Aquaculture set C

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1. A process that strips oxygen from an ecosystem.
a. photosynthesis
b. respiration
c. BOD and COD
d. all of the above
2. One of the following statements is incorrect.
a. Autotrophs produce their own food.
b. Heterotrophs are primary producers
c. Photosynthesis builds up carbohydrates
d. Most larval stages of fish are either omnivorous or carnivorous.
3. A lotic aquaculture system is exemplified by a. recirculating system
b. open pond with water exchange
c. flow through system
d. all of the above
4. The highest fish production can be achieved in a. flow through/recirculating system
b. aerated ponds
c. pen
d. cage
5. Energy-wise, the culture of what species will yield most?
a. carnivorous
b. omnivorous
c. herbivorous
d. none
6. Which of the following will not cause low primary productivity in ponds?
a. nutrient deficiency
b. acidity
c. low stocking density
d. pest
7. When fish gasps at the surface, a fish culturist must immediately do one of the
a. fertilize the pond
b. drain the pond
c. activate life support system
d. feed the species
8. Aquaculture may affect the environment through the following:
a. Eutrophication of aquatic systems
b. Reduction of pelagic fisheries populations
c. Decimation of important natural life support systems
d. All of the above
9. One of the commodities listed below is not a top fishery export of the Philippines a. milkfish
b. seaweeds
c. prawn
d. tuna
10. In terms of finfish production, one of the following agro-ecological zones yields the
most in both volume and value.
a. mariculture areas
b. brackishwater ponds
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c. freshwater ponds
d. none of the above
11. Carrying capacity can be increased by:
a. fertilization
b. aeration
c. feeding
d. all of the above
12. Primary productivity in natural systems is contributed by the following:
a. photosynthesis
b. chemosynthesis
c. photoassimilation
d. all of the above
13. Photosynthesis occurs in:
a. majority of plants
b. areas with light wavelength within visible range
c. euphotic zone of a lake
d. all of the above
14. A pond deficient with nitrogen must not be fertilized with a. urea
b. ammonium sulphate
c. solophos
d. ammonium phosphate
15. Plankton method of growing food requires a minimum depth of:
a. 15-20cm
b. 75-100cm
c. 15-30cm
d. below 15cm
16. A gaseous biogeochemical cycle that is self- replenishing, almost a perfect cycle.
a. Nitrogen cycle
b. Phosphorous cycle
c. Carbon cycle
d. Carbon Dioxide cycle
17. Fish grows isometrically when their Length-Weight relationship yields a b value of:
a. 1
b. 3
c. < or > 1
d. < or > 3
18. Cost of fish production can be improved by:
a. improvement of FCR
b. efficient feed formulation
c. proper feeding
d. all of the above
19. Feeds that contain ingredients of precisely known composition and formulated from
synthetic substances.
a. practical diets
b. complete diets
c. purified diets
d. balance diets
20. Suitable range of water pH for fish growth.
a. 5-8
b. 6.5-9
c. 6.0-9.0
d. 6.5-11
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21. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. All biogeochemical cycles are self-replenishing
b. The lower the FCR the better
c. Carrying capacity is the ability of the pond to produce natural foods
d. growth potential of a fish can be exceeded with proper maintenance of growth
related factor
22. A type of parasitic crustacean that is caused by parasitic copepod, worm-like adults
buried in the body and only female species infect the fish
a. Lerneasis
b. fish lice
c. skin fluke
d. gill fluke
23. Protogyny, in which female species turn into males, is common to this family
a. Labridae
b. Scaridae
c. Serranidae
d. Monocantidae
24. This is a phenomenon caused by low salinity, temperature and light intensity. This
health condition of seaweed wherein it exudes organic substances, which is
mucilaginous in nature and with the presence opportunistic bacteria in the water
column aggravates the whitening of the branches.
a. tip discoloration
b. die off
c. ice-ice disease
d. tip darkening
25. Kjeldahl digestion is the method of analysis of what major fraction of feeds and
a. crude protein
b. moisture
c. crude fat
d. crude fiber
26. Weed control is one of the different strategies in pond management. Which of the
following is not an adverse effect of weeds?
