1
CHAPTER 4
RANDOM WALK
&
BROWNIAN MOTION
6/5/2023
2
4.1 Introduction
A stochastic process in continuous time
ππ‘ : π‘ ≥ 0
consist of
chronologically ordered random variables, but here the variable t is continuous
and it is a positive real number. Stock prices continuous time process which is
easier to handle analytically.
One of the well-known and long studied stochastic model is known as
Brownian motion and is named after the English botanist Robert Brown, in
1827. Brown described the unusual motion exhibited by a small particle that is
totally immersed in a liquid or gas. It is important in the modeling and analysis
of the price moments of stock and commodities in financial mathematics. A
formal mathematical description of Brownian motion and its properties was first
given by the great mathematician Norbort Winer beginning in 1918.
6/5/2023
3
Figure 4.1. Brownian motion of a molecule can be described as a random walk
where collisions with other molecules cause random direction changes.
Botanist Robert Brown
6/5/2023
Mathematician Norbert Wiener
4
4.2 Random Walk
ο Random walk is a process, a model or a rule to generate path sequence of
random motion.
ο A random walk is a mathematical object, known as a stochastic or random
process, that describes a path that consists of a succession of random steps on
some mathematical space such as the integers.
Many natural phenomena can be modelled as random walk
ο The path traced by a molecule as it travels in a liquid or gas,
ο The search path of a foraging animal
ο The price of a fluctuating stock
ο The financial status of a gambler
6/5/2023
Figure 4.2: Simulation of Normally Distributed Random walk
5
6/5/2023
6
Figure 4.3: Simulation on Higher Dimension random walk
6/5/2023
Definition 4.1. (Random Walk)
7
Consider a trial whose outcomes are success with probability π or failure with
probability 1 − π. Repeat the trial inο¬nitely many times (e.g., toss a fair coin
inο¬nitely). The successive outcomes are denoted as π = (π1 , π2 , π3 , … ) e.g.,
π = (π1 , π2 , π3 , … ) = (π», π, π, … ) ππ (π, π», π, … ). Deο¬ne
1 ππ ππ = π»
ππ =
−1 ππ ππ = π
The probability mass function of ππ is given by
π ππ = 1 = π;
π ππ = −1 = 1 − π;
π + π = 1.
6/5/2023
8
Set π0 = 0 and deο¬ne
π
ππ = π1 + π2 + β― … . +ππ =
ππ
π = 1,2, … … . .
π=1
where ππ ’s are π. π. π. (independent and identically distributed) random variables.
Then, {ππ , π = 0,1, … } is known as a random walk.
Sample path of the random walk is shown in the ο¬gure 4.1 for a outcome π where
ππ = π, π = 1,2, . . with π = 0.45.
6/5/2023
9
Figure 4.4: A sample path of the random walk
6/5/2023
10
Properties of Random Walk
(a). Choose non-negative integers 0 = π0 < π1 < … < ππ . Then
ππ
πππ − πππ =
ππ
ππ −
π=1
ππ
ππ =
π=1
ππ
π=ππ +1
Since ππ are π. π. π . random variables, ππ1 − ππ0 , ππ2 − ππ1 , … , πππ − πππ−1 are
mutually independent variables. Hence , {ππ , π = 0,1, … } has the independent
increment property.
For example if ππ = 10 πππ ππ = 4 π‘βππ
10
π10 − π4 =
4
ππ −
π=1
10
ππ =
π=1
ππ = π5 + π6 + β― … . +π10
π=5
6/5/2023
11
(b). Similarly, for 1 ≤ π < π ≤ π < π πππ π − π = π − π π‘βππ ππ − ππ ≡
ππ − ππ . Hence, {ππ , π = 0,1, … } has stationary increment property.
(Stationary increments is for any π < π‘, ππ‘ − ππ is equal in distribution to ππ‘−π .
This means that the probability distribution of any increment ππ‘ − ππ depends
only on the length of time interval π − π‘, the increments on same time interval
will result in the same probability distribution.)
