HUMAN ORGANISM
Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of life?
a. Organization
b. Reproduction
c. Communication
d. Growth
Answer: c. Communication
The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts is
called:
a. Physiology
b. Histology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy
Answer: d. Anatomy
What is the term for a group of organs that cooperate to
accomplish a common purpose?
a. Tissue
b. Organism
c. Organ System
d. Organ
Answer: c. Organ System
Which of the following is NOT a major organ system in the
human body?
a. Respiratory System
b. Skeletal System
c. Digestive System
d. Circulatory System
Answer: a. Respiratory System
The process of differentiating cells from generalized to
specialized forms is known as:
a. Reproduction
b. Growth
c. Development
d. Differentiation
Answer: d. Differentiation
Which directional term refers to a position closer to the point of
attachment or origin?
a. Distal
b. Proximal
c. Medial
d. Lateral
Answer: b. Proximal
In which plane does lateral flexion of the trunk occur?
a. Sagittal Plane
b. Transverse Plane
c. Frontal Plane
d. Median Plane
Answer: c. Frontal Plane
What is the term for the ability to use energy to perform vital
functions?
a. Metabolism
b. Responsiveness
c. Growth
d. Organization
Answer: a. Metabolism
The study of the processes and functions of living things is
known as:
a. Histology
b. Anatomy
c. Pathophysiology
d. Physiology
Answer: d. Physiology
What is the ideal normal value around which homeostasis is
maintained called?
a. Set Point
b. Variable
c. Normal Range
d. Effector
Answer: a. Set Point
Which homeostatic control mechanism resists deviations from
the set point?
a. Positive Feedback Mechanism
b. Negative Feedback Mechanism
c. Feedforward Mechanism
d. Reactive Mechanism
Answer: b. Negative Feedback Mechanism
Which of the following is NOT a serous membrane-lined cavity?
a. Pericardial Cavity
b. Pleural Cavity
c. Abdominal Cavity
d. Cranial Cavity
Answer: d. Cranial Cavity
Which body cavity is enclosed by the bones of the pelvis and
contains the urinary bladder and reproductive organs?
a. Thoracic Cavity
b. Abdominal Cavity
c. Pelvic Cavity
d. Pericardial Cavity
Answer: c. Pelvic Cavity
What are the serous membranes that anchor organs to the body
wall called?
a. Mesenteries
b. Ligaments
c. Tendons
d. Fascia
Answer: a. Mesenteries
Which term describes the movement of a body part around its
long axis?
a. Circumduction
b. Rotation
c. Flexion
d. Extension
Answer: b. Rotation
In which plane does a transverse or cross-sectional cut occur?
a. Sagittal Plane
b. Median Plane
c. Transverse Plane
d. Frontal Plane
Answer: c. Transverse Plane
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life?
a. Responsiveness
b. Homeostasis
c. Reproduction
d. Stagnation
Answer: d. Stagnation
The study of external features that serve as landmarks for
locating deeper structures is known as:
a. Anatomic Imaging
b. Systemic Anatomy
c. Surface Anatomy
d. Cellular Physiology
Answer: c. Surface Anatomy
Which major organ system is responsible for regulating body
temperature through sweating and shivering?
a. Respiratory System
b. Digestive System
c. Nervous System
d. Integumentary System
Answer: d. Integumentary System
What is the term for the existence and maintenance of a relatively
constant internal environment within the body?
a. Metabolism
b. Homeostasis
c. Responsiveness
d. Development
Answer: b. Homeostasis
Which directional term refers to movement toward the body's
midline?
a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Proximal
d. Distal
Answer: b. Medial
Which level of structural organization involves how atoms
interact and combine to form molecules?
a. Organ Level
b. Chemical Level
c. Tissue Level
d. Cellular Level
Answer: b. Chemical Level
The term "ana" in anatomy means:
a. To dissect
b. To cut apart
c. Nature
d. The study of
Answer: a. To dissect
The scientific discipline that investigates the structure of the
body is called:
a. Physiology
b. Histology
c. Pathology
d. Anatomy
Answer: d. Anatomy
Which major organ system includes the heart, blood vessels, and
blood?
a. Respiratory System
b. Circulatory System
c. Nervous System
d. Muscular System
Answer: b. Circulatory System
Which directional term refers to movement away from the midline
of the body?
a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Proximal
d. Distal
Answer: a. Lateral
Which homeostatic control mechanism increases the deviation
from the set point?
a. Negative Feedback Mechanism
b. Positive Feedback Mechanism
c. Feedforward Mechanism
d. Reactive Mechanism
Answer: b. Positive Feedback Mechanism
The term "tomy" in anatomy means:
a. To dissect
b. To cut apart
c. Nature
d. The study of
Answer: b. To cut apart
Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of life?
a. Growth
b. Development
c. Reproduction
d. Motion
Answer: d. Motion
Which major organ system includes the skin and its
appendages?
a. Muscular System
b. Respiratory System
c. Integumentary System
d. Endocrine System
Answer: c. Integumentary System
What is the term for a cut through the long axis of an organ?
a. Transverse Section
b. Cross Section
c. Longitudinal Section
d. Sagittal Section
Answer: c. Longitudinal Section
The study of the processes and functions of living things is
known as:
a. Histology
b. Anatomy
c. Pathophysiology
d. Physiology
Answer: d. Physiology
What is the term for the ability to sense changes in the
environment and make adjustments to maintain life?
a. Metabolism
b. Responsiveness
c. Growth
d. Organization
Answer: b. Responsiveness
Which term describes the movement of a body part toward the
midline of the body?
