1. Who began the research on group
dynamics, thus established the foundation
for the development of Sensitivity
Training?
A. Walter Dill Scott
B. Frank Gilbreth
C. Elton Mayo
D. Kurt Lewin
Kurt Lewin
A German-American
Psychologist at MIT who
was one of the first to study
group dynamics and
organizational
development. His research
laid the foundations for the
development of Sensitivity
Training.
Walter Dill Scott
Applied Psychology to various
business practices such as
personnel selection and
advertising.
The Theory of Advertising
(1903)
Increasing Human Efficiency in
Business (1911)
The Scott Company
Frank Gilbreth
Frank Bunker Gilbreth
(1868-1924) and Lillian
Moller Gilbreth (1878-1972)
Advancement of motion
study, fatigue study and
work simplification.
Humanistic approach
Elton Mayo
Hawthorne Studies (1927)
• Western Electric Hawthorne
Plant
• Hawthorne Effect
Importance of psychological
and social factors to people at
work
Pioneer of the Human
Relations Movement
2. Who pioneered the scientific study of
tasks, as well as the scientific way of
selecting, training, and supervising
workers?
A. Elton Mayo
B. James Cattell
C. Frederick Taylor
D. Walter Dill Scott
Frederick Taylor
Principles of Scientific
Management (1911)
Improve industrial efficiency
through a scientific study of
the tasks
Practice scientific way of
selecting, training, and
supervising workers.
James Cattell
In 1921, he founded the
Psychological Corporation
for the purpose of making
research in Applied
Psychology available to
industry and business.
3. Which psychological phenomenon happens if
people work harder and perform better in
response to their awareness of being observed
in a study or experiment?
A. Hawthorne Effect
B. Flynn Effect
C. Spotlight Effect
D. Pygmalion Effect
Hawthorne Effect
When employees change their behavior due solely
to the fact that they are receiving attention or are
being observed.
Spotlight Effect
The Spotlight Effect
refers to our tendency
to think that other
people are watching us
more closely than they
actually are.
Pygmalion Effect
Refers to the
phenomenon of people
improving their
performance when
others have high
expectations of them.
4. Which of the following terms refers to the
procedure used to determine the duties
associated with job positions and the
characteristics of the people to hire for those
positions?
A. Job Description
B. Job Surveying
C. Job Analysis
D. Job Appraisal
Job Analysis
the systematic study of the tasks, duties, and
responsibilities of a job and knowledge, skills,
abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs)
needed to perform it
5. Which of the following lists a job's
specific duties as well as the skills and
training needed to perform a particular
job?
A. Job Description
B. Job Surveying
C. Job Analysis
D. Job Appraisal
Job description
A list of a job’s duties,
responsibilities,
reporting relationships,
working conditions,
and supervisory
responsibilities—one
product of a job
analysis.
6. Which section of a job description
influences a person’s perceptions of
the status and worth of a job?
A. Work context
B. Work activities
C. Job specifications
D. Job title
7. Which of the following is the most
common method of conducting a job
analysis?
A. Observation
B. Task analysis
C. Interview
D. Job participation
8. A university wants to hire a new lawyer. One
of the requirements stipulated in the job
competencies section is ―willingness to work
long hours‖. This requirement falls under?
A. Knowledge
B. Skills
C. Ability
D. Other Characteristics
9. Which of the following is a proper
task statement?
A. Treat customers politely
B. Be a good writer
C. Edits supervisor’s memos
D. Have good math skills
10. Judy was up for a promotion at Santos Consulting when
her supervisor, William, encouraged her to develop a sexual
relationship with him. He suggested that her promotion would
be a sure thing if they were involved. When Judy declined his
advances, William fired her. Which of the following would
Judy most likely be able to prove in court if she decided to
sue Santos Consulting?
A. Hostile environment created by supervisors
B. Hostile environment created by co-workers
C. Disparate treatment
D. Quid pro quo
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
11.Which of the following refers to the
process of attracting people with the right
qualifications to apply for the job?
A. Recruitment
B. Selection
C. Socialization
D. Orientation
EMPLOYEE RECRUITMENT
Recruitment
The process of attracting employees to an organization.
Attracting people with the right qualifications as
determined by job analysis
Internet – primary source
Factors : nature of job and size of organization
TYPES OF RECRUITMENT
1. External Recruitment
Recruiting employees from outside the organization.
2. Internal Recruitment
Recruiting employees already employed by the
organization.
Transferring or promoting
12. An organization has difficulty getting enough
qualified applicants from its existing employees to fill
a vacant position. As a result, the organization seeks
qualified applicants from outside the organization.
Which of the following is not a method they can use?
A. Job fair
B. Promotion
C. Newspaper ads
D. Employment agencies
INTERNAL RECRUITMENT
1. Noncompetitive Promotions
 Involve “career progression” promotions in which employees move from
a position as they gain experience and knowledge.
 Number of promotions in a year are not limited; employees don’t
compete
2. Competitive Promotions
 Internal applicants (and sometimes with external applicants) compete
with one another for a limited number of higher positions.
EMPLOYMENT AGENCIES AND SEARCH FIRMS
1. Employment Agencies
An organization that specializes in finding jobs for applicants
and finding applicants in for organizations looking for
employees.
Advantage: When HR department is overloaded with work
or if organization does not have qualified individual who can
select employees
Disadvantage: Loss of control over recruitment process
EMPLOYMENT AGENCIES AND SEARCH FIRMS
2. Executive Search Firms or “head hunters”
For high-paying jobs or non-entry-level positions
3. Public Employment Agencies
An employment service operated by the state or local
government designed to match applicants with job openings.
For blue-collar and clerical positions
13. Montemayor Industries, has a policy of promoting
employees who perform well. However, in a recent
performance review, it has been noted that many of
the people promoted obtained poor reviews and do
not become effective supervisors. This scenario
exemplifies which concept?
