AUDITING THEORY
ASSURANCE SERVICES
1. Which of the following statements best describes assurance services?
A. Independent professional services that are intended to enhance the credibility of
information to meet the needs of an intended user.
B. Services designed to express an opinion on the fairness of historical financial
statements based on the results of an audit.
C. The preparation of financial statements or the collection, classification, and
summarization of other financial information.
D. Services designed for the improvement of operations, resulting in better outcomes.
2. Which of the following is not an assurance service?
A. Examination of prospective financial information
B. Audit of historical financial statements
C. Review of financial statements
D. Compilation of financial information
3. Suitable criteria are required for reasonably consistent evaluation or measurement of
the subject matter of an assurance engagement. Which of the following statements
concerning the characteristics of suitable criteria is correct?
A. Reliable criteria contribute to conclusions that are clear, comprehensive, and not
subject to significantly different interpretations.
B. Relevant criteria allow reasonably consistent evaluation or measurement of the
subject matter including, where relevant, presentation and disclosure, when used in
similar circumstances by similarly qualified practitioners.
C. Neutral criteria contribute to conclusions that are free from bias.
D. Criteria are sufficiently complete when they contribute to conclusions that are clear,
comprehensive, and not subject to different interpretations.
4. In an assurance engagement, the outcome of the evaluation or measurement of a subject
matter against criteria is called
A. Subject matter information
B. Subject matter
C. Assurance
D. Conclusion
5. In some assurance engagements, the evaluation or measurement of the subject matter is
performed by the responsible party, and the subject matter information is in the form of
an assertion by the responsible party that is made available to intended users. These
engagements are called
A. Direct reporting engagements
B. Assertion-based engagements
C. Non-assurance engagements
D. Recurring engagements
6. What type of assurance engagement is involved when the practitioner expresses a positive
form of conclusion?
A. Limited assurance engagement
B. Positive assurance engagement
C. Reasonable assurance engagement
D. Absolute assurance engagement
7. What type of assurance engagement is involved when the practitioner expresses a
negative form of conclusion?
A. Reasonable assurance engagement
B. Negative assurance engagement
C. Assertion-based assurance engagement
D. Limited assurance engagement
8. Which of the following statements is true concerning evidence in an assurance
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engagement?
A. Sufficiency is the measure of the quantity of evidence.
B. Appropriateness is the measure of the quality of evidence, that is, its reliability and
persuasiveness.
C. The reliability of evidence is influenced not by its nature but by its source.
D. Obtaining more evidence may compensate for its poor quality.
9. Assurance engagement risk is the risk
A. That the practitioner expresses an inappropriate conclusion when the subject matter
information is materially misstated.
B. Of expressing an inappropriate conclusion when the subject matter information is not
materially misstated.
C. Through loss from litigation, adverse publicity, or other events arising in connection
with a subject matter reported on.
D. Of expressing an inappropriate conclusion when the subject matter information is
either materially misstated or not materially misstated.
10. Reducing assurance engagement risk to zero is very rarely attainable or cost beneficial as
a result of the following factors, except
A. The use of selective testing.
B. The fact that much of the evidence available to the practitioner is persuasive rather
than conclusive.
C. The practitioner may not have the required assurance knowledge and skills to gather
and evaluate evidence.
D. The use of judgment in gathering and evaluating evidence and forming conclusions
based on that evidence.
11. The Philippine Framework for Assurance Engagements
A. Contains basic principles, essential procedures, and related guidance for the
performance of assurance engagements.
B. Defines and describes the elements and objectives of an assurance engagement, and
identifies engagements to which PSAs, PSREs, and PSAEs apply.
C. Provides a frame of reference for CPAs in public practice when performing audits,
reviews, and compilations of historical financial information.
D. Establishes standards and provides procedural requirements for the performance of
assurance engagements.
12. After accepting an assurance engagement, a practitioner is not allowed to change the
engagement to a non-assurance engagement, or from a reasonable assurance
engagement to a limited assurance engagement, except when there is reasonable
justification for the change. Which of the following ordinarily will justify a request for a
change in the engagement?
I. A change in circumstances that affects the intended users’ requirements.
II. A misunderstanding concerning the nature of the engagement.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
AUDITING AND RELATED SERVICES
13. PSRE 2400 (Engagements to Review Financial Statements), as amended by the AASC in
February 2008, applies to
A. Reviews of any historical financial information of an audit client.
B. Reviews of any historical financial information by a practitioner other than the
entity’s auditor.
C. Reviews of historical financial or other information by a practitioner other than the
entity’s auditor.
D. Reviews of historical financial or other information of an audit client.
14. When performing a compilation engagement, the accountant is required to
A. Assess internal controls.
B. Make inquiries of management to assess the reliability and completeness of the
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information provided.
C. Verify matters and explanations.
D. Obtain a general knowledge of the business and operations of the entity.
15. Inquiries and analytical procedures ordinarily form the basis for which type of
engagement?
A. Agreed-upon procedures.
B. Audit.
C. Examination.
D. Review.
16. Independence is not a requirement for which of the following engagements?
Compilation
Review
Agreed-upon Procedures
A.
No
Yes
No
B.
No
No
No
C.
Yes
No
Yes
D.
Yes
Yes
Yes
17. A practitioner should accept an assurance engagement only if
A. The subject matter is in the form of financial information.
B. The criteria to be used are not available to the intended users.
C. The practitioner’s conclusion is to be contained in a written report.
D. The subject matter is the responsibility of either the intended users or the
practitioner.
18. A practitioner is associated with financial information when
I. The practitioner attaches a report to that financial information.
II. The practitioner consents to the use of his/her name in a professional connection.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II only
Either I or II
Neither I nor II
19. The auditor is required to comply with all PSAs relevant to the audit of an entity’s
financial statements. A PSA is relevant to the audit when
I. The PSA is in effect.
II. The circumstances addressed by the PSA exist.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Both I and II
20. The overall objectives of the auditor in conducting an audit of financial statements are
I. To obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole
are free from material misstatement, whether caused by fraud or error.
II. To report on the financial statements.
III. To obtain conclusive rather than persuasive evidence.
IV. To detect all misstatements, whether due to fraud or error.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I and II only
II and IV only
I, II, and III only
I, II, III, and IV
21. The auditor is required to maintain professional skepticism throughout the audit. Which
of the following statements concerning professional skepticism is false?
A. A belief that management and those charged with governance are honest and have
integrity relieves the auditor of the need to maintain professional skepticism.
B. Maintaining professional skepticism throughout the audit reduces the risk of using
inappropriate assumptions in determining the nature, timing, and extent of the audit
procedures and evaluating the results thereof.
C. Professional skepticism is necessary to the critical assessment of audit evidence.
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D. Professional skepticism is an attitude that includes questioning contradictory audit
evidence obtained.
22. Which of the following best describes the reason why independent auditors report on
financial statements?
A. A management fraud may exist and it is more likely to be detected by independent
auditors.
B. Different interests may exist between the company preparing the statements and the
persons using the statements.
C. A misstatement of account balances may exist and is generally corrected as the result
of the independent auditors’ work.
D. Poorly designed internal control may be in existence.
23. Which of the following professionals has primary responsibility for the performance of an
audit?
A. The managing partner of the firm.
B. The senior assigned to the engagement.
C. The manager assigned to the engagement.
D. The partner in charge of the engagement.
24. What is the proper organizational role of internal auditing?
A. To serve as an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity that adds
value to operations.
B. To assist the external auditor in order to reduce external audit fees.
C. To perform studies to assist in the attainment of more efficient operations.
D. To serve as the investigative arm of the audit committee of the board of directors.
25. Operational audits generally have been conducted by internal and COA auditors, but may be
performed by certified public accountants. A primary purpose of an operational audit is to
provide
A. A measure of management performance in meeting organizational goals.
B. The results of internal examinations of financial and accounting matters to a
company’s top-level management.
C. Aid to the independent auditor, who is conducting the examination of the financial
statements.
D. A means of assurance that internal accounting controls are functioning as planned.
26. Governmental auditing often extends beyond examinations leading to the expression of
opinion on the fairness of financial presentation and includes audits of efficiency,
economy, effectiveness, and also
A. Accuracy.
B. Evaluation.
C. Compliance.
D. Internal control.
27. Which of the following terms best describes the audit of a taxpayer’s return by a BIR
auditor?
A. Operational audit.
B. Internal audit.
C. Compliance audit.
D. Government audit.
28. Which of the following statements concerning consulting services is false?
A. The performance of consulting services for audit clients does not, in and of itself,
impair the auditor’s independence.
B. Consulting services differ fundamentally from the CPA’s function of attesting to the
assertions of other parties.
C. Consulting services ordinarily involve external reporting.
D. Most CPAs, including those who provide audit and tax services, also provide consulting
services to their clients.
29. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to be taken by a CPA who has been
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asked to perform a consulting services engagement concerning the analysis of a potential
merger if he/she has little experience with the industry involved?
A. Accept the engagement but he/she should conduct research or consult with others to
obtain sufficient competence.
B. Decline the engagement because he/she lacks sufficient knowledge.
C. Accept the engagement and issue a report that contains his/her opinion on the
achievability of the results of the merger.
D. Accept the engagement and perform it in accordance with Philippine Standards on
Auditing (PSAs).
30. An objective of a performance audit is to determine whether an entity’s
A. Operational information is in accordance with government auditing standards.
B. Specific operating units are functioning economically and efficiently.
C. Financial statements present fairly the results of operations.
D. Internal control is adequately operating as designed.
31. Internal auditors should review the means of physically safeguarding assets from losses
arising from
A. Exposure to the elements.
B. Underusage of physical facilities.
C. Misapplication of accounting principles.
D. Procedures that are not cost justified.
32. The internal auditing department’s responsibility for deterring fraud is to
A. Establish an effective internal control system.
B. Maintain internal control.
C. Examine and evaluate the system of internal control.
D. Exercise operating authority over fraud prevention activities.
33.
Internal auditors review the adequacy of the company’s internal control system primarily
to
A. Help determine the nature, timing, and extent of tests necessary to achieve audit
objectives.
B. Determine whether the internal control system provides reasonable assurance that
the company’s objectives and goals are met efficiently and economically.
C. Ensure that material weaknesses in the system of internal control are corrected.
D. Determine whether the internal control system ensures that financial statements are
fairly presented.
34.
Which of the following services, if any, may a practitioner who is not independent provide?
A. Compilations but not reviews.
B. Reviews but not compilations.
C. Reviews but not financial statement audits.
D. Agreed-upon procedures but not compilations.
THE ACCOUNTANCY PROFESSION
35. The members of the Professional Regulatory Board of Accountancy shall be appointed by
the
A. Philippine Institute of CPAs (PICPA).
B. Professional Regulation Commission (PRC).
C. President of the Philippines.
D. Association of CPAs in Public Practice (ACPAPP).
36. The following statements relate to the submission of nominations to the Board of
Accountancy. Which is correct?
A. The Accredited National Professional Organization of CPAs (APO) shall submit its
nominations to the president of the Philippines not later than sixty (60) days prior to
the expiry of the term of an incumbent chairman or member.
B. The APO shall submit its nominations to the PRC not later than thirty (30) days prior to
the expiry of the term of an incumbent chairman or member.
