Select all that
apply.
Knowledge gap (what information do we
currently know and what is lacking?)
Problem identification (what is the overall
problem? What is not working in the current
situation?)
Proposed solution (how will information
gained from the proposed study contribute to
the solution of this problem?)
Sustainability (how long will we be able to
sustain any changes made to the current status
quo?)
A, B, C
Feedback:
Sustainability is not usually included in a
well-structured problem statement for nursing
research. Problem identification, a proposed
solution, and a knowledge gap are
components of a well-structured problem
statement for nursing research.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Identify the independent variable(s) from the
following research question: “What is the
19. effect of acetaminophen and ibuprofen on
liver function in female adolescents with
hepatitis?” Select all that apply.
acetaminophen
female adolescents with hepatitis
ibuprofen
liver function
A, C
Feedback:
The independent variables are acetaminophen
and ibuprofen, as they are associated with the
cause. Liver function is the dependent
variable, as it is the variable being affected by
the independent variable. Female adolescents
with hepatitis is the population being studied.
Which of the following is the dependent
variable (DV) in the research question, “Are
20. serial 12-lead ECGs more accurate in
diagnosing acute myocardial infarctions (MI)
than a single initial 12-lead ECG?”
Accuracy in diagnosing an MI
Myocardial infarction
Serial 12-lead ECGs
Single initial 12-lead ECG
A
Feedback:
The dependent variable is accuracy in
diagnosing an MI, as it is the variable affected
by the independent variables, which are serial
12-lead ECGs and single initial 12-lead ECG.
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following statements of purpose
is most likely to be from a qualitative study?
Explore lived experiences of refugee women
and children from Afghanistan living in the
United States
Investigate the effectiveness of music therapy
for decreasing pain in post-operative
adolescents
Compare the effectiveness of effleurage to
therapeutic touch in decreasing maternal
anxiety during an un-medicated vaginal birth
Evaluate the relationship between insurance
status and number of emergency department
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
and children from Afghanistan living in the
United States
Investigate the effectiveness of music therapy
for decreasing pain in post-operative
adolescents
Compare the effectiveness of effleurage to
therapeutic touch in decreasing maternal
anxiety during an un-medicated vaginal birth
Evaluate the relationship between insurance
status and number of emergency department
(ED) visits
A
Feedback:
“Explore lived experiences of refugee women
and children from Afghanistan living in the
United States” is most likely from a
qualitative study. A study whose purpose is to
explore or describe some phenomenon is
likely to be an investigation of a littleresearched topic, often involving a qualitative
approach, such as phenomenology or
ethnography. The other answers are more
likely to be from quantitative studies, as verbs
such as test, evaluate, and compare suggest
quantifiable variables and designs with
scientific controls.
If the problem statement from a proposed
research study indicates the need to generate a
theory relating to social processes (e.g., how
22.
persons within a social group interact with
one another), the study design will most likely
be which of the following?
Quantitative study
Ethnography
Grounded theory
Phenomenology
C
Feedback:
Grounded theory seeks to describe and
understand key social psychological processes
that occur in a social setting. Buzz words
associated with this tradition include the
following: processes, social structures, and
social interactions. Ethnography provides a
framework for studying the meanings,
patterns, and lifeways of a culture in a holistic
fashion. Buzz words associated with this
tradition include the following: culture, roles,
lifeways, and cultural behavior.
Phenomenology focuses on the lived
experiences of humans and is an approach to
gaining insight into what the life experiences
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Ethnography
Grounded theory
Phenomenology
C
Feedback:
Grounded theory seeks to describe and
understand key social psychological processes
that occur in a social setting. Buzz words
associated with this tradition include the
following: processes, social structures, and
social interactions. Ethnography provides a
framework for studying the meanings,
patterns, and lifeways of a culture in a holistic
fashion. Buzz words associated with this
tradition include the following: culture, roles,
lifeways, and cultural behavior.
Phenomenology focuses on the lived
experiences of humans and is an approach to
gaining insight into what the life experiences
of people are like and what they mean. Buzz
words associated with this tradition include
the following: experience, lived experience,
meaning, and essence. The scenario proposed
is not associated with a quantitative study.
Which of the following statements of purpose
23. is least likely to demonstrate a bias on the part
of the researcher?
Demonstrate
Compare
Prove
Show
B
Feedback:
Compare is the least likely to demonstrate a
bias on the part of the researcher and is
associated with quantifiable variables and
designs with scientific controls. The verbs in
the purpose statement should connote
objectivity. A statement of purpose indicating
that the study goal was to prove, demonstrate,
or show something suggests bias.
Which of the following are true statements
24. regarding the function of hypotheses in
quantitative research? Select all that apply.
They emerge from a theory.
They offer direction and suggest explanations
for relationships.
They prove relationships between variables.
They facilitate the interpretation of data.
A, B, D
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following are true statements
24. regarding the function of hypotheses in
quantitative research? Select all that apply.
They emerge from a theory.
They offer direction and suggest explanations
for relationships.
They prove relationships between variables.
They facilitate the interpretation of data.
A, B, D
Feedback:
Hypotheses cannot prove relationships
between variables. They can emerge from a
theory, offer direction and suggest
explanations for relationships, and reduce the
possibility that false results will be
misinterpreted.
CHF
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following would be a primary
source for a research literature review?
A meta-analysis appearing in the Cochrane
Reviews
A metasynthesis published in the journal
Qualitative Health Research
An experimental study published in the
journal Research in Nursing & Health
A systematic review published in the journal
Nursing Research
C
Feedback:
A primary source is the original description of
a study prepared by the researcher who
conducted it; a secondary source is a
description of a study by another person. A
meta-analysis appearing in the Cochrane
Reviews, a metasynthesis published in the
journal Qualitative Health Research, and a
systematic review published in the journal
Nursing Research are examples of secondary
sources. Literature reviews should be based
on primary source material.
Which of the following is an important
2. characteristic of a high-quality literature
review?
Restricted to articles written in nursing
journals
Restricted to recent studies
Full of opinions
Reproducible, with justifiable decision rules
D
Feedback:
Conducting a literature review is an art and a
science. A high-quality review should be
unbiased, thorough, and up-to-date. Also, a
high-quality review is systematic. Decision
rules for including or excluding a study
should be explicit because a good review
should be reproducible. This means that
another diligent reviewer would be able to
apply the same decision rules and come to
similar conclusions about the state of
evidence on the topic.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Restricted to recent studies
Full of opinions
Reproducible, with justifiable decision rules
D
Feedback:
Conducting a literature review is an art and a
science. A high-quality review should be
unbiased, thorough, and up-to-date. Also, a
high-quality review is systematic. Decision
rules for including or excluding a study
should be explicit because a good review
should be reproducible. This means that
another diligent reviewer would be able to
apply the same decision rules and come to
similar conclusions about the state of
evidence on the topic.
In conducting a subject search in an electronic
3. database, you would most likely initiate the
search by typing in which of the following?
An author's name
Restrictions to the search
A topic or keyword
An ancestor or descendant
C
Feedback:
You conduct a subject search by entering a
subject heading, such as a topic or keyword
into the search field. The subject names have
hyperlinks so that we could expand the search
by clicking on them or could also click on the
author's name or on the journal. Restrictions
to the search will place limitations on the
subject search in an electronic database, but
are not typed in to initiate the search. The
ancestry approach (“footnote chasing”), in
which citations from relevant studies are used
to track down earlier research on which the
studies are based (the “ancestors”) and the
descendancy approach, finding later studies
that proceeded from an early study, are other
approaches to research, different from the
subject search.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In an electronic literature search, the searcher
does not necessarily have to know the
4. database's subject headings for retrieving
information on a topic because of the
capability known as which of the following?
Searching
Mapping
Restricting focus
Copying
B
Feedback:
Mapping is a feature that allows you to search
for topics using your own keywords, rather
than the exact subject heading used in the
database. In searching a bibliographic
database, users can do a keyword search that
looks for terms in text fields of a database
record (or that maps keywords onto the
database's subject codes), or can search
according to the subject heading codes
themselves. Restricting focus and copying do
not pertain to the database's subject headings
for retrieving information on a topic.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The electronic database that focuses on the
nursing and allied health literature is:
CINAHL
EMBASE
Web of Knowledge
MEDLINE
A
Feedback:
Key resources for a research literature search
are the bibliographic databases that can be
searched electronically. For nurses, the
CINAHL (Cumulative Index to Nursing and
Allied Health Literature) and MEDLINE®
(Medical Literature On-Line) databases are
especially useful. Other useful bibliographic
databases for nurses include the Web of
Knowledge, and EMBASE (the Excerpta
Medica database). The Web of Knowledge
database is useful for a descendancy search
strategy because of its strong citation indexes.
Of these, only CINAHL is focused on nursing
and allied health literature.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
EMBASE
Web of Knowledge
MEDLINE
A
Feedback:
Key resources for a research literature search
are the bibliographic databases that can be
searched electronically. For nurses, the
CINAHL (Cumulative Index to Nursing and
Allied Health Literature) and MEDLINE®
(Medical Literature On-Line) databases are
especially useful. Other useful bibliographic
databases for nurses include the Web of
Knowledge, and EMBASE (the Excerpta
Medica database). The Web of Knowledge
database is useful for a descendancy search
strategy because of its strong citation indexes.
Of these, only CINAHL is focused on nursing
and allied health literature.
When doing a computerized search for
6. quantitative studies on a topic, which of the
following statements is most accurate?
The best place to begin is to use a search
engine such as Yahoo or Google
The primary keyword to use in the search
typically would be the population
The keywords to start the search typically
would be the independent and dependent
variables
The specific subject headings used in each
bibliographic database would have to be
learned
C
Feedback:
For quantitative studies, the keywords are
usually the independent or dependent
variables (i.e., at a minimum, the “I” and “O”
of the PICO components), and perhaps the
population. For qualitative studies, the
keywords are the central phenomenon and the
population. Google and Yahoo are not the best
search engines to use when looking for
nursing research; the more specialized
bibliographic databases, such as CINAHL and
MEDLINE, are preferable. One does not need
to learn the specific subject headings used in
each bibliographic database to conduct a
search.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
The specific subject headings used in each
bibliographic database would have to be
learned
C
Feedback:
For quantitative studies, the keywords are
usually the independent or dependent
variables (i.e., at a minimum, the “I” and “O”
of the PICO components), and perhaps the
population. For qualitative studies, the
keywords are the central phenomenon and the
population. Google and Yahoo are not the best
search engines to use when looking for
nursing research; the more specialized
bibliographic databases, such as CINAHL and
MEDLINE, are preferable. One does not need
to learn the specific subject headings used in
each bibliographic database to conduct a
search.
7. Which of the following statements is true?
The CINAHL database includes only journals
The CINAHL database includes about 15
million records
The CINAHL database uses the controlled
vocabulary called MeSH to index entries
Subject headings in CINAHL include
substantive and methodologic topics
D
Feedback:
CINAHL is an important electronic database
for nurses. It covers references to hundreds of
nursing and allied health journals, as well as
to books, book chapters, and dissertations.
CINAHL contains more than 1 million
records, but not 15 million. Note that its
subject headings include substantive
headings, such as Music Therapy in Old Age,
as well as methodologic (e.g., QuasiExperimental Studies) and sample
characteristic headings (e.g., Male; Female).
It is MEDLINE, not CINAHL, that uses the
controlled vocabulary called MeSH to index
entries.
8. Which of the following statements is true?
The MEDLINE database can only be
accessed through subscriptions with a
commercial vendor
PubMed provides access to MEDLINE free of
charge
PubMed does not allow users to find “related
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
8. Which of the following statements is true?
The MEDLINE database can only be
accessed through subscriptions with a
commercial vendor
PubMed provides access to MEDLINE free of
charge
PubMed does not allow users to find “related
citations” for a previously identified record in
MEDLINE
A search in MEDLINE and CINAHL for a
given keyword would yield identical results
B
Feedback:
MEDLINE® covers about 5000 medical,
nursing, and health journals and has more
than 21 million records. MEDLINE® can be
accessed for free on the Internet at the
PubMed website. In a search conducted by
the authors, the list of records in the two
PubMed and CINAHL searches overlapped
considerably, but new references were found
in each search. After you have found a study
that is a good exemplar of what you are
looking for, you usually can search for similar
studies in the database. In PubMed, for
example, after identifying a key study, you
could click on “Related Citations” on the right
of the screen to locate similar studies.
In the following CINAHL citation, to what
does the “6” refer?
9.
Nursing
Research
2012 Nov/
Dec; 61(6):
405-411.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Journal volume
Journal issue in a given year
Month of issue
A page number
B
Feedback:
Name of the journal (Nursing Research
2012)
Year and month of publication (2012 Nov/
Dec)
Volume (61)
Issue (6)
Page numbers (405-411)
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is an appropriately
worded sentence for a research review?
Five recent studies have proved that men are
less well able to cope with the loss of a
spouse than women.
The HIV-epidemic has been the cause of
considerable anxiety in the gay community.
Nurses and physicians struggle with the
decision about whether to work in
environments where abortion services are
offered.
Research has consistently found that infant's
sleeping position is related to the risk of
sudden infant death syndrome.
D
Feedback:
A written research review should provide
readers with an objective, well-organized
synthesis of current evidence on a topic. The
review should be as unbiased as possible.
The sentence, “The HIV-epidemic has been
the cause of considerable anxiety in the gay
community,” presents subjective data, as
does the sentence, “Nurses and physicians
struggle with the decision about whether to
work in environments where abortion
services are offered.” A literature review
should be neither a series of quotes nor a
series of abstracts such as, “Five recent
studies have proved that men are less well
able to cope with the loss of a spouse than
women.” The central tasks are to summarize
and critically evaluate the evidence to reveal
the current state of knowledge on a topic—
not simply to describe what researchers have
done.
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What is the primary purpose of the review of
literature in a research report?
Reporting on the state of the current
evidence about the problem under study
Demonstrating the research capabilities of
the authors
Focusing on the gaps in research related to
the problem under study
Making recommendations about future study
designs
A
Feedback:
A literature review is a written summary of
the state of evidence on a research problem.
The primary purpose of literature reviews is
to integrate research evidence to sum up
what is known and what is not known.
Literature reviews are sometimes standalone documents intended to share the state
of evidence with interested readers, but
reviews are also used to lay the foundation
for new studies.
At what point in the research process do
12. grounded theory qualitative researchers
conduct a literature review?
Prior to data collection
After beginning to collect data
At the conclusion of the study
Prior to sample selection
B
Feedback:
Grounded theory researchers typically begin
to collect data before examining the
literature. As the grounded theory takes
shape, researchers then turn to the literature,
seeking to relate prior findings to the theory.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What is the most important type of
13. information that should be included in a
literature review?
Clinical anecdotes
Opinion articles
Case reports from applicable clinical settings
Findings from prior studies
D
Feedback:
Findings from prior studies are the most
important type of information for a research
review.
What term is used to describe accounts of
research in the literature prepared by
14.
someone other than the researchers who
conducted the study?
Primary sources
Secondary sources
Ghost writer studies
Literature reviews
B
Feedback:
Secondary sources are written reports on
studies prepared by someone other than the
researcher who conducted the study. Primary
sources, on the other hand, are descriptions
of studies written by the researchers who
conducted them. A literature review is a type
of secondary source that consists of a written
summary of the state of evidence on a
research problem. “Ghost writer” is not a
type of research study.
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What is the first step in writing a review of
literature?
Determine the question to be addressed
Select the bibliographic database to use
Specify the medical subject headings to use
Conduct an Internet search engine search
A
Feedback:
Conducting a literature review is a little bit
like doing a full-fledged study: a reviewer
must start with a question, such as an EBP
question (Chapter 2) or a question for a new
study (Chapter 6). The reviewer then must
gather, analyze, and interpret the
information, and summarize the “findings”
in a written product. Selecting a
bibliographic database and specifying the
medical subject headings to use are later
steps in the process. Using common Internet
search engines such as Google or Yahoo is
not recommended for nursing research, as
they tend to provide far too many irrelevant
hits.
Which search strategy selects an important
16. early study and locates subsequent citations
in the literature?
Ancestry approach
Database search
Descendancy approach
Footnote chasing
C
Feedback:
The descendancy approach identifies an
early key study and uses citation indexes to
locate later studies that cite the original
study. Another approach is to search for
evidence in bibliographic databases. Yet
another strategy is the ancestry approach
(“footnote chasing”), in which citations from
relevant studies are used to track down
earlier research on which the studies are
based (the “ancestors”).
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which electronic database would you first
17. use to access nursing and allied health
literature?
CINAHL
MeSH
Google
MEDLINE
A
Feedback:
CINAHL is the Cumulative Index for
Nursing and Allied Health Literature and
provides references for nursing and allied
health journals, books, book chapters, and
®
dissertations. The MEDLINE database,
developed by the U.S. National Library of
Medicine, is the premier source for
bibliographic coverage of the biomedical
literature. MEDLINE® uses a controlled
vocabulary called MeSH (Medical Subject
Headings) to index articles. MeSH
terminology provides a consistent way to
retrieve information that may use different
terminology for the same concepts. Google
is a general Internet search engine that
would not be useful for accessing nursing
and allied health literature.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What term is given to unique symbols that
expand search results and allow for a
18.
simultaneous search of numerous words of
the same root within an electronic database?
Textword search
Keywords
Wildcard characters
Expanders
C
Feedback:
Wildcard characters such as * or $ are used
in electronic databases to search for related
words. An example would be that “nurs*”
typed in a database may yield results that
include nurse, nurses, and nursing. A
keyword is a word or phrase that captures
the key concepts in your question. A
textword search looks for your keyword in
the text fields of the records, i.e., in the title
and the abstract. “Expanders” is not a term
related to electronic database searches.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What mechanism does the MEDLINE
19. database use to provide consistency in
information retrieval?
Textwords
MeSH terminology
Boolean operators
Scopus reviews
B
Feedback:
MeSH (Medical Subject Headings)
terminology is a controlled vocabulary used
in MEDLINE that provides a consistent way
to retrieve information that may use different
terminology for the same concepts.. A
textword search looks for your keyword in
the text fields of the records, i.e., in the title
and the abstract. Boolean operators (such as
“and” and “or”) can be used to expand or
restrict a search. For example, if you wanted
citations on lung cancer and smoking, you
could enter the following: lung cancer AND
smoking. The Boolean operator AND would
restrict the search to citations with both lung
cancer and smoking as textwords or subject
headings. The Boolean operator “OR”
expands a search—if you entered lung
cancer OR smoking, you would retrieve all
references with either term. Scopus is a
bibliographic database useful for nurses.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
You have identified 66 potential references
through electronic database searches for
your review of literature. Which action in
20.
the screening process would be the most
appropriate next step in identifying the most
useful articles?
Comparing databases for duplicatereferenced reports
Evaluating the heading terms
Reading each article in detail
Reviewing the abstracts
D
Feedback:
Although reading each article in detail
would allow you to evaluate each reference
in terms of relevance, reviewing the
abstracts would be most time efficient.
Evaluating the heading terms in the articles
would not be helpful in identifying the most
useful articles, because they would not tell
you enough information about the article.
Comparing databases for duplicatereferences reports would also not be useful
for this purpose.
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What is the primary purpose in documenting
the literature retrieval process?
Ensuring approval by the Institutional
Review Board (IRB)
Preventing duplication of located references
Providing a history of useful search words
Simplifying preparation of the reference list
B
Feedback:
Documentation will help you to conduct a
more efficient search by preventing
unintended duplication, and will also help
you to assess what else needs to be tried.
Although documentation does provide a
history of useful search words and may
simplify preparation of the reference list,
neither of these is the primary purpose.
Documentation does not ensure approval by
the Institutional Review Board (IRB).
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What is the primary question that should be
22. addressed when evaluating published
research reports in a literature review?
To what extent do the findings reflect the
truth (the true state of affairs)?
Have the authors conducted an adequate
literature review in their research report?
Did the authors cite appropriately from the
previously published literature related to the
problem under study?
Was the research question appropriate
considering the available evidence at the
time of the study?
A
Feedback:
In literature reviews, methodological
features of the studies under review need to
be assessed with an eye to answering a broad
question: To what extent do the findings
reflect the truth (the true state of affairs) or,
conversely, to what extent do flaws
undermine the believability of the evidence?
The “truth” is most likely to be discovered
when researchers use powerful designs,
good sampling plans, high-quality data
collection procedures, and appropriate
analyses.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Identifying patterns, regularities, and
irregularities in the published literature about
23. the problem under study when constructing a
literature review is a process called which of
the following?
Structuring
Sorting
Content organizing
Thematic analysis
D
Feedback:
Once relevant studies have been retrieved,
abstracted, and critiqued, the information has
to be analyzed and synthesized. A thematic
analysis essentially involves detecting
patterns and regularities—as well as
inconsistencies. Sorting, content organizing,
and structuring are later steps undertaken
when preparing a written literature review.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which statement accurately reflects a
24. characteristic of a well-written literature
review?
Only a few key reports by the same author
should be included if that author has
published extensively on the topic under
study.
The review should primarily contain reports
supportive of your general hypothesis about
the problem under study.
The review should include reports that both
support and contradict your own ideas.
The review should clearly identify points
that have been proven by previous research.
C
Feedback:
A well-written literature review includes a
comprehensive and objective summary of
the published literature related to the
problem under study. That means inclusion
of reports that both support and refute your
hypothesis. The other answers do not
necessarily characterize a well-written
literature review.
25.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which verbiage is most likely found in a
well-written research review?
“The hypothesis in this study was supported
by the research findings.”
“Results from this study proved that nursing
actions were instrumental to improved
patient outcomes.”
“All of these studies verify that levels of
understanding cannot be changed easily.”
“It is clear that the presence of nurses
improves the health status of patients in the
clinical setting.”
A
Feedback:
Hypotheses cannot be proved or disproved,
rather they are supported by the published
reports.
CHS
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A set of logically interrelated propositions is
associated with which of the following?
Schematic model
Conceptual model
Classical theory
Descriptive theory
C
Feedback:
In the classical use of theory, researchers test
hypotheses deduced from an existing theory.
An emerging trend is the testing of theorybased interventions. Concepts are also the
basic elements of conceptual models, but
concepts are not linked in a logically ordered,
deductive system. Schematic models (or
conceptual maps) are graphic representations
of phenomena and their interrelationships
using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use
of words. Descriptive theory thoroughly
describes a phenomenon.
The power of theories lies in their ability to
do which of the following?
Explain large segments of human experience
Minimize the number of words required to
explain phenomena and, thereby, eliminate
semantic problems
Prove conclusively that relationships exist
among the phenomena studied
Articulate the nature of relationships among
phenomena
D
Feedback:
A theory is an abstract generalization that
systematically explains relationships among
phenomena, but does not prove these
relationships conclusively. Schematic models
(or conceptual maps) are graphic
representations of phenomena and their
interrelationships using symbols or diagrams
and a minimal use of words. Grand theories
(or macro theories) attempt to describe large
segments of the human experience, but this is
not true of all theories.
C)
among the phenomena studied
Articulate the nature of relationships among
phenomena
D
Feedback:
A theory is an abstract generalization that
systematically explains relationships among
phenomena, but does not prove these
relationships conclusively. Schematic models
(or conceptual maps) are graphic
representations of phenomena and their
interrelationships using symbols or diagrams
and a minimal use of words. Grand theories
(or macro theories) attempt to describe large
segments of the human experience, but this is
not true of all theories.
D)
Ans:
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The building blocks of theory are which of
the following?
Frameworks
Relationships
Concepts
Hypotheses
C
Feedback:
As classically defined, theories consist of
concepts and a set of propositions that form a
logically interrelated system, providing a
mechanism for deducing hypotheses from the
original propositions. Schematic models (or
conceptual maps) visually represent
relationships among phenomena, and are used
in both qualitative and quantitative research.
Like theories, conceptual models can serve as
springboards for generating hypotheses.
4. Every study has which of the following?
Theory
Schematic model
Framework
Conceptual model
C
Feedback:
A framework is the conceptual underpinning
of a study. Not every study is based on a
theory or conceptual model, but every study
has a framework. Schematic models (or
conceptual maps) are graphic representations
of phenomena and their interrelationships
using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use
of words; not every study has a schematic
model.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Schematic model
Framework
Conceptual model
C
Feedback:
A framework is the conceptual underpinning
of a study. Not every study is based on a
theory or conceptual model, but every study
has a framework. Schematic models (or
conceptual maps) are graphic representations
of phenomena and their interrelationships
using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use
of words; not every study has a schematic
model.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is true of both
theories and conceptual models?
They are invented or created, not discovered.
They need to be borrowed from other
disciplines for nursing studies.
They contain a set of logically interrelated
propositions.
They are different words for exactly the same
thing.
A
Feedback:
Theories and conceptual models are invented
or created, not discovered. A theory, but not a
conceptual model, consists of concepts and a
set of propositions that form a logically
interrelated system, providing a mechanism
for deducing hypotheses from the original
propositions. Several conceptual models of
nursing have been used in nursing research,
so they do not need to be borrowed from other
disciplines.
The Health Promotion Model would best be
described as which of the following?
Descriptive theory
Borrowed theory
Grounded theory
Middle-range theory
D
Feedback:
Examples of middle-range theories that have
been used in research include Beck's (2012)
Theory of Postpartum Depression; the Theory
of Unpleasant Symptoms (Lenz et al., 1997),
Kolcaba's (2003) Comfort Theory, Pender's
Health Promotion Model, and Mishel's
Uncertainty in Illness Theory (1990). Middle-
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Borrowed theory
Grounded theory
Middle-range theory
D
Feedback:
Examples of middle-range theories that have
been used in research include Beck's (2012)
Theory of Postpartum Depression; the Theory
of Unpleasant Symptoms (Lenz et al., 1997),
Kolcaba's (2003) Comfort Theory, Pender's
Health Promotion Model, and Mishel's
Uncertainty in Illness Theory (1990). Middlerange theories are specific to certain
phenomena. Descriptive theory thoroughly
describes a phenomenon. Non-nursing models
used by nurse researchers (e.g., Bandura's
Social Cognitive Theory) are referred to as
borrowed theories; when the appropriateness
of borrowed theories for nursing inquiry is
confirmed, the theories become shared
theories. Some qualitative researchers seek to
develop grounded theories, data-driven
explanations to account for phenomena under
study through inductive processes.
Which of the following are central concepts in
7. conceptual models of nursing? Select all that
apply.
Human beings
Social support
Health
Environment
A, C, D
Feedback:
The concepts central to models of nursing are
human beings, environment, health, and
nursing. Social supports are not a concept
central to models of nursing.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The nurse-theorist Roy developed which of
the following?
Uncertainty in Illness Model
Health Promotion Model
Adaptation Model
Theory of Stress and Coping
C
Feedback:
An example of a model of nursing used by
nurse researchers is Roy's Adaptation Model.
Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
(Mishel, 1990) focuses on the concept of
uncertainty—the inability of a person to
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Health Promotion Model
Adaptation Model
Theory of Stress and Coping
C
Feedback:
An example of a model of nursing used by
nurse researchers is Roy's Adaptation Model.
Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
(Mishel, 1990) focuses on the concept of
uncertainty—the inability of a person to
determine the meaning of illness-related
events. Nola Pender's (2006) Health
Promotion Model (HPM) focuses on
explaining health-promoting behaviors, using
a wellness orientation. Lazarus and Folkman's
(1984, 2006) Theory of Stress and Coping
offers an explanation of people's methods of
dealing with stress.
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The nurse-theorist Pender developed which of
the following?
Adaptation Model
Social Cognitive Theory
Health Belief Model
Health Promotion Model
D
Feedback:
Pender's (2006) Health Promotion Model
(HPM) focuses on explaining healthpromoting behaviors, using a wellness
orientation. An example of a model of nursing
used by nurse researchers is Roy's Adaptation
Model. The Social Cognitive Theory was
developed by Bandura, and the Health Belief
Model was developed by Becker.
The nurse-theorist Mishel developed which of
the following?
Uncertainty in Illness Theory
Health Promotion Model
Adaptation Model
Transtheoretical Model
A
Feedback:
Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
(Mishel, 1990) focuses on the concept of
uncertainty—the inability of a person to
determine the meaning of illness-related
events. Pender's (2006) Health Promotion
Model (HPM) focuses on explaining healthpromoting behaviors, using a wellness
orientation. An example of a model of nursing
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Health Promotion Model
Adaptation Model
Transtheoretical Model
A
Feedback:
Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
(Mishel, 1990) focuses on the concept of
uncertainty—the inability of a person to
determine the meaning of illness-related
events. Pender's (2006) Health Promotion
Model (HPM) focuses on explaining healthpromoting behaviors, using a wellness
orientation. An example of a model of nursing
used by nurse researchers is Roy's Adaptation
Model. Prochaska developed the
Transtheoretical Model.
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The Theory of Stress and Coping is an
example of which of the following?
A nursing model
A grand theory
A borrowed theory
A grounded theory
C
Feedback:
An example of a model of nursing used by
nurse researchers is Roy's Adaptation Model.
Grand theories (or macro theories) attempt to
describe large segments of the human
experience. Non-nursing models used by
nurse researchers (e.g., Bandura's Social
Cognitive Theory) are referred to as borrowed
theories; when the appropriateness of
borrowed theories for nursing inquiry is
confirmed, the theories become shared
theories. The Theory of Stress and Coping is
an example of a borrowed theory. Some
qualitative researchers seek to develop
grounded theories, data-driven explanations to
account for phenomena under study through
inductive processes.
Self efficacy is a widely-used construct that
12. was originally developed within which of the
following?
The Health Belief Model
The Health Promotion Model
Social Cognitive Theory
The Uncertainty in Illness Theory
C
Feedback:
Social Cognitive Theory (Bandura, 1985,
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Self efficacy is a widely-used construct that
12. was originally developed within which of the
following?
The Health Belief Model
The Health Promotion Model
Social Cognitive Theory
The Uncertainty in Illness Theory
C
Feedback:
Social Cognitive Theory (Bandura, 1985,
2001), which is sometimes called selfefficacy theory, offers an explanation of
human behavior using the concepts of selfefficacy, outcome expectations, and
incentives. Becker's Health Belief Model
(HBM) is a framework for explaining people's
health-related behavior, such as health-care
use and compliance with a medical regimen.
Nola Pender's (2006) Health Promotion
Model (HPM) focuses on explaining healthpromoting behaviors, using a wellness
orientation. Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness
Theory (Mishel, 1990) focuses on the
concept of uncertainty—the inability of a
person to determine the meaning of illnessrelated events.
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Stages of change is a construct that was
developed within which of the following?
The Health Belief Model
The Transtheoretical Model
Health as Expanding Consciousness Model
The Theory of Planned Behavior
B
Feedback:
In the Transtheoretical Model (Prochaska et
al., 2002), the core construct is stages of
change, which conceptualizes a continuum of
motivational readiness to change problem
behavior. Becker's Health Belief Model
(HBM) is a framework for explaining people's
health-related behavior, such as health-care
use and compliance with a medical regimen.
The Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB;
Ajzen, 2005), which is an extension of
another theory called the Theory of Reasoned
Action, offers a framework for understanding
people's behavior and its psychological
determinants. Rosa (2011) based her study of
the process of transformative nursing practice
in caring for patients with a chronic illness in
Margaret Newman's (1997) Theory of Health
as Expanding Consciousness.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The Transtheoretical Model
Health as Expanding Consciousness Model
The Theory of Planned Behavior
B
Feedback:
In the Transtheoretical Model (Prochaska et
al., 2002), the core construct is stages of
change, which conceptualizes a continuum of
motivational readiness to change problem
behavior. Becker's Health Belief Model
(HBM) is a framework for explaining people's
health-related behavior, such as health-care
use and compliance with a medical regimen.
The Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB;
Ajzen, 2005), which is an extension of
another theory called the Theory of Reasoned
Action, offers a framework for understanding
people's behavior and its psychological
determinants. Rosa (2011) based her study of
the process of transformative nursing practice
in caring for patients with a chronic illness in
Margaret Newman's (1997) Theory of Health
as Expanding Consciousness.
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A grounded theory often has as a theoretical
underpinning which of the following?
An ideational theory
Symbolic interactionism
Phenomenology
The Theory of Human Becoming
B
Feedback:
Some qualitative researchers seek to develop
grounded theories, data-driven explanations to
account for phenomena under study through
inductive processes. A popular theoretical
underpinning of grounded theory research is
symbolic interaction (or interactionism),
which has three underlying premises (Blumer,
1986). In some qualitative research traditions
(e.g., phenomenology), the researcher strives
to suspend previously held substantive
theories of the specific phenomena under
study, but each tradition has rich theoretical
underpinnings. Ideational theories, a type of
cultural theory, suggest that cultural
conditions and adaptation stem from mental
activity. The Theory of Human Becoming
(Parse, 1999) has been called a nursing grand
theory.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Symbolic interactionism
Phenomenology
The Theory of Human Becoming
B
Feedback:
Some qualitative researchers seek to develop
grounded theories, data-driven explanations to
account for phenomena under study through
inductive processes. A popular theoretical
underpinning of grounded theory research is
symbolic interaction (or interactionism),
which has three underlying premises (Blumer,
1986). In some qualitative research traditions
(e.g., phenomenology), the researcher strives
to suspend previously held substantive
theories of the specific phenomena under
study, but each tradition has rich theoretical
underpinnings. Ideational theories, a type of
cultural theory, suggest that cultural
conditions and adaptation stem from mental
activity. The Theory of Human Becoming
(Parse, 1999) has been called a nursing grand
theory.
The belief that a child with Attention Deficit
Hyperactivity Disorder will learn appropriate
behaviors from continued positive
reinforcement of acceptable behavior patterns
15.
can generate a research hypothesis. This
generalization of the relationship between
phenomena is known as which of the
following?
Null Hypothesis
Theory
Model
Framework
B
Feedback:
Classically, theory is defined as an abstract
generalization that explains how phenomena
are interrelated. The relationships in this case
are between the concepts of ADHD and
positive reinforcement. Models are more
loosely structured than theories and deal more
in abstracts. Frameworks relate to the
conceptual underpinnings of a study. A null
hypothesis suggests that no relationship exists
between concepts. In this case, we are looking
at the relationship between ADHD and
positive reinforcement with the hypothesis
that a relationship does exist.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Theory
Model
Framework
B
Feedback:
Classically, theory is defined as an abstract
generalization that explains how phenomena
are interrelated. The relationships in this case
are between the concepts of ADHD and
positive reinforcement. Models are more
loosely structured than theories and deal more
in abstracts. Frameworks relate to the
conceptual underpinnings of a study. A null
hypothesis suggests that no relationship exists
between concepts. In this case, we are looking
at the relationship between ADHD and
positive reinforcement with the hypothesis
that a relationship does exist.
The connection of phenomena through a
loosely structured approach not directly
16.
linking them in a logically deductive manner
is which of the following?
Middle range theory
Theoretical framework
Conceptual model
Research question
C
Feedback:
Conceptual models focus on abstracts and
therefore are loosely structured, presenting an
understanding of the phenomena and a
philosophical view of the design. They do not
link concepts in a logically derived deductive
system. Middle-range theories, compared
with grand theories, are more specific and
more amenable to empirical testing. In a study
based on a theory, the framework is called the
theoretical framework. A research question
specifically poses the research problem being
studied, such as the following: Does hand
washing reduce hospital-acquired infections?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Identify the type of research that often fails to
formally acknowledge the conceptual
17. underpinnings or framework of the study
since it is not necessarily part of the research
tradition.
Quantitative research
Qualitative research
Pilot study
Mixed method research
A
Feedback:
Quantitative studies look at the research
problem, research question, and hypothesis
from a statistical approach, which does not
necessarily have a conceptual framework
basis. In qualitative studies, the framework is
part of the research tradition in which the
study is based. A pilot study can be of either a
quantitative, qualitative, or mixed-method
approach, thereby having some
acknowledgement of the conceptual
framework.
18.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following concepts are central to
nursing models? Select all that apply.
Human beings
Environment
Health
Nutrition
A, B, C
Feedback:
Human beings, environment, and health are
three of the four concepts central to models of
nursing, with nursing being the fourth, as
opposed to nutrition. These conceptual
models have been defined and linked in
diverse ways to emphasize the relationship
among them.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Research on the recovery process of young
adults following post-traumatic amputation of
19. a lower extremity would best be furthered by
using which of the following conceptual
models of nursing?
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model
Becker's Health Belief Model
Sister Callista Roy's Adaptation Model
D
Feedback:
In the Adaptation Model, humans are
considered adaptive systems that cope with
change through adaptation. A patient with an
amputation of a lower extremity would have
the need to cope with this loss and adapt to
the change in mobility resultant from the
trauma. Social Cognitive Theory (Bandura,
1985, 2001), which is sometimes called selfefficacy theory, offers an explanation of
human behavior using the concepts of selfefficacy, outcome expectations, and
incentives. Self-efficacy concerns people's
belief in their own capacity to carry out
particular behaviors (e.g., smoking cessation).
In the Transtheoretical Model (Prochaska et
al., 2002), the core construct is stages of
change, which conceptualizes a continuum of
motivational readiness to change problem
behavior.
Becker's Health Belief Model (HBM) is a
framework for explaining people's healthrelated behavior, such as health-care use and
compliance with a medical regimen.
Which of the following is a non-nursing
conceptual model frequently used in nursing
20.
research and can be considered a shared
theory?
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
Pender's Health Promotion Model
Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
Beck's Theory of Postpartum Depression
A
Feedback:
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory is one of
the five non-nursing models or theories
frequently used in nursing studies. All of the
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
theory?
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
Pender's Health Promotion Model
Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
Beck's Theory of Postpartum Depression
A
Feedback:
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory is one of
the five non-nursing models or theories
frequently used in nursing studies. All of the
other choices are considered nursing models.
Which of the following are overall objectives
21. of the use of theories in research? Select all
that apply.
To provide a mechanism for deducing
hypotheses
To stimulate new research
To explain relationships among phenomena
To determine the research design and methods
of data collection
A, B, C
Feedback:
Classically, theory is defined as an abstract
generalization that explains how phenomena
are interrelated. As classically defined,
theories consist of concepts and a set of
propositions that form a logically interrelated
system, providing a mechanism for deducing
hypotheses from the original propositions.
Theories can also help to stimulate research
by providing both direction and impetus. The
research design and methods of data
collection are directly related to the research
problem and research question and are not
primarily determined by the theory.
Conceptual models of nursing are used by
nurse researchers as an inspiration in
formulating research questions and directing
22.
research hypotheses. Some of the concepts
that form these models include which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Health promotion
Unified whole
Adaptation
Self-efficacy
A, B, C
Feedback:
Health promotion, unified whole, and
adaptation are conceptual models theorized by
Pender, Rogers, and Roy, respectively, all
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
following? Select all that apply.
