DR HAFIZ ATIF (FIRST AID MADE EASY
PLATFORM)
It is temporarily key ,final key will be shared later
Q2: What does Amlodipine treat?
Key: Supraventricular tachycardia.
Q3: What can cause decreased oxygen saturation and cyanosis during anesthesia?
Key: Prilocaine.
Q4: According to Charles's Law, what is held constant?
Key: Pressure.
Q5: Which chromosome is associated with Marfan syndrome?
Key: 15 chromosome.
Q6: What inheritance pattern is seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Key: X-linked recessive.
Q7: Which drug can increase INR (International Normalized Ratio)?
Key: Clarithromycin.
Q8: Which yeast species shows resistance to echinocandins?
Key: Candida crusi.
Q9: What is the preferred anesthetic for patients with chronic obstructive lung disease?
Key: Cisatracurium.
Q10: How is vertical nystagmus typically induced?
Key: Head tilted sideways.
Q11: Which class of antibiotics interferes with neuromuscular transmission?
Key: Aminoglycosides.
Q12: Which muscle type displays resistance to succinylcholine?
Key: M. gravis.
Q13: What is the structural basis of steroids like Rocuronium?
Key: Rocuronium.
Q14: What is recommended for cleaning a face mask?
Key: Lukewarm water.
Q15: What method is used for sterilizing face masks?
Key: Ethylene oxide.
Q16: What type of current flow in an ECG generates a wave?
Key: Partially depolarization.
Q17: What is the main role of the menisci in the knee joint?
Key: Weight transmission from thigh to knee.
Q18: What type of antigen does MHC-I present?
Key: Antigen with CD8.
Q19: In the context of blood pressure (BP) readings, if k = 3.2 and the BP is 200/110, what does k
represent?
Key: Aldosterone.
Q20: What aspect of pharmacokinetics is related to the excretion of a drug?
Key: Excretion of drug.
Q21: Why is epinephrine administered slowly?
Key: To increase total peripheral resistance (TPR).
Q22: What type of cells are found in damaged brain tissue?
Key: Glial cells.
Q23: Succinylcholine is classified as a partial agonist of what type of receptor?
Key: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
Q24: Which anesthetics are associated with malignant hyperthermia?
Key: Halothane and nitrous oxide (N2O).
Q25: In which conditions is succinylcholine contraindicated?
Key: Burns, malignant hyperthermia (use rocuronium instead).
Q26: What organism is associated with IUCD use, pelvic pain, and inflammatory cells?
Key: Actinomyces.
Q27: What is the preferred treatment for ventricular failure and pulmonary edema?
Key: Furosemide.
Q28: Which drug can decrease the metabolism of theophylline?
Key: Cimetidine.
Q29: What is the recommended treatment for stable angina after exposure to cold?
Key: Nitroglycerin.
Q30: During exercise, what does blood flow not change significantly to?
Key: The brain.
Q31: What do bile acids conjugate with to form bile salts?
Key: Glycine and taurine.
Q32: Which test is used for diagnosing myasthenia gravis?
Key: Edrophonium test.
Q33: If sympathetic supply is completely cut at a certain level of section, what happens to all spinal
nerves below that level?
Key: They are unaffected.
Q34: What is the typical composition of spinal nerves?
Key: Mixed (both sensory and motor fibers).
Q35: What happens to CO2 levels and FEV1/FVC ratio during the last trimester of pregnancy?
Key: CO2 levels decrease and FEV1/FVC ratio decreases.
Q36: After treating asthma, by what percentage can FEV1/FVC ratio increase?
Key: 12%.
Q36: What transformation does a platelet undergo to go from flat to spherical?
Key: Platelet plug formation.
Q37: Which antibiotic is considered safe for use in patients with renal failure?
Key: Azithromycin.
Q38: Which local anesthetic has the potential to cause cardiotoxicity?
Key: Bupivacaine.
Q39: What is the recommended treatment for blood loss of 15 to 20%?
Key: 3% Normal Saline (NS).
Q40: What is the solution for paradoxical aciduria?
Key: Normal Saline (NS).
Q41: What effect does verapamil have on atrioventricular (AV) conduction?
Key: Decreases AV conduction.
Q42: What type of personality is associated with Cluster Type A?
Key: Physiological stress.
Q43: How is the antibiotic dosage adjusted in chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
Key: Meropenem > Imipenem.
Q44: In a gunshot injury causing contralateral pain loss and intact temperature sensation, which
spinal structure is likely affected?
Key: Dorsal root of S1.
