LSAT * PrepTest 44 Explained a guide to the october, 2004 exam LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page ii © 2006 Kaplan, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council. LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 1 Section I: Reading Comprehension SECTION I: READING COMPREHENSION Passage 1: Prepaid Legal Plans Where does the author stand? The first passage in PrepTest 44 offers a fine tutorial on the importance of getting that question answered—and a reminder that the answer doesn’t always arrive as soon as we’d like. The Topic is prepaid legal plans and not the CAW plan per se; the CAW plan is just an example of the general trend, as evidenced by the fact that the author stops discussing it before the passage is even halfway over. The Scope is the long-term effects of such plans, although you may not have figured that out right away because paragraph 1 is devoted to the CAW plan, first its details (clients get options, but the plan eases their financial burden either way), then its popularity (widespread and growing). What we need to see is that paragraph 1 is all objective reportage, as is paragraph 2, which notes that “many lawyers are concerned” (lines 20–21) about the plan’s effect (confirming the Scope discussed above). We get the specifics of those concerns (depressed fees seems to be the gist of it), and the rebuttal from proponents of the plan about all of its benefits, but no authorial comment. Until paragraph 3, that is, in which the doleful opening pronouncement (lines 38–40) should instantly have struck you as the passage’s likely Main Idea. The rest of the paragraph supports the author’s pessimism that the plan will attract less experienced, and hence less skillful, attorneys who, moreover, will be forced to spend less time on individual cases because of the fee structure—a recipe for client and attorney dissatisfaction. Your Roadmap should have reflected this structural movement from objectivity to argument: ¶ 1—Details & benefits of prepaid legal plans ¶ 2—Criticism and rebuttal ¶ 3—Author’s POV: plans will hurt clients & attys 1. (E) Global (Main Point) When the author’s main point is highly subjective, expect wrong answer choices to be objective or to take an opposing point of view. From the moment you read lines 38–40, you should expect the answer to a question like #1 to feature a downbeat assessment of prepaid legal plans. Only (E) fits the bill, acknowledging that these plans are now popular but taking a doleful view of their long-term effects. (A) is half right, in its (opening) suggestion that the plans appear to be beneficial, but goes wrong in the particular weakness it cites. Lines 38–40, as well as line 48, confirm that lawyers are not going to benefit, whether at the expense of clients or otherwise; in fact, they will work their butts off but deliver inferior results for less money. (B) is done in by the overly optimistic phrase “probably effective,” and by the failure to reflect the author’s overall downbeat predictions. (C) goes outside the scope in implying that the author is endeavoring to suggest an alternative to the CAW’s plan and others like it; she’s merely countering the rosy predictions of how these plans will work out. (D) “Many lawyers are concerned”—not all or the generality—and “some point out” that fees can drop to unprofitable levels. The evidence in the passage fails to justify the claim in (D) that “lawyers generally” are critical. Indeed, one group of lawyers—the not-yetestablished ones—is probably happy with the plan (lines 42–44). 2. (D) Global (Primary Purpose) By predicting an answer and being sure that you’ve found the one and only choice that matches, you won’t fall for the first purpose that looks good. Again: we need an answer choice that reflects a negative assessment of the effects of these prepaid legal plans. (D) is wordy but precisely fits the bill. (A) not only fails to reflect a negative assessment, but falls outside the scope. The traditional way of paying (i.e., out of one’s own pocket) is never mentioned, much less contrasted with the new plans. (B) The “growing popularity” of the plans is inferable (i.e., it reduces the financial burden of legal work and offers options) but not explicitly “explained.” In any case, the passage shifts to assessment issues as early as line 19. (C) may be tempting, but it merely picks up a detail from lines 24–27, and ignores the fact that the passage brings up several other effects of legal plans beyond the purely financial. The author is most interested in the plans’ effects on the quality of services, something that (C) wholly ignores. (E), like (C) in question 1, wrongly asserts that the author has an interest in reform. She does not, as the passage bears witness. 1 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 2 PrepTest 44 Explained 3. (E) Detail To identify a Detail question—and with it an answer that can be found clearly in the text—look for categorical stem language. “Which...will be a [predicted] consequence?” The categorical nature of the question stem—contrast it with, say, question 5— this as a Detail question, so we won’t have to work hard to find the answer. The author’s view of the plans’ effects comes in paragraph 3, at the very end of which we find (E): lines 55–56, to be specific. (A) is a 180. Lawyers critical of the plans would be “at odds with” any of their potential drawbacks. (B) Keep your eye on the ball. The “rates” and “fees” described in the passage are those paid to the lawyers, not those paid by the plan members. In fact, one could expect that if all of the dire predictions came to pass, plans like the CAW’s would probably have to raise their premiums. (C) If the CAW plan is any indication, lawyers will be able to join the staff (lines 5–6) or use another “cooperating lawyer” and pay the difference (lines 8–12), but nowhere is it suggested that any lawyer will be forced to participate. (D) reflects the optimism of the CAW plan’s directors (lines 27–37, especially beginning at line 32), not the pessimism of the author. Call it a 180 or an FUD, it’s still wrong. 4. (D) Global (Passage Structure) When asked for an abstraction of a passage’s structure, prephrasing is your best defense against getting bogged down among the choices. Our Roadmap has pretty much provided what a question like this one seeks: the passage’s structure in miniature. If you predict that the answer must contain (and in this order) the plan; criticism and rebuttal; and the author’s argument, then the only correct possible answer can be (D). Once we have a prediction in hand, notice how blatantly wrong the other four choices are: (A) Where’s any reference to criticism? We need negativity. And what does it mean by “refinements”? Nothing like that appears. (B) “Past phenomena”? Like what? And author’s “approval”? Are they kidding? (C) A plan in operation since 1985 is hardly a “proposal,” and, again, the author’s purpose is to evaluate, not to recommend. 2 (E) “An occurrence” seems an odd way to sum up a phenomenon that has been evident since at least 1985 and is becoming widespread. The “evaluation” of the prepaid legal plans comes in paragraph 3 and not, as (E) would have it, midway. Finally, it is unclear what they mean by “further data.” 5. (C) Inference Use the Hot Words in a question stem to locate the source of an answer. The Hot Words here are “proponents,” “benefit,” and “lower fees,” all of which direct you not just to lines 27–37, but to the portions therein that speak to the tradeoff enjoyed by plan lawyers who accept lower fees. The gist of it is found in lines 29–33: in exchange, these lawyers get more referrals, based on strong word of mouth (lines 34–36). This is (C) in a nutshell. (A) It’s plausible that novice lawyers would become more skilled once they started working with clients, but any experience might enhance lawyers’ expertise. There’s no evidence that accepting lower fees in a legal services plan would lead to greater skills. (B) There’s an unwarranted comparison here between experience and inexperience. Veteran lawyers are not, we are led to believe, likely to participate in these plans, let alone enjoy higher profits because of them. (D) goes beyond the scope. Nowhere do proponents of the plans suggest that there’s a benefit to participating lawyers in seducing clients away from other law firms. (E) picks up on the idea in lines 24–27 that legal fees in Canadian cities served by the plan have dropped, but “respond to market forces” is meaningless in this context. Respond how? And to what benefit to cooperating attorneys? 6. (A) Detail Expect that the answers to Detail questions will, by and large, be the easiest to locate. The details of the CAW plan come in paragraph 1, and a quick scan of lines 1–12 reveals a variety of benefits. Lines 9–12 make it clear that if a plan member chooses to use a lawyer outside the plan, the plan will pay at least a portion of a nonparticipating lawyer’s fee. That’s the “benefit beyond” to which (A) refers. (B) is outside the scope. Autoworkers’ enthusiasm for the plan is evidenced (lines 13–15) by the number of members enrolled, but there is nothing said about their views regarding quality or anything else. LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 3 Section I: Reading Comprehension (C) is also outside the scope. The passage doesn’t state anything about the nature of the cases handled by plan attorneys. (D) distorts lines 11–12. Members pay more to an outside lawyer if that lawyer’s fees exceed the plan’s coverage, but that has nothing to do with the cost of membership, which is the same regardless of which lawyer a plan member uses. (E) Lines 1–4 don’t specifically rule out participation in the CAW plan by those other than autoworkers and their families, but they don’t mandate it either. 7. (A) Logic (Purpose of a Detail) The purpose of a detail is always determined by its context—what’s around it, and the paragraph in which it appears. The phrase in question appears in the context of a sentence immediately following lines 38–40. As we’ve said, those lines, and the rest of paragraph 3, are designed to convey the author’s pessimistic view of prepaid legal plans’ effects. The author views novice lawyers as less experienced than veterans, and hence less likely to perform satisfactorily, so a “marketing device” for such rookies is not going to meet with the author’s approval. (A) has it right. (B) goes wrong in two ways. By line 43, the author is no longer discussing what plan administrators believe, but is into her own counterargument. Moreover, as the author describes them, these “marketing devices” may serve to get more work for rookie attorneys but are going to disappoint clients. That tradeoff may or may not translate into a “material contribution to the profession.” (C) Classic 180. At best, the benefit of getting novice lawyers some practical experience is offset by the compromised service they’ll provide; that hardly counts as an “unequivocal” benefit. (D) As with (B), this choice implies that by paragraph 3 the author is still reporting on the views of others, when we know that her own views have taken center stage by that point. (E) implies that novice lawyers are identified in the passage as supporters of prepaid plans; the passage says nothing like this. Also, a device for such rookies’ marketing would be a boon to them, not a burden. 3 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 4 PrepTest 44 Explained Passage 2: Asian Settlers of the Pacific Coast Did you shudder to see—and in the very first line, no less—the unfamiliar word “historiography”? Never fear LSAT vocabulary. Either the term won’t be one you need to understand, or the author will obligingly define it, as she does here: it’s studying history through primary sources. Speaking of which, we learn in paragraph 1 that those studying Pacific Coast settlement have traditionally leaned on the primary source material of European explorers’ written records. In LSAT passages, beware of what’s “traditionally” been done! For us, the turning point comes in lines 15–17: “What ‘expanded definition of a source’?” we should ask. It turns out that historians have ignored the views of Asian settlers, who didn’t document their settlement experiences the way Europeans did. But the actions of Asian settlers, suggest lines 29–32, can be meaningful, too—their actions are the “expanded definition” of what a source is. Ya gotta love “As a case in point”: talk about a blatant structural signal! Before we even read past line 35, we already know that the author must believe that the Chinese farmers’ actions offer useful primary source material regarding the settlement of the Pacific Coast; otherwise, why would she follow lines 29–32 with 33–35? The rest of paragraph 3 contrasts European and Chinese reactions to the land—where the former saw swamp and nuisance, the latter saw fertility and opportunity—lending credence to the idea that omitting the latter reactions, written down or not, would certainly make for an incomplete portrait. paragraph 4 carries this idea a step or two further: we really cannot understand this region’s settlement without factoring in the Chinese farmers’ special skills (more actions, get it?) that directly led to the region’s continuing agricultural success. Left unsaid but understood is the fact that relying on written sources alone would leave historians bereft of all of this valuable first-person input. A possible Roadmap: ¶ 1—Trad: use Eur. views of settlement ¶ 2—Asians didn’t write, but actions are ev. ¶ 3—Chinese saw land as fertile ¶ 4—Chinese farming skills 4 8. (C) Global Go for the Global questions early on; your prephrasing will be freshest right after you’ve digested a passage. The gist of this passage is that one needs to factor in more than Europeans’ records to understand the settlement of the Pacific Coast. That simple statement has to lead you to (C); “nontraditional...evidence” refers, of course, to the unwritten but significant views and actions of the Asians who settled there. (A) Distortion. It’s not that the Asian settlers’ actions confirm that which was understood, but that they complete what otherwise would be a faulty portrait. (B) Another distor tion: Asians left no record (lines 21–27) to view as “irrelevant.” (D) Extreme. Nowhere is it suggested that historiography’s “methodological foundations” are being debated. All the author says is that historiographers are now accepting the value of unwritten evidence. (E) Yet another distor tion: the issue is not “inaccuracy,” but incompleteness. Lines 54–60 confirm that going beyond written records is necessary if history is to be “fully understood.” 9. (C) Logic (Purpose of a Detail) Use the passage’s Keywords diligently. Your prediction as to why the author devotes paragraph 3 to Chinese settlers need be no more precise than “to act as a case in point”! That’s enough to make (C) beckon. The Chinese settlers’ actions are “integral,” hence “unique”; and paragraph 3 specifically focuses on their view of the land, as (C) says. (A) “Settlement patterns” are outside the Scope of the passage (if not outside the interest of historiographers). And nothing about the Chinese settlers’ actions is presented as “typical”; in fact, in paragraph 3, their views are sharply contrasted with those of Europeans. (B) Distortion and FUD combined. Since the Asian settlers never wrote much at all, there was nothing to “sur vive.” In any case, their writing habits are discussed in paragraph 2, not paragraph 3. (D) The “contention” in paragraph 3 is between the Chinese and European perspectives on the settlement land. Nowhere is any kind of historiographers’ debate going on. (E) It’s not that the Asian evidence either confirms or contradicts that which was known from studying LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 5 Section I: Reading Comprehension European writings; it’s that the record isn’t complete without it. That Europeans viewed the land as hopeless while the Chinese farmers saw potential is not an “inconsistency of history” but a difference of opinion. 10. (E) Detail Whenever you can, predict an answer prior to looking at the choices. “Primary traditional...sources” (there’s “traditional” again!) sends us to paragraph 1, specifically lines 8–14, which allows us to predict as an answer “the writings of European explorers.” What could be more straightforward than (E)? (A) The only reference to time frame is in lines 22–25, where we hear that the European and Asian settlers arrived “during this same period,” although the former wrote things down and the latter didn’t. (B) Native Americans—whether sources of written evidence or not—are never mentioned in the passage. (C) 180. The European settlers saw the land as “useless, untillable swamp.” (D) Another 180. The traditional primary sources considered the Pacific Coast a “generally arid region.” 11. (E) Inference Don’t read question stems sloppily! Here, “disagree” isn’t capitalized, so if you miss that word you can be in big trouble. Since the right answer contradicts the text, we can expect the four wrong choices to complement it, if not downright reflect it. Let’s look boldly at each choice. (A) The passage’s exclusive focus on Asian settlers’ evidence doesn’t imply that other groups’ evidence should be ignored. Quite the contrary. The author’s demand that all sorts of sources be considered speaks to greater openness, which is exactly the spirit of (A). (B) Because “some historiographers” (lines 15–17 and 29–32) see the value in perusing actions and not just written sources, the door is open for some in the profession to disagree, so (B) is quite consistent with the author’s views. (C) This choice properly recognizes the author’s core belief: that no one group’s experiences—not the European settlers, not the Asian settlers—can be seen as telling the entire story. (D) This one reflects the passage text more directly than any of the others; it’s a virtual paraphrase of lines 27–32. (E) The last choice standing, (E) must be the loser— that is to say, the winner—because the other four are quite consonant with the text. Indeed, the author is committed to examining a wide variety of sources, and not just in this one case, so (E)’s proposed exception in the case of an absence of non-European immigrants is just silly. The author would never sign on to (E)’s exclusion of evidence. 12. (D) Detail (All EXCEPT) For “all EXCEPT” Detail questions, after skimming the relevant text, toss out the more obvious choices first and then work your way down to the tougher calls, if any. A quick skim of paragraphs 2 and 3—the portions of the passage in which Chinese settlers’ reactions to the land are described—should knock out (B) and (C) in a hear tbeat: the Chinese view of the land as agriculturally promising was certainly “new” compared with the other settlers’ view (B), and the phrase “specialized agricultural skills” (C) jumps out at us. Meanwhile, the Chinese settlers’ interest in using nuisance weeds in a new and productive way (lines 43–47) speaks to (A), while lines 51–52 directly support (E). That leaves (D), and while the Chinese settlers may well have been smart businesspeople, the word “agribusiness” is used to describe only the activities of the modern era (line 54) and thus is not directly associated with “settlers’ initial interactions.” 