Health promotion
Unified whole
Adaptation
Self-efficacy
A, B, C
Feedback:
Health promotion, unified whole, and
adaptation are conceptual models theorized by
Pender, Rogers, and Roy, respectively, all
nurse theorists. Self-efficacy comes out of
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory and is
considered a non-nursing theory frequently
used in nursing studies.
Theories are created and invented as opposed
23. to being discovered. Theories are built
inductively from which of the following?
Observations
Correlations
Research questions
Research problems
A
Feedback:
Theory and research have a reciprocal
relationship. Theories are built inductively
from observations, and research is an
excellent source for those observations. The
theory, in turn, must be tested by subjecting
deductions from it (hypotheses) to systematic
inquiry. Thus, research plays a dual and
continuing role in theory building and testing.
Correlations, research questions, and research
problems are part of the research designs that
validate or test the relationship between
concepts.
Visual representation of the relationships
among phenomena used in both quantitative
24.
and qualitative research is known as which of
the following?
Descriptive theory
Framework
Shared theory
Conceptual map
D
Feedback:
Conceptual maps or schematic models link
concepts and represent them graphically
through boxes, arrows, or other symbols.
Although theories and frameworks build
through concepts they are not necessarily
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Framework
Shared theory
Conceptual map
D
Feedback:
Conceptual maps or schematic models link
concepts and represent them graphically
through boxes, arrows, or other symbols.
Although theories and frameworks build
through concepts they are not necessarily
always depicted through a schematic
representation.
The five stages of change of the
25. Transtheoretical Model include which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Precontemplation
Action
Evaluation
Maintenance
A, B, D
Feedback:
Precontemplation, action, and maintenance
are all part of the Transtheoretical Model. The
second and third stages are contemplation and
preparation. Evaluation is not a stage of
change in this model.
Which of the following theories are usually
26. adopted by ethnographers in the conduction
of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
Ideational theories
Materialistic theories
Substantive theories
Preexisting theories
A, B
Feedback:
Ethnographers adopt one of two cultural
theories, ideational theories, which suggest
that cultural conditions and adaptation stem
from mental activity and ideas, or
materialistic theories, which view material
conditions as the source of cultural
development. Substantive theory is a
conceptualization of the target phenomenon
being studied and can be used in any
qualitative approach. Preexisting theories are
frequently used in quantitative research.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Materialistic theories
Substantive theories
Preexisting theories
A, B
Feedback:
Ethnographers adopt one of two cultural
theories, ideational theories, which suggest
that cultural conditions and adaptation stem
from mental activity and ideas, or
materialistic theories, which view material
conditions as the source of cultural
development. Substantive theory is a
conceptualization of the target phenomenon
being studied and can be used in any
qualitative approach. Preexisting theories are
frequently used in quantitative research.
Lazarus and Folkman's Theory of Stress and
Coping has been used in nursing research to
correlate the relationship between stress and
27.
anxiety in primary caregivers of patients with
dementia. This is an example of which of the
following?
Conceptual model
Framework
Shared theory
Grounded theory
C
Feedback:
The Theory of Stress and Coping is one of
five non-nursing models or theories that have
frequently been used in nursing studies, thus
making it a shared theory. Grounded theory is
a tradition of qualitative research. Concepts
are the building blocks of theories. Theories
can serve as the basis of a framework in a
study although there is no specific indication
above that it was used in a specific research
study.
Nursing theories that are more restricted in
their generality and set out to explain a
28.
smaller focus of the human experience are
known as which of the following?
Grand theories
Middle-range theories
Classical theories
Propositions
B
Feedback:
Middle-range theories explain a portion of the
human experience such as decision-making or
28.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
smaller focus of the human experience are
known as which of the following?
Grand theories
Middle-range theories
Classical theories
Propositions
B
Feedback:
Middle-range theories explain a portion of the
human experience such as decision-making or
infant attachment. Grand theories or macrotheories explain large segments of human
experience and tend to be more general.
Classically defined, theories consist of
concepts and a set of propositions that form a
logically interrelated system, providing a
mechanism for logically deducing new
statements from original propositions.
CH 9
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The research design for a quantitative study
1. involves decisions with regard to which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Which conceptual framework to use
Whether there will be an intervention
What types of comparisons will be made
How many times data will be collected
B, C, D
Feedback:
The research design is the overall plan for
answering research questions. In quantitative
studies, the design designates whether there is
an intervention, the nature of any
comparisons, methods for controlling
confounding variables, whether there will be
blinding, and the timing and location of data
collection. Choosing a conceptual framework
is not a significant part of the research design
for quantitative studies but is more important
in qualitative studies.
Which of the following are key criteria for
making causal inferences about the
2.
relationship between two variables? Select all
that apply.
Lack of temporal ambiguity about which
variable occurred first
Statistical confirmation that a relationship
between the two exists
The ability to randomly assign study
participants to groups
The ability to rule out other factors as
potential causes of the outcome
A, B, D
Feedback:
Key criteria for inferring causality include:
(1) a cause (independent variable) must
precede an effect (outcome); (2) there must be
a detectable relationship between a cause and
an effect; and (3) the relationship between the
two does not reflect the influence of a third
(confounding) variable. The ability to
randomly assign study participants to groups
is not a key criterion for causality but rather is
a method of preventing systematic bias.
C)
participants to groups
The ability to rule out other factors as
potential causes of the outcome
A, B, D
Feedback:
Key criteria for inferring causality include:
(1) a cause (independent variable) must
precede an effect (outcome); (2) there must be
a detectable relationship between a cause and
an effect; and (3) the relationship between the
two does not reflect the influence of a third
(confounding) variable. The ability to
randomly assign study participants to groups
is not a key criterion for causality but rather is
a method of preventing systematic bias.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
An important function of a rigorous research
3. design in a quantitative study is to have
control over which of the following?
Outcome variables
Mediating variables
Carryover variables
Confounding variables
D
Feedback:
Key criteria for inferring causality include:
(1) a cause (independent variable) must
precede an effect (outcome); (2) there must be
a detectable relationship between a cause and
an effect (mediating); and (3) the relationship
between the two does not reflect the influence
of a third (confounding) variable. A crossover
design has the advantage of ensuring the
highest possible equivalence among the
people exposed to different conditions. Such
designs are inappropriate for certain research
questions, however, because of possible
carryover effects. Outcome variables are not
to be controlled but are the effect that is under
study. Mediating variables are those through
which another variable has an effect on the
outcome variable. They do not need to be
controlled.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A true experiment requires which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Control
Intervention
Blinding
Randomization
A, B, D
Feedback:
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A true experiment requires which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Control
Intervention
Blinding
Randomization
A, B, D
Feedback:
Experiments (or randomized controlled trials,
RCTs) involve an intervention (the researcher
manipulates the independent variable by
introducing an intervention; control
(including the use of a control group that is
not given the intervention and represents the
comparative counterfactual); and
randomization or random assignment (with
participants allocated to experimental and
control groups at random to make the groups
comparable at the outset). Blinding is a means
of controlling external sources of bias, but is
not required or even feasible for all
experiments. By keeping data collectors and
others unaware of group allocation or study
hypotheses, researchers minimize the risk that
other people involved in the study will
influence the results.
The use of a random numbers table for
5. assigning subjects to groups eliminates which
of the following?
Selection threat
Intervention fidelity
Attrition
Carryover effects
A
Feedback:
A selection threat reflects biases stemming
from preexisting differences between groups;
use of random assignment via a random
numbers table eliminates selection threat.
Careful researchers pay attention to
intervention fidelity—that is, they take steps
to monitor that an intervention is faithfully
delivered in accordance with its plan and that
the intended treatment was actually received.
Longitudinal studies are typically expensive,
time-consuming, and subject to the risk of
attrition (loss of participants over time), but
yield valuable information about time-related
phenomena. A crossover design has the
advantage of ensuring the highest possible
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Intervention fidelity
Attrition
Carryover effects
A
Feedback:
A selection threat reflects biases stemming
from preexisting differences between groups;
use of random assignment via a random
numbers table eliminates selection threat.
Careful researchers pay attention to
intervention fidelity—that is, they take steps
to monitor that an intervention is faithfully
delivered in accordance with its plan and that
the intended treatment was actually received.
Longitudinal studies are typically expensive,
time-consuming, and subject to the risk of
attrition (loss of participants over time), but
yield valuable information about time-related
phenomena. A crossover design has the
advantage of ensuring the highest possible
equivalence among the people exposed to
different conditions. Such designs are
inappropriate for certain research questions,
however, because of possible carryover
effects—that is, when subjects are exposed to
two different treatments, they may be
influenced in the second condition by their
experience in the first. Random assignment
does not eliminate intervention fidelity,
attrition, or carryover effects.
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is invariably present
in quasi-experimental research?
A control group
An intervention
Matching of subjects
Randomization
B
Feedback:
Quasi-experiments (trials without
randomization) involve an intervention but
lack randomization and, sometimes, a control
group. Strong quasi-experimental designs
introduce controls to compensate for these
missing components. Matching of subjects is
a method of controlling confounding variables
by consciously forming comparable groups,
which is used in some, but not all, quasiexperiments.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
An intervention
Matching of subjects
Randomization
B
Feedback:
Quasi-experiments (trials without
randomization) involve an intervention but
lack randomization and, sometimes, a control
group. Strong quasi-experimental designs
introduce controls to compensate for these
missing components. Matching of subjects is
a method of controlling confounding variables
by consciously forming comparable groups,
which is used in some, but not all, quasiexperiments.
7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A one-group pretest-posttest design is an
example of which of the following?
A crossover design
A true experimental design
A quasi-experimental design
A retrospective design
C
Feedback:
Quasi-experiments involve an intervention
but lack randomization and sometimes even a
comparison group. Strong quasi-experimental
designs introduce controls to compensate for
these missing components. In crossover
designs, people are exposed to more than one
experimental condition in random order and
serve as their own controls. Experiments
involve an intervention; control; and
randomization or random assignment.
Retrospective designs involve collecting data
about an outcome in the present and then
looking back in time for possible causes.
A pretest is to a posttest as which of the
following?
The placebo effect is to the Hawthorne effect
A baseline measure is to a final outcome
measure
Blinding is to matching
Attrition is to a mortality threat
B
Feedback:
In pretest-posttest designs, data are collected
both before the intervention (at baseline) and
after it (outcome). The control group can
undergo various conditions, including no
treatment; an alternative treatment; a placebo
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
measure
Blinding is to matching
Attrition is to a mortality threat
B
Feedback:
In pretest-posttest designs, data are collected
both before the intervention (at baseline) and
after it (outcome). The control group can
undergo various conditions, including no
treatment; an alternative treatment; a placebo
or pseudo intervention; standard treatment at
different treatment doses; or a wait-list
condition. In the Hawthorne effect, various
environmental conditions vary to determine
their effect on worker productivity. Blinding
is another means of controlling external
sources of bias. Matching is deliberately
making groups comparable on some
extraneous variables. Longitudinal studies are
typically expensive, time-consuming, and
subject to the risk of attrition (loss of
participants over time). Mortality is the threat
that arises from attrition in groups being
compared. If different kinds of people remain
in the study in one group versus another, then
these differences, rather than the independent
variable, could account for group differences
in outcomes.
One weakness associated with cause-probing
9. correlational research is which of the
following?
Artificiality of the settings in which it occurs
Difficulty in linking the research to a
theoretical framework
Problem of self-selection into groups
Inability to generalize the findings beyond the
sample
C
Feedback:
Correlational studies are susceptible to faulty
interpretation because groups being compared
have formed through self-selection (also
called selection bias). When researchers study
the effect of a cause they cannot manipulate,
they use correlational designs that examine
relationships between variables. A correlation
is an interrelationship or association between
two variables, that is, a tendency for variation
in one variable to be related to variation in
another. Correlations can be detected through
statistical analyses.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Problem of self-selection into groups
Inability to generalize the findings beyond the
sample
C
Feedback:
Correlational studies are susceptible to faulty
interpretation because groups being compared
have formed through self-selection (also
called selection bias). When researchers study
the effect of a cause they cannot manipulate,
they use correlational designs that examine
relationships between variables. A correlation
is an interrelationship or association between
two variables, that is, a tendency for variation
in one variable to be related to variation in
another. Correlations can be detected through
statistical analyses.
Which of the following research designs is
10. weakest in terms of the researcher's ability to
establish causality?
Experimental
Retrospective case-control
Prospective cohort
Quasi-experimental
B
Feedback:
Retrospective designs (case-control designs)
involve collecting data about an outcome in
the present and then looking back in time for
possible causes. Experiments are considered
the gold standard because they come closer
than any other design in meeting the criteria
for inferring causal relationships. In
prospective cohort designs, researchers begin
with a possible cause, and then subsequently
collect data about outcomes. Prospective
studies are more costly, but much stronger,
than retrospective studies. For one thing, any
ambiguity about the temporal sequence of
phenomena is resolved in prospective
research (i.e., smoking is known to precede
the lung cancer). Quasi-experiments (trials
without randomization) involve an
intervention but lack a comparison group or
randomization. Strong quasi-experimental
designs introduce controls to compensate for
these missing components, and thus are
generally stronger than non-experimental
designs (including retrospective designs).
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Retrospective case-control
Prospective cohort
Quasi-experimental
B
Feedback:
Retrospective designs (case-control designs)
involve collecting data about an outcome in
the present and then looking back in time for
possible causes. Experiments are considered
the gold standard because they come closer
than any other design in meeting the criteria
for inferring causal relationships. In
prospective cohort designs, researchers begin
with a possible cause, and then subsequently
collect data about outcomes. Prospective
studies are more costly, but much stronger,
than retrospective studies. For one thing, any
ambiguity about the temporal sequence of
phenomena is resolved in prospective
research (i.e., smoking is known to precede
the lung cancer). Quasi-experiments (trials
without randomization) involve an
intervention but lack a comparison group or
randomization. Strong quasi-experimental
designs introduce controls to compensate for
these missing components, and thus are
generally stronger than non-experimental
designs (including retrospective designs).
If a researcher wanted to describe the
relationship between women's age and
11. frequency of performing breast selfexamination, the study would be classified as
which of the following?
Descriptive correlational
Quasi-experimental
Longitudinal
Experimental
A
Feedback:
Nonexperimental (observational) research
includes descriptive research—studies that
summarize the status of phenomena—and
correlational studies that examine
relationships among variables but involve no
intervention or attempt to infer causal
connections. Quasi-experiments (trials
without randomization) involve an
intervention but lack a comparison group or
randomization. Longitudinal designs involve
data collection at two or more times over an
extended period. Experiments (or randomized
controlled trials, RCTs) involve an
intervention (the researcher manipulates the
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Quasi-experimental
Longitudinal
Experimental
A
Feedback:
Nonexperimental (observational) research
includes descriptive research—studies that
summarize the status of phenomena—and
correlational studies that examine
relationships among variables but involve no
intervention or attempt to infer causal
connections. Quasi-experiments (trials
without randomization) involve an
intervention but lack a comparison group or
randomization. Longitudinal designs involve
data collection at two or more times over an
extended period. Experiments (or randomized
controlled trials, RCTs) involve an
intervention (the researcher manipulates the
independent variable by introducing an
intervention; control (including the use of a
control group that is not given the
intervention and represents the comparative
counterfactual); and randomization or random
assignment (with participants allocated to
experimental and control groups at random to
make the groups comparable at the outset).
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Studies that collect data at one point in time
are called which of the following?
Time series
Cross-sectional studies
Longitudinal studies
Crossover studies
B
Feedback:
Cross-sectional designs involve the collection
of data at one time period, whereas
longitudinal designs involve data collection at
two or more times over an extended period. In
a time-series design, outcome data are
collected over a period of time before and
after the intervention, usually for a single
group. In crossover designs, people are
exposed to more than one experimental
condition in random order and serve as their
own controls.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A study that followed, over a 20-year period,
500 users and 500 non-users of oral
13. contraceptives to determine if there were any
long-term side effects would be which of the
following?
Time series
Retrospective study
Prospective study
Crossover study
C
Feedback:
In prospective cohort designs, researchers
begin with a possible cause, and then
subsequently collect data about outcomes.
Retrospective designs (case-control designs)
involve collecting data about an outcome in
the present and then looking back in time for
possible causes. In a time-series design,
outcome data are collected over a period of
time before and after the intervention, usually
for a single group. In crossover designs,
people are exposed to more than one
experimental condition in random order and
serve as their own controls.
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Constancy of conditions is often enhanced
through which of the following?
Collect data at the same time every day
Using a crossover design
Maximizing the external validity of the study
Avoiding carryover effects
A
Feedback:
Various external factors, such as the research
environment, can affect outcomes. In
carefully controlled quantitative research,
steps are taken to minimize situational
contaminants (i.e., to achieve constancy of
conditions) so that researchers can be
confident that outcomes reflect the influence
of the independent variable and not the study
context. Collecting data at the same time
every day is an example of this. A crossover
design involves exposing people to more than
one treatment. Such designs are inappropriate
for certain research questions, however,
because of possible carryover effects.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Using a crossover design
Maximizing the external validity of the study
Avoiding carryover effects
A
Feedback:
Various external factors, such as the research
environment, can affect outcomes. In
carefully controlled quantitative research,
steps are taken to minimize situational
contaminants (i.e., to achieve constancy of
conditions) so that researchers can be
confident that outcomes reflect the influence
of the independent variable and not the study
context. Collecting data at the same time
every day is an example of this. A crossover
design involves exposing people to more than
one treatment. Such designs are inappropriate
for certain research questions, however,
because of possible carryover effects.
External validity concerns inferences about
whether relationships found for study
participants might hold true for different
people, conditions, and settings. These other
answers do not enhance constancy of
conditions.
Using homogeneity as a strategy for
15. controlling confounding variables can reduce
which of the following?
Construct validity
External validity
Intervention fidelity
Internal validity
B
Feedback:
External validity concerns inferences about
whether relationships found for study
participants might hold true for different
people, conditions, and settings—in other
words, generalizability. Using a homogeneous
sample is easy, but one problem is limited
generalizability. Indeed, one problem with
this approach is that researchers may exclude
people who are extremely ill or incapacitated,
which means that the findings cannot be
generalized to the very people who perhaps
are most in need of interventions. Construct
validity involves inferences from the
particulars of the study to the higher-order
constructs they are intended to represent. If
studies contain construct errors, there is a risk
that the evidence will be misleading.
Intervention fidelity helps to avert biases and
gives potential benefits a full opportunity to
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
External validity
Intervention fidelity
Internal validity
B
Feedback:
External validity concerns inferences about
whether relationships found for study
participants might hold true for different
people, conditions, and settings—in other
words, generalizability. Using a homogeneous
sample is easy, but one problem is limited
generalizability. Indeed, one problem with
this approach is that researchers may exclude
people who are extremely ill or incapacitated,
which means that the findings cannot be
generalized to the very people who perhaps
are most in need of interventions. Construct
validity involves inferences from the
particulars of the study to the higher-order
constructs they are intended to represent. If
studies contain construct errors, there is a risk
that the evidence will be misleading.
Intervention fidelity helps to avert biases and
gives potential benefits a full opportunity to
be realized. Internal validity is the extent to
which it can be inferred that the independent
variable is truly causing the outcome.
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is the most effective
method for controlling participant factors?
Using a homogeneous sample
Statistical control
Matching subjects
Randomization
D
Feedback:
Techniques for controlling subject
characteristics include homogeneity
(restricting participants to reduce variability
on confounding variables); matching
(deliberately making groups comparable on
some extraneous variables); statistical
procedures; and randomization—the most
effective method because it controls all
possible confounding variables without
researchers having to identify them.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In a case-control design, a frequently used
17. method of controlling confounding variables
is which of the following?
Using participants as their own controls
Matching of cases and controls on
confounding variables
Randomization to groups
Homogeneity of the sample
B
Feedback:
Techniques for controlling subject
characteristics include homogeneity
(restricting participants to reduce variability
on confounding variables); matching
(deliberately making groups comparable on
some extraneous variables); statistical
procedures; and randomization—the most
effective method because it controls all
possible confounding variables without
researchers having to identify them.
The researcher does not have to know in
advance which confounding variables have to
18.
be controlled for which of the following
procedures?
Matching
Randomization
Statistical control
Homogeneity
B
Feedback:
Techniques for controlling subject
characteristics include homogeneity
(restricting participants to reduce variability
on confounding variables); matching
(deliberately making groups comparable on
some extraneous variables); statistical
procedures; and randomization—the most
effective method because it controls all
possible confounding variables without
researchers having to identify them.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The threat to internal validity that occurs
when external co-occurring events or
19.
conditions affect outcomes is the threat
known as which of the following?
Maturation
Selection
Testing
History
D
Feedback:
The history threat is the occurrence of events
concurrent with the independent variable that
can affect the outcome. The maturation threat
arises from processes occurring as a result of
time (e.g., growth, fatigue) rather than the
independent variable. The selection threat
reflects biases stemming from preexisting
differences between groups. RCTs have a
clear superiority for testing causal hypotheses.
Internal validity is the extent to which it can
be inferred that the independent variable is
truly causing the outcome.
In a nonequivalent control group design, the
20. most serious threat to internal validity is
which of the following?
Testing
Selection
Maturation
History
B
Feedback:
The selection threat reflects biases stemming
from preexisting differences between groups.
Selection bias is the most challenging threat
to the internal validity of studies not using an
experimental design (e.g., nonequivalent
control group designs, case-control designs),
but can be partially addressed using control
mechanisms described in the previous section.
The history threat is the occurrence of events
concurrent with the independent variable that
can affect the outcome. The maturation threat
arises from processes occurring as a result of
time (e.g., growth, fatigue) rather than the
independent variable. RCTs have a clear
superiority for testing causal hypotheses.
Internal validity is the extent to which it can
be inferred that the independent variable is
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Selection
Maturation
History
B
Feedback:
The selection threat reflects biases stemming
from preexisting differences between groups.
Selection bias is the most challenging threat
to the internal validity of studies not using an
experimental design (e.g., nonequivalent
control group designs, case-control designs),
but can be partially addressed using control
mechanisms described in the previous section.
The history threat is the occurrence of events
concurrent with the independent variable that
can affect the outcome. The maturation threat
arises from processes occurring as a result of
time (e.g., growth, fatigue) rather than the
independent variable. RCTs have a clear
superiority for testing causal hypotheses.
Internal validity is the extent to which it can
be inferred that the independent variable is
truly causing the outcome.
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In an RCT, the most serious threat to internal
validity typically is which of the following?
Mortality
Selection
Maturation
History
A
Feedback:
Mortality is the threat that arises from attrition
in groups being compared. If different kinds
of people remain in the study in one group
versus another, then these differences, rather
than the independent variable, could account
for group differences in outcomes. The
selection threat reflects biases stemming from
preexisting differences between groups.
Selection bias is the most challenging threat
to the internal validity of studies not using an
experimental design (e.g., nonequivalent
control group designs, case-control designs),
but can be partially addressed using control
mechanisms described in the previous section.
The history threat is the occurrence of events
concurrent with the independent variable that
can affect the outcome. In RCTs, history is
not typically a threat because external events
are as likely to affect one randomized group
as another. The maturation threat arises from
processes occurring as a result of time (e.g.,
growth, fatigue) rather than the independent
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Selection
Maturation
History
A
Feedback:
Mortality is the threat that arises from attrition
in groups being compared. If different kinds
of people remain in the study in one group
versus another, then these differences, rather
than the independent variable, could account
for group differences in outcomes. The
selection threat reflects biases stemming from
preexisting differences between groups.
Selection bias is the most challenging threat
to the internal validity of studies not using an
experimental design (e.g., nonequivalent
control group designs, case-control designs),
but can be partially addressed using control
mechanisms described in the previous section.
The history threat is the occurrence of events
concurrent with the independent variable that
can affect the outcome. In RCTs, history is
not typically a threat because external events
are as likely to affect one randomized group
as another. The maturation threat arises from
processes occurring as a result of time (e.g.,
growth, fatigue) rather than the independent
variable. One-group pretest-posttest designs
are especially vulnerable to the maturation
threat.
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A study is internally valid to the extent that
which of the following has taken place?
All alternative explanations to the
independent variable as the cause of outcomes
can be ruled out
A true experimental design was used
Intervention fidelity was maintained
A strong counterfactual was established
A
Feedback:
Internal validity is the extent to which it can
be inferred that the independent variable is
truly causing the outcome. Experiments (or
randomized controlled trials, RCTs) involve
an intervention (the researcher manipulates
the independent variable by introducing an
intervention; control (including the use of a
control group that is not given the
intervention and represents the comparative
counterfactual); and randomization or random
assignment (with participants allocated to
experimental and control groups at random to
make the groups comparable at the outset).
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A true experimental design was used
Intervention fidelity was maintained
A strong counterfactual was established
A
Feedback:
Internal validity is the extent to which it can
be inferred that the independent variable is
truly causing the outcome. Experiments (or
randomized controlled trials, RCTs) involve
an intervention (the researcher manipulates
the independent variable by introducing an
intervention; control (including the use of a
control group that is not given the
intervention and represents the comparative
counterfactual); and randomization or random
assignment (with participants allocated to
experimental and control groups at random to
make the groups comparable at the outset).
Intervention fidelity helps to avert biases and
gives potential benefits a full opportunity to
be realized. A counterfactual is what would
have happened to the same people
simultaneously exposed and not exposed to a
causal factor. The effect is the difference
between the two. A good research design for
cause-probing questions entails finding a
good approximation to the idealized
counterfactual.
The use of a diverse sample of study
23. participants in multiple sites might affect
which of the following?
Replicability of the study
The ability to use randomization
The ability to use blinding as a strategy
The study's external validity
D
Feedback:
External validity concerns inferences about
generalizability—whether findings hold true
over variations in people, conditions, and
settings. Having a diverse sample of study
participants in multiple sites would likely
enhance the study's generalizability, and thus
its external validity. The other answers would
not necessarily be affected by a diverse
sample of study participants in multiple sites.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
When participants' behaviors are affected not
by the treatment per se but by their
24. knowledge of participating in a study,
interpretation of the findings is complicated
by the influence of which of the following?
Treatment effect
History threat
Hawthorne effect
Selection threat
C
Feedback:
Hawthorne effect, in which various
environmental conditions vary to determine
their effect on worker productivity. The
history threat is the occurrence of events
concurrent with the independent variable that
can affect the outcome. The selection threat
reflects biases stemming from preexisting
differences between groups. Temporal
ambiguity, not treatment effect, the cause
must precede the effect.
25.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following can reduce the
statistical conclusion validity of a study?
Low attrition
Low power
Low generalizability
Low maturation
B
Feedback:
Statistical power refers to the capacity to
detect true relationships. Statistical power can
be achieved in various ways, the most
straightforward of which is to use a large
enough sample. With small samples,
statistical power tends to be low, and the
analyses may fail to show that the
independent variable and the outcome are
related—even when they are, thus reducing
statistical conclusion validity. The other
answers, although they may affect the study
as a whole, do not reduce its statistical
conclusion of validity.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Low power
Low generalizability
Low maturation
B
Feedback:
Statistical power refers to the capacity to
detect true relationships. Statistical power can
be achieved in various ways, the most
straightforward of which is to use a large
enough sample. With small samples,
statistical power tends to be low, and the
analyses may fail to show that the
independent variable and the outcome are
related—even when they are, thus reducing
statistical conclusion validity. The other
answers, although they may affect the study
as a whole, do not reduce its statistical
conclusion of validity.
The nurse is designing a research study to
assess the effectiveness of two wound healing
26. dressings. What key design feature will be
most important to address in this type of
study?
Intervention
Comparisons
Blinding
Location
B
Feedback:
The key design feature would be to address
the use of comparisons. An intervention is a
treatment. Location of the study would not be
most important with regards to the design
feature. Blinding refers to keeping certain
information from research participants to
minimize affecting the results via expectation
bias.
When addressing control of confounding
variables, which of the following best
27.
describes the question to be answered by the
researcher?
Who needs to know sensitive information
about the research details?
When will the data on the variables be
collected?
What other variables may influence the
results?
Where will data collection occur?
C
Feedback:
researcher?
Who needs to know sensitive information
about the research details?
When will the data on the variables be
collected?
What other variables may influence the
results?
Where will data collection occur?
C
Feedback:
When addressing control of confounding
variables, the researcher needs to answer the
question, “What other variables may
influence the results?” The other questions do
not influence the control of confounding
variables.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
28.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements best
illustrates causality?
Individuals who have suffered a myocardial
infarction (MI) are at higher risk for a second
MI within the next 5 years.
Prolonged sun exposure is associated with
higher rates of skin cancer.
Hiatal hernias are diagnosed more frequently
in elderly individuals.
Taking time away from work leads to fewer
stress-related illnesses.
B
Feedback:
The statement, “Prolonged sun exposure is
associated with higher rates of skin cancer”
best illustrates causality. The other statements
involve a greater likelihood that multiple
variables could explain the effect, whereas the
link between prolonged sun exposure and skin
cancer is much stronger.
Which of the statements below best illustrates
29. the temporal criterion needed for a causal
relationship?
Skin cancer occurs because of genetic
predisposition.
Kidney disease develops as a result of
pesticide exposure.
Hepatitis C occurs in populations with
substance abuse histories.
Following vaccination for varicella, rates of
varicella infection are lower.
D
Feedback:
A cause must precede an effect in time. The
A)
predisposition.
Kidney disease develops as a result of
pesticide exposure.
Hepatitis C occurs in populations with
substance abuse histories.
Following vaccination for varicella, rates of
varicella infection are lower.
D
Feedback:
A cause must precede an effect in time. The
answer “Following vaccination for varicella,
rates of varicella infection are lower” best
establishes that the suspected cause
(vaccination) comes before the observed
effect (decrease in varicella infection rates)..
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following are distinctive
30. characteristics of a true experimental design?
Select all that apply.
Intervention
Control
Randomization
Correlation
A, B, C
Feedback:
A true experimental design is characterized by
intervention, control, and randomization.
Correlation is not a distinctive characteristic
of a true experimental design, correlational
design may be used in nonexperimental
studies.
31.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Applying your knowledge of random
assignment, which statement is correct?
Random assignment is accomplished with
random sampling.
Grouping participants with similar features
together is the best way to achieve random
assignment.
Random assignment ensures that the study is
a true experiment.
Recruiting participants from significantly
different neighborhoods results in random
assignment.
C
Feedback:
Experimental designs involve placing
participants in groups at random. Through
randomization (or random assignment), every
participant has an equal chance of being
included in any group. Randomization is a
critical characteristic of a true experimental
Recruiting participants from significantly
different neighborhoods results in random
assignment.
C
Feedback:
Experimental designs involve placing
participants in groups at random. Through
randomization (or random assignment), every
participant has an equal chance of being
included in any group. Randomization is a
critical characteristic of a true experimental
study. The other answers are not true of
random assignment. Random sampling is a
method of selecting people for a study and is
not used to accomplish random assignment.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the graphic representations
32. illustrates a randomized experimental
interventional design with pre- and posttest?
RXOX
RORX
RXOO
ROXO
D
Feedback:
Experimental designs can be depicted
graphically using symbols to represent
features of the design. In these diagrams, the
convention is that R stands for randomization
to treatment groups, X represents receipt of
the intervention, and O is the measurement of
outcomes. So, for example, a pretest-posttest
design would be depicted as follows: R O X
O. The other answers do not illustrate the
correct order of elements.
33.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which statement infers the advantage to using
cross-over designs for quantitative research?
Enhances equivalence among participants
exposed to different interventions.
Different levels of the intervention are easily
compared.
Delaying the intervention highlights the
effects of persuasion.
Allows all participants to choose the
intervention they will receive.
A
Feedback:
In crossover designs, people are exposed to
more than one experimental condition in
random order and serve as their own controls.
In cross-over designs, different levels of the
Delaying the intervention highlights the
effects of persuasion.
Allows all participants to choose the
intervention they will receive.
A
Feedback:
In crossover designs, people are exposed to
more than one experimental condition in
random order and serve as their own controls.
In cross-over designs, different levels of the
interventions are not easily compared, and it
does not allow participants of the study to
choose interventions they will receive.
Delaying the intervention does not highlight
the effect of persuasion in a cross-over
design.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Quasi-experimental research designs lack
34. what feature found in true experimental
research?
Control groups
Pretests
Randomization
Placebos
C
Feedback:
Randomization is not seen in a quasiexperimental research design. Quasiexperimental studies may have control
groups, pretests, and placebos.
35.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Use of nonexperimental designs in research
fulfills what purpose?
Describing
Predicting
Controlling
Blinding
A
Feedback:
A nonexperimental design in research fulfills
the purpose of describing. It does not predict,
control, or use blinding.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The nurse plans a study comparing the
occurrence of anxiety disorders in military
personnel deployed overseas with those who
36.
served strictly within the borders of the
United States. What research design should be
selected for this study?
Experimental
Quasi-Experimental
Cohort
Nonexperimental
D
Feedback:
A nonexperimental design should be selected
for this study. When researchers do not
intervene by controlling the independent
variable, the study is nonexperimental, or, in
the medical literature, observational.
37.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Cross-sectional designs work best under what
research conditions?
Data collection over an extended period
Multiple points of data collection
Describing phenomena at a fixed point
For follow-up studies
C
Feedback:
Cross-sectional designs work best with
describing phenomena at a fixed point. Crosssectional designs involve the collection of
data at one time period. The other answers are
characteristics of longitudinal studies.
The nurse wishes to study the opinions of
high school students concerning the
availability of health care services at XYZ
38.
High School during the past school year.
What research design best fits with the study
objective?
Trend study
Cross-sectional study
Longitudinal study
Follow-up study
B
Feedback:
A cross-sectional study design would best fit
with this study objective. Cross-sectional
What research design best fits with the study
objective?
Trend study
Cross-sectional study
Longitudinal study
Follow-up study
B
Feedback:
A cross-sectional study design would best fit
with this study objective. Cross-sectional
designs involve the collection of data at one
time period, whereas longitudinal designs
involve data collection at two or more times
over an extended period. Cross-sectional
designs are economical and easy to manage,
and there is no need for inferring changes
over time in this case. In nursing, most
longitudinal studies are follow-up studies of
clinical populations. Longitudinal studies are
best for understanding trends over time.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following situations illustrates
39. control over an external confounding
variable?
Using a script to relay information about the
study.
Randomizing assignment to control treatment
groups.
Allowing for maximum flexibility over where
data is collected.
Choosing a heterogeneous sample of subjects.
A
Feedback:
Use of a script to relay information about the
study illustrates control over an external
confounding variable-study context.
Randomizing assignment to control the
treatment groups, allowing for maximum
flexibility over where data is collected, or
choosing a heterogeneous sample of subjects
does not illustrate control over an external
confounding variable but pertain rather to
those intrinsic to study participants.
40.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What is the strongest method of controlling
for intrinsic (subject) factors?
Statistical control
Randomization
Matching
Homogeneity
B
Feedback:
40.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
41.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What is the strongest method of controlling
for intrinsic (subject) factors?
Statistical control
Randomization
Matching
Homogeneity
B
Feedback:
The strongest method of controlling for
intrinsic (subject) factors is randomization. It
is the most effective method of controlling
participants' characteristics. Homogeneity
occurs when people who are similar in respect
to confounding variables are included in the
study. Matching involves consciously forming
comparable groups. Statistical control is the
ability to have control over confounding
variables statistically.
What study design flaw may lead to a failure
to achieve statistical significance?
Variables precisely defined
Adequate exposure to the intervention
Small sample size
Cross-sectional data collection
C
Feedback:
With small samples, statistical power tends to
be low, and the analyses may fail to show that
the independent variable and the outcome are
related—even when they are. Variables that
are precisely defined and have adequate
exposure to the intervention and crosssectional data collection lead to statistical
significance.
Using your knowledge of threats to internal
42. validity, which research design will be most
susceptible?
Pretest-Posttest
Cross-over
Correlational
Factorial
C
Feedback:
A correctional research design is most
susceptible to threats to internal validity. With
quasi-experiments and correlational studies,
there are competing explanations, which are
sometimes called threats to internal validity.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Pretest-Posttest
Cross-over
Correlational
Factorial
C
Feedback:
A correctional research design is most
susceptible to threats to internal validity. With
quasi-experiments and correlational studies,
there are competing explanations, which are
sometimes called threats to internal validity.
43.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
44.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which situation best reflects “attrition” in
quantitative research?
Control and intervention groups are very
different in age ranges.
Subjects receive promotional materials about
the benefits of the intervention.
Adolescent subjects improve in body hygiene
practices over 4 years.
Control group subjects drop out of the study
when their disease process does not improve.
D
Feedback:
Mortality is the threat that arises from attrition
in groups being compared. The most severely
ill patients might drop out of the experimental
condition because it is too demanding.
Which quantitative research design will most
strongly support evidence-based practice?
Factorial Design
Randomized Control Trial Design
Correlational Design
Time-Series Design
B
Feedback:
A randomized control trial design will most
strongly support evidence-based practice.
Randomized controlled trials are the most
powerful designs for testing hypotheses of
cause-and-effect relationships. RCTs are the
“gold standard” for intervention studies
(Therapy questions) because they yield the
highest-quality evidence about the effects of
an intervention.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A review of research reveals two articles that
have conflicting results. A national
randomized controlled trial found that annual
brain scans will allow early detection and
45. treatment of brain cancers, reducing mortality
by 65%. An international quasi-experimental
trial reported no significant reduction in
mortality with annual scans. Based on your
review, propose the best recommendation.
Recommendations from the national study
should be followed.
Recommendations from the international
study should be followed.
There is no rigorous research that can support
a recommendation.
Recommendations should be stratified
according to where the research was
conducted.
A
Feedback:
Methodologically, the main design issue in
quantitative studies is whether the research
design provides the most valid, unbiased, and
interpretable evidence possible. Indeed, there
usually is no other aspect of a quantitative
study that affects the quality of evidence as
much as research design. RCTs are the “gold
standard” for intervention studies (Therapy
questions) because they yield the highestquality evidence about the effects of an
intervention. Therefore, the best
recommendation would be to follow the
recommendations from the national
randomized controlled trial because it is more
authoritative than the quasi-experimental trial.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A research proposal states that the objective is
to, “explore the incidence of homeopathic
health practices on Iowa Native Reserves in
46. Oklahoma.” In describing the design to be
used for conducting the study, the researchers
plan to use a nonexperimental design. What
can you conclude from this proposal?
The choice of a nonexperimental design is
appropriate for the research objective.
Researchers should consider using a quasiexperimental design to meet their objective.
This research may not be answered
completely if a quantitative design is used.