Q45: What property of a volatile anesthetic influences its minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)
during inhalation anesthesia?
Key: Oil/gas coefficient.
Q46: What is the primary effect of diphtheria toxin on protein synthesis?
Key: Decreases protein synthesis.
Q47: What molecules are associated with cGMP?
Key: ANP, BNP, NO (nitric oxide).
Q48: What is the main component of the cell wall in Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria,
respectively?
Key: Peptidoglycan; Endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide).
Q49: In COPD patients with no metabolic acidosis, what pH level can be expected?
Key: pH 7.3.
Q50: What neurotransmitters are predominantly found in the raphe nucleus?
Key: Serotonin and GABA.
Q51: In which brain region are endorphins concentrated?
Key: Hypothalamus.
Q52: How can hallucinations induced by ketamine be prevented?
Key: Combination of ketamine and atropine.
Q53: What is the initial physiological response after hemorrhage, and what type of vessel is involved?
Key: Vasoconstriction; Arterioles.
Q53: Which drug can cause gouty arthritis, tingling in feet, thrombocytopenia, and a decrease in
cardiac output?
Key: Thiazides (also used to treat calcium stones).
Q54: In which type of muscle is insulin predominantly utilized?
Key: Resting skeletal muscle.
Q55: What is the purpose of fumigation in preventing the spread of infection?
Key: Decreases the spread of infection.
Q56: Which brain region is responsible for the reticular activating system and the production of
norepinephrine?
Key: Locus coeruleus.
Q57: What is the inflammatory status of apoptosis?
Key: Non-inflammatory.
Q58: What combination of conditions can cause a pansystolic murmur along with atrial fibrillation?
Key: Mitral regurgitation.
Q59: What ligament is damaged when the shoulder joint separates from the clavicle and slides over
the acromion?
Key: Coracoclavicular ligament.
Q60: Which muscle separates the submandibular gland into deep and superficial parts?
Key: Mylohyoid.
Q61: Which structure thickens to form the parotid fascia?
Key: Stylomandibular ligament.
Q62: What is the cause of hyperacusis in cases of facial nerve palsy?
Key: Nerve to stapedius dysfunction.
Q63: Which reflex leads to a decrease in muscle tension?
Key: Inverse stretch reflex.
Q64: In the context of complement fixation, which immunoglobulin is more effective, IgM or IgG?
Key: IgM > IgG (3124).
Q65: What is the primary effect of neurogenic shock on vasomotor tone and total peripheral
resistance (TPR)?
Key: Loss of vasomotor tone > Decreased TPR.
Q66: Which drug can increase the serum level of another drug?
Key: Valproate.
Q67: What type of immunity is acquired through the production of antibodies?
Key: Acquired immunity.
Q68: What term is used to describe immunity acquired by transferring pre-formed antibodies?
Key: Passive immunization.
Q69: What percentage of plasma is present in the extracellular fluid (ECF)?
Key: 30%.
Q70: Among anesthetics, which one undergoes extensive metabolism?
Key: Halothane.
Q71: What is the fixed pO2 split of an oximeter with a low signal-to-noise ratio?
Key: 85.
Q72: Which nerve is responsible for the loss of taste sensation in the anterior one-third of the tongue?
Key: Facial nerve (due to injury to the facial canal).
Q73: What is the blood supply of the cricothyroid muscle?
Key: External laryngeal nerve (ELN), while all other intrinsic laryngeal muscles are supplied by the
recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN).
Q74: What factor is inversely related to laminar flow in fluid dynamics?
Key: Viscosity.
Q75: What liver condition is characterized by nutmeg appearance and heart failure cells?
Key: Chronic passive congestion.
Q76: Among pentazocine and phenobarbital, which drug does not respond to naloxone?
Key: Pentazocine > Phenobarbital.
Q77: What causes diplopia, especially in the setting of a basilar artery lesion?
Key: Basilar artery lesion.
Q78: What is the dosing schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine?
Key: 1 month, 6 months, and 12 months, intramuscularly.
Q79: Which artery is responsible for the secondary somesthetic supply?
Key: Anterior cerebral artery (ACA).
Q80: Which artery supplies the thalamus and subthalamus, and branches from the internal carotid
artery?
Key: Internal carotid artery.
Q81: From which lymph nodes does lymph from the lateral foot drain?
Key: Popliteal lymph nodes.
Q82: If the unilateral corneal reflex is lost, where is the injury likely located?
Key: Superior orbital fissure.
Q83: What is the primary cause of vascular resistance increase during surgical stress?
Key: Catecholamines.