6/5/2023
(c). Also, suppose ππ+β − πβ = πβ+1 + πβ+2 + … + πβ+π , one can observe that,
12
πΈ ππ = 1 × π + −1 × π = π − π
πΈ ππ2 = 12 × π + −1
πππ ππ = πΈ
ππ2
2
×π =π+π
− πΈ ππ
2
2
= π+π
− π−π
= π+π
− π2 − π 2 + 2ππ
= π 1 − π + π 1 − π + 2ππ = 4ππ
Therefore
π+β
πΈ ππ+β − πβ = πΈ
π+β
ππ
=
π=β+1
πΈ(ππ ) = π π − π πππ
π=β+1
π+β
π ππ ππ+β − πβ = πππ
π+β
ππ
=
6/5/2023
πππ(ππ ) = 4πππ .
Result 4.1: For p ∈ 0,1 , π ∈ β πππ π ∈ β€ π€ππ‘β π ≤ π, given, the probability to
13
end up in the integer π after a random walk of π steps, which starts at 0, is
Pr ππ = π =
π
π+π
πΆπ+π π 2
2
1−π
π−π
2
If π and π have same parity, and probability to end up in the integer number π is
Pr ππ = π = 0, if π and π have opposite parity.
6/5/2023
Proof: Denote by ππ
the number of steps taken by the random walk right-ward
14
by ππΏ the number of steps taken left-ward. Obviously ππ
, ππΏ ∈ 0,1,2 … … . π
and we have ππ
+ ππΏ = π πππ ππ
− ππΏ = π.
If j and n have same parity, we have ππ
=
π+π
2
πππ ππΏ =
π−π
2
. . (π).
If π πππ π do not have the same parity, there are no integer numbers ππ
πππ ππΏ
satisfying (π), in fact there exist no random walk of n steps that ends up in π.
Every random walk of π steps can be identified with π Bernoulli trials. Hence, the
probability to make ππ
steps rightward and ππΏ = π − ππ
steps leftward is
Pr ππ = ππ
=
π
πΆππ
πππ
1 − π
ππΏ .
Therefore, if π πππ π have the same parity, then the probability to end up in π is
Pr ππ = π =
π
π+π
πΆπ+π π 2
2
1−π
π−π
2
πππ
if π πππ π have the opposite parity, then the probability to end up in π ππ 0.
6/5/2023
15
Example 4.1:
For a random walk on the integer axis, which starts at 0, the compute:
(i). ππ π6 = π10 = ππ π7 + π8 +π9 +π10 = 0 = ππ π6 − π10 = 2
4
=
πΆ2 π2 1 − π
(4−2)
= 6π2 1 − π
2
(ii).
ππ π5 = −1 πππ π11 = 3 = ππ π5 = −1 ∩ π11 = 3
= ππ π5 = −1)Pr(π11 = 3 π5 = −1
= ππ π5 = −1)Pr(π11 − π5 = 4
= ππ π1 + π2 +π3 +π4 + π5 = −1)Pr(π6 + π7 + π8 +π9 +π10 + π11 = 4
=
5
πΆ2 π2 1 − π 3 .
= 60π7 1 − π
6
πΆ5 π5 1 − π
4
6/5/2023
16
(iii). ππ π6 = 3 = ππ π1 + π2 +π3 +π4 +π5 +π6 = 3 = 0 Since π = 3 and
π=6
have opposite parity.