The population to be studied needs to be
expanded to include all Native Americans in
Oklahoma to avoid a small sample size.
C
Feedback:
The research may not be answered completely
if a quantitative design is used, because the
research question is not amenable to
quantitative research. There are various
reasons for doing a nonexperimental study,
including situations in which the independent
variable inherently cannot be manipulated
(Prognosis questions) or in which it would be
unethical to manipulate the independent
variable (some Etiology questions).
Experimental designs are also not appropriate
for Descriptive questions.
To study the effects of Healing Touch; what is
47. the best choice to minimize confounding
variables?
Offer a small payment for participants' time.
Offer all participants a Healing Touch session
when data collection is completed.
Offer to enroll only individuals who do not
have any medical conditions.
Offer another activity that gives similar time
and attention to control group participants.
D
Feedback:
The best way to minimize confounding
variables is to offer another activity that gives
similar time and attention to control group
participants—known as a placebo. Otherwise,
the participant's knowledge of not receiving a
C)
D)
Ans:
have any medical conditions.
Offer another activity that gives similar time
and attention to control group participants.
D
Feedback:
The best way to minimize confounding
variables is to offer another activity that gives
similar time and attention to control group
participants—known as a placebo. Otherwise,
the participant's knowledge of not receiving a
treatment may affect the study's results. None
of the other answers would control for this
potential confounding variable.
CHIO
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Sampling may be defined as which of the
following?
Selection of an accessible population for a
study
Selection of a subset of a population to
represent the entire population
Assignment of study participants to treatment
groups
Technique for ensuring that every element in
the population has an equal chance of being
included in the study
B
Feedback:
Sampling is the process of selecting elements
from a population, which is an entire
aggregate of cases. An element is the basic
unit of a population—usually humans in
nursing research. Eligibility criteria (including
both inclusion criteria and exclusion criteria)
are used to define population characteristics.
Researchers usually sample from an
accessible population; a broader target
population is the group to which they would
like to generalize their results.
A key criterion in assessing a sample in a
quantitative study is its representativeness—
the extent to which the sample is similar to
the population and avoids bias.
Bias in a sample for a quantitative study
refers to which of the following?
Lack of heterogeneity in the population on the
attribute of interest
Sample selection using nonprobability-type
sampling methods
The margin of error in the data obtained from
samples
Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a
key attribute vis-a-vis the population
D
Feedback:
Sampling bias is the systematic
overrepresentation or underrepresentation of
some segment of the population.
Nonprobability sampling (in which elements
are selected by nonrandom methods) includes
convenience, quota, consecutive, and
purposive sampling. A key criterion in
C)
samples
Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a
key attribute vis-a-vis the population
D
Feedback:
Sampling bias is the systematic
overrepresentation or underrepresentation of
some segment of the population.
Nonprobability sampling (in which elements
are selected by nonrandom methods) includes
convenience, quota, consecutive, and
purposive sampling. A key criterion in
assessing a sample in a quantitative study is
its representativeness—the extent to which
the sample is similar to the population and
avoids bias.
D)
Ans:
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Strata are incorporated into the design of
which of the following sampling approaches?
Systematic
Purposive
Quota
Consecutive
C
Feedback:
Quota sampling divides the population into
homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to
ensure representation of the subgroups in the
sample; within each stratum, people are
sampled by convenience. Consecutive
sampling involves taking all of the people
from an accessible population who meet the
eligibility criteria over a specific time
interval, or for a specified sample size. In
purposive sampling, participants are handpicked to be included in the sample based on
the researcher's knowledge about the
population. Systematic sampling is the
selection of every kth case from a list.
Which of the following is a probability
sampling method?
Convenience sampling
Systematic sampling
Consecutive sampling
Quota sampling
B
Feedback:
Systematic sampling is the selection of every
kth case from a list and is an example of a
probability sampling method. Convenience
sampling uses the most readily available or
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Convenience sampling
Systematic sampling
Consecutive sampling
Quota sampling
B
Feedback:
Systematic sampling is the selection of every
kth case from a list and is an example of a
probability sampling method. Convenience
sampling uses the most readily available or
convenient group of people. Quota sampling
divides the population into homogeneous
strata (subpopulations) to ensure
representation of the subgroups in the sample;
within each stratum, people are sampled by
convenience. Consecutive sampling involves
taking all of the people from an accessible
population who meet the eligibility criteria
over a specific time interval, or for a specified
sample size.
The sampling design that would be especially
5. likely to yield a representative sample is
which of the following?
Consecutive
Convenience
Purposive
Quota
A
Feedback:
Consecutive sampling involves taking all of
the people from an accessible population who
meet the eligibility criteria over a specific
time interval, or for a specified sample size.
Convenience sampling uses the most readily
available or convenient group of people. In
purposive sampling, participants are handpicked to be included in the sample based on
the researcher's knowledge about the
population. Quota sampling divides the
population into homogeneous strata
(subpopulations) to ensure representation of
the subgroups in the sample; within each
stratum, people are sampled by convenience.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following types of sample is
6. considered to be the weakest for quantitative
studies?
Convenience
Quota
Purposive
Systematic
A
Feedback:
Convenience sampling uses the most readily
available or convenient group of people. The
problem with convenience sampling is that
people who are readily available might be
atypical of the population, and so the price of
convenience is the risk of bias. Convenience
sampling is the weakest form of sampling, but
it is also the most commonly used sampling
method in many disciplines. In purposive
sampling, participants are hand-picked to be
included in the sample based on the
researcher's knowledge about the population.
Quota sampling divides the population into
homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to
ensure representation of the subgroups in the
sample; within each stratum, people are
sampled by convenience. Systematic
sampling is the selection of every kth case
from a list.
A researcher used a systematic sampling plan.
The sample size was 200. The sampling
7.
interval was 250. The first element drawn was
196. The second element would be:
396
45
446
646
C
Feedback:
By dividing the population size by the desired
sample size, the researcher establishes the
sampling interval, which is the standard
distance between the selected elements: 196
(first element) + 250 (sample interval) = 446
(second element). 396, 450, and 646 are
incorrect responses.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
45
446
646
C
Feedback:
By dividing the population size by the desired
sample size, the researcher establishes the
sampling interval, which is the standard
distance between the selected elements: 196
(first element) + 250 (sample interval) = 446
(second element). 396, 450, and 646 are
incorrect responses.
Which of the following is the most widely
8. used data collection method by nurse
researchers?
Records
Self-reports
Observation
Biophysiologic measures
B
Feedback:
Data collection methods vary in terms of
structure, quantifiability, and objectivity. The
three principal data collection methods for
nurse researchers are self-report,
observations, and biophysiologic measures.
Self-reports, which involve directly
questioning study participants, are the most
widely used method of collecting data for
nursing studies.
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A major advantage of closed-ended questions
is that they do which of the following?
Are easy to construct
Are analyzed in a straightforward manner
Encourage in-depth responses
Are not subject to response biases
B
Feedback:
Good closed-ended questions are more
difficult to construct than open-ended ones
but easier to analyze. Closed-ended questions
are also more efficient: people can complete
more closed-ended questions than open-ended
ones in a given amount of time. People may
be unwilling to compose lengthy written
responses to open-ended questions in
questionnaires. A major drawback of closedended questions is that researchers might omit
some potentially important responses. Closedended questions also can be superficial. Open-
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Are analyzed in a straightforward manner
Encourage in-depth responses
Are not subject to response biases
B
Feedback:
Good closed-ended questions are more
difficult to construct than open-ended ones
but easier to analyze. Closed-ended questions
are also more efficient: people can complete
more closed-ended questions than open-ended
ones in a given amount of time. People may
be unwilling to compose lengthy written
responses to open-ended questions in
questionnaires. A major drawback of closedended questions is that researchers might omit
some potentially important responses. Closedended questions also can be superficial. Openended questions allow for richer information
if the respondents are verbally expressive and
cooperative. Finally, some respondents object
to choosing from alternatives that do not
reflect their opinions precisely.
Interviews are usually preferable to
10. questionnaires because of which of the
following?
They are less expensive
They yield data that are easier to analyze
The quality of the data tends to be higher
They require less training of research
personnel
C
Feedback:
Interviews are usually preferable to
questionnaires because the quality of the data
tends to be higher. Researchers using
structured self-reports must decide whether to
use interviews or self-administered
questionnaires. Questionnaires are less costly
than interviews and offer the possibility of
anonymity, but interviews yield higher
response rates, are suitable for a wider variety
of people, and provide richer data than
questionnaires.
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Questionnaires have the advantage of which
of the following?
Offering the possibility of anonymity
Having high response rates
Reducing the possibility of response set
biases
Being suitable for all types of study
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Questionnaires have the advantage of which
of the following?
Offering the possibility of anonymity
Having high response rates
Reducing the possibility of response set
biases
Being suitable for all types of study
participants
A
Feedback:
Questionnaires are less costly than interviews
and offer the possibility of anonymity, but
interviews yield higher response rates (which
reduce the risk for bias), are suitable for a
wider variety of people, and provide richer
data than questionnaires. Interviews are
usually preferable to questionnaires because
the quality of the data tends to be higher.
Researchers using structured self-reports must
decide whether to use interviews or selfadministered questionnaires.
On a five-point Likert scale, a person who
12. strongly agreed with a statement would be
scored as which of the following?
1
3
5
Cannot be determined
D
Feedback:
Likert scales (or summated rating scales)
present respondents with a series of items
worded favorably or unfavorably toward a
phenomenon; responses indicating level of
agreement or disagreement with each
statement are scored and summed into a
composite score. The term needs to be
indicated for each number in order to
determine which number represents strongly
agree or disagree.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
On a 20-item Likert scale with five response
13. categories, the range of possible scores is
which of the following?
0 to 100
20 to 80
20 to 100
0 to 50
C
Feedback:
Likert scales (or summated rating scales)
present respondents with a series of items
worded favorably or unfavorably toward a
phenomenon; responses indicating level of
agreement or disagreement with each
statement are scored and summed into a
composite score. 20 items x a score of 1 per
item is 20 as the minimum score and 20 items
x a score of 5 per item are 100 as the
maximum score.
A self-report method used to measure
14. subjective experiences such as pain and
fatigue is which of the following?
Observation
In vivo measurements
Visual analog scales
Likert scales
C
Feedback:
A visual analog scale (VAS) is used to
measure subjective experiences (e.g., pain,
fatigue) along a 100 mm line designating a
bipolar continuum. Observational methods are
techniques for acquiring data through the
direct observation of phenomena. Data may
also be derived from biophysiologic
measures, which include in vivo
measurements (those performed within or on
living organisms) and in vitro measurements
(those performed outside the organism's body,
such as blood tests). Biophysiologic measures
have the advantage of being objective,
accurate, and precise. Likert scales (or
summated rating scales) present respondents
with a series of items worded favorably or
unfavorably toward a phenomenon; responses
indicating level of agreement or disagreement
with each statement are scored and summed
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In vivo measurements
Visual analog scales
Likert scales
C
Feedback:
A visual analog scale (VAS) is used to
measure subjective experiences (e.g., pain,
fatigue) along a 100 mm line designating a
bipolar continuum. Observational methods are
techniques for acquiring data through the
direct observation of phenomena. Data may
also be derived from biophysiologic
measures, which include in vivo
measurements (those performed within or on
living organisms) and in vitro measurements
(those performed outside the organism's body,
such as blood tests). Biophysiologic measures
have the advantage of being objective,
accurate, and precise. Likert scales (or
summated rating scales) present respondents
with a series of items worded favorably or
unfavorably toward a phenomenon; responses
indicating level of agreement or disagreement
with each statement are scored and summed
into a composite score.
The social desirability response set bias is
15. least likely to be a problem on scales
incorporated into which of the following?
Mailed anonymous questionnaires
Face-to-face interviews
Telephone interviews
All options are equally susceptible
A
Feedback:
Social desirability response set bias—a
tendency to misrepresent attitudes or traits by
giving answers that are consistent with
prevailing social views—would be least likely
to be a problem with mailed anonymous
questionnaires, as the anonymity would likely
cause people to be less concerned about what
others thought of their answers.
A person who marked “strongly agree” to all
16. or most items on a Likert scale would best be
described as which of the following?
Socially desirable respondent
Biased participant
Nay-sayer
Yea-sayer
D
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A person who marked “strongly agree” to all
16. or most items on a Likert scale would best be
described as which of the following?
Socially desirable respondent
Biased participant
Nay-sayer
Yea-sayer
D
Feedback:
Acquiescence response set bias is a tendency
to agree with statements regardless of their
content; such responders are known as “yeasayers.” People who have the opposite
tendency—to disagree with statements
independently of the question content—are
known as nay-sayers and are much less
common. Social desirability response set bias
is a tendency to misrepresent attitudes or traits
by giving answers that are consistent with
prevailing social views. A yea-sayer is a type
of biased participant.
When an observer is not concealed, the
17. findings may be biased because of which of
the following?
Reactivity
Ethical problems
Lack of mobility
Acquiescence response set bias
A
Feedback:
Researchers do not always tell people they are
being observed, because awareness of being
observed may cause people to behave
atypically. A behavioral distortion due to the
known presence of an observer is called
reactivity. It is not an ethical problem or lack
of mobility. Acquiescence response set bias is
a tendency to agree with statements regardless
of their content by some people (yea-sayers).
The opposite tendency—to disagree with
statements independently of the question
content—is less common.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following are advantages of
18. using biophysiologic measures in nursing
studies? Select all that apply.
They are relatively accurate and precise
They effectively measure subjective
experiences such as pain and fatigue
They are objective, requiring minimal
inference
They are typically cost effective because they
are available for clinical purposes
A, C, D
Feedback:
Nurse researchers have used biophysiologic
measures for a wide variety of purposes, and
these measures have many advantages. They
are relatively accurate and precise, objective,
not easily distorted by patients, and valid.
However, they cannot effectively measure
subjective experiences such as pain and
fatigue; a visual analog scale would be more
appropriate for that.
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements describes a
population?
All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized
in an intensive care unit during January 2012
Four hundred nurses selected from a
membership list of American Nurses'
Association (ANA) members
Selected members of families of clients
undergoing surgery
A sample of clients diagnosed with COPD
and who currently smoke
A
Feedback:
All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized
in an intensive care unit during January 2012
denotes a population. A population is the
entire group of interest. The other answers
denote only samples or segments of a
population.
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following results from a sample
size that is too small?
Low power to detect a difference in the
outcomes of the two groups
Lack of control over extraneous variables
Limits to random sampling
A weak questionnaire survey tool
A
Feedback:
Sampling involves selecting a portion of the
population to represent the population. A low
power to detect a difference in the outcomes
of the two group results from a sample size
that is too small. The other answers are not
effects of having a sample size that is too
small.
Which procedure describes a probability
sampling method?
Identification of community organizations
and churches in an urban setting and
recruiting participants
Identification of individuals demonstrating
the variable(s) of interest to the researcher and
recruiting participants
Identification of the accessible population and
selecting study participants based upon the
researcher's belief that the participant is
representative of the accessible population
Identification of a sampling frame for an
accessible population, writing element names
on paper, placing the written names in a bowl,
and drawing a select number of names from
the bowl
D
Feedback:
Identification of a sampling frame for an
accessible population, writing element names
on paper, placing the written names in a bowl,
and drawing a select number of names from
the bowl describes a probability sampling
method. This is because probability sampling
involves random selection of elements from a
population, which is achieved in this case by
drawing names from a bowl. The other
answers do not include random selection.
D)
on paper, placing the written names in a bowl,
and drawing a select number of names from
the bowl
D
Feedback:
Identification of a sampling frame for an
accessible population, writing element names
on paper, placing the written names in a bowl,
and drawing a select number of names from
the bowl describes a probability sampling
method. This is because probability sampling
involves random selection of elements from a
population, which is achieved in this case by
drawing names from a bowl. The other
answers do not include random selection.
Ans:
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which statement regarding sampling error
and sampling bias is accurate?
Sampling bias may be defined as the
difference between data obtained from a
simple random sample and the data that
would be obtained if an entire population
were measured.
Sampling bias occurs by chance.
Sampling error and sampling bias are
synonymous.
Sampling error may be contained in sample
data even when the most careful random
sampling procedure has been used to obtain
the sample.
D
Feedback:
Sampling error may be contained in sample
data even when the most careful random
sampling procedure has been used to obtain
the sample. There is no guarantee of a
representative sample, but random selection
does guarantee that differences between the
sample and the population (sampling error)
are purely a function of chance rather than of
sampling bias. Sampling bias does not occur
by chance and is not synonymous with
sampling error. Sampling error, not sampling
bias, is defined as the difference between data
obtained from a simple random sample and
the data that would be obtained if an entire
population were measured.
23.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which group represents a convenience
sample?
The patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in
the clinic on one afternoon in February
One hundred male BSN nurses recruited by
the original study subjects who are currently
in leadership roles
Middle-class Caucasian females chosen as
representatives of the accessible population
Twenty male subjects and twenty female
subjects chosen for a study on gender
differences
A
Feedback:
Convenience sampling entails selecting the
most conveniently available people as
participants. A nurse who distributes
questionnaires about vitamin use to 100 elders
at a senior citizens center is sampling by
convenience, for example. The problem with
convenience sampling is that people who are
readily available might be atypical of the
population, and so the price of convenience is
the risk of bias. Convenience sampling is the
weakest form of sampling, but it is also the
most commonly used sampling method in
many disciplines. In this case, the best
example of a convenience sample is “the
patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the
clinic on one afternoon in February,” because
the sample includes only those patients who
happen to be at the clinic during a short time
period. The other answers indicate other
sampling designs, including quota and
purposive sampling.
Which sampling method would be most
practical and provide the most reliable data to
24. study the medication errors by registered
nurses who work in city, county, and federal
prisons?
Purposive sampling
Stratified random sampling
Quota sampling
Simple random sampling
B
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
practical and provide the most reliable data to
24. study the medication errors by registered
nurses who work in city, county, and federal
prisons?
Purposive sampling
Stratified random sampling
Quota sampling
Simple random sampling
B
Feedback:
In stratified random sampling, the population
is first divided into two or more strata, from
which elements are randomly selected. The
aim of stratified sampling is to enhance
representativeness; as a type of probability
sampling, it is more reliable than
nonprobability sampling. This case would be
ideal for stratified random sampling, as the
population is readily divided into the strata of
city, county, and federal prisons. Purposive
sampling is based on the belief that
researchers' knowledge about the population
can be used to hand-pick sample members.
Quota sampling occurs when researchers
identify population strata and figure out how
many people are needed from each stratum.
Simple random sampling is the most basic
probability sampling.
If a target population contains 10,600
elements and the researcher seeks a
25.
systematic random sample of 50, the sampling
interval would be which of the following?
116
600
212
53
C
Feedback:
To obtain the sampling interval, the size of the
population is divided by the size of the
desired sample.
26.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
When is a small sample size appropriate for a
research study?
Many uncontrolled variables are present.
The population is very homogenous.
Large differences are expected in members of
the population on the variable of interest.
The population must be divided into
subgroups.
C
26.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
When is a small sample size appropriate for a
research study?
Many uncontrolled variables are present.
The population is very homogenous.
Large differences are expected in members of
the population on the variable of interest.
The population must be divided into
subgroups.
C
Feedback:
When expected differences are large, a large
sample is not needed to reveal group
differences statistically; but when small
differences are predicted, large samples are
necessary. In general, however, a larger
sample size leads to less bias and greater
reliability.
A survey question asks subjects to respond to
the following statement: “The overall hospital
experience that I received during my hospital
stay considered my needs as an individual.”
27.
They were asked to identify, on a five-point
scale, the degree to which they agreed or
disagreed with the statement. This is an
example of which scale?
Social scale
Likert scale
Visual analog scale
Differential scale
B
Feedback:
A Likert scale consists of several declarative
statements (items) that express a viewpoint on
a topic. Respondents are asked to indicate
how much they agree or disagree with the
statement. This is an example of a Likert
scale. Visual analog scales measure subjective
experiences. There are no “social” or
“differential” scales mentioned in this chapter.
The nurse researcher is conducting a study on
a nonpharmacologic nursing intervention for
28. the treatment of pain. Which data collection
instrument would provide the most sensitive
measurement of pain?
Differential scale
Physiologic measures
Likert scale
Visual analog scale
D
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The nurse researcher is conducting a study on
a nonpharmacologic nursing intervention for
28. the treatment of pain. Which data collection
instrument would provide the most sensitive
measurement of pain?
Differential scale
Physiologic measures
Likert scale
Visual analog scale
D
Feedback:
A visual analog scale would provide the most
sensitive measurement of pain, because it
measures subjective experiences. Physiologic
measures and the Likert scale do not
effectively measure subjective experiences
such as pain. There is no “differential scale.”
Which of the following is an advantage of
29. observation as a method of data collection in
a study?
Subjects may be anxious because they are
being observed.
Respondents can remain anonymous.
It is less time consuming than a questionnaire.
It directly captures an event and behaviors.
D
Feedback:
Observation directly captures an event and
behaviors. Observational methods can be used
to gather such information as the conditions
of individuals, verbal communication,
nonverbal communication, activities, and
environmental conditions. Subject anxiety is
not an advantage but a disadvantage of
observation and may be eliminated by
concealment. Respondents are not anonymous
when observed, and observation is not less
time consuming than a questionnaire.
30.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following are advantages to
biophysiologic measures?
Biophysiologic measurements are subjective
and accurate.
Patients cannot distort the measurements and
have objective measures.
Biophysiologic measurements are selfreported.
Biophysiologic measurements effectively
indicate pain levels.
B
Feedback:
30.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
biophysiologic measures?
Biophysiologic measurements are subjective
and accurate.
Patients cannot distort the measurements and
have objective measures.
Biophysiologic measurements are selfreported.
Biophysiologic measurements effectively
indicate pain levels.
B
Feedback:
An advantage of biophysiologic measures is
that patients cannot distort the measurements
and they include objective measures.
Biophysiologic measures include both in vivo
and in vitro measures. Biophysiologic
measures are accurate, precise, and objective.
They are not self-reported and cannot
effectively indicate pain levels.
CH 99
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The difference between a true score and an
1. obtained score is referred to as which of the
following?
Internal inconsistency
Non-equivalence
Interobserver disagreement
Error of measurement
D
Feedback:
The obtained (or observed) score is the value
obtained from measurement. The true score is
the true value that would be obtained if it
were possible to have an infallible measure.
The true score is hypothetical—it cannot be
known because measures are not infallible.
The final term in the equation is the error of
measurement, which is the difference between
true and obtained scores. When the reliability
assessment focuses on equivalence between
observers or coders assigning scores,
estimates of interrater (or interobserver)
reliability are obtained. Internal consistency
reliability, which refers to the extent to which
the entire instrument's items are measuring
the same attribute, is usually assessed with
Cronbach's alpha.
The level of measurement that classifies and
ranks people in terms of the degree to which
2.
they possess the attribute of interest is which
of the following?
Nominal
Ordinal
Interval
Ratio
B
Feedback:
There are four levels of measurement: (1)
nominal measurement—the classification of
attributes into mutually exclusive categories;
(2) ordinal measurement—the ranking of
people based on their relative standing on an
attribute; (3) interval measurement—
indicating not only people's rank order but the
distance between them; and (4) ratio
measurement—distinguished from interval
measurement by having a rational zero point
and thus providing information about the
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Ordinal
Interval
Ratio
B
Feedback:
There are four levels of measurement: (1)
nominal measurement—the classification of
attributes into mutually exclusive categories;
(2) ordinal measurement—the ranking of
people based on their relative standing on an
attribute; (3) interval measurement—
indicating not only people's rank order but the
distance between them; and (4) ratio
measurement—distinguished from interval
measurement by having a rational zero point
and thus providing information about the
absolute magnitude of the attribute.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Blood type is measured on which of the
following?
Nominal scale
Ordinal scale
Interval scale
Ratio scale
A
Feedback:
There are four levels of measurement: (1)
nominal measurement—the classification of
attributes into mutually exclusive categories
such as blood type; (2) ordinal measurement
—the ranking of people based on their
relative standing on an attribute; (3) interval
measurement—indicating not only people's
rank order but the distance between them; and
(4) ratio measurement—distinguished from
interval measurement by having a rational
zero point and thus providing information
about the absolute magnitude of the attribute.
It is not meaningful to calculate an arithmetic
4. average with data from which of the
following?
Nominal measures
Ordinal measures
Nominal and ordinal measures
All measures can be meaningfully averaged
C
Feedback:
There are four levels of measurement: (1)
nominal measurement—the classification of
attributes into mutually exclusive categories
such as blood type; (2) ordinal measurement
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Nominal measures
Ordinal measures
Nominal and ordinal measures
All measures can be meaningfully averaged
C
Feedback:
There are four levels of measurement: (1)
nominal measurement—the classification of
attributes into mutually exclusive categories
such as blood type; (2) ordinal measurement
—the ranking of people based on their
relative standing on an attribute; (3) interval
measurement—indicating not only people's
rank order but the distance between them; and
(4) ratio measurement—distinguished from
interval measurement by having a rational
zero point. It is not meaningful to calculate an
arithmetic average with data from nominal
and ordinal measures and thus providing
information about the absolute magnitude of
the attribute. Interval and ratio measurements
can be meaningfully averaged, whereas
nominal and ordinal measurements cannot.
Type of college degree (associate's,
5. bachelor's, master's, doctorate) is measured on
which of the following scales?
Nominal
Ordinal
Interval
Ratio
B
Feedback:
There are four levels of measurement: (1)
nominal measurement—the classification of
attributes into mutually exclusive categories
such as blood type; (2) ordinal measurement
—the ranking of people based on their
relative standing on an attribute such as type
of college degree; (3) interval measurement—
indicating not only people's rank order but the
distance between them; and (4) ratio
measurement—distinguished from interval
measurement by having a rational zero point.
College degrees are examples of ordinal
measures, because they indicate a person's
relative standing in terms of education, but do
not indicate the distance between the
measures.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Ordinal
Interval
Ratio
B
Feedback:
There are four levels of measurement: (1)
nominal measurement—the classification of
attributes into mutually exclusive categories
such as blood type; (2) ordinal measurement
—the ranking of people based on their
relative standing on an attribute such as type
of college degree; (3) interval measurement—
indicating not only people's rank order but the
distance between them; and (4) ratio
measurement—distinguished from interval
measurement by having a rational zero point.
College degrees are examples of ordinal
measures, because they indicate a person's
relative standing in terms of education, but do
not indicate the distance between the
measures.
One source of measurement error in social6. psychological scales is which of the
following?
Response-set bias
Nonresponse bias
Attrition bias
Selection bias
A
Feedback:
Response-set biases are enduring
characteristics of respondents that can
interfere with accurate measures. Sources of
measurement error include situational
contaminants, response-set biases, item
sampling, and transitory personal factors.
Nonresponse bias, attrition bias and selection
bias are not examples of sources of
measurement error.
A measure of which of the following traits
7. would be a particularly good candidate for a
test-retest reliability assessment?
Anxiety
Fear of heights
Mood
Fatigue
B
Feedback:
The stability aspect of reliability, which
concerns the extent to which an instrument
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
7. would be a particularly good candidate for a
test-retest reliability assessment?
Anxiety
Fear of heights
Mood
Fatigue
B
Feedback:
The stability aspect of reliability, which
concerns the extent to which an instrument
yields similar results on two administrations,
is evaluated by test–retest procedures.
Attitudes, mood, and so forth can be changed
by experiences between two measurements.
Thus, stability indexes are most appropriate
for fairly enduring characteristics, such as
temperament or fear of heights. Anxiety,
mood, and fatigue are not fairly enduring
characteristics.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Cronbach's alpha is used to assess which of
the following attributes of an instrument?
Internal consistency
Stability
Equivalence
Sensitivity
A
Feedback:
Internal consistency reliability, which refers
to the extent to which all of the instrument's
items are measuring the same attribute, is
usually assessed with Cronbach's alpha. The
stability aspect of reliability, which concerns
the extent to which an instrument yields
similar results on two administrations, is
evaluated by test–retest procedures.
Sensitivity is the instrument's ability to
identify a case correctly (i.e., its rate of
yielding true positives). Equivalence, in
reliability assessment, primarily concerns the
degree to which two or more independent
observers or coders agree about scoring on an
instrument.
The aspect of reliability for which
9. interobserver reliability is appropriate is
which of the following?
Stability
Internal consistency
Equivalence
Specificity
C
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The aspect of reliability for which
9. interobserver reliability is appropriate is
which of the following?
Stability
Internal consistency
Equivalence
Specificity
C
Feedback:
Equivalence, in reliability assessment,
primarily concerns the degree to which two or
more independent observers or coders agree
about scoring on an instrument. Internal
consistency reliability, which refers to the
extent to which the entire instrument's items
are measuring the same attribute, is usually
assessed with Cronbach's alpha. The stability
aspect of reliability, which concerns the extent
to which an instrument yields similar results
on two administrations, is evaluated by test–
retest procedures. Specificity is the
instrument's ability to identify non-cases
correctly (i.e., its rate of yielding true
negatives).
If the coefficient alpha for a stress scale was
10. computed to be .80, the scale would be which
of the following?
More reliable than a scale with an alpha of .50
A valid indicator of stress
Of indeterminate reliability until the scale's
test–retest reliability was assessed
Of unacceptably low reliability
A
Feedback:
Internal consistency is evaluated by
calculating coefficient alpha (or Cronbach's
alpha). The normal range of values for this
reliability index is from .00 to +1.00. The
higher the coefficient, the more accurate
(internally consistent) the measure.
The type of validity that employs primarily
11. judgment in its assessment is which of the
following?
Content
Concurrent
Predictive
Construct
A
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The type of validity that employs primarily
11. judgment in its assessment is which of the
following?
Content
Concurrent
Predictive
Construct
A
Feedback:
Content validity concerns the sampling
adequacy of the content being measured and
is based on judgment. Expert ratings on the
relevance of items can be used to compute a
content validity index (CVI). Criterion-related
validity (which includes both predictive
validity and concurrent validity) focuses on
the correlation between an instrument and an
outside criterion. Construct validity, an
instrument's adequacy in measuring the
targeted construct, is a hypothesis-testing
endeavor.
Suppose a researcher were interested in
assessing the adequacy of an instrument to
measure the theoretical concept of
12.
hopefulness. The most appropriate type of
validation procedure would be which of the
following?
Content
Concurrent
Predictive
Construct
D
Feedback:
Construct validity, an instrument's adequacy
in measuring the targeted construct, is a
hypothesis-testing endeavor. Content validity
concerns the sampling adequacy of the
content being measured. Expert ratings on the
relevance of items can be used to compute a
content validity index (CVI). Criterion-related
validity (which includes both predictive
validity and concurrent validity) focuses on
the correlation between an instrument and an
outside criterion.
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
With screening or diagnostic instruments, the
concept indicating the instruments' ability to
14. correctly identify a “case” (i.e., to screen in or
diagnose a condition correctly) is which of the
following?
Sensitivity
Stability
Specificity
Sensibility
A
Feedback:
Sensitivity is the instrument's ability to
identify a case correctly (i.e., its rate of
yielding true positives). Specificity is the
instrument's ability to identify non-cases
correctly (i.e., its rate of yielding true
negatives). The stability aspect of reliability,
which concerns the extent to which an
instrument yields similar results on two
administrations, is evaluated by test–retest
procedures. There is no research term known
as sensibility.
15.
A)
B)
C)
Which of the following terms does not belong
with the other three?
Face validity
Criterion-related validity
Predictive validity
Concurrent validity
A
Feedback:
Face validity refers to whether an instrument
looks as though it is measuring the
appropriate construct. Criterion-related
validity (which includes both predictive
validity and concurrent validity) focuses on
the correlation between an instrument and an
outside criterion.
Which of the following is an example of an
ordinal measurement?
Gender (male or female)
Milligrams of a medication dosage
Levels of education (associate's degree,
bachelor's degree, master's degree)
Score on the HESI preadmission or first year
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is an example of an
ordinal measurement?
Gender (male or female)
Milligrams of a medication dosage
Levels of education (associate's degree,
bachelor's degree, master's degree)
Score on the HESI preadmission or first year
examination for nursing
C
Feedback:
Ordinal measurement ranks people on relative
standing on an attribute. Levels of education
signify incremental ability as related to
educational degree completed. Ordinal
measurement does not, however, differentiate
how much greater one level is than another.
Mathematical operations permissible with
ordinal-level data are restricted. Gender is an
example of nominal measurement. Milligrams
of a medication dosage is an example of ratio
measurement, as it has a meaningful zero and
can provide information about the absolute
magnitude of the attribute. A score on a test is
an example of interval measurement, as it can
rank people on an attribute and specify the
distance between them, but does not have a
meaningful zero.
Which of the following is an example of a
nominal measurement?
Grams of carbohydrate intake
Hand dominance (right or left )
Emotional intelligence quotients
Age in years
B
Feedback:
Hand dominance (right or left) is an example
of nominal measurement. Nominal
measurement involves using numbers simply
to categorize attributes. Numbers in nominal
measurement do not have quantitative
meaning. Nominal measurement provides
information only about categorical
equivalence; therefore, numbers used in
nominal measurement can only be treated
categorically. Grams of carbohydrate intake
and age in years are examples of ratio
measurement, and emotional intelligence
quotient is an example of interval
measurement.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Hand dominance (right or left )
Emotional intelligence quotients
Age in years
B
Feedback:
Hand dominance (right or left) is an example
of nominal measurement. Nominal
measurement involves using numbers simply
to categorize attributes. Numbers in nominal
measurement do not have quantitative
meaning. Nominal measurement provides
information only about categorical
equivalence; therefore, numbers used in
nominal measurement can only be treated
categorically. Grams of carbohydrate intake
and age in years are examples of ratio
measurement, and emotional intelligence
quotient is an example of interval
measurement.
17.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is an example of a
ratio measurement?
Fahrenheit scale for measuring temperature
Body mass index
Quality of life scale score
Levels of education
B
Feedback:
Body mass index is an example of ratio
measurement, as it has a meaningful zero and
provides information about the absolute
magnitude of an attribute (body mass). Ratio
measurement is the highest level of
measurement. The Fahrenheit scale for
measuring temperature (interval
measurement) has an arbitrary zero point.
Quality of life scale is an example of interval
measurement, and levels of education are an
example of ordinal measurement.
Which of the following is the term
18. representing the “difference between a true
and obtained score''?
Error of measurement
An observed score
Response-set bias
Situational contaminant
A
Feedback:
Quantitative data consists of two parts: a true
component and an error component. Error of
measurement is the difference between true
and obtained score''?
Error of measurement
An observed score
Response-set bias
Situational contaminant
A
Feedback:
Quantitative data consists of two parts: a true
component and an error component. Error of
measurement is the difference between true
and obtained (or observed) scores. The
procedures and the people themselves are
susceptible to influences such as situational
contaminants, response-set biases, transitory
personal factors, and item sampling—all
examples of factors contributing to
measurement error.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following most accurately
19. describes the relationship between reliability
and validity?
If a measure is reliable, it will be valid.
As reliability increases, validity decreases.
If a measure is not reliable, it cannot be valid.
There is no direct relationship between the
two.
C
Feedback:
Reliability and validity are not independent
qualities of an instrument. A measuring device
that is unreliable cannot be valid. An
instrument cannot validly measure an attribute
if it is erratic and inaccurate. An instrument
can be reliable without being valid. An
instrument's high reliability provides no
evidence of its validity, but low reliability of a
measure is evidence of low validity.
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is indicated by the
“content validity index (CVI)”?
Internal consistency of the measured items
within one measure
The extent of expert agreement ensuring
adequate content coverage
Equivalence of two separate forms of a
measure
Criterion-related assessment
B
Feedback:
Construct validity refers to the degree to
which an instrument has an appropriate
sample of items for the construct being
The extent of expert agreement ensuring
adequate content coverage
Equivalence of two separate forms of a
measure
Criterion-related assessment
B
Feedback:
Construct validity refers to the degree to
which an instrument has an appropriate
sample of items for the construct being
measured. An instrument's content validity is
based on the judgment of experts evaluating
the instrument. There is no totally objective
method for insuring adequate content
coverage, but often a panel of subject content
experts is asked to evaluate the content
validity of new instruments. An instrument is
internally consistent to the extent that its
items measure the same trait. Equivalence, in
reliability assessment, primarily concerns the
degree to which two or more independent
observers or coders agree about scoring on an
instrument. In criterion-related validity
assessments, researchers examine the
relationship between scores on an instrument
and an external criterion.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which aspect of reliability does the
“Cronbach's alpha'' indicate?
Measurement stability performance over time
Equivalence of two separate forms of a
measure
Internal consistency of the measure items
within one measure
The extent of expert agreement ensuring
adequate content coverage
C
Feedback:
An instrument is internally consistent to the
extent that its items measure the same trait.
Internal consistency reliability is the best way
to assess an important source of measurement
error in scales, the sampling of items. Internal
consistency is evaluated by calculating
coefficient alpha (Cronbach's alpha). The
higher the coefficient, the more accurate
(internally consistent) the measure.
Cronbach's alpha does not indicate stability,
equivalence, or content validity (extent of
expert agreement ensuring adequate content
coverage).
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
within one measure
The extent of expert agreement ensuring
adequate content coverage
C
Feedback:
An instrument is internally consistent to the
extent that its items measure the same trait.
Internal consistency reliability is the best way
to assess an important source of measurement
error in scales, the sampling of items. Internal
consistency is evaluated by calculating
coefficient alpha (Cronbach's alpha). The
higher the coefficient, the more accurate
(internally consistent) the measure.
Cronbach's alpha does not indicate stability,
equivalence, or content validity (extent of
expert agreement ensuring adequate content
coverage).
The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
consists of 20 items describing depressive
symptoms. Subjects respond to a Likert-type
scale, rating each item (0 = no symptom to 3
22. = persistent or severe symptom presence).
Previous research indicates that test–retest
scores of the BDI ranged from 0.60 to 0.90.
Critiquing the above statements you conclude
which of the following?
Evidence of the stability aspect of validity of
the BDI is supported
Conceptual and operational definitions of
depression are not consistent
Evidence of the stability aspect of reliability
is supported
The BDI will yield high amounts of error with
obtained scores
C
Feedback:
The stability of an instrument is the degree to
which similar results are obtained on separate
occasions and is an aspect of reliability, not
validity. Stability is assessed through test–
retest reliability procedures. Researchers
administer the measure to the same sample
twice and then compare the scores. The test–
retest results do not indicate that conceptual
and operational definitions of depression are
not consistent, nor do they indicate that the
BDI will yield high amounts of error with
obtained scores.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
is supported
The BDI will yield high amounts of error with
obtained scores
C
Feedback:
The stability of an instrument is the degree to
which similar results are obtained on separate
occasions and is an aspect of reliability, not
validity. Stability is assessed through test–
retest reliability procedures. Researchers
administer the measure to the same sample
twice and then compare the scores. The test–
retest results do not indicate that conceptual
and operational definitions of depression are
not consistent, nor do they indicate that the
BDI will yield high amounts of error with
obtained scores.
