The above contents are followed by past year papers and their mark schemes to help further your prac8ce. Curated by: Ashwini Page 2 of 36 ACTION WORDS Page 3 of 36 Page 4 of 36 Page 5 of 36 Page 6 of 36 Page 7 of 36 Page 8 of 36 Page 9 of 36 Page 10 of 36 Page 11 of 36 Page 12 of 36 Page 13 of 36 Page 14 of 36 Page 15 of 36 Page 16 of 36 Page 17 of 36 Page 18 of 36 Page 19 of 36 Page 20 of 36 Page 21 of 36 Page 22 of 36 Page 23 of 36 Page 24 of 36 Page 25 of 36 Page 26 of 36 Page 27 of 36 Page 28 of 36 Page 29 of 36 Page 30 of 36 Page 31 of 36 Page 32 of 36 Page 33 of 36 Page 34 of 36 Page 35 of 36 Page 36 of 36 PMT Cambridge IGCSE™ PHYSICS 0625/22 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2022 45 minutes You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet. *0532883419* You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet Soft clean eraser Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended) INSTRUCTIONS There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet. Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet. Write in soft pencil. Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been done for you. Do not use correction fluid. Do not write on any bar codes. You may use a calculator. Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2). INFORMATION The total mark for this paper is 40. Each correct answer will score one mark. Any rough working should be done on this question paper. This document has 16 pages. IB22 03_0625_22/3RP © UCLES 2022 [Turn over PMT 2 1 A student investigates a pendulum. He measures the time for the pendulum to complete 20 oscillations. He repeats the experiment three more times. The readings are shown. experiment time for 20 oscillations / s 1 17.6 2 19.8 3 17.6 4 18.6 What is the average period of the pendulum? A 2 0.88 s B 0.92 s C 17.6 s D 18.4 s A tennis ball falls from the upstairs window of a house. What can be said about the acceleration of the ball if air resistance is ignored? 3 A It depends on the density of the ball. B It depends on the mass of the ball. C It increases as the ball falls. D It stays the same as the ball falls. A car joins a road at a speed of 14 m / s and accelerates at 4.0 m / s2 for 5.0 seconds. What is the final speed of the car? A 18 m / s © UCLES 2022 B 20 m / s C 32 m / s 0625/22/F/M/22 D 34 m / s PMT 3 4 The gravitational field strength is 8.8 N / kg on Venus and 3.8 N / kg on Mars. An object has a weight of 42 N on Venus. What are the mass and the weight of the object on Mars? 5 mass / kg weight / N A 4.8 18 B 4.8 42 C 11 42 D 11 97 A student carries out an experiment to find the density of a rock. measuring cylinder liquid rock 200 g balance 264 g Which two measurements does the student need to make to determine the density of the rock? 6 measurement 1 measurement 2 A increase in mass increase in volume of liquid B final mass increase in depth of liquid C increase in mass increase in depth of liquid D final mass increase in volume of liquid A car has a mass of 1500 kg. A constant resultant force acts on the car and the car accelerates from 15 m / s to 20 m / s in 4.0 seconds. What is the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the car? A 300 N © UCLES 2022 B 1200 N C 1900 N 0625/22/F/M/22 D 7500 N [Turn over PMT 4 7 A metal wire is loaded up to the limit of proportionality. Which statement is correct? 8 A Hooke’s law is not obeyed when the load is increased from zero to this point. B When the load is increased beyond the limit of proportionality, the diameter of the wire will increase. C When the load is removed, the wire returns to its original length. D Up to the limit of proportionality, there is no change in the shape of the wire. The diagram shows a uniform metre rule, MN, pivoted at its midpoint P. M P W1 N W2 Two weights, W1 and W2, are hung either side of the pivot. The rule remains balanced. Which row is correct? 9 direction of resultant moment about point M direction of resultant force on the rule A clockwise downwards B clockwise zero C zero downwards D zero zero Which physical quantity is a vector? A mass B density C temperature D velocity 10 A resultant force of 500 N acts for 10 s on a car of mass 1000 kg. This causes the velocity of the car to double. What is the final velocity of the car? A 5m/s © UCLES 2022 B 10 m / s C 20 m / s 0625/22/F/M/22 D 50 m / s PMT 5 11 A child pushes a toy car along a horizontal surface and then releases it. As the car slows down, what is the main energy transfer? A from chemical to thermal B from chemical to kinetic C from kinetic to gravitational (potential) D from kinetic to thermal 12 At time = 0, a cannonball is stationary inside a cannon. The cannonball is then fired from the cannon. At time = t, the cannonball moves forwards and the cannon moves backwards. What happens to the total kinetic energy and the total momentum of the cannon and the cannonball between time = 0 and time = t ? total kinetic energy of cannon and cannonball total momentum of cannon and cannonball A changes changes B changes remains the same C remains the same changes D remains the same remains the same 13 In a small hydroelectric power scheme, 800 kg of water drops through a vertical height of 2.2 m every second. The electrical output is 10.6 kW. What is the efficiency of the scheme? A 0.60% B 17% C 60% D 75% 14 An object is at rest on a horizontal surface. Which equation is used to calculate the pressure that the object exerts? A mass of the object area of contact B weight of the object area of contact C mass of the object area of contact D weight of the object area of contact © UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22 [Turn over PMT 6 15 Smoke particles, illuminated by a bright lamp, are seen through a microscope. They move about randomly. What causes this motion? A attraction between the smoke particles and the molecules of the air B collisions between the smoke particles and the molecules of the air C evaporation of the faster-moving smoke particles D warming of the smoke particles by the lamp 16 Ether is a liquid that evaporates easily at room temperature. The rate at which ether evaporates can be increased by bubbling air through it. The diagram shows this process. air air bubbles ether Students give three suggestions why the rate of evaporation increases when air is bubbled through. Student 1 suggests that the temperature of the ether is decreased. Student 2 suggests that the surface area of the ether is increased. Student 3 suggests that evaporated molecules are removed at a greater rate. Which students are correct? A 1 and 2 © UCLES 2022 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 0625/22/F/M/22 D 3 only PMT 7 17 Some ice is slowly heated and its temperature is measured. A graph is plotted of temperature against time. 100 temperature / qC X 0 –10 time Which row describes what happens to the thermal energy and to the temperature in section X? thermal energy temperature of ice A gained by ice rises B gained by ice stays the same C not gained by ice rises D not gained by ice stays the same 18 The diagram shows the apparatus needed for an experiment to determine the specific heat capacity of the material from which an object is made. thermometer A heater object stop-clock V balance Which piece of apparatus could be omitted if the purpose of the experiment is to determine the thermal capacity of the object? A ammeter B balance C stop-clock D thermometer © UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22 [Turn over PMT 8 19 Both boiling and evaporation involve a change of state from liquid to gas. Which row gives the correct difference between boiling and evaporation? boiling evaporation A no bubbles are formed bubbles are formed B occurs at all temperatures occurs at a definite temperature C occurs throughout the liquid occurs at the surface only D the temperature falls the temperature remains constant 20 Which statement describes thermal conduction in a metal by electrons? A Atoms and electrons move freely throughout the metal. B Atoms and electrons vibrate about their fixed positions only. C Electrons move freely throughout the metal. D Electrons remain attached to atoms. 21 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water. Refraction is observed. What causes the ripples to refract? A The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water. B The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water. C The ripples hit the wall of the tank. D The ripples pass through a narrow gap. 22 The diagram shows wavefronts of a water wave passing through a gap in a barrier. barrier Which change will increase the diffraction of the wave as it passes through the gap? A Increase the amplitude of the wave. B Increase the width of the gap. C Reduce the depth of water. D Reduce the frequency of the wave. © UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22 PMT 9 23 The diagrams each show a ray of light from an object O passing through a thin converging lens. The principal focuses in each diagram are labelled F. 1 2 O O F F F F 3 O F F Which diagrams are correct? A 1 and 2 B 2 only C 1 and 3 D 3 only 24 The diagram shows a ray of light inside an optical fibre approaching point X. normal to the surface at X tangent to the surface at X X P Q The light is totally reflected within the fibre. The refractive index of the material of the optical fibre is 1.39. Which condition ensures that total internal reflection occurs? A Q < 45 © UCLES 2022 B Q > 47 C P > 47 0625/22/F/M/22 D P=Q [Turn over PMT 10 25 An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun. Which statement is correct? A Infrared radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultraviolet radiation. B Ultraviolet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infrared radiation. C Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultraviolet radiation and infrared radiation. D Infrared radiation, ultraviolet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the same moment. 26 The diagram shows air particles in a sound wave. V W X Y Z Which row correctly identifies the position of a compression and position of a rarefaction? compression rarefaction A X Y B Y X C V Z D Z V 27 Two isolated metal spheres are both negatively charged. The spheres are brought close together but do not touch. Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the spheres? B A – – – – – – – – – C – – – – – – D – – – – – – – – – 28 Two separate circuits have different power supplies. Both power supplies provide the same magnitude current. Power supply P has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V and power supply Q has an e.m.f. of 3.0 V. Which statements about Q are correct when compared with P? A 1 Q supplies twice the charge per unit time. 2 Q supplies twice the energy per unit charge. 3 Q supplies twice the energy per unit time. 1, 2 and 3 © UCLES 2022 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only 0625/22/F/M/22 D 2 and 3 only PMT 11 29 The diagram shows a piece of metal resistance wire. Which wire, made of the same metal, has a smaller resistance? A a wire of the same length with a larger diameter B a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter C a wire of greater length with the same diameter D a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter 30 Which labelled component in the circuit shown controls the brightness of lamp X? A V X B C D 31 A circuit includes a battery, two identical resistors and five ammeters, P, Q, R, S and T. P Q A A R A S T A A Which statement about the readings on the ammeters is not correct? A P has a greater reading than Q. B P has a greater reading than R. C P has a greater reading than S. D P has a greater reading than T. © UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22 [Turn over PMT 12 32 An electrician sets up a potential divider circuit in a fridge so that when the fridge door is open and light from the room enters the fridge, a warning light turns on. Which component does the electrician need to use in addition to a variable resistor? A light-dependent resistor B relay C thermistor D variable resistor 33 Two NAND gates are joined together as shown. input 1 output input 2 Which single logic gate is equivalent to this combination? A AND © UCLES 2022 B NAND C NOR 0625/22/F/M/22 D OR PMT 13 34 The diagram shows an electric drill and safety guard. electric motor safety guard in closed position drill The drill requires the logic circuit shown. starting switch on 1 A off 0 motor motor on 1 motor off 0 alarm alarm on 1 alarm off 0 safety guard open 0 B closed 1 ? The circuit must only allow the motor to start when the safety guard is closed. If the safety guard is not closed when the starting switch is on, the alarm must sound. Which logic gate is missing from the circuit? A NOT B NAND C AND D NOR 35 Two magnets are placed near a current-carrying coil. The diagram shows this experimental arrangement and the current direction in the coil. X N Y S N S Which statement is correct? A Both X and Y are attracted to the coil. B Both X and Y are repelled by the coil. C X is attracted to the coil and Y is repelled. D X is repelled by the coil and Y is attracted. © UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22 [Turn over PMT 14 36 Two circuits are set up as shown. The iron rods are placed close together and are able to move. S iron rod X iron rod What happens to the size of the gap at X when switch S is closed? A It decreases. B It decreases then increases. C It increases. D It does not change. 