BAN TỔ CHỨC KÌ THI

TUYỂN TẬP
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI
BẮC BỘ NĂM 2014
TIẾNG ANH 10
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014
ĐỀ SỐ 1
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
Thời gian 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 19/04/2014
A. LISTENING: (15 pts)
Part 1: You will hear an interview with Angela Morgan, who has recently flown around the
world in a helicopter. Listen and choose the best answer to each question. (5 pts)
1. The main reason for Angela’s trip was to
A. make money for her business.
B. make money for other people.
C. have an exciting adventure.
2. What does Angela say about her life now?
A. She feels much older.
B. She likes to be active and busy.
C. She is lonely without children.
3. During the trip, Angela and her teacher
A. did very little sightseeing.
B. carried all the water they needed.
C. had engine problems several times.
4. What did Angela enjoy most about the trip?
A. flying at night
B. walking in the desert
C. watching the changes in the scenery
5. What did Angela miss most while she was away?
A. modern bathrooms
B. regular exercise
D. interesting entertainment
Part 2: You will hear a radio announcer talking about activities at a museum called Science
World. For each question, fill in the missing information. (10 pts)
Science World
Next week’s Special Events
EVENTS:
TIME OF DAY:
* Electricity workshop
(1) ……………………..
* Experiment with (2) ………………
Wednesday morning
* Talk about space travel by well(3) …………………….
known scientists from
(4) ………………………
Science World entrance fees are: £3.00 Adults
(5) ……………….. Children
Tickets for Special Events cost extra: (6) ……………………Adults
Reduced prices for children
Get tickets directly from Science World (7) ……………………………….
or from (8) ……………………………….
Newton Café is next to the (9) …………………………..
(snacks available all day).
Phone Science World for free ticket to exhibition about (10) ………………….
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B. PHONETICS (5 pts)
Part 1: Pick out the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
(2.5 pts)
1.
A. modernise
B. dramatise
C. expertise
D. merchandise
2.
A. chameleon
B. enchant
C. chamberlain
D. bachelor
3.
A. solemnity
B. spectacle
C. sombrero
D. desolate
4.
A. costume
B. cosmetic
C. disposal
D. ostensible
5.
A. cantaloupe
B. catastrophe
C. apostrophe
D. recipe
Part 2:Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words
(2.5 pts)
1. A. generous
B. pagoda
C. address
2. A. reaction
B. miserable
C. knowledge
3. A. compulsory
B. objective
C. publication
4. A. confidence
B. minimize
C. complaint
5. A. pleasure
B. guaranty
C. optimistic
D. control
D. accident
D. statistical
D. imitate
D. sanguine
C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30ps)
Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions. (5ps)
1. His landlady gave him a week’s ________ to leave the flat.
A. threat
B. notice
C. advice
D. caution
2. My brother is intelligent but he _______ common sense.
A. fails
B. lacks
C. misses
D. wants
3. I am _______ tired to think about that problem at the moment.
A. far too
B. simply
C. much more
D. nearly
4. His _______ of the school regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.
A. carelessness
B. inattention
C. unfamiliarity
D. disregard
5. ______ after trying three times, he passed the examination.
A. Last of all
B. Lastly
C. Last
D. At last
6. It took me a long time to ______ what the aim of the game was.
A. ponder
B. consider
C. grasp
D. reckon
7.He _______ malaria while he was in Africa.
A. infected
B. contracted
C. was caught
D. gained
8. The question of late payment of the bills was ______again at the meeting.
A. raised
B. risen
C. brought
D. taken
9. None of us has ever ______ of cheating in class.
A. declared
B. persisted
C. approved
D. concluded
10. We have been working hard. Let’s ______ a break.
A. make
B. find
C. do
D. take
11. It’s advisable to _______ any contact with potential rabis animals.
A. escape
B. avoid
C. prevent
D. evade
12. “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?” _______
A. “Yes, I would.”
B. “Not at all.”
C. “What a pity!”
D. “My Gosh!”
13. There should be no discrimination on _______ of sex, race or religion.
A. fields
B. places
C. areas
D. grounds
14. He felt _______ when he failed the exams the second time.
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A. discouraged
B. annoyed
C. undecided D. determined
15. He gave me his personal _______ that his draft would be ready by Friday.
A. endurance B. insurance C. assurance D. ensurance
16. It’s high time we got going, _______?
A. isn’t it
B. didn’t it
C. should we
D. aren’t we
17. The weather forecast was for rain, but the day was fine and dry, _____ it turned out.
A. When
B. though
C. like
D. as
18. The book would have been perfect _______ the ending.
A. it had not been for
B. hadn’t it been for
C. it hadn’t been to
D. had it not been for
19. The film is ______ released at the end of next year.
A. on the verge of being
B. due to be
C. about to be
D. on the point of being
20. “Why did Laura go to town?”
“_______ for was to attend an interview.”
A. What she went
B. That she went
C. Why she went
D. She w
Part 2. Find and correct ten mistakes in the following passage. You should indicate in which
line the mistake is. (5 pts)
When we first took our children to sea with us, it was rare to come cross other family on
sailing boats. Usually such meetings resulted in the children quickly making friends, while
we parents discuss how we managed. At firstly, I was worried about taking children to sea
and I had many questions however I would amuse them? What if they fell ill at sea? Add to
such questions was the major problem of their education. When we set out on our voyage,
my duaghter was seven, my son five, and we planned to sail for three years. That we only
returned to england six years late with 60,000 miles behind us and children of thirteen and
eleven years old, is an indicate of how my worries had been answered. One change over
these years has been the increasing in the number of parents who take their children to sea
on long voyages.
Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (5 points)
1. The new regulations have thrown _______ a few problems for the company.
2. The workers were rather cynical after the meeting. Most of them were _______ no illusions that the
management would take their complaints seriously.
3. Jack took early retirement as he was losing his grip _______ the job.
4. He scolded her so much that she was reduced _______ tears by the end of the meeting.
5. The sudden movement of the train threw me _______ balance and I fell head-first down the steps.
6. The price of shares in the company went up _______ over 50% when they announced the discovery
of the new oilfield.
7. Ron usually primes himself _______ plenty of black coffee before starting the night shift.
8. We still haven’t sold the house because the buyers went back on their word and pulled ___ ___ the
deal.
9. Hi Brenda, Peter here. I’m just ringing _______ to say I’ve got two tickets for the concert on
Saturday night. Fancy coming?
10. The group rounded _______ the concert with their greatest hits. So everyone went home happy.
11. As there was no official at the gate, Diana got ___ ____ not buying an entrance ticket.
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12. His company went bankrupt, three years of hard work _______ the drain.
13. She is putting _______ a little each month for her studies in Queenstown.
14. The oral examination was difficult. The examiner tried to catch me _______ by asking some tricky
questions.
15. They should be able to settle their differences without resorting _______ violence.
16. The small boat drifted helplessly _______ the mercy of the wind and waves.
17. I find it very hard to commit historical dates _______ memory.
18. If you would like to wait a moment, Sir, I will just call _______ your file on the computer screen.
19. Quick, I haven’t got a pen. Can you jot Jack’s phone number _______ for me?
20. When I was a student, I eked _______ what little money I had by buying only second-hand clothes.
Part 4.Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (5 pts)
The stretch of water which (1. separate) _____________ Britain from France and the rest of
mainland Europe (2. always play) _________________ a significant role in British history.
Saturday, 1st December 1990 was no ordinary day in the Channel’s long history. At 11.00 a.m, two
miners, one French and one English, (3. cut) ______________ through the last few centimeters of
chalk (4. separate) _______________ the UK from mainland Europe. It was the first land
connection since the Ice age.
Work began on Europe tunnel in 1987. It (5. also know) ___________________ as the Channel
Tunnel, the Chunnel or Trans Manche link. It (6. build) ___________________ by an AngloFrench engineering company, Eurotunnel, across 34 km of water from Cheriton (near Folkstones in
SE England) to Coquilles (near Calais in NW France). A smaller central service tunnel (7. build)
___________________ (8. use) ___________________ by workers and engineers for maintenance
work and emergencies. The two outer tunnels (9. carry) ___________________ high speed
passenger and freight trains. Cars and lorries (10. also transport) ___________________ by train.
The tunnel (11. expect) _______________ (12. have) _________________an effect on British
industry
and
(13.
certainly
boost)
the tourist industry. Journeys between Britain and Europe (14. be) ___________________ quicker
and more reliable for both holiday makers and business people. Lorry drivers (15. be)
___________________ able to relax and (16. enjoy) ___________________ their shorter Channel
crossing. Only one question (17. remain) ___________________. With the sea no longer (18. act)
___________________ as a natural barrier, swimmers (19. continue0 ___________________ to try
to swim the Channel as they (20. do) ___________________ for years?
Part 5. Write the correct form of the word given in brackets. (5 pts)
WOMEN ONLY
Increasingly, women are taking their holidays without men. For _____ (1. SAFE) reasons,
camaraderie or just plain fun, a growing number of female tourists are singing up for women-only
trips. Twenty years ago only a _____ (2. HAND) of companies offered such holidays; now there are
several hundred. Travel _____ (3. CONSULT) Andre Littlewood says that the combination of
higher incomes with delayed marriage, divorce, retirement and widowhood has _____ (4. ABLE)
more women to travel, often on their own. They are attracted by the sense of _____ (5. FREE) that
a holiday without men affords them. “Women in a group tend to feel _____ (6. INHIBIT) and
speak more openly than when men are around”, she adds. “Even on energy-sapping adventure
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holidays the atmosphere is relaxed and _____ (7. CO-OPERATE). It’s also a great deal more fun.
Women laugh more _____ (8. READY) than men, probably because they don’t mind laughing at
themselves.” Since her divorce Janice Cummings has been a regular traveler with Everywoman
Tours, and Oxford-based Company whose very name is a _____ (9. DETER) to men. “And a good
thing too,” she says. “Men simply cannot resist the _____ (10. TEMPT) to try and take control, no
matter where they are. And that includes on holiday. Thankfully, there is none of that with
Everywoman.”
Part 6. Complete the text below by filling in each gap a conjunction or preposition given.
Some conjunctions or prepositions are used more than once. (5 pts)
but
despite
on the contrary
however
whereas
while
nevertheless
yet
though
THE ELGIN MARBLES
The Elgin Marbles are statues which date back to the 5th century BC. Though they were created
in Greece and were located there until the late 18th century, they are now exhibited in the British
Museum, London.
The statues used to be in Athens (1)________ they were bought in 1799 by the Englishman Lord
Elgin, who wanted to bring them back to Britain as part of his personal art collection. (2)________,
on the sea voyage back to England, the ship carrying them was sunk and the ‘Marbles’ were
temporarily lost. It would be an incredibly expensive operation to recover them. (3)________, Elgin
did so, and even though he was a very rich man, he placed himself in enormous debt. Despite his
own desires, he had to sell the Marbles to the British Government to recover his losses and they
were housed in the British Museum, where they have remained ever since.
In recent times, (4)________, the statues have become the subject of debate between Britain
and Greece and, indeed, among British historians and archaeologists. (5)________ the Greek
authorities have requested the return of the Marbles on many occasions, the request has always been
refused. There are arguments on both sides. Some people believe that it would be foolish to return
them, valid (6)________ the Greek request may be, because of the pollution that is affecting the
Parthenon and the possibility of earthquakes in Greece. Restored to the Parthenon, the Marbles
could be exposed to damage, (7)________ they are safe in the British Museum.
Of course, there are equally compelling arguments for their return, especially on the moral
level. It cannot be denied, (8)________ the material safety the statues enjoy in Britain, that they are
part of the Greek heritage. Many people also refute the argument that Athens would not be a safe
place for them. (9)________, they claim that if the statues were returned to Greece, a new state-ofthe-art building would be constructed to house them, where they would be both safe and in their
rightful environment. Furthermore, the British authorities have long used the argument that works
of art should not be subject to ‘ownership’, but should be kept where they are accessible to most
people. (10)________ in the past they have returned a number of cultural artefacts from other
civilisations to their origins.
The argument continues, and is likely to do so for some time in the future.
D. READING: (30 pts)
Part 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
(7.5 pts)
Sleeping disorders like insomnia can (1) _________ to be a worrying question for many of
us. Almost anyone can easily conjure (2) ________ at least one sleepless night of (3) ________ and
turning in bed awaiting the bliss of a deep dream. Most probably, a third of us (4) _______ the
distressing experience at least once a week.
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Even though it is possible for people to (5) _________ without any sleep at all for a certain
period of time, such occurrences are rather few and far (6) _____ and there is no evidence to (7)
_________this assumption. What is sure, however, is the fact that we do need some sleep to
regenerate our strength and to (8) _____ the brain to its proper activity. No wonder, then, that the
tiredness and fatigue that appear after a sleepless night (9) _______ many of us to go for chemical
support in the form of sleep (10) _______ tablets or powders.
However long the problem of sleeplessness has afflicted many individuals, very little has
been (11) _______ in the question of its original causes. We are conscious that it usually (12)
________ those who are exposed to a great deal of stress, anxiety or depression. It may also be (13)
_______ by overworking or unfavorable surroundings with scarcity of fresh air.
Sleeping pills may provide some relief and can act as an alternative in this desperate
situation. Yet, they do little to combat the ailment in full. Consequently, our hopes should be (14)
_________ on the medical authorities to (15) ________ the root cause of insomnia before we take
to being nocturnals leading our noisy lives in the dead of night.
1.
A. present
B. entail
C. realize
D. prove
2.
A. up
B. about
C. off
D. out
3.
A. rolling
B. wriggling
C. tossing
D. spinning
4.
A. underpass
B. undergo
C. underlie
D. undertake
5.
A. operate
B. process
C. function
D. perform
6.
A. between
B. along
C. within
D. beyond
7.
A. proclaim
B. endure
C. invalidate
D. substantiate
8.
A. recuperate
B. restore
C. revive
D. resume
9.
A. exert
B. affect
C. enforce
D. compel
10.
A. inducing
B. attaining
C. exacting
D. contributing
11.
A. disparaged
B. retrieved
C. detected
D. originated
12.
A. betrays
B. besets
C. bemoans
D. bestows
13.
A. engendered
B. applied
C. instigated
D. evolved
14.
A. placed
B. ascribed
C. focused
D. attached
15.
A. emerge
B. release
C. determine
D. confess
Part 2. Complete the following extract from a pamphlet on deafness by writing the missing
words in the spaces provided. Use only one word in each space. (7.5 pts)
This pamphlet is not about empty statements and false promises, rather it is concerned with the
cooperation needed by deaf people from those who speak to them. Any person who is willing to
give their cooperation by practising the following points will not only make conservation easier (1)
…………..deaf people, but also for (2) ………..
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Please avoid shouting at deaf people (3) …………….possible. shouting contorts the face of the
speaker (4) ………..the embarrassment of the listener, and (5) …………the conservation unnatural
and strained. Speech is usually (6) ……….heard when it is given in a clear voice (7)
…………..slightly louder (8) ……………normal.
Clarity (9) ……………than volume is often the main requirement when speaking. Many deaf
people have some ability to lip-read, (10) ………..going to lip-reading classes. Some partially deaf
people (11) ……………practise this skill without realising it. They feel that they can hear a speaker
(12) ……………when he is facing them. In actual fact, this probably isn’t the case, (13)
…………………they are likely to understand (14) …………..accurately because what they only
partially hear is assisted (15) ………………what they also see in the speaker’s expressions and lipmovements.
Part 3: You are going to read an extract from an article. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D)
which you think fits best according to the text. (5 pts)
Leakey’s Achievement
Although he made his name with his archeological finds of early humans, Richard Leakey became
famous as the conservationist who turned the tide against elephant poaching. Bringing the slaughter
of Kenya's elephants under control required a military solution, and Leakey was not afraid to apply
it. Many poachers were killed, giving Leakey a reputation for being a cold- blooded obsessive who
put animals before people. Moreover, his efforts to eradicate corruption in Kenya's wildlife
management system won him many enemies.
But the birth of the Kenya Wildlife Service (KWS), the eradication of elephant poaching and the
ban on the international trade in ivory are his legacy, and they form the basis of Wildlife Wars. This
surprisingly personal memoir has much to tell about the fragile relationships between
conservationists and governments. It is a story not only of Kenya, but of the continuing cost of
trying to save the world's wildlife from extinction.
Life for the average person in Africa is tough, and basic needs are far from being met. This is the
background against which Leakey fought his war, and he constantly refers to the threat poverty
poses to the preservation of Africa's spectacular wildlife. Leakey's argument, here and in recent
lectures, is that national parks managed exclusively for biodiversity protection must be created, and
that this protection of our wildlife heritage should be funded by international sources.
However, in the early 1990s the development agencies favoured "community-based" conservation.
Leakey's stand on protection of parks was seen as a lack of respect for local communities, and used
against him when he resigned as head of the KWS in 1994. Recently donors and conservationists
have come to recognise the limitations of purely local conservation programmes; there is a growing
consensus that the poor are unlikely to manage wildlife resources wisely for the long term because
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their needs are immediate.
Wildlife Wars continues where Leakey's memoir One Life left off. It spans a 13-year period,
beginning in 1989 when Leakey became head of the KWS. Then the elephant slaughter was at its
height across Africa; it is estimated that between 1975 and 1989 the international markets for ivory
in Europe, the United States and Asia led to the death of 1.2 m elephants, slaughtered for their ivory
to make piano keys, games and fashion accessories. Kenya's herds were reduced by more than 85%
by armed poachers, who turned their guns on anything and anyone. To stop this killing required
changing the perceptions of ivory users so as to eliminate the markets, as well as mounting an
armed force against the poachers.
With both humour and seriousness, Leakey explains the sacrifices he had to make in order to see his
vision succeed.
Despite the gravity of the situation, Leakey makes light of the sometimes comical
circumstances, although it is clear that his life was at risk many times and he worked under
tremendous pressure. For many, however, the real question is why this paleoanthropologist should
risk his life for wildlife. The answer may lie in Leakey's own depiction of himself, although
obviously aggressive and driven while running KWS, as essentially reflective. Presenting in moving
terms his introduction to elephant emotions and society, he describes his outrage at the moral and
ethical implications of poaching and culling for ivory, arguing that elephants, apes, whales and
dolphins have emotions so like those of humans that they deserve to be treated as such.
Hard-core wildlife groups sniggered at his 'bunny- hugging' tendencies, but they underestimated his
impact. It is impossible to put a value on Leakey's work during those years. As the elephant
population began to recover, Kenya's tourist industry revived to become the country's main source
of revenue. An international awareness campaign centred on an ivory bonfire, which led to the ban
on ivory trade and the collapse of ivory prices.
1. Richard Leakey is most well-known for
A. increasing wildlife budgets.
C. removing the ban on the ivory trade.
B. successfully stopping illegal hunting.
D. helping to identify man’s origins.
2. The word poaching in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to
A. cooking
B. approaching
C. hunting illegal
D. stealing
3. The word fragile in paragraph 2 has the opposite meaning to
A. sturdy
B. delicate
C. flimsy
D. brittle
4. In paragraph 3, Leakey makes the point that
A. conservation should be global responsibility.
B. a war must be fought against poverty.
C. Africa’s wildlife is an international attraction.
D. There is insufficient money to establish parks.
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5. It is now becoming accepted that
A. Leakey had no regard for local communities.
B. conservation programs should be under local control
C. donors have not yet received sufficient recognition.
D. poverty makes regional conservation programmes unreliable.
6. The writers says that between 1975 and 1989
A. the perceptions of the use of ivory changed.
B. elephants were used to make piano keys.
C. the elephant population was decimated.
D. demand for ivory began to decrease.
7. Leakey considers himself
A. amusing
B. sentimental
C. contemplative
D. obsessive
8. The word gravity in paragraph 6 is closest meaning to
A. importance
B. force
C. weight
D. seriousness
9. What does the writer imply in the last paragraph?
A. a disease had affected elephants.
B. Leakey’s views are overly sentimental.
C. Leakey’s success in doubt.
D. Leakey’s work had wide-range effects.
10. This passage is taken from
A. an article about endangered species.
B. a book about Richard Leakey.
C. an article about Kenya.
D. a book review
Part 4. Read the following texts about some famous walls around the world, then choose from
the four texts about walls (A-D) to answer the questions that follow. The texts may be chosen
more than once.
A GUIDE TO GREAT WALLS
A.
Erected in 1961 to prevent East German citizens crossing to the West, the Berlin Wall initially
consisted mainly of barbed wire and armed guards. Within months a concrete wall began to appear,
to be replaced on three separate occasions by ever more sophisticated versions, increasingly
resistant to breakthroughs. On the east side of the wall, tank traps and ditches were built as
protection against attack, and as a further deterrent to would-be escapees.
Although over 170 people lost their lives in Berlin trying to flee to the West, human will and
ingenuity often prevailed, with a number of successful escape attempts via tunnels and, on one
occasion, in a home-made hot air balloon. The 107-kilometre-long structure lost its relevance in
1989, when Hungary allowed East Germans to pass through their country on their way to Austria
and West Germany, and after travel restrictions were lifted, people began to demolish whole
sections of the wall. Now very little of it remains and the land has been used for housing and other
property development.
B.
Stretching for several thousand kilometres from the east coast of the country to the Gobi Desert, the
Great Wall of China is said to be the only man-made structure visible from outer space. The oldest
section was begun in 221 BC, using soldiers and local people, as well as intellectuals who had been
sentenced to forced labour under the repressive Qin dynasty. Not surprisingly, the layers of
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compacted earth used to construct the wall soon began to crumble, and it was left to the later Han
dynasty to restore and add to it.
By now the wall had evolved from a mere defence system for keeping out marauding tribes into a
safe haven where trade could flourish, and bustling market towns sprang up at the many busy gates.
But the ornate and imposing structure with which we are familiar from photographs was not added
until the fourteenth century by Ming, using advanced brick-building technology. It was he who
joined the three separate walls to create this truly impressive feat of construction.
C.
Situated in the north of England at one of the narrowest parts of the country, Hadrian’s Wall is
arguably the most important monument built by the Romans in Britain. Construction of the wall
began in 120 AD on the orders of Emperor Hadrian, who wanted to mark the northernmost
boundary of his Empire. The 117-kilometre wall was manned by thousands of troops, who kept
watch from numerous turrets and mile castles, and who lived in a series of forts situated at strategic
locations.
In the centuries following its abandonment around 400 AD, its stones were used by local people to
build houses, walls and even churches. Nevertheless, spectacular stretches of the wall remain and a
number of forts and museums along its length can be visited, providing a fascinating glimpse into
the lives of the Roman soldiers who patrolled it. Although built of stone, the wall itself is vulnerable
to erosion and visitors are discouraged from walking on it. Designated a UNESCO World Heritage
Site in 1987, Hadrian’s Wall ranks alongside some of the more famous architectural treasures in the
world.
According to the information given in the texts, which wall …
1. can be seen from a great distance?
2. is susceptible to damage?
3. quickly fell into disrepair?
4. is no longer very much in evidence?
5. is a series of different walls which were connected?
6. was built with the help of prisoners?
7. is compared favourably with other ancient monuments?
8. became unnecessary as a result of events elsewhere?
9. proved to be an ideal site for commercial activity?
10. did not always achieve its purpose?
E. WRITING: (20 pts)
Part 1:(5 pts)
Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the one
printed above.
1. The car has leather seats.
The seats …………………………………………………….…………………………..
2. In the event of nuclear weapons being used, we are all doomed.
If it should ……………………………………………………........................................
3. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
The more ………………………………………………………………………..………
4. Mr. Tipper’s wife was very sorry she couldn’t celebrate the New Year with her husband.
Mrs. Tipper greatly……………………………………………………………………
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5. The collision didn’t damage my car much.
Not a great………………………………………..……………………………………
6. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
Urgent …………………………………………………………………………………………..
7. We’ve been trying to sell our house for well over six months.
Our house ……………………………………………………………………………………..
8. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never ……………………………………………………………………………………………
9. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Karen had changed her job.
It came …………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very ………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 2: “School extra activities are beneficial to students’ life.” Do you agree with this
statement? Write a paragraph of about 180 words to state your viewpoint. (15 pts)
11
ĐÁP ÁN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 – ĐỀ SỐ 1.
KỲ THI HSG VÙNG ĐỒNG BẰNG DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
HẢI DƯƠNG 2014
A. LISTENING
Part 1: (5 pts)
1. B
Part 2: (10 pts)
2. B
3. A
1. Monday afternoon
2. water
3. Saturday morning
4. America/ USA
5. £2.00
4. C
5. B
6. £1.75
7. on 284311
8. tourist office(s)
9. beach
10. computers
B. PHONETICS
Part 1: (2.5 pts)
1. C
2. A
Part 2: (2.5 pts)
3. C
4. B
5. A
11. A
3. C
4. C
5. C
2. A
C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
Part 1: (5 pts)
1. B
2. B
11. B 12. B
Part 2: (5 pts)
3. A
13. D
4. D
14. A
1. up
6. by
11. away with
16. at
Part 4: (5 pts)
2. under
7. with
12. down
17. to
5. D
15. C
1. family (1)  families
2. discuss (3)  discussed
3. firstly (3)  first
4. however (4)  how
5. Add (4)  Added
Part 3 (5 pts)
1. separates
5. is …known
6. C
16. D
7. B
17. D
8. A
18. D
9. C
19. D
6. daughter (6)  daughter
7. england (7)  England
8. late (7)  later
9. indicate (8)  indication
10. increasing (9) increase
3. on
8. out of
13. aside
18. up
2. has …played
6. was built
4. to
9. up
14. out
19. down
3. cut
7. was built
5. off
10. off
15. to
20. out
4. separating
8. to be used
10. D
20. D
9. will carry
10. will …be
transported
14. will be
18. acting
13. will …boost
17. remains
Part 5: (5 pts)
11. is expected
12. to have
15. will be
10. will continue
16. enjoy
20. have done
1. safety
2. handful
3. consultant
4. enabled
5. freedom
Part 6: (5 pts)
6. uninhibited
7. co-operative
8. readily
9. deterrent
10. temptation
1. but
2. Hoever
3. Nevertheless
4. However
5. While
6. though
7. whereas
8. despite
9. On the contrary
10.yet
D. READING
Part 1: (7.5 pts)
1. D
2. A
6. A
7. D
11. C
12. B
Part 2: (7.5 pts)
3. C
8. B
13. A
4. B
9. D
14. A
1. for
2. themselves
3. if// whenever
4. to
5. makes
Part 3: (5 pts)
6. best
7. raised
8. than
9. rather
10. without
5. C
10. A
15. C
11. even/ may/ might/ can
12. better/ only
13. but
14. never
15. by
1. B
2. C
6. C
7. C
Part 4: (10 pts)
3. A
8. D
4. A
9. D
5. D
10. D
1. B
6. B
3. B
8. A
4. A
9. B
5. B
10. A
2. C
7. C
E. WRITING
Part 1: (5 pts)
1. ….in the car are covered with leather.
2. …..happen that nuclear weapons are used, we are all doomed.
3. .....qualification you are able to amass, the more successful yu are in the academic
field.
4. ….regretted not being able to celebrate the New Year with her husband.
5. ….amount of damage was done/ caused to my car in the accident.
6. ….action/ measures must be taken to solve the problem of homelessness.
7…..has been for sale for well over six months.
8. ….did she expect her success.
9. ….as no surprise to me to hear that Karen had changed her job.
10. ….thought of his face at that moment makes me laugh.
Part 2: (15 pts)
1. Completion: (2 pt.)
2. Content: (3 pts)
Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example
and/or reasonable justification.
3. Organisation: (4 pts)
- Present the right form of a paragraph
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.
4. Language: (5 pts)
- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use of grammatical structures.
- Present the ideas with clarity.
- Easy to follow.
5. Punctuations and spelling. (1 pts)
SỞ GD- ĐT NAM ĐỊNH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
LÊ HỒNG PHONG
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI – ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
Năm 2014
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề
PART I: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART 1: Circle the correct answer.
1. The weekly radio programme is on
A topics suggested by listeners.
B local news items.
C listeners' hobbies.
2. The process of stamp production is
A difficult.
B expensive.
C time consuming.
3. In the search for suitable subjects, people are invited to
A research a number of topics.
B give an opinion on possible topics.
C produce a list of topics.
4. Topics are sent for final approval to
A a group of graphic artists.
B the Board of Directors.
C a designers' committee.
5. Australian artists receive money
A only if the stamp goes into circulation.
B for the design only.
C for the design and again if it is used.
PART 2:
Questions 1 – 5: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER
for each answer.
WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARY
MEMBERSHIP APPLICATION FORM
Example answer:
NAME: Camden
FIRST NAME: Peter
ADDRESS: Flat 5
53 (1) _________________________________
Finsbury
POSTCODE (2) ____________________________________
DATE OF BIRTH 8th July (3) _____________________________
HOME TEL None
MOBILE TEL (4) ___________________________________
PROOF OF RESIDENCE PROVIDED (5)______________
Questions 6 – 8 : Circle THREE letters A - F.
What type of books does Peter like?
A Wildlife books
B Romance books
C Travel books
D Historical novels
E Science Fiction novels
F Mystery books
Questions 9 and 10: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
9. How much does it cost to join the library?
_________________________________
10. How much does it cost to rent a DVD?
_________________________________
PART II: PHONETICS (5pts)
I. Choose the word - A, B, C or D - that has its underlined part pronounced
differently from the other three in each question. (2.5pts)
1. A. mischief
B. relief
C. belief
D. chief
2. A. canary
B. share
C. baron
D. pharaoh
3. A. chorus
B. chore
C. chronicle
D. synchronize
4. A. perfect
B. correct
C. hectare
D. select
5. A. southern
B. truth
C. south
D. cloth
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others
by circling A, B, C, or D. (2.5pts)
1. A. admirable
B. accessible
C. compatible
D. respiratory
2. A. humane
B. unite
C. colleague
D. canteen
3. A. descent
B. dissent
C. discontent
D. content
4. A. eradicate
B. kilometer
C. characterize
D. communism
5. A. technical
B. origin
C. agriculture
D. cathedral
PART III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I. Choose the best word or phrase to fill in each gap in the following sentences.
(5pts)
1. He got his university degree last year. Now he’s doing ............ studies.
A. graduate
B. graduating
C. postgraduation D. graduation
2. I will only sign the papers ............ my solicitor.
A. within reach
B. of the agreement of
C. under surveillance of
D. in the presence of
3............. our pre-paid order, they failed to send us the items in time.
A. With respect to
B. Regardless of
C. On behalf of
D Without any notice of
4. Not only……….in the project, but he also wanted to become the leader.
A. did Jack involve
B. had Jack been involved
C. was Jack involved
D. Jack was involved
5. I assure you that I ............ no prejudice against what you are doing.
A. harbour
B. shelter
C. imply
D. shadow
6. I felt a bit ............and seemed to have more aches and pains than usual.
A. out of sorts
B. on the mend
C. over the worst
D.
under
the
fevers
7. The inn owner was so generous. What we consumed was ............ the house.
A. in
B. on
C. off
D. of
8. Although the cyclist was unhurt, his bicycle was ............ between the lorry and
the wall.
A. clapped
B. crushed
C. split
D. banged
9. The school was closed for a month because of a serious ............ of fever.
A. outcome
B. outburst
C. outset
D. outbreak
10. You should iron out the ............ in that dress.
A. wrinkles
B. crumples
C. folds
D. creases
11. I don’t think he’s ever been there, ............?
A. do I
B. has he
C. do you
D. hasn’t he
C. that you keep
D. that you will
12. I would appreciate ............ it a secret
A. you to keep
B. your keeping
keep
13. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their
............ down for a while.
A. hair
B. heads
C. hearts
D. souls
14. ............there are more cars in Los Angeles than people.
A. Fact that
B. As fact that is
C. The fact that
D. It is a fact that
15. The management are making ............ to increase the company’s efficiency.
A. measures
B. steps
C. moves
D. deeds
16. They had a four-day holiday, then began work ............
A. on end
B. out of bounds
C. in proportions
D. in earnest
17. The draw’ took place yesterday, but the competition winners ............
A. are yet to be announced
B. haven’t been yet announced
C. yet are to be announced
D. haven’t announced yet
18. I haven’t seen Jane for nearly ten years, ............she had got married and had
two children.
A. for that duration B. at that point
C. during which time
D. in that
time
19. He is a nice guy but I don’t know why he ............so rude today.
A. is
B. has been
C. is being
D. is to be
20. Lisa: “It’s nearly the end of the holiday already.” Mary: “........................!”
A. How time flies
C. It’s a small world
B. Let’s call it a day
D. There’s nothing to it
II. Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them.(5pts)
The Chinese are very generous when it comes to the education of their children.
No caring about the money, parents often send their children to the best schools or
even abroad to England, the United States or Australia. They also want their
children to take extra- course activities which they will either learn a musical
instrument or ballet, or other classes which will give them a head start in life. The
Chinese believe that the most expensive an education is, the better it is. So parents
will spend an unreasonable amount of money on education. Even poor couples will
buy a computer for their son or daughter. However, what most parents fail to see is
that the best early education they can give their children is usually very cheap.
Parents can see that their children’s skills vary, skilled in some areas while poor in
the others. What most parents fail to realize, though, is that today children lack
self-respect and self-confidence. The problem is that parents are only educating
their children on how to take multiple-choice tests and how to study well, but
parents are not teaching them the most important skills they need to be confident,
happy, or clever. Parents can achieve this by teaching practical skills as cooking,
sewing, and doing another housework. Teaching a child to cook will improve
much of the skills that he will need later in life. Cooking demands patience and
time. It is an enjoyable but difficult experience. A good cook always tries to
improve his cooking, so he will learn to work hard and gradually finish his job
successfully. His result, a well-cook dinner, will give him much satisfaction and a
lot of self-confidence.
1 _____
______
2 _____
______
3 _____
______
4 _____
______
5 _____
______
6 _____
______
7 _____
______
8 _____
______
9 _____
______
10 _____
______
III. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition: (5pts)
1. The murderer has been condemned …………. death.
2. I was ill for 2 weeks, so I’ve fallen ………….with my work.
3. My plans for starting a restaurant fell ………….for lack of capital.
4. ………….those present at the ceremony was the local MP, Claire Sims.
5. The cat jumped ………….the wall and landed in next door’s pond.
6. At the library yesterday, I ran ………….an old friend.
7. Before you say no, please calm ………….and listen.
8. How could you stand ………….and watched him beat the children like that?
9. Nobody was taken ………….by his story although it seemed convincing at
first.
10. You can’t talk me ………….giving you more money. I’ve given you enough
already.
11. The only way one can tell the twins………….is by their haircuts.
12. The death penalty was done ………….in Britain many years ago.
13. Tom got carried ………….by the music and wouldn’t stop singing.
14. The doctor thinks he’ll pull…….……..now. His temperature has gone down.
15. She swims so well that she really should go ………….the competition.
16. Because she kept putting ………….going to the dentist, her toothache got
worse.
17. Are you going to sit …………. and let me do everything?
18. The Democratic Party came ………….power this year.
19. This composition would be better if you cut ………….the second paragraph.
20. After the flood, hundreds of volunteers came ………….with
offers
of
assistance.
IV. Use the most suitable form of the verbs in brackets: (5pts)
1. Sally! I..................(expect not) to see you here! What......................(you do) here
in New York?
2. Whatever....................(happen), I......................(meet) you here in a week's time.
3. Since I....................... (pay) for our lunch, I................(try) to attract the waiter’s
attention.
4. You (not buy) ....................... your umbrella for we are going by car.
5. You should have been more careful. You (avoid) ……… having had this
accident.
6. Not until later did they discover that the picture (steal) …………
7. I waited under the clock! - So did I, but I didn’t see you! We (wait) ...........
under different clocks.
8. She was breathing fast and deep, as if she (run) ………..
9. It is very cold. Mr. Taylor, who has been ill recently, is walking along the road
without a coat. He (wear) ……….. a warm coat.
10. He got angry because he hadn’t been accustomed to (make) ……….. fun like
that before.
11. Although (found) ……….many centuries earlier, Luxor did not reach
preeminence until about 2000 B.C.
12. I would like (give) ………... the chance to explain my point of view, but they
weren’t interested.
13. There (be) ..................nothing else to say, he declared the meeting close.
14. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look for) ........................the escaped
prison.
15. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare) ……… it very carefully at home.
16. My uncle would rather that I (not leave) ……….yesterday.
17. Just inside the outer layer of the earth’s atmosphere (be) ……… the elements
necessary to protect it from ultraviolet rays, extreme temperatures, and
threatening foreign substances.
V. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (5pts)
The Desire to Know
Curiosity goes back to the dawn of human (0) _____ existence EXIST
_____. This irresponsible desire to know is not a (1) CHARACTER
_________ of inanimate objects. Nor does it seem to be
attributable to some forms of living organism which, for that
very reason, we can scarcely bring ourselves to consider alive. RECOGNISE
A tree, for example, does not display (2) _________ curiosity,
nor does a sponge or even an oyster. If chance events bring CEREMONIOUS
them poison, predators or parasites, they die as (3) _________ DEPEND
as they lived.
ORDINARY
Early in the scheme of life, (4) _________ motion was RIGID
developed by some organisms. It meant an (5) _________
advance in their control of the environment. A moving ZEAL
organism no longer waited in stolid (6) _________ for food to CONSERVE
come its way, but went out after it. The individual that
hesitated in the (7) _________ search for food, or that was ROUND
overly (8) _________ in its investigation, starved.
As organisms grew more complex, more messages of greater INCREASE
variety were received from and about the (9) _________
environment. At the same time, the nervous system, the living
instrument that interprets and stores the data collected by the
sense organs, became (10) _________ complex.
VI. Fill in each gap with the most suitable phrase or sentence provided. Some
of the suggested answers do not fit at all. (5pts)
WELLS AMI BENNETT
During their lifetimes, H.G Wells and Arnold Bennett achieved a public
fame of a kind that has been accorded to (1) .................. before or since. They
would not have had it if (2) .................., and yet the nature of the fame (3)
.................. as such. It was essentially that of the journalist, the popular pundit (4)
.................. with complete self - assurance. With Shaw, (5) .................. was also a
product of journalism, they divided between them the empire of the press, (6)
..................
All that (7) .................. as novelists. Both were men (8) .................. in
fiction, to say nothing of their short stories, Wells wrote nearly fifty novels,
Bennett thirty. Of these, perhaps ten of Wells’s are still valuable (9) .................. if
the best of the scientific romances are included, and, (10) .................., five of
Bennett’s.
A. they had not been novelists in the first place
B. prepared to pronounce on any subject under the sun
C. the most highly paid writers in the Anglo-Saxon world
D. has nothing to do with their merit
E. more certainly
F. in their own right
G. of vast output
H. if they had wanted to
I. is generally acknowledged
J. whose popular reputation
K. had little to do with their novels
L. was undeniably
M. no other English novelist
PART IV: READING (30 pts)
I. Read the text below and choose the best answer to fill in each gap. (7.5 pts)
English dominates the world of business and is now gradually becoming the
language of politics. People all over the world are benefiting from the spread of
English, which is becoming independent of its origins. However, the dominance of
English has produced a number of (1) _______ effects. One significant after- math
has been the fostering of national antagonisms. A phenomenon like (2) _______ is
observable in CanadA. and particularly in Quebec. Its (3) _______ have long faced
the competition between the English and French languages, as bilingualism
promoted by the government of Canada proved to be an (4) _______ fail- are. Not.
only has it failed to unite the (5) _______ of French- and English- speaking
settlers, but it also entailed a great (6) _______ of prejudice and aggression (7)
_______ outsiders. The English language flooded the majority of Canadian
provinces, (8) _______ producing a minority complex, which French Canadians
have long struggled to (9) _______. The impact of the English language on human
relations differs in (10) _______ countries, where it is viewed either as a useful
product of modern civilisation, or as a “killer” language, which endangers cultural
uniqueness of the societies it enters. (11) _______, the final result of its expansion
and integration (12) _______ the national life of its non-native speakers is yet (13)
_______ seen and we will have wait (14) _______ more years to see the precise
result of these (15) _______.
1. A. hostile
B. adverse
C. reverse
D. contrary
2. A. this
B. it
C. one
D. these
3. A. Inheritors
B. habitats
C. Inhabitants
D. inhibitions
4. A. unpredictable
B. undeniable
C. unique
D. sure
5. A. forefathers
B. ancestors
C. progenitors
D. descendants
6. A. much
B. many
C. deal
D. number
7. A. towards
B. for
C. to
D. up to
8. A. since
B. despite
C. almost
D. thus
9. A. overthrow
B. overtake
C. overcome
D. overturn
10. A. particular
B. specific
C. many
D. special
11. A. In contrast
B. Yet
C. Although
D. Therefore
12. A. within
B. of
C. to
D. into
13. A. being
B. to have been
C. to be
D. already
14. A. no
B. one
C. some
D. a few
15. A. changes
B. differences
C. alternatives
D. options
II. Read the text and fill in each gap with one suitable word. (7.5 pts)
Throughout the ages, the (1) .......... of the earth has been built up in some
places and worn down in other places. The wearing down of the land is called
erosion.
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all help to (2) ............ erosion. As the wind
blows over the land, it often picks up small grains of sand. When these grains of
sand strike (3) .............. solid rocks, the rocks are slowly worn away. Later, the
wind may pick up these new rock particles, and with them wear away other rocks.
In this way even very (4) ... ........ rocks are worn away by the wind.
When articles of rock or soil become (5)…......…. in any way, running water
carries them down the hillsides. Some rock and soil particles are carried into
streams. The streams may then carry them into the (6) .............
Land that is coveredwith trees, grass and other plants wears (7).......…very
slowly, and so (8) ..........very little of its soil. The roots of plants help to hold the
rocks and soil in place. When rain falls in a forest, the leaves of the trees and the
soft soil beneath them are able to hold a great deal of water. Water that falls on
grasslands runs away more slowly than does water that falls on (9) .... ..... ....
ground. Water that flows slowly carries fewer soil (10) …......…. than water that
flows rapidly. Thus, forests and grasslands help to slow down erosion.
Even (11) ............. the land is thickly covered with plants, some erosion goes
on. Sometimes there is a long period of rainy weather. In Spring the (12) ..............
snow turns to large quantities of water. At these times the soil cannot (13) ...........
all the water. It then runs down hill in streams. As the streams carry away some of
the soil, the stream (14) ............. gets deeper and deeper. After thousands of years
of such (15) ............., wide valleys are often formed.
III. Read the following passage then choose the best answer to the questions.
(5 pts)
WARNING ON GLOBAL WARMING
Global warming could cause drought and possibly famine in China, the source
of much of Hong Kong’s food, by 2050, a new report predicts. Hong Kong could
also be at risk from flooding as sea levels rose. The report recommends building
sea-walls around low-lying areas such as the new port and airport reclamations.
Published by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), the report, which includes
work by members of the Chinese Academy of Meteorological Sciences, uses the
most recent projections on climate change to point to a gloomy outlook for China.
By 2050 about 30 to 40 per cent of the country will experience changes in the
type of vegetation it supports, with tropical and subtropical forest conditions
shifting northward and hot desert conditions rising in the west where currently the
desert is temperate. Crop growing areas will expand but any benefit is expected to
be negated by increased evaporation of moisture, making it too dry to grow crops
such as rice. The growing season also is expected to alter, becoming shorter in
southern and central China, the mainland’s breadbasket. The rapid changes make it
unlikely that plants could adapt.
“China will produce smaller crops. In the central and northern areas, and the
southern part, there will be decreased production because of water limitations,” Dr.
Rik Leemans, one of the authors of the report, said during a brief visit to the
territory yesterday. Famine could result because of the demands of feeding the
population — particularly if it grows - and the diminished productivity of the land.
“It looks very difficult for the world as a whole,” he said.
Global warming is caused by the burning of large amounts of fossil fuels, such
as coal and oil, which release gases that trap heat in the atmosphere. World
temperatures already have increased this century by about 6 degrees Celsius and
are projected to rise by between 1.6 degrees and 3.8 degrees by 2100.
Dr. Leemans said China’s reliance on coal-fired power for its industrial growth
did not bode well for the world climate. “I think the political and economic powers
in China are much greater than the environmental powers, and [greenhouse gas
emissions] could accelerate,” Dr. Leemans said. “China is not taking the problem
seriously yet, although it is trying to incorporate this kind of research to see what is
going to happen.”
The climate change report, which will be released tomorrow, focuses on China
but Mr David Melville of WWF-Hong Kong said some of the depressing scenarios
could apply to the territory. Food supplies, for instance, could be affected by lower
crop yields. “Maybe we could afford to import food from elsewhere but you have
to keep in mind that the type of changes experienced in southern China will take
place elsewhere as well,” he said. Sea levels could rise as glaciers melted and the
higher temperatures expanded the size of the oceans, threatening much of
developed Hong Kong which is built on reclaimed land. Current projections are
that sea levels worldwide will rise by 15 to 90 centimetres by 2100, depending on
whether action is taken to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
“Hong Kong has substantial areas built on reclaimed land and sea level rises
could impact on that, not only on Chek Lap Kok but the West Kowloon
Reclamation and the Central and Western Reclamation - the whole lot,” Mr
Melville said, adding that sea-walls would be needed. Depleted fresh water
supplies would be another problem because increased evaporation would reduce
levels. Mr Melville said the general outlook could be helped if Hong Kong used
water less wastefully and encouraged energy efficiency to reduce fuel-burning. He
also called on the West to help China improve its efficiency.
1. Overall, what sort of picture is painted of the future effects of global warming?
A. disastrous
B.potentially disastrous
C.relatively optimistic
D. on balance things are going to be satisfactory
2. What is this passage?
A. a report
B.a preview of a report
C.an article describing a response to a report
D. an article previewing a report
3. Mr David Melville suggests that in future more food could be imported into
Hong Kong. He thinks these measures could be _______.
A. efficient
4.
B. sufficient
C. insufficient
D. inefficient
The main point of paragraph 3 is to describe _______.
A. effects of changes in the climate of China on food production
B.future changes in the climate of China
C.effects of changes in the climate of China on the growing season
D. projected future changes in the climate of China
5.
The main point of paragraph 5 is to describe _______.
A. global warming
B.the effects of global warming
C.the causes and projected effects of global warming
D. the causes and effects of global warming
6.
Why does the writer add the information in square brackets in paragraph 5?
A. because the quote is from a second language user whose command of
English is not perfect.
B. because, although they are not part of the original quote, the additional
information given is necessary to understand the statement.
C. because the writer is quoting from another source.
D. because the writer wants to emphasize the meaning of these words.
7.
In paragraph 7, which point is Mr Melville NOT making?
A. suggesting that there is a potential disaster in Hong Kong
B. suggesting that reclamation areas are at risk
C. criticising current safeguards
D. making a call for action
8.
How would you describe the Dr. Leeman’s attitude towards China?
A. mainly favourable B. critical
C. supportive in theory
D.
admiring
9.
In paragraph 2 “negated” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. made possible
B. made ineffective C. reduced
D. paid for
10. In paragraph 7 “depleted” could be replaced by which of the following?
A. reduced
B. poor
C. decaying
D. decimated
IV. Read the text below and do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
Climate change and the Inuit
The threat posed by climate change in the Arctic and the problems faced by
Canada's Inuit people
A
Unusual incidents are being reported across the Arctic. Inuit families going
off on snowmobiles to prepare their summer hunting camps have found themselves
cut off from home by a sea of mud, following early thaws. There are reports of
igloos losing their insulating properties as the snow drips and refreezes, of lakes
draining into the sea as permafrost melts, and sea ice breaking up earlier than
usual, carrying seals beyond the reach of hunters. Climate change may still be a
rather abstract idea to most of us, but in the Arctic it is already having dramatic
effects - if summertime ice continues to shrink at its present rate, the Arctic Ocean
could soon become virtually ice-free in summer. The knock-on effects are likely to
include more warming, cloudier skies, increased precipitation and higher sea
levels. Scientists are increasingly keen to find out what's going on because they
consider the Arctic the 'canary in the mine' for global warming - a warning of
what's in store for the rest of the world.
B
For the Inuit the problem is urgent. They live in precarious balance with one
of the toughest environments on earth. Climate change, whatever its causes, is a
direct threat to their way of life. Nobody knows the Arctic as well as the locals,
which is why they are not content simply to stand back and let outside experts tell
them what's happening. In Canada, where the Inuit people are jealously guarding
their hard-won autonomy in the country's newest territory, Nunavut, they believe
their best hope of survival in this changing environment lies in combining their
ancestral knowledge with the best of modern science. This is a challenge in itself.
C The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that's covered with snow for
most of the year. Venture into this terrain and you get some idea of the hardships
facing anyone who calls this home. Farming is out of the question and nature offers
meagre pickings. Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500 years ago,
surviving by exploiting sea mammals and fish. The environment tested them to the
limits: sometimes the colonists were successful, sometimes they failed and
vanished. But around a thousand years ago, one group emerged that was uniquely
well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment. These Thule people moved in
from Alaska, bringing kayaks, sleds, dogs, pottery and iron tools. They are the
ancestors of today's Inuit people.
D
Life for the descendants of the Thule people is still harsh. Nunavut is 1.9
million square kilometres of rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the
North Pole. It's currently home to 2,500 people, all but a handful of them
indigenous Inuit. Over the past 40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways
and settled in the territory's 28 isolated communities, but they still rely heavily on
nature
to
provide
food
and
clothing.
Provisions available in local shops have to be flown into Nunavut on one of the
most costly air networks in the world, or brought by supply ship during the few
ice-free weeks of summer. It would cost a family around £7,000 a year to replace
meat they obtained themselves through hunting with imported meat. Economic
opportunities are scarce, and for many people state benefits are their only income.
E While the Inuit may not actually starve if hunting and trapping are curtailed by
climate change, there has certainly been an impact on people's health. Obesity,
heart disease and diabetes are beginning to appear in a people for whom these have
never before been problems. There has been a crisis of identity as the traditional
skills of hunting, trapping and preparing skins have begun to disappear. In
Nunavut's 'igloo and email' society, where adults who were born in igloos have
children who may never have been out on the land, there's a high incidence of
depression.
F With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing out
the mysteries of climate change in the Arctic. Having survived there for centuries,
they believe their wealth of traditional knowledge is vital to the task. And Western
scientists are starting to draw on this wisdom, increasingly referred to as 'Inuit
Qaujimajatugangit', or IQ. 'In the early days scientists ignored us when they came
up here to study anything. They just figured these people don't know very much so
we won't ask them,' says John Amagoalik, an Inuit leader and politician. 'But in
recent years IQ has had much more credibility and weight.' In fact it is now a
requirement for anyone hoping to get permission to do research that they consult
the communities, who are helping to set the research agenda to reflect their most
important concerns. They can turn down applications from scientists they believe
will work against their interests, or research projects that will impinge too much on
their daily lives and traditional activities.
G
Some scientists doubt the value of traditional knowledge because the
occupation of the Arctic doesn't go back far enough. Others, however, point out
that the first weather stations in the far north date back just 50 years. There are still
huge gaps in our environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught,
many predictions are no more than best guesses. IQ could help to bridge the gap
and resolve the tremendous uncertainty about how much of what we're seeing is
natural capriciousness and how much is the consequence of human activity.
1. Choose the corect heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings
below.
List of Headings
i
The reaction of the Inut community of climate change
ii
understanding of climate change remains limited
iii
Respect for Inuit opinion grows
v
A healthier choice of food
vi
A difficult landscape
vii
Negative effects on well-being
viii
Alarm caused by unprecedented events in th Arctic
ix
The benefits of an easier existence
Example
Paragraph A
Answer
viii
1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G
2. Complete the summary of paragraphs C and D below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from paragraphs C and D for each
answer.
If you visit the Canadian Arctic, you immediately appreciate the
problems faced by people for whom this is home. It would clearly be
impossible for the people to engage in (7) ..............as a means of
supporting themselves. For thousands of years they have had to rely on
catching (8) ..............and fish as a means of sustenance. The harsh
surroundings saw many who tried to settle there pushed to their limits,
although some were successful. The (9) ..............people were an example
of the latter and for them the environment did not prove (6)
unmanageable. For the present inhabitants, life continues to be a struggle.
The territory of Nunavut consists of little more than ice, rock and a
few (10) ............... In recent years, many of them have been obliged to
give up their nomadic lifestyle, but they continue to depend mainly
on nature their food and clothes. imported produce is particularly
expensive.
PART V: WRITING (20 pts)
I. Rewrite the following sentences, using the words in the bracket or beginning
as shown. The second sentence must be as close as possible in meaning to the
first. (5 pts)
1. Interrupting when someone is speaking is rude. (CUT)
- It’s rude …………………….when someone is speaking.
2. They had to dismantle their vehicles to get them across the gorge. (PIECES)
..............................................................................................
3. I’m interested in finding out something about fire-fighting. (GIVE)
..............................................................................................
4. My father is going to be really angry when he finds out that I’ve lost the car key.
(WALL)
..............................................................................................
5. The Conservative Party won the election that year. (POWER)
..............................................................................................
6. My brother’s not feeling terribly well these days.
My brother ............................................................................
7. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never ....................................................................................
8. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Karen had changed her job.
- It came ................................................................................
9. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very................................................................................
10. He had just begun his speech when there was a noise of breaking glass.
- He was on …. .....................................................................
II. Write a paragraph (about 150 words): (15pts)
Do you agree with the following statement :
“Mobile phones are of great use. Therefore students should be
allowed to use them at school.”
- THE END ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI – ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
Năm 2014
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
PART I: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART 1.
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. C
PART 2.
1. Green Street
2. 7434
letter
6-8:
F Mystery books
D Historical novels
A Wildlife books
3. 1976
4. 06634982746
5. (an addressed)
9. Free
10. $6 ($ 60 deposit)
PART II: PHONETICS (5pts)
I. Pronunciation: 5pts
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. A
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
II. Stress: 5pts
1. A
PART III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I. Verb form
5. : 10pts
1. C
6.A
11.B
16.D
2. D
7.B
12.B
17.A
3. B
8.B
13.A
18.C
4.C
9.D
14.D
19.C
5.A
10.D
15.C
20.A
II. Mistake Identification: 5pts
1 No
Not
2 which
where
3 most
more
4 the others
others
5 today
today’s
6 or
and
7 as
like
8 another
other
9 much
many
10 well-cook
well-cooked
III. Prepositions: 5pts
1. to
6. across
11. apart
16. off
2. behind
7. down
12. away with
17. back
3. through
8. by
13. away
18. to
4. among
9. in
14. through
19. out
5. over/across
10. into
15. in for
20. forward
IV. Verb form: (5 pts)
1. didn’t expect - are you doing
2. happens - will meet
3. was paying - tried
4. needn’t have bought
5. could have avoided
6. had been stolen
7. must have waited
8. had been running
9. should have been wearing
10. being made
11. founded
12. to have been given
13. being
14. must be looking
15. should have prepared
16. hadn’t left
17. are
V. Word form.
1. characteristic
2. recognisable
3. unceremoniously
4. independent 5. extraordinary
6. rigidity
7. zealous
8. conservative
9. surrounding
10. increasingly
VI. Fill in each gap with the most suitable phrase or sentence provided.
1. M 2. A 3. K 4. B 5. J
6. C 7. D 8. G 9. F 10. E
PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
I. Read the text below and choose the best answer to fill in each gap. 7.5 pts
1. B
6.C
11.B
2. A
7.A
12.D
3. C
8.D
13.C
4.B
9.C
14.D
5.D
10.A
15.A
II. Read the text and fill in each gap with one suitable word. (7.5 pts)
1. surface
6.ocean
11.where
2. cause
7.away
12.melting
3. against
8.loses
13.hold
4.hard
9. bare
14.beds
5.loosened
10. particles
15.erosion
III. Read the following passage then choose the best answer to the questions.
(5 pts)
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. A
IV. Read the text below and do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
1. Choose the corect heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings.
1. Paragraph B
i
2. Paragraph C
vi
3. Paragraph D
iii
4. Paragraph E
vii
5. Paragraph F
iv
6. Paragraph G
ii
2. Complete the summary of paragraphs C and D.
7. farming 8. sea animals
9. Thule
10. islands
PART V: WRITING (20 pts)
I. Rewrite the following sentences, using the words in the bracket or beginning
as shown. The second sentence must be as close as possible in meaning to the
first. (5 pts)
1. Interrupting when someone is speaking is rude. (CUT)
It’s rude to cut in when someone is speaking.
2. They had to dismantle their vehicles to get them across the gorge. (PIECES)
They had to takes their vehicles to pieces to get them across the gorge.
3. I’m interested in finding out something about fire-fighting. (GIVE)
Can you give me some advice on fire-fighting?
4. My father is going to be really angry when he finds out that I’ve lost the car key.
(WALL)
My father is going to go up the wall when he finds out that I’ve lost the car key.
5. The Conservative Party won the election that year. (POWER)
The Conservative Party came into/to power that year.
6. My brother’s not feeling terribly well these days.
My brother is feeling a bit under the weather these days.
7. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never did she expect her success.
8. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Karen had changed her job.
It came as no surprise to me to hear that Karen had changed her job.
9. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very thought of his face at that moment makes me laugh.
10. He had just begun his speech when there was a noise of breaking glass.
He was on the point of beginning his speech when there was a noise of breaking
glass.
II. Write a paragraph (about 150 words): (15pts)
Do you agree with the following statement :
“Music is a bridge between cultures.’
Marking scheme
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as
appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures
appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Dưới đây là bản gốc phần:
PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
IV. Read the text below and do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
Nguồn trích dẫn: CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6_TEST 1_READING PASSAGE 3
Questions 27-32
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 145.
Reading Passage 145 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below..
Write the correct number i-ix, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i
The reaction of the Inuit community to climate change
ii
Understanding of climate change remains limited
iii
Alternative sources of essential supplies
iv
Respect for Inuit opinion grows
v
A healthier choice of food
vi
A difficult landscape
vii
Negative effects on well-being
viii
Alarm caused by unprecedented events in the Arctic
ix
The benefits of an easier existence
Example
Paragraph A
Answer
viii
27 Paragraph B
28 Paragraph C
29 Paragraph D
30 Paragraph E
31 Paragraph F
32 Paragraph G
Climate change and the Inuit
The threat posed by climate change in the Arctic and the problems faced by
Canada's Inuit people
A
Unusual incidents are being reported across the Arctic. Inuit families going
off on snowmobiles to prepare their summer hunting camps have found themselves
cut off from home by a sea of mud, following early thaws. There are reports of
igloos losing their insulating properties as the snow drips and refreezes, of lakes
draining into the sea as permafrost melts, and sea ice breaking up earlier than
usual, carrying seals beyond the reach of hunters. Climate change may still be a
rather abstract idea to most of us, but in the Arctic it is already having dramatic
effects - if summertime ice continues to shrink at its present rate, the Arctic Ocean
could soon become virtually ice-free in summer. The knock-on effects are likely to
include more warming, cloudier skies, increased precipitation and higher sea
levels. Scientists are increasingly keen to find out what's going on because they
consider the Arctic the 'canary in the mine' for global warming - a warning of
what's in store for the rest of the world.
B
For the Inuit the problem is urgent. They live in precarious balance with one
of the toughest environments on earth. Climate change, whatever its causes, is a
direct threat to their way of life. Nobody knows the Arctic as well as the locals,
which is why they are not content simply to stand back and let outside experts tell
them what's happening. In Canada, where the Inuit people are jealously guarding
their hard-won autonomy in the country's newest territory, Nunavut, they believe
their best hope of survival in this changing environment lies in combining their
ancestral knowledge with the best of modern science. This is a challenge in itself.
C
The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that's covered with snow
for most of the year. Venture into this terrain and you get some idea of the
hardships facing anyone who calls this home. Farming is out of the question and
nature offers meagre pickings. Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500
years ago, surviving by exploiting sea mammals and fish. The environment tested
them to the limits: sometimes the colonists were successful, sometimes they failed
and vanished. But around a thousand years ago, one group emerged that was
uniquely well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment. These Thule people
moved in from Alaska, bringing kayaks, sleds, dogs, pottery and iron tools. They
are the ancestors of today's Inuit people.
D
Life for the descendants of the Thule people is still harsh. Nunavut is 1.9
million square kilometres of rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the
North Pole. It's currently home to 2,500 people, all but a handful of them
indigenous Inuit. Over the past 40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways
and settled in the territory's 28 isolated communities, but they still rely heavily on
nature to provide food and clothing. Provisions available in local shops have to be
flown into Nunavut on one of the most costly air networks in the world, or brought
by supply ship during the few ice-free weeks of summer. It would cost a family
around £7,000 a year to replace meat they obtained themselves through hunting
with imported meat. Economic opportunities are scarce, and for many people state
benefits are their only income.
E
While the Inuit may not actually starve if hunting and trapping are curtailed
by climate change, there has certainly been an impact on people's health. Obesity,
heart disease and diabetes are beginning to appear in a people for whom these have
never before been problems. There has been a crisis of identity as the traditional
skills of hunting, trapping and preparing skins have begun to disappear. In
Nunavut's 'igloo and email' society, where adults who were born in igloos have
children who may never have been out on the land, there's a high incidence of
depression.
F
With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing
out the mysteries of climate change in the Arctic. Having survived there for
centuries, they believe their wealth of traditional knowledge is vital to the task.
And Western scientists are starting to draw on this wisdom, increasingly referred to
as 'Inuit Qaujimajatugangit', or IQ. 'In the early days scientists ignored us when
they came up here to study anything. They just figured these people don't know
very much so we won't ask them,' says John Amagoalik, an Inuit leader and
politician. 'But in recent years IQ has had much more credibility and weight.' In
fact it is now a requirement for anyone hoping to get permission to do research that
they consult the communities, who are helping to set the research agenda to reflect
their most important concerns. They can turn down applications from scientists
they believe will work against their interests, or research projects that will impinge
too much on their daily lives and traditional activities.
G
Some scientists doubt the value of traditional knowledge because the
occupation of the Arctic doesn't go back far enough. Others, however, point out
that the first weather stations in the far north date back just 50 years. There are still
huge gaps in our environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught,
many predictions are no more than best guesses. IQ could help to bridge the gap
and resolve the tremendous uncertainty about how much of what we're seeing is
natural capriciousness and how much is the consequence of human activity.
Questions 33-40
Complete the summary of paragraphs C and D below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from paragraphs C and D for each
answer.
Write your answers in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet.
If you visit the Canadian Arctic, you immediately appreciate the problems faced by
people for whom this is home. It would clearly be impossible for the people to
engage in 33 .................... as a means of supporting themselves. For thousands of
years they have had to rely on catching 34 .................... and 35 .................... as a
means of sustenance. The harsh surroundings saw many who tried to settle there
pushed to their limits, although some were successful. The 36 .................... people
were an example of the latter and for them the environment did not prove
unmanageable. For the present inhabitants, life continues to be a struggle. The
territory of Nunavut consists of little more than ice, rock and a few 37 ....................
. In recent years, many of them have been obliged to give up their 38 ....................
lifestyle, but they continue to depend mainly on 39 .................... their food and
clothes. 40 .................... produce is particularly expensive.
KEY: Reading Passage 3, Questions 27-40
27.
i
28.
vi
29.
iii
30.
vii
31.
iv
32.
ii
33.
farming
34&35. IN EITHER ORDER
Sea animals
Fish
36
Thule
37
islands
38
nomadic
39
nature
40
imported
Nội dung bài nghe:
Part 1: Tapescript
PRESENTER
Hello and welcome to this week's edition of Tell me more - the programme where
you ask the questions and we provide the answers. And we've had a wide variety of
questions from you this week. And the subject we've picked for you this week in
response to your many letters is the production of postage stamps. And as usual,
we've been doing our homework on the subject. So who designs the postage
stamps that we stick on our letters? Well in Australia the design of postage stamps
is in the hands of Australia Post. In Britain, it's the Royal Mail that looks after
stamps and it seems that both countries have a similar approach to the production
process. We discovered to our surprise that it can take up to two years to produce a
new postage stamp. Why's that I hear you ask! Surely it can't be all that difficult to
design a stamp? In fact, it isn't. But it seems it's a lengthy business. Firstly they
have to choose the subjects and this is done with the help of market research.
Members of the general public, including families, are surveyed to find out what
sort of things they would like to see on their stamps. They are given a list of
possible topics and asked to rank them. A list is then presented to the Advisory
Committee which meets about once a month. The committee is made up of outside
designers, graphic artists and stamp collectors. If the committee likes the list, it
sends it the Board of Directors which makes the final decision. Then they
commission an artist. Australia artists are paid $1,500 for a stamp design and a
further $800 if the committee actually decides to use the design. So there's
possibility that a stamp might be designed, still never actually go into circulation.
Part 2: Tapescript
Section 1. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman as the
man joins a local library. First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
(20 second gap)
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating
to this will be played first.
Peter: Hello, I’m new in the area and I’d like to join the library please.
Will: That’s no problem. Let me get an application form. Here we are. Now all we
have to do is fill this in and then I’ll get you to sign it and you’ll be a member.
P Great
W Now then. What’s your full name?
P Peter Adrian Camden.
W How do you spell Camden?
P C-A-M-D-E-N
W C-A-M-D-E-N
P Yes, that’s right.
So, Camden is the correct answer.Now we begin. You should answer the
questions as you listen, as the recording is not played twice. Listen carefully to
the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.
Peter: Hello, I’m new in the area and I’d like to join the library please.
Will: That’s no problem. Let me get an application form. Here we are. Now all we
have to do is fill this in and then I’ll get you to sign and you’ll be a member.
P Great
W Now then. What’s your full name?
P Peter Adrian Camden.
W How do you spell Camden?
P C-A-M-D-E-N
W C-A-M-D-E-N
P Yes, that’s right.
W Right, and what’s your address?
P Flat 5, 53 Green Street, Finsbury.
W Ok. Got that. That’s near here isn’t it?
P Yes, just 5 minutes walk.
W What’s the post code?
P 7424.. I..I mean, sorry, 7434.
W Got that now. Now, can you tell me your date of birth?
P 8th July 1976.
W And, what’s your telephone number?
P Well, I don’t have a home number but I’ve got a mobile.
W That’ll do fine.
P It’s 06634 982 746. Did you get that?
W Some of it. Can you say it again?
P The code’s 06634 and the number’s then 982 746
W Right. That’s almost it. Now I need some kind of identification to prove where
you live. Do you have a driving license or a passport or anything like that?
P I’m afraid that everything I have, has got my old address on it. Do you need it
now?
W No, not now, but you won’t be able to take anything out until we see that.
P Wait a minute. I’ve got a letter addressed to me here that arrived this morning.
Will that do?
W Oh yes. That’s a good idea. That will be fine…. Let’s look. Ok. Well, that’s that
finished.
Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6
to 10.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.
W Could I ask you a few questions? The Council that runs the library is running a
survey to find out what kind of books people prefer so that they can direct their
buying.
P Yeah, no problem.
W OK. So, what type of books do you like?
P Well, I’m very keen on mysteries. You know, when a detective is trying to find
out who did the murder. Historical novels interest me too. Romance never! My
sister loves them but they bore me to tears. I quite like books on animals too. I
get them out sometimes. Not science fiction either. Too weird.
W Well, I think that’s it then.
P Good. Oh, do you charge anything?
W The library is free unless you want to rent out some of our videos or DVDs.
P How much is that?
W Well, we rent videos out for $4 each and DVDs are $6. You must leave us a
deposit of $60 as well. That’s returnable of course.
P I don’t think I’ll get any of those just yet. Can I pay later?
W Sure, just give the money in when you’re ready to rent them out.
P Well thanks very much. You’ve been very helpful. I might take a book out now
for the weekend, if that’s OK?
W Go ahead.
M Well, goodbye.
36
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
________________________________
Môn thi:
TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10
Thời gian thi:
180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi:
Đề thi có 16 trang
 Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
 Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
________________________________________________________________
I. LISTENING (15 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây,
mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn
chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: For questions 1–5, listen to an account of inspirational speaker Aron
Ralston and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) for each question. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. The first section emphasises that ________.
A. Ralston’s penknife carried out the amputation surprisingly easily.
B. Ralston’s ordeal lasted for a long time both before and after the amputation.
C. Ralston never lost hope throughout his long ordeal.
D. Ralston would never have survived had he not been an experienced climber.
2. Ralston’s friends were pleased to learn he was eating well because ________.
A. it showed he was back to his old self.
B. he had lost a lot of weight since he was a student.
C. he had never had a very good appetite.
D. it would give him a better chance of recovery.
3. Why did Ralston go back to Colorado?
A. to get a better job
B. to practise a new sport
C. to be closer to his family
D. to spend more time outdoors
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4. What did the story in the Denver Post illustrate?
A. Ralston was not as good at skiing as mountaineering.
B. Ralston is capable of behaving irresponsibly.
C. Ralston loves a variety of challenges.
D. Ralston often worries his parents.
5. What does the last section tell us about Ralston?
A. He intends to keep up with all the sports he previously enjoyed.
B. He plans to replace mountain climbing with adventure racing.
C. He hopes, one day, to inspire others with his attitude to the amputation.
D. He won’t let the loss of his arm stop him from living life to the full.
Your answers
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: For questions 6–15, listen to a talk about citizen journalists and fill in the
missing information. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer in
the spaces provided.
 Citizen journalists are ordinary people involved in collecting,
(6)………………..………., reporting and (7)…………………………
news and information.
 (8)………………………….. people are using modern technology to
create media. For instance, taking a photo and putting it
(9)…………………….. in seconds.
 (10)…………………………. journalism is not being pushed aside.
People still want news from (11)…………….…………………
sources.
 Professional news (12)………….………………. collect public
(13)…………….….………, which are often a valuable and insightful
(14)…………….…………. to standard news coverage.
 Most examples of citizen journalism are read on a professional news
website, already edited, (15)……………………………….. and checked
by professional journalists.
2
II. PHONETICS (5 points)
A. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
others in each group. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding
numbered boxes.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A. motor
A. them
A. swear
A. machine
A. woodland
B. slogan
B. theme
B. sight
B. chamber
B. moorland
C. proper
C. theory
C. same
C. charge
C. hooked
D. total
D. bath
D. sure
D. champion
D. woollen
B. Choose the word with the main stress placed differently from that of the
others in each group. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding
numbered boxes.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
A. migration
B. inhabit
A. statistics
B. tolerant
A. acknowledgement B. insufficient
A. intermarriage B. equality
A. commemorative B. capability
C. character
C. mechanic
C. determinant
C. exceptional
C. periodical
D. diversity
D. designer
D. announcement
D. intensify
D. comprehensively
Your answers
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
III. LEXICO–GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1: Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following
questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Helen was ________ disappointed when she learnt that she hadn’t won the
beauty contest.
A seriously
B bitterly
C strongly
D heavily
2. The bank employee will ________ trial for embezzlement.
A pass
B go through
C face
D stand
3. Tomorrow we will go fishing, weather ________.
A agreeing
B allowing
C permitting
D giving
4. Rescue teams continue to search for the people who got lost during the
avalanche, but after so many days hopes are ________.
A dying away
B disappearing
C fading
D flying away
5. Bill Clinton’s love affair with Monica Lewinsky ________ the news in the
whole world. People were constantly chatting about it.
A made
B delivered
C struck
D filled
6. Although Mary and Paul are ________ apart in personality, they make an
excellent couple.
A leagues
B ways
C miles
D poles
7. I’d opt for a glass of mineral water just to ________ my thirst.
A quit
B quench
C quiver
D quieten
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8. The first amusement park in our city was a ________ success for its owners.
Everybody would go there to have a good time.
A cracking
B ringing
C sparking
D roaring
9. This position is very prestigious, you should ________ to any occasion to
prove that you really deserve it.
A assume
B rise
C conform
D endeavour
10. The number of the victims of the earthquake has been ________ at no less
than 150.
A amounted
B counted
C estimated
D scored
11. About two hundred illegal immigrants have been ________ from the
country.
A expelled
B enforced
C evicted
D expired
12. Tim was praised for having ________ with his research work in spite of
increasing difficulties.
A insisted
B lasted
C sustained
D persevered
13. It’s obvious everyone would like to have their ________ in such an
important meeting.
A talk
B word
C claim
D say
14. This quiet village is ________ of the one I grew up in.
A reminiscent
B similar
C remnant
D identical
15. Samuel couldn’t find any reasonable arguments to ________ his claims in
the court.
A assure
B enforce
C persist
D uphold
16. Bob was in terrible pain, but none of us knew how to ________ his suffering
until the ambulance arrived.
A dissolve
B exclude
C cease
D relieve
17. Susan has taken _________ to Peter’s remarks about her appearance.
A annoyance
B exception
C irritation
D nerve
18. The terrorists were asked whether they ________ guilty of the wrongdoing.
A pleaded
B confirmed
C stated
D admitted
19. Frankie has always been held in high ________ among his workmates
because of his exceptional skill at handling the most difficult tasks.
A respect
B admiration
C prestige
D esteem
20. She may still have a few fans in the world, but she is definitely past her
________.
A fame
B abilities
C prime
D fortune
Your answers
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
4
Part 2: For questions 21–30, read the following text which contains 10 mistakes.
Underline the errors and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered
boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Line
5
10
15
19
Wheeled trolley bags have become a essential item of luggage
amongst frequent travellers. The compact version proves particularly
useful as a piece of hand luggage. Carrying onboard aeroplanes, it allows
you to avoid the queues at the baggage check-in counters on your outward
journey and waiting at the baggage reclaim carousel in your way home.
These days, there are official guidelines regarded the maximum size for
hand luggage on flights, and these stipulated measurements are
continuously subject of change. Policies also vary between airlines and
airport as well as being influenced by your eventual destination. The
outcome of all this is that travellers are recommended to check out the
lattest luggage restrictions before setting out for the airport.
What’s more, before investing in a trolley bag, it’s wise to run a few
checks. You’re likely to be negotiating uneven surfaces as well as a
smooth flooring of airport lounges, so bear on mind that larger wheels are
better able to absorb bumps than their smaller counterparts. Also check
the handle. You’re bound to need lifting your bag at some point in your
journey, probably when you are suddenly confronted with an
inconvenient flight of step, and that’s not the moment to discover that the
handle is awkward to hold.
Your answers
0. line 1: an
24.
28.
21.
25.
29.
22.
26.
30.
23.
27.
Part 3: For questions 31–50, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with
suitable particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. He finds it hard to put ________ the noise of the nearby factory.
31. He’s the leader ________ name only, his deputy has effectively taken over.
32. He is such a knowledgeable scholar that he can talk about the subject for 3
hours _______ end.
33. I’m sorry, but I’m not ________ liberty to tell you any more.
34. Many people are opposed to abortion ________ principle.
35. Alex lost his job because he just didn’t measure up to the standard required
________ him.
36. John and George were both vying ________ her attention at the party.
37. We’ve left the booking our holiday very late. We really have to decide
_______ a date.
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38. I was feeling really terrible so I decided to treat myself _______ a nice cake!
39. My new CD player isn’t working, so I’ve got one _______ loan from the
shop while mine is being repaired.
40. Although he is a literature student, he has never read a Shakespeare play
_______ its entirety, but somehow he always passes his exams!
41. He was passed _______ in the first time he applied for promotion, but he
seems to stand better chance this time.
42. Everyone can put himself ________ for the chairman of the club.
43. The witness was required to give a detailed account of how the accident
came _______.
44. She’s too busy to get _______ to answering all the letters of her fans.
45. He’s entirely unreasonable to take his frustration at work _______ his
children.
46. He was deeply upset to discover that he was taken _______ a ride by his
best friend.
47. Finally, they decided to settle _______ an apology rather than seek
compensation from the tour company.
48. He lost all his money in gambling and had to sell the house which had come
______ him after his parents’ death.
49. Mr John, an impatient and aggressive person, is not at all cut ______ being a
teacher.
50. It’s been pouring heavily since early morning and it doesn’t look like the
rain is going to ease_______ soon.
Your answers
0. up with
31.
36.
41.
46.
32.
37.
42.
47.
33.
38.
43.
48.
34.
39.
44.
49.
35.
40.
45.
50.
Part 4: For questions 51–70, complete the following sentences with suitable
forms of the verbs in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. This university ________ (found) in 1958.
51. A lot of people ________ (ask) about the painting, and I always say it’s not
for sale.
52. Alice felt very pleased with herself. She ________ (find) what she was
looking for.
53. The opposing sides in the war had been fighting since the president
________ (overthrow).
54. By the time the book ________ (publish) next year, no-one will be
interested in what scandalous claims it makes.
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55. She became ________ (recognise) as the leading businesswoman of the
year.
56. After the interval, she went on ________ (talk) about cultural conflicts.
57. I remember ________ (go) to the bank, but nothing after that.
58. I noticed him ________ (throw) a sweet wrapper on the floor, and I asked
him to pick it up.
59-60. The island’s politics ________ (be) complex, with over twelve parties
________ (compete) for power.
61. Of those interviewed, only 20% ________ (admit) to smoking.
62. How on earth do they justify ________ (keep) three dog in such a small flat?
63-64. The judge defer ________ (pass) sentence until the psychiatric reports
________ (submit).
65. ________ (lose) all his money in gambling, he returned to his hometown.
66. The window seat is usually the first one ________ (take).
67-68. If the island ________ (be) still a tourist attraction, last week’s
earthquake ________ (cause) far more deaths.
69-70. If Fleming ________ (discover) penicillin, there ________ (be) more
fatalities every year.
