FS+ Science Mathayom 3
Test paper answer key
Chapter 1 Interdependence among Living Things and the Environment
Questions
1. Which term describes a group of organisms with common characteristics and
can breed among themselves to produce offspring?
A Species
B Family
C Population
D Community
2. What is meant by ‘population’?
A A group of organisms from the same species that live in the same habitat
B Several types of animals and plants that live together
C The interaction between plants and animals in a habitat
D Several communities that interact with one another and with the physical
environment
3. The diagram below shows a situation.
What is shown in the diagram above?
A A habitat
B A population
C A community
D An ecosystem
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4. Several communities of organisms that live in the same habitat and interact
with one another as well as with the environment is called
A a habitat
B a population
C a community
D an ecosystem
5. Which of the following is the biotic component in an ecosystem?
A Light
B Plant
C Water
D Soil
6. Which of the following are the abiotic components of the environment?
I Consumers
II Temperature
III Light intensity
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
7. The diagram below shows a type of interaction.
What is the type of interaction?
A Prey-predator
B Symbiosis
C Competition
D Parasitism
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8. The diagram below shows the relationship between two organisms.
Which of the following interaction is correct?
A Two organisms compete for the same food.
B Both organisms benefit from this relationship.
C One organism benefits from this relationship while the other is not
affected.
D One organism benefits from this relationship while the other is harmed.
9. The following are two types of interactions between organisms.
K – Between ox peckers and buffaloes
L – Between tree barnacles and trees
Which of the following states correctly the respective names of the
interactions, K and L?
K
L
A Mutualism
Parasitism
B Commensalism
Competition
C Parasitism
D Competition
Commensalism
Mutualism
10. Which of the following is a parasite?
A Remora fish
B Termite
C Ant
D Lice
11. Which of the following is the type of interaction that exists between algae
and fungi in lichen?
A Commensalism
B Mutualism
C Parasitism
D Competition
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12. Which of the following basic needs are the objects of competition among the
trees in a forest?
J – Sunlight
K – Food
L - Space
A J and K
B J and L
C K and L
D J, K and L
13. Which of the following interactions are used in biological control?
I Predator-prey
II Commensalism
III Competition
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
14. Why should a plantation owner practice biological control on his oil palm
plantation?
A It causes pollution to the environment.
B It takes zero cost for this practice.
C It takes a shorter time to function compared to using pesticides.
D It is specific in the type of pests killed.
15. Four organisms represented by S, T, U and V are listed as below.
S – Caterpillar
T - Fox
U – Plant
V - Chicken
Which of the following shows the correct food chain involving the four
organisms?
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A S→T→U→V
B T→V→S→U
C U→S→V→T
D V→T→S→U
16. Which group of organisms form the decomposers at a paddy field?
A Mice
B Sparrow
C Paddy plants
D Bacteria
17. The information below shows the food web in a paddy field.
Which of the organisms is present in the greatest number and which one in
the smallest number?
A
B
C
D
Greatest number
Paddy plant
Frog
Grasshopper
Snake
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Smallest number
Snake
Mouse
Frog
Mouse
18. The diagram below shows a food web.
Which of the following is the primary consumer?
A Caterpillar
B Paddy plant
C Frog
D Eagle
19. The diagram below shows a pyramid of numbers.
What will happen when the population of bird decreases?
A The plant population increases.
B The grasshopper population decreases.
C The snake will lack of food.
D The bird will compete for food.
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20. The diagram below shows a habitat occupied by organisms X, Y and Z.
Which pyramid of numbers represents the habitat correctly?
A
B
C
Answer = C
D
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21. Which of the following is true about bioaccumulation?
A The accumulation of minerals by organisms through food chains.
B The accumulation of toxin by organisms through food chains.
C The accumulation of food by organisms through food webs.
D The accumulation of nutrients by organisms through food webs.
8 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 1
Chapter 2 Heredity
Questions
1. What is the basic unit of inheritance of living things known as?
A Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
B Chromosome
C Allele
D Gene
2. In which part of the cell is a gene found?
A In a small segment of the DNA molecule
B In the cytoplasm of the cell
C In the cell membrane of the cell
D In the nucleus of the cell
3. The diagram below shows a structure found in a cell.
What is the structure?
