What Is Organizational Behavior
_____ are individuals who get things done through other people.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Leaders
Psychologist
Organizations
Managers
Which French industrialist said that a manager's functions consist of
planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Henri Fayol
Henry Mintzberg
Fred Luthans
Herb Kelleher
Through the _____ function, managers monitor the performance of the
organization and significant deviations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organizing
Planning
Leading
Controlling
_____ is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals,
groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Psychology
Organizational behavior
Sociology
Leadership
is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the
behaviour of humans and other animals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anthropology
Social psychology
Sociology
Psychology
Productivity implies a concern for _____ and _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Efficiency, effectiveness
Customer service, quality control
Customer service, efficiency
Effectiveness, quality control
The four management functions include all of the following EXCEPT.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Controlling
Planning
Staffing
Organizing
_____ studies behavior as it relates to concerns such as absenteeism,
turnover, productivity, and performance
A.
B.
C.
D.
Psychology
Kinetics
Organizational behavior
Ergonomics
According to the text, the best approach for obtaining knowledge about
human behavior is_____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Using common sense
A n observational approach
A theoretical approach
A systematic approach
What behavioral science discipline has made the MOST significant
contributions to understanding individual behavior?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sociology
Social psychology
Psychology
Anthropology
_____ has helped us understand differences in fundamental values,
attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anthropology
Psychology
Social psychology
Political science
The field of organizational behavior is most concerned with an
organization's _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Responsiveness
Efficiency
Perception
Effectiveness
"Intuition" is concerned with _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gut feelings
Systematic study scientific
Analysis
Predictive ability
_____ is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change
the behavior of humans and other animals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anthropology
Social psychology
Sociology
Psychology
Which is not a contributing area to Organizational Behavior?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anthropology
Physiology
Psychology
Sociology
_____ is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their
activities.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sociology
Social Psychology
Anthropology
Political Science
Foundations of Organization Structure
Work specialization is also known as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Span of control
Chain of command
Formalization
Division of labour
_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Formalization
Specialization
Departmentalization
Chain of command
The _____ is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of
the organization to the lowest level and clarifies who reports to whom.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chain of command
Span of control
Formalization
Organizational structure
_____ refers to the number of employees that can be directed by one
manager.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Formalization
Span of control
Authority
Centralization
Most small businesses are organized as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Simple structures
Matrix structures
Virtual organizations
Bureaucracies
The key concept that underlies all bureaucracies is _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flexibility
Decentralization
Standardization
Creativity
The _____ combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and
product.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Simple structure
Virtual organization
Bureaucracy
Matrix structure
Which of the following is an advantage of a matrix organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Clear organizational structure.
Coordination of complex and interdependent activities.
Elimination of power struggles.
All of the above.
A _____ relies primarily on outsourcing.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Team structure
Boundaryless organization
Virtual organization
Strategic alliance
The _____ model has extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a
limited information network, and little participation by low-level
members in decision making.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mechanistic
Strategy
Organic
Routine
A(n) _____ organization uses flat, cross-hierarchal and cross-functional
teams, has low formalization, possesses a comprehensive information
network, and involves high participation in decision making.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mechanistic
Strategy
Organic
Routine
Organizations that pursue a cost-minimization strategy are more likely
to choose a(n) _____ structure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional
Mechanistic
Departmentalized
Organic
_____ refers to how a firm converts its inputs to outputs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Environment
Structure
Routine
Technology
_____ is the degree to which an environment can support growth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Instability
Complexity
Capacity
Volatility
_____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and
coordinated.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chain of command
Span of control
Centralization
Organizational structure
Division of labour is also known as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Span of control
Departmentalization
Work specialization
Formalization
Which of the following is true regarding specialization?
A. Less time is spent in changing tasks.
B. It's easier and less costly to find and train workers to do specific and repetitive
tasks.
C. Employee skills tasks at performing tasks increases through repetition.
D. Training for specialization is less efficient.
_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compartmentalization
Structured hierarchy
Departmentalization
Specialization
The _____ is an unbroken line of authority running from the top to the
bottom of the organization.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chain of command
Span of control
Hierarchical line
Vertical structure
_____ refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders
and expect the orders to be obeyed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unity of command
Authority
Bureaucratic control
Formalization
_____, to a large degree, determines the number of levels and managers
an organization has.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hierarchy
Authority
Formalization
Span of control
_____ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a
single point in the organization.