A nurse researcher is evaluating a revised
self-esteem questionnaire to determine
23. whether all of the items on the questionnaire
actually effectively measure self-esteem.
Which aspect of reliability is she evaluating?
Equivalence
Validity
Stability
Internal consistency
D
Feedback:
An instrument is internally consistent to the
extent that its items measure the same trait.
Internal consistency reliability is the best way
to assess an important source of measurement
error in scales, the sampling of items. Internal
consistency is evaluated by calculating
coefficient alpha (Cronbach's alpha). The
higher the coefficient, the more accurate
(internally consistent) the measure.
The purpose of a study was to determine the
effectiveness of two different analgesic agents
in controlling pain during menstruation in
females ages 18 to 21 years. Researchers
24.
administer a self-reported pain scale on days 2
and 3 of the menses. You infer that this
procedure is an example of which of the
following?
Test-retest reliability
Random sampling procedures
Internal validity of the study
Construct validation
A
24.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
females ages 18 to 21 years. Researchers
administer a self-reported pain scale on days 2
and 3 of the menses. You infer that this
procedure is an example of which of the
following?
Test-retest reliability
Random sampling procedures
Internal validity of the study
Construct validation
A
Feedback:
The stability of an instrument is the degree to
which similar results are obtained on separate
occasions. Stability is assessed through test–
retest reliability procedures. Researchers
administer the measure to the same sample
twice and then compare the scores. The selfreported pain scale administered on two
different occasions is an example of test–
retest reliability, not of random sampling
procedures or construct validation. The
internal validity of the study is not being
measured.
A researcher at a school of nursing decides to
investigate the correlation between a preadmission HESI examination, high school
GPA, and SAT scores as a predictor of success
25. in completing first year study. These
admission variables will be reviewed again
with grades achieved after the first year is
completed. This use of data is known as
which of the following?
Construct validation
Known-groups technique
Concurrent validity
Predictive validity
D
Feedback:
Predictive validity is an instrument's ability to
differentiate between people's performances
on a future criterion. When a researcher
correlates applicant's pre-admission test, high
school grades, and SAT score with subsequent
grade point averages, predictive validity is
being evaluated. Construct validity is a key
criterion for assessing research quality, and
construct validity has most often been linked
to measurement. Construct validity in
measurement concerns these questions: What
is this instrument really measuring? and Does
it validly measure the abstract concept of
interest? One approach to construct validation
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Known-groups technique
Concurrent validity
Predictive validity
D
Feedback:
Predictive validity is an instrument's ability to
differentiate between people's performances
on a future criterion. When a researcher
correlates applicant's pre-admission test, high
school grades, and SAT score with subsequent
grade point averages, predictive validity is
being evaluated. Construct validity is a key
criterion for assessing research quality, and
construct validity has most often been linked
to measurement. Construct validity in
measurement concerns these questions: What
is this instrument really measuring? and Does
it validly measure the abstract concept of
interest? One approach to construct validation
is the known-groups technique. In this
procedure, groups that are expected to differ
on the target attribute are administered the
instrument, and group scores are compared.
Concurrent validity is an instrument's ability
to distinguish among people who differ
presently on a criterion.
A group of 150 seniors with type II diabetes
consented to a study examining the
relationship between self-care and quality of
life. Seniors received didactic classes on
proper diet, exercise, stress, and medication
26.
adherence with 30-minute low-impact
exercise sessions once monthly for a period of
6 months. Ordinal level data collected during
the study would include which of the
following?
Gender, ethnicity
Education level, Heart Association
classification
Age, body mass index
Scores on a self-care index
B
Feedback:
Ordinal measurement ranks people on relative
standing on an attribute. Levels of education
signify incremental ability as related to
educational degree completed. Heart
Association classification indicates level of
heart health. Gender and ethnicity are
variables measured by nominal measurement.
Age and body mass index would be
associated with ratio measurement. Scores on
a self-care index would be examples of
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
classification
Age, body mass index
Scores on a self-care index
B
Feedback:
Ordinal measurement ranks people on relative
standing on an attribute. Levels of education
signify incremental ability as related to
educational degree completed. Heart
Association classification indicates level of
heart health. Gender and ethnicity are
variables measured by nominal measurement.
Age and body mass index would be
associated with ratio measurement. Scores on
a self-care index would be examples of
interval measurement.
A group of nurse researchers specializing in
the care of pediatric oncology patients decides
to perform interviews on nurses caring for
pediatric oncology patients to determine
27. patterns of nurse caring. After deciding on
fifteen interview questions, they submit their
draft to five pediatric oncology nurse
practitioners for input. This practice illustrates
obtaining which of the following?
Internal consistency
Content validity
Face validity
Equivalency
B
Feedback:
An instrument's content validity is based on
the judgment of experts evaluating the
instrument, which is the case here. There is no
totally objective method for insuring adequate
content coverage, but often a panel of subject
content experts is asked to evaluate the
content validity of new instruments.
Researchers can calculate a content validity
index (CVI) that indicates the extent of expert
agreement. Internal consistency is a measure
of the extent to which all of an instrument's
items measure the same thing. Equivalence, in
reliability assessment, primarily concerns the
degree to which two or more independent
observers or coders agree about scoring on an
instrument. Face validity refers to whether an
instrument looks as though it is measuring the
appropriate construct.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Content validity
Face validity
Equivalency
B
Feedback:
An instrument's content validity is based on
the judgment of experts evaluating the
instrument, which is the case here. There is no
totally objective method for insuring adequate
content coverage, but often a panel of subject
content experts is asked to evaluate the
content validity of new instruments.
Researchers can calculate a content validity
index (CVI) that indicates the extent of expert
agreement. Internal consistency is a measure
of the extent to which all of an instrument's
items measure the same thing. Equivalence, in
reliability assessment, primarily concerns the
degree to which two or more independent
observers or coders agree about scoring on an
instrument. Face validity refers to whether an
instrument looks as though it is measuring the
appropriate construct.
28.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is an example of ratio
measurement?
Likert scale response to questions
Twenty-four-hour oral cc intake
Eye color (blue, brown, hazel, green)
Ability to perform activities of daily living
B
Feedback:
Ratio measurement is the highest level of
measurement. Ratio scales, unlike interval
scales, have a meaningful zero and thus
provide information about the absolute
magnitude of the attribute. A person's twentyfour-hour oral cc intake has a meaningful
zero; that is, the absolute amount of oral
intake may be measured. Likert scale
responses and ability to perform activities of
daily living are examples of ordinal
measurement, which ranks people based on
relative standing on an attribute but cannot
indicate the distance between them. Eye color
is an example of nominal measurement,
which involves using numbers simply to
categorize attributes.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A study's purpose was to note maternal
responses to infant cues within the first 48
hours after birth. The investigator and
research assistant simultaneously but
29.
independently observed and scored the new
mothers' behaviors while holding their infants
en face. The agreement between the two raters
can be described as which of the following?
Content validity of the scoring instrument
Internal validity of the research design
Reliability of the scoring instrument
External validity of the research design
C
Feedback:
Equivalence, in reliability assessment,
primarily concerns the degree to which two or
more independent observers or coders agree
about scoring on an instrument. If there is a
high level of agreement, then the assumption
is that measurement errors have been
minimized. The degree of error can be
assessed through interrater or interobserver
reliability procedures, which involve having
two or more observers or coders make
independent observations.
CALL
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A parameter is a characteristic of which of the
following?
Population
Frequency distribution
Sample
Normal curve
A
Feedback:
When indexes such as averages and
percentages are calculated with data from a
population, they are parameters. A frequency
distribution is a systematic arrangement of
values from lowest to highest, together with a
count or percentage of how many times each
value occurred. A descriptive index from a
sample is a statistic. A normal distribution
(bell-shaped curve) is symmetric, unimodal,
and not too peaked.
If the bulk of scores on a test occurred at the
2. upper end of the distribution, the distribution
could be described as which of the following?
Normal
Bimodal
Positively skewed
Negatively skewed
D
Feedback:
A normal distribution (bell-shaped curve) is
symmetric, unimodal, and not too peaked. A
multimodal distribution with two peaks is
bimodal. When the longer tail points to the
right, the distribution has a positive skew,
meaning that more people are at the lower end
of the distribution. If the longer tail points to
the left, the distribution has a negative skew,
meaning that more people are at the upper end
of the distribution.
The mean is usually the statistic reported for
3. which type or types of measure? Select all
that apply.
Nominal measures
Ordinal measures
Interval measures
Ratio measures
C, D
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The mean is usually the statistic reported for
3. which type or types of measure? Select all
that apply.
Nominal measures
Ordinal measures
Interval measures
Ratio measures
C, D
Feedback:
The mean equals the sum of all values divided
by the number of participants—what people
refer to as the average. It is not meaningful to
calculate the mean from nominal and ordinal
measures. For interval-level measures, the
mean is usually the statistic reported.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The mode is an index of which of the
following?
Bivariate relationships
Central tendency
Risk
Variability
B
Feedback:
Indexes of “typicalness” are called measures
of central tendency. The mode is the number
that occurs most frequently in a distribution.
Bivariate (two-variable) descriptive statistics
describe relationships between two variables.
Many of these indexes involve calculating
changes in risk—for example, a change in
risk after exposure to a potentially beneficial
intervention. The most widely used variability
index is the standard deviation.
The measure of central tendency that is most
stable is which of the following?
Mode
Median
Mean
They are all equivalent
C
Feedback:
Of the three indexes, the mean is the most
stable: if repeated samples were drawn from a
population, the means would fluctuate less
than the modes or medians. For interval-level
or ratio-level measurements, the mean is
usually the statistic reported. The mode is the
number that occurs most frequently in a
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Median
Mean
They are all equivalent
C
Feedback:
Of the three indexes, the mean is the most
stable: if repeated samples were drawn from a
population, the means would fluctuate less
than the modes or medians. For interval-level
or ratio-level measurements, the mean is
usually the statistic reported. The mode is the
number that occurs most frequently in a
distribution. The median is the point in a
distribution that divides scores in half. The
mean equals the sum of all values divided by
the number of participants—what people refer
to as the average.
The measure of variability that takes into
6. account all score values is which of the
following?
Range
Median
Mean
Standard deviation
D
Feedback:
The most widely used variability index is the
standard deviation. Like the mean, which is a
central tendency index and not a variability
index, the standard deviation is calculated
based on every value in a distribution. The
standard deviation summarizes the average
amount of deviation of values from the mean.
The median is the point in a distribution that
divides scores in half. The mean equals the
sum of all values divided by the number of
participants—what people refer to as the
average. The range is the highest score minus
the lowest score in a distribution.
A group of 100 students took a test. The mean
was 85, the standard deviation was 5, and the
7. scores were normally distributed. About how
many of the 100 scores fell between 80 and
90?
34
68
95
Impossible to determine
D
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
was 85, the standard deviation was 5, and the
7. scores were normally distributed. About how
many of the 100 scores fell between 80 and
90?
34
68
95
Impossible to determine
D
Feedback:
The mean equals the sum of all values divided
by the number of participants—what people
refer to as the average. The standard deviation
(SD) summarizes the average amount of
deviation of values from the mean. In normal
and near-normal distributions, there are
roughly three SDs above and below the mean.
For a normal distribution with a mean of 85
and an SD of 5, a fixed percentage of cases
fall within certain distances from the mean.
Sixty-eight percent of all cases fall within 1
SD above and below the mean. Thus, nearly 7
of 10 scores are between 80 and 90 or 68.
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
One of the characteristics of a normal
distribution is which of the following?
It is bimodal
95% of the values are within two standard
deviations above and below the mean
The values are positively skewed
The mean is 100
B
Feedback:
In normal and near-normal distributions, there
are roughly three SDs above and below the
mean. In a normal distribution, 95% of the
scores fall within 2 SDs of the mean. The
values are not positively or negative skewed.
The distribution is not bimodal. A normal
distribution (bell-shaped curve) is symmetric,
unimodal, and not too peaked. A multimodal
distribution with two peaks is bimodal.
Which of the following signifies the strongest
relationship?
r = -.64
M = .99
t = 1.44
r = .57
A
Feedback:
Possible values for a correlation coefficient
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following signifies the strongest
relationship?
r = -.64
M = .99
t = 1.44
r = .57
A
Feedback:
Possible values for a correlation coefficient
range from –1.00 through .00 to +1.00. Note
that the higher the absolute value of the
coefficient (i.e., the value disregarding the
sign), the stronger the relationship. A
correlation of –.64, for instance, is much
stronger than a correlation of +.57. A
parametric test for testing the significance of
differences in two group means is called a ttest. The mean (M) equals the sum of all
values divided by the number of participants
—what people refer to as the average.
The symbol represents which of the
following?
An effect size
A mean
Total sample size
An individual score
B
Feedback:
In research articles, the mean is often
symbolized as M or . Effect size index is the d
statistic. Total sample size is designated as N
in research reports. Individual score is written
as a number.
A widely used index of risk used among
11. practitioners of evidence-based practice is
which of the following?
The t statistic
The F ratio
The odds ratio
Pearson's r
C
Feedback:
The odds ratio is a widely reported risk index.
A parametric test for testing the significance
of differences in two group means is called a
t-test. Variation between groups is contrasted
with variation within groups to yield an F
ratio statistic. The most commonly used
correlation index is Pearson's r (the product–
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The F ratio
The odds ratio
Pearson's r
C
Feedback:
The odds ratio is a widely reported risk index.
A parametric test for testing the significance
of differences in two group means is called a
t-test. Variation between groups is contrasted
with variation within groups to yield an F
ratio statistic. The most commonly used
correlation index is Pearson's r (the product–
moment correlation coefficient), which is
computed with interval or ratio measures.
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The use of inferential statistics permits a
researcher to do which of the following?
Draw conclusions about a population based
on information gathered from a sample
Describe information obtained from empirical
observation
Interpret descriptive statistics
Estimate risk and relative risk
A
Feedback:
Descriptive statistics are useful for
summarizing data, but researchers usually do
more than describe. Inferential statistics,
based on the laws of probability, provide a
means for drawing conclusions about a
population, given data from a sample. Several
descriptive indexes can be used to facilitate
such decision-making. Inferential statistics do
not pertain to risk.
The standard deviation of a sampling
distribution is called which of the following?
Sampling error
Standard error of the mean
Variance
Parameter
B
Feedback:
The standard error of the mean (SEM)—the
standard deviation of this theoretical
distribution—indicates the degree of average
error of a sample mean. Sample statistics
fluctuate and are unequal to the parameter
because of sampling error. Analysis of
variance (ANOVA) is used to test mean group
differences of three or more groups.
Parameter estimation is used to estimate a
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Standard error of the mean
Variance
Parameter
B
Feedback:
The standard error of the mean (SEM)—the
standard deviation of this theoretical
distribution—indicates the degree of average
error of a sample mean. Sample statistics
fluctuate and are unequal to the parameter
because of sampling error. Analysis of
variance (ANOVA) is used to test mean group
differences of three or more groups.
Parameter estimation is used to estimate a
population parameter—for example, a mean,
a proportion, or a mean difference between
two groups.
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The SEM gets smaller as which of the
following occurs?
The mean gets smaller
The sample size gets smaller
The mean gets larger
The sample size gets larger
D
Feedback:
The standard error of the mean (SEM)—the
standard deviation of this theoretical
distribution—indicates the degree of average
error of a sample mean; the smaller the SEM,
the more accurate are estimates of the
population value. It does not mean the mean
gets smaller or larger or the sample size gets
smaller.
In the following statement, what would the
15. number 50 be called: 95% CI for the mean of
60 = 50 to 70?
The probability value
The point estimate
The lower confidence limit
The effect size
C
Feedback:
With interval estimation, researchers
construct a confidence interval (CI) around
the estimate; the upper and lower limits are
called confidence limits. In the statement,
95% CI for the mean of 60 = 50 to 70, 50
represents the lower confidence limit and 70
is the upper confidence limit. Point estimation
provides a single value of a population
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The point estimate
The lower confidence limit
The effect size
C
Feedback:
With interval estimation, researchers
construct a confidence interval (CI) around
the estimate; the upper and lower limits are
called confidence limits. In the statement,
95% CI for the mean of 60 = 50 to 70, 50
represents the lower confidence limit and 70
is the upper confidence limit. Point estimation
provides a single value of a population
estimate (e.g., a mean). Interval estimation
provides limits of a range of values—the
confidence interval (CI)—between which the
population value is expected to fall, at a
specified probability. Effect size indexes
(such as the d statistic) summarize the
strength of the effect of an independent
variable (e.g., an intervention) on an outcome
variable.
In the following statement, what would the
16. number 60 be called: 95% CI for the mean of
60 = 50 to 70?
The probability value
The point estimate
The lower confidence limit
The effect size
B
Feedback:
Point estimation provides a single value of a
population estimate (e.g., a mean). In this
example 60 represents the mean. With interval
estimation, researchers construct a confidence
interval (CI) around the estimate; the upper
and lower limits are called confidence limits.
95% CI for the mean of 60 = 50 to 70. 50
represent the lower confidence limit and 70 is
the upper confidence limit. Effect size indexes
(such as the d statistic) summarize the
strength of the effect of an independent
variable (e.g., an intervention) on an outcome
variable.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A 95% CI, in parameter estimation,
17. corresponds, in a hypothesis testing
framework, to which of the following?
An alpha of .95
An alpha of .05
A beta of .95
A beta of .05
B
Feedback:
Levels of significance are analogous to the CI
values—an alpha of .05 is analogous to the
95% CI, and an alpha of .01 is analogous to
the 99% CI. By convention, the minimal
acceptable alpha level is .05. The probability
of committing a Type II error, called beta (β),
can be estimated through power analysis.
Power is the ability of a statistical test to
detect true relationships, and is the
complement of beta (that is, power equals 1 β). The standard criterion for an acceptable
risk for a Type II error is .20, and thus
researchers ideally use a sample size that
gives them a minimum power of .80.
The steps involved in using test statistics
18. include which of the following? Select all that
apply.
Determining the appropriate statistic to be
used
Selecting a level of significance
Calculating the degrees of freedom
Calculating the theoretical distribution for the
test statistic
A, B, C
Feedback:
Each statistical test can be used with specific
kinds of data, but the overall hypothesistesting process is similar for all tests: 1.
Selecting a test statistic. 2. Specifying the
level of significance. 3. Computing a test
statistic. 4. Determining degrees of freedom.
5. Comparing the test statistic to a theoretical
value (not calculating the theoretical
distribution).
C)
Calculating the degrees of freedom
Calculating the theoretical distribution for the
test statistic
A, B, C
Feedback:
Each statistical test can be used with specific
kinds of data, but the overall hypothesistesting process is similar for all tests: 1.
Selecting a test statistic. 2. Specifying the
level of significance. 3. Computing a test
statistic. 4. Determining degrees of freedom.
5. Comparing the test statistic to a theoretical
value (not calculating the theoretical
distribution).
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
For which of the following levels of
19. significance is the risk of making a Type I
error lowest?
.10
.05
.01
.001
D
Feedback:
Researchers control the risk for a Type I error
by selecting a level of significance, which is
the probability of making a Type I error. The
two most frequently used levels of
significance (referred to as alpha) are .05
and .01. With a .05 significance level, we
accept the risk that out of 100 samples from a
population, a true null hypothesis would be
wrongly rejected 5 times. In 95 out of 100
cases, however, a true null hypothesis would
be correctly accepted. With a .01 significance
level, the risk of a Type I error is lower: In
only 1 sample out of 100 would we wrongly
reject the null. By convention, the minimal
acceptable alpha level is .05. Therefore the
Type I error with that is lowest in this
question is 0.001.
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
If the power for an analysis was .50, which of
the following would be true?
There would be a 50% risk of a Type II error
The odds ratio would be equal to .50
The 95% CI would have a range of 50 points
There would be a 50% risk of a Type I error
A
Feedback:
The probability of committing a Type II error,
called beta (β), can be estimated through
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
If the power for an analysis was .50, which of
the following would be true?
There would be a 50% risk of a Type II error
The odds ratio would be equal to .50
The 95% CI would have a range of 50 points
There would be a 50% risk of a Type I error
A
Feedback:
The probability of committing a Type II error,
called beta (β), can be estimated through
power analysis. The standard criterion for an
acceptable risk for a Type II error is .20, and
thus researchers ideally use a sample size that
gives them a minimum power of .80.
Therefore a power analysis of .50 would be a
50% risk of a Type II error. The odds ratio
(OR) is the ratio of two odds. With interval
estimation, researchers construct a confidence
interval (CI) around the estimate; the upper
and lower limits are called confidence limits.
By convention, researchers use either a 95%
or a 99% confidence interval. Researchers
control the risk for a Type I error by selecting
a level of significance, which is the
probability of making a Type I error. The two
most frequently used levels of significance
(referred to as alpha) are .05 and .01.
If a researcher calculated a t-statistic to be –
2.5 and the theoretical t value (for df = 60 and
21.
alpha = .05) is 2.0, the researcher would do
which of the following?
Conclude that a Type II error had been made
Accept the null hypothesis
Reject the null hypothesis
Use a different level of significance
C
Feedback:
The formula for calculating the t statistic uses
group means, variability, and sample size. The
computed value of t for the data is –2.5.
Degrees of freedom in this example are equal
to 60 and alpha of .05, the theoretical cutoff
value for t with 60 degrees of freedom is 2.0.
Thus, the calculated t of –2.5, which is
smaller than the theoretical value of t means
the null hypothesis is rejected and not
accepted. The null hypothesis states that no
relationship exists between variables;
rejection of the null hypothesis lends support
to the research hypothesis. In testing
hypotheses, researchers compute a test
statistic and then determine whether the
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Accept the null hypothesis
Reject the null hypothesis
Use a different level of significance
C
Feedback:
The formula for calculating the t statistic uses
group means, variability, and sample size. The
computed value of t for the data is –2.5.
Degrees of freedom in this example are equal
to 60 and alpha of .05, the theoretical cutoff
value for t with 60 degrees of freedom is 2.0.
Thus, the calculated t of –2.5, which is
smaller than the theoretical value of t means
the null hypothesis is rejected and not
accepted. The null hypothesis states that no
relationship exists between variables;
rejection of the null hypothesis lends support
to the research hypothesis. In testing
hypotheses, researchers compute a test
statistic and then determine whether the
statistic falls beyond a critical region on the
relevant theoretical distribution. The value of
the test statistic indicates whether the null
hypothesis is “improbable.” Alpha is a
measurement related to Type I errors. Beta is
a measurement related to Type II errors. A
different level of significance does not need to
be selected.
A researcher compared the mean anxiety
levels of patients in a soothing music group, a
massage group, or a control group. The
22.
statistical procedure that was likely used to
test group differences is which of the
following?
t-test
ANOVA
MANOVA
Chi-squared test
B
Feedback:
Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is used to test
mean group differences of three or more
groups. Researchers frequently compare two
groups of people on an outcome. A parametric
test for testing the significance of differences
in two group means is called a t-test.
Multivariance analysis of variance
(MANOVA) is the extension of ANOVA to
more than one outcome. MANOVA is used to
test the significance of differences between
the means of two or more groups on two or
more outcome variables, considered
2
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
ANOVA
MANOVA
Chi-squared test
B
Feedback:
Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is used to test
mean group differences of three or more
groups. Researchers frequently compare two
groups of people on an outcome. A parametric
test for testing the significance of differences
in two group means is called a t-test.
Multivariance analysis of variance
(MANOVA) is the extension of ANOVA to
more than one outcome. MANOVA is used to
test the significance of differences between
the means of two or more groups on two or
more outcome variables, considered
2
simultaneously. The chi-squared (ξ ) test is
used to test hypotheses about the proportion
of cases in different categories.
If a researcher wanted to assess whether an
experimental group differed significantly
23. from a control group in terms of proportion
with a post-discharge readmission, the test
statistic would be which of the following?
t
r
F
2
χ
D
Feedback:
2
The chi-squared (ξ ) test is used to test
hypotheses about the proportion of cases in
different categories. Researchers frequently
compare two groups of people on an outcome.
A parametric test for testing the significance
of differences in two group means is called a
t-test. The most frequently used correlation
coefficient is Pearson's r, used with intervalor ratio-level variables. Variation between
groups is contrasted with variation within
groups to yield an F ratio statistic.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
When both the independent and outcome
variables are measured on a ratio scale, the
24.
appropriate bivariate test statistic is which of
the following?
t
r
F
2
χ
B
Feedback:
The most frequently used correlation
coefficient is Pearson's r, used with interval2
or ratio-level variables. The chi-squared (ξ )
test is used to test hypotheses about the
proportion of cases in different categories.
Researchers frequently compare two groups
of people on an outcome. A parametric test for
testing the significance of differences in two
group means is called a t-test. Variation
between groups is contrasted with variation
within groups to yield an F ratio statistic.
25.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is an effect size
index? Select all that apply.
t
r
d
OR
B, C, D
Feedback:
A parametric test for testing the significance
of differences in two group means is called a
t-test. Effect size indexes (such as Pearson's r,
d statistic and OR odds ratio) summarize the
strength of the effect of an independent
variable (e.g., an intervention) on an outcome
variable.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A researcher wanted to predict whether
nursing home residents would or would not
experience a fall based on 10 characteristics
26.
(e.g., age, presence of absence of dementia,
etc.). The analysis would involve which of the
following?
Multiple regression
ANCOVA
Logistic regression
MANOVA
C
Feedback:
Logistic regression analyzes the relationships
between multiple independent variables and a
nominal-level outcome. In multiple
regression, outcome variables are interval- or
ratio-level variables. Analysis of variance
(ANOVA) is used to test mean group
differences of three or more groups.
Multivariance analysis of variance
(MANOVA) is the extension of ANOVA to
more than one outcome. MANOVA is used to
test the significance of differences between
the means of two or more groups on two or
more outcome variables, considered
simultaneously.
A researcher wanted to compare male and
female oncology patients in terms of
27. satisfaction with nursing care, controlling for
age and severity of illness. The analysis
would involve which of the following?
Multiple regression
ANCOVA
Logistic regression
MANCOVA
B
Feedback:
Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA), which
combines features of ANOVA and multiple
regression, is used to control confounding
variables statistically—that is to “equalize"
groups being compared, which is what is
needed in this case. Logistic regression
analyzes the relationships between multiple
independent variables and a nominal-level
outcome. In multiple regression, outcome
variables are interval- or ratio-level variables.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
ANCOVA
Logistic regression
MANCOVA
B
Feedback:
Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA), which
combines features of ANOVA and multiple
regression, is used to control confounding
variables statistically—that is to “equalize"
groups being compared, which is what is
needed in this case. Logistic regression
analyzes the relationships between multiple
independent variables and a nominal-level
outcome. In multiple regression, outcome
variables are interval- or ratio-level variables.
Multivariance analysis of variance
(MANOVA) is the extension of ANOVA to
more than one outcome. MANOVA is used to
test the significance of differences between
the means of two or more groups on two or
more outcome variables, considered
simultaneously.
Suppose a researcher found a multiple
correlation of .40 (R = .40) between candy
intake, age, income on the one hand and
28. dental caries on the other. The amount of
variability that could be accounted for in
dental caries by candy intake, age, and
income is which of the following?
4%
16%
40%
Cannot be determined
B
Feedback:
An interesting feature of R is that, when
squared, it can be interpreted as the
proportion of the variability in the outcome
variable that is explained by the predictors. In
predicting dental caries by candy intake, age,
2
and income, if we achieved an R of .40 (R
= .16), we could say that the predictors
accounted for just 16%, not 4% or 40%, of the
variation in dental caries by candy intake, age,
and income.
29.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In reporting the results of a statistical test in a
30. research article, which of the following would
be reported? Select all that apply.
The computed value of the test statistic
The theoretical value of the test statistic
Degrees of freedom
The probability (p) value
A, C, D
Feedback:
The text of research articles usually provides
certain information about statistical tests,
including (1) which test was used, (2) the
value of the calculated statistic, (3) degrees of
freedom, and (4) level of statistical
significance.
31.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In analysis of covariance, a covariate is
generally which of the following?
An independent variable
The outcome variable
Either an independent or dependent variable
A confounding variable
D
Feedback:
In ANCOVA, the confounding variables being
controlled are called covariates. Logistic
regression analyzes the relationships between
multiple independent variables, not dependent
variables, and a nominal-level outcome.
Which measure of central tendency is the
most stable?
Mode
Median
Mean
Average
C
Feedback:
The mean is the most stable because it
fluctuates the least among these indicators.
The mode is the number that comes up the
most frequently. The median is the half-way
cut point without considering extremes.
“Average” is not used because it can refer to
all central tendency indicators.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Median
Mean
Average
C
Feedback:
The mean is the most stable because it
fluctuates the least among these indicators.
The mode is the number that comes up the
most frequently. The median is the half-way
cut point without considering extremes.
“Average” is not used because it can refer to
all central tendency indicators.
32.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
33.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The alpha level of significance refers to the
probability of which of the following?
A Type I error
A Type II error
A null hypothesis
Multiple regression
A
Feedback:
The level of significance refers to the
probability of rejecting a null hypothesis that
is actually true, which is a Type I error. The
probability of committing a Type II error—
accepting a false null hypothesis—is referred
to as beta (β). A null hypothesis states that
there is no relationship between the
independent and dependent variables.
Multiple regression is used to study the
strength of the relationships among more than
two variables.
Statistically significant means which of the
following?
The study findings are important.
The study results are meaningful.
It is unlikelihood that the results are due to
chance.
The hypothesis has been proven.
C
Feedback:
The term statistically significant means that
results are not likely to have been due to
chance at some specified level of probability.
Importance of the findings has no bearing on
the statistical significance of the findings.
There is no relationship between meaning and
statistical significance. Statistical significance
does not mean that the hypothesis is proven.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
It is unlikelihood that the results are due to
chance.
The hypothesis has been proven.
C
Feedback:
The term statistically significant means that
results are not likely to have been due to
chance at some specified level of probability.
Importance of the findings has no bearing on
the statistical significance of the findings.
There is no relationship between meaning and
statistical significance. Statistical significance
does not mean that the hypothesis is proven.
A frequency distribution for height would
34. most likely be represented by which of the
following?
A symmetric distribution
A positive skew
A negative skew
A normal distribution
D
Feedback:
A normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve
that is mostly symmetric, unimodal, and not
very peaked. The two halves of the
distribution would not be exactly equal, and
thus it would not be a fully symmetric
distribution. However, it would not have an
off-center peak, and thus would not be a
positive or negative skew.
The d statistic approximates effect size by
measuring the difference between the
experimental group mean and the control
35. group mean, normed to the standard
deviation. If the effect size is moderate,
which of the following values of d would one
expect to calculate?
d=0
d = .20
d = .50
d = .80
C
Feedback:
There is a moderate effect of the independent
variable when d = .50. There is no effect of
the independent variable when d = 0. There is
only a small effect of the independent variable
when d = .20. There is a large effect of the
independent variable when d = .80.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
d = .20
d = .50
d = .80
C
Feedback:
There is a moderate effect of the independent
variable when d = .50. There is no effect of
the independent variable when d = 0. There is
only a small effect of the independent variable
when d = .20. There is a large effect of the
independent variable when d = .80.
When testing multiple independent variables,
the proportion of variability in the outcome
36.
variable that is explained by the predictors is
measured as which of the following?
Paired t-test
The product-moment correlation coefficient
R
2
R
D
Feedback:
2
R , which is the square of the multiple
correlation coefficient R, shows the
proportion of the variability in the outcome
variable that is explained by the predictors.
The multiple correlation coefficient, R, shows
the strength of the relationship between
several independent variables and an
outcome, but not direction. A bivariate
correlation coefficient, such as Pearson's r
(the product-moment correlation coefficient),
describes the intensity and direction of a
relationship between two variables. The
paired t-test is a parametric test for testing the
significance of differences in two group
means in which the same group of subjects
are tested at two different points, such as
before and after an intervention.
37.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The shape of a distribution with three values
of high frequency is which of the following?
Unimodal
Bimodal
Multimodal
A bell-shaped curve
C
Feedback:
A multimodal distribution has more than one
peak. A unimodal distribution only has one
peak. A bimodal distribution has two peaks. A
37.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
of high frequency is which of the following?
Unimodal
Bimodal
Multimodal
A bell-shaped curve
C
Feedback:
A multimodal distribution has more than one
peak. A unimodal distribution only has one
peak. A bimodal distribution has two peaks. A
bell-shaped curve is symmetrical and
unimodal.
In a normal distribution, 95% of scores fall
38. within approximately how many standard
deviations (SDs) from the mean?
1
2
3
4
B
Feedback:
In a normal distribution, 95% of scores fall
within 2 SDs from the mean.
To test mean differences among related
groups over time with at least three different
39.
points of data collection, you would use
which of the following?
Paired t-test
Chi-squared test
Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
Repeated measures ANOVA
D
Feedback:
Repeated measures ANOVA compares means
related groups at three or more different
points of data collection. A paired t-test tests
mean differences between two different points
of data collection over time. A chi-squared
test is used to test hypotheses about the
proportion of cases in different categories,
and is computed by summing differences
between observed frequencies and expected
frequencies. ANOVA is used to test the means
of three or more independent groups, not
related groups.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Chi-squared test
Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
Repeated measures ANOVA
D
Feedback:
Repeated measures ANOVA compares means
related groups at three or more different
points of data collection. A paired t-test tests
mean differences between two different points
of data collection over time. A chi-squared
test is used to test hypotheses about the
proportion of cases in different categories,
and is computed by summing differences
between observed frequencies and expected
frequencies. ANOVA is used to test the means
of three or more independent groups, not
related groups.
40.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which correlation coefficient shows the
strongest relationship between two variables?
–0.821
–0.653
0
0.759
A
Feedback:
This is the strongest relationship because the
direction of the relationship is inconsequential
regarding intensity. –0.821 has the largest
absolute value among the answers. A
correlation coefficient of 0 indicates no
relationship. The correlation coefficient may
range from –1.00 to 1.00.
Testing the significance of difference in two
41. group means is done with which of the
following?
Independent groups t-test
Paired t-test
Dependent groups t-test
Chi-squared test
A
Feedback:
An independent groups t-test tests the
significance of difference in means of two
different or independent groups. A paired ttest tests the significance of difference in
means of a single group at two different
times. A dependent groups t-test is another
name for the paired t-test. A chi-squared test
measures the difference between observed
frequencies and expected frequencies.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Paired t-test
Dependent groups t-test
Chi-squared test
A
Feedback:
An independent groups t-test tests the
significance of difference in means of two
different or independent groups. A paired ttest tests the significance of difference in
means of a single group at two different
times. A dependent groups t-test is another
name for the paired t-test. A chi-squared test
measures the difference between observed
frequencies and expected frequencies.
To test the significance of differences between
the means of two or more groups on two or
42. more outcome variables simultaneously,
without controlling for covariates, one would
use which of the following?
Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
Multivariate analysis of covariance
(MANCOVA)
B
Feedback:
MANOVA is used to test the significance of
differences between the means of two or more
groups on two or more outcome variables,
considered simultaneously. ANOVA only tests
for one outcome variable at a time. ANCOVA
tests the significance of differences between
the means of two or more groups, while
controlling for one or more covariates.
MANCOVA tests the significance of
differences between the means of two or more
groups for two or more outcome variables
simultaneously, while controlling for one or
more covariates.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A researcher would like to test the
significance of differences in the means of
three age groups of baseball pitchers for the
outcome variables of speed and accuracy. She
43.
realizes that she will need to control for the
potential confounding variable of base skill of
the individual subjects in all three groups.
Which type of analysis should she use?
Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
Multivariate analysis of covariance
(MANCOVA)
D
Feedback:
MANCOVA would be the best choice.
MANCOVA tests the significance of
differences between the means of two or more
groups for two or more outcome variables
simultaneously, while controlling for one or
more covariates. MANOVA is used to test the
significance of differences between the means
of two or more groups on two or more
outcome variables, considered
simultaneously, but without controlling for
confounding variables. ANOVA only tests for
one outcome variable at a time and does not
control for confounding variables. ANCOVA
tests the significance of differences between
the means of two or more groups on only one
outcome, while controlling for one or more
covariates.
In an experiment testing a smoking cessation
technique with two groups of smokers, one
control and one experimental, what index
would measure the proportion of individuals
44.
in the control group who may have avoided
the undesirable outcome of continued
smoking had they been chosen for the
experimental group?
Absolute risk
Absolute risk reduction
Odds ratio
Risk ratio
B
Feedback:
The absolute risk reduction index measures
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
the undesirable outcome of continued
smoking had they been chosen for the
experimental group?
Absolute risk
Absolute risk reduction
Odds ratio
Risk ratio
B
Feedback:
The absolute risk reduction index measures
the proportion of people in the control group
who may have experienced a desirable
outcome had they been treated as the subjects
in the experimental group. Absolute risk is the
proportion of people who experienced an
undesirable outcome within each group. The
odds ratio measures the proportion of subjects
who experienced the undesirable outcome
relative to those who experienced the
desirable outcome. Risk ratio measures the
estimated proportion of the original risk for
the undesirable outcome that persists when
subjects are exposed to the intervention.
In an analysis of variance (ANOVA), which
45. of the following contrasts variation between
groups with variation within groups?
F ratio
Post hoc tests
Chi-squared statistic
Pearson's r
A
Feedback:
The F ratio contrasts these variations.
Statistical analyses known as post hoc tests
(or multiple comparison procedures) are used
to isolate the differences between group
means that are responsible for rejecting the
overall ANOVA null hypothesis. The chisquared test is used to test hypotheses about
the proportion of cases in different categories,
as in a crosstabs. The chi-squared statistic is
computed by summing differences between
the observed frequencies in each cell (such as
those in Table 12.10) and the expected
frequencies—those that would be expected if
there were no relationship between the
variables.. Pearson's r is both descriptive and
inferential. As a descriptive statistic, r
summarizes the magnitude and direction of a
relationship between two variables.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Post hoc tests
Chi-squared statistic
Pearson's r
A
Feedback:
The F ratio contrasts these variations.
Statistical analyses known as post hoc tests
(or multiple comparison procedures) are used
to isolate the differences between group
means that are responsible for rejecting the
overall ANOVA null hypothesis. The chisquared test is used to test hypotheses about
the proportion of cases in different categories,
as in a crosstabs. The chi-squared statistic is
computed by summing differences between
the observed frequencies in each cell (such as
those in Table 12.10) and the expected
frequencies—those that would be expected if
there were no relationship between the
variables.. Pearson's r is both descriptive and
inferential. As a descriptive statistic, r
summarizes the magnitude and direction of a
relationship between two variables.