Your answers
0. was founded
53.
56.
59.
62.
65.
68.
51.
54.
57.
60.
63.
66.
69.
52.
55.
58.
61.
64.
67.
70.
Part 5: For questions 71-80, read the text below. Use the word given in
capitals to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the
beginning (0).
LA TOURETTE MONASTERY
Great architecture has never been dependent on the (0)_______ (SPEND) of
vast sums of money. One of the greatest buildings of all time is the monastery
of Sainte-Marie de la Tourette near Lyon, consecrated in 1960 and built cheaply
from that most (71)________ (PRETEND) of building materials – concrete. Yet
here is a building that is at once as poor and as rich as the mendicant monks for
whom it was designed and built. Poor in terms of cost and the materials used to
build it, rich in ideas and (72)_________ (SPIRIT).
Today, much new architecture is slick and polished, erected by teams of
(73)_________ (CONTRACT) working to designs fed through very
(74)_________ (RELY) computer programs. The buildings, whether office
7
blocks, shopping malls or schools, are (75)________ (COST) in absolute terms,
yet generally good value for money. Most, however, are (76)________ (SOUL)
or even cynical.
La Tourette, by contrast, is a tour de force. Set high on a ridge
(77)________ (LOOK) the vineyards of Beaujolais country, this college and
monastery was (78)________ (MISSION) from the great architect Le Corbusier
in 1953. La Tourette marked a profound change in Le Corbusier’s approach to
architecture; a move away from the severe, white geometry of his pre-war years.
It also (79)________ (PRESENT) a new architecture for a church trying to come
to terms with a world of (80)_________ (MODERN) and progress.
Your answers
0. expenditure
74.
78.
71.
75.
79.
72.
76.
80.
73.
77.
Part 6: For questions 81-90, complete the text below by filling in each gap a
conjunction or preposition given. Some conjunctions or prepositions are used
more than once. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
There is an example at the beginning (0).
but
despite
on the contrary
however
whereas
nevertheless
while
though
yet
THE ELGIN MARBLES
The Elgin Marbles are statues which date back to the 5th century BC.
(0)________ they were created in Greece and were located there until the late
18th century, they are now exhibited in the British Museum, London.
The statues used to be in Athens (81)________ they were bought in 1799 by
the Englishman Lord Elgin, who wanted to bring them back to Britain as part of
his personal art collection. (82)________, on the sea voyage back to England,
the ship carrying them was sunk and the ‘Marbles’ were temporarily lost. It
would be an incredibly expensive operation to recover them. (83)________,
Elgin did so, and even though he was a very rich man, he placed himself in
enormous debt. Despite his own desires, he had to sell the Marbles to the British
Government to recover his losses and they were housed in the British Museum,
where they have remained ever since.
In recent times, (84)________, the statues have become the subject of
debate between Britain and Greece and, indeed, among British historians and
archaeologists. (85)________ the Greek authorities have requested the return of
the Marbles on many occasions, the request has always been refused. There are
arguments on both sides. Some people believe that it would be foolish to return
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them, valid (86)________ the Greek request may be, because of the pollution
that is affecting the Parthenon and the possibility of earthquakes in Greece.
Restored to the Parthenon, the Marbles could be exposed to damage,
(87)________ they are safe in the British Museum.
Of course, there are equally compelling arguments for their return,
especially on the moral level. It cannot be denied, (88)________ the material
safety the statues enjoy in Britain, that they are part of the Greek heritage. Many
people also refute the argument that Athens would not be a safe place for them.
(89)________, they claim that if the statues were returned to Greece, a new
state-of-the-art building would be constructed to house them, where they would
be both safe and in their rightful environment. Furthermore, the British
authorities have long used the argument that works of art should not be subject
to ‘ownership’, but should be kept where they are accessible to most people.
(90)________ in the past they have returned a number of cultural artefacts from
other civilisations to their origins.
The argument continues, and is likely to do so for some time in the future.
Your answers
0. Though
84.
88.
81.
85.
89.
82.
86.
90.
83.
87.
IV. READING (30 points)
Part 1: For questions 1–15, read the following passages and decide which
answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding
numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
THE SIBERIAN HUSKY
Siberian Huskies, those beautiful wolf-like canines (0)________ for their
strength and racing instinct, are, as their name (1)________, not native to North
America. In 1908, a Russian fur trader by the name of William Goosak brought
the first team of Siberians to Nome, Alaska to compete in a dog sled race. A
Danish sailor, Louis Thurstop, consented to drive the team after being
(2)_______ by Goosak. Spectators were not impressed with this newlyintroduced (3)________ of dog and, (4)________, quickly nicknamed them
Siberian rats. These so-called ‘rats’, with (5)________ of 100 to 1 against them,
ran a tremendous race and finished in third (6)________.
A spectator at the sporting event, a Scotsman called Fox Ramsay, was
(7)________ impressed with the speed and the (8)________ of these northernbred huskies. So much so that he travelled to Siberia in 1909 in (9)________ of
his own (10)_________ of huskies. Later that year, he returned with 60 of the
finest dogs to be found in Siberia. In 1910, he (11)________ three teams in the
All-Alaska Sweepstakes, a (12)_________ competition which covered over 656
9
kilometres of the roughest (13)________ imaginable. One of his teams
(14)________ first, finishing the race in the (15)________ time of 74 hours and
14 minutes.
0.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
A common
A points
A pushed
A make
A in fact
A stakes
A spot
A extremely
A patience
A search
A shoal
A joined
A tedious
A landscape
A came round
A brilliant
B known
B expresses
B urged
B brand
B actually
B odds
B rank
B rightly
B stability
B exploration
B swarm
B competed
B gruelling
B space
B came through
B staggering
C distinct
C indicates
C converted
C breed
C really
C wagers
C grade
C completely
C endurance
C pursuit
C pack
C entered
C tiresome
C terrain
C came over
C wonderful
D considered
D marks
D persuaded
D strain
D utterly
D bets
D place
D absolutely
D tolerance
D investigation
D herd
D enlisted
D grilling
D feature
D came in
D stunning
Your answers
0. B
1.
6.
11.
2.
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
15.
Part 2: For questions 16–30, read the text below and think of the word which
best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
WHERE HAVE ALL THE GOOD CARTOONS GONE?
Childhood will (0)________ be the same again. Remember Saturday
mornings spent lounging on the sofa, hour (16)________ hour, watching your
favourite cartoons? (17)________ there have been a better reward for the long
school week that had had to be endured? Bugs Bunny, Donald Duck, Mickey
Mouse brought virtually live into (18)________ living rooms. Back then, they
were in black and white, and back then, they were meant to amuse, to entertain.
It seems (19)________ has changed – and definitely (20)________ the
worse. Now when you turn on the television on a Saturday or Sunday morning,
you do (21)________ at your own risk! Be prepared to confront violence in all
its animated glory: exploding bombs, falling buildings, blazing weapons, and
bad guy after bad guy. I don’t see (22)________ is funny about this warped
vision of our times and our society. (23)________ do I see what’s worth
watching on these programmes with (24)________ gruesome caricatures of
good and evil. Who is responsible for children’s programming these days?
10
It cannot be good for today’s youth to be exposed (25)________ this type of
entertainment. (26)________ best, they are missing out (27)________ the
humour, sensitivity and moral lessons that were to be had from the cartoons of
old. At worst, their childish brains are (28)________ filled with scenes of nonstop violence and ideas that are morally corrupt. Childhood should be a time of
innocence, short-lived as it (29)________ be in these turbulent times in which
we live. Perhaps we should bear this in mind the next time we see our child
glued (30)________ the TV on a Saturday morning.
Your answers
0. never
16.
21.
26.
17.
22.
27.
18.
23.
28.
19.
24.
29.
20.
25.
30.
Part 3: For questions 31–40, read the text below and choose the correct answer
(A, B, C or D). Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. There is
an example at the beginning (0).
According to the best evidence gathered by space probes and astronomers,
Mars is an inhospitable planet, more similar to Earth’s Moon than to Earth
itself–a dry, stark, seemingly lifeless world. Mars’ air pressure is equal to
Earth’s at an altitude of 100,000 feet. The air there is 95 percent carbon dioxide.
Mars has no ozone layer to screen out the sun’s lethal radiation. Daytime
temperatures may reach above freezing, but because the planet is blanketed by
the mere wisp of an atmosphere, the heat radiates back into space. Even at the
equator, the temperature drops to –50C (–60F) at night. Today there is no liquid
water, although valleys and channels on the surface show evidence of having
been carved by running water. The polar ice caps are made of frozen water and
carbon dioxide, and water may be frozen in the ground as permafrost.
Despite these difficult conditions, certain scientists believe that there is a
possibility of transforming Mars into a more Earth-like planet. Nuclear reactors
might be used to melt frozen gases and eventually build up the atmosphere. This
in turn could create a “greenhouse effect” that would stop beat from radiating
back into space. Liquid water could be thawed to form a polar ocean. Once
enough ice has melted, suitable plants could be introduced to build up the level
of oxygen in the atmosphere so that, in time, the planet would support animal
life from Earth and even permanent human colonies. “This was once thought to
be so far in the future as to be irrelevant,” said Christopher McKay, a research
scientist at the National Aeronautics and Space Administration. “But now it’s
starting to look practical. We could begin work in four or five decades.”
The idea of “terra-forming” Mars, as enthusiasts call it, has its roots in
science fiction. But as researchers develop a more profound understanding of
how Earth’s ecology supports life, they have begun to see how it may be
11
possible to create similar conditions on Mars. Don’t plan on homesteading on
Mars any time soon, though. The process could take hundreds or even thousands
of years to complete and the cost would be staggering.
0. The word “there” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. a point 100 above the Earth
C. Mars
B. the Earth’s Moon
D. outer space
31. With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?
A. The possibility of changing the Martian environment.
B. The challenge of interplanetary travel.
C. The advantages of establishing colonies on Mars.
D. The need to study the Martian colony.
32. The word “stark” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. harsh
B. unknown
C. dark
D. distant
33. Which of the following does the author NOT list as a characteristic of the
planet Mars that would make colonization difficult?
A. There is little liquid water.
B. Daytime temperatures are dangerously high.
C. The sun’s rays are deadly.
D. Nighttime temperatures are extremely low.
34. According to the passage, the Martian atmosphere today consists mainly of
________.
A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen
C. ozone
D. water vapor
35. It can be inferred from the passage that the “greenhouse effect” mentioned
in paragraph 3 is _________.
A. the direct result of nuclear reactions
B. the cause of low temperatures on Mars
C. caused by the introduction of green plants
D. a possible means of warming Mars
36. According to Christopher McKay, the possibility of transforming Mars
________.
A. could only occur in science fiction stories
B. will not begin for hundreds, even thousands of years
C. is completely impractical
D. could be started in forty to fifty years
37. As used in paragraph 4, the term “terra-forming” refers to _________.
A. a process for adapting plants to live on Mars
B. a means of transporting materials through space
C. a method of building housing for colonists on Mars
D. a system of creating Earth-like conditions on other planets
38. The phrase “more profound” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
_________.
A. deeper
B. more practical C. more up-to-date D. brighter
12
39. According to the article, the basic knowledge needed to transform Mars
comes from _________.
A. the science of astronomy
C. data from space probes
B. a knowledge of Earth’s ecology
D. science fiction stories
40. The word “staggering” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. astonishing
C. increasing
B. restrictive
D. unpredictable
Your answers
0. C
31.
36.
32.
37.
33.
38.
34.
39.
35.
40.
Part 4: Read the following extract and answer questions 41–50.
TERROR IN THE MOUNTAINS
What is incredibly beautiful yet absolutely terrifying and deadly at the
same time? For anyone above the snowline in the mountains, there is little
doubt about the answer. Avalanche – the word strikes fear into the heart of any
avid skier or climber. For those unfortunate enough to be caught up in one, there
is virtually no warning or time to get out of danger and even less chance of
being found. The ‘destroyer’ of the mountains, avalanches can uproot trees,
crush whole buildings, and bury people metres deep under solidified snow.
Around the world, as more and more people head to the mountains in winter,
there are hundreds of avalanche fatalities every year.
A
B
A snow avalanche is a sudden and extremely fast-moving ‘river’ of snow
which races down a mountainside (there can also be avalanches of rocks,
boulders, mud, or sand). There are four main kinds. Loose snow avalanches, or
sluffs, form on very steep slopes. These usually have a ‘teardrop’ shape, starting
from a point and widening as they collect more snow on the way down. Slab
avalanches, which are responsible for about 90% of avalanche-related deaths,
occur when a stiff layer of snow fractures or breaks off and slides downhill at
incredible speed. This layer may be hundreds of metres wide and several metres
thick. As it tends to compact and set like concrete once it stops, it is extremely
dangerous for anyone buried in the flow. The third type is an isothermal
avalanche, which results from heavy rain leading to the snowpack becoming
saturated with water. In the fourth type, air mixes in with loose snow as the
avalanche slides, creating a powder cloud. These powder snow avalanches can
be the largest of all, moving at over 300kmh, with 10,000,000 or more tonnes of
snow. They can flow along a valley floor and even a short distance uphill on the
other side.
C
Three factors are necessary for an avalanche to form. The first relates to
the condition of the snowpack. Temperature, humidity, and sudden
changes in weather conditions all affect the shape and condition of snow crystals
13
in the snowpack which, in turn, influences the stability of the snowpack. In some
cases, weather causes an improvement in avalanche conditions. For example,
low temperature variation in the snowpack and consistent below-freezing
temperatures enable the crystals to compress tightly. On the other hand, if the
snow surface melts and refreezes, this can create an icy or unstable layer.
D
The second vital factor is the degree of slope of the mountain. If this is
below 25 degrees, there is little danger of an avalanche. Slopes that are
steeper than 60 degrees are also unlikely to set off a major avalanche as they
‘sluff’ the snow constantly, in a cascade of loose powdery snow which causes
minimal danger or damage. This means that slabs of ice or weaknesses in the
snowpack have little chance to develop. Thus, the danger zone covers the 25- to
60-degree range of slopes, with most avalanches being slab avalanches that
begin on slopes of 35 to 45 degrees.
E
Finally, there is the movement or event that triggers the avalanche. In the
case of slab avalanches, this can be a natural trigger, such as a sudden
weather change, a falling tree or a collapsing ice or snow overhang. However, in
most fatal avalanches, it is people who create the trigger by moving through an
avalanche-prone area. Snowmobiles are especially dangerous. On the other
hand, contrary to common belief, shouting is not a big enough vibration to set
off a landslide.
For questions 41–45, choose the correct heading for each paragraph A–E from
the list of headings below (i-viii). There are more headings than paragraphs.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
List of headings
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
vi.
vii.
viii.
Examples of Major Avalanches
Stability of the Snowpack
What Sets Off an Avalanche?
An Expert’s Comments
Steepness of Mountains
Avalanche Peril
An Avalanche Risk Table
Types of Avalanche
41. Paragraph A
44. Paragraph D
42. Paragraph B
45. Paragraph E
43. Paragraph C
Your answers
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
For questions 46–50, Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS from the reading passage for each answer. Write your answers in the
spaces provided. There is an example at the beginning (0).
14
Type of avalanche
Characteristics
(0)__________ avalanches
also known as sluffs; steep slopes;
(46)____________ shape; minor risk
Slab avalanches
thick layer of snow breaks off; set very hard once
they stop; cause about 90% of (47)__________
Isothermal avalanches
caused by weight of (48)__________ mixed in
with the snow
Powder snow avalanches
Develop a cloud of loose snow mixed with air;
(49)__________ of all types of avalanche; more
fast and cover a huge distance, even travelling
(50)__________
Your answers
0. loose
48.
46.
49.
47.
50.
V. WRITING (20 points)
Part 1: For questions 1-10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word
given. You must use between three and six words, including the word given.
There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. He paid no attention to our warning.
notice
He ……… took no notice of …………. our warning.
1. Of course I did not agree to lend them the money.
saying
It ……………………………………… not agree to lend them the money.
2. Did anything about his behaviour seem unusual to you?
strike
Did anything about his behaviour ………………………………… unusual?
3. It seems that the thieves escaped in a stolen car.
appear
It ………………………………………………… away in a stolen car.
4. I don’t care if she doesn’t write to me.
difference
It makes no ………………………………………………. in touch or not.
5. I don’t know how he is going to accept the fact that he has lost his job.
terms
I don’t know if he is going to …………………………………….. his job.
6. Finding the survivors is our number one priority.
utmost
It is of the ………………………………………………. the survivors.
7. George didn’t feel like dancing that night.
mood
George …………………………………………….. dancing that night.
15
8. She didn’t mention her illness at all.
reference
She ………………………………………………………… her illness.
9. The ferry timetable can alter depending on the weather.
subject
The ferry timetable ……………………………… depending on the weather.
10. In the end we did all the housework on Sunday.
up
We …………………………………………… all the housework on Sunday.
Part 2: Write a paragraph of about 150 words to express your opinion on the
following statement:
“Foreign languages should be banned in preschool education.”
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– THE END –
16
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
________________________________
Môn thi:
TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10
Thời gian thi:
180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi:
Đáp án & thang điểm có 5 trang
_________________________________________________________________
ĐÁP ÁN & THANG ĐIỂM
I. LISTENING (15 points)
Part 1: (5 points – 1 point/correct answer)
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. B
Part 2: (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)
6. analysing
6. disseminating
8. Ordinary
9. online
10. Serious
11. trusted
13. contributions 14. complement
15. proofread
5. D
12. providers
II. PHONETICS (5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)
1. C
6. C
2. A
7. B
3. D
8. B
4. A
9. A
5. B
10. A
4. C
9. B
14. A
19. D
5. A
10. C
15. D
20. C
III. LEXICO–GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1: (5 points – 0.25 point/correct answer)
1. B
6. D
11. A
16. D
2. D
7. B
12. D
17. B
3. C
8. D
13. D
18. A
Part 2: (5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)
0. line 1: an
24. line 8: to
28. line 14: in
21. line 3: carried 22. line 5: on
25. line 9: airports 26. line 11: latest
29. line 16: to lift 30. line 18: steps
23. line 6: regarding
27. line 13: the
1
Part 3: (5 points – 0.25 point/correct answer)
0. up with
31. in
36. for
41. over
46. for
32. on
37. on
42. forward
47. for
33. at
38. to
43. about
48. down to
34. on
39. on
44. (a)round
49. out for
35. of
40. in
45. out on
50. off
Part 4: (5 points – 0.25 point/correct answer)
0. was founded
53. was overthrown
56. to talk
59. is
62. keeping
65. Having lost
68. would have caused
51. have asked
54. is published
57. going
60. competing
63. passing
66. to be taken
69. hadn’t discovered
52. had found
55. recognised
58. throw
61. admit
64. have been submitted
67. were
70. would be
Part 5: (5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)
0. expenditure
74. reliable
78. commissioned
71. unpretentious 72. spirituality
75. costly
76. soulless
79. represented
80. modernity
73. contractors
77. overlooking
Part 6: (5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)
0. Though
84. however
88. despite
81. but
85. While
89. On the contrary
82. However
86. though
90. Yet
83. Nevertheless
87. whereas
IV. READING (30 points)
Part 1: (7.5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)
0. B
1. C
6. D
11. C
2. D
7. A
12. B
3. C
8. C
13. C
4. A
9. A
14. D
5. B
10. C
15. B
19. this/that
24. their/such
29. may
20. for
25. to
30. to
Part 2: (7.5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)
0. never
16. after
21. so
26. At
17. Could
22. what
27. on
18. our
23. Nor
28. being
2
Part 3: (5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)
0. C
31. A
36. D
32. A
37. D
33. B
38. A
34. A
39. B
35. D
40. A
44. v
45. iii
Part 4: (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)
41. vi
42. viii
0. loose
48. water
43. ii
46. teardrop
49. largest
47. deaths
50. uphill
V. WRITING (20 points)
Part 1: (5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
……goes without saying that I did…… .
……strike you as (being)……
……would appear that the thieves got……
……difference to me if she stays/keeps…….. .
……come to terms with losing….. .
……utmost importance that we find……..
……wasn’t in the mood for……… .
……made no/did not make any reference to…….. .
……is subject to alteration/change….. .
……ended up doing…… .
Part 2: (15 points)
Notes:
The mark given to parts 2 is based on the following criteria:
1. Content: (6 points)
- Providing all main ideas and details as required
- Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Language: (6 points)
- Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
- Good use and control of grammatical structures
- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
- Legible handwriting
3. Organization & Presentation: (3 points)
- Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and
clarity
- The essay is well-structured
3
RECORDING SCRIPTS
Part 1
In today’s programme, we’re talking about the inspirational speaker, Aron Ralston,
who turned a potentially life-threatening accident into a positive experience – a
man who would not let tragedy stop him from reaching his goals. So much so, that
a major Hollywood film has been based around the event which changed his life.
An accomplished climber, Aron Ralston was hiking alone down Utah’s
Bluejohn Canyon. As he climbed over a boulder, it shifted, pinning his right arm
against the canyon wall. Five days later, after having tried to budge the huge rock,
he suddenly knew what to do. He broke the bones in his forearm and managed to
amputate his arm below the elbow with a basic pocket knife he had been carrying
with him. This took about an hour. Once free, after 127 hours trapped, he managed
to get himself down a 60-foot cliff and walk five miles before finding help.
News of this caught the attention of Ralston’s former classmates, who
immediately went online to find out what had happened. Ralstons bravery under
dire circumstances didn’t shock those who were close to him in school.
According to one friend, Ralston’s story is amazing, but not surprising. If
anyone could do what he did and handle it as gracefully, it would be Ralston, he
said. Less than 48 hours after Ralston was transferred to hospital, his former
roommate wrote in an email that Ralston was eating as much as the hospital staff
would let him. Classmates who had been with the climber on countless late-night
runs to burger bars and cafes near the university breathed a sigh of relief.
Ralston’s love of the outdoors led him to leave his job as a mechanical
engineer and return to his home state of Colorado to do more hiking and climbing.
‘That’s Ralston: one friend said. ‘Whenever you think about him, you just have to
smile or laugh. He does the things that you wish you could do someday, but he
didn’t just think it. He did it. He’s 100% energy.’ Before his fateful trip to Utah,
Ralston had reached the summits of III of the 119 tallest peaks in Colorado, many
of them by himself, and in winter, according to his website. Along with Ralston’s
sense of adventure came recklessness. A story appeared in the Denver Post two
days after Ralston went missing, describing how he and two skiing companions
had escaped death earlier that year when they were caught in an avalanche. Ralston
has apologised for not telling anyone he had gone canyoneering in Utah, a mistake
that caused his parents and friends a lot of worry. A search for him began after he
failed to show up for work at an outdoor gear shop in Aspen. Ralston is keeping
everything in perspective. A hand and forearm are not the same as losing a life. He
has already returned to mountain climbing and one day, he is sure he will achieve
his aim of climbing Mount Everest. He has written a bestselling autobiography,
and his story is known all over the world. As an inspirational speaker, his speeches
now motivate audiences to believe in the human capacity to do extraordinary
things, and never to give up hope.
4
Part 2
The phenomenon of citizen journalism is quite a recent one, but one that I’m
sure you’re all familiar with. I’ll attempt to give a brief overview here of what it
is, and how it came about. Essentially, it’s where you get members of the public
playing an active role in the process of collecting, analysing, reporting and
disseminating news and information. This is quite different from ‘traditional’
methods of professional journalism.
One of the basic ideas behind citizen journalism is that ordinary people,
people with no professional training in journalism, can use the tools of modern
technology and the internet to create, change or fact-check media on their own or
in collaboration with others. For instance, you might write about a city council
meeting on, let’s say, your blog. Or you could ‘argue’ with a newspaper feature
in its comment section, or on a social networking site. Or you might take a photo
or video of something happening right in front of you and put it online within
seconds. I often get asked what I think about this. Is serious journalism being
pushed aside? Are professional journalists, photographers, reporters going to lose
their jobs?
Well, to put it simply, no. Of course, these concerns are valid, but when
people want news, real news, and to find out what’s really happening in the
world, they almost always seek out one or two trusted sources. And what’s
happening more and more is that trusted, professional news providers are
collecting the huge mass of public-generated photos, videos and opinions, editing
them, and displaying them alongside proper journalistic items. Public
contributions are becoming a valuable, and sometimes very insightful,
complement to standard news coverage. And in fact, most examples of citizen
journalism that you read aren’t on some private blog, or social-networking site you read them on a trusted news website, already edited, proofread and checked
by professional journalists.
– THE END –
5
ĐỀ NGUỒN MÔN TIẾNG ANH
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
KHỐI 10
Thời gian: 180 minutes
PART I: LISTENING
I. Listen carefully and circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following
questions.
1. The speaker compares a solar eclipse today to a ______.
A. religious experience
B. scientific event
C. popular spectacle
2. The speaker says that the dark spot of an eclipse is ______.
A. simple to predict
B. easy to explain
C. randomly occurring
3. Concerning an eclipse, the ancient Chinese were ______.
A. fascinated
B. rational
C. terrified
4. For the speaker, the most impressive aspect of an eclipse is the ______.
A. exceptional beauty of the sky
B. chance for scientific study
C. effect of the moon on the sun
5. In predicting eclipses, the Babylonians were restricted by their ______.
A. religious attitudes.
B. inaccurate observations
C. limited ability to calculate
II: In this part, you will hear a talk about the importance of organic food. Listen carefully,
fill the blank, and decide whether the statements below are true (T) or false (F).
1. Complete the notes, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
We support naturally grown produce partly because it tastes so good. Naturally grown
produce is healthier than (6) __________ food. Whether farm animals have an illness or not,
they are given growth promoting drugs, antibiotics and anti-parasite drugs on a daily basis.
Consumers dislike the idea of animals raised in cramped conditions. The use of pesticides is
monitored every year, for which more than £ (7) ________ of public money is spent. Billions
of pounds are spent on cleaning up the mess made by agro-chemicals. (8) _________are the
ones who benefit from GM products. Organic food becomes less expensive as consumers
(9)_______. It's also important to reduce (10)_______ in farm workers. However, shopping
(11)________ is difficult, since there are competing interests.
2. Mark each statement below as true (T) or false (F)
12. “Go Organic” is a fresh, modern, and inspiring sourcebook that directly has a big
impact on our planet.
13. One way to keep apples glossy in agriculture is pumping them up with chemical
fertilizers and then spraying them with pesticide.
14. The average conventionally-grown apple has 12-13 artificial poisons on its skin.
15. Going organic is the only practical way to avoid eating genetically modified food.
PART II: PHONOLOGY
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others in each group.
16 A. sanction
B. amass
C. ambassador
D. embassy
17 A. postpone
B. postcard
C. against
D. defrost
18 A. sigh
B. automobile
C. tighten
D. ice-hockey
19 A. crew
B. chew
C. mew
D. threw
20 A. horrific
B. mortgage
C. mortality
D. organism
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in each
group.
21.
A. chronology
B. revitalize
C. resurrect
D. verbatim
22.
A. antibiotic
B. physiotherapy
C. rehabilitate
D. underdeveloped
23.
A. advocate
B. allergy
C. humankind
D. biosphere
24.
A. charitable
B. illuminate
C. straightforward
D. epitomize
25.
A. encyclopedia
B. miscellaneous
C. monopolistic
D. predictability
PART III: VOCABULARY & STRUCTURES
I.
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank
26. She would always _______ a clear impression of the incident.
A. reconcile
B. rebuke
C. reflect
D. retain
27. His company went bankrupt, three years of hard work ________ the drain.
A. into
B. in
C. down
D. on
28. He’s a tough politician – he knows how to ________ the storm.
A. ride out
B. run down
C. keep up
D. push back
29. _______map of _______world, until _______end of ________fifteenth century exhibited
only _______ one hemisphere, and even that was not completely explored.
A. The/ the/ the/ the/ the
B. The/-/ -/ the/ -
C. A/ the/ -/ -/ -
D. The/ the/ the/ the/ -
30. On entering the nursery I stumbled on the wooden blocks _________ all over the carpet.
A. plunged
B. scattered
C. settled
D. tossed
31. We are pleased to announce that Keith Danish ________ replace Susan William as
Operations Manager from 24th September.
A. does
B. is to
C. is about to
D. is due
32. When I came to the theater last night, the crowd was so large and the tickets cost ____.
A. an arm and a leg
B. a hand and a leg
C. a finger
D. all hands and fingers
33. The mayor has decided to ____________ crime. It’s about time, if you ask me.
A. stepped up
B. crack down on
C. blow over
D. stamp down
34. On being told about her sack, _________.
A. her boss felt sorry for Mary
B. Mary was shocked
C. Mary’s face turned pale
D. all are correct
35. _________ their physical appearance, our ancestors distanced themselves _________ the
rest of animals.
A. Customize/ away
B. Customizing/ away
C. Customized/ from
D. By customizing/ from
36. Mary usually buys her clothes ________. It’s cheaper than going to a dressmaker.
A. in public
B. on the shelf
C. off the peg
D. on the house
C. execute
D. prejudice
C. Humanitarian
D. Humane
37. John was asked to ________ before the judge.
A. wit
B. testify
38. We must send ________ aid to the refugees.
A. Humanism
B. Human
39. When _________ treating me with some respect at work?
A. will they have started
B. are they starting
C. are they going to start
D. will they be starting
40. Ben crept _______ on Lisa and put his hands over her eyes.
A. out
B. off
C. round
D. up
41. The book would have been perfect _________ the ending.
A. had it not been for
B. it hadn’t been for
C. it had not been for
D. hadn’t it been for
42. To be honest, Jane is __________ Alison is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious
B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious than
D. nowhere near as ambitious as
43. The country around here is so _______ that you can only get around in a jeep.
A. severe
B. weathered
C. rugged
D. jagged
44. Kathy was as pleased as __________ when she heard she had passed the exam.
A. punch
B. a poppy
C. a sunflower
D. a dungeon
45. Demand for the products is expected to peak 5 years from now and then to _________.
A. tapped off
II.
B. fall down
C. set back
C. drift away
Identify 10 mistakes in the following passage and correct them.
If there is one characteristic of British work in the arts that seems to stand out is its
shortage of identification with wider intellectual trends. Playwrights and directors can be
left-wing in their political look-out, but the plays they produce rarely convey a
straightforward message. The same is largely true of British novelists and poets. Their
writing is naturalistic and is not connected to particular intellectual movements. The theatre
had always been very strong in Britain, especially in London. The country’s most successful
playwrights are those who explore the darker side of the personality and of personal
relationships. In contrast, the cinema in Britain is often regarded as not quite part of the arts
in all, it is simply entertainment. Britain is unique between the large European countries in
giving mostly no financial help to their film industry. Classical music is also a minority
interest. British seem disinterested in high education, they watch lots of television, but are
enthusiastic readers. The vast majority of books reading in Britain are not classified as
serious literature.
46. ________________________
51. ________________________
47. ________________________
52. ________________________
48. ________________________
53. ________________________
49. ________________________
54. ________________________
50. ________________________
55. ________________________
III. Put in suitable prepositions or adverb particles.
56. The husband has been apprised ________ the good news ________ his son.
57. We have not arrived _____ any decision _____ the matter ________ question.
58. Everyone should assist ________ the performance ________ these tasks.
59. Let me assure you ________ my honest intentions ________ your daughter.
60. The beast was baulked ______ his prey ________ the last moment.
61. I refuse to bargain ________ you _____ the prize ________ those conditions.
62. Don’t waste time brooding ________ your past failures.
63. I won’t concede ________ your demand.
64. Don’t dally ________ a woman’s affections.
65. Being rich doesn’t count ________ much on a desert island.
66. The problem stems _________ the government’s lack of action.
67. The factory owner is not in the habit of fraternizing ___ ____ his workers.
68. If you have a grievance ____ the company, please lodge a formal written complaint.
69. My car is guaranteed _______ rust for eight years.
70. He was deaf ______ my requests for help.
71. We’re two months _______ arrears _______ the rent.
72. His glee ______ the news of his success was a joy to see.
73. He has a fixation ________ becoming the best doctor in the world.
74. I was furious ______ my sister _______ her always borrowing my clothes without my
permission.
75. He is a solicitor ________ profession.
IV. Put each verb in brackets in the correct tense or form.
76. I hope you (not / wait)___________ too long. I’m afraid the lift (break down)_______ so
I must walk down the stairs from the 24th floor.
77. I (ask)_________ Penny for her advice, but I’m not so sure that’s such a good idea now.
78. We (buy)_________ tickets for the film in advance, but as the cinema is half empty, we
(not / need / do) __________ so.
79. It was extraordinary! In fact, if I (not / see)__________ it with my own eyes, I (never /
believe)________ it.
80. In a few minutes’ time, when the clock (strike)__________ six, I (wait)__________ here
three-quarters of an hour.
81. You (telephone) ________ for ages. You (not, finish) ________?
82. I would rather (not be) ________ absent from class yesterday.
83. He pretended (forget) ________ the man’s name.
84. Were I (know) ________ the answer, I (tell) ______ you right away.
85. The girl got into a lot of trouble. She (not tell) ________ a lie.
86. I (appreciate) ________ (tell) ________ the news.
87. The world will be different, and we ________ (prepare) to adapt to the change.
88. It looks as though a compromise agreement (now/reach)________
89. We (not/see)_______ Ken and Tricia when we go to the United States as they’ll be away
at the time, unfortunately.
90. We’d just been informed that Nick (be)_______ the new Managing Director.
91. At the end of the month, Sarah (work) _______ in government for exactly 40 years.
92. How long (you/wait)_______ before Val finally turned up?
93. By the time we arrived, the film (already/ start)__________
94. When John phoned, he sounded like he (have)_______ quite a shock.
95. Just as you arrived, I (get)________ ready to go out.
V.
Read the following text and fill in each blank using the correct form of the word in
brackets.
CAR REVIEW: THE XR1200
Although still a relative (96)________ to the world of high- COME
performance sports cars, General Autos has (97)_________ quite a GO
transformation since their first effort, the Xtreme, attracted such
(98)_______ comment in the motoring press, which led to FAVOUR
disappointing sales. Their latest effort, the XR1200 (99)_______, went CONVERT
into (100) ___________ last month, and I had the chance to test-drive PRODUCE
one. To say that the XRI200 is better than the Xtreme is a huge
(101)_________. Not only is it much better, it represents a STATE
(102)_______ new approach to this class of car. From the seats to the REVOLT
angle of the steering wheel, everything on this car is (103) _______, ADJUST
meaning that you can set the car up to fit you perfectly. The engine, too,
is easy to set up for maximum efficiency, with the help of powerful
dual (104) _______ that monitor performance 1000 times a second. PROCESS
Even the bodywork incorporates state-of-the-art ideas, with a new
durable material that should mean that your XR1200 (105) _______ LAST
almost anything else on the road.
96. _______________________
101. _______________________
97. _______________________
102. _______________________
98. _______________________
103. _______________________
99. _______________________
104. _______________________
100. _______________________
105. _______________________
VI. Read the following text and fill in each blank using the correct word in brackets.
ALSO
AT FIRST GLANCE
JUST AS
THEREFORE
UNLIKE
WHEREAS
DESPITE
HOWEVER
HOWEVER
TO SUM UP
There is and always has been a need for an international language, and historically
languages have competed with each other for this role. The current leader in the field is
English, with other European languages behind, but artificial languages such as Esperanto
are nowhere to be in sight.
(106) ________, this might seem surprising, as the advantage of artificial languages is
that they are supposed to be simple to learn. (107)________natural languages, there are no
irregular verbs, the grammar is extremely simple, and the vocabulary has a large number of
words that appear to be easy to learn. (108)________, while this may be true for speakers of
European languages, it is by no means true for speakers of a language like Japanese, which is
entirely different. Artificial languages are therefore not suitable for everyone, because they
are based only on European languages.
There would (109)________ be practical problems if an artificial language was chosen
as an international mans of communicational. There is no official organization or
government that could make such a decision, because as far as languages are concerned,
success breeds success. Most people want to learn a language such as English, Spanish or
French that is already widely spoken, and popular languages continually attract new learners.
It would (110)________not be realistic for governments to impose an artificial language with
almost no speakers, because people would simply refuse to learn it.
Ultimately, (111) ________, the main problem with an artificial language is related to
the nature of language itself. An artificial language is simply a set of words with no heart, no
native speakers and no traditions, (112) _______ a living language is dynamic. Living
languages can change and develop. They have literary traditions and are capable of growing
and adopting new words and ideas. Languages are aggressive too, and take over and kill off
minority ones, (113)_______ English has almost eliminated Gaelic. In these circumstances,
an artificial language could never hope to survive.
(114)________, although the current international languages are not ideal, there is no
evidence that artificial languages would be any better. (115) _________ their deceptive
simplicity, it would be almost impossible to make everyone to learn one, and it would
possible not survive unchanged anyway. It is possible that English will continue to dominate
and may one day be a completely international second language, but whatever happens, the
process will be determined by the speakers, and will not be under political control.
PART IV: READING
I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
Sleeping disorders like insomnia can (116) _________ to be a worrying question for
many of us. Almost anyone can easily conjure (117) ________ at least one sleepless night of
(118) ________ and turning in bed awaiting the bliss of a deep dream. Most probably, a third
of us (119) _______ the distressing experience at least once a week.
Even though it is possible for people to (120) _________ without any sleep at all for a
certain period of time, such occurrences are rather few and far (121) _____ and there is no
evidence to (122) _________this assumption. What is sure, however, is the fact that we do
need some sleep to regenerate our strength and to (123) _____ the brain to its proper activity.
No wonder, then, that the tiredness and fatigue that appear after a sleepless night (124)
_______ many of us to go for chemical support in the form of sleep (125) _______ tablets or
powders.
However long the problem of sleeplessness has afflicted many individuals, very little
has been (126) _______ in the question of its original causes. We are conscious that it
usually (127) ________ those who are exposed to a great deal of stress, anxiety or
depression. It may also be (128) _______ by overworking or unfavorable surroundings with
scarcity of fresh air.
Sleeping pills may provide some relief and can act as an alternative in this desperate
situation. Yet, they do little to combat the ailment in full. Consequently, our hopes should be
(129) _________ on the medical authorities to (130) ________ the root cause of insomnia
before we take to being nocturnals leading our noisy lives in the dead of night.
116. A. present
B. entail
C. realize
D. prove
117. A. up
B. about
C. off
D. out
118. A. rolling
B. wriggling
C. tossing
D. spinning
119. A. underpass
B. undergo
C. underlie
D. undertake
120. A. operate
B. process
C. function
D. perform
121. A. between
B. along
C. within
D. beyond
122. A. proclaim
B. endure
C. invalidate
D. substantiate
123. A. recuperate
B. restore
C. revive
D. resume
124. A. exert
B. affect
C. enforce
D. compel
125. A. inducing
B. attaining
C. exacting
D. contributing
126. A. disparaged
B. retrieved
C. detected
D. originated
127. A. betrays
B. besets
C. bemoans
D. bestows
128. A. engendered
B. applied
C. instigated
D. evolved
129. A. placed
B. ascribed
C. focused
D. attached
130. A. emerge
B. release
C. determine
D. confess
II. Fill each blank with ONE word
CAN PARROTS COMMUNICATE?
Everyone knows that parrots can imitate human speech, but can these birds also
understand meaning? Two decades ago, researcher Irene Pepperberg started working with
Alex, an African grey parrot, and ever since then, she has been building (131) ________ data
on him. Pepperberg, (132)______ recently published book The Alex Studies makes
fascinating reading, claims Alex doesn’t copy speech but intentionally uses words to get
(133) ________ it is that he wants.
In actual (134) ________, some of his cognitive skills are identical to those of a fiveyear-old child. (135) ________ a child’s, Alex’s learning has been a steady progression.
Early on, he (136) ________ vocalize whether two things were the same or different. Now,
he carries (137)________ more complex tasks. Presented (138) ________ different-coloured
balls and blocks and asked the number of red blocks, he’ll answer correctly. He requests
things as well. (139) ________ he asks to sit on your shoulder and you put him (140)
________ else, he’ll complain: “Wanna go shoulder.”
A (141)_________ experts remain skeptical, seeing very (142) ________ in Alex’s
performance beyond learning by association, by (143)________ of intensive training. Yet
Alex appears to (144)_________ mastered simple two-way communication. As parrots live
for 60 years or more, Alex may surprise (145) ________ all further.
III.
Read the following passage and answer the questions
SCHIZOPHRENIA
One of the most serious forms of mental illness is schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is a
complex illness and includes many symptoms, and most people who suffer from
schizophrenia do not display all the symptoms. One common trait shared by almost every
schizophrenic, however, is a basic inability to tell the difference between reality and fantasy.
Every person has fantasies. Our imaginations create situations which are not real. In a
healthy person, these fantasies are often called “daydreams,” and the person is aware that
they are not real. A schizophrenic, however, does not understand that his or her daydreams
are not part of reality. This can lead to powerful delusions in which a person may believe
things that could not possibly be true. For example, a schizophrenic may believe that he or
she has been contacted by aliens, or some other situation which is just as unlikely. Under
extreme circumstances, these delusions may cause the schizophrenic to become violent and
dangerous.
The causes of schizophrenia are complex and not completely understood. We know that
brain chemistry is somehow involved. We know this because certain drugs which help
control a specific chemical in the brain are helpful in treating schizophrenia. We also know
that people who come from a family in which schizophrenia is common are more likely to
develop schizophrenia themselves. Furthermore, schizophrenia usually surfaces during or
after a person’s teenage years, right about the same time important chemical changes occur
in the brain. All of these facts point to a biological cause for schizophrenia.
At the same time, there is a great deal of evidence that shows that a person’s environment
and personal experiences are also important factors. For instance, one study showed that
people living in a city are almost 70% more likely to develop schizophrenia, and minority
groups show higher rates of the illness as well. This clearly shows that environment plays an
important role alongside brain chemistry.
Schizophrenia is an episodic illness, with periods of severe illness usually lasting several
months. Severe schizophrenics experience these episodes more frequently than those with
less severe forms of the illness. It is estimated that about 1 % of the world population will
experience a schizophrenic episode at some point in their lives. Treatment generally includes
medication, and in severe cases hospitalization.
146. The word trait in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. problem
B. illness
C. handicap
D. characteristic
147. According to paragraph 1, the essential difference between the daydreams of a healthy
person and those of a schizophrenic is that __________.
A. a schizophrenic does not know that his or her daydreams are imaginary
B. the daydreams of schizophrenics make them violent and dangerous
C. a healthy person’s daydreams are more imaginative
D. the daydreams of a healthy person occur far less frequently
148. All of the following are symptoms of schizophrenia EXCEPT
A. Hearing voices or noises that are not there
B. Organized thinking
C. A lack of emotion and motivation
D. Feeling that things are being controlled from outside
149. Based on the information in paragraph 1, the term delusions can best be explained as
A. the belief in ideas that are untrue and highly unlikely
B. serious forms of mental illness
C. common symptoms among schizophrenics
D. conditions which cause a person to become violent
150. According to the passage, all of the following are proof that schizophrenia has
biological causes EXCEPT _________.
A. drugs that control brain chemistry effectively treat schizophrenia
B. schizophrenia causes important changes in the bodies of teenagers
C. people with a family history of the illness are more likely to develop schizophrenia
D. schizophrenia often occurs for the first time during adolescence
151. Based on the information in paragraph 3, what can be inferred about minority groups?
A. They have different brain chemistries.
B. They are often the most violent schizophrenics.
C. They often live in different environments than other people.
D. They are more likely to develop schizophrenia than people living in the city.
152. In stating that schizophrenia is an episodic illness, the author means that schizophrenia
A. is an illness which appears for a period of time and reappears later
B. is an illness which is only treatable for short periods of time
C. is an illness which can be overcome in a short period of time
D. affects people from every part of the world
153. The word those in the passage refers to
A. episodes
B. schizophrenics
C. periods of illness
D. experiences
154. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. These delusions can be damaging to a person’s professional and social life.
B. Schizophrenics can be aware whether their daydreams are real or not all the time.
C. In the middle age, people usually suffer from schizophrenia.
D. Schizophrenia is a chronic illness.
155. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT
A. Schizophrenia is characterized by the inability to tell reality from fantasy.
B. The delusions of schizophrenics can lead to violence in most cases.
C. Schizophrenia is believed to have both biological and environmental causes.
D. Schizophrenia is periodic in nature and is treated with medication or hospitalization.
IV.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
156. _________________
Famous for its beautiful setting, San Francisco is built on a series of steep hills located on the
northern tip of a peninsula at the entrance to San Francisco Bay. The bay and its extensions,
constitute one of the great natural harbors of the world, embracing nearly 1,200 sq km of
water. Because of this, San Francisco was once the major Pacific Coast seaport of the United
States. Today the city is an important center for finance, technology, tourism, and culture.
157. __________________
San Franciscans, and in some cases their counterparts in the Bay Area, have successfully
undertaken mammoth construction projects such as the San Francisco-Oakland Bay Bridge,
the Golden Gate Bridge, and the Bay Area Rapid Transit system. Since at least the 1950s,
San Franciscans have also earned a reputation for tolerance of and respect for diversity.
158. __________________
The most serious social problems facing the city are not unique to San Francisco, but some
have taken on greater dimensions in the city than they have elsewhere. One such problem is
homelessness. From 1988 to 1992, the plaza in front of city hall became an encampment for
homeless people, rendering other use impossible and raising public health concerns. The
problem of homelessness persists despite the efforts of city agencies and private charities to
provide shelter, health care, and drug, alcohol, and mental health treatment. In the mid-and
late 1990s mayors Frank Jordan and Willie Brown both sought to discourage homeless
people from living in public space in the downtown area and, in Brown’s case, in Golden
Gate Park. However, residents of other areas complained that because of these projects, the
displaced homeless had moved into their neighborhoods.
159. __________________
In other areas the city has made some progress toward addressing social problems. As was
true across much of the nation, the crime rate in San Francisco dropped in the 1990s, as did
the rate of drug-related violence. In addition, some public housing projects in San Francisco
that were especially prone to violence and drug-related activity were razed and rebuilt with
designs considered less likely to encourage those activities. Other public housing projects
received stepped up security patrols.
160. _________________________
Some social critics have pointed to an increasing economic and social polarization of San
Francisco’s population. Those who work in finance or high-tech fields are increasingly
affluent, pushing rents and home prices to among the highest levels in the nation. At the
same time, people who labor in the service sector often work for the minimum wage, cannot
share the affluent lifestyles around them, and are hard-pressed to afford rising rents. This
economic polarization coincides in part with ethnic and educational patterns. Workers in the
low-wage end of the service sector are likely to have limited English proficiency and a highschool education or less; many workers in those areas are also disproportionately African
American and Hispanic. By contrast, those people who work in the finance and high-tech
sectors are more likely to be white or Asian American and to have one or more college
degrees.
Match the headings given in the box below with their appropriate numbers (1-5) that
lead the five paragraphs and write the letters A-H in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (The headings outnumber the paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.)
A. The problems in San Francisco.
B. Geographic characteristics of San Francisco.
C. Ethnic and education patterns in San Francisco
D. San Francisco’s accomplishments.
E. The problem of homelessness in San Francisco.
F. The beauty of San Francisco
G. Public security improvements in San Francisco.
H. The problem of social economic polarization.
161. Which is the best tittle for the passage?
A. San Francisco: The beauty and issues
B. San Francisco: Social improvements
C. San Francisco: How to solve the social issues
D. San Francisco: Its contemporary issues
Below is or a brief summary of the passage. Find a word or a phrase to complete the
summary.
San Francisco - an important center for finance, technology, tourism, and culture- has
achieved tremendous successes in (162) __________. Today, the city has faced some serious
social problems such as: homelessness, crime rate, and (163) _________. Efforts have been
made to solve these issues. In the mid-and late 1990s, homeless people were prevented from
living in public space in the downtown area and, in Brown’s case, in Golden Gate Park to
solve the homelessness problem. Several housing projects were launched to reduce (164) __
________. The economic and social polarization, according to some social critics, coincides
in part with (165) ___________ patterns, which requires more efforts to be solved.
PART V: WRITING
I.
Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same
as the one given.
166. It was not until five years had elapsed that the whole truth about the murder came out.
→ Not for _____________________________________________________________
167. She was just as good as they had thought
.
She quite definitely came _________________________________________________
168. We were all tired so we stopped off in Madrid on our way to Germany.
We were all tired so we broke ______________________________________________
169. I don't understand one word of this document.
I can't make head ________________________________________________________
170. There is grave concern about confirmed cases of cholera that originated in the makeshift
shelters.
Of ___________________________________________________________________
171. His behaviour was rather a shock to me. (ABACK)
______________________________________________________________________
172. The incident ruined my chances of promotion. (PAID)
______________________________________________________________________
173. Stanley is rather fearful of the new algebra teacher (AWE)
______________________________________________________________________
174. Every possible effort was made by the orphanage to find the boy’s parents. (STONE)
The orphanage __________________________________________________________
175. The handling of the matter has been heavily criticized by the press. (SCORN)
The press____________________________________________________________
II.
Many people think that college students should have complete freedom to choose
their own courses. Do you agree or disagree with this? Write a paragraph in about
150 words to express your opinion.
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ NGUỒN MÔN TIẾNG ANH
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
KHỐI 10
PART I: LISTENING
LISTENING
I.
1. C
4. B
2. B
5. C
3. C
II.
6. intensively produced
11. organically
7. 2.5 million
12. F
8. Wholesalers and retailers
13. T
9. buy more
14. F
10. health problems
15. T
PART II: PHONOLOGY
16. D
21. C
17. A
22. C
18. B
23. C
19. C
24. A
20. A
25. B
PART III: VOCABULARY & STRUCTURES
I.
Choose the best answer to fill in the blank
26. D
31. B
36. C
41. A
27. C
32. A
37. B
42. D
28. A
33. B
38. C
43. C
29. D
34. B
39. C
44. A
30. B
35. D
40. D
45. A
II.
Identify 10 mistakes in the following passage and correct them.
46. shortage  lack
51. between  among
48. to  with
53. their  its
47. look-out  outlook
49. had  has
50. in all  at all
52. mostly  almost
54. disinterested  uninterested
55. reading  read
III. Put in suitable prepositions or adverb particles (10 m)
56. of – about
66. from
57. at – about – in
67. with
58. in – of
68. against/with
59. of – towards
69. against
60. of- at
70. to
61. with – over- on
71. in – with
62. over
72. at
63. to
73. on
64. with
74. with – about
65. for
75. by
IV. Put each verb in brackets in the correct tense or form.
76. haven’t been waiting - has broken down
85. shouldn’t have told
77. was going to ask
86. appreciate - having been told
78. bought - needn’t have done
87. will have to be prepared
79. hadn’t seen - would never have
88. has now been reached
believed
89. won’t be seeing
80. strikes - shall have been waiting
90. was to be
81. have been telephoning - haven’t you
91. will have been working
finished
92. had you been waiting
82. not have been
93. had already started
83. to have forgotten
94. had had
84. to know - would tell
95. was getting
V.
Read the following text and fill in each blank using the correct form of the word in
brackets.
96. NEWCOMER
101. UNDERSTATEMENT
97. UNDERGONE
102. REVOLUTIONARY
98. UNFAVOURABLE
103. ADJUSTABLE
99. CONVERTIBLE
104. PROCESSORS
100. PRODUCTION
105. OUTLASTS
VI. Read the following text and fill in each blank using the correct word in brackets.
106. AT FIRST GLANCE
111. HOWEVER
107. UNLIKE
112. WHEREAS
108. HOWEVER
113. JUST AS
109. ALSO
114. TO SUM UP
110. THEREFORE
115. DESPITE
PART IV: READING
I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
116. D
121. A
126. C
117. A
122. D
127. B
118. C
123. B
128. A
119. B
124. D
129. A
120. C
125. A
130. C
II. Fill each blank with ONE word
131. up
139. Should
132. whose
140. somewhere/ anywhere
133. whatever/ what
141. few
134. fact
142. little
135. Like
143. means/way
136. could/would
144. have
137. out
145. us
138. with
III.
Read the following passage and answer the questions
146. D
151. C
147. A
152. A
148. B
153. B
149. A
154. A
150. B
155. B
IV.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
156. B
157. D
158. E
159. G
160. H
161. D
162. construction/ infrastructure
163. an (increasing) economic and social polarization
164. crime rate
165. ethnic and educational
PART V: WRITING
I.
Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same
as the one given.
1. Not for another five years did the whole truth about the murder come out.
2. She quite definitely came up to their expectations
3. We were all tired so we broke our journey in Madrid on our way to Germany.
4. I can't make head or tail of this document.
5. Of grave concern are confirmed cases of cholera that originated in the makeshift
shelters.
6. His behaviour took me aback / I was taken aback by his behavior.
7. The incident put paid to my chances of promotion.
8. Stanley is rather in awe of the new algebra teacher.
9. The orphanage left no stone unturned in efforts to find the boy’s parents.
10. The press has poured scorn on the handling of the matter.
TAPESCRIPT LISTENING
PART I:
Male: Good evening and welcome to this month’s Observatory Club lecture. I’m Donald
Mackie and I’m here to talk to you about the solar eclipse in history.
A thousand years ago, a total eclipse of the sun was a terrifying religious experience – but
these days an eclipse is more likely to be viewed as a tourist attraction than as a scientific or
spiritual event. People will travel literally miles to be in the right place at the right time – to
get the best view of their eclipse.
Well. What exactly causes a solar eclipse – when the world goes dark for a few minutes in the
middle of the day? Scientifically speaking, the dark spot itself is easy to explain; it is the
shadow of the moon streaking across the earth. This happens every year of two, each time
along a different and, to all intents and purposes, a seemingly random piece of the globe.
In the past people often interpreted an eclipse as a danger signal heralding disaster and in fact,
the Chinese were so disturbed by these events that they included among their gods one whose
job it was to prevent eclipses. But whether or not you are superstitious or take a purely
scientific view, our earth eclipses are special in three ways.
Firstly, there can be no doubt that they are very beautiful. It’s as if a deep blue curtain had
fallen over the daytime sky as the sun becomes a black void surrounded by the glow of its
outer atmosphere.
But beyond this, total eclipses possess a second more compelling beauty in the eyes of us
scientists … for they offer a unique opportunity for research. Only during an eclipse can we
study the corona and other dim things that are normally lost in the sun’s glare.
And, thirdly, they are rare. Even though an eclipse of the sun occurs somewhere on earth
every year or two, if you sit in your garden and wait, it will take 375 years on average for one
to come to you. If the moon were any larger, eclipses would become a monthly bore; if it were
smaller, they simply would not be possible.
The ancient Babylonian priests, who spent a fair bit of time staring at the sky, had already
noted that there was an 18-year pattern in their recurrence but they didn’t have the
mathematics to predict an eclipse accurately.
PART II:
We are pleased to be able to recommend Anna Brown's "Go Organic", the essential book for
all concerned consumers.
"Go Organic" is a fresh, modern, and inspiring sourcebook which has started a revolution in
favour of organic living. It can help you make simple lifestyle changes that will have a big
impact on our planet.
Part of the reason for our support is that we think naturally grown produce, and pesticide and
chemical-free meat and poultry taste so good. It is honestly produced, marketed fresh, more
flavourful and better for our health than intensively produced food.
But our interest in the subject also reflects the anxieties so many of us feel about big
agribusiness meat and vegetables. We all want to know where our food has come from and
what has been put on it. Intensively-reared dairy cows and farm animals are fed a dangerous
cocktail of growth promoting drugs, antibiotics and anti-parasite drugs on a daily basis,
whether they have an illness or not. These drugs are passed directly onto the consumers of
their dairy produce or meat., which must be a contributing factor to meat-related diseases like
coronaries and high blood pressure.
None of us likes the idea of hormones and growth promoters, or pigs and chicken kept in
crowded , cramped conditions. We hate the idea of chickens having to be debeaked so they
don't peck each other, or pigs having their tails cropped.
We dislike feeding our children - and ourselves - on vegetables that have been pumped up
with chemical fertilizers, then sprayed with pesticide to keep the apples glossy and the pears
unblemished. Over £2.5 million of public money is spent every year just to monitor the use of
pesticides when a rational food and agriculture policy would find means of eliminating this
source of pollution from the food chain altogether - or, at least, of reducing it so the costs are
less ridiculous.
We spend billions of pounds every year cleaning up the mess that agro-chemicals make to our
natural water supply.
The average conventionally-grown apple has 20-30 artificial poisons on its skin, even after
rinsing.
Fresh organic produce contains on average 50% more vitamins, minerals, enzymes and other
micro-nutrients than intensively farmed produce.
We don't want to buy tomatoes that have been genetically modified (that is, GM) with the
DNA of a fish just to expand their shelf life for the convenience of the wholesaler and retailer.
And we don't want to buy tomato paste made from GM tomatoes. At the very least, we want
GM products to be clearly labelled as such, so that we have the choice of buying non-GM
merchandise.
Organic foods cost more at the moment, but prices are coming down - the more we buy, the
cheaper it will get. This is one area where the consumer is sovereign -it is the consumers who
have made the organic food revolution.
Intensive farming can seriously damage farm workers' health. There are much higher
instances of cancer, respiratory problems and other major diseases in farm workers from nonorganic farms. This is particularly true in developing countries, and for agrochemical farms
growing cotton. So we need to go organic if we care about other people.
The trouble is, it can be difficult to shop organically –there are competing interests with
competing claims - and different labels.
If you want to safeguard you and your family's health, you should go organic. Going organic
is the only practical way to avoid eating genetically modified food. And if you want to go
organic, you cannot miss reading "Go Organic", the book for everyone who aspires to a better
lifestyle and a better world.
REFERENCE
PART I: LISTENING
I. Practise test plus IELTS – section 4
II. CAE Listening 3
PART II: PHONOLOGY
II. Identify 10 mistakes: Olympic 2012 -TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN ĐẠI NGHĨA –TP.
HỒ CHÍ MINH
IV. Read the following text and fill in each blank using the correct form of the word in
brackets. – Destination C1&2, progress 1
VI. linking words - http://www.eoioviedo.org/mariav/connectors2.htm
PART IV: READING
I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space - English
Advanced Vocabulary and Structure Practice test 9.
II. Fill each blank with ONE word - Cambridge Certificate Of Profeciency English 1, test 1.
III. Reading SCHIZOPHRENIA - LinguaForum.TOEF.iBT.m-Reading.
IV. Reading San Francisco – IBT TOEFL Complete tests – chapter two
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC
DH & ĐB BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
Ngày thi:
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
tháng 4 năm 2014
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 14 trang
LISTENING (15 pts)
Question 1. You will hear some advice from a British programme adviser. As
you listen, fill in the gaps with relevant words in the notes below. (5pts)
When you first arrive in Britain you will be given the name and telephone extension
number of the (1) …… who will be administering your programme. It will be (2)
……… if you make a note in your diary of this (3) ……
and also if you make an appointment (4) ……… by telephone whenever you want to
see your programme officer.
If your base is to be outside London, you will be given (5) ……… about reaching
your destination. Please follow these carefully and, again, keep a note of them in your
diary.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Question 2. Listen again, indicate whether the following statement are true ( T),
false (F) or not mentioned by writing ( NG). (5pts)
1. If you bring money to Britain, you’d better carry large sums of cash on your person.
2. Your money will be more secure if you convert it into traveller’s cheques.
3. It’s not safe to deposit your money with hotels or hostels.
4. It’s wise to put your purchses in your shopping bag.
5. All shops provide a receipt for you.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Questions 3. You will hear an interview with Angela Morgan, who has recently
flown around the world in a helicopter. For each question, put a tick (√) in the
correct box. (5pts)
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1. The main reason for Angela’s trip was to ______ .
฀A. make money for her business
฀B. make money for other people
฀C. have an exciting adventure
฀D. go on a picnic
2. When Angela had flying lessons ______ .
฀A. her course lasted five months
฀B. her husband took lessons as well
฀C. she got to know her teacher well฀D. she didn’t arrive in time
3. During the trip, Angela and her teacher ______ .
฀A. did very little sightseeing
฀B. carried all the water they needed
฀C. had engine problems several times฀D. stopped going camping
4. What did Angela enjoy most about the trip?
฀A. flying at night
฀B. walking in the desert
฀C. watching the changes in the scenery
฀D. taking photos
5. What did Angela miss most while she was away?
฀A. modern bathrooms
฀B. regular exercise
฀C. interesting entertainment
฀D. going out to restaurants
PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question 1. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (2.5 pts)
1. A. increased
B. pleased
C. replaced
D. fixed
2. A. insert
B. insist
C. resist
D. inside
3. A. cloth
B. both
C. ghost
D. sold
4. A. brother
B. breathe
C. either
D. breath
5. A. places
B. houses
C. nieces
D. buses
Question 2. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by
circling A, B, C or D. (2.5 pts)
6. A. solidarity
B. enthusiast
C. spectator
D. precision
7. A. energetic
B. international
C. competitive
D. recreational
8. A. differently
B. increasingly
C. excellently
D. probably
9. A. swallow
B. digest
C. survive
D. impress
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10. A. abnormality B. opportunity
C. personality
D. activity
GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts)
Question 1. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (5
pts)
1. After a long and exhausting journey, they arrived home ______.
A. finally
B. by the end
C. at the end
D. at last
2. The completion of the new Town Hall has been ______ owing to a strike.
A. held off
B. held down
C. held up
D. held on
3. It is accepted that the actress is old, _____ that as it may, she still acts well.
A. be
B. to be
C. being
D. been
4. _____ every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers.
A. Wholly
B. Hardly
C. Most
D. Virtually
5. He has impressed his employers considerably and _____ he is soon to be promoted.
A. nevertheless
B. accordingly
C. however
6. His premature death at the age of 28 is a great loss.
A. violent
B. abrupt
C. too early
D. eventually
D. very mysterious
7. Your new car must have cost ______.
A. an eye
B. the earth
C. a bank
D. a leg
8. In the ______of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement
B. interests
C. demands
D. assistance
9. The trouble with Ann is that she is ______with sport.
A. obsessed
B. packed
C. matched
D. dealt
10. Because of its warm typical climate, Hawaii ______ subzero temperature
A. almost experiences never
B. almost never experiences
C. experiences never almost
D. experiences almost never
11. After the accident, there was considerable doubt ______ exactly what had
happened.
A. in the question of
B. as to
C. in the shape of D. for
12. When young Americans first go to university, many of them join a fraternity or
Sorority social organizations for male and female students ______.
A. respectively
B. certainly
C. orderly
D. consequently
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13. I’m ________ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious
B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious than
D. nowhere near as ambitious as
14. I am going to be ________ with you, Mr Hederson. Your daughter is a thief.
A. sincere
B. open
C. frank
D. genuine
15. Having ______ the table, the girl called her parents and sisters for dinner.
A. laid
B. swept
C. completed
D. Ordered
16. “Can I have a piece of cake?” – “ Yes, you can have _______”
A. all it
B. all of it
C. all
D. the all of it
17. The house we have rented is _____. So we shall have to buy some beds, chairs,
tables, etc …
A. unprovided
B. unrepaired
C. unfurnished
D. Unable
18. Mrs. Carter ______ he son for getting dirty.
A. brought off
B. put down
C. took on
D. told off
19. As you pass the courthouse, you’ll be able to see Mr. Watson’s orange gloves ___.
A. on your right
B. at your right hand
C. to your right side
D. to your right-handed side
20. It is a federal law ______ vaccinated before entering the first grade.
A. for children be
B. that children will be
C. that children be
D. requires children to be
Question 2. Error Correction. Identify the mistake in each sentence below and
correct it in the space provided. (5pts)
1. Man and animals use the energy finding in food to operate their body and muscles.
2. The exhibition was the centre of attraction like it was of historical interest.
3. Many species of animals must have been threatened and can easily become extinct
if we don't make an effort to protect them.
4. His professor had him to rewrite his assignment many times.
5. Because there are less members present today than there were yesterday, we must
wait until the next meeting to discuss this.
6. Each of the cars in the showroom was quickly sold to their new owner.
7. I gave to Susan the address so that she could contact me.
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8. Originally was known as water ballet, synchronized swimming began in Canada in
the 1920s.
9. Tom suggests that she looks for another job.
10. The ruler of Brunei, a tiny country in the Southeast Asia, is one of the world's
richest people.
Question 3. Complete each sentence with a suitable particle or preposition. (5 pts)
1. When the police discovered his history of drunk driving, they took ___________
his driver's license and kept him ___________ control.
2. The dividing line ___________ the north and the south is only a matter
___________ opinion.
3. There are plenty of exceptions ___________ this view in this country, but I myself
take it ___________ granted.
4. It is hard to exaggerate the psychological effect ___________ Japanese investment
___________ local prosperity.
5. ___________ her uncle’s death, she came ___________ a great sum of money.
6. Could you put me __________ for a few days until I find a place _______ my own?
7. He did not know _______ certain what caused the accident, but ________ a guess,
it was due to a fault in the engine.
8. John's _________hospital again. The poor chap seems prone _________ accidents.
9. We are in ______ a lot of trouble unless George manages to improve the radio
station, which is ________ bad repair.
10. Chad is _______ the opinion that the woman next to the door is fond of him
because she glances _________ him from time to time.
Question 4. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs
in brackets. (5 pts)
The stretch of water which (1. separate) _____________ Britain from France and the
rest of mainland Europe (2. always play) _________________ a significant role in
British history. Saturday, 1st December 1990 was no ordinary day in the Channel’s
long history. At 11.00 a.m, two miners, one French and one English, (3. cut)
______________
through the last few centimeters of chalk (4. separate)
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_______________ the UK from mainland Europe. It was the first land connection
since the Ice age.
Work began on Europe tunnel in 1987. It (5. also know) ___________________ as
the Channel Tunnel, the Chunnel or Trans Manche link. It (6. build)
___________________ by an Anglo-French engineering company, Eurotunnel, across
34 km of water from Cheriton (near Folkstones in SE England) to Coquilles (near
Calais
in
NW
France).
A
smaller
central
service
tunnel
(7.
build)
___________________ (8. use) ___________________ by workers and engineers for
maintenance
work
and
emergencies.
The
two
outer
tunnels
(9.
carry)
___________________ high speed passenger and freight trains. Cars and lorries (10.
also transport) ___________________ by train.
The tunnel (11. expect) _______________ (12. have) _________________an effect
on
British
industry
and
(13.
certainly
boost)
________________ the tourist industry. Journeys between Britain and Europe (14. be)
___________________ quicker and more reliable for both hokiday makers and
business people. Lorry drivers (15. be) ___________________ able to relax and (16.
enjoy) ___________________ their shorter Channel crossing. Only one question (17.
remain)
___________________.
___________________
as
a
___________________
to
try
With
natural
to
the
barrier,
swim
the
sea
no
longer
swimmers
Channel
as
(18.
(19.
act)
continue0
they (20.
do)
___________________ for years?
Question 5: Provide the correct form of the words in the brackets. Write your
answer in the space provided. (5 pts)
The World Wild Fund for Nature (WWF) has been involved in (1.
conserve)_____________
since
its
foundation
in
1961.
Its
(2.
intend)
_____________ has always been to protect (3. wild) _____________ against the
effect of human activity. Working very closely with both expert (4. ecology)
_____________and ordinary local people, the organization aims to help those animals
(5. threat) _____________ by the destruction of habitats. Economic growth and
tourism force some species to the brink of (6. extinct) _____________. (7. Fortune)
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_____________, the WWF work hard to ensure that animals such as the giant panda
will (8. probable) _____________ survive for a few more years yet. Refusing to
accept that the problems are (9. mount) _____________, the WWF works tirelessly
on a (10. seem) _____________ never-ending list of projects, all of which help to
protect the diversity of life on Earth.
Question 6: Choose the linking word/phrase given below to fill in the blank in
the passage. (5 pts)
I can not completely agree with the statement that classmates are a more important
influence than parents on a child's success in school. In this essay I will first focus on
the reasons why I agree with this statement and then list a few points why from my
opinion in some cases is not true. (1) __________, classmates have a significant
influence on child's behavior and his or her success in school. (2) _____________,
children spend much time at school. Classmates have many things in common such
as age, interests, homework and classes after all. (3) _____________, they discuss
their impressions about a new teacher, solve problems together, learn their
homework, gain new knowledge and experience and even make their own
discoveries. Sharing all these makes them closer. Some of them become friends and
they spend after-school time together. (4) _____________ friends tend to copy each
other's habits and manners. (5) _____________, my little sister became friends with
the girl who did not have good grades at school at that time. It does not mean she
could not have better grades; she just had many friends who did not care about their
grades. So, when they started to spend their time together and share their interests,
girl's grades improved. They did their homework together, shared their dreams and
exciting moments. (6) _____________ I must agree that classmates can change a
child’s attitude towards school. (7) _____________, parents have a great influence
on children's success in school too. (8) _____________, if parents show an interest in
their child's progress and talk to him or her about the importance of learning I think
their child will listen to them and do his or her best. (9) _____________, I believe
that relationships between parents and a child play an essential role in child's success
in school. (10) _____________ these relationships are close and wholehearted, I am
sure that parents should not be afraid of bad influence from the outside.
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READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question 1: Choose the best word (A, B, C, D) in each line to fill in each blank
of the passage. (7.5 pts)
The hanging gardens of Babylon were considered to be one of the Seven
wonders of the (1) ______ world. They are believed to have been built by King
Nebuchadnezzar in the sixth (2) ______BC as a present for his wife, Amytis. The
gardens were (3) ______ in layers- one on top of the other, much like a modern multistorey car (4) ______ although a lot more (5) ______ to look at. Each layers was a
large terrace (6) ______ with tropical flowers, plants and trees. The large (7) ______
of water which these plants required was (8) ______from the river nearby. It is said
that the King and his wife would sit in the (9) ______of the gardens and (10)
______down on the city of Babylon below.
The gardens' fame quickly (11) ______and travelers would come far and wide
to (12______them. Even thousands of years ago, people used to go (13) ______. The
city of Babylon was so famous throughout the whole (14) ______ for its beautiful
buildings, huge tiled walls and gates made of brass. Sadly, nothing (15) ______ today
of the beautiful hanging gardens and the city of Babylon lies in ruins in what is
modern-Iraq.
1.
A. antique
B. ancient
C. historical
D. traditional
2.
A. decade
B. period
C. era
D. century
3.
A. constructed
B. assembled
C. collected
D. invented
4.
A. park
B. stop
C. station
D. garage
5.
A. good-looking
B. attractive
C. handsome
D. adorable
6.
A. included
B. contained
C. filled
D. consisted
7.
A. total
B. sum
C. amount
D. number
8.
A. dragged
B. pulled
C. pushed
D. pumped
9.
A. shadow
B. shade
C. gloom
D. glow
10. A. look
B. see
C. watch
D. observe
11. A. distributed
B. spread
C. extended
D. moved
12. A. approve
B. respect
C. admire
D. assess
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13. A. glimpsing
B. sightseeing
C. glancing
D. staring
14. A. planet
B. globe
C. earth
D. world
15. A. remains
B. stays
C. waits
D. continues
Question 2: Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (7.5 pts)
Beware of those who use the truth to deceive. When someone tells you
something that is true, but leaves (1) ________ important information that should be
included, he can create a false (2) ________. For example, someone might say, “I just
won a hundred dollars on the lottery. It was great. I (3) ________ that dollar ticket
back to the store and turned it in (4) ________ one hundred dollars!” This guy’s a
winner, right? Maybe, maybe not. We (5) ________ discover that he bought two
hundred tickets, and only one was a winner. He’s really a big (6) ________! He didn’t
say anything that was false, (7) ________ he deliberately omitted important
information. That’s (8) ________ a half-truth. Half-truths are not technically lies, but
they are (9) ________ as dishonest. Untrustworthy candidates in political campaigns
often use this tactic. Let’s say that during Governor Smith’s last term, her state lost
one million jobs and (10) ________ three million jobs. Then she seeks (11) ________
term. One of her opponents runs an ad saying, “During Governor Smith’s term, the
state lost one million jobs!” That’s true. (12) ________ an honest statement would
have been, “During Governor Smith’s term, the state had a net gain of two million
jobs.”
Advertisers will sometimes use half-truths. It’s (13) ________ the law to make
false claims so they try to mislead you with the (14) ________. An ad might boast,
“Nine out of ten doctors recommend Yucky Pills to cure nose pimples.” It fails to
mention that they only asked ten doctors and nine of them work for the Yucky
Corporation.
This kind of (15) ________ happens too often. It’s a sad fact of life: Lies are
lies, and sometimes the truth can lie as well.
Question 3: Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
(5 pts)
By the mid-nineteenth century, the term "icebox" had entered the American
9
language, but ice was still only beginning to affect the diet of ordinary citizens in the
United States. The ice trade grew with the growth of cities. Ice was used in hotels,
taverns, and hospitals, and by some forward-looking city dealers in fresh meat, fresh
fish, and butter. After the Civil War(1861-1865), as ice was used to refrigerate freight
cars, it also came into household use. Even before 1880, half the ice sold in New
York, Philadelphia, and Baltimore, and one-third of that sold in Boston and Chicago,
went to families for their own use. This had become possible because a new
household convenience, the icebox, a precursor of the modern refrigerator, had been
invented. Making an efficient ice box was not as easy as we might now suppose. In
the early nineteenth century, the knowledge of the physics of heat, which was
essential to a science of refrigeration, was rudimentary. The commonsense notion that
the best icebox was one that prevented the ice from melting was of course mistaken,
for it was the melting of the ice that performed the cooling. Nevertheless, early efforts
to economize ice included wrapping the ice in blankets, which kept the ice from doing
its job. Not until near the end of the nineteenth century did inventors achieve the
delicate balance of insulation and circulation needed for an efficient icebox.
But as early as 1803, an ingenious Maryland farmer, Thomas Moore, had been on the
right track. He owned a farm about twenty miles outside the city of Washington, for
which the village of Georgetown was the market center. When he used an icebox of
his own design to transport his butter to market, he found that customers would pass
up the rapidly melting stuff in the tubs of his competitors to pay a premium price for
his butter, still fresh and hard in neat, one-pound bricks. One advantage of his icebox,
Moore explained, was that farmers would no longer have to travel to market at night
in order to keep their produce cool.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of ice on the diet
B. The development of refrigeration
C. The transportation of goods to market
D. Sources of ice in the 19th century
2. According to the passage, when did the word "icebox" become part of the language
of the United States?
A. In 1803
B. Sometime before 1850
C. During the Civil War
D. Near the end of the nineteenth century
10
3. The phrase "forward-looking" in line 4 is closest in meaning to
A. progressive
B. popular
C. thrifty
D. well-established
4. The author mentions fish in line 5 because
A. many fish dealers also sold ice
B. fish was shipped in refrigerated freight cars
C. fish dealers were among the early commercial users of ice
D. fish was not part of the ordinary person's diet before the invention of the icebox
5. The word "it" in line 6 refers to
A. fresh meat
B. the Civil War
C. ice
D. a refrigerator
6. According to the passage, which of the following was an obstacle to the
development of the icebox?
A. Competition among the owners of refrigerated freight cars
B. The lack of a network for the distribution of ice
C. The use of insufficient insulation
D. Inadequate understanding of physics
7. The word "rudimentary" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
A. growing
B. undeveloped
C. necessary
D. uninteresting
8. According to the information in the second paragraph, an ideal icebox would
A. completely prevent ice from melting
B. stop air from circulating
C. allow ice to melt slowly
D. use blankets to conserve ice
9. The author describes Thomas Moore as having been "on the right track" to
indicate that
A. the road to the market passed close to Moore's farm
B. Moore was an honest merchant
C. Moore was a prosperous farmer
D. Moore's design was fairly successful
10. According to the passage, Moore's icebox allowed him to
A. charge more for his butter
B. travel to market at night
C. manufacture butter more quickly
D. produce ice all year round
11
Question 4: Read the article about robots. Choose the most suitable headline
from the list A-I for each part of the article (1-7). There is an example at the
beginning (0)
A.Falling Demand C. Dependability
E. Near Perfection G. Changing roles
B. Robot Stars
F. Research
D. Inefficiency
H. Hidden danger
I. muscle Power
0 F
The most sophisticated Japanese robots, which have vision system and work at very
high speed, are still based on American designs. Studies of robots, particularly
computer control software, are considered to be generally less advanced in Japan than
in America or Europe.
1
Although industrial robots were originally developed as devices for simply handling
objects, today their commonest uses are for more skilled work like welding, spray
painting and assembling components.
2
In Britain, robot sales appropriately peaked in 1984, but have been decline ever since.
This is partly because British wage rates are too low to make robots financially
attractive and partly because engineers now have more experience with robots and are
more aware of the difficulties of introducing them effectively.
3
It has been calculated that a robot uses on average about 100 times more energy than a
human to do an equivalent job.
4
It is estimated that 20% of all comic book heroes in Japan are robots. This is an
enormous number because comics are so popular that they make up a third of all
material published in Japan.
5
12
Until recently a 50 kg robot arm with the same reach as a human could only lift 1 kg .
The latest 20 kg robot can lift 2 kg, but this is still no match for a human arm which
weighs about 5 kg can lift 50 kg.
6
The reliability of robots is measured in their M.T.B.F or mean time between failures.
This has risen from about 250 hours in the mid 70s to about 10,000 hours today
(equivalent to working 18 hours a day for two years ). One way robot manufacturers
have increased reliability is to lest every single component they buy, instead of the
normal procedure of just testing a small sample.
