Chemical Arithmetic 1 Chapter 1 Chemical Arithmetic Chemistry is basically an experimental science. In it we study physical and chemical properties of substance and measure it upto possibility. The results of measurement can we reported in two steps, (a) Arithmetic number, (b) Unit of measurement. Every experimental measurement vary slightly from one another and involves some error or uncertainty depending upon the skill of person making the measurements and measuring instrument. The closeness of the set of values obtained from identical measurement called precision and a related term, refers to the closeness of a single measurement to its true value called accuracy. Significant figures In the measured value of a physical quantity, the digits about the correctness of which we are surplus the last digit which is doubtful, are called the significant figures. Number of significant figures in a physical quantity depends upon the least count of the instrument used for its measurement. (1) Common rules for counting significant figures Following are some of the common rules for counting significant figures in a given expression Rule 1. All non zero digits are significant. Rule 5. All zeros on the right of the non zero digit are not significant. Example : x 1000 has only one significant figure. Again x 378000 has three significant figures. Rule 6. All zeros on the right of the last non zero digit become significant, when they come from a measurement. Example : Suppose distance between two stations is measured to be 3050 m. It has four significant figures. The same distance can be expressed as 3.050 km or 3.050 10 5 cm . In all these expressions, number of significant figures continues to be four. Thus we conclude that change in the units of measurement of a quantity does not change the number of significant figures. By changing the position of the decimal point, the number of significant digits in the results does not change. Larger the number of significant figures obtained in a measurement, greater is the accuracy of the measurement. The reverse is also true. (2) Rounding off : While rounding off measurements, we use the following rules by convention Rule 1. If the digit to be dropped is less than 5, then the preceding digit is left unchanged. Example : x 1234 has four significant figures. Again x 189 has only three significant figures. Rule 2. All zeros occurring between two non zero digits are significant. Example : x 7.82 is rounded off to 7.8, again x 3.94 is rounded off to 3.9. Example : x 1007 has four significant figures. Again x 1.0809 has five significant figures. Rule 3. In a number less than one, all zeros to the right of decimal point and to the left of a non zero digit are not significant. Example : x = 6.87 is rounded off to 6.9, again x = 12.78 is rounded off to 12.8. Example : x 0.0084 has only two significant digits. Again, x 1.0084 has five significant figures. This is on account of rule 2. Rule 4. All zeros on the right of the last non zero digit in the decimal part are significant. Example : x = 16.351 is rounded off to 16.4, again x 6.758 is rounded off to 6.8. Rule 4. If digit to be dropped is 5 or 5 followed by zeros, then preceding digit is left unchanged, if it is even. Example : x = 3.250 becomes 3.2 on rounding off, again x 12.650 becomes 12.6 on rounding off. Example : x 0.00800 has three significant figures 8, 0, 0. The zeros before 8 are not significant again 1.00 has three significant figures. Rule 2. If the digit to be dropped is more than 5, then the preceding digit is raised by one. Rule 3. If the digit to be dropped is 5 followed by digits other than zero, then the preceding digit is raised by one. 2 Chemical Arithmetic Rule 5. If digit to be dropped is 5 or 5 followed by zeros, then the preceding digit is raised by one, if it is odd. Example : x = 3.750 is rounded off to 3.8, again x 16.150 is rounded off to 16.2. (3) Significant figure in calculation (i) Addition and subtraction : In addition and subtraction the following points should be remembered (a) Every quantity should be changed into same unit. (b) If a quantity is expressed in the power of 10, then all the quantities should be changed into power of 10. (c) The result obtained after addition or subtraction, the number of figure should be equal to that of least, after decimal point. (ii) Multiplication and division (a) The number of significant figures will be same if any number is multiplied by a constant. (b) The product or division of two significant figures, will contain the significant figures equal to that of least. Units for measurement (1) C.G.S. System : Length (centimetre), Mass (gram), Time (second) (2) M.K.S. System : Length (metre), Mass (kilogram), Time (second) (3) F.P.S. System : Length (foot), Mass (pound), Time (second) (4) S.I. System : The 11th general conference of weights and measures (October 1960) adopted International system of units, popularly known as the SI units. The SI has seven basic units from which all other units are derived called derived units. The standard prefixes which helps to reduce the basic units are now widely used. Dimensional analysis : The seven basic quantities lead to a number of derived quantities such as pressure, volume, force, density, speed etc. The units for such quantities can be obtained by defining the derived quantity in terms of the base quantities using the base units. For example, speed (velocity) is expressed in distance/time. So the unit is m / s or ms 1 . The unit of force (mass acceleration) is kg ms 2 and the unit for acceleration is ms 2 . The chosen standard of measurement of a quantity which has essentially the same nature as that of the quantity is called the unit of the quantity. Following are the important types of system for unit, Table 1.1 Seven basic S.I. units Length Mass Time Temperature Electric Current Luminous Intensity Amount of substance metre (m) Kilogram (kg) Second (s) Kelvin (K) Ampere (A) Candela (Cd) Mole (mol) Table 1.2 Derived Units Physical quantity Unit Symbol Area square metre m Volume cubic metre m Velocity metre per second ms Acceleration metre per second square ms Density kilogram per cubic metre kg m Molar mass kilogram per mole kg mol Molar volume cubic metre per mole m mol Molar concentration mole per cubic metre mol m Force newton (N) kg m s Pressure pascal (Pa) Nm Energy work joule (J) kg m s , Nm 2 3 –1 –2 –3 –1 3 –1 –3 –2 –2 2 –2 Table 1.3 Standard prefixes use to reduce the basic units Multiple Prefix Symbol Submultiple 10 yotta Y 10 zetta Z 10 exa E 10 peta P 10 tera T 24 21 18 15 12 Prefix Symbol 10 deci d 10 centi c 10 milli m 10 micro 10 nano n –1 –2 –3 –6 –9 Chemical Arithmetic 3 10 giga G 10 pico p 10 mega M 10 femto f 10 kilo k 10 atto a 10 hecto h 10 zeto z 10 deca da 10 yocto y 9 6 3 2 1 –12 –15 –18 –21 –24 Table 1.4 Conversion factors 1 e.s.u. = 3.3356 10 C 1 mole of a gas = 22.4 L at STP 1 dyne = 10 N 1 mole a substance = N molecules 1 atm = 101325 Pa 1 g atom = N atoms 1 m = 39.37 inch 1 cal = 4.184 J 1 inch = 2.54 cm 1 eV = 1.602 10 J 1 litre = 1000 mL 1 eV/atom =96.5 kJ mol 1 gallon (US) = 3.79 L 1 amu = 931.5016 MeV 1 bar = 1 10 N m t ( F) = 9/5 t ( C) + 32 1 lb = 453.59237 g 1 kilo watt hour = 3600 kJ 1 litre atm = 101.3 J 1 g cm = 1000 kg m 1 horse power = 746 watt 1 year = 3.1536 10 s 1Å = 10 m 1 joule = 10 erg 1 debye (D) = 1 10 esu cm 1nm = 10 m –10 –5 –19 1 newton =1 kg m s –2 1 J = 1 Nm =1 kg m s 2 –2 7 –1 0 5 0 o –2 –3 7 Laws of chemical combination Various chemical reactions take place according to the certain laws, known as the Laws of chemical combination. (1) Law of conservation of mass : It was proposed by Lavoisier and verified by Landolt. According to this law, Matter is neither created nor destroyed in the course of chemical reaction though it may change from one form to other. The total mass of materials after a chemical reaction is same as the total mass before reaction. (2) Law of constant or definite proportion : It was proposed by Proust. According