13. (B) Inference The four wrong choices in an Inference question will either contradict the text or fall outside its scope in some way. (A) The reason any settlers—Chinese or otherwise— came to the Pacific Coast is never mentioned. (B) Not much of an inference, as lines 50–52 practically state (B) verbatim: if they came to this continent bringing with them “specialized...swamp reclamation skills,” the settlers must have learned them back home. (B) is the winner. For the record: (C) 180. European settlers saw wild mustard as a nuisance. (D) goes too far in the other direction. That one needs to include the unwritten evidence of Asian settlers doesn’t mean that any other groups’ unwritten evidence should be ignored. Indeed, the European Americans must have done things as well as written things, and the author’s ecumenical spirit suggests that their actions should also be considered. 5 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 6 PrepTest 44 Explained (E) is contradicted by the text. By and large, the Asian settlers simply did not write down their reactions; there was nothing to neglect or lose. 14. (B) Logic (Strengthen the Argument) To strengthen a claim, be sure to zero in on the specific terms of that claim. The claim that we are to strengthen is a lengthy and dense sentence (lines 54–60) that boils down to: The input of Chinese settlers is a necessary condition for understanding today’s irrigation boom and specialty crops. So we need a choice that speaks to that necessity in terms of either or both of those agricultural phenomena, and correct choice (B) addresses the latter. If evidence from the 1800s suggests that it was Chinese settlers and their descendants who turned swampland into specialty-crop land, we’d want to know how they did it, and not factoring them in would, as lines 54–60 suggest, paint an incomplete picture. (A) A fast-growing market today, by itself or in comparison with other crops, is far removed from the earliest Chinese settlers. (C) confirms exactly what the Chinese settlers suspected when they arrived in the 1800s, but does not dictate that we need the settlers’ input to understand the agricultural boom today. (D) fails to mention Chinese settlers and thus cannot support the claim in question. (E) has the same problem as the previous two choices: it totally sidesteps the role of the Chinese settlers and thus cannot be what the question is asking for. 6 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 7 Section I: Reading Comprehension Passage 3: NGF A tougher-than-normal Natural Science passage—for those who are science-phobic, that is; those comfortable with science probably had little trouble— this passage reveals itself as almost wholly objective in nature. The Purpose is to straightfor wardly and factually describe NGF (the Topic), specifically how Rita Levi-Montalcini discovered it and what it does (the twofold Scope). Paragraph 1 defines nerve cells and their regulators; paragraph 2 describes the process by which Levi-Montalcini came to find NGF; and paragraph 3 describes its ubiquity in the body (lines 40–50) and its dual purpose (lines 50–59). And there’s your Roadmap, perhaps with brackets to break up paragraph 3: ¶ 1—Definitions ¶ 2—How L-M discovered NGF ¶ 3—Results: presence (lines 40–50); purposes (lines 50–59) So we’ve read and understood that much. Is that enough comprehension to get us into the questions? It certainly is. After all, this passage is so dense that we’re going to have to return to it for the trickier, denser questions anyway. Why not get the gist up front, pick up a few points, and then go back to read more deeply as needed? Returning to paragraph 2, we’d want to highlight its key structural elements, circling such phrases as “to confirm this theor y” (lines 14–15), “A fur ther phase” (line 20), “To investigate this hypothesis” (line 28), and “Further research” (line 35). Noting these milestones, or signposts, will make it easier for us to fill in the gaps between them. In paragraph 3, there are a few key ideas to take note of: that NSG is all over the place (lines 40–45); that nerve cells get it from the cells around them (lines 45–50); and that NSG first ushers the developing nerves to the right cells (lines 51–54) and then keeps the nerve cells alive in a way that the author stops short of describing. Again, we’ll read more deeply later, but only as the questions demand. 15. (B) Global When answer choices are lengthy, remember that much of what’s there may be correct. But the correct answer will be right in its entirety. Therefore, be bold in quickly identifying ways in which four of the choices go wrong, and remember: if there’s nothing wrong with a choice, it must be the right answer. The point is that, in a lengthy wrong choice, some of its prose will reflect the passage accurately, so you need to bore through the verbiage to find the categorical ways in which four of the choices go astray. Otherwise, you’ll get bogged down in things that sound good even if you’ve already armed yourself with a prediction. Take (A), for instance. Levi-Montalcini did make a discovery, and it was a big deal, and it did involve research begun in the 1940s. All of that is right. But the passage doesn’t say that Levi-Montalcini discovered “neurotrophic factors,” only that she discovered the first of them, NGF. Moreover, as (A) is worded, her work is most noteworthy for what it taught us about chick embryos. Say what? Levi-Montalcini used chick embryos in her research, but her Nobelwinning findings clearly have impact on many animals beyond baby chicks—most notably, humans. Get the idea? By zeroing in on one or more categorical ways in which a lengthy choice goes wrong, you can quickly eliminate tricky but ultimately incorrect answers. (B) The main clause is, “The discovery...was pivotal.” Quite right; that reflects the one subjective statement in the entire passage, made in lines 5–10. Does the rest of (B) accurately reflect the passage? Yes, the appositive (the modifying phrase between commas) deftly sums up the “two roles” discussed in lines 51–59. And is there a sin of omission? No, everything important is summed up here. But perhaps you’ll want to confirm that the remaining choices are bad before making your final selection. (C) emphasizes NGF’s role in keeping nerve cells alive (overlooking those cells’ development), makes “tissue culture” (which was only introduced in line 29) central to Levi-Montalcini’s work, and ascribes the devising of tissue culture to her. All of that is bogus. (D) How NGF is produced is never described in the passage (it’s all about how Levi-Montalcini found it, and what it does). Moreover, to say that NGF “is necessary for the health and proper functioning of ner vous systems” goes much fur ther than lines 54–55. And since the star of the passage is LeviMontalcini, it seems odd to diminish her work as only “partly” responsible. 7 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 8 PrepTest 44 Explained (E) gives short shrift to Levi-Montalcini’s discovery process and its importance and hence to the first twothirds of the passage. Meanwhile, its main clause focuses only on lines 51–59, and distorts them to boot (the final “except” clause is tossed in and turns the choice into gibberish). We’re left with our initial impression that (B) is the one and only nonflawed answer. 16. (A) Inference If an answer depends on more than one part of the passage, be thorough and check each part. The noteworthiness of the NGF discovery is mentioned in paragraph 1, but comes back again in paragraph 3, and we ought to review both. Neurotrophic factors like NGF certainly sound important as far as paragraph 1 goes, and their importance is reinforced later by references to: NGF’s being “the first of many” (line 40); “subsequent research” (line 42) that has found NGF throughout the body; and the chemical’s two roles (lines 51–59). All of that is summed up in (A). As the first discovered neurotrophic factor, NGF did “pave the way,” and there’s little doubt as to the “specificity” of the knowledge sketched out in paragraph 3. (B) There’s no sense that finding NGF was “unanticipated.” Indeed, much of Levi-Montalcini’s work seems to have confirmed hypotheses she already held. (C) The normal programming of immature cells to die should have struck you as a rather marginal affair, hardly meriting the term “noteworthy,” especially since the issue never comes up in paragraph 3. (C) just echoes Levi-Montalcini’s initial hypothesis (lines 11–14), which was not the endpoint of her research but the beginning: figuring that the cells were programmed to die, she asked the question “Why?,” a quest that led her ultimately to NGF. (D) This choice does not match up at all with the two roles played by NGF, at least on the strength of lines 51–59. This vague statement is unsupported by the passage. (E) This choice blows up the importance of mouse tumors (NGF, remember, is found in many animals), and “can be used to stimulate” wrongly implies that NGF is some sort of applied substance, rather than one occurring naturally in animals’ bodies. 8 17. (C) Logic (Purpose of a Paragraph) Rely on your Roadmap when asked for a paragraph’s purpose, or its relationship to something else. Because paragraph 2, as our Roadmap reminds us, lays out a step-by-step process the net results of which are outlined one paragraph later, the right answer ought to at least reflect the idea of process—which makes (C) pretty much a certainty. Each of the wrong choices introduces at least one major distortion: (A) No sense is given that anything in particular needs greater “verification.” (B) Nothing in paragraph 3, or anywhere else, “undermines” Levi-Montalcini’s work. (D) At best, “analogous substances” relates to the brief reference to “other factors” in line 40. At worst, it’s irrelevant. This passage is all about NGF. (E) No “supplanting” of previous work is ever alluded to. 18. (E) Inference When the question stem offers you no help and the choices look daunting, consider skipping the question and moving on. This one is tough: No assistance is offered in the stem, and the choices offer a lot of detail that’s going to require you to work slowly and painfully through paragraph 2. Most students would do well to write this one off, especially given how much easier the next question is. For those who did try this, there’s no alternative but to assess each of the choices. (A) combines lines 15–20 and line 59 into one big fat distortion. The self-adjustment process mentioned in the former has no connection to the antibodies mentioned in the latter. (B) makes an unwarranted comparison between two types of nerve cells, and the phrase “qualitatively identical” offers a level of precision not justified by anything in the text. (C) 180: the sense offered in paragraph 3 is that NGF directs necessary cells to the place where they’re needed. (D) hints at a “conversion” or transformation that has no basis in the text. Besides, (D) implies that NGF and neurotrophic factor are different things, whereas the first is actually an example of the second. (E) The only one left must be inferable, and it is. According to lines 45–50, nerve cells can receive NGF LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 9 Section I: Reading Comprehension from “suppor ting cells” to which they are not “connected.” But that was a lot of work (and time) for one point, wasn’t it? And take a look at the next question… 19. (A) Detail Quite often, a very tough question precedes a much easier one. Don’t let the former deprive you of the latter. A couple of Levi-Montalcini’s hypotheses are mentioned here and there. But if you circled the phrase “To investigate that hypothesis” (line 28) and saw that an experiment is described immediately afterward, you probably had little difficulty settling on (A), which describes the hypothesis in lines 26–28 that the subsequent experiment (lines 29–35) was designed to test. (B) mentions a finding of Levi-Montalcini’s (lines 15–18), not a hypothesis for which an experiment was designed. (C) Lines 1–5 and lines 40–41 hint at other neurotrophic factors, but the passage falls far short of describing them, let alone presenting an experiment designed to confirm their existence. (D) No reference to differing levels of NGF is made anywhere in the passage. (E), like (B), offers a research finding (this one, a discovery not necessarily made by Levi-Montalcini, is mentioned in lines 45–49), but no experiment backing it up is described. (C) There’s no justification for attributing the other neurotrophic factors’ discovery to Levi-Montalcini. As far as we know from the passage, Levi-Montalcini worked on NGF and nothing else. (D) Here’s the one and only verifiable fact about other neurotrophic factors. Lines 1–6 confirm that there are more of them than just NGF, and the first two lines strongly suggest that they have other “specialized functions” that the passage never describes. (D) is correct. (E) is almost functionally identical to (A), and is every bit as wrong. As far as we know, Levi-Montalcini’s chick embryo work involved NGF and nothing else. 20. (D) Inference Make sure that an inference doesn’t just “sound right” but is supported by specific passage text. All five choices allude to the neurotrophic factors other than NGF—neurotrophic factors that are mentioned briefly early on, and again later, but that play no important role in the overall text. Let’s take them in order: (A) Neurotrophic factors other than NGF never come up in the discussion of Levi-Montalcini’s work with chick embryos. (B) A statement that’s far from inferable. Yes, neurotrophic factors other than NGF are known, but who’s to say that they’re better comprehended? Besides, if longevity is relevant here, then logic suggests that NGF—discovered first—would be known best of all. 9 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 10 PrepTest 44 Explained Passage 4: The Modern Movement in Architecture In sharp contrast to Passage Three, which took no real stand on anything, Passage Four has a definite point of view on the Topic of Modernist architecture, and it is reiterated in lines 6–9, 10–12, 31–36, and 60–63. Each of these snippets separately—and certainly all of them taken together—should hit you between the eyes with one broad idea, namely, This author has little use for the Modern Movement. A strong authorial point of view usually means a manageable passage with a set of manageable questions. Let’s see whether it did here. We begin with an irony: the Movement was supposed to reflect the “functional spirit” and practical building realities of a new century, but ended up running counter to those very realities and ultimately, the Movement fell into decline. (The passage’s Scope— the movement’s decline—is first mentioned in line 12 and repeatedly thereafter). Your job as a critical reader, of course, is to keep this irony in mind and look for the evidence that will support it. The first of two lengthy paragraphs describes the origins and heyday of Modernism. The public never cared for it (lines 13–15), a fact the Modernists seem to have worn as a badge of honor (lines 15–19). These high-minded aesthetes, trying to “educate” an unimpressed public, dominated the mainstream and the critical world in the ‘40s and ‘50s, so much so that architects who were trying other things (Wagner and Wright, lines 25–30) were nevertheless pigeonholed as Modernists. The real evidence for paragraph 1 comes in the lengthy paragraph 3, where the gist is that the Modernists’ desire to expose buildings’ structural material flew in the face of the realities of the building trade: with so many different contractors involved, it was evidently prohibitively costly to carry out that exposure concept in reality. We get a strong sense that these snobby aesthetes were doomed because they had their heads in the sky (and their noses in the air). Paragraph 4 is kind of a throwaway. One possible Roadmap: ¶ 1—Irony: “practical” movement was impractical ¶ 2—Origin & domination ¶ 3—Decline: impractical and too artistic ¶ 4—Final nail in coffin 10 21. (A) Global (Main Idea) However strong or weak an authorial point of view, the answer to a Global question must reflect it. The only choice that reflects the author’s downbeat view of the Modernists, and that accurately relates the two reasons for the movement’s decline, is (A). (B) may or may not be true—the Modernists’ approach to design sounds more wrongheaded and irrational than rational—but this choice ignores the author’s POV and the whole Scope: the decline of Modernism. Its “development” occupies a brief portion of paragraph 2, nothing more. (C) posits a causal connection between Modernism and building methods, rather than the disjunction presented in lines 6–9 and explained thereafter. (D), like (C), is a 180, seeking to find a commonality where the author takes pains to show disjunction. The theory behind Modernism was actually out of whack with how buildings are built. (E) Specific reasons for Modernists’ rejection of the past aren’t provided. We sense that they were looking for a new architecture that would be appropriate for a new age, but that’s about it. 22. (A) Logic (Parallel Reasoning) The elements must match up in an Analogy or Parallel Reasoning question. The precise comparison we are to mimic is described in lines 40–44: individual craftspeople in the old days, a group of separately working craftspeople thereafter. (A)’s single garment maker vs. assembly line matches superbly, and its reference to “less precise tailoring” nicely echoes the reference in lines 46–47 to “allowable degree of inaccuracy.” (B) The issue of beauty might be roughly analogous, and “handwoven vs. machine made” smacks of old fashioned vs. modern, but (B) would only work if the author were comparing a building made by one person with one made wholly by machinery. (C) involves the same faulty “by hand vs. by machine” analogy as (B), and brings in the foreign issue of utility. (D) is one more “hand vs. machine” comparison, and its focus on the relative effectiveness of the two methods has no parallel with the building example. (E) “Fashionableness” has a doubtful connection to the building example, and since (E) doesn’t explicitly mention the circumstances of factory craftsmanship, we can’t match it precisely to lines 40–44. For all we LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 11 Section I: Reading Comprehension know, (E) is talking about machine craftsmanship like the other three wrong choices are. 25. (D) Author’s Attitude Context, context, context. 