50 Question PMA Test
50 Question PMA Test
Which of the following processes determines which requirements will be included
in the project?
A. Define Scope
B. Determine Requirements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Scope Management Correct Answer: A.
Planning - Scope Management
The process of Define Scope is used to determine which of the requirements will
be included in the project, i.e. it details what is in scope and what is out of scope.
The process of Collect Requirements is simply the process of collecting all
requirements.
Which of the following items organizes and defines the total scope of the project
and depicts the work specified the currently approved version of the project scope
statement?
A. Project Statement of Work
B. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C. Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)
D. Scope Development Chart Correct Answer: B
Planning - Scope Management
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the document that shows the
deliverables and work as defined in the currently approved version of the Project
Scope Statement. The Project Statement of Work is a document that describes the
business need, contains a high-level scope description, and the organization's
overall strategic plan. A PBS is only used on projects that produce a tangible
pg. 1
50 Question PMA Test
product and only includes a breakdown of the components of the product - in other
words it does not include the work required to deliver the product.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the schedule management
plan?
A. It may or may not be written depending on the project management approach of
the organization's executives
B. It can be formal or informal, highly detailed or broad in nature depending on the
project and it is a key input to the Define Activities process
C. It must be formal and highly detailed prior to project management plan approval
D. It requires the input of all stakeholders who will eventually approve the plan
Correct Answer: B.
Planning - Time Management
In the approach from PMI, a schedule management plan will be included in every
project, i.e. it must exist. However, it can be formal or informal, broadly framed or
highly detailed in nature, depending on the needs of the project.
Planning work that will occur sooner at a detailed level, and planning work that
will occur later in the project at a higher level, is best described as which of the
following?
A. Progressive Elaboration
B. Urgency Assessment
C. Rolling Wave Planning
D. Just-In-Time (JIT) Planning Correct Answer: C.
Planning - Time Management
Rolling wave planning is an iterative technique used to plan the nearer term
activities at a more detailed level than those happening later in the project.
pg. 2
50 Question PMA Test
Once the network diagram is complete, how many activities or milestones will not
have both a predecessor and a successor?
A. 1
B. 1 in each phase
C. As many as necessary
D. 2 in the entire network Correct Answer: D.
Planning - Time Management
Once the network diagram is finished, the only two activities that will not have
both a predecessor and a successor will be the starting and ending activities in a
project.
Which of the following is a true statement of the critical path?
A. It is the longest path through the network diagram, that denotes the shortest
amount of time to complete the project and will have the least amount of total float
B. It is the longest path through the network diagram and will always have zero
total float
C. It is the longest path through the network diagram and will have the least free
float
D. It is the path that contains the most important activities Correct Answer: A.
Planning - Time Management
The critical path will always be the longest path through the network diagram and
can have positive, negative or zero total float. It will also be the path that has the
least amount of total float (not the least free float). The perceived "importance" of
the activities themselves do not come into play.
Which of the following estimating approaches would you use early in a project?
pg. 3
50 Question PMA Test
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Three-point Correct Answer: A.
Planning - Cost Management
Of the estimating approaches listed, only analogous is used early in a project, when
little information is known about the project. It is the quickest way of coming up
with a total project estimate but it is also the least accurate.
The process of Identify Risk will result in which of the following?
A. Risk Management Plan
B. Risk Register
C. Risk Breakdown Structure
D. Risk versus Reward Correct Answer: B.
Planning - Risk Management
The process of Identify Risk will result in the creation of the Risk Register, which
is the document that will list all possible threats and opportunities that could occur
during the project. The risk management plan is an outcome of plan risk
management and it will possibly include the risk breakdown structure.
As the project manager you have decided to separate the sources of risk by phase
and by the WBS. Using this technique you will find the riskiest areas of the
project. Which of the following best describes the technique employed?
pg. 4
50 Question PMA Test
A. Proper risk planning
B. Risk urgency assessment
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization Correct Answer: D.
Planning - Risk Management
While answer A may be correct it is too general. Answer B is a technique used to
identify those risks that could occur sooner in the project. Answer C is a technique
used to ensure the quality of the data used to identify and analyze risk. Risk
categorization is a technique used to classify risk and can be done through various
methods, such as a sample list of risk categories, or it could be done by phase, by
the WBS, or by a formal risk breakdown structure.
Your project team has just completed a quantitative analysis of project risk. They
have identified a 45% chance of a flood that would cost the project $50,000 in
damages and cleanup. They have also identified a 30% chance that the new piece
of equipment recently purchased by your organization will save the project
$10,000. What is the expected monetary value of these two risks?
(Probability)x(impact)
A. $40,000
B. ($40,000)
C. $19,500
D. ($19,500) Correct Answer: D.
pg. 5
50 Question PMA Test
Planning - Risk Management
When calculating the contingency budget for a project, one popular method is
called EMV or expected monetary value. To calculate EMV for each of these risks
you would multiply the probability of occurrence and the impact of that
occurrence. So, .45*$50,000= -$22,500. Then you will notice that the second risk
is an opportunity. To calculate the EMV for this opportunity it would be, .
30*$10,000= $3,000. These two figures would then be added together. So, a
negative $22,500 plus $3000 would equal -$19,500. A common way of showing
negative numbers is in parentheses.
Two team members are having trouble getting along. They have attempted to
resolve their differences between themselves with no lasting outcome. As project
manager you have a discussion with them to identify the root cause. After much
discussion, you decide that the best way to take care of the situation is to have both
team members go play a round of golf, which they both enjoy. What conflict
resolution technique have you employed?
A. Compromise/Reconcile
B. Force/Direct
C. Smooth/Accommodate
D. Collaborate/Problem Solve Correct Answer: C.
Executing - Human Resources Management
In this situation the project manager is using smoothing or accommodating, which
means they are deemphasizing the areas of disagreement and emphasizing the
areas of agreement or commonality. Compromising is when both parties give
something up to reach an agreement. Forcing or directing is when one party forces
their desire or wish upon someone else. Collaborating or problem-solving is when
the conflict is treated as a problem, and possible solutions are discussed. A single
solution is chosen and implemented. Then a review will occur to see if that
solution corrected the problem.
pg. 6
50 Question PMA Test
Which of the following is considered a broad class of communications methods?
A. SharePoint
B. E-mail
C. Interactive
D. Phone calls Correct Answer: C.
Executing - Communications Management
Answers A, B and D are all classified under the area of communications
technology. When broadly classified, answer C is considered a communications
method. Answer D is a specific technology that could be used in interactive
communications. Other forms of interactive communications can include
teleconferencing, video teleconferencing, instant messaging and face-to-face.
The project manager decides to call a meeting with all of the prospective
contractors who are expected to submit proposals on the new project. The purpose
of this meeting is so that the contractors can gain a clearer understanding of the
requirements of the procurement. The project manager decides to make this
meeting mandatory. In other words, if a contractor does not attend this meeting
they will not be qualified to submit a proposal. What is the best description of this
requirement?
A. Proposal Evaluation Techniques
B. Bidders Conference
C. Screening System
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50 Question PMA Test
D. Procurement Negotiations Correct Answer: C.
Executing - Procurement Management
When procurement documentation states that something is mandatory, it generally
means that this factor will be used as a screening system to quickly reduce the
number of potential bidders. Usually, screening system information is placed in
bold letters in advertisement for the procurement. The question discusses a meeting
between the project manager and prospective contractors which is also called a
bidders conference. Procurement negotiations happen after each of the proposals
are evaluated and a selected seller is chosen.
The project manager may call on which of the following individuals to assist in
managing stakeholders as needed?
A. Project sponsor
B. Senior executive
C. Assistant project manager
D. Project team member Correct Answer: A.
Executing - Stakeholder Management
Typically when a project manager requires assistance in managing various
stakeholders, the project sponsor may be asked to assist. Project managers
generally have little authority, so a project sponsor can help because they usually
have more authority than the project manager. While answer B may actually be the
project sponsor, not all senior executives are a project sponsor. An assistant project
manager and team members have less authority than the project manager.
With regards to monitoring and controlling project work, when does this process
begin and end?
pg. 8
50 Question PMA Test
A. It begins when the project charter is signed and ends when the last deliverable is
accepted
B. It begins when the project charter is signed and ends when the project is
formally closed
C. It begins when the project is selected and ends when the last deliverable is
accepted
D. It begins when the project is conceived and ends when the last deliverable is
accepted Correct Answer: B.
Monitoring - Integration Management
Monitoring and controlling project work begins when the project is formally
authorized, which is done through the project charter. It ends when the project is
formally closed. Work is still required by the team to formally close out the project,
even after the last deliverable is accepted.
The chief financial officer, who happens to be your project sponsor, has just called
you into their office to discuss a requested change in your project. After asking you
several questions, the project sponsor tells you to implement the change. What is
the next thing you should do?
A. Implement the change
B. Send the change request to the change control board for approval
C. Fill out a change request form and request the project sponsor's signature
D. Evaluate the impact of the change on the time, cost, scope, quality , and risk
objectives of the project Correct Answer: C.
Monitoring - Integration Management
pg. 9
50 Question PMA Test
The proper order of tasks for handling change requests begins with documentation
of the change request. Even though some changes may be initiated verbally, they
should always end up in writing prior to evaluation. This ensures that the
evaluation is based on an understanding of what is actually being requested.
What is the primary purpose of the validate scope process?
A. To ensure that all of the approved scope has been included in the project
B. To validate that the final product met the quality requirements
C. To test the final product
D. To gain formal acceptance of the deliverables from the customer or sponsor
Correct Answer: D.
Monitoring - Scope Management
The validate scope process requires a review of the deliverables with the customer
sponsor to ensure that the deliverables have been completed satisfactorily and
formal acceptance is given. The control quality process is where are all product
testing is done to ensure that the quality requirements have been met.
You are the project manager for major construction project. You have just
completed a walk through with the construction superintendent, when they told
you that one of the critical path activities will be two weeks late. Upon further
discussion you find out the underlying reason for this. What tool and technique are
you using?
