COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING SIMPLE RECALL
(PREPARED BY: PROF. ROY A. LABANON, RN)
1. Teaching as a midwives primary responsibility is the explicit definition of community health practice as suggessted by:
A. Freeman
C. Winslow
E. None of the above
B. Jacobson
D. Nisce
2. The use of health care process is emphasized in the definition of community health practice as written by:
A. Shetland
C. Maglaya
E. None of the above
B. Jacobson
D. Nisce
3. In order for community work to succeed , interagency collaboration is important. This is emphasized in the definition
given by:
A. Freeman
C. Winslow
E. None of the above
B. Jacobson
D. Kischbush
4. Raising the level of health of the citizenry is the ultimate goal of community health practice as defined by:
A. Freeman
C. Winslow
E. None of the above
B. Jacobson
D. Nisce
5. Winslow suggested that in order to succeed in public health practice , midwives should based their actions in what
philosopy in community work:
A. Giving emphasis on importance of educating the public
B. Consideration of the worth and dignity of men
C. Interdisciplinary approach is essential
D. Holistic approach to health is important
E. None of the above
6. Which activity below is the most important role of a community health nurse:
A. Maternal care
D. Organizing people for health
B. Newborn care
E. All of the above
C. Education for health
7. Which of the following level of clientele is the point of entry for nurses:
A. The individual client
D. The community in general
B. The family as a whole
E. None of the above
C. The target population
8. Which of the following is the initial step used in the family care process:
A. Data collection
D. Data analysis and interpretation
B. Data gathering
E. All of the above
C. Data collection
9. In order for midwives to succeed in goal setting she has to have in mind :
A. A good source for funding
D. An expert on research
B. A legitimate support group
E. None of the above
C. A measurable outcome criteria
10. Which of the following true about clinic visit :
A. It is suitable for emergency cases
B. It is dependent on the availability of the rural
health physician
C. It is most helpful to patients with critical illness
D. It can cater to illnesess during the early stages
E. None of the above
11. Which among the health institutions below is not considered a primary level health facility :
A. Puericulture center
C. Hospitals at district level
E. None of the above
B. Community clinics
D. Lying in clinics
12. Emergency departments of provincial hospitals are considered :
A. Primary level health facility
B. Secodary level health facility
C. Tertiary level health facility
D. Special tertiary level health facility
E. None of the above
13. The philippine heart center is considered to be :
A. Primary level health facility
B. Secodary level health facility
C. Tertiary level health facility
D. Special tertiary level health facility
E. None of the above
14. Which of the following is a not seconadry level health facility :
A. City/private owned hospital
B. Opd of provincial hospitals
C. Buluan district hospital
D. 50-100 bed capacity hospital
E. None of the above
15. A rural health clinic is usually manned by a:
A. Rural health doctor
B. A resident physician
C. A doctor in traditional medicine
D. A consultant
E. None of the above
16. Doing newborn care is what level of prevention:
A. Primary first pahse
C. Tertiary
B. Secondary
D. Primary second phase
E. All of the above
17. Giving magnesium sulfate injestion to an eclamptic client is what level of prevention:
A. Primary first pahse
C. Tertiary
B. Secondary
D. Primary second phase
E. All of the above
18. Teaching clients how to wear abdominal binders post caesarean deliver is what level of prevention:
A. Primary first pahse
C. Tertiary
E. All of the above
B. Secondary
D. Primary second phase
19. Teching client the importance of completing tetanus injection during pregnancy is what level of prevention:
A. Primary first pahse
C. Tertiary
E. All of the above
B. Secondary
D. Primary second phase
20. Checking of proteinuria thru acetic acid testing is what level of prevention:
A. Primary first pahse
C. Tertiary
B. Secondary
D. Primary second phase
E. All of the above
21. How many drops of acetic acid is needed upon testing:
A. 2
C. 8
B. 5
D. 10
E. None of the above
22. How much urine are to be placed in the test tube during acetic acid testing
A. 8-10 drops
C. 5 drops
B. 8-10 ml
D. 5 ml
E. None of the above
23. A positive 3 benidicts test will yeild what urine color :
A. Brick red
C. Yellowish red
B. Orange red
D. Bluish red
E. None of the above
24. Slight cloudiness is:
A. Positive 4 benidicts test
B. Positive 3 acetic acid test
C. Positive 2 benidicts test
D. Positive 2 acetic acid test
E. None of the above
25. Egg white urine color change is:
A. Positive 4 benidicts test
B. Positive 3 acetic acid test
C. Positive 2 benidicts test
