1 CHAPTER 4 RANDOM WALK & BROWNIAN MOTION 6/5/2023 2 4.1 Introduction A stochastic process in continuous time ππ‘ : π‘ ≥ 0 consist of chronologically ordered random variables, but here the variable t is continuous and it is a positive real number. Stock prices continuous time process which is easier to handle analytically. One of the well-known and long studied stochastic model is known as Brownian motion and is named after the English botanist Robert Brown, in 1827. Brown described the unusual motion exhibited by a small particle that is totally immersed in a liquid or gas. It is important in the modeling and analysis of the price moments of stock and commodities in financial mathematics. A formal mathematical description of Brownian motion and its properties was first given by the great mathematician Norbort Winer beginning in 1918. 6/5/2023 3 Figure 4.1. Brownian motion of a molecule can be described as a random walk where collisions with other molecules cause random direction changes. Botanist Robert Brown 6/5/2023 Mathematician Norbert Wiener 4 4.2 Random Walk ο Random walk is a process, a model or a rule to generate path sequence of random motion. ο A random walk is a mathematical object, known as a stochastic or random process, that describes a path that consists of a succession of random steps on some mathematical space such as the integers. Many natural phenomena can be modelled as random walk ο The path traced by a molecule as it travels in a liquid or gas, ο The search path of a foraging animal ο The price of a fluctuating stock ο The financial status of a gambler 6/5/2023 Figure 4.2: Simulation of Normally Distributed Random walk 5 6/5/2023 6 Figure 4.3: Simulation on Higher Dimension random walk 6/5/2023 Definition 4.1. (Random Walk) 7 Consider a trial whose outcomes are success with probability π or failure with probability 1 − π. Repeat the trial inο¬nitely many times (e.g., toss a fair coin inο¬nitely). The successive outcomes are denoted as π = (π1 , π2 , π3 , … ) e.g., π = (π1 , π2 , π3 , … ) = (π», π, π, … ) ππ (π, π», π, … ). Deο¬ne 1 ππ ππ = π» ππ = −1 ππ ππ = π The probability mass function of ππ is given by π ππ = 1 = π; π ππ = −1 = 1 − π; π + π = 1. 6/5/2023 8 Set π0 = 0 and deο¬ne π ππ = π1 + π2 + β― … . +ππ = ππ π = 1,2, … … . . π=1 where ππ ’s are π. π. π. (independent and identically distributed) random variables. Then, {ππ , π = 0,1, … } is known as a random walk. Sample path of the random walk is shown in the ο¬gure 4.1 for a outcome π where ππ = π, π = 1,2, . . with π = 0.45. 6/5/2023 9 Figure 4.4: A sample path of the random walk 6/5/2023 10 Properties of Random Walk (a). Choose non-negative integers 0 = π0 < π1 < … < ππ . Then ππ πππ − πππ = ππ ππ − π=1 ππ ππ = π=1 ππ π=ππ +1 Since ππ are π. π. π . random variables, ππ1 − ππ0 , ππ2 − ππ1 , … , πππ − πππ−1 are mutually independent variables. Hence , {ππ , π = 0,1, … } has the independent increment property. For example if ππ = 10 πππ ππ = 4 π‘βππ 10 π10 − π4 = 4 ππ − π=1 10 ππ = π=1 ππ = π5 + π6 + β― … . +π10 π=5 6/5/2023 11 (b). Similarly, for 1 ≤ π < π ≤ π < π πππ π − π = π − π π‘βππ ππ − ππ ≡ ππ − ππ . Hence, {ππ , π = 0,1, … } has stationary increment property. (Stationary increments is for any π < π‘, ππ‘ − ππ is equal in distribution to ππ‘−π . This means that the probability distribution of any increment ππ‘ − ππ depends only on the length of time interval π − π‘, the increments on same time interval will result in the same probability distribution.) 