A. Interpersonal Skills
B. Face-To-Face Communication
pg. 10
50 Question PMA Test
C. General Management Skills
D. Variance Analysis Correct Answer: D.
Monitoring - Scope Management
When controlling scope of the project, the project manager should be concerned
with both product and project scope. Variance analysis is a technique used to
determine the cause and the degree of the variance relative to the baseline.
When updating and controlling a project schedule, which of the following would
be most beneficial to the PM?
A. Percent Complete
B. Work Performance Data
C. Project Management Software
D. A good project team Correct Answer: B.
Monitoring - Time Management
The PM must have the actuals (work performance data) before they can determine
the actual performance of the schedule. Answer A is not specific enough since
percent complete can be given for physical completion of the work, actual work
effort put into the project, costs and schedule.
Which of the following techniques could you apply, to any project in any industry,
as a way to objectively measure project progress?
A. Microsoft Project
B. Earned value
pg. 11
50 Question PMA Test
C. Percent complete
D. Schedule percent complete Correct Answer: B.
Monitoring - Cost Management
Of these answers, the only technique that allows you to measure performance is
answer B. Answer A is a tool and is not able to be used in every project (it is very
difficult to use properly in Agile or Scrum projects). Percent complete is a way of
giving actuals, and by themselves do not provide a measure of overall project
progress.
Approved project change requests are validated through which of the following
processes?
A. Control Quality
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Change Management
D. Configuration Management Correct Answer: A.
Monitoring - Quality Management
Once a change request has been approved and implemented it is then validated
through the process of Control Quality. Review of the change request provides
validation that it was implemented as approved. Answers C and D are not
processes, but rather areas of project management. The change request would have
already been approved through the process in answer B.
Which of the following documents would you use to record and address obstacles
that can block the team from achieving its goals?
pg. 12
50 Question PMA Test
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Assumptions log
D. Risk register Correct Answer: A.
Monitoring - Communications Management
An issue log is a document that is usually created to record track and resolve
obstacles and issues that would prevent the team from meeting the project
objectives. An issue is defined as something that is not yet settled, or a point or
matter over which there are opposing viewpoints or disagreements. A change log is
where you would track and report project changes. An assumptions log is used to
record the assumptions for the project. A risk register is a document to record
possible threats or opportunities that could occur on the project.
You're the project manager for construction project. The project team identified a
rainstorm as a possible risk. When the prediction of an approaching storm was
announced the response plan was implemented, which included having sandbags
on hand to reduce the impact of flooding on the site. Halfway through preparations
to respond to this risk the project manager is informed that not enough sandbags
were ordered. Who is the person informing the project manager of this?
A. Risk Owner
B. Risk Response Owner
C. Risk Manager
D. Assistant Project Manager Correct Answer: B.
pg. 13
50 Question PMA Test
Monitoring - Risk Management
The risk response owner is responsible for reporting to the project manager on the
effectiveness of the response plan, any corrective actions needed to handle the risk
during implementation of the plan, and any unanticipated effects of the plan.
Answer A, could be the correct answer if the risk owner and risk response owner is
the same person. Answers C and D are distractor answers.
Your project has a vendor that is under a firm fixed price contract and the seller has
filed a claim. Which of the following is the preferred method of settling this
dispute?
A. Litigation
B. Negotiation
C. Mediation
D. Arbitration Correct Answer: B.
Monitoring - Procurement Management
Negotiation is the preferred method for settlement of all claims and disputes in a
contract. Litigation is usually considered as a last resort due to the expense.
Mediation and arbitration are also options that the parties have depending upon the
terms of the contract, but these are also secondary to the preferred method of
negotiation.
You just completed your weekly project status meeting. In this meeting you
received information from the team regarding actual start and finish dates of
activities worked on since the last status meeting, a percentage of work completed
on each of these activities, and an actual cost expended to complete the work to
date. Which of the following is a true statement about this information?
A. This information should be given directly to the project sponsor so they can see
how the project has progressed to the point
pg. 14
50 Question PMA Test
B. This information is of little value of the project sponsor, since they were in the
meeting they should know where the project stands
C. This information should be given directly to the project team so they can see
how well everyone else is doing
D. This information should be analyzed then placed into a report for the project
sponsor to gain a clear understanding of where the project is at in relation to the
baseline Correct Answer: D.
Monitoring - Stakeholder Management
The actual data, such as actual work, actual cost, actual duration, etc. is of little
value to the project sponsor. The data needs to be analyzed and correlated in
context with the project baseline. Simply because a project sponsor attends a
meeting, does not necessarily mean they know where the project stands in
relationship to the baseline.
Early termination is a special case of contract closure. Which of the following
could be a reason for early termination?
A. Mutual agreement by both parties to the contract
B. Default or breach of contract of one party
C. Convenience of the buyer, if allowed by the contract
D. All of the above Correct Answer: D.
Closing - Procurement Management
All instances listed in answers A through C could be acceptable reasons for
terminating a contract early.
pg. 15
50 Question PMA Test
Your project was recently terminated early. As the project manager you must
review which of the following?
A. All prior information from previous phase closures
B. Project Management Plan
C. The contract
D. All of the above Correct Answer: D.
Closing - Integration Management
Regardless of why your project was ended, i.e. successful completion or early
termination, the project manager should go through a formal closeout process. This
requires a review of all previous phase documentation, the project management
plan which includes the scope baseline, and any contracts.
Which of the following would be considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor?
A.
Policies regarding how project management should be performed
B.
Organization-specific human resource policies
C.
Software (e.g. Microsoft Project)
D.
Time reporting formats and procedures Correct Answer: C. Software
Initiating - Framework
pg. 16
50 Question PMA Test
Page 29 of the PMBOK Guide lists the Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF's).
The last bullet point discusses the use of software packages.
All of the following are Organizational Process Assets except which one?
A.
Organizational communications policies
B.
Software (e.g. Microsoft Project)
C.
Performance measurement criteria
D.
Risk control procedures Correct Answer: B. Software
Initiating - Framework
Organizational Process Assets are process related assets the PM can use to
influence project success. They are broken up into two classifications - Policies
and Procedures and the Corporate Knowledge Base. Software is considered an
EEF.
The Project Manager has the least amount of authority in which of the following
organizational structures?
A.
Projectized
B.
Balanced Matrix
C.
Weak Matrix
D.
Functional Correct Answer: D. Functional
Initiating - Framework
pg. 17
50 Question PMA Test
Of the five basic types of organizational structures, the PM has the least amount of
authority in a functional structure. The PM has the most authority in a projectized
environment. Authority is shared between the PM and the functional manager in a
balanced matrix. The PM's authority is low in a weak matrix but slightly higher
than a PM is a functional structure.
Which of the following documents authorizes work to begin on the project?
A.
The contract
B.
The project charter
C.
The project management plan
D.
The Project Mission and Overview Statement Correct Answer: B. Project Charter
Initiating - Integration Management
The project charter is the authorizing document that allows work to begin on a
project. According to PMI, the project management work (i.e. the planning and
estimating, developing the Project Management Plan and other work to be
performed by the PM is considered part of the work in a project.)
Which of the following tools and techniques would best be used to gather and
assess information regarding whose interest should be taken into account during
the project?
A.
Stakeholder questionnaires
B.
Meeting the stakeholders face-to face
C.
Stakeholder analysis
pg. 18
50 Question PMA Test
D.
Project charter Correct Answer: C. Stakeholder Analysis
Initiating - Stakeholder Management
A stakeholder analysis involves looking at the influence, interest and impact
stakeholders may have on the project. It is a three step process aimed at 1)
identifying all potential stakeholders, 2) identifying the impacts to these
stakeholders and 3) assessing the reactions that key stakeholders may have to
various situations.
The project management plan may be changed without a change request only
under which of the following circumstances?
A.
The plan has been written by the project manager and no team member input
B.
The plan has been written but not approved by the sponsor
C.
The sponsor has approved the plan but the project has not yet started
D.
The plan has been approved by the sponsor but not yet implemented Correct
Answer: B.
Planning - Integration Management
The only time the project management plan, or element of it, may be changed
without a change request is when it has yet to be approved. The plan will not be
written without team member input. Once the plan has been approved, the only
way to change it is with a change request handled through the process of Perform
Integrated Change Control.
All of the following are elements of the requirements management plan except
which one?
A.
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50 Question PMA Test
Requirements of the project
B.
Processes for how requirements will be collected, tracked and prioritized
C.
Process for how changes to the product will be initiated
D.
Product metrics and the reasons for using them Correct Answer: A.
Planning - Scope Management
The Requirements Management Plan is an element of the Project Management
Plan and is a "how to" plan. It tells the team members how they will collect,
record, organize, prioritize, track, change and manage requirements. It will not
have any project specific requirements - these will be listed in the project
document known as the Requirements Documentation.
Product scope is measured by which of the following and where will these
elements used for this measurement be listed, respectively?
A.
Project Management Plan, Requirements Traceability Matrix
B.
Project Requirements Documentation, Requirements Management Plan
C.
Requirements Traceability Matrix, Requirement Management Plan
D.
Product Requirements, Requirements Documentation Correct Answer: D.
Planning - Scope Management
Project scope is measured by the project management plan. Product scope on the
other hand is measured against the product requirements which will be listed in the
requirements documentation.
pg. 20
50 Question PMA Test
Which of the following processes determines which requirements will be included
in the project?
A.
Define Scope
B.
Determine Requirements
C.
Collect Requirements
D.
Plan Scope Management Correct Answer: A.
Planning - Scope Management
The process of Define Scope is used to determine which of the requirements will
be included in the project, i.e. it details what is in scope and what is out of scope.
The process of Collect Requirements is simply the process of collecting all
requirements.
Which of the following items organizes and defines the total scope of the project
and depicts the work specified the currently approved version of the project scope
statement?
A.
Project Statement of Work
B.
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C.
Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)
D.
Scope Development Chart Correct Answer: B.
Planning - Scope Management
pg. 21
50 Question PMA Test
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the document that shows the
deliverables and work as defined in the currently approved version of the Project
Scope Statement. The Project Statement of Work is a document that describes the
business need, contains a high-level scope description, and the organization's
overall strategic plan. A PBS is only used on projects that produce a tangible
product and only includes a breakdown of the components of the product - in other
words it does not include the work required to deliver the product.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the schedule management
plan?