(iv). ππ π6 − π2 = 2 π2 = 2 = ππ π6 + π5 +π4 +π3 = 2 =
=
4
πΆ3 π3 1 − π
(4−3)
= 4π3 1 − π
(v). ππ π6 = 2 π2 = 2 = ππ π6 + π5 +π4 +π3 = 0
=
4
πΆ2 π2 1 − π
(4−2)
= 6π2 1 − π
2
6/5/2023
17
4.3 Brownian Motion
Consider a particle performs a random walk such that in a small interval of time
of duration Δπ‘, the displacement of the particle to the right or to the left is also of
small magnitude Δπ₯. Let π(π‘) be denote the total displacement of the particle in
time π‘ being π₯. Let ππ be denote the length of the πth step taken by the particle in
a small interval of time Δπ‘ with pmf
π(ππ = Δπ₯) = π; π(ππ = −Δπ₯) = 1 − π; π + π = 1
0 < π < 1, where π is independent of π₯ and π‘. Partition the interval of length
π‘ into n equal subintervals of length Δπ‘. Then πΔπ‘ = π‘ and the total
displacement π(π‘) is the sum of π i.i.d. random variables ππ , i.e.,
6/5/2023
18
π(π‘)
π π‘ =
π‘
π=π π‘ =
Δπ‘
ππ
π=1
πΈ ππ = Δπ₯ × π + −Δπ₯ × π = Δπ₯ π − π
πΈ ππ2 = Δπ₯ 2 × π + −Δπ₯
2
× π = Δπ₯
2
π+π
π£ππ ππ = πΈ ππ2 − πΈ(ππ )2
= Δπ₯
= Δπ₯
2
2
π + π − Δπ₯ π − π
π+π − π−π
= 4ππ Δπ₯
2
2
2
6/5/2023
19
Using πΈ ππ = π − π Δπ₯ πππ π£ππ ππ = 4ππ Δπ₯
πΈ π π‘
= ππΈ ππ =
πππ π(π‘) = ππππ ππ
2
, we get
π‘
π − π Δπ₯
Δπ‘
π‘
= 4ππ Δπ₯ 2 .
Δπ‘
To get a meaningful result, as Δπ₯ → 0, Δπ‘ → 0, we must have
Δπ₯ 2
→ π πππππ‘, π − π → a multiple of Δπ₯ .
Δπ‘
π΄π Δπ₯ → 0, Δπ‘ → 0, πππ π’πππ‘ π‘πππ πΈ π π‘
→ π πππ πππ π(π‘) → π 2 . π»ππππ,
6/5/2023
20
We get
Δπ₯ = π βπ‘
1/2
1
π = 1 + π βπ‘
2
,
1
π = 1 − π βπ‘
2
1/2 /π
1/2 /π
Then
πΈ π π‘
= ππΈ ππ =
π‘
π‘ 1
1
π − π Δπ₯ =
1 + π βπ‘ 1/2 /π − 1 − π βπ‘
Δπ‘
Δπ‘ 2
2
1
π‘
π βπ‘ 2
1
Δπ‘
=
π βπ‘ 2 = ππ‘
π
π‘
πππ π(π‘) = 4ππ Δπ₯
Δπ‘
2
π‘
1
= 4
1 + π βπ‘
Δπ‘ 2
1/2
/π
1
1 − π βπ‘
2
1/2
/π
1/2
/π
π βπ‘
π βπ‘
1/2
1/2 2
= π‘π
Now, we present the limiting distribution of symmetric random walk is
Brownian motion using central limit theorem.
6/5/2023
21
Limiting Case of Random Walk
For large π(π‘)(= π), π π‘ =
π(π‘)
π=1 ππ
converges in distribution to π(ππ‘, π 2 π‘). Since
π‘ represents the length of the interval of time during which the displacement, we
conclude for 0 < π < π‘,
π π‘ − π π
Further,
the
increments
ππ π π π‘ − π , π 2 π‘ − π .
{π(π ) − π(0)} and
{π(π‘) − π(π )} are
mutually
independent.
6/5/2023
Definition 4.2:Brownian Motion
22
A Gaussian random process {π(π‘), π‘ ∈ [0, ∞)} is called a Brownian motion or
a Wiener process if
1. W(0) = 0.
2. For all 0 ≤ π‘1 < π‘2 , π(π‘2 ) − π(π‘1 ) ∼ π(0, π 2 (π‘2 −π‘1 )).
3. π(π‘) has independent increments. That is, for all 0 ≤ π‘1 < π‘2 < π‘3 β― < π‘π ,
the
random variables π π‘2 − π π‘1 , π π‘3 − π π‘2 , … … … , π(π‘π ) − π(π‘π−1 ) are
independent.