CHI 's
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
1. Which of the following statements is true?
The results of statistical testing have direct
meaning.
Evaluating the credibility of a study typically
involves a careful assessment of
methodologic decisions.
Support of a researcher's hypothesis through
statistical testing offers proof of its veracity.
A correlation between two variables indicates
that the independent variable caused the
dependent variable.
B
Feedback:
A credibility assessment requires a careful
analysis of the study's methodologic and
conceptual limitations and strengths.
Statistical testing results do not always have
direct meaning, but often must be interpreted.
Empirical evidence supporting research
hypotheses never constitutes proof of their
veracity. Correlation between two variables
does not prove causation.
Information about the precision of results
2. typically is communication in the form of
which of the following?
Significance levels
Effect size estimates
Correlation coefficients
Confidence intervals
D
Feedback:
Confidence intervals (CIs) communicate
information about how precise (or imprecise)
the study results are. Statistical significance
indicates that the results are unlikely to be due
to chance. Effect size pertains to sample size
and power analysis, whereas correlation
coefficients pertain to the intensity and
direction of relationships between variables.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Information about the magnitude or
3. importance of results typically takes the form
of which of the following?
Significance levels
Effect size estimates
Correlation coefficients
Confidence intervals
B
Feedback:
It is imperative to compute effect sizes as a
means of illustrating magnitude of importance
of results. Confidence intervals (CIs)
communicate information about how precise
(or imprecise) the study results are. Statistical
significance indicates that the results are
unlikely to be due to chance. Correlation
coefficients pertain to the intensity and
direction of relationships between variables.
Which of the following is an aspect or
4. dimension of the interpretive task? Select all
that apply.
The accuracy or credibility of the results
The meaning of the results
The vigor of the results
The implications of the results
A, B, D
Feedback:
The interpretation of quantitative research
results (the outcomes of the statistical
analyses) typically involves consideration of:
(1) the credibility of the results; (2) precision
of estimates of effects; (3) magnitude of
effects; (4) underlying meaning; (5)
generalizability; and (6) implications for
future research and nursing practice. The
“vigor” of the results is not an aspect of the
interpretive task.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
When a researcher makes a Type II error
(concludes that no relationship between the
independent and dependent variable exists
5.
when in fact it does), this could occur because
of which of the following? Select all that
apply.
An anomalous sample
Unreliable data collection instruments
Problems with adequately implementing the
intervention
A large sample size
A, B, C
Feedback:
Retention of a false null hypothesis (a Type II
error) can result from a variety of
methodologic problems, such as poor internal
validity, an anomalous sample, a weak
statistical procedure, or unreliable measures.
In particular, failure to reject null hypotheses
is often a consequence of insufficient power,
usually reflecting too small a sample size.
When a researcher obtains significant results
that are opposite to what was originally
6.
hypothesized, it is likely that this occurred
because of which of the following?
Inadequate sample size
Unreliable data collection instruments
A flawed statistical analysis
Faulty reasoning
D
Feedback:
When significant findings are opposite to
what was hypothesized, it is less likely that
the methods are flawed than that the
reasoning or theory is problematic. The
interpretation of such findings should involve
comparisons with other research, a
consideration of alternate theories, and a
critical scrutiny of the research methods.
7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
The Results section of a research article
summarizes results of which of the following?
Study conclusions
Statistical analyses
Inferences
Interpretation of study findings
B
Feedback:
Study results from statistical analyses are
summarized in the Results section of a
research article. Researchers present their
interpretations of the results in Discussion
section. An inference is the act of drawing
conclusions based on limited information,
using logical reasoning. Conclusions may be
presented in the Discussion section or in a
separate section, but not in the Results
section.
It is important that researchers design
8. rigorous study methods to prevent which of
the following?
Making inferences
Biases
Rejection of null hypothesis
Internal audit
B
Feedback:
A researcher's job is to translate abstract
constructs into plausible and meaningful
proxies. Another major job concerns efforts to
eliminate, reduce, or control biases through
rigorous study methods. Researchers do not
design rigorous study methods to prevent
inferences, rejection of the null hypothesis,
and the process of internal audit.
A study is investigating the rate of
immunization at a community-based clinic.
9.
Selection bias is most likely to be present in
which of the following samples?
Random sample of clients accessing an urgent
care clinic
Random sample of records of school clinic
vaccination rates
Convenience sample of mothers who bring
children to clinic for vaccinations
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A study is investigating the rate of
immunization at a community-based clinic.
9.
Selection bias is most likely to be present in
which of the following samples?
Random sample of clients accessing an urgent
care clinic
Random sample of records of school clinic
vaccination rates
Convenience sample of mothers who bring
children to clinic for vaccinations
Convenience sample of high school students
who have received required vaccinations
C
Feedback:
Random sampling mitigates the possibility of
selection bias. A convenience sample of
mothers who opt for vaccination may be a
population that is significantly different from
the larger population.
A main purpose of the Consolidated
10. Standards of Reporting Trials (CONSORT)
flow diagram is which of the following?
Track the progress of study participants
Present accurate statistical analyses
Compare and contrast current study findings
Summarize previous study findings
A
Feedback:
Guidelines called the Consolidated Standards
of Reporting Trials or CONSORT guidelines
have been adopted by major medical and
nursing journals to help readers track study
participants. CONSORT flow charts, when
available, should be scrutinized in interpreting
study results. CONSORT guidelines do not
address the study findings or analysis.
The purpose of evaluating the evidence that
11. emanates from research articles is to do which
of the following?
Maintain licensure as a professional nurse
Implement protocols already established in
one's clinical area
Improve one's clinical assessment skills
Decide whether recommendations might be
implemented
D
Feedback:
Best evidence is necessary to systematically
determine the possible benefit of nursing
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
of the following?
Maintain licensure as a professional nurse
Implement protocols already established in
one's clinical area
Improve one's clinical assessment skills
Decide whether recommendations might be
implemented
D
Feedback:
Best evidence is necessary to systematically
determine the possible benefit of nursing
treatments. Evaluation of studies is not
necessary to maintain licensure, improve
one's clinical assessment skills, or implement
protocols that are already established.
A researcher must select a sample that is
representative of the population. Which of the
12. following venues would be most practical for
recruitment of patients with primary
hypertension?
Prenatal clinic
High school clinic
Primary care clinic
Acute care hospital
C
Feedback:
Individuals with primary hypertension are
more likely to be receiving care, and thus
accessible to a researcher, in a primary care
clinic than in a school clinic or prenatal clinic.
Most individuals with primary hypertension
are not hospitalized.
A researcher plans to use a proxy variable to
measure the concept of patient outcome.
13.
Which of the following would be an
appropriate variable to use?
Length of stay in hospital
Medicare eligibility
Falls risk
Staffing ratios
A
Feedback:
A proxy variable is a measurable variable that
stands in place of the variable of interest. The
variable of interest is sometimes impractical
to measure because of technical difficulty,
excessive expense, ambiguity, abstraction, or
multiple facets. In the case of patient
outcome, the concept has too many facets to
allow a practical enquiry. Length of hospital
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Medicare eligibility
Falls risk
Staffing ratios
A
Feedback:
A proxy variable is a measurable variable that
stands in place of the variable of interest. The
variable of interest is sometimes impractical
to measure because of technical difficulty,
excessive expense, ambiguity, abstraction, or
multiple facets. In the case of patient
outcome, the concept has too many facets to
allow a practical enquiry. Length of hospital
stay is often chosen when rapidity of response
to the pre-morbid state is the study's principal
focus. Eligibility for Medicare, staffing
ratios, and falls risk are not outcomes: they
are, according to Donabedian's framework,
structures of care
Researchers conducting an exercise
intervention study with overweight adults
recruited a sample of 250 adults from a
14.
primary care clinic. Of the 250 adults, 82
participants completed the study. The 82
participants represent what type of sample?
Target population
Accessible population
Recruited sample
Actual sample
D
Feedback:
The actual sample consists of the original
(recruited) sample minus all individuals who
failed to complete the study. The target
population is all individuals for whom the
study findings may be directly relevant and
applicable.
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The term validity refers to which of the
following?
Truth of an inference
Honesty of the report
Accuracy of the measurement
Preparation of the researcher
A
Feedback:
As the research methodology experts Shadish
and colleagues (2002) have stated, “We use
the term validity to refer to the approximate
truth of an inference” (p. 34). Validity is not
synonymous with honesty, though the two
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Honesty of the report
Accuracy of the measurement
Preparation of the researcher
A
Feedback:
As the research methodology experts Shadish
and colleagues (2002) have stated, “We use
the term validity to refer to the approximate
truth of an inference” (p. 34). Validity is not
synonymous with honesty, though the two
terms are indeed congruent. Similarly, validity
is not defined as accuracy or preparation.
A study reports a 60% rate of attrition among
16. the participants. This finding suggests which
of the following?
A threat to internal validity
Lack of recruitment
Appropriate compensation/incentives
Invalid measurements
A
Feedback:
The study's internal validity (the extent to
which a causal inference can be made) is
affected by sample composition. For example,
attrition can effect sample composition and
thus internal validity. Were those in the
intervention group more likely (or less likely)
than those in the control group to drop out of
the study? If so, any observed differences in
outcomes could be caused by individual
differences in the groups (for example,
differences in motivation), rather than by the
intervention itself. This does not necessarily
mean that the original sample was inadequate.
Compensation and incentives may have been
inadequate. High attrition is not relevant to
the measurements that were used.
A p-value is a measure of the likelihood that
the statistical results were obtained in error. A
17.
confidence interval, on the other hand,
provides which of the following?
The range of the measured values in the
sample reported in the research report
The probability that similar results will be
obtained in error, in the future
The range of probable values of the variable
in the population
The likelihood that the results will be useful
in practice
C
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
provides which of the following?
The range of the measured values in the
sample reported in the research report
The probability that similar results will be
obtained in error, in the future
The range of probable values of the variable
in the population
The likelihood that the results will be useful
in practice
C
Feedback:
A p-value offers information that is important,
but incomplete. Confidence intervals (CIs), by
contrast, communicate information about how
precise (or imprecise) the study results are.
CIs indicate the strength of evidence about
quantities of direct interest, such as treatment
benefit.
The fact that research study findings are
18. statistically significant indicates which of the
following?
Intervention was effective
Methods were valid
Results were unlikely due to chance
Sample size was adequate
C
Feedback:
Statistical significance indicates that the
results are unlikely to be due to chance—not
that they are necessarily important or
clinically effective. Statistical significance
does not necessarily demonstrate that the
methods were valid or the sample size was
adequate or the intervention is effective.
CH 14
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The term emergent design in qualitative
1. inquiry refers to a research design that
emerges at which of the following times?
During the conduct of a literature review
While the researcher develops a conceptual
framework
Before the study is begun
While the researcher is in the field collecting
data
D
Feedback:
Qualitative research involves an emergent
design—a design that emerges in the field as
the study unfolds not during the conduct of a
literature review, while the researcher
develops a conceptual framework, or before
the study is begun.
Which of the following is an issue that a
2. qualitative researcher attends to in planning a
study? Select all that apply.
Selecting a site
Identifying needed equipment for field work
Selecting research instruments
Determining the maximum amount of time
available for field work
A, B, D
Feedback:
Qualitative researchers make advance
decisions with regard to their research
tradition, the study site, and the maximum
amount of time available for the study, a
broad data collection strategy, and the
equipment they will need in the field. They
do not select research instruments in planning
a study.
Which of the following design features can
3. apply to both a qualitative and quantitative
study?
Manipulation of the independent variable
Cross-sectional versus longitudinal data
collection
Control over confounding variables
Random assignment of study participants
B
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following design features can
3. apply to both a qualitative and quantitative
study?
Manipulation of the independent variable
Cross-sectional versus longitudinal data
collection
Control over confounding variables
Random assignment of study participants
B
Feedback:
Qualitative research, like quantitative
research, can be either cross-sectional, with
one data collection point, or longitudinal, with
multiple data collection points designed to
observe the evolution of a phenomenon.
Qualitative research is almost always
nonexperimental—although a qualitative
substudy may be embedded in an experiment
(see Chapter 18). Qualitative researchers do
not conceptualize their studies as having
independent and dependent variables, and
they rarely control any aspect of the people or
environment under study. Blinding is rarely
used by qualitative researchers. The goal is to
develop a rich understanding of a
phenomenon as it exists and as it is
constructed by individuals within their own
context.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Hermeneutics is closely allied with which
research tradition?
Ethnography
Phenomenology
Grounded theory
Symbolic Interaction
B
Feedback:
Interpretive phenomenology (hermeneutics)
focuses on interpreting the meaning of
experiences, rather than just describing them.
Ethnography focuses on the culture of a group
of people and relies on extensive field work
that usually includes participant observation
and in-depth interviews with key informants.
Grounded theory researchers try to account
for people's actions by focusing on the main
concern that their behavior is designed to
resolve. Grounded theory has its theoretical
roots in symbolic interaction, which focuses
on the manner in which people make sense of
social interactions.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Phenomenology
Grounded theory
Symbolic Interaction
B
Feedback:
Interpretive phenomenology (hermeneutics)
focuses on interpreting the meaning of
experiences, rather than just describing them.
Ethnography focuses on the culture of a group
of people and relies on extensive field work
that usually includes participant observation
and in-depth interviews with key informants.
Grounded theory researchers try to account
for people's actions by focusing on the main
concern that their behavior is designed to
resolve. Grounded theory has its theoretical
roots in symbolic interaction, which focuses
on the manner in which people make sense of
social interactions.
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Ethnographers strive to do which of the
following?
Understand human cultures
Develop an etic perspective
Link the etic and emic perspectives into a
unified whole
Understand the essence of a phenomenon
A
Feedback:
Ethnography focuses on the culture of a group
of people and relies on extensive field work
that usually includes participant observation
and in-depth interviews with key informants.
Ethnographers strive to acquire an emic
(insider's) perspective of a culture rather than
an etic (outsider's) perspective.
Phenomenologists seek to discover the
essence and meaning of a phenomenon as it is
experienced by people, mainly through indepth interviews with people who have had
the relevant experience.
An ethnographic study of a clinic that
specialized in abortion services by someone
6.
from outside that culture would most likely be
an example of which of the following?
An auto-ethnography
A critical ethnography
A microethnography
A macroethnography
C
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
An ethnographic study of a clinic that
specialized in abortion services by someone
6.
from outside that culture would most likely be
an example of which of the following?
An auto-ethnography
A critical ethnography
A microethnography
A macroethnography
C
Feedback:
Ethnographic research sometimes concerns
broadly defined cultures, in what is
sometimes referred to as a macroethnography.
However, ethnographies sometimes focus on
more narrowly defined cultures in a
microethnography or focused ethnography.
Ethnographers are often, but not always,
“outsiders” to the culture under study. A type
of ethnography that involves self-scrutiny
(including scrutiny of groups or cultures to
which researchers themselves belong) is
called auto-ethnography or insider research.
Critical ethnography focuses on raising
consciousness in the hope of effecting social
change.
7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is a step in descriptive
phenomenology? Select all that apply.
Bracketing
Inferring
Analyzing
Describing
A, C, D
Feedback:
In descriptive phenomenology, which seeks to
describe lived experiences, researchers strive
to bracket out preconceived views and to
intuit the essence of the phenomenon by
remaining open to meanings attributed to it by
those who have experienced it, and then to
analyze and describe them. Inferring is not a
step in descriptive phenomenology.
A study that focused on the meaning of
sacrifice among wounded military personnel
8.
during war time would likely use which of the
following?
A descriptive phenomenological approach
A grounded theory approach
An ethnography
A hermeneutic approach
D
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A study that focused on the meaning of
sacrifice among wounded military personnel
8.
during war time would likely use which of the
following?
A descriptive phenomenological approach
A grounded theory approach
An ethnography
A hermeneutic approach
D
Feedback:
Interpretive phenomenology (hermeneutics)
focuses on interpreting the meaning of
experiences, rather than just describing them.
In descriptive phenomenology, which seeks to
describe lived experiences, researchers strive
to bracket out preconceived views and to
intuit the essence of the phenomenon by
remaining open to meanings attributed to it by
those who have experienced it. Grounded
theory researchers try to account for people's
actions by focusing on the main concern that
their behavior is designed to resolve.
Ethnography focuses on the culture of a group
of people and relies on extensive field work
that usually includes participant observation
and in-depth interviews with key informants.
Participant observation is a data collection
9. strategy used in almost all of which of the
following?
Ethnographic studies
Case studies
Phenomenological studies
Descriptive qualitative studies
A
Feedback:
Ethnography focuses on the culture of a group
of people and relies on extensive field work
that usually includes participant observation
and in-depth interviews with key informants.
Case studies are intensive investigations of a
single entity or a small number of entities,
such as individuals, groups, families, or
communities. Phenomenologists seek to
discover the essence and meaning of a
phenomenon as it is experienced by people,
mainly through in-depth interviews with
people who have had the relevant experience.
Descriptive qualitative studies are not
embedded in a disciplinary tradition. Such
studies may be referred to as qualitative
studies, naturalistic inquiries, or as qualitative
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Case studies
Phenomenological studies
Descriptive qualitative studies
A
Feedback:
Ethnography focuses on the culture of a group
of people and relies on extensive field work
that usually includes participant observation
and in-depth interviews with key informants.
Case studies are intensive investigations of a
single entity or a small number of entities,
such as individuals, groups, families, or
communities. Phenomenologists seek to
discover the essence and meaning of a
phenomenon as it is experienced by people,
mainly through in-depth interviews with
people who have had the relevant experience.
Descriptive qualitative studies are not
embedded in a disciplinary tradition. Such
studies may be referred to as qualitative
studies, naturalistic inquiries, or as qualitative
content analyses.
Which of the following approaches involves
10. the use of a procedure known as constant
comparison?
Grounded theory
Ethnography
Phenomenology
Historical
A
Feedback:
Grounded theory researchers try to account
for people's actions by focusing on the main
concern that their behavior is designed to
resolve; a procedure in grounded theory
called constant comparison is used to develop
and refine theoretically relevant concepts and
categories. Ethnography focuses on the
culture of a group of people and relies on
extensive field work that usually includes
participant observation and in-depth
interviews with key informants.
Phenomenologists seek to discover the
essence and meaning of a phenomenon as it is
experienced by people, mainly through indepth interviews with people who have had
the relevant experience. Historical research is
the systematic collection and critical
evaluation of data relating to past
occurrences.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Ethnography
Phenomenology
Historical
A
Feedback:
Grounded theory researchers try to account
for people's actions by focusing on the main
concern that their behavior is designed to
resolve; a procedure in grounded theory
called constant comparison is used to develop
and refine theoretically relevant concepts and
categories. Ethnography focuses on the
culture of a group of people and relies on
extensive field work that usually includes
participant observation and in-depth
interviews with key informants.
Phenomenologists seek to discover the
essence and meaning of a phenomenon as it is
experienced by people, mainly through indepth interviews with people who have had
the relevant experience. Historical research is
the systematic collection and critical
evaluation of data relating to past
occurrences.
The question, “What is the essence of men's
experiences of chemotherapy treatment for
11. prostate cancer?” is an example of a research
question within which of the following
traditions?
Grounded theory
Ethnography
Phenomenology
Qualitative description
C
Feedback:
Phenomenologists seek to discover the
essence and meaning of a phenomenon as it is
experienced by people, mainly through indepth interviews with people who have had
the relevant experience. Grounded theory
researchers try to account for people's actions
by focusing on the main concern that their
behavior is designed to resolve. Ethnography
focuses on the culture of a group of people
and relies on extensive field work that usually
includes participant observation and in-depth
interviews with key informants. Descriptive
qualitative studies are not embedded in a
disciplinary tradition. Such studies may be
referred to as qualitative studies, naturalistic
inquiries, or as qualitative content analyses.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Ethnography
Phenomenology
Qualitative description
C
Feedback:
Phenomenologists seek to discover the
essence and meaning of a phenomenon as it is
experienced by people, mainly through indepth interviews with people who have had
the relevant experience. Grounded theory
researchers try to account for people's actions
by focusing on the main concern that their
behavior is designed to resolve. Ethnography
focuses on the culture of a group of people
and relies on extensive field work that usually
includes participant observation and in-depth
interviews with key informants. Descriptive
qualitative studies are not embedded in a
disciplinary tradition. Such studies may be
referred to as qualitative studies, naturalistic
inquiries, or as qualitative content analyses.
The question, “What are the basic social
processes women use to maintain balance
12. through their menopausal transition?” is an
example of a research question within which
of the following traditions?
Grounded theory
Ethnography
Phenomenology
Qualitative description
A
Feedback:
Grounded theory researchers try to account
for people's actions by focusing on the main
concern that their behavior is designed to
resolve. Phenomenologists seek to discover
the essence and meaning of a phenomenon as
it is experienced by people, mainly through
in-depth interviews with people who have had
the relevant experience. Ethnography focuses
on the culture of a group of people and relies
on extensive field work that usually includes
participant observation and in-depth
interviews with key informants. Descriptive
qualitative studies are not embedded in a
disciplinary tradition. Such studies may be
referred to as qualitative studies, naturalistic
inquiries, or as qualitative content analyses.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Ethnography
Phenomenology
Qualitative description
A
Feedback:
Grounded theory researchers try to account
for people's actions by focusing on the main
concern that their behavior is designed to
resolve. Phenomenologists seek to discover
the essence and meaning of a phenomenon as
it is experienced by people, mainly through
in-depth interviews with people who have had
the relevant experience. Ethnography focuses
on the culture of a group of people and relies
on extensive field work that usually includes
participant observation and in-depth
interviews with key informants. Descriptive
qualitative studies are not embedded in a
disciplinary tradition. Such studies may be
referred to as qualitative studies, naturalistic
inquiries, or as qualitative content analyses.
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements are true?
Select all that apply.
Reflexive journals can be used in the
bracketing process.
Hermeneutics focuses on interpreting the
meaning of experiences.
Descriptive phenomenology aims at
understanding tacit knowledge.
Interpretive phenomenologists often
supplement in-depth interviews with an
analysis of texts (e.g., novels, poetry).
A, B, D
Feedback:
It is ethnography, not descriptive
phenomenology, that aims at understanding
tacit knowledge. In descriptive
phenomenology, which seeks to describe
lived experiences, researchers strive to
bracket out preconceived views, often using
reflexive journals to do so, and to intuit the
essence of the phenomenon by remaining
open to meanings attributed to it by those who
have experienced it. Interpretive
phenomenology (hermeneutics) focuses on
interpreting the meaning of experiences,
rather than just describing them. Interpretive
phenomenologists, like descriptive
phenomenologists, rely primarily on in-depth
interviews with individuals who have
experienced the phenomenon of interest, but
they may go beyond a traditional approach to
gathering and analyzing data. For example,
Interpretive phenomenologists often
supplement in-depth interviews with an
analysis of texts (e.g., novels, poetry).
A, B, D
Feedback:
It is ethnography, not descriptive
phenomenology, that aims at understanding
tacit knowledge. In descriptive
phenomenology, which seeks to describe
lived experiences, researchers strive to
bracket out preconceived views, often using
reflexive journals to do so, and to intuit the
essence of the phenomenon by remaining
open to meanings attributed to it by those who
have experienced it. Interpretive
phenomenology (hermeneutics) focuses on
interpreting the meaning of experiences,
rather than just describing them. Interpretive
phenomenologists, like descriptive
phenomenologists, rely primarily on in-depth
interviews with individuals who have
experienced the phenomenon of interest, but
they may go beyond a traditional approach to
gathering and analyzing data. For example,
interpretive phenomenologists sometimes
augment their understandings of the
phenomenon through an analysis of
supplementary texts, such as novels, poetry,
or other artistic expressions—or they use such
materials in their conversations with study
participants.
D)
Ans:
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following names does not
belong with the others?
Heidegger
Corbin
Strauss
Glaser
A
Feedback:
Heidegger, a student of Husserl, is the
founder of interpretive phenomenology or
hermeneutics. In 1990, Strauss and Corbin
published the first edition of a controversial
book, Basics of qualitative research:
Grounded theory procedures and techniques.
Glaser, however, disagreed with some
procedures advocated by Strauss (his original
co-author) and Corbin (a nurse researcher).
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Corbin
Strauss
Glaser
A
Feedback:
Heidegger, a student of Husserl, is the
founder of interpretive phenomenology or
hermeneutics. In 1990, Strauss and Corbin
published the first edition of a controversial
book, Basics of qualitative research:
Grounded theory procedures and techniques.
Glaser, however, disagreed with some
procedures advocated by Strauss (his original
co-author) and Corbin (a nurse researcher).
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is most likely to be at
“center stage” in a case study?
A phenomenon such as attempted suicide
The culture within an organization such as a
diabetic clinic
A person, such as a person who repeatedly
self-harms
A story, such as the life story about chronic
health problems of political refugees
C
Feedback:
Case studies are intensive investigations of a
single entity or a small number of entities,
such as individuals, groups, families, or
communities. Phenomenologists seek to
discover the essence and meaning of a
phenomenon as it is experienced by people,
mainly through in-depth interviews with
people who have had the relevant experience.
Ethnography focuses on the culture of a group
of people and relies on extensive field work
that usually includes participant observation
and in-depth interviews with key informants.
Narrative analysis focuses on story in studies
in which the purpose is to determine how
individuals make sense of events in their
lives.
A researcher who used Burke's pentadic
16. dramatism approach would be undertaking
which of the following?
Historical research
Qualitative description
A case study
A narrative analysis
D
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A researcher who used Burke's pentadic
16. dramatism approach would be undertaking
which of the following?
Historical research
Qualitative description
A case study
A narrative analysis
D
Feedback:
Narrative analysis focuses on story in studies
in which the purpose is to determine how
individuals make sense of events in their
lives. Burke's (1969) pentadic dramatism is
one approach for narrative analysis.
Historical research is the systematic collection
and critical evaluation of data relating to past
occurrences. Descriptive qualitative studies
are not embedded in a disciplinary tradition.
Such studies may be referred to as qualitative
studies, naturalistic inquiries, or as qualitative
content analyses. Case studies are intensive
investigations of a single entity or a small
number of entities, such as individuals,
groups, families, or communities.
Which of the following is a type of research
17. with an ideological perspective? Select all
that apply.
Critical ethnography
Symbolic interaction
Participatory action research
Feminist research
A, C, D
Feedback:
Grounded theory has its theoretical roots in
symbolic interaction, which focuses on the
manner in which people make sense of social
interactions. This is not an ideological
perspective; all of the other answers are.
Critical ethnography focuses on raising
consciousness in the hope of effecting social
change. Feminist research, like critical
research, aims at being transformative, but the
focus is on how gender domination and
discrimination shape women's lives and their
consciousness. Participatory action research
(PAR) produces knowledge through close
collaboration with groups that are vulnerable
to control or oppression by a dominant
culture; in PAR research, methods take
second place to emergent processes that can
motivate people and generate community
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Symbolic interaction
Participatory action research
Feminist research
A, C, D
Feedback:
Grounded theory has its theoretical roots in
symbolic interaction, which focuses on the
manner in which people make sense of social
interactions. This is not an ideological
perspective; all of the other answers are.
Critical ethnography focuses on raising
consciousness in the hope of effecting social
change. Feminist research, like critical
research, aims at being transformative, but the
focus is on how gender domination and
discrimination shape women's lives and their
consciousness. Participatory action research
(PAR) produces knowledge through close
collaboration with groups that are vulnerable
to control or oppression by a dominant
culture; in PAR research, methods take
second place to emergent processes that can
motivate people and generate community
solidarity.
Critical research differs from traditional
18. qualitative research in which of the
following?
Its goal to be transformative
Its use of interviews as a data source
Its use of reflexivity
Its desire to gain an in-depth understanding of
phenomena
A
Feedback:
Critical theory is concerned with a critique of
existing social structures. Critical researchers
conduct studies that involve collaboration
with participants and that foster enlightened
self-knowledge and transformation. This
differs from traditional qualitative research.
All of the other answers are true of qualitative
research, in general.
Emergent design is used in qualitative
19. research and is described as a research design
that does which of the following?
Is specified before data is collected
Tends to be reductionistic
Evolves during the study
Involves a short period of time to collect data
C
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Emergent design is used in qualitative
19. research and is described as a research design
that does which of the following?
Is specified before data is collected
Tends to be reductionistic
Evolves during the study
Involves a short period of time to collect data
C
Feedback:
Qualitative studies use an emergent design
that evolves as researchers make ongoing
decisions based on what they have already
learned. An emergent design in qualitative
studies is a reflection of the researchers'
desire to have the inquiry based on the
realities and viewpoints of those under study
—realities and viewpoints that are not known
at the outset. It tends to be holistic, striving
for an understanding of the whole, rather than
reductionistic. Data collection is typically
time-consuming.
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is characteristic of
qualitative research?
It is capable of adjusting to what is being
learned during data collection.
It depends on the robust nature of statistical
analysis.
It does not have to obtain Institutional Review
Board approval before conducting the study.
It involves survey research design.
A
Feedback:
Quantitative researchers specify a research
design before collecting even one piece of
data, and rarely depart from that design once
the study is underway: they design and then
they do. In qualitative research, by contrast,
the study design typically evolves during the
project: qualitative researchers design as they
do. Statistical analysis is not performed and
ethics approval is necessary. Surveys are
sometimes, but not always, used.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
When considering the evidence that men in
nursing had an important role in the evolution
21. of nursing as a profession, what qualitative
research design is appropriate to study this
phenomenon of interest?
Phenomenology
Grounded theory
Ethnography
Historical
D
Feedback:
Historical research is the systematic collection
and critical evaluation of data relating to past
occurrences. Phenomenology, grounded
theory, and ethnography are not normally
used to examine past events of broad
significance.
Which of the following characteristics refers
22. to qualitative nursing research design? Select
all that apply.
The focus is to develop a rich understanding
of a phenomenon.
Researchers strive to eliminate extraneous
variables.
It is critical to maintain constancy of
conditions.
Most studies are retrospective.
A, D
Feedback:
In qualitative research, the goal is to develop
a rich understanding of a phenomenon, and
most studies are retrospective. The
elimination of extraneous variables and the
maintaining of constancy of conditions are
primarily undertaken in quantitative research,
not in qualitative research.
Which characteristic of qualitative research
23. design is similar to quantitative research
design?
Use of both cross-sectional and longitudinal
designs to observe the evolution of a
phenomenon
Generalizing the finding of a study
Use of power analysis for determining sample
size
Avoidance of using field notes during the data
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which characteristic of qualitative research
23. design is similar to quantitative research
design?
Use of both cross-sectional and longitudinal
designs to observe the evolution of a
phenomenon
Generalizing the finding of a study
Use of power analysis for determining sample
size
Avoidance of using field notes during the data
collection process, to prevent bias
A
Feedback:
Qualitative research, like quantitative
research, can be either cross-sectional, with
one data collection point, or longitudinal, with
multiple data collection points designed to
observe the evolution of a phenomenon.
Much qualitative research is not directly
generalizable. Power analysis is performed
solely in quantitative research. Field notes are
an integral part of qualitative research.
Ethnographers seek to learn from members of
a cultural group to understand their world
24.
view. Ethnographic researchers refer to which
of the following two perspectives?
Ying and yang
Emic and etic
Data saturation and generalization
Significant and nonsignificant
B
Feedback:
Ethnographers seek to learn from (rather than
to study) members of a cultural group—to
understand their world view. Ethnographic
researchers refer to “emic” and “etic”
perspectives. An emic perspective refers to
the way the members of the culture regard
their world—the insiders' view. The emic is
the local language, concepts, or means of
expression that are used by the members of
the group under study to name and
characterize their experiences. The etic
perspective, by contrast, is the outsiders'
interpretation of the experiences of that
culture. The other listed terms are not specific
to ethnography.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Emic and etic
Data saturation and generalization
Significant and nonsignificant
B
Feedback:
Ethnographers seek to learn from (rather than
to study) members of a cultural group—to
understand their world view. Ethnographic
researchers refer to “emic” and “etic”
perspectives. An emic perspective refers to
the way the members of the culture regard
their world—the insiders' view. The emic is
the local language, concepts, or means of
expression that are used by the members of
the group under study to name and
characterize their experiences. The etic
perspective, by contrast, is the outsiders'
interpretation of the experiences of that
culture. The other listed terms are not specific
to ethnography.
The qualitative method that uses an inductive
approach using a systematic set of procedures
25.
to create a theory about social processes is
known which of the following?
Phenomenology
Grounded Theory
Ethnography
Historical Method
B
Feedback:
Grounded theory tries to account for people's
actions from the perspective of those
involved. Grounded theory researchers seek
to understand the actions by first discovering
the main concern or problem, and then the
behavior that is designed to resolve it. Social
processes are the major focus of this research
tradition.
In a qualitative study, the researcher becomes
involved with the research process and must
ensure that his or her own preconceived
26. beliefs and opinions do not influence the data
that is emerging from the study. The way the
researcher does this is by which of the
following?
Bracketing
Hermeneutics
Narrative analysis
Pentadic dramatism
A
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
ensure that his or her own preconceived
26. beliefs and opinions do not influence the data
that is emerging from the study. The way the
researcher does this is by which of the
following?
Bracketing
Hermeneutics
Narrative analysis
Pentadic dramatism
A
Feedback:
Bracketing refers to the process of identifying
and holding in abeyance preconceived beliefs
and opinions about the phenomenon under
study. Researchers strive to bracket out
presuppositions in an effort to confront their
data in pure form. Narrative analysis focuses
on story as the object of inquiry, to understand
how individuals make sense of events in their
lives. Burke's (1969) pentadic dramatism is
one approach for narrative analysis. For
Burke there are five key elements of a story:
act, scene, agent, agency, and purpose. The
term hermeneutics refers to the art and
philosophy of interpreting the meaning of an
object, such as a text or work of art.
Ethnographers use a very specific strategy for
making observations of the culture under
27.
study while being involved in activities. This
is referred to as which of the following?
Surveys
Participant observation
Hermeneutics
Bracketing
B
Feedback:
Ethnographers typically use a strategy called
participant observation in which they make
observations of the culture under study while
participating in its activities. Ethnographers
observe people day after day in their natural
environments to observe behavior in a wide
array of circumstances. Bracketing refers to
the process of identifying and holding in
abeyance preconceived beliefs and opinions
about the phenomenon under study.
Researchers strive to bracket out
presuppositions in an effort to confront their
data in pure form. The term hermeneutics
refers to the art and philosophy of interpreting
the meaning of an object, such as a text or
work of art. Surveys do not include
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Participant observation
Hermeneutics
Bracketing
B
Feedback:
Ethnographers typically use a strategy called
participant observation in which they make
observations of the culture under study while
participating in its activities. Ethnographers
observe people day after day in their natural
environments to observe behavior in a wide
array of circumstances. Bracketing refers to
the process of identifying and holding in
abeyance preconceived beliefs and opinions
about the phenomenon under study.
Researchers strive to bracket out
presuppositions in an effort to confront their
data in pure form. The term hermeneutics
refers to the art and philosophy of interpreting
the meaning of an object, such as a text or
work of art. Surveys do not include
involvement in the activities of a culture.
Grounded theory tries to account for people's
actions from the perspective of those
involved. It seeks to discover this main
28. concern or problem and the behavior that is
designed to resolve it. The manner in which
people resolve this main concern is known as
which of the following?
Participatory action research
Constant comparison
The core variable
A single entity
C
Feedback:
Grounded theory researchers seek to
understand the actions by first discovering the
main concern or problem, and then the
behavior that is designed to resolve it. The
manner in which people resolve this main
concern is called the core variable. A single
entity is the subject of investigation in a case
study. Participatory action research (PAR) is
based on a recognition that the production of
knowledge can be political and used to exert
power. Researchers in this approach typically
work with groups or communities that are
vulnerable to the control or oppression of a
dominant group. A procedure called constant
comparison is used to develop and refine
theoretically relevant concepts and categories.
Categories elicited from the data are
constantly compared with data obtained
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Constant comparison
The core variable
A single entity
C
Feedback:
Grounded theory researchers seek to
understand the actions by first discovering the
main concern or problem, and then the
behavior that is designed to resolve it. The
manner in which people resolve this main
concern is called the core variable. A single
entity is the subject of investigation in a case
study. Participatory action research (PAR) is
based on a recognition that the production of
knowledge can be political and used to exert
power. Researchers in this approach typically
work with groups or communities that are
vulnerable to the control or oppression of a
dominant group. A procedure called constant
comparison is used to develop and refine
theoretically relevant concepts and categories.
Categories elicited from the data are
constantly compared with data obtained
earlier so that commonalities and variations
can be detected.
29.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The focus of case study design is which of the
following?
Understanding why an individual thinks or
behaves in a particular manner
Focusing on a story as the object of inquiry
Emergence of content analysis
Presentation of pentadic dramatism
A
Feedback:
Case studies are in-depth investigations of a
single entity or small number of entities. The
entity may be an individual, family,
institution, community, or other social unit.
Case study researchers attempt to analyze and
understand issues that are important to the
history, development, or circumstances of the
entity under study. Case studies do not
prioritize the story (which is the focus of
narrative analysis) and content analysis is not
central to this tradition. Pentadic dramatism is
associated with narrative analysis.
30.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
31.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A critical researcher is concerned with which
of the following? Select all that apply.
A critique of society and envisioning new
possibilities
An aim to make people aware of
contradictions and disparities in beliefs and
social practices
Understanding how individuals construct and
narrate stories to make sense of their world
Fostering enlightened self-knowledge
A, B, D
Feedback:
A critical researcher is concerned with a
critique of society and with envisioning new
possibilities, making people aware of
contraindications and disparities in their
beliefs and social practices, and fostering
enlightened self-knowledge. It is researchers
in narrative analysis, not critical researchers,
who are concerned with understanding how
individuals construct and narrate stories to
make sense of their world.
Participatory action research aims to produce
which of the following? Select all that apply.
Knowledge
Action
Empowerment
Stability
A, B, C
Feedback:
The aim of PAR is to produce not only
knowledge, but action, empowerment, and
consciousness-raising as well. Stability is not
a goal of this research tradition.
CHB
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A critical concern for qualitative researchers
1. in their sampling decisions is which of the
following?
Obtaining a sample that is representative of
the population under study
Accessing information-rich sources of data
Recruiting a sample that can facilitate
saturation quickly and efficiently
Obtaining a sample with high potential for
generalizability
B
Feedback:
The aim in qualitative studies is to extract the
greatest possible information from a small
number of people. Quantitative research, on
the other hand, is concerned with measuring
attributes and identifying relationships in a
population, and therefore a representative
sample is desirable so that the findings can be
generalized. The aim of most qualitative
studies is to discover meaning and to uncover
multiple realities, not to generalize to a target
population.