37 When a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force. Which statement about this force is correct? A It is parallel to both the magnetic field and the direction of the current. B It is parallel to the magnetic field and perpendicular to the direction of the current. C It is perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the direction of the current. D It is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the direction of the current. © UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22 PMT 15 38 When a beam of -particles is incident on a thin metal foil, most of them follow a path represented by path X in the diagram. A small number of -particles follow a path represented by path Y in the diagram. foil X Y Which row correctly describes a conclusion that can be drawn from each of these observations about the structure of the atom? most follow path X some follow path Y A atom is mostly empty space atom contains something that repels -particles B atom is mostly empty space nucleus contains protons and neutrons C atom is neutral atom contains something that repels -particles D atom is neutral nucleus contains protons and neutrons 39 Nuclear fusion is a reaction that takes place in stars. Which row describes this reaction? action of atomic nuclei energy A an atomic nucleus splits into two or more smaller nuclei absorbed B an atomic nucleus splits into two or more smaller nuclei released C atomic nuclei join together to form a larger nucleus absorbed D atomic nuclei join together to form a larger nucleus released © UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22 [Turn over PMT 16 40 When a radioactive isotope is set up close to a counter, a count rate of 38 000 counts / s is obtained. The table shows the count rate from the isotope over a three-year period. time / years count rate counts / s 0 38 000 1 26 000 2 17 000 3 12 000 What is the half-life of the isotope? A less than 1 year B more than 1 year but less than 2 years C more than 2 years but less than 3 years D more than 3 years Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge. © UCLES 2022 0625/22/F/M/22 PMT Cambridge IGCSE™ PHYSICS 0625/22 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2022 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 40 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components. This document consists of 3 printed pages. © UCLES 2022 [Turn over PMT 0625/22 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question Answer February/March 2022 Marks 1 B 1 2 D 1 3 D 1 4 A 1 5 A 1 6 C 1 7 C 1 8 D 1 9 D 1 10 B 1 11 D 1 12 B 1 13 C 1 14 B 1 15 B 1 16 C 1 17 B 1 18 B 1 19 C 1 20 C 1 21 B 1 22 D 1 23 C 1 24 B 1 25 D 1 26 A 1 27 D 1 28 D 1 © UCLES 2022 Page 2 of 3 PMT 0625/22 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question Answer February/March 2022 Marks 29 A 1 30 B 1 31 A 1 32 A 1 33 A 1 34 C 1 35 B 1 36 C 1 37 D 1 38 A 1 39 D 1 40 B 1 © UCLES 2022 Page 3 of 3 Cambridge IGCSE™ PHYSICS0625/02 For examination from 2023 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) 45 minutes SPECIMEN PAPER You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet. *0123456789* You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet Soft clean eraser Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended) INSTRUCTIONS ● There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. ● For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet. ● Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet. ● Write in soft pencil. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been done for you. ● Do not use correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● You may use a calculator. ● Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2). INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 40. ● Each correct answer will score one mark. ● Any rough working should be done on this question paper. This document has 14 pages. © UCLES 2020 [Turn over 2 1 A length of string is measured between two points on a ruler. string 0 cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 When the length of string is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times. six turns of string pen What is the distance once round the pen? A 2 3 B 2.2 cm C 2.6 cm D 13.2 cm 15.6 cm When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity? A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object An athlete runs a 100 m race in a straight line. The table shows how his speed changes with time for the first 5.0 s of the race. speed m / s 0 1.7 4.1 5.7 6.5 6.8 time / s 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 What is the average acceleration of the athlete between time 2.0 s and time 3.0 s? A 4 1.6 m / s2 B 1.9 m / s2 C 4.9 m / s2 D 5.7 m / s2 D 740 N The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N / kg. An astronaut has a mass of 75 kg. What is the weight of the astronaut on the Moon? A 47 N © UCLES 2020 B 75 N C 120 N 0625/02/SP/23 3 5 Two objects P and Q are placed in a beaker containing a liquid. Object P floats in the liquid and object Q sinks. Which row for the densities of object P, object Q and the liquid is possible? 6 density of object P g / cm3 density of object Q g / cm3 density of liquid g / cm3 A 1.2 0.6 0.8 B 1.2 1.4 1.0 C 11.3 8.9 13.6 D 11.3 19.3 13.6 A ball of mass 0.12 kg is hit by a tennis player. The velocity of the ball changes from 0 m / s to 5.0 m / s in 0.60 s. What is the average resultant force acting on the ball while it is being hit? A 7 1.0 N B C 2.5 N D 3.6 N 8.3 N A balloon and a mass are attached to a rod that is pivoted at a fixed point P. balloon 45 40 35 30 25 20 cm 15 10 5 P mass The balloon is filled with helium, which is a gas that is less dense than air. The balloon filled with helium applies an upward force on the rod. The rod is horizontal and in equilibrium. Which action causes the rod to rotate clockwise? A moving the balloon to the 40 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark B moving the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 10 cm mark C moving the balloon to the 25 cm mark and the mass to the 25 cm mark D moving the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 [Turn over 4 8 A hole is made in a square tile of uniform thickness. The diagram shows the tile hanging loosely on a nail. Where is the centre of gravity of the tile? A nail through hole tile D C 9 B An object of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second object of mass 0.10 kg is at rest. The first object strikes the second object. After the collision, the second object moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. What is the speed of the first object after the collision? A 0.0 m / s B 0.19 m / s C 0.31 m / s D 0.50 m / s 10 A ball is at rest at the top of a hill. The ball rolls down the hill. At the bottom of the hill the ball hits a wall and stops. Which energy changes occur? A gravitational potential energy → internal energy → kinetic energy B gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → internal energy C kinetic energy → gravitational potential energy → internal energy D kinetic energy → internal energy → gravitational potential energy © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 5 11 A man climbs a ladder. Which quantities can be used to calculate the useful power of the man? A the weight of the man and the time taken only B the weight of the man and the vertical distance moved only C the work done by the man and the time taken only D the work done by the man and the vertical distance moved only 12 A student uses her thumb to push a drawing pin (thumb tack) into a notice board. The pin goes into the board but does not penetrate her thumb. Which statement explains this? A The force exerted by the pin on her thumb is greater than the force exerted by the pin on the notice board. B The force exerted by the pin on the notice board is greater than the force exerted by the pin on her thumb. C The pressure of the pin on her thumb is greater than the pressure of the pin on the notice board. D The pressure of the pin on the notice board is greater than the pressure of the pin on her thumb. 13 A submarine is a boat that can travel below the surface of the sea. A submarine is 20 m below the surface of the sea. The pressure due to the sea water at this depth is P. On another day, the submarine is 26 m below the surface of fresh water. The density of sea water is 1.3 times the density of fresh water. What is the pressure due to the fresh water at a depth of 26 m? A P 1.3 B P C 1.3 P D 1.7 P 14 When particles of a gas collide with a wall of a container, the wall experiences a pressure. What is the cause of this pressure? A the change in energy of the particles B the change in momentum of the particles C the change in power of the particles D the change in speed of the particles © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 [Turn over 6 15 A substance can exist in three different states: solid, liquid or gas. Each of the two statements below describes a change of state. change 1: Particles move much closer together but continue to travel throughout the substance. change 2: Particles stop travelling throughout the substance and just vibrate about fixed positions. Which changes of state do these statements describe? change 1 change 2 A condensation melting B condensation solidification C solidification condensation D solidification melting 16 Copper is a type of metal. A block of copper has a mass of 2.0 kg. The block of copper absorbs 12 000 J of thermal energy. The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C). What is the temperature rise of the copper? A 15.6 °C B 31.2 °C C D 46.8 °C 62.4 °C 17 The diagram shows the gap between a hot surface and a cold surface. The gap can contain air (gas), iron (solid), a vacuum or water (liquid). cold gap hot Which material in the gap allows the quickest transfer of thermal energy between the surfaces by conduction? A air (gas) B iron (solid) C vacuum D water (liquid) © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 7 18 Which row about boiling and about evaporation is correct? boiling evaporation A takes place only at the surface takes place only at the surface B takes place only at the surface takes place throughout the liquid C takes place throughout the liquid takes place only at the surface D takes place throughout the liquid takes place throughout the liquid 19 Light travels at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m / s in a glass block. In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 × 10–7 m. What is the frequency of the light? A 2.0 × 10–15 Hz B 1.3 × 10–2 Hz C 80 Hz D 5.0 × 1014 Hz 20 In a shallow tank, a water wave moves through a barrier with a narrow gap. The diagram shows the waves on the left-hand side and the right-hand side of the barrier. water wave Which term describes the effect shown? A reflection B dispersion C refraction D diffraction © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 [Turn over 8 21 Which statement describes monochromatic light? A light that never diffracts B light that has a single frequency C light that spreads out when shone through a glass prism D light that travels at the same speed in all materials 22 An object is placed 8.0 cm from a thin converging lens of focal length 5.0 cm. converging lens object F 5.0 cm 8.0 cm Which statement about the image formed by the lens is correct? A The image is real and inverted. B The image is real and upright. C The image is virtual and inverted. D The image is virtual and upright. 23 A ray of light travels through transparent plastic to air. transparent plastic air NOT TO SCALE The ray of light enters the air travelling parallel to the surface of the plastic. The refractive index of the plastic is 1.25. What is angle θ ? A 37° © UCLES 2020 B 39° C 51° 0625/02/SP/23 D 53° 9 24 What is the speed of electromagnetic waves in a vacuum? A 3.0 × 104 cm / s B 3.0 × 105 km / s C 3.0 × 106 cm / s D 3.0 × 1011 km / s 25 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is reflected from the sea bed. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.3 s. The sea bed is 1000 m below the boat. boat 1000 m sea bed Using this information, what is the speed of sound in the water? A 770 m / s B 1300 m / s C 1500 m / s D 2600 m / s 26 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the ice sheet. Four microphones are placed equal distances from S. Which microphone detects the sound from S first? A air D B S water ice C © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 [Turn over 10 27 The diagram shows a bar magnet and four plotting compasses. Which compass correctly shows the direction of the magnetic field due to the magnet? A D S N B C 28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged. What happens to the plastic rod and what is the charge on the cloth? plastic rod charge on cloth A gains electrons negative B gains electrons positive C loses electrons negative D loses electrons positive 29 The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a mobile phone battery is 3.7 V. What does this mean? A 3.7 J is the maximum energy the battery can provide in 1.0 s. B 3.7 J is the total energy the battery can provide before it has to be recharged. C 3.7 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a charge of 1.0 C around a complete circuit. D 3.7 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a current of 1.0 A around a complete circuit. © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 11 30 A computer engineer wants the speed of a fan to increase when the temperature inside a computer increases. The engineer knows that a larger current causes the fan to turn more quickly. fan motor power supply M X computer Which component should be placed at X to make this happen? A a relay B a thermistor C a transformer D a variable resistor 31 A water heater is connected to a 230 V supply and there is a current of 26 A in the heater. It takes 20 minutes to heat the water to the required temperature. How much energy is supplied by the heater? A 6.0 × 103 J B 1.0 × 104 J C 1.2 × 105 J D 7.2 × 106 J 32 An electric kettle has a metal casing. The cable for the kettle contains a wire that is connected to the earth pin of the plug. Which danger does this guard against? A the cable to the kettle becoming too hot B the casing of the kettle becoming live C the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside D the casing of the kettle overheating © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 [Turn over 12 33 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect. Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay? effect used by a relay one application of a relay A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply 34 The diagram shows a bar magnet and a coil of wire. The bar magnet is moved at the same speed in each experiment. In which situation is the largest electromotive force (e.m.f.) induced? A moves right B stationary bar magnet moves left coil bar magnet C moves right bar magnet stationary coil D moves left at same speed as bar magnet moves left coil moves left at same speed as bar magnet bar magnet 35 Increasing the transmission voltage in transmission cables reduces power losses. What is the explanation for this reduction? A The current decreases, reducing thermal energy losses. B The current increases, increasing the flow of charge. C The resistance of the cable increases, reducing the current. D The resistance of the cable decreases. © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 coil 13 36 There is an electric current in a straight wire in the direction into the page. This produces a magnetic field around the wire. All the field lines are circles but only one field line is shown. magnetic field line wire with current into the page Which row describes the magnetic field? direction of the field lines spacing of the field lines A anti-clockwise equally spaced over the whole field B anti-clockwise more widely spaced further from the wire C clockwise equally spaced over the whole field D clockwise more widely spaced further from the wire 37 The diagram shows emissions from a source passing into the electric field between two charged plates. + + + + + + + + + + source – – – – – – – – – – What is emitted by this source? A neutrons and γ-rays only B α-particles and β-particles only C α-particles and γ-rays only D β-particles and γ-rays only © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 [Turn over 14 38 Which row in the table describes the process of nuclear fusion and identifies the change in total mass of the particles involved? process change in total mass of the particles A a large nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei decreases B a large nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei increases C two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus decreases D two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus increases 39 The orbit of the Moon around the Earth is modelled as a circular path of radius 3.8 × 105 km. The orbital period is 29.5 days (710 hours). What is the orbital speed of the Moon? A 5.4 × 102 km / h B 1.1 × 103 km / h C 1.7 × 103 km / h D 3.4 × 103 km / h 40 Which statement does not describe redshift? A All the light emitted from all distant galaxies is at the red end of the spectrum. B The light arriving at the Earth from a receding star is always redshifted. C During redshift, the wavelength of the observed light is longer than it is if the redshift had not occurred. D The light from stars in all distant galaxies is moved towards the red end of the spectrum. Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge. © UCLES 2020 0625/02/SP/23 Cambridge IGCSE™ 0625/02 PHYSICS For examination from 2023 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 40 Specimen This document has 4 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. © UCLES 2020 [Turn over 0625/02 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN Question Answer For examination from 2023 Marks 1 A 1 2 C 1 3 A 1 4 C 1 5 D 1 6 A 1 7 B 1 8 D 1 9 B 1 10 B 1 11 C 1 12 D 1 13 B 1 14 B 1 15 B 1 16 A 1 17 B 1 18 C 1 19 D 1 20 D 1 21 B 1 22 A 1 23 D 1 24 B 1 25 C 1 26 B 1 27 D 1 28 C 1 29 C 1 30 B 1 31 D 1 32 B 1 33 C 1 34 C 1 35 A 1 36 D 1 © UCLES 2020 Page 2 of 4 0625/02 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN Question Answer For examination from 2023 Marks 37 C 1 38 C 1 39 D 1 40 A 1 © UCLES 2020 Page 3 of 4 0625/02 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN BLANK PAGE © UCLES 2020 Page 4 of 4 For examination from 2023 Cambridge IGCSE™ *0123456789* PHYSICS0625/04 Paper 4 Theory (Extended) For examination from 2023 1 hour 15 minutes SPECIMEN PAPER You must answer on the question paper. No additional materials are needed. INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer all questions. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● You may use a calculator. ● You should show all your working and use appropriate units. ● Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2). INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 80. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. © UCLES 2020 [Turn over 2 1 Fig. 1.1 shows the speed-time graph for a vehicle accelerating from rest. 30 speed 25 m/s 20 15 10 5 0 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 time / s Fig. 1.1 (a) Calculate the acceleration of the vehicle at time t = 30 s. acceleration = ........................................................... [3] (b) Without further calculation, state how the acceleration at time t = 100 s compares to the acceleration at time t = 10 s. Using ideas about forces, explain why any change in the acceleration has occurred. .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [2] (c) Determine the distance travelled by the vehicle between time t = 120 s and time t = 160 s. distance = ........................................................... [3] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 8] 0625/04/SP/23 3 2 (a) Complete the definitions by giving the name of each quantity. mass × acceleration = ........................................................ force × time = ........................................................ [2] (b) Fig. 2.2 shows a man using a golf club to hit a ball. golf club ball Fig. 2.2 The ball has a mass of 0.046 kg. The golf club is in contact with the ball for a duration of 5.0 × 10–4 s and the ball leaves the golf club at a speed of 65 m / s. (i) Calculate the momentum of the ball as it leaves the golf club. momentum = ........................................................... [2] (ii) Calculate the average resultant force acting on the ball while it is in contact with the golf club. average force = ........................................................... [2] (iii) While the golf club is in contact with the ball, the ball becomes compressed and changes shape. State the type of energy stored in the ball during its contact with the golf club. ....................................................................................................................................... [1] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 7] 0625/04/SP/23 [Turn over 4 3 Fig. 3.1 shows solar cells that use radiation from the Sun to generate electrical power. Fig. 3.1 (a) (i) State the name of the process which releases energy in the Sun. ....................................................................................................................................... [1] (ii) Describe what happens in this process. ............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................ ....................................................................................................................................... [2] (b) Apart from solar cells, there are other energy resources used on Earth for which the radiation from the Sun is the main source. State the name of one of these energy resources and explain whether it is renewable. name of energy resource ........................................................................................................... explanation ................................................................................................................................ .................................................................................................................................................... [2] (c) State two advantages and two disadvantages of using solar cells to generate electrical power. advantage 1 ............................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... advantage 2 ............................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... disadvantage 1 .......................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... disadvantage 2 .......................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... [4] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 9] 0625/04/SP/23 5 4 Fig. 4.1 shows a balloon filled with helium that is used to lift measuring instruments to a great height above the Earth’s surface. Fig. 4.1 (a) Using ideas about momentum, explain how the atoms of helium produce a force on the wall of the balloon. .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [3] (b) At ground level, the pressure of the helium in the balloon is 1.0 × 105 Pa. The volume of the helium is 9.6 m3. The balloon is released and it rises quickly through the atmosphere. The volume of the helium increases. The temperature of the helium remains constant. (i) Explain why the pressure in the balloon decreases as the balloon rises. You should refer to helium atoms in your answer. ............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................ ....................................................................................................................................... [2] (ii) Calculate the pressure of the helium when its volume is 12 m3. pressure = ........................................................... [2] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 7] 0625/04/SP/23 [Turn over 6 5 (a) Compare the arrangement and motion of the particles in ice and in liquid water. arrangement .............................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................... motion ........................................................................................................................................ .................................................................................................................................................... [2] (b) A lake has a layer of ice on its surface. The area of the lake is 1800 m2. The ice has a thickness of 0.025 m. The density of ice is 920 kg / m3. (i) Calculate the mass of ice on the lake. mass = ........................................................... [2] (ii) At night, the temperature of the ice on the lake falls by 3.5 °C. The specific heat capacity of ice is 2.1 × 103 J / kg °C. Calculate the change in energy as the temperature falls. energy = ........................................................ J [2] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 6] 0625/04/SP/23 7 BLANK PAGE © UCLES 2020 0625/04/SP/23 [Turn over 8 6 (a) Fig. 6.1 shows a converging lens and its principal axis. The points F1 and F2 are each a principal focus of the lens. O principal axis F1 F2 Fig. 6.1 An object O is placed between F1 and the lens. (i) On Fig. 6.1, draw two rays from the top of the object O to locate the image. Label the image I. (ii) [3] The object O is moved to the left along the principal axis so that it is further from the lens than F1. Fig. 6.2 is a diagram of the new arrangement with the new image shown. O F1 F2 principal axis image Fig. 6.2 Underline three of the terms below that describe the image shown in Fig. 6.2. © UCLES 2020 diminished enlarged inverted real 0625/04/SP/23 same size upright virtual [2] 9 (b) Fig. 6.3 shows yellow light passing through a glass prism. Fig. 6.3 Blue light enters the prism along the same path as the yellow light. On Fig. 6.3, draw the path of the blue light as it enters, passes through and leaves the prism. [2] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 7] 0625/04/SP/23 [Turn over 10 7 (a) State a typical value for the speed of sound in air. speed = ........................................................... [1] (b) A sound wave in air has a wavelength of 22 mm. Using your value for the speed of sound in (a), calculate the frequency of the sound wave. frequency = ........................................................... [2] (c) Fig. 7.1 shows a solid block made from hot liquid metal. As the liquid cooled, a bubble formed inside the block. The bubble is not visible from outside the block. bubble inside metal block metal block Fig. 7.1 Describe and explain how to use ultrasound to determine the size and position of the bubble inside the metal block. You may draw on the diagram. .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [4] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 7] 0625/04/SP/23 11 8 Fig. 8.1 is a circuit diagram. 24 V 8.0 Y 4.0 Z 6.0 Fig. 8.1 (a) Calculate the combined resistance between Y and Z. resistance = ........................................................... [4] (b) Calculate the potential difference (p.d.) across the 8.0 Ω resistor. p.d. = ........................................................... [2] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 6] 0625/04/SP/23 [Turn over 12 9 Fig. 9.1 shows a conducting ball that oscillates between two charged plates. clamp insulating thread positive plate negative plate ball + – very high voltage supply sensitive ammeter Fig. 9.1 As the ball oscillates, it touches each plate in turn. (a) Referring to the charge on the ball, explain why the ball moves to the positive plate after touching the negative plate. .