4. W(t) has continuous sample paths.
If π 2 = 1 is called a standard Wiener process or standard Brownian motion.
Note: The wiener process has no jumps. But fluctuations heavily the paths are
continuous but highly erratic. Those paths are not differentiable with probability 1.
Sample path of Brownian motion is shown in the figure as follows.
6/5/2023
23
6/5/2023
Figure 4.5: A sample path of a Brownian motion
24
Example 4.2:
Let π(π‘) be a standard Brownian motion. For all π , π‘ ∈ [0, ∞), find
πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘)).
Solution: Let's assume π ≤ π‘. Then, we have
πΆππ£ π π , π π‘
= πΆππ£ π(π ), π(π ) + π(π‘) − π(π )
= πΆππ£[π π , π π ] + πΆππ£[π(π ), π(π‘) − π(π )]
= πππ(π(π )) + πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘) − π(π ))
= π + πΆππ£ π π , π π‘ − π π
6/5/2023
25
Brownian
motion
has
independent
variables π(π ) = π(π ) − π(0)
increments,
so
and π(π‘) − π(π )
the
two
random
are independent.
Therefore, πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘) − π(π )) = 0.
We conclude πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘)) = π .
Similarly, if π‘ ≤ π we obtain πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘)) = π‘.
We conclude
πͺππ(πΎ(π), πΎ(π)) = πππ(π, π), πππ πππ π, π.
6/5/2023
Example 4.3:
26
Let π(π‘) be a standard Brownian motion.
a. Find π(1 < π(1) < 2).
b.Find π(π(2) < 3 π(1) = 1).
Solution
a. We have π(1) ∼ π(0,1). Thus,
π 1 < π 1 < 2 = Φ 2 − Φ 1 ≈ 0.136
b. Note that π(2) = π(1) + π(2) − π(1). Also, note that π(1) and π(2) −
π(1) are independent, and π(2) − π(1) ∼ π(0,1).
We conclude that
π(2) π(1) = 1 ∼ π(1,1).
Thus,
π(π(2) < 3 π(1) = 1) = Φ
3−1
= Φ(2) ≈ 0.98
1
6/5/2023
Example 4.4:
27
Let π(π‘) be a standard Brownian motion. Find π(π(1) + π(2) > 2).
Solution
Let π = π(1) + π(2). Since π(π‘) is a Gaussian process, π is a normal random
variable.
πΈ(π) = πΈ[π(1)] + πΈ[π(2)] = 0,
πππ(π) = πππ(π(1)) + πππ(π(2)) + 2πΆππ£(π(1), π(2)) = 1 + 2 + 2 ⋅ 1
We conclude
π ∼ π(0,5).
Thus,
π(π > 2) = 1 − Φ
2−0
5
≈ 0.186
6/5/2023
28
Example 4.5:
If {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is a standard Brownian motion then the following are also
Brownian motion.
(i). π΅1 π‘ = ππ΅ π‘/π 2
π≠0
Solution:
Consider π΅1 0 = ππ΅ 0/π 2 = ππ΅ 0 = 0 (Since π΅(π‘) is a standard BM
from property (i), π΅(0) = 0)
Satisfy the first property.
6/5/2023
29
πΈ π΅1 π‘ − π΅1 π
= ππΈ π΅ π‘/π 2 − ππ΅ π /π 2
= π πΈ π΅ π‘/π 2
− πΈ π΅ π /π 2
=0−0=0
πΈ
π΅1 π‘ − π΅1 π
= π2 πΈ
π΅ π‘/π 2
2
2
= π2πΈ
+πΈ
π΅ π‘/π 2 − ππ΅ π /π 2
π΅ π /π 2
2
2
− 2πΈ π΅ π‘/π 2
π΅ π /π 2
= π 2 π‘/π 2 + π /π 2 − 2πππ π‘/π 2 , π /π 2
= π 2 π‘/π 2 + π /π 2 − 2π /π 2
=π‘−π
Therefore
π΅1 π‘ − π΅1 π ~π 0, π‘ − π
Property two satisfied.