A. Peter Principle
B. Premack Principle
C. Ammerman Principle
D. Normative Principle
Peter Principle
The idea that organizations tend to promote
employees until they reach the level at which
they are not competent – in other words, their
highest level of incompetence.
Premack Principle
The idea that reinforcement is relative both
within an individual and between individuals.
14. Which of the following is the best
recruitment source, that is, one which tends to
result in attracting employees who experience
greater loyalty, tenure, and job satisfaction than
other recruiting sources?
A. Employee referrals
B. Job fair
C. Executive search firms
D. Advertisements
EMPLOYEE REFERRALS
A method of recruitment in which a current employee
refers a friend or family member for a job
Most effective recruitment method
Use financial incentives
More likely to be hired and have longer tenure
15. Louisa is considering hiring a new line manager. She
quickly analyzes the satisfaction of the present workers
in her company and determines that 1) current
employees don’t feel they have many opportunities for
advancement, and 2) she has a very small budget for
recruiting. Which of the following would be the best
option for Louisa?
A. Recruit internally
B. Recruit externally
C. Recruit nontraditional laborers
D. Recruit on the Internet
Recruit internally
Recruiting from qualified candidates from the
company and within the ranks of its present
employees. Its advantages include:
• Boosting the morale of other employees and encouraging
them to perform well;
• Career development and career mobility;
• Trigger a positive effect on employee’s performance;
• Less expensive of time and resources
• Best for supervisory or midlevel positions.
Recruit externally
Hiring from outside source when
• No one from within among the next rank of
employees can successfully perform the job
•
New vacant position requires added skills
due to the introduction of new technology
•
The culture of conflict among the
employees who are vying for a new position
16. Which of the following is the
most commonly used selection tool?
A. Psychological tests
B. Letters of recommendation
C. Employment interview
D. Physical tests
EMPLOYMENT INTERVIEWS
 A method of selecting employees in which an interviewer asks
questions of an applicant and then makes an employment decision
based on the answers to the questions as well as the way in
which the questions were answered.
TYPES OF INTERVIEWS (ON 3 MAIN FACTORS):
1. Structure
2. Style
3. Medium
17. Which of the following terms refers to
hiring workers who have criminal
backgrounds without proper safeguards?
A. Adverse impact
B. Negligent hiring
C. Negligent training
D. Invalid screening
© 2010 Cengage Learning
157
18. Which of the following methods for gathering background
information about a job applicant is not recommended
because of potential legal violations?
A. Searching social networking sites for posted information
about the applicant
B. Using a database to access information about the
applicant's credit history
C. Locating references other than the ones provided by the
applicant
D. Using a search engine to find information about the
applicant
19. An interviewer asked, ―Can you work
during weekends?‖ and ―Can you work
overtime without notice?‖ These are examples
of which type of interview question?
A. Disqualifier
B. Clarifier
C. Situational question
D. Patterned behavior question
SIX TYPES OF INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Clarifiers
 Clarifies the information on the résumé, cover letter, or application
2. Disqualifiers
 A wrong answer will disqualify the applicant from further
consideration
3. Skill-level Determiner
 Designed to tap an applicant’s knowledge or skill; tap level of
expertise
SIX TYPES OF INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
4. Future focused Question
Applicants are given a situation and asked how they would
handle it
 Also called as Situational Questions – applicants are presented with
series of situations and asked how they would handle each one.
5. Past-focused Questions
 Taps an applicant’s experience
 Also called Patterned-behavior description interview (PBDI) –
focus on behavior on previous jobs
SIX TYPES OF INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
6. Organizational-fit Questions
Taps how well an applicant’s personality and values will
fit with the organizational culture (or with the
leadership style of a particular supervisor)
20. Which of the following factors sees to
have the strongest relationship with
scores on a traditional interview?
A. Primacy effects
B. Contrast effects
C. Negative information bias
D. Nonverbal cues
PROBLEMS WITH INTERVIEWS
Negative-Information Bias
The fact that negative information receives more weight
in an employment decision than does positive
information
Nonverbal Communication
Factors such as eye contact and posture that are not
associated with actual words spoken
PROBLEMS WITH INTERVIEWS
Primacy Effects
The fact that information presented early in an
interview carries more weight than information
presented later.
Contrast Effects
When the performance of one applicant affects the
perception of the performance of the next applicant
21. Which of the following statements is representative of
what might be asked in a behavioral interview?
A. "Consider a time when you were faced with an angry
client. What did you do to turn the situation around?"
B. "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager
here, how would you go about discouraging this behavior?"
C. "Employees in this division are frequently under a great
deal of pressure. How do you think you would handle the
stress of the position?"
D. "What would you do if a subordinate threatened to sue the
company for discrimination?"
22. What type of interview would most likely
include the following: "It must be difficult to
leave a company after such strong accusations
of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"?
A. Situational
B. Behavioral
C. Stress
D. Puzzle
• Stress interview
An interview in which the applicant is made
uncomfortable by a series of often rude questions .
This technique helps identify hyper-sensitive applicants
and those with low or high stress tolerance.
 Puzzle
questions: Adis and Haris have 21KM
between them. Adis has 20KM more than Haris. How
much money has Adis and how much money has
Haris?
23. Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public
relations specialist in a communications firm. He first
meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets
with the department manager. Finally, he meets with
the company president. Which type of interview is
Kevin is most likely experiencing?
A. Face-to-face interview
B. Panel interview
C. Serial interview
D. Group interview
One-on-one interviews
 One interviewer, one applicant
Serial interviews
 Series of single interviews
Return interviews
 Similar to serial interviews with the difference
being a passing of time between the first and
subsequent interview
Panel Interviews
 Multiple interviewers asking questions and
evaluating answers of the same applicant at
the same time
Group Interviews
 Multiple applicants answering questions during
the same interview
Serial-Panel-Group Interview
 Putting together several combinations
24. Which refers to the process of
confirming the accuracy of information
provided by an applicant?
