RBI Assistant Prelims 202303 (SOLUTION)
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (b): Among the given options, only statement (b) is correct with reference to the context of the given question. Refer to the
first paragraph, “In keeping with the ideas of self-reliance and nation-building that were prevalent then, he echoed the
sentiments of several Indian industrialists when he declared that company was ready to manufacture “100%
swadeshi cycles”.”
2. (d): The correct choice can be inferred from the first paragraph which mentions, “Despite the fluctuations in demand due
to World War II and the high cost of small, imported components, the country looked forward to a “bicycle age”.”
3. (c): To validate the answer, refer to the second paragraph which mentions, “From the 1890s onwards, British
administrative officials, and some of their wives were the earliest to ride bicycles in India. Initially attracting attention
that was laced with amusement, suspicion, and disbelief, the bicycle eventually came to be seen as an important
technological tool by them.”
4. (d): To validate the answer, refer to the second paragraph which mentions, “British bicycles from well-known
manufacturers dominated the Indian market, and, soon, cycling tours and competitions were organised to popularise
the vehicle”
5. (c): Option (c) is incorrect with reference to the paragraph.
For option (a), refer to the last paragraph which mentions, “With import substitution and high tariff policies in place,
the 1950s saw the Planning Commission, helmed by Jawaharlal Nehru, looking towards the bicycle manufacturers to
usher in an era of industrial self-reliance alongside the heavy industries that were being promoted at the time.”
For option (b), refer to the first paragraph which mentions, “By the 1920s, cities such as Calcutta and Bombay
witnessed a great number of young men enthusiastically adopting cycling not only as a sport but also as a mode of
transport that enabled them to move around freely and easily.”
For option (c), refer to the last paragraph which mentions, “With import substitution and high tariff policies in place,
the 1950s saw the Planning Commission, helmed by Jawaharlal Nehru, looking towards the bicycle manufacturers to
usher in an era of industrial self-reliance alongside the heavy industries that were being promoted at the time”
For option (d), refer to the first paragraph which mentions, “However, by the dawn of the 20th century, along with the
sewing machine and other industrial products of western import and origin, the bicycle was perceived as an
“everyday technology”, as historian David Arnold called it, and it added a new socio-cultural dynamic to the colony.”
6. (c): ‘Exuberantly’ is a synonym of ‘enthusiastically’.
enthusiastically: in a way that shows intense and eager enjoyment, interest, or approval.
inhospitably: not friendly or generous
exuberantly: in a way that is full of energy, excitement and happiness.
sluggishly: moving or operating more slowly than usual and with less energy
exhorted: strongly encourage or urge (someone) to do something.
7. (a): ‘Eventually’ is the most suitable word for the given blank.
eventually: in the end, especially after a long delay, dispute, or series of problems.
relentlessly: in an unceasingly intense or harsh way.
hopelessly: in a way that shows or causes despair.
abnormally: in a manner that deviates from what is normal or usual; irregularly or extraordinarily.
8. (b): ‘Scare’ is an antonym of ‘prevalent’
prevalent: widespread in a particular area or at a particular time.
scarce: occurring in small numbers or quantities; rare.
ample: enough or more than enough; plentiful.
profound: (of a state, quality, or emotion) very great or intense.
ignite: catch fire or cause to catch fire.
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9. (d): ‘Reckon’ which means ‘consider or regard in a specified way’ OR ‘be of the opinion’ has been used grammatically and
contextually correctly in statements (A) and (B).
10. (a): ‘Exacerbate’ means ‘make (a problem, bad situation, or negative feeling) worse’ and has been used correctly in all
statements.
11. (c): ‘Stimulate’ means ‘raise levels of physiological or nervous activity in (the body or any biological system).’ Or
‘encourage or arouse interest or enthusiasm in’ and it has been used correctly only in statement (C).
12. (d): The correct word for the given blank is ‘mainstays’.
(a)abstract: existing in thought or as an idea but not having a physical or concrete existence.
(b)fabric: cloth or other material produced by weaving or knitting fibres.
(c)strangle: squeeze or constrict the neck of (a person or animal), especially so as to cause death.
(d)mainstay: a person or thing on which something else is based or depends.
(e)nimble: quick and light in movement or action; agile.
13. (b): The correct word for the given blank is ‘alleged’.
(a) jeopardy: danger of loss, harm, or failure.