A Gene
B Chromosome
C DNA
D Centromere
4. The following information is about structure X in a cell.
- Double helix structure
- Carries genetic information
What is structure X?
A Gene
B Chromosome
C DNA
D Nucleus
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5. Which of the following statements is correct about deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA)?
A DNA is found in the cytoplasm.
B DNA contains protein.
C DNA can control the formation of protein.
D DNA is destroyed after cell division.
6. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes
in the sperm cell?
A 22
B 23
C 44
D 46
7. Which of the following is true about the recessive allele?
A It is always expressed and produces a recessive phenotype.
B It can only show its effect in the presence of the dominant allele.
C It is expressed when in a heterozygous (Bb) pair.
D It is only expressed when in a homozygous (bb) pair.
8. The allele for curly hair is dominant (A) and the allele for straight hair is
recessive (a). If a mother has curly hair (Aa) and a father has straight hair
(aa), what is the possible genotype of their child?
A Aa
B aa
C Aa or aa
D AA or aa
9. A man who can roll his tongue with a genotype of Rr marries a woman who
also has a genotype of Rr. What percentage of their offspring cannot roll
their tongues?
A 25%
B 50%
C 75%
D 100%
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10. What type of cross is carried out to study the inheritance of one trait only?
A Pure breed cross
B Hybrid cross
C Monohybrid cross
D Dihybrid cross
11. The diagrams below show the different stages of mitosis.
Which of the following is the correct sequence in the mitosis?
A X, Z, Y, W
B X, Y, W, Z
C Z, X, Y, W
D Z, Y, W, X
12. What is produced at the end of the cell division called mitosis?
A Two sex cells
B Two daughter cells
C Double the number of chromosomes
D Half the number of chromosomes
13. How many daughter cells are formed at the end of meiosis?
A One daughter cell
B Two daughter cells
C Four daughter cells
D Eight daughter cells
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14. The diagrams below show the stages of meiosis.
Which of the following is the correct sequence in the meiosis?
A K, N, M, L
B L, M, K, N
C M, L, N, K
D N, M, K, L
15. Which of the following processes produces gametes?
A Mutation
B Fertilization
C Mitosis
D Meiosis
16. What is the exchange of genetic materials between homologous
chromosomes during meiosis known as?
A Crossing over
B Replication
C Duplication
D Reproduction
17. Which of the following is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?
A
B
C
D
Mitosis
Crossing over occurs
The cells divide once
Variation occurs
Occurs in germ cells
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Meiosis
Crossing over does not occur
The cells divide twice
No variation occurs
Occurs in somatic cells
18. Which of the following statements is true about meiosis?
A It is involved in growth.
B The daughter cells produced have half the number of chromosomes found
in the original parent cells.
C The daughter cells produced have the same number of chromosomes as
the original parent cells.
D It involves all types of cells.
19. A mutation is
A an exchange of sister chromatids
B a disease caused by a type of bacterium
C a change in the chemical structure of a gene
D a doubling of chromatids
20. Which of the following are genetic disorders caused by gene mutation?
I Hemophilia
II Sickle-cell disease
III Down syndrome
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
21. A certain genetic disease shows the following characteristics.
- Caused by a recessive allele
- One cannot distinguish between red and green colors
Which of the following is the genetic disease referred to?
A Hemophilia
B Thalassemia
C Color-blindness
D Down syndrome
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22. Which of the following is not true about genetically modified organisms
(GMOs)?
A Organisms in which their genetic materials have been altered.
B Its purposes include resistance to certain pests, diseases or
environmental conditions.
C GMOs are used to produce food crops and medicines.
D Most GMOs are modified using human genes.
14 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 2
Chapter 3 Materials
Questions
1. Which of the following best defines a polymer?
A A substance with large molecules made of many smaller molecules of the
same kind.
B A substance with large molecules with no pattern to its structure.
C A substance which is made up of a very long molecule.
D A substance which is constructed from carbon atoms.
2. Which of the following is a synthetic polymer?
A Silk
B Nylon
C Latex
D Thread
3. The diagram below shows a chemical process.
What is process X?
A Neutralization
B Polymerization
C Depolymerization
D Combustion
4. Which of the following statements is true about thermoplastics?
A They can be molded only once.