7
The biggest single benefit of introducing robots claimed by Japanese companies is that
they increase quality control. Once programmed, their output is more accurate and
consistent than human, who can get tired and bored .
Fill a word/ phrase into each blank of the passage:
Industrial American designs have provided suggestions for scientists in Japan to create
the most sophisticated robots. However, studies of robots in (8) _____ are still more
advanced than those in Japan. Originally, the robots were only meant to (9) _____ ,
but nowadays they are commonly used to do more skilled work. In Europe, the use of
robots has undergone hardship due to (10) _____ problems and the difficulties
introducing them effectively. In Japan, their images are very popular in comics and it
is claimed that they increase quality control.
WRITING
Question 1: Rewrite the sentences using the given word(s) without changing the
form.
1. Attendance at the additional evening lectures is not obligatory for students.
(under)
-> Students _________________________________ the additional evening lectures.
2. All are eligible for the contest. There is no discrimination of race and sex.
(regardless)
-> All are eligible ___________________________________________ race and sex.
13
3. We were very much surprised to learn that Brian had become a monk. (To)
-> __________________________________________, Brian had become a monk.
4. Some people will do anything to lose weight. (lengths)
-> Some people will __________________________________ to lose weight.
5. He didn’t mention our previous conversation at all. (reference)
-> He made ____________________________ our previous conversation.
6. Linda’s plans for a picnic have been spoilt by the weather ( fallen)
-> Linda’s plans for a picnic ______________________________________________
7. Apparently, Sheila wasn’t listening to me. ( appear)
-> Sheila ____________________________________________________________
8. His irresponsibility attitude is endangering his career as a doctor. (jeopardy)
-> His irresponsibility ___________________________________________________
9. That wasn’t what I meant at all. You’ve completely misunderstood me as usual.
( stick)
-> That wasn’t what I meant at all. You’ve___________________________________
10. I don’t like him because he boasts a lot. (mouth).
-> I don’t like him because ____________________________________________
Question 2: Write a paragraph of about 150 words about the following
statement:
Teamwork offers a lot of benefits in the modern society. Do you agree?
THE END
14
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC
DH & ĐB BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
THPT CHUYÊN BẮC GIANG
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
Ngày thi:
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤTĐÁP ÁN
tháng 4 năm 2014
Part I. LISTENING (15 pts)
Question 1. (5pts)
1. officer
2. helpful
3. information
4. in advance
5. instructions
Question 2. (5pts)
1. F
2. T
3. NG
4. F
5. F
Questions 3. (5pts)
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. B
PHONETICS
Question 1. ( 2.5 pts)
1B
2C
3A
4D
5B
Question 2. ( 2.5 pts)
6A
7C
8B
9A
10D
GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts)
Question 1 (5 pts)
1D
2C
3A
4D
5B
6. C.
7. B
8. B
9. A
10.B
11.B
12. A
13. D.
14. C.
15 A
16.B
17. C
18. D
19. A.
20. C.
Question 2. (5pts)
1. finding- found 2. like- as
3. must have been- must be
5. less- fewer
6. their- its 7. gave to- gave
9. looks- look
10.
4. to rewrite- rewrite
8. was known- known
the- x
Question 3. (5 pts)
1. away-under
2. between-of
3. to-for
4. of-on
5. On-into
6. up-of
7. for-at
8. in-to
9. for-in
10. of-at
15
Question 4. (5 pts)
1. separates
2. has always played
5. is also known 6. was built
3. cut
4. separating
7. was built 8. to be used
9. will carry
10. will also be transported
11. is expected
12. to have
13. will certainly boost
14. will be
16. enjoy
17. remains
18. acting
19. will swimmers continue
15. will be
20. have done
Question 5: (5 pts)
1. conservation
2. intention
3. wildlife
4. ecologists
5. threatened
6. extinction
7. Fortunately
8. probably 9. insurmountable 10. seemingly
Question 6: (5 pts)
1.From the one side
2. First of all
3. So
4. In additio
5. For instance
6. From this point 7. From the other side
8. For example
9. Personally
10. If
READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question 1: (7.5 pts)
1B
2D
3A
4A
5B
6C
7C
8D
9B
10A 11B 12C 13B 14D 15A
Question 2: (7.5 pts)
1 out
2 impression
3 took
4 for
5 then
6 loser
7 but
8 called
9 just
10 gained
13 against
14 truth
15 deception
11 another 12 However
Question 3: (5 pts)
1B.
2A. 3. B. 4. B
5. D. 6. C. 7. B.
8. C.
9. C. 10. D.
Question 4: ( 10 pts)
1.G
2.A
3.D
8. America and Europe
4.B
5.I
9. handle objects
6.C
7.E
10. financial
16
WRITING
Question 1: ( 5 pts)
1. are under no obligation to attend
2. for taking/to take part in the contest regardless of
3. To our surprise,
4. do great length
5. no reference to
6. have been fallen through because of the weather.
7. didn’t appear to be listening to me.
8. attitude is putting his career as a doctor in jeopardy.
9. got (hold of) the wrong end of the stick as usual.
10. he has a big mouth.
Question 2: Write a paragraph of about 150 words about the following
statement: (15pts)
Teamwork offers a lot of benefits in the modern society. Do you agree?
THE END
TAPESCRIPT
Question 3.
Man: And today I’m talking to Angela Morgan. Angela, what made you decide to fly
round the world in a helicopter?
Woman: People often ask me why I decided to do it but I’m surprised they don’t ask
“Why did you wait so long?” because I’m 57 now! I’m sorry I didn’t do it years ago,
because it was such a wonderful experience. But the main purpose for going was to
collect £500,000 for sick children by getting different companies to pay us money for
each kilometre that we flew.
Man: And now everyone calls you the flying grandmother!
Woman: Yes, the thing about growing older is that you don’t feel any different inside,
so you have to do as much as you can while you can. I’m healthy, and my own
children are grown up, so I was free to go.
Man: And what about preparing the trip?
17
Woman: Well, it took five months to plan. I was going to go with my husband, but he
couldn’t take time off work. Instead I made the trip with my flying teacher who
became a great friend while she was teaching me to fly three years ago. I passed my
flying test after two weeks; found it quite easy.
Man: And what was the trip like?
Woman: It was really exciting flying over so many different countries. The only thing
was that we weren’t able to spend much time sightseeing because we only stopped to
get water and to camp. We took very little with us, but we did have tents and cooking
things to use at night. We had to spend two days in Thailand because of an engine
problem, but that was the longest we spent anywhere. Fortunately nothing else went
wrong, so we just kept on going after that.
Man: What did you enjoy most about the trip?
Woman: The most wonderful thing about flying was seeing the differences in the
countryside as we flew across 26 countries in 97 days. We flew over oceans and close
to mountains; sometimes it was quite frightening, but we didn’t travel when it was
dark. We spent several nights camping in the desert and the sky was just full of stars. I
made a video of the trip; you’ll see it in a minute.
Man: Was there anything that you missed while you were away?
Woman: Well, to my surprise I didn’t miss going to work or going out to restaurants
or films. The most difficult thing was sitting still all the time; I normally play tennis
and swim several times a week, so I started to feel very unfit. I missed hot water and
proper showers sometimes too, but not as much as I thought I would!
18
HỘI THI HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN
LẦN THỨ V
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VĨNH PHÚC
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
MÔN: Tiếng Anh (khối 10)
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút.
(không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi này có 11 trang, không kể trang phách)
Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bản đề thi này.
Bằng số:
Kết quả điểm bài thi
Bằng chữ:
Số phách bài thi
(Do Chủ tịch HĐ chấm thi ghi)
Họ và tên, chữ ký giám khảo 1: ............................................................................................
Họ và tên, chữ ký giám khảo 2: ............................................................................................
PART A. LISTENING (15 points)
Questions 1-5: Gap-filling
Destination Harbour City
• Express train leaves at 1 …………………….
• Nearest station is 2 …………………….
• Number 706 bus goes to 3 …………………….
• Number 4 ……………………. bus goes to station
• Earlier bus leaves at 5 …………………….
Question 6-10 (Answer the questions in short, using NO MORE THAN FOUR words
and/or numbers)
6. How much does it cost to travel by train from the bus station to Harbour city without a
Travel Link card?__________________________
7. What, according to the man, is considered off-peak time?____________________
8. Do they offer any discount on the train fares to Harbour city during peak hours?______
TRUE or FALSE
9. The woman is in possession of a Travel Link Card.____________
10. The woman has never been to Harbour city._________________
Section 2
1. We are all present hedonists
A at school
B at birth
C while eating and drinking
2. American boys drop out of school at a higher rate than girls because
A they need to be in control of the way they learn
B they play video games instead of doing school work
C they are not as intelligent as girls
3. Present-orientated children
A do not realise present actions can have negative future effects
B are unable to learn lessons from past mistakes
C know what could happen if they do something bad, but do it anyway
4. If Americans had an extra day per week, they would spend it
A working harder
B building relationships C sharing family meals
5. Understanding how people think about time can help us
A become more virtuous
B work together better
C identify careless or ambitious people
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
PART B. PHONETICS (5 points)
I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. cheap
B. character
C. chaos
D. charismatic
2. A. tough
B. through
C. rough
D. enough
3. A. mineral
B. determine
C. examiner
D. mining
4. A. surface
B. palace
C. necklace
D. decadence
5. A. gorgeous
B. gem
C. gene
D. genius
Your answer:
1. ...........
2. ...........
3. ...........
4. ...........
5. ...........
II. Which word has a different stress pattern?
1: A. introduce
B. influence
C. arrogant
D. majesty
2: A. lunatic
B. dynamic
C. mosquito
D. climatic
3: A. colleague
B. humane
C. canteen
D. unite
4: A. dismiss
B. insect
C. discount
D. district
5: A. diagonal
B. admirable
C. discipline
D.
mechanism
Your answer:
1. ...........
2. ...........
3. ...........
4. ...........
5. ...........
PART C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
I. Give the correct forms/ tenses of the verbs in brackets.
Although they (1- be) a topic of human speculation throughout human history, the content
and purpose of dream (2- not/understand). It (3- now/ acknowledge) that dreams (4.
strongly/link) to the rapid eye movement that takes place during the first stage of sleep. Over
the full course of a typical human lifespan, a total approaching six years may (5. spend)
dreaming. Yet, despite this, it (6. not/ establish) where in the human brain dreams (7originate), or whether they have a common cause.
Philosophers and artists (8- for centuries/fascinate) by sleep and dreams. Yet they (9-often/
portray) as a dark and often disturbing sphere of human existence, despite the fact that it (10for many years/ know) that both physical survival and mental well-being (11. depend) on
them.
Two thousand years ago, dreams (12. regularly/ interpreted) as supernatural and divine
communication and they (13. therefore/ think) to foretell the future. By the beginning of the
twelfth century, the interpretation of dreams (14. most often/ associate) with psychoanalysis
and its famous practitioners, Freud and Jung, who (15. regard) dreams as the bridge between
the conscious and the unconscious mind, a tool with which the secrets of the human mind
could (16. finally/ unlock). But the key to those secrets (17. yet/ not/ find). What (18suggest) so far, however, can form the basis for further attempts (19- gradually/ unveil) the
truth (20- surround) the connection between the human brain and the human dream.
Your answer:
1. ........................
2. ........................
3. ........................
4. ........................
5. ........................
6. ........................
7. ........................
8. ........................
9. ........................
10. ........................
11. ........................
12. ........................
13. ........................
14. ........................
15. ........................
16. ........................
17. ........................
18. ........................
19. ........................
20. ........................
II. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentences.
1. Business has been thriving in the past year. Long
A. could
B. does
_______ it continue to do so.
C. may
D. might
2. The escaped prisoners remain on the _________ in the hills.
A. open
B. loose
C. liberty
D. free
3. He’s a rumbustious character who always tries to live life to the ________.
A. extent
B. full
C. fun
D. end
4. This ward has been reserved for the ________ ill.
A. terminally
B. deeply
C. terribly
D. deathly
5. Only _________ people in their chosen profession are invited to attend this prestigious
event.
A. prominent
B. infamous
C. fading
D. eminent
6. Just because he’s seventy doesn’t mean he’s__________.
A. lost it
B. past it
C. up to it
D. over the hill
7. The __________ to listen while not being listened to should not be underestimated.
A. aptitude
B. ability
C. technique
D. skill
8. Being very frustrated by his 4ignific, she has no alternative but _______ the boat.
A. rattling
B. shake
C. to rock
D. to roll
9. All Jane’s friends visited her in hospital to wish her_______ .
a rushing recovery
quickly
B. a speedy recovery
C. recovering hastily
D. recovering
10. The winds changes abruptly and it looks as if our sailing team_______out on top.
A. had floated
B. has got
C. is coming
D. reached
11. Sandra’s unpleasant_______suggested that she knew about Amanda’s terrible secret.
A. grimace
B. smirk
C. snort
D. wince
12. The student’s rude interruption brought a sharp _______from his teacher.
A. recoup
B. repeat
C. report
D. retort
13. Their discussion quickly developed into a _______ argument over who should receive
the money.
A. burning
B. heated
C. hot
D. scorching
14. The salesman demonstrated how a push of the button would cause the aerial to______.
A. rebound
B. recoil
C. retract
D. retreat
15.Students are rarely able to_______ all the information given in one of the professor’s
lectures.
A. absorb
B. achieve
C. capture
D. interest
16. She is usually_______courteous to strangers.
A.absolutely
B. exceedingly
C. somewhat
D. utterly
17. The idea of locking twelve strangers in a house and letting millions of the viewing public
watch the minutiae of their daily routine must have seemed to some producers a _______
idiotic way of eating into their budget.
A. comprehensively
B. finally
C. sheer
D. totally
18. It’s_______ clear that television is taking us down roads that no one in their right mind
would wish for the medium.
A. abundantly
B. out-and-out
C. outright
D. plain
19. It will make a(n) _______ change to meet someone who is so dedicated to their work for
once.
A. refreshing
B. significant
C. social
D. sudden
20. The Government has announced plans to make _______ changes to the tax system next
year.
A. considerable
B. dramatic
C. far-reaching
D. political
Your answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
III. Fill in each blank with ONE preposition or articles
1.
Dr Richards is distinguished ———————— his selfless service to humanity.
2.
On account of his advanced age he was disqualified ——————— competing.
3.
He was discharged because there was no proof ——————– him.
4.
Brass consists ——————– copper and zinc.
5.
His parents are very worried ———————- his safety.
6.
He parted ——————- his family and belongings and went on a pilgrimage.
7.
I am convinced that he is acting ——————— compulsion.
8.
The patient is now free ———————- danger
9.
This peculiar custom prevails ———————- the Hindus.
10. Many Hindi plays are adapted ——————– English.
11.
The police is entrusted ———————- the enforcement of law and order.
12. During the height _______________ this season, he forced five waitresses to hand in
their notice even though they were completely competent.
13. I’ve always been honest _____________ my feelings. You on the other hand, have not.
14. Much ______________ I detest the idea of punishing children, I can see that it
sometimes has its uses.
15. Mr. Sugar Deliver, I’m sure, would be a huge asset ________________ your company.
16. No further comments or responses of any kind have been made from her PR
__________________ late.
17. The younger sons therefore considered themselves to have been robbed
_______________ their rightful inheritance.
18. The white Audi was eliminated __________________ police enquiries at an early stage.
19. The stolen painting was eventually restored ____________________ their rightful
owner.
20. The argument is centred ________________ whether or not to lower the age limit.
Your answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
IV. Write the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the incorrect part, and then correct it.
1. (A) As interesting and lively as it is, (B) included in your story are several historical
inaccuracies, i.e. your hero Miss Swinton ( C ) might not have offered shelter under
his umbrella, ( D ) for they weren’t invented until a hundred years later.
2. (A) At ground level, it is (B) dangerous enough a substance, but in the (C) upper
atmosphere, it bonds with free ions to create (D) deadening smog particles.
3. Having (A) unshakeable confidence (B) in his ability, he (C) carried off the role of Hamlet
with (D) faultless skill.
4. (A) In winning the 1998 Kentucky Derby, Swiftilocks showed a (B) burst of speed
( C ) not unlike that of Man o’War, who (D) had been winning 20 of 21 races in 1919
and 1920.
5. That the time (A) spent in transit by the average traveller was (B) widely anticipated to
decrease was (C) because automobiles’ (D) replacing horses as the primary means of
transportation.
6. (A) Likewise the power-generating (B) apparatus of a conventional car, ( C ) that of
a hybrid car depends on a (D) combustible fuel to generate power.
7. (A) Rising tides of unemployment claims (B) across the state has led the governor to (C)
declare the economy to be in a (D) state of emergency.
8. The (A) outpatient department of Cho Ray Hospital has been through a (B) momentous
year since the doctors sticking to (C) tried and tested methods has brought about (D)
desirable outcomes.
9. Their family (A) having conflicts over personal properties, neither Kath nor Bill wants
(B) to make a permanent commitment to the other (C) despite having been seeing each
other (D) on and on for the last five years.
10. (A) Utter willpower enabled her to win the heat and (B) qualify for the final of the 400
(C) meters
1.
2.
(D) final.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
V. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words:
In Totteridge, in north London, there is a yew tree estimated to be between 1,000 and 2,000
years old. This tree, however, is a mere youngster in comparison with others of the species.
The record in the UK is held by a yew in Scotland that is thought to be between 4,000 and
5,000 years old.
However, such trees are becoming (1) _____INCREASE rare and the Totteridge specimen
was considered of (2) SUFFICE ________ importance to be named in 1999 as one of the 41
‘great trees’ in London. Like many yews, the Totteridge tree (3)________ DOUBT predates
the buildings around and its exact age is unknown.
The Totteridge tree needs little (4)__________ MAINTAIN. Some of its outer branches
hang down so low that they have taken root. But this is part of the tree’s natural architecture
and contributes to its (5) _________STABLE in high winds. With the best of (6)_________
INTEND , ancient yew sites are often tidied up with no benefit to the tree. Dead branches are
not (7)______ READY shed by the tree and their wood harbours a multitude of insects, an
inseparable part of the old tree’s natural (8) _________ DIVERSE. Something of the tree’s
history is lost with the (9) _________ REMOVE of dead wood. After all, the decaying,
twisted and (10)__________ ATTRACT parts give the tree character.
Your answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
VI. Fill each of the numbered blanks with one of the words listed.
each
every
all
whole
none
no
I was telling you about my family, wasn’t I?
It seems that no (1)_______ family is having the same problems. Since last week, I have
spoken to nearly (2) _______ my colleagues and (3) _______ other one says that (4)
_______ is sweetness and light in their family. (5) _______ of them, the (6) _______
family- sit down and (7) _______ of them take turns to say something about what they’re
doing or what they’ve been doing and nearly (8) _______ other member of the family hangs
on their (9) _______ word. There’s (10) _______ aggression; (11) _______ of the others
shows anything but total interest in the others’ (12) _______ story. (13) _______ of them
takes his or her turn and (14) _______ of them listen – (15) _______ of them resents it.
(16) _______ I can say is, they are lucky. Almost (17) _______ meal we have is spoilt
because there’s (18) _______ contact with anyone else and (19) _______ of us remains a
little island. (20) _______ wonder my daughters don’t come and visit very often.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
PART D. READING (30 points)
I. Read the following passage and choose the best alternative to answer the questions that
follow:
One of the most dangerous drugs for pregnant women to consume is alcohol. Because
alcohol is delivered quickly into the blood and passes quickly into the tissues and
membranes, the human fetus is particularly vulnerable to its effects. The reality is that the
negative effects on a fetus are so pronounced that babies born after exposure to alcohol are
said to be suffering from fetal alcohol syndrome. As a pregnant woman drinks alcohol, the
alcohol is passed into her bloodstream almost simultaneously. Moreover, because the
bloodstream of the fetus is inextricably tied to that of the mother, the alcohol passes directly
into the bloodstream of the fetus as well. And, what is more, the concentration of alcohol in
the
fetus
is
exactly
the
same
as
in
the
mother.
For the mother, this concentration is not a problem because her liver can remove one ounce
of alcohol from her system per hour. However, the fetus’s liver is not completely developed
(how developed it is depends on its stage of development). The rate at which it is able to
eliminate the alcohol from the blood of the fetus is much slower. Eventually, the alcohol will
be returned to the mother’s system by passing across the placenta, but this process is slow.
By the time this takes place, major neurological damage may have already occurred.
Research has shown that as little as one drink of alcohol can produce significant, irreversible
damage to the fetus. Babies born after exposure to alcohol generally exhibit facial distortion,
inability to concentrate, and difficulty in remembering. Simply speaking, it is imperative that
pregnant women avoid alcohol.
1. What is the main topic of this reading?
(A) Women and drugs
(B) The dangers of pregnancy
(C) The fetus and alcohol
(D) Drinking and the human body
2. The word “its” refers to_____________.
(A) the fetus
(B) the blood
(C) the tissue
(D) the alcohol
3. The word “pronounced” most closely means____________.
(A) evident
(B) spoken
(C) described
(D) unfortunate
4. How much time can it be inferred that it takes alcohol to enter a woman’s bloodstream
after she takes a drink?
(A) about one hour
(B) a few seconds (C) several minutes
(D) at least 24 hours
5. The word “inextricably” most nearly means____________.
(A) unexplainedly
(B) formerly
(C) forcefully
(D) inseparably
6. According to the passage, how does the concentration of alcohol in a fetus compare to that
in the mother?
(A) The concentration is more.
(B) The concentration is less.
(C) The concentration is equivalent.
(D) The concentration cannot be measured.
7. It can be inferred that the development of a fetal liver depends on____________.
(A) how many months pregnant the mother is
(B) how much alcohol the mother has
consumed
(C) how large the fetus is
(D) how well the mother has taken care of the
fetus
8. According to the passage, how is alcohol finally returned to the mother’s system?
(A) it is carried through the bloodstream
(C) it is expelled by the fetus’s liver
(B) it is transferred across the placenta
(D) it is not completely returned
9. Which one of the following was NOT mentioned as a sign of fetal alcohol syndrome?
(A) disfigurement of the face
(B) concentration difficulties
(C) increased aggression
(D) memory problems
10. At what place in the passage does the author discuss the quantity of alcohol necessary to
produce negative results?
(A) Lines 2-3
(B) Lines 10-11
(C) Lines 18-19
(D) Lines 20-21
Your answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
II. Select the corresponding letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the best option to fill in
each of the blanks.
What we know about music and the brain
Work on the human brain has indicated how different parts are centres of activity for
different skills, feelings, perceptions and so on. It has also been shown that the left and
right halves, or hemispheres, of the brain are (1) …….. for different functions. While
language is processed in the left, or analytical hemisphere, music is processed in the
right, or emotional hemisphere. (2) …….. of music like tone, pitch and melody are all
probably processed in different parts of the brain. Some features of musical experience
are processed not just in the (3) ……….. parts of the brain, but in the visual ones. We
don’t yet fully understand the (4) …….. of this.
The tempo of music seems to be (5) …….. related to its emotional impact, with fast
music often (6) …….. as happier and slower music as sadder. It is the same with the
major (7) ………. rhythm of the body: our heart (8) …….. quickens when we’re
happy, but slows when we’re sad. Military music may have (9) …….. from attempts
to get us ready for (10) …….. by using fast drumming to (11) …….. our hearts into
beating faster. Music is perhaps one of the most complex experiences the brain (12)
…….. with and it has become an absolutely (13) …….. part of our rituals and
ceremonies. It has power (14) ………. language to (15) …….. mood and co-ordinate
our emotional states.
1. A. amenable
B. dependable
C. responsible
D. reliable
2. A. Views
B. Aspects
C. Factors
D. Pieces
3. A. hearing
B. olfactory
C. auditory
D. sensory
4. A. expectations
B. implications
C. assumptions
D. propositions
5. A. surely
B. plainly
C. evidently
D. directly
6. A. felt
B. endured
C. encountered
D. touched
7. A. biology
B. biological
C. music
D. musical
8. A. pulse
B. speed
C. pace
D. rate
9. A. evolved
B. extended
C. advanced
D. elevated
10. A. battle
B. fight
C. quarrel
D. struggle
11. A. activate
B. motivate
C. stimulate
D. animate
12. A. manages
B. copes
C. bears
D. holds
13. A. vital
B. important
C. compulsory
D. dominant
14. A. with
B. above
C. beyond
D. over
15. A. notify
B. report
C. associate
D. communicate
Your answer:
1
2
3
4
5
11
12
13
14
15
6
7
8
9
10
III. Complete each of the gap in the following passage with one word
Stress
Stress (0) … often called a 21st century illness but it has always been with us if perhaps (1)
… different names. These days we regard stress (2) … a necessary evil of modern living.
Yet stress is not negative and without (3) … we would not enjoy some of the highpoints in
life (4) … as the anticipation before a date or the tension leading (5) … to an important
match. All these situations produce stress but (6) … you can control it and not the other way
(7) … you will feel stimulated, not worn (8) … Unlike these situations, which are generally
positive and easier to deal with, sitting in a train (9) … is late, (10) … stuck in a traffic jam,
working to a tight deadline are (11) … harder to manage and control. Stress is now
recognised as a medical problem and as a s12ignificant factor (12) … causing coronary heart
disease, high blood pressure and a high cholesterol count. Patients are often unwilling to
admit to stress problems (13) … they feel they are a form of social failure and it is important
that symptoms (14) … identified in order to avoid unnecessary suffering. So what should we
be looking out for as danger signals? Common signs of stress are increased tiredness,
irritability and (15) … inability to cope with certain situations.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. Read the text and answer the questions that follow
Tough sensor can take the heat
A. A new gas sensor made form a nickel’s worth of materials can endure high temperatures,
corrosion, vibrations, and exposure to water, according to its inventors at Argonne National
Lavatory in Illinois. The tiny sensor detects a variety of gases.
B. Conventional silicon sensors do not work well at temperatures above 150 degree F. But
Argonne’s new sensor, made of ceramics and metals, is not affected by high temperatures.
“The materials in this sensor behave well through a wide range of temperatures,”, says
Michael Vogt, a control system engineer at Argonne.
C. Vogt and his colleagues made the sensor by film-screening layers of ceramic and metal on
a ceramic substrate, then firing the sensor in an industrial oven at more than 1,000C. The
Argonne researchers set out to build a sensor that would detect overheating computer
components. Before an overheating component fails, and possibly ignites, epoxy in the
circuit boards releases a gas. The Argonne sensor can detect this vapour and cut off power to
the circuit.
D. The device senses gases by applying a steadily increasing voltage across its electrical
leads, and monitoring current spikes induced as gasses react on the sensor’s surface. Each
gas reacts at a characteristic voltage, and the size of the current spike indicates the
“signature” of several representative organic solvents.
E. The sensor could be used to monitor hydrocarbon emissions from cars; today’s typical
sensors only measure oxygen. The sensor could also monitor gases in industrial chemical
processes.
Question 1- 4: The following statements summarize some of the paragraphs of the
passage. Write the letter of the paragraph (A-E) next to its summarizing statement (1-4)
in the spaces provided.
1. How the device senses gases.
2. A brief introduction to the new gas sensor.
3. Other uses of the new gas sensor.
4. How the device was designed.
Question 5-10: Below is a summary of the passage. Fill in the spaces with a maximum of
three words from the passage
A new sensor made of ceramics and metals can endure corrosion, vibrations, exposure to
water, and (5) __________ , while not affected by (6) __________. As (7) __________
reacts at a (8) __________, the device applies a steadily increasing voltage and monitor
current spikes induced, (9) __________of which indicates the concentration of the gases.
Conventional sensors, on the other hand, do not work well at temperatures above 150 and
could be used only to (10) __________.
Your answers:
Statement 1.
Statement 2.
Statement 3.
Statement 4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART E. WRITING (20 points)
I. Use the word given in bold to complete each sentence below in such a way that it
means exactly as the one printed before it.
1. I think Robert is too young to look after his brother. (CARE)
I think Robert isn’t __________________________of his brother.
2. Ben certainly wasn’t as innocent as he pretended to be. (MEANS)
Ben was____________________________________________ he pretended to be.
3. The twins are eager to see their cousins again in the summer. (LOOKING)
The twins ________________________________their cousins again in the summer.
4. It was necessary to inspect the electrical systems in order to make sure they are safe.
(INTERESTS)
In___________________________________________________the electrical systems.
5. The proceeds from the sale went to charity. (MADE)
All the___________________________________________________________charity.
II. Write a paragraph on the following topic:
How much influence has fashion had on our lives? Are those influences negative or positive?
You should write between 150 and 180 words.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VĨNH PHÚC
HỘI THI HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ V
MARKING SCHEMES
MÔN: Tiếng Anh (khối 10)
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút.
(không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi này có 11 trang, không kể trang phách)
Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bản đề thi này.
LISTENING (15 points; 1 pt/item)
1. 9.30 (a.m)
6. $10
11. B
2. Helendale
3. Central street
4. Number (N0) 792
5. 8.55 (a.m)
7. before 5pm or after
8. No, (they don’t)
9. FALSE
10. FALSE
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. B
7.30pm
PHONETICS (5 points; 0.5pt/item)
I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
Your answer:
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. A
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. A
II. Which word has a different stress pattern?
Your answer:
1. A
GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
I. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (5points; 0.25 pt/item)
Your answer:
1. HAVE BEEN
2. ARE NOT UNDERSTOOD
5. BE SPENT
6.
9. ARE OFTEN PORTRAYED
13. ARE THEREFORE THOUGHT
17. HAS NOT YET BEEN FOUND
HAS
NOW
BEEN
4. ARE STRONGLY LINKED
8. HAVE FOR CENTURIES BEEN
10. HAS BEEN KNOWN FOR
11. DEPEND
12.
14.
15. REGARDED
MANY YEARS
WAS
ASSOCIATED
MOST
BEEN
HAS
ACKNOWLEDGED
7. ORIGINATE
ESTABLISHED
NOT
3.
OFTEN
FASCINATED
WAS
INTERPRETED
16. FINALLY BE UNLOCKED
18. HAVE BEEN SUGGESTED SO
19. TO GRADUALLY UNVEIL
20. SURROUNDING
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. C
FAR
REGULARLY
II. Choose the best option to complete the sentence: (5 points; 0.25pt/item)
III. Fill in each blank with ONE preposition or article (5 points; 0.25 pt/item)
Your answer:
1. FOR
2. FROM
3. AGAINST
4. OF
5. ABOUT
6. WITH
7. FROM
8. FROM
9. AMONG
10. FROM
11. WITH
12. OF
13. ABOUT
14. AS
15. TO
16. OF
17. OFF
18. FROM
19. TO
20. ON
IV. Choose the word or phrase which needs correcting by circling the letter A, B, C or D. (5 points; 0.5 pt/item)
Your answer:
1.
C; 2. D;
might
deadly
not
D; 4.
3.
C; 6.
D; 5.
flawless
had
because
skills
won
of/ due
A; 8.
A; 7.
Like
A; 9. D; on 10.
Rising
outpatients
tide
department
and off
A;
sheer
willpower
to
have
been
offered
V. Supply the correct form of the word (5 points; 0.5 pt/item)
1. increasingly
2. sufficient
3. doubtlessly
4. maintenance
5. stability
6. intentions
7. readily
8. diversity
9. removal
10. unattractive
VI. Use the words provided to fill in the blanks (5 points; 0.25pt/item)
1. every
2. all
3. every
4. all
5. all
6. whole
7. each
8. every
9. every
10. no
11. none
12. every
13. each
14. all
15. none
16. all
17. every
18. no
19. each
20. no
READING (30 points)
I. Read the following passage and answer the questions. (5 points; 0.5pt/item)
Your answer:
1 C,
2 D,
3 A,
4 B,
5 D,
6 C,
7 A,
8 B,
9 C,
10 C
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
II. Read the text then answer the questions by choosing the correct answer A, B, C, or D. (7.5 points; 0.5
pt/item)
Your answer:
1.C
11. C
2. B
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. D
III. Put a suitable word in each gap. (7.5 points; 0.5 pt/item)
1. under
2. as
3. it
4. such
11. much
12. for
13. as/ 14. be
5. to
6. if
7. round
8. out
9. which/that
10. being
15. an
because
III. Read the text and answer the questions that follow: (10 points; 1pt/item)
Your answer:
Statement 1. D
6. high
Statement 2. A
7. each gas
Statement 3. E
8. characteristic
Statement 4. C
9. the size
5. detect gases
10. measure oxygen
temperatures
voltage
WRITING (20 points)
I. Rewrite each sentence using the words given in bold letters. (5 points; 1 pt/item)
1. I think Robert isn’t old enough to take care of his brother. (CARE)
2. Ben was by no means as innocent as he pretended. (MEANS)
3. The twins are looking forward to seeing their cousins again this summer. (LOOKING)
4. In the interests of safety, it was necessary to inspect the electrical systems. (INTERESTS)
5. All the money they made went to charity. (PROCEEDS)
II. Paragraph writing (15 points; of which:
Task achievement (4 points)
Grammar range and Accuracy (3 points)
Coherence and cohesion (4 points)
Lexical resource ( 4 points)
TRANSCRIPT
Section 1
You will hear a conversation between a clerk at the enquiries desk of a transport company and a man who is
asking for travel information. First you have some time to look at questions 1 to 5.
[20 seconds]
You will see that there is an example that has been done for you. On this occasion only the conversation
relating to this will be played first.
Woman:
Good morning, Travel Link. How can I help you?
Man:
Good morning. I live in Bayswater and I’d like to get to Harbour City
tomorrow before 11am.
Woman:
Well, to get to Bayswater …
Man:
No, no. I live in Bayswater – my destination is Harbour City.
Woman:
Sorry. Right; so that’s Bayswater to Harbour City. Are you planning to
Narrator:
travel by bus or train?
The man wants to go to Harbour City, so Harbour City has been written in the space. Now we shall begin. You
should answer the questions as you listen because you will not hear the recording a second time. Listen
carefully and answer questions 1 to 5.
Woman:
Good morning, Travel Link. How can I help you?
Man:
Good morning. I live in Bayswater and I’d like to get to Harbour City
tomorrow before 11am.
Woman:
Well, to get to Bayswater …
Man:
No, no. I live in Bayswater – my destination is Harbour City.
Woman:
Sorry. Right; so that’s Bayswater to Harbour City. Are you planning to
travel by bus or train?
Man:
I don’t mind really, whichever option is faster, I suppose.
Woman:
Well, if you catch a railway express, that’ll get you there in under
an hour … Let’s see – yes, if you can make the 9.30am express, I’d recommend you do that.
Man:
Great. Which station does that leave from?
Woman:
Helendale is the nearest train station to you.
Man:
Did you say Helensvale?
woman:
No, Helendale – that’s H-E-L-E-N-D-A-L-E
Man:
What’s the best way to get to the Helendale station then?
Woman:
Well, hang on a minute while I look into that … Now, it seems to me that
you have two options. Option one would be to take the 706 bus from the
Bayswater Shopping Centre to Central Street. When you get there, you
transfer to another bus which will take you to the station. Or, the second
option, if you don’t mind walking a couple of kilometres, is to go directly
to Central Street and get straight on the bus going to the train station.
Man:
Okay. Which bus is that?
Woman:
The 792 will take you to the station.
Man:
I guess the walk will be good for me so that might be the better option.
What time do I catch the 792?
Woman:
There are two buses that should get you to the station on time: one just
before nine o’clock and one just after. But look, at that time of the
morning it might be better to take the earlier one just in case there’s a
traffic jam or something. The 8.55 is probably safer than the 9.05.
Man:
Narrator:
Yeah, I don’t want to the miss the train, so I’ll be sure to get on the fiveto-nine bus.
Before you hear the rest of the conversation, you have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.
[20 seconds]
Now listen and answer questions 6 to 10.
Man:
By the way, how much will I have to pay in fares?
Woman:
Well, you can get a ticket on the bus for $1.80 cash and you’ll need $10
each way for the train. Wait, do you have a Travel Link Card?
Man:
No, but I can get one before tomorrow.
Woman:
Okay, well that’ll make it considerably cheaper then. The bus will cost
$1.50 each way, and the train will be – the train to Harbour City will …
still cost $10.00 because you’ll be travelling during peak hours in the
morning, so no savings there, I’m afraid. However, if you could come
back at an off-peak time …
Man:
What does that mean?
Woman:
Well, if you could start your return journey before 5pm or later than half
past 7 in the evening …
Man:
Actually, I wasn’t planning on coming back till at least 8 o’clock anyway.
Woman:
In that case, you can make quite a saving if you use your Travel Link
Card. You did say you were planning to purchase one, didn’t you?
Man:
Yes, I’ll pick one up later today.
Woman:
Good – that would mean that your return train journey would only cost
you $7.15 with your card.
Man:
Thank you.
Man:
Actually, there is. Do you know if I can use the Travel Link Card on
Woman:
Is there anything else I can help you with?
ferries?
Woman:
If you’re thinking of the Harbour City ferries that go back and forth
between the north and south bank, those are the commuter ferries, then
yes. A one-way trip costs $4.50 but with your card you’d make a 20%
saving and only pay $3.55.
Man:
Woman:
So, $3.55 for the commuter ferry …What about the tour boats?
You mean the tourist ferries that go upriver on sightseeing tours? No –
they only take cash or credit card. They’re not part of the Travel Link
Company.
Man:
Oh, I see. I don’t suppose you know the cost of a tour?
Woman:
In actual fact, I do, because I took a friend on the trip upriver just last
week. We decided on the afternoon tour and that was $35 each but I
understand that you can do the whole day for $65.
Man:
Thank you. You’ve been a great help.
Woman:
My pleasure. Enjoy your day out.
Narrator:
That is the end of section 1. You now have half a minute to check your answers. [30 seconds]
Section 2
Today, I’m going to be talking about time. Specifically I’ll be looking at how people think about time, and how
these time perspectives structure our lives. According to social psychologists, there are six ways of thinking
about time, which are called personal time zones.
The first two are based in the past. Past positive thinkers spend most of their time in a state of nostalgia, fondly
remembering moments such as birthdays, marriages and important achievements in their life. These are the
kinds of people who keep family records, books and photo albums. People living in the past negative time zone
are also absorbed by earlier times, but they focus on all the bad things – regrets, failures, poor decisions. They
spend a lot of time thinking about how life could have been.
Then, we have people who live in the present. Present hedonists are driven by pleasure and immediate
sensation. Their life motto is to have a good time and avoid pain. Present fatalists live in the moment too, but
they believe this moment is the product of circumstances entirely beyond their control; it’s their fate. Whether
it’s poverty, religion or society itself, something stops these people from believing they can play a role in
changing their outcomes in life. Life simply “is” and that’s that.
Looking at the future time zone, we can see that people classified as future active are the planners and gogetters. They work rather than play and resist temptation. Decisions are made based on potential
consequences, not on the experience itself. A second future-orientated perspective, future fatalistic, is driven by
the certainty of life after death and some kind of a judgement day when they will be assessed on how virtuously
they have lived and what success they have had in their lives.
Okay, let’s move on. You might ask “how do these time zones affect our lives?” Well, let’s start at the beginning.
Everyone is brought into this world as a present hedonist. No exceptions. Our initial needs and demands – to be
warm, secure, fed and catered – all stem from the present moment. But things change when we enter formal
education – we’re taught to stop existing in the moment and to begin thinking about future outcomes.
But, did you know that every nine seconds a child in the USA drops out of school? For boys, the rate is much
higher than for girls. We could easily say “Ah, well, boys just aren’t as bright as girls” but the evidence doesn’t
support this. A recent study states that boys in America, by the age of twenty one, have spent 10,000 hours
playing video games. The research suggests that they’ll never fit in the traditional classroom because these boys
require a situation where they have the ability to manage their own learning environment.
Now, let’s look at the way we do prevention education. All prevention education is aimed at a future time zone.
We say “don’t smoke or you’ll get cancer”, “get good grades or you won’t get a good job”. But with present-
orientated kids that just doesn’t work. Although they understand the potentially negative consequences of their
actions, they persist with the behaviour because they’re not living for the future; they’re in the moment right
now. We can’t use logic and it’s no use reminding them of potential fall-out from their decisions or previous
errors of judgment – we’ve got to get in their minds just as they’re about to make a choice.
Time perspectives make a big difference in how we value and use our time. When Americans are asked how
busy they are, the vast majority report being busier than ever before. They admit to sacrificing their
relationships, personal time and a good night’s sleep for their success. Twenty years ago, 60% of Americans had
sit-down dinners with their families, and now only 20% do. But when they’re asked what they would do with
an eight-day week, they say “Oh that’d be great”. They would spend that time labouring away to achieve more.
They’re constantly trying to get ahead, to get toward a future point of happiness.
So, it’s really important to be aware of how other people think about time. We tend to think: “Oh, that person’s
really irresponsible” or “That guy’s power hungry” but often what we’re looking at is not fundamental
differences of personality, but really just different ways of thinking about time. Seeing these conflicts as
differences in time perspective, rather than distinctions of character, can facilitate more effective cooperation
between people and get the most out of each person’s individual strengths.
Narrator:
That is the end of section 4. You now have half a minute to check your answers. [30 seconds]
That is the end of the listening test. You now have 10 minutes to transfer your answers to the listening
answer sheet.
………… Số báo danh: ……………
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NAM
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BIÊN HÒA
ĐỀ NGUỒN
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI
VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ VII
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 13 trang
SECTION I. LISTENING (15 points)
I. You are going to hear an interview with someone who started the activity known as “free
running”. Listen and answer questions by circling the appropriate letter A, B, or C. (5 points)
1. Sebastine says that he dpes free running because
2.
3.
4.
5.
A. other activities became boring for him
B. it feels like a natural activities
C. it is an individual activity
What does Sebastine say about the danger of free running?
A. Fit pepole are keen to do difficult things immediately.
B. People who are not fit don’t learn very quickly.
C. Free running is a good way of getting fit.
What does Sebastine say about the danger of free running?
A. It is not as great as some people think.
B. Most free runners pay not attention to it.
C. It is reduced as much as possible
What does Sebastine say about his fear of heights?
A. People don’t believe that he has it
B. He always has to overcome it
C. It is not as great as it used to be.
What does Sebastine say about where free running can be done?
A. People’s opinions on this are changing.
B. his own opinions on this have changed
C. Some people have the wrong idea on this
II. Listen to a talk about the song “Happy Birthday” and fill in the gap. (10 points)
The song was first called “Good Morning (1)..................................................
It was originally intended that (2)..................................would sing the song every morning.
The song then became known as Good Morning (3)..................................
Children began to sing the song with “Happy Birthday” words when they were
(4)..................................
The song was sung with 'Happy Birthday' words in a (5).................................. in 1931 and
then in another one in 1934.
The legal situation concerning the song remains valid (6)..................................
The song is among the (7).................................. songs most frequently sung in English.
Money has to be paid for using the song in any (8).................................., eg a TV show, a
toy, etc.
The Hill sisters set up (9)..................................that receives money for use of the song.
The song consists of just four (10).................................. but it is one of the most famous
songs in the world
1
SECTION II. PHONETICS (5 points)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others. ( 2.5points)
1. A. float
B. broad
C. goat
D. coat
2. A. office
B. promise
C. service
D. expertise
3. A. black
B. blade
C. blad
D. blank
4. A. suitable
B. biscuit
C. guilty
D. building
5. A. naval
B. canal
C. fatal
D. mammal
Your answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
(2.5points)
1. A. competence
B. comfortable
C. compliment
D. companion
2. A. delicious
B. theory
C. attractive
D. alleviate
3. A. inevitable
B. innovate
C. innocent
D. insecticide
4. A.contents
B. dismal
C. discontent
D. decent
5. A. hygiene
B. appointment
C. remember
D. neglect
Your answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
SECTION III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
I. Choose the best answer. (5 points)
1. This film ……… several scenes which were very funny.
A. features
B. pictures
C. depicts
D. illustrates
2. Sales of margarine rose last year …………. those of butter.
A. comparing
B. at a loss of
C. at the expense of
D. with regrad to
3. We all feel that his jokes about immigrants were in very poor ……………
A. form
B. view
C. feeling
D. taste
4. As the President was absent, I was asked to ……. the meeting.
A. officiate
B. govern
C. chair
D. regulate
5. The product was withdrawn from sale because there was no longer any … for it.
A. call
B. interest
C. claim
D. order
6. The trouble with Stan is that he makes such a fuss about even the most……. injury.
A. slight
B. trivial
C. basic
D. elementary
7. I had no chance to defend myself; the dog ……… for me as soon as I opened the door.
A. went
B. ran
C. fell
D. stood
8. Please ………. a copy of your application form for at least six months.
A. return
B. revise
C. retain
D. refer
9. They turned down the proposal ………… that it didn’t fulfil their requirements.
A. by reason
B. on the grounds C. as a cause
D. allowing
10. Sales reached a ………… in June and then fell off.
A. climax
B. summit
C. peak
D. height
11. Get him to sign the contract before he has second……………….
A. plans
B. thoughts
C. intentions
D. ideas
2
12. Tim was ……. on causing mischief and nothing was going to stop him.
A. intent
B. determined
C. fixed
D. obsessed
13. He muttered something under his …………, but I didn’t catch what he said.
A. mouth
B. breath
C. voice
D. chin
14. How exactly did you set ……… training the horses to work so well together?
A. up
B. to
C. about
D. out
15. If you’re at a(n) …… end, you could help me in the garden.
A. open
B. free
C. loose
D. empty
16. He agreed to accept the position..that he would be given a share of the company’s profits.
A. in the agreement B. with the aim
C. with the purpose
D.on the understanding
17. This calculator has a number of ………. in the way it can be used.
A. reservations
B. constrictions C. obstructions
D. limitations
18. I could tell at a …………… that nothing had changed between Barbara and Edward.
A. glimpse
B. blink
C. wink
D. glance
19. The new road currently under …… will solve the traffic problems in the town.
A. design
B. progress
C. construction
D. work
20. I must go to bed early tonight; I sat up till the …….. hours to finish that report.
A. small
B. late
C. deep
D. last
Your answer
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
II. The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Underline them in the passage and
correct them in the space provided below. The first has been done as an example.
( 5points)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are
designed to measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have been
explicitness taught. The proficiency exams requiring by a few states for high school
graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a person’s ability
to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can help you
decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests
are, in some senses, achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past learning or
experience that we have gained with certainly objects, words, or situations. The difference
between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intentional use.
0. Traditional  Traditionally
Your answer
1……………………………………
2……………………………..…….
3……………………………………
4……………………………………
5……………………………………
6………………………………….
7………………………………….
8……………………………………
9……………………………………
10…………………………………..
3
III. Phrasal Verbs. ( 5 points)
A. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable preposition. (2.5 points)
1. ________ hindsight, it is not hard to realize that leaving the country was her biggest
mistake ever.
2. It stands _____ reason that you can’t simply say sorry and hope everything will be normal
again.
3. She turned her nose _____ at the job because she thought it was not good enough for her.
4. They were imprisoned and deprived _____ their basic rights.
5. Losing his job came as a terrible blow ______ him.
6. The singer enjoyed being accompanied ____ the flute by her husband.
7. ______ mutual consent, they kept their divorce secret from their children.
8. The party was already _____ full swing by the time they got there.
9. He didn’t have time to prepare a speech, so he had to give one _____ the cuff.
10. Throughout the flight, he was very much _____ edge and didn’t start to relax until the
plane had landed.
Your answer:
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
B. Use the verbs given below together with ONE appropriate particle to complete the
following sentences. (2.5 points)
make
turn
get
bring
take
pass
fall
run
come
get
1. The lady _____ the bus, walked toward the shop and entered it.
2. The victim didn’t have the least idea how he _____ the plane crash.
3. Your new dress really ______ the color of your eyes.
4. Little children like to _____ their toys _____
5. He tried to _______ himself ____ as the leader of the community.
6. It is highly recommended that you replace the batteries before they completely ________.
7. The soldiers are ordered to ______.
8. Many pensioners find it hard to ______ on their small pensions after their retirement.
9. The murderer _____ himself ____ to the police one week after the crime.
10. Constant daydreaming doesn’t _____ a successful career in music.
Your answer:
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
IV. Use the correct tense and form of the verbs in brackets. (5 points)
a. It looks as if this light (1. burn) _____ all night. I (2. forget) ______ to switch it off before
I went to bed last night.
b. John admitted (3. surprise) ______ by the unexpected birthday party last night.
c. Do they think that when the new great dam (4.build) _____, it (5. supply) _____ power
for a third of the country’s requirements?
4
d. We’ll be in the same firm but we (6. not work) _____ together because we’ll be in
different departments.
e. It was our fault to keep you (7.wait) ____ so long. We (8. inform) ____ you in advance.
f. He got angry because he (9. not be)_____ accustomed to (10. make) ____ fun of like that
before.
g. The food we eat (11.seem)_______ to have profound effects on our health. Although
science (12. make) ________ enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the
same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research (13. show) _____ that perhaps
eighty percent of all human illnesses (14.be) ____ related to diet and forty percent of
cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different
cultures are more prone (15.contract) ____ certain illnesses because of the characteristic
foods they consume. That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945,
government researchers (16. realize) _______ that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used
to preserve color in meats) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these
carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it (17.become)_______ more difficult all
the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of ( 18. process) __________
food are helpful or harmful. The additives that we eat (19. be) _______ not all so direct.
Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this, penicillin (20.
find) _____ in the milk of treated cows.
Your answer:
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
V. Use the correct form of the word in the box to fit each gap. (5 points)
It is strange but true that some of the most important scientific discoveries of the past
hundred years have only gained (1. ACCEPT) ___________ because someone eminent in the
field took an interest in a theory, while progress in other fields has at times been delayed for
years because no one is possessing the (2. EXPERT) ______ to evaluate a theory was
prepared to take it seriously.
1905 saw the (3. PUBLISH) _____ of a theory now known as the Theory of Relativity
by a Young man called Albert Einstein. The (4. RESPONSE) ______ of the scientific
community was one of total indifference until the distinguished German physicist, Max
Planck, noticed it. Historians today believe that his (5. PATRON) ______ of Einstein was
crucial to the theory being accepted.
Several years later, Einstein put forward his new theory of general relativity. A
renowned physicist, Eddington, produced measurements that (6. APPEAR) _______
confirmed Eistein’s predictions. It is now known, however, that Eddington was highly (7.
SELECT) ______ in the result she published, ignoring any that did not prove the theory.
Einstein was eventually proved right though at first he was the (8. BENEFIT) _____ of
doubtful research, only accepted because of the reputation of the man who presented it.
The conclusion is that where only a (9. HAND) _____ of people in the world possess
the (10. QUALIFY) _____ to understand a theory, the rest of us must rely on their opinion
until one of them can demonstrate that the others are mistaken.
5
Your answer:
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
VI. Choose the best word or phrase to fill each of the spaces. (5 points)
thoughts
impediment
confidence
freedom
distance
languages
benefits
opposition
attainment
interchange
tone
humanity
proof
change
tongue
The greatest (1) _____ to free intercourse between nations is neither (2) ______, nor
the difference of mental habits, nor the (3) _____ of national interests; it is simply the
imperfect manner in which languages are usually acquired, and the lazy contentment of
mankind with a low degree of (4) _____ in a foreign tongue ,when a much higher degree of
attainment would be necessary to any efficient (5) _____- of ideas. It seems probable that
much of the future happiness of (6) _____ will depend upon a determination to learn foreign
languages more thoroughly.
Foreigners do not open their minds to one who blunders about their menaings, their (7)
____ is only to be won by a demonstration of something like equality in intelligence, and
nobody can give (8) ____ of this unless he has the means of making his (9) ____ itself, a
somewhat bold and authoritative (10) _____.
Your answer:
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
SECTION IV. READING COMPREHENSION (30 points)
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (7.5 points)
The flying aunties
Few passengers on the British Airways flight to Hong Kong which took off from
London airport on Saturday 7th August, were (1)_____ that their flight was setting a record
for the company. In fact, their plane was carrying 112 “unaccompanied minors” – the largest
(2) _____ of children traveling without parents or guardians ever to have flown on a (3)
_____ flight. Most of these children, aged from six (4) _____, were returning to Hong Kong
after taking three-week English (5) _____ at various language schools as (6) _____ an
exchange scheme
The children were not left to their own devices, (7) _____ Airline rules say that
children under twelve can only fly if accompanied (8) _____ an adult. So, a group of three
“aunties” and one “uncle” flew with them to (9) _____ them entertained and (10) _____ with
any problems that might arise. They are part of a British Airways team known as the “flying
aunties”. These are BA employees who volunteer, in their own time, to (11) _____ an
escorted service for unaccompanied minors to both European and long-haul (12) _____.
Once in the air, there is a range of activities available to the youngsters (13) _____ computer
games, coloring books and soft drinks on tap. In (14) _____, the children have the “aunties”
all to themselves – for such members of (15) _____ do not take on other duties
6
1. A. realized
2. A. count
3. A. single
4. A. backwards
5. A. classes
6. A. linked to
7. A. altogether
8. A. from
9. A. hold
10. A. manage
11. A. provide
12. A. departures
13. A. regarding
14. A. addition
15. A. team
Your answer
1.
2.
3.
B. thought
B. number
B. solo
B. forwards
B. courses
B. long as
B. although
B. at
B. keep
B. bother
B. produce
B. destinations
B. composing
B. further
B. crew
4.
5.
6.
7.
C. aware
C. amount
C. unique
C. afterwards
C. studies
C. along with
C. however
C. with
C. help
C. solve
C. pretend
C. routes
C. including
C. extra
C. staff
8.
9.
10.
11.
D. known
D. quantity
D. lone
D. upwards
D. lessons
D. part of
D. moreover
D. by
D. get
D. deal
D. present
D. arrivals
D. containing
D. plus
D. group
12.
13.
14.
15.
II. Fill in the numbered space with the most appropriate word (7.5 points)
Aristotle, the Greek philosopher, summed up the (1)............chief qualities of money some
2,000 years ago. It must be lasting and easy to recognize, to divide, and to carry about. In
(2)............ words, it must be, “durable, distinct, divisible and portable”. When we think of
money today, we picture it (3)............ as round, flat pieces of metal which we call coins, or
as printed paper notes. But there are still parts of the world today where coins and notes are
of (4)............ use. They will buy nothing, and a traveler might starve as he has none of the
particular local “money” to exchange for food.
Among isolated peoples, who are not often reached by traders from outside, commerce
usually means barter. There is a (5)............exchange of goods. Perhaps it is fish for
vegetables, meat for gram, or various kinds of food (6)............ exchange for pots, baskets, or
other manufactured goods. For this kind of simple trading, money is (7)............ needed, but
there is often some thing that everyone wants and everybody can use, such as salt to flavour
food, shells for ornaments, or iron and copper to make into tools and vessels. These things salt, shells or metals are still used as money in out-of-the -way parts of the world today.
Salt may seem rather a strange substance to use as money, but in countries (8)............the
food of the people is mainly vegetable, it is often (9)............ absolute necessity. Cakes of salt,
stamped to show their value, were used as money in Tibet (10)............ recent times, and
cakes of salt will still buy goods in Borneo and parts of Africa.
Cowrie sea shells have been used as money at some time or another over the greater part
of the Old World. These were (11)............ mainly from the beaches of the Maldive Islands in
the Indian Ocean, and were traded to India and China. In Africa, cowries were traded right
across the continent from East to West. Four or five thousand went for one Maria Theresa
dollar, an Austrian silver coin which was once accepted (12)............currency in many parts
of Africa.
Metal, valued by weight, preceded coins in many parts of the world. Iron, in lumps, bars
or rings is still used in many countries (13)............of money. It can be exchanged for goods
7
or made into tools, weapons or ornaments. The early money of China, (14)............from
shells, was of bronze, often in flat, round pieces with a hole in the (15)............ called “cash”.
The earliest of these are between three thousand and four thousand years old older than the
earliest coins of the eastern Mediterranean.
Your answer
1. …………………….
2. …………………….
3. …………………….
4. …………………….
5. …………………….
6. …………………….
7. …………………….
8. …………………….
9. …………………….
10. …………………….
11. …………………….
12. …………………….
13. …………………….
14. …………………….
15. …………………….
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (5 points)
Tulips are Old World, rather than New World, plants, with the origins of the species lying
in Central Asia. They became an integral part of the gardens of the Ottoman Empire from
the sixteenth century onward, and, soon after, part of European life as well. Holland, in
particular, became famous for its cultivation of the flower. A tenuous line marked the
advance of the tulip to the New World, where it was unknown in the wild. The first Dutch
colonies in North America had been established in New Netherlands by the Dutch West India
Company in 1624, and one individual who settled in New Amsterdam (today's Manhattan
section of New York City) in 1642 described the flowers that bravely colonized the settlers'
gardens. They were the same flowers seen in Dutch still-life paintings of the time: crown
imperials, roses, carnations, and of course tulips. They flourished in Pennsylvania too,
where in 1698 William Penn received a report of John Tateham's "Great and Stately Palace,"
its garden full of tulips. By 1760, Boston newspapers were advertising 50 different kinds of
mixed tulip "roots." But the length of the journey between Europe and North America
created many difficulties. Thomas Hancock, an English settler, wrote thanking his plant
supplier for a gift of some tulip bulbs from England, but his letter the following year
grumbled that they were all dead. Tulips arrived in Holland, Michigan, with a later wave of
early nineteenth-century Dutch immigrants who quickly colonized the plains of Michigan.
Together with many other Dutch settlements, such as the one at Pella Iowa, they established
a regular demand for European plants. The demand was bravely met by a new kind of tulip
entrepreneur, the traveling salesperson. One Dutchman, Hendrick vander Schoot, spent six
months in 1849 traveling through the United States taking orders for tulip bulbs. While tulip
bulbs were traveling from Europe to the United States to satisfy the nostalgic longings of
homesick English and Dutch settlers, North American plants were traveling in the opposite
direction. In England, the enthusiasm for American plants was one reason why tulips
dropped out of fashion in the gardens of the rich and famous.
1. Which of the following questions does the passage mainly answer?
A. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
B. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
C. How did tulips become popular in North America?
D. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
2. The word "integral" is closest in meaning to
A. interesting
B. fundamental
C. ornamental
D. overlooked
8
3. The passage mentions that tulips were first found in which of the following regions?
A. Central Asia
B. Western Europe
C. India
D. North America
4. The word "flourished" is closest in meaning to
A. were discovered B. were marketed
C. combined
D. thrived
5. The author mentions tulip growing in New Netherlands, Pennsylvania and Michigan in
order to illustrate how
A. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
B. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
C. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America
D. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
6. The word "grumbled" is closest in meaning to
A. denied
B. warned
C. complained
D. explained
7. The passage mentions that one reason English and Dutch settlers planted tulips in their
gardens was that tulips
A. were easy to grow
B. had become readily available
C. made them appear fashionable
D. reminded them of home
8. The word "they" refers to
A. tulips
B. plains
C. immigrants
D. plants
9. According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred in English gardens
during the European settlement of North America?
A. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World
B. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
C. They contained many new types of North American plants.
D. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
10. The passage mentions which of the following as a problem associated with the
importation of tulips into North America?
A. They were no longer fashionable by the time they arrived
B. They often failed to survive the journey.
C. Orders often took six months or longer to fill.
D. Settlers knew little about how to cultivate them.
Your answers:
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
IV. Heading and summary (10 points)
THE MUANG FAAI IRRIGATION SYSTEM OF NORTHERN THAILAND
Section 1
Northern Thailand consists mainly of long mountain chains interspersed with valley
bottoms where streams and rice fields dominate the landscape. Most of the remaining forests
of the North are found at higher altitudes. The forests ensure regular seasonal rainfall for the
whole area and at the same time moderate run-off, so that there is water throughout the year.
Section 2
The lowland communities have developed an agricultural system adapted to, and
partially determining, the distinctive ecosystems of their areas. Practising wet-rice agriculture
in the valley-bottoms, the lowlanders also raise pigs, ducks and chickens and cultivate
vegetable gardens in their villages further up the slopes. Rice, beans, corn and native
9
vegetables are planted in hill fields above the villages, and wild vegetables and herbal
medicines are gathered and wild game hunted in the forests higher up the hillsides. The
forests also serve as grazing grounds for cows and buffalos, and are a source of wood for
household utensils, cooking fuel, construction and farming tools. Fish are to be found in the
streams and in the irrigation system and wet-rice fields, providing both food and pest control.
Section 3
In its essentials, a muang faai system consists of a small reservoir which feeds an
intricate, branching network of small channels carrying water in carefully calibrated
quantities through clusters of rice terraces in valley bottoms. The system taps into a stream
above the highest rice field and, when is sufficient water, discharges back into the same
stream at a point below the bottom field. The water in the reservoir at the top, which is
diverted a main channel (lam muang) and from there into the different fields, is slowed or
held back not by an impervious dam, but by a senes of barriers constructed of bunches of
bamboo or saplings which allow silt, soil and sand to pass through.
Section 4
Water from the lam muang is measured out among the farmers to the extent of their rice
field and the amount of water available from the main channel. Also considered are the
height of the fields, their distance from the main channel and their soil type. The size and
depth of side-channels are then adjusted so that only the allocated amount of water flows into
each farmer's field.
Section 5
Rituals and beliefs connected with muang faai reflect the villagers submission to,
respect for, and friendship with nature, rather than an attempt to master it. In mountains,
forests, watersheds and water, villagers see things of great value and power. This power has a
favourable aspect, and one that benefits humans. But at the same time, if certain boundaries
are overstepped and nature is damaged, the spirits will punish humans. Therefore, when it is
necessary to use nature for the necessities of life, villagers take care to inform the spirits what
they intend to do, simultaneously begging pardon for their actions.
Section 6
Keeping a muang faai system going demands cooperation and collective management,
sometimes within a single village, sometimes across three or four different subdistricts
including many villages. The rules of common agreements arrived at during the yearly
meeting amount to a social contract. They govern how water is to be distributed, how flow is
to be distributed according to seasonal schedules, how barriers are to be maintained and
channels dredged, how conflicts over water use are to be settled, and the forest around the
reservoir is to be preserved as a guarantee of a steady water supply and a source of materials
to repair the system
Section 7
The fundamental principle of water rights under muang faai is that everyone in the
system must get enough to survive; while many patterns of distribution are possible, none
can violate this basic tenet. On the whole, the systems also rest on the assumption that local
water is common property. No one can take control of it by force, and it must be used in
accord with the communal agreements. Although there are inequalities in landholding, no
one has the right to an excessive amount of fertile land. The way in which many muang faai
systems expand tends to reinforce further the claims of community security over those of
individual entrepreneuship. In the gradual process of opening up new land and digging
connecting channels, each local household often ends up with scattered holdings over the
10
whole irrigation areas. Unlike modern irrigation systems, under which the most powerful
people generally end up closest to the sources of water, this arrangement encourages
everyone to take care that no part of the system is unduly favoured or neglected.
The reading passage has 7 sections. Choose the most suitable heading for each section
from the list of headings (A - L) below. Write the appropriate letter (A - L) in the space
provided.
N.B There are more headings than sections, so you will not use all of them.
List of Headings
A. Rituals and beliefs
B. Topography of Northern Thailand
C. The forests of Northern Thailand
D. Preserving the system
E. Agricultural practices
F. Village life
G. Water distribution principles
H. Maintaining natural balances
I. Structure of the irrigation system
J. User’s rights
K. User’s obligations
L. Community control
Example: Section 1: B
1. Section 2: ..................
2. Section 3: ..................
3. Section 4: ..................
4. Section 5: ..................
5. Section 6: ..................
6. Section 7: ..................
The chart below illustrates the agricultural system of the lowland communities. Select
words from the reading passage to fill the spaces in the chart. Use UP TO THREE
WORDS for each space. Write your answers in the blank.
Area
Activity
Forests
grazing cows, buffalo
Forests
gathering (7).............................. hunting wild animals
Hill fields
cultivating (8).............................
Villages
raising (9)................................ cultivating vegetables.
Valley bottom
growing (10)............................
11
SECTION V. WRITING (20 points)
I. Transformation (5 points)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2. 5 points)
1. No- one has challenged his authority before.
This is the first time………………………………………………………
2. You’ll certainly meet lots of people in your new job..
You are………………………………………..
3. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather……………………………………………..
4. We weren’t surprised by his success.
It came ………………………………………………………….
5. The plan may be ingenious, but it will never work in practice.
Ingenious ………………………………………………………………………….
Rewrite the sentences below using the words in brackets without changing their original
form. (2.5 points)
6. I always think about transport costs when job hunting (CONSIDERATION)
I always …………………………………………………………when job hunting.
7. Jenny's birthday is on the same day as the Queen's (COINCIDES)
Jenny's ………………………………………………………………………Queen's
8. The young actress was very nervous before the audition (BUTTERFLIES)
The young actress ……………………………………………… before the audition
9. Don't pay any attention when she complains (NOTICE)
Don't ……………………………………………………………………… complaints.
10. Anne has decided to buy fewer clothes from now on (CUT)
Anne has decided to ………………………………………………from now on
II. Writing a paragraph (15 points)
“School extra activities are beneficial to student life.” Do you agree with this
statement?Write a paragraph of about 180 words to state your viewpoint.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………….....
.....................................................................……………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
- THE END -
13
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 (Chuyên Biên Hòa – Hà Nam)
SECTION I. LISTENING (15 points)
I. Listen and choose the correct answer (5 points)
Source: FCE Test Builder (Test 2 – part 4)
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
Tapescript:
Interviewer: Sébastien Foucan is the co-founder and pioneer of free running, a physical
discipline in which participants move through, across and over all sorts of
obstacles and structures in a smooth and fluid way. People do free running in
gyms, in the street and on buildings. He's appeared in movies and TV
documentaries, performing spectacular movements. Sébastien, you routinely
jump across rooftops to get from A to B. Why, exactly?
Sébastien: It's always been a real passion for me, but I think it's become more than that. It's a
part of my life. It's like asking someone, 'Why are you walking?' They say it's
simply because they can, and for me it's the same with free running. When we
were young, my friend and I used to practise climbing around, just like any kids.
We just kept moving, never stopped, until it turned into something special. First
it turned into a lifestyle, and then into a real discipline.
Interviewer: Just watching you in action makes me tired! Do you have to be fit to be a free
runner?
Sébastien: To start with, you don't have to be so fit. In fact, I often prefer beginners who
start with not such a healthy body. If you can't do stuff because your body is not
ready, you naturally start at a low level. When you get somebody who has done
some sport, they often want to do something too impressive too soon.
Interviewer: Just one wrong step could see you fall and splatter on the floor, though.
Surely it's just too dangerous?
Sébastien: Yeah, of course there is risk - but there is risk everywhere. When you're driving a
car, you can have an accident. We fly on planes and just accept that there won't
be an accident. We make it as safe as we can, but we know something can
happen. It's the same with free running. There is danger, but we try to do it
properly.
Interviewer: Would you say you're a risk-taker?
Sébastien: No, because everything I do is calculated. It's not like everything is 100 per cent
safe, but I'm always thinking of the safest way to do what I'm doing. I'm not
afraid of using wires in movies or putting crash mats down for big jumps. You
have to be clever.
Interviewer: What went through your mind when you jumped across the Millennium
Stadium roof?
Sébastien: I thought to myself, 'I know this jump, I know I can do it'. I used to do track and
field, and my best for the long jump is 7.10m. This jump was between three
and four metres, so I had a margin of safety. The weather was good and there
was no one around, so I had no stress. We put a crash mat down below. You
could always miss it, but it's better than nothing.
Interviewer: Are you basically just fearless?
Sébastien: People think I have no fear, but that is not true. I have vertigo, for example, but I
14
know my body very well because I do everything step by step. It's about focus
and concentration. Okay, I'm afraid of heights, but I just focus on something
else and try not to think about it.
Interviewer: You've traditionally stuck to urban areas, but would you like to try further
afield?
Sébastien: I would like to try Africa and the natural environment. People think free running
is only about the city, but it's not. You can use trees and rocks, and even swim.
You have to open your mind and not restrict yourself.
Interviewer: Well, Sébastien, good luck with everything, and thanks for talking to me.
Sébastien: Pleasure.
II. Listen to a talk about the song “Happy Birthday” and fill in the gap. (10 points)
Source: FCE Test Builder (Test 1 – part 2)
6. until 2030
1. to/ To all/All
7. 3/ three
2. a/ the teacher/ Teachers
8. profit making enterprise
3. to/ To you/ You
9. a foundation
4. at parties
10. (short) musical phrases
5. show
Tapesccript:
Happy Birthday had its origins in 1893, when Mildred Hill, a kindergarten teacher in
Louisville, Kentucky, put together a simple little tune. Whether she composed it entirely out
of her own head, or was influenced by other 'folk song' fragments, is not clear. But when her
younger sister Patty (also a teacher) added words, the groundwork was laid for a very
pleasing song. They called it Good Morning to All:
Good morning to you,
Good morning to you,
Good morning dear children,
Good morning to all.
Good Morning to All was initially intended, and used, as a welcoming song to be sung by
the teacher to the class each morning. But when it was published later in 1893, in a book of
songs for kindergartens, it proved to be popular in reverse - children sang it to their teachers,
rather than the other way round, and the word 'children' was popularly replaced by 'teacher'.
So the song gently morphed into Good Morning to You.
In this form, young children across the United States began to sing the song. The slow
development from 'Good Morning' to 'Happy Birthday' seems to have come from children
themselves, with encouragement from Patty Hill, who helped create the new lyric when
children liked the song enough to sing it at parties.
In 1924, Good Morning to All, with Happy Birthday to You printed as an optional second
verse, was published.
By then, radio was gaining attention and movies were beginning to take hold. The Happy
Birthday words replaced the earlier version, and in 1931 the song appeared in the show Band
Wagon, then became a 'singing telegram' for Western Union in 1933, and surfaced again in
Irving Berlin's show As Thousands Cheer in 1934.
The third Hill sister, Jessica, believing that Patty and Mildred should have the credit for the
now very popular song, and some profit from it, went into battle. Later in 1934, she was able
15
to establish legal copyright to her sisters for their song, and it was officially published in
1935 as Happy Birthday. Since then, two legal changes in America's copyright system have
made Happu Birthdau copyright until 2030.
Fortunately this does not rule out its being sung privately, as it is at countless parties. It has
been named in the Guinness Book of Records as one of the three most sung songs in the
English language, along with For He's a Jolly Good Fellow and Auld Lang Syne.
But the copyright can be enforced when the song is used in a public place where a larger
group than a family is gathered, such as a sports event. Royalties must be paid if the song is
ever part of a profit-making enterprise, such as a television show, a commercial stage
performance or movie, or is built into toys, music boxes, watches, mobile phones and
'singing' birthday cards.
In order to deal with their fully copyrighted property, the Hill sisters established a
foundation through which royalties were paid until their death, and which stillreceives
several millions of dollars of income a year. In 2002, the mayor of Louisville dedicated a
'Happy Birthday' parking lot near Main Street, with a commemorative plaque telling the
story of the local sisters who composed the famous song.
Although Happy Birthday has only four short musical phrases, and a single repetitive line of
words, it has become a part of the musical landscape. It is sung all over the world in many
languages - by one estimate, several million times a year - often to children who are too
young even to know what the song is about, but also to just about everyone else
SECTION II. PHONETICS (5 points)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others. ( 2.5points)
1.B
2.D
3.B
4.A
5.B
II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
(2.5points)
1.D
2.B
3.A
4. C
5. A
SECTION III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY(30 points)
I. Choose the best answer. (5 points)
1.A
2. C
3.D
4.C
5.A
6.B
7. A 8. C
9.B
11.B
12.A 13.B 14.C 15.C 16.D 17. D 18.D 19.C
10.C
20.A
II. The following passage contains 10 mistakes. Underline them in the passage and
correct them in the space provided below. The first has been done as an example.
( 5points)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are
designed to measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have been
explicitness taught. The proficiency exams requiring by a few states for high school
graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a person’s ability
to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can help you
decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests
are, in some senses, achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past learning
16
or experience that we have gained with certainly objects, words, or situations. The
difference between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intentional use.
1. acquiring  acquired
6. would will
2. explicitness  explicitly
7. like  as
3. requiring . required
8. assuption  assume
4. and  to
9. sort sorts
5. but  and
10. certainly  certain
III. Phrasal Verbs. ( 5 points)
A. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable preposition. (2.5 points)
1.With
2.to
3.up
4.of
6.on
7.By
8. in
9. off
5.to
10. on
B. Use the verbs given below together with ONE appropriate particle to complete the
following sentences. (2.5 points)
1.got off
2.came through
3. brings out 4. take –apart 5. pass -off
6.run down
7.fall in
8.get by
9. turned - in 10. make for
IV. Use the correct tense and form of the verbs in brackets. (5 points)
1. has been burning 2. must have forgotten 3. being surprised 4. has been built
5. will/can supply
6.won’t be working
7. waiting
8. should have informed
9. hadn’t been
10. being made
11. seems
12. has made
13. has shown
14. are
15. to contract
16. realized
17. becomes
18. processed
19. are
20. has been found
V. Use the correct form of the word in the box to fit each gap. (5 points)
1.acceptance
2. expertise
3. publication 4.response
5.patronage
6.apparently
7.selective
8.beneficiary 9.handful
10. qualifications
VI. Choose the best word or phrase to fill each of the spaces. (5 points)
1.impediment
2.distance
3. opposition
4.attainment
5. interchange
6.humanity
7.confidence
8.proof
9.thoughts
10.tone
SECTION IV. READING COMPREHENSION (30 points)
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (7.5 points)
Source: Multiple Choice Cloze Test – Vinh Ba
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C
II. Fill in the numbered space with the most appropriate word (7.5 points)
Source: Tuyển tập các bài thi trắc nghiệm tiếng Anh – tập III
1. four
6. in
11. collected
2. other
7. not
12. as
3. either
8. where
13. instead
4. no
9. an
14. apart
5. direct
10. until
15. middle
17
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (5 points)
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. C
10. B
IV. Heading/ Summerise (10 points)
Source: Tuyển tập các bài thi trắc nghiệm tiếng Anh – tập III
1. E
2. I
7. two correct out of: vegetables, herbal medicines, herbs, wood
3. G
8. two correct out of: rice, beans, corn, (native) vegetables
4. A
9. two correct out of: pigs, ducks, chickens
5. L
10. (wet) rice/ (fish)
6. J
SECTION V. WRITING (20 points)
I. Transformation (5 points)
1. This is the first time (that) his authority has been challenged (by anyone)/
This is the first time (that) anyone/someone has challenged his authority.
2. You are certain/ bound/ sure to meet lots of people.
You are certainly going to meet lots of people.
3. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
4. It came as no surprise to us ( to hear) (that) he was/ (had been) successful / (had)
succeeded.
5. Ingenious as the plan may be, it will never work in practice.
6. I always take transport costs into consideration when job hunting.
7. Jenny's birthday coincides with the Queen's
8. The young actress had butterflies (in her stomach) before the audition
9. Don't take any notice of her complaints.
10. Anne has decided to cut down on buying clothes from now on.
II. Writing a paragraph (15 points)
Requirements:
 Organization: ( 5 points)
 3 parts ( topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence)
 topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea.
 concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas/ restates the topic
sentnence and gives personal opinion.
 Content, coherence and cohesion: (5 points)
 supporting sentences: support directly main idea stated in the topic sentence and
provide logical, persuasive examples.
 use of transition signals appropriately
 Language use and accuracy: ( 5points)
 variety of structures, expressions and good use of vocabulary
 no spelling or grammar mistakes
18
SỞ GIÁO DỤC - ĐÀO TẠO
QUẢNG TRỊ
Đề giới thiệu
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI BẬC THPT
Vùng Duyên Hải Đồng Bằng Bắc Bộ
Năm học : 2013 - 2014
Đề thi gồm có 23 trang
MÔN : ANH VĂN - LỚP 10
(Thời gian làm bài : 180 phút)
SECTION I: LISTENING (15 pts)
Part 1: Questions 1-10
You will hear a man phoning to enquire about job vacancy
A.Listen and complete the notes below ( questions 1- 4) .
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each
answer. LISTEN TWICE.
 Work at: a restaurant
JOB ENQUIRY
 Type of work: 1..........................
 Number of hours per week: 12 hours
 Would need work permit
 Work in the : 2............................branch
 Nearest bus stop : next to 3........................
 Pay: 4 £ ....................... an hour
B. Listen to the second part of the conversation and answer the questions from 5 to
10 ( NO MORE THAN SEVEN WORDS ) for each answer. LISTEN TWICE
5. When is extra pay offered?
...............................................
6.With what condition is the man driven home ?
...............................................
7.What sort of voice is necessary for this job?
1
................................................
8.What ability must the man have ?
...............................................
9.What is the date of the interview?
...............................................
10.What is the name of the woman he should he ask for?
..............................................
Part 2: Questions 11-15.
You will hear a conversation between an English teacher and two overseas
students named Spiros ang Hiroko who have just finished their first semester of the
university course.
Choose the correct letter A, B or C. LISTEN TWICE.
COURSE FEEDBACK
11. One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that:
A. he was not nervous.
B. his style was good
C. the presentation was the best in his group.
12. What surprised Hiroko about the other students’ presentations ?
A. Their presentations were not interesting.
B. They found their presentations stressful.
C. They didn’t look at the audience enough.
13. After she gave he presentation, Hiroko felt
A. delighted
B. dissatisfied
C. embarrassed
14. How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials?
A. not very happy
B. really pleased
C. fairly confident
15. Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions?