A. Decentralization
B. Formalization
C. Centralization
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a simple structure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Wide spans of control
Low degree of departmentalization
Authority centralized in a single person
Highly formalized rules and regulations
The simple structure is most widely practiced in _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mid-range size businesses
Large corporations
Small businesses
International organizations
A _____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks, very
formalized rules, and tasks that are grouped into functional
departments.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Virtual organization
Bureaucracy
Boundaryless organization
Team structure
As size increases, decision making typically _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Becomes more efficient
Moves through fewer organizational levels
Becomes slower
Becomes more effective
Typically, a matrix structure combines _____ departmentalization.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Customer and geographic
Geographic and process
Functional and process
Functional and product
A matrix structure violates that _____ concept.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Span of control
Unity-of-command
Centralization
Contingency
In a _____ organization, a small, core organization outsources major
business functions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vertical
Virtual
Boundaryless
Team
Virtual organizations are highly _____, with little or no _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Centralized, departmentalization
Formalized, centralization
Departmentalized, formalization
Decentralized, departmentalization
The boundaryless organization is also known as the _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Network organization
Cultural structure
T-form
Modular organization
In a mechanistic organization, communication is _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mostly upward
Both upward and lateral
Mostly downward
Both lateral and downward
_____ structures include cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams
and a flat structure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mechanistic
Hybrid
Routine
Organic
Innovation, cost minimization, and imitation are examples of _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Corporate models
Formalization
Environments
Strategy
_____ need the flexibility of an organic structure, while _____ seek the
efficiency and stability of a mechanistic structure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Innovators, cost minimisers
Cost minimisers, imitators
Imitators, innovators
Innovators, imitators
Size affects structure _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
At an increasing rate
At a decreasing rate
At a stable rate
At an intermittent rate
Routine technology is accompanied by decentralization when _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
When formalization is low
When formalization is high
When the company is organized by customer
When tasks are routine
The greatest degree of uncertainty is faced by organizations that are
_____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Robust, complex, and dynamic
Stable, complex, and scarce
Dynamic, stable, and robust
Scarce, dynamic, and complex
_____ refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among
environmental elements.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Volatility
Complexity
Dynamism
None of the above
Work specialization is associated with _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lower employee productivity and lower satisfaction
Higher employee productivity and higher satisfaction
Lower employee productivity and higher satisfaction
Higher employee productivity and lower satisfaction
The ____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved
through specialization.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Matrix organization
Bureaucracy
Simple structure
Team structure
The ____ violates the unity-of-command concept.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Simple structure
Bureaucracy
Matrix structure
Virtual organization
The ____ is also called the network or modular organization.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Virtual organization
Team structure
Matrix
Bureaucracy
The boundaryless organization relies heavily on _____
A.
B.
C.
D.
Information technology
Vertical boundaries
Horizontal boundaries
External boundaries
The _____ is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization,
high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mechanistic model
Organic model
Technology model
Boundaryless organization
Which of the following is NOT a determinant of an organization's
structure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Strategy
Organization size
Industry
Technology
Changes in corporate strategy precede and lead to _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Changes in the environment
Better communication
Increased productivity
Changes in an organization's structure
Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures
and employee performance and satisfaction is MOST true?
A. There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction.
B. There is no evidence that supports a relationship between span of control and
employee performance.
C. No one wants work that makes minimal intellectual demands and is routine.
The unbroken line of authority that extends from top of the
organization to the lowest echelon is termed the chain of command.
A. True
B. False
Narrow spans of control encourage overly tight supervision and
discourage employee autonomy.
A. True
B. False
A major weakness of the bureaucracy is lack of attention to rules.
A. True
B. False
The major disadvantages of the matrix structure lie in the confusion it
creates, its propensity to foster power struggles, and the stress it places
on individuals.
A. True
B. False
The major advantage to the virtual organization is its flexibility.
A. True
B. False
Status and rank are minimized in the boundaryless organization.
A. True
B. False
The organic structure is characterized by extensive
departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network,
and centralization.
A. True
B. False
Adding 500 employees to an organization that has only 300 members is
likely to result in a shift towards a more organic structure.
A. True
B. False
The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more
organic a structure should be.
A. True
B. False
Research supports the notion that employees prefer an organic
structure.
A. True
B. False
Personality And Values
_____ is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts to and
interacts with others.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Moods
Values
Personality
Attitudes
_____ refers to those factors that were determined at conception.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temperament
Heredity
Environment
Situation
_____ are enduring characteristics that describe an individual's behavior.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Personality traits
Individual dimensions
Value systems
Terminal values
The _____ is the most popular typology of personality traits.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hofstede Cultural Profile
Holland Code
Big Five Model
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
_____is the degree to which individuals like or dislike themselves,
whether they see themselves as capable and effective, and whether they
feel they are in control of their environment.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Emotional bias
Machiavellianism
Job satisfaction
Core self-evaluation
_____ is the tendency to be pragmatic, emotionally distant, and
exploitative.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Emotionally maturity
Low self-esteem
High self-esteem
Machiavellianism
_____ refers to the tendency to be arrogant, have a grandiose sense of
self-importance, require excessive self-admiration, and have a sense of
entitlement.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Narcissism
Job involvement
Organizational commitment
External locus of control
An individual who is able to adjust his/her behavior to external factors
is a high _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Machiavellianism
locus of control
Type A
self-monitor
Those who have a _____ personality are perpetually involved in a struggle
to do more and more activities in less time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-monitor
Type A
Type B
Machiavellian
The value attribute that specifies importance is known as ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mode of conduct
End state
Intensity
Freedom
Is most often described in terms of measurable traits that a person
exhibits.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organization
Tolerance
Personality
Value
Which of the following best describes heredity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Situational determinants at work
Environment factors
Factors that were determined at conception
Personality traits that develop with age
The _____ type of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator prefers routine and
order.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perceiving
Intuitive
Extroverted
Sensing
The _____ type of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator relies on personal
values and emotions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Judging
Intoitive
Feeling
Sensing
______ types, according to the MBTI typology, want control and prefer
their world to be ordered and structured.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perceiving
Judging
Sensing
Intuitive
Which personality dimension is measured in both the MTBI and the Big
Five model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Emotional stability
Conscientiousness
Agreeableness
Extroversion
The _____ dimension of the Big Five Model refers to an individual's
propensity to defer to others.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extroversion
Agreeableness
Conscientiousness
Openness to experience
Which of the Big Five dimensions has shown a strong and consistent
relationship with job performance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extrovrsion
Agreeableness
Consientiousness
Openness to experience
Machiavellianism, self-esteem, self-monitoring, propensity for risk
taking, and Type A are all examples of _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Personality attributes
Compensable skills
Genetically heritable traits
Core competencies
Individuals with _____ core self-evaluations tend to dislike themselves,
question their capabilities, and view themselves as powerless over their
environment.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Internal
Positive
Negative
External
Which is not true of a high Mach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
He/she manipulates less.