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C. If the APO fails to submit its own nominee(s) to the PRC within the required period,
the PRC in consultation with the Board of Accountancy shall submit to the president of
the Philippines a list of five (5) nominees for each position.
D. There should be adequate documentation to show the qualifications and primary field
of professional activity of each nominee.
37. The following statements relate to the term of office of the chairman and members of the
Board of Accountancy (BOA). Which is false?
A. The chairman and members of the BOA shall hold office for a term of three (3) years.
B. Any vacancy occurring within the term of a member shall be filled up for the unexpired
portion of the term only.
C. No person who has served two successive complete terms as chairman or member shall
be eligible for reappointment until the lapse of two (2) years.
D. Appointment to fill up an unexpired term is not to be considered as a complete term.
38. The Board of Accountancy has the power to conduct an oversight into the quality of audits
of financial statements through a review of the quality control measures instituted by
auditors in order to ensure compliance with the accounting and auditing standards and
practices. This power of the BOA is called
A. Quality assurance review
C. Appraisal
B. Peer review
D. Quality control
39. The Board of Accountancy shall submit to the PRC the ratings obtained by each candidate
within _____ days after the examination, unless extended for just cause.
A. 10
C. 2
B. 5
D. 3
40. Which of the following shall be issued to examinees who pass the CPA licensure
examination?
A. Certificate of registration and death certificate.
B. Professional identification card and warrant of arrest.
C. Certificate of registration and professional identification card.
D. Warrant of arrest and death certificate.
41. Which of the following statements concerning the issuance of Certificates of
Registration and Professional Identification Cards to successful examinees is correct?
A. The Certificate of Registration issued to successful examinees is renewable every
three (3) years.
B. The Professional Identification Card issued to successful examinees shall remain in
full force and effect until withdrawn, suspended or revoked in accordance with RA
9298.
C. The BOA shall not register and issue a Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card to any successful examinee of unsound mind.
D. The BOA may, after the expiration of three (3) years from the date of revocation of a
Certificate of Registration, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of
Registration.
42. Which of the following statements concerning ownership of working papers is incorrect?
A. All working papers made by a CPA and his/her staff in the course of an examination
remain the property of such CPA in the absence of a written agreement between the
CPA and the client to the contrary.
B. Working papers include schedules and memoranda prepared and submitted by the client
of the CPA.
C. Working papers include reports submitted by a CPA to his/her client.
D. Working papers shall be treated confidential and privileged unless such documents are
required to be produced through subpoena issued by any court, tribunal, or
government regulatory or administrative body.
43. Any person who shall violate any of the provisions of the Accountancy Act or any of its
implementing rules and regulations promulgated by the Board of Accountancy subject to
the approval of the PRC, shall, upon conviction, be punished by
A. A fine of not more than P50,000.
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B. Imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years.
C. A fine of not less than P50,000 or by imprisonment for a period not exceeding two
years or both.
D. Lethal injection.
44. Which of the following statements concerning the use of firm or partnership name is
incorrect?
A. In the case of an individual CPA, he/she shall do business under his/her registered
name with the BOA and the PRC and as printed in his/her CPA certificate (for example,
Juan Puruntong, CPA).
B. In the case of a firm, it shall do business under its duly registered and authorized firm
name appearing in the registration documents issued by the Department of Trade and
Industry (DTI) and other government offices and such firm name shall include the real
name of the sole proprietor as printed in his/her CPA certificate (for example, Arnulfo
Gumamela and Associates).
C. In the case of a registered partnership, it shall do business under its name as
indicated in its current Articles of Partnership and Certificate of Registration issued
by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) (for example, Tanya, Sam, and Jervi,
CPAs).
D. A CPA shall practice only under an individual, firm, or partnership name in accordance
with Philippine laws and shall not include any fictitious name but may indicate
specialization.
45. A partner surviving the death or withdrawal of all the other partners in a partnership may
continue to practice under the partnership name for a period of not more than _____
years after becoming a sole proprietor.
A. 1
C. 3
B. 2
D. 4
46. The death or disability of an individual CPA and/or the dissolution and liquidation of a firm
or partnership of CPAs shall be reported to the BOA not later than _____ days from the
date of such death, dissolution or liquidation.
A. 15
C. 60
B. 30
D. 90
47. The following statements relate to CPE credit units. Which is incorrect?
A. The total CPE credit units for registered accounting professionals shall be sixty (60)
credit units for three (3) years, provided that a minimum of fifteen (15) credit units
shall be earned in each year.
B. Any excess credit units in one year may be carried over to the succeeding years within
the three-year period.
C. Excess credit units earned may be carried over to the next three-year period including
credit units earned for doctoral and master’s degrees.
D. One credit hour of CPE program, activity or source shall be equivalent to one (1) credit
unit.
48. Which of the following statements concerning a CPA’s disclosure of confidential client
information is ordinarily correct?
A. Disclosure may be made to any party on consent of the client.
B. Disclosure should not be made even if such disclosure will protect the CPA’s
professional interests in legal proceedings.
C. Disclosure should be made only if there is a legal or professional duty to make the
disclosure.
D. Disclosure may be made to any government agency without subpoena.
49. Listed below are names of four CPA firms and pertinent facts relative to each firm.
Unless otherwise indicated, the individuals named are CPAs and partners, and there are no
other partners. Which is a violation of the Implementing Rules and Regulations of RA
9298?
A. Tin, Ton and Tan, CPAs (Tin died about five years ago; Ton and Tan are continuing the
firm.)
B. Pol and Bon, CPAs (The name of Cua, a third partner, is omitted from the partnership
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name.)
C. Joni and Jona, CPAs (Joni died about three years ago; Jona is continuing the firm as a
sole proprietor.)
D. Elias and Co., CPAs (The firm has ten other partners who are all CPAs).
50. The following statements relate to some of the provisions of RA 9298. Which is correct?
A. Audit working papers are generally the property of the company whose financial
statements were audited.
B. After three (3) years, subject to certain conditions, the Board of Accountancy may
order the reinstatement of a CPA whose certificate of registration has been revoked.
C. The penal provision (Sec. 36) of RA 9298 applies only to the violation of any of the
provisions of RA 9298 because its Implementing Rules and Regulations are
unenforceable.
D. It shall be the primary duty of the PRC and the BOA to effectively enforce the
provisions of RA 9298.
THE CPA’S PROFESSIONAL RESPONSIBILITIES
51. Which of the following statements best explains why the CPA profession has found it
essential to establish ethical standards and means for ensuring their observance?
A. Vigorous enforcement of an established code of ethics is the best way to prevent
unscrupulous acts.
B. Ethical standards that emphasize excellence in performance over material rewards
establish a reputation for competence and character.
C. A distinguishing mark of a profession is its acceptance of responsibility to the public.
D. A requirement for a profession is to establish ethical standards that stress primarily a
responsibility to clients and colleagues.
52. Which part of the Code establishes the fundamental principles of professional ethics for
professional accountants and provides a conceptual framework that professional
accountants shall apply to identify threats to compliance with the fundamental principles,
evaluate the significance of the threats identified, and apply safeguards, when necessary,
to eliminate the threats or reduce them to an acceptable level?
A. Part A.
B. Part B.
C. Part C.
D. Part D.
53. The threat that a professional accountant will be deterred from acting objectively
because of actual or perceived pressures from the client is known as
A. Intimidation threat
B. Familiarity threat.
C. Self-interest threat.
D. Advocacy threat.
54. Which of the following will not create self-interest threat for a professional accountant
in public practice?
A. The possibility of losing a significant client.
B. Direct financial interest in the assurance client.
C. Undue dependence on total fees from a client.
D. Preparing the original data used to generate records that are the subject matter of
the assurance engagement.
55. Familiarity threat could be created under the following circumstances except
A. A professional accountant accepting gifts from a client whose value is inconsequential
or trivial.
B. Senior personnel having a long association with the assurance client.
C. A director or officer of the client or an employee in a position to exert significant
influence over the subject matter of the engagement having recently served as the
engagement partner.
D. A member of the engagement team having a close or immediate family member who is a
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director or officer of the client.
56. This threat to independence occurs when a member of the assurance team has recently
performed services for an assurance client that directly affect the subject matter
information of the assurance engagement (e.g., valuation services).
A. Self-review threat.
B. Advocacy threat.
C. Self-interest threat.
D. Familiarity threat.
57. Which of the following circumstances may create advocacy threat for a professional
accountant in public practice?
A. The firm promoting shares in an audit client.
B. A firm issuing an assurance report on the effectiveness of the operation of financial
systems after designing or implementing the systems.
C. A firm being threatened with dismissal from a client engagement.
D. A firm being concerned about the possibility of losing a significant client.
58. The following circumstances may create intimidation threats, except
A. Being threatened with dismissal or replacement in related to a client engagement.
B. Being pressured to reduce inappropriately the extent of work performed in order to
reduce fees.
C. Being threatened with litigation.
D. A member of the assurance team being, or having recently been, a director or officer
of the client.
59. Which of the following is an example of engagement-specific safeguards in the work
environment?
A. Advising partners and professional staff of those assurance clients and related
entities from which they must be independent.
B. Disclosing to those charged with governance of the client the nature of service
provided and extent of fees charged.
C. A disciplinary mechanism to promote compliance with the firm’s policies and procedures.
D. Published policies and procedures to encourage and empower staff to communicate to
senior levels within the firm any issue relating to compliance with the fundamental
principles that concerns them.
60. According to Section 240 of the Code of Ethics, fees charged for assurance engagements
should be a fair reflection of the value of the work involved. In determining professional
fees, the following should be taken into account, except
A. The time necessarily occupied by each person engaged on the work.
B. The outcome or result of a transaction or the result of the work performed.
C. The skill and knowledge required for the type of work involved.
D. The level of training and experience of the persons necessarily engaged on the work.
61. In the case of audit engagements, it is in the public interest and, therefore, required by
the Code that members of audit teams, firms and network firms shall be independent of
audit clients. Independence requires
A. Independence of mind only.
B. Independence in appearance only.
C. Both independence of mind and independence in appearance
D. Either independence of mind or independence in appearance
62. When the professional accountant determines that appropriate safeguards are not
available or cannot be applied to eliminate the threats to independence or reduce them to
an acceptable level, the professional accountant shall
I. Eliminate the circumstance or relationship creating the threats.
II. Decline or terminate the audit engagement.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Neither I nor II
D. Either I or II
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63. Financial interests may be held through an intermediary (for example, a collective
investment vehicle, estate or trust). When control over the investment vehicle or the
ability to influence investment decisions exists, the code defines that financial interest
to be a/an
A. Direct financial interest.
B. Material direct financial interest.
C. Indirect financial interest.
D. Material indirect financial interest.
64. Holding a financial interest in an audit client may create a self-interest threat. The
existence and significance of any threat created depends on
I. The role of the person holding the financial interest.
II. Whether the financial interest is direct or indirect.
III.
The materiality of the financial interest.
A. I and II only.
B. I and III only.
C. II and III only.
D. I, II, and III.
65. The concept of materiality is least important to an auditor when considering the
A. Effects of a direct financial interest in the client upon the auditor’s independence.
B. Decision whether to use positive or negative confirmations of accounts receivable.
C. Adequacy of disclosure of a client’s illegal act.
D. Discovery of weaknesses in a client’s internal control.
66. A direct financial interest or a material indirect financial interest in the audit client of a
member of the audit team or his immediate family member may create a significant selfinterest threat. Which of the following safeguards would be least likely considered to
eliminate the threat or reduce it to an acceptable level?