6/5/2023 (c). Also, suppose ππ+β − πβ = πβ+1 + πβ+2 + … + πβ+π , one can observe that, 12 πΈ ππ = 1 × π + −1 × π = π − π πΈ ππ2 = 12 × π + −1 πππ ππ = πΈ ππ2 2 ×π =π+π − πΈ ππ 2 2 = π+π − π−π = π+π − π2 − π 2 + 2ππ = π 1 − π + π 1 − π + 2ππ = 4ππ Therefore π+β πΈ ππ+β − πβ = πΈ π+β ππ = π=β+1 πΈ(ππ ) = π π − π πππ π=β+1 π+β π ππ ππ+β − πβ = πππ π+β ππ = 6/5/2023 πππ(ππ ) = 4πππ . Result 4.1: For p ∈ 0,1 , π ∈ β πππ π ∈ β€ π€ππ‘β π ≤ π, given, the probability to 13 end up in the integer π after a random walk of π steps, which starts at 0, is Pr ππ = π = π π+π πΆπ+π π 2 2 1−π π−π 2 If π and π have same parity, and probability to end up in the integer number π is Pr ππ = π = 0, if π and π have opposite parity. 6/5/2023 Proof: Denote by ππ the number of steps taken by the random walk right-ward 14 by ππΏ the number of steps taken left-ward. Obviously ππ , ππΏ ∈ 0,1,2 … … . π and we have ππ + ππΏ = π πππ ππ − ππΏ = π. If j and n have same parity, we have ππ = π+π 2 πππ ππΏ = π−π 2 . . (π). If π πππ π do not have the same parity, there are no integer numbers ππ πππ ππΏ satisfying (π), in fact there exist no random walk of n steps that ends up in π. Every random walk of π steps can be identified with π Bernoulli trials. Hence, the probability to make ππ steps rightward and ππΏ = π − ππ steps leftward is Pr ππ = ππ = π πΆππ πππ 1 − π ππΏ . Therefore, if π πππ π have the same parity, then the probability to end up in π is Pr ππ = π = π π+π πΆπ+π π 2 2 1−π π−π 2 πππ if π πππ π have the opposite parity, then the probability to end up in π ππ 0. 6/5/2023 15 Example 4.1: For a random walk on the integer axis, which starts at 0, the compute: (i). ππ π6 = π10 = ππ π7 + π8 +π9 +π10 = 0 = ππ π6 − π10 = 2 4 = πΆ2 π2 1 − π (4−2) = 6π2 1 − π 2 (ii). ππ π5 = −1 πππ π11 = 3 = ππ π5 = −1 ∩ π11 = 3 = ππ π5 = −1)Pr(π11 = 3 π5 = −1 = ππ π5 = −1)Pr(π11 − π5 = 4 = ππ π1 + π2 +π3 +π4 + π5 = −1)Pr(π6 + π7 + π8 +π9 +π10 + π11 = 4 = 5 πΆ2 π2 1 − π 3 . = 60π7 1 − π 6 πΆ5 π5 1 − π 4 6/5/2023 16 (iii). ππ π6 = 3 = ππ π1 + π2 +π3 +π4 +π5 +π6 = 3 = 0 Since π = 3 and π=6 have opposite parity. (iv). ππ π6 − π2 = 2 π2 = 2 = ππ π6 + π5 +π4 +π3 = 2 = = 4 πΆ3 π3 1 − π (4−3) = 4π3 1 − π (v). ππ π6 = 2 π2 = 2 = ππ π6 + π5 +π4 +π3 = 0 = 4 πΆ2 π2 1 − π (4−2) = 6π2 1 − π 2 6/5/2023 17 4.3 Brownian Motion Consider a particle performs a random walk such that in a small interval of time of duration Δπ‘, the displacement of the particle to the right or to the left is also of small magnitude Δπ₯. Let π(π‘) be denote the total displacement of the particle in time π‘ being π₯. Let ππ be denote the length of the πth step taken by the particle in a small interval of time Δπ‘ with pmf π(ππ = Δπ₯) = π; π(ππ = −Δπ₯) = 1 − π; π + π = 1 0 < π < 1, where π is independent of π₯ and π‘. Partition the interval of length π‘ into n equal subintervals of length Δπ‘. Then πΔπ‘ = π‘ and the total displacement π(π‘) is the sum of π i.i.d. random