PSYCHOLOGICAL
ASSESSMENT_BLOCK 1
Prepared by: Prof.
Camantiles, RPm
Yvette
shelahesguerra@gmail.com
accounts
2.
They created the first test of
intelligence for children.
Anne
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1 point
Switch
A. Francis Galton and Karl Pearson
B. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon
*Required
C. Lewis Terman and Henry Goddard
Email
D. Henry Murray and Christina Morgan
*
3. During World War II, this test was
widely used to determine the mental
ability of military personnel.
NAME [First Name, Middle Initial, and
Last Name] e.g. Juan C. dela Cruz
*
*
1 point
RGO BRANCH
A. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
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B. Army Alpha and Beta
EXAM FOR
C. AGCT
*
D. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
Psychometrician
4.
Previous learning does not affect
one9s
performance
in
non-verbal
intelligence tests. Among the following
types of intelligence, what do these tests
primarily measure?
Psychologist
LAST SCHOOL ATTENDED
*
1.
Who coined the term 8mental
quotient9?
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1 point
*
A. Visual-Spatial Intelligence
1 point
B. Convergent Thinking
A. Francis Galton
C. Crystallized Intelligence
B. Raymond Cattell
D. Fluid Intelligence
C. William Stern
5. Identify the first theory of intelligence
and its proponent. It talks about an
underlying ability required for all kinds of
D. Charles Spearman
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mental tests and another ability limited
to only one kind.
*
A. Psychological Testing
B. Psychological Assessment
1 point
C. Psychotherapy
A. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence by
Raymond Cattell
B. Multiple Intelligences Theory by
Howard Gardner
C. Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence by
Charles Spearman
D. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence by
Robert Sternberg
6. Teacher Ambet makes sure to
incorporate music, movement, and art in
her lessons with her pupils. She
understands that young children learn
differently, and each pupil is intelligent in
some way. Her methods are guided by
which theory of intelligence?
D. Counseling
8. Kayle is alarmed to find out that she
has feelings for another girl. She does
not know what to do and wants to seek
help from a professional. Which of the
following would be the most appropriate
service for Kayle?
*
1 point
A. Psychological Testing
B. Psychological Assessment
C. Psychotherapy
D. Counseling
*
1 point
A. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence by
Raymond Cattell
B. Multiple Intelligences Theor
Howard Gardner
1 point
by
C. Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence by
Charles Spearman
D. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence by
Robert Sternberg
7. Madeline was referred to a
psychiatrist since her doctor suspected
that she had signs and symptoms of
Conversion Disorder. What process will
Madeline most likely undergo?
*
9. The recruiter tells Camille that her
grammar and vocabulary test scores are
enough to get her through the next
round of recruitment. What has likely
occurred?
*
1 point
A. Psychological Testing
B. Psychological Assessment
C. Psychotherapy
D. Counseling
10. Clients, patients, and other
individuals who are given psychological
tests are called?
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C. Test Sample
13. Scores on the NMAT are reported in
percentile ranks. The scores of aspiring
medical students are compared against
the performance of their fellow
examinees and plotted in a distribution
curve. What is TRUE?
D. Test Developers
*
11. After a training session, Bebot gives
her trainees a short test to see whether
they learned something and if her
teaching methods were effective. What
kind of test did she administer?
1 point
*
C. The NMAT is a norm-referenced test
1 point
D. Items on the NMAT do not vary in
difficulty
1 point
A. Test Users
B. Test Takers
A. An intelligence test
B. A projective test
C. An aptitude test
D. An achievement test
12. Students who wish to enter medical
schools in the Philippines must take the
NMAT, which tests their cognitive skills
and knowledge in various subjects. The
NMAT determines whether a student will
likely succeed or not in medicine. What
kind of test is the NMAT?
A. The NMAT is a criterion-referenced
test
B. The NMAT is a speed test
14. Job applicants for clerical or
secretarial positions are commonly
given typing and organization tasks.
Their success is usually measured by
how much they accomplish given a time
limit. What type of tests are these?
*
1 point
A. Power tests
B. Speed tests
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C. Physical acuity tests
1 point
D. Both A and B
A. Maximal Performance; Aptitude test
15. Which is the least culture-fair test?
B. Maximal Performance; Intelligence
test
*
C.
Typical
Performance
Achievement test
Test;
D.
Typical
Performance
Unstructured personality test
Test;
1 point
A. RPM
B. PNLT
C. NEO-PI R
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D. CFIT
C. Interval
16. Rachel is assessing a transferee
who wants to enroll in the HUMSS
strand. She believes he is better suited
for the ABM strand since his entrance
exam results in social sciences are poor,
and he might have some difficulty in the
future. How was the test used in this
case?
D. Ratio
*
19. At the hospital, Vi9s doctor asked her
to indicate her pain on a scale of 1 to 10,
with 10 being extreme pain. Although
subjective, this method gives doctors a
rough estimate of Vi9s experience. What
scale of measurement was used, and
what characteristics does it lack?