23. (C) Author’s Attitude In questions about the author’s attitude, start by deciding whether the author is broadly positive or negative, and then go from there. We already know that the author has little use for Modernism or its proponents, so (A) and (B) are too positive, and (E) is too neutral. Meanwhile, (D) goes too far: this is a movement that crashed and burned half a century ago; why would the author engage in the hot emotion of “exasperation”? (C) conveys the author’s tone best. He has heard the proponents’ arguments but will have none of them. 24. (E) Inference Unlike Inference questions in Logical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension Inference questions often give you a clue as to the location of the answer and are thus more amenable to prephrasing. The author’s chief gripe with the Modernists is that their ideal of exposing building elements wasn’t in sync with building methods—lines 6–9 again. A prediction in that vein is going to lead you to (E): the Modernists’ “concerns were chiefly aesthetic” (lines 35–36); they sure weren’t practical. (A) seems to be a veiled reference to those iconoclastic innovators Wagner and Wright, but they are never explicitly referred to as “repudiators”; in fact, they demonstrated enough allegiance to Modernism to remain linked to the movement. (B) combines two true facts (the Modernists’ ideal was rarely achieved and the public disliked it) into a false statement—a neat trick. The ideal was rarely achieved because it cost too much, if it could be built at all (lines 53–55). (C) You kidding? What builder would balk at taking on a “prohibitively expensive” job? The problem was getting someone to pay for it. (D) Wagner and Wright didn’t repudiate Modernism, but neither are they identified as its originators. They seem to be the naughty stepchildren of the movement, actually: close enough to be family, but wayward enough to be set apart. Several of the choices sound as if they might reflect a certain amount of disdain, but as the question stem helpfully suggests, we need to look at each in context. Remember, it’s the author’s attitude we’re seeking here. (A) The determination that the twentieth century would have a “functional spirit” was made by the Modernists and is reported by the author—no slam intended here. (B) Around line 24, the author is, again, reporting rather than commenting. He surely doesn’t approve of critics’ routinely dismissing all non-Modernist architecture, but critics’ “tending” to do so is not, in itself, an expression of his viewpoint. (C) If anything, calling Wagner and Wright “innovators” is a badge of approval. (D) There ya go. That Modernists “conveniently ignored” certain troublesome aspects of Wagner’s and Wright’s work is a swipe at self-serving aesthetes. (D) is what we want. (E) Because so many subcontractors were working independently, it stands to reason that each one’s products wouldn’t necessarily fit together seamlessly. The resulting “degree of inaccuracy” is thus an expression of common sense and not of author disdain—for builders, or for anyone else. 26. (B) Logic (Purpose of a Detail) The purpose of a detail always relates to a larger purpose—of a paragraph, or an entire passage. Starting with line 19, paragraph 2 is devoted to describing the domination of Modernism in the world of architecture. Part of that domination is the fact that the movement could claim great and innovative architects as their own, simply by ignoring idiosyncrasies in the innovators’ work. This is what (B) is getting at. (A) No reference to the public is made anywhere near Wagner and Wright. (C) “Popularize the Movement”? It was “never very popular” (line 14). (D) Wright’s and Wagner’s relationships with their clients are never mentioned. (E) The author distinguishes, implicitly, between both Wagner’s & Wright’s Modernist and non-Modernist tendencies, but we have no idea whether they fall into an early-vs.-late contrast as well. 11 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 12 PrepTest 44 Explained 27. (A) Global (Primary Concern) Don’t just answer based on a hunch; look for evidence in the passage. We’ve been down this road several times already: the author wants to describe the rise, but mostly the fall, of an impractical and overly aesthetic school of architecture. (A) captures that in a nutshell. We spotted this in lines 6–9, 10–12, 31–36, and 60–63. (B) Modernism’s future, if any (the passage is based in the 1940s and 1950s, for Pete’s sake), goes unmentioned here. (C) Many LSAT passages tr y to correct misconceptions. This is not one of them. (D) “Anticipating”? Any future-tense choice is going to be inappropriate for a past-tense passage. (E) The only incompatibility described in the passage is the Modernists’ ideal and the builders’ reality. And those aren’t “viewpoints about a movement”; they are differing goals in terms of the construction of actual buildings. 12 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 13 Section II: Logical Reasoning SECTION II: LOGICAL REASONING 1. (B) Flaw A common source of logical error is the author’s misuse of scope. Because gravity wholly induces the tides, the author argues, it must wholly determine the magnitude of the tides. Those are two different issues, as (B) implies. Other factors, marginally related or even unrelated to gravitational force, may very well determine the size of a tidal range (weather, for instance, or undersea earthquakes). (A) It’s true that there’s only one example, but the author doesn’t need more of them. In fact, he doesn’t need any. What he does need is a stronger connection between gravity and tidal magnitude. (C) Irrespective of how each tide is measured, it’s the difference between these measurements that interests us, so methodological differences are beside the point. (D) “Activity within the world’s oceans” goes far beyond the scope. The author’s conclusion is solely concerned with tidal ranges. (E) is a classic unwarranted comparison. The gravity of the sun and of the moon are treated equally here, with no suggestion that they can, or should, be considered independently. 2. (E) Inference Most Logical Reasonsing Inference questions don’t lend themselves to prediction. At times, however, something may come to you. Upon reading the author’s first two statements— sometimes bypass surgery is performed, though other, less risky options are available—you might have predicted a possible inference as, “Sometimes a risky bypass procedure could be replaced by a safer one,” or words to that effect. If so, you would have easily fixed on (E), which sums that up. (A) contradicts the second sentence: the “other therapies pose less risk.” (B) We cannot make an inference comparing today’s procedures with yesterday’s, because no evidence about the latter is provided. (C) distorts the third sentence. Though a single-artery bypass is evidently riskiest, multiple-artery disease may hold almost as much risk, and less risky alternatives to bypass may still exist in that instance. (D) The only reference to cost is that alternatives to bypass are “relatively inexpensive.” Even if that phrase can be understood to mean “relative to bypass,” it still doesn’t mean that the expensiveness of bypass is increased when only one vessel is diseased. No such connection is made or implied. 3. (C) Paradox Mentally reframe the Paradox in your own words, and then try to predict what will reconcile the facts. The issue is mixed classrooms, i.e., classrooms with children of all ages in them. How can it be that the idea was disastrous in the past, but is enjoying success now? Prediction: Something different is happening today; something different is contributing to the success of these mixed classrooms. (C) offers exactly that. A new approach to mixed-classroom learning that is likely to keep all ages of children engaged would explain today’s success in the face of yesterday’s failure. (A) offers something different, but how would greater numbers alone contribute to kids’ success? If anything, wouldn’t larger classes lead to more inattentive students? (B) says that the difference is poorer equipment today but, if anything, that should make learning harder, not easier. (D) The difference here is the sheer range of ages, but if you pick some possible numbers, you’ll realize that nothing in the passage suggests that a mix of kids from, say, 5 to 18 would be more likely to be engaged than a mix of kids from, say, 9 to 14. In fact, the former is much more of a “mixed classroom” than the latter, and probably would exacerbate rather than ease the problems. (E) Nothing about the background of the teachers is ever mentioned in the stimulus; a mixed-classroom teacher might have more or less success, or the same amount, regardless of whether she ever sat in such a class years ago. 4. (C) Weaken the Argument To weaken a cause-and-effect, try identifying an alternative cause for the same effect. The conclusion, signaled by “Thus,” is that the arrival of humans was a disaster for Tiliga’s birds. Why? Because the top layer of soil (coincident with the humans) shows lots of bird bones, while the bottom 13 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:05 PM Page 14 PrepTest 44 Explained layers (from the earlier, prehuman time) show evidence of more bird diversity. We need to shove a wedge between the arrival of humans and the change in the birds’ fate, and that’s what (C) does. While (C) doesn’t preclude the possibility of humans having wrought havoc on Tiliga’s birds, this airborne microbe in and of itself might have caused all of the damage that the author ascribes to human intervention. Positing a possible, and totally different, cause for the same effect is the best way to weaken a causation argument. (A) 180. Since natural predators could be part of an alternative explanation and (A) rules their influence out, the net effect is to strengthen, rather than weaken, the alleged causality. (B) If those other islands are simliar to Tiliga, then their bird experience might be relevant. But (B) doesn’t discuss the effect of human habitation on those islands’ birds—if indeed humans ever did settle those islands—and so it can’t shove any kind of wedge between those islands’ humans and their birds in a way that will shed any light on Tiliga’s situation. (D) It wouldn’t be surprising to find, in the lower soil layers, bones from birds eaten by humans. There were more species of birds before humans arrived, and the larger number of species could certainly include [the] native species later consumed by humans. So the mere appearance of bones in the lower levels is irrelevant here. The conclusion is founded on the discrepancy between the bones on top and the species diversity below, and (D) doesn’t address that whatsoever. (E) Flying ability is irrelevant to the effect of humans on Tiliga’s bird diversity, though it doubtless made the birds easier to nab. 5. (A) Assumption A cause-and-effect argument assumes, almost by definition, that no other cause is present or relevant. Why does the author feel that musical training causes changes in brain anatomy? Because one part of the brain is bigger in musicians than nonmusicians. Such a cause-and-effect argument requires that this difference not be natural or induced in some other way, so the author is counting on (A) to be true. If (A) were false, then the corpus callosum is already larger before musical training even begins. And who knows? Maybe the larger corpus callosum causes the inclination toward musicality, rather than vice versa! By ruling out an alternative cause, (A) is an assumption necessary to the logic of this argument. 14 (B) Even if true, this raises the question of what effect early musical training has on brain anatomy, and that is the scope of this inquiry. (C) The relevant comparison is between the brains of musicians and those of nonmusicians. No comparison between the brains of any two members of either group affects the author’s reasoning. (D) The author is speaking in terms of average sizes, so she isn’t counting on (D) to be true. Thus her logic is not impaired if (D) is false and the occasional nonmusician comes along boasting a musician-sized corpus callosum. (E) appears to present an alternative explanation for the discrepancy. But (E) has it exactly wrong: the assumption here would be that nonmusicians engaged in no activity that would retard growth, not stimulate it (since the nonmusician corpus callosum is smaller rather than larger). 6. (B) Point at Issue Follow Kaplan’s Decision Tree to determine the issue on which the speakers take opposing positions. (A) Does Chai take a position on whether scientists’ use of ordinary terms is advisable? No. For one thing, his term (and Dodd’s) is “acceptable,” not “advisable.” Even more importantly, Chai’s beef is with the use of what he sees as a potentially misleading common word like “tree,” and not necessarily with the use of any common word. Since Chai doesn’t take a solid position on (A), it can’t be the point at issue. (B) Does Chai opine on the scientific acceptability of using one word to describe forms of different lineages? Sure he does; he says that doing so will not serve science well. Does Dodd take a position? Yep, and it’s diametrically opposed to Chai’s—to Dodd, it can be acceptable to call both forms “tree” because they have so much else in common. Speaking of trees, our Decision (not deciduous) Tree has led us to correct choice (B). For the record: (C) reflects Chai’s belief (as reported in lines 1–2 of his speech), but it’s a belief that Dodd implicitly shares, or at least fails to contest. (D) “Current scientific theories” is not a term that either speaker admits to his discussion, so we cannot be sure how Chai or Dodd would fall out on this. (E) Chai believes that these two particular forms do have different lineages, and (as noted regarding (C), above) Dodd agrees, or at least he doesn’t disagree. LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 15 Section II: Logical Reasoning 7. (D) Strengthen the Argument Boil down a lengthy argument to simple terms. In contrast to the familiar and lively context—i.e., teenagers listening to music through headphones—the stimulus is long and dull. It boils down to the author’s contention that because teens pick their own headphones, the proposal to sell headphones that turn off when the volume gets dangerously high won’t reduce their hearing loss. In her evident belief that teens won’t be drawn to that particular model, the author must feel that they will opt for a higher-decibel alternative over one that moderates volume, and that’s what makes (D) correct. If (D) is true, then it’s more likely that teens will eschew the proposed model of headphones in favor of those that will rock them the loudest. (A) speaks to an implied comparison between hearing music through ‘headphones versus some other means, but that’s irrelevant to whether creating these new shutoff headphones will protect teens’ hearing. (B) Another irrelevant comparison. The argument isn’t about using headphones versus some other means of listening; it’s about selling a particular model of headphones that can shut itself off. (C) Yet another irrelevant comparison. Whether parents listen to loud music—and, hence, endanger their own hearing—has nothing to do with teens’ habits. (E) reports a fact about product lines that has nothing at all to do with the marketplace. So some auto-shutoff headphones are already coming to market—big deal. Whether any teens buy them is the question. 8. (E) Weaken the Argument (All EXCEPT) When four of the choices weaken an argument, the “odd man out” will either strengthen it or have no effect on it at all. The author makes a pretty big scope shift here, from the effect of natural pesticides in the evidence to that of synthetic ones in the conclusion. Yes, plants have ways of fighting a parasite, and they contain about 40 natural pesticides, and humans eat them every day. But the lack of any evidence for the dangers of synthetic pesticides—the ver y topic of the conclusion—suggests that this logic is faulty indeed. The weakeners will all set up some sort of wall between these two types of pesticides. (A) explains our ability to safely ingest the natural pesticides (we’ve adapted to them), leaving wide open the question of what happens when one ingests the synthetic ones (to which we haven’t spent millennia adapting). (B) shoves an even stronger wedge than (A) does between the harmless natural pesticides and the possibly deadly synthetic ones. If true, (B) makes it much less likely that our ability to eat the natural pesticides means that we are home free eating the man-made ones. (C) not only confirms the relative benignity of the natural pesticides, but explicitly cites the synthetic ones as highly toxic. Again, the evidence is shown to be of a different order of risk than the conclusion. (D), like (C), speaks to both the relatively neutral effect of natural pesticides and the potentially awful effect of the synthetic ones. (E) is the only answer choice left and actually serves to strengthen the logic, as any similarity between the two types of pesticides would tend to do. So (E) is what we want here. 9. (C) Assumption The role of an assumption is to connect a term in the conclusion with a term in the evidence. This is a textbook example of how assumptions work. If you have been struggling with the concept, review this question carefully. The author contends that a pricey wine can’t necessarily be depended upon to be good, on the grounds that price reflects a vineyard’s reputation. Well, the term “price” appears in both evidence and conclusion, but only the former mentions vineyard reputation and only the latter mentions wine quality. For the argument to work, these two terms need to be connected, and that’s the role of correct choice (C). The author must be taking for granted that reputation is an unreliable indicator of wine quality; if it weren’t— if it were quite reliable—then instead of the author’s proposed disjunction between price and quality those two things would go hand in hand. Notice that three of the four wrong choices fail to mention both reputation and quality, and the one that does mention them both, (D), distorts matters. (A) That which should occur is not something the logic hinges on. (A) expresses the author’s regret as to her conclusion, but doesn’t cement the connection between the evidence and that conclusion. (B) goes further than even the author does. Her conclusion leaves open the possibility that a pricey wine could be every bit as great as the price suggests. 