(b) alleged: said, without proof, to have taken place or to have a specified illegal or undesirable quality.
(c) threat: a statement of an intention to inflict pain, injury, damage, or other hostile action on someone in retribution
for something done or not done.
(d) periled: expose to danger; threaten.
(e) consciously: in a deliberate and intentional way.
14. (e): The correct word for the given blank is ‘adopted’.
(a) embrace: accept (a belief, theory, or change) willingly and enthusiastically.
(b) beholden: owing thanks or having a duty to someone in return for help or a service.
(c) grasped: seize and hold firmly.
(d) engulfed: eat or swallow (something) whole.
(e) adopted: choose to take up, follow, or use.
15. (d): The correct word for the given blank is ‘maintain’.
(a)track: follow the trail or movements of (someone or something), typically in order to find them or note their
course.
(b)infringes: actively break the terms of (a law, agreement, etc.).
(c)innovate: make changes in something established, especially by introducing new methods, ideas, or products.
(d)maintain: cause or enable (a condition or situation) to continue.
(e)entail: involve (something) as a necessary or inevitable part or consequence.
16. (a): The correct word for the given blank is ‘abundant’.
(a) abundant: existing or available in large quantities; plentiful.
(b) scant: barely sufficient or adequate.
(c) wither: (of a plant) become dry and shrivelled.
(d) comprehensive: including or dealing with all or nearly all elements or aspects of something
(e)precious: of great value; not to be wasted or treated carelessly.
17. (b): By going through all the statements, we can conclude that the passage is talking about colours and their effect on
humans. The first in the arrangement will be sentence (D) which mentions that colours evoke psychological reactions
which affect mood swings. Sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) which mentions these reactions, mentioned
in statement (D), are related to the intensity and different shades of a colour. The third will be statement (F) which
mentions that the green colour especially has a strong effect. Forth in the arrangement is sentence (C) which mentions
the green effect on those who are exercising while watching a video of outdoor space with a green overlay. The fifth
will be sentence (E) which mentions the effect of the experiment. Last will be a statement (B) which gives a reason for
the calming effect mentioned in previous statement. The correct sequence of sentences is DAFCEB.
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18. (c): By going through all the statements, we can conclude that the passage is talking about colours and their effect on
humans. The first in the arrangement will be sentence (D) which mentions that colours evoke psychological reactions
which affect mood swings. Sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) which mentions these reactions, mentioned
in statement (D), are related to the intensity and different shades of a colour. The third will be statement (F) which
mentions that the green colour especially has a strong effect. Forth in the arrangement is sentence (C) which mentions
the green effect on those who are exercising while watching a video of outdoor space with a green overlay. The fifth
will be sentence (E) which mentions the effect of the experiment. Last will be a statement (B) which gives a reason for
the calming effect mentioned in previous statement. The correct sequence of sentences is DAFCEB.
19. (e): By going through all the statements, we can conclude that the passage is talking about colours and their effect on
humans. The first in the arrangement will be sentence (D) which mentions that colours evoke psychological reactions
which affect mood swings. Sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) which mentions these reactions, mentioned
in statement (D), are related to the intensity and different shades of a colour. The third will be statement (F) which
mentions that the green colour especially has a strong effect. Forth in the arrangement is sentence (C) which mentions
the green effect on those who are exercising while watching a video of outdoor space with a green overlay. The fifth
will be sentence (E) which mentions the effect of the experiment. Last will be a statement (B) which gives a reason for
the calming effect mentioned in previous statement. The correct sequence of sentences is DAFCEB.
20. (b): By going through all the statements, we can conclude that the passage is talking about colours and their effect on
humans. The first in the arrangement will be sentence (D) which mentions that colours evoke psychological reactions
which affect mood swings. Sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) which mentions these reactions, mentioned
in statement (D), are related to the intensity and different shades of a colour. The third will be statement (F) which
mentions that the green colour especially has a strong effect. Forth in the arrangement is sentence (C) which mentions
the green effect on those who are exercising while watching a video of outdoor space with a green overlay. The fifth
will be sentence (E) which mentions the effect of the experiment. Last will be a statement (B) which gives a reason for
the calming effect mentioned in previous statement. The correct sequence of sentences is DAFCEB.