A.
It may or may not be written depending on the project management approach of
the organization's executives
B.
It can be formal or informal, highly detailed or broad in nature depending on the
project and it is a key input to the Define Activities process
C.
It must be formal and highly detailed prior to project management plan approval
D.
It requires the input of all stakeholders who will eventually approve the plan
Correct Answer: B.
Planning - Time Management
In the approach from PMI, a schedule management plan will be included in every
project, i.e. it must exist. However, it can be formal or informal, broadly framed or
highly detailed in nature, depending on the needs of the project.
Planning work that will occur sooner at a detailed level, and planning work that
will occur later in the project at a higher level, is best described as which of the
following?
A.
Progressive Elaboration
B.
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50 Question PMA Test
Urgency Assessment
C.
Rolling Wave Planning
D.
Just-In-Time (JIT) Planning Correct Answer: C.
Planning - Time Management
Rolling wave planning is an iterative technique used to plan the nearer term
activities at a more detailed level than those happening later in the project.
Once the network diagram is complete, how many activities or milestones will not
have both a predecessor and a successor?
A.
1
B.
1 in each phase
C.
As many as necessary
D.
2 in the entire network Correct Answer: D.
Planning - Time Management
Once the network diagram is finished, the only two activities that will not have
both a predecessor and a successor will be the starting and ending activities in a
project.
The Estimate Activity Resources process is closely coordinated with the Estimate
Costs process for which of the following reasons?
A.
These two processes occur simultaneously
pg. 23
50 Question PMA Test
B.
These two processes occur in succession
C.
The two processes occur near the time that you plan the project budget
D.
Most of the project's costs are a direct result of the resources used in a project
Correct Answer: D.
Planning - Time Management
When looking at the source of project costs, most all costs come from resources
utilized to get the project completed. Coordinating these two processes allows the
PM to see if the planned project will fit into any cost constraints the project may
have.
When estimating the amount of time each activity will take, which of the following
statements are true?
A.
The estimates will be based on the number of resources available, the amount of
work effort estimated and will be usually expressed as working days or weeks
B.
The estimates will be based on calendar days or weeks, the amount of work
estimated, number of resources available, and the amount of money available in
the project
C.
The estimates will be based on the number of resources available, the project
deadline, the amount of work estimated and will be expressed as working days or
weeks
D.
The estimates will be based on the number of resources available, the amount of
work estimated and will be expressed as calendar days or weeks Correct Answer:
A.
Planning - Time Management
pg. 24
50 Question PMA Test
Duration is defined as the total number of working periods, not including
weekends or other non-work times. It is not expressed as elapsed time such as
calendar days. The project deadline or limited budget may come into play when
developing the entire project schedule or the overall budget, respectively, but these
have no bearing on estimating individual activity durations.
When considering influences that could have an impact on cost management,
which of the following would you be the least concerned about?
A.
Financial control procedures
B.
Organizational culture and structure
C.
The proposed budget
D.
Marketplace conditions, i.e. currency exchange rates, products and services
available Correct Answer: C.
Planning - Cost Management
The project team should be concerned with the organizations financial procedures
and controls (classified as OPA's and given in answer A) and EEF's (answers B and
D) when determining what to put into the cost management plan. The proposed
budget of the project would be the last thing the team would be concerned about.
Which of the following is included in the total project budget but is not included in
the cost performance baseline?
A.
Control accounts
B.
Work package estimates
C.
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50 Question PMA Test
Contingency reserves
D.
Management reserves Correct Answer: D.
Planning - Cost Management
Contingency reserves are included in the cost baseline and are for identified risks.
Work package estimates are included in cost baseline and the total project budget.
Control accounts are management control points used for measuring project
performance. Management reserves are for the unanticipated or unforeseen risks
and are not included in the cost baseline, but they are added in the total allowable
amount for the project (the total project budget).
In terms of quality, which of the following scenarios is considered acceptable?
A.
High grade, low quality
B.
Low grade, low quality
C.
Low grade, high quality
D.
None of the above Correct Answer: C.
Planning - Quality Management
As defined in terms of quality, the most acceptable situation of these answers is C.
Answers A and B have low quality in varying degrees of grade. Low quality is
always unacceptable. However a product or service having high quality but low
grade is considered acceptable.
What is the primary purpose of the staffing management plan?
A.
It states how the project manager will manage the team
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50 Question PMA Test
B.
It outlines how the traditional HR duties will be performed on the project
C.
It lists all resources by name in the functional area they come from
D.
It is a "how-to" plan that demonstrates how the internal resources will be managed
Correct Answer: B.
Planning - Human Resources Management
The primary purpose of the staffing management plan outlines how the traditional
HR duties will be performed on the project. Answer A describes a portion of the
purpose of the Human Resource Management plan. The information in answer C
may be listed in the staffing management plan but it is not the primary purpose of
the plan. Answer D mentions only internal resources.
If the team is made up of the project manager with 16 other members, how many
communications channels does it have?
A.
17
B.
34
C.
120
D.
136 Correct Answer: Planning - Communications Management
The communications channels formula is (N*(N-1))/2. The question states that the
team is made up of the PM and 16 other members, so the total size of the team is
17. So, (17*(17-1))/2 = 136
pg. 27
50 Question PMA Test
Your team has developed a strategy to set aside $1000 in a contingency budget and
an extra week in the event a particular risk occurs on the project. What is the best
description of this strategy?
A.
Active Acceptance
B.
Passive Acceptance
C.
Risk Mitigation
D.
Risk Avoidance Correct Answer: A.
Planning - Risk Management
Active acceptance is the decision to set aside a contingency in the form of time,
money or resources. Passive acceptance is simply acknowledging the risk then
doing something about it if and when it occurs. Mitigation is the strategy of
reducing the likelihood or the impact if the risk occurs. Avoidance would remove
the risk entirely or protect the project's objectives from the impact
Use of which of the following contract type causes the seller to have the most risk?
A.
Fixed Price
B.
Cost Reimbursable
C.
Time and Materials
D.
Cost Plus a Percentage of Cost Correct Answer: A.
Planning - Procurement Management
pg. 28
50 Question PMA Test
In a fixed price contract with, the seller is obligated to provide the goods and
services under the terms and conditions of the contract, for the price and at the time
of delivery stated in the contract. In a cost reimbursable contract, the seller is
guaranteed at least a recovery of their costs. In a time and materials contract, the
seller is guaranteed profit in every hour billed. In a cost plus a percentage of cost
type of contract, the risk for the buyer is higher than for the seller.
You are the project manager for project with 200 stakeholders. The team identified
five individuals as key stakeholders. You are developing the stakeholder
management plan, which is an actionable blueprint of how to interact with the
stakeholders to support the project objectives. You will base the actions taken on an
analysis of the key stakeholder's needs, their level of interest and their potential
impact on project success. Where will you find this information to analyze?
A.
Project charter
B.
Project management plan
C.
Files located in the human resource department
D.
Stakeholder register Correct Answer: D.
Planning - Stakeholder Management
During the identify stakeholders process, the team performs a stakeholder analysis
to identify those stakeholders whose interests could impact the project. This
includes an identification of their needs, their level of interest on the project, and
the likely impact they may have on project success. All this information is placed
in the stakeholder register. While the project charter may list key stakeholders, it
will not list this information on each stakeholder.
In your project for the design and development of a new, ultrahigh speed hard
drive, the team has defined certain information for the quality control department
to use as a quality control check. The quality control department will check each
hard drive's data access time. In order to pass the quality test each drive must
pg. 29
50 Question PMA Test
transfer 1 GB of data in 500 ms +/-100 ms. Which of the following terms best
describes this information?
A.
Quality checklist
B.
Control limits
C.
Attribute limits
D.
Quality metric Correct Answer: D.
Executing - Quality Management
The question is describing a quality metric which is defined as a product or project
attribute that is described in detail and usually is accompanied with an associated
tolerance limit. A quality checklist is merely a document that insures that all steps
have been performed. Control limits describe whether or not a process is in or out
of control.
Which of the following becomes increasingly important when working with virtual
teams?
A.
Work assignments
B.
Budget
C.
Schedule
D.
Communications Correct Answer: D.
Executing - Human Resources Management
pg. 30
50 Question PMA Test
Virtual teams are those teams that rarely, if ever, meet face-to-face. In this situation
were teams rarely meet face-to-face all facets of communications become
increasingly important. Things such as tone, content, clarity, technology, time
zones, and team cohesion all will become increasingly important. Answers A, B
and C would be a concern for the project manager on every project.
Ground rules should be set by which of the following?
A.
The team
B.
Project Manager
C.
The project management team
D.
Project Sponsor Correct Answer: A.
Executing - Human Resources Management
Ground rules are the guidelines that the team should follow during the project.
While some think that the project manager should dictate the ground rules to the
team, it is considered a best practice to have the whole team, as a unit, to discuss
and set the rules or guidelines that will dictate behavior. The benefit received by
having the team set the rules is the team will become self-governing because they
have ownership and buy-in.
You are the project manager for a large advertising company. You are managing a
new collateral project for a high visibility client. Your project has a firm finish date
and several tasks on the critical path seem like they will be delayed. Which of the
following is likely to show up as the project progresses?
A. Additional lags
B. Negative floats
C. Increase in convergences
pg. 31
50 Question PMA Test
D. Resource leveling Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Time Management
Since many tasks seem to be delayed, it is likely that some of your tasks will end
up with negative floats, which tells you that your project is behind schedule and
that you must make up that time in order to complete the project on schedule.
Risk identification can best be defined as:
A. Identifying all areas from which risks can occur on a project
B. Determining which risks might affect a project and recording their attributes
C. Identifying key risks by performing a Pareto analysis
D. Knowing when to label issues as risks for mitigation purposes Correct Answer:
Answer: B
Planning - Risk Management
Identifying Risks involves determining which risks might affect a project and
recording their attributes. Choice A refers to the creation of a Risk Breakdown
Structure, which is part of Risk Planning.
You are in the process of identifying and documenting project roles and
responsibilities and creating a staffing management plan. Which of the following
are you least likely to consider?