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements about
sampling in qualitative research is true?
Convenience sampling is considered the most
appropriate method of selecting sample
members.
Larger samples are considered more rigorous
than smaller samples.
Using randomness in the sampling process is
desirable.
The type of sampling approach can change
and evolve over the course of data collection.
D
Feedback:
Type of sampling strategy can change over
the course of a study Qualitative sampling
may begin with volunteer informants and may
be supplemented with new participants
through snowballing. Many qualitative
studies, however, evolve to a purposive (or
purposeful) sampling strategy in which
researchers deliberately choose the cases or
types of cases that will best contribute to the
study. Sampling by convenience is efficient,
but is not a preferred approach, even in
C)
desirable.
The type of sampling approach can change
and evolve over the course of data collection.
D
Feedback:
Type of sampling strategy can change over
the course of a study Qualitative sampling
may begin with volunteer informants and may
be supplemented with new participants
through snowballing. Many qualitative
studies, however, evolve to a purposive (or
purposeful) sampling strategy in which
researchers deliberately choose the cases or
types of cases that will best contribute to the
study. Sampling by convenience is efficient,
but is not a preferred approach, even in
qualitative studies. The aim in qualitative
studies is to extract the greatest possible
information from a small number of people,
and a convenience sample may not provide
the most information-rich sources. Qualitative
researchers avoid random samples because
they are not the best method of selecting
people who will make good informants
D)
Ans:
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Theoretical sampling is most likely to be used
by which of the following?
Ethnographers
Grounded theory researchers
Phenomenologists
Qualitative descriptive researchers
B
Feedback:
Grounded theory researchers typically use
theoretical sampling, in which sampling
decisions are guided in an ongoing fashion by
the emerging theory. Ethnographers make
numerous sampling decisions, including not
only whom to sample but what to sample;
decision making is often aided by their key
informants who serve as guides and
interpreters of the culture. Phenomenologists
typically work with a small sample of people
who meet the criterion of having lived the
experience under study. Focus groups have
been used by researchers in many qualitative
traditions and in qualitative descriptive
research.
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is a type of purposive
sampling? Select all that apply.
Extreme case sampling
Maximum variation sampling
Snowball sampling
Typical case sampling
A, B, D
Feedback:
Qualitative researchers may start with
convenience or snowball sampling, but
usually rely on purposive sampling to guide
them in selecting data sources that maximize
information richness. One purposive strategy
is maximum variation sampling, which entails
purposely selecting cases with a wide range of
variation. Another important strategy is
sampling confirming and disconfirming cases
—i.e., selecting cases that enrich and
challenge the researchers' conceptualizations.
Other types of purposive sampling include
extreme case sampling (selecting the most
unusual or extreme cases); typical case
sampling (selecting cases that illustrate what
is typical); and criterion sampling (studying
cases that meet a predetermined criterion of
importance).
Near the end of data collection, qualitative
5. researchers may employ the technique of
sampling which of the following?
Criterion cases
Deviant cases
Typical cases
Disconfirming cases
D
Feedback:
Near the end of data collection, qualitative
researchers may employ the technique of
disconfirming cases. Other types of purposive
sampling include extreme (deviant) case
sampling (selecting the most unusual or
extreme cases); typical case sampling
(selecting cases that illustrate what is typical);
and criterion sampling (studying cases that
meet a predetermined criterion of
importance).
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Deviant cases
Typical cases
Disconfirming cases
D
Feedback:
Near the end of data collection, qualitative
researchers may employ the technique of
disconfirming cases. Other types of purposive
sampling include extreme (deviant) case
sampling (selecting the most unusual or
extreme cases); typical case sampling
(selecting cases that illustrate what is typical);
and criterion sampling (studying cases that
meet a predetermined criterion of
importance).
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements about
sampling is true?
Convenience sampling is used by both
qualitative and quantitative researchers.
Quantitative researchers establish eligibility
criteria, but qualitative researchers do not.
Extreme case sampling is a type of theoretical
sampling.
Focus groups would not be used in qualitative
descriptive studies.
A
Feedback:
Convenience sampling is used by both
qualitative and quantitative researchers.
Sampling by convenience is efficient, but is
not a preferred approach, even in qualitative
studies. Like quantitative researchers,
qualitative researchers often identify
eligibility criteria for their studies. Although
they do not specify an explicit population to
whom results could be generalized, they do
establish the kinds of people who are eligible
to participate in their research. Qualitative
researchers may start with convenience or
snowball sampling, but usually rely
eventually on purposive sampling to guide
them in selecting data sources that maximize
information richness. One type of purposive
sampling (not theoretical sampling) is
extreme case sampling (selecting the most
unusual or extreme cases). Focus groups have
been used by researchers in many qualitative
traditions and in qualitative descriptive
research.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
sampling.
Focus groups would not be used in qualitative
descriptive studies.
A
Feedback:
Convenience sampling is used by both
qualitative and quantitative researchers.
Sampling by convenience is efficient, but is
not a preferred approach, even in qualitative
studies. Like quantitative researchers,
qualitative researchers often identify
eligibility criteria for their studies. Although
they do not specify an explicit population to
whom results could be generalized, they do
establish the kinds of people who are eligible
to participate in their research. Qualitative
researchers may start with convenience or
snowball sampling, but usually rely
eventually on purposive sampling to guide
them in selecting data sources that maximize
information richness. One type of purposive
sampling (not theoretical sampling) is
extreme case sampling (selecting the most
unusual or extreme cases). Focus groups have
been used by researchers in many qualitative
traditions and in qualitative descriptive
research.
Samples of ten or fewer study participants
7. would be most likely to be found in which of
the following?
Phenomenological study
Grounded theory study
Ethnography
Participatory action study
A
Feedback:
Phenomenologists tend to rely on very small
samples of participants—typically 10 or
fewer. Grounded theory researchers typically
use theoretical sampling in which sampling
decisions are guided in an ongoing fashion by
the emerging theory. Ethnographers make
numerous sampling decisions, including not
only whom to sample but what to; decision
making is often aided by their key informants
who serve as guides and interpreters of the
culture. One type of unstructured observation
is participant observation, in which the
researcher gains entrée into a social group and
participates to varying degrees in its
functioning while making in-depth
observations of activities and events.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Grounded theory study
Ethnography
Participatory action study
A
Feedback:
Phenomenologists tend to rely on very small
samples of participants—typically 10 or
fewer. Grounded theory researchers typically
use theoretical sampling in which sampling
decisions are guided in an ongoing fashion by
the emerging theory. Ethnographers make
numerous sampling decisions, including not
only whom to sample but what to; decision
making is often aided by their key informants
who serve as guides and interpreters of the
culture. One type of unstructured observation
is participant observation, in which the
researcher gains entrée into a social group and
participates to varying degrees in its
functioning while making in-depth
observations of activities and events.
In which of the following types of studies
8. would the principle of data saturation be
used? Select all that apply.
Grounded theory study
Ethnography
Phenomenological study
Clinical trial
A, B, C
Feedback:
Samples in qualitative studies that include
grounded theory, ethnography, and
phenomenology are typically small and based
on information needs. A guiding principle is
data saturation, which involves sampling to
the point at which no new information is
obtained and redundancy is achieved. In
clinical situations, for example, it is often
appropriate to let people talk freely about
their problems and concerns, allowing them to
take much of the initiative in directing the
flow of conversation. Clinical trials would not
employ the principle of data saturation.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following data collection
9. approaches is conducted with a group of 5 to
10 people simultaneously?
Photo elicitation interview
Focused interview
Critical incidents interview
Focus group interview
D
Feedback:
Focus group interviews involve groups of
about 5 to 10 people whose opinions and
experiences are solicited simultaneously.
Photo elicitation involves an interview
stimulated and guided by photographic
images. Semi-structured (or focused)
interviews are used when researchers have a
list of topics or broad questions that must be
covered in an interview. The critical incidents
technique is a method of gathering
information about people's behaviors in
specific circumstances.
Which of the following data collection
10. approaches is most likely to use a topic
guide?
A completely unstructured interview
A focus group interview
A critical incidents interview
Participant observation
B
Feedback:
In-depth interviews are the most widely used
method of collecting data for qualitative
studies. Self-reports in qualitative studies
include completely unstructured interviews,
which are conversational discussions on the
topic of interest; semi-structured (or focused)
interviews, using a broad topic guide; focus
group interviews, which involve discussions
with small groups, typically with a topic
guide; and the critical incidents technique,
which involves probes about the
circumstances surrounding an incident that is
critical to an outcome of interest. One type of
unstructured observation is participant
observation, in which the researcher gains
entrée into a social group and participates to
varying degrees in its functioning while
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A focus group interview
A critical incidents interview
Participant observation
B
Feedback:
In-depth interviews are the most widely used
method of collecting data for qualitative
studies. Self-reports in qualitative studies
include completely unstructured interviews,
which are conversational discussions on the
topic of interest; semi-structured (or focused)
interviews, using a broad topic guide; focus
group interviews, which involve discussions
with small groups, typically with a topic
guide; and the critical incidents technique,
which involves probes about the
circumstances surrounding an incident that is
critical to an outcome of interest. One type of
unstructured observation is participant
observation, in which the researcher gains
entrée into a social group and participates to
varying degrees in its functioning while
making in-depth observations of activities and
events.
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A grand tour question is most likely to be
used at which time?
At the beginning of a focus group session
At the end of a critical incident interview
At the beginning of an unstructured interview
At the end of a photo elicitation study
C
Feedback:
In unstructured interviews, researchers begin
by asking a grand tour question, such as,
“What happened when you first learned that
you had AIDS?” Subsequent questions are
guided by initial responses. Focus group
sessions and focused interviews are more
likely to rely on a topic guide to prompt
discussion. A photo elicitation study involves
discussion that is stimulated and guided by
photographic images. The critical incidents
technique is a method of gathering
information about people's behaviors in
specific circumstances. The method focuses
on a factual incident--an integral episode of
human behavior; critical means that the
incident must have had a discernible impact
on some outcome.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
At the end of a critical incident interview
At the beginning of an unstructured interview
At the end of a photo elicitation study
C
Feedback:
In unstructured interviews, researchers begin
by asking a grand tour question, such as,
“What happened when you first learned that
you had AIDS?” Subsequent questions are
guided by initial responses. Focus group
sessions and focused interviews are more
likely to rely on a topic guide to prompt
discussion. A photo elicitation study involves
discussion that is stimulated and guided by
photographic images. The critical incidents
technique is a method of gathering
information about people's behaviors in
specific circumstances. The method focuses
on a factual incident--an integral episode of
human behavior; critical means that the
incident must have had a discernible impact
on some outcome.
Which of the following statements about data
12. collection in qualitative research is true?
Select all that apply.
When interviewing participants, qualitative
researchers do not tend to ask their questions
in any predetermined order.
Unstructured observational data are often
gathered in field settings through participant
observation.
Ethnographers usually gather their data using
both observation and self-reports.
The data for an unstructured interview are
most likely to be in the form of field notes
that the researcher records immediately after
the interview has been completed.
A, C, D
Feedback:
Qualitative researchers do not have a set of
questions that must be asked in a specific
order and worded in a given way. Instead,
they start with general questions and allow
respondents to tell their stories in a
naturalistic fashion. Unstructured
observational data are often gathered in field
settings through participant observation.
Ethnographers typically collect a wide array
of data, with observation and interviews being
the primary methods. Unstructured interviews
are typically long, sometimes lasting several
hours. Most prefer tape recording the
interviews for later transcription.
most likely to be in the form of field notes
that the researcher records immediately after
the interview has been completed.
A, C, D
Feedback:
Qualitative researchers do not have a set of
questions that must be asked in a specific
order and worded in a given way. Instead,
they start with general questions and allow
respondents to tell their stories in a
naturalistic fashion. Unstructured
observational data are often gathered in field
settings through participant observation.
Ethnographers typically collect a wide array
of data, with observation and interviews being
the primary methods. Unstructured interviews
are typically long, sometimes lasting several
hours. Most prefer tape recording the
interviews for later transcription.
D)
Ans:
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements about
participant observation is true?
Participant observers must maintain the same
level of participation throughout the study.
In a participant observation study, participants
are observed but not questioned.
Participant observers may use single,
multiple, or mobile positioning.
Participant observers most commonly record
their observations by videotaping all events
and transactions that they observe.
C
Feedback:
Participant observers often use a combination
of positioning approaches. Single positioning
means staying in a single location for a period
to observe transactions in that location.
Multiple positioning involves moving around
the site to observe behaviors from different
locations. Mobile positioning involves
following a person throughout a given activity
or period. The level of participation may
change during a study or stay the same.
Participant observers ask questions of group
members. Logs of daily events and field notes
of the observer's experiences and
interpretations constitute the major data
collection instruments.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following are types of notes
14. maintained by a participant observer? Select
all that apply.
Descriptive notes
Participatory action notes
Reflective notes
Methodologic notes
A, C, D
Feedback:
Participatory action notes are not a type of
note maintained by a participant observer. The
most common forms of record keeping for
participant observation are logs and field
notes, but photographs and videotapes may
also be used. A log (or field diary) is a daily
record of events and conversations. Field
notes are broader and more interpretive. Field
notes represent the observer's efforts to record
information and to synthesize and understand
the data. Field notes can be categorized
according to their purpose. Descriptive notes
(or observational notes) are objective
descriptions of events and conversations, and
the contexts in which they occurred. The goal
of participant observers' descriptive notes is
thick description. Reflective notes document
researchers' personal experiences, reflections,
and progress in the field, and can serve
different purposes. Theoretical notes
document interpretive efforts to attach
meaning to observations. Methodologic notes
are reminders about how subsequent
observations should be made. Personal notes
are comments about the researcher's own
feelings during the research process.
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is characteristic of
qualitative research? Select all that apply.
Uncovering multiple realities
Finding meaning in an experience
Generalizing results to a target population
Using non-random sampling
A, B, D
Feedback:
Qualitative results are not normally used to
generalize to a target population. Uncovering
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is characteristic of
qualitative research? Select all that apply.
Uncovering multiple realities
Finding meaning in an experience
Generalizing results to a target population
Using non-random sampling
A, B, D
Feedback:
Qualitative results are not normally used to
generalize to a target population. Uncovering
multiple realities and finding meaning are
goals of qualitative research. Qualitative
sampling is non-random. That is, qualitative
researchers ask such sampling questions as:
Who would be an information-rich data
source for my study? Whom should I talk to,
or what should I observe, to maximize my
understanding of the phenomenon? A first
step in qualitative sampling is selecting
settings with high potential for information
richness.
Which of the following is true regarding
qualitative and quantitative research?
Quantitative research and qualitative research
both develop eligibility criteria before
consenting study participants.
Quantitative research and qualitative research
both use random samples whenever possible,
to enhance the ability to predict within a
wider population.
Quantitative research and qualitative research
both determine sample size in the same
manner.
Quantitative research and qualitative research
both prefer a large sample to a small one,
because it produces stronger statistical results.
A
Feedback:
Both types of research consider what types of
participants would provide the best
information. Qualitative research typically
involves non-random sampling. Whereas
quantitative research typically requires that
the sample size be determined before the
study begins and remains fixed, study sample
size in qualitative studies is typically not fixed
and may change due to changing research
needs as the study progresses. Although
quantitative studies typically benefit from
larger sample sizes, which tend to decrease
bias, qualitative studies my benefit from
smaller sample sizes depending on study
Quantitative research and qualitative research
both prefer a large sample to a small one,
because it produces stronger statistical results.
A
Feedback:
Both types of research consider what types of
participants would provide the best
information. Qualitative research typically
involves non-random sampling. Whereas
quantitative research typically requires that
the sample size be determined before the
study begins and remains fixed, study sample
size in qualitative studies is typically not fixed
and may change due to changing research
needs as the study progresses. Although
quantitative studies typically benefit from
larger sample sizes, which tend to decrease
bias, qualitative studies my benefit from
smaller sample sizes depending on study
goals.
D)
Ans:
17.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A difficulty identified with convenience
sampling is which of the following?
The participants do not meet the conceptual
needs of the study
It is not economical
It is not efficient
The participants may not produce the depth of
information needed
D
Feedback:
Sampling by convenience is efficient, but is
not a preferred approach, even in qualitative
studies. The aim in qualitative studies is to
extract the greatest possible information from
a small number of people, and a convenience
sample may not provide the most
information-rich sources. However,
convenience sample may be an economical
way to begin the sampling process.
Participants do meet the conceptual needs and
that is why they are included.
Qualitative researchers often count on
18. recruiting by referral, which is called which
of the following?
Convenience sampling
Snowball sampling
Volunteer sampling
Purposive sampling
B
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Qualitative researchers often count on
18. recruiting by referral, which is called which
of the following?
Convenience sampling
Snowball sampling
Volunteer sampling
Purposive sampling
B
Feedback:
Snowball sampling is a method in which early
participants recommend or refer additional
participants. Qualitative researchers often
begin with a convenience sample (also called
a volunteer sample), in which they accept
whatever participants happen to be available.
Purposive sampling is when researchers
choose participants based attributes they
possess.
A qualitative researcher who is attempting to
provide findings from multiple diverse
19.
viewpoints on a phenomenon would most
likely subscribe to which of the following?
Deviant case sampling
Typical case sampling
Criterion case sampling
Confirming case sampling
A
Feedback:
Deviant case sampling would provide
multiple diverse viewpoints. Extreme
(deviant) case sampling provides
opportunities for learning from the most
unusual and extreme informants (e.g.,
outstanding successes and notable failures).
Typical case sampling involves the selection
of participants who illustrate or highlight
what is typical or average. Criterion sampling
involves studying cases that meet a
predetermined criterion of importance.
Confirming cases are additional cases that fit
researchers' conceptualizations and strengthen
credibility.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A qualitative researcher identifies trends in
the phenomenon being studied, yet several
new cases received through a snowball
20.
sampling effort have divergent views of the
phenomenon. These new cases are referred to
as which of the following?
Confirming cases
Disconfirming cases
Purposive cases
Typical cases
B
Feedback:
Disconfirming cases are cases that do not fit
with the previous cases. Confirming cases are
cases that confirm to the previous cases.
Purposive (or purposeful) sampling strategy
involves deliberately choosing the cases or
types of cases that will best contribute to the
study. Typical case sampling involves the
selection of participants who illustrate or
highlight what is typical or average.
When developing a theory, a nurse researcher
21. uses theoretical sampling to do which of the
following?
To find cases that meet a predetermined
criterion of importance
To learn from the most unusual and extreme
informants
To gain new informants via referrals from
other informants
To choose sampling groups that will further
the emerging conceptualization
D
Feedback:
The objective of theoretical sampling is to
discover categories and their properties and to
offer new insights about interrelationships
that occur in the substantive theory. Groups
are chosen for their relevance in furthering the
emerging conceptualization. These groups are
not chosen before the research begins but only
as they are needed for their theoretical
relevance in developing emerging categories.
Criterion sampling involves studying cases
that meet a predetermined criterion of
importance. Extreme (deviant) case sampling
provides opportunities for learning from the
most unusual and extreme informants (e.g.,
outstanding successes and notable failures).
Snowball sampling is a method in which early
C)
other informants
To choose sampling groups that will further
the emerging conceptualization
D
Feedback:
The objective of theoretical sampling is to
discover categories and their properties and to
offer new insights about interrelationships
that occur in the substantive theory. Groups
are chosen for their relevance in furthering the
emerging conceptualization. These groups are
not chosen before the research begins but only
as they are needed for their theoretical
relevance in developing emerging categories.
Criterion sampling involves studying cases
that meet a predetermined criterion of
importance. Extreme (deviant) case sampling
provides opportunities for learning from the
most unusual and extreme informants (e.g.,
outstanding successes and notable failures).
Snowball sampling is a method in which early
participants recommend or refer additional
participants.
D)
Ans:
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Data saturation occurs when which of the
following happens?
Researchers can find no new participants that
fit the criteria
All the research questions are answered
No new information is obtained and
redundancy is achieved
Participants are describing new concepts
C
Feedback:
Sample size in qualitative research is usually
determined based on informational needs. A
guiding principle is data saturation—that is,
sampling to the point at which no new
information is obtained and redundancy is
achieved. Data saturation is not achieved
simply by a lack of new participants that fit
the criteria or when all of the research
questions are answered. Participants
describing new concepts would be evidence
that data saturation has not been achieved.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
What is the purpose of choosing key
23. informants in ethnographic research studies?
Select all that apply.
To facilitate recruiting more participants to
the study
To guide the researcher culturally
To identify important events
To provide a knowledgeable link to the
culture
B, C, D
Feedback:
Ethnographers may begin with a “big net”
approach in sampling—that is, they mingle
and converse with as many members of the
culture as possible. Although they may talk to
many group members (usually 25 to 50),
ethnographers often rely heavily on a smaller
number of key informants, who are highly
knowledgeable about the culture and who
develop special, ongoing relationships with
the researcher. Key informants are the
researcher's main link to the “inside.”
Sampling in ethnography typically involves
sampling things as well as people. For
example, ethnographers make decisions about
observing events and activities, about
examining records and artifacts, and about
exploring places that provide clues about the
culture. Key informants can play an important
role in helping ethnographers decide what to
sample. Facilitating the recruitment of more
participants to the study is not a purpose of
choosing key informants.
Which of the following are key principles that
guide the selection of a sample for a
24.
phenomenological study? Select all that
apply.
The participant must be able to articulate what
it was like to have lived the experience.
The participant must have considerable
knowledge of the phenomenon being studied.
The participant must be someone who is
closely associated with someone who has
experienced the phenomenon.
The participant must have experienced the
phenomenon being studied.
A, D
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
apply.
The participant must be able to articulate what
it was like to have lived the experience.
The participant must have considerable
knowledge of the phenomenon being studied.
The participant must be someone who is
closely associated with someone who has
experienced the phenomenon.
The participant must have experienced the
phenomenon being studied.
A, D
Feedback:
Two principles guide the selection of a sample
for a phenomenological study: (1) all
participants must have experienced the
phenomenon and (2) they must be able to
articulate what it is like to have lived that
experience. Having considerable knowledge
of the phenomenon and close association with
someone who has experienced the
phenomenon are not key criteria.
Which of the following would be the most
appropriate reason to adjust the sampling
25.
method in a grounded theory study as it
unfolds?
To better evaluate emerging
conceptualizations
To support past descriptions of the
phenomenon
To increase the availability of participants
To postpone data saturation
A
Feedback:
The goal in a grounded theory study is to
select informants who can best contribute to
the evolving theory. Sampling, data
collection, data analysis, and theory
construction occur concurrently, and so study
participants are selected serially and
contingently (i.e., contingent on the emerging
conceptualization). The sample is adjusted in
an ongoing fashion. Emerging
conceptualizations help to inform the
theoretical sampling process. Sampling
continues until saturation is achieved—
sampling methods should not be changed to
postpone data saturation. Past descriptions of
the phenomenon should not determine
sampling methods. Availability of participants
should not guide the sampling.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
phenomenon
To increase the availability of participants
To postpone data saturation
A
Feedback:
The goal in a grounded theory study is to
select informants who can best contribute to
the evolving theory. Sampling, data
collection, data analysis, and theory
construction occur concurrently, and so study
participants are selected serially and
contingently (i.e., contingent on the emerging
conceptualization). The sample is adjusted in
an ongoing fashion. Emerging
conceptualizations help to inform the
theoretical sampling process. Sampling
continues until saturation is achieved—
sampling methods should not be changed to
postpone data saturation. Past descriptions of
the phenomenon should not determine
sampling methods. Availability of participants
should not guide the sampling.
When collecting data through interviews,
26. qualitative researchers rely primarily on
which of the following?
A priori ideas
Structured questions
Supplemental physiological data
Self-report
D
Feedback:
Qualitative researchers do not have a set of
questions that must be asked in a specific
order and worded in a given way. Instead,
they start with general questions and allow
respondents to tell their stories in a
naturalistic fashion. Qualitative self-reports,
usually obtained through interviews, tend to
be conversational. Interviewers encourage
respondents to define the important
dimensions of a phenomenon and to elaborate
on what is relevant to them, rather than
relying on investigators' a priori notions of
relevance.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A phenomenological researcher is
interviewing a participant who has lived
27. through a hurricane. Which of the following
is the best example of a grand tour question
appropriate to ask this participant?
Why did you not evacuate the area when
instructed to do so?
What kind of damage did your home sustain?
What was it like to live through a hurricane?
How many fatalities occurred in your state
due to the hurricane?
C
Feedback:
Several approaches can be used to collect
qualitative self-report data. Researchers use
completely unstructured interviews when they
have no preconceived view of the information
to be gathered. They aim to learn about
respondents' perceptions and experiences
without imposing their own views.
Researchers begin by asking a grand tour
question such as, “What happened when you
first learned that you had AIDS?” Subsequent
questions are guided by initial responses.
Ethnographic and phenomenological studies
often rely on unstructured interviews.
CHI6
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The first major step that a researcher must
1. undertake in a qualitative analysis is which of
the following?
A search for major themes
A search for appropriate metaphors
The use of quasi-statistics
Developing a system for organizing and
indexing the data
D
Feedback:
A first step in analyzing qualitative data is to
organize and index the materials for easy
retrieval, typically by coding the content of
the data according to a category scheme. The
actual analysis of data begins with a search
for patterns and themes, which involves the
discovery not only of commonalities across
participants, but also of natural variation in
the data. Some qualitative analysts use
metaphors or figurative comparisons to evoke
a visual and symbolic analogy. Another
analytic step involves validation of the
thematic analysis. Some researchers use
quasi-statistics, a tabulation of the frequency
with which certain themes or relations are
supported by the data. In a final step, analysts
try to weave the thematic strands together into
an integrated picture of the phenomenon
under investigation.
Before the advent of computer software for
qualitative analysis, the main procedure for
2.
managing qualitative data was the
development of which of the following?
Conceptual files
Core categories
Memos
Themes
A
Feedback:
Traditionally, researchers have organized their
data by developing conceptual files, which are
physical files in which coded excerpts of data
for specific categories are placed. Memos,
themes, and core categories have not
traditionally been used for management of
qualitative data; rather they are current
methods of analyzing qualitative data. Now,
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Core categories
Memos
Themes
A
Feedback:
Traditionally, researchers have organized their
data by developing conceptual files, which are
physical files in which coded excerpts of data
for specific categories are placed. Memos,
themes, and core categories have not
traditionally been used for management of
qualitative data; rather they are current
methods of analyzing qualitative data. Now,
however, computer programs (CAQDAS) are
widely used to perform basic indexing
functions and to facilitate data analysis.
3. Which of the following statements is true?
Narrative materials tend to be linear, which
simplifies the coding process.
Qualitative researchers typically develop a
category scheme before they collect their
data.
CAQDAS is available for coding, organizing,
and retrieving qualitative data.
Content analysis is the analytic method used
in phenomenologic studies.
C
Feedback:
Computer assisted qualitative data analysis
software (CAQDAS) can help to remove some
of the work of cutting and pasting pages of
narrative material. Software cannot, however,
do the coding, and it cannot tell the researcher
how to analyze the data.. Narrative materials
usually are not linear, a fact that complicates
coding. For example, paragraphs from
transcribed interviews may contain elements
relating to three or four different categories,
embedded in a complex fashion. A
preliminary category system is sometimes
drafted before data collection, but more
typically qualitative analysts develop category
schemes based on a scrutiny of actual data.
Qualitative content analysis involves
analyzing the content of narrative data to
identify prominent themes and patterns
among the themes; this approach is not used
in phenomenologic studies, which have
alternate analytic methods.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
and retrieving qualitative data.
Content analysis is the analytic method used
in phenomenologic studies.
C
Feedback:
Computer assisted qualitative data analysis
software (CAQDAS) can help to remove some
of the work of cutting and pasting pages of
narrative material. Software cannot, however,
do the coding, and it cannot tell the researcher
how to analyze the data.. Narrative materials
usually are not linear, a fact that complicates
coding. For example, paragraphs from
transcribed interviews may contain elements
relating to three or four different categories,
embedded in a complex fashion. A
preliminary category system is sometimes
drafted before data collection, but more
typically qualitative analysts develop category
schemes based on a scrutiny of actual data.
Qualitative content analysis involves
analyzing the content of narrative data to
identify prominent themes and patterns
among the themes; this approach is not used
in phenomenologic studies, which have
alternate analytic methods.
Steps generally employed in the management
4. and analysis of qualitative data include which
of the following? Select all that apply.
Testing hypotheses
Searching for recurrent themes and patterns
Validating themes and patterns
Developing a category scheme
B, C, D
Feedback:
Glaser's grounded theory method is concerned
with the generation of categories and
hypotheses rather than testing them. A first
step in analyzing qualitative data is to
organize and index the materials for easy
retrieval, typically by coding the content of
the data according to a category scheme that
is developed. The actual analysis of data
begins with a search for patterns and themes
and continues with the validation of these
patterns and themes..
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Quasi-statistics are essentially a method of
which of the following?
Statistical analysis
Validation
Thematic generation
Constant comparison
B
Feedback:
Validation concerns whether the themes
accurately represent the perspectives of the
participants. In validating and refining
themes, some researchers introduce quasistatistics—a tabulation of the frequency with
which certain themes or insights are
supported by the data. Statistical analysis is a
method used in analyzing quantitative studies.
In a final step of theme generation, analysts
try to weave the thematic strands together into
an integrated picture of the phenomenon
under investigation. Grounded theory uses the
constant comparative method of data analysis,
a method that involves comparing elements
present in one data source (e.g., in one
interview) with those in another.
Spradley's method includes which type of
data analysis? Select all that apply.
Domain analysis
Taxonomic analysis
Componential analysis
Statistical analysis
A, B, C
Feedback:
One analytic approach is Spradley's method,
which involves four levels of analysis:
domain analysis (identifying domains, or
units of cultural knowledge); taxonomic
analysis (selecting key domains and
constructing taxonomies); componential
analysis (comparing and contrasting terms in
a domain); and a theme analysis (to uncover
cultural themes). Statistical analysis is a
method used in analyzing quantitative studies
and is not included in Spradley's method.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Taxonomic analysis
Componential analysis
Statistical analysis
A, B, C
Feedback:
One analytic approach is Spradley's method,
which involves four levels of analysis:
domain analysis (identifying domains, or
units of cultural knowledge); taxonomic
analysis (selecting key domains and
constructing taxonomies); componential
analysis (comparing and contrasting terms in
a domain); and a theme analysis (to uncover
cultural themes). Statistical analysis is a
method used in analyzing quantitative studies
and is not included in Spradley's method.
Validation of themes by conferring with study
7. participants was specifically considered
inappropriate by whom?
Colaizzi
Giorgi
Glaser
Strauss
B
Feedback:
Phenomenologists search for common
patterns shared by particular instances. There
are, however, some important differences
among these approaches. Colaizzi's method,
for example, is the only one that calls for a
validation of results by querying study
participants. Giorgi's view is that it is
inappropriate either to return to participants to
validate findings or to use external judges to
review the analysis. The grounded theory
method emerged in the 1960s in connection
with research that focused on dying in
hospitals by two sociologists, Glaser and
Strauss. The two co-originators eventually
split and developed divergent schools of
thought, which have been called the
“Glaserian” and “Straussian” versions of
grounded theory.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
An alternative to Spradley's approach to
8. produce and analyze ethnographic data was
developed by whom?
Leininger
Van Manen
Colaizzi
Giorgi
A
Feedback:
Approaches to ethnographic analysis other
than Spradley's have also been developed. For
example, in their ethnonursing research
method, Leininger and McFarland (2006)
provided ethnographers with a four-phase
ethno nursing data analysis guide. Van
Manen, Colaizzi, and Giorgi were all
phenomenologists. Phenomenologists from
the Utrecht School, such as Van Manen
(1997), combine characteristics of descriptive
and interpretive phenomenology. Colaizzi's
method is the only one that calls for a
validation of results by querying study
participants. Giorgi's view is that it is
inappropriate either to return to participants to
validate findings or to use external judges to
review the analysis.
Diekelmann and colleagues proposed a 7stage process of hermeneutic analysis that
9.
includes the identification of which of the
following?
An appropriate metaphor
A constitutive pattern
A hermeneutic circle
An exemplar
B
Feedback:
Diekelmann's team method of hermeneutic
analysis calls for the discovery of a
constitutive pattern that expresses the
relationships among themes. Benner's
approach consists of three processes:
searching for paradigm cases, thematic
analysis, and analysis of exemplars. Some
qualitative analysts use metaphors or
figurative comparisons to evoke a visual and
symbolic analogy. Central to analyzing data in
a hermeneutic study is the notion of the
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A constitutive pattern
A hermeneutic circle
An exemplar
B
Feedback:
Diekelmann's team method of hermeneutic
analysis calls for the discovery of a
constitutive pattern that expresses the
relationships among themes. Benner's
approach consists of three processes:
searching for paradigm cases, thematic
analysis, and analysis of exemplars. Some
qualitative analysts use metaphors or
figurative comparisons to evoke a visual and
symbolic analogy. Central to analyzing data in
a hermeneutic study is the notion of the
hermeneutic circle, which signifies a process
in which there is continual movement
between the parts and the whole of the text
under analysis.
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The process referred to as constant
comparison involves which of the following?
Comparing two researchers' interpretation of
the data
Comparing the researchers' interpretation of
the data against study participants'
interpretation
Comparing elements present in one data
source with those in another
Comparing data from the study with data and
categories from other similar studies
C
Feedback:
Grounded theory uses the constant
comparative method of data analysis, a
method that involves comparing elements
present in one data source (e.g., in one
interview) with those in another, not
comparing two researchers' interpretation of
the data, researchers' interpretation of the data
against study participants' interpretation, or
data from the study with data and categories
from other similar studies.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In the Strauss and Corbin approach to
grounded theory, the initial process of
11. breaking down, categorizing, and coding the
data is often referred to as which of the
following?
Axial coding
Core coding
Open coding
Selective coding
C
Feedback:
The Strauss and Corbin grounded theory
approach involves three types of coding: open
(in which categories are generated), axial
coding (where categories are linked with
subcategories), and selective (in which the
findings are integrated and refined).
Substantive coding involves open coding to
capture what is going on in the data, and then
selective coding, in which only variables
relating to a core category are coded. There is
no core coding.
Level III codes, in the Glaser and Strauss
12. approach to grounded theory, are which of the
following?
Axial codes
In vivo codes
Open codes
Theoretical constructs
D
Feedback:
In the Glaserian method, open codes begin
with level I (in vivo) codes, which are
collapsed into a higher level of abstraction in
level II codes. Level II codes are then used to
formulate level III codes, which are
theoretical constructs. Axial coding is one of
the three types of coding used in the Strauss
and Corbin grounded theory method, not in
the Glaser and Strauss method.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Selective coding in Glaserian approach to
13. grounded theory studies begins when which
of the following occurs?
Constant comparison has ended
Data saturation has occurred
Memos have been prepared
A core category has been identified
D
Feedback:
Open coding ends when the core category is
discovered, and then selective coding begins,
not when data saturation has occurred or
when memos have been prepared. Grounded
theory uses the constant comparative method
of data analysis, a method that involves
comparing elements present in one data
source (e.g., in one interview) with those in
another.
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Constructivist grounded theory is an approach
developed by whom?
Charmaz
Glaser
Strauss
Corbin
A
Feedback:
In Charmaz's constructivist grounded theory,
coding can be word by word, line by line, or
incident by incident. Initial coding leads to
focused coding, which is then followed by
theoretical coding. One grounded theory
approach is the Glaser and Strauss (Glaserian)
method, in which there are two broad types of
codes: substantive codes (in which the
empirical substance of the topic is
conceptualized) and theoretical codes (in
which the relationships among the substantive
codes are conceptualized). The Strauss and
Corbin (2008) approach to grounded theory
analysis differs from the original Glaser and
Strauss method with regard to method,
processes, and outcomes.
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is a significant
challenge in qualitative analysis?
Mastering the standard procedures for
analyzing qualitative data
Lack of narrative materials to analyze
Reducing data for reporting purposes
Deducing particulars from a universal
C
Feedback:
Qualitative data analysis is challenging, for
several reasons. First, the absence of standard
procedures makes it difficult to explain how
to do such analyses. A second challenge is
that qualitative analysts must organize and
make sense of hundreds or even thousands of
pages of narrative materials. A third challenge
is that doing qualitative analysis well requires
creativity, sensitivity, and strong inductive
skills (inducing universals from particulars).
A good qualitative analyst must be skillful in
discerning patterns and weaving them
together into an integrated whole. Another
challenge comes in reducing data for
reporting purposes. Quantitative results can
often be summarized in a few tables.
Qualitative researchers, by contrast, must
balance the need to be concise with the need
to maintain the richness and evidentiary value
of their data.
Which of the following best describes the
purpose of constant comparison?
To identify commonalities among elements
present in one data source with those in
another
To describe the essential nature of an
experience
To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts
of participants
To fit concepts with the incidents they are
representing
A
Feedback:
Constant comparison is a method that
involves comparing elements present in one
data source (e.g., in one interview) with those
B)
experience
To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts
of participants
To fit concepts with the incidents they are
representing
A
Feedback:
Constant comparison is a method that
involves comparing elements present in one
data source (e.g., in one interview) with those
in another. The process continues until the
content of all sources has been compared so
that commonalities are identified. To describe
the essential nature of an experience is the
goal of phenomenological analysis. To find
patterns in the behavior and thoughts of
participants is the goal of ethnographers. To
fit concepts with the incidents they are
representing (fit) is another element in
grounded analysis theory.
C)
D)
Ans:
17.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In qualitative data analysis, which element
can be used as an analytic strategy?
Management
Metaphors
Conceptualization
Constructivism
B
Feedback:
Some qualitative researchers use metaphors as
an analytic strategy. A metaphor is a symbolic
comparison, using figurative language to
evoke a visual analogy. Management,
conceptualization and constructivism are all
valid components of qualitative analysis, but
none constitutes an analytic strategy.
Which of the following is an activity involved
18. in qualitative content analysis? Select all that
apply.
Breaking down data into smaller units
Coding and naming units according to the
content they represent
Collecting information on participants
Grouping coded material based on shared
concepts
A, B, D
Feedback:
Qualitative content analysis involves breaking
down data into smaller units, coding and
naming the units according to the content they
represent, and grouping coded material based
B)
content they represent
Collecting information on participants
Grouping coded material based on shared
concepts
A, B, D
Feedback:
Qualitative content analysis involves breaking
down data into smaller units, coding and
naming the units according to the content they
represent, and grouping coded material based
on shared concepts. Collecting information on
participants is not associated with the process
of content analysis.
