TEST 1
1.The main considerations of protocol optimization are:
1. signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)
2. contrast-to-noise ratio (CNR)
3. spatial resolution
4. scan time
Answer: 1,2,3,4
2.SNR may be increased by using:
•
•
•
•
conventional spin echo (CSE) and fast or turbo spin echo (FSE/TSE) pulse sequences
a long repetition time (TR) and a short echo time (TE)
a well-tuned and correctly sized receiver coil
thick slices
Answer : All of the listed
3.SNR may be increased by using:
1.conventional spin echo (CSE) and fast or turbo spin echo (FSE/TSE) pulse sequences
2.a long repetition time (TR and a short echo time (TE)
3.a flip angle of 90° in all spin echo type pulse sequences or the Ernst angle in gradient
echo (GRE) pulse sequences
4.a well-tuned and correctly sized receiver coil
5.a coarse matrix
Answer: all of the above
4.What is the difference between SNR and CNR?
•
•
individual tissue Signal amount relative to Noise amount in any given tissue
comparitive Signal amount to Noise in different tissues.
Answer: both of the listed
5.A medium slice/gap is
Answer: 4 mm/2 mm to 6 mm/2.5 mm
6.Utilizing thin slices will ______ spatial resolution and _____SNR.
Answer: increase, decrease
7.The echo train length (ETL) or turbo factor (TF) refers to the number of RF rephasing pulses,
spin echoes, and number of lines of k-space filled per TR.
Answer :True
8.Following the 180° inversion pulse in Inversion Recovery Pulse Sequences, a_____ RF
excitation pulse is applied that transfers the proportion of longitudinal magnetization that has
recovered into the transverse plane.
Answer: 90 degrees
9.The Rewound GRE T2* pulse sequence uses a ______ flip angle and gradient rephasing,
resulting in a gradient echo.
Answer: Variable
10.EPI acquisitions fill all of k-space in one repetition (called single-shot) or multiple repetitions
(called multi-shot) by using a _____ echo train
Answer: Long
11.Regardless of utilizing a T1 or T2 sequence, tendons emit _____ signal
Answer: Hypointense
12.Radial k-space is a non-Cartesian k-space filling method. Data are not laid out in lines, but kspace is filled in strips of data that rotate around the centre point of k-space.
Answer: True
13.A small FOV is generally ___ cm or less.
Answer: 16
14.TOF is based on the concept of
Answer: Entry slice phenomenon
15.GMN produces______ signal from flewing nuclei
Answer: High
16.There are usually _____leads that are color-coded for easy use.
Answer: Four
17.Navigators shoulder be situated over the _____in order to compensate for breathing motion
by disregarding information corresponding to chest wall motion.
Answer: diaphragm
18.If the patient sweats during the examination, the leads may peel or fall off. In order to prevent
this, attach a small piece of Aluminum tape over each lead.
Answer: False
19.EKG is the primary method of cardiac gating and peripheral gating via gating transducers
should be used as a last resort.
Answer: True
20.Aliasing may be remedied by:
1.Increasing the FOV
2.Utilizing a lower static magnetic field strength
3.Increasing NEX
4.Phase oversampling
5.Utilizing sat bands
Answer: 1,4,5
21.The final phase of the R-R interval compensates for variations in heart rate, specifically the
R-Wave. This phase is called the
Answer: Trigger window
22.It is acceptable to use coils with damaged or frayed cables if the cables are covered by a pad
or cushion.
Answer: False
23.Zone III is a restricted area. All patients must be screened and escorted by MR personnel.
This area contains the QC station and possibly the patient changing areas.
Answer: True
24.At body temperature, Gadolinium based contrast agents are considered to be
Answer: paramagnetic
25.Rapidly switching gradients may cause all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: temporary hearing loss
TEST 2
1.For a typical brain exam, the head is positioned so that the longitudinal alignment light lies in
the midline and the horizontal alignment light passes through the ______and the external
auditory meatus (EAM).
Answer: Naision
2.When planning Coronal slices of the brain from a sagittal localizer, slices with medium slice
gaps are angled perpendicular to the______. The foramen magnum to the vertex and both
temporal lobes are included in the image
Answer: Corpus callosum
3.A_____sequence should be utilized when visualizing periventricular or cord lesions, such as
MS plaques, as well as subarachnoid blood. This sequence is known for suppressing CSF.
Answer: FLAIR T2
4.A_____ sequence should be utilized when visualizing areas of restricted diffusion. This
sequence is typically used for tumor characterization and cerebral ischemia
Answer: DWI
5.____ occurs when the body is unable to differentiate the body's host cells from pathological
cells
Answer: Autoimmune disease
6.Mutations or changes in what genes will need to occur in the formation of cancer?