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [2] (b) State which particles move when there is a current and state the direction in which they move through the sensitive ammeter. particles: .................................................................................................................................... direction: .................................................................................................................................... [2] © UCLES 2020 0625/04/SP/23 13 (c) For each complete oscillation of the ball moving between the plates, a charge of 8.5 × 10–10 C is transferred from one plate to the other. The frequency of oscillation is 4.0 Hz. Calculate the current shown on the sensitive ammeter. current = ........................................................... [3] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 7] 0625/04/SP/23 [Turn over 14 10 (a) (i) An americium (Am) nucleus decays by the emission of an α-particle into a neptunium (Np) nucleus. Complete the nuclear equation for this decay. 241 Am → 95 [2] (ii) Americium is used in smoke detectors. Explain why beta (β) emitters or gamma (γ) emitters are not used in smoke detectors. ............................................................................................................................................ ....................................................................................................................................... [1] (b) The half-life of this americium nuclide is 470 years. A sample of this nuclide contains 8.0 × 1014 atoms. After some time, 6.0 × 1014 americium atoms have decayed. Calculate the time required for this decay. time = ........................................................... [3] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 6] 0625/04/SP/23 15 11 (a) Describe and explain how a stable star is formed. .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [3] (b) Describe and explain what can be deduced from cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR). .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [3] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 6] 0625/04/SP/23 [Turn over 16 12 Fig. 12.1 shows a transformer. 240 V mains 8000 turns Fig. 12.1 There are 8000 turns in the primary coil of the transformer. The primary coil is connected to a 240 V mains supply. A 6.0 V lamp connected to the secondary coil operates at full brightness. (a) Calculate the number of turns in the secondary coil. number of turns = ........................................................... [2] (b) The current in the lamp is 2.0 A. The transformer operates with 100% efficiency. Calculate the current in the primary circuit. current = ........................................................... [2] [Total: 4] Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge. © UCLES 2020 0625/04/SP/23 Cambridge IGCSE™ 0625/04 PHYSICS For examination from 2023 Paper 4 Theory (Extended) MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 80 Specimen This document has 12 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. © UCLES 2020 [Turn over Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN For examination from 2020 the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do marks are not deducted for errors marks are not deducted for omissions answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. © UCLES 2020 Page 2 of 12 Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: • • • • • Marks must be awarded positively: GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: • • • Marks must be awarded in line with: GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. Generic Marking Principles 0625/04 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN For examination from 2023 • • • • • Page 3 of 12 The response should be read as continuous prose, even when numbered answer spaces are provided. Any response marked ignore in the mark scheme should not count towards n. Incorrect responses should not be awarded credit but will still count towards n. Read the entire response to check for any responses that contradict those that would otherwise be credited. Credit should not be awarded for any responses that are contradicted within the rest of the response. Where two responses contradict one another, this should be treated as a single incorrect response. Non-contradictory responses after the first n responses may be ignored even if they include incorrect science. For questions that require n responses (e.g. State two reasons …): ‘List rule’ guidance © UCLES 2020 5 4The error carried forward (ecf) principle should be applied, where appropriate. If an incorrect answer is subsequently used in a scientifically correct way, the candidate should be awarded these subsequent marking points. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any exceptions to this general principle will be noted. 3Although spellings do not have to be correct, spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. ethane / ethene, glucagon / glycogen, refraction / reflection). 2The examiner should not choose between contradictory statements given in the same question part, and credit should not be awarded for any correct statement that is contradicted within the same question part. Wrong science that is irrelevant to the question should be ignored. 1Examiners should consider the context and scientific use of any keywords when awarding marks. Although keywords may be present, marks should not be awarded if the keywords are used incorrectly. Science-Specific Marking Principles Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: 0625/04 Calculation specific guidance Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN For examination from 2020 Guidance for chemical equations These are compensatory marks which can be awarded even if the points to which they refer are not written down by the candidate, providing subsequent working gives evidence that they must have known them. For example, if an equation carries a C mark and the candidate does not write down the actual equation but does correct working which shows the candidate knew the equation, then the C mark is awarded. If a correct answer is given to a numerical question, all of the preceding C marks are awarded automatically. It is only necessary to consider each of the C marks in turn when the numerical answer is not correct. These are answer marks. They may depend on an M mark or allow a C mark to be awarded by implication. C marks A marks Page 4 of 12 These are method marks upon which A marks later depend. For an M mark to be awarded, the point to which it refers must be seen specifically in the candidate’s answer. If a candidate is not awarded an M mark, the later A mark cannot be awarded either. M marks © UCLES 2020 These are independent marks, which do not depend on other marks. For a B mark to be awarded, the point to which it refers must be seen specifically in the candidate’s answer. B marks Mark categories State symbols given in an equation should be ignored unless asked for in the question or stated otherwise in the mark scheme. Multiples / fractions of coefficients used in chemical equations are acceptable unless stated otherwise in the mark scheme. 7 Unless a separate mark is given for a unit, a missing or incorrect unit will normally mean that the final calculation mark is not awarded. Exceptions to this general principle will be noted in the mark scheme. For answers given in standard form (e.g. a × 10n) in which the convention of restricting the value of the coefficient (a) to a value between 1 and 10 is not followed, credit may still be awarded if the answer can be converted to the answer given in the mark scheme. For questions in which the number of significant figures required is not stated, credit should be awarded for correct answers when rounded by the examiner to the number of significant figures given in the mark scheme. This may not apply to measured values. Correct answers to calculations should be given full credit even if there is no working or incorrect working, unless the question states ‘show your working’. 6 0625/04 ‘or words to that effect’ ‘significant figures’ – answers are normally acceptable to any number of significant figures ⩾ 2. Any exceptions to this general rule will be specified in the mark scheme. o.w.t.t.e. s.f. © UCLES 2020 Page 5 of 12 Work which has been crossed out and not replaced but can easily be read, should be marked as if it had not been crossed out. ‘error carried forward’ e.c.f. Crossed-out work Indicates that something which is not correct or irrelevant is to be disregarded. Ignore / Ig Only accept these where specified in the mark scheme. A less than ideal answer which should be marked correct. Accept / Acc Fractions Indicates that an incorrect answer is not to be disregarded but cancels another otherwise correct alternative offered by the candidate for this mark. NOT / not If the only error in arriving at a final answer is because given or previously calculated data has clearly been misread but used correctly, all but the final A mark can be awarded. Indicates alternative answers, any one of which is satisfactory for scoring the marks. OR / or Transcription errors Statements on both sides of the AND are needed for that mark. AND / and If the only error in arriving at a final answer is clearly an arithmetic one, all but the final A mark can be awarded. Regard a power of ten error as an arithmetic error. The word or phrase in brackets is not required but sets the context. (brackets) Arithmetic errors Actual word underlined must be used by candidate (grammatical variants accepted). underline For examination from 2023 Alternative answers for the same marking point. Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN / Abbreviations and guidance 0625/04 © UCLES 2020 2(b)(iii) 2(b)(ii) 2(b)(i) 2(a) Question 1(c) 1(b) 1(a) Question 0625/04 Dt Dv OR calculation shown a= elastic (energy) OR strain (energy) 6000 N 6000 N OR Page 6 of 12 (v − u) and F = ma or t 0.046 # 65 or 0.00050 0.046 × 130 000 OR B1 A1 C1 A1 3.0 kg m / s OR 3.0 N s m (v − u) 3.0 or t 0.00050 C1 (p =) mv OR 0.046 × 65 (F =) B1 impulse Marks A1 C1 B1 Answer 1 1 × 40 × 10) OR × (30 + 20) × 40 2 2 force 1000 m distance = (20 × 40) + ( C1 B1 less driving force OR greater resistive force / friction / air resistance / drag AND resultant force less area under graph / area under line B1 A1 C1 C1 Marks For examination from 2020 acceleration less / at a slower rate acceleration in range 0.30 to 0.45 m / s2 α= mention of gradient of graph at t = 30 s OR tangent drawn at t = 30 s and triangle drawn OR values of t and v taken from graph Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN © UCLES 2020 5(a) Question 4(b)(ii) 4(b)(i) 4(a) Question B1 rate of collision (with walls of balloon) decreases OR fewer collisions per unit area motion: Ice: vibrate Water: move (around) or slide over each other arrangement: Ice: in lattice / regular / arranged / orderly / fixed in place Water: random / irregular / not arranged / not orderly 8.0 × 104 Pa Page 7 of 12 Answer B2 Marks A1 C1 B1 fewer atoms per unit volume OR density of gas less P1 V1 1.0 # 105 # 9.6 OR V2 12 A1 force on wall = (total) rate of change of momentum (of atoms) OR = change of momentum (of atoms) per second OR = change of momentum (of atoms) / time PV = constant OR P1V1 = P2V2 OR (P2 =) C1 (atoms) undergo change of momentum B2 any two disadvantages from: intermittent supply / unattractive / takes up space / uses land / d.c. output B1 B2 any two advantages from: no polluting gases / quiet / low maintenance / can be placed on roofs / clean / cheap to run 3(c) atoms collide with wall (and rebound) OR atoms rebound from wall A1 renewable OR not (according answer) AND matching explanation Marks M1 any suitable resource, e.g. fossil fuels; hydroelectric; wave; wind NOT geothermal, nuclear Answer B1 small nuclei to larger nuclei OR hydrogen to helium (in some way) OR loss of mass 3(b) B1 nuclei combine / join together 3(a)(ii) B1 Marks For examination from 2023 nuclear fusion Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN 3(a)(i) Question 0625/04 © UCLES 2020 7(c) 7(b) 7(a) Question 6(b) 6(a)(ii) 6(a)(i) Question 5(b)(ii) 5(b)(i) Question 0625/04 m B1 B1 B1 (display used to determine) time for echo of pulse to return from front AND back of bubble use of speed of sound in the metal use of distance = speed × time to calculate position and size Page 8 of 12 B1 A1 C1 B1 use of transducer to send and receive pulses of ultrasound Correct answer: e.g. 330 m / s gives 15 000 Hz v = fλ OR (f =) (a) 0.022 B1 emergent ray diverging away from the yellow ray AND outside of prism OR B1 refracted ray in prism below yellow ray AND above normal v B1 enlarged AND inverted AND real underlined 330–350 m / s B1 any two of: enlarged / inverted / real underlined Marks A1 two correct rays traced back and image indicated Answer M2 any two rays that start at the top of the image from: • seems to come from F1 to lens and emerges paraxially • passes through centre of lens undeviated • paraxial to the lens and passes through F2 Marks A1 3.0 × 108 (J) Answer C1 (∆E =) cm∆θ OR 2.1 × 103 × 41 000 × 3.5 C1 A1 m in any form OR (m =) Vd OR 1800 × 0.025 × 920 V Marks For examination from 2020 41 000 kg d= Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN © UCLES 2020 9(b) 9(a) Question 8(b) 8(a) Question 0625/04 1 1 d + n 12 6 1 A1 (V8 = 2 × 8 =) 16 V B1 –ve(ly charged ball) attracted to +ve / repelled from –ve B1 B1 particles: electrons direction: from left to right (through ammeter) Page 9 of 12 B1 ball gets –ve charge (from –ve plate) Marks C1 OR alternative route supply V 24 OR = OR = 2 (A) I8 = 12 12 Answer A1 (V8 =) 16 V A1 C1 (6 # 12) 18 C1 8 8 V8 = supply V × d n OR = 24 × d n 12 12 OR (RP =) RS RC (RS + RC) (RP =) 4.0 Ω OR (RP =) OR (RP =) 1 in any form 1 1 l b + RS RC C1 (RS =) 12 (Ω) (RP =) C1 Marks For examination from 2023 RS = RA + RB in any form OR (RS =) RA + RB OR (RS =) 4 + 8 Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN © UCLES 2020 11(b) 11(a) Question 10(b) 10(a)(ii) 10(a)(i) Question 9(c) Question 0625/04 Q words, numbers, symbols t B1 B1 B3 temperature of hydrogen increases AND a protostar is formed nuclear fusion begins and outward force from this reaction balances inward force of gravity any three from: microwave radiation is observed at all points in space around the Earth o.w.t.t.e. radiation was produced when the Universe was formed this radiation has expanded into the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum this is evidence that the Universe expanded Page 10 of 12 B1 Marks hydrogen gas in stellar cloud / nebula pulled together by gravity Answer A1 (2 × 1014 Am atoms remain after) 940 yrs or 2 half-lives C1 B1 C1 14 – 6 × 10 ) = 2 × 10 14 4 × 1014 (Am atoms remain after 470 yrs or 1 half-life) (No of Am atoms remaining = 8 × 10 14 gamma and beta will not produce enough ions / ion pairs per cm B1 4 a 2 Marks A1 C1 B1 Answer 8.5 # 10-10 0.25 C1 Marks For examination from 2020 237 Np 93 (I =) 3.4 × 10–9 A correct use of f = 4 Hz OR T = 0.25 s i.e. 8.5 × 10–10 × 4 OR Q = It in any form OR Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN © UCLES 2020 12(b) 12(a) Question 0625/04 0.050 A Is # Vs 2.0 # 6 OR Vp 240 Page 11 of 12 A1 C1 A1 200 IpVp = IsVs in any form OR (Ip =) C1 Marks For examination from 2023 Np # Vs Ns Vs 8000 # 6 in any form OR (Ns =) OR = Vp Np Vp 240 Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN © UCLES 2020 0625/04 Page 12 of 12 BLANK PAGE Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN For examination from 2020 PMT Cambridge IGCSE™ * 4 8 4 4 8 2 3 2 5 3 * PHYSICS 0625/42 Paper 4 Theory (Extended) October/November 2022 1 hour 15 minutes You must answer on the question paper. No additional materials are needed. INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer all questions. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● You may use a calculator. ● You should show all your working and use appropriate units. ● Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2). INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 80. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. DC (PQ/CB) 301684/2 © UCLES 2022 [Turn over PMT 2 1 Fig. 1.1 shows sea water flowing down a channel into a tank without splashing. The water is flowing at a rate of 800 kg / min. The length and width of the tank are 3.10 m and 1.20 m. The density of the sea water is 1020 kg / m3. 1.20 m flowing sea water 3.10 m channel tank Fig. 1.1 (not to scale) (a) Initially, the tank is empty. Calculate the depth of water in the tank after 1.00 minute. Give your answer to three significant figures. depth = ......................................................... [3] (b) The height of the water decreases by 0.420 m as it flows down the channel. Calculate the decrease in gravitational potential energy of the water each second. decrease in gravitational potential energy = ......................................................... [3] (c) The water stops flowing. The depth of water in the tank is 0.800 m. Calculate the pressure at the bottom of the tank due to the water. pressure = ......................................................... [3] [Total: 9] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT 3 2 (a) A pendulum swings with a time period of approximately one second. Describe how to use a stop-watch to determine the time period of the pendulum. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [3] (b) Complete Table 2.1 by writing in each space of the right-hand column which one of the following devices is used to measure the quantity in the left-hand column. digital balance measuring cylinder metre rule micrometer screw gauge stop-watch thermocouple Table 2.1 quantity device volume of water in a glass width of a small swimming pool thickness of a piece of aluminium foil [3] [Total: 6] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 [Turn over PMT 4 3 (a) Tidal power derives most of its energy from the Moon and part of its energy from the Sun. (i) State one other source of power which derives its energy from the Sun. ..................................................................................................................................... [1] (ii) State one source of power which does not derive its energy from the Sun. ..................................................................................................................................... [1] (b) Fig. 3.1 shows a small water turbine driven by a tidal flow of water to generate electrical power. surface of sea flow of water sea bed Fig. 3.1 (i) Explain whether this method of generation of electrical power is renewable. ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... [2] (ii) The mass of water passing through the turbine each second is 6.0 × 103 kg. The speed of the water is 2.0 m / s. 40% of the kinetic energy of the water is converted to electrical energy. Calculate the electrical power generated. power = ......................................................... [4] [Total: 8] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT 5 4 (a) Explain, in terms of the momentum of particles, how a gas exerts a pressure. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [3] (b) The temperature of a sample of gas is increased at constant volume. State and explain any change in the pressure of the gas. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [2] (c) Another sample of gas is in a sealed container of volume 170 cm3 and exerts a pressure of 9.0 × 104 Pa. The volume of the container decreases by 70 cm3 at constant temperature. Calculate the new pressure of the gas. pressure = ......................................................... [3] [Total: 8] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 [Turn over PMT 6 5 Fig. 5.1 shows an aluminium block after leaving a furnace in a factory. furnace aluminium block factory worker solid metal rollers Fig. 5.1 (a) The mass of the block is 1200 kg and it is heated in the furnace from 20 °C to 380 °C. The aluminium block does not melt. The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 960 J / (kg °C). Calculate the thermal energy gained by the block in the furnace. thermal energy = ......................................................... [3] (b) Fig. 5.1 shows a factory worker standing 3 m from the block. State and explain the main process by which thermal energy is transferred to the worker. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [3] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT 7 (c) State and explain the main process by which thermal energy is transferred from the outer surface of the solid metal rollers to their interior. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [3] [Total: 9] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 [Turn over PMT 8 6 (a) Fig. 6.1 shows a converging lens and an object OX. The focuses of the lens are labelled F. X F F O principal axis Fig. 6.1 (i) On Fig. 6.1, carefully draw two rays from X which locate the image of the object. Draw the image and label it IY. Measure the distance from IY along the principal axis to the centre line of the lens. distance = ............................................................... [4] (ii) State two reasons why the image IY is virtual. 1. ....................................................................................................................................... 2. ....................................................................................................................................... [2] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT 9 (b) Fig. 6.2 shows a ray of green light passing into, through and out of a glass prism. Fig. 6.2 A ray of blue light is incident on the prism on the same path as the incident ray of green light. On Fig. 6.2, draw the path of the blue light through and out of the prism. [3] [Total: 9] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 [Turn over PMT 10 7 This question is about the magnetic fields around bar magnets. Fig. 7.1 shows two positions used by a student doing an experiment. position 1 position 2 Fig. 7.1 (a) Fig. 7.2 shows a magnet, labelled magnet 1, placed on position 1. magnet 1 S position 2 N Fig. 7.2 On Fig. 7.2, draw lines to show the pattern of the magnetic field produced by magnet 1. Place arrows on the lines to show the direction of the field. [3] (b) Magnet 1 is removed from position 1. Fig. 7.3 shows another magnet, labelled magnet 2, placed on position 2. position 1 magnet 2 N S Fig. 7.3 On Fig. 7.3, draw, at the right-hand end of position 1, a line with an arrow to show the direction of the magnetic field produced by magnet 2. [1] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT 11 (c) Fig. 7.4 shows magnet 1 placed on position 1 and magnet 2 placed on position 2. magnet 1 S magnet 2 N N S Fig. 7.4 (i) State the direction of the force that the N pole of magnet 2 exerts on the N pole of magnet 1. ..................................................................................................................................... [1] (ii) Justify your answer to (c)(i). ........................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... [1] [Total: 6] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 [Turn over PMT 12 8 Fig. 8.1 shows an electrical circuit. Y V Fig. 8.1 (a) The light intensity at the circuit increases from dark to bright. State any effect on the resistance of component Y. ................................................................................................................................................... State and explain any effect on the reading of the voltmeter. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... [3] (b) The circuit shown in Fig. 8.2 is switched on for 2.0 min. 12 V 4.0 Ω Fig. 8.2 The current in the 4.0 Ω resistor is 3.0 A and the magnitude of the charge on an electron is 1.6 × 10–19 C. (i) Calculate the number of electrons that pass through the resistor each second. number = ......................................................... [3] (ii) Calculate the power dissipated by the resistor. power = ......................................................... [2] [Total: 8] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT 13 9 (a) Draw the symbol for: (i) a diode [1] (ii) a NOT gate. [1] (b) (i) Fig. 9.1 shows a digital circuit. Z I1 O I2 Fig. 9.1 Complete the truth table shown in Table 9.1. Table 9.1 I1 I2 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 Z O [2] (ii) State another single gate which is equivalent to the part of the circuit between I1 and Z. ..................................................................................................................................... [1] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 [Turn over PMT 14 (c) Using two logic gates, design and draw a digital circuit with two inputs and two outputs which has the truth table shown in Table 9.2. Use either the usual logic gate symbols or correctly labelled square boxes in your diagram. Table 9.2 input 1 input 2 output 1 output 2 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 [4] [Total: 9] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT 15 10 (a) The magnitude of the charge on a β (beta)-particle is 1.6 × 10–19 C. (i) State the proton number and nucleon number of an α (alpha)-particle. proton number ................................................................................................................... nucleon number ................................................................................................................ [2] (ii) Determine the magnitude of the charge of an α (alpha)-particle. charge ............................................................................................................................... [1] (b) A nucleus of radium-230 consists of 88 protons and 142 neutrons. Radium-230 is radioactive and decays by β (beta)-emission to an isotope of actinium. The symbol for radium is Ra and the symbol for actinium is Ac. Write down the nuclide equation for this decay. [3] (c) The half-life of radium-230 is 93 min. A sample contains 9.6 × 10–12 g of radium-230. Calculate the mass of radium in the sample after 279 min. mass = ......................................................... [2] [Total: 8] © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT 16 BLANK PAGE Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge. © UCLES 2022 0625/42/O/N/22 PMT Cambridge IGCSE™ PHYSICS 0625/42 October/November 2022 Paper 4 Theory (Extended) MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 80 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have considered the acceptability of alternative answers. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components. This document consists of 15 printed pages. © UCLES 2022 [Turn over PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Generic Marking Principles October/November 2022 These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: Marks must be awarded in line with: • • • the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks must be awarded positively: • • • • • marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do marks are not deducted for errors marks are not deducted for omissions answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors. © UCLES 2022 Page 2 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2022 GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind. Science-Specific Marking Principles 1 Examiners should consider the context and scientific use of any keywords when awarding marks. Although keywords may be present, marks should not be awarded if the keywords are used incorrectly. 