A. Human resource policies set by your organization
B. The availability of skilled labor in your area
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Resource requirements Correct Answer: Answer: C
pg. 32
50 Question PMA Test
Planning - Human Resources Management
From the description in the question, we are in the Plan Human Resource
Management process. The inputs to Plan Human Resource Management are
Project Management Plan, Activity Resource Requirements (answer D), EEFs
(reflected in answer B) and OPAs (reflected in answer A).
Your newest project is in the Planning process group. You've just published the
document that describes who will receive copies of future project information, how
it should be distributed, and who will prepare it. Which of the following plans does
this describe?
A. Requirement management plan
B. Communications management plan
C. Stakeholder register
D. Project charter Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Communications Management
The communication management plan documents what information will be
distributed, how it will be distributed, to whom, by whom, and the timing of the
distribution. Answer A is incorrect because the question is not talking about
requirements. Answer choice C is not correct because that is a made-up term.
Answer choice D is not correct because the question states we are in the planning
phase, and in any event, the Charter would not contain such information.
You are working with the project team to create the WBS. Your project team can't
break down the WBS any further. You and the team elect to break down these
elements/items later in the project as more details become available. This approach
to creating the WBS is also known as what?
A. Decomposition
B. Progressive elaboration
C. Parkinson's law
pg. 33
50 Question PMA Test
D. Rolling-wave planning Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Scope Management
Rolling wave planning involves fine-tuning the project plans in incremental steps,
as you proceed further along in the project planning process and more information
is known.
You are planning the quality process and realize there are hundreds of
combinations of quality factors that, considered individually, would be nearly
impossible to track and formulate properly. What technique would you employ to
ensure the quality of your testing without negatively impacting the time and
budget?
A. Cause and Effect
B. Benchmarking
C. Design of Experiments
D. Cost Benefits Analysis Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Quality Management
Design of Experiments is able to test multiple factors simultaneously rather than
changing one factor at a time, which is very time consuming.
You are a project manager new to a functional organization. You have mainly
worked in projectized organizations and are concerned that you will not fit in with
the organizational culture. Your sponsor explains to you that one of the advantages
of a functional organization is:
A. Project team members are usually loyal to the project, not a functional manager.
B. Project team members are usually loyal to the project manager.
C. Project managers usually yield a great deal of formal authority in a functional
organization.
pg. 34
50 Question PMA Test
D. All of the employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.
Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Human Resources Management
Advantages for employees in a functional organization are that they have one
supervisor and a clear chain of command exists. None of the other choices are
representative of a functional organization.
The Requirements Traceability Matrix includes which of the following
information?
A. The functionality desired by the customer
B. A precise description of all work to be done
C. The end result and deliverables required during the project.
D. A description of each requirement and the business need(s) to which it pertains
Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Scope Management
The Requirements Traceability Matrix is an important tool to ensure that
extraneous requirements do not make their way into the project scope, and also
provides a mechanism for tracking requirements throughout the project.
You are developing training regarding estimating. You will discuss the various
methods of estimating and the advantages and disadvantages of each. Which
estimating method uses just one time estimate for each task?
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. Monte Carlo
pg. 35
50 Question PMA Test
D. Analogous Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Time Management
Critical path method uses deterministic method, meaning it uses one time estimate
for each task.
You are documenting acceptance criteria within the project scope statement for the
various deliverables of your project. Of the following, who is in the best position to
determine whether a particular work item has met the quality expectations?
A. The engineering staff
B. The marketing staff
C. The CEO
D. The customer or sponsor Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Quality Management
The ISO 9000 definition of quality says that it is "the totality of features and
characteristics of a product or service that bears on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs." These needs are ultimately derived from the customer or key
stakeholders (i.e. sponsor) and thus, they are in the best position to assess the level
of quality achieved.
A project has the following risks: 20% probability of a 14-day delay in the receipt
of customer requirements; 10% probability of a 21-day delay in the procurement
process; 50% probability the integration will take 14 days longer. What is the
expected time value of these events?
A. 11.9 days
B. 35.8 days
pg. 36
50 Question PMA Test
C. 49 days
D. Seven days Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Risk Management
EMV for customer requirements =
20% * 14 days = 2.8 days EMV for procurement process
= 10% * 21 days = 2.1 days EMV for integration
= 50% * 14 days = 7 days
Total EMV = 2.8 + 2.1 + 7 = 11.9 days
You are planning your procurements for a project and have found that, due to
company policy, you are very limited in the sellers you can consider. Which of the
following is most likely restricting your options?
A. Source Selection Criteria
B. Risk Tolerance
C. Qualified Seller Lists
D. Enterprise Environmental Factors Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Procurement Management
Qualified Seller Lists, which are Organizational Process Assets, show preapproved sellers and often require members of the organization to use only sellers
from the list when making procurements.
Which form of organization retains many characteristics of a functional
organization and treats the project manager's role as more of a coordinator or
expeditor than a manager?
A. Projectized
pg. 37
50 Question PMA Test
B. Coordinator
C. Strong matrix
D. Weak matrix Correct Answer: Answer: D
Initiating - Framework
In a weak matrix organization a project manager is called a "project coordinator" or
"project expeditor" as she does not have authority to take independent action. The
project is run by the functional managers in this situation, with the expediter
possessing very limited, if any, authority.
You are the project manager for a midsize IT services company. You are currently
managing a project to provides IT services, including digital forensics,
investigation and electronic data discovery. Cost and schedule containment are
very important on your project. You have decided to utilize Earned Value
Management. EVM does not significantly assist a Project Manager with which of
the following?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communication Management
D. Project Quality Management Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Quality Management
Earned Value Management (EVM) does not have a significant role in Project
Quality Management; however, Earned Value is only earned for work meeting the
pg. 38
50 Question PMA Test
quality requirements. EVM is used for both Cost and Schedule management. EVM
is also important when communicating project performance.
With which of the following techniques are brainstorming and lateral thinking
used?
A. Product analysis
B. Alternatives generation
C. Expert judgment
D. Facilitated workshops Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Scope Management
Alternatives generation is a technique used to generate different approaches to
accomplish the goals of a project. Examples include brainstorming and lateral
thinking.
Identify, Define, and state when they are used:
PV
EV
AC
BAC
EAC
ETC
VAC
CV
SV
CPI
SPI
TCPI Correct Answer: Used in Earned Value Management (EVM)
pg. 39
50 Question PMA Test
PV= Planned Value: Budgeted value of WORK PLANNED to be done at a given
time.
EV= Earned Value: Budgeted value of WORK COMPLETED at a given time.
AC= Actual Cost (total): Actual cost of work completed.
BAC= Budget At Completion: The original cost baseline plus or minus all
approved cost changes.
EAC= Estimate At Completion: Expected total project cost (forecasted based on
performance date
ETC= Estimate TO Completion: Expected remaining cost (NOW till completion)
VAC= Variance At Completion: Expected variance over/under budget.
CV= Cost variance: Negative is bad, positive is good
SV= Schedule variance: Neg. is bad, positive good
CPI= Cost performance Index: <1 is bad, >1 is good
SPI= Schedule Performance Index: same above
TCPI= To Complete Performance Index: Assumes original budget cannot be
achieved
What is the Cost Variance (CV) formula? Correct Answer: Earned Value (EV) Actual Cost (AC)
Negative is bad, positive is good
What is the Schedule Variance (SV) formula? Correct Answer: Earned Value (EV)
- Planned Value (PV)
Negative is bad, positive is good
What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI) formula? Correct Answer: Earned
Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC)
<1 is bad, >1 is good
pg. 40
50 Question PMA Test
What is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula? Correct Answer: Earned
Value (EV) / Planned Value (PV)
<1 is bad, >1 is good
What are the Estimate at Completion (EAC) formulas? Correct Answer: AC +
(BAC-EV)
Actual cost + work remaining, use budget rate (variances atypical)
BAC / CPI
Assumes same rate of spending will continue (variance typical)
AC + (BAC-EV) / (CPI*SPI)
Assumes current cost and schedule performance will continue
What is the Estimate To Completion (ETC) formula? Correct Answer: EAC - AC
Expected cost of work remaining.
What is the Variance At Completion (VAC) formula? Correct Answer: BAC EAC
Negative is bad, positive is good
What are the To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) formulas? Correct Answer:
(BAC-EV) / (BAC-AC)
Cost performance rate needed to complete within budget
(BAC-EV) / (EAC-AC)
Assumes original budget cannot be achieved
You are a project manager working on contract for Ralph's Toy shop. Your project
involves implementing a new department in 25 locations across the country as a
pilot to determine if this will be a profitable new service. You've identified two
alternative methods of implementing the pilot. Alternative A's initial investment
equals $596,000. The PV of the expected cash inflows is $299,000 in year 1 and
$301,000 in year 2. The cost of capital is 14 percent. Alternative B's initial
investment equals $625,000. The PV of Alternative B's expected cash inflows is
$321,000 in year 1 and $301,000 in year 2. The cost of capital is 10 percent.
pg. 41
50 Question PMA Test
A. Alternative A will earn a return of at least 14 percent.
B. Alternative A will earn a return of at least 25 percent.
C. The return is not known for either Alternative A or Alternative B.
D. Both alternatives are equally viable choices. Correct Answer: Answer: A
Initiating - Integration Management
Since the Present Value of both alternatives is already given, you add up the PV of
year 1 and year 2 in both alternatives, subtract our their respective initial
investments, and then you have their Net PV's. Since NPV is positive for project A,
that makes answer choice A a true statement. An NPV equal to zero would result in
a 14% return, and thus, Project A must earn a return greater than 14%
A hurricane caused power outages just when you were nearing completion of the
first phase of your project. When the power was restored, all of the project reports
and historical data were lost, with no way of retrieving them. What should have
been done to mitigate this risk?
A. Purchase insurance
B. Create a reserve fund
C. Monitor the weather and have a contingency plan for backing up the files in
question
D. Schedule the installation outside of the hurricane season Correct Answer:
Answer: C
Planning - Risk Management
pg. 42
50 Question PMA Test
In this case, keeping an eye on weather conditions and having a back-up plan to
protect important information would have minimized the impact of the hurricane.