21. (a): By going through all the statements, we can conclude that the passage is talking about colours and their effect on
humans. The first in the arrangement will be sentence (D) which mentions that colours evoke psychological reactions
which affect mood swings. Sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) which mentions these reactions, mentioned
in statement (D), are related to the intensity and different shades of a colour. The third will be statement (F) which
mentions that the green colour especially has a strong effect. Forth in the arrangement is sentence (C) which mentions
the green effect on those who are exercising while watching a video of outdoor space with a green overlay. The fifth
will be sentence (E) which mentions the effect of the experiment. Last will be a statement (B) which gives a reason for
the calming effect mentioned in previous statement. The correct sequence of sentences is DAFCEB.
22. (b): The error is in option (b). ‘More’ is a comparative degree and its use with ‘higher’ which is also a comparative form is
incorrect.
23. (e): All the given statements are error-free.
24. (d): In option (d), ‘essentials’ which is a noun should be in ‘adjective’ form to modify noun ‘part’. Hence, ‘essential’ which is
an adjective form is correct here.
25. (a): In option (a), ‘and also in’ should be replaced with ‘but also in’. We use ‘not only…..but also’ to emphasize the fact that
there is something more to add.
26. (c): The given sentence is in past tense so the verb should also be in past tense. Further, ‘cruelty’ is incorrect and use of
‘cruel’ (adjective) for ‘practices’ is correct. So the correct replacement is option (c).
27. (b): Possessive determiner ‘its’ should be ‘their’ for ‘rates’. The word 'for' is used to show a period of time, in the past,
present or future. The word 'since is used to present the starting point of an action that continues in the present and
takes the usage of the present perfect or present perfect continuous tense verb. The word ‘from’ is always used as a
preposition.
28. (a): We don’t use ‘as’ after word ‘consider’. Contextually we don’t need ‘to’ here. Therefore, the correct replacement is
option (a).
29. (c): The given highlighted phrase is incorrect. We will use plural verb ‘put’ for plural noun ‘individuals’. The given
sentence is in simple present tense so correct replacement is ‘put more of their assets’.
30. (e): The given highlighted phrase is error-free.
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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
31. (a): 180% of 500 – 40% of 1650 = 4 × ?
900 – 660 = 4 × ?
240 = 4 × ?
60 = ?
32. (c):
33. (b): 165% of 400 + 85% of 240 = ?% of 1080
660 + 204 = ?% of 1080
864 = ?% of 1080
86400 = ?
80 = ?
34. (b):
35. (c): 4% of 1100 + 78% of 500 – ? = 20% of 700
44 + 390 – ? = 140
294 = ?
36. (c): ∛8 + 35% of 600 + ?% of 11 = 223
223 – 210 – 2 = ?% of 11.
100 = ?
37. (b):
38. (d):
39. (e):
40. (e): 121 + 343 + 3 = ?
467 = ?
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41. (a):
42. (d):
Required ratio = (225+105):(180+200)= 330:380= 33:38
43. (c):
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44. (a):
Let the cost of one tea cup be Rs.x.
And the cost of one coffee cup = Rs.(x+15)
ATQ.
x×120+(x+15)×80=6200
200x+1200=6200
200x=5000
x=25
45. (e):
Let total cups sold by F be 100x
and tea cups sold by F = 100x×55/100=55x
Coffee cups sold by F = 120% of 75 = 90
ATQ.
100x-55x=90
45x=90
x=2
Tea cups sold by F = 55x= 55×2 = 110
46. (a):
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47. (d):
48. (b):
49. (d):
50. (d):
51. (e): I. x² - 19x+70= 0
x² - 14x-5x+70= 0
x = 14, 5
II. y² - 23y+120= 0
y² - 8y-15y+120= 0
y = 8, 15
So, no relation can be established between x and y
52. (c):
53. (a): I. x² – 12x+35=0
x² – 7x-5x+35=0
x = 5, 7
II. y²+ 8y + 15 = 0
y² +3y+5y+15=0
y = -5 , -3
So, x>y
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54. (c): I. x² + 15x + 56 =0
x² + 8x + 7x + 56 = 0
x = -7, -8
II. y² + 7y + 12 = 0
y² + 4y + 3y + 12 = 0
y =-4 -3
So, x <y
55. (b):
56. (d):
57. (d):
58. (a):
59. (d):
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60. (e):
61. (d):
Required sum = 150+100+125+75=450
62. (a):
Required percentage= 200/100×100=200%
63. (a):
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Required sum = 200+150+75=425
64. (a):
Required difference = 125+75-150=50
65. (a):
REASONING APTITUDE
66. (d): F sits third to the right of G. So, here we have two possible cases. D sits adjacent to F and to the immediate left of A.