6/5/2023
30
Note that if π‘1 < π‘2 ≤ π‘3 < π‘4 then
increments π΅
π‘4
π2
−π΅
π‘3
π2
and π΅
π‘1
π2
π‘2
π2
<
π‘2
π2
−π΅
≤
π‘3
π2
π‘1
π2
<
π‘4
π2
and the corresponding
are independent. Then the
multiplies of each by c are independent and so π΅1 π‘4 − π΅1 (π‘3 ) and π΅1 π‘2 −
π΅1 (π‘1 ) are independent.
Third property satisfied.
π΅1 π‘ = ππ΅ π‘/π 2
π ≠ 0 is a standard BM.
6/5/2023
31
(ii). π΅2 π‘ = π΅ π‘ cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘ sin ∝
∝≥0
Where {π΅′ (π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is a standard Brownian motion independent of
{π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥
0} .
Solution:
Consider
π΅2 0 = π΅ 0 cos πΌ + π΅′ 0 sin ∝ = 0 (Since
π΅ π‘ πππ π΅′ π‘
are
standard BM from property (i), π΅ 0 = π΅′ π‘ = 0)
Satisfy the first property.
πΈ π΅2 π‘ − π΅2 π
= πΈ π΅ π‘ cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘ sin ∝ − π΅ π cos πΌ − π΅′ π sin ∝
= πΈ cos πΌ π΅ π‘ − π΅(π ) + sin ∝ π΅′ π‘ − π΅′(π )
= cos πΌ πΈ π΅ π‘ − π΅(π ) + sin ∝ πΈ π΅′ π‘ − π΅′(π )
= 0−0=0
6/5/2023
32
πΈ
2
π΅2 π‘ − π΅2 π
= cos 2 πΌ πΈ π΅(π‘)
2
2 cos 2 πΌ πΈ π΅ π‘ π΅ π
= πΈ π΅ π‘ cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘ sin ∝ − π΅ π cos πΌ − π΅′ π sin ∝
+cos 2 πΌ πΈ π΅(π )
2
+sin2 πΌ πΈ π΅′(π‘)
− 2 sin2 πΌ πΈ π΅′ π‘ π΅′ π
2
+ sin2 πΌ πΈ π΅′(π )
2
2
−
+ cos πΌ sin πΌ πΈ π΅ π‘ π΅′ π‘ +….
= cos 2 πΌ π‘ + cos 2 πΌ s+sin2 πΌ t + sin2 πΌ π − 2 cos 2 πΌ min π‘, π − 2 sin2 πΌ min(π‘, π )
= cos 2 πΌ π‘ + π − 2π + sin2 πΌ π‘ + π − 2π
=π‘−π
Therefore
π΅2 π‘ − π΅2 π ~π 0, π‘ − π
Satisfy the second property.
6/5/2023
33
Note that if π‘1 < π‘2 ≤ π‘3 < π‘4 then increments
π΅2 π‘4 − π΅2 π‘3 = π΅ π‘4 cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘4 sin ∝ − π΅ π‘3 cos πΌ − π΅′ π‘3 sin ∝
= cos πΌ π΅ π‘4 − π΅ π‘3
π΅2 π‘2 − π΅2 π‘1
= π΅ π‘2 cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘2 sin ∝ − π΅ π‘1 cos πΌ − π΅′ π‘1 sin ∝
= cos πΌ π΅ π‘2 − π΅ π‘1
Since
π΅ π‘4 − π΅ π‘3
+ sin ∝ π΅′ π‘4 − π΅′ π‘3
and
π΅′ π‘4 − π΅′ π‘3
+ sin ∝ π΅′ π‘2 − π΅′ π‘1
are independent from
π΅ π‘2 −
6/5/2023
34
Problem 4.1:
Let π(π‘) be standard Brownian motion.