a. utilize soil nutrients
b. increase in hydrogen sulfide concentration
c. interfere with the production of fish
d. impede solar exposure of the pond
27. The following species of fish exhibit bisexual reproduction except:
a. catfish
b. milkfish
c. mullets
d. none of these
28. It is defined as the number of eggs spawned a. fecundity
b. fertility
c. spawning
d. stocks
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29. In ponds, the problem with acid sulfate soils usually originates in:
a. gates
b. levees
c. dikes
d. canals
30. What is the active ingredient of the organic pesticide, derris roots?
a. rotenone
b. saponin
c. teaseed
d. nicotine
31. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Chaetoceros
b. Brachionus
c. Skeletonema
d. Spirulina
32. Which of the following families exhibit a protandrous mode of reproduction?
a. Serranidae
b. Ciprinidae
c. Penaeidae
d. Clariidiidae
33. Which of the following statement about feeds and feeding of fishes and shrimps is
a. Milkfish broodstock are fed with 25%protein.
b. Milkfish larvae fed on chlorella.
c. Tilapias are omnivorous
d. Shrimp more actively at night.
34. What anti- nutritional substance is found in ipil-ipil that interferes with enzyme
synthesis in the liver?
a. lectin
b. memosine
c. phytates
d. thiaminase
35. Aflatoxicosis is a disease resulting from exposure of feeds to aflatoxincontaminated diet. This is also known as
a. Red disease
b. Black disease
c. Paralytic syndrome
d. Fusarium disease
36. Anti- nutritional substance that is found in cassava that releases poisonous
hydrocyanic acid upon hydrolysis.
a. peroxide
b. cyanogens
c. tannin
d. phytates
37. Which of the following minerals is considered as macro-element and required in the
diet in relatively large amount?
a. iron
b. copper
c. chlorine
d. selenium
38. What do you call the milkfish breeders?
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a. sabalo
c. gravid
b. kawag-kawag
d. berried
39. Which of the following is considered as unslaked lime?
a. CaO
b. CaOH
c. CaS104
d. CaCO3
40. Which of the following is not a mode of action of probiotics?
a. dampen the immunological system of the host
b. eliminate pathogenic bacteria
c. help in digestion
d. prevent adhesion of harmful bacteria
41. Which of the following is not recommended as environment-friendly practice in an
aqua farm?
a. feed right
b. recirculating aquaculture system
c. monoculture practice
d. use of settling pond
42. Which of the following has nitrogen as its only nutrient component (single
a. urea
b. potassium chloride
c. potasium sulfate
d. super phosphate
43. Which of the following is not a zooplankton?
a. brachionus
b. moina
c. chaetoceros
d. artemia
44. Which of the following factors affect fecundity?
a. buoyancy of the eggs
b. size of the eggs
c. type of spawning and age of the fish d. all of these
45. Which of the following species of fish exhibit parthenogenic reproduction?
a. Amazon molly
b. snakehead
c. freshwater prawn
d. mullet
46. Organisms that spawn more than once before dying a. semelparous
b. homologous
c. iteroparous
d. homozygous
47. A product of fish protein metabolism and decomposition of organic matter by
bacteria a. urea
b. phosphorous
c. potassium
d. ammonia
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48. Which of the following environmental stimuli affect spawning of tropical species?
a. rainfall and floods
b. courtship behavior
c. temperature
d. all of these
49. Brood hiders whose eggs endure dry season a. xerophils
b. speleophils
c. ostracophils
d. aphyrophils
50. This feed is given to fish weighing 5.1-30.0 grams per piece . . .
a. mash
b. crumbles
c. juvenile pellets
d. adult pellets
51. Brachionus is commonly known as a. artemia
b. green algae
c. rotifers
d. megalopa
52. Which of this animal litter has the highest nitrogen content?
a. sheep (old)
b. broiler (fresh)
c. swine (fold)
d. layers (fresh)