A. Discuss the matter with those charged with governance of the audit client.
B. Dispose of the direct financial interest prior to the individual becoming a member of
the audit team.
C. Dispose of the indirect financial interest in total or dispose of a sufficient amount of
it so that the remaining interest is no longer material prior to the individual becoming
a member of the audit team.
D. Remove the member of the audit team from the audit engagement.
67. Jayson, CPA, was offered the engagement to audit W Corporation for the year ended
December 31, 2016. He had served as a director of W Corporation until December 31, 2014,
and his spouse currently owns 6,000 of the 100,000 outstanding share capital of W
Corporation. Jayson disassociated from W Corporation prior to being offered the
engagement. Moreover, the engagement does not cover any period that includes Jayson’s
association or employment with W Corporation. Under the code of ethics, Jayson should
A. Accept the engagement.
B. Let a partner from the same office accept and conduct the engagement.
C. Refuse the engagement because he had served as a director.
D. Refuse the engagement because of his spouse’s stock ownership.
68. A loan, or guarantee of a loan, to the firm from an audit client that is a bank or a similar
institution, would not create a threat to independence provided
I. The loan, or guarantee, is made under normal lending procedures, terms and
requirements.
II. The loan is immaterial to both the firm receiving the loan and the audit client.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I only
II only
Neither I nor II
Both I and II
69. A close business relationship between a firm or a member of the audit team, or a member
of that individual’s immediate family, and the audit client or its management may create
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-interest and intimidation threats
Self-review and familiarity threats
Advocacy and self-review threats
Self-interest and self-review threats
70. When an immediate family member of a member of the assurance team is a director, an
officer, or an employee of the assurance client in a position to exert direct and
significant influence over the subject matter information of the assurance engagement,
or was in such a position during the period covered by the engagement, the threats to
independence can only be reduced to an acceptable level by
A. Where possible, structuring the responsibilities of the assurance team so that the
professional does not deal with matters that are within the responsibility of the
immediate family member.
B. Withdrawing from the assurance engagement.
C. Removing the individual from the assurance team.
D. Discussing the issue with those charged with governance, such as the audit committee.
71. Which of the following threats to independence is created when a member of the
assurance team participates in the assurance engagement while knowing, or having
reason to believe, that he is to, or may, join the assurance client sometime in the future?
A. Intimidation threat
B. Self-interest threat
C. Self-review threat
D. Familiarity threat
72. Which of the following would not generally create a threat to independence?
A. The purchase of goods and services from an assurance client by the firm (or from a
financial statement audit client by a network firm) or a member of the assurance
team provided that the transaction is in the normal course of business and on an arm’s
length basis.
B. A partner or employee of the firm or a network firm serves as Company Secretary for
a financial statement audit client.
C. Determining which recommendations of the firm should be implemented.
D. Reporting, in a management role, to those charged with governance.
73. The following forms of assistance to a financial statement audit client do not generally
threaten the firm’s independence, except
A. Analyzing and accumulating information for regulatory reporting.
B. Assisting in resolving account reconciliation problems.
C. Authorizing or approving transactions.
D. Assisting in the preparation of consolidated financial statements.
74. As defined in the Code, “a valuation comprises the making of assumptions with regard to
future developments, the application of certain methodologies and techniques, and the
combination of both in order to compute a certain value, or range of values, for an asset,
a liability or for a business as a whole.” Which of the following threats may be created
when a firm or a network firm performs valuation for an audit client that is to be
incorporated in the client’s financial statements?
A. Advocacy threat
B. Familiarity threat
C. Self-review threat
D. Intimidation threat
75. The following statements relate to the provision of taxation, internal audit or IT Systems
services to audit clients. Which is false?
A. Preparing calculations of current and deferred tax liabilities (or assets) for an audit
client for the purpose of preparing accounting entries that will be subsequently
audited by the firm creates a self-interest threat.
B. A self-review threat may be created when a firm, or network firm, provides internal
audit services to an audit client.
C. The provision of services by a firm or network firm to an audit client that involve the
design and implementation of financial information technology systems that are used
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to generate information forming part of a client’s financial statements may create a
self-review threat.
D. The provision of services in connection with the assessment, design, and
implementation of internal accounting controls and risk management controls does
not create a threat to independence provided that firm or network firm personnel do
not perform management functions.
76. What threat to independence is created when the litigation support services provided to
an audit client include the estimation of the possible outcome and thereby affects the
amounts or disclosures to be reflected in the financial statements?
A. Self-review threat
B. Advocacy threat
C. Intimidation threat
D. Familiarity threat
77. The recruitment of senior management for an assurance client, such as those in a
position to affect the subject matter of the assurance engagement, may create the
following current or future threats to independence, except
A. Self-interest threat
B. Familiarity threat
C. Intimidation threat
D. Self-review threat
78. When the total fees generated by an assurance client represent a large proportion of a
firm’s total fees, the dependence on that client or client group and concern about the
possibility of losing the client may create a/an
A. Self-interest threat
B. Self-review threat.
C. Intimidation threat
D. Advocacy threat
79. What threat to independence may be created if fees due from an assurance client for
professional services remain unpaid for a long time, especially if a significant part is not
paid before the issue of the assurance report for the following year?
A. Advocacy threat
B. Self-interest threat
C. Intimidation threat
D. Self-review threat
80. These are fees calculated on a predetermined basis relating to the outcome or result of a
transaction or the result of the work performed.
A. Contingent fees
B. Fixed fees
C. Predetermined fees
D. Commissions.
81. Which of the following threats to independence may be created when litigation takes place,
or appears likely, between the firm or a member of the assurance team the assurance
client?
A. Self-interest or advocacy threat
B. Advocacy or intimidation threat
C. Self-interest or intimidation threat
D. Familiarity or self-review threat
82. As defined in the Code of Ethics, __________ is the communication to the public of
information as to the services or skills provided by professional accountants in public
practice with a view to procuring professional business.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Solicitation
D. Marketing professional services
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AUDITING THEORY
83. As defined in the Code of Ethics, __________ is the communication to the public of facts
about a professional accountant which are not designed for the deliberate promotion of
that professional accountant.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Solicitation
D. Marketing professional services
84. Which of the following statements concerning publicity is incorrect?
A. Booklets and other documents bearing the name of a professional accountant and
giving technical information for the assistance of staff or clients may be issued to
such persons, other professional accountants or other interested parties.
B. Professional accountants who author books or articles on professional subjects may
state their name and professional qualifications; give the name of their organization;
and give any information as to the services that the firm provides.
C. Appropriate newspapers or magazines may be used to inform the public of the
establishment of a new practice, of changes in the composition of a partnership of
professional accountants in public practice, or of any alteration in the address of a
practice.
D. A professional accountant may develop and maintain a website in the Internet in such
suitable length and style which may also include announcements, press releases,
publications and such other necessary and factual information.
85. The holding of media-covered events undertaken only to commemorate a professional
accountant’s anniversaries in public practice does not violate the rules on advertising and
solicitation provided that such undertaking should be done only every _____ years of
celebration.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
86. A professional accountant in public practice is allowed to
A. Refer to, use or cite actual or purported testimonials by third parties.
B. Publish services in billboard (e.g., tarpaulin, streamers, etc.) advertisements.
C. Publish and compare fees with other CPAs or CPA firms or compare those services with
those provided by another firm or CPA practitioner.
D. Inform interested parties through any medium that a partnership or salaried
employment of an accountancy nature is being sought.
87. After evaluating the significance of the threat created by an actual or threatened
litigation, the following safeguards should be applied to reduce the threat to an
acceptable level, except
A. Disclosing to the audit committee, or others charged with governance, the extent and
nature of the litigation.
B. If the litigation involves a member of the assurance team, removing that individual
from the assurance team.
C. Involving an additional professional accountant in the firm who was not a member of
the assurance team to review the work or otherwise advise as necessary.
D. Withdraw from, or refuse to accept, the assurance engagement.
88. When a firm obtains an assurance engagement at a significantly lower fee level than that
charged by the predecessor firm, or quoted by other firms, the self-interest threat
created will not be reduced to an acceptable level unless
I. The firm is able to demonstrate that appropriate time and qualified staff are assigned
to the task.
II. All applicable assurance standards, guidelines, and quality control procedures are
being complied with.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
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D. Neither I nor II
89. What threat to independence may be created when the fees generated by the assurance
client represent a large proportion of the revenue of an individual of the firm?
A. Self-review threat
B. Familiarity threat
C. Self-interest threat
D. Advocacy threat
90. The following statements relate to the provision of legal services to an audit client.
Which is incorrect?
A. The provision of legal services to an audit client involving matters that would not be
expected to have a material effect on the financial statements may create a selfreview threat.
B. Legal services to support an audit client in the execution of a transaction (e.g.,
contract support) may create a self-review threat.
C. Acting for an audit client in the resolution of a dispute or litigation in such
circumstances when the amounts involved are material in relation to the financial
statements of the audit client would create advocacy and self-review threats so
significant no safeguards could reduce the threats to an acceptable level.
D. The appointment of a partner or an employee of the firm or network firm as General
Counsel for legal affairs to an audit client would create self-review and advocacy
threats that are so significant no safeguards could reduce the threats to an
acceptable level.
91. When a close family member of a member of the assurance team is a director, an officer,
or an employee of the assurance client in a position to exert direct and significant
influence over the subject matter information of the assurance engagement, threats to
independence may be created. If the threats are other than clearly insignificant, which
of the following safeguards can be applied to reduce the threats to an acceptable level?
I. Removing the individual from the assurance team.
II. Where possible, structuring the responsibility of the assurance team so that the
professional does not deal with matters that are within the responsibility of the close
family member.
III. Policies and procedures to empower staff to communicate to senior levels within the
firm any issue of independence and objectivity that concerns them.
A.
B.
C.
D.
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
I, II, and III
92. Which of the following threats to independence may be created by family and personal
relationships between a member of the assurance team and a director, an officer, or an
employee of the assurance client in a position to exert direct and significant influence
over the subject matter information of the assurance engagement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-interest, familiarity or intimidation threats
Self-review, familiarity, or advocacy threats
Advocacy, familiarity or self-review threats
Self-interest, advocacy or self-review threats
93. The following circumstances create advocacy threats for a professional accountant in
public practice except
A. Promoting shares in an audit client.
B. Acting as an advocate on behalf of an audit client in litigation or disputes with third
parties.
C. Acting as campaign manager for the president of a client who is running for a public
office.
D. A member of the assurance team having a significant close business relationship with
an assurance client.
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94. Which of the following are elements of a CPA firm’s quality control that should be
considered in establishing its quality control policies and procedures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ethical
Requirements
No
Yes
Yes
No
Human
Resources
Yes
No
Yes
No
Engagement
Performance
No
No
Yes
Yes
95. The primary purpose of establishing quality control policies and procedures for deciding
whether to accept a new client is to
A. Anticipate before performing any fieldwork whether an unqualified opinion can be
expressed.
B. Enable the CPA firm to attest to the reliability of the client.
C. Satisfy the CPA firm’s duty to the public concerning the acceptance of new clients.
D. Minimize the likelihood of association with clients whose management lacks integrity.
96. As defined in PSQC 1, __________ is a process comprising an ongoing consideration and
evaluation of the firm’s system of quality control, including a periodic inspection of a
selection of completed engagements, designed to provide the firm with reasonable
assurance that its system of quality control is operating effectively.