2
A. They are polite to each other.
B.
They agreed to take turns in speaking.
C.
They know each other well.
Your answers
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
SECTION II: PRONUNCIATION (5 pts)
Part 1. Questions 1-5
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others
of the same line.
1. A. psychiatrist B. psychiatric
C. psychics
D. psyching
2. A. parallel
B. parachute
C. parasailing
D. parabolic
3. A. postbags
B. posterior
C. postage
D. postgraduate
4. A. engineering B. sabotage
C. mirages
D. regimes
5. A. chameleon
C. chaperon
D. chemistry
B. charismatic
Part 2. Questions 6-10
Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the others of the
same line.
6. A. discrepancy
B. convivial
C. gimmickry
D. irrevocable
7. A. overemphasis
B. overgeneralise C. overlord
D. overstaffed
8. A. disembark
B. disfigure
C. disgruntled
D. disintegrate
9. A. illustrative
B. illustrate
C. illustrator
D. illustrious
10. A. negligible
B. perceptible
C. collapsible
D. discernible
Your answers
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
3
SECTION III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts)
Part 1. Questions 1-20
Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (5 pts)
1. In spite of our big effort, we have not managed to …………… enough money
for renovation of the school buildings.
A. raise
B. compose
C. rear
D. score
2. I don’t believe a ……………..of what he says.
A. sentence
B. word
C. phrase
D. matter
3. Due to the snowstorm, there was a slight ……… in my flight time.
A. corollary
B. plateau
C. culprit
D. delay
4. Even a few drops of this liquid would represent a ……… dose for a small child.
A. lethal
B. mundane
C. terminal
D. mortal
5. The polite usher ……… us to our seats in the theatre.
A. commanded
B. sent
C. helped
D. directed
6. The accountant ……… the company fund and ran away to another country.
A. swallowed
B. confiscated
C. embraced
D. embezzled
7. The government has been criticised for its new economic ……… .
A. policy
B. infrastructure
C. constitution
D. legislation
8. The silly boy only ……… at the memory, feeling rather embarrassed.
A. laughed
B. giggled
C. sniggered
D. roared
9. Her choice of word, according to the professor, is a bit ……… .
A. obsolete
B. antiquated
C. elderly
D. old-fashioned
10. The road twists and turns—it is ……… .
A. curved
B. bent
C. wavy
D. winding
11. If you go on ………… me like this, I will never be able to finish writing my
report.
A. disturbing
B. afflicting
C. concerning
D. affecting
12. Judy didn’t ………… for a second to agree to Mike’s proposal as she had been
in love with the boy for a long time.
A. decide
B. linger
C. hesitate
D. await
4
13. His ………… of the safety regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.
A. disregard
B. unfamiliarity
C. carelessness
D. inattention
14. The first thing for all of you to remember is that ………… your duties may
result in an instant dismissal.
A.escaping
B. neglecting
C. resisting
D. missing
15. Patrick is too ………… gambler to resist placing a bet on the final game.
A. instant
B. spontaneous
C. compulsive
D. continuous
16. We couldn’t stay long, so we only wished Mark many happy………… of his
birthday and hurried to the airport.
A.days
B. returns
C.moments
D. regards
17. Ever since we quarreled in the office, Janice and I have been ……… enemies.
A.assured
B. confirmed
C.defined
D.guanranteed
18. A young tourist has been declared ………… after he got lost in the mountains
last Monday.
A.absent
B.deserter
C. missing
D. vanished
19. Michael was ………… withanger when he saw his car had been scratched.
A.stored
B.fixed
C.loaded
D. filled
20. The schoolboy’s excuse wasn’t ………… at all. nobody in the classroom
believed in the far-fetched story he told.
A. credible
B. credential
C. creditable
D. credulous.
Your answers
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Part 2. Questions 1-10
There are ten errors in the following passage. Underline them in the text and
correct them in the numbered box. Question (0)has been done as an example.(5
pts)
5
For more than century, robberies of every kinds have plagued nations around the
world. Bank and house robberies were common occurrence. As many were caught
so those who were not and over the year, many continued to turn to these get rich
quick methods. Despite the nature of these ‘occupation’, media reports glorified
the ingenious ways the robbers managed to escape with loot. Then, films, too, were
made about famous robberies and criminals were turned for celebrities.
More and more people began robbing houses and banks and its techniques became
more sophisticating, making it close to impossible for them to get caught. To
compound this problem, many robbers returned to their countries where they were
no rules of extraditions. As a result, many of them simply returned to their home
countries to prevent the foreign countries from punishing them.
Your answers: 0. century → a century
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part 3. Prepositions (5 pts)
1. Questions 1-10
Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition or particle from the following box.
Each word can only be used once.
From
in
with along
at back of together over through
for into
1. She left the coffee to boil ……… in the kitchen and had to clean it up
afterwards.
2. I can hardly believe that she actually won in the face of competition ………
such a fiery writer.
3. The worsening condition of the president is giving cause ……… concern.
6
4. Local people had to take matters ……… their own hands because the governors
failed to deliver their promise.
5. Some communities, unfortunately, still remains divided ……… religious lines.
6. Their garden is over ten thousand square metres ……… extent.
7. Only when they have discussed the matter ……… great length will they draw
any conclusion.
8. Without any prior preparation, Peter sailed ……… his final exams.
9. I am afraid to say that the notes do not seem to hang ……… .
10. For sufficient records are kept, Helen can trace her ancestry ……… to the
1700s.
Your answers
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
2. Questions 11-20
Put the correct prepositions in the gaps in the text below.
I must admit that I cringe (11)………… the prospect of going to see my brother.
He is, I suppose, fairly well-read (12) ………… his field, which is medicine.
However, the way he insists (13) ………… always being right all the time,
regardless (14) ………… how well-informed his conversational adversary may be,
makes me quite angry. Whenever anything concerned (15) ………… medicine
crops up in conversation, he puffs himself up and prepares to ‘inform’ people. His
attitude (16) ………… people who get their facts slightly wrong is insufferable. He
cannot just let things go, he is just not comfortable (17) ………… inaccuracies. It
is almost as if he is dropping (18) ………… status if he fails to pick someone up
on a point. I remember him once arguing with a dinner guest for over an hour on
the difference (19) ………… the hard and soft palate! No wonder his wife is
always complaining (20) ………… him!
7
Your answers
11.
16.
12.
17.
13.
18.
14.
19.
15.
20.
Part 4. Questions 1-20 (5 pts)
Supply the correct form of the verbs in parentheses.
I must admit that Maria’s English (1-improve) everyday. Three weeks ago she
managed (2-book) us on the Portsmouth to Santander ferry at the local travel
agent’s.
The night before we (3-be) due to leave, she (4-ring) me up to remind me to be on
time. “Don’t forget the train (5-leave) at 7.35 and if we miss that, we will miss the
ferry too!” she said.
“Of course, I (6-get) there on time”, I replied, somewhat annoyed. “You are the
only one who (7-always turn up) late for things!”
Surprisingly, we both arrived at the station in time (8-catch) the train. We (9-sit) on
the train for about ten minutes when we realised, to our horror, that it (10-go) in
the wrong direction! We got off at the next station where a ticket seller informed us
that there (11-not be) another train to Portsmouth until 8.45. We explained that we
had to catch the ferry at 10 o’clock.
We shot off like lightning despite the heavy rucksacks on our backs and jumped on
the coach just as the driver (12-shut) the doors. We (13-just collapse) in our seats
with a sigh of relief when the driver announced, “Sorry everyone but the motorway
(14-still repair) so we (15-not get) to Portsmouth until 9.45.”
We groaned in despair. That (16-give) us only fifteen minutes to get to the ferry
terminal. We arrived at Portsmouth bus station at 9.40 and jumped straight into a
taxi.
“The Santander ferry terminal and please hurry”, I shouted, “or it (17-go) before
8
we get there!”
To our astonishment, the taxi driver calmly switched off the engine and turned
round. “You (18-not hear)?” he said, smiling “the ferry workers (19-come) out on
strike last night!”
“Oh no!” I cried in disbelief. “If only I (20-listen) to the news this morning!”
Your answers
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Part 5. Questions 1-10 (5pts)
Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines
to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line.
9
Archaeologists working at an (1) ....... on the island of EXCAVATE
Cyprus have discovered what are thought to be the world's
oldest known perfumes.Remnants of fourteen different
fragrances were found in a selection of mixing jugs, bottles
and stills which were (2) ....... on the site of an ancient EARTH
perfumery. The building was destroyed by an earthquake
nearly four thousand years ago, at a time when Cyprus
already enjoyed a (3) ....... as a centre of perfume - making.
REPUTED
After undergoing scientific (4) ....... , the perfumes were ANALYSE
found to contain a range of (5) ....... available ingredients, LOCAL
such as extracts of anise, pine, coriander, lemon, orange,
bergamot, almond and parsley, amongst others.
Having (6) ....... what each perfume contained, the scientists INDETITY
then set about remaking them using (7) ....... techniques to TRADITION
find out what they would actually have smelt like. They
first (8) ....... up the extracts, then mixed them with olive oil GRIND
in clay jugs before distilling them. This method is the one
recorded by writers in Ancient Roman times. Although (9) ADMIT
....... simple by today's standards, the resulting aromas
provide us with an olfactory window onto the ancient
world, and are evidence of the loving craftsmanship that
must have been applied by their (10) .......
CREATE
Part 6. Questions 1-10 (5 pts)
Fill in the blanks of the following excerpt with the most suitable linking words.
On the other hand
For
As with any other creature
But
So
This means that
This is because
But in most cases
However
also
10
Reef Encounter
Tropical fish look very colorful to our eyes, but is that how they look to each
other? Our reporter Penny gosh met the man who may have the answer.
If you are snorkeling around a coral reef, you’ll see the local marine life in all its
carnival colours. (1).........the show clearly isn’t just a tourist attraction. For the fish
that live on the reef, it’s more a matter of life and death. (2)........., the survival of a
fish species depends on two things – food supplies and breeding success.
The trouble is that eating and not being eaten both need stealth. Therefore, it is
helpful for a fish to blend into the background. To attract a mate, (3).................,
requires a certain flamboyance.
Seeing a coral reef in all its glory, you can’t help feeling that fish have completely
failed to solve this dilemma. The picture, however, only comes into focus when
you take the fish’s-eye view. (4)...............fish, according to Justin Marshall from
the Vision, Touch and Hearing Research Centre at the University of Queensland in
Brisbane, see things differently. (5) ..................our visual system is a primate one,
he says. It’s very good at seeing yellows and reds versus greens. (6) .............., 30
metres below sea level there is no red light. (7)...................fish tend to see blues
and ultraviolets well-and to be less sensitive to reds and yellows. (8)............... the
carnival looks quite different to the marine life itself. To help him discover exactly
how different
it
looks,
Marshall
has
designed
a
unique
underwater
‘spectrophotometer’, which analyses the colours of things objectively in terms of
their physical reflection. He is (9)............... measuring the light available in
different micro-habitats. Together with information about the visual sensitivity of
individual fish species and their behavior, this equipment enables him to begin
seeing things as fish do. And it is starting to reveal how the showy and the shy can
make use of the same bright colours.
The general shift towards the blue end of spectrum in underwater light explains
why most nocturnal reef fish, such as soldierfish, squirrelfish and big-eyes, are
mainly red in colour. According to Marshall, some reef fish might see red in which
case they could capitalize on the colour blindness of others and use red markings
11
for
private
communication.
(10)..............,
red
species
are
surprisingly
inconspicuous.
Your answers
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
SECTION IV: READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1. Questions 1-15
Choose the best word(s) to fill in each blank in the following passage. (7.5 pts)
SHOPLIFTING
Last year, losses from shops through shoplifting and theft by staff amounted
to over £1 billion. There are many (1) ____for shopkeepers themselves to reduce
shoplifting. As with all types of crime, prevention is better than (2) ____The best
deterrent is the (3)____of staff
properly
trained
in
how
to
identify
potential shoplifters. There are also many security (4) ____now available
.Video camera surveillance is a popular system, even with quite small retailers. In
clothes shops, magnetic tag marking systems that set off an alarm have proved
their (5) ____However, there are many (6) ____measures that retailers should
consider. Better lighting and ceiling-hung mirrors can help staff to (7) ____ all
parts of the display area.Similarly, simply arranging shelves and display units to
allow clear (8)____of vision is a good deterrent.
Another problem for retailers is the (9) ____ of stolen credit cards to buy
goods and services. Many retailers avoid this by always checking the (10)____of
a card used for purchase.Electronic systems are now available to (11) ____up the
procedure.
Most companies keep a petty (12)____ box for small expenses. They are a
popular (13) ____ for thieves. It is not enough to have a box that locks. A thief
12
can steal it and then open it at leisure.Lock it in a drawer as well.Telephones
typewriters,word processors and computers are also vulnerable because they are
(14) ____ .Property marking is a good deterrent and helps the police return
stolen goods if they are (15) _____ And remember that in many businesses
information is valuable to competitors and should be protected.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
opportunities
remedy
knowledge
devices
reliability
better
notice
fields
employment
honesty
speed
money
robbery
portable
reported
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
schemes
loss
presence
methods
worth
easier
watch
areas
application
forgery
check
bank
target
expensive
known
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
ideas
cure
number
tricks
valuation
simpler
control
systems
technique
validity
take
saving
aim
stolen
reveal
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
D
occasions
convictin
importancee
machines
identity
bigger
regard
angles
use
value
key
cash
object
attractive
traced
Your answers
1.
6.
11.
2.
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
15.
Part 2. Questions 1-15
Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word.
(7.5 pts)
CRAFTY PACKAGING
During what could be described (0) …………… a typical 30-minutes supermarket
shopping trip, thousands of products will vie for your attention. Ultimately, may
13
will make you believe they are worth picking off the shelves. How, you may ask, is
this brought ……………? The answer is by packaging – the silent but persuasive
salesman.
Louis Chesking, (2) …………… research into the psychology of marketing began
in the 1930s, was pioneering specialist in the field. He placed identical products in
two different packages, one emblazoned with circles, the (3) …………… with
triangles. He then asked people which products they preferred, and why.
Amazingly, (4) …………… fewer than 80% chose the products in the box with the
circles. They believed the content would be of higher quality.
‘After 1,000 interviews, I had to accept the fact that the (5) of consumers
transferred the sensation from the container to its contents,’ Cheskin admitted later.
And there was (6) …………… surprise: even after trying out these identical
products, people overwhelmingly preferred (7) …………… in the package with
circles. Checkin also found, for instance, that the look of a packet has an enormous
impact on (8) …………… biscuits taste. Cheskin called this phenomenon
‘sensation transference’. It became the foundation not (9) …………… of his career
as a consultant to companies (10) …………… Procter & Gamble, but of much of
the research done since then.
(11)…………… increasing consumer sophistication, Cheskin’s original concept
still works. One recent experiment involved an underarm deodorant posted in
packaging of three different color schemes to a test group. The group was told that
three different formulations were (12)…………… consideration, and was asked to
judge them.
Results: One was considered just right, one to be strong-smelling but nit very
effective, and one threatening. Yet all three deodorants were exactly the
(13)……………
One leading firm designs packaging for products that do not yet exist. The
packaging is then tested and the marketing concept refined. Only (14)……………
it’s clear that the company has a winner will it (15)…………… to the expense of
actually developing the product.
14
Your answers
1.
6.
11.
2.
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
15.
Part 3. Questions 1-10
You are going to read an extract from an article. Choose the answer (A, B, C or
D) which you think fits best according to the text. (5 pts)
Leakey’s Achievement
Although he made his name with his archeological finds of early humans, Richard
Leakey became famous as the conservationist who turned the tide against elephant
poaching. Bringing the slaughter of Kenya's elephants under control required a
military solution, and Leakey was not afraid to apply it. Many poachers were
killed, giving Leakey a reputation for being a cold- blooded obsessive who put
animals before people. Moreover, his efforts to eradicate corruption in Kenya's
wildlife management system won him many enemies.
But the birth of the Kenya Wildlife Service (KWS), the eradication of elephant
poaching and the ban on the international trade in ivory are his legacy, and they
form the basis of Wildlife Wars. This surprisingly personal memoir has much to
tell about the fragile relationships between conservationists and governments. It is
a story not only of Kenya, but of the continuing cost of trying to save the world's
wildlife from extinction.
Life for the average person in Africa is tough, and basic needs are far from being
met. This is the background against which Leakey fought his war, and he
constantly refers to the threat poverty poses to the preservation of Africa's
spectacular wildlife. Leakey's argument, here and in recent lectures, is that national
parks managed exclusively for biodiversity protection must be created, and that
15
this protection of our wildlife heritage should be funded by international sources.
However, in the early 1990s the development agencies favoured "communitybased" conservation. Leakey's stand on protection of parks was seen as a lack of
respect for local communities, and used against him when he resigned as head of
the KWS in 1994. Recently donors and conservationists have come to recognise
the limitations of purely local conservation programmes; there is a growing
consensus that the poor are unlikely to manage wildlife resources wisely for the
long term because their needs are immediate.
Wildlife Wars continues where Leakey's memoir One Life left off. It spans a 13year period, beginning in 1989 when Leakey became head of the KWS. Then the
elephant slaughter was at its height across Africa; it is estimated that between 1975
and 1989 the international markets for ivory in Europe, the United States and Asia
led to the death of 1.2 m elephants, slaughtered for their ivory to make piano keys,
games and fashion accessories. Kenya's herds were reduced by more than 85% by
armed poachers, who turned their guns on anything and anyone. To stop this
killing required changing the perceptions of ivory users so as to eliminate the
markets, as well as mounting an armed force against the poachers.
With both humour and seriousness, Leakey explains the sacrifices he had to make
in order to see his vision succeed.
Despite the gravity of the situation, Leakey makes light of the sometimes
comical circumstances, although it is clear that his life was at risk many times and
he worked under tremendous pressure. For many, however, the real question is
why this paleoanthropologist should risk his life for wildlife. The answer may lie
in Leakey's own depiction of himself, although obviously aggressive and driven
while running KWS, as essentially reflective. Presenting in moving terms his
introduction to elephant emotions and society, he describes his outrage at the moral
and ethical implications of poaching and culling for ivory, arguing that elephants,
apes, whales and dolphins have emotions so like those of humans that they
deserve to be treated as such.
Hard-core wildlife groups sniggered at his 'bunny- hugging' tendencies, but they
16
underestimated his impact. It is impossible to put a value on Leakey's work during
those years. As the elephant population began to recover, Kenya's tourist industry
revived to become the country's main source of revenue. An international
awareness campaign centred on an ivory bonfire, which led to the ban on ivory
trade and the collapse of ivory prices.
1. Richard Leakey is most well-known for
A. increasing wildlife budgets.
B. successfully stopping illegal hunting.
C. removing the ban on the ivory trade.
D. helping to identify man’s origins.
2. The word poaching in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to
A. cooking
B. approaching
C. hunting illegally
D. stealing
3. The word fragile in paragraph 2 has the opposite meaning to
A. sturdy
B. delicate
C. flimsy
D. brittle
4. In paragraph 3, Leakey makes the point that
A. conservation should be global responsibility.
B. a war must be fought against poverty.
C. Africa’s wildlife is an international attraction.
D. There is insufficient money to establish parks.
5. It is now becoming accepted that
A. Leakey had no regard for local communities.
B. conservation programs should be under local control
C. donors have not yet received sufficient recognition.
D. poverty makes regional conservation programmes unreliable.
17
6. The writers says that between 1975 and 1989
A. the perceptions of the use of ivory changed.
B. elephants were used to make piano keys.
C. the elephant population was decimated.
D. demand for ivory began to decrease.
7. Leakey considers himself
A. amusing
B. sentimental
C. contemplative
D. obsessive
8. The word gravity in paragraph 6 is closest meaning to
A. importance
B. force
C. weight
D. seriousness
9. What does the writer imply in the last paragraph?
A. a disease had affected elephants.
B. Leakey’s views are overly sentimental.
C. Leakey’s success in doubt.
D. Leakey’s work had wide-range effects.
10. This passage is taken from
A. an article about endangered species.
B. a book about Richard Leakey.
C. an article about Kenya.
D. a book review
Your answers
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
18
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part 4:Questions 1-6 (10 pts)
Read the following text and choose the most suitable heading from the list A-H for
each part ( 1- 6) of the passage.There are two extra headings you do not need to
use.
List of Headings
A.The dificulties of talking about smells
B.The role of smell in personal relationships
C.Future studies into smell
D.The relationship between the brain and the nose
E.The interpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups
F.Why our sense of smell is not appreciated
G.Smell is our superior sense
H.The relationship between smell and feelings
THE MEANING AND POWER OF SMELL
The sense of smell, or olfaction, is powerful. Odours affec us on a physical, psychological and
social level. For the most part, however, we breathe in the aromas which surround us
without being consciously aware of their importance to us. It is only when the faculty of smell is
impaired for some reason that we begin to realise the essential role the sense of smell plays in
our sense of well-being.
1. A survey conducted by Anthony Synott at Montreal’s Concordia University asked
participants to comment on how irriportant smell was to them in their lives. It became
apparent that smell can evoke strong emotional responses. A scent associated with a good
experience can bring a rush of joy, while a foul odour or one associated with a bad
memory may make us grimace with disgust. Respondents to the survey noted that many
19
of their olfactory likes and dislikes were based on emotional assoclations. Such
associations can be powerful enough so that odours that we would generally label
unpleasant become agreeable, and those that we would generally consider fragrant
become disagreeable for particular individuals. The perception of smell, therefore,
consists not only of the sensation of the odours themselves, but of the experiences and
emotions associated with them.
1
2. Odours are also essential cues in social bonding. One respondent to the survey
believed that there is no true emotional bonding without touching and smelling a loved
one. In fact, infants recognise the odours of their mothers soon after birth and adults
can often identify their children or spouses by scent. In one well-known test, women
and men were able to distinguish by smell alone clothing worn by their marriage
partners from similar clothing worn by other people. Most of thé subjects would
probably never have given much thought to odour as a cue for identifying family
merribers before being involved in the test, but as the experiment revealed, even when
not consciously considered, smells register.
2
3. In splte of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably the
most undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in
which smell is held is that, in comparison with its importance among animals, the
human sense of smell is feeble and undeveloped. While it is true that the olfactory
powers of humans are
nothing like as fine as those possessed by certain animals, they are still remarkably
acute. Our noses are able to recognise thousands of smells, and to perceive odours
which are present only in extremely small quantities.
3
4. Smell, however, is a highly elusive phenomenon. Odours, unlike colours, for instance,
cannot be named in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t
exist. ‘It smells like . ...’ we have to say when describing an odour, struggling to
20
express our olfactory experience. Nor can odours be recorded: there is no effective way
to either capture or store them over time. In the realm of olfaction, we must make do with
descriptions and recollections. This has implications for olfactory research
4
5. Most of the research on smell undertaken to date has been of a physical scientific
nature. Significant advances have been made in the understanding of the biological and
chemical nature of olfaction, but many fundamental questions have yet to be answered.
Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two — one responding to
odours proper and the other registering odourless chemicals in the air. Other unanswered
questions are whether the nose is the only part of the body affected by odours, and how
smells can be measured objectively given the non- physical components. Questions like
these mean that interest in the psychology of smell is inevitably set to play an increasingly
important role for researchers.
5
6. However, smell is not simply a biological and psychologlcal phenomenon. Smell is
cultural, hence it is a social and historical phenomenon. Odours are invested with cultural
values: smells that are considered to be offensive in some cultures may be perfectly
acceptable in others. Therefore, our sense of smell is a means of, and model for, interacting
with the world. Different smells can provide us with intimate and emotionally charged
experiences and the value that we attach to these experiences is interiorised by the
members of society in a deeply personal way. Importantly, our commonly held feelings
about smells can help distinguish us from other cultures. The study of the cultural
history of smell is, therefore, in a very real sense, an investigation into the essence of
human culture.
6
Questions 7-10 :
21
Complete the sentences below. Choose ONLY ONE WORD from the passage for
each answer
7. Tests have shown that odours can help people recognise the................. belonging
to their husbands and wives.
8. Certain lingustic groups may have difficulty describing smell because they lack
the appropriate....................
9. The sense of smell may involve response to.................which do not smell, in
addition to obvious odours.
10. Odours regarded as unpleasant in certain.....................are not regarded as
unpleasant in others.
Your answers
1................................
4................................
2................................
5................................
3................................
6................................
SECTION V: WRITING
Part 1: Questions 1-10
Use the word given in bold and make any necessary additions to write a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
1. We suppose the new models are about ten thousand dollars. VICINITY
The new models …………………………………………………ten thousand
dollars.
2. Managers intend to consult their staff about job descriptions. ARE
Staff ………………………………………………… job descriptions by their
managers.
3. It is impossible to predict how long it will take to do this. TELLING
There ………………………………………………… time it will take to do this.
4. We wouldn’t want to restrict the freedom of the students in any way. Impose
22
We wouldn’t want ………………………………………………… the freedom of
the students.
5. I feel I am not being treated fairly. RAW
I feel I am ………………………………………………….
6. John has taken it upon himself to look after the baby tomorrow. COMMITTED
John……………………………………………looking after the baby tomorrow.
7. I reported him to the police because I assumed he was guilty of theft.
ASSUMPTION
I reported him to the police………………………………..he was guilty of theft.
8. Nobody died in the accident. FATALITIES
There ……………………………………………………….. the accident.
9. When I started work, I was so inexperienced that I couldn’t send a fax. CLUE
I didn’t …………………………………..how to send fax when I started work.
10. There is a risk that the black rhino will become extinct. THREATENED
The black rhino ………………………….................
Part 2: Write a composition of about 150 words on the following topic. (15 pts)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
The best way to teach is by example
Support your position with details and examples.
23
ANSWER KEY
SECTION 1: LISTENING:
Part 1:
A.Complete the note:
1. answer(ing) (the) phone
2. Hillsdunne Road
3. library
4. 4.45
B.Answer the questions:
5. on national holidays / When the man works on national holidays.
6. working after 11 o’clock / When (if) he works after 11o’clock.
7.( a) clear voice.
8. ability to think quickly / He must be able to think quickly.
9. 22 October.
10. (Samira) Manuja.
Part 2:
11. B
12 C
13 B
14 A
15 C
SECTION II: PRONUNCIATION
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A
SECTION III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
Part 1: Multiple choice
1.A 2.B 3.D 4. A 5.D 6.D 7.A 8.B 9.D 10.D
11.A 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.C 16.B 17.B 18.C 19.C 20.A
Part 2: Error correction
1. kinds kind
2. a common
3. so  as 4. over the years
5. this ‘occupation’ 6. loot  the loot 7. were turned into 8. its their
9. more sophisticated 10. where there were
Part 3: Preposition
1.
1. over
2. from
6. in
37. at
2.
11.at
16.towards
3. for
8. through
12.in
17.with
13.on
18.in
4. Into
5. along
9. together 10. back
14.of
15 with
19.between
20.about
Part 4: Verb form
1.improved
2. To book
3. Were
4. Rang
5. Leaves
6. will get 7. Is always turning up/always turns up
8. To catch
9. had been sitting 10. Was going
11. Wouldn’t be 12. Shut
13. had just collapsed
14. Hasn’t still been repaired
15. Won’t get
16. gave
17. Will go 18. Haven’t you heard? 19.came
20.had listened
Part 5: Word Formation
1. excavation
2. unearthed
3. reputation
4. analysis
5. locally
6. identified
7. traditional
8. ground
9. admittedly
10.creators
Part 6: Linking Words
1.But
2. As with many other creature 3. on the other hand
4. For
5. This is because
6. However
7. So
8. This means that 9.also
10. But in most cases
SECTION IV: READING
Part 1: Multiple choice
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. D
Part 2: Cloze Test
1.about
2.whose
7. those
8. how
12.under
13.same
Part 3:
1. B
6.C
2. C
7.C
3.other
4.no
5.majority
6.another
9.only10.like
11.despite/notwithstanding
14.when/if
15.go
3.A
8.D
4.A
9.D
5.D
10.D
Part 4: Headings
1H
2B
3F
4A
5C
6E
7. clothing
8. vocabulary
9. chemicals
10.cultures
SECTION V: WRITING
Part 1: Sentence Transformation
1. are supposed to be/are supposedly in vicinity of
2. are (going) to be consulted on/for/over/about
3. is no telling how much
4. to impose any restrictions on
5. getting / being given a raw deal.
6. has been committed to
7. on the assumption that
8. were no/weren’t any fatalities in the accident.
9. have any clue about
10. is (being) threatened with extinction
Part 2: Essay writing
For this part of the Paper, markers may refer to the following scheme of grading
the composition:
Contents (5 pts): The student must be able to:
- Provide clear position
- Refer to particular reasons for their arguments.
- Give full explanations
Organisation and cohesion (5 pts): Clear paragraphing. May be in article or
narrative format.
Command of Language (4 pts): Language of description and evaluation.
Vocabulary specific to the place and time.
Handwriting and Presentation (1 pts): The student’s handwriting is intelligible and
space is cleverly used.
TAPESCRIPS
SECTION 1:
WOMAN: Good evening. King’s Restaurant.
MAN:
Good evening. I’m ringing about the job I understand you have vacant.
WOMAN: Oh yes.
MAN:
I’d like to find out a few more details, if I may.
WOMAN: Yes, of couse. Can I take your name?
MAN:
It’s Peter Chin.
WOMAN: Okay Peter. Well, if you want to ask about the job and then we’re both
still interested, we could arrange for you to come for an interview.
MAN:
Great, thanks. I’m afraid I miss their advert for the job but hear about it
from a friend.
WOMAN: That’s no problem at all. What would you like to know?
MAN:
Well, um, what sort of work is it-washing up?
WOMAN: It’s answering the phone. Q 1
MAN:
Oh right, fine.
WOMAN: And not waiting at table.
MAN:
That’d be good. And how many nights a week would it be?
WOMAN: Well, we’re really busy at weekend.
MAN:
So two nights?
WOMAN: Three actually, so it would work out at twelve hours a week.
MAN:
That’d be fine. It wouldn’t interfere with my studies.
WOMAN: Are you at the university?
MAN:
Yes, first year Physics student.
WOMAN: Oh, right.
MAN:
Um and because I’m not an EU national would need a work permit?
WOMAN: Yes, you would just get your tutor to sign it.
MAN:
That wouldn’t be a problem, if I were to get the job. Um, where exactly
the restaurant?
WOMAN: Well, we have two branches- the one we ‘re recruiting for is
Hillsdunne Road. Q 2
MAN:
I don’t know that. How do you spell it please?
WOMAN: It’s H-I double L-S-D-U double N-E Road.
MAN:
Got that. Thanks. Is it near a bus stop?
WOMAN: Yes, the nearest one would probably be just beside the Library. Q 3
MAN:
Oh, yes. I know it. Tha’d be fine for me. And could I ask about the pay?
WOMAN: We’re offering £ 4.45 an hour. Q 4
MAN:
That’s very good. My last job was £ 3.95 an hour.
........................................................................................................................................
.............
WOMAN:
MAN:
WOMAN:
MAN:
We feel it’s pretty good and we also offer some good fringe benefits.
Really?
Well, we give you a free dinner, so you eat well.
Right, better than hostel food!
WOMAN: We certainly hope so! And we also offer extra pay for working on
national holidays. Q 5
MAN:
Oh, That’s a really good perk, isn’t it?
WOMAN: Yes, we think so. And then because of difficulties in getting public
transport,
if you’re working after 11 o’clock, we drive you home. Q 6
MAN:
Oh, that’s good to know.
WOMAN: Well, we’d certainly interested in inviting you for an interview if
you’re still interested?
MAN:
Oh yes, certainly. Could I just also ask what qualities you’re looking
for?
WOMAN: Well, for this particular job we want a clear voice, which you obviously
do have!
MAN:
Thanks.
Q7
WOMAN: And you must be able to think quickly, you know? Q 8
MAN:
Well, I hope I’d............
WOMAN: So, when could you come in for an interview? We’re actually quite
quiet tonight.
MAN:
Sorry, I couldn’t come tonight. Or tomorrow I’m afraid. Thursday’s
okay-That’d be 22th of October. Q 9
WOMAN: Fine, after 5 p.m?
MAN:
Yes, fine. Would 6 o’clock be Ok?
WOMAN: Perfect. And could you bring along the name of two referees?
MAN;
Yes, that’s fine, no problem.
WOMAN: Good. I look forward to seeing you.
MAN:
Oh, by the way, who should I ask for?
WOMAN: Oh yes, of course, sorry. My name is Samira Manuja Q 10
MAN:
Can you spell that please?
WOMAN: M-A-N-U-J-A
MAN:
Ok, I’ve got that. Thank very much.
WOMAN: Look forward to seeing you.
TAPESCRIPS
SECTION 2
TEACHER: Before we start, Spiros and Hiroko, thanks for coming in today to talk
about your recent study experiences and congratulations to you both in
doing so well in your first semester exam! I’d like to discuss with you
the value of the English for Academic Purposes course you did here last
year before starting your university course. Spiros, if I could start with
you, what part of the programme have now proved to be particularly
valuable for you?
SPIROS: I think that having to do a seminar presentation really helped me. For
example, a couple of week ago in our marketing subject, when it was
my turn to give a presentation I felt quite confident. Of course, I was
still nervous but because I had done one before, I knew what to expect.
Also, I know I was well-prepared and I had practiced my timing. In fact,
I think that in relation to some of the other people in my group, I did
quite a good job because my overall style was quite professional. What
about you Hiroko? Q 11
HIROKO: Mmm, that’s interesting. In my group, I was really surprised by the way
the students did their presentations- they just read their notes aloud! Can
you believe that? They didn’t worried about their presentation style or
keeping eye contact with their audience- And I remember that these
things were really stressed to us in the course here. Q 12
TEACHER: So, how did you approach your presentation, Hiroko?
HIROKO: Well, to speak frankly, I read my notes too! It was a relief to do in this
way, but actually when I had finished, I didn’t feel any real sense of
satisfaction. I didn’t feel positive about the experience at all. Q 13
SPIROS: That’s a pity you know, although I was pleased with my presentation, I
am not so pleased with my actual performance right now in the
tutorials- during the
Q 14
whole semester I’ve not said anything in our tutorial discussions. Not a
word.
HIROKO: Really, Spiros? Why’s that? Do the other students talk too much?
SPIROS: It’s partly that, but It’s mostly because I have had no confidence to
speak out. Their style of speaking is so different-it was not the style we
were used during the course. They use so many colloquialisms, they’re
not very polite and sometimes there seems to be no order in their
discussion. Also, they are very familiar with each other, so because they
know each other’s habits, they can let each other into the discussion. Q
15
HIROKO: You’re right, Spiros, I’ve experienced that too.
SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG NAM
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ VII, NĂM 2044
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 40
SECTION 4: LISTENING
PART 1. You will hear an interview with the television actress Donna Denton. As you
listen, choose the best answer to each question. LISTEN TWICE.
1. As a child, Donna started going to dancing classes because
A. her mother persuaded her to.
B. they were relatively inexpensive.
C. she wanted to be with friends.
2. What did Donna feel when she first went to dancing classes?
A. disappointed by the attitude of the teacher.
B. unconcerned about her position in the class.
C. embarrassed because she was not a good dancer.
3. What did Donna do to get a place at Knightswell Stage School?
A. She took part in a musical show.
B. She got her parents to pay in advance.
C. She gave a demonstration of her skills.
4. At stage school, Donna initially had problems because of
A. the behaviour of other pupils at the school.
B. the amount of time she spent travelling.
C. the need to follow a particular school rule.
5. What does Donna say about her first parts on television?
A. A private teacher helped her find them.
B. They were useful in developing her career.
C. It was easy enough for students to get them.
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PART 2: Questions 4-40 (40pts)
Questions 1-6: Listen to a conversation between two students talking about markets in
London and complete the market list.
Market List
Address
Open hours
Days
Tube Station
East Street SE17
8 am - 5 pm
Sat. - Tue.
Castle
Leather Lane WC1
lunch times
2. _________
Lane E1
9 am – 12 noon
Walthamstow E17
4. _________
Brixton SW9
9 am – 6 pm
Camden High St.
1. ____________
Sunday mornings
Mon. – Sat. except
Wed., Sun.
Mon. – Sun.
half day on Wed.
8 am – 5 pm
6. __________
Chancery Lane
3. __________
Central Line
5. __________
Chalk Farm,
Camden Town
Questions 7-40: Listen to their telephone conversation and answer questions 7-40.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
7. Where does Barbara want to go shopping? __________________________
8. Who is Barbara going to shop with? ______________________________
9. How is Barbara travelling to the shops tomorrow? _________________________
10.What time are they going to meet?
___________________________
SESSION II. PRONUNCIATION
PART 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the
following questions.
1. A. learned
B. naked
C. baked
D. blessed
2. A. unity
B. suite
C. studious
D. volume
3. A. busy
B. lettuce
C. bury
D. minute
4. A. chorus
B. duchess
C. duke
D. stomach
5. A. conserve
B. amuse
C. dissolve
D. Resident
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PART 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions.
1. A. familiar
B. impatient
C. uncertain
D. arrogant
2: A. forgettable B. philosophy
C. humanism
D. objectively
3: A. disappear
B. arrangement
C. opponent
D. contractual
4: A. respectable B. affectionate
C. occasional
D. kindergarten
5: A. environmental
B. conservatively C. approximately D. considerable
SESSION III. LEXICO- GRAMMAR
PART 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions
4: ___________the government fall, the stock market will crash.
A. Provided
B. In case
C. Should
D. Had
2: Staying in a hotel costs ___________renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. twice more than
B. as much twice
C. more than twice as
D. twice as much as
3: Please accept this cheque as a __________ of your services.
A. recognisement
B. recognition
C. recognising
D. recognisation
4: Price increases are now running at a(n) ___________ level of thirty percent.
A. highest
B. record
C. uppermost
D. top
5: - "I don't think English is too hard to study"
- " ______________"
A. I do too
B. I don't neither C. neither do I
D. either do I
6: -Lorie is very thin, ____________her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. unlike
B. dissimilar to
C. dislike
D. unlikely
7: Population expansion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to meet
___________food.
A. the requirement of
B. the command of
C. the demand for
D. the necessity for
8: Either excessive social obligations or just plain laziness __________him from his
work.
A. has kept
B. has been kept C. have kept
D. have been kept
9: The reason why this game attracts so many youngsters is that ___________ other
video games, this one is far more interesting.
A. comparing to
B. in compared with
C. on comparison to
D. in comparison with
40: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time
B. time after time
C. again and again
D. very rapidly
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44: I can not understand why she did that, it really doesn’t add up.
A. doesn’t calculate
B. isn’t mathematics
C. doesn’t make sense
D. make the wrong addition
42: With his excellent qualifications and a good command of English, James is
_______above the other applicants.
A. head and hands
B. head and ears
B. C. head and hair
D. head and shoulders
43: If it………..……..their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. had been for
B. hadn’t been for
C. wouldn’t have been for
D. hadn’t been
44: All the students get the high marks in the test but Nga stood out.
A. got a lot of marks.
B. got higher marks than someone.
C. got very good marks.
D. got the most marks of all
45: The judge ____________the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused
B. convicted
C. sentenced
D. prosecuted
46: I’d rather you _________ in here.
A. don’t smoke
B. shouldn’t smoke C. didn’t smoke D. not smoke
47: I think I should have _____________your mother while I was passing.
A. dropped in on
B. come up with C. got on with
D. run into
48: She never says a word; she’s as ____________as a mouse.
A. quiet
B. small
C. slight
D. noiseless
49: I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and
dry.
A. have not got wet
B. have got no water
C. have been successful
D. have got home dry
20: He lost in the election because he is a weak and ____________leader
A. undeciding
B. undecided
C. undecisive
D. indecisive
PART 2. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
1. After writing it, the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed in to
the department secretary before the end of the month.
2. One of the most important things in life is a good health.
3. The city has spent a big amount of money on crime prevention.
4. Comparing with other countries, Libya spends a high percentage of income on
education.
5. People are now enjoying a higher level of living.
6. In the United Kingdom women see their doctor on the average five times a year.
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7. Although Mark has been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know to prepare
French foods in the traditional manner.
8. When we arrived at the store to purchase the dishwasher advertise in the newspaper,
we learned that all the dishwashers had been sold.
9. After rising the flag to commemorate the holiday, the mayor gave a long speech.
10. This time tomorrow I will lie on the beach, enjoying the sunshine.
PART 3. Insert the correct prepositions.
1. Never before have I been more reliant ….. my parents than during the long stay in
hospital.
2. Joan kept herself busy …… a lot of housework just to forget about her problems.
3. Their situation was critical. They had no map, their water supplies were running
low and they had no food to subsist ………
4. The mechanic was ………great pains to repair the engine, but in the end, he advised
me to buy a new one.
5. Stop spraying this onto me! My nose is very sensitive ……. any kind of fragrant
substances.
6.Don't believe a word of what they say and beware …… the far-fetched theories they
put forward at their gatherings.
7. It was George's brilliant erudition …….. particular that attracted Stephanie's attention.
8. You needn't pay for repairing the washing machine, madam. It is still …….guarantee.
9………. view of so many extenuating circumstances he shouldn't be punished too
severely.
10.The rural population in the region has been warned to economize ……..fresh water
because of the imminent dry spell.
11.You aren't obliged to consult your every move with the management. You may act
…… will as long as it brings profits for the company.
12.In the doctor's opinion, the pain in your hip bone stems …….. the injury you incurred
in the last season.
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13.After four years of painstaking preparations and a harsh physical training, he has
finally succeeded …………. winning the Olympic gold medal.
14.The elderly gentleman says he hasn't seen his homeland for twenty years and that
he longs .................................. it a lot.
15.'Where does the word somnambulist derive…. ?' 'Certainly, it is of Latin origin.'
16.The success of our latest CD was far .................................... our wildest dreams.
Nobody had expected it to become so popular.
17.What he says is ................................... real. He is not the kind who makes up stories.
18.All these documents are kept ..................................... file so that we may get them
quickly whenever we need them.
19. Visit us again in summer when all the flowers in the garden are ………full bloom.
20.The situation in the occupied territory is improving .................................... degrees. It
will certainly take some time before peace is fully restored.
PART 4. Put the verbs in the brackets in the correct forms.
1. 'How many days ...................................... (the survivors / spend) in the mountains
before the rescuers arrived?' They ..............................................(pick) up after three
days.'
2.'I don't know what ........................................(happen) to the smaller fish that I put in
the tank yesterday. I cannot see them.' They ............................................... (can / eat) by
the bigger ones, I guess.'
3.'It was foolish of you........................................ (not take) any warm clothes. What if
the weather ...................................... (change) for worse on the top of the mountain?'
'Fortunately, it didn't.'
4.Computers ....................................... (assume).................................... (be) the most
important invention of the former century.
5.The girl said she .........................................(get) scared because she thought she
….. ...............................(follow) by a stranger.
6.It…. ................................. (not make) a big difference if our team ......................................
(win) the next game. They ......................................... (rank) at the last position in the
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group.
7.English .......................................(speak) all over the world ever since the British
….. ...............................(set up) their colonies in many parts of the globe.
8.'..... ................................ (many people / enjoy) the anniversary reception last
Saturday night?' 'Unfortunately, not. The party ............................................ (turn) out
………(be) a complete failure. Perhaps, it .................................................................
(enjoy) by everyone if some attractions .......................................... (prepare).
PART 5. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers on
the numbered blanks. (0) is an example.
Have you ever got really caught in the excitement and emotion of good action film, and
wondered in (0. AMAZE) amazement how film stars manage to perform dangerous
acts like jumping off buildings or driving at great speed? Of course, it is only a
(4.MOMENT) ______ feeling as it is no secret that the real (2.PERFORM) ________
are almost invariably stunt men or women, who can earn a very good (3.LIVE) ______
by standing in for the stars when necessary. The work is incredibly demanding, and
before qualifying for this job they have to undergo a rigorous training program and
(4.PROOF) _______ their ability in
a
number
of sports
(5.INCLUDE)
________skiing, riding and gymnastics.
(6.NATURE) ________, the safety of the stunt performer is of the utmost importance.
Much depends on the performer getting time exactly right so everything is planned
down to the (7.TINY) __________ detail. In a scene which involves a complicated
series of actions, there is no time for careless mistakes. A stunt man or woman often has
only one chance of getting things right, (8.LIKE) ___________ film stars, who can if
necessary, film a scene (9.REPEAT) ________ until it gains the director’s
(10.APPROVE) _________.
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PART 6. Complete using the correct words below.
exhilarating • idle • indulge • pastimes • pursuing • recreation • respite • socialise •
trivial • unwind
The beginnings of modern leisure
During the first half of the nineteenth century, more and more people
were employed in factories, working 14 or 15-hour days that left them
little time for hobbies, sport or any other form of (1)…… and
meant
they weren't able to (2)……
with friends. A key breakthrough in
Britain came with the Ten Hour Act (4847), which limited the
working day and ensured that workers got some (3)…..
from their jobs. People now had at least some time to (4) …... from
work at the end of the day and (5)…….themselves. Not everyone approved.
Many members of the middle class hated the idea of the workers being
(6) ............. and believed that they would waste their time on (7)…..matters
instead of (8).... productive activities, such as education or going to church.
The workers, however, found the new freedom (9)……. and threw themselves
into new(40) …….with enthusiasm.
SESSION IV. READING COMPREHENSION
PART 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits
each space.
The story of man’s mastery of the air is almost as old as man himself, a puzzle in which
the essential clues were not found until a very late stage. However, to (4) _______ this
we must first go back to the time when primitive man (2) _______ his food, and only
birds and insects flew. We can not know with any certainty when man first deliberately
shaped weapons for throwing, but that (3) _______of conscious design marked the first
step on a road that (4) _______ from the spear and the arrow to the aeroplane and the
giant rocket of the present (5) _______. It would seem, in fact, that this (6) _______ to
throw things is one of the most primitive and deep-seated of our instincts, (7) _______ in
childhood and persisting into old age. The more mature ambition to throw things swiftly
and accurately, which is the origin of most (8) _______ games, probably has its roots in
the ages when the possession of a (9) _______ weapon and the ability to throw it with
force and accuracy (40) _______ the difference between eating and starving.
8
It is significant that such weapons were (44) _______ and brought to their (42) _______
form at an early stage in history. If we were restricted to the same (43) _______, it is
doubtful if we could produce better bows and arrows than those that (44) _______ the
armies of the past. The arrow was the first true weapon capable of maintaining direction
over considerable (15) _______. It was to be centuries before man himself could fly.
4. A. value
B. approve
C. understand
D. realize
2. A. pursued
B. hunted for
C. chased
D. followed up
3. A. act
B. deed
C. action
D. event
4. A. brings
B. moves
C. takes
D. leads
5. A. instant
B. day
C. hour
D. moment
6. A. feeling
B. urge
C. encouragement D. emotion
7. A. coming
B. arriving
C. appearing
D. growing
8. A. exterior
B. outside
C. external
D. outdoor
9. A. suitable
B. fitting
C. related
D. chosen
40. A.involved
B. meant
C. told
D. showed
44. A. invented
B. imagined
C. planned
D. produced
42. A. last
B. older
C. latest
D. final
43. A. matters
B. substances
C. materials
D. sources
44. A. destroyed B. ruined
C. spoiled
D. exploded
45. A. lengths
B. extents
C. areas
D. distances
PART 2. Fill each gap in the passage with ONE suitable word.
LAUGHING IS GOOD FOR YOU- SERIOUSLY
It is a sad fact that adults laugh far less than children, sometimes by as much (4)
_______ a couple of hundred times a day. Just take a (2) _______ at peoples’faces on
the way to work or in the office: you’ll be lucky (3) _______ see a smile, let alone hear a
laugh. This is a shame –especially in view of the (4) _______that scientists have proved
that laughing is good for you. “ When you laugh” says psychologist David Cohen , “it
produces the feel-good hormones, endorphins . It counters the effects of stress (5)
_______ enhances the immune system.”
There are many (6) _______ why we might laugh less in adult life: perhaps we are too
work-obsessed, or too embarrassed to (7) _______ our emotions show. Some
psychologists simply believe that children have more native responses, and as adults we
naturally grow (8) _______ of spontaneous reactions. Luckily,(9) _______ , it is
possible to relearn the art of laughter. In India, “ laughter clinics” have been growing
(40) _______ popularity over the last few years, (44) _______ to the efforts of Dr
Madan Kataria, (42) _______ work has won him (43) _______ devoted following . Dr
Kataria believes that his laughing techniques can help to strengthen the immune system
and lower stress levels, among (44) _______things. He teaches his patients different
9
laughs or giggles to relax specific parts (45) _______ the body. In 1998, when Dr
Kartaria organized a World Laughter Day at Bombay racetrack, 10,000 people turned
up.
PART 3.Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 21 to 30.
THE BODY CLOCK
Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired
than flying to London from New York? The answer may be a clear case of
biology not being able to keep up with technology.
Deep inside the brain there is a “clock” that governs every aspect of the body’s
functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance, mood,
hormone levels, digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these
functions on a 24-hour basis and is called the circadian clock (from the Latin,
circa “about” + dies “day”).
This body clock programmes us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and
again between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea and siesta times are all cultural responses to
our natural biological sleepiness in the afternoon.
One of the major causes of the travelers’ malady known as jet lag is the nonalignment of a person’s internal body clock with clocks in the external world.
Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock, which then has to
adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters more
complex, not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your
sleep/wake may adjust to a new time zone at one rate, while your temperature
adjusts at a different pace. Your digestion may be on a different schedule
altogether.
Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the body clock is to
extend our day beyond 24 hours. It is contrary to our biological programming to
shrink our day.
That is why travelling in a westward direction is more body-clock friendly than
flying east. NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward travel was
associated with significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward
flights.
When flying west, you are “extending” your day, thus travelling in the natural
direction of your internal clock. Flying eastward will involve “shrinking” or
10
reducing your day and is in direct opposition to your internal clock’s natural
tendency.
One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their sleep becomes
disrupted. There are many reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules,
changing light and activity levels, trying to sleep when your body clock is
programmed to be awake, disruption of the internal circadian clock and working
longer hours
Sleep loss, jet lag and fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function well.
Judgment and decision-making can be reduced by 50%, attention by 75 percent,
memory by 20 percent and communication by 30 percent.
It is often suggested that you adjust your watch as soon as you board a plane,
supposedly to try to help you adjust to your destination’s schedule as soon as you
arrive. But it can take the body clock several days to several weeks to fully adjust
to a new time zone.
4: The main function of the body clock is to________
A. help us sleep.
B. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle.
C. regulate the body’s functions.
D. govern all the body’s responses.
2: The word “It” refers to________
A. the programme B. the body clock
C. the function
D. the brain
3: Jet lag
A. makes our body clock operate badly
B. causes our body clock to change
C. extends the hours of our body clock
D. upsets our body’s rhythms
4: The word “malady” is closest in meaning to________
A. feeling
B. bore
C. illness
D. thought
5: The direction you fly in________
A. extends or shrinks your body clock
B. alters your body’s natural rhythms
C. helps you sleep better
D. affects the degree of jet lag
6: According to the article________
A. jet lag can affect different abilities differently.
B. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making.
C. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying.
D. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly.
7: On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article________
A. suggests changing the time on your watch.
B. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock.
C. says there is nothing you can do.
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D. makes no suggestions.
8: According to the author, which of the following reasons disrupt travelers’
sleep?
A. Travelers try to sleep between 3-5 p.m.
B. Travelers’ attention is reduced by 75 percent.
C. Travelers fly in the natural direction of their internal clock.
D. The traveler’s internal circadian clock has to adjust to patterns of light and
activity.
9: It can be inferred from the passage that________
A. there are more travelers in westward flights than in eastward ones.
B. westward travelers become friendlier than eastward ones.
C. travelers have to spend more money flying westward than eastward.
D. travelers do not sleep as well in eastward flights as in westward ones.
40: The word “fatigue” is closest in meaning to________
A. exhaustion
B. obsession
C. frustration
D. sleeplessness
PART 4. Read the following texts about some famous walls around the world. For
questions 1-14, choose from the four texts about walls (A-D). The texts may be chosen
more than once.
A GUIDE TO GREAT WALLS
A.
Erected in 1961 to prevent East German citizens crossing to the West, the Berlin Wall
initially consisted mainly of barbed wire and armed guards. Within months a concrete
wall began to appear, to be replaced on three separate occasions by ever more
sophisticated versions, increasingly resistant to breakthroughs. On the east side of the
wall, tank traps and ditches were built as protection against attack, and as a further
deterrent to would-be escapees.
Although over 170 people lost their lives in Berlin trying to flee to the West, human will
and ingenuity often prevailed, with a number of successful escape attempts via tunnels
and, on one occasion, in a home-made hot air balloon. The 107-kilometre-long structure
lost its relevance in 1989, when Hungary allowed East Germans to pass through their
country on their way to Austria and West Germany, and after travel restrictions were
lifted, people began to demolish whole sections of the wall. Now very little of it remains
and the land has been used for housing and other property development.
B.
Stretching for several thousand kilometres from the east coast of the country to the Gobi
Desert, the Great Wall of China is said to be the only man-made structure visible from
outer space. The oldest section was begun in 221 BC, using soldiers and local people, as
12
well as intellectuals who had been sentenced to forced labour under the repressive Qin
dynasty. Not surprisingly, the layers of compacted earth used to construct the wall soon
began to crumble, and it was left to the later Han dynasty to restore and add to it.
By now the wall had evolved from a mere defence system for keeping out marauding
tribes into a safe haven where trade could flourish, and bustling market towns sprang up
at the many busy gates. But the ornate and imposing structure with which we are
familiar from photographs was not added until the fourteenth century by Ming, using
advanced brick-building technology. It was he who joined the three separate walls to
create this truly impressive feat of construction.
C.
Situated in the north of England at one of the narrowest parts of the country, Hadrian’s
Wall is arguably the most important monument built by the Romans in Britain.
Construction of the wall began in 120 AD on the orders of Emperor Hadrian, who
wanted to mark the northernmost boundary of his Empire. The 117-kilometre wall was
manned by thousands of troops, who kept watch from numerous turrets and milecastles,
and who lived in a series of forts situated at strategic locations.
In the centuries following its abandonment around 400 AD, its stones were used by local
people to build houses, walls and even churches. Nevertheless, spectacular stretches of
the wall remain and a number of forts and museums along its length can be visited,
providing a fascinating glimpse into the lives of the Roman soldiers who patrolled it.
Although built of stone, the wall itself is vulnerable to erosion and visitors are
discouraged from walking on it. Designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987,
Hadrian’s Wall ranks alongside some of the more famous architectural treasures in the
world.
According to the information given in the texts, which wall …
4. can be seen from a great distance?
2. is susceptible to damage?
3. quickly fell into disrepair?
4. is no longer very much in evidence?
5. is a series of different walls which were connected?
6. was built with the help of prisoners?
7. is compared favourably with other ancient monuments?
8. became unnecessary as a result of events elsewhere?
9. proved to be an ideal site for commercial activity?
40. did not always achieve its purpose?
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SESSION V. WRITING.
PART 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly
the same as the sentences printed before it.
1.As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
→The more …………………………………………………………………….
2.They failed to find out a solution to the problem.
→They didn’t succeed ………………………………………………………
3.Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.
→Without …………………………………………………………………….
4. Immediately after his arrival home a water-heater exploded.
→Hardly ………………………………………………………………………..
5.Rita doesn’t realize how serious her husband’s operation is going to be.
→Little …………………………………………………………………………….
6.Tim insisted on being told the complete story.
→Nothing ……………………………………………………………………….
7.The permit expires at the end of this month.
→The permit is not ………………………………………………………………
8. We must do something about the problem even if it costs a lot.
→Costly ………………………………………………………………………….
9.We should ban the use of pesticides, but we should also restrict the use of other
chemicals.
→In addition to …………………………………………………………………
10. Betty is very happy to look after handicapped people.
→Betty is devoted ……………………………………………………………….
PART 2. Write a paragraph ( about 150 words) to give your opinion about: “ Students
should not be required to take physical education courses”
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----The end------15
SỞ GD & ĐT QUẢNG NAM
Trường THPT chuyên
NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM
SESSION I. LISTENING
PART 1:
1. B
2. B
PART 2:
1. Mon. – Fri.
2. Petticoat
5. Brixton
6. Sundays
9. By tube
10. 9:30
SESSION II. PRONUNCIATION
PART 1.
1C 2B 3C 4B
PART 2.
1D 2C 3A 4D
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI- ĐỒNG BẰNG
BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ VII
MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 40
3. C
4. C
3. Aldgate
7. In Camden Town
5. B
4. 9 am – 4 pm
8. Tom and Mary
5A
5A
SESSION III. LEXICO- GRAMMAR
PART 1.
1C 2D 3B 4B 5C 6A 7C 8A 9D 10D
11C 12D13B
14D 15C 16C17A
18A 19C 11D
PART 2.
1written
2 good health
3 large
4 compared
5 standard
6 bỏ the
7 know how to
8 advertised9raising
10will be lying
PART 3.
1on
2 with
3 on
4at
5 to
6 of
7 in
8 under
9 in
10 on
11 at
12 from
13in
14for
15from
16beyond 13for
18 on
19in
20 by
PART 4.
1 had the survivors spent/ were picked
2 has happened/could have been eaten
3 not to take( not to have taken)/had changed
4 are assumed/ to be
5 (had) got/ was being followed
6will not( does not make)/ win/ are ranked(rank)
7 has been spoken/ set up
8 Did many people enjoy ( Were many people enjoying)/turned out/to be/would have
been enjoyed/ had been repaired.
PART 5.
1. momentary
2. performers
3. living
4. prove
5. including
6. Naturally
7. tiniest
8. unlike
9. repeatedly
10. Approval
16
PART 6.
1 recreation
6 idle
2 socialise
7 trivial
3 respite
4 unwind
8 pursuing 9 exhilarating
SESSION IV. READING COMPREHENSION
PART 1
8. D
PART 2
1.C
9. A
2. B
10. B
3.A
11. D
4.D
12. D
5. B
13. C
6. B
14. A
5 indulge
10 pastimes
7. C
15. D
1. as
2. look
3. to
4. fact
5. and
6. reasons
7. let
8. out
9. however
10. in
11. thanks/owing/due
12. whose
13. a
14. other
15. of
PART 3
4.C
8. D
PART 4
4.A
8. A
1. C
5. C
9. D
2. B
6. A
10. A
3. D
7. D
1. B
5. B
9. B
2. C
6. B
10. A
3. B
7. C
SESSION V. WRITING.
1.
The more wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down
2. They didn’t succeed in finding out a solution to the problem.
3.
Without absolute secrecy, the mission wouldn’t have succeeded.
4.
Hardly had he arrived home when a water-heater exploded.
5. Little does Rita realize how serious her husband’s operation is going to be.
6. Nothing but the complete story would satisfy Tim
7. The permit is not valid after the end of this month.
8.
Costly as/though it may be, we must do something about the problem.
9.
In addition to banning the use of pesticides, we should also restrict the use of
other chemicals.
10.Betty is devoted to looking after handicapped people
17
TAPESCRIPTS:
SECTION 4: (FCE 4, TEST 2, PAPER 4, PART4)
You will hear an interview with the television actress Donna Denton. Choose the best
answer, A, B or C.
[pause]
Interviewer: My guest today, Donna Denton, is a familiar face, having appeared in a
number of highly successful television drama series. But Donna’s not just an actress,
she’s also a talented singer and dancer. Which came first, Donna?
Donna: Dancing. When I was nine, my mum decided I needed a hobby. Some of my
friends went horse-riding and I wanted to try it too, but it cost quite a bit. Nothing was
said, but although my parents worked hard, there was never money to spare. So I chose
to go to dancing classes across the road; two hours a week at only fifty p. an hour. I’m
sure Mum was relieved.
Interviewer: But presumably the classes were OK?
Donna: The teacher was very tall and so glamorous that I hardly dared look at her. She
immediately sent me right to the back of the class. I didn’t mind because there I could
dance away quite happily, out of sight. I didn’t realise until later that that was where the
worst dancers were put! But she didn’t forget me and slowly worked my way forward.
It was a proud day when I eventually made it to the front row.
Interviewer: Where did the singing come in?
Donna: Mum heard about the knightswell Stage School, where you did normal lessons
in the morning and dance and drama in the afternoons. To get in, I had to perform in
front of about twenty people – you know, in an audition. Some kids had learnt songs
from musicals or bits from plays, but I just did one of the dance routines I’d learnt. They
offered me a free place for a year, which was lucky. The fees were quite high and it gave
my parents time to save up enough money to pay for the rest.
Interviewer: But it was the right thing for you?
Donna: I loved it. The only thing was that if you wanted to study there, you had to wear
a special red jacket with a school badge on it, even outside the school building. I had a
ten-minute walk to the bus stop and the local kids from the ordinary school used to laugh
at me: I dreaded that journey. So Mum said to the headmistress, “Donna’s having a
tough time travelling to school. Can’t she change into her jacket when she arrives? And
although it was against the rules, they agreed.
Interviewer: And that was where you were expected to sing?
Once every term, you had to get up in front of the whole school and perform a song –
my knees used to shake, I was so nervous, but it was good practice and, gradually, it
built up my confidence. That was important because in the final year there was a singing
18
competition. Most kids sang a classical piece, but at the last minute I decided to do a
Frank Sinatra number from my dad’s record collection. I don’t think the choice of music
had anything to do with it, but to everyone’s amazement, I won.
Interviewer: so you were headed for a singing career?
Donna: Yes. After leaving school, I went on having private singing lessons and got
some work as a backing vocalist. But it’s hard to make your name as a jazz singer –
which is what I’d set my heart on. So, like most of my school friends, I went after acting
jobs on TV. I was more fortunate than most, getting parts in some good drama series,
which allowed me to establish my name with the public. But I’d like to try other things
now.
Interviewer: So, what can we expect?
Donna: Well, I’ve just completed a CD with a blues band – a dream come true for me.
It’ll be released next month. They’ve just asked me to sing with them on a world tour,
actually. That was a lovely surprise but, sadly, I had to turn it down because I’d already
agreed to do a month in a stage play in London on those dates. I thought of pulling out,
but it wouldn’t have been fair on the theatre. That’s typical of show business – all or
nothing – but I can’t complain.
Interviewer: thank you, Donna, for talking ……..
[The recording is repeated]
That is the end of section 1.
SECTION 2: (IELTS listening strategies for the Ielts Test: Unit 7, Test 4, Section 1)
Tom and Barbara are talking about markets in London. Barbara has a market list
and she wants to find out more details about them. Listen to the conversation and
complete the market lists. Write no more than three words for each answer. Look
at questions 4-6 on the market list now.
Now listen and complete the market list.
Tom: Hi, Barbara. What will you do this weekend?
Barbara: well, I’d like to do some shopping, but I have no idea where to go. I’ve only
been here a few days. I was told London is an expensive place to live.
Tom: yes, but that’s not completely true. London can be an expensive place to live, but
if you shop in the right places, you can live relatively cheaply.
Barbara: Is that true? Could you tell me something about the shops?
Tom: All right. You know, food tends to be cheapest in the big supermarkets like
Sainsburys and Tescos. Most of them have quite a good variety of food and household
items. You can buy your fruit and vegetables on the street. You will find these street
markets in almost every part of London. You can also buy clothes, shoes and household
items in these markets for a real bargain. Have you got a market list provided by the
Student Union?
Barbara: Yes. Here you are.
19
Tom: this might give you some ideas. Let me see. East Street SE17. This market sells
cheap food, clothes and hardware. It’s open from 8 am to 5 pm.
Barbara: Yes. But how can I get there?
Tom: You can take the underground. We call it the tube. You see, there is a tube station
on the list.
Barbara: Let me see. Yes, it’s Castle Station.
Tom: Right. You can get off at the Castle.
Barbara: Good. Look at Leather Lane WC1.
Tom: Yes, that’s a good central London market for clothes, food and hardware. It opens
at lunch times from Monday to Friday. It’s near Chancery Lane Station.
Barbara: Well. What about the one in Petticoat Lane?
Tom: Oh, Petticoat Lane E1. It sells clothes, shoes and household goods. It opens only
on Sunday mornings from 9 am to 12 noon.
Barbara: Yes, we can get off at Aldgate Station. OK. What about the one in
Walthamstow E17?
Tom: Oh, that’s a big market for clothes and food. It’s open between 9 am and 4 pm on
Mondays to Saturdays, except Wednesdays and Sundays.
Barbara: Let me see …. Yes, we can get there on the Central Line. What about
Brixton?
Tom: That’s Brixton SW9. It’s an indoor and outdoor market with a lively atmosphere.
It sells vegetables from all over the world. It opens 9 am to 6 pm Mondays to Sundays
and half day on Wednesdays.
Barbara: Oh, it’s close to Brixton Station, very near my place. Great. It’s very
convenient. Tell me more detail about Camden Lock.
Tom: Yes, there are several markets on Camden High Street and plenty of shops. They
sell fashion clothes, jewellery, recorders and pottery. It’s good for buying presents, very
close to Chalk Farm and Camden town Station.
Barbara: I see. It says that it opens on Sundays only from 8 am to 5 pm. Well, I think
these markets might help to keep my costs down.
Tom: Well, if you need to buy new electrical goods or large household items, you can
wait until the January sales when almost all the shops sell goods at discount prices.
Barbara: Thank you very much for your help. Tom, shall we go to Brixton together this
weekend?
Tom: I’d love to.
Barbara: Oh, I’m afraid I’ve got to go to a lecture. I will ring you tonight. Bye.
Tom: OK. Bye.
Barbara is phoning Tom about shopping. Look at questions 7-40.
Now listen to their telephone conversation. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each answer.
(Telephone rings.)
20
Tom: 4010625?
Barbara: Hello. Is that you, Tom?
Tom: Hi, Barbara. Have you decided where to go tomorrow?
Barbara: Yes, that’s right. I want to go to Camden Town to shop. Would you like to go
there with me?
Tom: Yes, I’d love to. That’s a good market. Mary is here with me now. She wants to
go there, too. Shall we meet at Camden Town Station?
Barbara: OK. How are you going there?
Tom: We will go there by bus. It’s only three stops from my place. Well, we might walk
there if the weather is fine. How will you get there?
Barbara: I think I will have to take the underground. I’m at Bond Street and I’ll take the
Central Line first and get off at Tottenham Court Road.
Tom: That’s it. Take the Central Line and get off at Tottenham Court Road. Then you
want the Northern Line to Camden Town. It’s only about four stops. Make sure you get
a northbound train though. You want northbound Camden Town. OK?
Barbara: OK. I think I can find the way. I have an underground map with me now.
What time shall we meet there tomorrow?
Tom: How about ten thirty?
Barbara: Well, I think that’s a bit too late. It might be crowded by that time.
Tom: How about one hour earlier, say nine thirty?
Barbara: Fine. That will be all right. See you tomorrow.
Tom: Bye.
[The recording is repeated]
21
SỞ GD&ĐT THỪA THIÊN HUẾ
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
QUỐC HỌC – HUẾ
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI KHỐI 10
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG
BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
A. LISTENING
I. You will hear part of an interview with a woman called Barbara Darby, who
works as a casting director in the film industry. Choose the answer (A, B, C or
D) that fits best according to what you hear. You will listen to the recording
just ONCE. (5 points)
1. According to Barbara, a casting director needs above all _______
A. to learn from experience.
B. to be a good communicator.
C. to have a relevant qualification.
D. to have a natural feel for the job.
2. Barbara says that she looks for actors who _______
A. can play a variety of roles.
B. complement each other.
C. accept her way of working.
D. think deeply about a part.
3. At which stage in the casting process does Barbara meet the actors?
A. before she goes to see them performing live
B. once the director has approved them
C. before a final short list is drawn up
D. as soon as a final selection is made
4. Barbara explains that what motivates her now is a need for _______
A. personal satisfaction.
B. professional recognition.
C. a glamorous lifestyle.
D. financial security.
5. What made Barbara give up her job for a while?
A. She’d become tired of travelling.
B. She was ready to try something new.
C. She felt she’d been put under too much pressure.
D. She found that she was no longer as committed to it.
II. Listen to the conversation and do the tasks that follow. You will listen to the
recording just ONCE. (10 points)
1
Questions 1-5: Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.
1. Josie is concerned about her _______ later this week.
2. The purpose of the experiments is to measure the _______.
3. The first experiment needs to be done _______ because of the distances involved.
4. In this experiment, some pupils have a stopwatch and the others have a _______,
such as a bell.
5. The result of this experiment should be accurate to within approximately _______.
Questions 6-8: Complete the summary below. Writing NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS for each answer.
In preparation for the second experiment, pupils should understand the fundamental
ideas of frequency and (6) ___________. This can be done using water as an analogy.
Pupils then lit a tuning fork near the end of a (7) ___________ immersed in a barrel
of water. At some point, the sound (8) ___________ due to the resonance of the
wave. This means there are a whole number of waves and pupils measure the length
of the column of air.
Questions 9-10: Answer the questions below. Writing NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS for each answer.
9. What should pupils do with their results to increase the accuracy of the experiment?
__________________
10. What should Josie encourage her pupils to do during the experiments?
__________________
B. PHONOLOGY
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
other ones. (2.5 points)
1. A. circuit
B. building
C. guiltless
D. suitable
2. A. vessel
B. cosset
C. issue
D. massive
3. A. casino
B. asset
C. sachet
D. canal
4. A. balloon
B. bookworm
C. booster
D. beetroot
5. A. gradual
B. soldier
C. educate
D. indecent
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. (2.5
points)
1. A. dynasty
B. lucrative
C. expertise
D. compromise
2. A. perpetrate
B. consecrate
C. correspond
D. integral
3. A. acupuncture
B. necessary
C. temperament D. academic
4. A. fraternal
B. impetus
C. spectator
D. contingent
5. A. democratic
B. prerequisite
C. inevitable
D. promiscuous
2
C. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE
I. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. (5 points)
1. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their
_______ down and enjoy themselves.
A. hair
B. heads
C. hearts
D. souls
2. Her sales figures are climbing; she should ask for a pay rise while she’s still on a
_______.
A. run
B. roll
C. rush
D. roam
3. No one knows exactly how much he earns a month, but $2.500 can’t be _______
of the mark.
A. far
B. wide
C. broad
D. distant
4. The weather is going to change soon – I can feel it in my _______.
A. teeth
B. legs
C. skin
D. bones
5. The footballer never really recovered from the injury he _______ at the beginning
of the season.
A. struck
B. endured
C. sustained
D. grasped
6. When my new motor kept breaking down, I knew I’d been taken for a _______ by
the second-hand car salesman.
A. driven
B. ride
C. walk
D. stroll
7. The judge imposed a light sentence in view of the _______ circumstances.
A. lightening
B. extensive
C. extenuating
D. qualifying
8. It was felt that the new bonus for increased production would provide an _______
to work overtime.
A. incitement
B. attraction
C. initiative
D. incentive
9. They threw petrol on to the bonfire and the sudden _______ lit up the whole garden.
A. glow
B. twinkle
C. spark
D. flare
10. It’s a shame that they didn’t pick you, but it doesn’t _______ out the possibility
that you might get a job in a different department.
A. rule
B. strike
C. take
D. draw
11. I’ve been doing my best to reduce the backlog but I must admit that I’ve hardly
make _______ in the problem so far.
A. a dent
B. a foot
C. a face
D. a damper
12. Paul’s been in Alice’s bad _______ ever since he offended her at the party.
A. eyes
B. books
C. likes
D. treats
13. _______ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is
merely an optical illusion.
A. What the moon
B. That the moon
C. When the Moon
D. The Moon which
3
14. I’m rather suspicious of your brother’s sudden concern for your welfare and fear
that he may have _______ motives.
A. ulterior
B. underlying
C. aggrieved
D. aggravated
15. I’m really sorry I won’t be able to see you this week but I’m absolutely _______
under with work.
A. snowed
B. stormed
C. hailed
D. flooded
16. You must be off your _______ if you think you’re going to get away with this.
A. face
B. tongue
C. head
D. eye
17. I was kept awake for most of the night by the _______ of a mosquito in my ear.
A. whine
B. moan
C. groan
D. screech
18. Now’s a _______ time to tell me you’re going out this evening – I’ve spent the
whole day preparing supper for you.
A. suitable
B. reasonable
C. right
D. fine
19. He was not _______ to taking on all the extra responsibilities the promotion
entailed.
A. hesitant
B. unenthusiastic C. reluctant
D. averse
20. During the rioting several houses in the area had their windows _______.
A. clinked
B. smashed
C. banged
D. crashed
II. There are ten mistakes in the following passage, identify and correct them. (5 points)
Since the world became industrial, the number of animal species that either have
become extinct or have near extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance,
which once had roamed the jungles in their vast number, now number only about
2,300. By the year 2005, it is estimated that they would become extinct. What is
alarmed about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been
caused almost entirely by poachers, who according to some resources, are not
always interested in material gain but in impersonal gratification. This is an
example of the callousness that is contributed to the problem of extinction.
Animals, such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other dangerous species, are valuable
parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be
acted to ensure their survival – and the survival of our planet.
Error
1.
3.
5.
Correction
Error
Correction
2.
4.
6.
4
7.
9.
8.
10.
III. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (5 points)
1. The new regulations have thrown _______ a few problems for the company.
2. The workers were rather cynical after the meeting. Most of them were _______ no
illusions that the management would take their complaints seriously.
3. Jack took early retirement as he was losing his grip _______ the job.
4. He scolded her so much that she was reduced _______ tears by the end of the
meeting.
5. The sudden movement of the train threw me _______ balance and I fell head-first
down the steps.
6. The price of shares in the company went up _______ over 50% when they
announced the discovery of the new oilfield.
7. Ron usually primes himself _______ plenty of black coffee before starting the night
shift.
8. We still haven’t sold the house because the buyers went back on their word and
pulled _______ the deal.
9. Hi Brenda, Peter here. I’m just ringing _______ to say I’ve got two tickets for the
concert on Saturday night. Fancy coming?
10. The group rounded _______ the concert with their greatest hits. So everyone went
home happy.
11. As there was no official at the gate, Diana got _______ not buying an entrance
ticket.
12. His company went bankrupt, three years of hard work _______ the drain.
13. She is putting _______ a little each month for her studies in Queenstown.
14. The oral examination was difficult. The examiner tried to catch me _______ by
asking some tricky questions.
15. They should be able to settle their differences without restoring _______ violence.
16. The small boat drifted helplessly _______ the mercy of the wind and waves.
17. I find it very hard to commit historical dates _______ memory.
18. If you would like to wait a moment, Sir, I will just call _______ your file on the
computer screen.
19. Quick, I haven’t got a pen. Can you jot Jack’s phone number _______ for me?
20. When I was a student, I eked _______ what little money I had by buying only
second-hand clothes.
IV. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct tenses or forms. (5 points)
- I told him he (1. be) _______ unnecessarily difficult and that he ought to make a
compromise.
5
- The only person (2. witness) _______ the crime was killed in an accident this
morning.
- In her report, she mentioned (3. treat) _______ at a hospital abroad last year.
- There was no one downstairs; so she turned off the light again and decided that
she (4. must/ imagine) _______ things.
- Oh good, you’re here at last. I (5. wonder) _______ what time you (6. come)
_______.
- I was astonished that he turned down the job – I (7. think) _______ it would have
been ideal for him.
- Until recently the suggestion that pop music might be used to train athletes (8.
treat) _______ as a joke.
- I (9. mean) _______ to get the brakes (10. repair) _______, but I’ve just never got
round to it.
- A team of experts (11. arrive) _______ in Venice to save it from increasing
incidences of flooding. A controversial plan to construct a barrier with 70 gates, each
weighing 300 tons, (12. give) _______ permission to go ahead. Once (13. construct)
_______, this will be raised whenever a high ride threatens to cover the city.
Everyone has known for centuries that Venice (14. sink) _______ further into the
mud, but floods are becoming a regular nuisance. Rising sea levels (15. erode/
gradually) _______ the salt marshes and mud banks that stand between the city and
the Adriatic. Winter storms cause higher waves, which (16. assault) _______ the
walls of the old palaces. But there are fears about how the building of such a barrier
might affect the Venice lagoon, particularly the possibility that it could further restrict
the flushing of the city’s waterways by the tide, (17. make) _______ the famous foulsmelling canals even more stagnant. (18. avoid) _______ making the bad situation
worse, the experts (19. bring) _______ in to analyse tidal flows and marine plants and
then suggest ways to prevent the city from becoming the first high-profile victim of
global warming and rising sea levels. But with global warming (20. expect) _______
to add at least half meter to the sea level this century, the situation is bound to
deteriorate.
V. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the words given. (5 points)
THE CUP OF HUMANITY
Tea began as a medicine and grew into a beverage. In China, in the eighth century, it
entered the realm of poetry as one of the polite (1. AMUSE) _______. The fifteenth
century saw Japan ennoble it into a religion of aestheticism- Teaism. Teaism is a cult
founded on the (2. ADORE) _______ of the beautiful among the sordid facts of
everyday (3. EXIST) _______. It inculcates purity and harmony, the mystery of
mutual charity, the (4. ROMANTIC) _______ of the social order. It is essentially a
worship of the (5. PERFECT) _______, as it is a tender attempt to accomplish
6
something possible in this impossible thing we know as life. The Philosophy of Tea is
not mere aestheticism in the ordinary acceptance of the term, for it expresses (6.