Note that D would be an avoidance tactic.
You are managing a project that is running behind schedule. You change the
relationship of several scheduled activities from finish-to-start to start-to-start in
order to complete the project within the deadline. This is an example of which of
the following and what impact does it have on project risk?
A. Fast-tracking and will increase risk
B. Crashing and will increase risk
C. Adjusting leads and lags and will decrease risk
D. Resource leveling and will have no effect on risk Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Time Management
Fast-tracking is when you take activities or project phases that would otherwise be
done sequentially and do them in parallel. This speeds up delivery of the project,
but will also increase risk. Crashing is when you add extra resources to critical path
activities. Adjusting leads or lags does not alter the relationship of activities, but
applies a delay or head-start to activities. Resource leveling is the process of
smoothing out resource utilization to avoid spikes in resource demand.
Marketplace conditions are an example of which of the following?
A. Enterprise Environmental Factors
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Internal Constraints
pg. 43
50 Question PMA Test
D. Requirements Correct Answer: Answer: A
Initiating - Integration Management
Enterprise environmental factors are internal or external factors that surround or
influence a project's success. Examples include: market conditions, infrastructure,
political climate, corporate culture, etc.
The expected value for your project duration estimate is 627 days, and the most
likely duration estimate is 575. The standard deviation is 14. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. A 95 percent confidence factor would make this project duration between 547
days and 603 days.
B. The project duration, given a 95 percent confidence factor, is between 613 days
and 641 days.
C. The project duration, given a 99.7 percent confidence factor, is between 585
days and 669 days.
D. A 68 percent confidence factor would make this project duration between 547
days and 603 days. Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Time Management
Do not be fooled by the mention of the most likely duration. We want the full
duration estimate which was already calculated for us (O + 4(M) + P)/6. Next,
assess the responses individually: A 99.7 percent confidence level is achieved by
adding and subtracting three standard deviations to the expected value. Standard
deviation is already provided to us (14 days). 3x14 = (+/-42 days). Therefore, the
range of dates for this question is 585 days to 669 days or 627 +/-42 days.
Which of the following is most true during the initiation stage of the project?
pg. 44
50 Question PMA Test
A. Costs are high but the risks are low and so chances of success are low and since
staff levels are high so is stakeholder influence
B. Chances of success are high, but cost is low and staff levels are low however
stakeholder influence is high and the risks are high
C. Staff Levels are low and the costs are low but stakeholder influence is high and
the risks are high so the chances of success are lower
D. Costs are low and chances of success are low but staff levels are high as is
stakeholder influence but the risks are low Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Framework
During the initiating stage the team likely would not even have been assembled,
and thus staffing levels are low. Since the risks (uncertainties) are high, the chances
of success are lower at this point. Stakeholder influence will be high at this point.
Since the project is at the early stages, the costs expended will be low.
When is the best time to assign a project manager to a project?
A. As soon as a project is authorized
B. As soon as the scope statement is finalized
C. As soon as the WBS is completed
D. At any time during the project life cycle, depending on requirements Correct
Answer: Answer: A
Initiating - Integration Management
In general, a project manager should be identified and assigned as early in the
project as possible.
pg. 45
50 Question PMA Test
Your company performs some tests to determine how long it will take to complete
the process of creating a new microchip. These tests must be completed and the
data analyzed three weeks before the facility design is finalized. This is an example
of what?
A. Historical information
B. Product analysis
C. Constraints
D. Assumptions Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Framework
Constraints are factors that limit the options or progress of the project. In this case
the requirement that the test be complete and the data be analyzed is a constraint on
completing the project.
You are a project manager with a mid-sized pharmaceutical company. You have
just been assigned to a new project and your sponsor is a Dominant Stakeholder.
Also you have many regulations to consider throughout your project. Which of the
following processes are utilized to ensure that all requirements of a project are
met? Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Scope Management
One of the key functions of the WBS is to ensure all work items are captured (thus
making sure all requirements are met). The Validate Scope process involves the
sponsor, customer or other designated person inspecting the deliverables to ensure
the requirements are met.
You are the project manager for a large government services company. You are
currently managing a project to provide data center, infrastructure, cloud and colocation, recruiting, staffing, training, software, and technology security services.
pg. 46
50 Question PMA Test
What is the ideal percentage of project work to be measured using the Level of
Effort approach?
A. 15%
B. 0%
C. 24%
D. 14% Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Time Management
Having zero LOE should be a planning goal. Level of effort work measures drive
the project EVM Data toward an on-schedule condition and thus reduce the
accuracy of schedule performance data.
All of the following are true regarding decomposition except for which one?
A. It's an output of the Define Scope process.
B. It's a tool and technique of the Create WBS Process.
C. It is tool and technique of the Define Activities process.
D. It subdivides the major deliverables into smaller components. Correct Answer:
Answer: A
Planning - Scope Management
Decomposition subdivides the major deliverables into smaller components. It is a
tool and technique of Create WBS (and Define Activities).
You have received an estimate from a team lead that took some time to finalize but
has the level of detail that would allow the client to make an accurate decision. The
team lead apologizes to you for the delay but they had some challenges trying to
pg. 47
50 Question PMA Test
get some of the estimated data from one of the subcontractors. Which method of
estimating did the team lead most likely use?
A. Bottom Up
B. Parametric
C. Expert Judgment
D. Analogous Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Cost Management
Bottom Up estimating involves a complete re-do of estimates to accurately produce
a detailed estimate. The main characteristics are a more accurate estimate, but it
takes longer to gather the estimate data.
What is the formula for PV? Correct Answer: PV= FV / (1+i)^n
i = discount rate
n = number of years
A company is considering an investment of $110,000. There is a 50% probability
that the investment will perform well, and a 50% probability it will perform poorly.
If it performs well, the payoff will be $150,000 one year from now. If it performs
poorly, the payoff will be $70,000 one year from now. Assuming a 10% discount
rate, should the company make this investment?
A. Yes, since 150,000 > 110,000
B. Yes, since (150,000 + 70,000) > 110,000
C. No, since there is no probability of a loss
pg. 48
50 Question PMA Test
D. No, since NPV is negative Correct Answer: Answer: D
Initiating - Integration Management
First we need to compute the PV for both poor and good performance: PV = FV /
(1 + i) ^n (where i is the discount rate and n is the number of years) PV for poor
performance = 70,000 / 1.10 = 63,636 PV for good performance = 150,000 / 1.10 =
136,363 Next we take the net impact and multiply by the probability: Poor
performance: NPV = (63,636 - 110,000) * 50% = $-23,182 Good performance:
NPV = (136,363 - 110,000) * 50% = $13,181 Then we net the two numbers:
$13,181 + (23,182) = ($10,001) Since the combined NPV is negative, we should
not do this project.
You are defining the evaluation criteria for proposals you will receive for a
particular procurement. The procurement item is readily available from a number
of equally acceptable sellers. On which criterion might you focus in such a
situation?
A. Seller's management approach
B. Price offered by the seller
C. Seller's financial capacity
D. Understanding of your need Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Procurement Management
In this scenario, since the item is widely available by equally qualified sellers,
price should be the key criterion in evaluating the proposals.
You are currently developing a model that would help your organization in
determining its level of maturity in project management. To which of the following
does this refer?
pg. 49
50 Question PMA Test
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project Management Information System (PMIS)
C. OPM3
D. Project Management Research Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Framework
OPM3 (Organizational Project Management Maturity Model) helps organizations
determine their level of maturity in project management. OPM3 is a globallyrecognized best practice standard for assessing and developing capabilities in
Portfolio Management, Program Management, and Project Management.
You are the project manager for a small advertising company. You are talking with
some account executives that want to know more about project management. You
want to emphasize the importance of stakeholders. Which of the following are
tools and techniques of the Identify Stakeholders process?
A. Stakeholder analysis, meetings, and expert judgment
B. Expert judgment, meetings, and communication models
C. Communication methods,meetings, and expert judgment
D. Stakeholder analysis,meetings, and organizational process assets Correct
Answer: Answer: A
Initiating - Communications Management
The tools and techniques of the Identify Stakeholders process are stakeholder
analysis, meetings and expert judgment.
pg. 50
50 Question PMA Test
You are managing a project and must seek outside help in completing part of the
work. You are therefore preparing a Request for Proposal setting out the scope of
the work you wish to hire out. Which PMBOK process are you performing?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Procurement Management
Plan Procurement Management results in procurements documents (such as an
RFP, RFQ, RFI, etc.). Conduct Procurements involves the selection of the seller
and contract award. Control Procurements involves overseeing the contractual
relationship, while Close Procurements involves ending the procurement.
All of the following describe the activity list except which one?
A. It's an extension of the WBS.
B. It includes all activities of the project.
C. It is part of the WBS.
D. It includes a description of all project activities. Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Time Management
The activity list is not part of the WBS. The activity list is produced as an
extension of the WBS and includes all the project activities with descriptions of the
pg. 51
50 Question PMA Test
activities. The activity list, activity attributes and milestone list are outputs of the
Define Activities process.
You are replacing the current project manager on a project where communication
with the client has been challenging. The project manager emails you a document,
without a subject line in the email or a descriptive title. When you open the
document you see it is in a table format with a list of names, contact details and
locations. There is also a column for influence and impact. You are most likely
looking at which of the following?
A. Issue Log
B. Risk Register
C. Stakeholder Register
D. WBS Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Communications Management
Influence and impact will be found in a Stakeholder Register since those columns
document the power and interest of the stakeholders. A Risk Register will show
Impact and Probability (not influence). The Issues Log, while it may contain names
and contact details of team members, would not show influence. WBS will not
contain any information pertaining to stakeholders or team members.
You are the project manager of the Athletic Performance Pants Project. Your
project will cost your organization $250,000 to complete over the next eight
months. Once the project is completed, the deliverables will begin earning the
company $2,500 per month. Which of the following represents the time to recover
the costs of the project?
A. Not enough information to know
B. 62 months
pg. 52
50 Question PMA Test
C. 108 months
D. 92 months Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Integration Management
The time to recover money from the project is 108 months. This is calculated by
dividing the project cost by $2,500 per month (and adding 8 months for the
deliverable to be completed).