A. Reference check
B. Reference
C. Recommendation letter
D. Applicant evaluation

Reference Check – process of confirming the accuracy of
information provided by an applicant

Reference – expression of an opinion, either orally or
through written checklist, regarding an applicant’s
ability, previous performance, work habits, character, or
potential for future success

Letter of Recommendation – letter expressing an
opinion regarding an applicant’s ability, previous
performance, work habits, character, or potential for
future success
25. Mr. De Leon, a manager at Paradiso de
Gracia Hotel, gave a bad reference to a former
employee. Mr. De Leon could most likely be
accused of ____ if the information is both false
and harmful.
A. Discrimination
B. Adverse impact
C. Disparate treatment
D. Defamation
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
26. Which of the following applicant
assessment methods would most likely
have the least adverse impact on
minorities?
A. Aptitude tests
B. Cognitive ability tests
C. Work sampling technique
D. Job knowledge tests
Work Samples
• Applicants perform tasks that replicate
actual job tasks
• Advantages
– Directly related to the job
– Good criterion validity
– Good face validity
– Less adverse impact than cognitive ability
– Provide realistic job previews
• Disadvantages
– Can be expensive to develop and maintain
Cognitive Ability Tests
• Taps
–Learnability or coachability of the applicant
–Better decision making by better information
processing
• The more complex the job, the better
cognitive ability tests predict performance
Job Knowledge Tests
• Taps job-related knowledge
• They could be scored in
multiple choice format or
essay format
• Can have adverse impact
27. Harry wants to assess an applicant’s
ability to learn, adapt, and use quantitative
tools. Which would be the best selection
tool for this situation?
A. Personality test
B. Psychological test
C. Cognitive ability test
D. Job knowledge test
28. A manager has a number of selection
tools at his/her disposal. A commonly used
tool that generally has a poor relation to
actual job performance is?
A. Application forms
B. Ability tests
C. Letters of recommendation
D. Physical ability tests
29. Which assessment center technique is
designed to simulate the types of daily
information that appear on a manager’s or
employee’s desk?
A. Simulation
B. Work sample
C. Leaderless group discussion
D. In-basket technique
In-Basket Technique – designed to
simulate the types of information that
daily come across a manager’s or
employee’s desk in order to observe
applicant’s
responses
to
such
information
Simulation – designed to place an
applicant in a situation that is similar
to the one that will be encountered on
the job
30. Which type of validity evidence are
Barnum statements most associated
with?
A. Construct validity
B. Differential validity
C. Single-group validity
D. Face validity
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
Differential validity
The characteristic of a test that significantly
predicts a criterion for two groups, such as both
minorities and non-minorities, but predicts
significantly better for one of the two groups.
Single-group validity
The characteristic of a test that significantly
predicts a criterion for one class of people but not
for another.
31. Which of the following are designed to
estimate the percentage of future employees
who will be successful on a job if an
organization uses a particular test?
A. Taylor-Russell tables
B. Expectancy charts
C. Lawshe tables
D. Brodgen-Cronbach-Glasser formula
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Utility Analysis
Taylor-Russell Tables
• Estimates the percentage of future employees that will be
successful
According to Taylor-Rusell Tables, a test will be useful to an
organization if:
a.) the test is valid
b.) the organization can be selective in its hiring because it has
more applicants than openings
c.) there are plenty of current employees who are not performing
well
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser Utility Formula
• Gives an estimate of utility by estimating the amount of
money an organization would save if it used the test to
select employees.
•
•
•
•
•
Savings =(n) (t) (r) (SDy) (m) - cost of testing
n= Number of employees hired per year
t= average tenure
r= test validity
SDy=standard deviation of performance in dollars
m=mean standardized predictor score of selected applicants
248
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Lawshe Tables
• Gives you probability of a particular applicant
being successful.
– Validity coefficient
– Base rate
– Applicant score
249
32. Which approach in making a hiring
decision results in the highest levels of
adverse impact?
A. Multiple hurdle approach
B. Top-down selection
C. Passing scores
D. Banding
© 2010 Cengage Learning
The Top-Down Approach
Who will perform the best?
A “performance first” hiring formula
Applicant
Drew
Eric
Lenny
Omar
Mia
Morris
Sex
M
M
M
M
F
M
Test Score
99
98
91
90
88
87
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Compensatory Approach
• Low score one test can compensate for high score on
another.
• GPA vs GRE
• Should make conceptual sense
• Use of Regression Analysis
266
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Rule of 3
• Top 3 candidates are given to
hiring authority
• Gives more flexibility to the
selectors
• Rules of “three or five” allow a
supervisor to choose one applicant
from the top three or five highest
scores based on secondary
criteria.
Applicant
Drew
Eric
Lenny
Omar
Jerry
Morris
Sex
M
M
M
M
F
M
Test Score
99
98
91
90
88
87
33. A manager wants to combine selection tools
to help him make a decision. He wants to make
a preliminary selection after administering each
instrument. Which strategy is he using?
A. Banding
B. Multiple hurdle approach
C. Multiple cut-off approach
D. Top-down selection
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Selection Procedure and Decisions
• Multiple Cutoff Approach (Not the same as hurdles)
– All Applicants take every test
– Must achieve passing on each
– Can lead to different decisions than regression approach
Mechanical
Reasoning Test
Paper & Pencil Math
Test
Paper & Pencil
Verbal Ability Test
100
100
100
Pass
Pass
Pass
Cutoff
score
Cutoff
score
Cutoff
score
Fail
Fail
Fail
0
0
0
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Selection Procedure and Decisions
• Multiple Hurdle Approach
– All Applicants take the first test
– Pass/fail of first, leads to who take the next, and so on
– Useful when many applicants and tests are costly and time consuming
Paper & Pencil
Knowledge Test
Interview
Work Sample
Test
100
100
100
Pass
Cutoff
score
Pass
Pass
Cutoff
score
Cutoff
score
Fail
Fail
Fail
Eliminated
from the
selection
process
0
Eliminated
from the
selection
process
0
Eliminated
from the
selection
process
0
© 2010 Cengage Learning
Banding
• It is a compromise between top down hiring and passing
scores
• Banding attempts to hire the top scorer while allowing
flexibility for AA
• SEM banding (standard error of measurement)
• Testing differences between scores for statistical significance.