1) Proto-Oncogenes
2) Immunoactive Genes
3) Malignancy Genes
4) Tumor Suppressing Genes
5) DNA Repair Genes
Answer: 1,4,5
7.The main source of artefact experienced in routine brain imaging involves
Answer: Venous and arterial flow motion
8.Contrast agents have several uses in routine brain imaging, including the evaluation of:
Tumors
Inflammatory processes
Infectious processes
Vascular abnormalities
Answer: All of the listed
9.Which of the following is a function of myelin?
Answer: Permitting rapid and efficient transmission of electrical impulses
10.When planning Axial slices of the IAC's from a sagittal localizer, thin slices with thin slice
gaps are angled parallel to the ____ Slice coverage should contain the superior and inferior
orbital margins.
Answer: optic nerves
11.Which of the following are considered indications for a MRI brain study with additional
sequences for emphasis on the Temporal lobes?
1.Diagnosis and evaluation of a lesion
2.Temporal lobe epilepsy
3.Evaluation of signal change in the hippocampus
4.Measurement of the hippocampal volume
Answer: 1,2,3,4
12.An acoustic neuroma is a____tumor that develops on the______.
Answer: benign, vestibulocochlear nerve
13.____ stroke pertains to an inadequate blood supply to the brain due to an obstructed blood
vessel.
Answer: Ischemic
14.Contrast agents are also used to assess the age of an cerebral infarct. Very recent infarcts may
enhance to some degree, but maximum response to contrast enhancement usually occurs after the
blood-brain barrier has been breached. Old or chronic infarcts _____ enhance.
Answer: Do not
15.Which of the following sequence weighting is typically utilized pre and post contrast
administration?
Answer: T1
16.Increasing the NEX/NSA will____SNR and___ scan time.
Answer: Increase, Increase
17.The most common indication/s of IAC (Internal Auditory Canal) MRI is/are:
Unilateral hearing loss
Hemi-facial spasm
Trigeminal neuralgia
Answer: All of the listed
18..For IAC studies, thin slices and thin slice gaps are used to optimize spatial resolution and
visualization of the small structures within the IACs. A _____ ____ is advisable, although
increasing this too much can reduce the ______ to unacceptable levels.
Answer: very fine Matrix, SNR
19.Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is typically associated with ______
Answer: demyelination of neurons
20.Gradient moment nulling (GMN) increases the signal in blood vessels but also increases the
minimum TE, and therefore, is reserved for ____ weighted sequences.
Answer: T2 or IR
21.Hyperprolactinaemia, Cushing's disease, acromegaly, diabetes insipidus, and amenorrhoea are
common indications for which type of study?
Answer: Pituitary Gland
22.____ cancer indicates that the cancer has spread from its initial site of origin to another part of
the body,
Answer: Metastatic
23.The pituitary fossa resides _____ to the circle of Willis.
Answer: anterior and inferior
24.Proptosis is an indication for which type of MRI exam?
Answer: Orbits
25. If contrast is administered in an orbital study, at least one pulse sequence covering the entire
brain should be acquired post contrast-enhancement.
Answer: True
TEST 3
1.Common indications for Cardiac MRI (CMRI) include:
1.Thoracic aortic aneurysm, dissection and coarctation
2.Complex congenital abnormalities of the heart and great vessels
3.Atrial or ventricular septal defect
4.Assessment of ventricular function
5.Assessment of ventricular muscle mass
6.Vessel patenty and thrombus
7.Valvular dysfunction
Answer: All of the above
2. Which of the following views is planned by prescribing slices through the left ventricle and
angling parallel to the intra-ventricular septum?
Answer: Long-Axis View (Two Chamber)
3,Which of the following views is planned by angling slices parallel to the mitral valve?
Answer: Four Chamber View
4.In the following MRI image, the slice prescription will reflect which view?
Answer: Four Chamber View
5.In the following MRI image, the slice prescription will demonstrate which view?
Answer: Long Axis View (Two Chamber)
6.In the following MRI image, the slice prescription will demonstrate which view?
Answer: Short Axis View
7.Which cardiac view is demonstrated in the following image?
Answer: Long Axis View (Two Chamber)
8.Which cardiac view is demonstrated in the following image?
Answer: Four Chamber View
9.Which cardiac view is demonstrated in the following image?
Answer: Short Axis View
10.Which type of Pulse Sequence has been employed in the following image?
Answer: Conventional Spin Echo or Fast Spin Echo (FSE)
11.Which type of Pulse Sequence has been employed in the following image?