variables ππ , i.e., 6/5/2023 18 π(π‘) π π‘ = π‘ π=π π‘ = Δπ‘ ππ π=1 πΈ ππ = Δπ₯ × π + −Δπ₯ × π = Δπ₯ π − π πΈ ππ2 = Δπ₯ 2 × π + −Δπ₯ 2 × π = Δπ₯ 2 π+π π£ππ ππ = πΈ ππ2 − πΈ(ππ )2 = Δπ₯ = Δπ₯ 2 2 π + π − Δπ₯ π − π π+π − π−π = 4ππ Δπ₯ 2 2 2 6/5/2023 19 Using πΈ ππ = π − π Δπ₯ πππ π£ππ ππ = 4ππ Δπ₯ πΈ π π‘ = ππΈ ππ = πππ π(π‘) = ππππ ππ 2 , we get π‘ π − π Δπ₯ Δπ‘ π‘ = 4ππ Δπ₯ 2 . Δπ‘ To get a meaningful result, as Δπ₯ → 0, Δπ‘ → 0, we must have Δπ₯ 2 → π πππππ‘, π − π → a multiple of Δπ₯ . Δπ‘ π΄π Δπ₯ → 0, Δπ‘ → 0, πππ π’πππ‘ π‘πππ πΈ π π‘ → π πππ πππ π(π‘) → π 2 . π»ππππ, 6/5/2023 20 We get Δπ₯ = π βπ‘ 1/2 1 π = 1 + π βπ‘ 2 , 1 π = 1 − π βπ‘ 2 1/2 /π 1/2 /π Then πΈ π π‘ = ππΈ ππ = π‘ π‘ 1 1 π − π Δπ₯ = 1 + π βπ‘ 1/2 /π − 1 − π βπ‘ Δπ‘ Δπ‘ 2 2 1 π‘ π βπ‘ 2 1 Δπ‘ = π βπ‘ 2 = ππ‘ π π‘ πππ π(π‘) = 4ππ Δπ₯ Δπ‘ 2 π‘ 1 = 4 1 + π βπ‘ Δπ‘ 2 1/2 /π 1 1 − π βπ‘ 2 1/2 /π 1/2 /π π βπ‘ π βπ‘ 1/2 1/2 2 = π‘π Now, we present the limiting distribution of symmetric random walk is Brownian motion using central limit theorem. 6/5/2023 21 Limiting Case of Random Walk For large π(π‘)(= π), π π‘ = π(π‘) π=1 ππ converges in distribution to π(ππ‘, π 2 π‘). Since π‘ represents the length of the interval of time during which the displacement, we conclude for 0 < π < π‘, π π‘ − π π Further, the increments ππ π π π‘ − π , π 2 π‘ − π . {π(π ) − π(0)} and {π(π‘) − π(π )} are mutually independent. 6/5/2023 Definition 4.2:Brownian Motion 22 A Gaussian random process {π(π‘), π‘ ∈ [0, ∞)} is called a Brownian motion or a Wiener process if 1. W(0) = 0. 2. For all 0 ≤ π‘1 < π‘2 , π(π‘2 ) − π(π‘1 ) ∼ π(0, π 2 (π‘2 −π‘1 )). 3. π(π‘) has independent increments. That is, for all 0 ≤ π‘1 < π‘2 < π‘3 β― < π‘π , the random variables π π‘2 − π π‘1 , π π‘3 − π π‘2 , … … … , π(π‘π ) − π(π‘π−1 ) are independent. 4. W(t) has continuous sample paths. If π 2 = 1 is called a standard Wiener process or standard Brownian motion. Note: The wiener process has no jumps. But fluctuations heavily the paths are continuous but highly erratic. Those paths are not differentiable with probability 1. Sample path of Brownian motion is shown in the figure as follows. 6/5/2023 23 6/5/2023 Figure 4.5: A sample path of a Brownian motion 24 Example 4.2: Let π(π‘) be a standard Brownian motion. For all π , π‘ ∈ [0, ∞), find πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘)). Solution: Let's assume π ≤ π‘. Then, we have πΆππ£ π π , π π‘ = πΆππ£ π(π ), π(π ) + π(π‘) − π(π ) = πΆππ£[π π , π π ] + πΆππ£[π(π ), π(π‘) − π(π )] = πππ(π(π )) + πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘) − π(π )) = π + πΆππ£ π π , π π‘ − π π 6/5/2023 25 Brownian motion has independent variables π(π ) = π(π ) − π(0) increments, so and π(π‘) − π(π ) the two random are independent. Therefore, πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘) − π(π )) = 0. We conclude πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘)) = π . Similarly, if π‘ ≤ π we obtain πΆππ£(π(π ), π(π‘)) = π‘. We conclude πͺππ(πΎ(π), πΎ(π)) = πππ(π, π), πππ πππ π, π. 6/5/2023 Example 4.3: 26 Let π(π‘) be a standard Brownian motion. a. Find π(1 < π(1) < 2). b.Find π(π(2) < 3 π(1) = 1). Solution a. We have π(1) ∼ π(0,1). Thus, π 1 < π 1 < 2 = Φ 2 − Φ 