*
1 point
1 point
A. Selection
A. Interval: Absolute Zero
B. Placement
B. Interval: Equal Intervals, Absolute
Zero
C. Screening
D. Certification
17. Joey is a scout for a modeling
agency. He stands outside shopping
malls and uses a checklist to assess
people who could be potential models
quickly. How is he using the checklist in
this situation?
*
1 point
A. Selection
C. Nominal; Magnitude, Equal Intervals,
Absolute Zero
D. Ordinal: Equal Intervals
E. Ordinal: Equal Intervals, Absolute
Zero
20.
Vanya loves the pep talks her
teacher gives the class before quizzes.
It boosts her confidence in her abilities,
making her scores better. What is
manifested in this situation?
*
B. Placement
1 point
C. Screening
A. Golem Effect
D. Certification
18. This scale of measurement denotes
categories and operates on frequencies.
B. Contrast Effect
C. Frog Pond Effect
*
D. Pygmalion Effect
1 point
21.
Suppose you take your mock
exams
with
100
multiple-choice
questions with four choice alternatives,
and your mind suddenly goes blank.
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
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What
would
be
your
chance
performance level, or how many items
would you get right if you were to guess
them all?
*
1 point
24.
Alice wants to determine whether
she belongs in her class's higher or
lower scoring group. She already has
the mean score to start with. What
would help her approximate the average
deviation of other scores around the
mean in the distribution?
*
A. 20 correct items
1 point
B. 25 correct items
A. Range
C. 30 correct items
B. Standard Deviation
D. 50 correct items
22. Five is agonizing over which
measure of central tendency to use with
the scores he has collected from his
respondents. If you were to advise him,
which of the following would be most
useful given his data?
C. Variance
D. Skewness
25. Which of the following is TRUE
when referring to a positively skewed
distribution?
*
*
1 point
1 point
A. Mean
B. Median
A. The most common score of the test
takers likely falls on the higher end of
the distribution
C. Mode
B. The test items are likely difficult
D. Standard Deviation
C. The majority of the test-takers passed
23.
Which of the following is a
disadvantage of using the mean in data
analysis?
D. All of the above
*
26. When a test has high item difficulty,
it can be expected that?
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1 point
1 point
A. It is affected by extreme values
B. It can only be used for discrete data
C. It provides the sum of least squares
A. Many test-takers will get low scores
B. The reliability and validity will be high
C. The distribution curve will likely turn
out normal
D. It is limited to distributed data
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D. The median will likely be greater than
the mean
D. Indicators of an individual9s relative
standing
27.
This property is essential since it
determines the degree to which an item
differentiates correctly among highperforming
and
low-performing
examinees, depending on what the test
is measuring.
30.
Babet scored 89 on her 100-item
Math test and 50 on her Science test,
which had 20 items less than the Math
exam. She also got a score of 70 on her
90-item History test. Arrange her
performance on her tests from best to
worst.
*
*
1 point
1 point
A. Item difficulty
A. History, Science, Math
B. Item discrimination
B. Math, History, Science
C. Item differentiation
C. Math, Science, History
D. Item divergence
28. Item difficulty and discriminability
indices are ____ for pure speed tests
rather than pure power tests.
*
1 point
D. None of the above
31.
Class Magiliw garnered an
average score of 60 and a standard
deviation of 5 in their 100-item English
exam. If Chrissy has a raw score of 75,
what would be her z-score?
*
A. More appropriate
1 point
B. Less appropriate
A. 3
C. Just as appropriate
B. 2
D. It depends on the items
29 In psychological testing, raw scores
are?
*
1 point
A. Direct reports and unaltered data of a
test taker9s performance
B. Total sums of the test-takers
response after statistical conversion
C. Interpreted for comparison purposes
0
C. 1
D. -1
32.
Which
standard
score
is
commonly used in t-tests and regression
tests and has a standard deviation of
10?
*
1 point
A. T-scores
0
B. Z-score
D. There is no issue. The correlation is
nearly perfect and is highly significant.
C. STEN scores
D. None of the above
33.
You found in your research that
vigilance is related to life satisfaction
with a correlation coefficient of -.65 and
a p-value of .06. Which statement is
TRUE in interpreting your result?
35. Hypothetically, if I were to give you
this test multiple times, what would give
me the range of possible scores you
might obtain?
*
1 point
*
A. Standard Error of Estimate
1 point
B. Standard Error of Measurement
A. Vigilance will result in significantly
less life satisfaction.
C. Coefficient of Determination
B. The more an individual feels vigilant,
the more satisfied he/she is with his life.
C. As vigilance grows, people will likely
be less satisfied with life.
D. Individuals who are more satisfied
with their lives tend to exhibit more
vigilance.
E. None of the above are accurate
interpretations
34.
In a research study, the student is
confused because the correlation
coefficient is .98. What is the problem,
and what could remedy the issue?
*
1 point
A. The sample size is too small for such
a correlation. Add more respondents.
B. Correlation is not appropriate. Better
to use a t-test instead.