to this law, A pure chemical compound always contains the same elements combined together in the fixed ratio of their weights whatever its methods of preparation may be. (3) Law of multiple proportion : It was proposed by Dalton and verified by Berzelius. According to this law, When two elements A and B combine to form more than one chemical compounds then different weights of A, which combine with a fixed weight of B, are in proportion of simple whole numbers. (4) Law of equivalent proportion or law of reciprocal proportion : It was proposed by Ritcher. According to this law, The weights of the two or more elements which separately react with same weight of a third element are also the weights of these elements which react with each other or in simple multiple of them. (5) Gay-Lussac’s law : It was proposed by Gay–Lussac and is applicable only for gases. According to this law, When gases combine, they do so in volumes, which bear a simple ratio to each other and also to the product formed provided all gases are measured under similar conditions. The Gay-Lussac’s law, was based on experimental observation. Important hypothesis (1) Atomic hypothesis : Keeping in view various law of chemical combinations, a theoretical proof for the validity of different laws was given by John Dalton in the form of hypothesis called Dalton's atomic hypothesis. Postulates of Dalton's hypothesis is as followes, (i) Each element is composed of extremely small particles called atoms which can take part in chemical combination. (ii) All atoms of a given element are identical i.e., atoms of a particular element are all alike but differ from atoms of other element. o –18 –3 –10 –9 (iii) Atoms of different elements possess different properties (including different masses). (iv) Atoms are indestructible i.e., atoms are neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions. (v) Atoms of elements take part to form molecules i.e., compounds are formed when atoms of more than one element combine. (vi) In a given compound, the relative number and kinds of atoms are constant. (2) Modern atomic hypothesis : The main modifications made in Dalton’s hypothesis as a result of new discoveries about atoms are, (i) Atom is no longer considered to be indivisible. (ii) Atoms of the same element may have different atomic weights. e.g., isotopes of oxygen O16 , O17 , and O18 . (iii) Atoms of different element may have same atomic weights. e.g., isobars Ca 40 and Ar 40 . (iv) Atom is no longer indestructible. In many nuclear reactions, a certain mass of the nucleus is converted into energy in the form of , and rays. (v) Atoms may not always combine in simple whole number ratios. e.g., in sucrose (C12 H 22 O11 ) , the elements carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are present in the ratio of 12 : 22 : 11 and the ratio is not a simple whole number ratio. (3) Berzelius hypothesis : “Equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of atoms under same conditions of temperature and pressure”. When applied to law of combining volumes, this hypothesis predicts that atoms are divisible and hence it is contrary to Dalton's hypothesis. (4) Avogadro’s hypothesis : “Equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.” Avogadro hypothesis has been found to explain as follows, (i) Provides a method to determine the atomic weight of gaseous elements. (ii) Provides a relationship between vapour density (V.D.) and molecular masses of substances. Molecular mass 2 vapour density 4 Chemical Arithmetic (iii) It helps in the determination of mass of fixed volume of a particular gas. Mass of 1 ml gas = V.D. 0.0000897 gm. V.D. 0.0000897 gm. gas has volume = 1 ml 2 V.D.(i.e., molecular 1 2 V .D. volume ml 22400 ml V .D. 0.0000897 Valency of the element = gm. mass) = S.T.P. (v) It helps in determination of molecular formulae of gases and is very useful in gas analysis. By knowing the molecular volumes of reactants and products of reaction, molecular composition can be determined easily. Atomic, Molecular and Equivalent masses (1) Atomic mass : It is the average relative mass of atom of element as compared with an atom of carbon –12 isotope taken as 12. Average mass of an atom 1/12 Mass of an atom of C 12 Average atomic mass : If an elements exists in two isotopes having atomic masses ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the ratio m : n, then average atomic mass (m a) (n b) . Since the atomic mass is a ratio, it has no units and is = m n expressed in amu, 1 amu = 1.66 10 equal to 24 Gram atomic mass (GAM) : Atomic mass of an element expressed in grams is called Gram atomic mass or gram atom or mole atom. Mass of an element GAM (ii) Mass of an element in gm. = No. of gm. atom (iii) Number of atoms in 1 GAM = 6.02 GAM 10 23 10 23 Atomic mass = Equivalent mass of metal Mass = GAM 6.02 10 23 6 .02 10 Atomic mass 23 (iv) Number of atoms in 1gm of element = Valency (iii) Specific heat method : It is suitable only for gases. The two types of specific heats of gases are C (at constant pressure) and C v (at P constant volume). Their ratio is known as whose value is constant (1.66 for monoatomic, 1.40 for diatomic and 1.33 for triatomic gases). Atomic mass of a gaseous element Molecular mass Atomicity (iv) Isomorphism method : It is based on law of isomorphism which states that compounds having identical crystal structure have similar constitution and chemical formulae. Example : K 2 SO 4 , K 2 CrO 4 and K 2 SeO 4 (valency of S, Cr, Se = 6), ZnSO 4 . 7 H 2 O, MgSO4 .7 H 2 O, FeSO 4 . 7 H 2 O (valency of Zn, Mg, Fe = 2). (2) Molecular mass : Molecular mass of a molecule, of an element or a compound may be defined as a number which indicates how many times 1 heavier is a molecule of that element or compound as compared with of 12 the mass of an atom of carbon–12. Molecular mass is a ratio and hence has no units. It is expressed in a.m.u. Molecular mass Mass of one molecule of the substance 1 / 12 Mass of one atom of C - 12 Actual mass of one molecule = Mol. mass 1.66 10 24 gm. Number of atoms in a given substance = No. of GAM 6.02 2 Vapour density of chloride Equivalent mass of metal 35.5 g . One atomic mass unit (amu) is 1 th of the mass of an atom of carbon-12 isotope. 12 (i) Number of gram atoms = Molecular mass of chloride Equivalent mass of chloride has Molar mass of a gas or its 1 mole occupies 22.4 L volume at Atomic mass Approximat e atomic mass Equivalent mass (ii) Vapour density method : It is suitable for elements whose chlorides are volatile. (iv) It also helps in the determination of molar volume at N.T.P. Valency GAM (v) Mass of one atom of the element (in gm.) 6.02 10 23 Methods of determination of atomic mass (i) Dulong and Pettit's method : According to Dulong and Pettit's Molecular mass of a substances is the additive property and can be calculated by adding the atomic masses present in one molecule. Gram molecular mass (GMM) and Gram molar volume : Molecular mass of an element or compound when expressed in gm. is called its gram molecular mass, gram molecule or mole molecule. Number of gm molecules = Mass of substances GMM Mass of substances in gm = No. of gm. molecules GMM Volume occupied by one mole of any gas at STP is called Gram molar volume. The value of gram molar volume is 22.4 litres. Volume of 1 mole of any gas at STP = 22.4 litres law Atomic mass Specific heat = 6.4 (approx.) Atomic mass (approx.) = 6.4 Specific heat (in cals.) This law is applicable to solid elements only except Be, B, C and Si because their specific heat is variable with temperature. Atomic mass = Equivalent mass Valency Expression for mass and density Mass of 11 .2 L of any gas at STP = V.D. of that gas in gm. Density of a gas at NTP = Mol.mass in gm. 22400 ml Important generalisations Number of atoms in a substance Chemical Arithmetic = Number of GMM 6.02 10 Atomicity 23 (iv) EM of a salt = Number of electrons in given substance = Number of GMM 6.02 10 Number of electrons 23 (i) Diffusion method (For gases) : The ratio of rates of diffusion of two gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their molecular masses. r1 r2 Formula mass Number of electrons gained per molecule or Total change in O.N. Equivalent mass of common oxidising agent changes with the medium of the reaction. Methods of determination of equivalent mass M2 M1 (ii) Vapour density method (For gases only) : Mass of a fixed volume of the vapour is compared with the mass of the same volume of hydrogen under same conditions. The ratio of these masses is called Vapour density or Relative density. (i) Hydrogen displacement method : The mass of metal which displaces 11200 ml of hydrogen at NTP from an acid, alkali or alcohol is the equivalent mass of the metal. (a) Equivalent mass of metal Molecular mass 2 Vapour desity (iii) Victor Meyer method (For volatile liquids or solids) It is based on Dalton's law of partial pressure and Avogadro's hypothesis (gram molar volume). 