A. Monitoring
B. Inspection
C. Engagement quality control review
D. Supervision
97. Which element of a system of quality control is addressed by the establishment of policies
and procedures designed to provide the firm with reasonable assurance that it has
sufficient personnel with the competence, capabilities, and commitment to ethical
principles?
A. Monitoring
B. Leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm
C. Human resources
D. Engagement performance
98. The nature, timing, and extent of an audit firm’s quality control policies and procedures
depend on
The Nature
Appropriate
The CPA
of the CPA
Cost-Benefit
Firm’s Size
Firm’s Practice
Considerations
A.
Yes
Yes
No
B.
Yes
Yes
Yes
C.
No
No
No
D.
Yes
No
Yes
99. For audits of financial statements of listed entities, the engagement partner should not
issue the auditor’s report until the completion of the
A. Engagement Quality Control Review
B. Management Review
C. Engagement Team Review
D. Engagement Partner Review
100. Who should take responsibility for the overall quality on each audit engagement?
A. Engagement quality control reviewer
B. Engagement partner
C. Engagement team
D. CPA firm
101. The engagement partner should take responsibility for the direction, supervision, and
performance of the audit engagement in compliance with professional standards and
regulatory and legal requirements, and for the auditor’s report that is issued to be
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appropriate in the circumstances. Supervision includes the following, except
A. Tracking the progress of the audit engagement.
B. Addressing significant issues arising during the audit engagement, considering their
significance, and modifying the planned approach appropriately.
C. Informing the members of the engagement team of their responsibilities.
D. Identifying matters for consultation or consideration by more experienced
engagement team members during the audit engagement.
102. PSA 220 requires the engagement partner to consider whether members of the
engagement team have complied with the ethical requirements relating to audit
engagements. The Code of Ethics establishes the fundamental principles of professional
ethics, which include
I. Integrity
II. Objectivity
III.
Professional competence and due care
IV. Confidentiality
V. Professional behavior
A. I, II, IV, and V only
C. I, III, IV, and V only
B. II, III, IV, and V only
D. I, II, III, IV, and V
THE FINANCIAL STATEMENT AUDIT: CLIENT ACCEPTANCE AND PLANNING
103. Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining the auditor’s
preliminary judgment about materiality?
A. The anticipated sample size of the planned substantive tests.
B. The entity’s annualized interim financial statements.
C. The results of the internal control questionnaire.
D. The contents of the management representation letter.
104. The auditor is required to determine three different levels of materiality: (1) materiality
for the financial statements as a whole, (2) performance materiality, and (3)
A. Overall materiality
B. Planning materiality
C. General materiality
D. Specific materiality
105. Which of the following statements concerning materiality is not correct?
A. When establishing the overall audit strategy, the auditor shall determine materiality
for the financial statements as a whole.
B. If, in the specific circumstances of the entity, there is one or more particular classes
of transactions, account balances or disclosures for which misstatements of lesser
amounts than materiality for the financial statements as a whole could reasonably be
expected to influence the economic decisions of users taken on the basis of the
financial statements, the auditor shall also determine the materiality level or levels to
those particular classes of transactions, account balances or disclosures.
C. Determining materiality involves the exercise of professional judgment.
D. The materiality level for the financial statements as a whole determined in the
planning stage of the audit should not be affected by changes in the circumstances of
the engagement.
106. Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should focus on
A. Reducing the scope of tests of controls and substantive tests.
B. Providing assurance that potential material misstatements will be identified.
C. Enhancing the auditor’s understanding of the client’s business and identifying areas
of potential risk.
D. Assessing the adequacy of the available evidential matter.
107. Which of the following would not be considered an analytical procedure?
A. Estimating payroll expense by multiplying the number of employees by the average
hourly wage rate and the total hours worked.
B. Projecting an error rate by comparing the results of a statistical sample with the
actual population characteristics.
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C. Computing accounts receivable turnover by dividing credit sales by the average net
receivables.
D. Developing the expected sales based on the sales trend of the prior five years.
108. Which of the following auditing procedures most likely would assist an auditor in
identifying related party transactions?
A. Inspecting correspondence with lawyers for evidence of unreported contingent
liabilities.
B. Vouching accounting records for recurring transactions recorded just after the
balance sheet date.
C. Reviewing confirmations of loans receivable and payable for indications of guarantees.
D. Performing analytical procedures for indications of possible financial difficulties.
109. Which of the following most likely would indicate the existence of related parties?
A. Writing down obsolete inventory just before year-end.
B. Failing to correct previously identified internal control deficiencies.
C. Depending on a single product for the success of the entity.
D. Borrowing money at an interest rate significantly below the market rate.
110. Which of the following is an incorrect statement concerning the relationship of the
internal auditor and the scope of the external audit of an entity’s financial statements?
A. The external auditor is not required to give consideration to the internal audit
function beyond obtaining a sufficient understanding to identify and assess the risks
of material misstatement of the financial statements and to design and perform
further audit procedures.
B. The internal auditors may determine the extent to which audit procedures should be
employed by the external auditor.
C. Under certain circumstances, the internal auditors may assist the external auditor in
performing substantive tests and tests of controls.
D. The nature, timing, and extent of the external auditor’s substantive tests may be
affected by the work of internal auditors.
111. If the results of the auditor’s expert’s work do not provide sufficient appropriate audit
evidence or are not consistent with other audit evidence, the auditor should
A. Report the matter to the appropriate regulatory agency of the government.
B. Resolve the matter.
C. Withdraw from the engagement.
D. Express an unqualified opinion with reference to the work of the expert.
112. Which of the following matters should be considered by the auditor in developing the
overall audit strategy?
A. Important characteristics of the entity, its business, its financial performance and
its reporting requirements including changes since the date of the prior audit.
B. Conditions requiring special attention, such as the existence of related parties.
C. The setting of materiality levels for audit purposes.
D. All of the above.
RISK ASSESSMENTS AND INTERNAL CONTROL
113. A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements may be
materially misstated after the audit is completed and an unmodified opinion has been
issued is the
A. Inherent risk.
B. Acceptable audit risk.
C. Control risk.
D. Detection risk.
114. When inherent risk is high, there will need to be
A lower
More evidence
assessment of audit risk.
accumulated by the auditor.
A.
Yes
Yes
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AUDITING THEORY
B.
C.
D.
No
Yes
No
No
No
Yes
115. Which of the following is not one of the three primary objectives of effective internal
control?
A. Reliability of financial reporting.
B. Efficiency and effectiveness of operations.
C. Compliance with laws and regulations.
D. Assurance of elimination of business risk.
116. Which of the following are considered control environment elements?
Commitment
Detection
Organizational
to Competence
Risk
Structure
A.
No
Yes
No
B.
Yes
Yes
Yes
C.
Yes
No
Yes
D.
No
No
Yes
117. Which of the following statements concerning the relevance of various types of controls
to a financial statement audit is correct?
A. All controls are ordinarily relevant to a financial statement audit.
B. Controls over safeguarding of assets and liabilities are of primary importance, while
controls over the reliability of financial reporting may also be relevant.
C. Controls over the reliability of financial reporting are ordinarily most directly
relevant to a financial statement audit, but other controls may also be relevant.
D. An auditor may ordinarily ignore a consideration of controls when a substantive audit
approach is taken.
118. An auditor should consider two key issues when obtaining an understanding of a client’s
internal controls. These issues are
A. The effectiveness and efficiency of the controls.
B. The frequency and effectiveness of the controls.
C. The design and implementation of the controls.
D. The implementation and efficiency of the controls.
119. Authorizations can be either general or specific. Which of the following is not an example
of a general authorization?
A. Automatic reorder points for raw materials inventory.
B. A sales manager’s authorization for a sales return.
C. Credit limits for various classes of transactions.
D. A sales price list for merchandise.
120. An auditor should obtain sufficient knowledge of an entity’s information system, including
the related business processes relevant to financial reporting, to understand the
A. Policies used to detect the concealment of fraud.
B. Process used to prepare significant accounting estimates.
C. Safeguards used to limit access to computer facilities.
D. Procedures used to assure proper authorization of transactions.
121. Which of the following controls most likely would provide reasonable assurance that all
credit sales transactions of an entity are recorded?
A. The accounting department supervisor controls the mailing of monthly statements to
customers and investigates any differences reported by customers.
B. The accounting department supervisor independently reconciles, on a monthly basis,
the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the accounts receivable control account.
C. The billing department supervisor matches prenumbered shipping documents with
entries in the sales journal.
D. The billing department supervisor sends copies of approved sales orders to the credit
department for comparison to authorized credit limits and current customer account
balances.
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122. Which of the following control activities in an entity’s revenue/receipt cycle would provide
reasonable assurance that all billed sales are correctly posted to the accounts receivable
ledger?
A. Each shipment of goods on credit is supported by a prenumbered sales invoice.
B. The accounts receivable subsidiary ledger is reconciled daily to the accounts receivable
control account in the general ledger.
C. Daily sales summaries are compared to daily postings to the accounts receivable ledger.
D. Each sales invoice is supported by a prenumbered shipping document.
123. Which of the following controls is not usually performed in the accounts payable
department?
A. Indicating on the voucher the affected asset and expense accounts to be debited.
B. Approving vouchers for payment by having an authorized employee sign the vouchers.
C. Accounting for unused prenumbered purchase orders and receiving reports.
D. Matching the vendor’s invoice with the related purchase requisition, purchase order,
and receiving report.
124. Which of the following is of least concern to an auditor in assessing the risks of material
misstatement?
A. Signed checks are distributed by the controller to approved payees.
B. Checks are signed by one person.
C. Cash receipts are not deposited intact daily.
D. Treasurer does not verify the names and addresses of check payees.
125. Your client, a merchandising concern, has annual sales of P30,000,000 and a 40% gross
profit rate. Tests reveal that 2% of the peso amount of purchases do not get into
inventory because of breakage and inventory pilferage by employees. The company
estimates that these losses could be reduced to 0.5% of purchases by designing and
implementing certain controls costing approximately P350,000. Should the controls be
designed and implemented?
A. Yes, regardless of cost-benefit considerations, because the situation involves
employee theft.
B. Yes, because the ideal system of internal control is the most extensive one.
C. No, because the cost of designing and implementing the added controls exceeds the
projected savings.
D. Yes, because the expected benefits to be derived exceed the cost of the added controls.
126. After gaining an understanding of internal control and assessing the risks of material
misstatement, an auditor decided to perform tests of controls. The auditor most likely
decided that
A. Additional evidence to support a further reduction in control risk is not available.
B. It is not possible or practicable to reduce the risks of material misstatement at the
assertion level to an acceptably low level with audit evidence obtained only from
substantive test procedures.
C. There were many internal control weaknesses that could allow misstatements to enter
the accounting system.
D. An increase in the assessed level of control risk is justified for certain financial
statement assertions.
127. An auditor may decide to assess control risk at the maximum level for certain assertions
because the auditor believes
A. Controls are unlikely to pertain to the assertions.
B. The entity’s control components are interrelated.
C. Sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support the assertions is likely to be available.
D. More emphasis on tests of controls than substantive tests is warranted.
128. Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor’s assessment of
control risk?
