ACHIEVEMENT TEST IN SCIENCE 10
SY 2022-2023
Instructions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the answer sheet
provided to you. Do not write anything on this test questionnaire.
1. Which of the following made up the tectonic plates?
A. outer core and mantle
B. oceanic crust and mountains
C. continental crust and upper mantle
D. earth’s crust and upper most mantle For
items 2-3, refer to Figure 1 below.
Figure 1. Cross-section of magnetized oceanic crust
Legend: “+”---normal magnetic bands; “-”
reversed magnetic bands
(Source: https://uh.edu/~jbutler/physical/chap20mult.html)
2.
How many reversals of the Earth's magnetic field are depicted in the figure?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
3.
How fast are C and D spreading apart from each other?
A. about 2 centimeters per year
B. about 5 centimeters per year
C. about 10 centimeters per year
D. about 100 centimeters per year
4.
An important aspect of seismic waves is that they have different time gaps on seismograms
from different locations. Why would a seismogram recorded closer to the epicenter have
the P and S wave arrivals closer together than on a seismogram from farther away?
A. P waves are faster, so they “pull away” form S waves with increasing distance
from the epicenter.
B. S waves are faster, so they “catch up” to P waves with increasing distance from
the epicenter.
C. P waves travel faster if the earthquake is larger, whereas S waves are slowed
down by larger earthquakes.
D. P waves speed up with distance from the epicenter, whereas S waves slow down
with distance due to energy absorbance by the P wave.
5.
At which type of plate margin would you expect to find the most explosive volcanic
activity?
A. Divergent (constructive)
B. Convergent (oceanic-oceanic)
C. Convergent (oceanic-continental)
D. Convergent (continental-continental)
6.
Which of the following best illustrates the figure below?
Figure 2. A type of plate boundary
(Source:
https://study.com/academy/practice/quiz-worksheet-types-of-tectonic-plate-boundaries.html)
I. Lithospheric plates are moving towards one another.
II. Earthquakes produced in areas where plate collisions occurred.
III. Volcanic activity and crustal deformation are not possible to occur.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I and II
I and III
II and III
I, II and III
7.
How will you differentiate divergent plate boundary from transform fault boundary in
terms of process?
A. Divergent plate boundary creates new crust while transform plate boundary
creates chain of volcanic arcs.
B. Divergent plate boundary creates several segments while transform plate
boundary creates slab of crust that grind past each other.
C. Divergent plate boundary creates a gap that produces new ocean floor while
transform plate boundary creates new crust from magma.
D. Divergent plate boundary creates mountain ranges while transform plate
boundary creates fault that may lead to moderate earthquakes.
8.
What could be the best possible consequences if both continental and oceanic crusts will
not undergo any process of plate movements?
A. There will be no formation of trenches thus, earthquakes will be out of the
picture.
B. There will be no formation of trenches, volcanoes and islands or any land forms
thus, earthquake is impossible.
C. There will be no formation of rift valleys that could possibly source of faults to
other landforms and create shallow earthquakes.
D. There will be no splitting of plates thus, the crust will be plain and uneven land
surfaces will be no longer a problem.
9. What is the driving force that facilitates the slow movement of lithospheric plates?
A. magnetic force at the poles
B. the force of the atmosphere
C. gravitational force of the moon
D. convection current in the mantle
10.
Which of the following statements describe a convection process?
A. As less dense particles cool down it sinks, the other hot less dense particles rise.
B. Once hot less dense particles cool down it sinks, the other less dense particles
rise.
C. The hot less dense material spreads out and reaches the surface causing
sideward forces.
D. The hot less dense material compresses and reaches the surface causing upward
forces.
11.
Why was Alfred Wegener's Continental Drift Theory not accepted immediately by the
people during his time?
A. He cannot explain what causes the continents to drift.
B.
He explains that South America and Africa fit together like a puzzle.
C.
He described that the rocks and mountains at the edges of the continents were
similar.
He explains that fossils of ancient plants such as "Glossopteris" can be found in
almost all continents.
D.
12.
Why were magnetic patterns found on the ocean floor puzzling?
a. No rocks were magnetic.
b. All rocks were magnetic.
c. They showed alternating bands of normal and reversed polarity.
d. They did not show alternating bands of normal and reversed polarity.
13.
Given the wavelength of a microwave which is 1 x 10-3 m, what would be the
frequency if the wave travels in vacuum?
A. 2.5 x 1010 Hz
B. 3.0 x 1010 Hz
C. 2.5 x 1011 Hz
D. 3.0 x 1011 Hz
14.
Consider the arrangement of electromagnetic waves: Gamma ray – X-ray – Ultraviolet ray
– Visible light – Infrared – Microwave - Radio wave, which of the following describes the
arrangement?