22400 ml of vapours of a substance = Molecular mass of that substance (iv) Colligative property method (For non-volatile solids) Discussed in colligative properties of solutions. Average atomic mass and molecular mass A (Average atomic mass) = Ai X i X total M (Average molecular mass) = Where Formula mass Total positive or negative charge (v) EM of an oxidising agent Methods of determination of molecular mass Following methods are used to determine molecular mass, Mi Xi X total W Mass of metal 1 .008 g 1 .008 M Mass of H 2 displaced (b) Equivalent mass of metal Mass of metal W 11200 11200 = V Vol.(ml) of H 2 displaced at STP This method is useful for metals which can displace hydrogen from acids or can combine with hydrogen (Mg, Zn, Na, Ca etc.) (ii) Oxide formation method : The mass of the element which combines with 8 grams of oxygen is the equivalent mass of the element. Mass of metal 8 Mass of oxygen (a) Equivalent mass of metal = (b) Equivalent mass of metal = A1 , A2 , A3 ..... are atomic mass of species 1, 2, 3,…. etc. with % ratio as X1 , X 2 , X 3 ..... etc. Similar terms are for molecular masses. (3) Equivalent mass : The number of parts by mass of a substance that combines with or displaces 1.008 parts by mass of hydrogen or 8.0 parts of oxygen or 35.5 parts of chlorine is called its equivalent mass (EM). On the other hand quantity of a substance in grams numerically equal to its equivalent mass is called its gram equivalent mass (GEM) or gram equivalent. Expressions for equivalent mass (EM) (ii) EM of an acid Atomic mass Valency Molecular mass Basicity (Basicity of acid is the number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one molecule of the acid). Molecular mass (iii) EM of a base Acidity (Acidity of a base is the number of replaceable– OH groups in one molecule of the base). Mass of metal 5600 Vol. of O 2 at S.T.P. in ml (iii) Chloride formation method : The mass of an element which reacts with 35.5 gm. of chlorine is the equivalent mass of that element. (a) Equivalent mass of metal Mass of metal 35.5 Mass of chlorine (b) Equivalent mass of metal Mass of the substance in grams Number of GEM GEM of the substance (i) EM of an element 5 Mass of metal 11200 Vol. of Cl 2 (in ml.) at STP (iv) Neutralisation method : (For acids and bases). Equivalent mass of acid (or base) W VN Where , W = Mass of acid or base in gm., V = Vol. of base or acid in litre required for neutralisation N is Normality of base or acid (v) Metal displacement method : It is based on the fact that one gm. equivalent of a more electropositive metal displaces one gm equivalent of a less electropositive metal from its salt solution. Mass of metal added Eq. mass of metal added Mass of metal displaced Eq. mass of metal displaced 6 Chemical Arithmetic Element W1 E 1 W2 E2 % Relative no. of atoms = %/at. wt. Simplest Ratio Empirical Formula (vi) Electrolytic method : The quantity of substance that reacts at electrode when 1 faraday of electricity is passed is equal to its gram equivalent mass. Gram equivalent mass = Electrochemical equivalent 96500 The ratio of masses of two metals deposited by the same quantity of electricity will be in the ratio of their equivalent masses. Relative no. of atoms : Divide the percentage of each element present in compound by its at. weight. This gives the relative no. of atoms of element in molecule. W1 E 1 W2 E2 It the simplest ratio obtained are not complete integers, multiply them by a common factor to get integer values of simplest ratio. (vii) Double decomposition method AB CD AD CB Empirical formula : Write all constituent atoms with their respective no. of atoms derived in simplest ratio. This gives empirical formula of compound. Mass of compound AB Eq. mass of A Eq. mass of B Mass of compound AD Eq. mass of A Eq. mass of D Molecular formula : Molecular formula n empirical formula where ' n' is the whole no. obtained by or Simplest ratio : Find out lowest value of relative no. of atoms and divide each value of relative no. of atoms by this value to estimate simplest ratio of elements. Mass of salt taken (W1 ) Eq. mass of salt (E1 ) Mass of ppt. obtained (W2 ) Eq. mass of salt in ppt. (E 2 ) (viii) Conversion method : When one compound of a metal is converted to another compound of the same metal, then Mass of compound I (W1 ) E Eq. mass of radical I Mass of compound II (W2 ) E Eq. mass of radical II (E = Eq. mass of the metal) n Chemical stoichiometry Stoichiometry (pronounced “stoy-key om-e-tree”) is the calculation of the quantities of reactants and products involved in a chemical reaction. That means quantitative calculations of chemical composition and reaction are referred to as stoichiometry. (ix) Volatile chloride method Valency of metal E 108 Mass of silversalt 107 Mass of Ag metal Molecular mass of acid = Equivalent mass of acid Basicity The mole concept mole of any substance (a) Simple calculations (gravimetric analysis) and (b) More complex calculations involving concentration and volume of solutions (volumetric analysis). 2 V.D. of Chloride 35.5 Valency (x) Silver salt method (For organic acids) One Basically, this topic involves two types of calculations. 2 V.D. of Chloride 2 V.D. Eq. mass of metal chloride E 35.5 Equivalent Mass of acid = molecular weight of compound empirical formula weight of compound contains a fixed number (6.022 10 ) of any type of particles (atoms or molecules or ions) and has a mass equal to the atomic or molecular weight, in grams. Thus it is 23 correct to refer to a mole of helium, a mole of electrons, or a mole of Na , meaning respectively Avogadro’s number of atoms, electrons or ions. Number of moles Weight(grams) Weight of one mole (g/mole) Weight Atomic or molecular weight Percentage composition & Molecular formula (1) Percentage composition of a compound Percentage composition of the compound is the relative mass of each of the constituent element in 100 parts of it. If the molecular mass of a compound is M and B is the mass of an element in the molecule, then Mass of element X Percentage of element 100 100 Molecular mass M (2) Determination of empirical formula : The empirical formula of a molecule is determined using the % of elements present in it. Following method is adopted. There is no borderline, which can distinguish the set of laws applicable to gravimetric and volumetric analysis. All the laws used in one are equally applicable to the other i.e., mole as well as equivalent concept. But in actual practise, the problems on gravimetric involves simpler reactions, thus mole concept is convenient to apply while volumetric reactions being complex and unknown (unknown simple means that it is not known to you, as it’s not possible for you to remember all possible reactions), equivalent concept is easier to apply as it does not require the knowledge of balanced equation. (1) Gravimetric analysis : In gravimetric analysis we relate the weights of two substances or a weight of a substance with a volume of a gas or volumes of two or more gases. Problems