• How many points apart do two applicants have to be so their tests
scores are significantly different?
275
34. Reyes Construction Company does not have any female employees.
Ana Rivera applied for a job as a machine operator. Though she did not
obtain the minimum score of 40 on the machine operator test, Reyes
Construction Company plans to hire her as part of their new affirmative
action plan. There are 12 men who passed the test who did not get
hired. Is this legal?
A. No, an applicant must be qualified to be given preference based on
gender
B. No, preference is never allowed
C. Yes, because Reyes Construction Company has no women
employees, they can do this
D. Yes, because they are only changing their rules for one person, this
would be a reasonable plan
35. Which of the following terms refers to
the process of evaluating an employee's
current and/or past performance relative
to his or her performance standards?
A. Employee selection
B. Performance appraisal
C. Employee orientation
D. Organizational development
Performance appraisal
• Determination and documentation of individual's
performance
• Should be tied directly to criteria
Uses
•
•
•
•
•
Administrative decisions (promotion, firing, transfer)
Employee development and feedback
Criteria for research (e.g., validation of tests)
Documentation for legal action
Training
9 Step Process
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Determine Purpose of the Appraisal
Identify Environmental and cultural limitations
Determine who will evaluate performance
Select the best appraisal methods to accomplish goals
Train Raters
Observe and document performance
Evaluate Performance
Communicate appraisal results to employees
Make personnel decisions: termination
36. Which of the following is the most
important use of performance
evaluation results?
A. Employee compensation
B. Employee promotion
C. Employee training and feedback
D. Personnel research
Employee training and feedback
Benefits of training and development:
• Higher employee engagement and
productivity
• Better conformance to performance
• Greater costumer satisfaction
• Increase sales and profit
• Enhancement of corporate image
37. Which of the following terms refers to a
performance appraisal based on surveys
from peers, supervisors, subordinates,
and customers?
A. 360-degree feedback
B. Team appraisals
C. Upward feedback
D. Rating committee
360 Degree Feedback
• So who gives the evaluations?
o Supervisors
• More than 90% of organizations use some form of supervisor’s rating for
performance. They see results
o Peers
• Successful in predicting the future success of promoted employees. They see the
behavior.
o Subordinates
o Customers
• Filing complaints, notifying manager, secret shoppers, company surveys,
o Self Appraisal
• Rare
• Employee self-appraisals tend to suffer from leniency
• U.S. (leniency) versus Japan and Korea (too modest)
o More research is needed
38. SMART goals are best described as _____?
A. specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and
timely
B. straightforward, meaningful, accessible, real, and
tested
C. strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and
timely
D. supportive, meaningful, attainable, real, and timely
39. Which performance appraisal
technique lists traits and a range of
performance values for each trait?
A. Behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. Graphic rating scale
C. Forced distribution
D. Paired comparisons
5—
308
A customer wanted to deposit a large amount of money.
The teller explained to the customer that he could earn more
interest on a money market account than with a savings
account
4—
A customer applied for a new auto loan and had and E/I too
high for approval. The employee suggested a lower-priced
auto with a lower payment to reduce his E/I
3—
When a customer called, this employee accurately answered
her question about finance charges
2—
When a customer came to the bank for a loan, this employee
had to search for instructions and kept the customer waiting
1—
A customer wanted to cash a large check. The teller said
that it could not be cashed but did not realize that it was all
right as long as the customer had that amount in her
account
Example of a Behavioral Observation Scale
(BOS)
Job Knowledge
1. ___ Is aware of current interest rates.
2. ___ Offers suggestions to customers about how they can
make the most interest
3. ___ Knows various strategies for converting IRAs.
Employee Relations
1. ___ Offers to help other employees when own workload is down.
2. ___ Praises other employee when they do well
311
• Graphic Rating Scales
o Rating each dimension on either a 5 or a 10 point
scale. (poor to excellent)
o Disadvantage: susceptible to error (halo &
leniency)
Potential Scale for Police
•
•
•
•
Job knowledge
Patrol activity
Decision making
Use of weapons
Poor 1
Poor 1
Poor 1
Poor 1
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
3
4
4
4
4
5
5
5
5
Excellent
Excellent
Excellent
Excellent
Example of Paired-Comparison Method
Employees
Green
Briscoe
Rey
Logan
Ceretta
Paired Comparisons
Green
Briscoe
Green
Rey
Green
Logan
Green
Ceretta
Briscoe
Ry
Briscoe
Logan
Briscoe
Ceretta
Rey
Logan
Rey
Ceretta
Logan
Ceretta
Scoring
Green
Briscoe
Rey
Logan
Ceretta
4
3
1
2
0
𝑛(𝑛 − 1)
2
How many comparisons we need to do with 20 employees?
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑠𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑛 =
315
Example of a Forced Distribution
Zellweger
Bullock
Foster
Roberts
Jolie
Diaz
Berry
Barrymore
Kidman
Witherspoon
10%
20%
40%
20%
10%
Terrible
Below
Average
Average
Above
Average
Excellent
316
40. Kendra needs to rate five of her subordinates. She
makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each
trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better
employee of each pair with a positive symbol on the chart.
Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each
employee. Which method of performance appraisal has
Kendra most likely used?
A. Graphic ranking scale
B. Alternation ranking
C. Paired comparison
D. Forced distribution
41. Janine is perceived by her manager, Ms. Dizon, as the
best barista who ever worked for her. Naturally, Janine’s
ratings on her performance appraisal are all high. Tristan, on
the other hand, is an average barista; yet, after evaluating
Janine, Ms. Dizon’s ratings of Tristan are below average.