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Flexion
d. Extension
Answer: b. Adduction
What is the term for a group of similar cells with the same
function?
a. Chemical Level
b. Cellular Level
c. Tissue Level
d. Organ Level
Answer: c. Tissue Level
CELL
What is cell physiology primarily concerned with?
a. Cell division
b. The study of cell structure
c. Activities that keep a cell alive
d. The study of cell genetics
Answer: c. Activities that keep a cell alive
Osmosis involves the movement of which substance?
a. Solvent
b. Solute
c. Protein
d. Enzyme
Answer: a. Solvent
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of osmotic
solutions?
a. Isotonic
b. Hypotonic
c. Hypertonic
d. Isosmotic
Answer: d. Isosmotic
Diffusion is the net movement of particles from an area of
__________ concentration to __________ concentration.
a. Lower; higher
b. Equal; higher
c. Higher; lower
d. Higher; equal
Answer: c. Higher; lower
What type of diffusion does not require the help of protein
channels?
a. Passive Diffusion
b. Facilitated Diffusion
c. Osmosis
d. Active Transport
Answer: a. Passive Diffusion
What is the primary energy source used in active transport?
a. Glucose
b. Oxygen
c. ATP
d. Sodium
Answer: c. ATP
Which of the following is NOT one of the main types of active
transport?
a. Sodium-Potassium Pump
b. Endocytosis
c. Exocytosis
d. Simple Diffusion
Answer: d. Simple Diffusion
Which type of cell transport is responsible for transporting large
particles or solids into the cell?
a. Pinocytosis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Exocytosis
d. Simple Diffusion
Answer: b. Phagocytosis
Which type of cell transport involves depositing materials from
inside the cell to the outside?
a. Endocytosis
b. Exocytosis
c. Facilitated Diffusion
d. Active Transport
Answer: b. Exocytosis
Passive transport involves the movement of substances across
cell membranes __________.
a. With the use of energy
b. Against a concentration gradient
c. Without the need for energy input
d. Through protein channels only
Answer: c. Without the need for energy input
Which type of cell division results in two identical daughter
cells?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Cytokinesis
d. Replication
Answer: a. Mitosis
During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes condense and
shorten into chromatids?
a. Interphase
b. Prophase
c. Metaphase
d. Anaphase
Answer: b. Prophase
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number from diploid (2n) to
haploid (n) during which phase?
a. Prophase I
b. Metaphase I
c. Anaphase I
d. Telophase I
Answer: d. Telophase I
What is the main purpose of the first meiotic division?
a. To create identical daughter cells
b. To reduce chromosome number by half
c. To produce haploid cells
d. To create genetically diverse daughter cells
Answer: b. To reduce chromosome number by half
Which type of cell division is responsible for the formation of
mature gametes (sperm and ova)?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Cytokinesis
d. Replication
Answer: b. Meiosis
What is the period between the beginning of one cell division and
the beginning of the next cell division called?
a. Mitotic Phase
b. Interphase
c. Cell Cycle
d. Replication Phase
Answer: c. Cell Cycle
Which type of cell division involves the formation of two haploid
(n chromosome) daughter cells from a diploid (2n chromosome)
parent cell?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Cytokinesis
d. Replication
Answer: b. Meiosis
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a. Cytokinesis
b. G1 Phase
c. S Phase
d. G2 Phase
Answer: c. S Phase
Which stage of mitosis involves the migration of chromatids to
opposite poles of the cell?
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
Answer: c. Anaphase
What is the result of mitosis in human daughter cells?
a. Haploid cells with 23 chromosomes each
b. Diploid cells with 46 chromosomes each
c. Tetraploid cells with 92 chromosomes each
d. Triploid cells with 69 chromosomes each
Answer: b. Diploid cells with 46 chromosomes each
Which type of transport does not require energy input and
involves the movement of water molecules?
a. Active Transport
b. Simple Diffusion
c. Facilitated Diffusion
d. Osmosis
Answer: d. Osmosis
In osmosis, water moves from a solution of __________ solute
concentration to a solution of __________ solute concentration.
a. Lower; higher
b. Higher; lower
c. Equal; higher
d. Equal; lower
Answer: b. Higher; lower
Which type of diffusion involves the flow of molecules down a
concentration gradient with the help of proteins?
a. Active Diffusion
b. Passive Diffusion
c. Facilitated Diffusion
d. Osmotic Diffusion
Answer: c. Facilitated Diffusion
What type of diffusion does not require the assistance of protein
channels?
a. Passive Diffusion
b. Facilitated Diffusion
c. Active Transport
d. Osmosis
Answer: a. Passive Diffusion
What is the primary energy source used in active transport?
a. Glucose
b. Oxygen
c. ATP
d. Sodium
Answer: c. ATP
Which of the following is NOT one of the main types of active
transport?
a. Sodium-Potassium Pump
b. Endocytosis
c. Exocytosis
d. Simple Diffusion
Answer: d. Simple Diffusion
Which type of cell transport is responsible for transporting large
particles or solids into the cell?
a. Pinocytosis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Exocytosis
d. Simple Diffusion
Answer: b. Phagocytosis
Which type of cell transport involves depositing materials from
inside the cell to the outside?
a. Endocytosis
b. Exocytosis
c. Facilitated Diffusion
d. Active Transport
Answer: b. Exocytosis
Passive transport involves the movement of substances across
cell membranes __________.
a. With the use of energy
b. Against a concentration gradient
c. Without the need for energy input
d. Through protein channels only
Answer: c. Without the need for energy input
Which type of cell division results in two identical daughter
cells?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Cytokinesis
d. Replication
Answer: a. Mitosis
During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes condense and
shorten into chromatids?
a. Interphase
b. Prophase
c. Metaphase
d. Anaphase
Answer: b. Prophase
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number from diploid (2n) to
haploid (n) during which phase?
a. Prophase I
b. Metaphase I
c. Anaphase I
d. Telophase I
Answer: d. Telophase I
What is the main purpose of the first meiotic division?
a. To create identical daughter cells
b. To reduce chromosome number by half
c. To produce haploid cells
d. To create genetically diverse daughter cells
Answer: b. To reduce chromosome number by half
Which type of cell division is responsible for the formation of
mature gametes (sperm and ova)?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Cytokinesis
d. Replication
Answer: b. Meiosis
What is the period between the beginning of one cell division and
the beginning of the next cell division called?
a. Mitotic Phase
b. Interphase
c. Cell Cycle
d. Replication Phase
Answer: c. Cell Cycle
Which type of cell division involves the formation of two haploid
(n chromosome) daughter cells from a diploid (2n chromosome)
parent cell?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Cytokinesis
d. Replication
Answer: b. Meiosis
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a. Cytokinesis
b. G1 Phase
c. S Phase
d. G2 Phase
Answer: c. S Phase
Which stage of mitosis involves the migration of chromatids to
opposite poles of the cell?