Involving Mass-Mass Relationship Proceed for solving such problems according to the following instructions, (i) Write down the balanced equation to represent the chemical change. (ii) Write the number of moles below the formula of the reactants and products. Also write the relative weights of the reactants and products (calculated from the respective molecular formula), below the respective formula. (iii) Apply the unitary method to calculate the unknown factor (s). Problems Involving Mass-Volume Relationship For solving problems involving mass-volume relationship, proceed according to the following instructions, (i) Write down the relevant balanced chemical equations (s). Chemical Arithmetic (ii) Write the weights of various solid reactants and products. (iii) Gases are usually expressed in terms of volumes. In case the volume of the gas is measured at room temperature and pressure (or under conditions other than N.T.P.), convert it into N.T.P. by applying gas equation. (iii) Iodiometric titrations : This is a simple titration involving free iodine. This involves the titration of iodine solution with known sodium thiosulphate solution whose normality is N . Let the volume of sodium thiosulphate is V ml . I 2 2 Na 2 S 2 O 3 2 NaI Na 2 S 4 O6 (iv) Volume of a gas at any temperature and pressure can be converted into its weight and vice-versa with the help of the relation, by n 2, n 1 g PV RT where g is weight of gas, M is mole. wt. of gas, R is M gas constant. Equivalents of I 2 Equivalent of Na 2 S 2 O 3 Equivalents of I 2 N V 10 3 Calculate the unknown factor by unitary method. Moles of I 2 Problems Based on Volume-Volume Relationship Such problems can be solved according to chemical equation as, (iii) In case volume of the gas is measured under particular (or room) temperature, convert it to volume at NTP by using ideal gas equation. (iv) Iodometric titrations : This is an indirect method of estimation of iodine. An oxidising agent is made to react with excess of solid KI . The oxidising agent oxidises I to I 2 . This iodine is then made to react with Na 2 S 2 O 3 solution. Oxidising Agent Take the help of Avogadro’s hypothesis “Equal volume of different 2 Na 2 S 2 O3 ( A) KI I 2 2 NaI Na 2 S 4 O 6 gases under the similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules”. (2) Volumetric analysis : It is a method which involves quantitative determination of the amount of any substance present in a solution through volume measurements. For the analysis a standard solution is required. (A solution which contains a known weight of the solute present in known volume of the solution is known as standard solution.) Let the normality of Na 2 S 2 O 3 solution is N and the volume of thiosulphate consumed to V ml . Equivalent of A Equivalent of I 2 Equivalents of Na 2 S 2 O 3 Equivalents of I 2 liberated from KI N V 10 3 To determine the strength of unknown solution with the help of known (standard) solution is known as titration. Different types of titrations are possible which are summerised as follows, Moles of I 2 liberated from KI N V 10 3 2 N V 10 3 254 g . Mass of I 2 liberated from KI 2 (i) Redox titrations : To determine the strength of oxidising agents or reducing agents by titration with the help of standard solution of reducing agents or oxidising agents. Examples: N V 10 3 2 N V 10 3 Mass of free I 2 in the solution 254 g . 2 (i) Write down the relevant balanced chemical equation. (ii) Write down the volume of reactants and products below the formula to each reactant and product with the help of the fact that 1 gm molecule of every gaseous substance occupies 22.4 litres at N.T.P. 7 (v) Precipitation titrations : To determine the anions like CN , AsO33 , PO43 , X etc, by precipitating with AgNO3 provides K 2 Cr2 O7 4 H 2 SO 4 K 2 SO 4 Cr2 (SO 4 )3 4 H 2 O 3[O] [2 FeSO 4 H 2 SO 4 O Fe2 (SO 4 )3 H 2 O] 3 6 FeSO 4 K 2 Cr2 O7 7 H 2 SO 4 3 Fe(SO 4 )3 K 2 SO 4 Cr2 (SO 4 )3 7 H 2 O 2 KMnO4 3 H 2 SO 4 K 2 SO 4 2 MnSO 4 3 H 2 O 5[O] [2 FeSO 4 H 2 SO 4 O Fe2 (SO 4 )3 H 2 O] 5 10 FeSO 4 2 KMnO4 8 H 2 SO 4 5 Fe2 (SO 4 )3 K 2 SO 4 2 MnSO 4 8 H 2 O Similarly with H 2 C 2 O4 2 KMnO4 3 H 2 SO 4 5 H 2 C2 O4 K 2 SO 4 2 MnSO 4 8 H 2 O 10CO 2 etc. (ii) Acid-base titrations : To determine the strength of acid or base with the help of standard solution of base or acid. Example: NaOH HCl NaCl H 2 O and NaOH CH 3 COOH CH 3 COONa H 2 O etc. examples of precipitation titrations. NaCl AgNO3 AgCl NaNO 3 KSCN AgNO3 AgSCN KNO 3 End point and equivalence point : The point at which titration is stopped is known as end point, while the point at which the acid and base ( or oxidising and reducing agents ) have been added in equivalent quantities is known as equivalence point . Since the purpose of the indicator is to stop the titration close to the point at which the reacting substances were added in equivalent quantities, it is important that the equivalent point and the end point be as close as possible. Normal solution : A solution containing one gram equivalent weight of the solute dissolved per litre is called a normal solution ; e.g. when 40 g of NaOH are present in one litre of NaOH solution, the solution is known as normal ( N ) solution of NaOH . Similarly, a solution containing a fraction of gram equivalent weight of the 8 Chemical Arithmetic solute dissolved per litre is known as subnormal solution. For example, a solution of NaOH containing 20 g (1/2 of g eq. wt.) of NaOH dissolved per litre is a sub-normal solution. It is written as N /2 or 0.5 N solution. Formula used in solving numerical problems on volumetric analysis (1) Strength of solution = Amount of substance in g litre1 (2) Strength of solution = Amount of substance in g moles litre1 (3) Strength of solution = Normality Eq. wt. of the solute = molarity Mol. wt. of solute Limiting reagent or reactant In many situations, an excess of one or more substance is available for chemical reaction. Some of these excess substances will therefore be left over when the reaction is complete; the reaction stops immediately as soon as one of the reactant is totally consumed. The substance that is totally consumed in a reaction is called limiting reagent because it determines or limits the amount of product. The other reactant present in excess are called as excess reagents. Let us consider a chemical reaction which is initiated by passing a spark through a reaction vessel containing 10 mole of H and 7 mole of O . 2 (4) Molarity Moles of solute Volume in litre (5) Number of moles Wt. in gm M V(inl) Mol.wt. Volume in litres at NTP (only for gases) 22.4 2 H 2 (g) O2 (g) 2 H 2O (v) Moles before reaction 10 7 0 Moles after reaction 0 2 10 The reaction stops only after consumption of 5 moles of O as no further amount of H is left to react with unreacted O . Thus H is a limiting reagent in this reaction. 2 2 (6) Number of millimoles Wt. in gm 1000 mol. wt. 2 2 2 Molarity Volume in ml. (7) Number of equivalents Wt. in gm x No. of moles Normality Volume in litre Eq. wt. (8) Number of milliequivalents (meq.) Wt. in gm 1000 normality Volume in ml. Eq. wt. (9) Normality x No. of millimoles x Molarity where x Strength in gm litre1 Eq. wt. Mol.wt. , x = valency or change in oxi. Number. Eq. wt. (10) Normality formula, N1 V1 N 2 V2 Law of conservation of mass does not hold good for nuclear reactions. Law of definite proportions do not hold good for nonstoichiometric compounds e.g., Wusitite Fe O. 0.95 Law of definite proportions, law of multiple proportions and law of reciprocal proportions do not hold good when same compounds is obtained by using different isotopes of te same element e.g. H O and D O. 2 2 The term atom was introduced by Ostwald and the term molecule was introduced by Avogadro. The concept of element was introduced by Robert Boyle. The number of atoms present in a molecule of a gaseous element is called Atomicity. Wt. of solvent 100 (11) % by weight Wt. of solution Both atomic mass and molecular mass are just rations and hence Wt. of solvent 100 (12) % by volume Vol. of solution 1 mol of H O 22400 cc of H O (because it is a liquid). Instead, have no units. 