2 The examiner should not choose between contradictory statements given in the same question part, and credit should not be awarded for any correct statement that is contradicted within the same question part. Wrong science that is irrelevant to the question should be ignored. 3 Although spellings do not have to be correct, spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. ethane / ethene, glucagon / glycogen, refraction / reflection). 4 The error carried forward (ecf) principle should be applied, where appropriate. If an incorrect answer is subsequently used in a scientifically correct way, the candidate should be awarded these subsequent marking points. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any exceptions to this general principle will be noted. 5 ‘List rule’ guidance For questions that require n responses (e.g. State two reasons …): • • • • • The response should be read as continuous prose, even when numbered answer spaces are provided. Any response marked ignore in the mark scheme should not count towards n. Incorrect responses should not be awarded credit but will still count towards n. Read the entire response to check for any responses that contradict those that would otherwise be credited. Credit should not be awarded for any responses that are contradicted within the rest of the response. Where two responses contradict one another, this should be treated as a single incorrect response. Non-contradictory responses after the first n responses may be ignored even if they include incorrect science. © UCLES 2022 Page 3 of 15 PMT 0625/42 6 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2022 Calculation specific guidance Correct answers to calculations should be given full credit even if there is no working or incorrect working, unless the question states ‘show your working’. For questions in which the number of significant figures required is not stated, credit should be awarded for correct answers when rounded by the examiner to the number of significant figures given in the mark scheme. This may not apply to measured values. For answers given in standard form (e.g. a 10n) in which the convention of restricting the value of the coefficient (a) to a value between 1 and 10 is not followed, credit may still be awarded if the answer can be converted to the answer given in the mark scheme. Unless a separate mark is given for a unit, a missing or incorrect unit will normally mean that the final calculation mark is not awarded. Exceptions to this general principle will be noted in the mark scheme. 7 Guidance for chemical equations Multiples / fractions of coefficients used in chemical equations are acceptable unless stated otherwise in the mark scheme. State symbols given in an equation should be ignored unless asked for in the question or stated otherwise in the mark scheme. © UCLES 2022 Page 4 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED October/November 2022 Acronyms and shorthand in the mark scheme acronym/shorthand explanation A marks Final answer marks which are awarded for fully correct final answers. C marks Compensatory marks which may be scored to give partial credit when final answer (A) marks for a question have not been awarded. B marks Independent marks which do not depend on other marks. M marks Method marks which must be scored before any subsequent final answer (A) marks can be scored. Brackets ( ) Words not explicitly needed in an answer, however if a contradictory word/phrase/unit to that in the brackets is seen the mark is not awarded. Underlining The underlined word (or a synonym) must be present for the mark to be scored. If the word is a technical scientific term, the word must be there. / or OR Alternative answers any one of which gains the credit for that mark. owtte Or words to that effect. ignore Identifies incorrect or irrelevant points which may be disregarded, i.e., not treated as contradictory. Ignore is also used to indicate an insufficient answer not worthy of credit on its own. CON An incorrect point which contradicts any correct point and means the mark cannot be scored. ecf [question part] Indicates that a candidate using an erroneous value from the stated question part must be given credit here if the erroneous value is used correctly here. cao correct answer only © UCLES 2022 Page 5 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question 1(a) 1(b) 1(c) Answer October/November 2022 Marks A3 (depth =) 0.211 m =m / V OR (V =) m / OR 800 / 1020 C1 V = l w d OR (d =) V / (l w) OR V ÷ 3.72 C1 A3 (∆GPE =) 56(.0) J GPE = mg∆h OR (GPE =) mg∆h OR (800 / 60) 10 0.42(0) C1 (mass per second =) 800 / 60 (kg) OR their GPE per minute ÷ 60 C1 A3 (P =) 8200 Pa (P =) hg C1 (P =) 1020 10 0.8(00) (Pa) C1 OR © UCLES 2022 (P =) F / A (C1) F = mg OR F = 1020 0.8(00) 3.72 10 (C1) Page 6 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question 2(a) 2(b) Answer Marks (use stop-watch to) time oscillations B1 (use of fiduciary) aid to determine a complete cycle B1 (use of) multiple oscillations AND division (to determine period) B1 quantity device volume of water in a glass measuring cylinder width of a small swimming pool metre rule thickness of a piece of aluminium foil micrometer screw gauge 1 mark for each correct response © UCLES 2022 October/November 2022 Page 7 of 15 B3 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question October/November 2022 Answer Marks 3(a)(i) any one from: • fossil fuel / named fossil fuel • biofuel / wood / crops • hydro • wave • wind • solar cell / panel. B1 3(a)(ii) geothermal OR nuclear B1 3(b)(i) yes OR it is renewable B1 tides are continuous / regular / happen every day / always there / owtte OR Moon / Sun always there OR nothing is consumed / used up OR tides are an unlimited resource B1 (power =) 4800 W A4 3(b)(ii) © UCLES 2022 KE = ½mv2 C1 (P =) E / t OR (P =) KE / s OR (KE / s =) ½ 6(.0)103 2(.0)2 C1 electrical (output) power = 40% of KE / s OR 0.4 12 000 C1 Page 8 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question October/November 2022 Answer Marks 4(a) any three from: • moving particles have momentum OR particles hit walls • momentum changes when particles hit walls • force exerted (by particles) due to (rate of) change of momentum • pressure is (total) force (of particles) per unit area (of wall). B3 4(b) pressure increases M1 (there is a) greater change of momentum OR (particles exert) greater force (on same area) OR particles move faster OR particles have more KE A1 (pressure =) 1.5 105 Pa A3 4(c) © UCLES 2022 p1 V1 = p2 V2 OR (p2 =) p1 V1 /V2 OR pV = constant (for fixed m, fixed T) C1 (p2 =) 9(.0) 104 170 / 100 C1 Page 9 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question 5(a) 5(b) 5(c) © UCLES 2022 October/November 2022 Answer Marks A3 (E =) 410 000 000 J OR 410 MJ OR 4.1 108 J E = mcT OR (E =) mcT OR 1200 960 360 C1 (T =) 360 (°C) C1 (thermal) radiation M1 electromagnetic / e-m / infrared / IR (radiation emitted from block) A1 travels to worker OR is absorbed by worker OR travels without needing a medium A1 conduction B1 delocalised / free / moving electrons B1 any one from: • (electrons) move (from outer surface) to interior (of rollers) • (electrons) travel through(out) the solid / large distances • (electrons) collide with distant particles • lattice vibrations transfer thermal energy to neighbouring particles OR particles vibrate and cause nearby / adjacent particles to vibrate OR vibrating particles collide with particles transferring energy. B1 Page 10 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question 6(a)(i) 6(a)(ii) Answer October/November 2022 Marks two correct rays from: • ray from X through centre of lens • ray from X to lens, parallel to principal axis, refracted through RH focus F • ray from X (that would pass through LH focus) refracted parallel to principal axis. M2 two rays correctly extended back, intersecting to left of object and image labelled A1 IY drawn AND 36 mm ≤ distance ≤ 44 mm A1 any two from: • object closer to lens than (one) focal length • (actual) rays do not meet (at image) • image cannot be formed on a screen OR image only visible through lens • object and image on same side (of lens) OR image on LHS of lens/object. B2 A3 6(b) © UCLES 2022 blue ray refracted closer to the normal than the green ray as it enters the prism C1 blue ray refracted away from the normal as it leaves the prism C1 Page 11 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question Answer October/November 2022 Marks (minimum of) one complete loop above magnet AND one complete loop below magnet M1 additional field lines leaving both poles OR additional loops above and below A1 (minimum of) two correct arrows (from N to S) B1 line with arrow to the left B1 7(c)(i) (force to the) left OR (force) away from magnet 2 / towards magnet 1 B1 7(c)(ii) force (on N pole) is in direction of the (magnetic) field / owtte B1 7(a) 7(b) © UCLES 2022 Page 12 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question 8(a) 8(b)(i) 8(b)(ii) Answer Marks (RY) decreases B1 change in V consistent with stated effect on RY B1 change in RY / Rtotal consistent with their stated effect on RY OR change in proportion of the total p.d. across Y (or proportion of total p.d. across fixed resistor) consistent with their stated effect on RY B1 (n =) 1.9 1019 A3 I = Q/t C1 (n =) 3(.0) / 1.6 10–19 OR (n =) Q / 1.6 10–19 C1 A2 (P =) 36 W C1 P = IV OR (P =) IV OR 3(.0) 12 © UCLES 2022 October/November 2022 Page 13 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question Answer October/November 2022 Marks 9(a)(i) B1 9(a)(ii) B1 9(b)(i) 9(b)(ii) I1 I2 Z O 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 all Z correct B1 all O correct B1 NOT A4 9(c) © UCLES 2022 OR gate / box labelled OR C1 NAND gate / box labelled NAND C1 OR gate with inputs I1 and I2 labelled AND NAND gate with inputs I1 and I2 labelled C1 Page 14 of 15 PMT 0625/42 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question 10(a)(i) 10(a)(ii) 10(b) Answer B1 (nucleon number) 4 B1 3.2 10–19 (C) B1 230 88Ra A3 0 → 230 89Ac + –1 C2 A2 (mass =) 1.2 10–12 g C1 3 half-lives OR 9.6 10–12 / 8 OR 9.6 10–12 / 23 © UCLES 2022 Marks (proton number) 2 any two from: • nucleon numbers 230 on left AND 230 on right • Ra and proton number 88 on left AND Ac and proton number 89 on right 0 • . –1 10(c) October/November 2022 Page 15 of 15 PMT Cambridge IGCSE™ * 2 7 3 6 6 6 7 1 5 3 * PHYSICS 0625/62 Paper 6 Alternative to Practical February/March 2021 1 hour You must answer on the question paper. No additional materials are needed. INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer all questions. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● You may use a calculator. ● You should show all your working and use appropriate units. INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 40. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. DC (CJ/CGW) 203602/3 © UCLES 2021 [Turn over PMT 2 1 A student investigates the motion of an oscillating metre rule. He uses the apparatus shown in Fig. 1.1. clamps vertical threads d metre rule stands horizontal bench Fig. 1.1 (a) The student ensures that the metre rule is horizontal. Briefly describe how to check that the metre rule is horizontal. You may draw a diagram or draw on Fig. 1.1 if it helps to explain your answer. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [1] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 3 (b) The student moves the stands so that the vertical threads are at the marks on the metre rule shown in Fig. 1.2. vertical threads 1 2 3 96 97 98 99 Fig. 1.2 Calculate the distance d between the threads. d =................................................. cm [1] (c) He twists the metre rule a small amount, as shown in Fig. 1.3, and then lets it go so that it oscillates in a rotating motion. metre rule seen from above one oscillation twist Fig. 1.3 He measures the time t for 5 complete oscillations of the metre rule. 3.63 t =.......................................................... s Suggest why it is useful to take a trial reading for this experiment. ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [1] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 [Turn over PMT 4 (d) The student carries out the same procedure for d values of 20.0 cm, 30.0 cm, 40.0 cm, 50.0 cm and 60.0 cm. His readings are shown in Table 1.1. Table 1.1 / 1 1 T s d / cm t/s 20.0 17.85 30.0 11.36 0.44 40.0 8.77 0.57 50.0 6.93 0.72 60.0 5.68 0.88 For distance d = 20.0 cm, calculate and record in Table 1.1, the value of 1 where T is the time T for 1 oscillation of the metre rule. 1 5 Use the value of time t from Table 1.1 and the equation = . T t [1] (e) Plot a graph of distance d / cm (y-axis) against / 1 1 (x-axis). T s [4] (f) Determine the gradient G of the graph. Show clearly on the graph how you obtained the necessary information. G =...................................................... [1] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 5 (g) (i) Explain why it is more accurate to measure the time for 5 oscillations rather than for 1 oscillation. ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... [1] (ii) Describe how the experiment could be improved to make the readings more reliable. ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... [1] [Total: 11] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 [Turn over PMT 6 2 Students investigate the cooling of hot water in two different cups. They use the apparatus shown in Fig. 2.1. Cup A is made from thin plastic. The top of cup A has an inside diameter of 7 cm. Cup B is made from expanded polystyrene. The top of cup B has an inside diameter of 8 cm. thermometer lids bench cup A cup B 30 20 10 Fig. 2.1 (a) (i) Record the room temperature θR shown on the thermometer in Fig. 2.1. θR =...................................................... [1] (ii) Describe one precaution that you would take to ensure that temperature readings in the experiment are as accurate as possible. ........................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... [1] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 7 (b) A volume of 100 cm3 of hot water is poured into each cup and the initial temperature θ is recorded in Table 2.1. The temperature of the water in each cup is recorded every 30 s. The values are shown in Table 2.1. Table 2.1 cup A cup B t/ θ/ θ/ 0 87.5 88.0 30 84.5 86.0 60 82.0 84.5 90 80.5 83.0 120 79.0 82.0 150 78.0 81.0 180 77.0 80.5 Complete the headings in Table 2.1. [1] (c) Write a conclusion stating which cup, A or B, is the more effective in reducing the cooling rate of the hot water in this experiment. Justify your answer by reference to the results. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [2] (d) (i) Calculate xA, the average cooling rate for cup A over the whole experiment. Use the readings for cup A from Table 2.1 and the equation xA = θ0 – θ180 T where T = 180 s and θ0 and θ180 are the temperatures at time t = 0 and at time t = 180 s. Include the unit for the cooling rate. xA =...................................................... [2] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 [Turn over PMT 8 (ii) Suggest an additional experiment to show how the lid affects the cooling rate of cup A. Explain how to use the additional results to show the effect. additional experiment ........................................................................................................ ........................................................................................................................................... explanation ........................................................................................................................ ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... [2] (e) A student wishes to compare the effect of the materials of the cups on cooling rates. Suggest two variables that she should control to make this test fair. 1. ............................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... 2. ............................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... [2] [Total: 11] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 9 3 A student investigates a resistor and a lamp connected in series. She uses the circuit shown in Fig. 3.1. power supply resistance wire A crocodile clip V Fig. 3.1 (a) The student moves the crocodile clip on the resistance wire so that the value of the potential difference VL across the lamp is 2.0 V. She measures the current I for the lamp and resistor in series. She then connects the voltmeter to measure the potential difference VR across the resistor. 0.6 0.4 0.2 1.0 0 3 2 1 0.8 4 5 0 A V Fig. 3.2 Fig. 3.3 Read, and record in Table 3.1, the values of I and VR shown on the meters in Fig. 3.2 and Fig. 3.3. [2] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 [Turn over PMT 10 (b) The student repeats the steps in (a) for values of VL = 1.0 V and VL = 0.5 V. Her readings are shown in Table 3.1. Table 3.1 I /A VR / V 1.0 0.15 3.0 0.5 0.12 2.4 VL / V RL / Ω RR / Ω 2.0 Calculate, and record in Table 3.1, the resistance of the lamp RL for each value of VL. VL Use the values of VL and I from Table 3.1 and the equation RL = . I Calculate, and record in Table 3.1, the resistance of the resistor RR for each value of VL. VR . Use the values of VR and I from Table 3.1 and the equation RR = I (c) (i) [2] Describe the pattern of any change in the value of RL as VL decreases. ........................................................................................................................................... ..................................................................................................................................... [1] (ii) A student suggests that RR should be constant. State whether your results support this suggestion. Justify your statement by reference to values from Table 3.1. statement .......................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... justification ........................................................................................................................ ........................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................... [2] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 11 (d) A student wishes to determine the resistance of the lamp RL when the potential difference across the lamp VL = 0.0 V. Describe how the experiment can be extended to do this with the help of a suitable graph. ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................. [2] (e) It is possible to use a variable resistor instead of a resistance wire to change the potential difference across the lamp. Complete the circuit in Fig. 3.4 to show: • • a variable resistor used for this purpose the voltmeter connected to measure the potential difference across the resistor power supply A Fig. 3.4 [2] [Total: 11] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 [Turn over PMT 12 4 A student investigates the motion of a ball rolling down a slope. Plan an experiment which enables him to investigate how one factor affects the average speed of the ball. Average speed can be calculated using the equation: average speed = distance travelled time taken The apparatus available includes: balls of various sizes and materials a board which can act as a slope blocks to support one end of the board. In your plan, you should: • state a factor which can be measured • list any additional apparatus needed • explain briefly how to carry out the experiment including exactly which measurements are to be taken • state the key variables to be kept constant • draw a table, or tables, with column headings, to show how to display the readings (you are not required to enter any readings in the table) • explain how to use the readings to reach a conclusion. You may draw a diagram if it helps to explain your plan. © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 13 .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................................ [7] [Total: 7] © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 14 BLANK PAGE © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 15 BLANK PAGE © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT 16 BLANK PAGE Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge. © UCLES 2021 0625/62/F/M/21 PMT Cambridge IGCSE™ PHYSICS 0625/22 Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2022 MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 40 Published This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the examination. Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components. This document consists of 3 printed pages. © UCLES 2022 [Turn over PMT 0625/22 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question Answer February/March 2022 Marks 1 B 1 2 D 1 3 D 1 4 A 1 5 A 1 6 C 1 7 C 1 8 D 1 9 D 1 10 B 1 11 D 1 12 B 1 13 C 1 14 B 1 15 B 1 16 C 1 17 B 1 18 B 1 19 C 1 20 C 1 21 B 1 22 D 1 23 C 1 24 B 1 25 D 1 26 A 1 27 D 1 28 D 1 © UCLES 2022 Page 2 of 3 PMT 0625/22 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme PUBLISHED Question Answer February/March 2022 Marks 29 A 1 30 B 1 31 A 1 32 A 1 33 A 1 34 C 1 35 B 1 36 C 1 37 D 1 38 A 1 39 D 1 40 B 1 © UCLES 2022 Page 3 of 3 Cambridge IGCSE™ *0123456789* PHYSICS0625/06 Paper 6 Alternative to Practical For examination from 2023 1 hour SPECIMEN PAPER You must answer on the question paper. No additional materials are needed. INSTRUCTIONS ● Answer all questions. ● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs. ● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page. ● Write your answer to each question in the space provided. ● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid. ● Do not write on any bar codes. ● You may use a calculator. ● You should show all your working and use appropriate units. INFORMATION ● The total mark for this paper is 40. ● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ]. This document has 14 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. © UCLES 2020 [Turn over 2 1 A student investigates how partly covering the top of a beaker of water affects the rate at which the water cools. The apparatus used is shown in Fig. 1.1. thermometer lid partly covering beaker water Fig. 1.1 (a) –10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C Fig. 1.2 Read and record the room temperature θR, shown on the thermometer in Fig. 1.2. θR = ........................................................... [1] © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 3 (b) The student pours 100 cm3 of hot water into a beaker. She places lid A on the beaker. This leaves half of the top of the beaker uncovered, as shown in Fig. 1.3. She records the temperature of the water in the beaker and immediately starts a stopwatch. She records the temperature θ of the water every 30 s. Her readings are shown in Table 1.1. She repeats the procedure using lid B. This leaves a quarter of the top of the beaker uncovered, as shown in Fig. 1.4. lid A beaker beaker lid B uncovered area uncovered area Fig. 1.3 Fig. 1.4 Complete the headings row in Table 1.1. Complete the time t column in Table 1.1. Table 1.1 beaker with lid A beaker with lid B t / ..... θ / ..... θ / ..... 0 80.0 81.0 77.0 79.0 74.5 77.5 72.5 76.0 70.5 75.0 69.0 74.0 68.0 73.5 [2] (c) Describe a precaution that should be taken to ensure that the temperature readings are as accurate as possible in the experiment. .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [1] © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 [Turn over 4 (d) (i) Write a conclusion to this experiment, stating for which lid the rate of cooling is greater. Justify your answer with reference to the results. ............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................ ....................................................................................................................................... [2] (ii) Suggest a change to the apparatus that produces a greater difference between the rates of cooling for lid A and lid B. Explain why the change produces a greater difference. change ............................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................ explanation ......................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................ [2] (e) Another student thinks that the cooling rate is directly proportional to the percentage of the surface area uncovered. He draws a graph of cooling rate against the percentage of uncovered area to investigate this. Describe how his graph line shows whether the rate of cooling and the percentage of uncovered surface area are directly proportional. .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [2] (f) Students in other countries are doing the same experiment. State one factor they must keep the same to obtain similar readings. .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [1] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 11] 0625/06/SP/23 5 BLANK PAGE © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 [Turn over 6 2 A student is investigating a resistance wire. She uses the circuit shown in Fig. 2.1. power supply A Q P crocodile clip resistance wire l Fig. 2.1 (a) (i) On Fig. 2.1, draw a voltmeter connected to measure the potential difference (p.d.) V across terminals P and Q.[1] (ii) The student connects the crocodile clip to a length l = 90.0 cm of the resistance wire and measures the potential difference V across terminals P and Q and the current I in the circuit. 1 2 3 0.2 4 5 0 0.4 0.6 1.0 0 V 0.8 A Fig. 2.2 Fig. 2.3 Read, and record in Table 2.1, the values of V and I shown on the meters in Fig. 2.2 and Fig. 2.3. [2] © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 7 (b) The student then connects the crocodile clip to lengths l = 60.0 cm and l = 40.0 cm of the resistance wire. She measures the potential difference V across terminals P and Q and the current I in the circuit. Her readings are shown in Table 2.1. Complete the column headings in Table 2.1. Table 2.1 l / cm V/ I/ 2.5 0.49 R/Ω R Ω X / l cm 90.0 60.0 40.0 2.3 0.74 [1] Calculate, and record in Table 2.1, the resistance R of each length l of the wire. V Use the readings from the table and the equation R = . I (c) (i) [2] (ii) Calculate, and record in Table 2.1, the value of R for each length l of the wire. l [1] (d) Another student suggests that the values of R for each length of wire should be the same. l State whether the results support this suggestion. Justify your statement with reference to values from the results. statement ................................................................................................................................... justification ................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... [1] © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 [Turn over 8 (e) Suggest one difficulty which explains why different students, doing the experiment carefully with the same equipment, may not obtain identical results. .................................