C. The variables are multicollinear.
Change them.
D. Correlation Coefficient
36. What is the relationship between
reliability coefficients and the standard
error of measurement?
*
1 point
A. The standard error of measurement
increases as the reliability coefficient
gets bigger.
B. The standard error of measurement
decreases as the reliability coefficient
gets bigger.
C. The standard error of measurement
is almost always equal to the reliability
coefficient
D. The standard error measurement is
not related to reliability coefficients.
37.
Marina garnered a raw score of
80 on an anxiety test with an SEM of 5.
Considering a confidence interval of 95,
which range will her actual level of
anxiety fall under?
*
0
0
1 point
A. 75 3 85
*
B. 70 3 90
1 point
C. 65 3 95
A. Internal Consistency 3 Coefficient
Alpha
D. 75 3 80
38.
Suppose all the citizens of Metro
Manila were given an IQ test that utilizes
the deviation IQ scale. Assuming
normality, what percentage of the
examinees would have an IQ of 85 to
115?
*
1 point
A. 50
B. Test-Retest Reliability
C. Alternate Forms Reliability 3 Delayed
D. Split-Half Reliability
41.
Yana is answering a test with
multiple-choice items with only one
correct answer among the four
alternatives.
What
method
of
establishing internal consistency is
appropriate for this test?
*
B. 68
1 point
C. 95
A. Kuder-Richardson 20
D. 99
39.
Why is it essential to ensure
reliability in a psychological test?
B. Coefficient Alpha
C. Kappa coefficient
*
D. Spearman-Brown
1 point
42. After writing items for her reading
comprehension tests, Jamie takes his
test to English professors at the
university to establish validity. What kind
of validity is he after?
A. Because a reliable test is also valid
B. Because it means that the test
measures the correct construct
C. Because a reliable test produces
representative and relatively stable
measurements
D. Because a reliable test is not affected
by systematic and random errors
40. This type of reliability is most
appropriate when measuring time and
content sampling errors.
0
*
1 point
A. Content Validity
B. Construct Validity
C. Criterion-Related Validity
D. All of the above
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43. You were an honor student in high
school, and now that you are in college,
you expect to perform the same or even
better. You tell yourself, <Anong
nangyare sakin?= three years later,
because your performance is just
average. This shows that?
*
A. Whom is the test intended for?
B. Is there an existing test that is already
measuring the intended construct?
C. What attributes, characteristics, or
theoretical concepts will the test
measure?
D. What are the reliability and validity
procedures to be used?
1 point
A. Your basis for your expectations has
low construct validity
B. Your basis for your expectations is
not reliable but has high content validity.
C. Your basis for your expectations has
low criterion-related validity.
D. It is impossible to establish future
success based on current data
statistically.
44.
Worry is often differentiated from
rumination in studies. Knowing this,
Skylar correlates her worry test to a
rumination test. If the correlation is weak
or insignificant, what did she establish?
*
1 point
A. Convergent validity
E. None of the above
46. Which of the following is an
advantage of constructed-response test
items over selected-response items?
*
1 point
A. They are easy to prepare
B. They are easier to quantify
C. They make use of testing time more
efficiently
D. They are less prone to scoring errors
47. This is a group of individuals on
whom the test is administered to
develop the test norms and establish
uniform administration and scoring
procedures.
*
B. Divergent validity
1 point
C. Content validity
A. Standardization sample
D. Both A and B
45. The first stage of test development is
usually test conceptualization. In this
stage, which of the following questions
would least likely be raised?
B. Normative sample
C. Reference group
D. Group norm
48.
Strictly
speaking,
psychometricians can only administer?
*
1 point
0
0
*
receptionist never mentioned Eddie9s
name.
1 point
A. Level A and B tests 3 individual/group
intelligence or structured personality
tests only
50.
You are physically attracted to
your client and think it is mutual. Which
of the following is NOT technically a
violation of the code of ethics?
B. Level A, B, and C tests 3
individual/group intelligence, structured
and unstructured personality tests
*
C. Level A and B tests 3 group
intelligence or structured personality
tests only.
A. Having relations with their family
members
D. Level A, B, and C tests 3
individual/group intelligence, structured
and unstructured personality tests with
supervision.
49. Eddie was unaware that cheaper
alternative treatments were available to
address his psychological concern. This
is a big issue since he did not anticipate
how expensive therapy would be once
his assessments and therapy sessions
started. On top of that, although his
name was not mentioned, he overhears
the receptionist reading his interview
responses, which other clients can hear.
What ethical violations are present in
Eddie9s case?
1 point
B. Having relations with the client after
they have given their consent
C. Having relations with the client with
the condition that you refer them to
another therapist.
D. Having relations with the client two
years after the professional relationship
has ended
*
1 point
A. There was no informed consent.
B. There was no informed consent, and
Eddie9s privacy was violated.
C. There was no informed consent, and
confidentiality was violated.
D. There is no ethical violation. Clients
do not need to know about alternatives
or costs at the get-go, and the
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