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
Answer: c. Anaphase
What is the result of mitosis in human daughter cells?
a. Haploid cells with 23 chromosomes each
b. Diploid cells with 46 chromosomes each
c. Tetraploid cells with 92 chromosomes each
d. Triploid cells with 69 chromosomes each
Answer: b. Diploid cells with 46 chromosomes each
Which type of transport does not require energy input and
involves the movement of water molecules?
a. Active Transport
b. Simple Diffusion
c. Facilitated Diffusion
d. Osmosis
Answer: d. Osmosis
In osmosis, water moves from a solution of __________ solute
concentration to a solution of __________ solute concentration.
a. Lower; higher
b. Higher; lower
c. Equal; higher
d. Equal; lower
Answer: b. Higher; lower
Which type of diffusion involves the flow of molecules down a
concentration gradient with the help of proteins?
a. Active Diffusion
b. Passive Diffusion
c. Facilitated Diffusion
d. Osmotic Diffusion
Answer: c. Facilitated Diffusion
What type of diffusion does not require the assistance of protein
channels?
a. Passive Diffusion
b. Facilitated Diffusion
c. Active Transport
d. Osmosis
Answer: a. Passive Diffusion
What is the primary energy source used in active transport?
a. Glucose
b. Oxygen
c. ATP
d. Sodium
Answer: c. ATP
a) Absorption
b) Filtration
c) Protection against abrasion
d) Secretion
Answer: c) Protection against abrasion
9. In which location would you find keratinized stratified
squamous epithelium?
a) Mouth
b) Kidney tubules
c) Skin
d) Lungs
Answer: c) Skin
10. What is the function of goblet cells in the respiratory tract?
a) Absorption
b) Filtration
c) Protection
d) Secretion of mucus
Answer: d) Secretion of mucus
11. Which type of junctions bind adjacent epithelial cells together
to form permeability barriers?
a) Gap junctions
b) Desmosomes
c) Hemidesmosomes
d) Tight junctions
20. Which type of connective tissue allows growth of long bones
and provides rigidity in the trachea?
a) Fibrocartilage
b) Elastic cartilage
c) Hyaline cartilage
d) Reticular tissue
Answer: c) Hyaline cartilage
21. What is the function of fibrocartilage?
a) To resist pulling and tearing forces
b) To provide thermal insulation
c) To store energy reserves
d) To transport oxygen
Answer: a) To resist pulling and tearing forces
22. Where can you find elastic cartilage in the human body?
a) External ear
b) Kidney
c) Spleen
d) Lungs
Answer: a) External ear
23. What is the primary function of blood as a connective tissue?
a) To provide rigidity and support
b) To store energy reserves
c) To transport materials, including oxygen and nutrients
d) To protect against abrasion
Answer: d) Tight junctions
Answer: c) To transport materials, including oxygen and nutrients
Which of the following is NOT one of the main types of active
transport?
a. Sodium-Potassium Pump
b. Endocytosis
c. Exocytosis
d. Simple Diffusion
Answer: d. Simple Diffusion
TISSUES
1. What is the study of tissue called?
a) Histology
b) Biology
c) Geology
d) Psychology
Answer: a) Histology
12. What is the main function of gap junctions in epithelial
tissue?
a) To prevent the passage of materials between cells
b) To allow the passage of small molecules and ions between
cells
c) To anchor cells to the basement membrane
d) To produce mucus
Answer: b) To allow the passage of small molecules and ions
between cells
13. Which type of glands have no ducts and secrete their
products directly into the bloodstream?
a) Exocrine glands
b) Endocrine glands
c) Holocrine glands
d) Apocrine glands
24. Which of the following terms refers to cells that produce the
extracellular matrix in connective tissue?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Macrophages
c) Mast cells
d) Proteoglycans
Answer: a) Fibroblasts
25. Which type of connective tissue is found in the subcutaneous
areas and serves as thermal insulation?
a) Areolar connective tissue
b) Adipose tissue
c) Dense regular collagenous tissue
d) Elastic cartilage
Answer: b) Adipose tissue
2. Which of the following is not a basic tissue type?
a) Muscle
b) Epithelium
c) Connective
d) Nervous
Answer: a) Muscle
Answer: b) Endocrine glands
14. Which type of secretion involves shedding entire cells?
a) Merocrine secretion
b) Apocrine secretion
c) Holocrine secretion
d) Exocrine secretion
26. What is the role of mast cells in connective tissue?
a) To produce collagen fibers
b) To store energy reserves
c) To release chemicals
d) To resist tearing forces
Answer: c) To release chemicals
3. Which tissue type covers external and internal surfaces of the
body?
a) Muscle
b) Connective
c) Epithelium
d) Nervous
Answer: c) Holocrine secretion
15. What is the primary function of connective tissue?
a) Absorption
b) Protection
c) Support and insulation
d) Filtration
27. What do we call cells that break down extracellular matrix for
remodeling in connective tissue?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Chondrocytes
d) Clasts
Answer: c) Support and insulation
Answer: d) Clasts
16. Which extracellular matrix component gives flexibility and
strength to connective tissue?
a) Ground substance
b) Fluid
c) Collagen fibers
d) Elastic fibers
28. What is the primary function of connective tissue in the
body?
a) To absorb nutrients
b) To generate electrical impulses
c) To protect against pathogens
d) To support and connect different tissues and body parts
Answer: c) Collagen fibers
Answer: d) To support and connect different tissues and body
parts
Answer: c) Epithelium
4. What is the main function of epithelial tissue?
a) Storage of energy reserves
b) Protection of underlying structures
c) Conduction of nerve impulses
d) Support and movement
Answer: b) Protection of underlying structures
5. Which characteristic of epithelial cells allows them to form
continuous sheets?
a) Multiple free surfaces
b) No basement membrane
c) Tight junctions
d) Blood supply
Answer: c) Tight junctions
6. What is the lower surface of epithelium called, which rests on a
basement membrane?