B They are made up of linear or branched polymers.
C They can conduct heat easily.
D Their structures have cross-links.
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5. Thermosets are different from thermoplastics because
A the thermosets can be reshaped upon heating.
B the thermosets cannot be re-processed into different shapes upon
heating.
C the thermosets are made up of linear polymers.
D the thermosets are very hard and difficult to melt.
6. Which explains why plates and bowls that are made from thermosets are
better than those that are made from thermoplastics?
A Harder
B Finer
C Prettier
D More durable
7. Which of the following are the characteristics of most synthetic polymers?
I Inert to chemicals
II Heat and electrical conductors
III Can be molded into various shapes
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III only
8. Which of the following synthetic polymers is matched with its use correctly?
A
B
C
D
Synthetic polymer
Polyethene
Polypropene
Polychloroethene
Polystyrene
Use
Car tyres
Raincoats
Grocery bags
Disposable cups
9. Synthetic polymers are non-biodegradable. This means
A they cannot be obtained from plants and animals.
B they cannot be broken down by bacteria.
C they are not harmful to the environment.
D they can stand high temperature and pressure.
16 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 3
10. Which of the following are problems caused by synthetic polymers?
I Clogging of waterways
II Flash flood
III Greenhouse effect
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
11. Which method of plastic disposal is good for the environment?
A Ban them
B Bury them
C Burn them
D Recycle them
12. Which of the following is not a property of ceramics?
A Brittle
B Inert to chemicals
C Very low melting point
D Porous
13. Traditional ceramics are used as
I electrical conductors
II decorative items
III construction materials
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III only
14. Which of the following is true about superconductors?
I They can conduct electricity with zero resistance.
II They can be used in dental and bone implants.
III They are not resistant to wear and corrosion.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
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15. Which of the following are used in making composite materials?
I Metals
II Alloys
III Ceramics
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
16. Which of the following is not an example of composite materials?
A Reinforced concrete
B Fiberglass
C Ceramics
D Plastics
17. Why is reinforced concrete used in building skyscrapers and bridges?
A It is cheaper than the usual concrete.
B It is waterproof compared to the usual concrete.
C It has more tensile strength and does not crack easily.
D It has a high density but is brittle.
18 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 3
Chapter 4 Chemical Reactions
Questions
1. Which of the following is an example of chemical reaction?
A Dissolving sugar in water
B Boiling of water
C Heating of wax
D Heating iron and sulfur powder
2. Which of the following characteristics is true about a chemical reaction?
A Formation of a new substance
B A small amount of energy is involved
C Reversible
D The change is temporary
3. Which of the following chemical equations is not correct?
A Sodium + chlorine → sodium chloride
B Copper + sulfur → copper + sulfur dioxide
C Hydrogen + oxygen → water
D Aluminum + oxygen → aluminum oxide
4. Which of the following chemical equations correctly represents the burning
of magnesium in air?
A Mg(s) + O2(g) → MgO(s)
B 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
C 2Mg(s) + 2O2(g) → 4MgO(l)
D 4Mg(l) + O2(g) → 2MgO(l)
5. Which of the following is true about an exothermic reaction?
A It absorbs heat energy from the surroundings.
B It causes the surroundings to become hot.
C The energy content of the reactants is much lower than the products.
D The products in this reaction possesses more energy than the reactants.
19 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 4
6. A chemical reaction occurs in a beaker. The process is an endothermic
reaction if
A it absorbs heat
B it releases heat
C it happens fast
D it happens slow
7. The table below shows the results of an experiment to study the heat
change in a chemical reaction.
Initial temperature
Final temperature
28°C
36°C
Based on the results, what type of reaction is involved?
A Exothermic
B Endothermic
C Combustion
D Condensation
8. Which of the following is true about an endothermic reaction?
A Heat is released to the surroundings.
B The temperature of the solution increases.
C The pressure of the surroundings increases.
D The products have higher energy than the reactants.