CONJOIN) _______ with ethics and religion our whole point of view about man and
nature. It is hygiene, for it enforces (7. CLEAN) _______; it is economics, for it
shows comfort in (8. SIMPLE) _______ rather than in the complex and costly; it is
moral geometry, inasmuch as it defines our sense of proportion to the universe. It
represents the true spirit of Eastern democracy by making all its votaries aristocrats in
taste. The long isolation of Japan from the rest of the world, so (9.
CONDUCT) _______ to introspection, has been highly (10. FAVOUR) _______ to
the development of Teaism.
VI. Complete the following passage with appropriate phrases taken from the
box. One phrase should be used ONCE only. (5 points)
Moreover
However
Hence
Whereas
As opposed to
At any rate
By and large
Although
To tell the truth
On the other hand
At least
As a result
Nevertheless
Incidentally
What’s more
Even so
To make matters worse
On the contrary
Starting your own business could be the way to achieving financial independence. (1)
_______ it could just as well land you in debt for the rest of your life. (2) _______,
that is the view of Charles and Brenda Leggat, a Scottish couple, who last week saw
their fish farm business put into the hands of the receiver. ‘We started the business at
a time when everyone was being encouraged by the banks to borrow money. (3)
_______, we fell into the same trap, and asked for a big loan. (4) _______, at the
same time we were sure that we could make it into a going concern,’ said Charles
Leggat, a farmer from the Highlands. ‘The bank analysed the proposals we put
forward and they agreed that it would be a highly profitable business.’ Sure enough,
within five years the Leggats were exporting trout and salmon products to hotels all
over Europe, and (5) _______ they took on over fifty staff. (6) _______, with the
advent of the recession, they began to lose ground as orders dried up. ‘(7) _______,
said Brenda Leggat, ‘the business has now been valued by the bank at a fraction of its
true worth. If they had left us to work our way out of our difficulties, (8) _______
virtually bankrupting us, I am sure that we could have gone back into profit. As it is,
we have been left without a livelihood, and the bank has not recovered what it lent
us.’ The Leggats both felt that their banks had not treated them fairly. ‘(9) _______,
they were falling over themselves to lend us the money initially, (10) _______ now
they are doing very little to keep the business going, and fifty people in work.’ A
spokesman for the bank concerned refused to comment.
7
D. READING
I. Read the passage and choose the option that best completes each blank. (7.5 points)
PIRACY
Piracy was not (1) _______ by men like Blackbeard and ‘Black Bart’ Roberts. It has
been (2) _______ since man first took to the sea, a maritime (3) _______ that
appeared in historical records since before the building of the Egyptian pyramids. The
Mediterranean, (4) _______ known as the ‘(5) _______ of civilization’, was also a
pirate hot-spot, which we know because the Ancient Egyptians (6) _______ the time
to describe the attacks and their (7) _______. As in any period, piracy in the ancient
world flourished when there was a lack of central control, and in areas beyond
the (8) _______ of major powers such as the Egyptians, the Assyrians or the
Mycenaean Greeks. The first known pirate group was the Lukkans, a group of sea
raiders based on the south-eastern coast of Asia Minor. They first appeared in the
14th century BC, when Egyptian (9) _______ recorded that they raided
Cyprus, (10) _______ there are suggestions that their piratical activities started
earlier. By the 13th century BC they had become a major thorn in the (11) _______
of Egyptians, and had allied themselves to the Hittite Empire, which offered
protection in (12) _______ for naval power. A century later the Lukkans
(13) _______ from the historic records, a disappearance that was probably
linked (14) _______ the emergence of a new maritime threat. It is highly likely that
the pirates were simply (15) _______ into a collection of maritime nomads and
raiders known as the ‘sea people’.
1. A. disclosed
B. invented
C. discovered
D. devised
2. A. around
B. there
C. about
D. so
3. A. scourer
B. scout
C. scouser
D. scourge
4. A. besides
B. likewise
C. moreover
D. otherwise
5. A. cradle
B. cot
C. crib
D. hamper
6. A. passed
B. made
C. took
D. set
7. A. interloper
B. perpetrators
C. imposters
D. hypocrite
8. A. limits
B. reach
C. approach
D. frontier
9. A. scribes
B. scripters
C. reporters
D. playwrights
10. A. or
B. because
C. although
D. despite
11. A. neck
B. back
C. head
D. side
12. A. change
B. exchange
C. terms
D. addition
13. A. dumped
B. ceased
C. impeded
D. dropped
14. A. to
B. at
C. by
D. in
15. A. accommodated B. conformed
C. assimilated
D. adapted
Source: Cambridge Advanced Examination
8
II. Fill in each of the following blanks with ONE suitable word. (7.5 points)
THE SOLAR SYSTEM
The Solar System may be defined as consisting of all those objects that are governed
by the Sun's gravitational (1) _______. (2) _______ effects arising from the
proximity of the Sun could equally well be used as (3) _______, such as radiation (4)
_______ or interaction with the solar wind. With any of these definitions the Solar
System extends (5) _______ to a distance of about two light-years; the closest star,
Proxima Centauri, (6) _______ lying at a distance of slightly more than four lightyears. Our knowledge of this region of space certainly does not (7) _______ as far as
this, however, because the most distant Solar-System objects that we know about, the
comets, seem to originate at a distance of no more than 50,000 astronomical units,
or (8) _______ than a third of the total distance. As (9) _______ the other SolarSystem bodies (10) _______ to us, they lie at distances of less than a (11) _______
hundred AU. Our study is (12) _______ confined to (13) _______ is primarily the
central region of the Solar System. The first thing to note is that the total mass of the
objects in the Solar System (14) _______ a negligible fraction of the mass of the Sun
itself and the second is that most of these objects orbit close to the plane of the solar
equator. The Solar System thus forms a disc, essentially empty, (15) _______ which
the planets and their satellites, the asteroids and the comets orbit at considerable
distances from one another.
Source: Cambridge Proficiency Examination
III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions. (5 points)
THE NEW COUNTRY
The first real sign of the United States was a close-packed archipelago of buoys
marking lobster pots and fishing traps but this was just a prelude to the moment the
throng on the deck had been waiting for. The exaggerated sense of occasion that this
moment was expected to inspire was heightened by the scowling splendour of the city
illuminated in the storm, the racing clouds bathing Liberty in a hideous light. The
immigrants, shoving and straining, must have felt that all the reports and letters home
had understated the awful truth about New York. The real thing was even taller and
more intimidating than the tallest story. So you looked out, numbed by the gigantism
of the city, asking the immigrant’s single overriding question: is there really a place
there for me?
In New York at last, the promised city, the immigrants found themselves in a
cacophonic bazaar. So many things! The streets were awash with commodities
undreamed of back home – new foods, smart clothes, mechanical novelties. Your
own berth in New York might be no more than a patch of floor in a dumb-bell
tenement on the Lower East Side, yet no building was so squalid than its tenants were
entirely excluded from the bounty of American life. In the midst of rack-rent poverty,
9
in conditions as impoverished as anything they had suffered in the old country, the
immigrants would be surrounded by symbols of extravagant wealth. There were icecream parlours, candy stores, beef-steaks and fat cigars. In New York ordinary
people, wage-earners, dined out in restaurants; they had Victrola machines on which
they played ‘jass’ music and by the standards of Europe they were dressed like
royalty.
You had new names assigned to you at Ellis island by immigration officers too busy
to bother with the unpronounceable consonant clusters in your old one (Gold, because
that’s what the streets were supposed to be paved with, was a favourite stand-by).
There were new clothes too. You might be able to call upon only a word or two of
English, but you could still parade as a suave, fashion-conscious New Yorker.
Identity in Europe wasn’t a matter of individual fancy. Even with the money for the
raw materials, you couldn’t dress up as an aristocrat simply because you liked the
look of the noble’s style. If you were Jewish, you couldn’t pass yourself off as a
gentile without incurring a legal punishment. Every European was the product of a
complicated equation involving the factors of lineage, property, education, speech
and religion. The terms were subtle and could be juggled: even the most rigid class
system has some play in it. But once your personal formula had been worked out by
the ruling mathematicians, the result was precise and not open to negotiation. For
anyone brought up in such a system, New York must have induced a dizzying sense
of social weightlessness. Here identity was not fixed by society’s invisible secret
police. The equation had been simplified down to a single factor – dollars.
The windows of department stores were theatres. They showed American lives as yet
unlived in, with vacant possession. When your nose was pressed hard against the
glass, it was almost yours, the other life that lay in wait for you with its silverware
and brocade. So you were a presser in a shirtwaist factory on Division Street, making
a paltry $12.50 a week – so what? The owner of the factory was your landsman,
practically a cousin; he had the start on you by just a few years and already he lived
in a brownstone, uptown on 84th. Success in this city was tangible and proximate; it
was all around you, and even the poorest could smell it in the wind. The distance
between slum and mansion was less than a mile; hard work… a lucky break… and
you could roam through Macy’s and Bloomingdale’s buying up the life you dreamed
of leading.
Alice’s apartment, which I would be sub-renting – courtesy of a brown envelope and
the doorman’s blind eye, was in a relatively quiet corner, yet even here one could feel
New York trembling under one’s feet. In place of bird-song there was the continuous
angry warble of ambulances, patrols, fire-trucks. It was the sound of heart-attacks and
heart-break, of car crashes, hold-ups, hit-and-run, fight and pursuit. If you were going
10
to learn to live here, you’d have to tune out the sound of New York and set up house
in the silent bubble of your own preoccupations. …
1. According to the writer, when New York came into view the immigrants felt
_______
A. a sense of anticlimax.
B. disappointment at its ugliness.
C. overwhelmed by the sight of it.
D. the stories they’d heard had been exaggerated.
2. The word ‘prelude’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. premiere
B. foreword
C. preamble
D. prologue
3. The word ‘intimidating” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by _______.
A. prodigious
B. browbeating
C. deteriorating D. devastating
4. What distinguished immigrants’ homes in America from the ones they had left was
_______
A. that they were of a much higher standard.
B. that they could be rented more cheaply.
C. their spaciousness.
D. the neighbourhoods they were in.
5. The writer implies that immigrants received new names _______
A. as a matter of policy.
B. in a random fashion.
C. when they spoke no English.
D. because they wanted English-sounding names.
6. The writer implies that immigrants _______
A. were forced to deny who they were.
B. longed for the social certainties of Europe.
C. could free themselves of their past lives.
D. felt the need to hide the truth about their backgrounds.
7. The writer suggests that the dream of achieving wealth _______
A. conflicted with the realities of the workplace.
B. was soon abandoned once immigrants were settled.
C. was only possible by exploiting your fellow countrymen.
D. was fostered by the unique social circumstances of New York.
8. The word ‘suave’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. smooth
B. patronizing
C. awkward
D. spruce
9. The writer suggests that the arrangement for the flat was possible because _______
A. the owner was a friend.
B. he knew the doorman.
C. the landlord didn’t know.
11
D. they deceived the doorman.
10. According to the writer, people who live in New York _______
A. must feel constantly threatened.
B. survive by developing ways of ignoring what’s going on.
C. all become caught up in the rush of activity.
D. only cope by not allowing themselves time to think.
Source: Practice tests for the Revised CPE 1
IV. Read the passage below and do the tasks that follow. (10 points)
PAINTERS OF TIME
‘The world’s fascination with the mystique of Australian Aboriginal art.’
Emmanuel de Roux
A The works of Aboriginal artists are now much in demand throughout the world,
and not just in Australia, where they are already fully recognised: the National
Museum of Australia, which opened in Canberra in 2001, designated 40% of its
exhibition space to works by Aborigines. In Europe their art is being exhibited at a
museum in Lyon, France, while the future Quai Branly museum in Paris – which
will be devoted to arts and civilisations of Africa, Asia, Oceania and the Americas
– plans to commission frescoes by artists from Australia.
B Their artistic movement began about 30 years ago, but its roots go back to time
immemorial. All the works refer to the founding myth of the Aboriginal culture,
‘the Dreaming’. That internal geography, which is rendered with a brush and
colours, is also the expression of the Aborigines’ long quest to regain the land
which was stolen from them when Europeans arrived in the nineteenth century.
‘Painting is nothing without history,’ says one such artist, Michael Nelson
Tjakamarra.
C There are now fewer than 400,000 Aborigines living in Australia. They have been
swamped by the country’s 17.5 million immigrants. These original ‘natives’ have
been living in Australia for 50,000 years, but they were undoubtedly maltreated by
the newcomers. Driven back to the most barren lands or crammed into slums on
the outskirts of cities, the Aborigines were subjected to a policy of ‘assimilation’,
which involved kidnapping children to make them better ‘integrated’ into
European society, and herding the nomadic Aborigines by force into settled
communities.
D It was in one such community, Papunya, near Alice Springs, in the central desert,
that Aboriginal painting first came into its own. In 1971, a white schoolteacher,
Geoffrey Bardon, suggested to a group of Aborigines that they should decorate the
school walls with ritual motifs, so as to pass on to the younger generation the
myths that were starting to fade from their collective memory. He gave them
brushes, colours and surfaces to paint on – cardboard and canvases. He was
12
astounded by the result. But their art did not come like a bolt from the blue: for
thousands of years Aborigines had been ‘painting’ on the ground using sands of
different colours, and on rock faces. They had also been decorating their bodies
for ceremonial purposes. So there existed a formal vocabulary.
E This had already been noted by Europeans. In the early twentieth century,
Aboriginal communities brought together by missionaries in northern Australia
had been encouraged to reproduce on tree bark the motifs found on rock faces.
Artists turned out a steady stream of works, supported by the churches, which
helped to sell them to the public, and between 1950 and 1960 Aboriginal paintings
began to reach overseas museums. Painting on bark persisted in the north, whereas
the communities in the central desert increasingly used acrylic paint, and
elsewhere in Western Australia women explored the possibilities of wax painting
and dyeing processes, known as ‘batik’.
F What Aborigines depict are always elements of the Dreaming, the collective
history that each community is both part of and guardian of. The Dreaming is the
story of their origins, of their ‘Great Ancestors’, who passed on their knowledge,
their art and their skills (hunting, medicine, painting, music and dance) to man.
‘The Dreaming is not synonymous with the moment when the world was created,’
says Stephane Jacob, one of the organisers of the Lyon exhibition. ‘For
Aborigines, that moment has never ceased to exist. It is perpetuated by the cycle
of the seasons and the religious ceremonies which the Aborigines organise. Indeed
the aim of those ceremonies is also to ensure the permanence of that golden age.
The central function of Aboriginal painting, even in its contemporary
manifestations, is to guarantee the survival of this world. The Dreaming is both
past, present and future.’
G Each work is created individually, with a form peculiar to each artist, but it is
created within and on behalf of a community who must approve it. An artist
cannot use a ‘dream’ that does not belong to his or her community, since each
community is the owner of its dreams, just as it is anchored to a territory marked
out by its ancestors, so each painting can be interpreted as a kind of spiritual road
map for that community.
H ‘By exporting their paintings as though they were surfaces of their territory, by
accompanying them to the temples of western art, the Aborigines have redrawn
the map of their country, into whose depths they were exiled,’ says Yves Le Fur,
of the Quai Branly museum. ‘Masterpieces have been created. Their undeniable
power prompts a dialogue that has proved all too rare in the history of contacts
between the two cultures’.
Question 1-6: The passage has nine paragraphs, A-H. Choose the correct
heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings, i-viii, below.
13
List of Headings
i
Amazing results from a project
ii New religious ceremonies
iii Community art centres
iv Early painting techniques and marketing systems
v Mythology and history combined
vi The increasing acclaim for Aboriginal art
vii Belief on continuity
viii Oppression of a minority people
1. Paragraph A __________
2. Paragraph B __________
3. Paragraph C __________
4. Paragraph D __________
5. Paragraph E __________
6. Paragraph F
__________
Question 7-10: Complete the flow chart below. Choose NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
For (7) __________, Aborigines produced ground and rock paintings.

Early twentieth century: churches first prompted the use of (8) __________ for
paintings.

Mid-twentieth century: Aboriginal paintings were seen in (9) __________.

Early 1970s: Aborigines painted traditional patterns on (10) __________ in one
community.
Source: IELTS_Practice Tests Plus 2
E. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use
between three and eight words, including the word given. (5 points)
1. I’d be grateful if you could have a look at these figures. (CAST)
I’d be grateful if you could ____________________________________.
2. She doesn’t want to be involved in the scandal caused by her husband’s remarks.
(DISTANCE)
She _____________________________________ caused by her husband’s
remarks.
14
3. By leaving Mary alone, I’m sure she’ll finish the project on time. (DEVICES)
If Mary _________________________________, I’m sure she’ll finish the
project on time.
4. I couldn’t help smiling when he told me of his plan. (STRAIGHT)
I couldn’t ________________________________________ when he told me of
his plan.
5. I’d made up my mind, but at the last moment, I lost my confidence. (FEET)
I’d made up my mind, but _____________________________________.
6. The staff were upset not to have been informed about the company’s plans.
(DARK)
The staffs were upset that they _________________________________ about the
company’s plans.
7. My brother is not feeling well these days. (WEATHER)
My brother is feeling _____________________________________ these days.
8. There is no need for us to hurry. The play doesn’t start until 7.30. (SIDE)
Time _________________________________. The play doesn’t start until 7.30.
9. The firm went bankrupt after failing to win the contract. (LIQUIDATION)
The firm ___________________________________ to win the contract.
10. The new boss was not at all popular with his staff. (TAKE)
The staff ________________________________________ at all.
II. Write a composition (from 150 to 200 words) about the following topic:
“In the middle of difficulty lies opportunity.”
Albert Einstein
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience. (15 points)
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________
15
SỞ GD&ĐT THỪA THIÊN HUẾ
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
QUỐC HỌC – HUẾ
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI KHỐI 10
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG
BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII
Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
ĐÁP ÁN
A. LISTENING (15 points)
I. (5 points)
1. D
2. B
II. (10 points)
1. teaching practice
3. outside
5. 20%/ twenty percent
7. (long) tube
9. take an average
B. PHONOLOGY (5 points)
I. 1. D
2. C
II. 1. C
2. C
3. C
4. A
2. speed of sound
4. loud sound source
6. wavelength
8. gets louder
10. keep good records
3. A
3. D
4. B
4. B
C. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE (30 points)
I. (5 points)
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. D
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. D
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. A
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. D
II.
(5 points)
1. industrial  industrialized
2. near  neared
3. once had once
4. in their vast  in vast
5. C
5. D
5. A
5. C
10. A
15. A
20. B
5. would  will/ will have
6. alarmed  alarming
7. resources  sources
8. impersonal  personal
9. contributed  contributing
10. acted  enacted
III. (5 points)
1. up
2. under
6. by
7. with
11. away with 12. down
16. at
17. to
IV. (5 points)
1. was being
3. having been treated
5. was wondering
7. would have thought
9. have been meaning
11. has arrived
13. constructed
15. have gradually eroded
17. making
19. have been brought
V. (5 points)
1. amusements
3. existence
5. imperfect
7. cleanliness
9. conductive
VI. (5 points)
1. On the other hand
3. As a result
5. What’s more
7. To make matters worse
9. To tell the truth
3. on
8. out of
13. aside
18. up
4. to
9. up
14. out
19. down
5. off
10. off
15. to
20. out
2. to witness
4. must have been imagining
6. would come
8. was treated OR would have been treated
10. repaired
12. has been given
14. is sinking
16. are assaulting
18. to avoid
20. expected
2. adoration
4. romanticism
6. conjointly
8. Simplicity
10. favourable
2. At least
4. Nevertheless
6. However
8. As opposed to
10. Whereas
D. READING (30 points)
I. (7.5 points)
1. B
2. A
6. C
7. B
11. D
12. B
II. (7.5 points)
1. field
2. Other
6. itself
7. reach
11. few
12. therefore
III. (5 points)
1. C
2. C
6. C
7. D
IV. (10 points)
1. A – vi
3. C – viii
5. E – iv
7. thousands of years
9. overseas museums
3. D
8. B
13. D
4. D
9. A
14. A
3. criteria
8. less
13. what
4. pressure 5. out
9. for
10. Known
14. represents 15. within
3. B
8. A
4. D
9. C
5. B
10. B
2. B – v
4. D – i
6. F – vii
8. (tree) bark
10. school walls
E. WRITING (20 points)
I. (5 points)
1. cast an eye over these figures
2. wants to distance herself from the scandal
3. is left to her own devices
4. keep a straight face
5. at the last moment I got/ had cold feet.
6. had been kept in the dark
7. under the weather
8. time is on our side
9. went into liquidation after failing
10. didn’t take to the new boss
II. (15 points)
TOTAL: 100 points
5. A
10. C
15. C
Section 1:
AUDIOSCRIPT WITH ANSWERS UNDERLINED
Section 2:
TRõêNG THPT CHUY£N H¹LONG
TØNH QU¶NG NINH
§Ò THI ĐỀ XUẤT CHäN HäC SINH GIáI
DUY£N H¶I B¾C Bé 2014
M¤N THI: TIÕNG ANH -LíP 10
Thêi gian: 180 phót
PART 1: LISTENING (15 points)
SECTION 1 Questions 1 -4 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer.
Prepare for the interview
What to do
How to do it
Step 1:
Gather all documents, e.g. copies of résumé.
Prepare things to take.
Choose (1). ..........................................., e.g. designs, drawings,
written work.
Step 2:
Check you have pen and paper.
Get more information.
Ask firm for a (2)..............................................
See profiles at Chamber of Commerce, library.
Step 3:
Contact (3)................................................ of this or related firms.
Focus on you and the job
Compare yourself with what is required.
Imagine likely questions and your answers.
Decide how to make up for any (4)...................................................
you lack
Questions 5 – 10 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer.
At the interview
Arrive no more than (5)................................................. before the time of the interiew.
After you hear the question, you can (6).............................................before you reply.
You can (7)................................................. if you don’t understand what they’re asking you.
Wait for them to offer you the job before you say what (8)............................................you want.
Learning from the experience will make you more (9)........................................... in future interviews.
Pay attention to your (10).............................................. – it shows you have a positive attitude.
SECTION 2
You will hear people talking in eight situations. For questions 1-8, choose the best answer, (A, B, or C).
1. You hear a woman on the radio talking about a politician. What is her opinion of the politician?
A. He can be trusted.
B. He keeps changing his mind.
1
C. He is not like other politicians.
2. You hear a woman talking about a song. What does she say about the song?
A. The performer didn’t write it.
B. It has been recorded by lots of other performers.
C. It deserves to be more popular.
3. You hear two characters talking in a radio play. Where are they?
A. In a hotel
B. At home
C. At an airport
4. You hear a writer talking on the radio about criticism. What is his attitude to criticism?
A. He rarely pays attention to it.
B. He thinks about it.
C. He gets upset by it.
5. You hear someone talking about learning to play a musical instrument. What is her main point?
A. Everyone should learn an instrument.
B. Some instruments are harder to learn than others.
C. She wishes she could play an instrument.
PART II. PHONOLOGY
A. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.(2.5 points)
1. A.ecotourism
2. A.sidle
3. A. chlorophyll
4. A.cursed
5. A. accredit
B. olive
B.thigh
B. chloride
B.ragged
B.salamander
C. omelet
C.expertise
C.lichen
C.crooked
C.majesty
D.toddle
D.umpire
D.chaperone
D.accoutered
D.saliva
B. Stress: Choose the word whoses tress pattern is different from that of the others. (2.5 points)
6. A.contribute
7. A.reservoir
8. A.gasometer
9. A.introduce
10.A.European
B.tsunami
B.painstaking
B.agriculture
B.Japanese
B.pneumonia
C.tornado
C.quinquina
C.nostalgic
C.technological
C.Aborigine
D.category
D.camera
D.enthronement
D.photography
D.ingenuity
PART III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences. (5 points)
1. Something’s_____________up, so I’m afraid I won’t be able to make it this afternoon.
A. shown
B. pulled
C. cropped
D. cut
2. Could you close the window? There is a bit of a _____.
A. current
B. wind
C. draught
D. breeze
3. Thousands of steel _____ were used as the framework of the new office block.
A. beams
B. girders
C. stakes
D. piles
4. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only _____ the hot, humid air.
A. stirred up
B. poured through
C. turned into
D. cut back
5. He set one alarm-clock for five o’clock and the other for five past so as to _____ that he did not
oversleep.
A. assure
B. ensure
C. insure
D. reassure
2
6. When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the _____.
A. nut
B. stone
C. seed
D. core
7. It was only _____ he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the same school .
A. then
B. until
C. as soon as
D. when
8. He got an excellent grade in his examination _____ the fact that he had not worked particularly hard .
A. on account of
B. because
C. in spite of
D. although
9. Their eventual choice of house was _____ by the time Peter would take to get to the office.
A. related
B. consequent
C. determined
D. dependent
10. It turned out that we ______ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours .
A. hadn’t
B. should have
C. mustn’t
D. needn’t have
11. The coastguard boarded the ship and found__________
A. four injured alive men
B. alive four men injured
C. four injured men alive
D. injured four alive men
12. The police are __________________ certain who the culprit is.
A. in some ways B. more or less
C. here and there D. by and by
13. Women’s participation _______________ in the workforce was lower in the countries which had lessdeveloped economies.
A. scale
B. speed
C. velocity
D. rate
14. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no _____________ improvement in her
condition.
A. decipherable
B. legible
C. discernible
D. intelligible
15. I’ve been doing my best to reduce the backlog but I must admit that I’ve hardly put _____________ in
the problem so far.
A. a dent
B. a foot
C. a brave face
D. damper
16. From time to time he __________________himself to a weekend in a five-star hotel.
A. craves
B. indulges
C. treats
D. benefits
17. Men still expect their jobs to take _________.
A. superiority
B. imposition
C. priority
D. seniority
18. According to a recent survey, most people are on good _________________ with their neighbours.
A. terms
B. relations
C. relationships
D. acquaintance
19. I didn’t____________out to be a millionaire, I just wanted to run a successful business.
A. set
B. go
C. begin
D. watch
20. I’m___________my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious
B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious than
D. nowhere near as ambitious as
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (5 points)
Is London motorist in total despair? Not yet. Fewer commuting cars (1) __________ (may come) in,
but there are 2.3 million cars (2) __________ (register) in the city, and there is no evidence that numbers (3)
__________ (fall). In 1991 half the households (4) ___________ (have) cars with more than nine percent
(5) ____________ (have) two or more. Even in central London, where car-owning conditions ( 6)
____________ (be) hardly the most attractive, 46 percent of households (7) ___________ (have) a car and
10 percent (8) __________ (have) two or more. So even if the London motorist (9) ____________ (use) the
car a bit less, that car  and increasingly a second car  still (10) ___________ (use) outside. And for all
the problems of (11) ___________ (drive) around and parking in London, the car still (12) ___________
(can be) good news for the traveler. The very latest statistics from the Department of Transport (13)
__________ (base) on door-to-door travel times for a sample of identical journeys actually (14)
___________ (make) by London residents within the last twelve months. They (15) __________ (reveal) the
following average total times in minutes: by car, 40; by rail/tube, 43; by bus, 58, and by bicycle, 37. These
calculations (16) __________ (take) into account the time (17) ___________ (need) to park and walk, and
3
the time (18) __________ (spend) by bus and rail/tube travelers (19) ___________ (wait) for their transport.
Nearly three-quarters of the rail/tube journey time (20) _____________ (take up) by waiting. Car travelers
on the same route spent one third of their standing time.
III. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the gap in the
same line. (5 points)
THE HIDDEN FACE OF BEAUTY
Cleopatra was not beautiful, at least according to her (1)_____ on coins. But she was loved by very (2)
_____ men, like Caesar and Anthony. The (3) _____ of beauty is similar everywhere. For example, many
people think Sharon Stone is an (4) _____ woman. Males can (5) _____ handsome men and lovely women.
We don't learn this (6) _____, but we're born with it.
We also believe that good-looking people are more (7) _____, competent and intelligent. It is an
extremely (8) _____ form of stereotyping.
However, in one (9) _____ experiment, researchers brought a group of (10) _____ together for an hour a
day. Happily, after four days, factors such as friendship had become more important than looks.
1. PORTRAYAL
2. POWER
3. APPRECIATE
4. ATTRACT
5. IDENTITY
______________
______________
______________
______________
______________
6. RESPOND ______________
7. LIKE
______________
8. PLEASANT ______________
9. REMARK
______________
10. STRANGE
______________
IV. A.Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial particles. (2.5 points)
1.) The new law on dropping litter comes ______________ force next month.
2)Ann was released from prison and now she is _____________probation.
3) Local students have been banned ________________taking part in the demonstration.
4) Local people have called for an investigation___________________ the causes of the fire.
5) Football fans went____________________ the rampage in the centre of Norwich last night.
6) She claimed that the selling of habit-forming drugs was getting______________________ control.
7) The car left the road and crashed_______________________ a tree.
8) Several guests at the hotel were robbed____________________________ jewellery and money.
9) David, 19, has been sleeping _________________a park bench for the past six months.
10) The police have charged her _________________________driving without due care and attention.
B. Fill the gaps, using the phrasal verbs given, there are two extra ones: (2.5 points)
get at
get out of
get across
get round to
get around
get through
get by
get together
get down
get on
get off
get on with
1. Please ________________ your work, I didn’t mean to interrupt you.
2. I hope I’ll be able to ________________ answering the letters this evening.
3. They managed to ________________ doing the work by pretending to be busy.
4. This dull weather is so depressing, it’s _________ me _________.
5. However difficult a problem is, there’s usually a way to _________________ it.
6. You don’t need two hot meals a day. I’m sure you can ________________ on one.
7. _________________ the bus when you get to the railway station.
8. How are you _________________ with this exercise?
9. I’ve tried ringing her several times but I haven’t been able to _________________.
10. They decided to _________________ later in the week for an informal meeting.
4
V. The following passage contains ten errors. Find and correct them. (5 points)
Things started to go wrongly as soon as we got to the hotel. We were all completely exhausting after our
long journey and looking forward to a shower and a rest. However, we found that our room was not ready,
which was very annoyed, although the manager was extremely apologizing. While we were waiting, we
asked about the excursions to places of an interest which we have read about in the brochure. Imagine how
we felt when we were told they had all been cancelled! Apparently, the person responsible of organizing
them had left suddenly and had not been replaced. Then Sally saw a notice pinning to the door of the
restaurant, said it was closed for redecoration, and Peter discovered that the swimming pool was empty.
When we eventually got to our room we were horrified to find that it was at the back of the hotel, and we
had a view of a car park, that seemed to be used as a rubbish dump. We seriously began to wonder whether
or not to stay.
1.
....................................
6. ....................................
2.
....................................
7. ....................................
3.
....................................
8. ....................................
4.
....................................
9. ....................................
5.
....................................
10....................................
VI. Find 10 common collocations or fixed phrases by completing each space in the text with an
appropriate word from the box. (5 points)
sheltered
follow
live up to
spoilt
hit it off
commitment
pressure
rebelled
pushy
interests
domineering
I guess I was what one might call a (0)
...spoilt
child, for I was the only child of Mary
and David Bettleman and I got whatever I wanted. I had a rather weak-minded mother and by contrast a very
(1)_____________ father who had exceedingly high expectations of me, expectations that I could
not___________ (2). You see, my father was quite an eminent lawyer and wanted nothing more than for
me to (3) _______ in his footsteps. He encouraged me to win at everything and to be ultra-competitive. He
just couldn't see that he was being far too (4) ____________and putting too much (5) ___________
on me. He simply thought that he was acting in my best (6) _____________ . Not surprisingly, perhaps, I
___________ (7) against my upbringing by becoming thoroughly apathetic at school. As soon as I turned 18,
I struck out on my own and went off on a trip to India. It was there that I met Ingrid, a fellow traveller. It
became clear that we came from very similar backgrounds. She too was running away from something: in
her case a very (8)_______________ upbringing, caused by having two very over-protective parents. We
(9)______________immediately, and I plucked up courage and asked her to be my girlfriend. But I was
young and I needed space, and I guess I was too immature to handle the give and take of a relationship. Or
perhaps I was just afraid of (10)______________Anyway, we went through a very bad patch and had a trial
separation for a couple of months.
PART IV. READING
I.Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word to complete the passage below. (7.5 points)
Different challenges, different solutions.
Rural America is diverse in many ways. As we have seen, no one industry dominates the rural economy,
no single pattern of population decline or growth (1)…………. for all rural areas, and no statement about
improvements and gaps in well-being (2) …………. true for all rural people.
Many of these differences are regional in nature. That is, rural areas (3) …………. a particular
geographic region of the country often tend to be similar to each other and different from areas in (4)
…………. region. Some industries, for example, are associated with different regions logging and sawmills
5
in the Pacific Northwest and New England, manufacturing in the Southeast and Midwest, and farming in the
Great Plains. Persistent (5) …………. also has a regional pattern, concentrated (6) …………. in the
Southeast. Other differences (7) …………. no regional pattern. Areas that rely heavily on the services
industry are (8) …………. throughout rural America, as are rural areas that have little access to advanced
telecommunications services. Many of these differences regional and nonregional are the result of a (9)
…………. of factors including the availability of natural resources; (10) …………. from and access to major
metropolitan areas and the information and services found there; transportation and shipping facilities;
political history and structure; and the racial, ethnic, and cultural (11) …………. of the population.
To explain some of these differences, the (12) …………. of this report examines six types of nonmetro
counties. These types were chosen because of their importance to the rural economy and/or rural
development (13) ………….. Three of the county types farming counties, manufacturing counties, and
services counties are based on economic (14) …………. and are mutually exclusive. That is, the types are
defined by a county's economic dependence on a particular industry. The other three types retirementdestination counties, Federal lands counties, and persistent poverty counties are based on their special (15)
…………. to policy and are not mutually exclusive. Population shifts and the use of natural resources,
ownership of land and its effects on rural people and communities, and the issues associated with lowincome people are all themes that merit special attention.
1. A. exists
B. lives
C. improves
D. develops
2. A. keeps
B. carries
C. holds
D. reaches
3. A. at
B. of
C. within
D. from
4. A. the other
B. another
C. other
D. a
5. A. misery
B. famine
C. starvation
D. poverty
6. A. primarily
B. essentially
C. nearly
D. necessarily
7. A. run
B. take
C. keep
D. follow
8. A. located
B. held
C. placed
D. kept
9. A. connection
B. combination
C. relation
D. mixture
10. A. away
B. far
C. distance
D. apart
11. A. makeup
B. setup
C. holdup
D. checkup
12. A. last
B. whole
C. entire
D. rest
13. A. way
B. rule
C. policy
D. method
14. A. organization
B. specialization
C. foundation
D. modernization
15. A. suitability
B. relevance
C. importance
D. development
II. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. There is an example at the
beginning (0). (7.5 points)
SKATEBOARD DAD
Some sports of activities have traditionally been connected (0) …with…. young people, even though
(1)………………. isn’t always clear why. Skateboarders, for instance, are expected to (2) ……………….
teenagers wearing clothes four sizes too big for them. When you come to think of it, there’s (3)
………………. practical reason why people over the age of 21 shouldn’t take (4) ………………. the sport.
Skateboarding involves a certain amount of falling off the board, (5) ………………. can of course be
painful, but this also applies to other sports like skiing or surfing. Sports should not be restricted (6)
………………. teenagers. There is (7) ………………. wrong with a grown- up gliding down the road on his
or her board?
(8) ………………. the same time, I must confess that I felt a certain sympathy for my niece Emily, when her
father, (9) ………………. older brother Tom, announced that he was going skateboarding with her. (10)
………………. the age of 14 you are very conscious of (11) ………………. other people think of you. She
knew all her friends would laugh (12) ………………. her if she arrived for the regular Saturday morning
skateboarding sessions in the local park with her dad.
6
Emily felt (13) ………………. embarrassment would be more than she could bear, so she kindly asked her
father (14) ………………. he could go skateboarding somewhere else. Tom realized how embarrassed
Emily must have felt and (15)……………out laughing.
III. Choose from the list A- I the most suitable heading for each part (1-8) of the article. (10 points)
F. A growing market
A. They don’t live up to their expectations
G. Not a passive viewer
B. Simply not the same
H. The power of effects
C. Heroes and villains
I. Using the same setting
D. Hidden information
E. How to attract video gamers
Films and Videogames
1—.In just a few decades the videogame industry has become a lot bigger than the film business. In terms of
turnover, what is rather grandly ‘interactive entertainment’ makes twice as much money as Hollywood
cinema. Which of course leaves people in the film business wondering if they can harvest any of this new
income. Is there any way of making films more appealing to people who play videogames?
2------. Making a film out of a best-selling videogame can certainly guarantee a large audience. The success
lies in the use of special effects. New videogames have stunning action sequences that rely on fantasy
effects, and now films are being released with similar scenes. Gravity is discarded as heroes leap across huge
gaps, while slow motion techniques show bullets moving through the rippling air.
3-------. A major segment of the videogame market comprises science fiction games and film makers have
started t realize that they could set films in similar sci-fi future worlds. But the difficulty for the procedures
of Hollywood appears to be knowing where and when to stop. Any attempt to borrow more than the setting
from a videogame is probably doomed.
4-------.. There are many examples of successful film videogame combinations. Rather than making a film
using characters and stories from a videogame, the trick seems to be to make a film that has a fast moving
action sequence and then bring out a videogame bases on that sequence. People who enjoyed the film will
probably want to buy the videogame. This clearly creates a new market opportunity for the videogame
industry.
5-------.. Why do game players fell disappointed by films based on their favourite games? One reason is
technical. Videogames can show the action from a number of perspectives easily, because everything is
computer generated. But filming a sequence from twenty different cameras would cost a fortune, so it simply
isn’t feeling that the film didn’t look as real as the videogame.
6-------.. Cameras matter in another sense, too. In a film the director shows you the action from certain
perspectives but makes sure he doesn’t show you some things to keep you in suspense. Think of your
favourite thriller. You wouldn’t be interested in watching the film if you knew the identity of the murderer,
for instance. In films you are not supposed to have access to all the information. Suspense and mystery are
essential elements of film making.
7-------.. This is not true for videogames. When you play a game, you have to do certain tasks to proceed to
the next level. Therefore, you must be able to see everything in order to make your choices, to decide what
to do next : which door to open, and son on. You must have access to all the information. You, as the player,
are always in control. In the cinema you never control the action. You just sit and watch.
8-------.. There can be some interaction between films and videogames on a number of different levels, but in
the end they fulfill different needs. We go to the cinema to let someone else tell us a story, knowing we can’t
7
influence what happens at all. For all the similarities between technologies and special effects, we shouldn’t
forget that a story and a game are fundamentally different.
IV. Read the following passage and circle A, B, C, or (5 points)
Line
Perhaps the most striking quality of satiric literature is its freshness, its originality of perspective.
Satire rarely offers original ideas. Instead, it presents the familiar in a new form. Satirists do not offer
the world new philosophies. What they do is look at familiar conditions from a perspective that
makes these conditions seem foolish, harmful, or affected. Satire jars us out of complacence into a
5 pleasantly shocked realization that many of the values we unquestioningly accept are false. Don
Quixote makes chivalry seem absurd; Brave New World ridicules the pretensions of science; A
Modest Proposal dramatizes starvation by advocating cannibalism. None of these ideas is original.
Chivalry was suspect before Cervantes, humanists objected to the claims of pure science before
Aldous Huxley, and people were aware of famine before Swift. It was not the originality of the idea
10 that made these satires popular. It was the manner of expression, the satiric method, that made them
interesting and entertaining.
Satires are read because they are aesthetically satisfying works of art, not because they are
morally wholesome or ethically instructive. They are stimulating and refreshing because with
commonsense briskness they brush away illusions and secondhand opinions. With spontaneous
15 irreverence, satire rearranges perspectives, scrambles familiar objects into incongruous juxtaposition,
and speaks in a personal idiom instead of abstract platitude. Satire exists because there is need for it.
It has lived because readers appreciate a refreshing stimulus, an irreverent reminder that they live in
a world of platitudinous thinking, cheap moralizing, and foolish philosophy. Satire serves to prod
people into an awareness of truth, though rarely to any action on behalf of truth. Satire tends
to remind people that much of what they see, hear, and read in popular media is sanctimonious,
sentimental, and only partially true. Life resembles in only a slight degree the popular image of it.
Soldiers rarely hold the ideals that movies attribute to them, nor do ordinary citizens devote their
lives to unselfish service of humanity. Intelligent people know these things but tend to forget them
when they do not hear.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Difficulties of writing satiric literature
B. Popular topics of satire
C. New philosophies emerging from satiric literature D. Reasons for the popularity of satire
Question 2. The word "realization" is closest in meaning to_______.
A. certainty
B. awareness C. surprise
D. confusion
Question 3 . Why does the author mention Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal?
A. They are famous examples of satiric literature.
B. They present commonsense solutions to problems.
C. They are appropriate for readers of all ages.
D. They are books with similar stories.
Question 4. The word "aesthetically" is closest in meaning to_______.
A. artistically B. exceptionally
C. realistically
D. dependably
Question 5. Which of the following can be found in satiric literature?
A. Newly emerging philosophies
B. Odd combinations of objects and ideas
C. Abstract discussion of morals and ethics D. Wholesome characters who are unselfish
Question 6 According to the passage, there is a need for satire because people need to be_______.
A. informed about new scientific developments
B. exposed to original philosophies when they are formulated
C. reminded that popular ideas are often inaccurate
D. told how they can be of service to their communities
Question 7. The word "refreshing" is closest in meaning to_______.
A. popular
B. ridiculous C. meaningful
D. unusual
Question 8. The word "they" refers to_______.
8
A. people
B. media
C. ideals
D. movies
Question 9. The word "devote" is closest in meaning to_______.
A. distinguish
B. feel affection
C. prefer
D. dedicate
Question 10. The various purposes of satire include all of the following EXCEPT_______.
A. introducing readers to unfamiliar situations
B. brushing away illusions
C. reminding readers of the truth
D. exposing false values
PART V: WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (2.5 points)
1. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
Urgent _______________________________________________________________________
2. We’ve been trying to sell our house for well over six months.
Our house ____________________________________________________________________
3. In order to make a profit the new leisure centre needs at least 2000 visitors a month.
No fewer _____________________________________________________________________
4. What Anna hates most about these school reunions is posing for photos.
There is nothing _______________________________________________
5. The collision didn’t damage his car much.
Not a great ________________________________________________________________________ .
II. Use the word in the brackets to write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
one. Don't change the form of the given words. (2.5 points)
1. I’ve considered the advantages and disadvantages and I’ve decided not to go. (weighed)
………………………………………………………………………………...
2. Considering that she’s only just started, she’s doing very well. (bearing)
……………………………………………………………………………………
3. When I agreed to do this, I didn’t think that it would be so expensive. (bargain)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Let me give you a clue to help you remember. (jog)
………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Although I don’t speak Italian very well, I understood the general meaning of what she said. (drift)
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
III. Write a paragraph of about 150 words about the negative effects of Facebook on students.
(15 points)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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THE END
10
ANSWER KEY:
PART I: LISTENING
SECTION 1
Questions 1 -4
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
1. work samples
2. job description
3. employees
4. experience or skills
Questions 5 – 10
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
5. ten minutes
6. take your time
7. ask for clarification
8. salary
9. confident
10. appearance
SECTION 2
You will hear people talking in eight situations. For questions 1-8, choose the best answer, (A, B, or C).
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
B
A
B
B
C
PART II. PHONOLOGY
A.
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. C
7. C
8. B
9. D
10.B
B.
6. D
PART III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences.
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. A
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. C
11. C
12. B
13. D
14. C
16C
17C
18A
19A
II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets.
1. may be coming
11. driving
2. registered
12. can still be
3. are falling
13. are based
4. had
14. made
5. having
15. reveal
5. B
10. D
15. A
20D
11
6. are
16. took
7. had
17. needed
8. had
18. spent
9. is using
19. waiting
10. is still being used
20. was taken up
III. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the gap in the
same line.
1. portrait
2. powerful
3. appreciation
4. attractive
5. identify
6. responsively
7. likeable/ likable
8. pleasing
9. remarkable
10. strangers
IV. A. Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial particles.
1. into
2. On
3.From
4. Into
5. On
6.out of
7. Into
8.of
9. On
10.with
B. Fill the gaps, using the phrasal verbs given, there are two extra ones:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
get on with
get round to
get out of
getting … down
get around
6. get by
7. get off
8. getting on
9. get through
10. get together
V. The following passage contains ten errors. Find and correct them.
1. wronglywrong
6. have readhad read
2. exhausting exhausted
7. of for
3. annoyed annoying
8. pinningpinned
4. apologizingapologetic
9. saidsaying
5. places of an interestplaces of interest
10. that  which
VI .Find 10 common collocations or fixed phrases by completing each space in the text with an
appropriate word from the box.
1. Domineering
2. Live up to 3. Follow
4. Pushy
5. Pressure
6. Interests
7. rebelled
8. Sheltered 9. Hit it off 10. commitment
Part IV: READING
1.
1. A
6. A
11. A
2. C
7. D
12. D
3. C
8. A
13. C
4. B
9. B
14. B
5. D
10. C
15. B
2.
1. it
6. to
11. what
2. be
7. nothing
12. at
3. no
8. At
13. the
4. up
9. my
14. if
5. which
10. at
15. burst
3.
1- E
2- H
3- I
4- F
5- A
6-D
7- G
8- B
12
4: 1D 2B
3A
4A
5B
6C
7D
8A
9D
10B
Part V: Writing:
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.
1. Urgent action is/ measures are necessary/ essential/ steps/ action must be taken if the problem is to be
solved./to solve the problem.
2. Our house has been on the market/ (up) for sale for well over 6 months.
3. No fewer than 2.000 visitors/ people a month / must visit
use the new leisure centre
are needed by the new leisure centreto make a profit.
4. There is nothing Ann hates more about these school reunions than posing for photos.
5. Not a great deal / amount of damage was done ( caused) to his car ( in) by the collision
II. Use the word in the brackets to write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
one. Don't change the form of the given words.
1. I’ve weighed up the pros and cons and I’ve decided not to go.
2. Bearing in mind that she’s only just started, she’s doing very well
3. When I agreed to do this, I didn’t bargain for it being so expensive.
4. Let me jog your memory.
5. Although I don’t speak Italian very well, I got her drift.
III. PARAGRAPH
LISTENING TRANSCRIPT
QUESTIONS 1-4: SCRIPT
PRESENTER: Today I have with me Sandy Richardson of the local Workforce Center, and she’ll be
talking about that critical step towards the goal of employment: the interview. Sandy, what is an
interview for, and what’s the best way to approach it?
SANDY: A job interview is simply a meeting between you and a potential employer to discuss your
qualifications and see if there is a ‘fit’. The employer wants to verify what they know about you and talk
about your qualifications. If you have been called for an interview, you can assume that the employer is
interested in you. The employer has a need that you may be able to meet, so it’s your goal identify that
need and convince the employer that you’re the one for the job. As everyone knows, interviews can be
stressful, but when you’re well prepared there’s no reason to panic. Preparation is the key to success in a
job search, and you can begin by collecting together all the documents you may need for the interview,
such as extra copies of your resumé, lists of references, and letters of recommendation. You could also
take some work samples, selecting from what you have designed, drawn or written, for instance. And
make sure you have a pen and pad of paper for taking notes. The next step is to find out about the post.
The more you know about the job, the employer and the industry, the better prepared you will be to
target your qualifications. Always request a job description from the employer, and research employer
profiles at Chamber of Commerce or local library. You could also try to network with people who work
for the company, or with employees of companies associated with it. The next step is to match your
qualifications to the requirements of the job. A good approach is to write out your qualifications along
with the job reuirements. Think about some standard interview questions and how you might respond.
Most questions are designed to find out more about you, your qualifications, or to test your reactions in a
13
given situation. If you don’t have any experience or skills in a required area, think about how you might
compensate for those deficiencies.
QUESTION 5-10: SCRIPT
SANDY: During an interview it’s important that you be yourself. Get a good night’s sleep and plan your
travel to be there in plenty of time, so that you’re not arriving up of breath with 30 seconds to spare.
Don’t, though, present yourself for the interview too early: ten minutes at most. In the interview, listen
carefully to each question asked. Take your time in responding and make sure your answers are positive.
It’s important to express a good attitude and show that you are willing to work, eager t learn and are
flexible. If you are unsure of a question, don’t be afraid to ask for clarification. In fact, it’s sometimes a
good strategy is to close a response with a question for the interviewer. In general, focus on your
qualifications and look for opportunities to personalize the interview. Briefly answer questions with
examples of how you responded in comparable situations, from either your life or previous job
experiences. Something you should avoid are ‘yes’ or ‘no’ responses to questions, but don’t dwell too
long on non-job related topics. Use caution if you are questioned about your salary requirements. The
best strategy is to avoid the question have been offered a job. Questions about salary asked before there
is a job offer are usually screening questions that may eliminate you from consideration, so be warned.
On the other hand, it isn’t inappropriate to show your enthusiasm if your first impressions of the
interview and of the employer are good ones, so, if the job sounds like what you are looking for – say so.
Keep in mind that the interview is not over when you are asked if you have any questions. Come
prepared to ask a couple of specific questions that again show your knowledge and interest in the job.
Close the interview in the same friendly, positive manner in which you started. When the interview is
over, leave promptly. Don’t overstay your time. Think about the interview and learn from the experience.
Evaluate the success and failures. The more you learn from the interview, the easier the next one will
become. You’ll become much more confident. To close, here are a few more tips. First, maintain good
eye contact throughout the interview, and be aware of nonverbal body language. Secondly, dress a step
above what you would wear on the job, go to the hairdresser’s, have a shave, et cetera. Remember that
your appearance is a key indicator of whether you have the right attitude, so it can pay to give some
thought to how you look. And, finally, don’t be a clock watcher!
SECTION 3
Extract 1:
Well, I read about that speech he gave yesterday about the state of the country and I thought he had a point. I
was quite surprised to find that I agreed with a lot of what he was saying, because I haven’t been very
impressed by him in the past. But they’re all the same really, aren’t they? They just say what they think
people want to hear. He’ll probably be saying something different in a few weeks if that seems like the right
thing to do. It’s hard to know what he’d really do if people voted for him because he seems’ to have a
different opinion every time he makes a speech.
Extract 2:
Oh I really like that song. I guess it’s the one that most people associate him with, because it was such a big
hit. I think he’s written lots of great songs, but in fact that’s not one of his own. Most people don’t know
that, because so many of his songs have been done by other people and he’s considered to be a really good
songwriter. It’s a shame some of those songs aren’t as well-known – they’re just as good, if not better.
Extract 3:
Man: Wow, that was some journey!
Woman: Yeah, I thought we’d never get here. All those delays!
Man: Well, it’s nice to be back. Travelling’s great but I always like the bit when I’m back surrounded by all
the familiar things.
Woman: Mmm, well, it’s not quite as luxurious as the room we’ve been in for the past fortnight!
Man: No! And all that time not having to cook our own meals was great.
Woman: Yes, well, it’s over now. Back to reality Come on, let’s get the bags sorted out.
Extract 4:
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Criticism? Well, you certainly get plenty of it in my game! The key is not to be too sensitive to it. Even if I
get a really negative review, I never let it get me down. That’s not say that I never read reviews of my work.
Lots of people say they never do, but I don’t believe them. No I tend to see if there’s anything I can learn
from it, work out whether the reviewer’s got a point about something I’ve written that I haven’t noticed. If
that’s the case, I take it on board. If not, I dismiss it as a load of rubbish.
Extract 5:
Yes, when I see people playing really well, it fills me with envy. It must be fantastic to be able to do that. I
had a few piano lessons years ago, but I couldn’t get anywhere with it, so I just gave up. And I tried learning
the guitar too, I thought that might be easier, but in fact the opposite was true and I was even worse at that.
It’s a shame. These days there are so many chances to learn, so many books on the market and so many
teachers offering lessons, but I guess it’s just not for me. It’s a real regret though, because I look at other
people and think “If only I’d kept having those lessons, I might be able to play like that.
15
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
(Đề thi gồm 14 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN
THỨ VII
NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014
ĐỀ THI MÔN: ANH VĂN - KHỐI 10
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
I. LISTENING:
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây,
mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
- Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài nghe.
- Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: For questions 1 – 5, listen to a radio interview with Mahesh Gupta, tabla player
and DJ about his music and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false
(F). Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Mahesh thinks that the two styles of music he plays are completely different.
2. According to Mahesh, rhythm is something fundamental to all music.
3. Mahesh thinks that live music doesn’t work in clubs.
4. He thinks that it is too early to try Djing at a classical music concert.
5. Indian audiences are far more lively than Western ones.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: For questions 6 – 10, listen to a piece of news about an earthquake happening in
the UK and fill in the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
OR NUMBER taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces provided.
6. Something very unusual happened in the UK on ________________________ .
7. According to the report, there have been very small _______________________ in the
past but they pale into insignificance compared to this one.
8. A magnitude of 5.2 was registered on ________________________ .
9. During the earthquake, a man broke his pelvis when the _______________________
fell on him.
10. Very little structural damage to _______________________ was caused by the huge
rumble that was felt by a lot of people.
Part 3: For questions 11 – 15, you will hear Joanne describing her home city of Darwin
in Australia to a man called Rob who hopes to go there. Choose the best answer (A, B, or
1
C) according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes.
11. Joanne says that visitors to Darwin are often surprised by ____________ .
A. the casual atmosphere.
B. the range of cultures.
C. the number of young people.
12. To enjoy cultural activities, the people of Darwin tend to ____________ .
A. involve themselves in production.
B. travel to southern Australia.
C. bring in artists from other areas.
13. The Chinese temple in Darwin ____________ .
A. was rebuilt after its destruction in a storm.
B. is no longer used for its original purpose.
C. was demolished to make room for new buildings.
14. The main problem with traveling by bicycle is ____________ .
A. the traffic.
B. the hills.
C. the climate.
15. What does Joanne say about swimming in the sea?
A. Swimming is only safe during the winter.
B. You should stay in certain restricted areas.
C. It is essential to wear a protective suit.
Your answers:
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
II. PHONETICS:
Part 1: Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
1. A. contribute
2. A. diplomacy
3. A. telecommuting
4. A. coincident
5. A. Arabic
B. tornado
B. intimacy
B. notwithstanding
B. indicative
B. lunatic
C. category
C. peninsula
C. humanitarian
C. arithmetic
C. prolific
D. tsunami
D. pneumonia
D. nevertheless
D. prosperous
D. politic
Part 2: Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the rest.
1. A. conservation
B. consequential
C. conscientious
D. consideration
2. A. grandeur
B. individual
C. soldier
D. destiny
3. A. cleanliness
B. lead
C. healing
D. steady
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4. A. guiltless
5. A. oaths
B. unsuitable
B. wreaths
C. building
C. months
D. circuit
D. youths
III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY:
Part 1: Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
1. Andrew is a very disciplined employee. He ________ great importance to coming to
work in time.
A. affixes
B. attributes
C. admits
D. attaches
2. The scientists broke down as they realized that all their efforts had gone to ________ .
A. loss
B. failure
C. waste
D. collapse
3. After eating the apple, she threw the ________ into the bin.
A. core
B. remains
C. center
D. stone
4. Peter was the ________ force behind the company’s rapid expansion.
A. driving
B. leading
C. rising
D. managing
5. The tracker stalked the tiger for days but the animal ________ capture.
A. missed
B. eluded
C. jumped
D. slipped
6. The minister made no ________ of any further negotiations.
A. comment
B. mention
C. remark
D. indication
7. After years of working together, the partners found themselves ________ linked.
A. permanently
B. perpetually
C. inextricably
D. indelibly
8. It was difficult for the projector to ________ his voice to the back of the hall.
A. project
B. raise
C. shout
D. deliver
9. He was prepared to announce the news to all and ___________.
A. remainders
B. odds
C. sundry
D. select
10. He seems ___________ of any humour whatsoever.
A. lacking
B. devoid
C. light
D. low
11. If you are at a(n) ________ end, you could help me in the garden.
A. open
B. free
C. loose
D. empty
12. I must get to bed early tonight; I sat up till the ________ hours to finish that report.
A. late
B. small
C. last
D. deep
13. Being alone in the house all day looking after three young children is enough to make
anyone’s patience wear ________ .
A. thin
B. out
C. down
D. slim
14. He justified his harsh words on the grounds that they had been made in the ________
of the moment.
A. spur
B. heat
C. flash
D. height
15. After several hours on the road they became ________ to the fact that they would never
reach the hotel by nightfall.
A. dejected
B. resigned
C. depressed
D. disillusioned
3
16. The ________ of blood always makes him feel sick.
A. view
B. scene
C. form
D. sight
17. ________ is known about the side-effects of the new drug.
A. All but nothing
B. Next to nothing
C. Next to everything
D. Next to anything
18. Anna sat on the grass ________ an apple.
A. chewing
B. munching
C. grinding
D. sucking
19. People expect their representatives on the council to be ready and willing to ________
the important local issues.
A. address
B. criticize
C. target
D. hint
20. Check the bottle carefully to make sure they have not been ________ .
A. tampered with
B. touched up
C. broken into
D. taken out
Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the
correct words in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an
example.
We map cities by private benchmarks what are meaningful only
0. what → which
to us. The Greater London Council is responsible for a sprawl shaped
as a rugby ball about 25 miles long and 20 miles wide; my London is
1. _________________
a concise kidney-shaping patch within that space, in which none point
is more than about seven miles from any other. I hardly ever trespass
2. _________________
beyond those limits, and when I do I feel I'm in a foreign territory, a
landscape of hazardous and rumour. The constrictedness of this 3. _________________
privacy city-within-a-city has the character of a self-fulfilling
prophecy. It’s boundaries, originally arrived at by chance and usage, 4. _________________
grow more not less real the longer I live in London. I have friends
who lives in Clapham, only three miles off, but to visit them is a 5. _________________
definite journey, for it involves to cross the river. I can, though, drop
in on friends in Islington, twice as far away as Clapham, since it is in 6. _________________
what I feel to be my own territory. When I first came to London, I
moved about the city very more freely than I do now; I took the 7. _________________
liberties of a tourist and measured distances in miles rather than by
8. _________________
the relationship with the unknown. In Manhattan, on my first
afternoon in New York, I asked the man I'd lunched with for
9. _________________
directions to a part of downtown Brooklyn where I had to do a call.
He puzzled over my question and eventually needed to look at my 10. _________________
map; he had lived in New York for 25 years, and had last been to
Brooklyn, just over the bridge from his office, 12 years ago.
Part 3: Complete the following sentences with the correct prepositions.
4
1. He never told us he was Italian and that his real name was Franco. We all knew him
______________ the name of Eddie.
2. The president will be delivering a speech ______________ memory of the war victims
and the representatives from around the world will be laying wreaths at the tomb.
3. We are in ______________ a lot of trouble unless George manages to repair the radio
station.
4. This new record is growing _________ me.
5. My photos didn’t come _________ very well.
6. When I asked Jane, she hinted _________ the chance of a promotion for me.
7. On its first voyage, the Titanic met _________ disaster.
8. I don’t hold ______________ the idea of using force.
9. Well done! Keep ______________ the good work.
10. I put up with the problem for a while but in the end I had it ______________ with her.
11. They hit ______________ the solution quite by chance.
12. We’ll go out for a walk if the rain lets ________ .
13. I worked ________ a lot when I was younger but now I prefer easier exercise like
walking!
14. The weather seems to be looking ___________ .
15. The director went mad ___________ the couple who didn't come for the dress rehearsal
on Friday.
16. The escaped hostage found it hard to get used to a normal life after having been
deprived ___________ freedom for so many years.
17. The police arrived immediately after the call and caught the burglar __________ the
spot.
18. She may seem to be crazy about fashion, but she certainly knows what is __________
vogue.
19. The doctors don't give him much chance of surviving. In a word, his life is __________
the line.
20. I have been using her computer ever since she placed it __________ disposal.
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in
the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.
The Word 'Bogus'
For years 'bogus' was a word the British read in newspaper (0)
_______ (LINE) but tended not to say. Its popularity among the 0. headlines
teenagers of America changed that, although they didn't use it with its
original meaning. It came from the Wild West. Its first appearance in
print, in 1827, was in the Telegraph of Painesville, Ohio, where it
5
meant a machine for making (1) ________ (FORGE) of coins.
Soon, those 'boguses' were turning out 'bogus money' and the
word had (2) ________ (GO) a change from noun to adjective. By the
end of the 19th century, it was well-established in Britain, applied to
anything false, spurious or intentionally (3) ________ (LEAD). But the
computer scientists of 1960s America, to whom we owe so much (4)
________ (LANGUAGE) innovation, redefined it to mean 'nonfunctional', 'useless', or 'unbelievable', especially in relation to
calculations and engineering ideas. This was followed by its (5)
________ (EMERGE) among Princeton and Yale graduates in the East
Coast computer community. But it was the (6) ________ (ADOPT) of
the word by American teenagers generally, who used it to mean simply
'bad', that led to it being widely used by their counterparts in Britain.
(7) ________(INTEREST), 'bogus' is one of only about 1,300
English words for which no sensible origin has emerged. The 1827
'bogus' machine seems to have been named by an (8) ________
(LOOK) present at the time of its capture by police. But why that
word? The Oxford English Dictionary suggests a connection with a
New England word, 'tantrobogus', meaning the devil. A rival US
account sees it as a (9) ________ (CORRUPT) of the name of a forger,
called Borghese or Borges. (10) ________ (ELSE), it has been
connected with the French word 'bagasse', meaning the refuse from
sugar-cane production.
1. _______________
2. _______________
3. ________________
4._________________
5. ________________
6. ________________
7. ________________
8. ________________
9. ________________
10. _______________
Part 5: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets.
a. A pair of birds (build) (1) …………….. a nest in the porch since last week. I (watch) (2)
……………. them from my window since they began.
b. It is vital that no one else (know) (3) ………………. about the secret government
operation.
c. After (deliver) (4) …………………. of a healthy baby boy, Catherine was taken to the
recovery room.
d. From the day five years ago when they (marry) (5) …………….. until today, Tom has
relied on his wife (do) (6) …………… everything in the house and she (never fail) (7)
…………. (give) (8) ……..……. him the easiest home life a man could have.
e. It was our fault to keep you waiting so long. We (inform) (9) ……………. you in
advance.
f. It seems strange to be standing here, (look) (10) …………….. out at Sydney Harbor.
g. Mr. John prefers that his boss (speak) (11) ……….…….with him personally.
6
h. Last year we (visit) (12) ……………….. the White House. I was very disappointed.
Next time we (apply) (13) ……………… early for a pass.
i. The cheese looks as if rats (nibble) (14) ……………… it.
j. All things (consider) (15) ……………… , it served him right.
k. A flower pot fell off the balcony on to the head of a man who was standing below. It
was most unfortunate that he happened to be standing just there. If he (stand) (16)
……………… a foot to the right or left, he ( unharm) (17) ……………….. .
l. He talks as if he (do) (18) …………….. all the work himself, but in fact Tom and I did
most of it.
m. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on (become) (19)………………. Prime
Minister.
n. I (mean) (20) ……………….. to have a talk with you about a problem that I have
known about for a long time.
Part 6: Read the following text and choose from the list A-G the best phrase to fill each
of the blanks. Write your answers in the spaces below. There are two extra phrases or
sentences.
Many of the most damaging and life-threatening types of weather - torrential rains,
severe thunderstorms, and tornadoes - begin quickly, strike suddenly, and dissipate rapidly,
devastating small regions while leaving neighboring areas untouched. (1)_____. Total
damages from the tornado exceeded $ 250 million, the highest ever for any Canadian
storm. (2)_____, because the available weather data are generally not detailed enough to
allow computers to discern the subtle atmospheric changes that precede these storms. In
most nations, for example, weather balloon observations are taken just once every twelve
hours at locations typically separated by hundreds of miles. (3)_____.
Until recently, the observation-intensive approach needed for accurate, very shortrange forecasts, or "Nowcasts", was not feasible. The cost of equipping and operating
many thousands of conventional weather stations was prohibitively high, and the
difficulties involved in rapidly collecting and processing the raw weather data from such a
network were insurmountable. Fortunately, scientific and technological advances have
overcome most of these problems. (4) ______. Communications satellites can transmit data
around the world cheaply and instantaneously, and modern computers can quickly compile
and analyze this large volume of weather information. Meteorologists and computer
scientists now work together to design computer programs and video equipment capable of
transforming raw weather data into words, symbols, and vivid graphic displays that
forecasters can interpret easily and quickly. (5) _______ .
7
A. With such limited data, conventional forecasting models do a much better job
predicting general weather conditions over large regions than they do forecasting
specific local events
B. Scientists at Columbia University and the National Center for Atmospheric Research
have adapted techniques used in modern weather prediction to generate local forecasts
of seasonal influenza outbreaks
C. Conventional computer models of the atmosphere have limited value in predicting
short-lived local storms like the Edmonton tornado
D. As meteorologists have begun using these new technologies in weather forecasting
offices, Nowcasting is becoming a reality
E. Radar systems, automated weather instruments, and satellites are all capable of
making detailed, nearly continuous observation over large regions at a relatively low cost
F. One such event, a tornado, struck the northeastern section of Edmonton, Alberta, in
July 1987
G. In weather forecasting, real-time observational data are used to nudge a numerical
model to conform with reality, thus reducing error
IV. Reading:
Part 1: Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text.
Since the time of Nostradamus, meteorologists have been trying to (1) _______ the
mystery of climatic changes. Their (2) _______ has been to be able to precisely (3)
_______ the weather for the days to come. In the past, meteorologists looked skywards to
find hints in the clouds. At present, their eyes are (4) _______ at the spots where the most
intriguing climatic transformations (5) _______ about, namely, the (6) _______ depths of
the oceans where swirls, whirlpools and waves (7) _______ the patterns for the future
weather.
The most efficient way of (8) _______ hold of the everchanging map of the swirling
currents circulating their heat around the planet is from space. Weather satellites equipped
(9) _______ complicated instruments examine the surface and the bottom of the oceans
and determine the exact height of water. The impressive advantage offered by satellite
scanning is that measurements can be (10) _______ even in the most inaccessible parts of
the oceans and can provide daily pictures of the water surface together with the (11)
_______ wave height and wind speed.
(12) _______ being a priceless device for predicting climatic conditions for tourists,
farmers or aviators, weather satellites also (13) _______ advance warnings (14) _______
storms or typhoons which (15) _______ the coastal populations to protect themselves
against these destructive forces of nature.
1. A. decipher
2. A. subject
3. A. unravel
B. account
B. objectivity
B. perceive
C. elaborate
C. subjection
C. forecast
8
D. obviate
D. objective
D. explore
4. A. looked
5. A. come
6. A. indefinite
7. A. generate
8. A. getting
9. A. by
10. A. done
11. A. calculated
12. A. Besides
13. A. denote
14. A. against
15. A. entitle
B. directed
B. turn
B. ultimate
B. accomplish
B. coming
B. with
B. formed
B. amounted
B. Apart
B. proceed
B. for
B. entail
C. focused
C. bring
C. terminal
C. procure
C. finding
C. in
C. fulfilled
C. scored
C. Otherwise
C. emerge
C. with
C. enforce
D. applied
D. get
D. utmost
D. formulate
D. making
D. of
D. taken
D. enumerated
D. Whereby
D. issue
D. either
D. enable
Part 2: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered
blanks provided below the passage.
Celebrity Crossover
It is not surprising that actors want to be pop stars, and vice versa. (1) _______ that
is deep in a part of our brain that most of us manage to keep (2) _______ control, we all
want to be pop stars and actors.
Sadly, there's nothing about the (3) _______ profession that automatically qualifies
you for the other, (4) _______ , of course, for the fact that famous actors and singers are
already surrounded by people who never (5) _______ no to them. (6) _______ the whole,
pop stars tend to fare better on screen than their (7) _______ numbers do on CD. Let's (8)
_______ it: not being able to act is no big drawback in Hollywood, whereas not being able
to play or sing still tends to count (9) _______ you in the recording studio.
Some stars do display a genuine proficiency in both disciplines, and a few even
maintain successful careers in both fields, but this just (10) _______ a bad example for all
the others. (11) _______ every success, there are two dozen failures. And most of them
have no idea (12) _______ terrible they are. (13) _______ as power tends to corrupt, so
celebrity tends to destroy the ability to gauge whether or not you're making a fool of (14)
_______ .
But perhaps we shouldn't criticize celebrities for trying to expand their horizons in
this way. (15) _______ there is one good thing about actors trying to sing and singers
trying to act, it is that it keeps them all too busy to write books.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By
changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are
able to communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question,
state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other
word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the
English language. All languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever
9
grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish
between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English,
all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal
and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which
has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?
At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how
grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation,
documenting its emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex
languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex
languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started
from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.
Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that
time, slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under
colonizer's rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they
developed a make-shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from
the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases
it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom.
[1] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [2]
Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a
group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [3]
Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they
adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. [4] Complex grammar systems
which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children.
Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign
languages are not simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery
that is found in spoken languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used
worldwide. The creation of one such language was documented quite recently in
Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new
government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip
reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system,
using the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the
signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the
school later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite
different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the
younger children's language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of
grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in
the same way. A new creole was born.
10
Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were
creoles at first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It
ended' may once have been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most
widespread languages were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate
grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to
make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex
structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
1. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?
A To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures
B To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
C To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
D To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language
2. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?
A It contained complex grammar.
B It was based on many different languages.
C It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
D It was created by the land-owners.
3. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT:
A The language has been created since 1979.
B The language is based on speech and lip reading.
C The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
D The language was perfected by younger children.
4. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?
It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the
pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers.
A.1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
5. 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A from the very beginning
B in simple cultures
C by copying something else
D by using written information
6. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A complicated and expressive
B simple and temporary
C extensive and diverse
D private and personal
7. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?
Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.
A All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain
grammar.
B Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
C Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that
contain a little.
11
D The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
8. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT:
A All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
B The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
C The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
D New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
9. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?
A English was probably once a creole.
B The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
D Children say English past tenses differently from adults.
10. Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by
which of the following?
A natural
B predictable
C imaginable
D uniform
PART 4: Read the article about the meaning of dreams. Choose the most suitable
heading from the box (A-H) for each part of the article (1-5). There are three headings
which you do not need. Write your answers in the numbered box.
A. FIRE
E. EXAMS
B. CASTLE
F. GETTING STUCK
C. DEATH
G. FLYING
D. MOUNTAINS
H. FALLING
THE MEANING OR DREAMS
We all have dreams and can often remember parts or images from them. Here is a guide to
the meanings of the most common images that appear in dreams.
1. ………..
This is one of the most common images, typically showing insecurity and anxiety. It may
relate to a fear that a career or a relationship is coming to an end. The fact that we are not
hurt when we land represents a hope that things won’t turn out too badly.
2. ………..
This common dream – which commonly involves using our own arm or leg power (rather
than any kind of engine) – seems to represent a wish to escape from the problems we are
facing in everyday
life. It may also represent a wish to achieve greater power.
3. ………….
This represents strength and power. If the dreamers are inside, they are protected by the
thick walls. If they are outside and looking at it, they may desire that safety. It is also
sometimes the symbol of a
woman.
4. …………..
This suggests that the dreamer has mixed feelings of love and hostility towards the person
who dies, particularly if that person is close. If dreamers see themselves die, this may
represent a desire to escape from pressure.
12
5. ……………
Running forwards and not getting anywhere, or trying to walk through water or honey is a
common image in dreams. It symbolizes a conflict of feeling, particularly the desire to
escape, yet at the same time, not to escape.
V. Writing
Part 1: Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same
meaning as the one printed above.
1. The car has leather seats.
The seats …………………………………………………….…………………………..
2. In the event of nuclear weapons being used, we are all doomed.
If it should ……………………………………………………........................................
3. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
The more ………………………………………………………………………..………
4. Mr. Tipper’s wife was very sorry she couldn’t celebrate the New Year with her husband.
Mrs. Tipper greatly……………………………………………………………………
5. The collision didn’t damage my car much.
Not a great………………………………………..……………………………………
Part 2: Rewrite the following sentences with the words given.
1. Teaching doesn’t suit her. (cut)
……………………………………………………………………………………….......
2. The new ambassador is well-informed about current affairs. (wide)
……………………………………………………………………………………….......
3. I’m afraid our problems are only just beginning. (ice berg)
……………………………………………………………………………………….......
4. The Greens consider Henry a good friend. (look)
……………………………………………………………………………………….......
5. I tiptoed to the door so as not to wake up the baby. (rather)
……………………………………………………………………………………….......
Part 3: Climate change is among the serious problems that mankind are currently
facing.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words presenting some possible solutions to this
problem.
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
13
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
14
Answer Key
I. LISTENING:
Part 1:
1.F
2. T
3. F
4. T
5. T
13. A
14. C
15. B
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. C
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. C
Part 2:
6. 27th February, 2008.
7. tremors
8. the Richer scale
9. chimney
10. property
Part 3:
11. C
12. A
II. PHONETICS
Part 1:
1. C
Part 2:
1. D
III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY:
PART 1:
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. D
17. B
18. B
19. A
20. A
PART 2:
1. as (line 2) → like
2. kidney-shaping (line 3) → kidney – shaped
3. none (line 4) → no
4. hazardous (line 6) → hazard
5. It’s (line 7) → Its
6. lives (line 8) → live
7. off (line 9) → away
1
8. to cross (line 9 – 10) → crossing
9. very (line 12) → much
10. do (line 15) → make
Part 3:
1. under
2. in
3. for
4. on
5. out
6. at
7. with
8. with
9. up
10.out
11. on/upon
12. up
13. out
14. up
15. with
16. of
17.on
18. in
19. on
20. at
1. forgeries
2. undergone
3. misleading
4. linguistic
5. emergence
6. adoption
7. Interestingly
8. onlooker
9. corruption
10.Elsewhere
Part 4:
Part5:
1. have been building
3. know
5. married
7. has never failed
9. should have informed
11. speak
13. will apply
15. considered
17. would have been unharmed
19. to become
Part 6:
1. F
2. have been watching
4. having been delivered
6. to do
8. to give
10. looking
12. could have visited
14. had been nibbling
16. had been standing
18. had done
20. have been meaning
2. C
3. A
4. E
5. D
2. D
7. A
12. A
3. C
8. A
13. D
4. B
9. B
14. A
5. A
10. D
15. D
IV. READING
PART 1:
1. A
6. B
11. A
2
PART 2;
1. Somewhere
4. except/but
7.opposite
10. sets
13. Just
2. under
5. say
8. face
11. For
14. yourself
Part3:
1. A
6. B
2. C
7. A
3. one/former/first
6. On
9. against
12. ho w
15. If
3. B
8. D
4. D
9. A
5. A
10. D
Part 4:
1. H. FALLING
2. G. FLYING
3. B. CASTLE
4. C. DEATH
5. F. GETTING STUCK
V. WRITING:
PART I.
1. The seats in the car are covered with leather.
2. If it should happen that nuclear weapons are used, we are all doomed.
3. The more qualifications we are able to amass, the more successful we are in the
academic field.
4. Mrs. Tipper greatly regretted not being able to celebrate the New Year with her husband.
5. Not a great amount/deal of damage was done/caused to my car in/by the collision.
PART II.
1. She isn’t really cut out for teaching.
2. The new ambassador has wide knowledge of current affairs.
3. These problems of ours are just the tip of the ice berg.
4. The Greens looks on Henry as a good friend.
5. Rather than wake/waking up the baby, I tiptoed to the door.
3
Listening tapescript
Part 1:
Interviewer (I): Mahesh, you trained as a classical Indian musician, but now you spend
most of your time
playing records in nightclubs…they’re two very different things!
Mahesh (M): Well, yes, they are…the two worlds are very different, but there is something
that connects
them…
I: …and what’s that?
M: Rhythm. An interest in rhythm. Rhythm is fundamental to everything that I do. Whether
it’s the rhythmic
section of a classical Indian raga, or some “Asian Underground” electronic beats in a
club…
I: And you mix the two things don’t you?
M: Yes…I’ve played live tabla to electronic accompaniment in clubs in Europe.
I: How has that gone down?
M: Really well…I think people are getting bored of ordinary clubs and faceless DJs. Some
live music is a great
addition.
I: And have you tried djing
for a classical Indian audience on the other hand?
M: No! I’m not quite sure the world’s ready for that yet…still, it’s an interesting idea!
I: How are audiences for your music different in India and in Europe?
M: Well, the classical audiences are far more sedate in Europe than in India.
I: How do you mean?
M: Well, in the West people think they have to respect the music, and to show their respect
they all sit there
very quietly, as if they are at a museum or something.
I: And in India?
M: People participate much more …they’ll clap when they appreciate something…and
shout when they don’t!
I: Finally Mahesh, what does the future hold for you?
M: A new record in the autumn, then next year I’m looking forward to a new collaboration
with some Latin
American musicians…I’m always looking for new frontiers…!
Part 2:
On 27th February 2008, something very unusual happened in the UK; there was a
rather large earthquake.
It was the biggest earthquake in 25 years in the UK. There have been very small
tremors in the past but they pale into insignificance compared to this one. It was felt in a
large area across the country too, from as far north as Edinburgh in Scotland to as far south
as Plymouth on the south coast of England. The epicentre of the earthquake was in a small
town in Lincolnshire, which is an area about two and a half to three hours north of London
by car. A magnitude of 5.2 was registered on the Richter scale.