a) Basal surface
b) Duct
c) Free surface
d) Secretory surface
17. Which type of connective tissue provides a superstructure for
lymphatic and hemopoietic tissues?
a) Areolar connective tissue
b) Reticular tissue
c) Dense regular collagenous tissue
d) Elastic cartilage
29. Which type of junctions allow small molecules and ions to
pass from one epithelial cell to an adjacent one?
a) Gap junctions
b) Desmosomes
c) Hemidesmosomes
d) Tight junctions
Answer: b) Reticular tissue
Answer: a) Gap junctions
18. What is the main function of dense regular collagenous
tissue?
a) To withstand great pulling forces
b) To provide thermal insulation
c) To store energy reserves
d) To transport materials
30. Which gland type secretes products as fragments?
a) Merocrine glands
b) Apocrine glands
c) Holocrine glands
d) Exocrine glands
Answer: a) To withstand great pulling forces
Answer: b) Apocrine glands
31. What is the primary function of stratified cuboidal epithelium?
a) Filtration
b) Protection
c) Absorption
d) Secretion
Answer: c) Simple columnar
19. Elastic ligaments between vertebrae and the dorsal aspect of
the neck contain which type of fibers?
a) Collagen fibers
b) Reticular fibers
c) Elastic fibers
d) Proteoglycans
8. What is the function of stratified squamous epithelium?
Answer: c) Elastic fibers
Answer: a) Basal surface
7. Which type of epithelial tissue is involved in the secretion of
mucus and digestive enzymes?
a) Simple squamous
b) Simple cuboidal
c) Simple columnar
d) Pseudostratified columnar
Answer: b) Protection
32. Which type of epithelial tissue is involved in the synthesis,
secretion, and movement of mucus?
a) Simple squamous
b) Simple cuboidal
c) Simple columnar
d) Pseudostratified columnar
44. Which connective tissue type is composed of living cells and
a mineralized matrix?
a) Cartilage
b) Blood
c) Adipose tissue
d) Reticular tissue
Answer: d) Pseudostratified columnar
Answer: b) Blood
33. Where would you find stratified columnar epithelium in the
body?
a) Mammary glands ducts
b) Kidney tubules
c) Surface of the ovaries
d) Nasal cavity
45. Which cell type releases chemicals in connective tissue?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Macrophages
c) Chondrocytes
d) Clasts
What is the term for bundles of parallel axons with myelin
sheaths in the CNS?
A. Nuclei
B. Cortex
C. White Matter
D. Ganglion
Answer: C. White Matter
Answer: b) Macrophages
Which type of channels are opened by neurotransmitters at the
synapse?
A. Leak channels
B. Voltage-gated channels
C. Chemically gated channels
D. Gated channels
Answer: a) Mammary glands ducts
NERVOUS SYSTEM
Answer: C. Chemically gated channels
34. What is the primary function of stratified columnar
epithelium?
a) Filtration
b) Absorption
c) Protection
d) Secretion
What is the primary function of the nervous system?
A. Regulating body temperature
B. Controlling muscles and glands
C. Producing hormones
D. Digesting food
Which ion has a higher concentration inside the cell membrane
(cytoplasm) at rest?
A. Sodium (Na+)
B. Potassium (K+)
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
D. Chloride (Cl-)
Answer: c) Protection
Answer: B. Controlling muscles and glands
35. What is the main function of simple squamous epithelium?
a) Absorption
b) Filtration
c) Secretion
d) Protection
Which division of the nervous system conducts action potentials
from sensory receptors to the CNS?
A. Motor Division
B. Somatic Motor Nervous System
C. Sensory Division
D. Autonomic Motor Nervous System
What is the result of depolarization in an excitable cell?
A. The inside of the cell becomes more negative
B. Local current is reduced
C. The cell becomes hyperpolarized
D. The inside of the cell becomes more positive
Answer: C. Sensory Division
Answer: D. The inside of the cell becomes more positive
Which type of neurons transmit action potentials from the
periphery to the CNS?
A. Motor neurons
B. Somatic Sensory Fibers
C. Visceral Sensory Fibers
D. Collateral axons
In what fashion does an action potential occur when the
threshold is reached?
A. In a continuous conduction fashion
B. In an all-or-none fashion
C. In a graded fashion
D. In a saltatory fashion
Answer: B. Somatic Sensory Fibers
Answer: B. In an all-or-none fashion
The Autonomic Motor Nervous System includes which two main
divisions?
A. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
B. Somatic and Enteric
C. Central and Peripheral
D. Bipolar and Multipolar
What term describes the action potentials jumping from one node
of Ranvier to the next?
A. Saltatory conduction
B. Continuous conduction
C. Depolarization
D. Repolarization
Answer: A. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
Answer: A. Saltatory conduction
What is the unique subdivision of the Autonomic Motor Nervous
System that is contained within the digestive tract?
A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
C. Enteric Nervous System
D. Somatic Motor Nervous System
What is a synapse?
A. A cluster of neuron cell bodies
B. A junction where two neurons interact
C. A type of neurotransmitter
D. A sensory receptor
Answer: B. Potassium (K+)
Answer: b) Filtration
36. Which type of junctions bind adjacent epithelial cells together
and prevent the passage of materials between them?
a) Gap junctions
b) Desmosomes
c) Hemidesmosomes
d) Tight junctions
Answer: d) Tight junctions
37. What is the function of goblet cells in the digestive tract?
a) Absorption
b) Filtration
c) Protection
d) Secretion of mucus
Answer: d) Secretion of mucus
38. Which type of tissue serves as a thermal insulator and energy
storage in the body?
a) Muscle tissue
b) Epithelial tissue
c) Connective tissue
d) Nervous tissue
Answer: c) Connective tissue
Answer: B. A junction where two neurons interact
39. Which extracellular matrix component provides a shapeless
background in connective tissue?
a) Protein fibers
b) Ground substance
c) Fluid
d) Collagen fibers
Answer: b) Ground substance
Answer: C. Enteric Nervous System
What cells form a myelin sheath and increase the speed of
impulse transmission in the nervous system?