2 2 1 mol of H O = 18cc of H O 2 Vol. of solvent 100 (13) % by strength Vol. of solution 2 1 M H SO = 2NH SO . 4 2 4 Minimum molecular mass of a macromolecular substance can be (15) Formality (because density of H O = 1 g/cc) 2 (14) Specific gravity 2 Wt. of solution Wt. of 1 ml. of solution Vol. of solution Wt. of ionic solute Formula Wt. of solute Vin l (16) Mol. Wt. = V.D 2 (For gases only) calculated by analysing it for one of the minar components. Minimum molecular mass is obtained when it is supposed that one molecule of the macromolecule contains only one atom or molecule of the minor component. Minimum molecular mass Chemical Arithmetic Atomic/molecular mass of minor component Mass of minor component per gram of macromolec ule 9 10 Chemical Arithmetic 13. In known elements, the maximum number is of [CPMT 1985] Significant figures, Units for measurement, Matter and Separation of mixture 1. 2. 3. 4. One fermi is 14. (a) Metals (b) Non-metals (c) Metalloids (d) None of these Which one of the following is not an element (a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c) Silica (d) Ozone 15. A mixture of ZnCl 2 and PbCl 2 can be separated by [AFMC 1989] [Haryana CEET 1994; DPMT 2004] (a) 10 13 cm (b) 10 15 cm (c) 10 10 cm A picometre is written as (d) 10 12 cm (a) 10 9 m (b) 10 10 m (c) 10 11 m One atmosphere is equal to (a) 101.325 K pa (d) 10 12 m 16. (b) 1013.25 K pa 17. (c) 10 5 Nm (d) None of these Dimensions of pressure are same as that of [CBSE PMT 1995] (a) Energy (c) Energy per unit volume 5. 6. (b) Force (d) Force per unit volume The prefix 1018 is [Kerala MEE 2002] (a) Giga (b) Nano (c) Mega (d) Exa Given the numbers : 161cm, 0.161cm, 0.0161 cm. The number of significant figures for the three numbers are 18. 19. [CBSE PMT 1998] 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. (a) 3, 4 and 5 respectively (b) 3, 3 and 3 respectively (c) 3, 3 and 4 respectively (d) 3, 4 and 4 respectively Significant figures in 0.00051 are (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4 Which of the following halogen can be purified by sublimation (a) F2 (b) Cl 2 (c) Br2 (d) I2 Difference in density is the basis of [Kerala MEE 2002] (a) Ultrafiltration (b) Molecular sieving (c) Gravity Separation (d) Molecular attraction Which of the following elements of matter would best convey that there is life on earth (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Carbon (d) Iron The compound which is added to table salt for maintaining proper health is (a) KCl (b) KBr (c) 12. NaI (d) MgBr2 Which of the following contains only one element (a) Marble (b) Diamond (c) Glass (d) Sand (a) Distillation (b) Crystallization (c) Sublimation (d) Adding aceitic acid A mixture of methyl alcohol and acetone can be separated by (a) Distillation (b) Fractional distillation (c) Steam distillation (d) Distillation under reduced pressure In the final answer of the expression (29.2 20.2) (1 .79 10 5 ) . The number of significant figures 1 .37 is [CBSE PMT 1994] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 81.4 g sample of ethyl alcohol contains 0.002 g of water. The amount of pure ethyl alcohol to the proper number of significant figures is (a) 81.398 g (b) 71.40 g (c) 91.4 g (d) 81 g The unit J Pa 1 is equivalent to (a) m 3 20. (b) cm 3 (c) dm 3 (d) None of these From the following masses, the one which is expressed nearest to the milligram is (a) 16 g (b) 16.4 g (c) 16.428 g (d) 16.4284 g [Manipal PMT 2001] 21. 22. The number of significant figures in 6.02 10 23 is (a) 23 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 26 The prefix zepto stands for [DPMT 2004] (a) 10 9 23. 24. (b) 10 12 (c) 10 15 (d) 10 21 The significant figures in 3400 are (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4 The number of significant figures in 6.0023 are [BHU 2004] [Pb.CET 2001] (a) 5 (c) 3 25. (b) 4 (d) 1 Given P 0.0030m , Q 2.40m , R 3000m , Significant figures in P, Q and R are respectively (a) 2, 2, 1 (c) 4, 2, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 2, 3 [Pb. CET 2002] Chemical Arithmetic 26. The number of significant figures in 60.0001 is 9. [Pb. CET 2000] 27. (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2 A sample was weighted using two different balances. The result’s were (i) 3.929 g (ii) 4.0 g. How would the weight of the sample be reported (a) 3.929 g (b) 3 g (c) 3.9 g (d) 3.93 g 10. Laws of chemical combination 1. Which of the following pairs of substances illustrate the law of multiple proportions [CPMT 1972, 78] (a) CO and CO2 (c) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. NaCl and NaBr (b) H 2 O and D2 O (d) MgO and Mg(OH ) 2 1.0 g of an oxide of A contained 0.5 g of A. 4.0 g of another oxide of A contained 1.6 g of A. The data indicate the law of (a) Reciprocal proportions (b) Constant proportions (c) Conservation of energy (d) Multiple proportions Among the following pairs of compounds, the one that illustrates the law of multiple proportions is (a) NH 3 and NCl 3 (b) H 2 S and SO 2 (c) CuO and Cu 2 O (d) CS 2 and FeSO 4 12. The percentage of copper and oxygen in samples of CuO obtained by different methods were found to be the same. This illustrates the law of [AMU 1982, 92] (a) Constant proportions (b) Conservation of mass (c) Multiple proportions (d) Reciprocal proportions 8. 13. Two samples of lead oxide were separately reduced to metallic lead by heating in a current of hydrogen. The weight of lead from one oxide was half the weight of lead obtained from the other oxide. The data illustrates [AMU 1983] (a) Law of reciprocal proportions (b) Law of constant proportions (c) Law of multiple proportions (d) Law of equivalent proportions Chemical equation is balanced according to the law of [AMU 1984] 7. 11. (a) Multiple proportion (b) Reciprocal proportion (c) Conservation of mass (d) Definite proportions Avogadro number is (a) Number of atoms in one gram of element (b) Number of millilitres which one mole of a gaseous substances occupies at NTP (c) Number of molecules present in one gram molecular mass of a substance (d) All of these Different propartions of oxygen in the various oxides of nitrogen prove the [MP PMT 1985] (a) Equivalent proportion (b) Multiple proportion (c) Constant proportion (d) Conservation of matter 11 Two elements X and Y have atomic weights of 14 and 16. They form a series of compounds A, B, C, D and E in which the same amount of element X, Y is present in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : 5. If the compound A has 28 parts by weight of X and 16 parts by weight of Y, then the compound of C will have 28 parts weight of X and [NCERT 1971] (a) 32 parts by weight of Y (b) 48 parts by weight of Y (c) 64 parts by weight of Y (d) 80 parts by weight of Y Carbon and oxygen combine to form two oxides, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide in which the ratio of the weights of carbon and oxygen is respectively 12 : 16 and 12 : 32. These figures illustrate the (a) Law of multiple proportions (b) Law of reciprocal proportions (c) Law of conservation of mass (d) Law of constant proportions A sample of calcium carbonate (CaCO 3 ) has the following percentage composition : Ca = 40%; C = 12%; O = 48% If the law of constant proportions is true, then the weight of calcium in 4 g of a sample of calcium carbonate obtained from another source will be (a) 0.016 g (b) 0.16 g (c) 1.6 g (d) 16 g n g of substance X reacts with m g of substance Y to form p g of substance R and q g of substance S. This reaction can be represented as, X Y R S . The relation which can be established in the amounts of the reactants and the products will be (a) n m p q (b) n m p q (c) n m (d) pq Which of the following is the best example of law of conservation of mass [NCERT 1975] (a) 12 g of carbon combines with 32 g of oxygen to form 44 g of CO 2 (b) When 12 g of carbon is heated in a vacuum there is no change in mass (c) A sample of air increases in volume when heated at constant pressure but its mass remains unaltered (d) The weight of a piece of platinum is the same before and after heating in air 14. 