15 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 16 PrepTest 44 Explained (D) offers an unwarranted comparison between reputation and quality when what we need is a connection between them. (E) “Lesser-known” is meant to evoke the idea of reputation, but reputation involves many things other than fame vs. obscurity. In any case, any statement asserting that a wine’s quality is reflected in its price will tend to contradict our author’s argument rather than support it. 10. (B) Paradox Make mental images as you read the description of a physical process; doing so will help you to see past the words into the ideas. In an ingenious—if slightly sickening—approach to infant care, the parent beetles feed their hungry larvae off a vertebrate carcass thoughtfully procured in advance of the birth. The author is surprised that the larvae do better with one parent around than two, but if that carcass is providing sustenance for parents and offspring alike, as (B) proposes, then it’s small wonder that the young’uns grow up bigger and heavier with only one parent around—more food is left for them. (A) The larvae’s growth, which is at the heart of the paradox, comes long after the carcass is procured, so at best (A) is irrelevant to the issue at hand. At worst, any choice speaking to the benefits of a two-parent beetle household only deepens the paradox. (C) implies that one parent is always removed or absent anyway, sleeping while the other works. Even so, the paradox is intact; we’re still left to wonder why there’s a difference between the size of lar vae depending on whether one or two parents are present. (D) It’s every parent’s dream to kick the kids out of the nest (literally in this case), but the fact that the beetle offspring need no more than a week to hit the road isn’t relevant to the difference in larvae growth while they’re still at home. (E) drags in the issue of predators, which is probably relevant to the beetles’ everyday existence but not to the paradox as described here. In any case, as we said regarding (A), the paradox isn’t resolved with a statement that lauds the benefits of a two-parent home. 11. (B) Inference An inference can be no more categorical or absolute than the statements on which it is based. We’re told that most scientists nowadays find nonEuclidean geometry to be more useful in a variety of 16 contexts, including (says the third sentence) the currently accepted cosmological theory. This means that classical Euclidean geometr y is no longer considered to be the only useful type, a fairly narrow statement reflected by (B). (A) “Progress” is not a term that appears anywhere in the stimulus, so we certainly cannot ascribe a belief about progress to Euclidean scientists or anyone else. (C) goes too far. The author is careful to deem nonEuclidean geometry more useful in “certain areas”; that’s a far cry from calling it “more complete.” (D) posits a necessary condition for any “accurate scientific theory,” but that’s a much grander ambition than the stimulus ever sets out to wrestle with. All the author wants to do is report on the current scientific view of Euclidean vs. non-Euclidean geometry. (E), like (D), is a grandiose sentence that could only be the result of a grandiose investigation. But this author’s scope is very narrow. (E) also goes wrong in citing “usefulness vs. correctness,” rather than Euclidean vs. non-Euclidean geometry, as the contrast that the author explores. 12. (A) Principle When the principle isn’t stated in either the stimulus or answer choices, you need to abstract it yourself. In most Principle questions, the stimulus is a real-life situation, and the five choices offer abstract principles or rules, one of which matches up. Occasionally, it’s reversed: the stimulus is the principle, and you have to pick which of five real-life situations is governed by it. This question is a rare variation: the stimulus is a reallife situation, and you have to locate another one that’s governed in the same way. Your best bet is to frame the principle first. There are two ways to approach this idea of the expert who is to testify, and a preference is shown for a lessexpert witness who is persuasive and confident over a highly expert witness who can’t persuade. Your abstract principle should be, The ability to persuade an audience should trump, or can be more important than, sheer expertise. You might even refine it to something as simple as, Style over substance. Any such consideration of the underlying principle should reveal (A) as correct. In (A), the “audience” is the electorate and, as in the stimulus, a preference is asserted for style (the conducting of a campaign) over substance. (B) describes a process of learning how to become more persuasive, but doesn’t describe a conflict between two approaches to a problem. LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 17 Section II: Logical Reasoning (C) has it exactly backward. Dramatically affecting an audience would be analogous to “style”; having the best voice to “substance.” To be correct, (C) would have to say, “Go with the less skillful singer because she’ll “persuade the audience” better. (D) outlines two approaches to a problem and asserts a preference for one of them, but it lacks the “style vs. substance” or opposing nature of the options in the stimulus or in correct choice (A). All (D) is saying is that there are two ways to train kids, and one is better. (E) Hiring the applicant who is best qualified is surely the “substance” choice. Moreover, (E) doesn’t describe a “style” kind of option, but rather an inversion (shaping the job to fit the person)—not at all analogous. 13. (A) Assumption The appearance of “only” and “unless” is an ironclad hint that necessity vs. sufficiency is being tested. Let’s work backward from the conclusion: the author’s point is that economic enticement is a necessary condition for solving serious ecological problems because economic enticement is a necessar y condition for changing consumers’ habits and, in turn, changing consumers’ habits is a necessary condition for solving serious ecological problems. All of them? No, just those that government mismanagement doesn’t cause. How many of those are there? There’s no way to tell, but for the argument to work—for the solution of “few” big problems to be possible without economic enticement—very few of those problems can be attributed to governmental screwups, and that is why (A) is correct. If (A) were false and a huge proportion of ecological problems were caused by governmental ineptitude, then those solutions might not require economically enticing solutions, contrary to the author’s position. (B) “Economically feasible” isn’t a term that appears anywhere in the argument. Besides, the author’s chain of logic refers to ecological problems that are not caused by the government. (C) That which is necessary is not always feasible. The author says that economic enticement is a prerequisite for changing consumers’ habits, but that doesn’t mean that he believes that such enticement is feasible any more than saying, “To get to Mars in a day, we’d have to fly much faster than the speed of light,” implies that the speaker believes that velocity to be possible. (D) The scope of this argument is “major ecological problems,” period. The author is not interested in whether those happen to be the majority or minority of ecological problems in general. (E) On the contrary, it sounds as if the author believes that solving most serious ecological problems (those not caused by governmental missteps, that is) requires changing consumers’ habits. 14. (D) Inference Even when an Inference question is based on an argument, the correct answer will come out of the evidence presented. Most Inference questions (cf. questions 2, 11, and 17, for instance) are based on a set of premises. Here the stimulus is a full-fledged argument, but the right answer is based on its premises anyway. To the author, if you have a real estate slump plus low car sales, you’ve probably got an unhealthy economy. It follows—note the contrapositive at work—that if the economy is healthy, then you probably don’t have the combination of a real estate slump plus low car sales. And that’s (D), practically word for word. (Notice, incidentally, that the third sentence doesn’t contribute to the right answer. No surprise there: Sentence 3 has very little to do with the logic, because it concerns the probable outcome had there been no real estate slump or no low car sales. But we know that both have occurred, so sentence 3 is beside the point.) (A) 180. Low car sales alone, the author tells us, “would be consistent with” (though they wouldn’t necessarily cause) a healthy economy, contrary to (A). (B) is a classic case of improperly reversing an “if” and “then.” If both the real estate and car markets were booming, it would still be possible to have an economy in the dumpster. To put it another way, the two slumps of which the author speaks are, to him, more or less sufficient for an unhealthy economy, but we cannot infer that they’re necessary for one. (C), like (B), misinterprets the author’s logic. A booming real estate market is just that—one booming phenomenon. The economy as a whole could be doing very badly indeed. (E) has the author’s reasoning backward. He has looked at the real estate and car markets, assessed them as terrible, and concluded that the economy is terrible too. (E) has that reasoning exactly reversed. 17 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 18 PrepTest 44 Explained 15. (D) Strengthen the Argument Strengthening an argument doesn’t necessarily prove it—it simply makes the argument more likely. One thing that’s needed to prove that the Ice Age melting contributed to the Swedish earthquakes is a connection between quakes and cracked crust, the latter of which was caused by melting ice. Such a connection is offered by (D). The conclusion can’t be considered proven—we’d still need to confirm, for instance, that there was cracking beneath the Swedish terrain way back when, and that the melting ice caused that cracking—but (D) brings the conclusion one step closer to proof. (A) might serve to weaken the logic in its implication that the earth’s crust can crack because of pressure changes in general (i.e., as opposed to the melting of Ice Age ice specifically). In any event, (A)’s failure to mention either earthquakes or Sweden brings the argument no closer to proof. (B) Indeed? Are any of those areas located beneath Sweden? Locating cracked crust in Northern Europe generally gets us no closer to confirming the logic. (C) Earthquake damage in Canada is even further removed from the specific situation in Sweden than (B) is. And what’s more, no information about the cause of Canadian quakes—information that might be relevant in making an analogy to Sweden—is forthcoming. (E) 180. By implying an alternative cause of earthquakes, (E) is a definite weakener. 16. (E) Main Point A conclusion is the point to which all of the evidence is proceeding. “Hence” signals conclusion, and (E) simply casts the stimulus’s “Hence” sentence in a slightly different way. Both say, in effect, that one can both support democracy and favor some market regulation—in contrast to the view of the economists whom the author opposes (first sentence). (A) The voting booth detail is part of the evidence, not part of the conclusion. The rest of the stimulus is not constructed to bring the reader to realize (A). (B) goes too far in advocating total regulation in a democracy. The author isn’t arguing that those who want democracy cannot support unregulated markets, just that some regulation is also possible as well. (C) 180. This is the view to which the author is opposed. Besides, the author is arguing for something 18 that suppor ters of democracy can suppor t, not something that they must support. (D) That the private consumer says to himself, “What do I want?” does not leave him open to the blanket charge of being “primarily self-interested.” Remember, when this same consumer enters the voting booth, he will likely have a very different, and less self-centered, question in mind. 17. (C) Inference Stick strictly to the terms of the statements in making an inference. Each adult bird on our list of three is significantly bigger and heavier than the one before it, yet each bird’s egg is less and less a percentage of the adult bird’s weight. This means that we have potent illustration of (C): when you set up ratios for egg weight vs. adult body weight, the ratios will be smaller for the heavier birds than the lighter ones. To think about it arithmetically: for the larger birds, the numerator (egg weight) will be quite small, and the denominator (adult weight) quite large. The opposite is true for the smaller birds. (A) Species’ eggs are not being compared with each other, but with the adult body weight within each egg’s species. (B), like (A), assumes that a comparison can be made among eggs of different species. Not so, at least not from the evidence we’re given. For all we know, all three species’ eggs could be exactly the same size and weight even as the adults grow to different sizes. (D) goes wrong on two counts: we cannot infer variance in the sizes of eggs [see (B), above], and we also can’t infer any “effect” that eggs have on adult birds from the straight-up data comparisons given. (E) is a totally unwarranted comparison, implying much more data than we’re given about the relative sizes of the eggs and the relative sizes of the adult hummingbird, goose, and ostrich. 18. (D) Assumption When you’re told what’s false, it’s your job to figure out what’s true. The conclusion, “this assumption is false,” has to be interpreted. It’s referring to the popular misconception that transforming from vampire to bat is “an essential part of vampire myths,” so we should state the author’s view more simply, e.g., Bat transformation isn’t a big part of the classic vampire myths. Why not? Because the myths predate Bram Stoker’s book. To use Stoker’s LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 19 Section II: Logical Reasoning later book to draw a conclusion about earlier vampire myths, the author must believe that the bat myth originates with Stoker or—as correct choice (D) puts it—that one or more preexisting myths do not feature the bat myth. If (D) were false and all of the pre-Stoker myths featured bat transformation, then that would lend massive credence to the popular assumption. So the author is counting on (D) to be true. (A) is identical to the right answer except for its last two words, but that’s what kills it. Nocturnality is not the issue here; what matters is whether a vampire turns into a bat. (B) No time frame is mentioned: if these Western Hemisphere bat myths postdate the Stoker book, then they are irrelevant to the logic, whereas if they predate Stoker, they bolster the popular assumption that the author is challenging. Either way, the author’s not depending on this. (C) is, in one sense, irrelevant because the author seems principally interested in myths within Europe. But remember, the author is implicitly arguing that bat transformation is more or less a Stoker invention and not a long-standing feature of myth; so in a broader sense, any suggestion [like (C)’s] that vampire myths begin and end with Stoker tends to weaken the author’s point of view. (E) Stoker’s familiarity with myths tells us nothing about whether he adopted bat transformation from them (as people assume) or came up with it himself (as the author believes). 19. (B) Role of a Statement On the most basic level, the conclusion is the statement that prompts the question, “Why?”; the evidence is the answer to that question. Everything after the first sentence is there to explain why the author is so pessimistic that we will ever be disease free…which makes that statement the conclusion. For that reason alone, (C) and (D) must be promptly rejected. The statement is not evidence at all, as in (C), and it’s a prediction, not the generalization that (D) suggests. As for the other choices, only (B) distills the argument to its essence: we will probably never be disease free because the bugs respond to any medicine by developing immunity to it. The numerousness of infectious bugs mentioned in (A) blows up the passing reference to their being “very prolific” into the main point, whereas (E) distorts the argument by asserting that the bugs are already immune, rather than developing their immunity quickly. Their adaptation is the key to the dilemma, and (E) misses that aspect. 20. (B) Flaw Keep an eye out for correlation vs. causation, especially in Flaw questions. There’s a high correlation between kids’ impulsiveness and this specific gene variant, so the author posits a causal relationship between the gene variant and “adult thrill-seeking,” a phenomenon similar to a child’s impulsiveness. This is weak enough as a demonstration of cause and effect, but if (B) is true and that which we label “impulsiveness” could actually be many other types of behavior, then the causation is weaker still. There’s precious little science in saying, “Well, behavior A is like behavior B,” and even less when it turns out that “behavior A” is nothing that can be pinned down. (A) Adult impulsiveness is not the issue; adult thrillseeking is. And dopamine’s role in the process is sufficiently fuzzy to render any statement about dopamine irrelevant to the reasoning. (C) is the converse of (A). Children’s impulsiveness, not their thrill-seeking, is what the scientist has studied. (D) The argument doesn’t assert that all thrill-seeking adults, or indeed any of them, show behavior similar to that of children. The gene variant could cause the adult’s thrill-seeking without ever being apparent in that child’s behavior. (E) Other types of behavior are outside the scope. 21. (E) Flaw Watch out for perennial flaws, notably necessity vs. sufficiency. According to the author, Claudette shares a trait with most classical pianists, that of recognizing the works of Clara Schumann. But a great many nonpianists may be able to recognize Schumann’s work as well; in fact, as correct choice (E) points out, pianists could be in the minority. To put it another way, it’s pretty much safe to assume that if you’re a classical pianist, you can identify Schumann’s work, but we can’t simply flip those terms, and that’s exactly what the stimulus does. (A) Other composers’ work never enters into the logic. The issue is, does recognizing Schumann’s work imply anything? And the answer is no. 19 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 20 PrepTest 44 Explained (B) The word “even” in the fourth sentence indicates an intensifier and, as a rule, intensifiers are not intrinsic to one’s reasoning. Note that the entire last sentence of the stimulus could be omitted with absolutely no damage to the logic. So a choice that hinges on the inability of nonpianists “even” to know who Schumann was is irrelevant here. (C) Other instruments are as irrelevant to the logic as other composers—choice (A)—are. Piano is the only relevant term. (D) There is nothing vague about the term “classical.” We might not know what it means, but our incomplete vocabulary shouldn’t be confused with an accusation of author vagueness. The word appears in the stimulus four times, and there’s no reason to believe that it isn’t used consistently and categorically. 22. (E) Parallel Reasoning Parallel arguments must feature the same kind of conclusion. Any choice with a different kind of conclusion cannot be parallel. confirmed, the connection between evidence and conclusion is strengthened. (A) The author seems to believe that physical labor is necessary to life, and that if we can’t get technology to do it, we’ll have to take it on ourselves at the risk of “drudgery.” But she makes no connection between physical labor and fulfillment. (C) brings in the grandiose concept of “freedom,” no less irrelevant than “fulfillment” in (A). The argument decries dependence on technology, a narrow issue that doesn’t require the assumption that one is not free unless one solely depends on oneself. (D) The undermining of life’s charm is a side issue that the author could readily excise with no damage to the logic. Moreover, (D)’s appeal to the concept of “gain vs. loss” doesn’t relate at all to the argument. (E) Much modern technology diminishes selfsufficiency and, hence, well being—not necessarily all. (E) goes much further than the author’s indictment of technology. 