53. Soil type with 22% clay, 14% silt and 63% sand.
a. clay-clay type
b. sandy-clay type
c. sandy-loam type
d. loam type
54. Example of antibiotics used as dietary component of aqua feeds a. Anthaxanthin
b. gonadotrophine
c. canthaxanthin
d. oxytetracycline
55. Dissolve oxygen is high in:
a. high temperature
c. high pressure
b. high salinity
d. high evaporation
56. Routinely added to most fish diets to prevent fats from becoming rancid in storage a. antibiotics
b. vitamins
c. pigments
d. antioxidant
57. Overliming can give a deficiency of a. Fe
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
58. Often used to flocculate suspended solids so that they will settle quickly.
a. aluminum sulfate
b. calcium carbonate
c. pyrite
d. magnesium sulfate
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59. A complex community of microbenthic biota closely associated with pond bed a. lablab
b. lumot
c. phytoplankton
d. zooplankton
60. Which of the following feedstuff has the highest apparent protein digestibility?
a. gelatin
b. yeast
c. corn starch
d. fish meal
61. Substances added to feeds to make it stable in water a. vitamins
b. fillers
c. antibiotics
d. binders
62. Refers to the layer of the land or the changes in the surface and elevation of the
ground a. soil pH
b. soil area
c. soil texture
d. topography
63. Vibriosis occurs in the following conditions except:
a. high temperature
b. high salinity
c. high oxygen
d. high organic load
64. Localized tissue anemia due to obstruction of the inflow of blood.
a. lethargy
b. necrosis
c. anemia
d. ischemia
65. Abnormal protrusion of the eyeball of the fish a. exophthalmia
b. ulceration
c. ischemia
d. necrosis
66. Origin of Red tilapia a. Thailand
c. Egypt
b. Singapore
d. Taiwan
67. Origin of aquaculture a. China
c. US
b. Japan
d. Greece
68. Which of the following is the chemical commonly used as treatment for viral
a. copper sulfate
b. oxylinic acid
c. magnesium oxide
d. none of these
69. This is a normal free-living organism either in water or the fish, but is capable of
adopting pathogenic role under certain circumstances.
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a. Primary or obligate pathogen
c. Isopod infestation
b. Opportunistic pathogen
d. Bacterial hemorrhagic septicemia
70. Condition characterized by a deficiency of hemoglobin, packed cell volume, or
erythrocytes in the blood a. thrombosis
b. anorexia
c. dystrophy
d. anemia
71. Luminous Bacterial Disease is caused by what strains of Vibrio?
a. V. harveyii and V. splendidus
b. V. penaeicida and V. damsel
c. V. fluvialis and V harveyii
d. V. alginolyticus and V. splendidus
72. This is caused by opportunistic gram-negative bacteria like Vibrio, Aeromonas,
Pseudomonas and members of Enterobacteriaceae a. Isopod infestation
b. Infections of acid fast bacteria
c. Bacterial Hemorrhagic Septicemia
d. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
73. The following are examples of major viral infections in fish except:
a. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome
b. Lymphocystis Disease
c. Yellow Head Virus Disease
d. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
74. Best known viral disease of marine and freshwater fish a. Herpesvirus
b. Lymphocystis
c. Viral Nervous Necrosis
d. White spot disease
75. Several species of crabs are now of commercial value and can be obtained from the
natural habitat or hatchery. Which of the following is considered the native crab?
a. Scylla tranquebarica
b. Scylla olivaceous
c. Scylla serrata
d. Scylla paramamosain
76. White Spot Syndrome Virus (WSSV) Disease, a major viral infection in penaid
shrimp, is caused by . . .
a. Parvovirus
b. Baculovirus
c. Rhabdovirus
d. nodavirus
77. Which of the following water management methods is stressful to shrimps during
a. frequent water exchange
b. application of Probiotics
c. application of lime
d. production of green water
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78. The egg-carrying females of common crustaceans such as prawn and crabs are
termed . . .
a. elated
b. pregnant
c. berried
c. matured
79. Larval stage of Penaeus after nauplius a. post larvae
b. broodstock
c. zoea
d. fingerlings
80. Which of the following is incorrect about the sex determination of Siganus
a. Males are generally smaller than females
b. Abdomen of female is distinctly plump
c. Whitish fluid come from the abdomen of male once pressed
d. Female is more active than male
81. Known as the giant/king mud crab a. Scylla paramamosain
b. Scylla olivacea
c. Scylla tranquebarica
d. Scylla serrata
82. A serious viral problem to grouper culture which was first reported in Japan in 1991
and 1994.