A. Astrocytes
B. Ependymal cells
C. Microglia
D. Schwann cells
Where are neurotransmitters stored before they are released at
the synapse?
A. Synaptic vesicles
B. Nodes of Ranvier
C. Axon hillock
D. Myelin sheath
Answer: A. Synaptic vesicles
40. What is the main function of reticular fibers in connective
tissue?
a) To provide flexibility
b) To resist tearing forces
c) To form a supporting network
d) To store energy reserves
Answer: D. Schwann cells
Which type of neurons have many dendrites and a single axon?
A. Bipolar neurons
B. Multipolar neurons
C. Pseudo-unipolar neurons
D. Collateral axons
Answer: c) To form a supporting network
Which neurotransmitter is associated with Alzheimer's disease?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine
Answer: C. Acetylcholine
Answer: B. Multipolar neurons
41. What type of collagen fibers is flexible but resists stretching?
a) Reticular fibers
b) Elastic fibers
c) Ground substance
d) Collagen fibers
What is the primary function of astrocytes in the CNS?
A. Producing cerebrospinal fluid
B. Act as immune cells
C. Stimulate/inhibit nearby neurons
D. Form myelin sheaths
Answer: d) Collagen fibers
Which reflex arc component receives stimuli from the periphery?
A. Sensory neuron
B. Motor neuron
C. Interneurons
D. Effector organ
Answer: A. Sensory neuron
Answer: C. Stimulate/inhibit nearby neurons
42. Where can you find elastic ligaments containing elastic fibers
in the human body?
a) Between vertebrae and the dorsal aspect of the neck
b) In the mouth and throat
c) In the lungs and airways
d) In the kidneys
What is the term for the gaps in the myelin sheath where ion
movement can occur?
A. Nodes of Ranvier
B. Axon hillock
C. Nissl bodies
D. Collateral axons
Answer: a) Between vertebrae and the dorsal aspect of the neck
In a converging pathway, how many neurons synapse with the
same neuron?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None
Answer: B. Two
Answer: A. Nodes of Ranvier
43. What is the main function of fibrocartilage in the body?
a) To resist tearing forces
b) To provide thermal insulation
c) To store energy reserves
d) To transport oxygen
What is the function of gray matter in the nervous system?
A. Conducting action potentials
B. Producing myelin
C. Controlling muscle contractions
D. Containing neuron cell bodies and dendrites
What allows the integration of multiple sub-threshold local
potentials to trigger an action potential?
A. Spatial summation
B. Temporal summation
C. Hyperpolarization
D. Depolarization
Answer: D. Containing neuron cell bodies and dendrites
Answer: A. Spatial summation
Answer: a) To resist tearing forces
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
What is the term for the space separating the presynaptic and
postsynaptic membranes at a synapse?
A. Synaptic cleft
B. Gap junction
C. Node of Ranvier
D. Myelin sheath
Answer: A. Synaptic cleft
Which neurotransmitter is involved in mood, anxiety, and sleep
induction?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. GABA (Gamma-aminobutyric acid)
Answer: B. Serotonin
What is the primary function of the reflex arc?
A. Conduct action potentials
B. Regulate body temperature
C. Produce hormones
D. Generate voluntary muscle movements
Answer: A. Conduct action potentials
In a diverging pathway, what does the axon from one neuron do?
A. Synapses with two neurons
B. Synapses with one neuron
C. Divides and synapses with more than one other neuron
D. Conducts action potentials to the CNS
Answer: C. Divides and synapses with more than one other
neuron
What term describes the process of bringing the membrane
potential to threshold and triggering an action potential?
A. Integration
B. Summation
C. Transmission
D. Hyperpolarization
Answer: B. Summation
What is the name for the neuronal pathway by which a reflex
occurs?
A. Reflex arc
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Saltatory conduction
D. Action potential
Answer: C. White Matter
Which type of channels are opened by neurotransmitters at the
synapse?
A. Leak channels
B. Voltage-gated channels
C. Chemically gated channels
D. Gated channels
Answer: C. Chemically gated channels
Which ion has a higher concentration inside the cell membrane
(cytoplasm) at rest?
A. Sodium (Na+)
B. Potassium (K+)
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
D. Chloride (Cl-)
Answer: B. Potassium (K+)
What is the result of depolarization in an excitable cell?
A. The inside of the cell becomes more negative
B. Local current is reduced
C. The cell becomes hyperpolarized
D. The inside of the cell becomes more positive
Answer: D. The inside of the cell becomes more positive
In what fashion does an action potential occur when the
threshold is reached?
A. In a continuous conduction fashion
B. In an all-or-none fashion
C. In a graded fashion
D. In a saltatory fashion
Answer: B. In an all-or-none fashion
What term describes the action potentials jumping from one node
of Ranvier to the next?
A. Saltatory conduction
B. Continuous conduction
C. Depolarization
D. Repolarization
Answer: A. Saltatory conduction
What is a synapse?
A. A cluster of neuron cell bodies
B. A junction where two neurons interact
C. A type of neurotransmitter
D. A sensory receptor
Answer: A. Reflex arc
Answer: B. A junction where two neurons interact
In spatial summation, where do local potentials originate from?
A. Different neurons
B. The same neuron
C. The postsynaptic neuron
D. The axon hillock
Answer: A. Different neurons
Which term describes the result of the charge on the
postsynaptic cell becoming more negative?
A. Depolarization
B. Hyperpolarization
C. Repolarization
D. Action potential
Where are neurotransmitters stored before they are released at
the synapse?
A. Synaptic vesicles
B. Nodes of Ranvier
C. Axon hillock
D. Myelin sheath
Answer: A. Synaptic vesicles
Which neurotransmitter is associated with Alzheimer's disease?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine
Answer: B. Hyperpolarization
Answer: C. Acetylcholine
Which neurotransmitter is associated with the treatment of
epilepsy?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Glycine
What is the primary function of the reflex arc?
A. Conduct action potentials
B. Regulate body temperature
C. Produce hormones
D. Generate voluntary muscle movements
Answer: D. Glycine
Answer: A. Conduct action potentials
In temporal summation, what overlaps in time to reach the
threshold?