A. Assessing control risk may be performed concurrently during an audit with obtaining
an understanding of the entity’s internal control.
B. Evidence about the operation of controls in prior audits may not be considered during
the current year’s assessment of control risk.
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AUDITING THEORY
C. The basis for an auditor’s conclusions about the assessed level of control risk need not
be documented unless control risk is assessed at the maximum level.
D. The lower the assessed level of control risk, the less assurance the evidence must
provide that the controls are operating effectively.
129. According to PSA 330 (The Auditor’s Procedures in Response to Assessed Risks), an auditor
who plans to rely on controls that have not changed since they were last tested should
test the operating effectiveness of such controls at least once every
A. Second audit
B. Third audit
C. Fourth audit
D. Fifth audit
130. In performing tests of the operating effectiveness of an entity’s controls, an auditor
selects from a variety of techniques, including
A. Reperformance and observation.
B. Inquiry and analytical procedures.
C. Comparison and confirmation.
D. Inspection and verification.
131. An auditor intends to perform tests of control on a client’s cash disbursements
procedures. If the control procedures leave no audit trail of documentary evidence, the
auditor most likely will test the procedures by
A. Inquiry and analytical procedures.
B. Inquiry and observation.
C. Analytical procedures and confirmation.
D. Confirmation and observation.
132. Which of the following tests of controls most likely would help assure an auditor that
goods shipped are properly billed?
A. Scan the sales journal for sequential and unusual entries.
B. Examine shipping documents for matching sales invoices.
C. Compare the accounts receivable ledger to daily sales summaries.
D. Inspect unused sales invoices for consecutive prenumbering.
133. When there are numerous property and equipment transactions during the year, an
auditor who plans to assess control risk at a low level usually performs
A. Tests of controls and extensive tests of property and equipment balances at the end
of the year.
B. Analytical procedures for current year property and equipment transactions.
C. Tests of controls and limited tests of current year property and equipment
transactions.
D. Analytical procedures for property and equipment balances at the end of the year.
FRAUD AND ERROR
134. Misstatements in the financial statements can arise from fraud or error. The
distinguishing factor between fraud and error is whether the underlying action that
results in the misstatement of the financial statements is
I. Intentional or unintentional.
II. Rational or irrational.
A. I only
C. Both I and II
B. II only
D. Neither I nor II.
135. “Error” includes
A. Engaging in complex transactions that are structured to misrepresent the financial
position or financial performance of the entity.
B. Concealing, or not disclosing, facts that could affect the amounts recorded in the
financial statements.
C. An incorrect accounting estimate arising from oversight or misinterpretation of facts.
D. Intentional misapplication of accounting policies relating to amounts, classification,
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AUDITING THEORY
manner of presentation, or disclosure.
136. Fraud involving one or more members of management or those charged with governance is
referred to as
A. Management fraud.
C. Fraudulent financial reporting.
B. Employee fraud.
D. Misappropriation of assets.
137. The auditor is concerned with fraud that causes a material misstatement in the financial
statements. There are two types of intentional misstatements that are relevant to the
auditor: misstatements resulting from fraudulent financial reporting and misstatements
resulting from
A. Management fraud.
B. Employee fraud.
C. Misappropriation of assets.
D. Collusion within the entity or with third parties.
138. Fraudulent financial reporting involves intentional misstatements including omissions of
amounts or disclosures in financial statements to deceive financial statement users. It
may be accomplished in a number of ways, including
A. Embezzling receipts.
B. Stealing physical assets or intellectual property.
C. Using an entity’s assets for personal use.
D. Manipulation, falsification, or alteration of accounting records or supporting
documentation from which the financial statements are prepared.
139. Which of the following conditions are
occur?
I. Incentive or pressure.
II. Perceived opportunity.
III.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
generally present when misstatements due to fraud
Rationalization.
C. I and III only.
D. I, II, and III.
140. The primary responsibility for the prevention and detection of fraud rests with
A. Those charged with governance of the entity.
B. Management of the entity.
C. Both those charged with governance of the entity and management.
D. The auditor.
141. Which of the following statements best describes an auditor’s responsibility regarding
misstatements?
A. An auditor should obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements taken as
a whole are free from material misstatement, whether caused by fraud or error.
B. An auditor should obtain absolute assurance that material misstatements in the
financial statements will be detected.
C. An auditor is responsible to detect material errors but has no responsibility to detect
material fraud that is concealed through employee collusion or management override
of internal control.
D. An auditor’s failure to detect a material misstatement resulting from fraud is an
indication of noncompliance with the requirements of the Philippine Standards on
Auditing (PSAs).
142. When obtaining an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal
control, the auditor may identify events or conditions that indicate an incentive or
pressure to commit fraud or provide an opportunity to commit fraud. Such events or
conditions are referred to as
A. Fraud conditions.
C. Fraudulent activities.
B. Fraud risk factors.
D. Fraud environment.
143. The following are examples of fraud risk factors relating to misstatements arising from
misappropriation of assets, except
A. Recurring negative cash flows from operating activities while reporting earnings and
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AUDITING THEORY
earnings growth.
B. Inadequate physical safeguards over cash, investments, inventory, or fixed assets.
C. Inadequate segregation of duties or independent checks.
D. Adverse relationship between the entity and employees with access to cash or other
assets susceptible to theft created by recent changes made to employee compensation
or benefit plans.
144. Opportunities to misappropriate assets increase when there are
A. Known or anticipated future employee layoffs.
B. Promotions, compensation, or other rewards inconsistent with expectations.
C. Recent or anticipated changes to employee compensation or benefit plans.
D. Inventory items that are small in size, of high value, or in high demand.
145. Which of the following conditions or events may create incentives/pressures to commit
fraud?
A. Inadequate system of authorization and approval of transactions.
B. Lack of mandatory vacations for employees performing key control functions.
C. Excessive pressure on management or operating personnel to meet financial targets
established by those charged with governance, including sales or profitability incentive
goals.
D. Inadequate access controls over automated records.
146. Because of the risk of material misstatement, an audit of financial statements in
accordance with PSAs should be planned and performed with an attitude of
A. Impartial conservatism.
B. Objective judgment.
C. Independent integrity.
D. Professional skepticism.
147. When planning the audit, the auditor should make inquiries of management. Such inquiries
should address the following, except
A. Management’s assessment of the risk that the financial statements may be misstated
due to fraud.
B. Management’s process for identifying and responding to the risks of fraud in the
entity.
C. Management’s consideration of how an element of unpredictability will be incorporated
into the nature, timing, and extent of the audit procedures to be performed.
D. Management’s communication, if any, to those charged with governance regarding its
processes for identifying and responding to the risks of fraud in the entity.
148. When the auditor identifies a misstatement in the financial statements, the auditor
should consider whether such a misstatement may be indicative of fraud and if there is
such an indication, the auditor should
A. Consider the implications of the misstatement in relation to other aspects of the audit.
B. Withdraw from the engagement.
C. Communicate the information to regulatory and enforcement authorities.
D. Report the matter to the person or persons who made the audit appointment.
AUDITING IN A CIS/IT ENVIRONMENT
149. The use of a computer changes the processing, storage, and communication of financial
information. A CIS environment may affect the following, except
A. The accounting and internal control systems of the entity.
B. The overall objective and scope of an audit.
C. The auditor’s design and performance of tests of control and substantive procedures
to satisfy the audit objectives.
D. The specific procedures to obtain knowledge of the entity’s accounting and internal
control systems.
150. The following are benefits of using IT-based controls, except
A. Ability to process large volume of transactions.
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B. Over-reliance on computer-generated reports.
C. Ability to replace manual controls with computer-based controls.
D. Reduction in misstatements due to consistent processing of transactions.
151. Which of the following statements concerning the Internet is incorrect?
A. The Internet is a shared public network that enables communication with other
entities and individuals around the world.
B. The Internet is a private network that only allows access to authorized persons or
entities.
C. The Internet is interoperable, which means that any computer connected to the
Internet can communicate with any other computer connected to the Internet.
D. The Internet is a worldwide network that allows entities to engage in e-commerce/ebusiness activities.
152. In planning the portions of the audit which may be affected by the client’s CIS
environment, the auditor should obtain an understanding of the significance and
complexity of the CIS activities and the availability of data for use in the audit. The
following relate to the complexity of CIS activities except when
A. Transactions are exchanged electronically with other organizations (for example, in
electronic data interchange systems [EDI]).
B. Complicated computations of financial information are performed by the computer
and/or material transactions or entries are generated automatically without
independent validation.
C. Material financial statement assertions are affected by the computer processing.
D. The volume of transactions is such that users would find it difficult to identify and
correct errors in processing.
153. The auditor shall consider the entity’s CIS environment in designing audit procedures to
reduce risk to an acceptably low level. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The auditor’s specific audit objectives do not change whether financial information is
processed manually or by computer.
B. The methods of applying audit procedures to gather audit evidence are not influenced
by the methods of computer processing.
C. The auditor may use either manual audit procedures, computer-assisted audit
techniques (CAATs), or a combination of both to obtain sufficient appropriate audit
evidence.
D. In some CIS environments, it may be difficult or impossible for the auditor to obtain
certain data for inspection, inquiry, or confirmation without the aid of a computer.
154. A characteristic that distinguishes computer processing from manual processing is
A. The potential for systematic error is ordinarily greater in manual processing than in
computerized processing.
B. Errors or fraud in computer processing will be detected soon after their occurrences.
C. Most computer systems are designed so that transaction trails useful for audit
purposes do not exist.
D. Computer processing virtually eliminates the occurrence of computational errors
normally associated with manual processing.
155. Which of the following statements most likely represents a disadvantage for an entity
that maintains data files on personal computers (PCs) rather than manually prepared files?
A. It is usually more difficult to compare recorded accountability with the physical count
of assets.
B. Random error associated with processing similar transactions in different ways is
usually greater.
C. Attention is focused on the accuracy of the programming process rather than errors
in individual transactions.
D. It is usually easier for unauthorized persons to access and alter the files.
156. The internal controls over computer processing include both manual procedures and
procedures designed into computer programs (programmed control procedures). These
manual and programmed control procedures comprise the general CIS controls and CIS
application controls. The purpose of general CIS controls is to
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AUDITING THEORY
A. Establish specific control procedures over the accounting applications in order to
provide reasonable assurance that all transactions are authorized and recorded and
are processed completely, accurately, and on a timely basis.
B. Establish a framework of overall controls over the CIS activities and to provide a
reasonable level of assurance that the overall objectives of internal control are
achieved.
C. Provide reasonable assurance that systems are developed and maintained in an
authorized and efficient manner.
D. Provide reasonable assurance that access to data and computer programs is restricted
to authorized personnel.
157. An entity has recently converted its purchasing cycle from a manual process to an online
computer system. Which of the following is a probable result associated with conversion
to the new IT system?
A. Traditional duties are less separated.
B. Increased processing time.
C. Reduction in the entity’s risk exposure.
D. Increased processing errors.
158. An entity should plan the physical location of its computer facility. Which of the following
is the primary consideration for selecting a computer site?
A. It should be in the basement or on the ground floor.
B. It should maximize the visibility of the computer.
C. It should minimize the distance that data control personnel must travel to deliver data
and reports and be easily accessible by a majority of company personnel.