C)
D)
Ans:
19.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Phenomenology most fundamentally involves
a search for which of the following?
A core category from open coding
Intersubjective agreement among judges
Thematic descriptions from artistic sources
Common patterns shared by particular
instances
D
Feedback:
The basic outcome of all three methods of
phenomenology is the description of the
essential nature of an experience, often
through the identification of essential themes.
Phenomenologists search for common
patterns shared by particular instances. Van
Manen, a phenomenologist from the Utrecht
School, called for gleaning thematic
descriptions from artistic sources, such as
literature, painting, and other art forms,
claiming that they can provide rich
experiential data that can increase insights
into the essential meaning of the experience
being studied. This, however, is not the
fundamental goal of phenomenology.
Discovery of a core category as a result of
open coding is part of constant comparison, a
method used in grounded theory research, not
phenomenology. Intersubjective agreement
among judges is a requirement of the method
of Van Kaam, a phenomenologist of the
Duquesne School; again, this is not the
fundamental object of search in
phenomenology.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The Duquesne School of Phenomenology is
20. based on the philosophy of which of the
following?
Colaizzi
Van Kaam
Husserl
Giorgi
C
Feedback:
Three frequently used methods for descriptive
phenomenology are the methods of Colaizzi
(1978), Giorgi (1985), and Van Kaam (1966),
all of whom are from the Duquesne School of
phenomenology, based on Husserl's
philosophy.
Which of the following is the first stage of
21. Diekelmann, Allen, and Tanner's (1989)
process of data analysis in hermeneutics?
Interpretive summaries of each interview are
written.
A team of researchers analyzes selected
transcribed interviews or texts.
All the interviews or texts are read for an
overall understanding.
Common meanings and shared practices are
identified by comparing and contrasting the
text.
C
Feedback:
Diekelmann and colleagues' stages include
the following: 1. All the interviews or texts
are read for an overall understanding. 2.
Interpretive summaries of each interview are
written. 3. A team of researchers analyzes
selected transcribed interviews or texts. 4.
Any disagreements on interpretation are
resolved by going back to the text. 5.
Common meanings and shared practices are
identified by comparing and contrasting the
text. 6. Relationships among themes emerge.
7. A draft of the themes along with exemplars
from texts are presented to the team.
Responses or suggestions are incorporated
into the final draft.
Common meanings and shared practices are
identified by comparing and contrasting the
text.
C
Feedback:
Diekelmann and colleagues' stages include
the following: 1. All the interviews or texts
are read for an overall understanding. 2.
Interpretive summaries of each interview are
written. 3. A team of researchers analyzes
selected transcribed interviews or texts. 4.
Any disagreements on interpretation are
resolved by going back to the text. 5.
Common meanings and shared practices are
identified by comparing and contrasting the
text. 6. Relationships among themes emerge.
7. A draft of the themes along with exemplars
from texts are presented to the team.
Responses or suggestions are incorporated
into the final draft.
D)
Ans:
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the primary outcome of Strauss and
Corbin's (2008) approach to grounded theory?
A theory of how a social problem is processed
A full conceptual description
A central category
A core category
B
Feedback:
The outcome of the Strauss and Corbin
approach is a full conceptual description. The
original grounded theory method, by contrast,
generates a theory that explains how a basic
social problem that emerged from the data is
processed in a social setting. Deciding on the
central category (sometimes called the core
category), which is the main category of the
research, is the first step in integrating the
findings in the Strauss and Corbin approach.
Which of the following accurately describes a
task that computer-assisted qualitative data
23.
analysis software can accomplish? Select all
that apply.
Code interview portions and observational
records
Facilitate examination of relationships
between codes
Inform the researcher of how best to analyze
the data
Allow retrieval of portions of text
corresponding to specified codes for analysis
23.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
24.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
task that computer-assisted qualitative data
analysis software can accomplish? Select all
that apply.
Code interview portions and observational
records
Facilitate examination of relationships
between codes
Inform the researcher of how best to analyze
the data
Allow retrieval of portions of text
corresponding to specified codes for analysis
B, D
Feedback:
Computer assisted qualitative data analysis
software (CAQDAS) can help to remove some
of the work of cutting and pasting pages of
narrative material. Dozens of CAQDAS have
been developed. These programs permit an
entire data set to be entered onto the
computer, each portion of an interview or
observational record coded, and then portions
of the text corresponding to specified codes
retrieved for analysis. The software can also
be used to examine relationships between
codes. Software cannot, however, do the
coding, and it cannot tell the researcher how
to analyze the data.
The primary goal of ethnography is which of
the following?
To identify and categorize descriptors
To abstract major themes
To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts
of participants
To collect, describe, and record data
C
Feedback:
Analysis typically begins the moment
ethnographers set foot in the field.
Ethnographers are continually looking for
patterns in the behavior and thoughts of
participants, comparing one pattern against
another, and analyzing many patterns
simultaneously. Identifying and categorizing
descriptors, abstracting major themes, and
collecting, describing, and recording data are
all phases in the ethnonursing research
method, which is one approach to
ethnographic analysis.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts
of participants
To collect, describe, and record data
C
Feedback:
Analysis typically begins the moment
ethnographers set foot in the field.
Ethnographers are continually looking for
patterns in the behavior and thoughts of
participants, comparing one pattern against
another, and analyzing many patterns
simultaneously. Identifying and categorizing
descriptors, abstracting major themes, and
collecting, describing, and recording data are
all phases in the ethnonursing research
method, which is one approach to
ethnographic analysis.
Which of the following is the final phase of
25. Leininger and McFarland's (2006)
ethnonursing data analysis guide?
Abstract major themes and present findings
Identify and categorize descriptors
Analyze data to discover repetitive patterns in
their context
Collect, describe, and record data
A
Feedback:
In their ethnonursing research method,
Leininger and McFarland (2006) provided
ethnographers with a four-phase ethnonursing
data analysis guide. In the first phase
ethnographers collect, describe, and record
data. The second phase involves identifying
and categorizing descriptors. In phase 3, data
are analyzed to discover repetitive patterns in
their context. The fourth and final phase
involves.
Which of the following is the correct order of
26. tasks in organizing and managing narrative
data for qualitative analysis?
1. Organize the data; 2. develop a category
scheme; 3. read and code the data; 4. check
the accuracy of transcribed data
1. Develop a category scheme; 2. check the
accuracy of transcribed data; 3. read and code
the data; 4. organize the data
1. Check the accuracy of transcribed data; 2.
develop a category scheme; 3. read and code
the data; 4. organize the data
1. Read and code the data; 2. develop a
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
26. tasks in organizing and managing narrative
data for qualitative analysis?
1. Organize the data; 2. develop a category
scheme; 3. read and code the data; 4. check
the accuracy of transcribed data
1. Develop a category scheme; 2. check the
accuracy of transcribed data; 3. read and code
the data; 4. organize the data
1. Check the accuracy of transcribed data; 2.
develop a category scheme; 3. read and code
the data; 4. organize the data
1. Read and code the data; 2. develop a
category scheme; 3. check the accuracy of
transcribed data; 4. organize the data
C
Feedback:
A key first step in qualitative analysis is
checking the accuracy of transcribed data.
Subsequent steps, in order, include
developing a category scheme, reading and
coding the data, and organizing the data.
27.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
28.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following can best facilitate
researchers' search for themes?
Charting devices
Detailed coding
Quasi-statistics
Computer software
A
Feedback:
Researchers' search for themes, regularities,
and patterns in the data can sometimes be
facilitated by charting devices that enable
them to summarize the evolution of
behaviors, events, and processes. Detailed
coding and computer software are tasks
involved in data management and
organization, not in the search for themes.
Quasi-statistics are used to validate and refine
themes, not to facilitate the search for them.
Why does a researcher introduce quasistatistics?
As an analytic strategy
To validate and refine themes
As a taxonomic analysis
To provide an overall structure
B
Feedback:
In validating and refining themes, some
researchers introduce quasi-statistics—a
tabulation of the frequency with which certain
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
statistics?
As an analytic strategy
To validate and refine themes
As a taxonomic analysis
To provide an overall structure
B
Feedback:
In validating and refining themes, some
researchers introduce quasi-statistics—a
tabulation of the frequency with which certain
themes or insights are supported by the data.
The use of quasi-statistics does not provide
overall structure or taxonomic analysis and it
is not an analytic strategy in and of itself.
CHET
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following terms is especially
controversial among qualitative researchers?
Dependability
Validity
Transferability
Credibility
B
Feedback:
One of several controversies regarding quality
in qualitative studies involves terminology.
Some argue that rigor and validity are
quantitative terms that are not suitable as
goals in qualitative inquiry, but others believe
these terms are appropriate. Although not
without critics, the criteria often viewed as the
“gold standard” for qualitative research are
those outlined by Lincoln and Guba (1985).
These researchers suggested four criteria for
developing the trustworthiness of a qualitative
inquiry: credibility, dependability,
confirmability, and transferability.
Which of the following are terms that are
considered aspects of trustworthiness within
2.
the Lincoln and Guba framework? Select all
that apply.
Transferability
Confirmability
Stability
Dependability
A, B, D
Feedback:
Although not without critics, the criteria often
viewed as the “gold standard” for qualitative
research are those outlined by Lincoln and
Guba (1985). These researchers suggested
four criteria for developing the
trustworthiness of a qualitative inquiry:
credibility, dependability, confirmability, and
transferability. Dependability refers to the
stability (reliability) of data over time and
over conditions.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Dependability in qualitative research is
3. considered the analog of which criterion in
quantitative research?
Internal validity
Construct validity
Reliability
Specificity
C
Feedback:
Dependability refers to the stability of data
over time and over conditions and is
somewhat analogous to reliability, not
specificity, internal validity, or construct
validity, in quantitative studies. Credibility,
which refers to confidence in the truth value
of the findings, has been viewed as the
qualitative equivalent of internal validity.
The criterion that refers to neutrality or
4. objectivity in qualitative inquiry is which of
the following?
Credibility
Transferability
Authenticity
Confirmability
D
Feedback:
Confirmability refers to the objectivity of the
data. Credibility, which refers to confidence
in the truth value of the findings, has been
viewed as the qualitative equivalent of
internal validity. Transferability, the analog of
external validity, is the extent to which
findings can be transferred to other settings or
groups. Authenticity is the extent to which
researchers faithfully show a range of
different realities and convey the feeling tone
of lives as they are lived.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which criterion is considered analogous to
5. internal validity in the Lincoln & Guba
framework?
Credibility
Transferability
Dependability
Confirmability
A
Feedback:
Credibility, which refers to confidence in the
truth value of the findings, has been viewed as
the qualitative equivalent of internal validity.
Dependability, the stability of data over time
and over conditions, is somewhat analogous
to reliability in quantitative studies.
Confirmability is the qualitative equivalent of
objectivity. Transferability, the analog of
external validity, is the extent to which
findings can be transferred to other settings or
groups.
If both in-depth interviews and participant
observations were used to collect data on a
6.
phenomenon in a study, this would be referred
to as which of the following?
Data triangulation
Investigator triangulation
Theory triangulation
Method triangulation
D
Feedback:
Triangulation is the process of using multiple
referents to draw conclusions about what
constitutes the truth. This includes data
triangulation (using multiple data sources to
validate conclusions) and method
triangulation (using multiple methods to
collect data about the same phenomenon).
Strategies for enhancing quality during the
coding and analysis of qualitative data include
investigator triangulation (independent coding
and analysis of some of the data by two or
more researchers) and theory triangulation
(use of competing theories or hypotheses in
the analysis and interpretation of data).
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Investigator triangulation
Theory triangulation
Method triangulation
D
Feedback:
Triangulation is the process of using multiple
referents to draw conclusions about what
constitutes the truth. This includes data
triangulation (using multiple data sources to
validate conclusions) and method
triangulation (using multiple methods to
collect data about the same phenomenon).
Strategies for enhancing quality during the
coding and analysis of qualitative data include
investigator triangulation (independent coding
and analysis of some of the data by two or
more researchers) and theory triangulation
(use of competing theories or hypotheses in
the analysis and interpretation of data).
If a researcher studying family response to
adolescent suicide interviewed parents and
7. siblings independently, the triangulation
approach method would be called which of
the following?
Data triangulation
Investigator triangulation
Theory triangulation
Method triangulation
A
Feedback:
Triangulation is the process of using multiple
referents to draw conclusions about what
constitutes the truth. This includes data
triangulation (using multiple data sources to
validate conclusions) and method
triangulation (using multiple methods to
collect data about the same phenomenon).
There are three types of data triangulation:
time, space, and person. Strategies for
enhancing quality during the coding and
analysis of qualitative data include
investigator triangulation (independent coding
and analysis of some of the data by two or
more researchers) and theory triangulation
(use of competing theories or hypotheses in
the analysis and interpretation of data).
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A member check involves the researcher
reviewing data with which of the following?
An external auditor
A peer of the researcher
A study participant
A second member of the research team
C
Feedback:
In a member check, researchers give
participants feedback about emerging
interpretations and then obtain participants'
reactions. Other strategies for enhancing
quality during the coding and analysis of
qualitative data include investigator
triangulation (independent coding and
analysis of some of the data by two or more
researchers); external validation through peer
debriefings (exposing the inquiry to the
searching questions of peers); and launching
an inquiry audit (a formal scrutiny of audit
trail documents by an independent auditor).
The maintenance of good, thorough
9. documentation and a decision trail is
especially critical in which of the following?
Member checks
Stepwise replications
Negative case analysis
Inquiry audits
D
Feedback:
Strategies for enhancing quality during the
coding and analysis of qualitative data include
launching an inquiry audit (a formal scrutiny
of audit trail documents by an independent
auditor); stepwise replication (dividing the
research team into two groups that conduct
independent inquiries that can be compared
and merged); and searching for rival
explanations and undertaking a negative case
analysis (revising interpretations to account
for cases that appear to disconfirm early
conclusions). Strategies for enhancing quality
during qualitative data collection include
member checks (asking study participants to
review and react to study data and emerging
conceptualizations).
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Stepwise replications
Negative case analysis
Inquiry audits
D
Feedback:
Strategies for enhancing quality during the
coding and analysis of qualitative data include
launching an inquiry audit (a formal scrutiny
of audit trail documents by an independent
auditor); stepwise replication (dividing the
research team into two groups that conduct
independent inquiries that can be compared
and merged); and searching for rival
explanations and undertaking a negative case
analysis (revising interpretations to account
for cases that appear to disconfirm early
conclusions). Strategies for enhancing quality
during qualitative data collection include
member checks (asking study participants to
review and react to study data and emerging
conceptualizations).
A quality-enhancement strategy about which
10. there is considerable controversy is which of
the following?
Member checks
Stepwise replications
Negative case analysis
Inquiry audits
A
Feedback:
Few strategies for enhancing data quality are
as controversial as member checking.
Nevertheless, it is a strategy that has the
potential to enhance credibility if it is done in
a manner that encourages candor and critical
appraisal by participants.
The term trustworthiness in qualitative
research parallels which of the following
11.
terms used in quantitative research? Select all
that apply.
Generalizability
Validity
Reliability
Correlation
B, C
Feedback:
Lincoln and Guba (1985) created standards
for the trustworthiness of qualitative research
that parallel the standards of reliability and
validity in quantitative research. The term
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Generalizability
Validity
Reliability
Correlation
B, C
Feedback:
Lincoln and Guba (1985) created standards
for the trustworthiness of qualitative research
that parallel the standards of reliability and
validity in quantitative research. The term
generalizability, used in quantitative research,
is analogous to the term transferability in
qualitative research, which is the extent to
which qualitative findings can be transferred
to or have applicability in other settings or
groups. A correlation is the association or
relationship between variables.
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is characteristic of
qualitative research? Select all that apply.
It is consistent with the constructivist
paradigm of inquiry.
It generates causal hypotheses.
It tests hypotheses.
It involves an iterative process of
interpretation and analysis.
A, B, D
Feedback:
Interpretation in qualitative studies sometimes
yields hypotheses that can be tested in more
controlled quantitative studies. Qualitative
studies are well suited to generating causal
hypotheses, but not to testing them. In the
constructivist paradigm, multiple
interpretations of reality exist. The goal of
research conducted according to the
constructivist paradigm is to understand how
individuals construct their own reality. This
paradigm is often associated with qualitative
research. Interpretation and analysis of
qualitative data occur simultaneously, in an
iterative process.
Credibility in qualitative research refers to
which of the following?
The reliability of data over time
Objectivity of the interpretation of the data
Applicability of the data to other groups
Confidence in the truth value of the data
D
Feedback:
Credibility or the believability of data refers
13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Credibility in qualitative research refers to
which of the following?
The reliability of data over time
Objectivity of the interpretation of the data
Applicability of the data to other groups
Confidence in the truth value of the data
D
Feedback:
Credibility or the believability of data refers
to confidence in the truth value of the data
and data interpretation. Dependability is the
reliability of data over time. Confirmability
refers to establishing that the data objectively
represent the participants' information and
view point, and not that of the researcher.
Transferability is the extent to which
qualitative findings can be transferred to or
have applicability in other settings or groups.
Confirmability in qualitative research refers to
which of the following?
The reliability of data over time
Objectivity of the interpretation of the data
Applicability of the data to other groups
Confidence in the truth value of the data
B
Feedback:
Confirmability refers to objectivity, achieved
through congruence or agreement between
two or more independent evaluators about the
data's accuracy, relevance, or meaning.
Dependability refers to the stability of data
over time. Transferability refers to the
applicability of data to other groups.
Credibility refers to the believability or
confidence in the truth of the findings.
The term transferability in qualitative
15. research is similar to which term used in
quantitative research?
Authenticity
Reliability
Generalizability
Correlation
C
Feedback:
Transferability, analogous to generalizability,
is the extent to which qualitative findings can
be transferred to or have applicability in other
settings or groups. Authenticity refers to the
extent to which researchers fairly represent
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Authenticity
Reliability
Generalizability
Correlation
C
Feedback:
Transferability, analogous to generalizability,
is the extent to which qualitative findings can
be transferred to or have applicability in other
settings or groups. Authenticity refers to the
extent to which researchers fairly represent
the participant's actual or lived experience.
Dependability in qualitative research is
analogous to the term reliability in
quantitative research. Correlation is a term
used in quantitative research to describe the
association between variables.
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements about
qualitative research methods is true?
Peer debriefings in qualitative research
provide proof that interpretations are correct.
Qualitative research attempts to test
hypotheses generated from quantitative
research.
Interpretation and analysis of qualitative data
typically occur simultaneously.
Qualitative research methods are best suited
to study well-known phenomenon.
C
Feedback:
Interpretation and analysis of qualitative data
typically occur virtually simultaneously, in an
iterative process. Interpretation in qualitative
studies sometimes yields hypotheses that can
be tested in more controlled quantitative
studies. The nature of qualitative research is
to generate, not test hypotheses. Qualitative
research is especially productive when it is
used to describe and explain poorly
understood phenomena. Prudent qualitative
researchers hold their interpretations up for
closer scrutiny—self-scrutiny as well as
review by peers and outside reviewers. Even
when researchers have undertaken peer
debriefings and other strategies described in
this chapter, these procedures do not
constitute proof that interpretations are
correct.
C)
typically occur simultaneously.
Qualitative research methods are best suited
to study well-known phenomenon.
C
Feedback:
Interpretation and analysis of qualitative data
typically occur virtually simultaneously, in an
iterative process. Interpretation in qualitative
studies sometimes yields hypotheses that can
be tested in more controlled quantitative
studies. The nature of qualitative research is
to generate, not test hypotheses. Qualitative
research is especially productive when it is
used to describe and explain poorly
understood phenomena. Prudent qualitative
researchers hold their interpretations up for
closer scrutiny—self-scrutiny as well as
review by peers and outside reviewers. Even
when researchers have undertaken peer
debriefings and other strategies described in
this chapter, these procedures do not
constitute proof that interpretations are
correct.
D)
Ans:
17.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements about
controversies in qualitative research is true?
Unlike quantitative research methods,
qualitative research methods do not require
rigorous study designs.
There is lack of consensus regarding the
quality criteria for qualitative inquiry.
There is no “gold standard” in qualitative
research criteria.
There is no comparable criterion in qualitative
research for the positivists' criterion of
internal validity.
B
Feedback:
Establishing a consensus on what the quality
criteria for qualitative inquiry should be, and
what they should be named, remains elusive,
and it is unlikely that a consensus will be
achieved in the near future, if ever. Guba and
Lincoln established criteria considered as the
“gold standard” for qualitative research;
however, not all qualitative researchers agree
with their recommendations. The criteria
established by Guba and Lincoln to develop
trustworthiness of qualitative inquiry—
credibility, dependability, confirmability, and
transferability—represent parallels to the
positivists' criteria of internal validity,
reliability, objectivity, and external validity,
respectively.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
There is no comparable criterion in qualitative
research for the positivists' criterion of
internal validity.
B
Feedback:
Establishing a consensus on what the quality
criteria for qualitative inquiry should be, and
what they should be named, remains elusive,
and it is unlikely that a consensus will be
achieved in the near future, if ever. Guba and
Lincoln established criteria considered as the
“gold standard” for qualitative research;
however, not all qualitative researchers agree
with their recommendations. The criteria
established by Guba and Lincoln to develop
trustworthiness of qualitative inquiry—
credibility, dependability, confirmability, and
transferability—represent parallels to the
positivists' criteria of internal validity,
reliability, objectivity, and external validity,
respectively.
Which of the following is a barrier that
18. qualitative researchers face in demonstrating
the trustworthiness of their studies to readers?
Page limitations imposed by journals
Reflexivity
Lack of generalizability
Small sample sizes
A
Feedback:
Adhering to page constraints imposed by
journals inevitably reduces the amount of
thick description and verbatim accounts that
can be reported in qualitative research reports.
Page limitations imposed by journals
ultimately impact the ability of the researcher
to support the authenticity of the study with
thick description of the content, and
researchers must compromise in how the data
is reported. Reflexivity involves awareness
that the researcher as an individual brings to
the inquiry a unique background, set of
values, and a social and professional identity
that can affect the research process; this
would not be a barrier to demonstrating
trustworthiness. Generalizability and large
sample size, although important in
quantitative research, are not goals of
qualitative research because qualitative
research is context-bound.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Reflexivity
Lack of generalizability
Small sample sizes
A
Feedback:
Adhering to page constraints imposed by
journals inevitably reduces the amount of
thick description and verbatim accounts that
can be reported in qualitative research reports.
Page limitations imposed by journals
ultimately impact the ability of the researcher
to support the authenticity of the study with
thick description of the content, and
researchers must compromise in how the data
is reported. Reflexivity involves awareness
that the researcher as an individual brings to
the inquiry a unique background, set of
values, and a social and professional identity
that can affect the research process; this
would not be a barrier to demonstrating
trustworthiness. Generalizability and large
sample size, although important in
quantitative research, are not goals of
qualitative research because qualitative
research is context-bound.
A nurse-midwife conducted a phenomenology
study of the lived experience of women in
Haiti who gave birth following the 2010
19. Haitian earthquake. She collected data from
15 women over a 12-month period of time.
Which quality-enhancement strategy is
described in this example?
Persistent observation
Prolonged engagement
Reflexivity
Data triangulation
B
Feedback:
Prolonged engagement is the investment of a
sufficient amount of time to collect data about
a study population to achieve an in-depth
understanding of the phenomenon. In this
example the researcher spent 12 months
interacting with study participants to explore
the lived experience of the women. Persistent
observation refers to the collection of specific
data relevant to the phenomenon under
investigation. Reflexivity refers to the
awareness and personal experience and
insight that the researcher brings to the study.
Data triangulation refers to the use of multiple
sources to draw conclusions about what
constitutes truth in the data.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Prolonged engagement
Reflexivity
Data triangulation
B
Feedback:
Prolonged engagement is the investment of a
sufficient amount of time to collect data about
a study population to achieve an in-depth
understanding of the phenomenon. In this
example the researcher spent 12 months
interacting with study participants to explore
the lived experience of the women. Persistent
observation refers to the collection of specific
data relevant to the phenomenon under
investigation. Reflexivity refers to the
awareness and personal experience and
insight that the researcher brings to the study.
Data triangulation refers to the use of multiple
sources to draw conclusions about what
constitutes truth in the data.
A nurse working in an adolescent health clinic
conducted a grounded theory study related to
contraceptive decision-making in Latina
20. youth. She collected data from individual
interviews and focus groups. Which of the
following quality-enhancement strategies is
described in this example?
Persistent observation
Prolonged engagement
Reflexivity
Data triangulation
D
Feedback:
Data triangulation refers to the use of multiple
data sources for the purpose of validating
conclusions. In this example the nurse
collected data from individual interviews and
focus groups. Persistent observation refers to
the collection of specific data relevant to the
phenomenon under investigation. Prolonged
engagement is the investment of a sufficient
amount of time to collect data about a study
population to achieve an in-depth
understanding of the phenomenon.
Reflexivity refers to the awareness and
personal experience and insight that the
researcher brings to the study.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A nurse working in an inner-city clinic
conducted an ethnographic study of sex
workers to gain understanding of factors
related to HIV risk for these women. After she
21. completed her data collection, she gave three
participants feedback about her findings for
their review and commentary. Which of the
following quality-enhancement strategies is
described in this example?
Audit trail
Data triangulation
Reflexivity
Member checking
D
Feedback:
In member checking, researchers give
participants feedback about emerging
interpretations and then obtain participants'
reactions to those interpretations. This method
allows participants to validate whether or not
the researchers' interpretations accurately
represent their realities. An audit trail is a
systematic collection of materials and
documentation that would allow an
independent auditor to draw conclusions
about the data. Data triangulation refers to the
use of multiple sources to draw conclusions
about what constitutes truth in the data.
Reflexivity refers to the awareness and
personal experience and insight that the
researcher brings to the study.
Which of the following quality-enhancement
22. strategies has the greatest potential for leading
to erroneous conclusions about the data?
Member checking
Audit trail
Reflexivity
Data triangulation
A
Feedback:
Member checking can lead to erroneous
conclusions about the data if the participants
withhold information or desire to “cover up”
the truth about a phenomenon. An audit trail
is a systematic collection of materials and
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Audit trail
Reflexivity
Data triangulation
A
Feedback:
Member checking can lead to erroneous
conclusions about the data if the participants
withhold information or desire to “cover up”
the truth about a phenomenon. An audit trail
is a systematic collection of materials and
documentation that would allow an
independent auditor to draw conclusions
about the researcher's interpretation of the
data and is a good tool for enhancing the
trustworthiness of data. Reflexivity refers to
the awareness and personal experience and
insight that the researcher brings to the study.
Data triangulation refers to the use of multiple
sources to draw conclusions about what
constitutes truth in the data.
In qualitative research, investigator
23. triangulation is comparable to which
quantitative research concept?
Content validity
Construct validity
Inter-rater reliability
Internal consistency
C
Feedback:
Investigator triangulation is conceptually
analogous to inter-rater reliability in
quantitative studies. Content validity is a term
used in quantitative research that refers to the
degree to which items in an instrument
actually measure the intended concept.
Construct validity in quantitative research
refers to the validity of inferences gleaned
from the study setting or an instrument used
in the study in measuring the construct under
investigation. Internal consistency in
quantitative research refers to the degree to
which sub-parts of a scale or instrument
measure the same attribute or dimension.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The proper rationale for searching for and
24. including disconfirming evidence is which of
the following?
To eliminate confounding cases from data
analysis
To refine a hypothesis or theory
To confirm saturation of the data
To formulate a conclusion based on existing
data
B
Feedback:
Searching for disconfirming evidence is a
verification procedure that challenges an
explanation or category that has emerged
early in data analysis. It occurs concurrently
with data collection and analysis. Negative
case analysis is a procedure to continuously
refine a hypothesis or theory until it accounts
for all cases. Saturation of data occurs when
data collection yields redundant information.
Triangulation is the process of using multiple
referents to draw conclusions about what
constitutes the truth. Eliminating confounding
cases would be the opposite of including
disconfirming evidence.
25.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is true of thick
description in qualitative research?
It should not include verbatim quotes from
participants.
It should not include information that can be
interpreted as controversial.
It should be implicit in the description of the
research context.
It should avoid emotional impact.
C
Feedback:
Thick description refers to a rich, thorough,
and vivid description of the research context,
the people who participated in the study, and
the experiences and processes observed
during the inquiry. Thick description includes
the free use of verbatim quotes from study
participants and contributes to the authenticity
of a qualitative study. According to
Sandelowski, thick description should be
implicit in the description of the research
context and the term itself should not be
C)
D)
Ans:
It should be implicit in the description of the
research context.
It should avoid emotional impact.
C
Feedback:
Thick description refers to a rich, thorough,
and vivid description of the research context,
the people who participated in the study, and
the experiences and processes observed
during the inquiry. Thick description includes
the free use of verbatim quotes from study
participants and contributes to the authenticity
of a qualitative study. According to
Sandelowski, thick description should be
implicit in the description of the research
context and the term itself should not be
written in the research report. In high-quality
qualitative studies, descriptions typically need
to go beyond a faithful rendering of
information. Powerful description is evocative
and has the capacity for emotional impact.
Qualitative researchers should, however,
avoid misrepresenting their findings by
sharing only the most dramatic or sensational
stories.
CH 18
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The use of both of qualitative and quantitative
1. data in a study or cluster of studies serves the
important purpose of which of the following?
Providing researchers with different skills an
opportunity to collaborate
Enhancing the study's validity
Allowing participants to select an
unstructured or structured method of
responding
Enhancing the likelihood that the study will
be published
B
Feedback:
Enhanced validity is an advantage of mixed
methods research. When a hypothesis or
model is supported by multiple and
complementary types of data, researchers can
be more confident about their inferences. The
mixed methods approach does not necessarily
increase the likelihood that the study will be
published. It does not allow participants to
select their method of responding, although it
can involve intramethod mixing (for example,
use of structured and unstructured selfreports). Providing researchers with different
skills an opportunity to collaborate is not an
important rationale for this approach.
The integration of qualitative and quantitative
2. approaches in a single study constitutes a
form of which of the following?
Hypothesis testing
Theory generation
Triangulation
Methodologic research
C
Feedback:
Triangulation of methods can provide
opportunities for testing alternative
interpretations of the data, and for examining
the extent to which the context helped to
shape the results. When a hypothesis or model
is supported by multiple and complementary
types of data, researchers can be more
confident about their inferences. Hypothesis
testing and theory generation are standard
features of research and not unique to the
integration of qualitative and quantitative
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Theory generation
Triangulation
Methodologic research
C
Feedback:
Triangulation of methods can provide
opportunities for testing alternative
interpretations of the data, and for examining
the extent to which the context helped to
shape the results. When a hypothesis or model
is supported by multiple and complementary
types of data, researchers can be more
confident about their inferences. Hypothesis
testing and theory generation are standard
features of research and not unique to the
integration of qualitative and quantitative
approaches. Methodologic research entails
investigations of the methods for conducting
rigorous research.
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is true about the
notation QUAL → quan?
The qualitative component is dominant
The quantitative component is dominant
The data would be collected in a single phase
The design is an embedded design
A
Feedback:
Notation for MM research often designates
priority—all capital letters for the dominant
strand and all lower-case letters for the
nondominant strand—and sequence. An arrow
is used for sequential designs, and a “+” is
used for concurrent designs. Parentheses
show an embedded structure. QUAL → quan,
for example is a sequential, qualitativedominant design; QUAN(qual) shows a
qualitative strand embedded in a quantitative
study.
Which of the following is true about the
notation QUAL + QUAN?
The qualitative component is dominant
The quantitative component is dominant
The data would be collected in a single phase
The design is an embedded design
C
Feedback:
Notation for MM research often designates
priority—all capital letters for the dominant
strand and all lower-case letters for the
nondominant strand—and sequence. An arrow
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The qualitative component is dominant
The quantitative component is dominant
The data would be collected in a single phase
The design is an embedded design
C
Feedback:
Notation for MM research often designates
priority—all capital letters for the dominant
strand and all lower-case letters for the
nondominant strand—and sequence. An arrow
is used for sequential designs, and a “+” is
used for concurrent designs. Parentheses
show an embedded structure. QUAL +
QUAN, for example, is a concurrent design
(only one phase) in which neither strand is
dominant; QUAN(qual) shows a qualitative
strand embedded in a quantitative study.
The phase of a clinical trial that typically uses
5. a full experimental design is which of the
following?
Phase I
Phase II
Phase III
Phase IV
C
Feedback:
Clinical trials, which are studies designed to
assess the effectiveness of clinical
interventions, often involve a series of phases.
Phase I is designed to finalize features of the
intervention. Phase II involves seeking
preliminary evidence of efficacy and
opportunities for refinements. Phase III is a
full experimental test of treatment efficacy. In
Phase IV, the researcher focuses primarily on
generalized effectiveness and evidence about
costs and benefits.
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
An effectiveness study is associated with
which phase of a clinical trial?
Phase I
Phase II
Phase III
Phase IV
D
Feedback:
Clinical trials, which are studies designed to
assess the effectiveness of clinical
interventions, often involve a series of phases.
Phase I is designed to finalize features of the
intervention. Phase II involves seeking
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Phase II
Phase III
Phase IV
D
Feedback:
Clinical trials, which are studies designed to
assess the effectiveness of clinical
interventions, often involve a series of phases.
Phase I is designed to finalize features of the
intervention. Phase II involves seeking
preliminary evidence of efficacy and
opportunities for refinements. Phase III is a
full experimental test of treatment efficacy. In
Phase IV, the researcher focuses primarily on
generalized effectiveness and evidence about
costs and benefits.
If a researcher wanted to assess how well an
evidence-based protocol for encouraging
7. adolescent mothers to breastfeed was meeting
its objectives, the research would be which of
the following?
Survey
Evaluation
Methodologic research
Secondary analysis
B
Feedback:
Evaluation research assesses the effectiveness
of a program, policy, or procedure to assist
decision-makers in choosing a course of
action. Evaluations can answer a variety of
questions. Survey research examines people's
characteristics, behaviors, intentions, and
opinions by asking them to answer questions.
In methodologic research, the investigator is
concerned with the development, validation,
and assessment of methodologic tools or
strategies. Secondary analysis refers to studies
in which researchers analyze previously
collected data—either quantitative or
qualitative.
A phase III clinical trial most closely
8. resembles which of the following in terms of
objectives and design?
An impact analysis
An economic analysis
A process analysis
A secondary analysis
A
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A phase III clinical trial most closely
8. resembles which of the following in terms of
objectives and design?
An impact analysis
An economic analysis
A process analysis
A secondary analysis
A
Feedback:
Impact analyses, analogous to Phase III
clinical trials, use an experimental or strong
quasi-experimental design because the aim is
to make a causal inference about the benefits
of a special program. Impact analyses test
whether an intervention caused any net
impacts relative to the counterfactual.
Economic (cost) analyses seek to determine
whether the monetary costs of a program are
outweighed by benefits. Process analyses
describe the process by which a program gets
implemented and how it functions in practice.
Secondary analysis refers to studies in which
researchers analyze previously collected data
—either quantitative or qualitative.
What type of study would address the
following question: What barriers did the
9.
nursing staff face in implementing the fall
prevention program?
Impact analysis
Outcomes study
Process analysis
Economic analysis
C
Feedback:
Process analyses describe the process by
which a program gets implemented and how it
functions in practice. In an impact analysis
component of an evaluation, researchers seek
to identify the program's net impacts, that is,
impacts that can be attributed to the program,
over and above the effects of usual care.
Economic (cost) analyses seek to determine
whether the monetary costs of a program are
outweighed by benefits. Outcomes research (a
subset of health services research) is
undertaken to document the quality and
effectiveness of health care and nursing
services.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Outcomes study
Process analysis
Economic analysis
C
Feedback:
Process analyses describe the process by
which a program gets implemented and how it
functions in practice. In an impact analysis
component of an evaluation, researchers seek
to identify the program's net impacts, that is,
impacts that can be attributed to the program,
over and above the effects of usual care.
Economic (cost) analyses seek to determine
whether the monetary costs of a program are
outweighed by benefits. Outcomes research (a
subset of health services research) is
undertaken to document the quality and
effectiveness of health care and nursing
services.
An issue that is distinctive in nursing
10. intervention research is which of the
following?
The development of an intervention theory
The generation of data amenable for use in
secondary analyses
The inclusion of a methodological research
component
The use of a structure/process/outcomes
framework
A
Feedback:
Nursing intervention research is a term
sometimes used to refer to a distinctive
process of planning, developing, testing, and
disseminating interventions. The construct
validity of an emerging intervention is
enhanced through efforts to develop an
intervention theory that articulates what must
be done to achieve desired outcomes.
Secondary analysis refers to studies in which
researchers analyze previously collected data
—either quantitative or qualitative. In
methodologic research, the investigator is
concerned with the development, validation,
and assessment of methodologic tools or
strategies. The care system (e.g., patient
characteristics) affects outcomes in complex
ways. Donabedian emphasized three factors
in appraising quality in health care services:
structure, process, and outcomes.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
component
The use of a structure/process/outcomes
framework
A
Feedback:
Nursing intervention research is a term
sometimes used to refer to a distinctive
process of planning, developing, testing, and
disseminating interventions. The construct
validity of an emerging intervention is
enhanced through efforts to develop an
intervention theory that articulates what must
be done to achieve desired outcomes.
Secondary analysis refers to studies in which
researchers analyze previously collected data
—either quantitative or qualitative. In
methodologic research, the investigator is
concerned with the development, validation,
and assessment of methodologic tools or
strategies. The care system (e.g., patient
characteristics) affects outcomes in complex
ways. Donabedian emphasized three factors
in appraising quality in health care services:
structure, process, and outcomes.
The type of research designed to document
the effectiveness of health care and nursing
11.
services in a broad sense is called which of
the following?
A process analysis
Outcomes research
An impact analysis
Methodological research
B
Feedback:
Outcomes research (a subset of health
services research) is undertaken to document
the quality and effectiveness of health care
and nursing services. Process analyses
describe the process by which a program gets
implemented and how it functions in practice.
Impact analyses test whether an intervention
caused any net impacts relative to the
counterfactual. In methodologic research, the
investigator is concerned with the
development, validation, and assessment of
methodologic tools or strategies.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Suppose a nurse researcher were interested in
learning whether a self-administered health
history questionnaire yielded data of
12.
comparable quality to a personal interview
health history. The researcher would be doing
which of the following?