9. Which of the following are examples of exothermic reactions?
I Combustion of fuels
II Photosynthesis
III Neutralization between acids and alkalis
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
10. What are the products when sulfuric acid reacts with magnesium?
A Magnesium sulfate and hydrogen
B Magnesium sulfate and oxygen
C Magnesium sulfate and water
D Magnesium hydroxide and water
20 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 4
11. When iron is in contact with oxygen and water, it rusts. The rust is
A iron hydroxide
B iron monoxide
C iron oxide
D iron oxide and water
12. Which of the following are produced in the combustion of propane?
A Carbon dioxide
B Carbon monoxide
C Carbon dioxide and water
D Carbon monoxide and water
13. Which of the following undergoes complete combustion with oxygen and
produces carbon dioxide as one of its products?
A Methanol
B Carbon
C Sulfur
D Sodium
14. Corrosion of metal and marble buildings is caused by acid rain. Which of the
following can cause acid rain?
I Nitrogen dioxide
II Sulfur dioxide
III Ammonia
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
15. Which of the following chemical equations represents the reaction between
sodium hydroxide and zinc?
A Sodium hydroxide + zinc → sodium zincate + oxygen
B Sodium hydroxide + zinc → sodium zincate + hydrogen
C Sodium hydroxide + zinc → sodium zincate + water
D Sodium hydroxide + zinc → sodium + zinc + water
21 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 4
Chapter 5 Electricity
Questions
1. Which of the following is not a source of electrical energy?
A Battery
B Solar cell
C Dynamo
D Transformer
2. The diagram below shows the galvanometer connected to the dome and the
Earth terminal of a Van de Graaff generator. The galvanometer deflects.
Which of the following statements is not true?
A The direction of the flow of charges is opposite to the direction of
current flow.
B The deflection of the galvanometer is caused by the motor of the
generator.
C The deflection of the galvanometer is caused by the flow of electrical
charges.
D The electrical charge is accumulated at the dome of the generator.
3. Which statement is true about electric current?
A Rate of flow of electrons through a conductor.
B Electrical energy which is needed for the flow of electrons.
C Flow of electrons from the negative terminal to the positive terminal of a
cell.
D Can be measured using a voltmeter.
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4. Which of the following shows the voltmeter is correctly connected in a
circuit?
Answer = D
A
B
C
D
5. The diagram below shows a symbol of an electrical component.
What is the electrical component?
A Transformer
B Rheostat
C Fuse
D Switch
23 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
6. Which of the following can be used to control the current flowing through a
circuit?
Answer = A
7. Which of the following circuits is not functioning?
A
Answer = B
B
24 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
C
D
8. The diagram below shows an electric circuit.
Calculate the voltage if the ammeter reading is 4 A.
A 4V
B 8V
C 12 V
D 16 V
25 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
9. The diagram below shows a complete electric circuit.
Bulbs P, Q and R are identical. If the current flowing in this circuit is 2A,
calculate the resistance of P.
A 2Ω
B 4Ω
C 6Ω
D 8Ω
10. The diagram below shows an electric circuit.
The reading of the ammeter is
A1A
B 1.5 A
C2A
D3A
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11. Which of the following graphs shows the relationship between current (I)
and voltage (V) which obeys Ohm’s law?
A
Answer = D
B
C
D
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12. The diagram below shows an electric circuit.
Which of the following relationships is true?
A A1 = A 2
B V1 = V2
C R1 + R 3 = R 2
D
!
"!
!
!
+ "# = "$
13. The diagram below shows a series circuit.
Which of the following is true about the characteristics of a series circuit?
A The current that flows through a point is the same as at any other point.
B The voltage across the circuit is the same as the voltage across each
component.
C The effective resistance decreases when the number of resistors in the
circuit increases.
D It has two or more paths for the electric current to flow.
28 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
14. Which bulb will be the brightest?
A
B
C
Answer = C
D
29 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
15. The diagram below shows a parallel circuit. Bulbs X, Y and Z are identical.
What is the voltmeter reading across Y if X burns out?
A 0V
B 6V
C 9V
D 18 V
16. The diagram below shows a circuit.
When one of the light bulbs is fused, the other three bulbs do not light up.
Which bulb is fused?
A P
B Q
C R
D S
30 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
17. The diagram below shows an electric circuit.
All the three bulbs are similar. What are the readings of ammeters A1, A2
and A3?