He/she wins more.
He/she is persuaded less.
He/she persuades others more.
When do high Machs flourish?
A. When they interact face to face with others rather than indirectly.
B. When the situation has a minimum number of rules and regulations.
C. All of the above
A study found that while _____ thought that they were better leaders than
their colleagues, their supervisors actually rated them as worse leaders.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-monitors
Risk takers
Machiavellians
Narcissists
Which is NOT true of high self-monitors?
A. He/she adjusts his or her behaviour to external factors.
B. He/she is highly sensitive to external cues.
C. He/she tends to display true emotions.
_____ behavior may lead to more effective performance for a share trader
in a brokerage firm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Low risk-taking
High risk-taking
Risk-averse
Multi-risk
_____ personalities strive to do two or more things at once.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Type B
Aggressive
Protocol
Type A
_____ personalities tend to play for fun and relaxation, rather than to
exhibit superiority.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Type B
Aggressive
Prosaic
Type A
A _____ personality type takes the initiative to improve its circumstances.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Machiavellian
Entrepreneurial
Prosaic
proactive
According to the Myers-Briggs type Indicator, people who are classified
as _____ are conceptualizers.
A.
B.
C.
D.
INTJs
ESTJs
ENTPs
MBTIs
Which dimension of the Big Five model refers to an individual's
propensity to defer to others?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extroversion
Openness to experience
Emotional stability
Agreeableness
Individuals with a positive _____ like themselves, see themselves as
effective, capable, and in control of their environment.
A. Narcissism
B. Propensity
C. Core self-evaluations
Individuals who are high in the _____ dimension of personality
manipulate more, win more, are persuaded less, and persuade others
more.
A. Rokeach
B. Aesthetic
C. Machiavellianism
If personality characteristics were completely dictated by heredity, they
would be fixed at birth and no amount of experience could alter them.
A. True
B. False
A substantial body of research supports the MBTI as a valid measure of
personality.
A. True
B. False
Extroverts tend to be reserved, timid, and quiet.
A. True
B. False
The opposite of emotional stability is neuroticism.
A. True
B. False
Compared to introverts, extroverts tend to be happier in their jobs and
lives as a whole.
A. True
B. False
Terminal values are preferable modes of behaviour, or means of
achieving one's instrumental values.
A. True
B. False
The lives of Xers have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and
computers.
A. True
B. False
Organizations in a society low in uncertainty avoidance are likely to
have more formal rules.
A. True
B. False
Individuals with Holland's investigative personality are well suited for
careers as small business managers.
A. True
B. False
Motivation Concepts
_____ is the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction,
and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perception
Cooperation
Motivation
Affect
Which is NOT a dimension in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ego
Physiological
Safety
Esteem
_____ theory is an extension of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two-factor
Theory Y
Theory X
ERG
Which of the following comments was made by a Theory X manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Employees dislike work.
Employees will exercise discretion.
The average person will seek responsibility.
Employees can view work as natural as rest or play.
Which of the following is a motivational factor, according to Herzberg's
two-factor theory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality of supervisions
Recognition
Pay
Relations with others
According to Edwin Locke, _____ goals produce the greatest degree of
achievement.
A. Ambiguous and difficult
B. Specific and difficult
C. Specific and easy
_____ programs emphasize participative set goals that are tangible,
verifiable, and measurable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-efficacy
Management by objectives
Reinforcement
Organizational
_____ is also known as social cognitive theory or social learning theory.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-efficacy
Reinforcement
Goal-setting
Cognitive evaluation
The _____ effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy where believing
something to be true can make it true.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Archimedes
Galatia
Icarus
Pygmalion
_____ theory argues that behaviour is a function of its consequences.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equity
Reinforcement
Goal-setting
Expectancy
_____ theory makes the assumption that people will compare their job
inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate
perceived inequities.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equity
Reinforcement
Goal-setting
Expectancy
When an employee compares their inputs and outcomes with another
employee within their organization, they are making a(n) _____
comparison.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-outside
Self-inside
Other-inside
Other-outside
_____ justice is the perceived degree to which an individual is treated
with dignity, concern, and respect.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Procedural
Equity
Interactional
Distributive
According to expectancy theory, which of the following factors lead to
good performance ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The individual must have the requisite ability to perform.
The performance appraisal system must be perceived as fair.
The rewards must be desirable to the employee.
All of the above
Processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and
persistence of effort toward attaining a goal are collectively known as
_____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Redirection
Motivation
Cognitive effort
Expectancy
In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, _____ needs include security and
protection from physical and emotional harm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Esteem
Physiological
Safety
Self-actualization
Physiological and safety needs are _____ needs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Higher-order
Lower-order
Lateral
Equity
ERG theory is associated with _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Abraham Maslow
Frederick Herzberg
Clayton Alderfer
Douglas McGregor
According to ERG theory, _____.
A. An unsatisfied need ceases to motivate.
B. A person may work on three needs at the same time.
C. Frustration over a lower-level need will cause an individual to focus on higher-level
needs.