There were lots of reports in the news from people who felt the earth move. One man
said, "We had loads of vibrating and wall shaking and stuff, noise coming off the roof. I
came outside – the chimney's on the floor!" A collapsed chimney was the cause of what
was probably the worst injury from the earthquake; a man broke his pelvis when the
chimney fell on him.
Another man who spoke to the BBC described the moment the earthquake occurred,
"Everything was shaking. As soon as it happened we all went outside and saw everyone
else down the street, coming out and just realised it was an earthquake."
The huge rumble that was felt by a lot of people, surprisingly caused very
little structural damage to property.
Part 3:
Trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn
Tất Thành – Tỉnh Yên Bái
Đề đề nghị
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI VÙNG DUYÊN
HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
Môn Thi: Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
LISTENING
 There are two sections, each will be played once.
 Before you listen, you have 1 minute to read the questions.
Question 1: Listen to the recording and choose the best answer to each question.
1. The camping trip will be held______
A. The following month.
B. From the 24th to the 26th.
C. Over a five-day period.
2. Jamie’s complaint about last year’s trip was that____
A. The camp wasn’t big enough.
B. He was unhappy while at the camp.
C. He had problems finding the camp.
3. The campsite is located________
A. In the Lake District.
B. In Carlisle.
C. Beside lake Brand.
4. Jamie thinks the forests will be good for children who______
A. Are used to nature.
B. Live in cities.
C. Like sports.
5. Each child will pay_______
A. Less than £4 a night.
B. Approximately £5.
C. More than £10.
Your answers
1
4
2
5
3
1
Question 2:
Complete the note below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
LIBRARY INFORMATION
For registration, must take
 Two (1)__________ and
 Two forms of I.D.e.g. driving licence, (2)_________
Cost to join per year (without current student card): (3) £__________
Number of items allowed: (members of public): (4)____________
Fines start at (5) £__________
Computers can be booked up to (6)___________ hours in advance
Library holds most national papers, all (7)_______, and magazines
Need (8)__________to use photocopier
Creative writing class
 Tutor is John (9)__________
 Held on (10)______________evenings
Your answers
1
6
2
7
3
8
4
9
5
10
PHONETICS
Find the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from that of the others
(2.5p).
1. A. garage
B. manage
C. shortage
D. postage
2. A. nation
B. question
C. expression
D. excursion
3. A. terminal
B. terrace
C. terrible
D. territory
4. A. yards
B. youths
C. months
D. mouths
5. A. possessed
B. opposed
C. pleased
D. closed
Your answers
1
4
2
5
3
Find the word which has different stress pattern from the others (2.5p).
1. A. literacy
B. contingency
C. ceremony
D. sanctuary
2. A. predict
B. pretax
C. pretend
D. preface
2
3. A. monopoly
4. A. ethanol
5. A. curriculum
Your answers
1
4
B. preferential
B. comparable
B. certificate
C. trigonometry
C. celibacy
C. kindergarten
2
5
D. agricultural
D. repentant
D. companion
3
LEXICO – GRAMMAR
1. Choose the best answers to complete the following sentences (5p):
1. In the……….of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement
B. interests
C. demands
D. assistance
2. The strike was………….owing to a last- minute agreement with the management.
A. called off
B. broken up
C. set back
D. put down.
3. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to……………….rather thin
A. get
B. turn
C. wear
D. go
4 . ……………….., the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large
B. Although
C. To a degree
D. Virtually
5. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on TV, but she rose to
the………….wonderfully.
A. event
B. performance
C. incident
D. occasion
6. The train service has been a……………since they introduced the new schedules.
B. rumpus
C. chaos
D. fracas
A. shambles
7. Is an inexperienced civil servant………………to the task of running the company?
A. capable
B. skilled
C. eligible
D. suited
8. John’s got very …………….feelings about taking on more responsibility at the moment.
A. puzzled
B. jumbled
C. mixed
D. muddled
9. You’ve lived in your city for most of your life, so…………..you’ve used to the noise.
A. apparently
B. presumably
C. allegedly
D. predictably.
10. The storm ripped our tent to………………
A. slices
B. shreds
C. strips
D. specks.
11. His heartless treatment of his former colleague revealed a……………..of cruelty in his
nature.
A. taint
B. stain
C. mark
D. streak
12. The deceptively simple decoration on this kind of pottery gives the layperson no
real………….to its true value.
A. idea
B. indication
C. clue
D. key
13. The winter is usually mild, although we sometimes get a cold……………..at the
beginning of the year.
A. spell
B. term
C. interval
D. wave.
14. Although the council had expected opposition to the scheme, the local residents proved
only too…………..to help.
A. anxious
B. concerned
C. hasty
D. cautious
3
15. The newspaper had been tipped…………….about the star’s arrival and sent a
photographer to the airport.
A. up
B. in
C. off
D. on
16. The new school timetable will……………..rearranging the meal breaks.
A. incur
B. need
C. oblige
D. mean
17. Can I…………………your brain for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself
A. have
B. pick
C. mind
D. use
18. Rosemary…………….Chris to buy a new car with the proceeds of the sale.
A. pressed
B. insisted
C. offered
D. afforded
19. There was an open day at the fire………………when the public could see how the fire
brigade operated.
A. centre
B. station
C. office
D. quarters.
20. You haven’t heard all the facts so don’t………………..to conclusions.
A. dash
B. jump
C. spring
D. fly.
Your answers
1
6
11
16
2
7
12
17
3
8
13
18
4
9
14
19
5
10
15
20
2. The passage below contains 10 errors. Identify and correct them (5p).
Edwin Hubble was an American astronomer who research led to discoveries about
galaxies and the nature of the universe. He settled a long debate by demonstrating that the
Andromeda nebula located outside our galaxy, establishing the islands universe theory, which
states that galaxies exit outside of our own. His study of the distribution of galaxies resulted
from Hubble’s Constant, a standard relationship between a galaxy distance from the earth and
its speed of recession.
In 1925, Hubble had devised a classification system for the structure of galaxies and
provided conclusively observational evidence for the expansion of the universe. His work
pushed the one-hundred –inch Mount Wilson telescope beyond its capability and provided
strong impetus for the construction of an instrument twice of its size at Mount Palomar,
which Hubble used during her last years of research. The telescope that bears his name
launched on a space shuttle in 1990 and obits the earth, collecting datum about the size of the
universe.
Your answers
1
6
2
7
3
8
4
9
5
10
3. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition or particle (5p)
1. My attention was drawn __________ the picture on the wall.
2. The villagers left their homes in the valley and moved to higher grounds as precaution
4
___________ flooding
3. Dave takes _________ the Prime Minister really well.
4. As she didn’t have a lot of cash she bought the fridge _________ credit.
5. Queen Victoria reigned __________ Britain and Ireland for over sixty years.
6. The new wonder watch from Seiko is guaranteed ___________ any type of breakage
including water damage and accident!
7. He’s a genius __________ a pencil and can capture a likeness in a few deft strokes.
8. I’m afraid a penalty clause has been written _____________ your contract.
9. The government was finally brought __________ by minor scandal.
10. Her father laid ___________ her when she came home two hours late from a party.
Looking (11)__________ a property abroad? A holiday home or future investment? We think
we can come (12) __________ with just the sort of thing you want. Let us at Dream homes
limited answer a few of your questions. Which area? Our expert can put (13) _________ a
number of suggestions for you to go (14) ___________ and choose from. What kind of
place should I buy? You could buy a smart town-centre apartment, if you like action and
night life. Or why not get it (15) ___________ from it all and opt for a cottage in the heart of
the country? Will there be problems? We have years of experience in this field. Our staff can
get (16) _________ any difficulties, and will make the whole process as easy as possible for
you. How much will it cost? You won’t have to rob the bank, sell the car or even give (17)
__________ smoking to be able to afford it! Recently, oversea house prices have gone (18)
_________ slightly, so this is the perfect moment to buy. Will it be legal? All the details of
the sale and purchase will be set (19) _________ in a contract, which is carefully checked by
our legal team. What’s my next step? Come (20)_________ and see us sometimes! Or give us
a ring on 01350-750804
Your answers
1
6
11
16
2
7
12
17
3
8
13
18
4
9
14
19
5
10
15
20
4. Supply the correct form or tense of the verb in bracket (5p).
A.
Employees protesting at the planned closure of the Magnet electronics factory have
begun a protest outside the factory in Brook Road. It (1. reveal) ___________ last week that
production at the factory, where over 3000 local people (2. employ)___________ , (3.
transfer) _______________ to the Magnet plan in Luton next month. “Why we (4.
not/inform) ___________ about this earlier.
“We only (5. tell) _____________ about this two days ago,” said Marjory Calder, (6.
represent) _______________ the workforce. “It’s about time companies such as this started
thinking about how local communities (7. affect) __________ by their policies. Most people
here are buying houses. How are they going to keep up with their mortgage payments? And
how are we going to find jobs? “I wish I (8.know) ___________ ,” Reg Reynolds of Magnet
5
(9. ask) _____________ what (10. do)___________ to help those who had been made
redundant.
B. Last week I (1. walk) _____________ home after playing tennis when it
(2. start) _____________ raining very heavily. “Oh, no, I (3. get) _____________ soaked
before I (4. reach) _____________ home”, I thought, “I wish I (5. remember)
_____________ to bring my raincoat”. But unfortunately I (6. leave) _____________ it at
home.“ How stupid of me!”. I always (7. get) _____________to bring it with me” Luckily
just then a friend of mine passed in her car and offered me a lift.” (8. go) _____________
you home?” she asked me, “ or (9. want) _____________ you go for a drink?” “I think I’d
rather you (10. take) _____________ me home” I said.
Your answers
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
5. Give the correct form of the words given in capitals to complete the following passage
(5p).
MAPPING BIODIVERSITY
Preserving (1) ____________ in museum is one way of retaining
them for posterity. But most people agree that it would be nice to keep
a few of them alive in the wild, too. At the moment, which survive and
which succumb is something of a lottery. WOLRDMAP, a computer
program, can help by dividing the area of interest, those which are
richest in species, into cells, and then examining the biodiversity of
each cell. Planners would then be able to decide which areas are
(2) ________________ for development on the grounds that they are
areas of special scientific interest.
WORLDMAP can also predict the (3) ______________ of a
hitherto (4) _______________ species being found in an area on the
basis of its known distribution. Given the (5) _____________ nature of
most records, that is a useful trick. And it can select (6) ____________
areas for preservation. These are not (7) _________ the cells with the
highest individual biodiversity, but rather those which, together,
(8) ___________ what is preserved by picking places with the least
(9) ______________ species.
How much notice the world will actually take of such (10)
___________ is a different question.
Your answers
6
ORGAN
ACCEPT
LIKE
OBSERVE
PATCH
COMPLEMENT
NEED
MAXIMUM
OVERLAP
RECOMMEND
1
6
2
7
3
8
4
9
5
10
6. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, or C) best fits each space (5p)
Starting your own business could be the way to achieving financial independence. (1)
________ it could just as well land you in debt for the rest of your life. (2) _________, that is
the view of Charles and Brenda Leggat, a Scottish couple, who last week saw their fish farm
business put into the hands of the receiver. “We started the business at a time when everyone
was being encouraged by banks to borrow money. (3) __________ , we fell into the same
trap, and asked for a big loan. (4) _________, at the time we were sure that we could make it
into a going concern,” said Charles Leggat, a farmer from the Highlands. “The bank analyzed
the proposals we put forward and they agreed that it would be a highly profitable business”
Sure enough, within five years the Leggats were exporting trout and salmon products to
hotels all over Europe, and (5) __________ they took on over fifty staff. (6) __________,
with the advent of the recession, they began to lose ground as orders dried up. “(7) ________,
said Brenda Leggat, “the business has now been valued by the bank at a fraction of its true
worth. If they had left us to work our way out of our difficulties, (8) _______ virtually
bankrupting us, I’m sure that we could have gone back into profit. As it is, we have been left
without a livelihood, and the bank has not recovered what it lent us.”. The Leggats both felt
that their banks had not treated them fairly. “(9)______________, they were falling over
themselves to lend us the money initially, (10) __________ now they are doing little to keep
the business going, and fifty local people in work”. A spokesman for the bank concerned
refused to comment.
1. A. Moreover
B. On the other hand
C. As well as
2. A. At least
B. However
C. To make matter worse
3. A. Incidentally
B. At any rate
C. As a result
4. A. To put it another way
B. Nevertheless
C. In contrast
5. A. what’s more
B. on the other hand
C. to tell the truth
6. A. Hence
B. Consequently
C. However
7. A. In contrast
B. Whereas
C. To make matter worse
8. A. as opposed to
B. as well as
C. in addition to
9. A. However
B. To tell the truth
C. As a result
10. A. as well as
B. whereas
C. on the other hand
Your answers
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
READING
1. Read the text and then decide which word best fits each space. Write your answers
(A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (7.5p)
LONDON – THE STUDENT’S CAPITAL
7
London is the city which seems to (0) …draw… people like a magnet from across the country
every year, not to (1) __________from around the world. London is cool, fashionable and
multi-cultural. For the (2) __________ student, it is the most incredible arts, academic and
entertainment Mecca.
London is one of the few real student capitals of the world. Despite the grime, the (3)
__________ costs, the troublesome transport system, and the (4) __________ sensation of
living with eight million people, students (5) __________ to the city’s university.
However, rent are steep, with students paying around $75 a week for a room in a (6)
__________ house. Halls of (7) __________ are a little over this price – but of course include
meals and (8) __________
Work is plentiful at the moment though, so a part time job should be easy to (9)
__________across, and there are all sorts of graduate (10) __________ with the best (11)
__________ of pay in the country. The London institutions try to play (12) __________the
cost of (13) __________ so as not to (14) __________ off future students, but there is no
doubt about it, London costs money and you will be looking at sizeable (15) __________ on
graduating.
0. A. catch
B. bring
C. draw
D. grasp
1. A. say
B. include
C. utter
D. mention
2. A. budding
B. bidding
C. blooming
D. blithering
3. A. peak
B. high
C. money
D. extreme
4. A. overestimated
B. overawed
C. overwhelming
D. overloaded
5. A. stem
B. wave
C. pounce
D. flock
6. A. divided
B. parted
C. shared
D. separated
7. A. residence
B. accommodation
C. dormitories
D. wards
8. A. invoices
B. bills
C. costs
D. receipts
9. A. put
B. get
C. do
D. come
10. A. chances
B. possibilities
C. occasions
D. opportunities
11. A. rates
B. terms
C. conditions
D. means
12. A. up
B. at
C. out
D. down
13. A. life
B. living
C. live
D. livelihood
14. A. set
B. run
C. write
D. put
15. A. balance
B. increase
C. debt
D. gain
Your answers
1
6
11
2
7
12
3
8
13
4
9
14
5
10
15
2. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (7.5p)
We do not know how art began more than we know how language started. If we take art to
mean (1) __________ activities as building temples and houses, making pictures and
8
sculptures, (2) __________ weaving patterns, there are (3) __________ people in all the
world without art. If, on the other (4) __________, we mean by art some kind of beautiful
luxury, we must realize that (5) __________ use of the word is a very recent development
and that many of the (6) __________ artists of the past never (7) __________ of it. We can
best understand this difference if we think of architecture. We all (8) __________ that there
are beautiful buildings and that some of them are true (9) __________ of art. But there is (10)
__________ any building (11) __________ the world which was not erected (12)
__________ a particular purpose. Those (13) __________ use these buildings as (14)
__________ of worship or entertainment, or as dwellings, judge them (15) __________ and
foremost by the standards of utility. But apart from this, they may like or dislike the design or
the proportion of the structure. In the past the attitude to paintings and statues was often
similar. We are not likely to understand the art of the past if we are quite ignorant of the
purpose it had to serve.
Your answers
1
6
11
2
7
12
3
8
13
4
9
14
5
10
15
3. Read the following passage carefully then choose the best answer to each question
(5p).
Archaeological records ― paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in
activities involving the use of hands ― indicate that humans have been predominantly righthanded for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right-hand is
depicted as the dominant one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns
on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.
Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000years old commonly show outlines of human
hands made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other.
Children today make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few
exceptions, left hands of Cro-Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the
paintings were usually done by right-handers.
Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors
back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking
patterns of stone cores used in tool making: implements flaked with a clockwise motion
(indicating a right-handed toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a
counter-clockwise
rotation
(indicating
a
left-handed
toolmaker).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to
have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as
do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users` teeth.
Scratches made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than
scratches
in
the
opposite
direction
(made
by
left-handers).
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical
differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical
9
differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres
corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as
well as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to
modern Homo sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo
habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.
Question 1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning
tool use.
C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a
million years.
D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
Question 2. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?
A. Some are not very old.
B. It is unusual to see such paintings.
C. Many were made by children.
D. The artists were mostly right-handed.
Question 3. The word “depicted” refers to……..
A. written
B. portrayed
C. referred
D. mentioned
Question 4. When compared with implements “flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation” it
can be inferred that “implements flaked with a clockwise motion” are……….
A. more common B. larger
C. more sophisticated
D. older
Question 5. The word “cranial morphology” is closest in meaning to
A. the form of crane
B. the form of the body
C. the study of physical body
D. the study of the skull
Question 6. The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant
because……
A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be
verified
B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns
produced by modern knives
D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
Question 7. The word “hemispheres” is closest in meaning to………
A. differences
B. sides
C. activities
D. studies
Question 8. Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Habilis in line 24-25?
A. To contrast them with modern humans
B. To explain when human ancestors began to make tools
C. To show that early humans were also predominantly right-handed
D. To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large
Question 9. All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness
EXCEPT…
A. ancient artwork
B. asymmetrical skulls
C. studies of tool use
D. fossilized hand bones
10
Question 10. Which of the following conclusion is suggested by the evidence from cranial
morphology
A. Differences in the hemispheres of the brain probably came about relatively recently.
B. There may be a link between handedness and differences in the brain’s hemisphere.
C. Left-handedness was somewhat more common among Neanderthals.
D. Variation between the brain’s hemispheres was not evident in the skulls of Homo
erectus and Homo habilis.
Your answers
1
6
2
7
3
8
4
9
5
10
4. Read the following passage and answer the questions (10).
A
Just beneath the Artic Circle, on a weather pummeled peninsula on the west coast of
Iceland, is the small fishing town of Stykkish6lmur, home to round 1,200 people. It’s one of
the last places on earth you might expect to find a new installation of contemporary art. Yet
here, in a former library overlooking the ocean, artist Roni Horn has created her latest work.
B
Vatnasafn, Icelandic for “Library of Water”, is a subtle, ethereal piece. To create it,
Horn, who has been inspired by Iceland’s jagged landscape since she first traveled there in
1975, selected 24 glaciers in the island’s uninhabited interior, often described as Europe’s last
wilderness. Teams of drivers then traveled to the glaciers to hack out samples of ice, which
they took back to Stykkish6lmur. There, Horn melted the glacial chunks and poured the water
into 24 floor to ceiling glass columns in the old library.
C
Today the translucent pillars stand in groups around the room, each one subtly different
texture and color. Some are milky, with sediment pooling at the base; others are pale green or
soft, dove –egg blue. All refract the rich golden light that comes flooding through the
building whenever the snow – heavy clods recede. In the dark rubber floor, Horn has
embedded adjectives describing the weather in both Icelandic and English. Even when the
wind rants outside, Vatnasafn has a serenity that recalls the building’s former incarnation as a
library.
D
“A lot of glaciers in Iceland are melting very quickly”, says Horn, who has an
apartment in Reykjavik, where an impressive retrospective of her career has just opened. “We
live in a troublesome time when water is becoming scare- and that’s a pretty radical thing to
imagine: What’s clear, then, is that the thrust of this new work is environmental, a
commentary on the ravages of global warming. Vatnasafn is an archive of some of the purest
water on the planet: at 3,200 square miles, the Vatnajokull ice sheet in southern Iceland is the
largest in Europe. But even this giant glaciers is rapidly receding. Roni’s work embodies
what may well be the most important issue of the twenty-first century, which is whether the
way that we live our lives is globally sustainable; says James Lingwood, co-director of
Artangel, the London-based nonprofit arts organization that commissioned the project.
E
Artangel has been collaborating with avant-garde artists for years, creating projects that
resonate in the mind long after they have been dismantled. In 1993, Lingwood and his codirector Michael Morris worked with British sculptor Rachael Whiteread on House, her
11
concrete cast of a nineteenth century terraced house in London’s East End. Where many
Artangel collaborations have involved an element of spectacle. Vatnasafn, which is
Artangel’s first ever project abroad, is a more reflective work. Yet it cost more than 500,000$
to create, with most of the money donated by private benefactors. Why did they wan to fund a
work of art that so few people will see?
F
“Everything Artangel does is different; Lingwood says. “Compared to some of the
momentous events we’ve been involved with in London, this project will not attract many
visitors. But over time, I hope it will be significant to a reasonable number of people: Horn’s
aquatic archive will also function as a community centre, open round the clock to residents of
Stykkish6lmur. “There’s a lot of numberchasing going on in the art world now; says
Lingwood. “Visitors numbers are used as the measure of success. But I think value lies
elsewhere”
G
Standing alone in the sunlight that bounces around Horn’s poetic installation, it’s hard
to disagree: Vatnasafn provides a delicate aesthetic experience. But Artangel’s role as a
medium for the piece is just as important. Thanks to Lingwood and Morris, many people who
wouldn’t otherwise get to see it will now be aware of this resonant work.
Questions 1-3: Choose TWO letters A-H to answer the questions (Your answers may be given
in any order). Write your answer in the numbered box.
Which THREE of the following statements are true of Vatnasafn, according to the text?
A. The building which it is in is still used as a library.
B. Horn personally collected all the ice for the work.
C. Its 24 columns all look exactly the same.
D. The work of art includes some written text.
E. The ice came from the largest ice sheet in the world.
F. It is Artangel’s first project outside the UK.
G. It was partly paid for by the Icelandic government.
H. The building it is in will also have a more practical use.
Your answers:
1
3
2
Question 3-10: The Reading Passage has several paragraphs, A-G. Choose the correct
heading for paragraphs from the list of headings below.
List of headings
i.
A political and environmental message
ii.
Difficulties raising the money
iii. Small but still worthwhile
iv.
What you will experience
v.
A history of cooperation
vi.
Forcing us to change our views
vii. A highly unusual location
viii. Less successful without them
ix.
The production process
x.
Not an ordinary medical test
xi.
A tragic example
12
4. Paragraph A
5. Paragraph B
6. Paragraph C
7. Paragraph D
8. Paragraph E
9. Paragraph F
10. Paragraph G
Your answers:
4
8
5
9
6
10
7
WRITING
A. Sentence transformation
Rewrite the sentences below beginning with the words given (2.5p)
1. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad ____________________________________________________________________
2. Under no circumstances should you phone the police.
The last ________________________________________________________________
3. We expect everything to be all right at tomorrow’s conference.
Nothing ________________________________________________________________
4. Most of the problems arose because there was no leadership on the committee.
It was the________________________________________________________________
5. I’m not certain, but there may be about twenty applications for the job.
At a ____________________________________________________________________
Rewrite the sentences below using the words in brackets without changing their original
form (2.5p).
1. I bought it without thinking about it first. (spur)
________________________________________________________________________
2. The young actress was very nervous before the audition. (butterflies)
________________________________________________________________________
3. With five children to look after, her aunt is extremely busy. (hands)
________________________________________________________________________
4. Ill health resulted in his inability to do the job. (cope)
________________________________________________________________________
5. The ships were hardly visible through the thick fog. (make)
________________________________________________________________________
B. Paragraph (15p).
The Ministry of Education has just decided that English is one of the two optional subjects in
the coming GCSE (General Certificate of Secondary Education) exam. Write a paragraph of
about 150 words to express your ideas.
13
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
LISTENING
Question 1: Choose the best answer.
1.A 2. A
3.C
4. B
Question 2
5.A
PHONETICS
Find the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from that of the others.
1A, 2B, 3A, 4C, 5A
Find the word which has different stress pattern from the others.
1B, 2D, 3A, 4D, 5C
LEXICO -GRAMMAR
1. Choose the best answers to complete the following sentences:
1B, 2A, 3C, 4A, 5D, 6A, 7D, 8C, 9B, 10B, 11D, 12C, 13A, 14A, 15C, 16D, 17B, 18A, 19B,
20B
2. The passage below contains 10 errors. Identify and correct them.
Edwin Hubble was an American astronomer who research led to discoveries about
galaxies and the nature of the universe. He settled a long debate by demonstrating that the
Andromeda nebula located outside our galaxy, establishing the islands universe theory,
which states that galaxies exit outside of our own. His study of the distribution of galaxies
resulted from Hubble’s Constant, a standard relationship between a galaxy distance from the
earth and its speed of recession.
In 1925, Hubble had devised a classification system for the structure of galaxies and
provided conclusively observational evidence for the expansion of the universe. His work
pushed the one-hundred –inch Mount Wilson telescope beyond its capability and provided
strong impetus for the construction of an instrument twice of its size at Mount Palomar,
which Hubble used during her last years of research. The telescope that bears his name
launched on a space shuttle in 1990 and obits the earth, collecting datum about the size of
the universe.
Errors
Corrections
1. who
1. whose
14
2. located
2. was located
3. from
3. in
4. galaxy distance
4. galaxy’s distance
5. In 1925
5. By 1925
6. conclusively
6. conclusive
7. twice of its size
7. twice its size
8. her
8. his
9. launched
9. was launched
10. datum
10. data
3. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition or particle (5p)
1. to
2. against 3. off
4. on
5. over
6. against
7. with
8. into
9. down
10. into
11. for
12.up
13.forward
14. through
15. away
16. round
17. up
18. down
19. down
20. round
4. Supply the correct form or tense of the verb in bracket.
A.
1. was revealed
2. are employed
3. is being transferred
4. were we not informed
5. were only told
6. representing
7. are affected
8. knew
9. was asked
10. was being done
B.
1. was walking
2. started
3. will get
4. reach
5. had remembered
6. had left
7. am always getting
8. are you going
9. do you want
10. took
5. Provide the correct form of the words in the bracket
MAPPING BIODIVERSITY
1. Organisms
2. unacceptable
3. likelihood
4. unobserved
5. patchy
6. complementary
7. necessarily
8. maximize /
maximize (maximise)
9. overlapping
10. recommendations
6. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, or C) best fits each space (5p)
1B, 2A, 3C, 4B, 5A, 6C, 7C, 8A, 9B, 10B
READING
1. Read the text and then decide which word best fits each space. Write your answers
(A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (7.5p)
1D, 2A, 3B, 4C, 5D, 6C, 7A, 8B, 9D, 10D, 11A, 12D, 13B, 14D, 15C
2. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (7.5p)
1. such
2. or/and
3. no/few 4. hand
5. this
6. greatest / best/ great/
famous/ outstanding
7. dreamed / thought
8. know / realize / agree 9. works /
examples 10. scarcely / hardly
11. in 12. for
13. who
14.places 15. first
3. Read the following passage carefully then choose the best answer to each question.
1C, 2D, 3B, 4A, 5D, 6A, 7B, 8C, 9D, 10B
4. Read the following passage and answer the questions.
1,2,3: D,F,H (in any order)
15
4: vii ; 5: ix; 6:iv; 7: i; 8:v; 9:iii; 10: viii
WRITING
Rewrite the sentences below beginning with the words given
1. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad as it is, unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
2. Under no circumstances should you phone the police.
The last thing you should do is to phone the police
3. Nothing is expected to go wrong at the tomorrow’s conference.
4. It was the lack / absence of (any) leadership that caused most of the problems of the
committee.
5. At a guess, there are about twenty applications for the job.
Rewrite the sentences below using the words in brackets without changing their original
form.
1. I bought it on the spur of the moment.
2. The young actress had butterflies in her stomach before the audition.
3. With five children to look after, her aunt has a lot on her hands / has her hands full.
4. He was unable to cope with the job because of his ill health.
5. You could hardly make out the ships through the thick fog.
Tape script
Question 1
Jamie:
Good morning Mt Thomson. Can I speak to you for a moment?
Mr Thomson:
Of course Jamie. Come in. Have a seat. I’ve just finished looking through
the reports for this term. It looks like pupils are doing very well.
Jamie : Yes, I think they are, Its all going fine.
Mr Thomson :
So, Jamie, what’s on your mind?
Jamie :
Well, I’ve been thinking about next month’s camping trip, the one for year ten?
Mr Thomson:
Yes, we have got it scheduled for the 23rd to the 26th if I’m not mistaken.
Jamie :
Ah, actually, I think it’s 24th to 27th
Mr Thomson :
Let’s just check. Oh, right. Yes, yes, you are right. So……..
Jamie :
Well, I’ve been thinking about how we might possibly make this year’s event
better than last year’s….Not that last year’s wasn’t great. But………..
Mr Thomson :
Suggestions for improvement are always welcome, Jamie,So, what have
you been thinking about?
Jamie :
Well, to tell the truth, I wasn’t completely happy with the camp we used last
year. It was rather small and I didn’t feel that the grounds were particularly well-kept
Mr Thomson :
Go on
Jamie :
I did some searching and I think I’ve found the perfect spot. It’s called Shepton
Meadows and……………
Mr Thomson :
Is that the campsite in the Lake District?
Jamie :
No, actually it’s just outside Carlisle. It’s huge site and it’s on a lovely lake,
Lake brant I believe it’s called. Half the site is forested and the rest, the actual camping site
area, is grassy. For kids that rarely get to see anything more than concrete, it’s ideal. And the
facilities are amazing. There is a basketball court, a larger pool and a football pitch. There are
16
well marked trails trough the forest for hiking and the lake is there for swimming and other
water sports. I believe there is even a lifeguard service.
Mr Thomson :
That sound like it might suit our purposes perfectly. Did you happen to
find out about availability and cost?
Jamie :
Yes, as a matter of fact I did. I called them yesterday evening and there plenty of
spots available and, because we’re a non-profit organization, they said they would give me a
reduction in the price.
Mr Thomson :
If I remember correctly, we paid £ 5 ahead last year.
Jamie :
Yes, per night, right?
Mr Thomson :
Yes, each child paid £10 for two nights
Jamie :
Well, at this campsite it’s only £4 per night and they told me that if we had over
fifteen children, which we do, they could give us a further 10% off
Mr Thomson :
That’s very reasonable, isn’t it? Well, from what you’ve told me I think
we should probably go ahead and book.
Jamie :
Excellent! I’m sure the children will love it
Question 2
Librarian : Good morning, North College Library. How can I help you?
Man:
I was wondering if it was possible to join the library.
Librarian : Are you a student at North Collage?
Man:
No, I’m not, but someone told me it was possible to join, even if I wasn’t
Librarian : That’s right, it is. Are you over 18? That’s our minimum joining age.
Man:
Yes I’m
Librarian : That’s no problem then,
Man:
Could you tell me what I have to do to join?
Librarian : Well, you will need to come in to the library and fill out some forms.
Man:
You’ll also need to bring two passport photos with you. We also need
documents for ID, so a driving licence would be fine.
Man:
I’ve got that and what’s else? A credit card?
Librarian : No, it needs to have your address on it.
Man:
Shall I bring a bank statement, would that do?
Librarian : That’s will be fine
Man:
Good. Does it cost anything to join?
Librarian : Well, it’s free for students here but otherwise it’s £125 per year or £25 if you’ve
got a current student card from other college
Man:
I was at Westerley College until last year but now I’ve got a job at Jefferson’s
steel factory. Er, it’s more expensive than I thought. My local library is free
17
SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC
MÔN ANH VĂN KHỐI 10
NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
Thời gian làm bài: 180’
Bài thi gồm 5 phần
ĐỀ XUẤT
Part 1: Listening
Question 1-9
Listen to the conversation between Megan and Ken about how they will spend the evening.
Circle the correct answer
3. When will Ken leave?
a. now
b. in ten minutes’ time c. at 10 o’clock
4. How will Megan travel to Entertainment city?
a. bus
b. car
c. taxi
5. How many people will they meet there?
a. none
b. three
c. two
6. How much will the evening cost
a. nothing
b. just the fares
c. less than $40.00
7. What time does Megan plan to come home?
a. before midnight
b. after midnight
c. on the last bus
Question 8-9
Which telephone button will Ken press
8. if he wishes to order a cab now? ……….
9. If he has lost something in the cab?..........
Question10-20
d. in 30 minutes
d. train
d. a group
d. more than $40.00
d. on the last train
Q10-15. Complete the note with no more than three words or a number
The plane will leave Gatwick Airport at……….10 in the morning. The transport from Athens
Airport will be by………11. the hotel is booked for……….12 nights. During our stay, the
group will visit the national Archaeological Museum in the mooring. Group members will
then have free time on………13 evening. The group will see the Greek Islands and will travel
by……14. Traditional………15 will be part of the package
Questions16-18
Page 1
16. the organizer would like to thank
a. The Greek government
b. the travel agent
c. British Airways
d. Staff at the British Museum
17. People should bring to the party
a. photograph
b. food
c. camera
18. The members of the group share an interest in
a. Greek culture
b. studying old societies
c. fine food
Questions 19-20
Complete the label with no more than three words
19. ………………………………..
20…………………………………
d. drinks
d. travel
1………..2………3………4………5……….6………….7…………8………9………10………..
11……….12……13……..14………15…….16…………17……….18………19………20………..
Part 2: Phonetics
a. Pick out the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from those of the others
1. A. prevent
B. incident
C. event
D. intend
2. A. capture
B. battle
C. facial
D. mat
3. A. bought
B. laundry
C. fought
D. bounce
4. A. measure
B. endure
C. pleasure
D. pressure
5. A. bull
B. mute
C. usage
D. futile
B/ Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words
1. A. generous
B. pagoda
C. address
D. control
2. A. reaction
B. miserable
C. knowledge
D. accident
3. A. compulsory
B. objective
C. publication
D. statistical
4. A. confidence
B. minimize
C. complaint
D. imitate
5. A. pleasure
B. guaranty
C. optimistic
D. sanguine
1………….2…….......3…………4…………5………..6………..7……….8……..….9………….10…………
…
Part 3: Grammar and vocabulary
I. Choose the word that best fits the space in each sentence by circling A,B, C or D.
1. I’d like to go to the exhibition with you but I can’t …..the time
a. spare
b. lose
c. waste
d. leave
e. save
2. That is a very…….suit you are wearing is it a new one?
a. tasty
b. proper
c. well-dressed
d. polite
e. smart
3. We have had to raise our prices because of the increase in the cost of …..material.
a. raw
b. crude
c. natural
d. uncorked
e. original
4. The weather forecast promises a sunny morning but there may be a ….or two in the afternoon.
a. rain
b. drop
c. fall
d. bad weather
e. shower
5. I was …..asleep when you arrived, that is why I didn’t hear you knock the door.
a. quite
b. fast
c. totally
d. dead
e. all
6. Can you tell me the ..to the station?
a. road
b. way
c. route
d. direction
e. street
7. She is very…….and blushes whenever a boy speaks to her
Page 2
a. nervous
b.doubtful
c. frightened
d. worried
e. shy
8. go straight down this road and take the second ……on the left
a. point
b. corner
c. angle
d. place
e. turning
9. We ….to inform you that your account is three months overdue
a. apologies
b. regret
c. are unwilling d. dislike
e. are displeased
10. I want to ….you on your engagement
a. compliment
b. praise
c. wish
d. welcome
e. congratulate
11. The doorway was very dark, and I …..at the names printed under the bell, trying to read them
a. watched
b, glanced
c. peered
d. peeped
e. looked
12. He is trying to ……his wife to buy a fur coat
a. persuade
b. tell
c. influence
d. talk
e. make
13. Our visit too the south of France was put off….to my wife’s illness
a. owing
b. because
c. resulting
d. reasonable
e. on account
14. I try to put…..a little money each week towards my summer holidays
a. back
b. by
c. off
d. on
e. down
15. The signature on that old painting is so……..that I can hardly read it
a. low
b. unclear
c. weak
d. faint
e. dim
16. A sudden loud noise behind me nearly made me jump out of my……
a. self
b. clothes
c. shoes
d. skin
e. nerves
17. The next ……on the program will be a song by Harry
a. piece
b. bit
c. unit
d. part
e. item
18. Aim very …..to know the result of the test .
a. worried
b. anxious
c. disturbed
d. alarmed
e. uneasy
19. there is a lot of water on the floor I think the washing machine must be…..
a. losing
b. leaking
c. dripping
d. running
e. dropping
20. He had put a button in his mouth. Quick ! take it away from him before he…..it.
a. chokes
b. drinks
c. swallows
d. chews
e. gulps
1………..2………3………4………5……….6………….7…………8………9………10………..
11……….12……13……..14………15…….16…………17……….18………19………20………..
II: The passage below contains 10 errors. find and correct them
What is the media? What constitutes the media? The
media consists on all the ways that news and information 0. on  of
is disseminated to the mass audience. The media covers
everything from hard news, which is investigating
reporting, to stories that are pure entertaining, such as 1. .................................
whether your favourite movie star was on the ‘Best 2. ..................................
Dressed/Worst Dressed’ list. Whether from print or 3. .................................
broadcast on TV, the stories are the product of the
4. ................................
reporting of many journalists who write the stories to,
and editors who give out the assignments, assess the 5. .................................
quality of the writing and research, but make the 6. .................................
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decisions about where and when the stories run.
7. ..................................
The news has an immediate impact. The Internet puts 8. .................................
global news onto the personal computer on your desk.
9. .................................
All almost browsers have links to up-to-the-minute new
stories from various news services. You cannot get 10. .................................
constant news updates from a variety of sources via your
personal computer, provided you with the most up-todate and in-depth coverage.
III. Fill suitable prepositions in the blanks. ( 5ps)
1. The customs knew all about the drug smugglers because they had been tipped……in
advance by a member of the gang.
2. When people demand something for example, a change in the law, we say that they call
…a change.
3. “Please don’t hang ……until I have had a chance to tell you how sorry I am.
4. During the second War World, most messages were sent …….code.
5. He is not lying. Every thing he has told us so far is…….the level
6. The goods were not sold openly but were available ….the counter.
7. I am sorry but Dr. Salmon sees patients……appointments only.
8. It is mush easier to take a clock……..than to put it together.
9. with prices so high I will have to do……a new suit this year
10.He kept bothering her and finally she told him to cut it…..
11. Her husband was courteous ….her
12.You should comply....the school rules
13.Be calm and don’t make a fuss…..such trifles.
14. John is very good…..his hands
15.She knows how to get…….her father to buy her a new car.
16.the police are looking …the past record of the suspect
17.When she hear the news of the crash she broke …….and cried
18.She always sides……..her son against her husband.
19.in the warm sun, the grass dries…….quickly
20.You shouldn’t look down on the people who aren’t as well……as you are.
1………..2………3………4………5……….6………….7…………8………9………10………..
11……….12……13……..14………15…….16…………17……….18………19………20………..
IV. Provide the correct forms of the words
Skill/ contribute/ responsible / profession/ suspect/ legal/ injure/
Compare/ medicine/ equal
Throughout history, women have had ……………..(1) for healing the sick, however, it is
only in…(2)…..recent times that they have been allowed to train as doctors at
(3)………schools in Britain. Yet in that short time, they have made enormous …(4)…..to
modern medicine.
Page 4
The first female doctors were priestesses who gave advice about diseases and……(5)….and
prepared medicines. In ancient Rome, women healers were considered …(6)………and
respected.
IN Britain, for centuries, make doctors were…………….(7) of women who practiced
medicine……….(8) and in 1512 a law was passed making it………..(9) for them to do so.
Women couldn’t study medicine at universities until the 19th century and they only began to
gain…………….(10) with male doctors in the 20th century
1…………………….2…………………..3………………….4………………5……………...
6……………………..7…………………..8………………….9……………….10……………
V. Read the passage and fill the missing sentences into the blanks
Not Just Another Russian
………A………..(0). He would grow up to write two of the greatest novels in the history of
literature and inspire social reform that would make an impact on the world. Not just another
Russian author, ……………………….(1)
Tolstoy was an unsettled young man. He was a poor student who left his university when he
could find no meaning in his studies. He joined the army but could not endure the violence
and soon left that as well. By this time, Tolstoy was being noticed as a writer but he still felt
unfulfilled……………………….(2). In them, Tolstoy offered a new kind of fiction to
Russian readers. He described events and characters so detailed and convincing that they
blurred the line between the imaginary and real life. In Tolstoy's version, it was not great
leaders that moved history, but the common people. ……………….(3)
Tolstoy suffered a mid-life crisis after writing Anna Karenina. ……………..(4), he
decided he must find the meaning of life or else kill himself. What he found came from
the core of his Christian faith—universal love and passive resistance to evil. Gandhi later
adopted this message in his campaign to free India. Martin Luther King, Jr. did the same in
his fight for racial equality in America.
……(5). Tolstoy was a gifted writer, but it was
his revolutionary ideas that changed the course of history and the world in which we live
A. In 1828, baby Leo was born into the rich and powerful Tolstoy family of Central Russia
B. His work has been called, "not art, but a piece of life."
C. Leo Tolstoy was a teacher, a philosopher, and the grandfather of non-violent revolution.
D. The effects of passive resistance can still be felt today
E. It was during this time that Tolstoy wrote his most famous books, War and Peace and
Anna Karenina
F. Giving up his fortune to live among the peasants,
1………….2…………….3………….4…………….5……….
Part 4: Reading
I. Find a suitable word to fill in the blanks
Men have lived in groups and societies ….(1)all times and in all places as far as we know.
They don’t seem …….(2) to survive as human beings unless they live in ……(3) cooperation
with one another. The most basic of…….(4) human groups is the family in its various forms.
The most important reason for this is the simple………(5) that human beings take many
years to develop. In…….(6), they are the most helpless of all earthly creatures. For several
Page 5
years after birth, a child has to be…(7), clothed and protected day and night. In all societies
such duties normally fall to a family group of some kind. Men …….(8) groups for countless
other reasons. For instance, it is only by cooperating that they are able to……..(9) their
environment and defend………(10)
II. Read the text and decide which word best fit each blank
The world’s first film was shown in 1895 by two French brothers, Louis and Augusta
Lumpier. Although it only (1) …………. of short, simple scenes, people loved it and films
have (2) ……….. popular ever since. The first film was silent, with title on the screen to (3)
……….. the story.
Soon the public had (4) ………… favorite actors and actresses and, in this (5)
…………., the first film stars appeared. In 1927, the first “talkie” film with sound, was
shown and from then on, the public (6) ………… only accept this kind of film.
Further improvements continued, particularly in America, (7) ……………produced
95% of all films. With the arrival of television in the 1950s, (8) ………….. people went to
see films, but in (9) ………… years cinema audiences have grown again. More countries
have started to produce films that influence film- making and there are currently (10)
………… national film industries.
1.A. consisted
B. contained
C. belonged
D. held
2.A. gone
B. been
C. made
D. kept
3.A. join
B. read
C. explain
D. perform
4.A. your
B. his
C. our
D. their
5.A. reason
B. way
C. method
D. result
6.A. should
B. would
C. might
D. will
7.A. who
B. where
C. when
D. which
8.A. other
B. each
C. fewer
D. any
9.A. recent
B. now
C. modern
D. present
10.A. many
B. lots
C. much
D. plenty
1………..2………3………4………5……….6………….7…………8………9………10………..
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are
survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by
learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety
instruction before take off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten
your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know
how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During takeoffs and landings, you are
advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before take off, you should locate the nearest exit
and an alterative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can
reach them in the dark if necessary.
In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on
your ankles and keep your head down until the planes comes to a complete stop. If smoke is
present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins,
towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To
Page 6
evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings
with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are fully inflated, and when you jump, do
so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should
move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and smoke near the wreckage.
1. : What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Procedures for evacuation aircraft.
B. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.
C. Airline industry accident statistics.
D. Safety instructions in air travel.
2. : Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instruction_____________.
A. if smoke is in the cabin
B. in an emergency
C. before locating the exits
D. before take-off
3: According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the
floor____________
A. especially during landings
B. throughout the flight
C. only if an accident is possible
D. during take-offs and landings
4: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off ?
A. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.
B. The nearest one.
C. The two closest to the passenger’s seat
D. The ones that can be found in the dark
5: The word “them” in line 7 refers to __________________.
A. seats
B. rows
C. exits
D. feet
6.: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts
if they _______.
A. don’t smoke in or near a plane
B. read airline safety statistics
C. wear a safety belt
D. keep their heads low
7 Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ___________
A. ask questions about safety
B. locate the nearest exit
C. fasten their seat belts before take-off
D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
8.: The word “evacuate” is closest in meaning to ________________
A. evade
B. vacate
C. maintain
D. escape
9: The word “inflated” is closest in meaning to ____________
A. expanded
B. lifted
C. assembled
D. increased
1………..2………3………4………5……….6………….7…………8………9………..
IV. Read the passage and do the tasks below
A. People have been traveling by subway for well over a hundred years. The first subway
systems began operating in Europe in the second half of the nineteenth century. London’s
subway system, known as “the underground” or Tube opened in early 1863. In 1896, subway
began running in both Budapest, Hungary and Glasgow, ?Scotland. the Budapest subway ran
from the center of the city to city Park and was just under four kilometers long . the city of
Paris , France began operating its subway system in 1990. its famous name Metro, is short for
Page 7
Chiming de far Metropolitan or Metropolitan Railway. Many other cities have since adopted
the name Metro for their own subways.
B. The city of Boston , Massachusetts boasts the oldest subways system in the United
States, beginning operation in 1897. it had only two stations when it first opened . the New
York City subway, now one of the largest systems in the world, began running in 1904. the
original line was 14.5 kilometers long and ran from City Hall in downtown Manhattan to
145th Street. The city of Philadelphia opened its first subway line 1907. the oldest subway in
Latin America began operations in Buenos Aires, Argentina in 1913. it is called the subtle,
short for subterranean or underground.
C. the second half of the twentieth century saw new subway systems constructed in cities
around the world. Many Korean cities have modern subway systems, the largest one in the
capital city of Seoul with 287 kilometers of track. The first subway in Brazil opened in the
city of Sao Paulo in 1974. since then subways have been built in a number of other Brazilian
cities, including Rio de Janeiro and the capital, Brasilia. Washington, DC began running the
Washington Metro in 1976. Hong Kong opened its subway in 1979. this system includes four
lines that run under Victoria Harbor. In 2000 a 17-mile long subway system was completed
in Los Angeles, a city infamous for its traffic problems and resulting smog construction of
this system took fourteen years to complete.
D. With total of 468 stations and 656 mile of passenger service track, the New York city
Subway is among the largest subway systems in the world. If the tracks in train yards, shops,
and storage areas are added in , the total track length of the New York subway comes to 842
miles. Measured by number of riders, the Moscow Metro is the world’s largest system, with
3.2 billion riders annually. Other cities with busy subways include Tokyo, with 2.6 billion
riders a year, and Seoul and Mexico, both carrying 1.4 billion riders annually
E. in some cities, the subway stations are famous for their architecture and artwork. The
stations of the Moscow Metro are well known for their beautiful examples of socialist- realist
art. The baker street station in London honors the fictional detective, Sherlock Holmes, who
supposedly lived on Baker Street. Decorative lies in the station’s interior depict the character
and a Sherlock Holmes statue sits outside one of the station exits. Each of the stations of the
new Los Angeles subway system contains murals , sculptures, or other examples of
decorative artwork.
F. A new feature now often included in the construction of new subway stations is the
Platform Screen Door (PSD). The Singapore subway was the first to be built with the
conclusion of PSDs. The original purpose was to reduce high air-conditioning costs in
underground stations. Since then, there has been more and more focus on the safety aspects
of this device, as it can prevent people from accidentally falling or being pushed onto the
track. PSDs also keep the station platforms quieter and cleaner and allow trains to enter
stations at higher rates of speed. The subway system in Hong Kong was the first to have
PSDs added to an already existing system. They are becoming more common in subway
systems around the world. Tokyo, Seoul, Bangkok, London, and Copenhagen are just some
of the cities that have PSDs in at least some of their subway stations. PSDs are also often
used with other forms of transportation, such as monorails, light rail systems and airport
transportation systems.
Page 8
* Choose the correct heading for sections A-F from the list of headings below
1. Section A…………
3. Section C…………
5. Section E…………
2. Section B…………
4. Section D…………
6. Section F…………
List of headings
I. Newer subway systems
II. Early subway in the Americas
III. Asian subway systems
IV. A new device
V. the longest subway
VI. Subway art
VII. Europe’s first Subways
VIII. the world’s largest subways
IX. the Moscow Metro
* Look at the following descriptions, match the cities with descriptions of their subway
systems
7. has a station celebrating a storybook character………
8. is the busiest subway system in the world………
9. has lent its name to subway systems around the world………
10. has several lines running under water………..
11. was the first subway system constructed with PSDs………..
A. Hong Kong
D. Sao Paulo
G. Seoul
J. Budapest
B. Paris
e. London
H. Buenos Aires
K. Moscow
C. Washington
F. Tokyo
I. Singapore
L. New York
Part 5: Writing
I. Rewrite the sentences.
1. What finally ended the dispute was the fact that the union agreed to go to arbitration.
AGREEMENT
…………………………………………………………………..
2. The fact that nobody said anything at the time surprised me. WHAT
…………………………………………………………………..
3. It’s becoming extremely expensive to maintain the museum. UPKEEP
…………………………………………………………………..
4. You don’t have to do it if you don’t want to. OBLIGATION
…………………………………………………………………..
5. He bought a new jacket without having planned to. (spur)
He bought………………………………………………………
6. As I listened to the music on repeated occasions, my request for the composers increased
The more…………………………………………………………..
7. In spite of her initial reluctance to take the job, she has got on very well.
Reluctant………………………………………………………………….
8. He met Jane whom he later married when he was at Cambridge.
He met Jane, who was …………………………………………………..
9. “I admit that I forgot to turn on the alarm system” said Robert.
Robert confessed ……………………………………………………………..
Page 9
10. The politician tried to find people who were willing to back his campaign to help the
homeless.
The politician tried to drum………………………………………………………….
II. Write a paragrap of about 150words to express your opinion of the following issue: A
government’s priority is to provide education for its people.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Page 10
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC
SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY
MÔN ANH VĂN KHỐI 10
NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
HƯƠNG DẪN CHẤM
Bài thi gồm 5 phần
TỔNG ĐIÊM 100/5= 20
Part 1: listening 15ps/15qs
Part 2: Phonetics: 5ps/10qs
A. Pick out the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from those of the others (5
points)
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. A
B/ Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words (5 points)
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. C
10.C
Part 3:Grammar and vocabulary30ps/
I. Choose the word that best fits the space in each sentence by circling A,B, C or D.(10 pts)
key
1. a
9. b
18. b
2. e
3. a
10. e
11. c
19. b 20. c
4.e
5b ( sleep deeply)
12.
13. a
14. a
6. b
15. b
Question II: Identify and correct the mistakes. (5p)
1. the
2. investigating
3. pure
4. from
5. to
a
investigative
purely
in
x
III. Prepositions 5ps
1. off
5, on
2. for
6. under
3. up
7. by
4. in
8. apart
6. but
7. All almost
8. new
9. cannot
10. provided
9. without
10. out
11. to
12. with
4-F
5-D
Page 11
8. e
17d
and
Almost all
news
can
providing
13. over
14. with
15. round
16. into
IV. Word forms. 5ps
1. responsibility
2. comparatively
3. medical
6. skilled skillful
7. suspicious 8. professionally
V. sentence filling. 5ps
0 –A 1- C 2-E
3-B
Part 4: Reading: 30ps
I. Open close test. 10ps
7. e
16. d
17. down
18. with
19. off
20. off
4. contribution
5. injuries
9. illegal
10. equality
1. at 2. able
3. close 4. these
control
10. themselves/ it
II. close test: 10ps
1.A
2.B
3.C
4.D
5.B
5. fact
6.B
6 infancy
7.D
III. Read and choose the best answer : 4,5ps
1. b
2, d
3. d 4. c
5. c
6. d
IV. Read the passage and do the tasks : 5,5ps
1. – VII.
2. –II
3- I
4-viii
5-vi
7-E
8-K
9B
10-A 11-I
Part 5: writing
8.C
7. d
7. fed
8. form
9.A
10.A
8. d
9.a
6-iv
:20
I. Rewrite the sentences: 5ps
1. The union’s agreement to go to arbitration finally ended the dispute
2. What surprised me was (that) nobody said anything at the time.
3. The upkeep of the museum is becoming extremely high
4. It’s not your obligation to do it if you don’t want to.
5. he bought anew jacket on the spur of the moment
6. The more I listened to the music, the more my request for the composer increased
7. reluctant though she was to take the job at first, she has got on very well
8. he met Jane, who was later to become his wife, when he was at Cambridge
9.Robert confessed to forgetting to turn on the alarm system
10. the optician tried to drum up support for his campaign to help the homeless
II. write a paragraph: 10ps
- suitable format: 5ps : + topic sentence. 1p
+ supporting ideas. 1p
+ concluding sentence. 1p
+ linking words. 1p
+ suitable length and clear performance. 1p
- content 10ps: interesting, persuasive, relevant,
NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ
Nguyễn Thị Loan
Page 12
9.
SỞ GD- ĐT NAM ĐỊNH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
LÊ HỒNG PHONG
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI – ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
Năm 2014
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề
PART I: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART 1: Circle the correct answer.
1. The weekly radio programme is on
A topics suggested by listeners.
B local news items.
C listeners' hobbies.
2. The process of stamp production is
A difficult.
B expensive.
C time consuming.
3. In the search for suitable subjects, people are invited to
A research a number of topics.
B give an opinion on possible topics.
C produce a list of topics.
4. Topics are sent for final approval to
A a group of graphic artists.
B the Board of Directors.
C a designers' committee.
5. Australian artists receive money
A only if the stamp goes into circulation.
B for the design only.
C for the design and again if it is used.
PART 2:
Questions 1 – 5: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER
for each answer.
WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARY
MEMBERSHIP APPLICATION FORM
Example answer:
NAME: Camden
FIRST NAME: Peter
ADDRESS: Flat 5
53 (1) _________________________________
Finsbury
POSTCODE (2) ____________________________________
DATE OF BIRTH 8th July (3) _____________________________
HOME TEL None
MOBILE TEL (4) ___________________________________
PROOF OF RESIDENCE PROVIDED (5)______________
Questions 6 – 8 : Circle THREE letters A - F.
What type of books does Peter like?
A Wildlife books
B Romance books
C Travel books
D Historical novels
E Science Fiction novels
F Mystery books
Questions 9 and 10: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
9. How much does it cost to join the library?
_________________________________
10. How much does it cost to rent a DVD?
_________________________________
PART II: PHONETICS (5pts)
I. Choose the word - A, B, C or D - that has its underlined part pronounced
differently from the other three in each question. (2.5pts)
1. A. mischief
B. relief
C. belief
D. chief
2. A. canary
B. share
C. baron
D. pharaoh
3. A. chorus
B. chore
C. chronicle
D. synchronize
4. A. perfect
B. correct
C. hectare
D. select
5. A. southern
B. truth
C. south
D. cloth
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others
by circling A, B, C, or D. (2.5pts)
1. A. admirable
B. accessible
C. compatible
D. respiratory
2. A. humane
B. unite
C. colleague
D. canteen
3. A. descent
B. dissent
C. discontent
D. content
4. A. eradicate
B. kilometer
C. characterize
D. communism
5. A. technical
B. origin
C. agriculture
D. cathedral
PART III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I. Choose the best word or phrase to fill in each gap in the following sentences.
(5pts)
1. He got his university degree last year. Now he’s doing ............ studies.
A. graduate
B. graduating
C. postgraduation D. graduation
2. I will only sign the papers ............ my solicitor.
A. within reach
B. of the agreement of
C. under surveillance of
D. in the presence of
3............. our pre-paid order, they failed to send us the items in time.
A. With respect to
B. Regardless of
C. On behalf of
D Without any notice of
4. Not only……….in the project, but he also wanted to become the leader.
A. did Jack involve
B. had Jack been involved
C. was Jack involved
D. Jack was involved
5. I assure you that I ............ no prejudice against what you are doing.
A. harbour
B. shelter
C. imply
D. shadow
6. I felt a bit ............and seemed to have more aches and pains than usual.
A. out of sorts
B. on the mend
C. over the worst
D.
under
the
fevers
7. The inn owner was so generous. What we consumed was ............ the house.
A. in
B. on
C. off
D. of
8. Although the cyclist was unhurt, his bicycle was ............ between the lorry and
the wall.
A. clapped
B. crushed
C. split
D. banged
9. The school was closed for a month because of a serious ............ of fever.
A. outcome
B. outburst
C. outset
D. outbreak
10. You should iron out the ............ in that dress.
A. wrinkles
B. crumples
C. folds
D. creases
11. I don’t think he’s ever been there, ............?
A. do I
B. has he
C. do you
D. hasn’t he
C. that you keep
D. that you will
12. I would appreciate ............ it a secret
A. you to keep
B. your keeping
keep
13. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their
............ down for a while.
A. hair
B. heads
C. hearts
D. souls
14. ............there are more cars in Los Angeles than people.
A. Fact that
B. As fact that is
C. The fact that
D. It is a fact that
15. The management are making ............ to increase the company’s efficiency.
A. measures
B. steps
C. moves
D. deeds
16. They had a four-day holiday, then began work ............
A. on end
B. out of bounds
C. in proportions
D. in earnest
17. The draw’ took place yesterday, but the competition winners ............
A. are yet to be announced
B. haven’t been yet announced
C. yet are to be announced
D. haven’t announced yet
18. I haven’t seen Jane for nearly ten years, ............she had got married and had
two children.
A. for that duration B. at that point
C. during which time
D. in that
time
19. He is a nice guy but I don’t know why he ............so rude today.
A. is
B. has been
C. is being
D. is to be
20. Lisa: “It’s nearly the end of the holiday already.” Mary: “........................!”
A. How time flies
C. It’s a small world
B. Let’s call it a day
D. There’s nothing to it
II. Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them.(5pts)
The Chinese are very generous when it comes to the education of their children.
No caring about the money, parents often send their children to the best schools or
even abroad to England, the United States or Australia. They also want their
children to take extra- course activities which they will either learn a musical
instrument or ballet, or other classes which will give them a head start in life. The
Chinese believe that the most expensive an education is, the better it is. So parents
will spend an unreasonable amount of money on education. Even poor couples will
buy a computer for their son or daughter. However, what most parents fail to see is
that the best early education they can give their children is usually very cheap.
Parents can see that their children’s skills vary, skilled in some areas while poor in
the others. What most parents fail to realize, though, is that today children lack
self-respect and self-confidence. The problem is that parents are only educating
their children on how to take multiple-choice tests and how to study well, but
parents are not teaching them the most important skills they need to be confident,
happy, or clever. Parents can achieve this by teaching practical skills as cooking,
sewing, and doing another housework. Teaching a child to cook will improve
much of the skills that he will need later in life. Cooking demands patience and
time. It is an enjoyable but difficult experience. A good cook always tries to
improve his cooking, so he will learn to work hard and gradually finish his job
successfully. His result, a well-cook dinner, will give him much satisfaction and a
lot of self-confidence.
1 _____
______
2 _____
______
3 _____
______
4 _____
______
5 _____
______
6 _____
______
7 _____
______
8 _____
______
9 _____
______
10 _____
______
III. Fill in the blank with a suitable preposition: (5pts)
1. The murderer has been condemned …………. death.
2. I was ill for 2 weeks, so I’ve fallen ………….with my work.
3. My plans for starting a restaurant fell ………….for lack of capital.
4. ………….those present at the ceremony was the local MP, Claire Sims.
5. The cat jumped ………….the wall and landed in next door’s pond.
6. At the library yesterday, I ran ………….an old friend.
7. Before you say no, please calm ………….and listen.
8. How could you stand ………….and watched him beat the children like that?
9. Nobody was taken ………….by his story although it seemed convincing at
first.
10. You can’t talk me ………….giving you more money. I’ve given you enough
already.
11. The only way one can tell the twins………….is by their haircuts.
12. The death penalty was done ………….in Britain many years ago.
13. Tom got carried ………….by the music and wouldn’t stop singing.
14. The doctor thinks he’ll pull…….……..now. His temperature has gone down.
15. She swims so well that she really should go ………….the competition.
16. Because she kept putting ………….going to the dentist, her toothache got
worse.
17. Are you going to sit …………. and let me do everything?
18. The Democratic Party came ………….power this year.
19. This composition would be better if you cut ………….the second paragraph.
20. After the flood, hundreds of volunteers came ………….with
offers
of
assistance.
IV. Use the most suitable form of the verbs in brackets: (5pts)
1. Sally! I..................(expect not) to see you here! What......................(you do) here
in New York?
2. Whatever....................(happen), I......................(meet) you here in a week's time.
3. Since I....................... (pay) for our lunch, I................(try) to attract the waiter’s
attention.
4. You (not buy) ....................... your umbrella for we are going by car.
5. You should have been more careful. You (avoid) ……… having had this
accident.
6. Not until later did they discover that the picture (steal) …………
7. I waited under the clock! - So did I, but I didn’t see you! We (wait) ...........
under different clocks.
8. She was breathing fast and deep, as if she (run) ………..
9. It is very cold. Mr. Taylor, who has been ill recently, is walking along the road
without a coat. He (wear) ……….. a warm coat.
10. He got angry because he hadn’t been accustomed to (make) ……….. fun like
that before.
11. Although (found) ……….many centuries earlier, Luxor did not reach
preeminence until about 2000 B.C.
12. I would like (give) ………... the chance to explain my point of view, but they
weren’t interested.
13. There (be) ..................nothing else to say, he declared the meeting close.
14. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look for) ........................the escaped
prison.
15. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare) ……… it very carefully at home.
16. My uncle would rather that I (not leave) ……….yesterday.
17. Just inside the outer layer of the earth’s atmosphere (be) ……… the elements
necessary to protect it from ultraviolet rays, extreme temperatures, and
threatening foreign substances.
V. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (5pts)
The Desire to Know
Curiosity goes back to the dawn of human (0) _____ existence EXIST
_____. This irresponsible desire to know is not a (1) CHARACTER
_________ of inanimate objects. Nor does it seem to be
attributable to some forms of living organism which, for that
very reason, we can scarcely bring ourselves to consider alive. RECOGNISE
A tree, for example, does not display (2) _________ curiosity,
nor does a sponge or even an oyster. If chance events bring CEREMONIOUS
them poison, predators or parasites, they die as (3) _________ DEPEND
as they lived.
ORDINARY
Early in the scheme of life, (4) _________ motion was RIGID
developed by some organisms. It meant an (5) _________
advance in their control of the environment. A moving ZEAL
organism no longer waited in stolid (6) _________ for food to CONSERVE
come its way, but went out after it. The individual that
hesitated in the (7) _________ search for food, or that was ROUND
overly (8) _________ in its investigation, starved.
As organisms grew more complex, more messages of greater INCREASE
variety were received from and about the (9) _________
environment. At the same time, the nervous system, the living
instrument that interprets and stores the data collected by the
sense organs, became (10) _________ complex.
VI. Fill in each gap with the most suitable phrase or sentence provided. Some
of the suggested answers do not fit at all. (5pts)
WELLS AMI BENNETT
During their lifetimes, H.G Wells and Arnold Bennett achieved a public
fame of a kind that has been accorded to (1) .................. before or since. They
would not have had it if (2) .................., and yet the nature of the fame (3)
.................. as such. It was essentially that of the journalist, the popular pundit (4)
.................. with complete self - assurance. With Shaw, (5) .................. was also a
product of journalism, they divided between them the empire of the press, (6)
..................
All that (7) .................. as novelists. Both were men (8) .................. in
fiction, to say nothing of their short stories, Wells wrote nearly fifty novels,
Bennett thirty. Of these, perhaps ten of Wells’s are still valuable (9) .................. if
the best of the scientific romances are included, and, (10) .................., five of
Bennett’s.
A. they had not been novelists in the first place
B. prepared to pronounce on any subject under the sun
C. the most highly paid writers in the Anglo-Saxon world
D. has nothing to do with their merit
E. more certainly
F. in their own right
G. of vast output
H. if they had wanted to
I. is generally acknowledged
J. whose popular reputation
K. had little to do with their novels
L. was undeniably
M. no other English novelist
PART IV: READING (30 pts)
I. Read the text below and choose the best answer to fill in each gap. (7.5 pts)
English dominates the world of business and is now gradually becoming the
language of politics. People all over the world are benefiting from the spread of
English, which is becoming independent of its origins. However, the dominance of
English has produced a number of (1) _______ effects. One significant after- math
has been the fostering of national antagonisms. A phenomenon like (2) _______ is
observable in CanadA. and particularly in Quebec. Its (3) _______ have long faced
the competition between the English and French languages, as bilingualism
promoted by the government of Canada proved to be an (4) _______ fail- are. Not.
only has it failed to unite the (5) _______ of French- and English- speaking
settlers, but it also entailed a great (6) _______ of prejudice and aggression (7)
_______ outsiders. The English language flooded the majority of Canadian
provinces, (8) _______ producing a minority complex, which French Canadians
have long struggled to (9) _______. The impact of the English language on human
relations differs in (10) _______ countries, where it is viewed either as a useful
product of modern civilisation, or as a “killer” language, which endangers cultural
uniqueness of the societies it enters. (11) _______, the final result of its expansion
and integration (12) _______ the national life of its non-native speakers is yet (13)
_______ seen and we will have wait (14) _______ more years to see the precise
result of these (15) _______.
1. A. hostile
B. adverse
C. reverse
D. contrary
2. A. this
B. it
C. one
D. these
3. A. Inheritors
B. habitats
C. Inhabitants
D. inhibitions
4. A. unpredictable
B. undeniable
C. unique
D. sure
5. A. forefathers
B. ancestors
C. progenitors
D. descendants
6. A. much
B. many
C. deal
D. number
7. A. towards
B. for
C. to
D. up to
8. A. since
B. despite
C. almost
D. thus
9. A. overthrow
B. overtake
C. overcome
D. overturn
10. A. particular
B. specific
C. many
D. special
11. A. In contrast
B. Yet
C. Although
D. Therefore
12. A. within
B. of
C. to
D. into
13. A. being
B. to have been
C. to be
D. already
14. A. no
B. one
C. some
D. a few
15. A. changes
B. differences
C. alternatives
D. options
II. Read the text and fill in each gap with one suitable word. (7.5 pts)
Throughout the ages, the (1) .......... of the earth has been built up in some
places and worn down in other places. The wearing down of the land is called
erosion.
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all help to (2) ............ erosion. As the wind
blows over the land, it often picks up small grains of sand. When these grains of
sand strike (3) .............. solid rocks, the rocks are slowly worn away. Later, the
wind may pick up these new rock particles, and with them wear away other rocks.
In this way even very (4) ... ........ rocks are worn away by the wind.
When articles of rock or soil become (5)…......…. in any way, running water
carries them down the hillsides. Some rock and soil particles are carried into
streams. The streams may then carry them into the (6) .............
Land that is coveredwith trees, grass and other plants wears (7).......…very
slowly, and so (8) ..........very little of its soil. The roots of plants help to hold the
rocks and soil in place. When rain falls in a forest, the leaves of the trees and the
soft soil beneath them are able to hold a great deal of water. Water that falls on
grasslands runs away more slowly than does water that falls on (9) .... ..... ....
ground. Water that flows slowly carries fewer soil (10) …......…. than water that
flows rapidly. Thus, forests and grasslands help to slow down erosion.
Even (11) ............. the land is thickly covered with plants, some erosion goes
on. Sometimes there is a long period of rainy weather. In Spring the (12) ..............
snow turns to large quantities of water. At these times the soil cannot (13) ...........
all the water. It then runs down hill in streams. As the streams carry away some of
the soil, the stream (14) ............. gets deeper and deeper. After thousands of years
of such (15) ............., wide valleys are often formed.
III. Read the following passage then choose the best answer to the questions.
(5 pts)
WARNING ON GLOBAL WARMING
Global warming could cause drought and possibly famine in China, the source
of much of Hong Kong’s food, by 2050, a new report predicts. Hong Kong could
also be at risk from flooding as sea levels rose. The report recommends building
sea-walls around low-lying areas such as the new port and airport reclamations.
Published by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), the report, which includes
work by members of the Chinese Academy of Meteorological Sciences, uses the
most recent projections on climate change to point to a gloomy outlook for China.
By 2050 about 30 to 40 per cent of the country will experience changes in the
type of vegetation it supports, with tropical and subtropical forest conditions
shifting northward and hot desert conditions rising in the west where currently the
desert is temperate. Crop growing areas will expand but any benefit is expected to
be negated by increased evaporation of moisture, making it too dry to grow crops
such as rice. The growing season also is expected to alter, becoming shorter in
southern and central China, the mainland’s breadbasket. The rapid changes make it
unlikely that plants could adapt.
“China will produce smaller crops. In the central and northern areas, and the
southern part, there will be decreased production because of water limitations,” Dr.
Rik Leemans, one of the authors of the report, said during a brief visit to the
territory yesterday. Famine could result because of the demands of feeding the
population — particularly if it grows - and the diminished productivity of the land.
“It looks very difficult for the world as a whole,” he said.
Global warming is caused by the burning of large amounts of fossil fuels, such
as coal and oil, which release gases that trap heat in the atmosphere. World
temperatures already have increased this century by about 6 degrees Celsius and
are projected to rise by between 1.6 degrees and 3.8 degrees by 2100.
Dr. Leemans said China’s reliance on coal-fired power for its industrial growth
did not bode well for the world climate. “I think the political and economic powers
in China are much greater than the environmental powers, and [greenhouse gas
emissions] could accelerate,” Dr. Leemans said. “China is not taking the problem
seriously yet, although it is trying to incorporate this kind of research to see what is
going to happen.”
The climate change report, which will be released tomorrow, focuses on China
but Mr David Melville of WWF-Hong Kong said some of the depressing scenarios
could apply to the territory. Food supplies, for instance, could be affected by lower
crop yields. “Maybe we could afford to import food from elsewhere but you have
to keep in mind that the type of changes experienced in southern China will take
place elsewhere as well,” he said. Sea levels could rise as glaciers melted and the
higher temperatures expanded the size of the oceans, threatening much of
developed Hong Kong which is built on reclaimed land. Current projections are
that sea levels worldwide will rise by 15 to 90 centimetres by 2100, depending on
whether action is taken to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
“Hong Kong has substantial areas built on reclaimed land and sea level rises
could impact on that, not only on Chek Lap Kok but the West Kowloon
Reclamation and the Central and Western Reclamation - the whole lot,” Mr
Melville said, adding that sea-walls would be needed. Depleted fresh water
supplies would be another problem because increased evaporation would reduce
levels. Mr Melville said the general outlook could be helped if Hong Kong used
water less wastefully and encouraged energy efficiency to reduce fuel-burning. He
also called on the West to help China improve its efficiency.
1. Overall, what sort of picture is painted of the future effects of global warming?
A. disastrous
B.potentially disastrous
C.relatively optimistic
D. on balance things are going to be satisfactory
2. What is this passage?
A. a report
B.a preview of a report
C.an article describing a response to a report
D. an article previewing a report
3. Mr David Melville suggests that in future more food could be imported into
Hong Kong. He thinks these measures could be _______.
A. efficient
4.
B. sufficient
C. insufficient
D. inefficient
The main point of paragraph 3 is to describe _______.
A. effects of changes in the climate of China on food production
B.future changes in the climate of China
C.effects of changes in the climate of China on the growing season
D. projected future changes in the climate of China
5.
The main point of paragraph 5 is to describe _______.
A. global warming
B.the effects of global warming
C.the causes and projected effects of global warming
D. the causes and effects of global warming
6.
Why does the writer add the information in square brackets in paragraph 5?
A. because the quote is from a second language user whose command of
English is not perfect.
B. because, although they are not part of the original quote, the additional
information given is necessary to understand the statement.
C. because the writer is quoting from another source.
D. because the writer wants to emphasize the meaning of these words.
7.
In paragraph 7, which point is Mr Melville NOT making?
A. suggesting that there is a potential disaster in Hong Kong
B. suggesting that reclamation areas are at risk
C. criticising current safeguards
D. making a call for action
8.
How would you describe the Dr. Leeman’s attitude towards China?
A. mainly favourable B. critical
C. supportive in theory
D.
admiring
9.
In paragraph 2 “negated” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. made possible
B. made ineffective C. reduced
D. paid for
10. In paragraph 7 “depleted” could be replaced by which of the following?
A. reduced
B. poor
C. decaying
D. decimated
IV. Read the text below and do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
Climate change and the Inuit
The threat posed by climate change in the Arctic and the problems faced by
Canada's Inuit people
A
Unusual incidents are being reported across the Arctic. Inuit families going
off on snowmobiles to prepare their summer hunting camps have found themselves
cut off from home by a sea of mud, following early thaws. There are reports of
igloos losing their insulating properties as the snow drips and refreezes, of lakes
draining into the sea as permafrost melts, and sea ice breaking up earlier than
usual, carrying seals beyond the reach of hunters. Climate change may still be a
rather abstract idea to most of us, but in the Arctic it is already having dramatic
effects - if summertime ice continues to shrink at its present rate, the Arctic Ocean
could soon become virtually ice-free in summer. The knock-on effects are likely to
include more warming, cloudier skies, increased precipitation and higher sea
levels. Scientists are increasingly keen to find out what's going on because they
consider the Arctic the 'canary in the mine' for global warming - a warning of
what's in store for the rest of the world.
B
For the Inuit the problem is urgent. They live in precarious balance with one
of the toughest environments on earth. Climate change, whatever its causes, is a
direct threat to their way of life. Nobody knows the Arctic as well as the locals,
which is why they are not content simply to stand back and let outside experts tell
them what's happening. In Canada, where the Inuit people are jealously guarding
their hard-won autonomy in the country's newest territory, Nunavut, they believe
their best hope of survival in this changing environment lies in combining their
ancestral knowledge with the best of modern science. This is a challenge in itself.
C The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that's covered with snow for
most of the year. Venture into this terrain and you get some idea of the hardships
facing anyone who calls this home. Farming is out of the question and nature offers
meagre pickings. Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500 years ago,
surviving by exploiting sea mammals and fish. The environment tested them to the
limits: sometimes the colonists were successful, sometimes they failed and
vanished. But around a thousand years ago, one group emerged that was uniquely
well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment. These Thule people moved in
from Alaska, bringing kayaks, sleds, dogs, pottery and iron tools. They are the
ancestors of today's Inuit people.
D
Life for the descendants of the Thule people is still harsh. Nunavut is 1.9
million square kilometres of rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the
North Pole. It's currently home to 2,500 people, all but a handful of them
indigenous Inuit. Over the past 40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways
and settled in the territory's 28 isolated communities, but they still rely heavily on
nature
to
provide
food
and
clothing.
Provisions available in local shops have to be flown into Nunavut on one of the
most costly air networks in the world, or brought by supply ship during the few
ice-free weeks of summer. It would cost a family around £7,000 a year to replace
meat they obtained themselves through hunting with imported meat. Economic
opportunities are scarce, and for many people state benefits are their only income.
E While the Inuit may not actually starve if hunting and trapping are curtailed by
climate change, there has certainly been an impact on people's health. Obesity,
heart disease and diabetes are beginning to appear in a people for whom these have
never before been problems. There has been a crisis of identity as the traditional
skills of hunting, trapping and preparing skins have begun to disappear. In
Nunavut's 'igloo and email' society, where adults who were born in igloos have
children who may never have been out on the land, there's a high incidence of
depression.
F With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing out
the mysteries of climate change in the Arctic. Having survived there for centuries,
they believe their wealth of traditional knowledge is vital to the task. And Western
scientists are starting to draw on this wisdom, increasingly referred to as 'Inuit
Qaujimajatugangit', or IQ. 'In the early days scientists ignored us when they came
up here to study anything. They just figured these people don't know very much so
we won't ask them,' says John Amagoalik, an Inuit leader and politician. 'But in
recent years IQ has had much more credibility and weight.' In fact it is now a
requirement for anyone hoping to get permission to do research that they consult
the communities, who are helping to set the research agenda to reflect their most
important concerns. They can turn down applications from scientists they believe
will work against their interests, or research projects that will impinge too much on
their daily lives and traditional activities.
G
Some scientists doubt the value of traditional knowledge because the
occupation of the Arctic doesn't go back far enough. Others, however, point out
that the first weather stations in the far north date back just 50 years. There are still
huge gaps in our environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught,
many predictions are no more than best guesses. IQ could help to bridge the gap
and resolve the tremendous uncertainty about how much of what we're seeing is
natural capriciousness and how much is the consequence of human activity.
1. Choose the corect heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings
below.
List of Headings
i
The reaction of the Inut community of climate change
ii
understanding of climate change remains limited
iii
Respect for Inuit opinion grows
v
A healthier choice of food
vi
A difficult landscape
vii
Negative effects on well-being
viii
Alarm caused by unprecedented events in th Arctic
ix
The benefits of an easier existence
Example
Paragraph A
Answer
viii
1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G
2. Complete the summary of paragraphs C and D below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from paragraphs C and D for each
answer.