A. increasing energy
B. increasing frequency
C. decreasing wavelength
D. increasing wavelength
15.
In transmission of radio waves, what should be considered?
A. Area where there are many buildings to increase the scattering of radio signals.
B. Transmission antennas should be placed closer to the oscillator to maximize
signal generation.
C. High electrical source for transmission devices also increases the amplitude of
the radio wave generated.
D. Multiple transmission antennas in an area greatly decrease the directionality of
the radio signals towards its intended reception.
16.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves commonly cause visual problems?
A. X-rays
B. Infrared
C. Visible light
D. Ultraviolet ray
17.
How do microwaves differ from radio waves in terms of communication?
A. It can transmit data in wider range due to its higher frequency wave.
B. It is more suitable in basic broadcasting since it has greater energy than radio
waves.
C. Microwave is ineffective in basic broadcasting due to its wider wavelength
than radio wave.
D. Microwave is more effective in terrestrial communication since it can pass
through atmosphere than radio waves.
18.
Consider Figure 3 presented below, which statement is true?
Figure 3. Visible Spectrum
(https://image.shutterstock.com/image-vector/visible-color-spectrum-sunlight-wavelength 260nw1933622132.jpg)
A.
B.
C.
D.
From low to high energy, the frequency decreases.
From low to high energy, the wavelength increases.
From low to high frequency, the wavelength increases.
From low to high frequency, the wavelength decreases.
19.
What form of electromagnetic wave that can only be observed by our naked eye?
A. Infrared
B. Microwave
C. Visible light
D. Ultraviolet ray
20.
Most electromagnetic waves are harmful to human body. Which of the following
support this statement?
A. Most of the electromagnetic waves have high frequency than can kill human
cells due to high energy radiation.
B. Most of the electromagnetic waves have high radiations that can penetrate
effectively to all human tissues.
C. Most of the electromagnetic waves have long wavelengths that can reach
longer distances affecting larger population.
D. Most of the electromagnetic waves have high frequency than can be absorbed
by human body resulting to increase in temperature.
21.
In which of the following mirror the size of the image is always smaller than the object?
A. Plane mirror
B. Silver mirror
C. Convex mirror
D. Concave mirror
22.
What can you infer about the image that is formed in a plane mirror?
A. At the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror.
B. At the same distance in front of the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror.
C. At a shorter distance behind the mirror than the distance the object is in front of
the mirror.
D. At a shorter distance in front of the mirror than the distance that the object is
in front of the mirror.
23.
Rita, a medicine student, wanted to examine the differences between animal and plant
cells. Her observation will be made better if she uses what optical instrument?
A. Telescope
B. Microscope
C. DSLR Camera
D. Magnifying glass
For item 24, refer to Figure 4 below.
Figure 4. Ray Diagram of a Presicope
(Source: https://56enubaterm2.weebly.com/uploads/7/8/3/9/78391106/789026179.png)
24.
How does a periscope vary from other optical instruments in terms of light rays reflecting
from one surface to another? (shorten the distractor)
A. In a periscope, there are two mirrors or reflecting prisms that are needed to change
the direction of the light coming from the scene observed.
B. Most periscopes work by using curved mirrors to gather and focus light from the
night sky. The bigger the mirrors or lenses, the more light it can gather.
C. The periscope uses visible light transmitted through, refracted around, or reflected
from a specimen. Some of the lenses bend these light waves into parallel paths,
magnify and focus the light at the ocular.
D. A periscope lens takes all the light rays bouncing around and uses glass to redirect
them to a single point, creating a sharp image. When all of those light rays meet
back together on a digital camera sensor or a piece of film, they create a sharp
image.
25.
Which is the correct sequence in the operation of a simple generator?
I. Magnets placed near one another either attract or repel
II. The attraction and repulsion cause the wire to jump
III. Electric current starts to creep along wire; it creates a magnetic field all around
it
IV. Electrical energy converted to mechanical energy
V. Temporary magnetic field interacts with the permanent magnet
A.
B.
C.
D.
V, IV, II, III, I
III, V, I, II, IV
V, III, I, IV, III
III, II, IV, I, V
26.
Which is the correct sequence in the operation of generator in the production of
electricity in Hydroelectric Power Plant?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
A turbine converts the kinetic energy of the falling water into mechanical energy
Hydropower plants capture the energy of falling water to generate electricity
Once an electrical current has been established, it is directed through copper
wires to power machine and devices
The generator converts the mechanical energy from the turbine into
electrical energy.