24. (E) The stimulus’ “kind of conclusion” is a prediction that, once a third-party event occurs, exactly one of two differing opinions will come out on top. This means that (A), with its assertion that “at least one opinion is wrong,” (B), asserting that “X and Y must disagree,” and (C)’s value judgment about “X proving to be better,” can all be discarded. (Moreover, none of them offers an intervening and confirming third-party event.) Meanwhile, (D) doesn’t explicitly confirm that David will be proved wrong and Jane right, or vice versa, and (D)’s movement from small-section inspection to fullarea inspection has no parallel in the stimulus. That leaves (E). Maria’s opinion does parallel the stimulus’ “experiment”; both (E) and the stimulus do make a prediction; and both predictions are that, in the end, one view will prevail over the other. 23. (B) Assumption When an argument hinges on a scope shift, an assumption is needed to render the scope shift logical. The conclusion is that much modern technology lessens the well being of its users, because it makes them less self-sufficient. This clear scope shift renders the argument unpersuasive unless we can prove that self-sufficiency has something material to do with well being…a task that (B) accomplishes. Once (B) is 20 Role of a Statement Sort out whether a particular statement serves the author’s purpose, or that of his opponent. “Mistakenly argue” immediately stamps the author as an opponent of the anti-Freudians who use the electrical cause of dreams to prove that dreams are wholly physiological and, hence, reveal nothing of the dreamer’s psychology. The clause in question is preceded by “Since,” which suggests that the clause is acting as evidence, and so it is. Even if (note the concession to the anti-Freudians) dreams have an electrical cause, the fact that “dream content varies enormously” means that there is something more going on than mere electrical discharge. That relationship is summed up by correct choice (E), in which the “claim” is that dreams have a totally physiological cause, and the “view of Freud’s” is that dreams reveal character. (A) “Mistakenly argue,” in and of itself, proves that the author is not embracing an anti-Freudian position. All of the remaining choices suggest that the author is out to explain dreams: (B) From what’s provided here, Freud evidently believed that dreams reveal something about the dreamer’s character, but we can’t be sure that he felt it provided “significant information.” Moreover, signing on to a theory isn’t within the author’s purpose. He is out to rebut Freudian critics, not to affirm a Freudian stand. At most, the author is committed to believing LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 21 Section II: Logical Reasoning (and this is more implicitly than “explicitly stated”) that there is more to dreams than mere electricity. (C) Nothing in the stimulus suggests that the author seeks a third viewpoint, beyond that of Freud and the cited opponents, in coming up with an explanation for dreams. (D) Once again, the author’s purpose is not to promote a theory or explanation of dreaming but to rebut a viewpoint; that’s the purpose of the clause in question. 25. (E) Flaw Instantly turn “X only if Y” into “If X then Y,” and watch for arguments that misapply the terms. The author asserts that, “If technology is accepted, then it coheres with society’s values.” That’s fine. But by pointing to the bicycle’s disappearance after an initial embrace as indicative of a change in values, she is making the classic error of negating the terms; we cannot assume that if technology is rejected (as the bicycle was), then it must not cohere with society’s values. The author ignores any number of reasons— other than value-related ones—that the bicycle could have disappeared for 30–40 years, among them the unreliable workmanship of the first models, the prohibitive cost of manufacturing and hence of purchasing them, laws passed against them, and the popularity of alternative means of locomotion. (E) cogently points out this flaw. (A) Actually, the author presumes that fads are indicative of acceptance. That’s why she sees a change in societal values as the explanation for the bicycle’s reappearance. (B) The author’s scope is investigating the 30–40 year invisibility of the bicycle, not the reasons for its ultimate revival in the 1860s. (C) That the Draisienne was the “first true bicycle” (although the author never uses the word “true”) is a trivial fact irrelevant to the real issue—namely, why the bicycle disappeared for a for a few decades. (D) 180. The question posed (i.e., “Why was this?”) is intensely relevant to the conclusion: it’s the question that the conclusion answers. That the conclusion answers this question in a logically faulty way is another matter altogether. 21 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 22 PrepTest 44 Explained SECTION III: LOGIC GAMES 1. (C) Game 1: Garibaldi’s Meetings Perhaps the easiest rule to check is Rule 4, and that knocks out (E): M cannot occupy the last slot. If we scan for two F’s in a row, the violation of Rule 2, we can easily elminiate (B), and a scan for an exception to the “T S” of Rule 3 gets rid of (D). We have one wrong answer remaining, with only Rule 1 left, so it stands to reason that one of the remaining choices fails to give us the proper number of Fuentes meetings. (A), with only two F’s, is the culprit, and (C) remains as the correct answer. Use the rules to knock out the unacceptable sequences quickly. Situation: A bunch of meetings are to be scheduled, one after another. Entities: The dignitaries with whom Garibaldi is to meet. Action: To sequence the meetings. Limitations: Seven meetings with five people leaves some ambiguity as to who is repeated, until we see Rule 1, that is, which confirms our roster as: 2. (D) F F F M R S T Our Master Sketch is simple, and typical of basic Sequencing games involving numbered slots: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Rule 2 also proves to be significant. If we can never have two F’s adjacent to each other, then—given that there are three of them—there are only so many ways to separate them. Note that there will have to be at least one F among the first three slots; the latest possible slots for the F’s would be #3, 5, and 7. “NEVER FF” is as good a reminder of the rule to jot down as any. Rule 3 offers a bloc of entities: “T S” will have to appear somewhere in the sequence. (We trust you didn’t get sloppy and read it as “S T.”) Meanwhile, Rule 4 tells us where not to place M—at either end—which doesn’t tell us much about where M is placed, or who is first or seventh. Simply jotting down “not M” under slots 1 and 7 in your Master Sketch should nail this down. Beyond those individual rules, there’s little to be done—no reason to set up Limited Options,no additional deductions to be made. Sometimes there’s nothing to be done but to plow through the questions. 22 Acceptability Could be true If an early question seems multistepped and complex, consider skipping it and moving ahead to simpler questions. This “if” clause allows us to create a sketch with R in the seventh, or last, slot, but it’s quickly apparent that doing so doesn’t tell us a great deal more. In short, there are a lot of possibilities to work out, many things that “could be true.” Your options are: 1. Work out various possibilities in a coherent way. 2. Work directly with the choices, trying out each in search of the one that’s possible 3. Skip the whole thing and move on. Any of those options is logical and workable. The only bad choice is to just stare at the question and dither. Let’s work this out using method 2: try out each choice. And use your pencil—don’t just work things out in your head. (A) If S takes slot #2, that puts T into slot #1 (Rule 3) and then we’re in a bind: there’s no way to insert the three F’s according Rule 1. So we can eliminate (A). (B) If M occupies slot #3, we can properly place the F’s or insert the “T S” pair, but we can’t do both. Eliminate. (C) offers the same dilemma. With S fourth and R seventh (that’s in the question stem, remember), we will have to violate either Rule 3 or Rule 4. Eliminate. (D) Now yer talkin’. A little sketch that includes M in the fifth slot and R in the seventh slot can be completed properly: “F T S F M F R.” Since it’s possible, we can choose (D) and need not even go on to confirm that (E) is impossible. (For the record, S can’t be sixth, as in (E), for the same reasons that (B) and (C) are impossible). LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 23 Section III: Logic Games 3. (E) Complete and accurate list Always work out what must be true before considering what could be true. A sketch drawn with F in the second slot might well make you think about slot #1, which can never be filled by M (Rule 4), and now can’t be filled by F (Rule 2) or T or S (Rule 3). Who’s left? Only R, who must occupy slot #1, making it possible to eliminate (A), (B), and (D)—R cannot occupy slot #4. (C) and (E) remain, and each mentions S, so we needn’t check whether S can occupy slot #4; that must be possible. In the end, whether you work with (C) and determine that M can’t occupy slot #4 because it leaves no room for the F’s and the “TS” pair, or with (E) and determine that F is eminently possible for slot #4 (e.g., R F M F T S F), you are left with (E) as the correct answer. order, are #4 and #6, which means that either of those slots qualifies as the one in question, the one that Rhee can occupy. The testmakers chose slot #6 for correct choice (D). 6. (A) Must be true Don’t be afraid to engage in trial and error. If you try, you’ll rarely err. Where must G go, given the new “if” clause? That clause mandates “R M” as an adjacent pair, not unlike “T S”—so the F’s will be needed to separate and surround those two pairs. A little trial and error reveals that one pair will have to take slots 2 and 3, while the other takes slots 5 and 6; slots 1, 4, and 7 remain for the F’s, making (A) the right answer here. 4. (E) Must be true Create and work with blocs of entities whenever possible. If R’s meeting is to come right after S’s, then we have a bloc of “T S R” to insert somewhere into the sequence. Start inserting! If “T S R” begins the sequence...well, that’s a nonstarter; we wouldn’t be able to insert the three F’s in line with Rule 3. “T S R” could move over one slot and fill slots 2–4, in which case the F’s would go into slots 1, 5, and 7, leaving M for slot #6. There’s one possibility: “F T S R F M F.” If “T S R” slide over to occupy slots 3–5…again, a nonstarter. Pairs of slots at both ends will not accommodate three nonadjacent F’s. The last possibility is to have “T S R” in slots 4–6, for: “F M F T S R F.” If you compare the two sequences we’ve assembled, the only things true in both are that F is always first and last, the latter of which is reflected in correct choice (E). 5. (D) Could be true Quite often a later question can be much easier than one or more questions that precede it. Placing T into slot #1 mandates S in slot #2, of course (Rule 3), and as we scan the open slots and think of the F’s we quickly realize that they have to take slots 3, 5, and 7. The remaining slots for M and R, in either 23 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 24 PrepTest 44 Explained Game 2: Animal Shelter Placements Situation: Dogs are to be placed with owners on separate days. Entities: The dogs. Action: To assign them days—a straightfor ward Grouping game of Distribution, in which Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday are the subgroups. Limitations: We will place one pair per day, so there are three pairs to assign in total. Rule 1 clears up a great deal right away: one of the three pairs—that is, one of the subgroups—will be “LP.” Make a note of that! Negative Rule 2—we can never make “GH” a pair— tells us an awful lot if we turn the negative into a positive, as we should always do! If G cannot be paired with H, what can G be paired with? Well, S or K, of course, as “LP” is a definite pair already. This limited number of possibilities allows us to set up two options in terms of the pair-ups: Op. I: LP ... GK âž” HS Op. II: LP ... GS âž” HK See how that works? With “LP” a constant, either G will be paired with K (leaving HS) or with S (leaving HK). Now all that remains is to figure out the assignment of days. According to Rule 3, placing K on Monday puts G on Tuesday. Notice that this would force us to use Option II (because, in Option I, “GK” are a bonded pair). In the same way, Rule 4 (“if S is Wednesday, then H is Tuesday”) would force us to use Option II as well (because in Option I S and H must be paired). But don’t misuse these rules: they don’t mean that only Option II is ever in play! There are many other possibilities. For now, let’s just jot down the rules and their contrapositives as we’re used to doing: K Mon âž” G Tues G not Tues âž” K not Mon S Wed âž” H Tues H not Tues âž” S not Wed 7. (E) Acceptability When tossing out choices, start with the easiest rules first. It’s easiest to search for violations of the “LP” rule, and we get one in (A). A search for “GH” in violation of Rule 2 reveals (C), another impossible matching. Next, Rule 3. We need to find a choice that assigns K to Monday—only (B) does so—and see whether it follows the rule. Nope; the G is supposed to occupy the Tuesday slot, and it doesn’t. Eliminate (B). Finally, expecting to find a violator of Rule 4, we confidently seek a choice that assigns S to Wednesday but fails to place the H on Tuesday. (D) gets it wrong but (E) gets it right. 8. (B) Must be true (no “if” clause) Setting up Limited Options can help in many situations—especially when no additional information is provided. The choices all offer possible and impossible pairs; all we need do is compare each of them to the two Options we’ve set up. (A), for instance: is it impossible to have “GK”? Not at all. “GK” is a pair in Option I. Eliminate (A) because its proposition doesn’t hold water. G and K can share a day. As for (B), is it fair to say that we never see “KS”? Yes indeed; given the permanent “LP” pair, “KS” would leave “GH” together in violation of Rule 2. So (B) is correct, and we needn’t bother to go on and learn that (C) is not impossible (“HS” is found in Option I), while (D) and (E) are both true in Option II, but not in Option I. 9. (A) Could be true Use the contrapositives of your if/then rules. If we set up a mini-sketch in which P, and hence “LP” (Rule 1), occupies Tuesday, consulting our rules instantly reveals that both contrapositives apply; indeed, neither G nor H can occupy Tuesday (it’s full!), so let’s proceed systematically. Rule 3: If G isn’t on Tuesday (which it isn’t), then K can’t be on Monday, meaning that K must be on Wednesday. Build that in: Mon ___ Tue LP Wed K_ Rule 4: If K isn’t on Tuesday (which it isn’t), then S can’t be on Wednesday, so S must be on Monday, and G and 24 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 25 Section III: Logic Games H will occupy the remaining Monday and Wednesday slots, in either order. If we then proceed to the choices, what do you know? (A) turns out to be right. It is indeed possible for G to be placed on Monday. 10. (E) Must be true Work out the possibilities carefully, and use your pencil; don’t try to do it all in your head. Telling us that “GK” is a pair means that we’re in Option I, with our pairs comprised of “GK,” “LP,” and “HS.” Fine. But on which days? Here’s where we have to work carefully with our if/then rules. Rule 3 is interesting because it separates the very entities—K and G—that we’ve just been told to pair up. Clearly, we cannot place the K on Monday, so the GK pair will have to occupy either Tuesday or Wednesday, like so: Mon ___ ___ Tue GK or __ Wed ___ GK_ Now let’s consider Rule 4, which has to work within that which we’ve just set up. “If the S is placed on Wed,” begins the rule. Well, that could only occur in the first of the two possibilities, since Wednesday is filled with “GK” in the other. The rule continues: “...then H is on Tues.” Hang on! That won’t work either, because “GK” is already there. Under these circumstances there is no way to place S on Wednesday, and that makes (E) correct. Of the wrong choices, notice that if the arrangement is HS Mon, GK Tues, and LP Wed, then (B) and (D) are false, and if the arrangement is LP Mon, HS Tues, and GK Wed, then (A) and (C) are false. Rule 2 allows us to fill in all the blanks—turns out we’re dealing with Option II: Mon HK_ LP__ Tue GS or HK Wed LP_ GS But even before we work all that out, (D) is revealed as the choice that “CANNOT be true,” and thus is correct. Note that our first instance, above, proves that all four of the remaining choices are possible! 12. (A) CANNOT be true Remember that two questions can be set up in similar ways. This question is the same as the previous one, except that the entities are different. Here, the “if” clause means that we will see either G on Monday and P (with L) on Tuesday, or G on Tuesday and LP on Wednesday. Either way, Rule 2 mandates that H occupy the remaining day. Here’s the very familiar setup: Mon G_ H__ Tue LP_ or G Wed H_ LP _ We’ll be done with this one even more quickly than we got through the previous question. Note that this question asks about Tuesday, and look at what we’ve got: one situation in which LP takes Tuesday and another in which G is there and thus (as per Rule 2) not accompanied by H. Either way, H is forbidden to occupy a Tuesday slot, and so (A) is correct. 