A
B
C
D
A1
2A
3A
2A
3A
A2
2A
3A
2A
3A
A3
2A
6A
6A
3A
18. Which of the following is not an advantage of a parallel circuit?
A Electrical appliances that requires different quantities of current can be
used at the same time.
B If one of the electrical components is spoilt, the other components will
be affected.
C Every electrical component in the circuit can be switched off separately.
D It allows components to be added in the circuit without changing the
voltage.
31 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
19. Which of the following comparisons between a series circuits and a parallel
circuits is correct?
A
B
C
D
Series circuit
The current from the source is
shared between each component.
When more bulbs are connected,
the brightness of the bulbs
increases.
The voltage across each
component is the same.
The effective resistance of the
circuit increases with the
number of components in the
circuit.
Parallel circuit
The current that flows through
every component in the circuit is
the same.
When more bulbs are connected,
the brightness of each bulb
decreases.
The voltage across each
component is not the same.
The effective resistance of the
circuit decreases with increasing
number of components in the
circuit.
20. The current that flows through a kettle in a house is 1.25 A. The house
electrical energy supply is 250 V. What is the resistance of the kettle?
A 2Ω
B 20 Ω
C 200 Ω
D 2000 Ω
21. An electric kettle is marked 240 V, 1.2 kW. Calculate the current flowing
through the electric kettle.
A 2A
B 5A
C 20 A
D 50 A
22. The diagram below shows an electric kettle that has a power rating of 2.5
kW. It has been used for 2 hours.
32 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
Calculate the total cost of the electricity used if the electrical energy is 2.5
Baht per unit.
A 2 Baht
B 2.5 Baht
C 5 Baht
D 10 Baht
23. Which of the following are the causes of electrical accidents?
I Old wiring
II Short circuit
III Damaged insulation
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
24. Electrical accidents can be prevented by
I Use cables and plugs which are worn out
II Never overload the power points
III Keep cables away from water
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
33 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 5
Chapter 6 Waves
Questions
1. Which of the following is not an example of waves?
A Light waves
B Seismic waves
C Cathode rays
D X-rays
2. Which of the following is true about a transverse wave?
A A wave that has vibrations in a direction parallel to the direction of the
wave.
B A wave that has vibrations in a direction perpendicular to the direction of
the wave.
C One of the examples of transverse waves is the sound wave.
D A travelling disturbance from a vibrating source without carrying any
energy.
3. The diagram below shows the vibration of a slinky spring.
Which of the following shows the movement of the spring?
A
B
C
D
34 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 6
Answer = B
4. The diagram below shows an oscillating pendulum.
The pendulum completes one full oscillation when it moves
A from P to Q and back to P
B from P to R and back to P
C from P to Q and then to R
D from R to Q and then to P
5. The diagram below shows the displacement-distance for a wave.
Which of the following symbols represent the amplitude and the wavelength?
Amplitude
Wavelength
A U
T
B S
C V
D T
V
T
U
Based on the following diagram, answer Questions 6 to 8.
35 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 6
6. The diagram above shows the displacement-distance graph of a wave. How
many complete waves as shown in the diagram?
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
7. From the graph above, what is the wavelength of the wave?
A 5 cm
B 10 cm
C 20 cm
D 40 cm
8. From the graph above, the frequency of the wave is
A 0.05 Hz
B 0.1 Hz
C 5 Hz
D 10 Hz
Based on the following diagram, answer Questions 9 to 10.
9. The diagram above shows the displacement-distance graph of a wave. What
is the amplitude of the wave?
A 2 cm
B 4 cm
C 8 cm
D 16 cm
10. From the graph above, the period is
A 0.5 s
B 1s
C 2s
D 4s
36 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 6
11. From the graph above, the frequency of the wave is
A 0.2 Hz
B 0.5 Hz
C 2.0 Hz
D 4.0 Hz
12. All electromagnetic waves
A Have the same frequency
B Have the same acceleration
C Are deflected by the magnetic waves
D Can travel through a vacuum
13. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is suitable for sterilization of
surgical tools?
A Visible light
B Microwave
C Gamma ray
D Radio wave
14. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in radar systems?