D. Individuals will focus on their lowest level of unsatisfied need.
Which of the following statements was most likely to have been made by
a Theory X manager?
A. "My employees work really hard - they seem to motivate themselves."
B. "Most people are hard workers."
C. "I spend most of my day closely supervising employees. When I'm not around,
I suspect that they do as little as possible."
D. "The key to high productivity is giving employees the opportunity to make
decisions."
Which of the following assumptions are characteristic of McGregor's
Theory Y?
A. Employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play.
B. People will exercise self-direction and self-control if they are committed to the
objectives.
C. The average person can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility.
D. All of the above
According to Herzberg, which of the factors below is NOT considered an
intrinsic motivator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Advancement
Recognition
Responsibility
Pay
In Herzberg's model, conditions surrounding the job such as quality of
supervision pay, and company policies are known as _____ factors.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Motivation
Recognition
Hygiene
Intrinsic
Promotional opportunities would be a(n) _____ factor in Herzberg's
model.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hygiene
Motivational
Extrinsic
Equity
_____ suggests that introduction of extrinsic rewards reduces the
enjoyment of the task.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Contingency theory
Goal setting theory
Cognitive evaluation theory
Expectancy theory
Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Salary
Bonus
Interesting work
Promotion
_____ considers the degree to which peoples' reasons for pursuing goals
are consistent with their interests and core values.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-concordance
Goal setting theory
Self-efficacy
Equity theory
Goal-setting theory suggests all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Specific goals lead to higher performance.
Difficult goals increase performance.
Feedback leads to higher performance.
Ambiguous goals increase performance.
_____ operationalizes goal-setting theory.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equity theory
Self-efficacy
Management by objectives
Expectancy theory
_____ refers to an individual's beliefs that he or she is capable of
performing a task.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-efficacy
Self-concordance
Reinforcement
Equity
Which of the following is NOT a strategy for increasing self-efficacy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vicarious modeling
Extinction
Enactive mastery
Verbal persuasion
_____ refers to increasing self-efficacy by seeing someone else performing
a task.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enactive mastery
Arousal
Verbal persuasion
Vicarious modeling
The _____ effect occurs when high performance expectations are
communicated to employees.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pygmalion
Zeus
Trojan
Galatea
_____ theory ignores the inner state of the individual and concentrates
solely on what happens to a person when he or she takes some action.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equity
Expectancy
Reinforcement
Self-efficacy
When an employee compares his current position with experiences in a
different or former position he/she has just made a _____ comparison.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Self-outside
Other-inside
Other-outside
Self-inside
_____ justice refers to the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation
of rewards among individuals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interactional
Distributive
Equity
Procedural
An entitlement attitude implies that _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Employees expect outcomes to be greater than inputs.
Employees expect inputs to be greater than outcomes.
Employees expect inputs and outcomes to be the same.
Employees expect outcomes without inputs.
Which of the following is NOT a key element in motivation?
A. Environment
B. Intensity
C. Direction
_____ is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming in Maslow's
hierarchy of needs.
A. Social
B. Self-actualization
C. Physiological
Which of the following were considered higher-order needs by Maslow?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Physiological, safety, and social needs
Safety, social, and esteem needs
Esteem and self-actualization needs
Socially, esteem, and self-actualization needs
A Theory X manager would assume employees would _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Like work
Seek responsibility
Need to be controlled
Exercise self direction
Two-factor theory suggests that extrinsic factors such as _____ cause
dissatisfaction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Advancement
Working conditions
Achievement
Recognition
Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer all of the following
EXCEPT _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Job situations with personal responsibility
A high degree of risk
Overcoming obstacles
Feedback
According to the goal-setting theory of motivation, goals should be _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Extremely difficult
Easy
Difficult but attainable
Similar to goals for other organizations
Manager's can increase an employee's _____ through enactive mastery,
vicarious modelling, verbal persuasion, and arousal.
A. Equity
B. Expectancy
C. Self-efficacy
_____ exists when an individual perceives that the ratio of their inputs to
outcomes is dissimilar to the ration of relevant others.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reinforcement
Cognitive dissonance
Equity tension
Turnover
The degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual's
personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential
rewards for the individual is the ____ relationship.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rewards-personal goals
Performance-reward
Effort-performance
Rewards-effort
Motivation is a personality trait.
A. True
B. False
According to Maslow, a need that is essentially satisfied no longer
motivates.
A. True
B. False
Theory X assumptions hold a basically negative view of human
beings.
A. True
B. False
According to Herzberg, the opposite of "satisfaction" is "dissatisfaction".
A. True
B. False
Hygiene factors usually lead to job satisfaction when present in a job.
A. True
B. False
According to goal-setting theory, a generalized goal will produce a
higher level of output than a specific goal.
A. True
B. False
Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to
produce similar reactions to correct the inequities.
A. True
B. False
In expectancy theory, the strength of a person's motivation to perform
depends in part on how strongly he believes he can achieve what he
attempts.
A. True
B. False
Motivation From Concept To Applications
The _____ suggests that any job can be described in terms of five core job
dimensions.
A. opportunity to perform score
B. productivity indicator model
C. core competency paradigm
D. job characteristics model
_____ is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and
identifiable piece of work.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Autonomy
Task significance
Task identity
Feedback
_____ is the horizontal expansion of a job.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Job enlargement
Job sharing
Job enrichment
Job congruence
Jobs may be enriched by _____, grouping tasks so that an employee
creates an identifiable and meaningful output.