11. (D) CANNOT be true Turn abstract statements into concrete ones. So the H comes before the S, does it? Don’t just take that as an abstraction; work out the concrete possibilities. Either we’ll have H on Monday and S on Tuesday, or H on Tuesday and S on Wednesday. Either way, the remaining day will go to our permanent LP pair: Mon H__ LP_ Tue S or H Wed LP_ S_ 25 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 26 PrepTest 44 Explained Game 3: Archaeological Sites This complex and interesting game is a great tool for understanding a perennial concept that seems simple on its face but causes many students grief: If it’s not one, then it’s one of the others. Watch and listen as we go through these rules. Situation: Archaeologists discovering and dating particular sites. Entities: The archaeologists, and the centuries in question. Action: To match up each site with its discoverer (F, G, or O) and its century (eighth, ninth, or tenth, as we’ll call them to distinguish them from sites 1–5). Limitations: Whenever we have more available slots than we have entities, there’s room for considerable confusion. Here, the need to duplicate one or more archaeologists and centuries is complicated by the fact that we’re never told whether all the archaeologists, or all the centuries, are used. We’ll just have to stay flexible. You can readily represent the five sites with two slots apiece: 1 2 3 4 F, G, O 8th, 9th, 10th Notice that we went ahead and built in the substance of Rule 1: site #2’s century is definitely determined. We always want to jump on those definite rules! No clue—yet—as to site 2’s discoverer. Rule 2 reminds us always to turn negative rules into positive ones. If O didn’t discover one of the last two sites, then who did? F or G, of course. If it’s not one, then it’s one of the others. Build “F/G” into the top row for site 4 and site 5: 1 2 3 4 F/G 9th 5 F/G F, G , O 8th, 9th, 10th Rule 3 tells us that there’s exactly one G in the list— meaning that all the other discoveries were made by F 26 1 2 3 4 F/G F/O 5 F/G 9th F, G , O 8th, 9th, 10th Rule 4 offers up another useful if/then rule (If a site is eighth century, then its discoverer was O) and its contrapositive (if O wasn’t the discoverer, then it’s not eighth century). Of course, we ought to recognize that this doesn’t necessarily mean that there is any eighthcentury site! At this point some of you may have realized, through Rule 1 or through your sketch, that O didn’t discover our last two sites. As such, those can’t be eighth century, and therefore: 1 5 9th or O—and that this G will be inserted with a “10th” for the century. Did you think through the contrapositive? If it’s not from the tenth century, then it wasn’t discovered by G—which allows us to deduce something about site 2. Remember, if it’s not one, then it’s one of the others. Since G cannot have discovered ninthcentury site 2, we know that: 2 F/O 9th 3 4 F/G 5 F/G F, G , O 9th/10th 9th/10th 8 t h , 9 t h , 1 0 t h We conclude with our most complex and most influential rule of all, and appropriately, it requires careful thought. Rule 5 is actually two rules in one, isn’t it? Site 3’s century is earlier than site 1’s, and it’s also earlier than site 4’s. Let’s think this through on its own before going to the sketch. Because site 3 predates those other sites, it cannot date from the earliest of the three centuries (the eighth), which means that site 3 must be labeled “9th/10th.” Meanwhile, sites 1 and 4 cannot date from the tenth century because that would make them later than site 3’s date. Make sense? Thus sites 1 and 4 are “8th or 9th only.” But wait a second, look at the Master Sketch: we have already restricted site 4 to the ninth or tenth centuries! So now we can reduce it further—site 4 must date from the ninth century and hence site 3 from the tenth. There’s no alternative: LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 27 Section III: Logic Games 1 2 3 F/O 9th 10th 4 5 F/G F/G 9th 14. (C) CANNOT be true F, G , O 9th/10th 8 t h , 9 t h , 1 0 t h And we’re not done yet. Remember Rule 3? G’s only site is a tenth-century site. That means that site 4, now confirmed as ninth century, is left to F for sure. What about site 1? We know (thanks to Rule 5) that it’s earlier than site 3, so site 1 must date from the eighth or ninth century. As such—Rule 3 again—no matter what, that’s not a G site, and if it’s not one, then...well, you know by now. Here’s where we are left: 1 2 F/O F/O 8th/9th 9th 3 4 F 10th 9th 5 F/G F, G, O 9th/10th 8th, 9th, 10th Shall we sum up what else is known or needed? Surely. We know that any eighth-century sites are O sites, and only site 1 remains in the running for that honor. So if that site proves to be from the eighth century, then it’s definitely O’s. Meanwhile we need exactly one “G/10th” site (Rule 3), and clearly that has to be either site 3 or site 5. That’s a lot of work. But we did it systematically, which means in the minimum amount of time. And the question work should be quickly doable. 13. (E) Acceptability In a highly complex game, you may need your Master Sketch and its deductions in order to toss out one or more violators. Two of the wrong choices can be tossed quickly: (A), because it assigns O to site 4 (in violation of Rule 2), and (D), because it assigns two sites to G (contrary to Rule 3). Further elimination requires consulting our work on the combined rules, which means consulting our sketch. We have site 1 labeled “F/O” because, as an eighth- or ninth-century site, it couldn’t have been discovered by G, a realization that permits us to eliminate (B), in which G is assigned site 1. Meanwhile, the need to assign G to a tenth-century slot means that (C)—which bestows upon G a site we know for sure to be ninth centur y (Rule 1)—is also impossible. (E), as the last man standing, must be possible. Let your Master Sketch reveal that which can or cannot be true. If there’s exactly one tenth-century site, then it has to be site 3, which is confirmed as tenth, and it will be a G site (Rule 3). It follows, therefore, that this site is forbidden to Ferrara, choice (C). Note that all of the others can be F’s; as we realized earlier, there doesn’t have to be a site that was discovered by O! 15. (A) Could be true Some later questions can be genuine slam dunks if you’ve done the right work in advance. Our sketch instantly reveals that the only site eligible for eighth-century dating is site 1, choice (A). (If you don’t recall why that’s so, review the step-by-step deductions we described.) 16. (E) CANNOT be true / Complete and accurate list Once again, our sketch rapidly yields a right answer. G discovered a single tenth-century site, and all of our deduction demonstrated that sites 1, 2, and 4 are all definitively from the eighth or ninth century—so (E) is the complete and accurate list of the sites forbidden to G. 17. (D) Maximum number of possibilities When asked for a maximum number, it can be useful to start with the largest answer choice and work your way backward. How many F sites can there be? Five, as in choice (E)? No, Rule 3 mandates that, at minimum, there’s a single G site. How about four, as in choice (D)? Yes. It’s quite possible for G to have discovered site 3 only or 5 only, and for F to have discovered all of the others. As we noted earlier, there doesn’t have to be any O site. If you thought there did have to be an O site and chose (C), you may have misread Rule 4 to mean that there has to be an eighth-century site discovered by O. But, again, this is not necessarily the case. 27 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 28 PrepTest 44 Explained Game 4: Anastasia’s Parking Like the previous game, although not quite as much, this one reminds us of the principle, If it’s not one, then it’s one of the others. Situation: Anastasia’s daily parking over the course of a Monday-through-Friday week. Entities: The parking lots and their costs. Action: In this Hybrid game, we have to match lot to cost, and then sequence them across the days of the week. (There’s also something of a selection element too, in that we have to decide which of the lots is used multiple times.) Limitations: A five-day week with only three lots available means, of course, that at least one lot will be repeated. And we mustn’t ignore the fact that each lot is used at least once! (Not all rules are indented; some are buried in the opening paragraph.) Moreover, that very rule means—think about it—that we have to use each price at least once. Anyway, three lots, each with a unique daily cost. We can readily combine Matching and Sequencing in a sketch, following our principle to use single letters for one type of entity and spell out everything else: Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri X,Y,Z+2 $15 $10, $12, $15 Notice that we went ahead and built concrete Rule 1 right into the sketch. We may not know which lot costs $15—indeed, that lot’s identity may change from question to question—but we do know that Anastasia does use the most expensive lot on Thursday. It’s easy to give short shrift to Rule 2, but you don’t want to do that. Rather, you want to delve. Remember what we taught you: analyze, then draw. If X costs more than Z, then what are the possibilities? Well, X could be the $12 lot, in which case Z would be the cheap $10 lot (and by extension, Y would have to cost $15): If X = $12 âž” Z = $10 (and âž” Y = $15) The only other possibility is that X is the $15 lot, in which case Z will have to cost either $10 or $12, leaving Y with whichever price is left over: If X = $15 âž” Z = $12 or $10 28 Not bad! We’ve reduced the prices quite a bit, albeit with more ambiguity than we’d wish for. And we might observe that no matter what, X is not the $10 lot, nor is Z the $15 lot: Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri X/Y $15 Next up is Rule 3, the news that Wednesday’s lot costs more than Friday’s. In other words, Wednesday is either $12 with Friday being $10, or Wednesday is (like Thursday) $15, with Friday $10 or $12. You can leave this alone—or jot it down—or set it up as two Limited Options. We will elect to simplify matters: Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri X/Y $15/$12 $15 Wed more $ $12/$10 than Fri Rule 4 may seem to have no immediate applicability, but we need to understand it and make note of it. We need more Z’s than X’s; that is, we need at least one more of the cheaper lot. Well, as we’ve said over and over again, if you can’t build a rule into the picture, then note it nearby: MORE Z’s THAN X’s!! But think about it: suppose Anastasia used the X lot twice. Then, to follow Rule 4, she’d need to use Z three times, and in a five-day week that would leave out Y...which we’re not allowed to do. So there’s one final deduction: She will use lot X exactly once. By building into our diagrams whatever we can build in, and jotting down prominently that which we cannot build in, we should be adequately armed for the questions that follow. 18. (A) Acceptability No matter what you’ve drawn, 9 times out of 10 the acceptability question is best attacked via the individual rules. Probably the easiest rule to test is the one built into the paragraph, that each lot be used at least once. (D) LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 29 Section III: Logic Games violates that condition. Next, we might check against Rule 4’s mandate that Z’s outnumber X’s, and see that in (C) there are two of each. Goodbye, (C). As for Rule 3, it doesn’t speak directly of X, Y, and Z, but can help us in tandem with another rule—”Wednesday’s lot is more expensive than Friday’s” (Rule 2).This means that we can’t have a situation in which Wednesday is Z and Friday is X—that would reverse Rule 2’s requirement—so (B) can be eliminated. Finally, we should look at Thursday, the subject of Rule 1, and realize that, because Thursday is the most expensive lot, it can’t be Z (Rule 2)—which knocks out (E). The arrangement in (A) is left standing, and our sketch confirms that, in line with (A), the last three days of the week could be given over to the three individual parking lots, $12, $15, and $10, respectively. 21. (D) CANNOT be true A late Logic Games question does not automatically translate as “agonizingly tough.” Often, it’s quite the contrary. If you’ve got the rules under control, that is. Lot Z can’t be the most expensive lot (Rule 2 told us that) and Thursday is the most expensive lot, so Thursday is the one forbidden to Z....choice (D). What a shame it would be to miss out on this essentially super-low-difficulty question because you ran out of time or never got to this game! And yet, in October of 2004, many students did exactly that. 22. (C) Complete and accurate list Read question stems very, very carefully. 19. (E) CANNOT be true Sometimes “not-if” questions can be answered right off the Master Sketch. The question insists that there is a day in which Anastasia cannot use the $15 lot, and our sketch reveals it: because Friday’s lot costs less than Wednesday’s, it’s impossible for Friday to be the most expensive lot, and (E) is correct. 20. (E) Must be true When you’re wondering where to go in a question, be drawn to that part of the game in which the rules have the most impact. If Z is the $12 lot, then X must be the $15 lot (Rule 2) and Y the $10. At the very least we can stop to toss out (D): since Thursday is the $15 lot, that ain’t Y, in this question anyway. Where to go next? Since none of the rules mention Monday or Tuesday, you might suspect that those will remain relatively open ended and direct your attention to the latter part of the week. Suppose that, as our sketch acknowledges is possible, Anastasia goes to the $15 lot on both Wednesday and Thursday. Here, that would mean two X’s—and hence double trouble, because we need to have the Z’s outnumber the X’s (Rule 4); we’ve already deduced that there will be exactly one visit to lot X. The upshot? Anastasia will use the $12 lot on Wednesday and the $10 lot on Friday, and in this question Y is the $10 lot, so (E) is correct. Those who read this stem too quickly might have been baffled by the fact that Friday—which we have already realized can be the $10 lot—isn’t mentioned in any of the choices. Well, they’re not asking for the complete and accurate list of all days that Anastasia can park for $10, but rather a day or pair of days on which she does park for $10. To put it another way, this is a “Partial Acceptability” question in which the right answer names all the $10 days, while the unnamed days go to $12 and $15 lots. Make sense? Let’s think it through, perhaps after first putting a line through (D) and (E). Respectively: Rule 3 tells us that Wednesday costs more than Friday— which would be impossible if Wednesday cost $10—and Rule 1 alone tells us that Thursday isn’t a $10 day. So our answer will be Monday alone; Tuesday alone; or both Monday and Tuesday. Let’s try that last possibility first—jot it down: if Monday and Tuesday are the only $10 lots, where does that leave us? With the $12 and $15 lots still to be determined. Wednesday has to cost more than Friday (Rule 3), so that means $15 for Wednesday and $12 for Friday. Any problem there? None. The arrangement of lots from Monday through Friday would be: Z, Z, Y, Y, X. Hurray! We have deduced that (C) is possible, and thus the correct answer. For the record, why can’t there be a single $10 lot for Monday or Tuesday alone? Try it. Whether Z were to be the $10 lot or the $12 lot, it would be absolutely impossible to have more Z’s (the cheaper lot) than X’s (the more expensive lot). 29 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 30 PrepTest 44 Explained SECTION IV: LOGICAL REASONING 1. (C) Weaken the Argument To weaken an argument doesn’t mean to disprove it— simply to make it less likely to be true. We’re trying to undermine the doctor’s conclusion that Jones didn’t swallow this chemical, so let’s go back and seek out the factor she ignored. She knew that ingesting the chemical would lead to a specific mineral deficiency that, in turn, would inflame the skin; therefore, because she saw no inflammation she assumed no ingestion. This seems to be a proper employment of the contrapositive (i.e., “No inflammation à No mineral deficiency à No chemical”) until you realize the circumstances under which this diagnosis is being made. Jones was “rushed” to the ER. What if the chemical hasn’t yet had time to cause the chain reaction? That’s what (C) is getting at. If (C) is true, then it’s still possible that Jones didn’t swallow the chemical, but certainly any conclusion made prior to the 48-hour period is going to be premature and hence highly suspect. (A) The chemical is going to cause its effects whether or not Jones is aware of its dangers, so his ignorance is irrelevant to the diagnosis. (B) Any past skin inflammation is irrelevant to whether Jones is going to suffer skin inflammation now. (D) That Jones often worked with the chemical is irrelevant to whether he swallowed it. (E) Right now Jones is showing no inflammation, so the fact that there are many possible causes of inflammation is irrelevant, and certainly doesn’t affect the doctor’s diagnosis. 2. (B) Principle Watch out for scope shifts. The pacifist makes a leap from causing harm through the use of force to threatening to use force. Because we’re asked to justify his position, we need to paper over the scope shift, and (B) does the job. If it’s demonstrated that a threat of immoral behavior is itself immoral, then the pacifist’s contention that even the sheer threat of using force is immoral has been bolstered. (A) “Even when” indicates that the pacifist is not impressed by the self-defense issue and would not concede it as an exception that would excuse immoral 30 behavior. In any case, asser ting that there’s vagueness anywhere in this argument would hardly serve to bolster an argument that is so categorically constructed and specifically stated. (C) The pacifist never brings up the weighing of good vs. bad, so a principle appealing to such a comparison cannot be relevant. (D) is another choice focusing on an issue—selfdefense—that the pacifist explicitly excludes from consideration. (E) The pacifist’s scope is the morality of issuing a threat. That carrying out a threat to use force is immoral is a given in his argument. In essence, (E) has matters exactly backward. 3. (D) Inference Reframe every paradox in your own words. Leave it to the LSAT to treat an exciting topic like rock ‘n’ roll in a dry-as-dust manner. Oh, well. Did you see that there’s a paradox at the heart of this stimulus? (One wonders whether the testmakers didn’t first experiment with this as a genuine Paradox question, and then discover that it worked better this way for some reason.) The author seems puzzled that, since pop music became “plugged in,” as it were, there have been fewer players per band but more players overall. The solution, of course, is that there are simply more bands now—more bands employing those additional musicians—and that’s the assertion of correct choice (D), eminently inferable from the given facts. (A) The author is concerned with professional musicians, not amateurs. In any case, the author sees electrification as having prodded musicians’ interest, so any report of a decline in interest would tend to contradict his viewpoint. (B) Nonelectric instruments are outside the scope of the discussion. (C) Although the average number of musicians per band has gone down, it’s eminently possible that the size of some bands has grown—and simply been offset by the shrinking of others—but not necessarily true. It’s equally possible that each band has either stayed the same size or gotten smaller. (E) Having musicians do double duty by moonlighting in more than one band would make it even more mysterious that band size has shrunk while the total number of musicians has increased. LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 31 Section IV: Logical Reasoning 4. (A) Principle Translate abstract thoughts into simpler language. Your search through the choices needn’t have lasted too long. Right off the bat, (A) picks up on the author’s terms (repeating “radical solutions,” and “better cognizance” = “heightened awareness”), and affirms her caution in the face of a report that a problem has gotten worse. If it’s just that we’re more aware of the problem, as both the stimulus and (A) point out, then a “radical solution” may be contraindicated. (B) seems like a sensible point of view, but goes outside the Scope. This argument is concerned with the proper response to findings that a preexisting problem has suddenly gotten worse. (C) If anything, the author would be suspicious of 100% reliance on statistical data; that’s what she implies could move us toward adopting ill-advised, radical solutions. (D) Nowhere in the argument does the author accuse anyone of “manipulating” data. Her beef is with those who would jump from statistical data to a radical solution. (E) is a position to which our author would likely be sympathetic if she found a particular radical solution to be unwarranted. But nothing in her argument suggests her opposition to a radical solution as a response to a genuinely dangerous increase in a problem. 