1 ≈ 0.136 b. Note that π(2) = π(1) + π(2) − π(1). Also, note that π(1) and π(2) − π(1) are independent, and π(2) − π(1) ∼ π(0,1). We conclude that π(2) π(1) = 1 ∼ π(1,1). Thus, π(π(2) < 3 π(1) = 1) = Φ 3−1 = Φ(2) ≈ 0.98 1 6/5/2023 Example 4.4: 27 Let π(π‘) be a standard Brownian motion. Find π(π(1) + π(2) > 2). Solution Let π = π(1) + π(2). Since π(π‘) is a Gaussian process, π is a normal random variable. πΈ(π) = πΈ[π(1)] + πΈ[π(2)] = 0, πππ(π) = πππ(π(1)) + πππ(π(2)) + 2πΆππ£(π(1), π(2)) = 1 + 2 + 2 ⋅ 1 We conclude π ∼ π(0,5). Thus, π(π > 2) = 1 − Φ 2−0 5 ≈ 0.186 6/5/2023 28 Example 4.5: If {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is a standard Brownian motion then the following are also Brownian motion. (i). π΅1 π‘ = ππ΅ π‘/π 2 π≠0 Solution: Consider π΅1 0 = ππ΅ 0/π 2 = ππ΅ 0 = 0 (Since π΅(π‘) is a standard BM from property (i), π΅(0) = 0) Satisfy the first property. 6/5/2023 29 πΈ π΅1 π‘ − π΅1 π = ππΈ π΅ π‘/π 2 − ππ΅ π /π 2 = π πΈ π΅ π‘/π 2 − πΈ π΅ π /π 2 =0−0=0 πΈ π΅1 π‘ − π΅1 π = π2 πΈ π΅ π‘/π 2 2 2 = π2πΈ +πΈ π΅ π‘/π 2 − ππ΅ π /π 2 π΅ π /π 2 2 2 − 2πΈ π΅ π‘/π 2 π΅ π /π 2 = π 2 π‘/π 2 + π /π 2 − 2πππ π‘/π 2 , π /π 2 = π 2 π‘/π 2 + π /π 2 − 2π /π 2 =π‘−π Therefore π΅1 π‘ − π΅1 π ~π 0, π‘ − π Property two satisfied. 6/5/2023 30 Note that if π‘1 < π‘2 ≤ π‘3 < π‘4 then increments π΅ π‘4 π2 −π΅ π‘3 π2 and π΅ π‘1 π2 π‘2 π2 < π‘2 π2 −π΅ ≤ π‘3 π2 π‘1 π2 < π‘4 π2 and the corresponding are independent. Then the multiplies of each by c are independent and so π΅1 π‘4 − π΅1 (π‘3 ) and π΅1 π‘2 − π΅1 (π‘1 ) are independent. Third property satisfied. π΅1 π‘ = ππ΅ π‘/π 2 π ≠ 0 is a standard BM. 6/5/2023 31 (ii). π΅2 π‘ = π΅ π‘ cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘ sin ∝ ∝≥0 Where {π΅′ (π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is a standard Brownian motion independent of {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} . Solution: Consider π΅2 0 = π΅ 0 cos πΌ + π΅′ 0 sin ∝ = 0 (Since π΅ π‘ πππ π΅′ π‘ are standard BM from property (i), π΅ 0 = π΅′ π‘ = 0) Satisfy the first property. πΈ π΅2 π‘ − π΅2 π = πΈ π΅ π‘ cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘ sin ∝ − π΅ π cos πΌ − π΅′ π sin ∝ = πΈ cos πΌ π΅ π‘ − π΅(π ) + sin ∝ π΅′ π‘ − π΅′(π ) = cos πΌ πΈ π΅ π‘ − π΅(π ) + sin ∝ πΈ π΅′ π‘ − π΅′(π ) = 0−0=0 6/5/2023 32 πΈ 2 π΅2 π‘ − π΅2 π = cos 2 πΌ πΈ π΅(π‘) 2 2 cos 2 πΌ πΈ π΅ π‘ π΅ π = πΈ π΅ π‘ cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘ sin ∝ − π΅ π cos πΌ − π΅′ π sin ∝ +cos 2 πΌ πΈ π΅(π ) 2 +sin2 πΌ πΈ π΅′(π‘) − 2 sin2 πΌ πΈ π΅′ π‘ π΅′ π 2 + sin2 πΌ πΈ π΅′(π ) 2 2 − + cos πΌ sin πΌ πΈ π΅ π‘ π΅′ π‘ +…. = cos 2 πΌ π‘ + cos 2 πΌ s+sin2 πΌ t + sin2 πΌ π − 2 cos 2 πΌ min π‘, π − 2 sin2 πΌ min(π‘, π ) = cos 2 πΌ π‘ + π − 2π + sin2 πΌ π‘ + π − 2π =π‘−π Therefore π΅2 π‘ − π΅2 π ~π 0, π‘ − π Satisfy the second property. 6/5/2023 33 Note that if π‘1 < π‘2 ≤ π‘3 < π‘4 then increments π΅2 π‘4 − π΅2 π‘3 = π΅ π‘4 cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘4 sin ∝ − π΅ π‘3 cos πΌ − π΅′ π‘3 sin ∝ = cos πΌ π΅ π‘4 − π΅ π‘3 π΅2 π‘2 − π΅2 π‘1 = π΅ π‘2 cos πΌ + π΅′ π‘2 sin ∝ − π΅ π‘1 cos πΌ − π΅′ π‘1 sin ∝ = cos πΌ π΅ π‘2 − π΅ π‘1 Since π΅ π‘4 − π΅ π‘3 + sin ∝ π΅′ π‘4 − π΅′ π‘3 and π΅′ π‘4 − π΅′ π‘3 + sin ∝ π΅′ π‘2 − π΅′ π‘1 are independent from π΅ π‘2 − 6/5/2023 34 Problem 4.1: Let π(π‘) be standard Brownian motion. (a) Find the probability that 0 < π(1) < 1. (b) Find the probability that 0 < π(1) < 1 and 1 < π(2) − π(1) < 3. (c) Find the probability that 0 < π(1) < 1 and 1 < π(2) − π(1) < 3 and 0 < π(3) − π(2) < 1/2. 