15. The law of multiple proportions is illustrated by the two compounds [NCERT 1972] (a) Sodium chloride and sodium bromide (b) Ordinary water and heavy water (c) Caustic soda and caustic potash (d) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide In compound A, 1.00 g nitrogen unites with 0.57 g oxygen. In compound B, 2.00 g nitrogen combines with 2.24 g oxygen. In compound C, 3.00 g nitrogen combines with 5.11 g oxygen. These results obey the following law [CPMT 1971] (a) Law of constant proportion (b) Law of multiple proportion (c) Law of reciprocal proportion (d) Dalton's law of partial pressure 12 Chemical Arithmetic 16. Hydrogen combines with oxygen to form H 2 O in which 16 g 4. of oxygen combine with 2 g of hydrogen. Hydrogen also combines with carbon to form CH 4 in which 2 g of hydrogen 17. 18. 19. 20. combine with 6 g of carbon. If carbon and oxygen combine together then they will do show in the ratio of (a) 6 : 16 or 12 : 32 (b) 6 : 18 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 12 : 24 2 g of hydrogen combine with 16 g of oxygen to form water and with 6 g of carbon to form methane. In carbon dioxide 12 g of carbon are combined with 32 g of oxygen. These figures illustrate the law of (a) Multiple proportions (b) Constant proportions (c) Reciprocal proportions (d) Conservation of mass An element forms two oxides containing respectively 53.33 and 36.36 percent of oxygen. These figures illustrate the law of (a) Conservation of mass (b) Constant proportions (c) Reciprocal proportions (d) Multiple proportions After a chemical reaction, the total mass of reactants and products [MP PMT 1989] (a) Is always increased (b) Is always decreased (c) Is not changed (d) Is always less or more A sample of pure carbon dioxide, irrespective of its source contains 27.27% carbon and 72.73% oxygen. The data support 1 amu is equal to (a) 1 of C 12 12 (c) 1g of H 2 5. (b) 1 of O - 16 14 (d) 1.66 10 23 kg Sulphur forms the chlorides S 2 Cl 2 and SCl 2 . The equivalent mass of sulphur in SCl 2 is [EAMCET 1985; Pb. CET 2001] 6. (a) 8 g/mole (b) 16 g/mole (c) 64.8 g/mole (d) 32 g/mole The sulphate of a metal M contains 9.87% of M. This sulphate is isomorphous with ZnSO 4 .7 H 2 O . The atomic weight of M is (a) 40.3 (c) 24.3 7. [IIT 1991] (b) 36.3 (d) 11.3 When 100 ml of 1 M NaOH solution and 10 ml of 10 N H 2 SO 4 solution are mixed together, the resulting solution 8. will be [DPMT 1982] (a) Alkaline (b) Acidic (c) Strongly acidic (d) Neutral In chemical scale, the relative mass of the isotopic mixture of oxygen atoms (O 16 , O 17 , O 18 ) is assumed to be equal to [Bihar MADT 1981] [AIIMS 1992] 21. 22. (a) Law of constant composition (b) Law of conservation of mass (c) Law of reciprocal proportions (d) Law of multiple proportions The law of definite proportions is not applicable to nitrogen oxide because [EAMCET 1981] (a) Nitrogen atomic weight is not constant (b) Nitrogen molecular weight is variable (c) Nitrogen equivalent weight is variable (d) Oxygen atomic weight is variable Which one of the following pairs of compounds illustrates the law of multiple proportion [EAMCET 1989] (a) H 2O, Na 2O (b) MgO, Na 2O (c) Na 2O, BaO (d) SnCl 2 , SnCl 4 9. 10. (a) 6.02 10 23 atoms of H (b) 4 g atom of Hydrogen (c) 1.81 10 23 molecules of CH 4 11. Atomic, Molecular and Equivalent masses 1. [MP PMT 1986] 2. 3. [MP PMT 2002] 12 (a) C (c) H1 (b) O 16 (d) C 13 (d) 3.0 g of carbon In the reaction 2 Na2 S 2O3 I2 Na2 S 4 O6 2 NaI , the equivalent weight of Na 2 S 2 O 3 (mol. wt. = M) is equal to (a) M Which property of an element is always a whole number (a) Atomic weight (b) Equivalent weight (c) Atomic number (d) Atomic volume Which one of the following properties of an element is not variable [Bihar MADT 1981] (a) Valency (b) Atomic weight (c) Equivalent weight (d) All of these The modern atomic weight scale is based on (a) 16.002 (b) 16.00 (c) 17.00 (d) 11.00 For preparing 0.1 N solution of a compound from its impure sample of which the percentage purity is known, the weight of the substance required will be [MP PET 1996] (a) More than the theoretical weight (b) Less than the theoretical weight (c) Same as the theoretical weight (d) None of these 1 mol of CH 4 contains 12. 13. (b) M / 2 (c) M / 3 (d) M / 4 When potassium permanganate is titrated against ferrous ammonium sulphate, the equivalent weight of potassium permanganate is [CPMT 1988] (a) Molecular weight /10 (b) Molecular weight /5 (c) Molecular weight /2 (d) Molecular weight Boron has two stable isotopes, 10 B (19%) and 11 B (81%). The atomic mass that should appear for boron in the periodic table is [CBSE PMT 1990] (a) 10.8 (b) 10.2 (c) 11.2 (d) 10.0 Chemical Arithmetic 14. What is the concentration of nitrate ions if equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO 3 and 0.1 M NaCl are mixed together 27. [CPMT 1983; NCERT 1985] 15. 16. 17. (a) 0.1 M (b) 0.2 M (c) 0.05 M (d) 0.25 M Total number of atoms represented by the compound CuSO4.5H2O is [BHU 2005] (a) 27 (b) 21 (c) 5 (d) 8 74.5 g of a metallic chloride contain 35.5 g of chlorine. The equivalent weight of the metal is [CPMT 1986] (a) 19.5 (b) 35.5 (c) 39.0 (d) 78.0 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.8 litres of volume at STP the gas is (a) NO (b) N 2 O (c) 18. [CBSE PMT 1999; MH CET 2003] 19. (b) 2 10 23 [AMU 1992] 20. 21. C2 H 2 (b) CO (c) O2 (d) CH 4 29. 30. 23. 24. 25. (a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 120 (d) 200 The oxide of a metal has 32% oxygen. Its equivalent weight would be [MP PMT 1985] (a) 34 (b) 32 (c) 17 (d) 8 The mass of a molecule of water is [Bihar CEE 1995] (a) 3 10 26 kg (b) 3 10 26 26. 25 (c) 1.5 10 kg (d) 2.5 10 1.24 gm P is present in 2.2 gm (a) P4 S 3 (b) P2 S 2 (c) PS 2 (d) P2 S 4 kg 26 kg [CBSE PMT 2000] (b) 2.24 L (d) 1.12 L If N A is Avogadro’s number then number of valence electrons (a) 2.4 N A (b) 4.2 N A (c) 1.6 N A (d) 3.2 N A The weight of 1 10 22 molecules of CuSO 4 .5 H 2 O is [IIT 1991] (a) 41.59 g (c) 4.159 g 31. (b) 415.9 g (d) None of these Rearrange the following (I to IV) in the order of increasing masses and choose the correct answer from (a), (b), (c) and (d) (Atomic mass: N=14, O=16, Cu=63). I. 1 molecule of oxygen II. 1 atom of nitrogen III. 1 10 10 g molecular weight of oxygen IV. 1 10 10 g atomic weight of copper [MP PMT 1995] 22. (d) 2y in 4.2 g of nitride ions ( N 3 ) The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 g of the gas at ATP will be [Bihar CET 1995] (a) 11.2 L (b) 22.4 L (c) 1 L (d) 44.8 L Equivalent weight of crystalline oxalic acid is (a) 30 (b) 63 (c) 53 (d) 45 The equivalent weight of an element is 4. Its chloride has a V.D 59.25. Then the valency of the element is [BHU 1997] (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 1.25 g of a solid dibasic acid is completely neutralised by 25 ml of 0.25 molar Ba(OH ) 2 solution. Molecular mass of the acid is y 4 Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of CO 2 released at will be (a) 0.84 L (c) 4.06 L (c) 4 10 23 (d) 6 10 23 One litre of a gas at STP weight 1.16 g it can possible be (a) (b) STP on heating 9.85g of BaCO 3 (Atomic mass of Ba=137) The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH 3 is approximately (a) 1 10 23 y 2 (c) y (d) CO 2 CO The atomic weights of two elements A and B are 40 and 80 respectively. If x g of A contains y atoms, how many atoms are present in 2x g of B (a) 28. 13 32. (a) II<I<III<IV (b) IV<III<II<I (c) II<III<I<IV (d) III<IV<I<II 1.520 g of the hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave gm of oxide. The equivalent weight of metal is 0.995 [DPMT 1984] (a) 1.520 (c) 19.00 33. 