D. Positive 2 acetic acid test
E. None of the above
26. Egg white urine color change is:
A. Positive 4 benidicts test
B. Positive 3 acetic acid test
C. Positive 2 benidicts test
D. Positive 2 acetic acid test
E. None of the above
27. Tetanus toxoid 2 for pregnant mothers will give how many years protection:
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 5
E. None of the above
28. Tetanus toxoid 2 for pregnant mothers will give how many percent protection:
A. 10
C. 60
B. 40
D. 90
E. None of the above
29. Tetanus toxoid 3 for pregnant mothers are to be given:
A. As soon as possible
C. 6 months after tt2
B. 4 weeks after the first dose
D. 1 year as booster dose
E. None of the above
30. Tetanus toxoid 4 for pregnant mothers will give how many years protection:
A. As soon as possible
C. 6 months after tt2
B. 4 weeks after the first dose
D. 1 year as booster dose
E. None of the above
31. Which of the following is the content of apublic health bag:
A. Umbrella
C. Stethoscope
B. Bp apparatus
D. Test tube holder
E. All of the above
32. Which of the following is not a content of a public health bag:
A. Syringe
C. Syrup of epicac
B. Cord clamp
D. Denatured alcohol
E. None of the above
33. Which of the following is the most important principle in the use of public health bag:
A. Purpose comes first
D. Clients acceptance
B. Prevention of infection transmission
E. None of the above
C. Availability of the client
34. Which of the following is the goal of the doh:
A. Leadership in health
B. Equitable quality health service
C. Promotion of health
D. Healthy society
E. None of the above
35. Which of the following is not a role of the doh:
A. Leadership in health
B. Policy making
C. Regulation of health institutions
D. Administartor of specific services
E. None of the above
36. The delivery of local services is stipulated in the local government code known as:
A. Loi 949
C. Ra 7160
B. Loi 649
D. Ra 8423
37. Which among the following is not a pillar of primary health care:
A. Availability of support mechanisms
B. Active support by the community
C. Linkaging of other sectors
E. None of the above
D. Introduction of appropriate technology
E. None of the above
38. Komadranas are considered as what type of primary health care worker:
A. Intermediate
C. Grassroots
B. Frontliners
D. Village
E. None of the above
39. Which of the following of the following is considered as intermediate health care workers:
A. Traditional birth attendants
C. Baranggay health workers
E. None of the above
B. Trained hilots
D. Faith healers
40. Which of the following of the herbal meds may be recommended for joint pains in arthritis:
A. Ulasimang bato
C. Niyog-niyugan
E. None of the above
B. Tsaang gubat
D. Akapulko
41. Bawang is specifically useful to treat:
A. Diabetes
B. High blood pressure
C. Toothaches
D. Ascariasis
E. None of the above
42. Which of the followingis correct about herbal meds preparation:
A. Use of kaldero is best
B. It should be cooked well on heavy fire
C. Boiling is done with cover removed
D. Clay pots are prohibited
E. None of the above
43. The creation of the philippine institute of traditional and alternative health care is stipulated in:
A. Ra 7160
C. Ra 9211
E. None of the above
B. Ra 8423
D. Ra 6292
44. Accupressure is usually helpful for relief of all of the following except:
A. Muscle pains
C. Toothache
B. Headache
D. Joint pains
E. None of the above
45. Accupressure uses patients own fingers to measure pressure points . This is termed as _____ measurement :
A. Qi
C. Yang
E. None of the above
B. Yin
D. Tsun
46. Which of the following refers to the clients perception of family health problem:
A. Nature of the problem
D. Salience
B. Modifiability of the problem
E. None of the above
C. Preventive potential
47. Exposure of clients to risk is seen in:
A. Nature of the problem
B. Modifiability of the problem
C. Preventive potential
D. Salience
E. None of the above
48. In nature of the problem , a client with present physical health problems is given a score of :
A. 3
C. 1
E. None of the above
B. 2
D. 0
49. Death of a member of the family is seen by the midwife as:
A. Health deficit for the family
B. A health threat for the family
C. A foreseeble crisis
D. A normal phenomenon
E. None of the above
50. The correct formula to use for accurate prioritization of family health problem is :
A. Score divided by highest possible score x weight
B. Highest score times given score x weight
C. Sum total of all scores x weight
D. Score divided weight times 1000
E. None of the above
51. A 6 month old client with chest indrawing should be classified as _____ in the color coded triage in imci:
A. Pink
C. Green
E. None of the above
B. Yellow
D. Red
52. The above child should then be given:
A. A dose of amoxicillin
B. An injectable gentamicin
53. Which of the following is not a danger sign:
A. Convulsion prior to admission
B. Projectile vomitting