Which type of rating error is seen in this situation?
A. Contrast error
B. Halo error
C. Proximity error
D. Strictness error
Completing the Rating Forms
• 1. Distribution Error- Occurs when the rater only uses part
of the scale instead of rating using the full range of numbers
oExample: a supervisor rates his employees all out of 4 or 5
oTypes of Distribution Errors:
• Leniency error
• Central tendency error
• Strictness error
Completing the Rating Forms
2. Halo Error- occurs when a rater believes the one being rated is high in
one attribute which convinces them to rate other attributes high as well
o Ex: teacher assuming creative is smart
3. Proximity Error- When the dimension immediately following another
dimension is given the same rating purely because they are physically next
to each other
4. Contrast Error-occurs when the performance rating one employee
receives is influenced by the employee rated previously
o Ex: Best employee the company
42. According to research, what is the
typical result of subordinate feedback?
A. Higher supervisor turnover
B. Subordinates being fired
C. Supervisors making changes in their
management styles
D. Critical incidents are documented and
ranked by top managers
43. Of the following, the best way to reduce
rater errors such as the halo and leniency
biases would be?
A. Use of a forced-choice rating scale
B. Use of the forced distribution rating scale
C. Use of Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales
D. Adequate training of raters
44. On Alicia's first day of work at a law firm, she
attended a meeting with the HR manager and other
new employees. Alicia learned about employee
benefits packages, personnel policies, and the
structure of the company. In which of the following
did Alicia most likely participate?
A. Recruitment
B. Selection
C. Orientation
D. Development
Orientation
The process in which a new employee is integrated
into the organization by making him/her aware of
his place of work, team members, his immediate
reporting managers, the business in general, the
policies, working hours, etc.
It is meant to educate new employees about the
goals and responsibilities of the position and
company, as well as to answer any questions they
may have about HR, benefits and payroll
information.
45. Which of the following terms refers to
helping new employees appreciate the
values and culture of a firm?
A. Onboarding
B. Outsourcing
C. Organizing
D. Offshoring
46. Which refers to the systematic
acquisition of skills, rules, concepts, or
attitudes that result in improved
performance?
A. Development
B. Training
C. Management
D. Orientation
Training
 Training is the “systematic acquisition of skills, rules,
concepts, or attitudes that result in improved performance”
(Goldstein & Ford, 2002 in Aamodt, 2007).
 Training can also be defined as “an organized efforts by an
organization to provide employees with structured
opportunities to learn and to develop within their workroles”(Arnold, 2005).
47. What is the first step in the ADDIE
training process?
A. Assessing the program's successes
B. Appraising the program's budget
C. Analyzing the training need
D. Acquiring training materials
Analyzing the training need
The process of collecting data to determine
the needs and requirements of the
organization, the job, and the target
participants.
Three types of Needs Analysis
• Organizational Analysis
• Task Analysis
• Person Analysis
ADDIE Model
Analysis – identifying training needs and
requirements
Design – defining training objectives, course
content, and training methods
Development – developing learning activities and
preparing course materials and instructor’s guide
Implementation – conducting planned training
activities
Evaluation – determining the effectiveness of the
training activities
48. A bank decides to send tellers who have a
high incidence of shortages on the job to a
retraining program in order to correct this
problem. This practice demonstrates which
type of needs analysis?
A. Organizational analysis
B. Person analysis
C. Task Analysis
D. Operations analysis
Training Needs Assessment Process
49. Which of the following is the best training
objective? ―By the end of this training, the
employee:‖
A. will be a better salesperson
B. will be able to correctly answer 90% of
customer questions
C. will have learned about our product line
D. will be more knowledgeable
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
50. Which of the following types of person
analysis methods eliminates the problems of
performance rating errors and is based on the
premise that employees know best their own
strengths and weaknesses?
A. Performance appraisal scores
B. Surveys
C. Interviews
D. Skill and knowledge tests
Person Analysis: Surveys
 A survey is another common approach to determine the
training needs ; which offers several advantages , such as:
 Eliminate performance rating errors
 Giving opportunity for employees to self rate
(assumption: employees know their strengths and
weaknesses best)
 In cases where effective performance appraisal system
and adequate job descriptions are not available, surveys
can provides information to determine training needs.
Person Analysis:
Using Performance Appraisal Scores
 This is the easiest method as low ratings on a dimension
for most employees indicates the need for training.
Performance appraisal however scores has three
disadvantages:
 Rating errors which reduces accuracy.
 Making the wrong conclusion by examining the
“average”.
 If not specific enough the performance appraisal score
will not provide useful information.
Person analysis: Interviews
Yielding in-depth answers to questions
regarding training needs
Data obtained from interviews can
analyzed using the various qualitative
methods of data analysis.
Person analysis: Skills and knowledge test
Skills and knowledge test is another way of
determining training needs.
The challenge for using this method to
determine training needs is the availability of
test.
51. Amy, an accounting supervisor, has been asked
to provide training for her subordinates about new
tax laws. In order to motivate the individuals who
attend her training session, Amy should most likely
do all of the following except for?
A. Use as many visual aids as possible during the
session
B. Provide an overview of the material to be covered
C. Teach new terminology and technical concepts
D. Give information in logical, meaningful sections
52. For two days prior to ―opening‖, employees in a Food and
Beverage Department actually take orders, prepare food,
serve meals, and compute check totals for other employees
posing as tourists. These exercises allow the staff members
to work in an environment that closely resembles the actual
work environment. Which training method is reflected in this
situation?
A. Apprentice training
B. Simulations
C. On-the-job training
D. Role playing
Simulations
Allowing the trainee to work with equipment
under actual working conditions without the
consequences of mistakes
Apprentice training
usually found in the craft and building trades,
in which employees combine formal
coursework with formal on-the-job training.
On-the-job training
Learning while actually working on the job
makes workers acquire skills and learn new
technique
Role playing
Enactment of real-life scenario to enable the
participants to practice job-related
interaction skills
53. Which of the following training
methods is best for learning
interpersonal skills?