A.
B.
C.
D.
establishing client relationships
forming natural work units
expanding jobs vertically
opening feedback channels
Bill and Jane each work 20 hours per week and share the same job. They
benefit from their company's _____ program, which allows two employees
to share one full-time job.
A.
B.
C.
D.
job sharing
flexitime
job rotation
teleworking
Which of the following is one of the three major forms of employee
involvement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
flexitime
gainsharing
employee stock ownership
participative management
_____ is the distinct characteristic common to all participative
management programs
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unilateral decision making
Group consensus
Continuous feedback
Joint decision making
Which of the following is an example of representative participation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
groupthink
board representatives
work sharing
quality circle
A _____ is a work group of eight to ten employees and supervisors that
meet regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of
the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective actions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
board representative
work council
quality circle
employee share ownership plan
An advantage of _____ is that they allow employers to differentiate pay
based on performance, so that those people thought to be high
performers are given bigger raises.
A.
B.
C.
D.
piece-rate pay plans
merit pay plans
gainsharing plans
bonus plans
_____ allow employees to choose benefits that best meet their needs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Skill-based pay
Flexible benefits
Gainsharing
Pay for performance
_____ plans allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered
in the plan to pay for particular services.
A. Core-plus
B. Profit sharing
C. Modular
D. Flexible spending
_____ range from private letters of thanks to publicized formal programs
where specific types of behaviour are encouraged and the procedures
for attaining recognition are clearly identified.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flexible benefits
Gainsharing plans
Employee recognition programs
ESOPs
Across all countries, _____ job characteristics (pay, working conditions)
were consistently and positively related to satisfaction with one's job.
A.
B.
C.
D.
intrinsic
intuitive
extrinsic
external
Richer countries, countries with stronger social security, countries that
stressed individualism rather than collectivism, and countries with a
smaller power distance showed a stronger relationship between the
presence of _____ job characteristics (recognition, interesting job) and
job satisfaction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
intrinsic
intuitive
extrinsic
external
The _____ describes jobs in terms of skill variety, task identity, task
significance, autonomy, and feedback.
A.
B.
C.
D.
opportunity to perform score
productivity indicator model
core competency paradigm
job characteristics model
In the JCM model, the _____ dimension relates to the degree to which jobs
have a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people.
A.
B.
C.
D.
autonomy
task identity
task significance
feedback
The core dimensions of the job characteristics model can be combined
into a single predictive index, called the _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
motivating potential score
job characteristics index
task significance model
feedback factor
_____ is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Job enrichment
Job enlargement
Job rotation
Job characteristics
_____ is the vertical expansion of a job, increasing the degree to which the
worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her
work.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Job enrichment
Job enlargement
Job rotation
Job characteristics
_____ lets employees know how well they are performing their jobs and
whether their performance is improving, deteriorating, or remaining at
a constant level.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Expanding jobs vertically
Forming natural work units
Opening feedback channels
Combining tasks
_____ allows employees some discretion over their start and stop times,
while requiring a specific number of hours per week.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Job enrichment
Teleworking
Job sharing
Flextime
The _____ variable reflects that individuals may be willing and able to
perform, but that there may be obstacles that constrain performance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
autonomy
job enlargement
opportunity to perform
task identity
_____ are a way to increase workers' control and autonomy to improve
their motivation, organizational commitment, productivity, and job
satisfaction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Merit pay plans
Employee share ownership plans
Share option compensation programs
Employee involvement programs
Participative management requires the use of _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
power redistribution
quality improvement
employee ownership
joint decision making
_____ is considered the "most widely legislated form of employee
involvement around the world".
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality circles
Representative participation
Employee share ownership
None of the above
While _____ programs have little impact on employee satisfaction, many
studies report positive effects on productivity.
A.
B.
C.
D.
participative management
representative participation
measurement
quality circle
_____ is consistent with participative management, while _____ aligns with
the more traditional autocratic style of managing people.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Theory X, Theory Y
Theory Y, Maslow's needs hierarchy
Theory Y, Theory X
equity theory, Theory Y
The process of initially setting pay levels requires evaluating _____, the worth of the
job to the organization.
A. internal equity
B. profit-sharing
C. piece-rates
D. external equity
Piece-rate plans, merit based pay, bonuses, profit sharing, gain sharing,
and employee share ownership plans are all forms of _____
programmers’.
A.
B.
C.
D.
employee involvement
variable-pay
job sharing
total quality management
In _____, workers are paid a fixed sum for each unit of production
completed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
piece-rate plans
merit based pay plans
bonus plans
profit sharing programs
_____ are organization-wide programs that distribute compensation
based on some established formula designed around a company's
profitability.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Piece-rate plans
Merit based pay plans
Bonus plans
Profit sharing programs
_____ are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire
share, often at below-market prices, as part of their benefits.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gain sharing plans
Employee share ownership plans
Share options
Variable pay programs
_____ can be uniquely tailored to reflect difference in employee needs
based on age, marital status, spouses' benefit status, number and age of
dependents.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Skill-based pay
Flexible benefits
Gain sharing
Pay for performance
_____ are predesigned packages of benefits, with each module put
together to meet the needs of a specific group of employees.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Core-plus options
Modular plans
Flexible spending plans
Pay for performance plans
_____ consist of a core of essential benefits and a menu-like selection of
other benefit options from which employees can select and add to the
core.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Core-plus options
Modular plans
Flexible spending plans
Pay for performance plans
_____ allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the
plan to pay for particular services.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Core-plus options
Modular plans
Flexible spending plans
Pay for performance plans
_____ is an example of an extrinsic reward.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Challenging work
Opportunity for advancement.