If you visit the Canadian Arctic, you immediately appreciate the
problems faced by people for whom this is home. It would clearly be
impossible for the people to engage in (7) ..............as a means of
supporting themselves. For thousands of years they have had to rely on
catching (8) ..............and fish as a means of sustenance. The harsh
surroundings saw many who tried to settle there pushed to their limits,
although some were successful. The (9) ..............people were an example
of the latter and for them the environment did not prove (6)
unmanageable. For the present inhabitants, life continues to be a struggle.
The territory of Nunavut consists of little more than ice, rock and a
few (10) ............... In recent years, many of them have been obliged to
give up their nomadic lifestyle, but they continue to depend mainly
on nature their food and clothes. imported produce is particularly
expensive.
PART V: WRITING (20 pts)
I. Rewrite the following sentences, using the words in the bracket or beginning
as shown. The second sentence must be as close as possible in meaning to the
first. (5 pts)
1. Interrupting when someone is speaking is rude. (CUT)
- It’s rude …………………….when someone is speaking.
2. They had to dismantle their vehicles to get them across the gorge. (PIECES)
..............................................................................................
3. I’m interested in finding out something about fire-fighting. (GIVE)
..............................................................................................
4. My father is going to be really angry when he finds out that I’ve lost the car key.
(WALL)
..............................................................................................
5. The Conservative Party won the election that year. (POWER)
..............................................................................................
6. My brother’s not feeling terribly well these days.
My brother ............................................................................
7. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never ....................................................................................
8. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Karen had changed her job.
- It came ................................................................................
9. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very................................................................................
10. He had just begun his speech when there was a noise of breaking glass.
- He was on …. .....................................................................
II. Write a paragraph (about 150 words): (15pts)
Do you agree with the following statement :
“Mobile phones are of great use. Therefore students should be
allowed to use them at school.”
- THE END ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI – ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
Năm 2014
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
PART I: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART 1.
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. C
PART 2.
1. Green Street
2. 7434
letter
6-8:
F Mystery books
D Historical novels
A Wildlife books
3. 1976
4. 06634982746
5. (an addressed)
9. Free
10. $6 ($ 60 deposit)
PART II: PHONETICS (5pts)
I. Pronunciation: 5pts
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. A
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
II. Stress: 5pts
1. A
PART III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I. Verb form
5. : 10pts
1. C
6.A
11.B
16.D
2. D
7.B
12.B
17.A
3. B
8.B
13.A
18.C
4.C
9.D
14.D
19.C
5.A
10.D
15.C
20.A
II. Mistake Identification: 5pts
1 No
Not
2 which
where
3 most
more
4 the others
others
5 today
today’s
6 or
and
7 as
like
8 another
other
9 much
many
10 well-cook
well-cooked
III. Prepositions: 5pts
1. to
6. across
11. apart
16. off
2. behind
7. down
12. away with
17. back
3. through
8. by
13. away
18. to
4. among
9. in
14. through
19. out
5. over/across
10. into
15. in for
20. forward
IV. Verb form: (5 pts)
1. didn’t expect - are you doing
2. happens - will meet
3. was paying - tried
4. needn’t have bought
5. could have avoided
6. had been stolen
7. must have waited
8. had been running
9. should have been wearing
10. being made
11. founded
12. to have been given
13. being
14. must be looking
15. should have prepared
16. hadn’t left
17. are
V. Word form.
1. characteristic
2. recognisable
3. unceremoniously
4. independent 5. extraordinary
6. rigidity
7. zealous
8. conservative
9. surrounding
10. increasingly
VI. Fill in each gap with the most suitable phrase or sentence provided.
1. M 2. A 3. K 4. B 5. J
6. C 7. D 8. G 9. F 10. E
PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
I. Read the text below and choose the best answer to fill in each gap. 7.5 pts
1. B
6.C
11.B
2. A
7.A
12.D
3. C
8.D
13.C
4.B
9.C
14.D
5.D
10.A
15.A
II. Read the text and fill in each gap with one suitable word. (7.5 pts)
1. surface
6.ocean
11.where
2. cause
7.away
12.melting
3. against
8.loses
13.hold
4.hard
9. bare
14.beds
5.loosened
10. particles
15.erosion
III. Read the following passage then choose the best answer to the questions.
(5 pts)
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. A
IV. Read the text below and do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
1. Choose the corect heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings.
1. Paragraph B
i
2. Paragraph C
vi
3. Paragraph D
iii
4. Paragraph E
vii
5. Paragraph F
iv
6. Paragraph G
ii
2. Complete the summary of paragraphs C and D.
7. farming 8. sea animals
9. Thule
10. islands
PART V: WRITING (20 pts)
I. Rewrite the following sentences, using the words in the bracket or beginning
as shown. The second sentence must be as close as possible in meaning to the
first. (5 pts)
1. Interrupting when someone is speaking is rude. (CUT)
It’s rude to cut in when someone is speaking.
2. They had to dismantle their vehicles to get them across the gorge. (PIECES)
They had to takes their vehicles to pieces to get them across the gorge.
3. I’m interested in finding out something about fire-fighting. (GIVE)
Can you give me some advice on fire-fighting?
4. My father is going to be really angry when he finds out that I’ve lost the car key.
(WALL)
My father is going to go up the wall when he finds out that I’ve lost the car key.
5. The Conservative Party won the election that year. (POWER)
The Conservative Party came into/to power that year.
6. My brother’s not feeling terribly well these days.
My brother is feeling a bit under the weather these days.
7. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never did she expect her success.
8. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Karen had changed her job.
It came as no surprise to me to hear that Karen had changed her job.
9. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very thought of his face at that moment makes me laugh.
10. He had just begun his speech when there was a noise of breaking glass.
He was on the point of beginning his speech when there was a noise of breaking
glass.
II. Write a paragraph (about 150 words): (15pts)
Do you agree with the following statement :
“Music is a bridge between cultures.’
Marking scheme
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as
appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures
appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Dưới đây là bản gốc phần:
PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
IV. Read the text below and do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
Nguồn trích dẫn: CAMBRIDGE IELTS 6_TEST 1_READING PASSAGE 3
Questions 27-32
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 145.
Reading Passage 145 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below..
Write the correct number i-ix, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i
The reaction of the Inuit community to climate change
ii
Understanding of climate change remains limited
iii
Alternative sources of essential supplies
iv
Respect for Inuit opinion grows
v
A healthier choice of food
vi
A difficult landscape
vii
Negative effects on well-being
viii
Alarm caused by unprecedented events in the Arctic
ix
The benefits of an easier existence
Example
Paragraph A
Answer
viii
27 Paragraph B
28 Paragraph C
29 Paragraph D
30 Paragraph E
31 Paragraph F
32 Paragraph G
Climate change and the Inuit
The threat posed by climate change in the Arctic and the problems faced by
Canada's Inuit people
A
Unusual incidents are being reported across the Arctic. Inuit families going
off on snowmobiles to prepare their summer hunting camps have found themselves
cut off from home by a sea of mud, following early thaws. There are reports of
igloos losing their insulating properties as the snow drips and refreezes, of lakes
draining into the sea as permafrost melts, and sea ice breaking up earlier than
usual, carrying seals beyond the reach of hunters. Climate change may still be a
rather abstract idea to most of us, but in the Arctic it is already having dramatic
effects - if summertime ice continues to shrink at its present rate, the Arctic Ocean
could soon become virtually ice-free in summer. The knock-on effects are likely to
include more warming, cloudier skies, increased precipitation and higher sea
levels. Scientists are increasingly keen to find out what's going on because they
consider the Arctic the 'canary in the mine' for global warming - a warning of
what's in store for the rest of the world.
B
For the Inuit the problem is urgent. They live in precarious balance with one
of the toughest environments on earth. Climate change, whatever its causes, is a
direct threat to their way of life. Nobody knows the Arctic as well as the locals,
which is why they are not content simply to stand back and let outside experts tell
them what's happening. In Canada, where the Inuit people are jealously guarding
their hard-won autonomy in the country's newest territory, Nunavut, they believe
their best hope of survival in this changing environment lies in combining their
ancestral knowledge with the best of modern science. This is a challenge in itself.
C
The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that's covered with snow
for most of the year. Venture into this terrain and you get some idea of the
hardships facing anyone who calls this home. Farming is out of the question and
nature offers meagre pickings. Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500
years ago, surviving by exploiting sea mammals and fish. The environment tested
them to the limits: sometimes the colonists were successful, sometimes they failed
and vanished. But around a thousand years ago, one group emerged that was
uniquely well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment. These Thule people
moved in from Alaska, bringing kayaks, sleds, dogs, pottery and iron tools. They
are the ancestors of today's Inuit people.
D
Life for the descendants of the Thule people is still harsh. Nunavut is 1.9
million square kilometres of rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the
North Pole. It's currently home to 2,500 people, all but a handful of them
indigenous Inuit. Over the past 40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways
and settled in the territory's 28 isolated communities, but they still rely heavily on
nature to provide food and clothing. Provisions available in local shops have to be
flown into Nunavut on one of the most costly air networks in the world, or brought
by supply ship during the few ice-free weeks of summer. It would cost a family
around £7,000 a year to replace meat they obtained themselves through hunting
with imported meat. Economic opportunities are scarce, and for many people state
benefits are their only income.
E
While the Inuit may not actually starve if hunting and trapping are curtailed
by climate change, there has certainly been an impact on people's health. Obesity,
heart disease and diabetes are beginning to appear in a people for whom these have
never before been problems. There has been a crisis of identity as the traditional
skills of hunting, trapping and preparing skins have begun to disappear. In
Nunavut's 'igloo and email' society, where adults who were born in igloos have
children who may never have been out on the land, there's a high incidence of
depression.
F
With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing
out the mysteries of climate change in the Arctic. Having survived there for
centuries, they believe their wealth of traditional knowledge is vital to the task.
And Western scientists are starting to draw on this wisdom, increasingly referred to
as 'Inuit Qaujimajatugangit', or IQ. 'In the early days scientists ignored us when
they came up here to study anything. They just figured these people don't know
very much so we won't ask them,' says John Amagoalik, an Inuit leader and
politician. 'But in recent years IQ has had much more credibility and weight.' In
fact it is now a requirement for anyone hoping to get permission to do research that
they consult the communities, who are helping to set the research agenda to reflect
their most important concerns. They can turn down applications from scientists
they believe will work against their interests, or research projects that will impinge
too much on their daily lives and traditional activities.
G
Some scientists doubt the value of traditional knowledge because the
occupation of the Arctic doesn't go back far enough. Others, however, point out
that the first weather stations in the far north date back just 50 years. There are still
huge gaps in our environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught,
many predictions are no more than best guesses. IQ could help to bridge the gap
and resolve the tremendous uncertainty about how much of what we're seeing is
natural capriciousness and how much is the consequence of human activity.
Questions 33-40
Complete the summary of paragraphs C and D below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from paragraphs C and D for each
answer.
Write your answers in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet.
If you visit the Canadian Arctic, you immediately appreciate the problems faced by
people for whom this is home. It would clearly be impossible for the people to
engage in 33 .................... as a means of supporting themselves. For thousands of
years they have had to rely on catching 34 .................... and 35 .................... as a
means of sustenance. The harsh surroundings saw many who tried to settle there
pushed to their limits, although some were successful. The 36 .................... people
were an example of the latter and for them the environment did not prove
unmanageable. For the present inhabitants, life continues to be a struggle. The
territory of Nunavut consists of little more than ice, rock and a few 37 ....................
. In recent years, many of them have been obliged to give up their 38 ....................
lifestyle, but they continue to depend mainly on 39 .................... their food and
clothes. 40 .................... produce is particularly expensive.
KEY: Reading Passage 3, Questions 27-40
27.
i
28.
vi
29.
iii
30.
vii
31.
iv
32.
ii
33.
farming
34&35. IN EITHER ORDER
Sea animals
Fish
36
Thule
37
islands
38
nomadic
39
nature
40
imported
Nội dung bài nghe:
Part 1: Tapescript
PRESENTER
Hello and welcome to this week's edition of Tell me more - the programme where
you ask the questions and we provide the answers. And we've had a wide variety of
questions from you this week. And the subject we've picked for you this week in
response to your many letters is the production of postage stamps. And as usual,
we've been doing our homework on the subject. So who designs the postage
stamps that we stick on our letters? Well in Australia the design of postage stamps
is in the hands of Australia Post. In Britain, it's the Royal Mail that looks after
stamps and it seems that both countries have a similar approach to the production
process. We discovered to our surprise that it can take up to two years to produce a
new postage stamp. Why's that I hear you ask! Surely it can't be all that difficult to
design a stamp? In fact, it isn't. But it seems it's a lengthy business. Firstly they
have to choose the subjects and this is done with the help of market research.
Members of the general public, including families, are surveyed to find out what
sort of things they would like to see on their stamps. They are given a list of
possible topics and asked to rank them. A list is then presented to the Advisory
Committee which meets about once a month. The committee is made up of outside
designers, graphic artists and stamp collectors. If the committee likes the list, it
sends it the Board of Directors which makes the final decision. Then they
commission an artist. Australia artists are paid $1,500 for a stamp design and a
further $800 if the committee actually decides to use the design. So there's
possibility that a stamp might be designed, still never actually go into circulation.
Part 2: Tapescript
Section 1. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman as the
man joins a local library. First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
(20 second gap)
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating
to this will be played first.
Peter: Hello, I’m new in the area and I’d like to join the library please.
Will: That’s no problem. Let me get an application form. Here we are. Now all we
have to do is fill this in and then I’ll get you to sign it and you’ll be a member.
P Great
W Now then. What’s your full name?
P Peter Adrian Camden.
W How do you spell Camden?
P C-A-M-D-E-N
W C-A-M-D-E-N
P Yes, that’s right.
So, Camden is the correct answer.Now we begin. You should answer the
questions as you listen, as the recording is not played twice. Listen carefully to
the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.
Peter: Hello, I’m new in the area and I’d like to join the library please.
Will: That’s no problem. Let me get an application form. Here we are. Now all we
have to do is fill this in and then I’ll get you to sign and you’ll be a member.
P Great
W Now then. What’s your full name?
P Peter Adrian Camden.
W How do you spell Camden?
P C-A-M-D-E-N
W C-A-M-D-E-N
P Yes, that’s right.
W Right, and what’s your address?
P Flat 5, 53 Green Street, Finsbury.
W Ok. Got that. That’s near here isn’t it?
P Yes, just 5 minutes walk.
W What’s the post code?
P 7424.. I..I mean, sorry, 7 .
W Got that now. Now, can you tell me your date of birth?
P 8th July 1976.
W And, what’s your telephone number?
P Well, I don’t have a home number but I’ve got a mobile.
W That’ll do fine.
P It’s 06634 982 746. Did you get that?
W Some of it. Can you say it again?
P The code’s 06634 and the number’s then 982 746
W Right. That’s almost it. Now I need some kind of identification to prove where
you live. Do you have a driving license or a passport or anything like that?
P I’m afraid that everything I have, has got my old address on it. Do you need it
now?
W No, not now, but you won’t be able to take anything out until we see that.
P Wait a minute. I’ve got a letter addressed to me here that arrived this morning.
Will that do?
W Oh yes. That’s a good idea. That will be fine…. Let’s look. Ok. Well, that’s that
finished.
Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6
to 10.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.
W Could I ask you a few questions? The Council that runs the library is running a
survey to find out what kind of books people prefer so that they can direct their
buying.
P Yeah, no problem.
W OK. So, what type of books do you like?
P Well, I’m very keen on mysteries. You know, when a detective is trying to find
out who did the murder. Historical novels interest me too. Romance never! My
sister loves them but they bore me to tears. I quite like books on animals too. I
get them out sometimes. Not science fiction either. Too weird.
W Well, I think that’s it then.
P Good. Oh, do you charge anything?
W The library is free unless you want to rent out some of our videos or DVDs.
P How much is that?
W Well, we rent videos out for $4 each and DVDs are $6. You must leave us a
deposit of $60 as well. That’s returnable of course.
P I don’t think I’ll get any of those just yet. Can I pay later?
W Sure, just give the money in when you’re ready to rent them out.
P Well thanks very much. You’ve been very helpful. I might take a book out now
for the weekend, if that’s OK?
W Go ahead.
M Well, goodbye.
36
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC MỞ RỘNG
NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
PART I: LISTENING (15 Points)
Section 1: You will hear a conversation between a senior librarian and a woman working
at the library. (5 points)
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-7: Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Example: The woman says she is interested in
A. part-time employment.
B. A permanent job.
C. Unpaid work.
1. The librarian says that training always includes
A. computer skills.
B. Basic medical skills.
C. Interpersonal skills.
2. All library service volunteers have to
A. record their arrival and departure.
B. Stay within ‘staff only’ sections.
C. Wear a uniform.
3. The woman would be entitled to a contribution towards the cost of
A. transport by minibus.
B. Parking at the library.
C. Public transport.
4. One recent library project involved
A. labeling historical objects.
B. Protecting historical photographs.
C. Cataloguing historical documents.
5. At present, the library is looking for people to
A. record books onto CD.
1
B. Tell stories to children.
C. read books to the blind.
6. The woman says she is interested in a project involving
A. taking library books to people in hospital.
B. delivering library books to people at home.
C. driving the disabled to the library.
7. The woman agrees to work for
A. two hours per week.
B. Four hours per week.
C. Six hours per week.
Questions 8 to 10: Choose THREE letters A-G
Which THREE of the following must be provided by all volunteers?
A. civil conviction check
B. signed copy of commitment
C. certificates to indicate qualifications
D. emergency contact information
E. date of birth
F. signature of parent or guardian
G. referees
Section 2: You will hear a plan of local radio programme about finding air pollution
solutions in Canadian towns. (10 points)
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-14: Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
11. ‘Canadian Clean Air Day’ will be held on …………………….
12. Air pollution may be responsible for………………..deaths every year in Canada.
13. The sector most responsible for smog-producing pollutants is……………….
14. Scientists now know that even………………….of pollutants can be harmful.
Questions 15-20: Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Reducing Air Pollution
2
Individual action
* respond to the (15) ‘………………….Challenge’
* walk, cycle or car-pool to work
* use public transit
* (16)……………………
* (17)……………………….your domestic equipment
Government action
* emission reduction in the (18)……………….region of US and Canada
* move towards (19)…………………………..(e.g. less sulphur in gasoline & diesel)
* reduction of pollutants from (20)……………….and power plants.
PART II. PHONETICS (5 points)
Question 1. Choose the word - A, B, C or D - that has its underlined part pronounced
differently from the other three in each question. (2.5 points)
A. measure
B. leisure
C. ensure
D. pleasure
2.
A. expression
B. division
C. decision
D. television
3.
A. advance
B. advent
C. advice
D. adjustment
4. A. bury
B. cleanliness
C. plenty
D. dean
5. A. fever
B. example
C. ignore
D. ink
1.
Question 2. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others by
circling A, B, C, or D. (2.5 points)
6. A. initial
B. inherit
C. occurrence
D. occupied
7.A. obstacle
B. intolerable
C. possess
D. secure
8.A. technical
B. teardrop
C. treatable
D. horrific
9.A. apprentice
B. construct
C. perverse
D. papal
10.A. panel
B. label
C. realize
D. reality
PART III. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 points)
Question 1: Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes the
sentence. (5 points)
1.
You may be artistic, but I believe you are not cut.............. the job at the theta
A. down for
3
B. in for
C. down to
D. out for
2.
I knew he disagreed with my idea when I saw him...........
A. shake his head
3.
5.
B. will have been studied
C. is studying
D. would study
B. produce
D. take
B. did meet
C. were meeting D. had met
The plants need...........before noon.
B to water
C. be watered
D. being waters:
The school required that every student........... before September 1st
B. registered
C. registers
D. was register
She resented.........waiting for hours in front of the cinema.
A. to be kept
10.
C. make
If only we...........a long time ago.
A. register
9.
D. bring
I like babysitting, although the children always................a mess.
A. watering
8.
C. have
A. will be studying
A. met
7.
B. give
Dora ....................... in university when you come back in three years' time.
A. do
6.
C. comb his hair D. stretch his arm
In your revision, you should ............ priority to tenses
A. take
4.
B. blink
B. keeping
C. being kept
D. being keeping
Doctors always hope that there will be new cures ................. some diseases.
A. to
11. Small
B. of
C. in
D. for
pox and diphtheria disappeared in Britain many years ago, cancer, AIDS and
..........heart disease are now predominant.
A. because
12. We
D. whereas
haven't seen .................... for ten years. I did wonder where you were.
A. one other
13.
B. in the event thatC. in case
B. each other
C. together
D. the others
In 1997, ................ the noise and pollution of the city, best-selling author Will Smith moved
out to Chersey.
A. tiring with
14.
B. to catch
C. to catching
D. than catching
I ................... three rooms of the house so far today; I'll do the other two this afternoon.
A. has been cleaning B. cleaned
4
C. being tired from D. tired of
I'd rather walk................a bus.
A. than catch
15.
B. tire about
C. are cleaning
D. have cleaned
16. Charlie
Chaplin was............. of the silent movies.
A. one of the great actor comics
B. the greatest comic actors
C. one of the greatest comic actors
D. a great comic actor one
17. Although
we do not live in the same town, my cousin and I still keep............... and often
speak on the phone.
A. up date
18.
B. in touch
C. in hand
D. off work
I am looking for a friendly young person to help.................. my elderly mother while I go out
to work during the day.
A. take after
19.
B. give care of
C. put up with
D. look after
.......... did you see such a good advertisement?
A. In which issue of which newspaper
B. In which newspaper of which issue
C. In which issue newspaper
D. What is the issue of which newspaper
20. .................
my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company
for three years.
A. Beside
B. In addition
C. Instead of
D. Apart from
Question 2. Each line in the following passage contains one mistake (grammar or spelling).
Underline that mistake (IN LINE ORDER) and write your answer in the space provided.
(0) has been done for you as an example. (5 points)
Your answers
When we first took our children to sea with us, it was rare 0. across
to come cross other family on sailing boats. Usually such 1 ..........................
meetings resulted in the children quickly making friends, 2 ..........................
while we parents discuss how we managed. At firstly, I 3 ..........................
was worried about taking children to sea and I had many 4 ..........................
questions however I would amuse them? What if they fell 5 ..........................
ill at sea? Add to such questions was the major problem 6 ..........................
of their education. When we set out on our voyage, my 7 ..........................
duaghter was seven, my son five, and we planned to sail 8 ..........................
for three years. That we only returned to england six years 9 ..........................
late with 60,000 miles behind us and children of thirteen 10 ........................
and eleven years old, is an indicate of how my worries
5
had been answered. One change over these years has been
the increasing in the number of parents who take their
children to sea on long voyages.
Question 3. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition. Write your answers in the space
provided. (5 points)
1. ______ a century ago, the English novelist wrote a book entitled “North and South”
2. The dividing line between north and south is a matter _______ opinion.
3. The divide goes well _______ mere prejudice.
4. In England, single people have much greater ease in moving _______ in search of work than
married people.
5. There are plenty of exceptions _______ this view in this country.
6. His shyness only added _______ his problems.
7. He would blush _______ the roots of his hair and mumble something quite silly.
8. The girl walked _______ clumsily, usually tripping over her own feet in the process.
9. The boy was tall _______ his age, and thin.
10. His Adam’s apple stuck _______ obstinately no matter how much how much he tried to hide
it.
Question 4. Supply the correct form of the verbs in bracket. Write your answer in the
space provided. Remember that sometimes you will have to change the order of the
adverb. (5 points)
I must tell you about our holiday this year  it was one of the best we (ever have)1. No, we
(stay)2 in an expensive hotel, but a youth hostel! I know what you (think)3: we (must go)4. But
we haven’t  I just wish we (discover)5 youth hostels years ago. Now that I’m back at
university again, luxury hotels (be)6 a thing of the past, and I (complain)7 about this one day to a
friend who (say)8 that she and her family never stayed anywhere but hostels. I (have)9 no idea
that hostels could be anything from a cottage to a castle. I (mean)10 where else do you get to stay
in a castle! In fact there are four different grades  simple, standard, superior and special so you
pay an overnight charge according to the kind of hostel you stay at.
Question 5. Give the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage. (5
points)
6
Your answers:
The __1__ (say) “never judge a book by its cover” could not 1. .........................................
be more true for Ridiculous Rules by Marjorie Allen. The
cover is completely blank, whereas the book is crammed full
of wonderful examples and anecdotes. Allen is an __2__ 2. .........................................
(speak) critic of what is taught to native and non-native
speakers of English, and has issued a __3__ (declare) of war 3. .........................................
against textbooks and style books which tell lies.
Take the ridiculous and __4__ (mean) rule of never 4...........................................
ending a sentence with a preposition. The lovely - if famous –
story goes, that Winston Churchill, well-known for his
numerous __5__ (write) as well as for being British Prime 5...........................................
Minister during the Second World War, received a manuscript
back from an ignorant __6__ (edit), who had told him rather 6. .........................................
rudely that he had to __7__ (phrase) a sentence which ended 7. .........................................
with a preposition. Churchill responded by making the simple
yet forceful __8__ (state) in the margin: “This is an 8. .........................................
impertinence up with which I will not put.” – the __9__ 9. .........................................
(imply) being that not to end a sentence with a preposition
often sounds ridiculous in English, Sadly, Allen informs us
that the story is probably mere __10__ (hear), and that 10. .......................................
Churchill may have actually only written “rubbish!” in the
margin.
Question 6: Choose the correct connectives for the gaps in the following passage. (5 points)
Our weather is not beautiful all the time. Perhaps you can remember a day (1)………bad
weather made you afraid. One kind of bad weather (2)……..scares many people is called a
thunderstorm. This is (3)………..happens when there is a thunderstorm. (4)………you see a
sudden flash of bright light. (5)…………a few seconds you hear a loud rumbling sound. This
quick flash is called lightning, (6)……….the loud sound is called thunder. Lightning is colorful;
7
(7)…….it can cause serious problems. Lightning is electricity (8)………is moving very rapidly.
It may be moving between a cloud and the ground, between two parts of the same cloud. The
lightning heats the air around it. This hot air expands, (9)…………gets bigger, and it causes the
air to move in waves. The air waves pass you in a series, one after another. (10)………you may
hear many rumbles and not just one sound.
1.
A. when
B. Which
C. that
D. what
2.
A. when
B. Who
C. that
D. what
3.
A. when
B. Whose
C. that
D. what
4.
A. First
B. Firstly
C. To begin
D. At the beginning
5.
A. within
B. without
C. with
D. Before
6.
A. but
B. and
C. or
D. furthermore
7.
A. furthermore
B. however
C. but
D. and
8.
A. when
B. Where
C. that
D. what
9.
A. but
B. however
C. or
D. moreover
10.
A. That’s why
B. The result
C. So
D. So that
PART IV: READING
Question 1. Read the passage below and choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which best fits
each space. Write your answers in the space provided (including the letter A, B, C, or D).
(0) has been done as an example. (7.5 points)
The first traffic signal was (0) _____ by a railway signalling engineer. It was installed (1) _____
the House of Parliament in 1868. It (2) _____ like any railway signal of the time, and was
operated by gas. (3) _____, it exploded and killed a policeman, and the accident (4) _____
further development until cars became common.
(5) _____ traffic lights are an American invention. Red-green (6) _____ were installed in
Cleveland in 1914. Three-colour signals, operated (7) _____ hand from a lower in the (8) _____
of the street, were installed in New York in 1918. The (9) _____ light of this type to (10) _____
in Britain were in London, on the junction between St. James’s Street and Piccadilly in 1925.
Automatic signals were installed (11) _____ year later.
In the past, traffic lights were (12) _____. In New York, some lights had a statue on top. In Los
Angeles the lights did not just (13) _____ silently, but would ring bells to (14) _____ the
8
sleeping motorists of the 1930s. These are gone and have been (15) _____ by standard models
which are universally adopted.
1 A outside
B out
C out of
D outdoors
2 A resembled
B looked
C showed
D seemed
3 A However
B Therefore
C Although
D Despite
4 A forbade
B disappointed
C avoided
D discouraged
5 A New
B Recent
C Modern
D Late
6 A methods
B ways
C systems
D means
7 A by
B with
C through
D in
8 A middle
B heart
C focus
D halfway
9 A original
B primary
C first
D early
10 A show
B appear
C happen
D become
11 A a
B in the
C in a
D the
12 A various
B particular
C rare
D special
13 A change
B alter
C vary
D move
14 A rise
B raise
C wake
D get up
15 A reproduced
B replaced
C removed
D remained
Example: 0 A invented B created
C originated
D started
Question 2: Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word (7.5 points)
Travellers don’t have jobs, because (1) _______ don’t stay in one place long (2) _______.
They are the children of nature  modern gypsies. When Autumn (3) _______, they disappear
and we don’t (4) _______ them on the news any (5) _______. In fact, they move to the cities
and look (6) _______ empty houses for the winter. Perhaps the children go to school for a (7)
_______ months.
Paul and Janice are travellers. They aren’t married. They have two children (8) _______
Moonstone and Saffron. Their life is (9) _______ simple. During the day they sit and talk to
their friends (10) _______ the children play. In the evenings they usually eat (11) _______ with
other families around a big fire, (12) _______ somebody usually plays a guitar or switches on a
CD player. They live (13) _______ social security benefits. If they need extra (14) _______,
Janice makes jewellery and sells it (15) ______ markets and fairs.
9
Question 3: Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (5 points)
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may
become recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family,
traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases,
Line such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although
(5)
there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen
formally through election or recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades
of research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural
leaders.” It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common;
(10)
rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that
meet the needs of that particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader,
research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by
different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion
(15) of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things”
done.” Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the
collective well-being of a social group’s member. Expressive leader are less concerned
with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group
members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members
(20)
expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide
support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group
members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of
the group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to
(25) others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is
subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor ,and try to
resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles
suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members;
instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a mote
10
distant respect
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The problems faced by leaders
(B) How leadership differs in small and large groups
(C) How social groups determine who will lead them
(D) The role of leaders in social groups
2. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders
EXCEPT
(A) recruitment
(B) formal election process
(C) specific leadership training
(D) traditional cultural patterns
3. In mentioning “natural leaders” in lines 8-9, the author is making the point that
(A) few people qualify as “natural leaders”
(B) there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist
(C) “natural leaders’ are easily accepted by the members of a social group
(D) “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics
4. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
(A) A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader
in another group.
(B) Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
(C) A person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on
leadership.
(D) Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
5. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on
(A) ensuring harmonious relationships (B) sharing responsibility with group members
(C) identifying new leaders
(D) achieving a goal
6. The word “collective” in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) necessary
(B) typical
(C) group
(D) particular
7. The word “them” in line 19 refers to
11
(A) expressive leaders
(B) goals of the group
(C) group members
(D) tension and conflict
8. A “secondary relationship” mentioned in line 22 between a leader and the members of a group
could best be characterized as
(A) distant
(B) enthusiastic
(C) unreliable
(D) personal
9. The word “resolve” in line 27 is closest in meaning to
(A) avoid repeating (B) talk about
(C) avoid thinking about (D) find a solution for
10. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in term of
(A) examples that illustrate a problem
(B) cause and effect analysis
(C) narration of events
(D) comparison and contrast
Question 4: Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap. There
is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (10 points)
BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME
Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound
worldwide business.
At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent
of all chocolate is bought at this time.
(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last
century, the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of
Central America over three thousand years ago.
The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central
America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains
20-40 seeds. (2)____. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a
misspelling from the 17th century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans.
The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec
language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable
mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another
century. In the late 17th century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where
people gathered to drink chocolate.
(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder.
(6)____.
12
The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry
and Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block
that you could eat. (7)____.
At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French
companies. In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory
Bournville (ville is the French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off.
But then came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905.
(8)____.
It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at
about four bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This
is when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt
chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional snacks.
At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a
crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for
them as you munch your next chocolate bars.
A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.
D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which
had to be melted down in hot water.
E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English
countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something
forbidden elsewhere.
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial
occasions and for welcoming visitors.
K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.
13
PART V. WRITING: (20 points)
Question 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same
meaning as the printed above sentence. (2.5 points)
1. What Anna hates most about these school reunions is posing for photographs.
-> There is nothing ........................................................................................................
2. Everything Long does seems to go wrong.
-> No ...........................................................................................................................
3. I firmly believe Lan to be telling the truth.
-> It was my .................................................................................................................
4. I am particularly looking forward to visiting Centre Point when I am in Sydney.
-> What ........................................................................................................................
5. The research cannot possibly be completed unless it is adequately funded.
-> Adequate ..................................................................................................................
Question 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the
second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the word
in brackets. (2.5 points)
1. The prisoner was recaptured as he crushed towards the gate. (dash)
.............................................................................................................................................
2. The incident ruined my chances of promotion. (paid)
.............................................................................................................................................
3. On my birthday I had only my cat for my company. (own)
.............................................................................................................................................
4. Jane and Peter had misunderstandings (cross)
.............................................................................................................................................
5. The manager told his staff that he was pleased but they could do better. (room)
.............................................................................................................................................
Question 3: Write a paragraph about the benefits of self-study. You should write about 150 to
200 words. (15 points)
THE END
14
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC MỞ
RỘNG NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
ĐÁP ÁN
PART I: LISTENING (15 points)
Section 1. 5 points - 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1.B
2.A
3.C
4.B
5.A
6.A
7.B
8-10 B, D, G (in any order)
Section 2. 10 points – 1 point for each correct answer.
11. June 6th
12. 5,000
13. transportation
14. low levels
15. Commuter
16. plant trees
17. upgrade
18. border
19. clean(er) fuels
20. factories
II. PHONETICS: (5 points) 0.5 for each correct answer.
1C
2A
3B
4D
5A
6D
7A
8D
9D
10D
PART III. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 points)
Question 1: 5 points. 0.25 point for each correct answer.
1D 12A
3B
4A
11D 12B
13D 14A
5C
6D
7A
8A
9C
10D
15D
16C
17B
18D
19A 20D
Question 2: 5 points. 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1. family : families
6. duaghter : daughter
2. discuss : discussed
7. england : England
3. firstly : first
8. late : later
4. however : how
9. indicate : indication
5. Add: Added
10 increasing: increase
Question 3: 5 points. 0.5 point for each correct answer
1. Over 2. of
3. beyond
4. away
5. to
6. to
Question 4: 5 points. 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1. ’d ever had
6. are
2. weren’t staying
7. was complaining
15
7. to
8. off
9. for
10. out
3. are thinking
8. said
4. must’ve gone mad
9. had
5. ’d discovered
10. mean
Question 5: 5 points. 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1. saying
2. outspoken
3. declaration
4. meaningless
5. writings
6. editor
7. rephrase
8. statement
9. implication
10. hearsay
Question 6: 5 points. 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1.A
2.C
3.D
4.A
5.A
6.B
7.B
8.C
9.C
10.A
PART IV: READING (30 points)
Question 1: 7.5 points, 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. B
Question 2: 7.5 points, 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1. they
6. for
11. together
2. enough
7. few
12. and
3. comes
8. called
13. on
4. see
9. very
14. money
5. more
10. while
15. at
Question 3: 5 points. 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1.D 2.C
3.B
4.A
5.D
6.C
7.C
8.A
9.D
10.D
Question 4: 10 points. 1 point for each correct answer.
1.K
2.E
3.C
4.J
5.D
6.A
7.B
8.F
9.I
10H
PART V. WRITING (20 points)
Question 1: 2.5 points; 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1. There is nothing (that) Anna hates more /as much about these school reunions than
posing/having to pose for photographs.
2. No matter what Long does, it seems to go wrong
16
3. It was my firm/strong belief/conviction (that) Lan was telling the truth.
4. What I am particularly/most looking forward to (particularly/most) when I am in Sydney is
visiting Centre Point.
5. Adequate funding is/will be essential/necessary/needed/crucial for the/this research to be
completed.
Question 2. 2.5 points; 0.5 point for each correct answer.
1. The prisoner was recaptured as he made a dash for the gate.
2. The incident put paid to my chances of promotion.
3. On my birthday I was on my own apart from/ except for my cat.
4. Jane and Peter were at cross purposes
5. The manager told his staff that he was pleased, but there was room for further improvement.
Question 3. (15 points)
Paragraph writing
1. Convincing ideas: 2 pts
2. Good organization: 2 pts
3. Logical cohesion: 2 pts
4. Accurate grammar and spelling: 2 pts
5. Wide range of vocabulary and clear expression: 2 pts
TAPESCRIPTS
Section 1:
Mrs. Blake: Hello?
Conor: Oh, hello. I’m ringing about the advertisement in yesterday’s newspaper…the one for
the bookcases … can you tell me if they’re still available?
Mrs. Blake: we’ve sold one, but we still have two available.
Conor: Right. Er…can you tell me a bit about them?
Mrs. Blake: Sure, er… what do you want to know?
Conor: Well, I’m looking for something to fit in my study, so, well, I’m not too worried about
the height, but the width’s quite important. Can you tell me how wide each of them is?
17
Mrs. Blake: They’re both exactly the same size … let me see, I’ve got the details written down
somewhere. Yes, so they’re both 75 cm wide and 180 cm high.
Conor: OK, fine, that should fit in Ok. And I don’t want anything that looks too severe… not
made of metal, for example. I was really looking for something made of wood?
Mrs. Blake: That’s all right, they are, both of them.
Conor: So, are they both the same price as well?
Mrs. Blake: No, the first bookcase is quite a bit cheaper. It’s just ₤15.00. We paid ₤60.00 for it
just five years ago, so it’s very good value. It’s in perfectly good condition, they are both in very
good condition in fact, but the first one isn’t the same quality as the other one. It’s a good study
bookcase, it used to be in my son’s room, but it could do with a fresh coat of paint…
Conor: Oh, it’s painted?
Mrs. Blake: yes, it’s cream at present, but as I say you could easily change that if you wanted…
to fit in with your colour scheme.
Conor: Yes, I’d probably paint it white if I got it. Let’s see, what else… how many shelves has
it got?
Mrs. Blake: six – two of them are fixed, and the other four are adjustable so you can shift them
up and down according to the sizes of your books.
Conor: Right, fine. Well that certainly sounds like a possibility.
…
Mrs. Blake: But the second one’s a lovely bookcase too. That’s not painted, it’s just the natural
wood colour, a dark brown. It was my grandmother’s, and I think she bought it sometime in the
1930s so I’d say it must be getting on for eighty years old, it’s very good quality, they don’t
make them like that nowadays.
Conor: And you said it’s the same dimensions as the first one?
Mrs. Blake: Yes, and it’s got the six shelves, but it also has a cupboard at the bottom that’s
really useful for keeping odds and ends in.
Conor: Right.
Mrs. Blake: Oh, and I nearly forgot to say, the other thing about it is it’s got glass doors, so the
books are all kept out of the dust. So it’s really good value for the money. I’m really sorry to be
selling it but we just don’t have the room for it.
Conor: Mmm. So what are you asking for that one?
18
Mrs. Blake: ₤95.00. It’s quite a bit more, but it’s a lovely piece of furniture – a real heirloom.
Conor: Yes … all the same, it’s a lot more than I wanted to pay… I didn’t really want to go
above thirty or forty. Anyway, the first one sounds fine for what I need.
Mrs. Blake: Just as you like.
Conor: So is it all right if I come round and have a look this evening, then if it’s OK I can take
it away with me?
Mrs. Blake: Of course. So you’ll be coming by car, will you?
Conor: I’ve got a friend with a van, so I’ll get him to bring me round, if you can just give me
the details of where you live.
Mrs. Blake: Sure. I’m Mrs. Blake, …
Conor: B-L-A-K-E?
Mrs. Blake: That’s right, and the address is 41 Oak Rise, that’s in Stanton.
Conor: OK … so I’ll be coming from the town centre, can you give me an idea of where you
are?
Mrs. Blake: Yes, you know the road that goes out towards the university?
Conor: Yes.
Mrs. Blake: Well you take that road, and you go on till you get to a roundabout, go straight on,
the Oak Rise is the fist road to the right.
Conor: Out towards the university, past the roundabout, first left?
Mrs. Blake: First right. And we’re at the end of the road.
Conor: Got it. So I’ll be round at about 7.00, if that’s all right. Oh, and my name’s Conor…
Conor Field.
Mrs. Blake: Fine, I’ll see you then, Conor. Goodbye.
Conor: Goodbye.
Section 2:
Announcer: One of the most anticipated art events in Christchurch is the Charity Art Sale,
organized this year by Neil Cutis. Neil, tell us all about it.
Neil: Well, Diane, this looks like being the biggest art sale yet, and the best thing about it is that
the money raised will all go to charity. So what you probably want to know first is where it is.
Well, the pictures will be on view all this week, most of them at the Star Gallery in the shopping
mall, but we have so many pictures this year that we’re also showing some in the café next
19
door, so do drip in and see them any day between 9.00 and 5.00. Now if you’re interested in
buying rather than just looking – and we hope a lot of you will be – the actual sale will take
place on Thursday evening, with sales starting at 7.30 – refreshments will be available before the
sale, starting at 6.30. We’ve got about 50 works by local artists showing a huge range of styles
and media, and in a minute I’ll tell you about some of them. You’re probably also interested in
what’s going to happen to your money once you’ve handed it over – well, all proceeds will go to
support children who are disabled, both here in New Zealand and also in other countries, so you
can find an original painting, support local talent, and help these children all at the same time.
…
Now let me tell you a bit about some of the artists who have kindly agreed to donate their
pictures to the Charity Art Sale.
One of them is Don Studley, who has a special interest in the art sale because his five-year-old
daughter was born with a serious back problem. After an operation earlier this year, she’s now
doing fine, but Don says he wants to offer something to help other less fortunate children. Don is
totally self taught, and says he’s passionate about painting. His paintings depict some of our
New Zealand is James Chang, who came here from Taiwan nine years ago, at the age of 56. Mr.
Chang had 13 exhibitions in Taiwan before he came to live here in Christchurch so he’s a wellestablished artist and art has been a lifelong passion for him. His paintings are certainly worth
looking at – if you like abstract pictures with strong colour schemes, you’ll love them.
Natalie Stevens was born in New Zealand, but has exhibited in China, Australia and Spain. As
well as being an artist, she’s a website designer. She believes art should be universal, and her
paintings use soft colours and a mixture of media. Most of her pictures are portraits so watch out
– some of them may even be friends of yours.
And then we have Christine Shin, from Korea. Christine only started to learn English two years
ago, when she arrived in New Zealand, but she’s been painting professionally for over ten years
and she sure knows how to communicate strong messages though the universal language of art.
She usually works from photographs, and paints delicate water colours, which combine
traditional Asian influences with New Zealand landscapes, giving a very special view of our
local scenery.
20
Well, that’s all I have time to tell you now, but as well as these four, there are many other artists
whose work will be on sale so do come along on Thursday. We accept cheques, credit cards or
cash and remember, even if you don’t buy a picture you can always make a donation!
THE END
21
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT THI HSG NĂM 2014
MÔN: ANH
LỚP: 10
Thời gian: 180 phút
Đề thi gồm 12 trang. Thí sinh trả lời vào đề thi
SỞ GD&ĐT HÒA BÌNH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
HOÀNG VĂN THỤ
PART I. LISTENING (15ps)
1. You will hear a man talking to a group of people about a new sports centre. For
each of the questions, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. Use
ONLY ONE WORD FOR EACH ANSWER. (10 ps)
NEW SPORTS CENTRE
Facilities:
* swimming pool
* (1) _________
* squash courts
* Unfortunately, there is small (2) _________ with the tennis courts
(opening on (3) _________)
Prices:
* Monthly: £35
* ((4) £_________ a year)
(special (5) ________ for children)
* not included in price: + equipment, like (6) _________
+ and swimming (7) _________
How to become a member:
Fill in a membership form - remember to write your age and (8) _________,
which helps us know your level of (9) __________.
For more information phone Mrs. (10) _________ on 467 9900.
2. You will hear an interview with a woman who works in a museum. As you
listen, choose the best answer to each question. (5ps)
1. When she was at school, Clara wanted to become
A. an actress
B. a teacher
C. a lawyer
2. Why did Clara not apply for the museum job sooner?
1
A. Her mother advised her to wait.
B. It seemed a very difficult job.
C. She thought it might be boring.
3. What surprised Clara on her first day at work?
A. She had to carry some items.
B. She was asked to give a speech.
C. She had to meet a lot of people.
4. Clara was told to improve her knowledge of
A. computers
B. languages
C. mathematics
5. What part of her job does Clara enjoy the most?
A. planning large exhibitions
B. writing descriptions of objects
C. talking to visitors about the displays
PART II. PHONETICS (5ps)
1. Choose the word in each row that has the underlined part pronounced
differently from the rest. (2.5ps)
1. A. resemble
B. resent
C. research
D. resist
2. A. massage
B. carriage
C. voyage
D. dosage
3. A. south
B. truth
C. both
D. booth
4. A. transformer
B. authority
C. dormitory
D. importable
5. A. tissue
B. permission
C. press
D. pressure
2. Choose the word in each row that has different stress pattern from the rest.
(2.5ps)
1. A. equality
B. difficulty
C. simplicity
D. discovery
2. A. geographical
B. mathematician C. satisfactory
D. economic
3. A. animal
B. habitat
C. bacteria
D. pyramid
4. A. relativity
B. environment C. laboratory
D. evaporate
5. A. company
B. atmosphere
C. customer
D. employment
PART III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3ps)
1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions. (5ps)
1. His landlady gave him a week’s ________ to leave the flat.
A. threat
B. notice
C. advice
D. caution
2. My brother is intelligent but he _______ common sense.
A. fails
B. lacks
C. misses
D. wants
3. I am _______ tired to think about that problem at the moment.
2
A. far too
B. simply
C. much more
D. nearly
4. His _______ of the school regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.
A. carelessness
B. inattention
C. unfamiliarity
D. disregard
5. ______ after trying three times, he passed the examination.
A. Last of all
B. Lastly
C. Last
D. At last
6. It took me a long time to ______ what the aim of the game was.
A. ponder
B.consider
C.grasp
D. reckon
7. He _______ malaria while he was in Africa.
A. infected
B. contracted
C. was caught
D. gained
8. The question of late payment of the bills was ______again at the meeting.
A. raised
B. risen
C. brought
D. taken
9. None of us has ever ______ of cheating in class.
A. declared
B. persisted
C. approved
D. concluded
10. We have been working hard. Let’s ______ a break.
A. make
B. find
C. do
D. take
11. It’s advisable to _______ any contact with potential rabbit animals.
A. escape
B. avoid
C. prevent
D. evade
12. “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?” _______
A. “Yes, I would.” B. “Not at all.”
C. “What a pity!”
D. “My Gosh!”
13. There should be no discrimination on _______ of sex, race or religion.
A. fields
B. places
C. areas
D. grounds
14. He felt _______ when he failed the exams the second time.
A. discouraged B. annoyed
C. undecided
D. determined
15. He gave me his personal _______ that his draft would be ready by Friday.
A. endurance
B. insurance
C. assurance
D. ensurance
16. It’s high time we got going, _______?
A. isn’t it
B. didn’t it
C. should we
D. aren’t we
17. The weather forecast was for rain, but the day was fine and dry, _____ it turned out.
A. When
B. though
C. like
D. as
18. The book would have been perfect _______ the ending.
A. it had not been for
B. hadn’t it been for
C. it hadn’t been to
D. had it not been for
19. The film is ______ released at the end of next year.
A. on the verge of being
B. due to be
C. about to be
D. on the point of being
20. “Why did Laura go to town?”
“_______ for was to attend an interview.”
A. What she went
B. That she went
C. Why she went
D. She went
2. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Underline the mistakes and
write the correct answers in the space provided. (0) has been done as an example.
(5ps)
0. filling => filled
3
There may be a vacancy on the school board next May. The position must be
filling before the next school session, which begin on September 7th. Anyone who is
resident of Smithtown, at last 21 years old, and interested in fulfilling his or her civic
duty may fill out an application for considered by the city council. Application may be
obtained at the City Hall or Center Avenue or at the Smithtown Public Library
downtown. Those residents who are current enrolled in adult learning classes with the
intent of earning a secondary school certificate are excluding from applying. Please note
that applications will be reviewed in alphabet order. Submit your application until
January 1st in order to be considered for this position. Use a blue or black pen when
filling out the forms. It is not unnecessary to attach other documents such as résumé or
cover letters. Candidates who invited in for an interview will be asked to bring
references at that time. For those interested in becoming involved with city council in
other ways, visit office 2B in the second floor at City Hall.
Your answers:
Line
Mistake
Correction
Line
Mistake
Correction
3. Put one or two suitable prepositions in the blank of each sentence. (5ps)
1. I came _______ several old friends at the meeting.
2. She got a job so that she could be independent_______ her parents.
3. The bridge is_______ repair, so we'll have to go a different way.
4. The company has laid _______ strict procedures for this kind of situation.
5. I need someone to stand _______ ________me at the ceremony.
6. The books are_______ loan to use from a private library.
7. She's not very good at putting her views_______.
8. The holiday didn't live_______ _______ our expectations.
9. We don't hold_______ much hope that the price will fall.
10. When I was a child, it would never have occurred to me not to comply_____ the
rules.
11. She was very appreciative _______all the support she got from her friends.
12. The price of shares in the company went up _______over 50% when they
announced the discovery of the new oilfield.
13. The cinema which was adjacent _______ the bank was badly damaged in the
earthquake.
14. My karate instructor always singles _______Robert to demonstrate techniques as
he’s the best in the class.
15. Many pensioners find it hard to get _______ ________ their small pensions after
their retirement.
16. Erica is an excellent colleague. She goes _______ her job calmly and efficiently.
4
17. The bedroom is infested _______ bugs and beetles.
18. His abstinence _______ caffeine lasted only two months.
19. This watch used to belong to my great-great- grandfather. It’s been handed _______
from father to son for five generations.
20. I’ve got to drive, so I think I’d better stick _______orange juice, thanks all the same.
4. Provide the correct verb form of the verbs in brackets (5ps)
1. I hope that college students ………………….…… (have) more freedom in choosing
majors they like.
2. In the history of Nobel Prizes, she was the first woman (award) …………………. the
Economics.
3. Over the past seventy years or so, there ………………….…… (be) a massive
increase in one type of crime, which is what's known as "corporate crime".
4. This is the third year they ………………….…… (run) it and the timing's slightly
different.
5. Up until his time, the task of producing a dictionary on such a large scale
………………….…… (seem) impossible without the establishment of an academy to
make decisions about right and wrong usage.
6. They further anticipated that only four per cent ………………….…… (go) up to 300
volts.
7. It will be first time he ………………….…… (talk) to her.
8. After searching the whole room for an hour, she found that the book
………………….…… (lie) on the table all the time.
9. Imagine that one day you ………………….…… (wake up) and discovered that you
………………….…… (completely lose) your memory.
5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered boxes. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes. (5 ps)
Organizing a holiday can be a very (1. CHALLENGE) __________ task. Some
people find the experience as (2. STRESS)__________ as the daily demands of work
and family (3. COMMIT) __________. If you are in this situation, you may find that
taking an escorted holiday is the ideal solution.
Escorted holidays offer a great balance between sightseeing, entertainment and
leisure time, with the added advantage that you have the services of a professional tour
manager, who (4. COMPANY) __________ you through the trip, acting as your
personal guide. From the first day to the last, tour managers make your holiday
experience even more (5. MEMORY) __________ because of the (6.
VALUE)__________ information and helpful suggestions they provide. Your tour
manager will give you many (7. SIGHT) __________ into the place you are visiting,
including useful information on the (8. DISTINCT) __________ characteristics of the
place, such as regional food and local entertainment.
If you book one of the escorted holiday (9. PACK) __________that we offer,
you can be sure that you will have a (10. TRUE) __________authentic travel
experience.
Your answers:
5
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
6. Read the following text and then choose the best phrase or sentence, given
below, to fill each of the gaps. Write one letter (A-P) in each of the numbered gaps.
Each phrase is only used once. Some of the suggested answers do not fit at all.
(5ps)
Archaeologists in Iraq have discovered the world’s oldest “statue” – a stone,
standing four feet high, covered with plaster (1) __________ of a human being.
This “stone man” dating from 11,000 years ago, (2) __________ who were
emerging from the pre-agricultural Stone Age into the Neolithic world of early farming.
The statue, probably of religious significance, was located inside a prehistoric house –
one of the earliest sophisticated buildings (3) __________. Investigations have shown
that the house had (4) __________ with clay-coated, lime-plastered walls and floor.
So far excavations have unearthed three buildings containing seven standing
stones, (5) __________ retain traces of lime plaster which once covered them.
However, (6) __________ shows evidence of having been shaped into the
likeness of a human being. It is 30 centuries older (7) __________ previously known
oldest statue. (8) __________that each building appears to have had at least one
standing stone inside it, and that one house actually had three.
The plaster-covered human shaped obelisk (9) __________ shoulders and the
stumps of arms and part of a neck. The “head”, however, (10) __________.
A. ever discovered by archaeologists
B. molded into the shape
C. to have been built
D. strangely carved
E. was fashioned by people
F. excavations have revealed
G. only one of these
H. neither of them
I. beautifully finished
J. than the remaining
K. has what appear to be
L. seems to have broken off
M. four of which
N. has been missing
O. it has been decided
P. than the world’s
PART IV. READING (30ps)
6
1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank.
(7.5ps)
Old and Active
It is well-known that life expectancy is longer in Japan than in most other countries.
A (1) _______ report also shows that Japan has the longest health expectancy in the
world. A healthy long life is the result of the (2) _______ in social environment.
Scientists are trying to work (3) _______ exactly what keeps elderly Japanese people so
healthy, and whether there is a lesson to be (4) _______ from their lifestyles for the rest
of us. Should we (5) ______ any changes to our eating habits, for instance, or go
jogging each day before breakfast? Is there some secret (6) ______ in the Japanese diet
that is particularly (7) _______ to the human body?
Another factor (8) _______ to the rapid population aging in Japan is a decline in
birthrate. Although longer life should be celebrated, it is (9) ______ considered a social
problem. The number of older people had (10) ______ in the last half century and that
had increased pension and medical costs. The country could soon be (11) ______ an
economic problem, if there are so many old people to be looked (12) ______, and
relatively few younger people working and paying tax to support them.
(13) _______ the retirement age from 65 to 70 could be one solution to the problem.
Work can give the elderly a (14) _______ of responsibility and mission in life. It’s
important that the elderly play active (15) _______ in the society and live in harmony
with all generations.
1. A. late
B. recent
C. contemporary
D. new
2. A. increase
B. progress
C. growth
D. improvement
3. A. for
B. out
C. in
D. off
4. A. learnt
B. gathered
C. understood
D. gained
5. A. do
B. make
C. set
D. give
6. A. ingredient
B. component
C. portion
D. helping
7. A. helpful
B. supportive
C. advantageous
D. beneficial
8. A. contributing
B. helping
C. resulting
D. causing
9. A. therefore
B. actually
C. even
D. however
10. A. reduced
B. added
C. doubled
D. multiplied
11. A. facing
B. meeting
C. adopting
D. encountering
12. A. for
B. after
C. over
D. out
13. A. Putting
B. Moving
C. Rising
D. Raising
14. A. sense
B. sentiment
C. feeling
D. characteristic
15. A. roles
B. posts
C. positions
D. parts
2. Fill in each blank with a suitable word (7.5ps)
Egyptologists tell us that the Sphinx and the pyramids at Giza were built
approximately 4,500 years ago by an Egyptian pharaoh, but in recent years a great (1)
________ of evidence has surfaced to challenge this. A growing (2) _______ of
independent researchers claimed that these monuments may in (3) _______ have been
built as (4) _______ back as 12,500 years ago! According to them, the Giza pyramids
precisely line (5) _______ with the position of certain stars in the year 10,450 BC. It is
7
interesting to note that on that date the leonine Sphinx (6) _______ have faced the exact
location on the horizon where the constellation of Leo rose (7) _______ dawn on the
Spring equinox. Equally interesting is the claim made by at (8) _______ one geologist
that weathering patterns on the body of the Sphinx are consistent (9) _______ those left
by precipitation over a substantial period of time, yet Egypt (10) _______ saw heavy
rainfall over 7,000 years ago. Could it be (11) _______ both the pyramids and the
Sphinx were built by a highly civilized race thousands (12) _______ years before the
Age of the Pharaohs, at a time when historians would (13) _______ us believe humans
had (14) _______ the know-how to construct such amazing structures? If evidence (15)
_______ surface that can support such claims, the history books will undoubtedly have
to be rewritten.
3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions (5ps)
Before the mid- nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods
only in season. Drying, smoking, salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the
availability of fresh meat like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to
prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the
cooking- and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850s an American named Gail
Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and
condensed milk became more common during the 1860s, but supplies remained low
because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned
stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all
kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped made it possible for Americans to
vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit
and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers
and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer
periods. Thus, by the 1890s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western
strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to
six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store
perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the
1870s, and by 1900 the nation had more than 2,000 commercial ice plants, most of
which made home deliveries. The icebox became the fixture in most homes and
remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920s and 1930s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat
mainly foods that were heavy in starches and carbohydrates, and not everyone could
afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously
unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
D. Population movements in the nineteenth century
8
2. The phrase ‘in season’ in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. a kind of weather
B. a particular time of the year
C. an official schedule
D. a method of flavoring food
3. The word ‘prevent’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. estimate
B. avoid
C. correct
D. confine
4. During the 1860s, canned food products were ________.
A. unavailable in rural areas
B. shipped in refrigerator cars
C. available in limited quantities
D. a staple part of the American diet
5. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860
B. before 1890
C. after 1900
D. after 1920
6. The word ‘fixture’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. luxury item
B. substance
C. commonplace object D. mechanical device
7. The author implies that in the 1920s and 1930s home delivery of ice
A. decreased in number
B. were on an irregular schedule
C. increased in cost
D. occurred only in summer
8. The word ‘Nevertheless’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. therefore B. because C. occasionally D. however
9. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the
passage?
A. Drying
B. Canning
C. Cold storage
D. Chemical additives
10. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Tin cans and ice boxes helped to make many foods more widely available
B. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
C. Most farmers in the US raised only fruits and vegetables.
D. People who live in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
4. Choose the most suitable heading for each section from the list of headings
below. Write the appropriate letter in the space provided after questions 1-5 in
your booklet. (10ps)
N.B: There are more headings than sections, so you will not use all of them.
List of Headings
A. Hands off the obesity
B. More active people
C. Reduced consumption
D. Supply and demand of fresh produce
E. Government worry about obesity
F. Class distinctions as to fatty food
Answers:
Section 1…………..Section 2……….. Section 3……………….
9
Section 4………….. Section 5……………….
Fat of the Land
Section 1
The government worries that it should do something to change the way people
eat. But diets are already changing.
Given mankind’s need to fret, it is not surprising that the diseases of prosperity
– stress, depression and, increasingly, obesity – get a lot of play in Britain these
days.
On March 3rd, John Reid, the health secretary, announced a three-month public
consultation about the nation's health: in the current mood, that is likely to focus on
obesity. Last week, a report on public health commissioned by the government cited
obesity among its main worries; last month, Tony Blair's strategy unit floated the idea of
a 'fat tax' on foods that fuel obesity; and last year, the Food Standards Agency, the
industry regulator, advocated a ban on advertising junk food to children.
Section 2
Yet the government swiftly swatted away the idea of a fat tax, and Tessa Jowell, the
culture secretary, has said that she is skeptical about an advertising ban. Mr. Reid says
the government wants to be neither a 'nanny state' nor a 'Pontius Pilate state which
washes its hands off its citizens' health'.
Why this ambivalence? Not because of doubts that obesity is a serious problem. It
increases the risk of diabetes, heart disease and cancer. Rather, because it is not clear
that the government can do much about it. There's no evidence that making fatty
foods more expensive would put people off them; and in Sweden, where advertising
to minors is already banned, children are as porky as they are in any comparable
country.
Section 3
What's more, it is not obvious that the problem will worsen. Shoppers' behaviour
suggests the opposite. It is not just the flight from carbohydrates prompted by the
Atkins diet; there is a broader shift going on. Britain, the world's biggest chocolateeater, seems to be going off the stuff. In the four years to 2002, sales of chocolate in
Britain fell every year: 2% by volume and 7% by value over the period. Last month, the
new boss of Nestle Rowntree, Chris White, described it as 'a business in crisis'. (The
company says his remarks were 'taken out of context' and denies there is a crisis, but
admits that sales of KitKat, its biggest brand, fell by 2% in 2003.)
Companies are edging away from fattening foods. Todd Stitzer, chief executive of
Cadbury Schweppes, Britain's biggest producer of fattening stuff, says that five years
ago, chocolate made up 80% of sales. That's down to a half. Five years ago 85% of
drinks sales were sweet, fizzy stuff. That's down to 56%. The rest is mostly juice. Diet
drinks – which make up a third of the sales of fizzy drinks – are growing at 5% a year,
10
while sales of the fattening stuff are static.
Section 4
Supermarkets say that people are buying healthier food. According to Lucy NevilleRolfe, Tesco's director of corporate affairs, its Healthy Living (lower calorie) range grew
by 12% in 2003, twice the growth in overall sales. Sales of fruit and vegetables are
growing faster than overall sales, too. That may be partly because fresh produce y is
getting more various, more is available all year round and better supply boosts demand.
Five years ago Tesco stocked six or seven varieties of tomato. Now it stocks 15.
The spread of big supermarkets, which offer better produce than the mouldy stuff at
the corner shop, may improve diets. A study carried out by the University of Southampton
on a big new supermarket in a poor part of Leeds concluded that after it opened, two thirds
of those with the worst diets ate more fruit and vegetables.
Cafes and restaurants report an increase in healthy eating, too. Pret A Manger, a
sandwich chain, says that sales of salads grew by 63% last year, compared with 6%
overall sales growth. McDonald's, which introduced fruit salad a year ago, has sold 10m
portions since.
Section 5
But it isn't just eating too much fatty stuff that makes people fat. It's indolence, too.
That may be changing. Gym membership figures suggest that more Britons at least intend
to get off their sofas. According to Mintel, a market research company, there were 3.8m
members of private gyms last year, up from 2.2m in 1998.
So why isn't all this virtue showing up in the figures? Maybe it is starting to. The
average man got thinner in 2002, the most recent available year, for the first time since
body-mass-index records began; women's BMI was static. One year, of course, does not
make a trend, but a fall in Americans' weight last year, also for the first time, supports the
idea that something is changing in the rich world’s fattest countries.
PART V. WRITING (20ps)
1. Rewrite the following sentences, keeping their meaning unchanged, beginning
with the words given. (2.5ps)
1. You must never mention this to him
Under …………………………………………………………………………….
2. His condition improved so rapidly that he went home four days after the operation.
There ……………………………………………………………………………...
3. Alternative medicine is a complete mystery to some people.
Some people are..............................................................................……………..
4. You may be disqualified if you don't obey the regulations.
Failure ............................................. …………………………………………….
5. The chances are that the whole thing will have been forgotten by next term.
In all ……………………………………………………………………………...
2. Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to
write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning
11
to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s). (2.5ps)
1. I never thought that we would have legal problems. (CROSSED)
…………………………………………………………………………………….
2. Bill changed his way when he came out of prison. (LEAF)
……………………………………………………………………………………..
3. The staff in that office all have great respect for their boss. (LOOK)
……………………………………………………………………………………...
4. She began to suffer from irrational fears. (PREY)
………………………………………………………………………………………
5. The final version of the plan was quite different from the initial draft.
(RESEMBLANCE)
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Write a paragraph of about 150 words to answer the questions (15ps)
What should we do to draw more children to outdoors activities instead of playing
electronic games too much?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………....………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
THE END
12
SỞ GD&ĐT HÒA BÌNH
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HOÀNG VĂN THỤ
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ XUẤT THI HSG KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI NĂM 2014
MÔN: ANH
LỚP: 10
PART I: LISTENING (15ps)
1. Gap fill (10ps)
1. gym
2. delay
3. Saturday
4 . 215
5. discounts
6. rackets
7. lessons
9. weight
9. fitness
10. Reysall
2. Multiple choice (5ps)
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. B
PART II. PHONETICS (5ps)
1. Choose the word in each row that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest. (2.5ps)
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C
2. Choose the word in each row that has different stress pattern from the rest. (2.5ps)
1B
2B
3C
4A
5D
PART III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30ps)
1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions. (5ps)
1.B 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.D
11.B 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.C 16.D 17.D 18.D 19.B 20.A
2. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Underline the mistakes and write
the correct answers in the space provided. (5ps)
Line
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6
5. 7
Mistake
begin
(at) last
considered
current
excluding
Correction
begins
(at) least
consideration
currently
excluded
Line
6. 8
7. 8
8. 10
9. 11
10.12
Mistake
alphabet
until
unnecessary
invited
in
Correction
alphabetical
by
necessary
are invited
on
3. Put one or two suitable prepositions in the blank of each sentence. (5ps)
1. across
2. of
3. under
4. down
5. in for
6. on
7. across
8. up to
9. out
10. with
11. of
12. by
13. to
14. out
15. by on
16. about 17. with
18. from
19. down 20. to
4. Provide the correct verb form of the verbs in brackets (5ps)
1
1. will have
4. have run
7. has talked
2.to be awarded
5. had seemed
8. had been lying
3. has been
6. would go
9. woke up/ had completely lost
5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered boxes. (5 pts)
1. challenging 2. stressful
3. commitments
4. accompanies
5. memorable
6. invaluable
7. insights
8. distinctive
9. packages
10.truly
6. Read the following text and then choose the best phrase or sentence, given below, to
fill each of the gaps. Write one letter (A-P) in each of the numbered gaps. (5ps)
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
B E
A
I
M
G
P
F
K
L
PART IV. READING (30ps)
1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank. (7.5ps)
1.B
2.D 3.B 4.A
5.B
6.A 7.D 8.A 9. B 10.C
11.A
12.B 13.D 14.A
15. A
2. Fill in each blank with a suitable word (7.5ps)
1. deal
2. number
3. fact
4. far
5. up
6. would
7. at
8. least
9. with
10. last
11. that
12. of
13. have
14. not
15. does/ should
3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions (5ps)
1.C 2.B. 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.D 10.A
4. Choose the most suitable heading. (10 ps)
1E
2A
3C
4D
5B
PART V. WRITING (20ps)
1. Rewrite the following sentences, keeping their meaning unchanged, beginning with
the words given. (2.5ps)
1. Under no circumstances must you mention this to him.
2. There was such a rapid improvement in his condition that he went home four days after
the operation.
3. Some people are mystified by alternative medicine.
4. Failure to obey the regulations may lead to/result in disqualification.
5. In all probabilities, the whole thing will have been forgotten by next term
2. Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to
write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning
to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s). (2.5ps)
2
1. It never crossed my mind that we would have legal problems.
2. Bill has turned over a new leaf since he came out of prison.
3. The staff in that office all look up to their boss.
4. She fell prey to irrational fears.
5. The final version of the plan bore/ had no/ little resemblance to the initial draft.
(There was no/ little resemblance between the final version of the plan and the initial
draft.)
3. Write a paragraph of about 150 words to answer the questions (15ps)
What should we do to draw more children to outdoors activities instead of playing
electronic games too much?
Tape script for the listening section
Question 1.
Hello, my name is Max and I’m the manager. Thank you for coming along today to visit
our New Sports Center. In a few minutes, I’ll take you around to see it, but first, some
information about the facilities we’ve got and when you can start using them. The
swimming pool will be opened on Monday, and the gym and the squash courts will be
ready for use on Wednesday. But we’ve had a small delay with the indoor tennis court, so
I’m afraid you have to wait for that till Saturday. Now, something about prices. The system
we have is very flexible, so you can pay daily if you want to. However, you may want to
think of paying a monthly fee, which is £35, or you can have access to the sport center for
the whole year for £215. We also give a special £50 discount for children under ten years
of age. Our prices include the use of all the facilities in the sport center, but of course you
would have to pay extra for sport equipment, rackets for example, and also for swimming
lessons. Registering to become a club member is very easy. At reception, you’ll find a
membership form. Fill it in and don’t forget to include your age and also your weight. This
is very important to see your level of fitness. We will prepare membership card for you, so
please bring a photograph. I could answer any question now but I’m sure you only get
together and have a look at our facilities. If you think of any other question later though,
call our secretary- Mrs Reysall on 4679900. She’ll be very pleased to help you. Let’s go
there.
Question 2.
My guest today is Clara Thomas, who has an interest in job in the museum of history.
- Clara, did you always want to work in the museum?
- Hello, Oh, no. At school most of my mates wanted to be lawyers and I was dreaming of
being a teacher. When my best friend got a small part in a film, not my favorite job, I
3
thought she was so lucky. At fifteen she had the job she wanted. I wanted to go to college
to study history, then I saw this museum job advertised.
- So you decided to apply.
- Well, they wanted someone to organize the museum collections, for example old coins or
ancient vases, very valuable pieces. It was a big responsibility. But that’s what I wanted. I
didn’t apply immediately though. I was afraid it wasn’t interesting work on my own with
no one to talk to. It took me two weeks to apply. My mother was really upset.
- And you got the job.
- Yes, I won’t never forget my first day. I was introduced to all my colleagues. They were
very friendly. One of them read a little speech. She wrote it to welcome me. Then
somebody said there were some big boxes. They were the museum objects for me
downstairs. Could I go and get them? I couldn’t believe it. I didn’t say anything. I just did
it. They were very heavy.
- Was anything else easier?
- Not really. I had to work with computers and it was very useful. I’m not good with
numbers though. As part of my job, I had to look at the objects the museum wanted to buy,
usually from the private collectors. For that you need to understand basic mathematics. My
boss said I definitely should do something about it. And I did. I had to give up my French
study to make time for that.
- So what part of your job did you enjoy most?
- I spent a lot of time writing short history of museum objects, what they looked like,
where they were found. I find this research work much more exciting than preparing an
important exhibition. I was also afraid people might not like the exhibition. I don’t get
much the chance to talk to visitors. But I like reading the comments they write on the
visitors’ book.
- Well, you’re doing a great job. Any plans for the future?
- Yes, I must make some progress in my history study. But it would take me years to get
my degree because I’m studying in part time now. Next year will be exciting. We’ll have a
special exhibition on African history of museum. Our master keeps me very busy. We have
a lot of visitors from all over the world.
- Clara, thank you for talking to us.
4
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THI HSG CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DH-BB
LÀO CAI
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 10
Ngày thi:
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
tháng năm 2014
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian
giao đề)
Đề thi gồm trang
I. LISTENING (15 points)
Part 1: You will hear part of an interview with two chefs, Jane and Chris, who both
won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. For questions 1-5,
choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear.(5points)
1. Jane admits that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was
having to
A. be original when travelling at speed.
B. produce a meal with so little money.
C. work in a very small space.
D. prepare a meal so quickly.
2. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their work?
A. the close contact with the customers
B. the need to do everything at the same time
C. the opportunity they have to be creative
D. the way they have to focus on the job
3. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train?
A. They approve of the menus provided for them.
B. They are more adventurous than other chefs.
C. They would like to have more freedom of choice.
D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job.
4. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over?
A. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up.
B. She blames the train driver for the accident.
C. She tells herself to keep a closer watch next time.
D. She says nasty things to the other staff.
5. What does Chris say caused his worst disaster?
1
A. leaving things to burn under the grill
B. dropping the main course on the floor
C. losing his concentration when cooking
D. not keeping an eye on the oven temperature
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: Complete the form below.(10 points)
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Feedback Form
Course:
Communication in Business
Course Code:
CB162
Dates:
From (1) ……………………to (2)………………………..
Please give your comments on the following aspects of the course:
Good points
Suggestions for
Improvement
Course organisation
Course delivery
* (3) ……………………… * too much work in
* useful to have
(5) ………………………..
(4) ………………………..
of the course – could be
at the beginning of course
more evenly balanced
* good at (6).......................
* some (7)...........................
sessions went on too long
Materials and equipment
* good (8) …………….
* not enough copies of key
texts available
* need more computers
Testing and evaluation
* quick feedback from oral * too much (9)...................
* can we know criteria for
presentations
* marking criteria for oral marking final exams?
presentations
known
in
2
advance
Your answers:
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
II. PHONETICS (5 points)
Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
the underline part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions. (2.5 points)
1.
A. massage
B. carriage
C. voyage
D. dosage
2.
A. dimension
B. expansion
C. confusion
D. tension
3.
A. increase
B. ink
C. pink
D. thank
4.
A. apology
B. classify
C. testify
D. verify
5.
A. beloved
B. naked
C. ploughed
D. learned
Your answers:
1
2
3
4
5
Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions. (2.5 points)
1.
A. obvious
B. notorious
C. credulous
D. numerous
2.
A. dialect
B. diagram
C. diagonal
D. diamond
3.
A. Europe
B. monument
C. province
D. minority
4.
A. obsolete
B. complete
C. compete
D. deplete
5.
A. consent
B. obstinacy
C. condolence
D. equality
3
Your answers:
1
2
3
4
5
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions. (5 points)
1. In spite of his poor education, he was the most ....... speaker.
A. articulate
B. ambiguous
C. attentive
D. authoritarian
2. Wasn’t it you yourself ......... the door open?
A. to leave
B. to have left
C. who left
D. that should leave
3. ....... of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would
improve.
A. At the bottom
B. At the height
C. On the top
D. In the end
4. Could you possibly......... me at the next committee meeting.
A. stand in for
B. make up for
C. fall back for
D. keep in with
5. You should ....... at least three days for the journey.
A. expect
B. permit
C. accept
D. allow
C. dearest
D. deepest
6. Please accept our ....... congratulations!
A. finest
B. warmest
7. I’d sooner they ........ deliver the new furniture tomorrow.
A. shouldn’t
B. didn’t
C. wouldn’t
D. mustn’t
8. Sales of margarine rose last year ....... those of butter.
A. comparing
B. at a loss of
C. at the expense of
D. with regard to
9. She should have been here but she’s ............ flu.
A. gone through with B. gone down with
C. come in for
D. come up against
10. The trouble with Stan is that he makes such a fuss about even the most ..... injury.
A. slight
B. trivial
C. basic
D. elementary
11. ...... from being embarrassed by his mistake, the lecturer went on confidently with
his talk.
4
A. Distant
B. Far
C. A long way
D. Miles
12. The increased pay offer was accepted although it ..... short of what the employees
wanted.
A. fell
B. arrived
C. came
D. ended
13. The competition he set up for young musicians is another ..... of his life-long support
for the arts.
A. exposition
B. manifestation
C. token
D. exhibition
14. The new regime determined to ......... compulsory military service.
A. stop off
B. end up
C. phrase out
D. break off
15. The tennis player couldn’t ..... the possibility of the withdrawing from the
championship because of injury.
A. come off
B. pass over
C. rule out
D. do without
16.The plan received ................support although none of the committee spoke openly in
its favour.
A. tacit
B. mute
C. silent
D. quiet
17. In the ..............of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement
B. interests
C. demands
assistance
18. I have several problems at the moment, .............the least of which is lack of money.
A. but
B. not
C. only
D. far
19. The illness spread .............all our attempts at keeping it in check.
A. regardless
B. contrary
C. despite
D. against
20. Mr Jones wants twenty copies of this letter .............off on the photocopier.
A. put
B. run
C. taken
D. turned
Your answers:
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
5
Part 2: Read the text, find the mistakes and correct them (5 points)
Leonardo Dicaprio is one of the hottest young film stars around at the moment. His face
has been on the covers of all the top movies and young magazines over the last few
months and he has been the subject of countless articles, rumours and showbiz gossip.
Leonard doesn’t like reading about him because “ I read things about me that I’ve never
said in my life and never did”.
Leonardo was born in Los Angeles on 11 November, 1974. He’s a Scorpio. His full
name is Leonardo Wilhelm Dicaprio. His mother is Germany and his father Italian –
American. They called him Leonardo because when his mother was still pregnant, he
started kicking while she was tood in front of a painting by Leonardo Da Vinci. His
friends call him Leo. He has a scar from when he was stinging by a Portuguese man-of
–war. His parents separated before he was born, so his mother moved to a poor
neighborhood of Hollywood there Leo grew up. At school he was very good at imitating
people, especially Michael Jackson. This made him very popularly. His childhood hero
was Poseidon, the Greek god of the sea.
After appearance in TV commercials and episodes of Roseanne, he played the cast of
Roseanne, the TV sitcom starring Kirk Cameron. Leonard played the part of Luke, a
homeless boy. Lately, he played the part of Jim Caroll in “The Basketball Diaries”. But
he has really become famous since he acted in the film “ Titanic”.
Your answers:
1
6
2
7
3
8
4
9
5
10
Part 3: Fill in the blank with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points)
Unlikely as it may seem, there has now been expert confirmation what wild pumas and
lynxes are (1) ....................large in parts of Britain, rather than being the figments (2)
6
....................some wild imaginations. Previous sightings (3) ...................... such large
jungle cats had been put down (4) ............... exaggeration.
(5) ..................all, the argument went, some people are prone (6) .....................seeing
flying saucers and Loch Ness monster, particularly when (7) .........................the
influence of one drinking too much. Some newspapers were suspected (8)
.......................having made (9) .................stories such as that of the Beast of Exmoor, an
animal which is responsible (10) .........................the deaths of hundreds of sheep over
the past ten years. But experts have now come (11) .....................with proof that such
stories were (12) ................. earnest after all. The animals are (13) .................all
likelihood pets which have escaped (14).................... small zoos, or been abandoned
(15) .................... their owners. Because the keeping (16) ........................ such animals is
severely restricted (17) .......................the Dangerous Wild Animals Act of 1976, owners
of unlicensed
animals might not report an escape (18) ........................fear of
prosecution. Britain’s only surviving native feline species, the wild cat, is confined (19)
....................Scotland. After examining hair samples, experts now say that the Beast of
Exmoor in the South of England is (20) ...................... the shadow of a doubt a puma or
lynx, both of which animals are normally native to the Middle East and Asia.