Q84: What is the location of the vomiting center in the brain?
Key: Area postrema in the medulla (also called the solitary tract nucleus).
Q85: Why is regular checkup necessary after a carotid endarterectomy (CEA)?
Key: For follow-up and surveillance.
Q86: Which cellular structure contains a large amount of RNA?
Key: Nucleolus.
Q87: What molecules are involved in opsonization?
Key: C3b and the Fc portion of IgG.
Q88: What molecules play a role in cell migration or chemotaxis?
Key: C5a < LTB4.
Q89: In what order do the anaphylatoxins contribute to anaphylaxis?
Key: C5a > C3a > C4a.
Q90: What is the location of uncontrolled hypertension in cases involving the renal artery?
Key: Proximal 2 cm of the renal artery (atherosclerotic lesion).
Q91: What is the method used to confirm pregnancy and detect hCG in urine?
Key: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
Q92: What diagnostic test is typically performed to investigate stillbirth causes?
Key: Karyotyping.
Q93: Among the carpal bones, which bone is not present in the proximal row?
Key: Capitate.
Q94: What part of the brain undergoes hydrocephalus after necrosis?
Key: Anterior fontanelle.
Q95: What artery is located anterior to the third part of the duodenum?
Key: Superior mesenteric artery (SMA).
Q96: What is the posterior counterpart of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA)?
Key: Inferior vena cava (IVC).
Q97: Which branch of the dorsalis pedis artery supplies the deep structures of the foot?
Key: Deep plantar branch.
Q98: In a rotator cuff injury leading to an inability to abduct the arm, which muscle is injured?
Key: Supraspinatus muscle.
Q99: How does a normal healthy person's blood flow change in response to sympathetic activity?
Key: Blood flow increases.
Q100: What condition leads to left ventricular hypertrophy due to pressure overload?
Key: Left ventricular hypertrophy.
Q101: In a case of atrophy and loss of pain and temperature sensation in the lateral leg, what spinal
cord structures are affected?
Key: Lower motor neuron lesion (LMNL) and anterior horn damage.
Q102: What anatomical component surrounds both muscle fascicles and nerve fascicles?
Key: Perineurium.
Q103: In monozygotic twins, what can differ in terms of pigmentation?
Key: Melanocytes.
Q104: In spina bifida occulta, what spinal levels are commonly affected when a person can't extend
their knee?
Key: L3 and L4.
Q105: What is the term for a genetic defect that is phenotypically not expressed?
Key: Reduced penetrance.
Q106: Which chromosome is involved in Prader-Willi syndrome?
Key: Chromosome 15.
Q107: If the axillary artery is damaged, which branch of it is likely to be affected?
Key: Circumflex artery.
Q108: What condition is associated with an increase in free bile acids?
Key: Hyperlipidemia.
Q109: In the act of swallowing, what position are the vocal cords in?
Key: Adducted (closed).
Q110: What neurotransmitter is prominent in slow wave sleep?
Key: Serotonin.
Q111: What parameters does a normal distribution curve help determine?
Key: Mean and standard deviation.
Q112: What is a characteristic feature of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
Key: Exaggerated reflexes.
Q113: In the thymus, MHC class I molecules differentiate to form which type of T cell?
Key: CD8 T cells.
Q114: What structure is found within the inferior orbital fissure?
Key: Zygomatic nerve.
Q115: What is a characteristic of transitional epithelium in terms of cell shape?
Key: Upper cells are dome-shaped.
Q116: What inheritance pattern is associated with autosomal dominant conditions?
Key: Incomplete penetrance.
Q117: What is a condition fatal in pregnancy that involves the liver?
Key: Fatty liver disease.
Q118: What is the dosing schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine?
Key: 1 month, 6 months, and 12 months, intramuscularly.
Q119: From which tissue is a sample taken for HLA compatibility testing?
Key: Buccal mucosa.
Q120: What hormone is secreted by the cortical layer of the oocyte?
Key: Estrogen.
Q121: What do the receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies detect in response to hemorrhage?
Key: Decrease in pO2 (partial pressure of oxygen).
Q122: What does the grading of a tumor indicate?
Key: Degree of cellular differentiation.
Q123: What structure lies anterior to the left suprarenal gland?
Key: Lesser sac (omental bursa).
Q124: What is a mechanism of tumor metastasis?
Key: Down-regulation of E-cadherin.
Q125: If ejection fraction increases, what happens to end-diastolic volume (EDV)?
Key: Decreases.
Q126: At which vertebral body level does the inferior vena cava (IVC) form?