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................... [1] (f) A student finds that during the experiment, the wire becomes hot because there is a high current. He decides to use a variable resistor to prevent this. (i) Draw an X on the circuit in Fig. 2.1 to show where a variable resistor is connected for this purpose in the experiment. (ii) [1] In the space below, sketch the circuit symbol for a variable resistor. [1] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 11] 0625/06/SP/23 9 3 A student investigates the magnification produced by a converging lens. He is using the apparatus shown in Fig. 3.1. illuminated triangle screen u lens Fig. 3.1 (a) The illuminated object consists of a triangular-shaped hole in a piece of card. Fig. 3.2 shows, full size, the illuminated object. card ho Fig. 3.2 Measure and record the height hO of the triangular-shaped hole. hO =...................................................... cm [1] © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 [Turn over 10 (b) The distance between the illuminated object and the centre of the lens is set to u = 20.0 cm. The screen is moved until a focused image of the illuminated object is seen, as shown in Fig. 3.3. screen image hI Fig. 3.3 The student repeats the procedure for u = 30.0 cm, u = 40.0 cm, u = 50.0 cm and u = 60.0 cm. His results are shown in Table 3.1. Measure, and record in the first row of Table 3.1, the height hI of the image. Using your results from (a) and the equation M = value in Table 3.1. hO , calculate a value M and record this hI Table 3.1 u / cm hI / cm M 30.0 1.5 0.93 40.0 0.9 1.6 50.0 0.6 2.3 20.0 60.0 0.5 2.8 [2] © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 11 (c) Plot a graph of u / cm (y-axis) against M (x-axis). You do not have to start your axes at the origin (0, 0). [4] (d) Determine the gradient G of the graph. Show clearly on the graph how you obtained the necessary information. G =.............................................................[2] (e) Describe one difficulty that might be experienced when measuring the height of the image hI. Suggest an improvement to the apparatus to reduce this difficulty. difficulty ...................................................................................................................................... .................................................................................................................................................... improvement .............................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................... [2] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 11] 0625/06/SP/23 [Turn over 12 4 A student is investigating the factors that affect the size of the crater (hole) a ball makes when it is dropped into sand. Plan an experiment to investigate one factor that affects the size of the crater. The apparatus available includes: metal balls of different sizes a tray of dry sand. Write a plan for the experiment. In your plan, you should: • state which factor is being investigated • state a key variable to keep constant • list any additional apparatus needed • explain briefly how to do the experiment, including what is measured and how this is done • state how to obtain reliable results for this experiment • suggest a suitable graph to be drawn from the results. You may draw a diagram if it helps to explain your plan. © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 13 ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................................................................... ...................................................................................................................................................... [7] © UCLES 2020 [Total: 7] 0625/06/SP/23 14 BLANK PAGE Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity. Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge. © UCLES 2020 0625/06/SP/23 Cambridge IGCSE™ 0625/06 PHYSICS For examination from 2023 Paper 6 Alternative to Practical MARK SCHEME Maximum Mark: 40 Specimen This document has 10 pages. Any blank pages are indicated. © UCLES 2020 [Turn over Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN For examination from 2023 the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts. marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do marks are not deducted for errors marks are not deducted for omissions answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous. © UCLES 2020 Page 2 of 10 Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5: Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4: • • • • • Marks must be awarded positively: GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3: Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions). GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2: • • • Marks must be awarded in line with: GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1: These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles. Generic Marking Principles 0625/06 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN For examination from 2023 • • • • • Page 3 of 10 The response should be read as continuous prose, even when numbered answer spaces are provided. Any response marked ignore in the mark scheme should not count towards n. Incorrect responses should not be awarded credit but will still count towards n. Read the entire response to check for any responses that contradict those that would otherwise be credited. Credit should not be awarded for any responses that are contradicted within the rest of the response. Where two responses contradict one another, this should be treated as a single incorrect response. Non-contradictory responses after the first n responses may be ignored even if they include incorrect science. For questions that require n responses (e.g. State two reasons …): ‘List rule’ guidance © UCLES 2020 5 4The error carried forward (ecf) principle should be applied, where appropriate. If an incorrect answer is subsequently used in a scientifically correct way, the candidate should be awarded these subsequent marking points. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any exceptions to this general principle will be noted. 3Although spellings do not have to be correct, spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. ethane / ethene, glucagon / glycogen, refraction / reflection). 2The examiner should not choose between contradictory statements given in the same question part, and credit should not be awarded for any correct statement that is contradicted within the same question part. Wrong science that is irrelevant to the question should be ignored. 1Examiners should consider the context and scientific use of any keywords when awarding marks. Although keywords may be present, marks should not be awarded if the keywords are used incorrectly. Science-Specific Marking Principles Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind. GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6: 0625/06 Calculation specific guidance Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN For examination from 2023 Guidance for chemical equations © UCLES 2020 Page 4 of 10 State symbols given in an equation should be ignored unless asked for in the question or stated otherwise in the mark scheme. Multiples / fractions of coefficients used in chemical equations are acceptable unless stated otherwise in the mark scheme. 7 Unless a separate mark is given for a unit, a missing or incorrect unit will normally mean that the final calculation mark is not awarded. Exceptions to this general principle will be noted in the mark scheme. For answers given in standard form (e.g. a × 10n) in which the convention of restricting the value of the coefficient (a) to a value between 1 and 10 is not followed, credit may still be awarded if the answer can be converted to the answer given in the mark scheme. For questions in which the number of significant figures required is not stated, credit should be awarded for correct answers when rounded by the examiner to the number of significant figures given in the mark scheme. This may not apply to measured values. Correct answers to calculations should be given full credit even if there is no working or incorrect working, unless the question states ‘show your working’. 6 0625/06 ‘or words to that effect’ ‘significant figures’ – answers are normally acceptable to any number of significant figures ⩾ 2. Any exceptions to this general rule will be specified in the mark scheme. o.w.t.t.e. s.f. © UCLES 2020 Page 5 of 10 Work which has been crossed out and not replaced but can easily be read, should be marked as if it had not been crossed out. ‘error carried forward’ e.c.f. Crossed-out work Indicates that something which is not correct or irrelevant is to be disregarded. Ignore / Ig Only accept these where specified in the mark scheme. A less than ideal answer which should be marked correct. Accept / Acc Fractions Indicates that an incorrect answer is not to be disregarded but cancels another otherwise correct alternative offered by the candidate for this mark. NOT / not If the only error in arriving at a final answer is because given or previously calculated data has clearly been misread but used correctly, all but the final A mark can be awarded. Indicates alternative answers, any one of which is satisfactory for scoring the marks. OR / or Transcription errors Statements on both sides of the AND are needed for that mark. AND / and If the only error in arriving at a final answer is clearly an arithmetic one, all but the final A mark can be awarded. Regard a power of ten error as an arithmetic error. The word or phrase in brackets is not required but sets the context. (brackets) Arithmetic errors Actual word underlined must be used by candidate (grammatical variants accepted). underline For examination from 2023 Alternative answers for the same marking point. Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN / Abbreviations and guidance 0625/06 1 1 1 correct mention of comparative temperature change over 0 to 180 s any suitable change to apparatus relating to comparison, e.g. insulate sides / stand on mat use plastic beaker thicker lid use of fan use wider beaker matching valid explanation, e.g. thermal energy only escapes from surface less transfer of thermal energy by sides / bottom less conduction through lid larger surface area (for evaporation to occur) © UCLES 2020 1(f) 1(e) 1 1 through the origin any appropriate factor, e.g. volume of water initial temperature of water (same) lids type / material / size of beaker room temperature / appropriate environmental factor 1 straight line Page 6 of 10 1 beaker with lid A (has a greater rate of cooling) 1(d)(i) 1(d)(ii) 1 appropriate precaution, e.g. avoidance of parallax (only if explained) / wait until reading stops rising (at start) 1 30, 60, 90, 120, 150, 180 1(c) 1 s, °C, °C all correct 1(b) 1 Marks For examination from 2023 21(.0) (°C) Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN 1(a) Question 0625/06 7.2 , 5.1, 3.1 (Ω) e.c.f. Page 7 of 10 correct symbol for variable resistor (rectangle with strike-through arrow only) 2(f)(ii) © UCLES 2020 in series between power supply and either voltmeter terminal 2(f)(i) 1 1 1 any one from: difficult to judge position of crocodile clip difficult to measure wire to nearest mm contact between wire and crocodile clip not precise difficult to interpolate readings on meters between graduations 2(e) 1 1 R 0.080 : , 0.085, 0.078 l e.c.f. 1 1 statement matching results with values quoted AND matching justification (e.g. ‘within the limits of experimental accuracy’) correct calculations of consistent 2 or consistent 3 s.f. correct calculations of R: 2(d) 2(c)(ii) 2(c)(i) 1 1 I = 0.36 (A) correct units: V, A 1 V = 2.6 (V) 2(a)(ii) 2(b) 1 Marks For examination from 2023 correct voltmeter symbol in parallel with P and Q Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN 2(a)(i) Question 0625/06 © UCLES 2020 3(e) 3(d) 3(c) 3(b) 3(a) Question 0625/06 1 matching improvement to apparatus, e.g. use translucent screen and view from behind OR fix ruler / grid to screen OR mark extremities of image and measure later OR use larger object Page 8 of 10 1 any inherent difficulty, e.g. hand / ruler in way of image OR some images too small to measure accurately 1 triangle method seen on graph occupying at least half of line 1 well-judged line and thin line 1 1 plots all correct to ½ small square and precise plots G in range 15.0 to 17.0 1 appropriate scales (plots occupying at least ½ grid) 1 1 1 0.31 from hO and hI) e.c.f. 1 Marks For examination from 2023 axes with correct orientation, both labelled with quantity and unit M to 2 s.f. NOT use of recurring symbol hI present (EXPECT 4.5 cm) AND M calculation correct (EXPECT hO = 1.4 (cm) Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN © UCLES 2020 4 Question 0625/06 1 1 1 1 1 1 MP2 control variable: named variable which should be kept constant, e.g. height of drop, depth of sand MP3 apparatus: metre rule and any apparatus essential to variable under test, e.g. balance MP4 method: measure factor under test AND drop ball AND measure diameter / depth of depression MP5 repeat for new value of variable under test MP6 additional point: repeat experiment or each value of factor AND average / means of measuring depth / diameter of crater accurately / apparatus for measuring diameter of ball accurately / measure diameter of ball / crater in different places (and take mean) / smooth / flatten sand surface / at least 5 sets of data taken / reliable means of releasing ball / sensible values for factor quoted MP7 graph: diameter / depth of depression vs appropriate continuous variable (NOT ‘size’ of ball without qualification) Page 9 of 10 1 Marks For examination from 2023 MP1 factor: clear statement of appropriate variable to test, e.g. mass of ball Answer Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN © UCLES 2020 0625/06 Page 10 of 10 BLANK PAGE Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme SPECIMEN For examination from 2023