6/5/2023 Brownian Motion with Drift 35 This is a stochastic process of the form {π΅1 π‘ = ππ‘ + π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} where π is a constant and {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is Brownian motion. Definition 4.3:Brownian Motion with Drift A stochastic process {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is called Brownian Motion (or Wiener Process) with volatility π and drift π if (i). π΅ 0 = 0 (ii). π΅(π‘) has independent stationary increments. (iii). π΅ π‘ has normal distribution with mean μπ‘ and variance π 2 π‘. Note: Since π΅ π‘ has normal distribution with mean μπ‘ and variance π 2 π‘ , π΅ π‘ − π΅ π has normal distribution with mean μ π‘ − π πππ π£ππππππππ 2 π‘ − π . 6/5/2023 36 4.4 Geometric Brownian Motion Under the Brownian motion we think stock’s price as a particle and also normal distribution seems like a reasonable choice to model a stock price. However there are some obvious problems with the BM viewpoint for stock prices themselves. a. BM process can be negative where as stock prices are never negative. b. In a BM process, the increments π΅ π‘ − π΅(π ) have distribution , that depends only on (π‘ − π ) then thus if a stock price were to have a BM process π΅(π‘) then the expected change πΈ π΅ π‘ − π΅(π ) in the stock price over a period of time could be π (π‘ − π ), which does not depends on the initial price π΅(π ) . This is not realistic. 6/5/2023 Example 4.6: 37 Consider change in price is π π‘ − π = $10. A $10 expected change of price might be quite reasonable if the stock priced (initially) at π΅ π = $100. But not nearly as reasonable if the stock is initially priced at π΅ π = $1. To resolve this issue, it would seem to make more sense to model the rate of return of the stock price as a BM process. Example 4.7: Say that a stock’s price rate of return is 10% is to say that the price may grow $100 to $110 or $1 to $1.10. This can be handling, by assuming that stock price π π‘ at time t is given by π π‘ = π 0 π π»π‘ Where π»π‘ Continuously compounded rate of return of the stock price over the period of time [0, t]. Also π»π‘ refers to as the logarithmic growth of the stock price , satisfy π»π‘ = ππ π π‘ π 0 6/5/2023 . 38 Definition 4.3: (Geometric Brownian Motion) A stochastic process of the form π π»π‘ π‘ ≥ 0 is a Brownian motion process called a geometric Brownian Motion process. If we assume that π»π‘ follows a Brownian motion process with drift then we can write π π‘ π»π‘ = ππ π 0 = ππ‘ + ππ΅(π‘) Where {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is standard Brownian motion. Therefore π»π‘ has a normal distribution with πΈ π»π‘ = ππ‘ πππ π»π‘ = π 2 π‘ 6/5/2023 39 It is clear that the continuous time model is a limiting case of the Cox-RossRubistine model. The continuously compounded rate of return π»π‘ , over the time period 0 , π‘ , which satisfied the