A. Local potentials
B. Synaptic vesicles
C. Nodes of Ranvier
D. Action potentials
In a diverging pathway, what does the axon from one neuron do?
A. Synapses with two neurons
B. Synapses with one neuron
C. Divides and synapses with more than one other neuron
D. Conducts action potentials to the CNS
Answer: A. Local potentials
Answer: C. Divides and synapses with more than one other
neuron
What is the primary function of gray matter in the nervous
system?
A. Conducting action potentials
B. Producing myelin
C. Controlling muscle contractions
D. Containing neuron cell bodies and dendrites
What term describes the process of bringing the membrane
potential to threshold and triggering an action potential?
A. Integration
B. Summation
C. Transmission
D. Hyperpolarization
Answer: D. Containing neuron cell bodies and dendrites
Answer: B. Summation
What is the term for bundles of parallel axons with myelin
sheaths in the CNS?
A. Nuclei
B. Cortex
C. White Matter
D. Ganglion
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
A. Digestion
B. Temperature regulation
C. Gas exchange
D. Blood circulation
Answer: C. Gas exchange
Which structure encloses the chamber for air inspiration?
A. Trachea
B. Larynx
C. External nose
D. Pharynx
Answer: C. External nose
What serves as a cleaning, warming, and humidifying chamber
for inspired air?
A. Trachea
B. Nasal cavity
C. Bronchi
D. Pharynx
Answer: B. Nasal cavity
What is the function of the pharynx?
A. Voice production
B. Gas exchange
C. Shared passageway for food and air
D. Blood circulation
Answer: C. Shared passageway for food and air
Which structure helps keep the airway constantly open?
A. Bronchi
B. Larynx
C. Nasal cavity
D. Trachea
Answer: B. Larynx
What is the main function of the trachea?
A. Gas exchange
B. Warming and humidifying air
C. Air-cleaning tube
D. Food digestion
Answer: C. Air-cleaning tube
Which tubes direct air into the lungs?
A. Bronchi
B. Larynx
C. Pharynx
D. Nasal cavity
Answer: A. Bronchi
What are the primary respiratory organs?
A. Pharynx
B. Lungs
C. Larynx
D. Trachea
Answer: B. Lungs
How many lobes does the right lung typically have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: C. Three
What is the primary gas exchange site in the lungs?
A. Bronchi
B. Trachea
C. Alveoli
D. Larynx
Answer: C. Alveoli
Which cells make it easier for the alveoli to expand during
inspiration?
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Leukocytes
Answer: B. Type II pneumocytes
What is the primary function of the respiratory membrane?
A. Filtration of air
B. Humidification of air
C. Gas exchange
D. Mucus production
Answer: C. Gas exchange
Which factors affect the rate of gas diffusion through the
respiratory membrane?
A. Thickness of the membrane
B. Surface area of the membrane
C. Blood pH
D. Humidity of the air
B. Touch
C. Thermal
D. Pressure
B. To inhibit expiration
C. To inhibit inspiration
D. To stimulate expiration
Answer: A. Thickness of the membrane and B. Surface area of
the membrane
Answer: C. Thermal
Answer: C. To inhibit inspiration
What percentage of oxygen is transported by hemoglobin in the
blood?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 90%
D. 98.5%
Which factor plays a major role in regulating ventilation when a
50% or greater decrease in O2 from normal occurs?
A. Blood pH
B. Emotions
C. Hypoxia
D. Pain
How is ventilation affected by emotions?
A. Ventilation is always increased during emotional states.
B. Ventilation is always decreased during emotional states.
C. Ventilation can be modified by emotions, increasing or
decreasing respiratory rate.
D. Emotions have no effect on ventilation.
Answer: D. 98.5%
Answer: C. Hypoxia
Answer: C. Ventilation can be modified by emotions, increasing
or decreasing respiratory rate.
What happens when the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
decreases?
A. More oxygen is bound to hemoglobin
B. Less oxygen is bound to hemoglobin
C. Hemoglobin is fully saturated with oxygen
D. Hemoglobin releases oxygen more slowly
What is the term for a greater than normal amount of CO2 in the
blood?
A. Hypercapnia
B. Hypocapnia
C. Hyperoxia
D. Hypoxia
Answer: B. Less oxygen is bound to hemoglobin
Answer: A. Hypercapnia
Which gases are transported dissolved in plasma?
A. Oxygen only
B. Carbon dioxide only
C. Nitrogen only
D. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
Which factor primarily regulates the rate of gas diffusion through
the respiratory membrane?
A. Thickness of the membrane
B. Surface area of the membrane
C. Blood pH
D. Temperature of the air
What is the highest level of exercise that can be performed
without causing a significant change in blood pH?
A. Aerobic threshold
B. Anaerobic threshold
C. Exercise threshold
D. Respiratory threshold
Answer: B. Anaerobic threshold
Answer: B. Carbon dioxide only
Which sensation can modify ventilation based on thermal
changes?
A. Pain
B. Touch
C. Thermal
D. Pressure
Answer: A. Thickness of the membrane
What is the primary regulator of ventilation?
A. Oxygen levels
B. Carbon dioxide levels
C. Blood pH
D. Body temperature
Answer: B. Carbon dioxide levels
What is the role of the dorsal respiratory groups in the medullary
respiratory center?
A. Stimulation of diaphragm
B. Inhibition of inspiration
C. Stimulation of intercostal muscles
D. Switching between inspiration and expiration
Answer: C. Thermal
Which of the following factors affect the affinity of hemoglobin
for oxygen?
A. Blood pH
B. Temperature
C. Carbon dioxide levels
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Answer: C. Hypoxia
What is the primary function of the pontine respiratory group?
A. Stimulation of diaphragm
B. Inhibition of inspiration
C. Stimulation of intercostal muscles
D. Switching between inspiration and expiration
Answer: A. Stimulation of diaphragm
Answer: D. Switching between inspiration and expiration
When does inspiration begin?
A. When stimulated by blood gases
B. When voluntary control is initiated
C. When emotions are involved
D. When stretch receptors are activated
Answer: A. When stimulated by blood gases
What happens when the stimulation of inhibitory neurons
exceeds a threshold level during inspiration?