A. Role play
B. Behavior modeling
C. Job rotation
D. Coaching
Behavior Modeling
A training technique in which employees
observe correct behavior, practice it, and
receive feedback about their performance.
Job Rotation
A system in which employees are given the
opportunity to perform several different jobs
in an organization.
54. RCD Enterprises failed to provide adequate
safety training to one of its employees. As a
result, the employee harmed a customer. In
this scenario, RCD Enterprises may most likely
be held accountable for?
A. Discrimination
B. Negligent training
C. Negligent hiring
D. Hazardous training
Negligent training
occurs when an employer fails to provide
sufficient training to allow an employee to
perform their job safely.
This may occur if a worker is under-trained,
or if their supervisor or trainer fails to follow
proper training procedures.
55. Which of the following is an effect
of overlearning?
A. Increases stress in training
B. Decreases trainee performance
C. Increases retention of material
D. Boredom
56. Which of the following will not
contribute to effective transfer of
training?
A. Overlearning
B. Feedback
C. Incentives
D. Massed practice
Massed practice
Concentrating learning into a short period of
time.
Distributed learning
Training material presented in small, easily
remembered chunks distributed over a period
of time.
Accounts for better learning
57. Which of the following occupations
most likely does not use apprenticeship
training to prepare new employees?
A. Professional chef
B. Banker
C. Dental assistant
D. Fire medic
58. Janice sends all of her employees to a
self-esteem workshop. Which theory of
motivation does she believe in?
A. Consistency theory
B. Equity theory
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Expectancy theory
Korman’s Consistency Theory
Employees try to perform at levels
consistent with their self-esteem
level
1. Chronic self-esteem
• Overall feeling about
themselves
2. Situational self-esteem (selfefficacy)
• Particular situation
3. Social influenced self-esteem
• Based on others’ expectation
59. Ruth believes that she can effectively
handle any customer complaint, whereas Jill is
worried that she will cry if a customer yells at
her. Which theory of motivation would predict
that Ruth will perform better than Jill?
A. Social learning theory
B. Equity theory
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Expectancy theory
Self-Fulfilling Prophecy
Experience with success
Galatea effect (+/-)
• One’s self-expectation and performance
Pygmalion effect (+)
• Supervisor’s confidence in employee, increases
employee’s self-esteem and performance
Golem effect (-)
• Negative expectations on employee decreases
employee’s self-esteem and performance.
60. An employee’s supervisor places full confidence
in the employee and believes that the employee can
handle a fairly difficult task. This boosts the
employee’s self-esteem which in turn, increases her
performance. What do we call this phenomenon?
A. Golem effect
B. Galatea effect
C. Pygmalion effect
D. Coaction effect
Galatea vs. Pygmalion Effect
Golem Effect
61. Leah is motivated by jobs in which she can
help others, whereas Miguel is motivated by the
desire to influence others. Leah has a high
need for ___ and Miguel has a high need for
____.
A. affiliation; power
B. affiliation; achievement
C. achievement; affiliation
D. achievement; power
Theory of Needs/Acquired Needs Theory
McClleland
nAch
High: challenging jobs that they have some control on
Low: Little challenge, high probability of success
nAff
Works with and helps other people
nPow
Desire to influence others
62. According to the two-factor theory,
which of the following is an example of
a hygiene factor?
A. Control
B. Responsibility
C. Growth
D. Pay
Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
Hygiene factors
Results that do not involve the
job itself
Necessary but not sufficient
 NEUTRAL
•
•
•
•
Pay
Benefits
Coworkers
Security
Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
Motivators
Job elements that do concern
actual tasks and duties
•
•
•
•
Responsibility
Growth
Challenge
Job control
63. Mr. Ocampo assigns task that are
challenging, yet achievable and specifically
tells employees what he expects from them.
Which theory of motivation does Mr. Ocampo
adhere to?
A. Intrinsic motivation theory
B. Goal setting theory
C. ERG theory
D. Expectancy theory
Goal-Setting Theory
The intention to work towards a
goal is a major source of work
motivation.
Three main principles of goalsetting:
• Specific goals increase
performance
• Difficult goals, when accepted,
result in higher performance
• Feedback leads to higher
performance
Intrinsic Motivation Theory
Intrinsic Motivation
• Work motivation in the absence
of such external factors
• Being paid  reduce their
satisfaction and intrinsic
motivation
Extrinsic Motivation
• Receive rewards
• Avoid negative consequences
ERG Theory
Reduced Maslow’s five
needs to three:
• Existence
• Relatedness
• Growth
A person can skip a level
64. Which of the following plans are
also called earnings-at-risk plans?
A. Pay-for-performance
B. Merit pay
C. Stock options
D. Profit sharing
Individual Incentive Plans
1. Pay for performance (earningsat-risk)
• According to how much they
individually produce
• Commissions (each unit sold)
• Piecework (each unit produced)
2. Merit pay
• Performance appraisal scores
• Productivity is difficult to
measure
65. Which of the following incentive
plans is not an organizational
incentive?
A. Gainsharing
B. Profit sharing
C. Stock options
D. Merit pay
Group Incentive Plans
1. Profit-sharing
• Percentage of profits above a
certain amount
• Results in greater employee
commitment
2. Gainsharing
• Bonus based on improvements in
group productivity
• Establish baseline, set goals
Group Incentive Plans
3. Stock options
• Purchase stock in the future,
typically at the market price on
the day of the options were
granted
• Employees get to share in the
long-term success of an org
• May not be a good motivator too
as it’s psychologically removed
from daily performance
66. Which of the following terms refers
to all forms of pay or rewards going to
employees and arising from their
employment?
A. Salary
B. Employee compensation
C. Remuneration
D. Employee benefits
Employee Compensation
All forms of pay going to
employees and arising from
their employment
Two main components
1. Direct financial payments
(wages, salaries, incentives,
commissions, and bonuses)
2. Indirect financial payments
(financial benefits like
employer-paid insurance and
vacations).