The number of persons sit between G and E is same as the number of persons sit between B and E. H sits on the same
side with C. H neither faces A nor B. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
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Thus the final arrangement is:
Four persons sit between A and G when counted to the right of G.
67. (b): F sits third to the right of G. So, here we have two possible cases. D sits adjacent to F and to the immediate left of A.
The number of persons sit between G and E is same as the number of persons sit between B and E. H sits on the same
side with C. H neither faces A nor B. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Thus the final arrangement is:
G sits second to the left of the one who faces C.
68. (c): F sits third to the right of G. So, here we have two possible cases. D sits adjacent to F and to the immediate left of A.
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The number of persons sit between G and E is same as the number of persons sit between B and E. H sits on the same
side with C. H neither faces A nor B. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Thus the final arrangement is:
Both II and III are true.
69. (e): F sits third to the right of G. So, here we have two possible cases. D sits adjacent to F and to the immediate left of A.
The number of persons sit between G and E is same as the number of persons sit between B and E. H sits on the same
side with C. H neither faces A nor B. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Thus the final arrangement is:
Only in option (e), both the persons sit on the same side of the table.
70. (c): F sits third to the right of G. So, here we have two possible cases. D sits adjacent to F and to the immediate left of A.
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The number of persons sit between G and E is same as the number of persons sit between B and E. H sits on the same
side with C. H neither faces A nor B. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Thus the final arrangement is:
H sits second to the right of D.
71. (d): I follows: No direct relation between silver and ring so possible relation does exist.
II follows: Some part of gold which is silver is definitely not bangle.
72. (a):
I doesn’t follow: Only a few cold is cream which means some part of cold is not cream and all cold is chilly so all chilly
can’t be cream.
II follows: No direct relation between clear and cold so possible relation does exist.
73. (c): I doesn’t follow: Zinc is only related to brass and with other element it has no relation so all brass can’t be copper even
in possibility.
II doesn’t follow: No direct relation between brass and copper so relation between them doesn’t exist.
74. (b): I follows: Only few rupees are paper which means some part of rupees are definitely not paper.
II doesn’t follow: No direct relation between paper and coin so the given relation doesn’t exist.
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75. (b): T lives three floors above the one who belongs to Udaipur. T doesn’t live on an odd numbered floor. So, here we have
two possible cases. Two persons live between the one who belongs to Agra and the one who belongs to Udaipur.
The number of persons live below T is one more than the number of persons live above S. Three persons live between
S and the one who belongs to Surat. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Q lives above V. Q and V live on an even numbered floor. The one who belongs to Jaipur lives two floors above the one
who belongs to Meerut.
P lives above the one who belongs to Bhopal and doesn’t live adjacent to Q. The one who belongs to Bhopal lives above
R which means U belongs to Bhopal and R belongs to Indore. Thus the final arrangement is:
P belongs to Surat.
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76. (c): T lives three floors above the one who belongs to Udaipur. T doesn’t live on an odd numbered floor. So, here we have
two possible cases. Two persons live between the one who belongs to Agra and the one who belongs to Udaipur.
The number of persons live below T is one more than the number of persons live above S. Three persons live between
S and the one who belongs to Surat. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Q lives above V. Q and V live on an even numbered floor. The one who belongs to Jaipur lives two floors above the one
who belongs to Meerut.
P lives above the one who belongs to Bhopal and doesn’t live adjacent to Q. The one who belongs to Bhopal lives above
R which means U belongs to Bhopal and R belongs to Indore. Thus the final arrangement is:
Four persons live between the one who belongs to Indore and T.
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77. (d): T lives three floors above the one who belongs to Udaipur. T doesn’t live on an odd numbered floor. So, here we have
two possible cases. Two persons live between the one who belongs to Agra and the one who belongs to Udaipur.
The number of persons live below T is one more than the number of persons live above S. Three persons live between
S and the one who belongs to Surat. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Q lives above V. Q and V live on an even numbered floor. The one who belongs to Jaipur lives two floors above the one
who belongs to Meerut.
P lives above the one who belongs to Bhopal and doesn’t live adjacent to Q. The one who belongs to Bhopal lives above
R which means U belongs to Bhopal and R belongs to Indore. Thus the final arrangement is:
statement (d) is true.