Recognition
Compensation
A recent survey of employees in a variety of work settings found that
_____ was considered to be the most powerful workplace motivator.
A.
B.
C.
D.
working conditions
pay
recognition
location
An obvious advantage of workplace recognition programmers is that
they are _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
unusual
intuitive
inexpensive
complex
An employee recognition program is most likely to be considered fair in
which of the following jobs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
sales representative
customer service representative
human resource manager
receptionist
Which of the following is NOT a recommendation concerning employee
motivation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Allow employees to participate in decisions that affect them.
Recognize individual differences.
Link rewards to seniority.
Use goals and feedback.
The _____ says that internal rewards are obtained by individuals when
they learn that they personally have performed well on a task that they
care about.
A.
B.
C.
D.
management by objectives plan
participative decision making model
job characteristics model
performance feedback system
_____ (or cross-training) is the periodic shifting of an employee from one
task to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Job enlargement
Employee involvement
Job rotation
Job enrichment
_____ may be implemented by combining tasks, forming natural work
units, establishing client relationships, expanding jobs vertically, and
opening feedback channels.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Job enlargement
Employee involvement
Job rotation
Job enrichment
Writers, lawyers, analysts, and employees who spend the majority of
their time on computers or on the telephone are natural candidates for
_____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
department modeling
job sharing
teleworking
flextime
_____ is a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees
and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the
organization's success.
A. MBO
B. Employee involvement
C. Reengineering
A _____ is a group of employees and supervisors who meet regularly to
discuss their quality problems and recommend solutions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
department team
cooperative group
evaluation team
quality circle
Piece-rate plans, merit based pay, bonuses, profit sharing, gain sharing,
and employee share ownership plans are all forms of _____ programs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ESOP
gain sharing
variable-pay
Scanlon
_____ is an incentive plan where improvements in group productivity
determine the total amount of money that is allocated.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ESOP
Gain sharing
Variable pay
Scanlon plan
The three most popular types of _____ are modular plans, core-plus
options, and flexible spending accounts.
A.
B.
C.
D.
share options
gain sharing plans
variable pay programs
flexible benefits
Task identity refers to the degree to which the job has a substantial
impact on the lives or work of others.
A. True
B. False
Employee involvement is a participative process that uses the entire
capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased
commitment to the organization's success.
A. True
B. False
Quality circles have the authority to find problems, assess alternative
actions, and implement a solution.
A. True
B. False
Gain sharing programs may also be referred to as profit-sharing
programs.
A. True
B. False
ESOPs are company-established benefit plans in which employees
acquire shares as part of their benefits.
A. True
B. False
One advantage of bonuses over merit pay is that bonuses reward
employees for recent performance.
A. True
B. False
Skill-based pay encourages employees to concentrate on one or two
highly desirable skills.
A. True
B. False
Traditional benefit packages were designed for the typical employee of
the 1950s; fewer than 10% of employees now fit that stereotype,
requiring an updated look at these benefits.
A. True
B. False
A survey of 1,500 employees found that recognition was the most
powerful workplace motivator.
A. True
B. False
Communication
When employees are required to communicate grievances to their
supervisor, communication is performing a _____ function.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Information
emotional expression
control
motivation
When communicating, a sender _____ a message and passes the
message through a medium or channel.
A.
B.
C.
D.
feeds back
decodes
transfers
encodes
_____ channels are established by the organization and transmit
messages that are related to the professional activities of members.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Professional
Informal
Formal
Member
_____ communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel
about their jobs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Upward
Lateral
Downward
Emotional
A(n) _____ network is used by self-managed work teams.
A.
B.
C.
D.
wheel
chain
all-channel
spoken
Which is NOT a characteristic of the grapevine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is not controlled by management.
It is perceived by most employees as being more believable.
It largely serves the self-interests of the people within it.
It is a highly accurate source of information.
Electronic communication includes _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
video conferencing
e-mail
instant messaging
all of the above
_____ is an effective computer-aided form of communication, allowing
messages to be sent to one or thousands of people simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Videoconferencing
Instant messaging
E-mail
An intranet
_____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's
collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people at the
right time.
A. E-mail
B. Communication
C. Knowledge management
_____ messages are likely to be complicated and have the potential for
misunderstanding.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Complicated
Routine
Non routine
Rich
_____ refers to the purposeful manipulation of language so that it will be
seen more favorably by the receiver.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Barrier making
Deception
Filtering
None of the above
_____ is a barrier to effective communication - people receiving
information tend to protect their interests and expectations into
communications as they decode them.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Information overload
Selective perception
Filtering
Language
A fear of speaking in front of groups or to other people is known as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
fear of speaking
speaking phobia
selective perception
communication apprehension
According to author Deborah Tannen, men use talk to emphasize
_____, while women use it to create _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
status, connection
closeness, emotion
intimacy, independence
affiliation, power
_____ must include both the transference and understanding of meaning.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Writing
Reading
Speaking
Communication
Teasing and verbal harassment are forms of _____ control.
A.
B.
C.
D.
formal
informal
lateral
normal
_____ is the process of converting a message to a symbolic form.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Decoding
Retranslation
Encoding
Receiving
Communication barriers that distort the clarity of a message are known
as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
noise
conference
static
feedback
A memo is typically transmitted through a(n) _____ communication
channel.