C. Sleeplessness
C. A dose of anti cough
medication
D. Breastmilk
E. None of the above
D. Inability to swallow food and drinks
E. All of the above
54. A child with diarrhea has been calssified as having severepersistent diarrhea because of which of the following reasons:
A. The child has diarrhea for more than 14 days
B. The child has signs of dehydration because of diarrhea
C. The chiild has dehydration because of 2 weeks diarrhea
D. Because the child is severely dehydrated
E. None of the above
55. A child was given a dose of ciprofloxacin. Which of the following is the correct classification for this child:
A. Severe dehydration
C. Severe persistent diarrhea
E. None of the above
B. Some dehydration
D. Severe dysentery
56. Plan b management for a child with diarrhea would include:
A. Ivf insertion
C. Oral rehydration salt
B. Ngt administration
D. Increase oral fluid intake
E. None of the above
57. A child with fever has been classified as very severe febrile disease. No danger signs have been noted. What other sign is
seen in the child that would confirm the said classification:
A. Severe headache
C. Sub-mandibular swelling
E. None of the above
B. Nuchal rigidity
D. Chills
58. A child positive for bsmp should be given a dose of:
A. Co trimoxazole
C. Quinine
B. Co artem
D. Tetracycline
E. None of the above
59. A child exposed in a malaria risk area but with only fever as a sign should be classified as:
A. Fever
C. Fever : malaria unlikely
E. None of the above
B. Fever:no malaria
D. Fever only
60. A child with fever and gum bleeding will be manage with ____ before referral :
A. Plan a
C. Plan c
B. Plan b
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
61. Which of the following is not a sign of severe dengue hemmorhagic fever:
A. Abdominal pain
C. Cold clammy extemities
B. Poor capillary refill
D. Vesicular rash
E. None of the above
62. A child with measles in the last 3 months should be classified in :
A. Pink
C. Green
B. Yellow
D. Red
E. None of the above
63. A positive rumple leads test will have :
A. 10 to 20 pethechial rash in
a square inch
B. Positive scar formation
C. Will have red enduration
D. Is positive for malaria
E. None of the above
64. A child with severe complicated measles will have:
A. Redness of the eye
C. Clouding of the cornea
B. Pus in the eye
D. Kopliks spots
E. None of the above
65. Gentian violet is used to treat:
A. Eye complications
B. Mouth complications
E. None of the above
C. Measles rash
D. All of the above
66. A child with muac of less than 11.0 cm and a z score of less than 3 may be classified as uncomplicated severe acute
malnutrition if the child is:
A. Not able to consume rutf
D. Edematous and moon-shaped face
B. Able to cosume rutf
E. None of the above
C. Cachexic with old man’s face
67. Which of the following is true about a child who is classified as having moderate acute malnutrition:
A. Unable to eat or breastfeed
C. Muac less than 11.0 cm
E. None of the above
B. 2-3 z score
D. Unable to consume rutf
68. A child classified as having moderate acute malnutrition should be:
A. Placed in yellow in the color coded triage
D. Plenty of nutritious food
B. Given mns
E. All of the above
C. Given vitamin a and zinc
69. Which of the following is true to a 6-month old child with some palmar pallor :
A. Will be refered immediately for care
D. Given ivf immediately
B. Will be given fe so4 for 14 days then reassess
E. None of the above
C. Shall be classified as some anemia
70. A midwives health teaching will be appropriate if she gives which of the following teachings to the mother of a2 –year
old child with anemia:
A. Exposed the child to sunlight
D. Encourage adequate hydration
B. Increase breastfeeding as desired
E. None of the above
C. Encourage intake of green leafy vegetables
71. Directly providing the community with providing them with projects to help them develop is called what approach to
community development:
A. Modernization
C. Transformatory
E. None of the above
B. Welfare
D. Direct augmentation
72. Preliminary social investigation is specifically done in what phase of commun ity organizing:
A. Pre-entry
C. Community building
E. None of the above
B. Entry
D. Sustenance
73. Core group formation is accomplish in what phase of commun ity organizing:
A. Pre-entry
C. Community building
B. Entry
D. Sustenance
E. None of the above
74. Tentative program planning is specifically done by the:
A. Sub group
C. Core group
B. Small group
D. Midwife
E. None of the above
75. Community-based peoples organization is made possible during what phase of commun ity organizing:
A. Community research
C. Community action
E. None of the above
B. Community organizing
D. Sustenance
76. Whicl of the following is not an activity during pre-entry phase:
A. Courtesy call with the punong baranggay
B. Long listing of potential communities for adoption
C. Short listing of potential barangays to be adopted
D. Criteria setting