Project selection is critical for an organization. Projects need to be aligned with the
strategic direction of the company and provide the most value possible. As a
project manager you need to understand how and why projects are selected. Which
of the following is not a project selection tool?
A. Peer Review
B. Earned Value
C. Scoring Model
D. Economic Models Correct Answer: Answer: B
Initiating - Integration Management
Choice B is the correct answer. Earned Value is a project progress measurement
tool while all of the other choices, which include Benefit Measurement Methods,
Scoring Models, and Economic Models, are generally used for project selection.
You have identified a potential risk to your project but have deemed it a minor
issue given its low likelihood of occurring and its minimal impact if it did occur. In
which document should you record this risk?
pg. 53
50 Question PMA Test
A. Risk Breakdown Structure
B. Watchlist
C. Probability and Impact Matrix
D. Monte Carlo analysis report Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Risk Management
A watch list is where you note risks that don't have a high enough probability or
impact to make it into the risk register, yet still need to be monitored. By recording
the risk in a watch list, you will have a reminder to ensure circumstances haven't
changed as your project proceeds.
You are a project manager and you are talking to a new project manager that just
joined your firm. Project phases comes up in the discussion. You are explaining the
potential sequential phases of the project to the key stakeholders. What are you
describing?
A. Project Process Groups
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Project Life Cycle
D. Product Life Cycle Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Framework
The project manager is explaining project life cycle, which is a collection of
generally sequential or overlapping project phases. Remember that phases are not
process groups, but are essentially whole projects unto themselves (since each
pg. 54
50 Question PMA Test
phase proceeds from initiation through executing, monitoring and controlling, and
closing, and also results in a deliverable, i.e. a Feasibility Analysis).
You are the project manager for a franchise of bowling alleys. Your project
involves installing a new cash processing system that allows for ease of collecting
all forms of payment. You have identified several problems along with potential
causes of those problems using an Ishikawa diagram. Which process are you
performing?
A. Identify Risk
B. Perform Qualitative Analysis
C. Control Quality
D. Plan Risk Response Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Risk Management
You are working on the Identify Risks process (specifically, using the
Diagramming tool and technique- Ishikawa diagram). Identify Risks is the process
of determining which risks might affect the project.
Which of the following risks may be an uncontrollable risk?
A. Scope changes in the project
B. Team member's errors/mistakes
C. Increase in raw material costs
D. Changes with internal stakeholders Correct Answer: Answer: C
pg. 55
50 Question PMA Test
Planning - Risk Management
Material costs are often uncontrollable risks, and can usually only be addressed by
contingency reserves.
Peter is going through another iteration of estimations because the project is about
enter into a new phase. He is creating an activity cost estimate, and on a very
aggressive timeline to complete his estimate. He is also under a lot of pressure
from senior management to deliver a high level of confidence in the estimate. As
such, which of the following should not be included?
A. Information about the types of resources used in the activities
B. Details on the assumptions used in the estimate
C. The order in which activities will be completed
D. Descriptions of resources used in the activities Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Cost Management
Activity Cost Estimates are an output to the Estimate Costs process. The
order/sequence in which the activities are completed is not relevant to the Estimate
Costs process as costs are assigned on the individual activities themselves, not a
relationship between activities (activity sequence). All other answer choices are
relevant.
Your sponsor has recently left the company, and an executive from the company
has been designated as the new sponsor. This person was not previously involved
in the project, and needs to get up to speed. She is a definitive stakeholder and has
a reputation for being difficult to work with. She calls for a meeting and during
your conversation asks you for a summary of what the project will produce and the
work required to get there. To which document should you refer her?
A. Scope Statement
pg. 56
50 Question PMA Test
B. Project Charter
C. Requirements Documentation
D. Project Management Plan Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Scope Management
The Scope Statement should provide a detailed description of the project's
deliverable and the work necessary to produce them (as opposed to the Charter,
which contains a broad, high-level discussion of the project's goals).
The project team is in the process of developing an appropriate approach and plan
for project communications based on stakeholder needs and requirements. This
process yields which of the following results?
A. Communication Skills, Scope Statement
B. Communications Management Plan
C. Communication models
D. Communications technology Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Communications Management
The Plan Communications Management process develops the appropriate approach
and plan for project communications based on stakeholder needs and requirements.
The Communications Management Plan is the output from the Plan
Communications Management process.
There are various project selection methods. As a project manager you need to be
aware of and familiar with the various methods. Linear programming is an
example of which type of project selection method?
pg. 57
50 Question PMA Test
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Constrained optimization methods
C. Comparative approach
D. Benefit measurement methods Correct Answer: Answer: B
Initiating - Integration Management
Constrained optimization methods are complex mathematical formulas and
algorithms that are used to predict the success of project (you need not understand
these formulas for the exam). Cost-benefit analysis examines the costs versus the
benefits of multiple projects. Benefit measurement methods is the same thing as
comparative approach.
You are the project manager for a large IT Services company. You are currently
managing a project to provide analytics, machine learning, big data
implementations, and data integration services. What term is used to explain when
major projects are divided to allow for extra control over the completion of major
deliverables?
A. Program
B. Work packages
C. Phases
D. Operations Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Framework
pg. 58
50 Question PMA Test
Phases are divisions within a project where extra control is needed to effectively
manage the completion of a major deliverable.
You are the project manager for a large insurance company. You are currently
managing a project to create a custom-tailored lending program for commercial
property and casualty insurance agents. You find that you are under budget and
your Program Manager has requested a review of all project budgets. Undistributed
budget is used in which of the following ways?
A. Retained for contingencies
B. Held until work authorizations are provided for any work that has not yet been
performed or been assigned a control account
C. Distributed to other projects falling behind on costs
D. To increase profit Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Cost Management
Undistributed budget is kept in a holding account for scope work that is yet to be
assigned to a control account.
You are the project manager for a large government services company. You are
currently managing a project to provides program management, grant management,
administrative support, HR, and veteran employment and reintegration services.
You are actively tracking and reporting on direct and indirect costs. Indirect costs
may include
?
A. Lighting, building security, subcontractor costs
B. Project manager's salary, deliverables inspections, material handling
C. Building lease payment, security services, executive salaries
pg. 59
50 Question PMA Test
D. Vendor costs, subcontractor costs, travel costs Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Cost Management
Typically costs for the building, building security, and corporate executives are
indirect costs to a project. All of the other answer choices have some elements that
are usually included in a project's direct cost.
You are the project manager for a large window manufacturing company. You are
currently managing a project to expand your geographical reach beyond the local
area and include a facility in Canada. Since you are not familiar with Canada you
need to hire vendors to do much of the work. All of the following are inputs to the
Plan Procurement Management process except which one?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Requirements documentation
C. Project schedule
D. Statement of work Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Procurement Management
Project management plan, requirements documentation, risk register, activity
resource requirements, project schedule, activity cost estimates, stakeholder
register, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets are the
inputs to the Plan Procurement Management process. In this process, you will
determine what work needs to be procured, and will thereby create a Procurement
SOW.
You are managing a project to develop a new software platform for one of your top
customers. In past projects, there were often additional, unrequested features added
to the scope in order to "wow" the customer, but the stakeholders have made it
very clear that this should not be done in this case, as the budget and schedule are
pg. 60
50 Question PMA Test
very tight. You are also dealing with more limited resources than usual. As you
develop your project management plan, you should pay particular attention to
which of the following in order to prevent this sort of gold plating from reoccurring?
A. Project Charter
B. WBS
C. Scope management plan
D. Cost Management Plan Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Scope Management
The scope management plan would outline controls for ensuring that gold plating
(extra functionality, not part of agreed upon project scope) is prevented, while
ensuring that all approved requirements are included in the deliverable.
Your project management team is analyzing new technologies and examining
vendor capabilities to assess whether a product or service can be acquired. Which
of the following is being performed?
A. Buyer assessment
B. Expert judgment
C. Make-or-buy analysis
D. Market research Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Procurement Management
pg. 61
50 Question PMA Test
Market research involves examining industry and vendor capabilities to determine
if the desired product or service is available in the marketplace. It is a tool and
technique of Plan Procurement Management.
You are in the Develop Schedule process. Which of the following tools and
techniques will be used to determine the feasibility of the project schedule under
differing, adverse conditions?
A. CPM
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Modeling techniques Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Time Management
The correct answer is D -- modeling techniques such as what-if scenario analysis
or simulation examine what would happen if a certain scenario occurs.
You have just completed a robust Quality Management Plan. You have garnered
strong stakeholder and sponsor support for the quality approaches set forth therein,
and must now begin to execute the Quality Management Plan. As you begin to
produce key outputs you concede that Quality Assurance is going along nicely, but
experience has taught you that there is always room for improvement and
refinement. Which of the following statements is true regarding quality?
A. Inspection ensures avoidance of rework.
B. Prevention prevents defects from reaching the customer.
C. Inspection reduces random variation in the output of the process.
pg. 62
50 Question PMA Test
D. Prevention helps ensure that errors are kept out of the process. Correct Answer:
Answer: D
Planning - Quality Management
Prevention keeps errors out of the process and therefore reduces random variations
in the process. Inspection ensures that errors do not reach the customer. Nonconforming products need to be reworked or rejected. Therefore, inspection usually
results in rework.
You are the project manager for a large IT company. You are currently managing a
project to create a network for a mid-sized marketing and advertising company in
New York. You are located in California so are utilizing a virtual team. What are
the tools and techniques of Estimate Activity Resources?
A. PDM, Schedule Network Templates, Dependency Determination, Applying
Leads & Lags
B. Enterprise Environmental Factors, Organizational Process Assets, Activity List,
Activity attributes, Resource Calendars
C. Expert Judgment, Alternatives Analysis, Published Estimating Data, Project
Management Software
D. Decomposition, Rolling Wave Planning, Expert Judgment Correct Answer:
Answer: C
Planning - Time Management
Expert Judgment, Alternatives Analysis, Published Estimating Data, and Project
Management Software are the tools and techniques of the Estimate Activity
Resources process.