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78. (c): T lives three floors above the one who belongs to Udaipur. T doesn’t live on an odd numbered floor. So, here we have
two possible cases. Two persons live between the one who belongs to Agra and the one who belongs to Udaipur.
The number of persons live below T is one more than the number of persons live above S. Three persons live between
S and the one who belongs to Surat. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Q lives above V. Q and V live on an even numbered floor. The one who belongs to Jaipur lives two floors above the one
who belongs to Meerut.
P lives above the one who belongs to Bhopal and doesn’t live adjacent to Q. The one who belongs to Bhopal lives above
R which means U belongs to Bhopal and R belongs to Indore. Thus the final arrangement is:
Except Q, all live on an odd numbered floor.
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79. (a): T lives three floors above the one who belongs to Udaipur. T doesn’t live on an odd numbered floor. So, here we have
two possible cases. Two persons live between the one who belongs to Agra and the one who belongs to Udaipur.
The number of persons live below T is one more than the number of persons live above S. Three persons live between
S and the one who belongs to Surat. So, case 2 gets eliminated here.
Q lives above V. Q and V live on an even numbered floor. The one who belongs to Jaipur lives two floors above the one
who belongs to Meerut.
P lives above the one who belongs to Bhopal and doesn’t live adjacent to Q. The one who belongs to Bhopal lives above
R which means U belongs to Bhopal and R belongs to Indore. Thus the final arrangement is:
Q belongs to Jaipur.
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80. (c):
81. (b):
82. (b): NUR= 14+21+18=53
83. (d):
84. (b):
85. (b): Three persons are designated between G and C who is junior to the one who is designated as Manager. So, here we
have three possible cases:
F is two persons senior to C. More than two persons are designated between B and E. B is just junior to G. So, case 3
gets eliminated here.
D is senior to E and junior to A. A is senior to G. So, case 1 gets eliminated here.
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Thus the final arrangement is:
D is an Assistant Manager.
86. (c): Three persons are designated between G and C who is junior to the one who is designated as Manager. So, here we
have three possible cases:
F is two persons senior to C. More than two persons are designated between B and E. B is just junior to G. So, case 3
gets eliminated here.
D is senior to E and junior to A. A is senior to G. So, case 1 gets eliminated here.
Thus the final arrangement is:
Four designations gap between A and C.
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87. (d): Three persons are designated between G and C who is junior to the one who is designated as Manager. So, here we
have three possible cases:
F is two persons senior to C. More than two persons are designated between B and E. B is just junior to G. So, case 3
gets eliminated here.
D is senior to E and junior to A. A is senior to G. So, case 1 gets eliminated here.
Thus the final arrangement is:
F is related to E.
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88. (a): Three persons are designated between G and C who is junior to the one who is designated as Manager. So, here we
have three possible cases:
F is two persons senior to C. More than two persons are designated between B and E. B is just junior to G. So, case 3
gets eliminated here.
D is senior to E and junior to A. A is senior to G. So, case 1 gets eliminated here.
Thus the final arrangement is:
Only A designation remains unchanged.
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89. (d): Three persons are designated between G and C who is junior to the one who is designated as Manager. So, here we
have three possible cases:
F is two persons senior to C. More than two persons are designated between B and E. B is just junior to G. So, case 3
gets eliminated here.
D is senior to E and junior to A. A is senior to G. So, case 1 gets eliminated here.
Thus the final arrangement is:
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Statement given in option (d) is not true.
90. (b): Meaningful words formed by using R,A,M,T- MART and TRAM.
91. (a): I. U <L (True)
II.G ≥ U(False)
92. (e): I. S<L(True)
II. A≤L(True)
93. (c): I. V<Q(False)
II. D≥X(False)
94. (b): I. U>T(False)
II. H≤Q(True)
95. (d): I. G >B(False)
II. J≥ B(False)
96. (e): 8 6,4 6 ,6 3,2 3 , 2 6,6 3,8 9, 6 3
97. (c): 8+3+6+8=25
2 8,2 3 ,2 6,2 8
98. (b): 7 3 5
99. (e): 9 8 6 4 4 1 9 4 6 1 6 1 6 9 8 9 6
5th number from right- 6
4th to the left of 6 is 6
100. (a): 4 x 3 =12
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