E. None of the above
77. Which of the following is an important activity during the sustenance phase:
A. Training of hrdp
D. Secodary leaders training
B. Training of primary leaders
E. None of the above
C. Training of community officers
78. Which of the following is not a criteria needed for the selection of potential baranggay to be adopted for organizing:
A. Far flung area
B. Communities with endemic diseases
C. A community without the capacity to address common health problems
D. Communities that are passive recipients of care
E. None of the above
79. Interpretation of data collected from community residents is done during:
A. Community building phase
D. Sustenance phase
B. Community organizing phase
E. None of the above
C. Community action phase
80. The entry phase of copar is also referred to as the:
A. Site selection phase
C. Research phase
B. Social preparation phase
D. Phase out
E. None of the above
81. Which one of the following activities below is not done in the community building phase in copar:
A. P.i.m.e
C. C.b.p.o
E. None of the above
B. S.a.l.t
D. Formal social investigation
82. The ultimate goal of organizing people is:
A. For them to take care of their own health problems
B. For the achievement of optimum health of the community
C. For people to learn to depend on health practioners
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
83. In the identification of potential leaders copar needs people who are:
A. Occupy formal positions
D. Dominant and respected by the community
B. Informal with not much responsibilities
E. None of the above
C. Politically active and well trained
84. General assembly to present researh result is specifically done in what phase of commun ity organizing:
A. Pre-entry
C. Community building
E. None of the above
B. Entry
D. Sustenance
85. In the presentation of research results , which approach by the organizers is most helpful for community members to
understand:
A. Video presentation
D. Use of expert educators
B. Role playing
E. None of the above
C. Use of carricatures and comics
86. Epidemiology is the study of occurrence and distribution of diseases affecting :
A. A target group
D. All of the above
B. A certain community
E. None of the above
C. A specific number of people at risk
87. Epidemic refers to the occurrence of large amount of cases which is present:
A. All the time
C. Sometimes
B. Most of the time
D. At one time
E. None of the above
88. While endemic is the occurrence of small number of cases present:
A. From time to time
C. All the time
B. At a certain time
D. At no specific time
E. None of the above
89. A case is said to be pandemic if it is present:
A. Intermitently
C. In a certain locality
B. Worldwide
D. To a certain population
E. None of the above
90. A certain case is irregularly at months interval throughout the year,this is referred to as:
A. Pandemic
C. Endemic
E. None of the above
B. Sporadic
D. Epidemic
91. Which of the following is the data use as numerator in computing maternal mortality rate:
A. Total number of pregnant mothers
D. Total number of maternal deaths
B. Total number of registered births
E. None of the above
C. Total number of registered deaths
92. Neonatal mortality rate is computed by dividing the total number of death under 28 days over :
A. The total number of registered live birth
D. Total number of population for the whole year
B. The total number of midyear population
E. None of the above
C. Total number of recorded newborns
93. Which is not a data used to compute for crude birth rate:
A. Number of live birth
B. Number of mid year population
C. Standard multiplier of 1000
94. Fetal death rate is the number of death:
A. In utero
B. Less than 2 weeks old
D. Number of maternal delivery
E. None of the above
C. Under a year
D. Within 6 months
E. None of the above
95. Crude death rate is the total number of registered death divided by:
A. Live birth x 1000
C. Live birth x 100,000
B. Population x 1000
D. Population x 100,000
96. Incidence rates is a rough estimate of :
A. New cases of certain disease
B. Old cases of a certain disease
C. Old and new cases o a certain disease
E. None of the above
D. The number of people acquiring the disease
E. None of the above
97. Baranggay mabuntis has a total mid year population of 2,678. A birth registry of 140 and death record of 2. Death due to
maternal cause is 6. Neonatal death is 4 and fetal death is 5. What is the maternal mortality rate for this baranggay:
A. 2.2
C. 42.8
E. None of the above
B. 0.02
D. 428
98. The neonatal mortality rate of the above baranggay is :
A. 1.4%
C. 14%
B. 28%
D. 2.8%
E. None of the above
99. The denominator to be used in computing for the fetal death rate of the above baranggay is:
A. 2,678
C. 140
E. None of the above
B. 5
D. 6
100.
The infant mortality rate for the above baranggay is:
A. 14
C. 6
B. 5
D. 12
E. None of the above
“SUCCESS COMES IN CANS, FAILURES IN CANT’S”