A cost plus incentive fee contract has a target cost of $280K. Actual costs are
$240K. There is a 50/50 share for any cost savings. What is the total value of the
contract?
pg. 63
50 Question PMA Test
A. $260K
B. $240K
C. $280K
D. $300K Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Procurement Management
The $280K is the expected value of the contract. Actual cost of the contract is
$240K. This means that there is $40K saved. The 50/50 share means that $20K of
the savings would go to the seller. The actual cost of $240K plus the $20K saving
share makes the total value of the contract worth $260K.
During a schedule update you find that the project would require 45, 25, and 34
resources respectively during the next three months. The functional manager
confirms that 45 additional resources cannot be made available during the first
month without impacting other ongoing projects, and your project is a lower
priority. Which of the following should you adopt?
A. Reverse resource allocation
B. Crashing
C. Fast tracking
D. Resource leveling Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Time Management
pg. 64
50 Question PMA Test
You should use resource leveling, which is the technique used to smooth out
resource usage on a project. In this case you might want to use an even 35
resources for all 3 months. With resource leveling you might have to let the
schedule slip as a trade-off. Crashing and fast tracking are schedule compression
techniques. Reverse resource allocation is not a real term.
You are working on the WBS. The finance manager has given you a numbering
system to assign to the WBS. Which of the following is true?
A. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the code of accounts,
which is used to track the costs of the WBS elements.
B. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the WBS dictionary,
which is used to track time and resource assignments for individual work elements.
C. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the code of accounts,
which is used to track time and resource assignments for individual work elements.
D. The numbering system is a unique identifier known as the WBS dictionary,
which is used to track the costs of the WBS elements. Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Scope Management
Each element of the WBS is assigned a unique identifier. Individually these are
known as control accounts, but collectively these are known as the code of
accounts. Typically, these codes are associated with a corporate chart of accounts
and are used to track the costs of the individual work elements in the WBS.
Which tool and technique of the Plan Quality Management process helps the
project team anticipate and identify where quality problems might occur on the
project, which in turn helps them develop alternatives for dealing with the quality
problems?
A. Root cause analysis
pg. 65
50 Question PMA Test
B. Benchmarking
C. Flowcharting
D. Design of experiments Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Quality Management
Flowcharting can help the project team anticipate and identify where quality
problems might occur on the project, which helps the team develop alternative
approaches for dealing with the quality problems.
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between project
phases and project life cycles?
A. A project phase can contain one or more iterations of the project life cycle.
B. The project life cycle provides a basic framework for managing the project,
whereas project phases are divisions within a project.
C. The project life cycle is known as the sequence of project activities, whereas
phases are defined to control the overlapping activities.
D. The project life cycle contains the iterative, incremental elements inside a
project phase. Correct Answer: Answer: B
Initiating - Framework
According to the PMBOK Guide, the project life cycle provides a basic framework
for managing the project, whereas project phases are divisions within a project
where extra control is needed to effectively manage the completion of a major
deliverable (i.e. feasibility study).
pg. 66
50 Question PMA Test
You are a project manager in the financial industry. All of your projects are cost
constrained and you actively manage cost using CPI and CV. All of the following
are tools used to determine budget except which one?
A. Cost aggregation
B. Reserve analysis
C. Earned value management
D. Historical relationships Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Cost Management
Cost Aggregation, Reserve Analysis, Expert Judgment, Historical Relationships,
and Funding Limit Reconciliation are the tools and techniques of Determine
Budget.
You are preparing a presentation for the local PMI chapter. You are new to the
group and need to deliver a meaningful and useful presentation. A key part of the
presentation is project plan development. Which of the following is relevant for
project plan development?
A. Stakeholder skills and knowledge
B. Change control system
C. Configuration management
D. Project selection methods Correct Answer: Answer: A
Initiating - Integration Management
pg. 67
50 Question PMA Test
Choice A is the correct answer. Project plan development is the creation of the final
project plan for approval by the management of the performing organization. This
is based on outputs from core planning processes. An understanding of the
stakeholder knowledge and skills is essential for appropriate application in creating
the project plan. Change control system and configuration management are
methods used for integrated change control. Project selection methods are applied
in selecting a project and hence are tools used for project initiation.
You are considering whether to seek out a potential contract. The probability of
completing a contract is 92% which will yield a profit of $10,000. If the project
fails to complete the contract then the associated risk is $10,000, which will be
charged as a penalty. What is the expected monetary value of taking the contract?
A. $800
B. $8,400
C. $10,800
D. -$800 Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Risk Management
The probability of not completing the contract is .08, which would be multiplied by
the impact (-$10,000), for a result of -$800. On the other hand, the chances of
completing the contract on time and realizing the $10,000 profit is 92%, so you
multiply .92 x $10,000 and get $9,200. When you sum the two values you get
$8,400.
You are a senior project manager and are having lunch with your Director of
Quality. Yous start to discuss quality theories and the people who created the
hypothesis. Which of the following are known for their zero defects and fitness for
use theories, respectively.
A. Juran, Deming
pg. 68
50 Question PMA Test
B. Crosby, Juran
C. Maslow, Deming
D. Deming, Crosby Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Quality Management
Philip Crosby believed in conformance to requirements and zero defects. Joseph
Juran believed in the fitness for use principal. He promoted conformance and
quality by design. Juran also noted the distinction between grade and quality (low
quality is always bad; low grade is not necessarily a bad thing). W. Edward
Deming developed the 14 points of Total Quality Management (TQM) and said
that quality is a management problem 85% of the time.
A frequent complaint about matrix organizations is that communications are:
A. Hard to automate
B. Closed and inaccurate
C. Complex
D. Misleading Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Integration Management
A Automation is outside the scope of project management or it is equally possible
in any type of organization and this is not a complaint. This answer is wrong B
Matrix organizations do work and many corporations chose to run their company
with matrix structure, and this is not a frequent concern. There is no saying stating
matrix organizations are 'closed and inaccurate'. This answer is not correct C Under
functional organization there is more than 1 manager for a particular project. One
would be a project manager and other would be a functional manger, which would
pg. 69
50 Question PMA Test
eventually make the communication process complicated compare to either
function organization or project type and this is the right answer D Matrix
organization structure shall not mislead any project or a project manager; this is
one of the popular types of structure in India. The answer is incorrect.
In which process do you create the Risk Breakdown Structure?
A. Identify Risk
B. Plan Risk Response
C. Perform Qualitative Analysis
D. Plan Risk Management Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Risk Management
The RBS is part of the Risk Management Plan. Its structure is very similar to a
WBS. The RBS is a hierarchically-organized depiction of the identified project
risks arranged by risk category and subcategory that identifies the various areas
and causes of potential risks.
Your project has an optimistic estimate of 20 weeks, a most likely estimate of 25
weeks and a pessimistic estimate of 38 weeks. What is the standard deviation of
the estimate?
A. 26.3
B. 13.8
C. 3
D. 7.5 Correct Answer: Answer: C
pg. 70
50 Question PMA Test
Planning - Time Management
Standard Deviation = (Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6 Standard Deviation = (38-20) /
6=3
Estimates to complete one of your project activities have been turned into you from
experts on your project team. The estimates are as follows: The pessimistic
estimate is 126 days, the optimistic estimate is 108 days, and the most likely
estimate is 114 days. Using the traditional, beta distribution PERT formula, you
can say with 68 percent certainty that the project will finish within which range of
dates?
A. 112 days to 118 days
B. 111 days to 117 days
C. 114 days to 116 days
D. 113 days to 115 days Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Time Management
First, you must determine expected value using the beta distribution PERT
formula. That formula is:(Optimistic + Pessimistic + (4 x Most Likely)) / 6. The
formula solved for this question is:(108 + 126 + (4 x 114)) / 6 = 115. Next, you
need to determine the standard deviation. Standard deviation is calculated as:
(Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6. The standard deviation formula for this question is:
(126 - 108) / 6 = 3. The 68 percent confidence level is determined by adding and
subtracting one standard deviation to the expected value. Therefore, the range of
dates for this question is 112 days to 118 days.
A new project manager has been brought in to replace the prior PM who just
retired from a long and distinguished career. Eager to make a good impression and
to fill the shoes of such a high-performer, the new PM asks to see the scope
pg. 71
50 Question PMA Test
baseline for the project so that she can immediately begin to control scope creep.
What is included in the scope baseline?
A. Project scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary
B. Scope management plan, and project scope statement
C. Scope management plan, project scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary
D. WBS and WBS dictionary Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Scope Management
The scope baseline includes the project scope statement, WBS, and WBS
dictionary.
You are the project manager for a large IT company. You are working on a project
to revise how month, quarter and year end calculations are made and what systems
they interact with. You have many stakeholders that are at an executive level so
you want to ensure that they are engaged appropriately and requirements are
understood and documented. What are the inputs to Plan Communications
Management?
A. Communications requirements, communications technology, and stakeholder
analysis
B. Project management plan, stakeholder register, communication technology and
organizational process assets
C. Project management plan, stakeholder register, enterprise environmental factors
and organizational process assets
pg. 72
50 Question PMA Test
D. Communications requirements, constraints, and staffing management plan
Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Communications Management
The inputs to the Plan Communications Management process are project
management plan, stakeholder register, enterprise environmental factors and
organizational process assets. Note that PMBOK states that all environmental
factors serve as inputs here, as communications must be adapted (tailored) to suit
the total project environment.
You are conducting interviews with key project stakeholders to assess the
probability and consequences of identified risks to the project objectives, assign a
risk score to each risk, and create a list of prioritized risks. Which process are you
performing?
A. Quantitative Risk Analysis
B. Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Identification of Risks
D. Plan Risk Management Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Risk Management
The purpose of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is to determine what impact the
identified risk events will have on the project and the probability of occurrence. It
also puts risks in priority order according to their effects on the project objectives
and assigns a risk score for the project. Finally, this process examines the timing of
the risk events so those which are upcoming in the near future can be addressed
first.
You have received an activity estimate for your project, as follows: the pessimistic
estimate is 50 days, the optimistic estimate is 38 days, and the most likely estimate
is 40 days. What is the variance?
pg. 73
50 Question PMA Test
A. 2
B. 3.15
C. 1.33
D. 4 Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Time Management
The Variance is the Standard Deviation squared. Standard deviation is calculated as
follows: (Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6 The standard deviation formula is: (50- 38) /
6 = 2. The variance is 2 squared = 4. If you were trying to get a combined variance
for multiple activities, you would perform the analysis above for each, then add the
variances together and calculate the square root of that figure.