Key: L5.
Q127: What blood vessel supplies the head of the femur?
Key: Retinacular arteries.
Q128: What artery provides secondary sensory supply?
Key: Anterior cerebral artery (ACA).
Q129: Which artery supplies the thalamus and subthalamus and branches from the internal carotid
artery?
Key: Internal carotid artery.
Q130: Where does lymph from the lateral foot drain?
Key: Popliteal lymph nodes.
Q131: If the unilateral corneal reflex is lost, where is the likely site of injury?
Key: Superior orbital fissure.
Q132: What is the primary cause of increased vascular resistance during surgical stress?
Key: Catecholamines.
Q133: What region of the brain houses the vomiting center?
Key: Area postrema (located within the solitary tract nucleus).
Q134: For what purpose is regular checkup necessary after carotid endarterectomy (CEA)?
Key: Follow-up and surveillance.
Q135: What cellular structure contains a large amount of RNA?
Key: Nucleolus.
Q136: What molecules are involved in opsonization?
Key: C3b and the Fc portion of IgG.
Q137: What molecules are associated with cell migration or chemotaxis?
Key: C5a > LTB4.
Q138: In what order do the anaphylatoxins contribute to anaphylaxis?
Key: C5a > C3a > C4a.
Q139: In cases of uncontrolled hypertension, where is the atherosclerotic lesion likely to be in relation
to the renal artery?
Key: Proximal 2 cm of the renal artery.
Q140: How is pregnancy confirmed, and how is hCG detected in urine?
Key: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
Q140: What is the preferred diagnostic test for investigating stillbirth?
Key: Karyotyping.
Q141: How is fat digestion primarily accomplished?
Key: Emulsification of fats by bile salts.
Q142: What type of cells are likely to be prominent in the blood picture of atopic asthma?
Key: Eosinophils.
Q143: What space is assessed after piercing the interlaminar ligament during a lumbar puncture?
Key: Epidural space.
Q144: Which protozoan parasite causes malaria and belongs to the Plasmodium genus?
Key: Plasmodium falciparum (not an amoeba).
Q145: What structural components bound the outlet of the lesser pelvis?
Key: Sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments.
Q146: Which occupational exposure is closely related to the development of Byssinosis?
Key: Cotton (related to cotton dust exposure).
Q147: What is the main function of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
Key: Preservation of the corpus luteum.
Q148: What is the primary cause of edema in nephrotic syndrome?
Key: Hypoalbuminemia.
Q149: What is typically seen in the primary focus of tuberculosis (TB)?
Key: Calcified pulmonary focus.
Q150: Which congenital heart defect is characterized by a "tetralogy" of four specific anatomical
features?
Key: Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF).
Q151: What term is used to describe continuous muscle contraction without relaxation?
Key: Complete tetanus.
Q152: What bone is not present in the proximal row of carpal bones?
Key: Capitate.
Q153: What term describes hydrocephalus that occurs after brain necrosis?
Key: Anterior fontanelle.
Q154: What artery supplies the anterior portion of the third part of the duodenum?
Key: Superior mesenteric artery (SMA).
Q155: Which major blood vessel is located posterior to the abdominal cavity?
Key: Inferior vena cava (IVC).
Q156: Which branch of the dorsalis pedis artery supplies the deep structures of the foot?
Key: Deep plantar branch.
Q157: In cases of rotator cuff injury resulting in an inability to abduct the arm, which muscle is injured?
Key: Supraspinatus muscle.
Q158: How does the sympathetic nervous system affect blood flow in a normal, healthy person?
Key: Increases blood flow (vasodilation) via relaxation of smooth muscle.
Q159: What condition leads to an overload of the left ventricle, resulting in hypertrophy?
Key: Left ventricular hypertrophy.
Q160: What combination of lesions results in atrophy and loss of pain and temperature sensation in
the lower leg?
Key: Lower motor neuron lesion (LMNL) and anterior horn damage.
Q161: What term describes the connective tissue sheath that surrounds muscle fascicles or nerve
fascicles?
Key: Perineurium.
Q162: What characteristic is different between monozygotic twins?
Key: Melanocytes (skin pigmentation).
Q163: In cases of spina bifida occulta, what spinal levels are typically affected when a person can't
extend their knee?
Key: L3 and L4.
Q164: What term describes a genetic defect that is not phenotypically expressed?
Key: Reduced penetrance.
Q165: Which genetic condition involves a defect on chromosome 15?
Key: Prader-Willi syndrome.