67. What theory of motivation states that
people are strongly motivated to maintain a
balance between what they perceive as their
contributions and their rewards?
A. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
B. Motivator-hygiene theory
C. Equity theory
D. Expectancy theory
Equity Theory
Employees subconsciously lists all
inputs and outputs and computes
an input/output ratio
Inputs
Personal elements we put into the
job
Outputs
Elements we receive from our job
Equity Theory
Possible Situations
1. Underpayment
• Work less hard
• Become more selfish
• Lower job satisfaction
2. Overpayment
• No guilt feelings
• Work harder
• Become more team oriented
3. Equal payment
68. After conducting a job evaluation, it is discovered
that Marie is underpaid by Php 1,000 and Lisa is
overpaid by Php 1,000. Which would probably be the
best course of action in this situation?
A. Give Marie a raise and lower Lisa’s salary
B. Give Marie a raise and leave Lisa’s salary alone
C. Redo the job evaluation
D. Not do anything
69. Mr. Villareal, the owner of an exclusive resort Islas de
Amor, tries to motivate his employees by giving them Php
1,000 every time he notices them providing excellent
customer service. However, because he is also managing
other luxury businesses, he is almost never present in Islas
de Amor. According to the expectancy theory, this plan will
not motivate his employees. Which component of expectancy
theory predicts this?
A. Equity
B. Expectancy
C. Instrumentality
D. Valence
Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
Motivation = E (I * V)
Expectancy
• The perceived relationship between the amount of effort
an employee puts in and the resulting outcome.
Instrumentality
• The extent to which the outcome of a worker’s
performance, if noticed, results in a particular
consequence.
• Noticed behavior must be rewarded
Valence
• The extent to which an employee values a particular
consequence.
70. Which theory hypothesizes that
enriched jobs are the most satisfying?
A. ERG theory
B. Job characteristics model
C. Two-factor theory
D. Social information processing theory
Job characteristics theory
• Employees desire jobs that are meaningful, provide them with the
opportunity to be personally responsible for the outcome of their
work (autonomy), and provide them with feedback of the results of
their efforts
© 2004 Wadsworth, a division of Thomson Learning, Inc
Social Information Processing Theory
71. Realistic job previews might
reduce turnover that is caused by
which factor?
A. Unavoidable reasons
B. Unmet expectations
C. Escape
D. Unmet needs
Realistic Job Preview
•
•
Job expectations
Employees compare what the organization
promised with what it actually does
72. Jack is an employee at a Best Western
Hotel. Some weeks he works with the catering
group, and other weeks he assists the
reservations clerk or the parking attendant.
This is an example of ________.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job rotation
C. Job enrichment
D. Job specialization
73. An organization’s right to search an
employee’s locker is revoked when an
employee?
A. Signed a waiver
B. Placed name on lockers
C. Placed own locks on lockers
D. Organizations can never search lockers
74. Which of the following terms refers to
redesigning jobs in a way that increases the
opportunities for the worker to experience
feelings of responsibility, achievement,
growth, and recognition?
A. Job rotation
B. Job enrichment
C. Job enlargement
D. Job enhancement
75. Nancy is angry about a promotion decision. She
is convinced that she was the best candidate and
cannot believe that she was not offered the job.
Nancy’s dissatisfaction is consistent with the
research on?
A. Distributive equity
B. Procedural consistency
C. Distributive justice
D. Procedural justice
Organizational Justice
76. Mika recently applied for a position with
Palma Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait
most likely has the strongest correlation to
Mika’s success as a pharmaceutical sales
representative?
A. Agreeableness
B. Conscientiousness
C. Openness to experience
D. Extraversion
77. Lorrie took the Self-Directed Search
Inventory to see what job she may be of best fit.
Scoring high on the conventional occupational
theme, which job may she opt to take?
A. Lawyer
B. Accountant
C. Teacher
D. Biologist
77. Lorrie took the Self-Directed Search
Inventory to see what job she may be of best
fit. Scoring high on the conventional
occupational theme, which job may she opt to
take?
A. Lawyer (Enterprising)
B. Accountant
C. Teacher (Social)
D. Biologist (Investigative)
78. Which of the following terms refers to a
one-time payment some employers
provide when terminating an employee?
A. Merit pay
B. Severance pay
C. Performance pay
D. Supplemental pay
79. Which of the following is job
satisfaction most related to?
A. Performance
B. Absenteeism
C. Organizational commitment
D. Tenure
80. Andres has been working for Diaz Manufacturing
for 29 years and has only one year left to be eligible
for full retirement benefits. He has a house ten
minutes away from work and his children all live
nearby. Which of the following would Andres be most
likely high in?
A. Affective commitment
B. Continuance commitment
C. Normative commitment
D. Volitional commitment
Types Of Organizational Commitment
81. Which of the following refers to the
rate at which employees leave a firm?
A. Downsizing
B. Retirement
C. Turnover
D. Lay-off
82. Two managers are talking about how they get the best out of their
employees:
Jo: "I tell my employees that times are tough and there is no way of telling
when the guys in head office might try to downsize. Let me tell you, a bit of
fear keeps them focused on the task at hand."
Chris: "I tell them that head office is making them more responsible for
deciding how to do their work. The increased sense of ownership they
have makes productivity go way up."
How would these managers be best characterized by Douglas McGregor?
A. Both hold Theory X assumptions.
B. Both hold Theory Y assumptions.
C. Chris holds Theory X assumptions; Jo holds Theory Y assumptions.
D. Jo holds Theory X assumptions; Chris holds Theory Y assumptions.
Theory X/Theory Y
• Douglas McGregor
• Relationship between belief system of supervisor and
subordinate behavior
• Theory X
• Belief that employees are lazy and will avoid work
unless watched
• Basic incompatibility of worker & organization
• Extrinsic motivation approach
• Control via rewards and punishments
Theory X/Theory Y
•
Theory Y
• Belief that employees seek challenge &
responsibility
• Worker & organization goals made
compatible through meaningful work
• Intrinsic motivation approach
• Control via challenge, responsibility &
trust
83. According to research, a ―leadership
motive pattern‖ is characterized by a high
need for ____ and a low need for ____?