equation π π‘ = π 0 π π»π‘ π π‘ ln π 0 = π»π‘ = ππ‘ + ππ΅(π‘) Differentiate with respect to t 1 π π π‘ π π‘ ππ‘ π 0 π 0 π = π + π π΅(π‘) ππ‘ 1 ππ π‘ π = π + π π΅(π‘) π π‘ ππ‘ ππ‘ 6/5/2023 40 The most common approach to the continuous time model of stock price assumes that the instantaneous percentage return is a Brownian motion process more specifically ππ π‘ ππ΅(π‘) = πππ‘ + π π π‘ ππ‘ ππ(π‘) = π(π‘) πππ‘ + πππ΅(π‘) Where {π΅(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} is standard Brownian motion and π and π are constants. Further 6/5/2023 41 We can say that the stochastic process ππ(π‘) π(π‘) π‘ ≥ 0 is assume to follow Brownian motion process with drift π and volatility π. The formula can be written ππ π‘ = ππ π‘ ππ‘ + ππ π‘ ππ΅ π‘ This is an instance of what is known as a stochastic differential equation. Thus, Geometric BM in differential form is, ππ π‘ = π π π‘ ππ‘ + ππ π‘ ππ΅(π‘) And Geometric BM in integral form is, π‘ π‘ π π‘ = π 0 + 0 π π π’ ππ’ + 0 ππ π’ ππ΅(π’) 6/5/2023 42 Figure 4.6: Two sample paths of Geometric Brownian motion, with different parameters. The blue line has larger drift, the green line has larger variance. 6/5/2023 Example 4.8. Suppose that stock price {π(π‘), π‘ ≥ 0} follows geometric Brownian 43 motion with drift μ = 8% per year and variance π 2 = 8.5% per annum. Assume that, the current price of the stock is π(0) = 60. ο¬nd (i). πΈ[π(3)] According to the geometric Brownian motion we have π π‘ ππ π 0 = ππ‘ + ππ΅(π‘) ln π π‘ − ln π(0) = ππ‘ + ππ΅(π‘) ln π π‘ = ππ‘ + ln π(0) + ππ΅(π‘) Since π΅(π‘)~π 0 , π‘ ln π π‘ ~π ππ‘ + ln π(0) , π 2 π‘ Therefore π π‘ ~πππππππππ ππ‘ + ln π(0) , π 2 π‘ 6/5/2023 44 Result 2.1: Suppose that X has the lognormal distribution with parameters π πππ π, then 1 πΈ π π = ππ₯π π π + π2 π 2 2 π∈π Now π π‘ ~πππππππππ ππ‘ + ln π(0) , π 2 π‘ Therefore πΈ π π‘ πΈ π 3 1 2 = ππ₯π ππ‘ + ln π(0) + π π‘ 2 1 = ππ₯π 0.08 × 3 + ln 60 + × 0.085 × 3 2 = 84.65 6/5/2023 45 (ii). π π 3 > 100 = π π 3 60 > 100 60 = π log π 3 60 > log 100 60 100 log 60 − 0.08 ∗ 3 =π π> 0.085 ∗ 3 = ππ π > 0.54 = 1 − 0.7054 6/5/2023 46 Example 4.9. The price of a stock follows a geometric Brownian motion with parameters μ = 0.12 and π = 0.24. If the present price of the stock is π π . 40, what is the probability that a call option having four months to exercise time and with a strike price πΎ = π π . 42, will be exercised? Solution A call option on a stock with exercise time π and strike πΎ is the right, but not the obligation, to buy a certain number of shares at time T for the ο¬xed price πΎ. If π(π‘) denotes the market price of this number of shares then the value of the option at time π is π(π) − πΎ ππ π(π) > πΎ, since the shares can be bought for πΎ and immediately sold in the market for π(π). On the other hand the option is worthless, and will not be exercised, if π(π) ≤ πΎ. The required probability is ππ{π(1/3) > 42}. 6/5/2023 47 Since π(π) ~πππππππππ π(0) ππ , π 2 π 4 For the problem μ = 0.12 πππ π = 0.24 , π = 12 = 1/3 πππ π 0 = 40 π(1/3) 1 ~πππππππππ 0.12 × , 0.242 × 1/3 40 3 π(1/3) 42 ππ π 1/3 > 42 = ππ > 40 40 π(1/3) 42 = ππ ππ > ln 40 40 42 1 ln 40 − 0.12 × 3 = ππ π > 0.242 × 1/3 = ππ π > 0.063) = 1 − 0.5239 6/5/2023