Answer: Gradient Echo (GRE) with GMN
12.Contrast-enhanced GRE pulse sequences are used to better visualize:
Infarcts
Masses
Vasculature of the chest and heart
Answer: All of the above
13.Spatial pre-saturation bands are important to further decrease flow artifact in cardiac MRI.
Answer: True
14.Contrast agents are routinely given for imaging the heart and great vessels in conjunction
with_____ pulse sequences and dynamic imaging of the heart, aortic arch, great vessels,
pulmonary arteries and coronary arteries.
Answer: GRE
15.Increasing the NEX/NSA reduces some periodic respiratory and cardiac artifacts. The
disadvantage of this strategy is the associated _____ although this can be compensated for by the
implementation of a coarser matrix.
Answer: Increased Scan Time
16.Triple IR sequences contain an additional 180° RF pulse applied at the precessional frequency
of _____
Answer: Fat
17.The additional 180° RF pulse applied in Triple Inversion Recovery pulse sequences
suppresses
Flowing Blood
epicardial fat
Answer: Both of the above
18.Triple I sequences contain an additional 180° RF pulse, which visualizes the____very well
when combined with suppression of signal from flowing blood.
Answer: myocardium
19.GRE or Phase Contrast pulse sequences are used with GMN that increase the signal intensity
of
Answer: flowing blood
20.For smaller structures such as the heart and coronary arteries, the use of coils are
recommended in order to increase SNR.
Answer: Multi-channel or phased array
21.Respiratory, cardiac and flow motion are the most commonly experienced artifacts in the
chest and typically occur along the_____axis.
Answer: Phase
22.Spatial pre-saturation bands are important to decrease flow artifact. They are placed S and I to
the FOV to reduce flow artifact from the _____
Answer: aorta and IVC
23.Which of the following pathologies involves a blood clot that forms within a blood vessel and
obstructs blood flow?
Answer: Thrombosis
24.If breath-hold techniques are not possible during a cardiac study, _____ is recommended to
reduce the respiratory artifacts.
Answer: Respiratory gating or triggering
25.When landmarking for a cardiac exam, the patient should positioned so that the longitudinal
alignment light lies in the midline and the horizontal alignment light passes through the level of
the ______
Answer: T4
TEST 4
1.The following axial MR image of the liver is a ____ weighted sequence.
Answer: T2
2.Common indications for a MRI of the liver include:
1.Focal lesions and staging of neoplasms
2.Benign hepatic disease and focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)
3.Hemochromatosis
4.Gallbladder disease
5.Biliary tract obstruction
6. Fatty liver or iron overload
Answer : All of the above
3.The following coronal MR image is indicative of which type of exam?
Answer: MR Enterography
4.Hepatic vein thrombosis is a common indication for which type of MR exam?
Answer: MRA
5.The following coronal MR image is indicative of which type of MR exam?
Answer: MRCP
6.When landmarking for an abdominal MRI exam of the liver, the horizontal alignment light
should course through the:
Answer: Level of L3
7.Abdominal coronal slices should planned from an axial/sagittal localizer. Thick slices/gaps
should be prescribed from the spine to the____. The pubic symphysis and diaphragm should both
be included within the FOV.
Answer: Anterior abdominal wall
8.Abdominal axial slices should be planned from a coronal localizer. Medium slices/gaps should
be prescribed from above the _____ to below the kidneys to provide sufficient coverage. Add
additional slices to compensate for organ movement during respiration. The whole abdomen
should included within the FOV.
Answer: Diaphragm
9.The bile duct leading from the Gallbladder converges with the Common Hepatic Duct to form
which biliary duct?
Answer: Common Bile Duct
10.The contents of the abdominal cavity typically generate excellent SNR and CNR due to:
Answer: High proton density
11.This condition involves an excess accumulation of iron within the body, particularly the liver.
Answer: Hemochromatosis
12.Two FSE/TSE acquisitions using a TE of ____ ms and____ ms are required to characterize
hemangiomas.
Answer: 80, 160
13.Crohn's disease is a common indication for what type of MR exam?
Answer: MR Enterography
14.When landmarking for an abdominal MA, the horizontal alignment light should course
through the:
Answer: Iliac crest
15.GMN (Gradient Moment Nulling) minimizes flow artifact, but as it increases the signal in
vessels and it also increases the minimum required TE. Therefore, it is not usually beneficial in
______ pulse sequences.
Answer: T1 weighted
16.In abdominal imaging, large patients may need to be positioned _____. This position may
also combat aliasing in coronal images.
Answer: Arms up
17.Where do the adrenal glands reside?