One of your project team members is reviewing the risk register for your project.
She is new to the project and was interested in changing the risk response
strategies her department would own. Which of the following properly lists the
strategies employed for handling negative risks (threats)?
A. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, Contingency, Accept
B. Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Share
C. Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept
D. Exploit, Enhance, Share Accept Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Risk Management
pg. 74
50 Question PMA Test
There are 4 response strategies for negative risks: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate and
Accept. Note that acceptance can be "active" if there is a contingency set aside.
What are the phase-end reviews for key deliverables often called?
A. Close Project
B. Kill points
C. Quality audits
D. Performance reporting Correct Answer: Answer: B
Initiating - Framework
Reviews conducted at the end of the project phase on key deliverables and project
performance (to determine approval for continuance into the next phase and
corrective actions) are often called kill points, stage gates or phase exits.
You are in the planning stage of a large project that is scheduled to go live 18
months from now. You have determined how many teams must be established and
the roles and responsibilities of the team members. The number of team members
currently exceeds 100. You are trying to determine the most efficient way to utilize
these team members and determine which resources will be needed at which times.
Which document will you now be creating and updating to record this?
A. Org Chart
B. WBS
C. Roles and Responsibilities Matrix
D. Staffing Management Plan Correct Answer: Answer: D
pg. 75
50 Question PMA Test
Planning - Human Resources Management
A Staffing Management Plan is used, among other things, to document which
resources will be used at which times. The organizational chart shows the reporting
relationship of team members, the WBS shows the work breakdown (not who is
performing the work). The Roles and Responsibilities Matrix shows the Roles,
Authority, Responsibilities and Competencies on the project, but would not
necessarily address when the resources are needed.
Your project has a critical path duration of twenty-three weeks. What is the impact
on the critical path if management wants you to complete the project in twenty
weeks?
A. Duration of the critical path increases by three weeks.
B. Duration of the critical path decreases by three weeks.
C. Duration of the critical path remains the same.
D. Duration of the critical path cannot be determined. Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Time Management
If management wants to complete the project in twenty weeks, then the project
float will be: 20 - 23 = -3 weeks. The project float compares the critical path with
an externally imposed date and may be negative. Thus, you may be forced to fasttrack or perform crashing to ensure that the project is completed within the dates
required by the management (and these schedule compression techniques would
shorten the critical path). Without any changes to the current plan, however, the
new externally-imposed date will not change the critical path.
Question: 116 of 200
You have prepared a risk response plan for a particular risk event, however, the
response cannot eliminate the impact of the occurrence completely. Which of the
pg. 76
50 Question PMA Test
following describes the impact of the risk which remains, notwithstanding your
response plan?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Acceptance
D. Mitigation Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Risk Management
Residual risk is the risk that remains even after you have implemented your
response plan.
The project scope is best described by which of the following?
A. All the tangible items that must be delivered to the client
B. All the work that must be completed for the project to be complete
C. The high level risks of the project
D. All requirements collected from stakeholders Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Scope Management
The project scope outlines what work will (and will not) be done to complete the
project.
During which process does the project management team determine whether or not
any project work can be outsourced?
pg. 77
50 Question PMA Test
A. Collect Requirements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Identify Risk
D. Plan Procurement Management Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Procurement Management
Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of Plan Procurement Management,
and the Make-or-Buy Decisions are an output. Here you are selecting which work
items you can perform yourself and what needs to be outsourced/purchased. This is
a good time to consult the lessons learned from past projects, to get a better sense
of what should be made in-house vs. what should be purchased.
Procurement documents seek responsive information from which party?
A. Seller
B. Procurements Director
C. Buyer
D. Sponsor Correct Answer: Answer: A
Planning - Procurement Management
The purpose of procurement documents is to get information from the seller as to
how the requirements of the project can be met, and on what terms.
pg. 78
50 Question PMA Test
You are the project manager for a large consumer products and services company.
You are currently managing a project to create an innovative toothpaste that
guarantees to whiten teeth after just one brushing. You know of a competitor with a
similar product so you are rushing to finish your project to be the first to market.
What are the outputs of Sequence Activities?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM), Schedule Network Templates,
Dependency Determination, Leads & Lags
B. Activity List, Activity attributes, Milestone list
C. Project Schedule Network Diagrams, Project document updates
D. Decomposition, Rolling Wave Planning, Expert Judgment Correct Answer:
Answer: C
Planning - Time Management
Project Schedule Network Diagrams and Project document updates are the 2
outputs from the Sequence Activities process.
You are a project manager for a large aerospace company. You are working on
manufacturing a space shuttle turbine. Design of experiments performs which of
the following functions?
A. identifies which variables have the most influence on a quality outcome
B. identifies which variables have the least influence on a quality outcome
C. determines what a quality outcome is
D. identifies variables impacting quality outcomes by looking at each variable
individually Correct Answer: Answer: A
pg. 79
50 Question PMA Test
Planning - Quality Management
Design of experiments (DOE) is a statistical method of identifying which factors
may influence specific variables of a product or process under development. DOE
should be used during the plan quality management process to determine the
number and type of tests and their impact on cost of quality. D is incorrect because
DOE analyzes all variables collectively, not individually.
You are working on developing a master quality policy which will be kept by your
project management office and referenced by other project managers in the future.
Which of the following themes should you be emphasizing when preparing this
document?
A. More emphasis should be placed on testing and inspection than on planning,
since the former serves to catch flaws/defects.
B. Quality planning should be done as needed throughout the project, as opposed
to spending excessive time planning up front.
C. Quality outcomes should be measured by the level of customer satisfaction
achieved.
D. Substantial time and money should be spent planning quality at the beginning,
to avoid defects in the first place. Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Quality Management
PMBOK states that your highest expense in quality management will likely come
in the form of quality planning. Quality must be planned in, or "managed in" to a
project on the front end, which will save money and effort in the long run because
there will be fewer defects and problems to fix. Remember, quality is the extent to
which the requirements are met, which is not always the same as simply creating
customer satisfaction.
To have a legally binding contract, which of the following items must be present?
pg. 80
50 Question PMA Test
A. Offer and Consideration
B. Offer and Acceptance
C. Offer, acceptance, consideration, capacity by both parties to contract, and a legal
purpose
D. A meeting of the minds Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Procurement Management
The elements of a binding contract are an offer, acceptance of the offer,
consideration (exchange of value, i.e. money, goods or services), capacity by both
parties to contract, and a legal purpose.
You are performing processes to determine the project management plan. Which of
the following best describes the purpose of quality planning?
A. To ensure all requirements are captured
B. To determine applicable quality standards and processes to satisfy them
C. To ensure all quality requirements tie back to a specific business need
D. To ensure the project stays on schedule Correct Answer: Answer: B
Planning - Quality Management
Quality planning involves identifying quality standards relevant to the project and
determining how to satisfy them and is typically done in parallel to the other
planning processes. Answers A and C refer to requirements which drive the scope
pg. 81
50 Question PMA Test
and are typically associate with a business need. D refers to the monitoring and
controlling the schedule specifically.
For a given characteristic in a construction process, the standard deviation
associated with production variation is .8 inches, and the standard deviation
associated with measurement variation is .6 inches. The total variance for this
characteristic is
?
A. 1.4 inches
B. 1.2 inches
C. 1.0 inches
D. 0.8 inches Correct Answer: Answer: C
Planning - Quality Management
The question is asking for total variance and provides the standard deviation (SD)
information. Statistically you cannot add the SDs of two processes to obtain either
the total SD or the total variance. The correct way is to calculate the variances for
each individual process first then add the variances. The formula for variance is
SD^2 (standard deviation squared). So, the variance for the production variation
will be 0.8*0.8 = 0.64 and the variance for the measurement variation will be
0.6*0.6 = 0.36. Then add the two variances together, which will be 0.64 + 0.36 = 1.
Which of the following is true with respect to the cost of managing the purchasing
process?
A. Indirect costs are not considered in the make or buy analysis
B. The cost of managing the purchasing process is always borne by the Purchasing
or Procurement department, and is therefore not part of the make or buy analysis
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50 Question PMA Test
C. The cost of managing the purchasing process is a direct expense and is
considered in the make or buy analysis
D. Indirect costs incurred in managing the purchasing process are considered in the
make or buy analysis Correct Answer: Answer: D
Planning - Procurement Management
Indirect costs are considered in the make or buy calculations, and would include
costs of managing the overall procurement process.
You know your organization must choose projects that will be the most profitable
for the company. This approach to project selection is based on which one of the
following?
A. Dynamic algorithms
B. Opportunity cost
C. Economic model
D. Pareto diagraming Correct Answer: Answer: C
Initiating - Framework
This is a simple economic model of choosing the most profitable project for the
organization. Dynamic algorithms are an example of constrained optimization
methods. While this question hints at opportunity cost, this is not the best choice.
Opportunity costs describe the scenario when an organization has two or more
projects to choose from and they can only do one project because of time or limited
resources. Pareto diagraming is not a valid option for this question, as it pertains to
quality matters.
The type of organization where the project manager has full authority. Correct
Answer: Projectized
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50 Question PMA Test
The technique where work packages are broken down to activities. Correct
Answer: Decomposition
Any action taken to bring expected future project performance in line with the
project management plan Correct Answer: Preventative Action
Starting an activity prior to completing the preceding activity Correct Answer:
Lead
Delaying an activities start date Correct Answer: Lag
Breaking down an activity into smaller component to make a very accurate
estimate Correct Answer: Bottom Up
Resource Smoothing Correct Answer: Adjusting the level of resources when
resources have been over-allocated, without allowing the schedule to slip
Adjustments made to project expenditure to account for funding limits Correct
Answer: Funding Limit Reconciliation
You are identifying the quality requirements for a construction project and
determining how these specifications will be met. Which of the following items is
not an input to this process?
A. Risk Register
B. Project Management Plan
C. Stakeholder Register
D. Quality Metrics Correct Answer:
pg. 84