A. Inspiration continues
B. Expiration begins
C. Cessation of inhalation occurs
D. Stretch of the lungs occurs
Answer: C. Cessation of inhalation occurs
Which of the following stimuli can modify ventilation?
A. Touch
B. Thermal sensations
C. Pain sensations
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
What is the primary function of the Hering-Breuer reflex?
A. To stimulate inspiration
B. To inhibit expiration
C. To inhibit inspiration
D. To stimulate expiration
Answer: C. To inhibit inspiration
How is ventilation affected by emotions?
A. Ventilation is always increased during emotional states.
B. Ventilation is always decreased during emotional states.
C. Ventilation can be modified by emotions, increasing or
decreasing respiratory rate.
D. Emotions have no effect on ventilation.
Answer: C. Ventilation can be modified by emotions, increasing
or decreasing respiratory rate.
What is the highest level of exercise that can be performed
without causing a significant change in blood pH?
A. Aerobic threshold
B. Anaerobic threshold
C. Exercise threshold
D. Respiratory threshold
Which factor plays a major role in regulating ventilation when a
50% or greater decrease in O2 from normal occurs?
A. Blood pH
B. Emotions
C. Hypoxia
D. Pain
Which receptors detect changes in blood gases, temperature,
and movement to influence ventilation?
A. Olfactory receptors
B. Photoreceptors
C. Chemoreceptors
D. Taste receptors
Answer: C. Chemoreceptors
What happens when the stimulation of inhibitory neurons
exceeds a threshold level during inspiration?
A. Inspiration continues
B. Expiration begins
C. Cessation of inhalation occurs
D. Stretch of the lungs occurs
Answer: C. Cessation of inhalation occurs
Which receptors are involved in the Hering-Breuer reflex?
A. Stretch receptors in the lungs
B. Thermoreceptors in the brainstem
C. Olfactory receptors in the nose
D. Taste receptors on the tongue
Answer: A. Stretch receptors in the lungs
Which area of the brain is responsible for voluntary control of
ventilation?
A. Medullary respiratory center
B. Pontine respiratory group
C. Olfactory cortex
D. Prefrontal cortex
Answer: D. Prefrontal cortex
What is the term for the threshold level of exercise that does not
cause a significant change in blood pH?
A. Anaerobic threshold
B. Aerobic threshold
C. Exercise threshold
D. Respiratory threshold
Answer: A. Anaerobic threshold
Which of the following factors can modify ventilation?
A. Pain
B. Touch
C. Thermal sensations
D. All of the above
What is the term for a greater than normal amount of CO2 in the
blood?
A. Hypercapnia
B. Hypocapnia
C. Hyperoxia
D. Hypoxia
Answer: A. Hypercapnia
Which factor primarily regulates the rate of gas diffusion through
the respiratory membrane?
A. Thickness of the membrane
B. Surface area of the membrane
C. Blood pH
D. Temperature of the air
Answer: A. Thickness of the membrane
Which of the following factors affect the affinity of hemoglobin
for oxygen?
A. Blood pH
B. Temperature
C. Carbon dioxide levels
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
What is the primary function of the pontine respiratory group?
A. Stimulation of diaphragm
B. Inhibition of inspiration
C. Stimulation of intercostal muscles
D. Switching between inspiration and expiration
Answer: D. Switching between inspiration and expiration
BLOOD VESSELS
What type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart and
is typically associated with carrying oxygenated blood?
A. Vein
B. Capillary
C. Artery
D. Venule
Answer: C. Artery
Which layer of blood vessels is composed of smooth muscle
arranged circularly and is responsible for vasoconstriction and
vasodilation?
A. Tunica adventitia
B. Tunica intima
C. Tunica media
D. Tunica externa
Answer: C. Tunica media
Answer: B. Anaerobic threshold
Answer: D. All of the above
Which sensation can modify ventilation based on thermal
changes?
A. Pain
What is the primary function of the Hering-Breuer reflex?
A. To stimulate inspiration
Where does the exchange of substances between blood and
tissue fluids primarily occur?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Arterioles
D. Capillaries
Answer: D. Capillaries
What is the term for the localized dilation of an artery that usually
develops in response to trauma or a congenital weakness of the
artery wall?
A. Thrombosis
B. Aneurysm
C. Embolism
D. Stenosis
Answer: B. Aneurysm
Which artery is the first vessel to branch from the aortic arch and
gives rise to the right common carotid artery and right subclavian
artery?
A. Left common carotid artery
B. Left subclavian artery
C. Brachiocephalic artery
D. Aortic arch artery
Answer: C. Brachiocephalic artery
Which artery supplies blood to the brain and is formed by the
union of the vertebral arteries?
A. Common carotid artery
B. Brachial artery
C. Vertebral artery
D. Basilar artery
Answer: D. Basilar artery
Which artery is commonly used for taking a pulse in the forearm
and arm?
A. Radial artery
B. Ulnar artery
C. Brachial artery
D. Axillary artery
Answer: A. Radial artery
What is the main function of the inferior phrenic artery?
A. Supply blood to the kidneys
B. Supply blood to the diaphragm
C. Supply blood to the stomach
D. Supply blood to the spleen
Answer: B. Supply blood to the diaphragm
Which vein drains the superficial structures of the upper limbs
and empties into the axillary vein?
A. Great saphenous vein
B. Small saphenous vein
C. Cephalic vein
D. Median cubital vein
Answer: C. Cephalic vein
What is the primary purpose of the hepatic portal system?
A. To transport oxygen to the liver
B. To filter toxins from the blood
C. To regulate blood sugar levels
D. To transport nutrients from the digestive tract to the liver
Answer: D. To transport nutrients from the digestive tract to the
liver
What is the standard unit for measuring blood pressure?
A. Kilopascal (kPa)
B. Millimeter of mercury (mmHg)
C. Pounds per square inch (psi)
D. Centimeter of water (cmH2O)
Answer: B. Millimeter of mercury (mmHg)
What is the term for the minimum value of blood pressure,
representing the pressure when the heart is at rest?