A. power; affiliation
B. affiliation; power
C. achievement; power
D. power; achievement
84. Which of the following leadership
types is not high in task orientation?
A. Initiating structure
B. Impoverished
C. Theory X
D. Team
84. Which of the following leadership
types is not high in task orientation?
A. Initiating structure (high task, low
person)
B. Impoverished (low task, low
person)
C. Theory X (high task, low person)
D. Team (high task, high person)
85. Which of the following theories uses
the Least-Preferred Coworker scale to
help a person understand their leadership
style?
A. IMPACT theory
B. Fiedler’s contingency model
C. Path goal theory
D. Theory X and Theory Y
86. According to the IMPACT theory of
leadership, which of the following
behavioral styles works best in a situation
of despair?
A. Informational
B. Affiliation
C. Position
D. Magnetic
IMPACT Theory of Leadership
87. According to House, which behavioral
leadership style calls for planning,
organizing, and controlling the activities of
employees?
A. Supportive
B. Achievement-oriented
C. Instrumental
D. Participative
88. According to Situational Leadership
Theory, which is the most effective leader
behavior to use on staff who are unable
and unwilling to do a job?
A. Coaching
B. Delegating
C. Directing
D. Supporting
89. According to French and Raven, which
of the following types of power is inherent
in the position a person holds?
A. Legitimate
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward
90. Which refers to the extent to which
group members like and trust one
another?
A. Group status
B. Group homogeneity
C. Group cohesiveness
D. Stability of membership
Group Homogeneity
•
Extent to which its
members are similar
•
Superiority of slightly
heterogeneous groups
•
Dissimilar person
adding tension and a
different vantage point
Stability of Membership
•
Greater stability,
greater cohesiveness
•
Groups where members
remain for long periods
of time (or have
previously worked with
one another) are more
cohesive and perform
better
Group Status
•
Important that they
believe that they are
of high status
•
Increase group
status  difficult to
join
91. If four bank tellers are working side
by side, this arrangement will result to
which of the following?
A. Audience effects
B. Social inhibition
C. Social facilitation
D. Coaction effects
Coaction effects
The effect on behavior when two or more people are
performing the same task in the presence of each
other.
Audience effects
The effect on behavior when one or more people
passively watch the behavior of another.
• Strength of this effect have 3 factors as
hypothesized by Latane
• Audience size
• Physical proximity
• Status
Social inhibition
The negative effects that occur when a
person performs a task in the presence of
others.
Social Facilitation
The positive effects that occur when a person
performs a task in the presence of others.
92. Sophia is working on a group project with
three other honor students. Their project is
doing great, so Sophia decides to reduce her
effort. Which theory best explains her social
loafing?
A. Individual dominance
B. Distraction
C. Free-rider
D. Sucker-effect
Free-rider
When a group member realizes that his
efforts are not necessary and thus does not
work as hard as he would if he were alone.
Sucker effect
Social loafing occurs when a group member
notices that other group members are not
working hard and thus are ―playing him for a
sucker‖.
93. If a group becomes too cohesive and
insulated from outside help, which of the
following is likely to occur?
A. Social loafing
B. Group polarization
C. Group conflict
D. Group think
Group think
A state of mind in which a group is so
concerned about its own cohesiveness that it
ignores important information.
Group polarization
Enhancement of a group’s prevailing
inclination through discussion within a group.
94. If a person ignores the conflict and
hopes that it will eventually go away is
using which conflict managing style?
A. Forcing
B. Accommodating
C. Avoiding
D. Collaborative
95. Which stage of team development
is characterized by frustration of team
members with their roles?
A. Storming
B. Norming
C. Forming
D. Performing
Group Life Cycle
 Forming
› Team members get to know one another
› Everyone is on their good behavior
› Group clarifies its mission
 Storming
› Disagreement and frustration set in
 Norming
› Group members work at easing tension
› Acceptance of team member norms and team leader (if there is one)
 Performing
› Goals get accomplished through task related behaviors (team
processes)
 Adjourning
› Goals get accomplished through task related behaviors (team
processes)
96. Every memo that Joan receives indicates
that an immediate response is required. Joan
thinks these timelines are unnecessary. Which
of the following reflects Joan’s sentiments?
A. Meeting cow
B. Paper cow
C. Speed cow
D. Whining cow
Sacred Cow Hunt
Paper Cow
• Unnecessary paperwork—usually forms and reports that
cost organizations money to prepare, distribute, and
read
Meeting Cow
• Number and length of meetings
• Business as opposed to socializing
Speed Cow
• Unnecessary deadlines are another source for potential
change
97. Which of the following is most likely
to fight any organizational change?
A. Change analyst
B. Change agent
C. Receptive changer
D. Change resister
98. Which of the following can be used
to help make decisions in
organizational development?
A. Sacred Cow Guide
B. Two-factor theory
C. Goal-setting theory
D. Vroom-Yetton model
99. Lyka and Winston have been arguing about who
gets to make decisions about what parts to order
They have both been clerks for 3 years and are
making the same salary. Winston’s stress level may
be best explained by?
A. Lack of person-organization fit
B. Role ambiguity
C. Role conflict
D. Role overload
100. You need to hire an analyst for an important project
team. It is essential that the new employee work well on the
already established team in order to meet the project’s
challenging deadlines. The most talented candidate doesn’t
have any team experience and when asked in the interview
about his team experience he replied, ―I prefer to work
alone. I’m much more efficient alone‖. What should you do?
A. Hire him and train him
B. Hire him and assign him a mentor
C. Hire him and redesign the job
D. Look for a different candidate