(a) Find the probability that 0 < π(1) < 1.
(b) Find the probability that 0 < π(1) < 1 and 1 < π(2) − π(1) < 3.
(c) Find the probability that 0 < π(1) < 1 and 1 < π(2) − π(1) <
3 and 0 < π(3) − π(2) < 1/2.
6/5/2023
Brownian Motion with Drift
35
This is a stochastic process of the form {π΅1 π‘ = ππ‘ + π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} where π is a
constant and {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is Brownian motion.
Definition 4.3:Brownian Motion with Drift
A stochastic process {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is called Brownian Motion (or Wiener
Process) with volatility π and drift π if
(i). π΅ 0 = 0
(ii). π΅(π‘) has independent stationary increments.
(iii). π΅ π‘ has normal distribution with mean μπ‘ and variance π 2 π‘.
Note: Since π΅ π‘ has normal distribution with mean μπ‘ and variance π 2 π‘ , π΅ π‘ −
π΅ π has normal distribution with mean μ π‘ − π πππ π£ππππππππ 2 π‘ − π .
6/5/2023
36
4.4 Geometric Brownian Motion
Under the Brownian motion we think stock’s price as a particle and also
normal distribution seems like a reasonable choice to model a stock price. However
there are some obvious problems with the BM viewpoint for stock prices
themselves.
a. BM process can be negative where as stock prices are never negative.
b. In a BM process, the increments π΅ π‘ − π΅(π ) have distribution , that depends
only on (π‘ − π ) then thus if a stock price were to have a BM process π΅(π‘) then the
expected change
πΈ π΅ π‘ − π΅(π ) in the stock price over a period of time could
be π (π‘ − π ), which does not depends on the initial price π΅(π ) . This is not realistic.
6/5/2023
Example 4.6:
37
Consider change in price is π π‘ − π = $10. A $10 expected change of price
might be quite reasonable if the stock priced (initially) at π΅ π = $100. But not
nearly as reasonable if the stock is initially priced at π΅ π = $1.
To resolve this issue, it would seem to make more sense to model the rate of return
of the stock price as a BM process.
Example 4.7:
Say that a stock’s price rate of return is 10% is to say that the price may grow
$100 to $110 or $1 to $1.10.
This can be handling, by assuming that stock price π π‘ at time t is given by
π π‘ = π 0 π π»π‘
Where π»π‘
Continuously compounded rate of return of the stock price over the
period of time [0, t]. Also π»π‘ refers to as the logarithmic growth of the stock price ,
satisfy π»π‘ = ππ
π π‘
π 0
6/5/2023
.
38
Definition 4.3: (Geometric Brownian Motion)
A stochastic process of the form π π»π‘ π‘ ≥ 0 is a Brownian motion process called
a geometric Brownian Motion process.
If we assume that π»π‘ follows a Brownian motion process with drift then we can
write
π π‘
π»π‘ = ππ
π 0
= ππ‘ + ππ΅(π‘)
Where {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is standard Brownian motion. Therefore π»π‘ has a normal
distribution with
πΈ π»π‘ = ππ‘
πππ π»π‘ = π 2 π‘
6/5/2023
39
It is clear that the continuous time model is a limiting case of the Cox-RossRubistine model. The continuously compounded rate of return π»π‘ , over the time
period 0 , π‘ , which satisfied the equation
π π‘ = π 0 π π»π‘
π π‘
ln
π 0
= π»π‘ = ππ‘ + ππ΅(π‘)
Differentiate with respect to t
1 π π π‘
π π‘ ππ‘ π 0
π 0
π
= π + π π΅(π‘)
ππ‘
1 ππ π‘
π
= π + π π΅(π‘)
π π‘ ππ‘
ππ‘
6/5/2023
40
The most common approach to the continuous time model of stock price assumes
that the instantaneous percentage return is a Brownian motion process more
specifically
ππ π‘
ππ΅(π‘)
= πππ‘ + π
π π‘
ππ‘
ππ(π‘) = π(π‘) πππ‘ + πππ΅(π‘)
Where {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is standard Brownian motion and π and π are constants.