5. (D) Weaken the Argument The more often you try to predict a weakener before attacking the choices, the better you’ll get at doing so. Barr challenges the NTA’s claim that tea has become more popular, citing data from “numerous stores” over two decades. If you think about it, the NTA’s claim could still be true if Barr’s data are somehow too limited or otherwise misleading, and simply thinking to yourself, “I want a choice that says the data are misleading” should lead you quickly to (D). Barr’s much-vaunted survey lacks significance if the surveyed stores are all bunched in a tiny section of the country that might well be unrepresentative of the country as a whole. (A) Feeling pressured to run their own study might suggest that the NTA is impressed by Barr’s conclusion. That hardly serves to weaken his logic. (B) shifts the scope from the popularity of tea in general to switching types or brands. A statement that shifts the scope can have no effect on the reasoning. (C) The identity of the sur veyors’ funders has absolutely nothing to do with whether their conclusion is accurate. Don’t fall for such sneaky ad hominem suggestions of bias. (E) Another sneaky imputation of possible bias, this time on the part of the NTA. So they pay for ads. So what? Besides, if the tea people’s conclusion is phonied up based on their own self-serving ads, then that ruse tends to strengthen Barr’s claim, not weaken it. 6. (C) Role of a Statement Identifying the role of each statement can help to clarify the role of any one of them. “Therefore,” sentence 3, is the conclusion: Dramatic changes may be needed. Sentence 1 is a factual report: Doctors say change your diet and lower your cholesterol. So where does sentence 2, the statement in question, fit in? It takes the general idea of diet change and reports that, unfortunately, moderate change isn’t good enough. That’s why the author concludes that a radical change may be indicated...and hence the statement is the conclusion’s main premise, as (C) asserts. (A) The author isn’t reporting the failure of moderate diet change to move cholesterol in order to urge people to abandon diet as a cholesterol-reducing method. Quite the contrary. (B) The author never makes this claim—never discusses “healthfulness,” never mentions meat—so how can the statement in question be offered in support of it? (D) A vegetarian diet is only cited as an example of a “dramatic change.” From that single reference, we can’t infer the inflated claim of success offered by (D). (E) The Conclusion Keyword “therefore” tells you that (E) has the evidence/conclusion relationship exactly backward. 7. (A) Assumption Terms in the evidence and conclusion must be connected. Note that empathy is common to both evidence and conclusion, but “following a code of ignoring selfwelfare to help others” is mentioned only in the former, and “civilized society” only in the latter. To the author, those two terms are obviously connected (or she wouldn’t employ them), so she must be assuming that connection as stated in (A). If as (A) says, civilized society requires people willing to ignore their own welfare to help others, and if, as the author says, such 31 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 32 PrepTest 44 Explained people require empathy, then civilized society does indeed, as the author concludes, require empathy. (B) looks like the contrapositive of the author’s conclusion, but really isn’t. That contrapositive would read, “If you have no empathy, then civilized society cannot exist.” (B)’s reference to “leading to actions detrimental” appears nowhere in the argument and thus can’t be part of an assumption within it. (C) reflects a classic mixup of sufficiency and necessity. The author says that empathy is necessary for a civilized society but not, as (C) would have it, sufficient to bring that about. (D) reports that moral codes of the type described in the argument have existed. But the author’s argument proceeds—as do most arguments—from a hypothetical base, e.g., “If you want such a moral code, you must have empathy”; “If you want civilization, you must have empathy.” Whether such codes have in fact arisen is irrelevant to the logic. (E) Sufficiency vs. necessity mixed up again. The author’s “since” clause asserts that a necessary condition of following the code of ignoring your own welfare to help others is empathy. (E) reverses those terms, asserting that empathy tends to make one follow such self-sacrificing moral codes. 8. (B) Main Point For fill-in-the-blank questions, quickly eliminate choices that depart from the argument’s scope. The author reports that an opposition or “insurgent” party is always divided against itself, with profound disagreements that the party sets aside when it’s out of power but that come to the fore when the party takes over. It follows that ignoring the factions won’t work when the party is in control, and (B), they had better be faced if power is to be retained. (A) Length of time in office is never even hinted at as a relevant issue, let alone a comparison between the first party’s tenure and that of the newly installed insurgents. (C) Logic suggests that exactly the opposite is true: that when the insurgents become the dominants, the likelihood is that they would take on their disagreements—as (B) asser ts—and develop a “justificatory ideology” to maintain their “reign.” (D) seems plausible, but the scope of this paragraph doesn’t include a prediction of a vicious cycle in which the “ins” always face a vigorous opposition “out” party. (E) goes too far. Yes, the long-suppressed factional 32 disagreements may emerge upon victory, but there’s no evidence that the factions will find it “impossible to compromise.” 9. (D) Logical Flaw A question asking for a possibility that the author has failed to consider is ripe for prephrasing. When to predict and when not to? Aside from Logical Reasoning Inference questions, which tend to defy prediction, nearly all Logical Reasoning types will be easier—and can be completed faster—if you think about what the answer ought to look like or contain or be before you go shopping. When the question asks, “What has the author failed to consider?” you’re getting a pretty big hint that may help you predict an answer even more readily. The manager wants to defend against the charge of age discrimination vis-à-vis Sullivan, and he does so by pointing to the promotion of many staffers older than Sullivan—implying that it was in fact merit and not age that made the difference in Sullivan’s case. What he’s leaving out, of course, is: who else was up for those jobs? If the only employees eligible for the recent promotions of which the manager speaks were all older than Sullivan, then that counterexample would no longer be relevant to Sullivan’s case. (Remember, Sullivan definitely lost out to a younger person.) (D) points to this weakness in the manager’s rebuttal. (A) Sullivan’s qualifications are not the issue, as the manager makes a defense against age discrimination. (B) Actually, the manager does consider that there were other factors involved in Sullivan’s case, even as he discounts age as being one of them. (C) is a bland expression of that which “some people believe,” utterly irrelevant to what did or did not happen in the case of the unfortunate Sullivan. (E), if anything, has even less to do with the issues of the Sullivan case than the other three wrong answers. What would the employer’s desire to maintain confidentiality have to do with the precise reasons for Sullivan’s being turned down? Nothing. 10. (E) Point at Issue Always follow the Kaplan Decision Tree in searching out the point at issue. (A) Does P take a position on whether pollution is a problem? Not explicitly, but by accusing alarmists of exaggerating pollution’s significance, he cer tainly seems to concede that pollution is at least a minor LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 33 Section IV: Logical Reasoning problem. And there’s little doubt that Q agrees (“serious single instance of pollution”), so this is not an issue of clear-cut disagreement. (B) The notion of “path of least resistance” is not raised by P, but by Q. Because P takes no position on it, move on. (C) P refers to “the incident and the behavior that caused it,” implicitly acknowledging that people pollute. And Q says that polluting is easier than not polluting. Here, as with (A), there is more agreement than disagreement. (D) P’s sense is that people are disposed not to pollute anyway, so there’d be no need to change their behavior. But even if P is saying “Yes, (D) is possible,” Q doesn’t disagree. To Q, not polluting is harder than polluting but not impossible. Again, more agreement than disagreement. (E), the only choice left, must be correct. As noted with regard to (D), P flat-out claims that people are not inclined to pollute, whereas Q argues that polluting is “the path of least resistance,” and hence the norm rather than the exception. (E) is a clear-cut point at issue. 11. (A) Logical Flaw A common reason for a logical flaw is that the arguer has ignored or omitted some crucial element of the situation. The author wants to toss the entire board. Pretty harsh! His beef is that board member Wagston has bribers on her staff. Too harsh! That claim doesn’t even prove that Wagston is corrupt, let alone the other board members. (A) points out that the remedy far exceeds the disease, at least as reported here. (B) The argument doesn’t need to expand the indictment of Wagston’s staff; what it needs is some evidence of corruption on the part of Wagston and all of her fellow board members. (C) The relationship between bribery and corruption is specified enough; what’s unspecified is the relationship between corruption and all of the board members that the author wants to fire. (D) would be right if it said “...presumes without justification that all of the board has engaged in corruption.” But then it would be (A), wouldn’t it. (E) The conclusion does call the board corrupt, but that cannot be dismissed as a mere character attack inasmuch as concrete evidence of corruption is provided; i.e., the argument calls attention to (rather than “deflecting attention away from”) an issue of substance. The problem, again, is that this substantial charge is not laid at the feet of the board members, which brings us back to (A). 12. (D) Inference Most Inference stimuli consist of sets of facts, and you should ponder each fact before you move to the choices in search of that which must be true. Sentence 1 outlines how coffee and tea temporarily spike the vasopressin level. Sentence 2 explains the negative effect of vasopressin (i.e., blood cell clumping) and asserts that it’s worse in women than in men. Sentence 3 posits women’s increased clumping as the reason their risk of post-angioplasty complications is 10 times that of men. While you may not be entirely comfortable with scientific terminology, these three ideas are fairly straightforward. Now to the choices. (A) Clearly vasopressin, the product of methylxanthines, causes blood cell clumping. Why would anyone, man or woman, want to take a substance that will clump blood cells prior to an operation whose very purpose is to unclog arteries? This makes no sense. (B) Nothing in the stimulus indicates whether angioplasty is or is not the only treatment available for clogged arteries. Other treatments are simply outside the scope. (C) We’re told that blood cell clumping is more pronounced in women than in men, but there’s no suggestion that this is because more vasopressin is produced in women’s bodies, let alone that women ingest more of the substances that indirectly cause the pituitary gland to produce it. (D) seems reasonable. If coffee and tea eventually have a big clogging effect on women’s arteries, then avoiding those substances before an unclogging operation makes total sense. (D) has to be what we want. Let’s make sure (E) is as bad as it needs to be. (E) That men are at risk after angioplasty, and women 10 times as much at risk, is no argument against angioplasty—at least on the evidence provided. It is an argument against drinking coffee or tea beforehand, however, which is what correct choice (D) advises. 33 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 34 PrepTest 44 Explained 13. (D) Principle For Principle questions, insist on a close matchup of stimulus and answer choice. Why do engineers stay calm and artists sweat when their work is being evaluated? The author describes the ease of assessing a machine’s function vs. the subtlety of assessing an artwork’s excellence, and leaves it to us, or to correct choice (D), to explain the connection. Engineers—the creators of machines, which have obvious worth—worry less, and artists— the creators of work with uncertain worth—worry more. (A) wipes away any difference in anxiety level between artists and engineers, thus undercutting the author’s reasoning rather than explaining it. (B) speaks to the values of the entities created, but not to the reactions of the creators to evaluation of those entities, thus leaving out the essential part of the equation. (C) The standards that “should be” employed to rate any kind of work, mechanical or artistic, are totally irrelevant to the reactions of the engineer or artist to the rating process. (E) seems to bolster the idea that an artist—whose work is indeed harder to evaluate—would be less confident, hence more nervous. But by comparing the artist’s confidence to that of the evaluator rather than to that of the engineer, (E) depar ts from the reasoning’s scope. 14. (B) Strengthen the Argument Sometimes, thinking about what’s missing from an argument, or deciding where it’s shaky, can help you predict or identify the strengthener. Two pieces of evidence are provided in support of the hypothesis that P-fat is needed to build eyesight, but only one of them actually mentions P-fat: the opening observation that babies fed milk high in P-fat have better sight than those who ingest less of the stuff. The final sentence, the observation that preemies tend to have worse eyesight than full-term babies, fails to mention P-fat, though doing so would surely make the argument stronger. (B) steps in to explain why that final comparison is relevant: by pointing out that the preemies are losing out on the best of the P-fat, it invites us to decide that this is why their sight tends to be inferior. (A) The role of P-fat, insofar as this stimulus is concerned, is restricted to developing eyesight, so no data on adults’ vision is of interest. 34 (C) The evidence does not hinge on mother’s eyesight relative to baby’s. Also, mothers are adults and, as we explained above, adults’ vision is irrelevant here. (D) Babies’ preferences couldn’t be less relevant. The effect of P-fat on eyesight hinges not at all on whether a baby likes or dislikes the liquid it comes in. (E) Since preemies are still in the womb during the last trimester, (E) fails to bolster any differentiation between their eyesight and that of full-term babies. Not to mention the fact that (E) fails to allude to P-fat whatsoever. 15. (E) Inference A “danger zone” Logical Reasoning question can be relatively easy—the middle ones aren’t all tough. If a study of contours and hatching—unique to each artist—can help to separate one artist’s work from that of another, and fakes from the real thing, and if that kind of study helped to separate Michelangelo’s and Clovio’s work, it has to be true that those two artists had perceptibly different contour and hatching styles. Choice (E), case closed. (A) Contours and hatching are one way to differentiate work, and seem to be a good way, but they may not be the only or even the main way to do so. (B) The forgeries issue is just thrown in to distract us. There’s simply no evidence that Clovio’s work would qualify as anything other than that done “genuinely” by a fellow artist, that Clovio was a forger, or that anyone forged a single Michelangelo work. (C) Studying contours and hatching can “help to distinguish...forgeries” but need not be foolproof. For all we know, contrary to (C), some forgers can duplicate contours and hatching so well that the forgery is never discovered. (D) The only Clovio works described are those once attributed to Michelangelo. (D) goes too far by encompassing all of his work, much of which may demonstrate a somewhat or even strikingly different contour and hatching style. 