34. (b) 0.995 (d) 9.00 How much coulomb charge is present on 1g ion of N 3 (a) 5.2 10 6 Couloumb (b) 2.894 10 5 Couloumb (c) 6.6 10 6 Couloumb (d) 8.2 10 6 Couloumb Ratio of C p and C v of a gas X is 1.4, the number of atom of the gas ‘X’ present in 11.2 litres of it at NTP will be [CBSE 1999] (a) 35. 6.02 10 23 (b) 1.2 10 23 (c) 3.01 10 23 (d) 2.01 10 23 If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will [AIEEE 2005] (a) Decrease twice (b) Increase two fold (c) Remain unchanged (d) Be a function of the molecular mass of the substance 14 Chemical Arithmetic 36. 37. What should be the equivalent weight of phosphorous acid, if P=31; O=16; H=1 (a) 82 (b) 41 (c) 20.5 (d) None of these The number of molecule at NTP in 1 ml of an ideal gas will be (a) 38. 39. 6 10 23 (b) 2.69 10 19 (c) 2.69 10 23 (d) None of these The specific heat of a metal is 0.16 its approximate atomic weight would be (a) 32 (b) 16 (c) 40 (d) 64 The weight of a molecule of the compound C 60 H 122 is [AIIMS 2000] (a) 1.4 10 21 g 40. 41. 42. 46. 48. Mn 2 O 3 (b) MnO 2 (c) MnO4 (d) MnO42 100 mL of PH3 on decomposition produced phosphorus and hydrogen. The change in volume is [MNR 1986] 52. 6.4 kg 96 kg (a) 50 mL increase (b) 500 mL decrease (c) 900 mL decrease (d) Nil. 12 g of Mg (at. mass 24) on reacting completely with acid gives hydrogen gas, the volume of which at STP would be [CPMT 1978] (a) 22.4 L (b) 11.2 L (c) 44.8 L (d) 6 .1 L 53. 6.02 10 23 cm 3 (b) 22400 cm 3 2 g atom of nitrogen (c) 1 mole of S 54. (d) 3.0 10 23 cm 3 Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194. If it contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, number of atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 3 A 400 mg iron capsule contains 100 mg of ferrous fumarate, (CHCOO ) 2 Fe . The percentage of iron pasent in it is Which of the following has least mass (a) If the density of water is 1 g cm 3 then the volume occupied by one molecule of water is approximately [Pb. PMT 2004] 55. 56. (b) 3 10 [Pb. PET 1985] 23 atoms of C (d) 7 .0 g of Ag How many mole of helium gas occupy 22.4 L at 0 o C at 1 atm. pressure (a) 0.11 (c) 1.0 [Kurukshetra CEE 1992; CET 1992] (b) 0.90 (d) 1.11 Volume of a gas at STP is 1.12 10 7 cc. Calculate the number of molecules in it [BHU 1997] (a) 3.01 10 20 (b) 3.01 1012 (c) 3.01 10 23 (d) 3.01 10 24 4 .4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 L of volume at standard temperature and pressure. The gas may be (b) 25% (d) 8% [MP PMT 1995] 26 The element whose a atom has mass of 10.86 10 kg is (a) Boron (b) Calcium (c) Silver (d) Zinc The number of gram atoms of oxygen present in 0.3 gram mole of (COOH ) 2 .2 H 2 O is (a) 0.6 (c) 1.2 47. 51. [IIT 1988; CPMT 1994] (a) 100ml of 2.5 molal (2.5m) ammonium hydroxide solution (a) 0.056 litres (b) 0.56 litres (c) 5.6 litres (d) 11.2 litres approximately (a) 33% (c) 14% 45. when it is converted to 16.023 10 23 g required for the complete [CBSE PMT 1989] The equivalent weight of MnSO 4 is half its molecular weight What volume of NH 3 gas at STP would be needed to prepare (c) 44. 50. (b) 1.09 10 21 g (c) 5.025 10 23 g (d) What is the weight of oxygen combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene (a) 2.8 kg (b) (c) 9.6 kg (d) (a) 18 cm 3 43. 49. (a) 21 (b) 54 (c) 27.06 (d) 2.086 One gram of hydrogen is found to combine with 80g of bromine one gram of calcium valency=2 combines with 4g of bromine the equivalent weight of calcium is (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 80 57. proportion. The weight of 2.24 litres of this mixture at NTP is (a) 4.6 g (b) 1.6 g (c) 2.3 g (d) 23 g Vapour density of a metal chloride is 66. Its oxide contains 53% metal. The atomic weight of the metal is [Bihar MADT 1982] (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur dioxide The number of moles of oxygen in 1 L of air containing 21% oxygen by volume, in standard conditions, is [CBSE PMT 1995; Pb. PMT 2004] (b) 1.8 (d) 3.6 A gaseous mixture contains CH 4 and C 2 H 6 in equimolecular (a) Carbon dioxide 58. (a) 0.186 mol (b) 0.21 mol (c) 2.10 mol (d) 0.0093 mol The number of molecules in 8.96 L of a gas at 0 o C and 1 atmosphere pressure is approximately (a) 6.02 10 23 (c) 18.06 10 23 (b) 12.04 10 [BHU 1993] 23 (d) 24.08 10 22 Chemical Arithmetic 59. The equivalent weight of a metal is 9 and vapour density of its chloride is 59.25. The atomic weight of metal is (d) 12 10 23 6 10 23 The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO 2 at STP is (c) 6. [Pb. CET 2002] 60. (a) 23.9 (b) 27.3 (c) 36.3 (d) 48.3 The molecular weight of a gas is 45. Its density at STP is [AFMC 1997, 2004; Pb. CET 1997, 2002] 7. [Pb. PMT 2004] 61. 62. (a) 22.4 (b) 11.2 (c) 5.7 (d) 2.0 Equivalent weight of a bivalent metal is 37.2. The molecular weight of its chloride is [MH CET 2003] (a) 412.2 (b) 216 (c) 145.4 (d) 108.2 On reduction with hydrogen, 3.6 g of an oxide of metal left 3.2 g of metal. If the vapour density of metal is 32, the simplest formula of the oxide would be 63. MO (b) M 2 O 3 (c) M 2O (d) M 2 O 5 8. 9. 10. 0.5 10 (c) 3.5 10 23 (b) 1.5 10 2. (d) 1.8 10 32 11. Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules [EAMCET 1987] (a) 16 g of O 2 and 14 g of N 2 12. (b) 2.0478 10 24 (c) 3.0115 10 24 (d) 4.0956 10 24 The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is (b) 6.02 10 23 3.0 10 23 16 16 10 23 10 23 (c) (d) 6 .02 3 .0 Number of molecules in 100 ml of each [Bihar MADT 1985] O 2 , NH 3 and CO 2 at STP are (a) In the order CO 2 O2 NH 3 (c) 28 g of N 2 and 22 g of CO 2 (b) In the order NH 3 O 2 CO 2 (d) 32 g of O 2 and 32 g of N 2 (c) The same (d) NH 3 CO 2 O 2 Number of gm of oxygen in 32.2 g Na 2 SO 4 .10 H 2 O is (a) 20.8 (b) 22.4 (c) 2.24 (d) 2.08 250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na 2 CO 3 . If 10 ml of this solution is diluted to one litre, what (a) 0.1 M (b) 0.001 M (c) 0.01 M (d) 10 4 M 13. 14. g mol 1 (d) mol g 1 The number of water molecules in 1 litre of water is [EAMCET 1990] (b) 18 1000 (d) 55.55 N A (a) 18 (c) N A 15. The number of electrons in a mole of hydrogen molecule is [CPMT 1987] A molar solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in (a) 1000 g of the solvent (c) One litre of the solution (b) One litre of the solvent (d) 22.4 litres of the solution The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO 2 is approx. [CBSE PMT 1990] (a) 1.2 10 23 (b) 6 10 22 of The molecular weight of hydrogen peroxide is 34. What is the unit of molecular weight [MP PMT 1986] (a) g (b) mol (c) [IIT 1986] 5. (c) 6.02 10 24 (d) 6.02 10 25 The total number of protons in 10 g of calcium carbonate is (b) 8 g of O 2 and 22 g of CO 2 is the concentration of the resultant solution (mol. wt. of [EAMCET 2001] Na 2 CO 3 =106) 4. (b) 6.02 10 23 (a) [Haryana PMT 2000] 3. (c) 4.84 10 17 (d) 6.023 10 23 One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water gives [IIT 1999] (a) One mole of phosphine (b) Two moles of phosphoric acid (c) Two moles of phosphine (d) One mole of phosphorus pentoxide 19.7 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. How many atoms of gold were recovered (Au =197) [Pb. CET 1985] (a) 1.5057 10 24 23 The mole concept 1. (b) 1.084 10 18 ( N 0 6.023 10 23 ) [Pb. CET 2000] (a) 6.023 10 19 (a) 100 The number of molecules in 4.25 g of ammonia are 23 (a) 22.4 L (b) 2.24 L (c) 0.224 L (d) 0.1 L The number of water molecules present in a drop of water (volume 0.0018 ml) at room temperature is [DCE 2000] (a) [DPMT 2004] (a) 15 (a) 6.02 10 (b) 12.046 10 23 23 (c) 3.0115 10 (d) Indefinite The numbers of moles of BaCO 3 which contain 1.5 moles of 23 16. oxygen atoms is (a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 6.02 10 23 [EAMCET 1991] 16 Chemical Arithmetic 17. Which of the following is Loschmidt number (a) 6 10 (b) 2.69 10 23 19 (c) 3 10 (d) None of these How many molecules are present in one gram of hydrogen 23 18. 2. [AIIMS 1982] (a) 19. 20. 3. (b) 3.01 10 23 (c) 2.5 10 23 (d) 1.5 10 23 The total number of gm-molecules of SO 2 Cl 2 in 13.5 g of sulphuryl chloride is [CPMT 1992] (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4 The largest number of molecules is in [BHU 1997] (a) 34 g of water (b) 28 g of CO 2 (c) 21. 