Your answers:
1
5
9
13
17
2
6
10
14
18
3
7
11
15
19
4
8
12
16
20
Part 4: Complete following sentences with the correct form of the verbs (5 points)
I come from a very large family, and recently my parents (1-decide) …………….that
they (2-spend) …………..long enough living in an overcrowded house in Birmingham.
“We (3- move) …………..to the country,” my father ( 4- announce) one evening. “ I (5sell) ………………..this house, and we (6- live) …………..on a farm.” So last week we
(7-load) …………..all our possessions into two hired vans, and for the last few days we
7
(8-try) ……………….to organize ourselves in our new home. Yesterday, for example,
my three brothers and I (9-start) ………………painting the downstairs rooms.
Unfortunately while I (10-mix) ……………the paint, one of my sisters (11-open)
………the door. Nobody (12-tell) her that we (13-be) in the room, you see. So instead
of painting the walls, we (14-spend) …………….all morning cleaning the paint off the
floor. But worse things (15-happen) …………….since then. This morning when I (16wake up), water (17-drip) ……………through the ceiling next to my bed. We (18spend) ………….today so far repairing the roof. It’s not all bad news, though. The
school in the village nearby (19-close down) ……………two years ago, and my parents
(20-not find) ………………another school for us yet.
Your answers:
1
11
2
12
3
13
4
14
5
15
6
16
7
17
8
18
9
19
10
20
Part 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces
provided. (5 points)
Many people have given (0) ...assistance… to me during the writing of ASSIST
this book, but it is to Miss Leigh Keith, senior editor of Ramsay and
Brown that I am most deeply (1) …………..for her loyalty and DEBT
(2) ………….. during the four years the project lasted. She gave her DEVOTE
8
time and advice (3)……. in order for this work to be completed, giving STINT
both moral and (4)……. support for the lengthy research into social PRACTICE
conditions the project (5)………. .
NECESSARY
Her assurance and encouragement sustained me in my (6) ……..that BELIEVE
this was valuable work and it was (7)……. what enabled me to DOUBT
continue in the face of often discouraging circumstances. I must also
thank my father, who has been a (8)……. collaborator in all my efforts WILL
and who spent long hours in libraries and on trains to
distant parts of the country in search of material. I know that he will say
that he enjoyed it, but without his (9)……. enthusiasm this book would FLAG
never have been written. Finally, I would like to thank my friends and
family, who have had to put up with what must have seemed to them an
(10)……. long drawn out piece of writing. Thank you, all of you, very EXCEPT
much.
Your answers:
1
6
2
7
3
8
4
9
5
10
Part 6: Read the text. Complete the text with the phrase (A-K) that best fits each gap.
There is one phrase you do not need. (5 points)
Archeologist in Irap have discovered the world’s oldest “statue” – a stone, standing four
feet high, covered with plaster (1) …………….of a human being.
This “stone man”, dating from 11,000 years ago, (2) …………who were emerging from
the preagricultural Stone Age into the Neolithic world of early farming.
9
The statue, probably of religious sigificance, was located inside a prehistoric house –
one of the earliest sophisticated buildings (3) …………. Investigations have shown that
the house had (4) ………..clay-coated, lime-plastered walled and floor.
So far excavations have unearthed three buildings containing seven standing stones, (5)
……….retain traces of the lime plaster which once covered them.
However, (6) ………..shows evidence of having been shaped into the likeness of a
human being. It is 30 centuries older (7) …………..previously known oldest statue. (8)
…………..that each building appears to have had at least one standing stone inside it,
and that one house actually had three.
The plastered-covered human shaped obelisk (9) ………….shoulders and the stumps of
arms and part of a nexk. The “head”, however, (10)……………..
A
ever discovered by archeologists
B
moulded into the shape
C
to have been built
D
strangely carved
E
was fashioned by a people
F
excavations have revealed
G
only one of these
H
neither of them
I
beautifully finished
J
than the remaining
K
has what appear to be
L
seems to have broken off
M four of which
N
has been missing
O
it has been decided
p
than the world’s
Your answers:
10
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. READING (25 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) that
best fits the blank. (7.5 points)
If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It
has become a symbol of our wasteful, throwaway society. But there seems little (1)
………….it is here to stay, and the truth is, ofcourse, that plastics have brought
enormous (2) …………., even environmental ones. It’s not really
the plastics
themselves that are the environmental (3) ………….- it’s the way society chooses to use
and (4) ……….them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal
– non-renewable natural (5) ……………… We (6) ………….well over three million
tonnes of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A
high (7) …………of our annual consumption is in the (8) ……..of packaging, and this
(9) ………about seven per cent by weight, of our domestic (10) ………. Almost all of it
could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling (11)…………..is
growing fast.
The plastics themselves are extremely energy – rich – they have a higher calorific (12)
………than coal and one (13) ………….of “recovery” strongly (14) ………….by the
plastic manufacturers is the (15) ……..of waste plastic into fuel.
1.A. evidence
B. concern
C. doubt
D. likelihood
2.A. pleasures
B. benefits
C. savings
D. profits
3.A. poison
B. disaster
C. disadvantage
D. evil
4.A. dispose
B. store
C. endanger
D. abuse
5.A. resources
B. processes
C. products
D. fuels
6.A. remove
B. import
C. consign
D. consume
7.A. portion
B. amount
C. proportion
D. rate
8.A. way
B. kind
C. form
D. type
11
9.A. takes
B. makes
C. carries
D. constitutes
10.A. refuse
B. goods
C. requirements
D. rubble
11.A. manufacture
B. plant
C. factory
D. industry
12.A. degree
B. value
C. demand
D. effect
13.A. measure
B. mechanism
C. method
D. medium
14.A. desired
B. argued
C. favoured
D. presented
15.A. conversion
B. melting
C. change
D. replacement
Your answers:
1.
6.
11.
2.
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
15.
Part 2: (7.5 points)
Complete the following extract from a pamphlet on deafness by writing the
missing words in the spaces provided. Use only one word in each space.
This pamphlet is not about empty statements and false promises, rather it is concened
with the cooperation needed by deaf people from those who speak to them. Any person
who is willing to give their cooperation by practising the following points will not only
make conservation easier (1) …………..deaf people, but also for (2) ………..
Please avoid shouting at deaf people (3) …………….possible. shouting contorts the
face of the speaker (4) ………..the embarrassment of the listener, and (5) …………the
conservation unnatural and strained. Speech is usually (6) ……….heard when it is given
in a clear voice (7) …………..slightly louder (8) ……………normal.
Clarity (9) ……………than volume is often the main requirement when speaking.
Many deaf people have some ability to lip-read, (10) ………..going to lip-reading
classes. Some partially deaf people (11) ……………practise this skill without realising
it. They feel that they can hear a speaker (12) ……………when he is facing them. In
12
actual fact, this probably isn’t the case, (13) …………………they are likely to
understand (14) …………..accurately because what they only partially hear is assisted
(15) ………………what they also see in the speaker’s expressions and lip-movements.
Your answers:
1
4
7
10
13
2
5
8
11
14
3
6
9
12
15
Part 3: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points)
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On
the solid portions of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains,
elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges. In geography, the term "continent" refers
to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the
planet's surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of
the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia that actually
represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies
or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan
areas are called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and
large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of a particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth's crust has determined that
continental structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great
deal of disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers
underlie each landmass because of their distinctive mineral and chemical composition.
It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown continents that
have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by
means of a chemical reaction when, lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus
settling at various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics
within crust formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate
13
that a chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it
solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations
of components that include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins,
volcanic plateaus, and block vaulted belts. The basic differences among continents lie in
the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the continent size.
Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface
features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded
sedimentary organization of layers. They are typically produced during substantial
crustal movements, which generate faulting and mountain building. When
continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of
large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process also
accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence
for the ongoing continental plate evolution.
1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
(A) Continental drift and division
(B) Various' definitions of the term "continent"
(C) Continental structure and crust
(D) Scientific analyses of continental crusts
2. According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
(A) As masses of land without divisions
(B) As extensive bodies of land
(C) As the largest identifiable features
(D) As surficial compositions and ranges
3. In the passage, the word "bounded" is closest in meaning to
(A) covered
(B) convened
(C) delimited
(D) dominated
4. The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on
the fact that
(A) each continent has several planes and shelves
(B) continents have various underlying layers of crust
(C) continents undergo compression and experience tension
(D)continents have different chemical makeup
14
5. The word "specifics" in the passage is closest in meaning to
(A) specialties
(B) speculations
(C) exact details
(D) precise movements
6. The word "it" in the passage refers to
(A) a chemical split
(B) the crust
(C) the atmosphere
(D)sea water
7. The author of the passage implies that
(A) it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
(B) geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
(C) scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes ,
(D) the earth's atmosphere split into water and solids
8. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
(A) The proportional size of continents to one another
(B) Ratios of major components and their comparative size
(C) The distinctive features of their elements
(D) Climatic zones and their effect' on the surface features
9. In the passage, the phrase "This process" refers to
(A) continental collision
(B) mountain ranges
(C) the rise of margins
(D) plate tectonic theory
10. The author of the passage implies that
(A) the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for
(B) mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building.
(C) faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges
(D) the process of continent formation has not been completed
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points)
15
The people of corn
Maize is Mexico’s lifeblood – the country’s history and identity are entwined with it.
But this centuries-old relationship is now threatened by free trade. Laura
Carlsen investigates the threat and profiles a growing activist movement.
On a mountain top in southern Mexico, Indian families gather. They chant and sprinkle
cornmeal in consecration, praying for the success of their new crops, the unity of their
communities and the health of their families. In this village in Oaxaca people eat
corn tamales, sow maize plots and teach children to care for the plant. The cultural
rhythms of this community, its labours, rituals and celebrations will be defined – as
they have been for millennia – by the lifecycle of corn. Indeed, if it weren’t for the
domestication of teocintle (the ancestor of modern maize) 9,000 years ago
mesoamerican civilization could never have developed. In the Mayan sacred book,
the Popol Vuh, the gods create people out of cornmeal. The ‘people of corn’ flourished
and built one of the most remarkable cultures in human history.
But in Mexico and Central America today maize has come under attack. As a result of
the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) Mexico has been flooded with
imported corn from north of the border in the US. The contamination of native
varieties with genetically modified imported maize could have major consequences for
Mexican campesinos (farmers), for local biodiversity and for the world’s genetic
reserves.
A decade ago Mexican bureaucrats and business people had it all figured out. NAFTA
would drive ‘uncompetitive’ maize farmers from the countryside to work in booming
assembly factories across the country. Their standard of living would rise as the cost of
providing services like electricity and water to scattered rural communities would fall.
Best of all, cheap imported maize from the US – the world’s most efficient and most
16
heavily subsidized producer – would be a benefit to Mexican consumers.
Unfortunately, it didn’t turn out that way. There weren’t quite enough of those factory
jobs and the ones that did materialize continued to be along the US border, not further
in Mexico. And despite a huge drop in the price farmers received for their corn,
consumers often ended up paying more. The price of tortillas – the country’s staple
food – rose nearly fivefold as the Government stopped domestic subsidies and giant
agribusiness firms took over the market. Free trade defenders like Mexico’s former
Under-Secretary of Agriculture Luis Tellez suggest: ‘It’s not that NAFTA failed, it’s
just that reality didn’t turn out the way we planned it.’ Part of that reality was that the
Government did nothing to help campesinos in the supposed transition. Nor did
NAFTA recognize inequalities or create compensation funds to help the victims of free
trade – unlike what occurred with economic integration in the European Union.
Basically, Mexico adopted a sink-or-swim policy for small farmers, opening the
floodgates to tons of imported US corn. Maize imports tripled under NAFTA and
producer prices fell by half. The drop in income immediately hit the most vulnerable
and poorest members of rural society. While more than a third of the corn grown by
small farmers is used to feed their families, the rest is sold on local markets. Without
this critical cash, rural living standards plunged.
Maize is at the heart of indigenous and campesino identity. José Carrillo de la Cruz, a
Huichol Indian from northern Jalisco, describes that relationship: ‘Corn is the force,
the life and the strength of the Huichol. If there were a change, if someone from
outside patented our corn, it would end our life and existence.’
The good news is that the free-trade threat to Mexico’s culture and food security has
sparked a lively resistance. ‘In Defence of Corn’, a movement to protect local maize
17
varieties, is not a membership organization but a series of forums and actions led
by c
ampesinos themselves. It’s a direct challenge to both free trade and the dictums of
corporate science.
The farmers’ tenacity and refusal to abandon the crop of their ancestors is impressive.
But larger economic conditions continue to shape their lives. Rural poverty and hunger
have soared under free trade – and placed a heavier burden on women left to work the
land. The battle for food sovereignty continues. Movement leaders insist that the
Government reassess its free trade policies and develop a real rural development
programme.
Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write
YES
if the statement agrees with the information.
NO
if the statement contradicts the information.
NOT
GIVEN
if there is no information on this
1) After NAFTA, a lot of corn from the USA has been sold in Mexico.
2) Following NAFTA, Mexican business people tried to stop maize farmers from
working in factories throughout the country.
3) The Mexican farmers were paid a lot less for their corn after NAFTA.
4) Many Mexican farmers wanted to leave Mexico after the Free Trade Agreement.
5) The Mexican farmers were not able to do anything to help themselves after the Trade
Agreement.
Your answers:
1
2
3
4
5
18
Questions 6-10
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet.
For thousands of years, corn has been a very important 6 ............. in the Mexican
culture. After the North American Free Trade Agreement, 7 ............. corn has been
imported from the USA in very large amounts. Mexican business people hoped that this
would mean that Mexican farmers had to get jobs in factories and that
their 8 ............. would increase. Instead of this result, the farmers suffered from the low
price of corn and people had to pay more for their corn. The farmers wish that the
government had 9 ............. them during this time. As a result of the hardship, the
farmers have organised themselves by forming a 10 ..............
Your answers:
6
7
8
9
10
V. WRITING (20 points)
Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one
using the word given. (5 points)
1. Whatever happens, we must avoid adverse publicity. (costs)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
2. this is the first time I’ve seen her in my life. ( set)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
3. It’s unlikely he’ll be picked for the Olympic swimming team. ( chances)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
4. I know I can convince Dave that I’m right about this matter. ( bring)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
5. He is different from his brother in almost all respects. (bears)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
19
6. We wouldn’t want to restrict the freedom of the students in any way. ( impose)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
7. I suddenly realized the meaning of a “freebie”. (dawned)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
8. I wanted to learn Russian before I visited Moscow. ( without)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
9. When I noticed it was formal dress, it was too late. (until)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Don’t panic about something so trivial. (mountain)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 2: Paragraph writing. (15 pts)
Write a paragraph on this topic:
“Money can buy happiness.’ To what extent do you agree with the statement?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
Write at least 150 words.
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
20
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
THE END!
21
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THI HSG CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DH-BB
LÀO CAI
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 10
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
HDC- ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
I. LISTENING (15 points)
Part 1: You will hear part of an interview with a singer-songwriter called Nick
Chalke, who is talking about his career. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B,
C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (5 points)
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
Part 2: Complete the form below.(10 points)
1. 5th May
2. 16th July/ Friday 16th July
3. Clear/was clear
4. (an/the) outline/ (a/the) course outline
5. (the) 2nd half
6. (standard of) teaching/teachers
7. (group) discussion
8. Handouts
9. Written work
10. Student support/ support for students
Tapescript
Part 1:
Greg: Serving more than 200,000 meals a year would be a challenge for any chef, but
step up constraints of time, space and a demand for culinary excellence and you have the life of
a railway chef. Chris and Jane, the idea of having to cook in cramped surroundings, with
limited ingredients and a very tight schedule, as you did in the recent competition, must have
been a terrifying prospect...
Chris: Well, hardly – I actually operate under those restrictions every day!
Jane: That’s true, of course, we both do – but there’s always the added danger that
22
things can go wrong, and the challenge of preparing a top-quality, three-course meal for fourwhich costs no more than 50 pounds – and in front of all those judges!
Greg: Well, Jane, you were a runner up and Chris came first. I gather you faced some
stiff competition from the other finalists.
Jane: No doubt about that. All the chefs who entered the competition were brilliant in
their own way – but someone has to win! But the real problem is trying to be creative as the
train hurtles through the countryside at over 100 miles an hour – there’s little room for mistakes
– and you have to be able to keep your balance!
Chris: Actually, I’d only been a railway chef for three months. And I can tell you that life on board is
no easy ride. There’s no nipping out to to get the extra bunch of parsley, or a lemon.
Greg: But you’re used to working under pressure all the same, aren’t you? How do you set about
being organized?
Chris: You’ve just got to make sure you’re focussed on the job. Being able to keep an eye on a dozen
things at once is also an advantaged.
Greg: But do you actually enjoy what you’re doing?
Jane: There’s plenty of scope to express yourself as a chef in the job-and the open kitchen means that
customers will often compliment you personally on the food. That’s one of the biggest
highlights of the job.
Chris: I’d certainly go along with that. Very few restaurant chefs have the chance to experience that.
Greg: And what about the menus, who decides what to cook?
Jane: They’re decided in advance for the whole railway network by tow extremely famous chefs, who
are actually brothers. I suppose we both find it restricting.
Chris: Hmm. I do get a bit frustrated from time to time – think I could be a little more adventurous
– but it’s all questions of adaptability-which I suspect Jane is better than I am!
Jane: Not at all – I can be quite inflexible when the mood takes me!
Greg: So what would be a typical routine for you both.
Chris: You have to start at around 5.30 in the morning –check that all the ingredients. Have been
delivered-then it’s a mad rush to get everything ready.
Jane: And precious little time to rest any other time during the day, as you often have to set tables on
other trains and help other staff. Timing’s particularly tight you see in other restaurants orders
come in and go out over to or three hours, but we have to turn round before the passengers
reach their stations. It’s all a bit never racking.
Greg: So what motivated you to do this in the first place?
Chris: I’ve been on the move ever since I left college. So when I got engaged, I decided it was time to
23
setle down so when I saw this job, it seemed a reasonable compromise between personal
commitments my reluctance to stay in or one place.
Jane: For me, it was something that just caught my eye-not just ordinary run – of – the- mill stuff. And
, if you get the time you get a good view out of the window!
Greg: And how do you stop things from spilling over when the train moves?
Chris: It’s not a problem for me. I was a chef on a liner, so I’ve got plenty of experience of cookery in
motion!
Jane: Yes, but I think it heps if you only half fill saucepans with boiling water –even so, they often
spill over and you start saying nasty things to yourself about the driver –and it’s not usually his
fault!
Chris: Let’s just say that you quickly learn not to put things under the grill without keeping an eye on
them!
Greg: Has either of you had any major disasters?
Chris: (Laughs) I’d only been in the job for three days and I had this huge roast in the oven. I opened it
the door turned around for a moment, distracted, I suppose, and it just flew out. Fortunately, it
landed in the sink, so it was okey.
Greg: And what qualities would you say it was necessary for a railway chef to have?
Jane: From my point of view, dedication and determination –you won’t get anywhere without these.
Chris: And, let’s admit it – a sense of humour. There have been times when I would have resigned
long ago if I hadn’t had that!
Part 2.
24
25
II. PHONETICS (5 points)
Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
the underline part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions. (2.5 points)
1A
2C
3A
4A
5C
Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions. (2.5 points)
1B
2C
3D
4A
5B
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions. (5 points)
1. A
4. A
7. B
10. B
13. B
16A
19C
2. C
5. D
8. C
11. B
14. C
17B
20B
3. B
6. B
9. B
12. A
15. C
18B
Part 2: Read the text, find the mistakes and correct them (5 points)
Your answers:
1. young -> youth
6. stinging -> stung
2. him -> himself
7. there -> where
3. did -> done
8. popularly -> popular
4. Germany -> German
9. appearance -> appearing
5. stood -> standing
10. Lately -> Later
Part 3: Fill in the blank with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points)
26
1. at
5. After
9. up
13. in
17. under
2. of
6. to
10. for
14. from
18. for
3. of
7. under
11. up
15. by
19. to
4. to
8. of
12. in
16. of
20. beyond
Part 4: Complete following sentences with the correct form of the verbs (5 points)
1. decided
2. had spent
3. are going to move, are moving
4. announced
5. have sold
6. are going to live
7. loaded
8. have been trying
9. started
10. was mixing
11.opened
12. had told
13. would be/ were/ were going to be
14. spent
15. have happened
16. woke up
17. was dripping
18. have spent
19. closed down
20. haven’t found
Part 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces
provided. (5 points)
27
1. indebted
2. devotion
3. unstintingly
4. practical
5. necessitated
6. belief
7. undoubtedly
8. willing
9. unflagging
10. exceptionally
Part 6: Read the text. Complete the text with the phrase (A-K) that best fits each gap.
There is one phrase you do not need. (5 points)
1B
2E
3A
4I
5M
6G
7P
8F
9K
10L
IV. READING (25 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) that
best fits the blank. (7.5 points)
1C
6B
11D
2B
7C
12B
3D
8C
13C
4D
9D
14C
5A
10A
15A
Part 2: (7.5 points)
Complete the following extract from a pamphlet on deafness by writing the
missing words in the spaces provided. Use only one word in each space.
1. For
28
2. Himself/ herself/ themselves
3. If/ when(ever)/ where (ver)/
4. To
5. Makes
6. Best/only
7. Just/ only/ pitched/ and/ raised
8. Than
9. Rather/more
10. Without
11. Even/may/also/might/often/can
12. Better/only
13. But
14. More
15. by
Part 3: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points)
Key
1.C
2.A
3.C
4. D
5. C
6.B
7.A
8.B
9. A
10. D
Part 4: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points)
1) YES
2) NOT GIVEN
3) YES
4) NOT GIVEN
5) NO
6 crop
7 genetically modified
8 standard of living
9 helped
29
10 movement.
V. WRITING (20 points)
Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one
using the word given. (5 points)
1. We must avoid adverse publicity at all costs.
2. I’ve never set eyes on her before.
3. His chances of being picked for the Olympic swimming team are slim/poor.
4. I know I can bring Dave round to my way of thinking on this matter.
5. He bears little/ hardly any resemblance to his brother.
6. We wouldn’t want to impose any restrictions on the freedom of the students.
7. The meaning of a “freebie” suddenly dawned on me.
It suddenly dawned on me what the meaning of a “freebie” was.
8. I did not want to visit Moscow without leaning ‘ having learned Russian.
9. I did not notice it was formal dress until it was too late.
It was not until it was too late that I noticed it was formal dress.
Not until it was too late did I notice it was formal dress.
10. Don’t make a mountain out of a molehill.
Part 2: Paragraph writing. (15 pts)
Write a paragraph on this topic:
“Money can buy happiness.’ To what extent do you agree with the statement?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
Write at least 150 words.
* Organization : (5 points)
+ Three parts ( topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence)
+ Topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea.
+ Concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas / restates the topic
sentence and gives personal opinion.
30
* Content, coherence and cohesion: (5 points)
+ Supporting sentences: support directly the main idea stated in the topic sentence and
provide logical, persuasive examples.
+ Use of transition signals appropriately.
* Language use and accuracy: (5 points)
+ Variety of structures, expressions and good use of vocabulary
+ No spelling or grammar mistakes.
THE END!
31
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH
KỲ THI OLYMPIC
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH
KHU VỰC DH-ĐBBB
Tổ Ngoại ngữ
Lần thứ VII- Năm học: 2013 - 2014
ĐỀ ĐỀ NGHỊ
ĐỀ THI: TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 10
-------------------
(Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút)
PART A. LISTENING (15 pts)
I. Listen and choose the best answer (5 pts)
1. The park which makes up Hampstead Health is _____.
A. very large
B. fairly large
C. fairly small
2. According to the speaker, Hampstead underground station is _____.
A. the shallowest in the system
B. the deepest in the system
C. the oldest in London
3. The speaker suggests that after their walk people might want to _____.
A. have a meal in the famous restaurants
B. avoid Hampstead village as it is very busy
C. visit Hampstead village to look at the shops
4. The houses in the Vale of the Health are built _____.
A. on the edge of the health
B. on the health itself
C. opposite the health
5. The speaker advises walkers to remove their headphones to _____.
A. hear the silence away from the traffic
B. ensure they are not being followed
C. listen to the noises in the park
II. Listen and do the tasks follow (10 pts)
Question 1-5: Answer the questions below. (5pts)
1. What had the local business people all encountered?
________________________________________________________________
2. What is the main focus of the Center now?
________________________________________________________________
3. How was Snapshot research carried out?
________________________________________________________________
4. How much higher are local business rents compared to those nationally?
________________________________________________________________
5. How many local business close a year after they have started working with
the Centre?
________________________________________________________________
Questions 6-10: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS for each answer. (5pts)
Size of business
Start-ups
Companies
Help being given
O-foods
Improving the _____ (6) turnaround.
Innovations
Support to attract business partners and
achieve _____ (7).
Small
Sampsons Ltd
Business _____ (8)
Vintage Scooter
Product monitoring scheme after sales
customer service
Medium
Build Ltd
Extension of _____ (9)
Jones System
Conflict management and _____ (10)
PART B. PHONOLOGY (5 pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
the other three. (2.5 pts)
1. A. surfboard
B. surcharge
C. surprise
D. surface
2. A. weird
B. wear
C. beard
D. merely
3. A. draughty
B. cauldron
C. plausible
D. slaughter
4. A. completion
B. optician
C. section
D. occasion
5. A. vehement
B. exhibit
C. Fahrenheit
D. Buddhist
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other
three (2.5 pts)
6. A. conservative
B. personnel
C. preferential
D. controversial
7. A. ingenuity
B. inglorious
C. philatelist
D. pneumonia
8. A. extraordinary
B. cathedral
C. abbreviation
D. apostrophe
9. A. insight
B. insistent
C. injury
D. image
10. A. argumentative
B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive
PART C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the sentences.
(5 pts)
1. John Archer’s book is selling like hot _____.
A. stuff
B. cakes
C. property
D. soup
2. It took Anna a long time to get the _____ of the new computer programme.
A. hang
B. grips
C. means
D. grasp
3. Look, will you stop _____ in and let me finish my sentence?
A. moving
B. pushing
C. butting
D. plugging
4. My mother always told me that I shouldn’t judge people _____. The way they
look says nothing about their character.
A. by their appearance
B. with their outlook
C. through appearance
D. by their face
5. I really need a new watch. This one doesn’t _____ very good time.
A. show
B. record
C. indicate
D. keep
6. It is the _____ of stupidity to go walking in the mountains in this weather.
A. height
B. depth
C. source
D. matter
7. In my view, the changes to the education system have been to good _____.
A. influence
B. outcome
C. upshot
D. effect
8. Poor management brought the company to the _____ of collapse.
A. brink
B. rim
C. fringe
D. brim
9. The plumber agreed that he had made a mistake and promised to put it _____
the next day.
A. correct
B. proper
C. sound
D. right
10. I can’t understand why you have to make such a _____ about something so
unimportant.
A. mess
B. stir
C. fuss
D. bother
11. The judge looked at the _____ and reminded him that he had to tell the
whole truth.
A. bystander
B. witness
C. onlooker
D. viewer
12. I was disappointed that the restaurant had _____ flowers on the table.
A. false
B. untrue
C. artificial
D. forged
13. As she is so heavily overlooked, there is a _____ possibility that she will
have a nervous breakdown.
A. distinctive
B. distinct
C. little
D. manifest
14. _____ to the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were
horse-drawn.
A. Akin
B. Prior
C. In addition
D. With reference
15. The truant was _____ from school for unbecoming behaviour.
A. dispelled
B. repelled
C. expelled
D. compelled
16. Of course he can lift that! He is as ______ as a horse.
A. tough
B. big
C. heavy
D. strong
17. Fearing for his life, he _____ the mugger for mercy.
A. pleaded
B. petitioned
C. urged
D. begged
18. I am not convinced that financial advisers always act in their clients’ best
_____.
A. advantage
B. interest
C. intention
D. result
19. The case against the bank robbers was _____ for lack of evidence.
A. discarded
B. dismissed
C. refused
D. eliminated
20. Five readers _____ the correct solution to our recent competition.
A. communicated
B. qualified C. submitted
D. subscribed
II. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and
write their correct forms in the space provided. (5 pts)
Broadcasting in some form was; however, tied not only to strong
economical interests, but also to the depth structures of modern societies. In
spite of the activities of TV amateurs, television was also primary a medium for
theatrically exhibition in the USA in the early 1930s, and as such often thought
to be a potential competition of the film industry. In fact, television was
throughout the 1930s predominance watched in public settings also outside of
the USA. For example, in Britain, public viewers of television was the way in
which most early audiences actually experienced the medium and this was even
more the case in Germany. While the vision of grass-roots or amateur, two-way
television was quite obvious doomed to a very marginal position at the very
best, television systems largely based on collective public reception were in fact
operated in several countries in the 1930s and may, with the benefit of hindsight,
be seen as having presenting more of a threat to the domestication of the
medium. But it was a threat that was not to materialize.
III. Fill in each of the blanks a suitable preposition (5 pts)
1. I wonder what everybody finds _____ (1) him. What is there so remarkable
_____ (2) him that people will hang _____ (3) his every word.
2. He was last _____ (4) a long line, and _____ (5) the look _____ (6) it, he was
unlikely to get a good seat _____ (7) the show.
3. The poverty _____ (8) her childhood stands _____ (9) total contrast _____
(10) her life _____ (11) Hollywood.
4. Did you plan to share an apartment with an American student, or did you
come _____ (12) by accident?
5. At the library yesterday, I ran _____ (13) an old friend.
6. The professor offered to make me her lab assistant, and I jumped _____ (14)
the opportunities.
7. During the prison riots, four prisoners succeeded in getting _____ (15).
8. I can’t spend everything I earn. I must put money _____ (16) my trip home.
9. Before you say no, please calm _____ (17) and listen.
10. I don’t mind lending you $10 until Saturday if you’ll give it _____ (18).
11. Please be ready to hand your term paper _____ (19) by the end next week.
12. To be a serious student, he had to give _____ (20) nightclubbing.
IV. Put the verbs in the brackets into their appropriate tenses and forms (5
pts)
1. The little boy had a lot of trouble _____ (1. convince) everyone that he _____
(2. see) a mermaid.
2. I was terribly disappointed _____ (3. discover) that he _____ (4. lie) to me.
3. I really didn’t expect _____ (5. introduce) to the president.
4. The sunlight _____ (6. come) through the window _____ (7. wake) me up
early every morning.
5. The girl got into a lot of trouble. She _____ (8. not, tell) a lie.
6. I appreciate _____ (9. tell) the news.
7. It was our fault to keep Jane _____ (10. wait) so long. We _____ (11.
inform) her in advance.
8. The airplane in which the football team _____ (12. travel) crashed soon after
taking off.
9. You don’t remember _____ (13. tell) him how to get here. If you _____ (14.
have) we _____ (15. not miss) the train.
10. For some years now, Samantha _____ (16. believe) strongly in reincarnation
and _____ (17. try) to persuade her friends to come round to her way of
thinking but they _____ (18.still/not/convince).
11. We _____ (19. tell) that the workers were repairing an old bridge at the time.
12. Why didn’t you tell me you could you lend me the money? I _____ (20. not
borrow) it from the bank.
V. Write the correct form of the word given in brackets. (5 pts)
WOMEN ONLY
Increasingly, women are taking their holidays without men. For _____ (1.
SAFE) reasons, camaraderie or just plain fun, a growing number of female
tourists are singing up for women-only trips. Twenty years ago only a _____ (2.
HAND) of companies offered such holidays; now there are several hundred.
Travel _____ (3. CONSULT) Andre Littlewood says that the combination of
higher incomes with delayed marriage, divorce, retirement and widowhood has
_____ (4. ABLE) more women to travel, often on their own. They are attracted
by the sense of _____ (5. FREE) that a holiday without men affords them.
“Women in a group tend to feel _____ (6. INHIBIT) and speak more openly
than when men are around”, she adds. “Even on energy-sapping adventure
holidays the atmosphere is relaxed and _____ (7. CO-OPERATE). It’s also a
great deal more fun. Women laugh more _____ (8. READY) than men,
probably because they don’t mind laughing at themselves.” Since her divorce
Janice Cummings has been a regular traveler with Everywoman Tours, and
Oxford-based Company whose very name is a _____ (9. DETER) to men. “And
a good thing too,” she says. “Men simply cannot resist the _____ (10. TEMPT)
to try and take control, no matter where they are. And that includes on holiday.
Thankfully, there is none of that with Everywoman.”
VI. Choose the best linking word or phrase to complete the passage. (5 pts)
Smoking is known to be one of the greatest single causes of death in our
society. Too little seems to be done; however, to stop young people taking up
the habit in the first place.
_____ (1), cigarettes are openly on sale in many public places and laws
governing the minimum age at which they can be bought often seem to be
ignored. _____ (2), cigarette advertising continues to figure largely in some
parts of the media, despite recent moves to outlaw this, and is, _____ (3), often
targeted at young people.
Although anti-smoking campaigns have been organized in recent years, these
seem not to have been particularly effective, _____ (4) the rise in the numbers of
young people, especially girls, who take up smoking each year. _____ (5)
supporting such campaigns in principle, I would like to propose an alternative
approach.
_____ (6), I think that the advertising of cigarettes should be completely
banned from all aspects of the media. _____ (7), the sale of cigarettes should be
more tightly controlled to ensure that the law regarding underage smokers is
respect. And, _____ (8), cigarettes should not be sold in places such as cafés and
supermarkets frequented by young people and families. Their sale should _____
(9) be restricted to licensed tobacconists and sharp penalties should be imposed
on those breaking the law, particularly those selling cigarettes on the black
market.
_____ (10), I would like to add that, of course, it is the duty of parents,
teachers and other responsible adults to set a good example; by not smoking!
1. A. Likewise
B. To begin with C. Whilst
D. Therefore
2. A. However
B. Moreover
C. Nonetheless
D. Though
3. A. what’s more
B. likewise
C. therefore
D. even though
4. A. resulting
B. especially
C. instead
D. given
5. A. However
B. Whilst
C. Finally
D. Therefore
6. A. Although
B. Whilst
C. Firstly
D. Especially
7. A. Furthermore
B. Therefore
C. Instead
D. Otherwise
8. A. to sum up
B. secondly
C. in addition D. in spite of this
9. A. however
B. nonetheless
C. instead
D. likewise
10. A. In addition
B. Consequently
C. Therefore
D. Finally
PART D. READING (30 POINTS)
I. Read the text and fill each gap with ONE suitable word. (7.5 pts)
SNORING
Sleep deprivation can make us very angry, which is why snoring – the
human equivalent of a car alarm _____ (1) set off at night – can be so irritating.
Most people snore occasionally, but in middle age about 40% of men and 20%
of women _____ (2) so regularly. Snoring can ruin relationships and be
intensely embarrassing. Snorers _____ (3) go into hospital, for example, may
worry that they’ll keep the whole ward awake. But snoring doesn’t _____ (4)
afflict the unafflicted, snorers may also disturb _____ (5) and feel sleepy during
the day.
Snoring can sometimes be a symptom of a more serious condition. Up
_____ (6) 6% of men and 2% of women suffer from sleep apnoea, a syndrome
in which breathing _____ (7) significantly disrupted during sleep. Some people
may start off _____ (8) uncomplicated snorers, but develop sleep apnoea as they
get older. The word apnoea is derived _____ (9) the Greek and means “no
breathing”. People _____ (10) sleep apnoea have airways that become
obstructed during sleep. Typically, they snore loudly, stop breathing, struggle
_____ (11) air, partly wake up (although often unaware of it), gulp a bit, and
then recommence snoring. The cycle may _____ (12) repeated over 100 times
an hour.
_____ (13) surprisingly, people with sleep apnoea feel unrefreshed in the
morning. They may have problems concentrating during the day, feel depressed
and fall asleep _____ (14) socially unacceptable times. At worst, they can fall
asleep _____ (15) driving or operating dangerous machinery.
II. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each space. (7.5 pts)
THE NEW WAY TO BURN FAT
People who want to lose weight are being _____ (1) a startling new way to
burn fat. Would-be slimmers are flocking to a spa in Hong Kong that _____ (2)
to reduce their waistlines by smearing them with Chinese herbs, dousing them
with alcohol and then _____ (3) light to them, all for £78 a session. The spa
claims that the _____ (4) heat of the fire penetrates deep tissue, increasing
circulation and helping the body to absorb the herbal concoction which works to
detoxify the body and _____ (5) down fat. It boasts that the results are _____
(6), with customers recording losses of up to 15 centimeters of fat after the first
_____ (7).
Karen Chu, owner of The Life of Life Healing Spa in Hong Kong’s busy
Causeway Bay district, says that about 100 customers have successfully _____
(8) the treatment, and there have been no _____ (9). “About half the customers
come here for the Aqua-Fire treatment,” she said. “It is _____ (10) safe. You are
_____ (11) from the flame by wet towels. We have never had any complaints or
problems. In Asia, people are more _____ (12) to the idea of fire being a healing
_____ (13). It is only the Westerners who are afraid of the fire. If a customer is
really afraid we don’t go _____ (14).” Ms. Chu claims the fire treatment also
boosts the immune system, relieves stress, cleanses the skin and _____ (15)
muscular pains and stomach problems.
1. A. proposed
B. suggested
C. offered
D. advanced
2. A. predicts
B. promises
C. considers
D. assures
3. A. making
B. giving
C. holding
D. setting
4. A. soaking
B. bitter
C. intense
D. forced
5. A. bring
B. take
C. work
D. break
6. A. session
B. part
C. chapter
D. period
7. A. immediate
B. early
C. straight
D. rushed
8. A. undercut
B. undergone
C. underused
D. undertaken
9. A. casualties
B. damages
C. warnings
D. cautions
10. A. strongly
B. fiercely
C. perfectly
D. deeply
11. A. treatment
B. cure
C. correction
D. better
12. A. prevented
B. kept
C. protected
D. stopped
13. A. familiar
B. acceptable
C. prepared
D. open
14. A. through
B. ahead
C. forward
D. along
15. A. eases
B. disappears
C. lightens
D. recovers
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to
each question. (5pts)
INTERNET JOBS
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to
work online. Of course, there are plenty of jobs available for people with hightech computer skills, but the growth of new media has opened up a wide range
of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical
expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the
job of webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this
position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a
particular organization needs a webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the
hardware and software that the website the webmaster will manage is running
on. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to
manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running
internally (at the firm itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company
servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he
or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to
help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate
webmaster job description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the
latest computer applications. However, there are also online jobs available for
which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content jobs require excellent
writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media”.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a
constantly growing set of new technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes
websites, email, Internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and
video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer
illustration, video games, virtually reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job
professions. With many companies having to downsize in tough economic
items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance workers online has become
common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from
around the world with whom freelancers are able to work on projects with
companies outside their own country of residence.
How much can a person make in these kinds of career? As with many
questions related to today’s evolving technology, there is no simple answer.
There are many companies willing to pay people with technical Internet skills
salaries well above $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000
per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have
been known to make between $40,000 and $70,000 per year. (431 words)
1. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. name
B. estimate
C. discount
D. encounter
2. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. companies
B. new job opportunities
C. hardware and software
D. webmasters
3. What does “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. modern technology
B. new media
C. the Internet
D. a webmaster’s career
4. According to the passage, which of the following is true of webmasters?
A. They never work independently.
B. They require a minimal level of expertise.
C. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.
D. They do not support software products.
5. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _____.
A. There are online job available for workers with minimal computer skills.
B. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.
C. Online workers cannot free themselves from the office.
D. “New media” is not easy to define.
6. Which of the following is not mentioned as part of “new media”?
A. websites
B. Internet technology
C. writing skills
D. video games
7. It can be inferred from the passage that _____.
A. online workers can work full-time online
B. only skilled workers make good money
C. it is easy to become a webmaster
D. workers with limited computer skills cannot work online
8. The word “vary” in paragraph 6 could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. change
B. decrease
C. increase
D. differ
9. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To inform people about the tasks and role of a webmaster.
B. To inform people about the computer industry.
C. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.
D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.
10. Which of the following is true of the job of freelance writers?
A. They may work with others at the company.
B. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.
C. They manage hardware and software.
D. It is considered a “content” job.
IV. Read the passage and do the following tasks. (10pts)
Question 1-5: Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from
the List of headings below. One of the headings has been done as an
example.
List of headings
i. Tea – a beverage of hospitality
ii. The fall in the cost of tea
iii. Diverse drinking methods
iv. Tea on the move
v. An important addition
vi. Today’s continuing tradition – In Britain and China
vii. Limited objections to drinking tea
viii. Tea drinking in the world
TEA TIMES
0
The chances are that you have already drunk a cup or glass of tea today.
Perhaps, you are sipping one as you read this. Tea, now an everyday beverage in
many parts of the world, has over the centuries been an important part of rituals
of hospitality both in the home and in wider society.
1
Tea originated in China, and in Eastern Asia tea making and drinking
ceremonies have been popular for centuries. Tea was first shipped to North
Western Europe by English and Dutch maritime traders in the 16th century. At
about the same time, a land route from the Far East, via Moscow, to Europe was
opened up. Tea also figured in America’s bid for independence from British rule
– the Boston Tea Party.
2
As, over the last four hundred years, tea-leavers became available throughout
much of Asia and Europe, the ways in which tea was drunk changed. The
Chinese considered the quality of the leaves and the ways in which they were
cured all important. People in other cultures added new ingredients besides tealeaves and hot water. They drank tea with milk, sugar, spices like cinnamon and
cardamom, and herbs such as mint or sage. The variations are endless. For
example, in Western Sudan on the edge of the Sahara Desert, sesame oil is
added to milky tea on cold mornings. In England tea, unlike coffee, acquired a
reputation as a therapeutic drink that promoted health. Indeed, in European and
Arab countries as well as in Persia and Russia, tea was praised for its restorative
and health giving properties. One Dutch physician, Cornelius Blankaart, advised
that to maintain health a minimum of eight to ten cups a day should be drunk,
and that up to 50 to 100 daily cups could be consumed with safety.
3
While European coffee houses were frequently by men discussing politics and
closing business deals, respectable middle-class women stayed at home and held
tea parties. When the price of tea fell in the nineteenth century poor people took
up the drink with enthusiasm. Different grades and blends of tea were sold to
suit every pocket.
4
Throughout the world today, few religious groups object to tea drinking. In
Islamic cultures, where drinking of alcohol is forbidden, tea and coffee
consumption is an important part of social life. However, Seventh-Day
Adventists, recognizing the beverage as a drug containing the stimulant caffeine,
frown upon the drinking of tea.
5
In Britain, coffee drinking, particularly in the informal atmosphere of coffee
shops, is currently in vogue. Yet, the convention of afternoon tea lingers. At
conferences, it remains common practice to serve coffee in the morning and tea
in the afternoon. Contemporary China, too, remains true to its long tradition.
Delegates at conferences and seminars are served tea in cups with lids to keep
the infusion hot. The cups are topped up throughout the proceedings. There are
as yet not signs of coffee at such occasions. (491 words)
Questions 6-10: Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN
TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer. (5pts)
Originated in China and Eastern Asia, for century, both at home and in
society, tea has become an important role in ______________ (6). In the 19th
century,
falling
tea
prices
meant
that
people
could
choose
the
_____________________ (7) of tea they could afford. Nowadays, throughout
the world, few religious groups raise _____________ (8) tea drinking. Because
it __________________ (9) Seventh-Day Adventists do not approve of the
drinking of tea. In Britain, while coffee is in fashion, afternoon tea is still a
_____________________ (10).
PART E: WRITING (20pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way
that their meanings remain unchanged. (5pts)
1. It was not until five years had elapsed that the whole truth about the murder
came out.
=> Not for _______________________________________________________
2. The only reason why she got promotion is that she’s very competent.
=> Were it _______________________________________________________
3. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
=> Urgent _______________________________________________________
4. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
=> Refusal _______________________________________________________
5. Philip’s inability to make decisions dates from his accident.
=> Ever _________________________________________________________
6. Harry is the spitting image of his mother! (RESEMBLANCE)
________________________________________________________________
7. Mr. Beaver claimed that hard work was the reason for his success.
(ATTRIBUTED)
________________________________________________________________
8. She and her husband disagree strongly about how their daughter should be
educated. (EYE)
________________________________________________________________
9. Pete is far superior to his brother in terms of technical knowledge. (MATCH)
________________________________________________________________
10. On no account will I lend you $500. (QUESTION)
________________________________________________________________
II. Students should have freedom to choose their own subjects in the
graduation exam for Secondary education. Do you agree or disagree? Write
a paragraph (120 to 150 words) to support your answer. (15pts)
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ NGHỊ - THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH
PART A
I.
1. A
II.
1. enormous problems
2. businesses that have just started up
3. by telephone
4. 33
5. two
6. stock
7. production targets
8. expansion plans
9. (company’s) product range
10. team building
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. C
PART B:
I.
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. C
II.
Broadcasting in some form was; however, tied not only to strong
economic interests, but also to the deep structures of modern societies. In spite
of the activities of TV amateurs, television was also primarily a medium for
theatrical exhibition in the USA in the early 1930s, and as such often thought to
be a potential competitor of the film industry. In fact, television was throughout
the 1930s predominantly watched in public settings also outside of the USA.
For example, in Britain, public viewing of television was the way in which most
early audiences actually experienced the medium and this was even more the
case in Germany. While the vision of grass-roots or amateur, two-way television
was quite obviously doomed to a very marginal position at the very best,
television systems largely based on collective public reception were in fact
operating in several countries in the 1930s and may, with the benefit of
hindsight, be seen as having presented more of a threat to the domestication of
the medium. But it was a threat that was not to materialize.
III.
1. in
2. about
3. on
4. in
5. from
6. of
7. for
8. of
9. in
10. to/with
11. in
12. about
13. across
14. at
15. away
16. aside
17. down
18. back
19. in
20. up
IV.
1. convincing
2. had seen
3. to discover
4. had lied
5. to be introduced
6. coming
7. wakes
8. shouldn’t have told
9. having been told
10. left
11. waiting/having waited
13. to tell
14. had
16. has believed
17. has been trying
19. were repairing
12. should have informed
15. wouldn’t miss
18. are still not convinced
20. needn’t have borrowed
V.
1. safety
2. handful
3. consultant
4. enabled
5. freedom
6. uninhibited
7. co-operative
8. readily
9. deterrent
10. temptation
VI.
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. D
2. do
3. who/that 4. only/just/merely
PART D.
I. 1. being/getting
5. themselves
9. from
6. to
7. is/gets
8. as/being
10. with
11. for/without
12. be/get
13. Not/Hardly
14. at
15. while/when/whilst
II. 1. A
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. C
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. C
10. D
1. iv
2. iii
3. ii
4. vii
5. vi
III.
IV.
6. rituals of hospitality / hospitality
7. grades and blends / different grades / different blends
8. (some) objections to
9. contains caffeine
10. lingering convention / convention
PART E: WRITING
I.
1. Not for another five years did the whole truth about the murder come
out.
2. Were it not for her competence, she wouldn’t get promotion.
3. Urgent action is/measures are necessary/essential to solve the
problem/if the problem is to be solved.//Urgent action/steps must be
taken/Urgent measures must be adopted to solve the problem.
4. Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
5. Ever since (he had) his accident Phillip has been unable to make
decisions.
6. Harry bears a strong/striking resemblance to his mother.
7. Mr. Beaver attributed his success to hard work.
8. She and her husband don’t see eye to eye on their daughter’s education.
9. When it comes to technical knowledge, his brother is no match for Pete.
10. There is no question of my lending you $500.
II.
1. Organization: (5 points)
+ Three parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence)
+ Topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea.
+ Concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas / restates the
topic sentence and gives personal opinion.
2. Content, coherence and cohesion: (7 points)
+ Supporting sentences: support directly the main idea stated in the topic
sentence and provide logical, persuasive examples.
+ Use of transition signals appropriately.
3. Language use and accuracy: (3 points)
+ Variety of structures, expressions and good use of vocabulary
+ No spelling or grammar mistakes.
LISTENING SCRIPTS
I.
Hi and welcome to the walking audio tour service, which offers guided audio
tours of over 30 walks around London. The full list of the walks is available on
our website. You have chosen the Hampstead Heath Tour Part 1, which was, in
fact, the first of the walking tours that were recorded. Your walk takes you
through part of the heath, a huge, wild, open parkland where Londoners and
visitors to the city can come and enjoy some leisurely and refreshing exercise.
The heath is one of the gems of north London. When you enter the parkland,
you will feel as if you are walking in the wild countryside, but you are actually
still in an urban area.
The walking tour begins here at the exit to Hampstead underground station,
which is the deepest station on the London Underground system. We hope that
you enjoy your experience, whether you are on your own or sharing your walk
with a companion. … So let’s begin your tour. We hope you enjoy it1
If you turn right as you exit Hampstead station, and stay on the right hand side
of the road, the main thorough-fare, Heath Street, will take you up the hill to the
heath itself. You are now walking away from the main shops and cafes in
Hampstead village, but you can return to visit these after your walking tour for
some window shopping. The village is busy during the daytime and the
evenings.
Now back to Heath Street. As the road winds northwards up Heath Street, you
will pass some shops and restaurants on your way to the heath. When you reach
the top, the first part of the heath that you will see on your right is the Vale of
the Heath, which has some spectacular houses, built on the Heath itself beside a
large pond. If you go along a little further you will come to a fork in the road –
North End Way – turns to the left and goes northwest away from the heath; and
on your right is Spaniards Road, which turns north-east, cutting through the
parkland. Walk along this latter road a little way and look for the first opening
on your right, where a path leads you down into the wild parkland.
As you descend along the pathway, you will find that the noise of the busy
road, that is just on your left, disappears completely. You might want to take off
your headphones to enjoy the delight of the sounds of the parkland. Don’t
imagine that there is only silence! There is the noise of the trees and the wildlife
that lives there. As you walk along the path, you will come across several paths
coming from the right to join the path that you are on, but keep going until you
come to the first fork in the path. Now take the path that goes to your left, which
will bring you shortly to the open spaces around Kenwood House.
II.
Question 1-5:
The subject of this evening’s talk at the North Bank Business Centre is local
business people in the area surrounding the university, and the benefit they bring
to the employment prospects of people in the local area, especially young people
at the beginning of their career.
We established the Centre is response to approaches from several business
people in the area who had wanted to start up new businesses, but who had not
managed to find any help locally and did not know where to turn. Moreover,
they had all without exception come up against enormous bureaucratic
obstacles. We therefore invited them in as a group to meet the members of the
department and the students. Stemming from that is the Centre, which is now
focuses mainly but not exclusively on business start-ups.
Just after the Centre was set up, snapshot research conducted by the
department over the telephone gave some startling results. The information
about local business revealed that three out of every ten local business start-ups,
that we could collect information on, had failed within the first six months, and
another five had gone within the year, leaving only two. The most common
reasons given for the businesses closing were: first, high rents, which are 33%
higher than the national average due to the area being very central; second, lack
of knowledge about grants, basically because of ignorance about how to access
them; and thirdly a lack of business support, because they did not know where to
obtain advice from.
Since the Centre came into existence three years ago, we have helped to
change this climate of failure. The current statistics show a remarkable
turnaround in the fortunes of local business. And now, after a year, only two
business close out of every ten compared to eight before the Centre was set up.
Question 6-10:
Six local businesses are now taking part in a work-placement and monitoring
scheme, which is of mutual benefit to ourselves and the companies involved. Ofoods, a small start-up company with nine employees involved in organic food
and based at a local market, has one final year graduate doing a year-long study
on improving the stock turnaround. This was a particular problem because the
company found that they were losing sometimes up to 30 percent of their stock.
Another start-up is Innovations which deals with producing video games. This
company, which employs only five people all under the age of 25, is receiving
support in attracting business partners and achieving production targets.
In the smaller business category, Sampsons Ltd, a courier company, which is
interested in developing a taxi service, is being offered help with their business
expansion plans. Another small niche company, called Vintage Scooter, which
specializes in revamping old scooters, is taking part in a product-monitoring
scheme, offering customer service up to a year after purchase to check the
quality of their restoration.
The first of the two medium-sized companies that the scheme is monitoring is
Build Ltd, which employs 47 people. A comparison of their products and
services with other businesses in the area is being carried out by a researcher,
who is trying to support them in their efforts to extend the company’s product
range.
The last company, Jones Systems, is perhaps the most interesting, because it
has been the victim of considerable personnel problems, which have been
affecting the day-to-day operations of the company. And so we are looking at
conflict management and team building within the company.
To sum up, advisors help the companies look at different business options and
models, apply for grants, deal with employment issues, systems creation, and
also provide accommodation at the centre to help them start up. E-mentoring for
fledgling businesses is also in operation for those who find it difficult to attend
the centre personally. The programme is funded by grants from local authorities.
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG PT VÙNG CAO VIỆT BẮC
Đề giới thiệu
(Đề thi có 11 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể giao đề)
PART I. LISTENING
1. Circle the correct letter A-C
Latin American studies
1. Paul decided to get work experience in South American because he wanted
A. to teach English there.
B. to improve his Spanish.
C. to learn about Latin American life.
2. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?
A. construction
B. agriculture
C. tourism
3. Why did Paul change from one project to another?
A. His first job was not well organized.
B. He found doing the routine work very boring.
C. The work has too physically demanding.
4. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to
A. respect family life
B. develop trust
C. use money wisely
5. What does Paul say about his project manager?
A. He let Paul do most of the work.
B. His plans were too ambitious.
C. He was very supportive of Paul.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
2. You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, fill the missing words in
the notes below.
There was a lot of traffic in Chase Village (1).........................years ago. People drove
so fast. Richard had a very serious (2)..........................on Newland Street. He was afraid to
drive there, so he always tries to (3).......................that road when he visits his sister. But
now things are (4)........................... People put on their brakes and (5).......................on
Newland Street because they can see a (6)......................there.
Indicate whether the following statements are true or not by writing
T
for a statement which is true;
F
for a statement which is false.
7. Now some people still take a risk when the police officer is away on Newland Street.
8. The police officer there doesn’t get any pay for the work.
1
9. Officer Springirth is a real man and he is a volunteer there.
10. Officer Springirth helps the police to reduce the crime rate in Chase Village.
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
PART II. PHONOLOGY
1. Pick out the word whose bold part is pronounced differently
1. A. supreme
B. supersonic
C. supply
B. release
C. pause
2. A. please
3. A. plead
B. treasure
C. meadow
4. A. treasure
B. measure
C. pleasure
B. precise
C. prescribe
5. A. preparation
1.
2.
3.
4.
2. Pick out the word whose stress is placed differently
1. A. obvious
B. notorious
C. credulous
2. A. bargaining
B. basketball
C. biosphere
3. A. improvement
B. disturbing
C. heritage
4. A. cathedral
B. certificate
C. cholesterol
5. A. dialect
B. diagonal
C. diamond
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
10.
D. supercharge
D. tease
D. measurement
D. mature
D. preclude
5.
D. numerous
D. behaviour
D. establish
D. believable
D. diagram
5.
PART III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
1. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence.
1. Do you know ................ ?
A. who how many people go on Sundays to B. who go to church on Sundays how many
church
people
C. how many people who go on Sundays to D. how many people who go to church on
Sundays
church
2. We watch the cat ............... the tree.
A. climbed
B. climb
C. had climbed
D. was climbing
3. If we had known your new address, we ............... to see you.
A. came
B. will come
C. would come
D. would have come
4. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ............... is at
the desk.
A. whoever
B. who
C. whom
D. which
5. He looked forward to ............... his first pay packet.
A. receive
B. have received
C. be receiving
D. receiving
6. Carol refused; ..............., her answer was “no”.
A. in other words
B. otherwise
C. words for words
D. however
7. If you see Tom ............... you mind ............... him to get in touch with me?
A. will / reminding
B. will / to remind
C. would / reminding
D. would / to remind
2
8. ............... I hear that song, I think of you.
A. Whatever
B. Forever
C. Whenever
D. However
9. “Let’s go dancing, ...............?” – “Yes, let’s.”
A. will we
B. don’t we
C. do we
D. shall we
10. I wish I ............... all about this matter a week ago.
A. knew
B. know
C. had known
D. B & C are correct.
11. He was ............... he could not wake up.
A. very tired that
B. such tired that
C. too tired that
D. so tired that
12. Joan asked ............... .
A. if there was coffee
B. there was coffee
C. was there coffee
D. where was the coffee
13. She didn’t know ............... to have fish or chicken for lunch.
A. both
B. whether
C. neither
D. as
14. For lunch, you may have ............... fish or chicken.
A. both
B. neither
C. not only
D. either
15. I suppose there’s a lot ............... between now and the first show.
A. to be done
B. done
C. we do
D. to have done
16. I ............... my house ............... . That is why there is all this mess.
A. had – paint
B. have – paint
C. had had paint
D. am having – painted
17. I warned him ............... .
A. to be not late
B. don’t be late
C. not to be late
D. he is not late
18. I should have ............... my hair cut weeks ago, but just don’t seem to have had time.
A. let
B. made
C. had
D. gotten
19. I could not cut the grass because the machine ............... a few days previously.
A. broke down
B. has been broken
C. had broken down
D. breaks down
20. If you want to develop inner tranquility, you have to stop ............... by every little
thing that happens.
A. bothering
B. being bothered
C. to bother
D. to be bothered
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
2. Identify one error in each sentence and correct it.
1. On any given weekend, especially holiday weekends, the number of highway deaths are
predictable.
2. John stayed up all night long trying to solve a physic problem.
3. Michael wants to become a general practitioner as his father and to move to a small
town as soon as he graduates.
4. In spite of suffering some minor inconveniences, Dr. Blake and his wife enjoyed living
in a three-hundred-year-old house in London in last summer.
5. Mr. While was equally fond of his two children, but he had to admit that he found the
youngest an easier child to handle.
3
6. Though the child pretended sleeping when I opened the bedroom door, I was not deceived.
7. Be careful to give the caterers an accurate count of a number of people whom you
expect to go to the wedding reception.
8. Harold announced that he could no longer tolerate the conditions of the contract in
which he was working.
9. Even though they have been looking for a flat for a month now, they have not been able
to find each one anywhere.
10. There were never any secrets among my sister and me when we were growing up.
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
3. Fill each gap in the sentences below with a suitable preposition
1. They say that there is an exception ………..every rule.
2. Breaking his leg a second time put Peter’s football career ………..jeopardy.
3. It’s no use crying ...............spilt milk.
4. There were no ripe apples ………..reach, so I moved the ladder.
5. What do you get if you divide 22 ...................7? A complicated number.
6. “I am Polish ................birth, but I have French nationality”
7. He went ................his own accord: nobody forced him to go.
8. It’s like banging your head ...............a brick wall.
9. Have several irons ………… the fire.
10. Have a card ...............your sleeve.
11. His name was Benjamin, but he was called .....................short
12.13. Say something to cheer her ...........; she’s ................low spirits today.
14. I hate that picture which is hanging over the coach. Can you please take it ............?
15. They dislike one another .................sight.
16. Both the children take .............their mother .
17. I turned ................at the meeting but the others didn’t come.
18. Without a fridge, fresh food will go ...............very quickly.
19. The surgeon operated.................his leg yesterday.
20. Don’t let a good chance go ..............
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
4. Give the correct form of the words in brackets
1. There’s nothing worse than the ................................ of being
stuck in a traffic jam.
2. Try to be ................................ when you tell her bad news.
3. I think that with a little .............................I could persuade him
to change his mind.
4. What a ............................., telling him that he’s the best teacher
(FRUSTRATE)
(TACT)
(FLATTER)
(CRAWL)
4
she’s ever had!
5. What lovely, ……….. children.
6. I find that advertisement .............................. to women
7. She’s so ............................... that she won’t let anything in the
way of her ambition.
8. He’s the most unpleasant, .......................... person I’ve ever
met.
9. The two men were accused of robbery with ............................
10. I can’t stand out little boy. He’s really ...................
11. The United Nations will act as ................... of the peace
settlement
12. Our teacher is very ....................... about punctuation
13. Come and get an ............ of this - there is a giraffe in the
garden.
14. She wrote a ............... postcard to her mother-in-law living
in New York.
15. I’ll .................... her up a bit by inviting her to the party.
16. They .............. the time of their arrival and missed the plane.
17. Such measures are ............................... if not essential.
18. Our route after that has not yet been ................................ .
19. The town is .................... for its ancient and fine harbor.
20. There has been little ............... improvement in their work.
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
(MANNER)
(OFFEND)
(MIND)
(MANNER)
(VIOLENT)
(ANNOY)
(Guarantee )
(Fuss)
(Eye)
(Duty )
(Sweet)
(Judge )
(Desire)
(Final )
(note)
(quality)
5.
10.
15.
20.
5. Give the correct form of the words given
A. As long ago as 1945, Arthur C. Clark, an English scientist (1. propose)
............................ that a man (2. make) ............................ satellite (3. orbit)
............................ in space (4. use) ............................ (5. relay) ............................ signals in
this way.
B. Too big and too heavy (6. pull) ............................ behind passenger cars, these mobile
homes (7. move) ............................ by tow trucks.
C. The police just (8. put up) ............................ a railing here (9. prevent)
............................ people (10. rush) ............................ out of the station and (11. dash)
............................ straight across the road.
D. As he (12. stand) ............................ there (13. try) ............................ (14. not weep)
............................ , he (15. hear) ............................ someone slowly (16. climb)
............................ the ladder to his room.
E. Ask your friends (17. sit) ............................ on the same bench (18. exchange)
............................ the papers you and they (19. write) ............................ , (20. correct)
............................ the grammatical mistakes you can find in your friends' paper and then
discuss with them the strengths and weakness of each one’s paper.
5
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
6. Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each space A, B, C or D
If you ask most people to list what makes them like someone on first meeting, they'll
say personality, intelligence, and sense of humor. But they're probably deceiving
themselves. The characteristic that impresses people the most (1)_____ meeting anyone,
from a job applicant to a classmate, is appearance. Unfair as it may seem, attractive people
are frequently preferred (2)___their less attractive peers. Research begun in the early 70s
has shown that not only do good looks influence such things as choice of friends and
lovers, but they can also affect grades, selection, for jobs, and even the outcome of a trial.
The very first research on this (3)____ showed that the more attractive a person is, the
more positive (4)____ people will attribute to him or her. Attractive people are viewed as
(5)_____ happier, more sensitive, more interesting, and having better character than their
less attractive counterparts. Related research has investigated (6)_____attractiveness
influences sex typing ,the tendency of people to assign certain stereotypical qualities to
each sex. Along with (7)____ the good qualities people associate with good looks,
attractive people tend to fit easily into sexual stereotypes. For example, attractive women
are often (8)_____ as being more feminine, and attractive men as more masculine.
Good looks can be a serious (9)_____ for some people, especially women, in work
situations that conflict with sexual stereotypes. For instance, attractive women might be at
a real disadvantage when they aspire to occupations in (10)_____ stereotypically male
traits, such as aggressiveness, are considered necessary for success.
1. A. when
2. A. than
3. A. has
4. A. impression
5. A. being
6. A. that
7. A. research
8. A. tending
9. A. disadvantage
10. A. their
1.
6.
B. for
B. from
B. research
B. the
B. the
B. how
B. some
B. perceived
B. advantage
B. which
2.
7.
C. is
C. by
C. phenomenon
C. characteristics
C. more
C. about
C. this
C. said
C. matter
C. possessing
3.
8.
4.
9.
D importa
D. over
D. case
D. other
D. if
D. on
D. all
D. consider
D. reason
D. Some
5.
10.
PART IV. READING COMPREHENSION
1. Read the passage and choose the word that best fits each gap
To many people, smoking is not just a pleasure, it is an (1)...................They need it,
depend on it and can't stop it. If they haven't smoked for some hours, they feel a (2)
6
...........for a cigarette. They often (3) .............., which means they light another cigarette
immediately after they have put (4)................the one before.
Smoking is often considered (5) ..............., since many people don't like the (6)
................ .......... of cigarettes or the sight of the smoker's (7)................
fingers
or
ashtray full of cigarette-ends. Above all, smoking is harmful to health and in many
countries a (8)..............is printed on every (9) .................of cigarettes. Scientists have
proved that there is a link between smoking and a disease which can be (10) .............,
cancer.
1.A. attraction
B. addition
C. addiction
D. admiration
2.A. likeness
B. craving
C. like
D. desire
3.A. over-smoke
B. self-smoke
C. chain-smoke
D. non-smoke
4.A. out
B. off
C. on
D. up
5.A. militant
B. antisocial
C. illegal
D. anti-pollutant
6.A. odor
B. smell
C. taste
D. flavor
7.A. stained
B. dirty
C. dusty
D. spotted
8.A. saying
B. signal
C. sign
D. warning
9.A. pack
B. packing
C. packet
D. backpack
10.A. fatal
B. hard
C. immortal
D. perilous
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
2. Read the passage and fill one suitable word in each gap
Almost (1) ................ a year ago, in a small village in Northern India, Andrea
Milliner was (2)............... on the leg by a dog. “It must have fancied your nice white flesh,”
joked the doctor (3).............. he dressed the wound.
Andrea and her husband Nigel were (4) ............... not to let (5) ............... spoil their
holiday, and thought no more (6) ............... the dog, which had meanwhile disappeared
from the (7) ............... .
"We didn't realize there was (8) ............... wrong with it," says Nigel. "It was such a
small, likeable dog that rabies (9) ............... enter my mind."
(10) ............... ) , six weeks later, 23-year-old Andrea was dead. The dog had been
rabid. No one had thought it (11) ............... to give her anti-rabies treatment. When, back
home in England, she began to (12) ............... the classic symptoms-unable to drink,
catching her breath- Her own doctor put it (13) ............... to hysteria. Even when she was
loaded into an ambulance, hallucinating, recoiling in terror at (14) ...............
sight of
water, she was directed (15) ............... the nearest mental hospital.
But (16) ............... her symptoms received little attention in life, in death they
achieved a publicity close to hysteria. Cases (17) ...............Andrea are rare, but rabies is
still one of the most feared diseases (18) ............... to man. The disease is transmitted by a
bite (19) ............... a lick from an infected animal. It can, in very (20)
...............circumstances, be inhaled-two scientists died of it after inhaling bat dung in a
cave in Texas.
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
7
11.
16.
12.
17.
13.
18.
14.
19.
15.
20.
3. Read the passage and choose the best options
UNDERSTANDING THE MYSTERIES OF INTUITION
I can well believe in telepathy, for it has been part of my life since childhood. My
mother had the gift of picking up thoughts from my elder. sister. The two used to play it as
a game at parties, and I can still see no way in which they could have cheated.
My mother would leave the room and the guests would decide between them, with no
intervention from my sister, some action for my mother to perform when she was
summoned back into the room. My mother would gaze closely for a moment at my sister
and then would make the action we had chosen, moving a cushion or a chair, perhaps
taking the lid off a box. I never saw her fail.
My own first experience of what might be a kind of telepathy I have already described
in A Sort of Life. I would have put it down to mere coincidence if it had not been repeated
twice under roughly the same circumstances, each involving a tragedy at sea and a loss of
life. The first occasion was during an Easter seaside holiday at Little Hampton when I was
seven years old. I dreamt of a shipwreck and I can still see clearly one image of the dream.
A man is scrambling up the staircase of a ship and a great wave is coming down to swamp
him. Next morning we heard the news of the Titanic sunk that night.
Of the second dream of a wreck about ten years later, I have also written. I can recall
no details and have lost the dream diary which I was keeping during a course of
psychoanalysis in London. Perhaps writing down the dream cancelled the memory of it.
Again, my dream coincided with real wreck, this time of the Rowan in the Irish Sea when,
I seem to remember, that a whole orchestra lost their lives.
Always the sea, always lives lost. But the third occasion was not a dream. I was in my
flat in Antibes one morning, some six or seven years ago, with nothing to worry me when
around breakfast time I was overcome by a deep - depression and an anxiety agonizing in
its acuteness. I have a witness, for a friend came to lunch with me and I told her what I
feared, that something terrible had happened to one of my family. To distract me, she
turned on the radio for the one o'clock news. A plane coming from Corsica had crashed
that morning into the sea off Cap d'Antibes a few miles away and there were no survivors.
On board was General Cogny whom I had known and liked in Vietnam.
1. In the party game Green describes ..............................
A. he played no part
B. his sister would have to guess
C. his sister would have to mime
D. his mother often guessed wrongly
2. Green describes ...............................
A. one accident
B. two dreams
C. three dreams
D. four incidents
3. Green claims the first dream ............................
A. involved lots of people
B. was after the sinking of the Titanic
C. was just a coincidence
D. can't have been a coincidence
4. The second dream he describes .......................
A. was never recorded
B. is still completely clear
C. happened in his teens
D. had no connection with real life
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5. On the third occasion ............................
A. he was eating breakfast
C. his prediction was not accurate
1.
2.
3.
B. he was alone
D. a relative was involved
4.
5.
4. You are going to read a newspaper article about sleep. Five paragraphs have been
removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs A – F the one which fits each gap
(1 – 5). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.
Enough Sleep?
Tiredness, it is often claimed, has become the modern conditions. As the richer, busier
countries have grown, so sleeplessness and anxiety have also grown in the popular psyche.
Research in the USA has found 40 million Americans to be chronically affected, and some
recent best-selling novels in Britain have featured insomniacs as protagonists, or sleepresearch laboratories as their settings.
1
Recently, a sleep researcher fried an experiment. He offered his subjects the opposite of the
modern routine. “I allowed them to sleep for up to 14 hours a night for a month. It took
them three weeks to reach an equilibrium of eight-and-a-quarter hours. That indicates a
great rebound of sleep – sleep that they hadn’t been getting.
2
For guinea pigs, they advertise in the student newspapers. Subjects are picked up by taxi,
paid $ 5 an hour, and asked to adjust their sleeping patterns according to instructions. Dr.
Louise Reyner provides reassurance: “Some people are quite worried, because you’re
putting electrodes on their heads, and they think you can see what they’re dreaming or
thinking.”
3
The young men all deny they are going to fall asleep. Dr. Reyner has a video recording of
one trying not to. At first the person at the wheel is very upright, wet and bleary eyes
determinedly fixed on the windscreen. Then he begins to blink briefly, every now and
again; then for longer, and more often, with a slight drop of the head. Each nod grows
heavier than the last. The blinks become a 10-second blackout. Every time, he jerks awake
as if nothing has happened. But the car, by the second or third occasion, has shot off the
carriageway.
4
But apart from these findings, what else do we know about human sleep with any kind of
certainty? It is known that humans sleep, like other mammals, according to a daily cycle.
9
Once asleep, they switch between four different stages of unconsciousness, from stage one
sleep, the shallowest, to the stage four, the deepest. When dreams occur, which is usually
during the lightest sleep, the brain paralyses the body except for the hands and eyelids, thus
preventing injuries.
5
However, there is a strong degree of certainty among scientists that women sleep for half
an hour longer than men, and that older people require less sleep, though they don’t know
why. When asked what sleep is for, some sleep researchers reply in cosmic terms: “Sleep is
a tactic to travel through time without injury.”
_____________________________________________________________________
A. Beyond this, certainties blur into theories. It is often suggested, for example, that sleep
repairs body tissue, or restores muscles, or rests the frontal section of the brain that controls
speech and creativity. But all of this may happen more quickly during relaxed wakefulness,
so no one is really sure.
B. Part of this interest is in sleep in general: in its rhythms, its uses and in problems with
sleeping. But a central preoccupation remains. “People need more sleep,” says one leading
sleep researcher. “People cut back on sleep when they’re busy. They get up too early to
avoid rush hour.”
C. The sleep researchers seem interested in this theory. But the laboratory is not funded to
investigate such matters. Its sponsors what its research to lead to practical solutions such as
deciding where Take a break signs should be placed on motorways, and how different
kinds of food and drink can affect driving and sleeplessness.
D. A coffee might have helped. Two cups, Dr. Reyner says, even after no sleep at all, can
make you a safe driver for half an hour or more. She recommends a whole basket of
alertness products: tablets, energy drinks, caffeinated chewing gum. Shift workers, she is
quite sure, could probably use them.
E. In fact, the laboratory’s interest is more physical. In a darkened room stands a motorway
simulator, the front section of a car facing a wide projection screen. The subjects are
always told to arrive at 2pm, in the body’s natural mid-afternoon lull, after a short night’s
sleep or no sleep at all. The projector is switched on and they are asked to drive, while
answering questions. An endless road rolls ahead, sunlight glares; and the air is warm.
F. In Europe, such propositions are perhaps most thoroughly tested in a small, unassuming
building on a university campus in the English midlands. The university sleep research
laboratory has investigated, among many subjects, the effects of fatigue on sailors, the
effects of airport noise on sleepers, and the dangers of motorway driving for flagging
drivers.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
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PART V. WRITING
1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence before it
1. Is this the only way to reach the city centre?
Isn’t there ___________________________________________________________ ?
2. I have never seen such a tall man in my life
Never _______________________________________________________________
3. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect
But for ______________________________________________________________
4. The chances are a hundred to one against you.
It’s most _____________________________________________________________
5. Many people died because of the lack of medical facilities.
It ____________________________________________________________________
6. Two week passed before the letter arrived.
Not until ______________________________________________________________
7. The soldiers entered the castle while it was dark.
Under ________________________________________________________________
8. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
The boss ______________________________________________________________
9. He didn’t graduate from high school until he was 20.
It ___________________________________________________________________
10. She doesn’t intend to meet him any longer.
She has _______________________________________________________________
2. Paragraph writing:
Computers have become increasingly important and popular in Vietnam nowadays.
Could you describe some useful ways in which computers have so far contributed to our
modern life? Write a paragraph about 200 words to express your idea.
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG PT VÙNG CAO VIỆT BẮC
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
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PART I. LISTENING
1. Circle the correct letter A-C
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
2. You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, fill the missing words in
the notes below.
1. three
6. police
2. accident
7. F
3. avoid
8. T
4. changing
9. F
5. slow down
10. T
PART II. PHONOLOGY
1. Pick out the word whose bold part is pronounced differently
1. C 2.B
3. A 4. D 5. A
2. Pick out the word whose stress is placed differently
1.B
2.D
3.C
4.A
5.B
PART III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
1. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence.
1.D 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.D 6.A 7.C 8.C
14.D 15.A 16.D 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.B
9.D
10.C 11.D 12.A 13.B
2. Identify one error in each sentence and correct it.
1. are → is
2. physic → physics
3. as →like
4. in → during
5. youngest → younger
6. sleeping → to sleep
7. count → number
8. in → under
9. each → any
10. among → between
3. Fill each gap in the sentences below with a suitable preposition
1. to
2. in
3. over
4. within
5. by
6. by
7. of
8. against
9. in
10. up
11. for
12. up
13. in
14. down
15. on
16. after
17. off
18. up
19. On
20. by
4. Give the correct form of the words in brackets
1. frustration
2. tactful
3. flattery
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5. well-mannered
8. ill/bad-mannered
4. crawler
7. single-minded
10. annoying
13. eyeful
16. misjudged
19. noted
11. guarantor
14. dutiful
17. desirable
20. qualitative
6. offensive
9. violence
12. fussy
15. sweeten
18. finalized
5. Give the correct form of the words given
1. proposed
6. to be pulled
11. dashing
16. climbing
2. made
7. are moved
12. stood
17. sitting
3. orbiting
8. have just put up
13. trying
18. to exchange
4. should be used
9. to prevent
14. not to weep
19. have written
5. to relay
10. rushing
15. heard
20. correct
6. Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each space A, B, C or D
1. A
5. A
9. A
2. D
6. B
10. B
3. C
7. D
4. C
8. B
PART IV. READING COMPREHENSION
1. Read the passage and choose the word that best fits each gap
1C
2B
3C
4A
5B
6B
7A
8D
9C
10D
2. Read the passage and fill one suitable word in each gap
1. exactly
6. about
11. necessary
16. if
2. bitten
7. village
12. show
17. like
3. as/ when
8. anything
13. down
18. known
4. determined
9. didn’t
14. the
19. or
5. it
10. But
15. to
20. exceptional
3. Read the passage and choose the best options
1.A
2.B
3.D
4.C
5.A
4. You are going to read a newspaper article about sleep. Five paragraphs have been
removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs A – F the one which fits each gap
(1 – 5). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.
1. B 2. F 3. E
4. D
5. A
PART V. WRITING
1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence before it
1. Isn’t there another way to reach the city centre?
13
2. Never in my life have I seen such a tall man.
3. But for his command of the local dialect, we would have been kept in prison
4. It’s most difficult for you to get the chances
5. It was the lack of medical facilities that cased the death of many people/ many people to die
6. Not until two weeks had passed did the letter arrive.
7. Under cover of darkness, the soldiers entered the castle
8. The boss is thought to be considering raising wages
9. It was not until he was 20 that he graduated from high school.
10. She has no intention of meeting him any longer
2. Paragraph writing
Notes:
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented
with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted
upper-secondary school students.
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
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