MICROECONOMIC THEORY I. ECONOMICS 665. FALL 2014. PROFESSOR: Alex Anas. TA: Yiqian Lu. MIDTERM EXAM 2. TIME: Thursday, Nov. 6; 3:30-5:30 PM. PLACE: 424 FRONCZAK. Books, notes or calculators are not allowed in the examination room. Please answer each question. TOTAL POINTS = 100. Solution PROBLEM 1 (40 points) There are two goods and a consumer's preference are given by the utility function π(π₯1 , π₯2 ) = π√π₯1 + π₯2 , where π₯1 is the quantity of good 1 and π₯2 is the quantity of good 2. a > 0 is a parameter. (i) Assume that the income m is fixed. Find the Marshallian demand functions for both goods. (10 points) (ii) Derive the indirect utility function. (10 points) (iii) Suppose that both commodities are consumed in positive amounts. There is a change in the price of good 1 from π1 to π1′ (π1′ > π1). Define the compensating variation (CV) as V(π1, π2 , m)=V(π1′, π2 , m-CV). Solve for the compensating variation (CV) when price increases from π1 to π1′ (15 points) (iv) Suppose that, as in (iii), both goods are consumed in positive quantities. Explain the signs of the income effects. (5 points) Answer: The utility function is quasi-linear which helps to determine the solution. (i) The consumer wants to choose π₯1 to max m − x1 p1 a√x1 + p2 1 FOC is a −2 x 2 1 − p1 p2 =0 So the demand function is: 1 x1 (p1 , p2 , m) = ( ap2 2 ) 2 p1 and x2 (p1 , p2 , m) = π π2 − π 2 p2 4 p1 But the above solution is for an interior solution ( x1 , x2 οΎ 0) and ignores that we may be at a corner. Since π₯2 > 0 holds strictly when we have an interior solution, we must have p1 > p* = a2 p22 4m Finally the Marshallian demand function is ap2 2 ) , π€βππ π1 > π ∗ 2 p 1 x1 (p1 , p2 , m) = π , ππ‘βπππ€ππ π { π1 ( π π2 p2 − , π€βππ π1 > π ∗ x2 (p1 , p2 , m) = {π2 4 p1 0, ππ‘βπππ€ππ π π 2 p2 (ii) V(p1 , p2 , m) = { 4p1 + π π2 , π€βππ π1 > π ∗ π π√ , ππ‘βπππ€ππ π p1 (iii) We have V(π1 , π2 , m) = V(π1′ , π2 , m π 2 p2 4p1 + π π2 π2 p2 π − πΆπ − CV) = + 4π1′ π2 Let V(π1 , π2 , m) = V(π1′ , π2 , m − CV) we have π2 π22 1 1 CV = ( ′− ) 4 π1 p1 (iv) In this case the income effect on good 1 is 0 and the sign of the income effect on good 2 is positive. We can get this conclusion from Marshallian demand function. 2 PROBLEM 2 (25 Points) Suppose that the consumer’s utility function is U ο½ x1a x21ο a , 0 οΌ a οΌ 1. The consumer’s income is οi ο½1,2 piο·i where ο· ο½ ο¨ο·1, ο·2 ο© is the endowment vector. There is no cash income. What are the Marshallian demand functions for π₯1 and π₯2 ? You should not do (i) any calculations. Just explain in words how you know the answer. (5 points) (ii) Derive the Hicksian demand function for good 1. (10 points) (iii) Write two Slutsky equations: 1) That of the demand for good 1 with respect to the price of good 1, and 2) that of the demand for good 1 with respect to the price of good 2. In each Slutsky equation correctly identify and sign the income and substitution effects. (10 points). Answer: (i) Since the utility function is in C-D form. So the Marshallian Demand should be a fraction of each good. π₯1 = π₯2 = (ii) π(π1 π1 +π2 π2 ) π1 (1−π)(π1 π1 +π2 π2 ) π2 Let m=π1 π1 + π2 π2 Then the indirect utility function is V(p,m)=( π(π) π (1−π)π 1−π ) ( ) π1 π2 So the Expenditure function should be π1 π2 1−π πΈ(π1 , π2 , π’) = ( )π ( ) π’ π 1−π β1 (π1 , π2 , π’) = ππΈ(π1 , π2 , π’) π1 π2 1−π = ( )π−1 ( ) π’ π π1 π 1−π (iii) ππ₯1 (π, π) πβ1 (π, π’) ππ₯1 (π, π) = − (π₯1 − π1 ) ππ1 ππ1 ππ πβ1 (π,π’) ππ1 < 0 is the Substitution Effect 3 ππ₯1 (π,π) − ππ (π₯1 − π1 ) is the Income Effect and good 1 is normal. So if the consumer is a net buyer of good 1 then IE<0. If he is a net seller of good 1, IE>0. ππ₯1 (π, π) πβ1 (π, π’) ππ₯1 (π, π) = − (π₯2 − π2 ) ππ2 ππ2 ππ πβ1 (π,π’) ππ2 − > 0 is the Substitution Effect ππ₯1 (π,π) ππ (π₯2 − π2 ) is the Income Effect and good 2 is also normal. If the consumer is a net buyer of good 2 then IE<0. If he is a net seller of good 2, IE>0. PROBLEM 3 (35 points) In a competitive market, there are 100 identical consumers. Each consumer has the utility π(π₯, π¦) = π₯ − π₯2 2 + π¦, where x and y are the quantities of the two goods. The price of x is p and the price of y is 1. The income of each consumer is m. (i) Write down the aggregate Marshallian demand function for x. (10 points) (ii) There are n producers of the x good with the same technology. Each producer has a fixed cost of 1 and a marginal cost of q/8. Derive the total and average cost functions. What kind of returns to scale does the technology possess? Explain. (10 points) (iii) Assuming the market is in long run equilibrium, calculate how many producers n will exist in the market (ignoring the integer nature of n ). What is the market price level p and the total quantity of good x ? (15 points) 4 Answer: (i) Each consumer wants to max π₯ − St π₯2 2 +π¦ px+y=m We construct Lagrangian πΏ=π₯− π₯2 2 + π¦ − π(ππ₯ + π¦ − π) FOC: 1 − π₯ − ππ = 0 π=1 ππ₯ + π¦ − π = 0 We can get x = 1-p. Since there are 100 consumers in the market, so D(p)=100-100p (ii) π2 π ππΆ(π) = 1 + ∫0 πππ/8 = 1 + 16 AC(q)= (1 + Since π΄πΆ(π) π2 16 = ππΆ(π) )/π MC(q)=q/8 π 2⁄ 2 π2 8+ (*) when 0<q<4 (*)>1 IRTS when q>4 (*)<1 DRTS (iii) Suppose there are N producers and price level is p. Because market is competitive, then p=MC(q)=q/8. So the total supply is 8Np. When price level is p, demand=100-100p.We solve 100-100p=8Np 100 We get π = 100+8π At the equilibrium the producer should gain nonnegative profit: π = ππ − π(π) = 8π2 − 4π2 − 1 ≥ 0 1 Then π ≥ 2 100 1 Then we solve π = 100+8π ≥ 2 to get π ≤ 12.5. There are at most 12 producers in the market. At this time p=1/2 and q=100-100p=50 5 6