Further
6/5/2023
41
We can say that the stochastic process
ππ(π‘)
π(π‘)
π‘ ≥ 0 is assume to follow Brownian motion process with drift π and volatility π.
The formula can be written
ππ π‘ = ππ π‘ ππ‘ + ππ π‘ ππ΅ π‘
This is an instance of what is known as a stochastic differential equation.
Thus, Geometric BM in differential form is,
ππ π‘ = π π π‘ ππ‘ + ππ π‘ ππ΅(π‘)
And
Geometric BM in integral form is,
π‘
π‘
π π‘ = π 0 + 0 π π π’ ππ’ + 0 ππ π’ ππ΅(π’)
6/5/2023
42
Figure 4.6: Two sample paths of Geometric Brownian motion, with different parameters.
The blue line has larger drift, the green line has larger variance.
6/5/2023
Example 4.8. Suppose that stock price {π(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} follows geometric Brownian
43
motion with drift μ = 8% per year and variance π 2 = 8.5% per annum. Assume
that, the current price of the stock is π(0) = 60. ο¬nd
(i). πΈ[π(3)]
According to the geometric Brownian motion we have
π π‘
ππ
π 0
= ππ‘ + ππ΅(π‘)
ln π π‘ − ln π(0) = ππ‘ + ππ΅(π‘)
ln π π‘ = ππ‘ + ln π(0) + ππ΅(π‘)
Since π΅(π‘)~π 0 , π‘
ln π π‘ ~π ππ‘ + ln π(0) , π 2 π‘
Therefore
π π‘ ~πππππππππ ππ‘ + ln π(0) , π 2 π‘
6/5/2023
44
Result 2.1: Suppose that X has the lognormal distribution with parameters π πππ π,
then
1
πΈ π π = ππ₯π π π + π2 π 2
2
π∈π
Now
π π‘ ~πππππππππ ππ‘ + ln π(0) , π 2 π‘
Therefore
πΈ π π‘
πΈ π 3
1 2
= ππ₯π ππ‘ + ln π(0) + π π‘
2
1
= ππ₯π 0.08 × 3 + ln 60 + × 0.085 × 3
2
= 84.65
6/5/2023
45
(ii). π π 3 > 100 = π
π 3
60
>
100
60
= π log
π 3
60
> log
100
60
100
log 60 − 0.08 ∗ 3
=π π>
0.085 ∗ 3
= ππ π > 0.54 = 1 − 0.7054
6/5/2023
46
Example 4.9. The price of a stock follows a geometric Brownian motion with
parameters μ = 0.12 and π = 0.24. If the present price of the stock is π
π . 40,
what is the probability that a call option having four months to exercise time and
with a strike price πΎ = π
π . 42, will be exercised?
Solution
A call option on a stock with exercise time π and strike πΎ is the right, but not the
obligation, to buy a certain number of shares at time T for the ο¬xed price πΎ. If π(π‘)
denotes the market price of this number of shares then the value of the option at
time π is π(π) − πΎ ππ π(π) > πΎ, since the shares can be bought for πΎ and
immediately sold in the market for π(π). On the other hand the option is worthless,
and will not be exercised, if π(π) ≤ πΎ. The required probability is
ππ{π(1/3) > 42}.
6/5/2023
47
Since
π(π)
~πππππππππ
π(0)
ππ , π 2 π
4
For the problem μ = 0.12 πππ π = 0.24 , π = 12 = 1/3 πππ π 0 = 40
π(1/3)
1
~πππππππππ 0.12 × , 0.242 × 1/3
40
3
π(1/3)
42
ππ π 1/3 > 42 = ππ
>
40
40
π(1/3)
42
= ππ ππ
> ln
40
40
42
1
ln 40 − 0.12 × 3
= ππ π >
0.242 × 1/3
= ππ π > 0.063)
= 1 − 0.5239
6/5/2023