A Infrared ray
B Microwave
C Gamma ray
D Ultraviolet ray
15. An electromagnetic wave is used to sanitize the pillows in a hotel room. The
electromagnetic wave should be able to kill germs on the pillows that are
exposed to it but does not harm the guest who use the pillow.
Which of the electromagnetic wave is the most suitable to be applied?
A Infrared ray
B Ultraviolet ray
C Gamma ray
D Microwave
37 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 6
Chapter 7 Light
Questions
1. What is the phenomenon when we see our image on a surface?
A Reflection of light
B Refraction of light
C Interference of light
D Light bending
2. The diagram below shows an incident ray on a plane mirror.
What is the angle of reflection?
A 38°
B 52°
C 128°
D 142°
3. The diagram below shows a card with the word “SCIENCE” written on it. The
word has 7 alphabets.
How many alphabets are identical to the original alphabets when the card is
facing the mirror?
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 7
38 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 7
4. What are the characteristics of an image formed by a plane mirror?
I The image is larger than the size of the object.
II The image is upright.
III The image is laterally inverted.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
5. The diagram below shows a candle in front of a plane mirror.
Answer = D
At which position A, B, C or D is the image formed?
6. An object is placed 500 cm in front of a plane mirror. What happens when it
is moved 50 cm closer to the mirror?
A The size of the image decreases.
B The size of the object increases.
C The size of the image is larger than the size of the object.
D The size of the image is the same as the size of the object.
7. An object is placed 12 cm from a concave mirror of with the focal length of
5 cm. Which characteristic of the image formed is true?
A Virtual
B Upright
C Diminished
D Image formed at the focal point
39 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 7
8. The following information shows the characteristics of the image formed
when an object is placed in front of mirror X.
-
Real
Inverted
Smaller than the object
What could be mirror X?
A Plane mirror
B Concave mirror
C Convex mirror
D Convex lens
9. Which of the following involves the use of reflection of light?
I Overhead projector
II Microscope
III Telescope
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
10. Wing mirrors are used in cars to view the objects at the back of the car.
What are the characteristics of the image formed on the wing mirrors?
A Virtual, upright and diminished
B Virtual, upright and magnified
C Real, inverted and diminished
D Real, inverted and same size as the object
11. Which of the following diagrams shows the reflection of light from a convex
mirror correctly?
A
Answer = B
40 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 7
B
C
D
12. Refraction of light occurs when
A Light ray hits a surface and bounces back.
B Light ray changes its direction when it travels from a medium into
another medium of different densities.
C Light ray passes through a very small gap.
D Light ray travels at the same speed.
13. Which of the following diagrams shows correctly the movement of a light
beam from air to glass?
Answer = C
A
41 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 7
B
C
D
14. The diagram below shows a ray of light traveling towards a glass block.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction.
B The light ray travels slower inside the glass block.
C The light ray bends away from the normal inside the glass block.
D The frequency of the light ray is smaller inside the glass block.
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15. The diagram below shows the effect of lens X on the light rays that pass
through it.
Among the following lenses, which is most suitable to be X?
A
Answer = C
B
C
D
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16. The diagram below shows an object placed in front of a convex lens of focal
length, F.
The image is formed in region
A III
B IV
C V
D VI
17. Which of the following is not true about the image formed by a concave
lens?
A The image is formed on the same side of the object.
B The image is formed between the object and the lens.
C The image formed is always virtual, upright and diminished.
D The image is formed on the focal point.
18. A man can see near objects clear but distance objects blurred. What can be
done to correct this condition of vision?
A Wearing glasses with concave lenses
B Wearing glasses with convex lenses
C Using a magnifying glass
D Using a telescope
19. Which of the following is not true about the brightness of light?
A The measurement of the amount of light output in a given area.
B The measurement of light output at a given time.
C The brightness of light is different at different distances from a light
source.
D The power of the light source affects the brightness of light.
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20. How do we take care of our eyes?
I Wear sunglasses to reduce glare
II Have an eye check regularly
III Use proper lightning
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
45 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 7
Chapter 8 Sun-Earth-Moon System and Space Technology
Questions
1. Newton’s law of universal gravitation states that
A the attractive force between two objects is directly proportional to their
distance and inversely proportional to their masses.
B the attractive force between two objects is directly proportional to their
masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between
them.