A.
B.
C.
D.
formal
corporate
informal
institutional
Communication from a supervisor to a subordinate is _____
communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
upward
lateral
downward
cross-functional
A climate survey is an example of _____ communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
downward
lateral
upward
informal
Which of the following is NOT true of oral communication?
A. Oral messages can be conveyed and a response received in a minimal amount of
time.
B. Oral messages reduce distortion.
C. Oral communication allows for rapid detection of unclear messages.
D. The grapevine often communicates orally.
Which of the following is NOT true of written communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Written communication is readily verifiable.
With written communication, the message can be stored for an indefinite period.
People tend to be less careful in writing than in speaking.
Written communication may be physically available for later reference
_____ is the emphasis given to words or phrases.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stress
Inflection
Tonal duration
Intonation
The _____ network relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for the
entire group's communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
all-channel
chain
wheel
spoke
A _____ network is appropriate if accuracy is most important.
A.
B.
C.
D.
all-channel
chain
wheel
spoke
Which of the following is an advantage of face-to-face communication
over e-mail?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Personal touch
Non-verbal cues
Tone
All of the above
_____ refers to real time e-mail.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rapid e-mail
Close-up
Instant messaging
Instant Replay
Who are the fastest growing users of Facebook?
A.
B.
C.
D.
elementary school students
high school students
people over 25
college students
A _____ is an internet log.
A.
B.
C.
D.
blog
internal wheel
intranet
medium
_____ allows employees in an organization to have meetings with people
at different locations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A network
Videoconferencing
A communication channel
Networking
A _____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's
collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people at the
right time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
knowledge dissemination system
knowledge management system
cornucopia
decision control system
_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during
a communication episode.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Signal strength
Interpersonal bandwidth
Information load
Channel richness
Managers that are _____ have the ability to match appropriate media
richness with the ambiguity involved in the communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
media-savvy
techno-savvy
media-sensitive
filtered
Rob routinely withholds negative information in the weekly report he
transmits to his supervisor. In terms of communication, Rob is engaging
in _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
selective perception
"muddying the waters"
filtering
information overload
_____ is the process of receivers projecting their interests and
expectations into communications as they decode them.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Selective perception
Noise
Information overload
Feedback
When individuals experience _____, they select out, pass over, or forget
information.
A.
B.
C.
D.
selective perception
information overload
emotion
filtering
The _____ initiates a message by encoding a thought.
A.
B.
C.
D.
channel
sender
receiver
medium
The chief means of conveying messages is _____ communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
nonverbal
interpersonal
oral
written
The _____ communication network is best illustrated by an unstructured
committee.
A.
B.
C.
D.
wheel
all-channel
interpersonal
circle
Electronic communication includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. internet logs.
B. telephone calls.
C. videoconferencing.
_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during
a communication episode.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback
Filtering
Perception
Channel richness
Jake tells his boss only what he believes the boss wants to hear. He is
engaging in _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
filtering
selective perception
jargon
feedback
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Filtering
Channel richness
Selective perception
Language
Tannin’s research indicates that men use talk to ___, while women use it
to _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
emphasize status; create connection
build relationships; get promotions
establish blame; emphasize status
Create networks; emphasize separateness
In _____ cultures, the words themselves are the primary conveyors of
meaning
A.
B.
C.
D.
rich
low-context
symbolic
semantic
In the communication process, decoding should precede encoding.
A. True
B. False
The advantages of oral communication are speed and feedback.
A. True
B. False
The all-channel network rigidly follows the formal chain of command.
A. True
B. False
Organizational boundaries become less relevant as a result of electronic
communications.
A. True
B. False
Selective perception refers to a sender manipulating information so that
it will be seen more favorable by the receiver.
A. True
B. False
Oral apprehensive may find it extremely difficult to talk with others
face-to-face.
A. True
B. False
Men are more direct than women in conversation.
A. True
B. False
Low-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational
cues when communicating with others.
A. True
B. False
Organization culture
When an organization becomes _____, it takes on a life of its own, apart
from its founders or any of its members.
A.
B.
C.
D.
institutionalized
stabilized
cultured
mature
_____ is a shared system of meaning among employees.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organizational systems
Collective sensemaking
Organizational culture
sensitivity
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organization's
culture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Outcome orientation
Assertiveness
Innovation and risk taking
Attention to detail
The term "organizational culture" is considered _____, while "job
satisfaction" is _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
evaluative, objective
subjective, descriptive
descriptive, evaluative
objective, subjective
Which of the following is NOT a function of culture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enhances the stability of the social system
Conveys a sense of identity
Acceptance of diversity
Generation of commitment
Individual-organizational fit refers to _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
an employee's pre-socialization
whether an employee has an appropriate educational background
the technical proficiency of employees
whether the applicant or employee's attitudes and behavior are
compatible with the culture.
_____ is known for its democratic culture.
A.
B.
C.
D.
W. R. Gore
K-mart
BFI
Wal-mart
The process of "on boarding" is a type of ____ at Limited Brands.
A.
B.
C.
D.
training
encounter
socialization
metamorphosis
The _____ stage explicitly recognizes that each individual arrives with a
set of values, attitudes, and expectations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
selection
prearrival
metamorphosis
encounter
Which of the following is NOT associated with organizations with high
ethical standards?
A.
B.
C.
D.
high in risk tolerance
high in innovation
focus on means
high aggressiveness
Employees will view the behavior of _____ as a benchmark for defining
appropriate behavior.