D. It should provide security.
159. An entity installed antivirus software on all its personal computers. The software was
designed to prevent initial infections, stop replication attempts, detect infections after
their occurrence, mark affected system components, and remove viruses from infected
components. The major risk in relying on antivirus software is that it may
A. Consume too many system resources.
B. Interfere with system operations.
C. Not detect certain viruses.
D. Make software installation too complex.
AUDIT OBJECTIVES, PROCEDURES, EVIDENCE, AND DOCUMENTATION
160. Which of the following should be considered by the auditor in deciding which means (or
combination of means) to use in selecting items for testing?
I. The risk of material misstatement related to the assertion being tested.
II. Audit efficiency.
A. I only
C. Both I and II
B. II only
D. Neither I nor II
161. The quantity of audit evidence needed is affected by the risk of misstatement and also by
the quality of such audit evidence.
The reliability of audit evidence is influenced by its source and by its nature and is
dependent on the individual circumstances under which it is obtained.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. True; False.
D. False; True.
162. Which of the following is a false statement about audit objectives?
A. There should be a one-to-one relationship between audit objectives and procedures.
B. Audit objectives should be developed in light of management assertions about the
financial statement components.
C. Selection of tests to meet audit objectives should depend upon the understanding of
internal control.
D. The auditor should resolve any substantial doubt about any of management’s material
financial statement assertions.
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163. Which of the following statements concerning evidential matter is true?
A. Appropriate evidence supporting management’s assertions should be convincing rather
than merely persuasive.
B. Effective internal control contributes little to the reliability of the evidence created
within the entity.
C. The cost of obtaining evidence is not an important consideration to an auditor in
deciding what evidence should be obtained.
D. A client’s accounting records cannot be considered sufficient evidence to support the
financial statements.
164. Which of the following types of audit evidence is the most persuasive?
A. Prenumbered purchase order forms.
B. Client worksheets supporting cost allocations.
C. Bank statements obtained from the client.
D. Client representation letter.
165. Which of the following generalizations does not relate to the appropriateness of evidence?
A. Audit evidence from external sources (for example, confirmation received from a third
party) is more reliable than that generated internally.
B. An auditor’s opinion, to be economically useful, is formed within reasonable time and
based on evidence obtained at a reasonable cost.
C. Audit evidence generated internally is more reliable when the related accounting and
internal control systems are effective.
D. Audit evidence obtained directly by the auditor is more reliable than that obtained
from the entity.
166. Each of the following might, by itself, form a valid basis for an auditor to decide to omit a
test except for the
A. Difficulty and expense involved in testing a particular item.
B. Assessment of control risk at a low level.
C. Inherent risk involved.
D. Relationship between the cost of obtaining evidence and its usefulness.
167. In which of the following circumstances would the use of the negative form of accounts
receivable confirmation most likely be justified?
A. A substantial number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable
balance arises from sales to a few major customers.
B. A substantial number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable
balance arises from sales to many customers with small balances.
C. A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance
arises from sales to a few major customers.
D. A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance
arises from sales to many customers with small balances.
168. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the use of negative confirmation
requests?
A. Unreturned negative confirmation requests rarely provide significant explicit
evidence.
B. Negative confirmation requests are effective when detection risk is low.
C. Unreturned negative confirmation requests indicate that alternative procedures are
necessary.
D. Negative confirmation requests are effective when understatements of account
balances are suspected.
169. Which of the following most likely would give the most assurance concerning the valuation
and allocation assertion of accounts receivable?
A. Vouching amounts in the subsidiary ledger to details on shipping documents.
B. Comparing receivable turnover ratios with industry statistics for reasonableness.
C. Inquiring about receivables pledged under loan agreements.
D. Assessing the allowance for uncollectible accounts for reasonableness.
170. Confirmation is “the process of obtaining and evaluating a direct communication from a
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third party in response to a request for information about a particular item affecting
financial statement assertions.” Two assertions for which confirmation of accounts
receivable balances provides primary evidence are
A. Completeness and valuation
B. Valuation and rights and obligations
C. Rights and obligations and existence
D. Existence and completeness
171. To gain assurance that all inventory items in a client’s inventory listing schedule are valid,
an auditor most likely would vouch
A. Inventory tags noted during the auditor’s observation to items listed in the inventory
listing schedule.
B. Inventory tags noted during the auditor’s observation to items listed in receiving
reports and vendors’ invoices.
C. Items listed in the inventory listing schedule to inventory tags and the auditor’s
recorded count sheets.
D. Items listed in receiving reports and vendors’ invoices to the inventory listing schedule.
172. An auditor selected items for test counts while observing a client’s physical inventory.
The auditor then traced the test counts to the client’s inventory listing. This procedure
most likely obtained evidence concerning management’s assertion of
A. Rights and obligations
C. Existence
B. Completeness
D. Valuation
173. Which of the following is an audit procedure that an auditor most likely would perform
concerning litigation, claims, and assessments?
A. Request the client’s lawyer to evaluate whether the client’s pending litigation, claims,
and assessments indicate a going concern problem.
B. Examine the legal documents in the client’s lawyer’s possession concerning litigation,
claims, and assessments to which the lawyer has devoted substantive attention.
C. Discuss with management its policies and procedures adopted for evaluating and
accounting for litigation, claims, and assessments.
D. Confirm directly with the client’s lawyer that all litigation, claims, and assessments
have been recorded or disclosed in the financial statements.
174. Which of the following is not an audit procedure that the independent auditor would
perform with respect to litigation, claims, and assessments?
A. Inquire of and discuss with management the policies and procedures adopted for
litigation, claims, and assessments.
B. Obtain from management a description and evaluation of litigation, claims, and
assessments that existed at the balance sheet date.
C. Obtain assurance from management that if has disclosed all unasserted claims that
the lawyer has advised are probable of assertion and must be disclosed.
D. Confirm directly with the client’s lawyer that all claims have been recorded in the
financial statements.
175. The following are ordinarily excluded from audit documentation:
A
Superseded drafts of working papers and financial
statements
Yes
Notes that reflect incomplete or preliminary thinking
Yes
Previous copies of documents corrected for
typographical or other errors
Yes
Duplicates of documents
Yes
B
C
D
No
Yes
No
No
Yes
No
Yes
No
Yes
Yes
Yes
No
176. Audit documentation may be recorded on paper or on electronic or other media. The
following are examples of audit documentation, except
A. Audit programs
B. Letters of confirmation and representation
C. Correspondence (including e-mail) concerning significant matters
D. The entity’s accounting records
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177. The completion of the assembly of the final audit file after the date of the auditor’s
report does not ordinarily involve
A. The performance of new audit procedures or the drawing of new conclusions.
B. Sorting, collating and cross-referencing working papers.
C. Deleting or discarding superseded documentation.
D. Signing off on completion checklists relating to the file assembly process.
AUDIT SAMPLING
178. Audit sampling involves the
A. Selection of all items over a certain amount.
B. Application of audit procedures to less than 100% of items within a class of
transactions or an account balance such that all items have a chance of selection.
C. Application of audit procedures to all items that comprise a class of transactions or an
account balance.
D. Application of audit procedures to all items over a certain amount and those that are
unusual or have a history of error.
179. Population, as defined in PSA 530, means the entire set of data from which a sample is
selected and about which the auditor wishes to draw conclusions. It is important for the
auditor to ensure that the population is
I. Appropriate to the objective of the audit procedure.
II. Complete.
A. I only
C. Both I and II
B. II only
D. Neither I nor II
180. An advantage of statistical over nonstatistical sampling methods in tests of controls is
that the statistical methods
A. Afford greater assurance than a nonstatistical sample of equal size.
B. Provide an objective basis for quantitatively evaluating sampling risks.
C. Can more easily convert the sample into a dual-purpose test useful for substantive
testing.
D. Eliminate the need to use judgment in determining appropriate sample sizes.
181. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of sampling risk?
A. A randomly chosen sample may not be representative of the population as a whole on
the characteristic of interest.
B. An auditor may select audit procedures that are not appropriate to achieve the
specific objective.
C. An auditor may fail to recognize errors in the documents examined for the chosen
sample.
D. The documents related to the chosen sample may not be available for inspection.
182. Which of the following statistical selection techniques is least desirable for use by an
auditor?
A. Systematic selection
C. Block selection
B. Stratified selection
D. Sequential selection
183. Which of the following combinations results in a decrease in sample size in a sample for
attributes?
Risk of
Expected
assessing
Tolerable
population
control risk too low
rate
deviation rate
A.
Increase
Decrease
Increase
B.
Decrease
Increase
Decrease
C.
Increase
Increase
Decrease
D.
Increase
Increase
Increase
184. The diagram below depicts the auditor’s estimated maximum deviation rate compared with
the tolerable rate and also depicts the true population deviation rate compared with the
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AUDITING THEORY
tolerable rate.
True State of Population
Auditor’s
Estimate
Based on
Sample Results
Maximum
Deviation Rate
Is Less than
Tolerable Rate
Maximum
Deviation Rate
Exceeds
Tolerable Rate
Deviation Rate
Is less than
Tolerable Rate
Deviation Rate
Exceeds
Tolerable Rate
I.
III.
II.
IV.
As a result of tests of controls, the auditor assesses control risk higher than necessary
and thereby increases substantive testing. This is illustrated by
A. I
C. III
B. II
D. IV
COMPLETING THE AUDIT AND POST-AUDIT RESPONSIBILITIES
185. Analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of the audit generally include
A. Retesting controls that appeared to be ineffective during the assessment of control
risk.
B. Considering unusual or unexpected account balances that were not previously
identified.
C. Gathering evidence concerning account balances that have not changed from the prior
year.
D. Performing tests of transactions to corroborate management’s financial statement
assertions.
186. Analytical procedures performed in the overall review stage of an audit suggest that
several accounts have unexpected relationships. The results of these procedures most
likely indicate that
A. The communication with the audit committee should be revised.
B. Irregularities exist among the relevant account balances.
C. Additional substantive tests of details are required.
D. Internal control activities are not operating effectively.
187. The auditor should review information provided by those charged with governance and
management identifying
I. The names of all known related parties.
II. Related party transactions.
A. I only.
C. Both I and II.
B. II only.
D. Neither I nor II.
188. Which of the following events most likely indicates the existence of related parties?
A. Making a loan without scheduled terms for repayment of the funds.
B. Discussing merger terms with a company that is a major competitor.
C. Selling real estate at a price that differs significantly from its book value.
D. Borrowing a large sum of money at a variable rate of interest.
189. An auditor searching for related party transactions should obtain an understanding of
each subsidiary’s relationship to the total entity because
A. This may permit the audit of intercompany account balances to be performed as of
concurrent dates.
B. This may reveal whether particular transactions would have taken place if the parties
had not been related.
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C. The business structure may be deliberately designed to obscure related party
transactions.
D. Intercompany transactions may have been consummated on terms equivalent to arm’slength transactions.
190. After determining that a related party transaction has, in fact, occurred, an auditor
should
A. Obtain an understanding of the business purpose of the transaction.
B. Substantiate that the transaction was consummated on terms equivalent to an arm’slength transaction.
C. Add a separate paragraph to the auditor’s report to explain the transaction.
D. Perform analytical procedures to verify whether similar transactions occurred, but
were not recorded.
191. As used in PSA 560 (Subsequent Events), the term “subsequent events” refers to
I. Events occurring between the date of the financial statements and the date of the
auditor’s report.