A. Systolic pressure
B. Diastolic pressure
C. Pulse pressure
D. Mean arterial pressure
Answer: B. Diastolic pressure
Which mechanism primarily controls blood vessel diameter and
vasomotor tone?
A. Sympathetic nerve fibers
B. Vasomotor center
C. Vasomotor reflex
D. Parasympathetic nerve fibers
Answer: B. Vasomotor center
What term is used to describe the periodic contraction and
relaxation of precapillary sphincters to regulate blood flow
locally?
A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Local control
D. Nervous control
Answer: C. Local control
Which reflex responds to changes in blood pressure and
involves baroreceptors detecting stretch in arteries?
A. Chemoreceptor reflex
B. Vasoconstrictor reflex
C. Baroreceptor reflex
D. Vasomotor reflex
Answer: C. Baroreceptor reflex
PLATELETS
What are platelets also known as?
A. Leukocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. Thrombocytes
D. Lymphocytes
What hormonal mechanism regulates blood pressure by
controlling the volume of blood and constriction of blood
vessels?
A. Adrenal medullary mechanism
B. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism
C. Vasopressin mechanism
D. Atrial natriuretic mechanism
Answer: C. Thrombocytes
Answer: B. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism
Answer: C. Clot formation
Which condition refers to the narrowing of arteries, leading to
decreased blood flow?
A. Thrombosis
B. Aneurysm
C. Arteriosclerosis
D. Embolism
Which stem cells are responsible for creating other blood cells
through hematopoiesis?
A. Hematopoietic stem cells
B. Myeloid stem cells
C. Lymphoid stem cells
D. Megakaryocytes
Answer: C. Arteriosclerosis
Answer: A. Hematopoietic stem cells
What type of blood vessel is the primary site of diffusion for the
exchange of substances between blood and tissue fluids?
A. Artery
B. Vein
C. Capillary
D. Venule
What is the primary function of megakaryocytes in the
hematopoietic process?
A. Synthesize red blood cells
B. Produce white blood cells
C. Synthesize and assemble platelet components
D. Store oxygen in blood vessels
Answer: C. Capillary
Answer: C. Synthesize and assemble platelet components
Which vein is more superficial and is commonly used for
venipuncture in the arm?
A. Median cubital vein
B. Basilic vein
C. Cephalic vein
D. Brachial vein
Which type of granules in platelets contains factors involved in
hemostasis such as P-selectin and fibrinogen?
A. α-granules
B. Dense granules
C. Lysosomes
D. Eosinophils
Answer: C. Cephalic vein
Answer: A. α-granules
What is the term for the main venous vessel that drains blood
from the head, neck, thorax, and upper limbs into the right atrium
of the heart?
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Superior vena cava
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Azygos vein
Hemostasis
Answer: B. Superior vena cava
Answer: B. To prevent excessive bleeding
Which vascular system lacks a pumping mechanism and carries
blood from the digestive organs to the liver?
A. Lymphatic system
B. Hepatic portal system
C. Cardiovascular system
D. Pulmonary circulation
Which process of hemostasis involves the immediate but
temporary constriction of a blood vessel?
A. Platelet plug formation
B. Coagulation
C. Vascular spasm
D. Clot retraction
Answer: B. Hepatic portal system
Answer: C. Vascular spasm
What is the term for the type of arteriosclerosis that involves the
accumulation of fatty deposits on arterial walls?
A. Phlebitis
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Thrombosis
D. Embolism
What factor released by endothelial cells and platelets plays a
role in platelet plug formation?
A. ADP
B. Von Willebrand factor (VWF)
C. Fibrinogen
D. Serotonin
Answer: B. Atherosclerosis
Answer: B. Von Willebrand factor (VWF)
What is the primary function of the circulatory system?
A. To maintain adequate blood flow
B. To filter waste products from the blood
C. To regulate body temperature
D. To transport oxygen to the liver
What is the final phase of hemostasis that involves the formation
of a blood clot?
A. Vascular spasm
B. Platelet plug formation
C. Coagulation
D. Clot retraction
What is the primary function of platelets in the blood?
A. Carrying oxygen
B. Immune response
C. Clot formation
D. Filtration of toxins
What is the primary purpose of hemostasis?
A. To regulate blood pressure
B. To prevent excessive bleeding
C. To transport oxygen to the cells
D. To filter toxins from the blood
Answer: A. To maintain adequate blood flow
Answer: C. Coagulation
What is the role of anticoagulants in the control of clotting?
A. They promote clot formation.
B. They dissolve existing clots.
C. They prevent clotting factors from initiating clot formation.
D. They contract smooth muscle within blood vessels.
Answer: C. They prevent clotting factors from initiating clot
formation.
What is clot retraction, the process that occurs after clot
formation?
A. Condensation of the clot into a denser structure
B. Expansion of the clot to seal the wound
C. Formation of a platelet plug
D. Release of thromboxanes
Answer: A. Condensation of the clot into a denser structure
During fibrinolysis, which enzyme breaks down fibrin and
dissolves the clot?
A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Prothrombin
D. Serotonin
Answer: A. Plasmin
Blood Groups & Types
What is the ABO blood group system primarily based on?
A. Presence or absence of A and B antigens on red blood cells
B. The number of red blood cells in the body
C. Hemoglobin concentration in the blood
D. Blood pressure levels
Answer: A. Presence or absence of A and B antigens on red
blood cells
Which blood type has both A and B antigens on the surface of
red blood cells?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type AB
D. Type O
Answer: C. Type AB
Which blood type has neither A nor B antigens on the surface of
red blood cells?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type AB
D. Type O
Answer: D. Type O
RH Blood Group
What is the antigen involved in the RH blood group system?
A. A antigen
B. B antigen
C. D antigen
D. AB antigen
Answer: C. D antigen
People with the D antigen on the surface of their red blood cells
are classified as:
A. Rh-positive
B. Rh-negative
C. Type A
D. Type O
Answer: A. Rh-positive
When do antibodies against the Rh antigen develop in an Rhnegative person?
A. At birth
B. During puberty
C. When exposed to Rh-positive blood
D. Throughout life
Answer: C. When exposed to Rh-positive blood