Answer: Superior aspect of the kidneys
18.Placing_____, superior and inferior to the FOV can decrease the flow motion artifacts from
the aorta and inferior vena cava.
Answer: Sat Bands
19.After production, digestive enzymes course through the_____, which merges with the
common bile duct to form the ampulla of Vater, then later the descending (2nd) portion of the
duodenum of the small intestine.
Answer: Pancreatic Duct
20.Almost all abdominal MRI exams require the patient to fast for 4 to 6 hours prior to their
exam. The primary reason being that the digestive organs should be empty.
Answer: True
21.Motion artifact, in general, is the most common artifact experienced in abdominal MRI
exams. Which of the following methods can be used to combat this?
1.Breath-holds
2.Bellows
3.Navigator Echoes
4.Sat Bands
5.Antispasmodics
Answer: All of the above
22.Venetian Blind artifact is commonly experienced during what kind of exam?
Answer: MRA
23.How should a patient be positioned for a MR Enterography?
Answer: Prone
24.The following image planning is indicative of which type of MR exam?
Answer: MRCP
25.Thrombosis refers to the blockage of a blood vessel from a blood clot in particular.
However,____refers to any type of blockage of a blood vessel.
Answer: Occlusion
TEST 5
1.In the following Sagittal image of the pelvis, which arrow points to the Rectum?
Answer: F
2.In abdominal and pelvic imaging, large patients may need to be positioned_____to fit in the
bore of the machine. This position may also combat aliasing in coronal images.
Answer: Arms Up
3.Which of the following is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in men?
Answer: Prostate
4.Which type of sequence is necessary to differentiate tumors from prostate tissue and assess for
prostatic disease?
Answer: DWI
5.The following Sagittal image is a _____ sequence of a _____pelvis
Answer: T2-weighted , Female
6.When landmarking for a pelvic MRI exam of the prostate, the horizontal alignment light
should course through the
Answer: Greater Trochanter
7.The following slice prescription would generate a _____image series and provide a
visualization of the _____
Answer: Sagittal, Prostate
8.Patients should be instructed to fast for 4-6 hours prior to which type of MR exam ?
Prostate
Rectal
Uterine
Answer: All of the above
9.The following Axial image of the prostate is from a ____ sequence.
Answer: T2
10.If gas is present within the large intestine or rectum, the prostate will be difficult to visualize
Answer: True
11.The following slice prescriptions would generate which view of the Uterus?
Answer: Long Axis
12.Prostate specific antigen, or PSA, is a protein produced by celis of the prostate gland.
The PSA level is often elevated in people with prostate cancer.
As a general consensus, a PSA level higher than approximately _____ng/mL
(nanogram/milliliter) can be considered elevated.
Answer: 4.0
13.The following slice prescriptions would generate which view of the Uterus?
Answer: Short Axis
14.Which of the following are common indications for an MRI of the Uterus and Cervix?
1.Assessment of congenital abnormalities of the urogenital tract
2.Endometriosis
3.Cancer of the uterus, cervix, or ovaries
4.Benign uterine tumors (i.e. leiomyomas and fibroids)
5.Infertility
Answer: All of the above
15.in the following sagittal image of the peivis, which arrow points to the Endometrium?
Answer: C
16.A____sequence is ideal to first assess the majority of the organs residing at the midline within
the pelvis.
Answer: Sagittal T2-weighted
17.Which of the following can be used to help localize a tumor, as well as evaluate it's staging
and characteristics?
Answer: Contrast
18.Which of the following pertains to a disease in which tissue similar to the lining of the uterus
grows outside the uterus?
Answer: endometriosis
19.Which of the following can be employed to expedite scan times?
1.Parallel imaging
2.SE Sequences
3.Rectangular FOV
4.Sat bands
Answer: 1,3
20.Which of the following conditions pertains to an abnormal passageway of connection that
shouldn't be present?
Answer: fistula
21.In the following Sagittal T2-weighted MR image, the arrows point to which structure?
Answer: Seminal Vesicle
22.When planning a Coronal sequence on a pelvic exam, slices should be prescribed in the
Sagittal plane to cover from the coccyx posteriorly to the anterior aspect of which structure?
Answer: Pubic Symphysis
23.Which of the following pertains to the necessary preparation for a prostate MRI exam?
Fasting for 4-6 hours
Expelling gas
Emptying the bowel
Answer: all of the above
24.Which of the following pertains to cancer that has spread from it's initial site of origin to
another part of the body?
Mets
Secondary Cancer
Answer: both of the above
25.In the following Sagittal image of the pelvis, which arrow points to the Bladder?
Answer: G