II. Facts discovered after the date of the auditor’s report.
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.
D. Neither I nor II.
192. Which of the following statements best describes the “date of the financial statements?”
A. The date on which those with the recognized authority assert that they have prepared
the entity’s complete set of financial statements, including the related notes, and
that they have taken responsibility for them.
B. The date that the auditor’s report and audited financial statements are made
available to third parties.
C. The date of the end of the latest period covered by the financial statements, which is
normally the date of the most recent balance sheet in the financial statements
subject to audit.
D. The date on which the auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence on
which to base the opinion on the financial statements.
193. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to obtain evidence
about the occurrence of subsequent events?
A. Inquiring as to whether any unusual adjustments were made after the date of the
financial statements.
B. Confirming a sample of material accounts receivable established after the date of the
financial statements.
C. Comparing the financial statements being reported on with those of the prior period.
D. Investigating personnel changes in the accounting department occurring after the
date of the financial statements.
194. Which of the following statements best expresses the auditor’s responsibility with respect
to facts discovered after the date of the auditor’s report but before the date the
financial statements are issued?
A. The auditor should amend the financial statements.
B. If the facts discovered will materially affect the financial statements, the auditor
should issue a new report which contains either a qualified opinion or an adverse
opinion.
C. The auditor should consider whether the financial statements need amendment,
discuss the matter with management, and consider taking actions appropriate in the
circumstances.
D. The auditor should withdraw from the engagement.
195. After issuing a report, an auditor has no obligation to make continuing inquiries or
perform other procedures concerning the audited financial statements, unless
A. Final determinations or resolutions are made of contingencies that had been disclosed
in the financial statements.
B. Information about an event that occurred after the date of the auditor’s report
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AUDITING THEORY
comes to the auditor’s attention.
C. The control environment changes after issuance of the report.
D. Information, which existed at the report date and may affect the report, comes to
the auditor’s attention.
196. Which of the following events occurring after the issuance of an auditor’s report most
likely would cause the auditor to make further inquiries about the previously issued
financial statements?
A. A technological development that could affect the entity’s future ability to continue
as a going concern.
B. The entity’s sale of a subsidiary that accounts for 30% of the entity’s consolidated
sales.
C. The discovery of information regarding a contingency that existed before the
financial statements were issued.
D. The final resolution of a lawsuit disclosed in the notes to the financial statements.
197. PSA 570 (Going Concern) states that a fundamental principle in the preparation of
financial statements is the going concern assumption. Under this assumption, an entity is
ordinarily viewed as continuing in business for the foreseeable future with neither the
intention nor the necessity of liquidation, ceasing trading or seeking protection from
creditors pursuant to laws and regulations. The responsibility to make an assessment of
an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern rests with the
A. Auditor
B. Entity’s management
C. SEC
D. Entity’s creditors
198. Which of the following statements best describes the auditor’s responsibility concerning
the appropriateness of the going concern assumption in the preparation of the financial
statements?
A. The auditor’s responsibility is to make a specific assessment of the entity’s ability to
continue as a going concern.
B. The auditor’s responsibility is to predict future events or conditions that may cause
the entity to cease to continue as a going concern.
C. The auditor’s responsibility is to consider the appropriateness of management’s use of
the going concern assumption and consider whether there are material uncertainties
about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern that need to be disclosed in
the financial statements.
D. The auditor’s responsibility is to give a guarantee in the audit report that the entity
has the ability to continue as a going concern.
199. Which of the following conditions or events most likely would cause an auditor to have
substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?
A. Cash flows from operating activities are negative.
B. Stock dividends replace annual cash dividends.
C. Significant related party transactions are pervasive.
D. Research and development projects are postponed.
200. Which of the following conditions or events most likely would cause an auditor to have
substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?
A. Restrictions on the disposal of principal assets are present.
B. Usual trade credit from suppliers is denied.
C. Significant related party transactions are pervasive.
D. Arrearages in principal stock dividends are paid.
201. Which of the following audit procedures would most likely assist an auditor in identifying
conditions and events that may indicate there could be substantial doubt about an entity’s
ability to continue as a going concern?
A. Confirmation of bank balances.
B. Confirmation of accounts receivable from major customers.
C. Reconciliation of interest expense with debt outstanding.
D. Review of compliance with terms of debt agreements.
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AUDITING THEORY
202. Harold, CPA, believes there is substantial doubt about the ability of Jersamtan Co. to
continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time. In evaluating Jersamtan’s
plans for dealing with the adverse effects of future conditions and events, Harold most
likely would consider, as a mitigating factor, Jersamtan’s plans to
A. Postpone expenditures for research and development projects.
B. Purchase production facilities currently being leased from a related party.
C. Strengthen internal controls over cash disbursements.
D. Discuss with lenders the terms of all debt and loan agreements.
203. When an auditor concludes that there is substantial doubt about a continuing audit
client’s ability to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time, the
auditor’s responsibility is to
A. Consider the adequacy of disclosure about the client’s possible inability to continue as
a going concern.
B. Issue a qualified or adverse opinion, depending upon materiality, due to the possible
effects on the financial statements.
C. Report to the client’s audit committee that management’s accounting estimates may
need to be adjusted.
D. Reissue the prior year’s auditor’s report and add an emphasis of matter paragraph
that specifically refers to “substantial doubt” and “going concern.”
204. The auditor is required to obtain audit evidence that management
I. Acknowledges its responsibility for the fair presentation of the financial statements
in accordance with applicable financial reporting framework.
II. Has approved the financial statements.
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.
D. Neither I nor II.
205. When an audit is made in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards, the
auditor should always
A. Observe the taking of physical inventory on the balance sheet date.
B. Obtain certain written representations from management.
C. Employ analytical procedures as substantive tests to obtain evidence about specific
assertions related to account balances.
D. Document the understanding of the client’s internal control and the basis for all
conclusions about the assessed level of control risk for financial statement assertions.
206. When considering the use of management’s written representations as audit evidence
about the completeness assertion, an auditor should understand that such
representations
A. Constitute sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support the assertion when
considered in combination with a sufficiently low assessed level of control risk.
B. Are not part of the audit evidence considered to support the assertion.
C. Replace a low assessed level of control risk as audit evidence to support the assertion.
D. Complement, but do not replace, substantive tests designed to support the assertion.
207. A written representation from a client’s management that, among other matters,
acknowledges responsibility for the fair presentation of financial statements, should
normally be signed by the
A. Chief financial officer and the chair of the board of directors.
B. Chief executive officer and the chief financial officer.
C. Chief executive officer, the chair of the board of directors, and the client’s lawyer.
D. Chair of the audit committee of the board of directors.
208. The date of the management representation letter should coincide with the date of the
A. Statement of Financial Position
B. Latest related party transaction
C. Auditor’s report
D. Latest interim financial information
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209. Which of the following statements concerning management representations is incorrect?
A. Representations by management can be a substitute for other audit evidence that the
auditor could reasonably expect to be available.
B. If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding a
matter, which has, or may have, a material effect on the financial statements and
such audit evidence is expected to be available, this will constitute a limitation in the
scope of the audit, even if a representation from management has been received on
the matter.
C. If a representation by management is contradicted by other audit evidence, the
auditor should investigate the circumstances and, when necessary, reconsider the
reliability of other representations by management.
D. The auditor’s working papers would ordinarily include a summary of oral discussions
with management or written representations from management.
210. What type of opinion should be expressed if the client’s management refuses to provide a
representation that the auditor considers necessary?
A. Qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
B. Qualified opinion or an adverse opinion.
C. Adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
D. Unqualified opinion.
211. The primary source of information to be reported about litigation, claims, and
assessments is the
A. Independent auditor
B. Client’s management
C. Court records
D. Client’s lawyer
212. The primary reason an auditor requests that letters of inquiry be sent to a client’s
attorneys is to provide the auditor with
A. A description and evaluation of litigation, claims, and assessments that existed at the
balance sheet date.
B. The attorneys’ opinions of the client’s historical experiences in recent similar
litigation.
C. Corroboration of the information furnished by management about litigation, claims,
and assessments.
D. The probable outcome of asserted claims and pending or threatened litigation.
213. The letter of audit inquiry should be
A. Prepared and sent by the auditor.
B. Prepared by management and sent by the auditor.
C. Prepared and sent by management.
D. Prepared by the auditor and sent by management.
214. The refusal of a client’s lawyer to provide a representation on the legality of a particular
act committed by the client is ordinarily
A. Proper grounds to withdraw from the engagement.
B. Insufficient reason to modify the auditor’s report because of the lawyer’s obligation
of confidentiality.
C. Considered to be a scope limitation.
D. Sufficient reason to issue a “subject to” opinion.
215. Management’s refusal to give the auditor permission to communicate with the entity’s
legal counsel is most likely to lead to
A. An adverse opinion.
B. A qualified opinion or an adverse opinion.
C. An unqualified opinion.
D. A qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
216. In which of the following circumstances would an auditor most likely meet with the client’s
legal counsel to discuss the likely outcome of the litigation and claims?
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AUDITING THEORY
I. The auditor determines that the matter is a significant risk.
II. There is a disagreement between management and the entity’s legal counsel.
III.
The subject matter of the litigation is complex.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I and III only.
D. I, II, and III.
217. Which of the following statements extracted from a client’s lawyer’s letter concerning
litigation, claims, and assessments most likely would cause the auditor to request
clarification?
A. “I believe that the action can be settled for less than the damages claimed.”
B. “I believe that the company will be able to defend this action successfully.”
C. “I believe that the plaintiff’s case against the company is without merit.”
D. “I believe that the possible liability to the company is nominal in amount.”
218. The auditor should consider the status of legal matters up to the
A. Balance sheet date.
B. Date of the auditor’s report.
C. Date of approval of the financial statements.
D. Date of issuance of the financial statements.
THE AUDITOR’S REPORT ON FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
219. The following statements relate to the date of the auditor’s report. Which is false?
A. The auditor should date the report as of the completion date of the audit.
B. The date of the auditor’s report should not be earlier than the date on which the
financial statements are signed or approved by management.
C. The date of the auditor’s report should not be later than the date on which the
financial statements are signed or approved by management.
D. The date of the auditor’s report should always be later than the date of the financial
statements (i.e., the balance sheet date).
220. In which of the following circumstances would an auditor most likely add an emphasis of
matter paragraph to the auditor’s report while expressing an unqualified opinion?
A. There is a substantial doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern.
B. Management’s estimates of the effects of future events are unreasonable.
C. No depreciation has been provided in the financial statements.
D. Certain transactions cannot be tested because of management’s records retention
policy.
221. An independent auditor discovers that a payroll supervisor of the company being audited
has misappropriated P50,000. The company’s total assets and income before tax are P70
million and P15 million, respectively. Assuming no other issues affect the report, the
auditor’s report will most likely contain a/an
A. Unmodified opinion
C. Adverse opinion.
B. Disclaimer of opinion
D. Scope qualification
222. A note to the financial statements of the Prudent Bank indicates that all of the records
relating to the bank’s business operations are stored on magnetic disks, and that no
emergency backup systems or duplicate disks are stored because the bank and its auditors
consider the occurrence of a catastrophe to be remote. Based upon this note, the
auditor’s report should express
A. A qualified opinion
C. An adverse opinion
B. An unmodified opinion
D. A “subject to” opinion
223. When would the auditor refer to the work of an appraiser in the auditor’s report?
A. An adverse opinion is expressed based on a difference of opinion between the client
and the outside appraiser as to the value of certain assets.