Secondary analysis
Clinical trial
Methodologic study
Survey
C
Feedback:
In methodologic research, the investigator is
concerned with the development, validation,
and assessment of methodologic tools or
strategies. Secondary analysis refers to studies
in which researchers analyze previously
collected data—either quantitative or
qualitative.
Clinical trials, which are studies designed to
assess the effectiveness of clinical
interventions, often involve a series of phases.
Survey research examines people's
characteristics, behaviors, intentions, and
opinions by asking them to answer questions.
A nurse researcher gathered data from a
national sample of nurses regarding fatigue
13. and burnout by means of an Internet
questionnaire. This is an example of which of
the following?
A survey
An evaluation
A case study
A secondary analysis
A
Feedback:
Survey research, not case study research,
examines people's characteristics, behaviors,
intentions, and opinions by asking them to
answer questions. Evaluation research
assesses the effectiveness of a program,
policy, or procedure to assist decision-makers
in choosing a course of action. Secondary
analysis refers to studies in which researchers
analyze previously collected data—either
quantitative or qualitative.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
An evaluation
A case study
A secondary analysis
A
Feedback:
Survey research, not case study research,
examines people's characteristics, behaviors,
intentions, and opinions by asking them to
answer questions. Evaluation research
assesses the effectiveness of a program,
policy, or procedure to assist decision-makers
in choosing a course of action. Secondary
analysis refers to studies in which researchers
analyze previously collected data—either
quantitative or qualitative.
If a researcher used U.S. census data to
examine the relationship between women's
14.
employment and childbearing, this would be
an example of which of the following?
A survey
An outcomes study
A secondary analysis
A methodological study
C
Feedback:
Secondary analysis refers to studies in which
researchers analyze previously collected data
—either quantitative or qualitative. Survey
research examines people's characteristics,
behaviors, intentions, and opinions by asking
them to answer questions. Outcomes research
(a subset of health services research) is
undertaken to document the quality and
effectiveness of health care and nursing
services. In methodologic research, the
investigator is concerned with the
development, validation, and assessment of
methodologic tools or strategies.
Which of the following could involve either
15. qualitative or quantitative data? Select all that
apply.
A secondary analysis
An evaluation
A methodologic study
An ethnographic study
A, B, C
Feedback:
Ethnographic research is a qualitative
research design in which participant observers
explore cultural phenomena. The other
apply.
A secondary analysis
An evaluation
A methodologic study
An ethnographic study
A, B, C
Feedback:
Ethnographic research is a qualitative
research design in which participant observers
explore cultural phenomena. The other
answers are research methods that could be
used to gather either qualitative or
quantitative data. Secondary analysis refers to
studies in which researchers analyze
previously collected data—either quantitative
or qualitative. In methodologic research, the
investigator is concerned with the
development, validation, and assessment of
methodologic tools or strategies. Evaluation
research assesses the effectiveness of a
program, policy, or procedure to assist
decision-makers in choosing a course of
action.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The use of mixed methods research is best
characterized by which of the following?
Decreasing
Increasing
Confusing
Being called into question
B
Feedback:
A growing trend in nursing research is the
planned collection and integration of
qualitative and quantitative data within single
studies or coordinated clusters of studies,
which is known as mixed methods research.
Which of the following is the key factor for
17. determining the design and method a
researcher will use?
The researchers' preference
The financial resources available
The research question
Sample size
C
Feedback:
The research question is key factor for
determining research design. A question that
is exploratory would indicate a qualitative
approach. A question that confirms or
examines causal effects would indicate a
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The financial resources available
The research question
Sample size
C
Feedback:
The research question is key factor for
determining research design. A question that
is exploratory would indicate a qualitative
approach. A question that confirms or
examines causal effects would indicate a
quantitative approach. Questions that are
exploratory and examine causal effects would
indicate a mixed methods approach.
Which of the following is most likely the
18. strongest argument for mixed method
research?
Pragmatism
Incrementality
Enhanced validity
Complementarity
A
Feedback:
Perhaps the strongest argument for MM
research is that some questions require mixed
methods. Pragmatism, a paradigm often
associated with MM research, provides a
basis for a position that has been stated as the
“dictatorship of the research question”
(Tashakkori & Teddlie, 2003, p. 21).
Pragmatist researchers consider that it is the
research question that should drive the
inquiry, and its design and methods. They
reject a forced choice between the traditional
postpositivists' and constructivists' modes of
inquiry.
Sequencing and prioritization are important
when reporting research. Which of the
19.
following is the correct notation for a
convergent parallel design study?.
QUAL + QUAN
QUAL → QUAN
QUAL(quan)
QUAN → qual
A
Feedback:
The purpose of a convergent parallel design
(also called a triangulation design) is to
obtain different, but complementary, data
about the central phenomenon under study.
The goal of this design is to converge on “the
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
QUAL → QUAN
QUAL(quan)
QUAN → qual
A
Feedback:
The purpose of a convergent parallel design
(also called a triangulation design) is to
obtain different, but complementary, data
about the central phenomenon under study.
The goal of this design is to converge on “the
truth” about a problem or phenomenon by
allowing the limitations of one approach to be
offset by the strengths of the other. In this
design, qualitative and quantitative data are
collected simultaneously, with equal priority
(QUAL + QUAN). In an embedded design,
one type of data is used in a supportive
capacity in a study based primarily on the
other data type. Either qualitative or
quantitative data can be dominant—although
qual is often supportive of QUAN in
embedded designs. Sequencing is often
concurrent. The notation for embedded
designs uses parentheses: QUAL(quan) or
QUAN(qual). Explanatory designs are
sequential designs with quantitative data
collected in the first phase, followed by
qualitative data collected in the second phase.
In explanatory designs, the quantitative strand
has priority—that is the design notation is
QUAN → qual . Exploratory designs are also
sequential MM designs, but qualitative data
are collected first. The design has as its
central premise the need for initial in-depth
exploration of a concept. Usually the first
phase focuses on detailed exploration of a
poorly understood phenomenon, and the
second phase is focused on measuring it or
classifying it. In an exploratory design, the
qualitative phase is typically dominant
(QUAL → quan), although in many studies
the two strands have equal priority (QUAL →
QUAN).
Nested sampling is a preferred sampling
20. technique used by many researchers for which
of the following reasons?
It reduces costs related to recruiting
participants.
It decreases the risk for bias.
Using overlapping samples can be
advantageous.
Only one group of people has to be recruited
for both qualitative and quantitative strands.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
Nested sampling is a preferred sampling
20. technique used by many researchers for which
of the following reasons?
It reduces costs related to recruiting
participants.
It decreases the risk for bias.
Using overlapping samples can be
advantageous.
Only one group of people has to be recruited
for both qualitative and quantitative strands.
C
Feedback:
A unique sampling issue in MM studies
concerns whether the same people will be in
both the qualitative and quantitative strands.
The best strategy depends on the study
purpose and the research design, but using
overlapping samples can be advantageous.
Indeed, a particularly popular strategy is a
nested approach in which a subset of
participants from the quantitative strand is
used in the qualitative strand. Nested
sampling does not necessarily reduce costs or
risk for bias. Moreover, only a subset of
participants from the quantitative strand are
used in the qualitative strand, so two groups
of people are still needed.
Evaluation research looks at the effectiveness
of a program, policy, or procedure to impact
21. decision-making. Which of the following lists
the three analysis components of an
evaluation?
Process, Impact, and Outcome analyses
Structure, Impact, and Outcome analyses
Impact, Process, and Economic analyses
Process, Efficacy, and Economic analyses
C
Feedback:
Evaluation provides the researcher with the
answer to the questions posed in the question.
It effectively evaluates the program through
impact, process, and economic analyses.
Which of the following most accurately
22. describes the triangulation design in mixed
methods research?
A design that uses multiple approaches in a
research study to offset limitations with
strengths
A design that features a dominant component
and a supportive component with concurrent
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following most accurately
22. describes the triangulation design in mixed
methods research?
A design that uses multiple approaches in a
research study to offset limitations with
strengths
A design that features a dominant component
and a supportive component with concurrent
data collection
A sequential design in which quantitative data
are collected in the first phase and qualitative
in the second phase
A sequential design in which qualitative data
are collected in the first phase and
quantitative in the second phase
A
Feedback:
The purpose of a convergent parallel design
(also called a triangulation design) is to
obtain different, but complementary, data
about the central phenomenon under study.
The goal of this design is to converge on “the
truth” about a problem or phenomenon by
allowing the limitations of one approach to be
offset by the strengths of the other. In this
design, qualitative and quantitative data are
collected simultaneously, with equal priority
(QUAL + QUAN). In an embedded design,
one type of data is used in a supportive
capacity in a study based primarily on the
other data type. Either qualitative or
quantitative data can be dominant—although
qual is often supportive of QUAN in
embedded designs. Sequencing is often
concurrent. Explanatory designs are
sequential designs with quantitative data
collected in the first phase, followed by
qualitative data collected in the second phase.
Exploratory designs are also sequential MM
designs, but qualitative data are collected
first.
Process analysis is the best choice for
23. research when the researcher would like to do
which of the following?
Assess a clinical intervention
Describe program implementation
Identify a net impact
Weigh a program's benefits against its
monetary costs
B
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Process analysis is the best choice for
23. research when the researcher would like to do
which of the following?
Assess a clinical intervention
Describe program implementation
Identify a net impact
Weigh a program's benefits against its
monetary costs
B
Feedback:
A process analysis is often undertaken to
obtain descriptive information about the
process by which a program gets
implemented and how it actually functions. In
an impact analysis component of an
evaluation, researchers seek to identify the
program's net impacts, that is, impacts that
can be attributed to the program, over and
above the effects of usual care. Program
evaluations may also include an economic (or
cost) analysis to assess whether the program's
benefits outweigh its monetary costs. Clinical
trials are designed to assess clinical
interventions.
24.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following statements most
accurately describes methodologic research?
A distinctive process of planning, developing,
testing, and disseminating interventions.
Systematic analysis of data from a previous
study to gain new knowledge of a given
phenomena
Investigation of new instrument development
necessitated by the need for reliable outcome
measures
Research that obtains quantitative information
about the prevalence, distribution, and
interrelations of variables within a population
C
Feedback:
Methodologic research entails investigations
of the methods for conducting rigorous
research. Methodologic studies address the
development, validation, and evaluation of
research tools or methods. Secondary analysis
involves using data gathered in a previous
study to address new questions. Intervention
research is a distinctive process of planning,
developing, testing, and disseminating
interventions. A survey obtains quantitative
information about the prevalence,
distribution, and interrelations of variables
Research that obtains quantitative information
about the prevalence, distribution, and
interrelations of variables within a population
C
Feedback:
Methodologic research entails investigations
of the methods for conducting rigorous
research. Methodologic studies address the
development, validation, and evaluation of
research tools or methods. Secondary analysis
involves using data gathered in a previous
study to address new questions. Intervention
research is a distinctive process of planning,
developing, testing, and disseminating
interventions. A survey obtains quantitative
information about the prevalence,
distribution, and interrelations of variables
within a population.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Nursing intervention research involves phases
for complex interventions. Which of the
25.
following indicates the correct order of these
phases?
Effectiveness research, basic developmental
research, pilot research, efficacy research
Basic developmental research, effectiveness
research, pilot research, efficacy research
Pilot research, effectiveness research, basic
developmental research, efficacy research
Basic developmental research, pilot research,
efficacy research, effectiveness research
D
Feedback:
Similar to clinical trials, nursing intervention
research that involves the development of a
complex intervention involves several phases:
(1) basic developmental research; (2) pilot
research; (3) efficacy research; and (4)
effectiveness research.
26.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following are characteristic of
methodologic research? Select all that apply.
Methodologic research addresses the
development, validation, and evaluation of
research tools or methods.
Methodologic research focuses on
development of new instruments.
Methodologic research has piqued the interest
of nurse researchers.
Methodologic research obtains quantitative
information about the prevalence,
distribution, and interrelations of variables
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Methodologic research addresses the
development, validation, and evaluation of
research tools or methods.
Methodologic research focuses on
development of new instruments.
Methodologic research has piqued the interest
of nurse researchers.
Methodologic research obtains quantitative
information about the prevalence,
distribution, and interrelations of variables
within a population.
A, B, C
Feedback:
Methodologic research entails investigations
of the methods for conducting rigorous
research. Methodologic studies address the
development, validation, and evaluation of
research tools or methods. The growing
demands for sound and reliable outcome
measures, for rigorous tests of interventions,
and for sophisticated procedures for obtaining
data have led to an increased interest in
methodologic research by nurse researchers.
Many methodologic studies focus on the
development of new instruments. Survey
research, not methodologic research, obtains
quantitative information about the prevalence,
distribution, and interrelations of variables
within a population.
Which of the following are true of the mixed
27. methods research design? Select all that
apply.
Qualitative and quantitative methods are
complementary and avoid limitations of a
single approach to research.
A mix of qualitative and quantitative research
should be used in all research studies.
Complexity of the subject may require the use
of both paradigms to ensure rigorous research.
Triangulation allows the researcher to the
alternative interpretations of the data which
help shape the result.
A, C, D
Feedback:
Qualitative and quantitative approaches are
complementary. By using mixed methods,
researchers can possibly avoid the limitations
of a single approach. Triangulation of
methods can provide opportunities for testing
alternative interpretations of the data, and for
examining the extent to which the context
helped to shape the results. The complexity of
D)
Ans:
Triangulation allows the researcher to the
alternative interpretations of the data which
help shape the result.
A, C, D
Feedback:
Qualitative and quantitative approaches are
complementary. By using mixed methods,
researchers can possibly avoid the limitations
of a single approach. Triangulation of
methods can provide opportunities for testing
alternative interpretations of the data, and for
examining the extent to which the context
helped to shape the results. The complexity of
a problem may require the use of both
qualitative and quantitative approaches.
Mixed methods research is effective for many,
but not all, studies.
CH 19
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Systematic reviews are the cornerstone of
which of the following?
Evidence-based practice
Evidence hierarchies
Meta-analyses
Primary studies
A
Feedback:
Systematic reviews, a cornerstone of
evidence-based practice (EBP), are inquiries
that follow many of the same rules as those
for primary studies, i.e., original research
investigations. Evidence-based practice relies
on rigorous integration of research evidence
on a topic through systematic reviews of
quantitative findings and metasyntheses of
qualitative findings. Meta-analyses of
randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are at the
pinnacle of traditional evidence hierarchies.
The unit of analysis in a meta-analysis is
which of the following?
Individual study participants
A primary qualitative study
A primary quantitative study
Prior systematic reviews
C
Feedback:
The unit of analysis in a meta-analysis is a
primary quantitative study, whereas the unit
of analysis in a meta-synthesis is a primary
qualitative study. The unit of analysis in a
primary study is an individual study
participant. Prior systematic reviews are not
the unit of analysis in a meta-analysis.
The “fruit” problem in meta-analysis refers to
which of the following?
Including studies in the analysis from
multiple disciplines
Including both unpublished and published
reports in the analysis
Including both qualitative and quantitative
findings in the analysis
Including studies that have addressed
different research questions
D
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
which of the following?
Including studies in the analysis from
multiple disciplines
Including both unpublished and published
reports in the analysis
Including both qualitative and quantitative
findings in the analysis
Including studies that have addressed
different research questions
D
Feedback:
Meta-analyses should not be about fruit—i.e.,
a broad encompassing category—but rather
about specific questions that have been
addressed in multiple studies—i.e., “apples,”
or, even better, “Granny Smith apples.” None
of the other answers refers to the “fruit” or
category problem in meta-analyses.
Which of the following activities are normally
4. undertaken as part of doing a meta-analysis?
Select all that apply.
Obtaining the original data set from primary
study researchers
Selecting a sample of studies
Systematically extracting and recording data
Evaluating the quality of studies
B, C, D
Feedback:
Systematic reviews often involve statistical
integration of findings through meta-analysis,
a procedure whose advantages include
objectivity and enhanced power. The steps in
both quantitative and qualitative integration
are similar and involve the following:
formulating the problem, designing the study
(including establishing sampling criteria),
searching the literature for a sample of
primary studies but not obtaining the original
data set from primary study researchers,
evaluating study quality, extracting and
encoding data for analysis, analyzing the data,
and reporting the findings.
Searching for studies in the grey literature
5. represents a reviewer's effort to do which of
the following? Select all that apply.
Counteract the effect of biases against the null
hypothesis
Increase sample size and therefore have a
more comprehensive evidence base
Minimize the risk of publication bias
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Searching for studies in the grey literature
5. represents a reviewer's effort to do which of
the following? Select all that apply.
Counteract the effect of biases against the null
hypothesis
Increase sample size and therefore have a
more comprehensive evidence base
Minimize the risk of publication bias
Include only published, peer-reviewed studies
A, B, C
Feedback:
There is no consensus on whether integrations
should include the grey literature—i.e.,
unpublished reports; in quantitative studies, a
concern is that there is a bias against the null
hypothesis, a publication bias stemming from
the underrepresentation of nonsignificant
findings in the published reports. On the other
hand, some people avoid the grey literature
and restrict their sample to reports in peerreviewed journals, arguing that the peer
review system is an important, tried-and-true
screen for findings worthy of consideration as
evidence.
A viable approach to addressing the quality of
6. primary studies included in a meta-analysis is
which of the following?
Ignoring the problem of quality by using all
studies regardless of rigor
Doing sensitivity analyses to assess if the
effects change when low-quality studies are
included.
Using a random effects model rather than a
fixed effects model.
Using a forest plot to assess the degree to
which study quality is related to effect size.
B
Feedback:
Quality assessments (which may involve
formal quantitative ratings of methodologic
rigor) are sometimes used to exclude weak
studies from reviews, but they can also be
used to differentially weight studies or in
sensitivity analyses to determine if including
or excluding weaker studies changes
conclusions.
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
fixed effects model.
Using a forest plot to assess the degree to
which study quality is related to effect size.
B
Feedback:
Quality assessments (which may involve
formal quantitative ratings of methodologic
rigor) are sometimes used to exclude weak
studies from reviews, but they can also be
used to differentially weight studies or in
sensitivity analyses to determine if including
or excluding weaker studies changes
conclusions.
When heterogeneity of effects is high
7. (statistically significant), the preferred metaanalytic approach is which of the following?
Abandon efforts to undertake a meta-analysis
Use a fixed effects analytic model
Use a random effects analytic model
Use a forest plot to display the extensiveness
of heterogeneity to readers of the report
C
Feedback:
Statistical heterogeneity (diversity in effects
across studies) is a major issue in metaanalysis, and affects decisions about using a
fixed effects model (which assumes a single
true effect size) or a random effects model
(which assumes a distribution of effects).
Heterogeneity can be examined using a forest
plot.
An effect size index that can be used in meta8. analyses includes which of the following?
Select all that apply.
Standardized mean difference or d
Intensity effect size
Pearson's correlation coefficient (r)
The odds ratio (OR)
A, C, D
Feedback:
An intensity effect size is commonly used in
metasyntheses, not meta-analyses, and
indicates the concentration of findings within
each report. Meta-analyses depend on the
calculation of an index that encapsulates in a
single number the relationship between the
independent and outcome variable in each
study. Cohen's d, the effect size index most
often used, transforms all effects into standard
deviation units (Chapter 12). When the
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Intensity effect size
Pearson's correlation coefficient (r)
The odds ratio (OR)
A, C, D
Feedback:
An intensity effect size is commonly used in
metasyntheses, not meta-analyses, and
indicates the concentration of findings within
each report. Meta-analyses depend on the
calculation of an index that encapsulates in a
single number the relationship between the
independent and outcome variable in each
study. Cohen's d, the effect size index most
often used, transforms all effects into standard
deviation units (Chapter 12). When the
outcomes in the primary studies are
dichotomies, meta-analysts have a choice of
effect index, including the odds ratio (OR)
and risk ratio (RR). In nonexperimental
studies, a common effect size statistic is
Pearson's r, which indicates the magnitude
and direction of effect.
A forest plot portrays information about
9. which of the following for each study in the
meta-analysis?
95% CIs around an effect size
Number of study participants
Quality assessment scores
Sample size and standard errors
A
Feedback:
A forest plot graphs the effect size for each
study, together with the 95% CI around each
estimate, not the number of study participants,
quality assessment scores, or sample size and
standard errors.
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following best defines
metasyntheses?
Involve interpretation as well as integration
Involve meta-summaries
Exclude studies judged to be low on
trustworthiness
Rely primarily on phenomenological primary
studies
A
Feedback:
Metasyntheses are more than just summaries
of prior qualitative findings (i.e., integration);
they involve a discovery of essential features
of a body of findings and a transformation
Exclude studies judged to be low on
trustworthiness
Rely primarily on phenomenological primary
studies
A
Feedback:
Metasyntheses are more than just summaries
of prior qualitative findings (i.e., integration);
they involve a discovery of essential features
of a body of findings and a transformation
that yields new interpretations. Metasyntheses
can build upon meta-summaries, but require
findings that are more interpretive, i.e., from
reports that are characterized as syntheses. A
researcher may decide to exclude studies in
which the reported findings are not
adequately supported with direct quotes from
participants. In a meta-analysis systematic
review, the sample consists of the primary
studies that have addressed the research
question, not necessarily phenomenological
primary studies.
C)
D)
Ans:
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A widely-used approach to metasynthesis was
developed by whom?
Polit and Beck
Noblit and Hare
Glaser and Strauss
Sackett and Cochrane
B
Feedback:
Noblit and Hare (1988), not Glaser and
Strauss or Sackett and Cochrane, whose
approach to integration is called metaethnography, argued that integration should be
interpretive and not aggregative—i.e., that the
synthesis should focus on constructing
interpretations rather than descriptions. Polit
and Beck are the authors of the textbook.
Paterson and colleagues developed an
approach to metasynthesis that includes which
12.
of the following components? Select all that
apply.
Meta-data analysis
Meta-method
Meta-ethnography
Meta-theory
A, B, D
Feedback:
The method developed by Paterson and a
team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The unit of analysis in computing a frequency
13. effect size, using the Sandelowski-Barroso
approach, is which of the following?
An individual study
A study participant
A mean value
A theme or qualitative finding
D
Feedback:
Studies are called summaries if they yield
descriptive synopses of the qualitative data,
usually with lists and frequencies of themes,
without any conceptual reframing, not an
individual study, a study participant, or mean
value.
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
of the following components? Select all that
apply.
Meta-data analysis
Meta-method
Meta-ethnography
Meta-theory
A, B, D
Feedback:
The method developed by Paterson and a
team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves
three components: meta-data analysis, metamethod, and meta-theory, not metaethnography. Meta-ethnography is Noblit and
Hare's approach to integration.
Which of the following is a cornerstone of
evidence-based practice?
Systematic reviews
Secondary study reports
Meta-analysis of qualitative studies
Narrative integration
A
Feedback:
Systematic reviews, a cornerstone of
evidence-based practice (EBP), are inquiries
that follow many of the same rules as those
for primary studies, i.e., original research
investigations. Secondary study reports are
not the basis of evidence-based practice;
primary studies, such as journal articles, are
the basis. Meta-analyses are associated with
quantitative studies, not qualitative ones.
About 20 years ago, systematic reviews
usually involved narrative integration, using
nonstatistical methods to synthesize research
findings. Narrative reviews continue to be
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Secondary study reports
Meta-analysis of qualitative studies
Narrative integration
A
Feedback:
Systematic reviews, a cornerstone of
evidence-based practice (EBP), are inquiries
that follow many of the same rules as those
for primary studies, i.e., original research
investigations. Secondary study reports are
not the basis of evidence-based practice;
primary studies, such as journal articles, are
the basis. Meta-analyses are associated with
quantitative studies, not qualitative ones.
About 20 years ago, systematic reviews
usually involved narrative integration, using
nonstatistical methods to synthesize research
findings. Narrative reviews continue to be
published in the nursing literature, but metaanalytic techniques that use statistical
integration are being increasingly used.
Meta-analysis differs from meta-synthesis in
15. that meta-analysis studies use which of the
following? Select all that apply.
Objectivity in drawing conclusions regarding
a body of evidence
Combining phenomena into a transformed
whole
Subjective decisions about how much weight
to give findings from different studies
A measure of the probability of detecting a
true relationship between variables
A, D
Feedback:
Meta-analysis offers a simple advantage as an
integration method: objectivity. It is difficult
to draw objective conclusions about a body of
evidence using narrative methods when
results are disparate, as they often are.
Narrative reviewers make subjective
decisions about how much weight to give
findings from different studies, and so
different reviewers may reach different
conclusions about the evidence in reviewing
the same studies. Meta-analysts also make
decisions, but the decisions are explicit and
open to scrutiny. Another advantage of metaanalysis concerns power, i.e., the probability
of detecting a true relationship between
variables (Chapter 12). Schreiber and
colleagues (1997) offered a definition that has
often been used for what metasynthesis is,
“…the bringing together and breaking down
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
to give findings from different studies
A measure of the probability of detecting a
true relationship between variables
A, D
Feedback:
Meta-analysis offers a simple advantage as an
integration method: objectivity. It is difficult
to draw objective conclusions about a body of
evidence using narrative methods when
results are disparate, as they often are.
Narrative reviewers make subjective
decisions about how much weight to give
findings from different studies, and so
different reviewers may reach different
conclusions about the evidence in reviewing
the same studies. Meta-analysts also make
decisions, but the decisions are explicit and
open to scrutiny. Another advantage of metaanalysis concerns power, i.e., the probability
of detecting a true relationship between
variables (Chapter 12). Schreiber and
colleagues (1997) offered a definition that has
often been used for what metasynthesis is,
“…the bringing together and breaking down
of findings, examining them, discovering the
essential features and, in some way,
combining phenomena into a transformed
whole” (p. 314).
Which of the following not only yields
information about the existence of a
16.
relationship between variables in many
studies but also an estimate of its magnitude?
Effect size
Problem formulation
Grey literature
Subgroup analysis
A
Feedback:
Effect sizes are averaged across studies,
yielding information about not only the
existence of a relationship between variables
in many studies, but an estimate of its
magnitude. Problem formulation is the first
step in both meta-analysis and metasynthesis
studies and involves establishing the research
question. Grey literature consists of studies
with a more limited distribution, such as
dissertations, unpublished reports, and so on.
One strategy for exploring moderating effects
on effect size is to do subgroup analyses,
which involve splitting effect size information
into distinct categorical groups—for example,
men and women.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Problem formulation
Grey literature
Subgroup analysis
A
Feedback:
Effect sizes are averaged across studies,
yielding information about not only the
existence of a relationship between variables
in many studies, but an estimate of its
magnitude. Problem formulation is the first
step in both meta-analysis and metasynthesis
studies and involves establishing the research
question. Grey literature consists of studies
with a more limited distribution, such as
dissertations, unpublished reports, and so on.
One strategy for exploring moderating effects
on effect size is to do subgroup analyses,
which involve splitting effect size information
into distinct categorical groups—for example,
men and women.
It is appropriate to use statistical integration
17. when which of the following components are
nearly identical across studies?
Independent variable, dependent variable, and
study populations
Statistical methods, population sample,
hypotheses
Dependent variable, research design, theory
explication
Available evidence, novel interpretation of
findings, population sample
A
Feedback:
Reviewers need to decide whether it is
appropriate to use statistical integration. One
basic criterion is that the research question
being addressed should be nearly identical
across studies. This means that the
independent and dependent variables, and the
study populations, are sufficiently similar to
merit integration.
Which of the following is a condition under
18. which meta-analysis would be inappropriate
to conduct?
Highly conflicting results among studies
Research questions across studies being
nearly identical
A large number of studies to draw from
Independent variables are similar across
studies
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Which of the following is a condition under
18. which meta-analysis would be inappropriate
to conduct?
Highly conflicting results among studies
Research questions across studies being
nearly identical
A large number of studies to draw from
Independent variables are similar across
studies
A
Feedback:
Reviewers need to decide whether it is
appropriate to use statistical integration. One
basic criterion is that the research question
being addressed should be nearly identical
across studies. This means that the
independent and dependent variables, and the
study populations, are sufficiently similar to
merit integration. A second criterion concerns
whether there is a sufficient base of
knowledge for statistical integration. If there
are only a few studies, or if all of the studies
are weakly designed and harbor extensive
bias, it usually would not make sense to
compute an “average” effect. One final issue
concerns the consistency of the evidence.
When the same hypothesis has been tested in
multiple studies and the results are highly
conflicting, meta-analysis is likely not
appropriate.
Which of the following is most accurate
19. regarding researchers conducting
metasyntheses?
They often conduct original studies on the
same topic as the metasynthesis they are
conducting.
They perform little advance planning, as it is
not needed in qualitative research.
They make sampling decisions at the end of
the study.
They use only peer-reviewed journals in the
analysis.
A
Feedback:
Meta-analyses often are undertaken by
researchers who did not do one of the primary
studies in the review. Metasyntheses, by
contrast, are often done by researchers whose
area of interest has led them to do both
original studies and metasyntheses on the
same topic. Like a quantitative systematic
C)
the study.
They use only peer-reviewed journals in the
analysis.
A
Feedback:
Meta-analyses often are undertaken by
researchers who did not do one of the primary
studies in the review. Metasyntheses, by
contrast, are often done by researchers whose
area of interest has led them to do both
original studies and metasyntheses on the
same topic. Like a quantitative systematic
review, a metasynthesis requires considerable
advance planning. Also like meta-analysts,
metasynthesists must also make upfront
sampling decisions. For example, they face
the same issue of opting to include only
findings from peer-reviewed journals in the
analysis.
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Integrating and analyzing qualitative findings
20. from multiple research studies is called which
of the following?
Systematic review
Grey literature
Meta-analysis
Metasynthesis
D
Feedback:
Metasynthesis is the bringing together and
breaking down of findings from qualitative
research, examining them, discovering the
essential features, and, in some way,
combining phenomena into a transformed
whole.
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Analysis of grey literature includes which
forms of research?
Dissertations, unpublished reports
Peer-reviewed journals, funded research
Systematic reviews, original research
Research reports from electronic databases
only
A
Feedback:
Reviewers must decide whether their review
will cover published and unpublished
findings. There is some disagreement about
whether reviewers should limit their sample
to published studies, or should cast as wide a
net as possible and include grey literature—
that is, studies with a more limited
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Systematic reviews, original research
Research reports from electronic databases
only
A
Feedback:
Reviewers must decide whether their review
will cover published and unpublished
findings. There is some disagreement about
whether reviewers should limit their sample
to published studies, or should cast as wide a
net as possible and include grey literature—
that is, studies with a more limited
distribution, such as dissertations,
unpublished reports, and so on. Some people
restrict their sample to reports in peerreviewed journals, arguing that the peer
review system is an important, tried-and-true
screen for findings worthy of consideration as
evidence.
Meta-analysts depend on the calculation of an
index that encapsulates in a single number the
relationship between the independent and
22.
dependent variables in each study. An
example of this calculation is which of the
following?
Inclusion criteria
Forest plot
Cohen's d
Moderator analyses
C
Feedback:
Cohen's d, the effect size index most often
used, transforms all effects into standard
deviation units (Chapter 12). If d were
computed to be .50, it means that the group
mean for one group was one-half a standard
deviation higher than the mean for the other
group—regardless of the original
measurement scale. Visual inspection of
heterogeneity usually relies on the
construction of forest plots, which are often
included in meta-analytic reports. A forest
plot graphs the effect size for each study,
together with the 95% CI around each
estimate. Inclusion criteria are the
characteristics that a primary study must
possess to be included in the meta-analysis.
One strategy for exploring moderating effects
on effect size is to do subgroup analyses
(moderator analyses), which involve splitting
effect size information into distinct
categorical groups—for example, men and
women.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Forest plot
Cohen's d
Moderator analyses
C
Feedback:
Cohen's d, the effect size index most often
used, transforms all effects into standard
deviation units (Chapter 12). If d were
computed to be .50, it means that the group
mean for one group was one-half a standard
deviation higher than the mean for the other
group—regardless of the original
measurement scale. Visual inspection of
heterogeneity usually relies on the
construction of forest plots, which are often
included in meta-analytic reports. A forest
plot graphs the effect size for each study,
together with the 95% CI around each
estimate. Inclusion criteria are the
characteristics that a primary study must
possess to be included in the meta-analysis.
One strategy for exploring moderating effects
on effect size is to do subgroup analyses
(moderator analyses), which involve splitting
effect size information into distinct
categorical groups—for example, men and
women.
Analyzing heterogeneity in meta-analysis can
23. be visually attained with which of the
following?
Cohen's d
A forest plot
Inclusion criteria
Moderator analyses
B
Feedback:
Visual inspection of heterogeneity usually
relies on the construction of forest plots,
which are often included in meta-analytic
reports. A forest plot graphs the effect size for
each study, together with the 95% CI around
each estimate. Cohen's d, the effect size index
most often used, transforms all effects into
standard deviation units (Chapter 12). If d
were computed to be .50, it means that the
group mean for one group was one-half a
standard deviation higher than the mean for
the other group—regardless of the original
measurement scale. Inclusion criteria are the
characteristics that a primary study must
possess to be included in the meta-analysis.
One strategy for exploring moderating effects
on effect size is to do subgroup analyses
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A forest plot
Inclusion criteria
Moderator analyses
B
Feedback:
Visual inspection of heterogeneity usually
relies on the construction of forest plots,
which are often included in meta-analytic
reports. A forest plot graphs the effect size for
each study, together with the 95% CI around
each estimate. Cohen's d, the effect size index
most often used, transforms all effects into
standard deviation units (Chapter 12). If d
were computed to be .50, it means that the
group mean for one group was one-half a
standard deviation higher than the mean for
the other group—regardless of the original
measurement scale. Inclusion criteria are the
characteristics that a primary study must
possess to be included in the meta-analysis.
One strategy for exploring moderating effects
on effect size is to do subgroup analyses
(moderator analyses), which involve splitting
effect size information into distinct
categorical groups—for example, men and
women.
In this research question for a systematic
review, the researchers use which approach to
determining the answer to the question: Are
24.
clinical outcomes of nurse-led care for
patients with rheumatoid arthritis similar to
those produced by usual care?
Randomized control trial
Metasynthesis
Meta-analysis
Not a researchable question
A
Feedback:
Questions for a meta-analysis are usually
narrow, focusing, for example, on a particular
type of intervention and specific outcomes.
Key constructs should be conceptually
defined—the definitions are critical for
deciding whether a primary study qualifies for
the synthesis. A randomized controlled trial is
not a systematic review. Research questions in
metasyntheses tend to be broader, so that they
can fully capture the phenomenon of interest.
The question is researchable.
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Metasynthesis
Meta-analysis
Not a researchable question
A
Feedback:
Questions for a meta-analysis are usually
narrow, focusing, for example, on a particular
type of intervention and specific outcomes.
Key constructs should be conceptually
defined—the definitions are critical for
deciding whether a primary study qualifies for
the synthesis. A randomized controlled trial is
not a systematic review. Research questions in
metasyntheses tend to be broader, so that they
can fully capture the phenomenon of interest.
The question is researchable.
25.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
Meta-analysts perform subgroup analyses to
accomplish which of the following?
Utilize a fixed effects model to ascertain
heterogeneity
Address publication bias and compute a failsafe number
Determine if exclusion criteria changes the
results in a study
Split the effect size information from studies
into distinct categorical groups
D
Feedback:
One strategy for exploring moderating effects
on effect size is to do subgroup analyses,
which involve splitting effect size information
into distinct categorical groups—for example,
men and women. Effects for studies with allmale (or predominantly male) samples could
be compared to those for studies with all or
predominantly female samples. Subgroup
analyses are not performed to ascertain
heterogeneity, to address publication bias, or
to determine the effects of exclusion criteria.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
In metasyntheses, various methods are
employed for interpretive analysis. One
method developed by Paterson and a team of
26. Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three
components: meta-data analysis, metamethod, and meta-theory. A meta-data
analysis involves which of the following?
The study of the results of reported research
in a specific substantive area by analyzing the
“processed data”
The study of the methodologic rigor of the
studies included in the meta-synthesis
The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings
on which the studies are grounded
The splitting of effect size information into
distinct categorical groups
A
Feedback:
A meta-data analysis involves the study of the
results of reported research in a specific
substantive area by analyzing the “processed
data.” Meta-method is the study of the
methodologic rigor of the studies included in
the meta-synthesis. Lastly, meta-theory refers
to the analysis of the theoretical
underpinnings on which the studies are
grounded. Subgroup analysis involves
splitting effect size information into distinct
categorical groups.
In metasyntheses, various methods are
employed for interpretive analysis. One
method developed by Paterson and a team of
27. Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three
components: meta-data analysis, metamethod, and meta-theory. Meta-method
involves which of the following?
The study of the results of reported research
in a specific substantive area by analyzing the
“processed data”
The splitting of effect size information into
distinct categorical groups
The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings
on which the studies are grounded
The study of the methodologic rigor of the
studies included in the meta-synthesis
D
Feedback:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ans:
The study of the results of reported research
in a specific substantive area by analyzing the
“processed data”
The splitting of effect size information into
distinct categorical groups
The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings
on which the studies are grounded
The study of the methodologic rigor of the
studies included in the meta-synthesis
D
Feedback:
Meta-method is the study of the methodologic
rigor of the studies included in the metasynthesis. A meta-data analysis involves the
study of the results of reported research in a
specific substantive area by analyzing the
“processed data.” Lastly, meta-theory refers to
the analysis of the theoretical underpinnings
on which the studies are grounded. Subgroup
analysis involves splitting effect size
information into distinct categorical groups.
In metasyntheses, various methods are
employed for interpretive analysis. One
method developed by Paterson and a team of
28. Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three
components: meta-data analysis, metamethod, and meta-theory. Meta-theory
analysis involves which of the following?
The study of the results of reported research
in a specific substantive area by analyzing the
“processed data”
The splitting of effect size information into
distinct categorical groups
The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings
on which the studies are grounded
The study of the methodologic rigor of the
studies included in the meta-synthesis
C
Feedback:
Meta-theory refers to the analysis of the
theoretical underpinnings on which the
studies are grounded. A meta-data analysis
involves the study of the results of reported
research in a specific substantive area by
analyzing the “processed data.” Meta-method
is the study of the methodologic rigor of the
studies included in the meta-synthesis.
Subgroup analysis involves splitting effect
size information into distinct categorical
groups.
C)
D)
Ans:
on which the studies are grounded
The study of the methodologic rigor of the
studies included in the meta-synthesis
C
Feedback:
Meta-theory refers to the analysis of the
theoretical underpinnings on which the
studies are grounded. A meta-data analysis
involves the study of the results of reported
research in a specific substantive area by
analyzing the “processed data.” Meta-method
is the study of the methodologic rigor of the
studies included in the meta-synthesis.
Subgroup analysis involves splitting effect
size information into distinct categorical
groups.