C every particle attracts every other particle in the universe with a force
which is proportional to their weights and inversely proportional to the
distance between them.
D the strength of gravity between any two objects depends on the masses
of the objects and their distance from the Sun.
2. What is the value of universal Gravitational constant in m3 kg-1 s-2?
A 1.07 x 10-11
B 3.67 x 10-11
C 6.67 x 10-11
D 9.57 x 10-11
3. The mass of the Earth is 6.0 x 1024 kg. The mass of the Moon is 7.5 x 1022
kg. If the average distance from the Earth to the Moon is 3.84 x 108 m, what
is the gravitational force by the Earth?
A 2.04 x 10-29 N
B 2.1 x 1019 N
C 2.04 x 1020 N
D 7.82 x 1020 N
4. If the distance between two objects becomes 3 times more than the usual
distance, the gravitational force becomes
!
A
times
"
B
!
#
times
C 3 times
D 9 times
46 | Science Mathayom 3 Chapter 8
5. Which of the following is not true about the axial tilt?
A It is tilted at an angle of 23.5°.
B It is tilted in the same direction throughout a year.
C It causes the phases of the Moon.
D It passes through the North Pole, the center of the Earth and the South
Pole.
6. What are the causes for the seasons?
I Axial tilt
II Earth’s revolution
III Moon’s revolution
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
7. What causes day and night?
A The Earth orbits the Sun.
B The Earth rotates on its axis.
C The Sun goes around the Earth.
D The Sun rises causing daytime.
8. What happens when the Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun?
I The Northern Hemisphere experiences winter.
II The Southern Hemisphere experiences spring.
III The Southern Hemisphere receives more sunlight.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
9.
-
Occurs in June
Marks the beginning of summer in the Northern Hemisphere
The longest day of the year
The information above describes the
A winter solstice
B summer solstice
C autumnal equinox
D vernal equinox
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10. How does an equinox occur?
A When the Sun passes the equator from the Eastern to the Western
B When the axis of the Earth is tilted at an angle of 24°.
C When the Moon is positioned exactly above the equator
D When the position of the Sun is exactly over the equator
11. Why does the Moon have different phases?
A It moves around the Earth and we see different areas of the Moon’s
surface lit up.
B It moves around the Sun and reflects light from the Sun.
C The distance between the Moon and the Earth changes.
D It rotates on its axis from East to the West.
12. When the Moon is on the opposite side of the Earth from the Sun, what
could the phase of the Moon?
A New Moon
B New Gibbous Moon
C New half Moon
D Full Moon
13. The ocean tides are caused by
I the gravitational force of the Moon
II the gravitational force of the Sun
III the rotation of the Earth
A
B
C
D
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
14. The following information is about a type of tide.
- The high tides are very high.
- The low tides are very low.
- It occurs when the Earth, Moon and Sun are in a line.
A
B
C
D
The tide is called as
spring tide
neap tide
high tide
low tide
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15. Which of the following information is not correctly matched with the
satellites launched in space exploration?
A
Sputnik I
The first man-made satellite to orbit the Earth.
B
Luna 3
To orbit and take photographs of the Moon.
C
Apollo
The first probe that is launched to explore Mars.
D
Shenzhou 5
China’s first manned spacecraft that orbits around
the Earth.
16. Which of the following have contributed to the modern-day space
exploration?
I Man-made satellites
II Space probes
III Telescopes
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
17. What are the uses of Earth-observation satellites (EOS)?
I Observe the Earth from space to predict the weather
II Detect forest fires and oil spills
III Monitor behaviors of every individual on Earth
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
18. What is the advantage of using space shuttle?
A Does not need to bring along its fuel.
B Does not need to bring along an oxygen supply.
C Saves cost in terms of fuel consumption.
D Reusable.
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19. The following information is about a technology used for space exploration.
-
Is a Launched in 1988
Provides a platform for scientists to carry out researches in space.
The technology is
A International Space Station (ISS)
B Space station Skylab
C Earth-observation satellites (EOS)
D Voyager 2
20. Which of the following is not the reason to continue space exploration?
A To forecast weather and reduce disaster risks
B To make communication effectively and easily
C To help in the advancement of physics and other sciences
D To create a war in space
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