Q166: If the axillary artery is damaged, which branch is likely to be affected?
Key: Circumflex artery.
Q167: What condition is associated with an increased level of free bile acids?
Key: Hyperlipidemia.
Q168: What is the position of the vocal cords during the process of swallowing?
Key: Adducted (closed).
Q169: What is the inheritance pattern associated with autosomal dominant conditions?
Key: Incomplete penetrance.
Q170: What is a condition that is fatal during pregnancy and involves the liver?
Key: Fatty liver disease.
Q171: What is the primary function of sympathetic beta-1 (B1) receptors?
Key: Increase heart rate and contractility.
Q172: How is the diagnosis of typhoid typically confirmed?
Key: Blood culture or Widal test.
Q173: What autoimmune disorder is characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth?
Key: Sjögren's syndrome.
Q174: What is the primary stimulus for the release of vasopressin?
Key: Decreased right atrial pressure.
Q175: What molecule helps in the formation of a platelet plug?
Key: Thromboxane A2 (TXA-2).
Q176: How is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) absorbed from the subarachnoid space?
Key: Arachnoid granulations.
Q177: What is the antigen-presenting role of microglial cells in the brain?
Key: Antigen-presenting cells (APCs).
Q178: What happens to the ciliary muscle during near vision?
Key: It contracts.
Q179: How does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) affect water permeability in the collecting ducts?
Key: Increases water permeability through the collecting ducts (CD).
Q180: At what vertebral level does the artery of Adamkiewicz typically arise?
Key: Between T9 and L1.
Q181: What are some differences between pre-mortem and post-mortem changes in the body?
Key: Livor mortis, rigor mortis, and body temperature changes.
Q182: What syndrome involves a gastrin-secreting tumor causing peptic ulcers?
Key: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
Q183: What type of metaplasia occurs in the stomach in the setting of adenocarcinoma?
Key: Intestinal metaplasia.
Q184: What is the approximate ratio of T lymphocytes (T cells) to B lymphocytes (B cells) in the blood?
Key: Roughly 2:1 (T:B ratio).
Q185: What ligament is responsible for the medial stability of the knee joint?
Key: Medial collateral ligament (MCL).
Q186: Which artery is the primary blood supply to the gluteal region causing pain?
Key: Superior gluteal artery.
Q187: In cases of head of the femur dislocation from the acetabulum, which nerve and artery are
involved?
Key: Sciatic nerve and medial femoral circumflex artery.
Q188: What is the location of the facial artery pulse?
Key: Anterior to the masseter muscle, along the lower border of the mandible.
Q189: At what vertebral levels is the hilum of the kidney located?
Key: L1-L2.
Q190: At what vertebral levels is pain from the kidney typically felt?
Key: L1, L2, L3, and T10.
Q191: What side of the diaphragm is inserted into the body?
Key: Right side of the diaphragm.
Q192: What anatomical structure is found at the left border of the sternum in the 5th intercostal
space?
Key: Pericardium (heart's sac).
Q193: Between what structures does the inferior vena cava (IVC) lie?
Key: Between the liver and the diaphragm.
Q194: What is the specific type of fracture called that occurs in the distal radius with dorsal
displacement?
Key: Colles fracture.
Q195: Where is the radial artery located in the anatomical snuff box?
Key: In the anatomical snuff box, which is located over the scaphoid bone.
Q196: What artery supplies the quadrangular space?
Key: Posterior circumflex humeral artery.
Q197: What term is used to describe veins that accompany arteries?
Key: Vena comitans.
Q198: What nerve innervates the deltoid muscle and passes through the quadrangular space?
Key: Axillary nerve.
Q199: What artery supplies the posterior region of the shoulder?
Key: Posterior circumflex humeral artery.
Q200: Which muscle passes through the Greater Sciatic Foramen?
Key: Piriformis.
Q201: At what week of pregnancy can Down syndrome be diagnosed using Nuchal Translucency
ultrasound?
Key: 11th week.
Q202: A lady puts her lens in tap water and develops severe retinitis. What is the cause?
Key: Acanthamoeba (Naegleria).
Q203: How many days does spermatogenesis take?
Key: Around 64 days.
Q205: What does the Dorsalis Pedis artery supply?
Key: Area between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal.
Q206: In what configuration is the CMG (cystometrogram) recorded?
Key: Indifferent lead placement.
Q207: What chromosomal rearrangement is associated with Burkitt translocation?
Key: t(8;14) involving c-Myc oncogene.
Q208: Which stage of the ECG represents complete ventricular depolarization?
Key: QRS complex