a. Viral Nervous Necrosis
b. Taura Syndrome Virus
c. White Spot Disease
d. Lymphocystis disease
83. Which of the following is not a right technique in handling and transporting prawn
a. Place the organism in plastic bag with oxygen pressure
b. Place the spawner in freshwater with continuous aeration
c. Put certain amount of ice outside the plastic bag to be use
d. all of these
84. Which of the following statements is incorrect about male crab?
a. it has 4 pairs of gonopods
b. it has semi-circular abdomen
c. it has semi-circular abdomen and it has smaller cheliped than female
d. all of these
85. The following species of Siganus make use of coral reef as its habitat except:
a. punctatus
b. vermiculatus
c. luridus
d. none of these
86. Berried crabs should be:
a. disinfected through formalin bath
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b. fed with 30-40% biomass daily
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c. stocked in tank with freshwater d. all of the above
87. Walking legs of prawn a. periopods
c. pleopods
b. uropods
d. gonapods
88. Crustacean parasite known as fish louse a. Argulus
b. Caligus
c. Ergasilus
d. Lernea
89. Viral Nervous Necrosis (VNN), common among groupers and related species is
caused by:
a. rhabdovirus
b. parvovirus
c. baculovirus
d. nodavirus
90. This is a serious finfish disease in Asia affecting more than 100 species of wild and
cultured fish and to a lesser extent brackishwater fishes.
a. Infectious Acid Fast Bacteria
b. Bacterial Hemorrhagic Septicemia
c. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome
d. Fungal disease
91. Tilapia nests can be natural or constructed cavities. What do you call this kind of
ecological spawning?
a. Psammophils
b. Phytophils
c. Aphrophils
d. Speleophils
92. The following are gross signs of Spinning Tilapia Syndrome except:
a. do not feed
b. scale loss
c. swim in spiral pattern
d. gasping for air
93. What is the right water management for semi-intensive culture of tilapia in ponds?
a. frequent water change
b. flow-through
c. 50% water change after 2 months
d. 5-10% daily water change
94. Common carp spawns between 2-8am and eggs hatched in __________days.
a. 1-2
b. 4-5
c. 2-3
d. 5-6
95. At how many months do catfish reach maturity?
a. 4-5 months
b. 1 - 3 months
c. 6 - 8 months
d. more than 1 year
96. The species of carp which is flat head, sub-inferior mouth, herbivore and widely
introduced for weed control.
a. Ctenopharyngodon idella
b. Cyprinus carpio
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c. Ctenopharyngodon nobilis
d. Hypothalmichtys molitrix
97. He introduced Tilapia in the Philippines in 1950 a. Guerrero
b. Tayamen
c. Dureza
d. Villadolid
98. The success of the milkfish culture in fishpens in Laguna de Bay could be attributed
to the following except:
a. occurrence of algal bloom
b. absence of true plankton feeders
c. mixed water
d. bottom is sandy and coralline
99. First maturation of common carp occurs within how many months.
a. 3-5
b. 6-8
c. 8-12
d. 4-8
100. Carp, catfish, and snakehead are usually inflicted with cestode, and endoparasitic
tapeworm with ribbon-like body. Causative agent is:
a. Echinocephalus
b. Alitropus
c. Argulus
d. Botriocephalus
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Answer key
1. d
2. b
3. d
4. a
5. c
6. c
7. c
8. d
9. a
10. b
11. d
12. d
13. d
14. c
15. b
16. a
17. b
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. b
22. a
23. d
24. c
25. a
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26. b
27. d
28. a
29. b
30. a
31. b
32. a
33. b
34. b
35. a
36. b
37. c
38. a
39. a
40. a
41. a
42. a
43. c
44. d
45. a
46. c
47. d
48. d
49. a
50. b
51. c
52. d
53. b
54. d
55. c
56. d
57. b
58. d
59. a
60. d
61. d
62. d
63. c
64. d
65. a
66. d
67. a
68. d
69. b
70. d
71. a
72. c
73. c
74. b
75. b
76. b
77. a
78. c
79. c
80. d
81. d
82. a
83. b
84. d
85. b
86. a
87. a
88. a
89. d
90. d
91. d
92. b
93. a
94. c
95. c
96. a
97. d
98. d
99. c
100. d
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