A.
B.
C.
D.
their immediate supervisor
government officials
top management
new employees
A _____ is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee
strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual
vitality and growth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
positive organizational culture
centralized organizational culture
bureaucracy
matrix organization
Institutionalization is the process through which _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
individuals become a part of an organization
an organization takes on a life of its own
an individual is offered a life-time position
an organization employs a critical mass of people
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizational culture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attention to detail
Innovation
Formalization
Team orientation
A strong culture builds all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
cohesiveness
loyalty
quality
organizational commitment
Culture is most likely to be a liability when _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
it increases consistency of behavior
the environment is dynamic
management is incompetent
it reduces ambiguity
Which of the following is NOT a way that culture is created?
A. Founders hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do.
B. Founders indoctrinate and socialize employees to their way of thinking and
feeling.
C. Founders poll early employees to determine the appropriate cultural
values.
D. The founders' own behaviour acts as a role model that encourages employees to
identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs.
All of the following serve to sustain a culture EXCEPT _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
selection
formalization
socialization
top management
_____ is the process that adapts employees to the organization's culture.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Training
Mentoring
Socialization
Communicating
Which of the following is NOT a common form by which culture is
transmitted to employees?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stories
Selection
Rituals
Language
Which of the following is NOT identified that managers can create a
more ethical culture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Visibly reward ethical acts.
Set aggressive performance goals.
Communicate ethical expectations.
Provide protective mechanisms.
The origin of culture as an independent variable affecting an employee's
attitudes and behavior can be traced back more than 50 years to the
notion of _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
bureaucracy
organizational structure
institutionalization
uniformity
_____ refers to the degree to which management decisions take into
consideration the effect of outcomes on employees.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Team orientation
Attention to detail
Outcome orientation
People orientation
_____ is the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes
rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve those
outcomes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Attention to detail
Innovation and risk taking
Outcome orientation
Stability
Bureaucratic organizations tend to maintain the status quo and have
cultures that emphasize _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
stability
mediocrity
outcome orientation
aggressiveness
A _____ culture expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of
the organization's members.
A. weak
B. dominant
C. core
_____ tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems,
situations, or experiences that members face.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Groups
Teams
Weak cultures
Subcultures
Microsoft's culture values _____ and risk taking.
A.
B.
C.
D.
attention to detail
team orientation
people orientation
aggressiveness
In a _____, the organization's core values are both intensely held and
widely shared.
A.
B.
C.
D.
strong culture
transitional culture
weak culture
intense culture
A strong culture can substitute for _____, which also creates
predictability, orderliness, and consistency.
A.
B.
C.
D.
specialization
formalization
centralization
authority
In its role as a _____ mechanism, culture creates distinctions between one
organization and others.
A.
B.
C.
D.
control
stabilization
boundary-defining
identification
When is culture a liability?
A. When the environment is stable
B. When there is little competition
C. When the shared values are not in agreement with those that will further the
organization's effectiveness
D. When employees come to the organization with similar cultural backgrounds
How is culture created?
A. The founders indoctrinate new employees with their values and vision.
B. The founders hire and retain only employees who think and feel the same way that
they do.
C. The founders act as role models of acceptable behaviour and values.
D. All of the above.
At _____, there no bosses, job titles, or chains of command.
A.
B.
C.
D.
IBM
BFI
Delta
W. R. Gore
_____ is a process with three stages: prearrival, encounter, and
metamorphosis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Socialization
Selection
Contrition
Customization
During the _____ stage, the newly hired employee confronts the possible
dichotomy between her expectations and reality.
A.
B.
C.
D.
prearrival
encounter
metamorphosis
customization
Nike employees recount the story of how co-founder Bill Bowerman
went to his workshop and poured rubber into his wife's waffle iron to
create a better running shoe. This story highlights Nike's culture of _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
socialization
innovation
diversity
aggressiveness
Which of the following is NOT likely to shape an ethical culture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
High risk tolerance
High aggressiveness
Focuses on means as well as outcomes
Support for innovation
Ethical ambiguities can be minimized by creating and disseminating
a(n) _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
employee handbook
organizational code of ethics
performance standard
quota system
To create an ethical organizational culture, performance appraisals
should evaluate the ____ as well as the extent to which goals are reached.
A.
B.
C.
D.
importance
economy
environment
means
Which of the following is NOT an example of a formal protective
mechanism?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ethical counsellors
ethical officers
ombudsmen
auditors
A _____ organizational culture emphasizes building on employee
strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes vitality and
growth.
A. positive
B. centralized
C. formalized
When an organization has become institutionalized, its original goals
become viewed as the prime directive.
A. True
B. False
Strong cultures are made up of values that are intensely held and widely
shared.
A. True
B. False
The degree to which management decisions take into consideration the
effect of outcomes on people within the organization is termed outcome
orientation.
A. True
B. False
Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces a
dynamic environment.
A. True
B. False
The founders of an organization generally have little impact on the
organization's culture since they are so far removed from the
employees.
A. True
B. False
Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining culture:
selection practices, promotion policies, and socialization methods.
A. True
B. False
Language can serve to unite members of a given culture as new
employees learn the acronyms and jargon specific to the organization.
A. True
B. False
A strong organizational culture will exert more influence on employees
then a weak one.
A. True
B. False
A positive organizational culture is defined as a culture that emphasizes
building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and
emphasizes individual vitality and growth.
A. True
B. False