I, IV, II, III
II, I, IV, III
IV, I, III, II
III, II, IV, I
If you were travelling in a miniaturized ship through the male reproductive system, from
the testis to urethra, which structures would you pass along the way, and in what
order?
A. Epididymis, Seminal Vesicle, Vas Deferens
B. Epididymis, Vas Deferens, Seminal Vesicle
C. Vas Deferens, Epididymis, Seminal Vesicle
D. Vas Deferens, Seminal Vesicle, Epididymis
28.
Susan, 51 years of age, suffers from night sweats, mood swings, wrinkling of skin, and
fewer periods. According to her healthcare provider, this is because of the fall of her
estrogen level. What do you think is Susan experiencing?
A. She is having pregnancy issues.
B. She is nearing her menopausal stage.
C. She is experiencing Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS).
D. She is showing symptoms of a Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD).
29.
The menstrual cycle is a complex biological process and is divided into four
(4) phases. What happens during ovulation?
A. A sperm fertilizes an egg.
B. The ovary releases an ovum.
C. A zygote becomes an embryo.
D. A follicle releases the hormone FSH.
30.
Which of the following represents the correct order of events during the menstrual
cycle?
I
II
III
IV
Figure 5. The Menstrual Cycle
(Source: https://www.teachervision.com/reproductive-system/what-menstrual-cycle)
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
32.
I, II, III, IV
II, III, I, IV
II, III, IV, I
II, IV, III, I
Linda is experiencing blurred vision, weight loss, nausea and slow-healing of sores or
cuts. Eventually, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. This happens when the body is
not able to take up sugar (glucose) into its cells and use it for energy. This results in a
build-up of extra sugar in the bloodstream. Considering the concept of feedback
mechanism, what best advice would you give to Linda?
A. If she smokes, she should quit.
B.
She should monitor her blood glucose and blood pressure levels.
C.
If she is overweight, she should lose weight and exercise regularly.
D.
If prescribed by healthcare provider, she should take medication and insulin, and
closely follow recommendations on how and when to take it.
Ben is walking along the beach in a hot summer day. The environmental temperature is
hotter than what his body is used to. How would his body respond to regulate his internal
body temperature in this situation?
A. Goose bump formation would be his body’s respond to the sudden increase in
temperature.
B. He would experience muscle contraction as it is the body’s usual reaction to hot
environment.
C. His body would use homeostatic mechanisms like sweating because the
environment is too hot.
D. He would experience shallow breathing in response to being exposed in
temperature hotter than the usual.
33.
What type of chromosomal mutation is shown in the figure below?
Figure 6. Mutated DNA
(Source: https://geneticeducation.co.in/wp-content/uploads/2018/07/genetic-mutations.003.jpeg)
A. Deletion
B. Duplication
C. Inversion
D. Translocation
For question number 34, refer to Figure 7 below.
Figure 7. Genetic code
(Source: https://readbiology.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/05/GENETIC-CODE-CHART.png)
34.
Which of the following order of bases shows the correct set of codes?
A. GGT – CCA – GGU – Glycine
B. CAT – GUA – CAU – Histidine
C. TGA – ACU – UGA – Threonine
D. CAG – CAG – GUC – Glutamine
35.
Figure 8 shows a cross section of a portion of Earth’s crust that has not been overturned.
Letters A, B, C, and D represent sedimentary rock layers that contain fossils.
Figure 8. Cross section of a portion of Earth’s crust (not drawn to scale)
(Source: https://www.eastauroraschools.org)
Which rock layer contains the oldest fossils?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
36.
Many biologists believe that the number of differences between proteins of different
species indicates how long ago the species diverged from common ancestors. Why do
these biologists believe that humans, chimpanzees, and gorillas diverged from a
common ancestor only a few million years ago?
A.
Fewer differences would mean a more recent common ancestor because
there has been less time to accumulate mutations/variation.
B.
Fewer differences would mean a more recent common ancestor because
there has been more time to accumulate mutations/variation.
C.
Fewer differences would mean a less recent common ancestor because
there has been less time to accumulate mutations/variation.
D.
Fewer differences would mean a less recent common ancestor because
there has been more time to accumulate mutations/variation.
37.
Which is a major concept included in Lamarck’s theory of evolution?
A.
Artificial selection is the basis for evolution.
B.
Change is the result of survival of the fittest.
C.
D.
Population size decreases the rate of evolution.
Body structure can change according to the actions of the
organism.
38.
A biologist studying a natural population of mice and observes that in one area the
proportion of darker colored mice is greater than the proportion of lighter colored mice.
In another area, the opposite is true. He finds that only the area with more dark mice has
predators. Therefore, you hypothesize that darker mice are favored in areas with
predators, perhaps because they are more difficult to see. If your hypothesis is true, what
would you expect to happen in the few generations after predators are introduced to an
area with a population of mice that previously did not have predators?