16. (D) Assumption Always be watchful when the conclusion introduces a term that doesn’t appear in the evidence. This author concludes that when someone commits an immoral act, it’s not because his character is defective but because he’s ignorant of the consequences. And the evidence describes those consequences: the immoral act causes harm both to others and to the LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 35 Section IV: Logical Reasoning actor himself. What the evidence fails to describe is this causality’s relationship to the mind and character of the actor, and so (D) is necessary. If (D) were false, and the immoral actor knew that the harm to himself would occur, the moralist wouldn’t be able to let him off the hook by attributing the act to ignorance of the consequences. (A) introduces the term of “moral responsibility.” Because this term appears nowhere in the argument, it cannot be part of a necessary assumption within the logic. (B) leaves out the key condition of immorality, and also fails to make sense: if you smash your head into a wall, it’s hard to argue that you haven’t harmed yourself despite the fact that you’ve failed to harm others. An author makes an absurd assumption like (B) only when her argument is somewhat absurd, and regardless of whether you agree with her viewpoint, absurd it isn’t. (C) The moralist is more concerned here with the immoral act’s backfiring on the actor than with the harm caused to others. In the context of her argument, a character defect would be one explanation for why someone would perform an immoral act that would hurt himself in the long run. We can’t be sure that the author sees harming other people as anything other than human nature. (E) Simply harming oneself—knowingly or otherwise— need not be immoral by the moralist’s definition, so such an act doesn’t necessarily make one guilty of a character defect. Besides, her aim here is to absolve the unknowing actor, not to indict the knowing one. 17. (D) Strengthen the Argument (All EXCEPT) A choice that fails to strengthen an argument either contradicts it or is irrelevant to it. Four of the choices support the idea that extremely dense cosmic dust periodically blocking the sun has been the cause of each of the ice ages that Earth has suffered beginning 800,000 years ago. We need to go into the choices confident that (1) there’s a 4:1 chance—that is, a strong likelihood—that each of these choices does support the cosmic dust idea, and (2) one and only one of them either contradicts that hypothesis or falls outside its scope. Be bold as you consider each: (A) Suppose the first cosmic dust clouds appeared 800,000 years ago. That would be a “co-incidence” in the most formal meaning of the term: two things happening together. As we know, correlation doesn’t prove causation, but a strengthener doesn’t have to prove the point; it just has to bolster it. (A) does so by connecting the first appearance of a phenomenon to the hypothesized cause of the phenomenon. Eliminate. (B) The appearance, 800,000 years ago, of a huge (and thereafter constant) cosmic dust cloud certainly supports the hypothesis, as surely as the absence of any cosmic dust around that time would weaken it. Eliminate. (C) draws a palpable connection between cold temperatures and atmospheric dust. Sure, it’s only a “slight” temperature drop, but maybe that’s enough to cause an ice age. Eliminate. (D) asserts that Earth suffers cosmic dust clouds. Well, we already knew that; “cosmic dust clouds are common,” say the climatologists. (D) does nothing to relate those clouds to any of the factors allegedly contributing to the periodic ice ages, so (D) is the “odd man out” we seek. We can be quite confident that (E) is another strengthener, and so it is, connecting cosmic debris—the result of cosmic dust—to the periodic nature of ice ages. 18. (B) Inference (Could be true EXCEPT) If four choices can be true, it follows that the right answer must contradict the text, and seeking that contradiction may be easier than confirming why all the others are consistent. The author’s purpose is to compare the rational quest for happiness with the feral pursuit of our strongest desires. The former requires us to consider consequences, while the latter focuses on the shortterm and can turn into compulsions, the attainment of which causes no happiness at all. One of these choices contradicts something in there. (A) It’s certainly possible that most people don’t have compulsions; the philosopher never suggests how many of us engage in such self-destructive behavior. So (A) doesn’t contradict the author. Eliminate it. (B) Here’s the contradiction we seek: whereas ordinary desires cause at least some happiness when attained, says the philosopher, compulsions (according to the last two lines of the paragraph) do not. Yet (B) disagrees, asser ting that any goal brings some happiness. Having found a contradiction, we know without even looking at the other choices that they are consistent with the text: (C), because, in contrast to (A), it’s quite possible that most of us seek irrational happiness; (D), because the happiness of others is never mentioned, and so it can 35 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 36 PrepTest 44 Explained readily be part of most people’s desires; and (E), because nothing in the stimulus suggests anything to the contrary. (It’s true that our strong desires may make us ignore the long-term consequences of some actions, but that doesn’t mean that those actions don’t have consequences.) 19. (B) Parallel Reasoning A parallel reasoning stimulus written in strictly formal-logic terms will usually lend itself to algebraic treatment. According to the political scientist, all A (governments worthy of respect) are B (open to dissent). No A, however, are not C (unprotective of minorities). Therefore all C (governments that protect minorities) are B. In (B), jazz musicians = A, capable of improvisation = B, and capable of reading music = C. The terms can be plugged in perfectly. There’s no need to analyze the logic any further; you don’t have to realize that while the first two statements of the stimulus convey two elements of worthy governments (i.e., they all allow dissent and all protect minorities), those elements need not have any relationship with each other. As long as you can distill an argument to stark algebraic terms—and whether you can do so depends on how the argument’s been written—then you just have to plug in the terms to find the parallel choice. (A) deviates from the algebra pretty quickly. If all A (admirable politicians) are B (put others’ interests first), we need the argument to continue, “No admirable politicians don’t...” And that’s not how (A) proceeds. Eliminate it. (C) If A (cool, dry ecosystems) are B (populated by large mammals), then....well, (B) continues If not B, then C, which fails to follow the pattern. Eliminate. (D) “Some intellectuals...”? There’s no “some” term in the original. Eliminate quickly. (E) begins If A, then B and C. Forget about it. (Equally problematic is the fact that (E)’s conclusion is a recommendation, whereas the conclusion in the stimulus is a statement of fact.) 20. (D) Logical Flaw Always try to predict the flaw on your own before consulting the choices, especially when it’s an everyday situation to which you can relate. This commercial is trying to sell us on the Acme retirement plan on the grounds that 25 years worth of 36 prizewinning economists are covered by it and hence are testament to its wisdom. “Hey,” you might ask yourself, “did these economists choose this plan?” The ad doesn’t say so. And if they are all on the plan through no choice of their own, then their being covered by it can hardly be seen as an endorsement. This line of thinking makes (D) stand out pretty readily: the ad fails to establish that the economists have selected Acme. (You might also have read the ad and said to yourself, “The economists’ being on the plan is a correlation, not necessarily a causation!” Quite right. (D) still would stand out as correct.) (A) The ad’s appeal doesn’t hinge on Acme having cornered the market on all or even most Economic Merit Prize winners; it’s simply suggesting that a whole mob of them are signed up with Acme, so you should be too. Therefore, (A)’s assertion that Acme has failed to nab all of them has no impact on the reasoning. (B) actually describes a possibility that the ad implicitly hopes we will consider. It wants us to believe that these prizewinners could have gone with a wide variety of retirement plans, but they chose Acme instead. Of course it doesn’t say they chose Acme—which, as (D) points out, is its Achilles heel—but that’s what the ad wants us to infer. (C) If these brilliant financial minds had in fact mulled over a variety of plans and chosen Acme as the best, then that would be extremely “direct evidence for that conclusion.” Contrary to (C), that is the appeal the ad goes for. And the “exper tise” is real and not supposed...or would be, at least, if we knew that the experts had opted for Acme. (E) The ad carefully and deliberately sidesteps the error that (E) describes. It does not presume that Acme will meet the needs of everyone, just “anyone with retirement needs similar to” the 25 prizewinners. 21. (E) Parallel Reasoning Sometimes in Parallel Reasoning questions you can sum up the entire argument in a sentence rather than breaking it down into: conclusion, followed by evidence. The argument as a whole can be distilled to: “Even though a small car can be more dangerous in an accident, it tends to make accidents less likely to happen in the first place.” Distill it even more abstractly: While a course of action might intensify some danger, it actually may make the danger itself less likely. (E)’s course of action (vigorous exercise) parallels the small car; the danger it helps avert (a LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 37 Section IV: Logical Reasoning wasting illness) parallels the accident; and its risk of intensification (the reduced body fat to draw upon) parallels the lack of protection. (A) The stimulus is emphatically a value judgment— ”driving a small car is better”—while (A)’s conclusion is an assertion of possible cause and effect (“fame can diminish reputation”). (A) can be discarded on that score alone. (B), like the stimulus and correct choice (E), does offer a value judgment—”reading indoors daily is a good thing.” But (B) goes on to merely list a pro and con that are unrelated to each other. (C) would be closer to the stimulus if it simply began “such-and-such vehicle is better,” rather than hinging on a term like “practical” that needs explanation. It would be closer still if it argued that while such a vehicle might intensify a problem, its use would make the problem less likely altogether. But it does not. (D) offers a laundry list of recommendations for and against courses of action (e.g., you should limit sugar and fat; you shouldn’t totally cut out sugar and fat; you should consume them moderately) that is much more complicated than the stimulus ever gets. 22. (C) Logical Flaw If the question stem tells you that the argument is flawed, it doesn’t matter how logical it might seem at first; dig deeper and find the misstep—either on your own, or in one of the choices. Why should only full-grown dogs be neutered? Because doing it early on leads to improper leg development, which, in turn, leads to arthritis problems in old age. That may sound logical on first reading. But there’s a considerable time period between early puppyhood and full growth, and by failing to recognize that fact (and thus ignoring the possibility of an earlier-than-fullgrowth neutering), the author lays himself wide open to challenge. Even if you didn’t predict it in those precise terms, (C) must make sense as the trainer’s logical error. (A) The exact percentage is irrelevant. If everything were as it appears, the knowledge that early neutering “usually” malforms leg bones would be more than adequate support for the trainer’s recommendation. (B) Again, if everything were as it appears, simply affirming that poor bone development leads to arthritis would be enough. Dog owners do not have to know all the ins and outs of veterinary medicine in order to behave logically and treat their dogs wisely. (D) “If you want to protect your dog from arthritis,” the trainer begins. His conclusion does not speak, the way (D) does, to dog owners who are looking to make a cost-benefit analysis of neutering puppies. (E) The issue is early neutering and its effects. (E) ignores the scope of the argument and focuses on a totally separate issue, i.e., what can happen in the event of proper bone development. We can only wish good bone development on all dogs, but this choice goes wide of the mark. 23. (B) Main Point Especially as a section is winding down, a truly dense and difficult-to-follow argument might be worth guessing on and skipping. Use a “triage” mindset to make the most of the section's final minutes Long and intricate if not especially technical, the political scientist’s discussion of campaign finance regulation needs to be understood in full if you are to find the dilemma’s resolution as “clear” as she herself does. And coming as it does towards the end of this LR section, this challenge ought to prompt us at least to consider whether our limited time is best spent (1) on this one or (2) on one of the ones coming up, or perhaps (3) going back to ones we skipped earlier, or even (4) checking the accuracy of our gridding. Your work on a section can conclude with finesse, if you allow it to do so. Make logical choices. Take control of your exam. The “interesting dilemma” here is that the broad principle of a democracy-namely, that people should spend their money as they see fit-tends to conflict with three other broad principles of a democracy, i.e.: not allowing a big spending candidate to have an unfair advantage; allowing all voices an equal opportunity to be heard; and not subsidizing anyone’s huge campaign (as government would have to do if less moneyed candidates were to keep up with the fat cats). As we assess the choices, we must avoid those that tilt toward only one or two of these ideas, in search of the one that attempts to rationalize them all. (A) Letting only fat cats run for office would hardly be in the spirit of letting all voices be heard. Eliminate. (B)’s categorical nature might have put you off, but it’s the only logical conclusion here. To the author, the ability of fat cats to spend outrageously directly contradicts the “strong obligation” that less moneyed candidates be heard, and since government can’t make up the difference between them (sentence 4’s second clause), the dilemma can only be resolved by 37 LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 38 PrepTest 44 Explained drawing the line as (B) suggests. “Within broad limits” doesn’t mean “without any limits at all,” and the author’s evidence leads to the conclusion that a campaign spending cap is one particular limit that needs to be imposed. For the record: (C) is cer tainly in line with the principle that government shouldn’t bankroll huge campaigns, but fails to speak to any spending by wealthy candidates in amounts over and above the government subsidy. Hence (C) leaves untouched the dilemma of the wealthy office seeker's getting an unfair edge as he exploits his right to spend more or less freely. (D) is, of course, a blatant infringement on the rights of those living in a democracy to spend pretty much however they choose, even if it be on their own campaigns. (E) might seem to smooth things out by offering relatively free spending while imposing a “broad limit,” but all (E) does is say to the less moneyed candidate, “You may spend as much as your wealthy opponent does.” This offers small comfort to the less-wellfunded candidate (who can’t match his opponent anyway) while giving the fat cat free rein to spend indiscriminately, a state of affairs that would only exacerbate the situation as the author sees it. 24. (C) Role of a Statement The ability of Keywords to convey the essence of logical structure can help you to bypass much of the tedious, difficult reading in which you’d otherwise be forced to engage. “Some people have maintained that [the statement in question].…This may be true of X....But Y....” When figuring out the purpose of the statement in question, the structural clues around it make your job infinitely easier. The very structure clearly presages the author’s view that the statement might be true in some instances but not in others, and seeing that much—in other words, simply realizing that the author finds the statement inapplicable in some situations—ought to make (C) stand out. As it happens, (C) does reflect both the terms of the argument (i.e., societies that need to share resources vs. those that need to develop new technologies) and the author’s purpose (i.e., to take exception to an idea of “some people’s” that any society is doomed by private ownership). (A) 180. The author suggests, in his second sentence, that the generalization is much more applicable to societies less technologically advanced. 38 (B) Far from suppor ting or explaining the generalization, the author seeks to show that it has only limited applicability. (D) is a 180, going in the opposite direction from (A). The whole point is that private ownership of the means of production is incompatible with the needs of a less technologically advanced society, but may be vital to the more advanced one. (E) suggests that the author wants to extend the generalization (to “any society in which...etc.”) when he actually seeks to limit it. Also, the reference to “impeding new technology” is never mentioned by the author. 25. (D) Paradox Resolving a paradox usually means more than just removing the apparent contradiction; it usually amounts to logically connecting the two elements. How can this cholesterol-lowering medication be called “effective” if those taking it have a cholesterol level 12–15% higher than the average person? Easily, if in the absence of the medication their cholesterol levels would be higher still, and that’s what (D) is getting at. To someone with a cholesterol level about 30% above average, lowering it to 15% above average would be pretty darn good. (A) News of an even more effective medication would be relevant only if the conclusion were that this one is “the best” or “the only.” It isn’t. (B), like (A), takes us into the irrelevant realm of other medications. Whether the medication in question is effective, as the author claims, has nothing to do with comparisons to other means of treating high cholesterol, effective or otherwise. (C) The prescription for this “medication” may or may not qualify as “drug therapy,” since that’s not a phrase that the author uses. But more to the point, we cannot know whether (C)’s special diets are effective in lowering cholesterol levels; and even if they are, we cannot know whether they are given to the same patients that the stimulus talks about; and even if they are, we cannot know whether that effectiveness parallels, is connected with, or is independent of the medication’s effects. (E)’s broadening of its scope to cover the entire population goes far afield. The author’s scope is solely the population of high-cholesterol sufferers who are prescribed this particular medication. Nothing more. LSAT_PT 44_Expl_new 10/16/07 3:06 PM Page 39 Section IV: Logical Reasoning 26. (C) Assumption When you see an argument that builds in a step-by-step fashion, skip ahead to the conclusion. Seeing where the argument’s going may help you follow the steps. This entire argument is a string of necessar y conditions, and because it ends with a firm prediction of what will not occur, the missing assumption will describe a necessary condition that isn’t going to be met. Let’s follow the chain: “If all countries in an alliance are to be strong in foreign policy”—and notice, the ultimate conclusion is confident that not all EU members will be!—then what’s required (a necessary condition, in other words) is an aggressive response to problems. To have an aggressive response to problems, what’s required is unanimous agreement that the problems are grave. In order to get unanimous agreement on the gravity of the problems, what’s required is unanimous agreement that the alliance’s economy is threatened. And there it ends. Well, the author wants this particular house of cards to fall—she wants us to demonstrate that the EU won’t all be strong in foreign policy—and it will fall if the EU is split as to the economic threat posed by some problems, which makes (C) the right answer. If, as (C) contends, not all EU members agree on the economic threat of some problems, then they won’t all agree on the gravity of those problems and, in turn, they won’t respond aggressively to those problems, and (we’re back where we began) they won’t all be strong in foreign policy. Whew! (A) offers an unwarranted comparison between two types of countries and brings in the totally irrelevant issue of whether countries join alliances in the first place, irrelevant because this argument is about an alliance already in place, the EU. (B) offers a complex melding and, really, distortion of various terms from the argument that the author is by no means relying upon: “becoming less aggressive” (too vague); “greater wealth” (never mentioned); “more to lose” (ditto). (D) “Generally weak”—this is not a term that appears within the logic whatsoever. The argument is not at all affected by a statement of generalities, but rather by a concrete assertion that a condition necessary for a result has not been met. What we get in (C), in other words. (E) Each of the argument’s premises is set up and works independently, so (E)’s comparison of benefits has nothing to do with the chain of logic that the author sets up. 39 1-800-KAP-TEST | kaptest.com ÖLL3192A!ä LL3192A *LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council. Printed in USA ©2008 Kaplan, Inc.