B. A disclaimer of opinion is expressed because of a scope limitation imposed on the
auditor by the appraiser.
C. A qualified opinion is expressed because of a matter unrelated to the work of the
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appraiser.
D. An unqualified opinion is expressed and an emphasis of matter paragraph is added to
disclose the use of the appraiser’s work.
224. Which of the following terms is used in the standard to describe the effects on the
financial statements of misstatements or the possible effects on the financial
statements, if any, that are undetected due to an inability to obtain sufficient
appropriate audit evidence?
A. Persuasive
C. Material
B. Pervasive
D. Extensive
225. When audited financial statements are presented in a document (e.g., annual report)
containing other information, the auditor
A. Should read the other information to consider whether it is inconsistent with the
audited financial statements.
B. Has no responsibility for the other information because it is not part of the basic
financial statements.
C. Has an obligation to perform auditing procedures to corroborate the other
information.
D. Is required to express a qualified opinion if the other information has a material
misstatement of fact.
226. An auditor concludes that there is a material inconsistency in the other information in an
annual report to shareholders containing audited financial statements. If the auditor
concludes that the financial statements do not require revision, but the client refuses to
revise or eliminate the material inconsistency, the auditor may
A. Disclaim an opinion on the financial statements after explaining the material
inconsistency in an emphasis of matter paragraph.
B. Revise the auditor’s report to include an other matter paragraph describing the
material inconsistency.
C. Express a qualified opinion after discussing the matter with the client’s directors.
D. Consider the matter closed because the other information is not in the audited
statements.
227. An auditor may express a qualified opinion under which of the following circumstances?
Lack of Sufficient
Restriction on the
Appropriate Evidence
Scope of the Audit
A.
No
No
B.
No
Yes
C.
Yes
No
D.
Yes
Yes
228. In which of the following situations would an auditor ordinarily choose between
expressing a qualified opinion or an adverse opinion?
A. The auditor wishes to emphasize an unusually important subsequent event.
B. The financial statements fail to disclose information that is required by Philippine
Financial Reporting Standards.
C. Events disclosed in the financial statements cause the auditor to have substantial
doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern.
D. The auditor did not observe the entity’s physical inventory and is unable to become
satisfied as to its balance by other auditing procedures.
229. An auditor should disclose the substantive reasons for expressing an adverse opinion in
the Basis for Adverse Opinion paragraph
A. Following the opinion paragraph.
B. Preceding the opinion paragraph.
C. Following the introductory paragraph.
D. Within the notes to the financial statements.
230. There are two broad financial reporting frameworks for comparatives: the corresponding
figures and the comparative financial statements. Which of the following statements is
correct concerning these reporting frameworks?
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A. Under the corresponding figures framework, the corresponding figures for the prior
period(s) are integral part of the current period financial statements.
B. Under the corresponding figures framework, the corresponding figures for the prior
period(s) are considered separate financial statements.
C. Under the comparative financial statements framework, the comparative financial
statements for the prior period(s) are intended to be read in conjunction with the
amounts and other disclosures relating to the current period.
D. Under the comparative financial statements framework, the amounts and other
disclosures for the prior period(s) form part of the current period financial
statements.
231. In which of the following circumstances would an auditor’s report least likely include
specific reference to the corresponding figures?
A. When the auditor’s report on the prior period, as previously issued, included a modified
opinion and the matter which gave rise to the modification is resolved and properly
dealt with in the financial statements.
B. When the auditor’s report on the prior period, as previously issued, included a modified
opinion and the matter which gave rise to the modification is unresolved, and results
in a modification of the auditor’s report regarding the current period figures.
C. When the auditor’s report on the prior period, as previously issued, included a modified
opinion and the matter which gave rise to the modification is unresolved, but does not
result in a modification of the auditor’s report regarding the current period figures.
D. When the auditor’s report on the prior period financial statements containing a
material misstatement included an unmodified opinion and the prior period financial
statements have not been revised and reissued, and the corresponding figures have
not been properly restated and/or appropriate disclosures have not been made.
232. According to PSA 710, the incoming auditor may refer to the predecessor auditor’s report
on the corresponding figures in the incoming auditor’s report for the current period. The
incoming auditor’s report should indicate
I. That the financial statements of the prior period were audited by another auditor.
II. The type of report issued by the predecessor auditor.
III. The date of the predecessor auditor’s report.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I and III only.
D. I, II, and III.
233. When the prior period financial statements are not audited, the incoming auditor should
state in the auditor’s report that
I. The corresponding figures are unaudited.
II. The incoming auditor is not required to perform procedures regarding opening
balances of the current period.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
234. J, CPA, audited JST Company’s prior-year financial statements. These statements are
presented with those of the current year for comparative purposes without J’s auditor’s
report, which expressed a qualified opinion. In drafting the current year’s auditor’s
report, S, CPA, the incoming auditor, should
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Not name J as the predecessor auditor.
Indicate the type of report issued by J.
Indicate the substantive reasons for J’s qualification.
Indicate the date of J’s auditor’s report.
A. I, II, and IV only.
B. II, III, and IV only.
C. I, II, and III only.
D. I, II, III, and IV.
235. The predecessor auditor, who is satisfied after properly communicating with the incoming
auditor, has reissued his/her auditor’s report on prior year financial statements. The
predecessor auditor’s report should
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A. Refer to the work of the incoming auditor in the scope and opinion paragraphs.
B. Refer to the report of the incoming auditor only in the scope paragraph.
C. Refer to both the work and the report of the incoming auditor only in the opinion
paragraph.
D. Not refer to the report or the work of the incoming auditor.
236. The following statements relate to unaudited prior year financial statements that are
presented in comparative form with audited current year financial statements. Which is
incorrect?
A. The incoming auditor should state in the auditor’s report that the comparative
financial statements are unaudited.
B. The incoming auditor need not perform audit procedures regarding opening balances of
the current period.
C. Clear disclosure in the financial statements that the comparative financial
statements are unaudited is encouraged.
D. In situations where the incoming auditor identifies that the prior year unaudited
figures are materially misstated, the auditor should request management to revise
the prior year’s figures or if management refuses to do so, appropriately modify the
report.
OTHER REPORTING RESPONSIBILITIES
237. Financial statements of an entity that have been reviewed by an accountant should be
accompanied by a report stating that a review
A. Provides only limited assurance that the financial statements are fairly presented.
B. Includes examining, on a test basis, information that is the representation of
management.
C. Consists principally of inquiries of company personnel and analytical procedures
applied to financial data.
D. Does not contemplate obtaining corroborating evidential matter or applying certain
other procedures ordinarily performed during an audit.
238. An accountant’s report on a review of the financial statements of an entity should state
that the accountant
A. Does not express an opinion or any form of limited assurance on the financial
statements.
B. Conducted the review in accordance with the Philippine Standard on Review
Engagements.
C. Obtained reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of
material misstatements.
D. Examined evidence, on a test basis, supporting the amounts and disclosures in the
financial statements.
239. Financial statements of an entity that have been reviewed by an accountant should be
accompanied by a report stating that
A. The scope of the inquiry and analytical procedures performed by the accountant has
not been restricted.
B. The financial statements are the responsibility of the company’s management.
C. A review includes examining, on a test basis, evidence supporting the amounts and
disclosures in the financial statements.
D. A review is greater in scope than a compilation, the objective of which is to present
financial statements that are free of material misstatements.
240. An accountant who reviews the financial statements of an entity should issue a report
stating that a review
A. Provides less assurance than an audit.
B. Provides negative assurance that internal control is functioning as designed.
C. Provides only limited assurance that the financial statements are fairly presented.
D. Is substantially more in scope than a compilation.
241. When compiling the financial statements of an entity, an accountant should
A. Review agreements with financial institutions for restrictions on cash balances.
B. Understand the accounting principles and practices of the entity’s industry.
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C. Inquire of key personnel concerning related parties and subsequent events.
D. Perform ratio analyses of the financial data of comparable prior periods.
242. When compiling an entity’s financial statements, an accountant would be least likely to
A. Perform analytical procedures designed to identify relationships that appear to be
unusual.
B. Read the compiled financial statements and consider whether they appear to include
adequate disclosure.
C. Obtain an acknowledgment from management of its responsibility for the financial
statements.
D. Plan the work so that an effective engagement will be performed.
243. Which of the following should not be included in an accountant’s report based upon the
compilation of an entity’s financial statements?
A. A statement that a compilation of the company’s financial statements was made in
accordance with the Philippine Standard on Related Services applicable to compilation
engagements.
B. A statement that management is responsible for the financial statements.
C. A statement that the accountant has not audited or reviewed the statements.
D. A statement that the accountant does not express an opinion but provides only
negative assurance on the statements.
244. Negative assurance may be expressed when an accountant is requested to report agreedupon procedures to specified
Elements of a
Accounts of a
Financial Statement
Financial Statement
A.
Yes
Yes
B.
Yes
No
C.
No
No
D.
No
Yes
245. An accountant may accept an engagement to apply agreed-upon procedures that are not
sufficient to express an opinion on one or more specified accounts or items of a financial
statement provided that
A. The accountant’s report does not enumerate the procedures performed.
B. The financial statements are prepared in accordance with a comprehensive basis of
accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles.
C. Distribution of the accountant’s report is restricted.
D. The accountant is also the entity’s continuing auditor.
246. Given one or more hypothetical assumptions, a responsible party may prepare, to the best
of its knowledge and belief, an entity’s expected financial position, results of operations,
and cash flows. Such prospective financial statements are known as
A. Pro forma financial statements
B. Financial projections
C. Partial presentations
D. Financial forecasts
247. A financial forecast consists of prospective financial statements that present an entity’s
expected financial position, results of operations, and cash flows. A forecast
A. Is based on the most conservative estimates.
B. Present estimates given one or more hypothetical assumptions.
C. Unlike a projection, may contain a range.
D. Is based on assumptions reflecting conditions expected to exist and courses of action
expected to be taken.
248. When an accountant examines prospective financial statements, the accountant’s report
should include a separate paragraph that
A. Contains an opinion as to whether the prospective financial statements are properly
prepared on the basis of the assumptions and are presented in accordance with
generally accepted accounting principles in the Philippines.
B. Provides an explanation of the differences between an examination and an audit.
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C. States that the accountant is responsible for events and circumstances up to 1 year
after the report’s date.
D. Disclaims an opinion on whether the assumptions provide a reasonable basis for the
prospective financial statements.
249. The following statements relate to the examination of prospective financial information.
Which is false?
A. The auditor should express an opinion as to whether the results shown in the
prospective financial information will be achieved.
B. Before accepting an engagement to examine prospective financial information, the
auditor should consider the intended use of the information.
C. The auditor should not accept, or should withdraw from, an engagement to examine
prospective financial information when the assumptions are clearly unrealistic.
D. When in the auditor’s judgment an appropriate level of satisfaction has been obtained,
the auditor is not precluded from expressing positive assurance regarding the
assumptions.
250. Which of the following is a prospective financial information for general use upon which an
accountant may appropriately report?
A. Financial projection
B. Partial presentation
C. Pro forma financial statement
D. Financial forecast
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