A. The proportion of darker colored mice will increase.
B. The proportion of darker colored mice will decrease.
C. The proportion of darker colored mice will not change.
D. The predators will evolve to be able to better see the darker mice.
39.
The food webs A and B, as shown in Figure 9, are in different locations. Imagine if Leaf
Hoppers died out in both locations. Which one of these is the best prediction and
explanation for the effect this would have on the food webs?
Figure 9. Examples of food web
(Source: http://sains-biologi.blogspot.com/2014/10/contoh-soal-pissa.html)
A.
B.
C.
D.
The effect would be greater in food web A because the Parasitic Wasp
has only one food source in web A.
The effect would be greater in food web A because the Parasitic Wasp
has several food sources in web A.
The effect would be greater in food web B because the Parasitic Wasp
has only one food source in web B.
The effect would be greater in food web B because the Parasitic Wasp
has several food sources in web B.
40.
Which of the following gas laws states that the volume of a fixed amount of gas is
inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature?
A.
Boyle’s Law
B.
Charles’ Law
C.
D.
Ideal Gas Law
Combined Gas Law
41.
Which is most likely to happen when a closed vessel filled with gas is shaken for two
minutes?
A.
Pressure inside the vessel will increase.
B.
Temperature inside the vessel will increase.
C.
Both temperature and pressure inside the vessel will increase.
D.
Temperature will decrease and the pressure inside the vessel will
increase.
42.
A quantity of gas has a volume of 250 liters at 17 ˚C and 3 atm of pressure. To what
volume must the gas be increased for it to be under STP conditions?
A. 706 L
B. 750 L
C. 771 L
D. 784 L
43.
Johannes would like to know how his friends always tell him that he looks so much like his
parents. He asked his Chemistry teacher about the reason and accordingly, it has
something to do with biomolecules specifically nucleic acids and proteins. Based on the
situation above, did the teacher answer Johannes’ question correctly?
A.
No. Johannes should have asked his biology teacher instead.
B.
No. There is no direct link between biomolecules and inheritance of genetic
information from parents to offspring.
C.
Yes. Inheritance of traits is directed by how nucleic acids code specific
proteins to be produced however inheritance only happens in the first
generation of offspring.
D.
Yes. Nucleic acids are molecules that code for hereditary traits by
controlling sequences of amino acids in the production of proteins for
specific or unique traits.
For items 44-45, refer to Figure 10 below.
Figure 10. Sample Nutritional Label
Source: https://familydoctor.org/wp-content/uploads/2007/10/nutrition-facts-label-148x300.png
44.
45.
46.
Nutrition facts of a product is one of the minimum mandatory information that should be
labelled in all pre-packaged foods. Based on the data given above, how many calories can
you take if you consume the whole contents of this product?
A.
110 calories
B.
125 calories
C.
250 calories
D.
500 calories
Based from the amount of calories per serving and amount of protein indicated in the
sample nutritional label, if each gram of protein is 10 calories, what percent of the calories
comes from the protein?
A.
10 %
B.
20 %
C.
30 %
D.
40 %
What do you call the minimum amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction?
A. Bond energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Potential energy
D. Activation energy
For item 47, refer to the given information below.
Carbon (C) combines with oxygen (O2) at low concentration to form carbon monoxide
(CO). Below is the chemical equation of the reaction. The mass of 1 carbon atom is
12.010 g while the mass of 1 oxygen atom is 15. 999 g.
C + O2
CO
47.
What can you infer about the mass of the reactants and products?
A. Mass cannot be determined due to incomplete data.
B. Carbon monoxide would have greater mass than the mass of carbon and
oxygen.
C. The combined mass of carbon and oxygen is equal to the mass of carbon
monoxide.
D. The combined mass of carbon and oxygen is greater than the mass of the carbon
monoxide.
48.
Which weighs more: a whole cookie or a cookie that has been broken and crumbled?
A. Both cookies have no weight.
B. A whole cookie weighs more because the cookie is still intact.
C. They are equal because conservation of matter says that the sum of the parts
equals the whole.
D. A cookie that has been broken and crumbled weighs more because the cookie
had a physical change.
49.
What do you call to an inhibitor that is added to food products to slow down the chemical
reactions involved with food spoilage and extend the period in which the food remains
edible?
A. Preservatives
B. Microbial agents
C. Reaction inhibitors
D. Chemical inhibitors
50.
Which of the following is the effect when you increase the concentration of the
reactants?
A. There is no reaction.
B. The reaction will stop.
C. The reaction will increase.
D. The reaction will decrease.