6.02 10 23 46 g of CH 3 OH 4. The number of moles of sodium oxide in 620 g of it is (a) 1 mol (c) 18 moles 22. [MP PMT 1986] (d) 54 g of N 2 O5 [BHU 1992] 5. (b) 10 moles (d) 100 moles [BHU 1992] 0 .5 g of hydrogen (c) 7 g of nitrogen 23. (b) 4 g of sulphur (a) Different percentage composition (b) Different molecular weights (c) Same viscosity (d) Same vapour density A compound (80 g) on analysis gave C = 24 g, H = 4 g, O = 32 g. Its empirical formula is [CPMT 1981] (a) C2 H 2 O2 (b) C 2 H 2 O (c) CH 2 O 2 (d) CH 2 O The empirical formula of a compound is CH 2 O. 0.0835 moles of the compound contains 1.0 g of hydrogen. Molecular formula of the compound is (a) C 2 H 12 O 6 (b) C 5 H 10 O 5 2 g of oxygen contains number of atoms equal to that in (a) (a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 8 (d) 10 The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about [KCET 2001] (a) 46 (b) 85 (c) 18 (d) 28 If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different molecular formula, they must have (c) 6. (d) 2 .3 g of sodium The empirical formula of an acid is CH 2O2 , the probable (a) CH 2 O (b) CH 2O2 (c) C 2 H 4 O2 (d) C3 H 6 O4 [CBSE PMT 2001] 24. (a) 7. (c) Fructose and sucrose [BCECE 2005] (a) 6.0 10 (c) 12 10 23 (b) 3 10 In which of the following pairs of compounds the ratio of C, H and O is same (b) Glucose and acetic acid (c) 5 6.02 10 23 atoms/mole (d) None of these The number of molecules of CO2 present in 44g of CO2 is 23 [AFMC 2000] (a) Acetic acid and methyl alcohol 45 6.02 10 23 atoms/mole (b) 5 6.62 10 23 atoms/mole 25. (d) C 3 H 6 O 3 molecular formula of acid may be Molarity of liquid HCl with density equal to 1.17 g / cc is (a) 36.5 (b) 18.25 (c) 32.05 (d) 4.65 How many atoms are contained in one mole of sucrose [Pb. PMT 2002] (C12 H 22 O11 ) C 4 H 8 O8 23 (d) All of these Chemical stoichiometry 1. (d) 3 10 10 How much of NaOH is required to neutralise 1500 cm 3 of 0.1 [KCET 2001] N HCl (Na = 23) (a) 40 g 26. A sample of phosphorus trichloride (PCl 3 ) contains 1.4 moles 27. (e) 2.409 10 24 The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of sodium ferrocyanide is [BHU 2004] (b) 4 g (c) 6 g (d) 60 g of the substance. How many atoms are there in the sample[Kerala PMT 2004] 2. How much water should be added to 200 c.c of semi normal (a) 4 (b) 5.6 solution of NaOH to make it exactly deci normal (c) 8.431 10 23 (d) 3.372 10 24 [AFMC 1983] (a) 12 10 23 (b) 26 10 23 34 10 23 (d) 48 10 23 (c) 3. Percentage composition & Molecular formula 1. The percentage of oxygen in NaOH is [CPMT 1979] (a) 200 cc (b) 400 cc (c) 800 cc (d) 600 cc 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yield a residue weighing [Pb. CET 2003] (a) 2.16 g (b) 2.48 g (c) 2.64 g (d) 2.32 g Chemical Arithmetic 4. In the reaction, 4 NH 3 (g) 5O 2 (g) 4 NO(g) 6 H 2 O(g) , When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O 2 are made to react (c) 80 grams 13. 17 (d) 320 grams What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H 3 PO4 to completion [AIIMS 1982] (a) 1.0 mole of H 2 O is produced (b) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced 14. (c) All the oxygen will be consumed (a) 0.5 N (b) 1.0 N (c) 2.0 N (d) 3.0 N Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is (a) 2N (d) All the ammonia will be consumed 5. 6. 7. 8. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms (At. wt. of Fe = 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin is [CBSE PMT 1998] 15. How many g of a dibasic acid (Mol. wt. = 200) should be present in 100 ml of its aqueous solution to give decinormal strength [AIIMS 1992] (a) 1 g (b) 2 g (d) 2 (c) 10 g (d) 20 g What quantity of ammonium sulphate is necessary for the production of NH 3 gas sufficient to neutralize a solution 16. The solution of sulphuric acid contains 80% by weight H 2 SO 4 . Specific gravity of this solution is 1.71. Its normality containing 292 g of HCl ? [HCl=36.5; (NH 4 )2 SO 4 =132; is about NH 3 =17] (a) 18.0 (b) 27.9 (c) 1.0 (d) 10.0 [CPMT 1992] (a) 272 g (b) 403 g (c) 528 g (d) 1056 g 17. [CBSE 1991] Mohr's salt is dissolved in dil. H 2 SO 4 instead of distilled The percentage of P2 O 5 in diammonium hydrogen phosphate water to (NH 4 ) 2 HPO4 is (a) Enhance the rate of dissolution [CPMT 1992] (a) 23.48 (b) 46.96 (c) 53.78 (d) 71.00 (b) Prevent cationic hydrolysis (c) Increase the rate of ionisation 1 moles of oxygen combine with Al to form Al2 O 3 the 2 weight of Al used in the reaction is (Al=27) [EAMCET 1980] If 1 (d) Increase its reducing strength 18. (b) 54 g 19. (d) 31 g The percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight (atomic weight=78.4). Then minimum molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is (a) 1.568 10 4 (b) 1.568 10 3 (c) 15.68 (d) 3.136 10 4 20. Acidified potassium permanganate solution is decolourised by (a) Bleaching powder (b) White vitriol (c) Mohr's salt (d) Microcosmic salt Approximate atomic weight of an element is 26.89. If its equivalent weight is 8.9, the exact atomic weight of element would be [DPMT 1984] (a) 26.89 (b) 8.9 (c) 17.8 (d) 26.7 Vapour density of a gas is 22. What is its molecular mass [AFMC 2000] H 2 evolved at STP on complete reaction of 27 g of Aluminium with excess of aqueous NaOH would be 21. (a) 33 (b) 22 (c) 44 (d) 11 Equivalent weight of KMnO4 acting as an oxidant in acidic medium is [CPMT 1991] 12. N 4 (c) 4 [CBSE PMT 2001] 11. (d) (b) 1 (c) 49.5 g 10. N 2 (a) 6 (a) 27 g 9. (c) [AIIMS 1992] (b) 4N [CPMT 1990; MP PET 1999] (a) 22.4 (b) 44.8 (a) The same as its molecular weight (c) 67.2 (d) 33.6 litres (b) Half of its molecular weight (c) One-third of its molecular weight What is the % of H 2 O in Fe(CNS )3 .3 H 2O (a) 45 (b) 30 (c) 19 (d) 25 What weight of SO 2 can be made by burning sulphur in 5.0 moles of oxygen (a) 640 grams (b) 160 grams (d) One-fifth of its molecular weight 22. 0.16 g of dibasic acid required 25 ml of decinormal NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. The molecular weight of the acid will be [CPMT 1989] (a) 32 (b) 64 (c) 128 (d) 256 18 Chemical Arithmetic 23. 24. [CPMT 1992] To neutralise 20 ml of M / 10 sodium hydroxide, the volume of M / 20 hydrochloric acid required is (a) 0.6 g (b) 1.0 g [Andhra MBBS 1980] (c) 1.5 g (d) 2.0 g (a) 10 ml (b) 15 ml (c) 20 ml (d) 40 ml 32. In the preceeding question, the amount of Na 2CO 3 present in the solution is Hydrochloric acid solutions A and B have concentration of 0.5 N and 0.1 N respectively. The volume of solutions A and B required to make 2 litres of 0.2 N hydrochloric are [KCET 1993] 33. (b) 1.060 g (c) 0.530 g (d) 0.265 g How many ml of 1 (M) H 2 SO 4 is required to neutralise 10 ml of 1 (M) NaOH solution (a) 0.5 l of A + 1.5 l of B [MP PET 1998; MNR 1982; MP PMT 1987] (b) 1.5 l of A + 0.5 l of B (c) 1.0 l of A + 1.0 l of B (d) 0.75 l of A + 1.25 l of B 25. 5 ml of N HCl, 20 ml of N / 2 H 2 SO 4 and 30 ml of 34. The normality of the resulting solution is 27. (a) N /5 (b) N / 10 (c) N / 20 (d) N / 40 [MNR 1991] 35. 29. (b) 5.0 (c) 10.0 (d) 20.0 Which of the following cannot give iodometric titrations 3 (a) Fe (c) Pb2 (b) Cu (d) 2 Ag KMnO4 reacts with ferrous ammonium sulphate according to Under similar conditions of pressure and temperature, 40 ml of slightly moist hydrogen chloride gas is mixed with 20 ml of ammonia gas, the final volume of gas at the same temperature and pressure will be [CBSE PMT 1993] the equation (a) 100 ml (b) 20 ml (a) 20 ml of 0.1 M FeSO 4 (c) 40 ml (d) 60 ml MnO4 5 Fe2 8 H Mn2 5 Fe3 4 H 2O , here 10 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to 2 MnO4 5 C2O42 16 H 2 Mn2 10CO 2 8 H 2O , here (c) 40 ml of 0.1 M FeSO 4 20 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to (d) 50 ml of 0.1 M FeSO 4 [CBSE PMT 1996] 36. Ca(OH ) 2 H 3 PO4 CaHPO4 2 H 2 O (c) 50 ml of 0.5 M H 2C2O4 (d) 20 ml of 0.1 M H 2C2O4 weight of H 3 PO4 in the above reaction is In order to prepare one litre normal solution of KMnO4 , how (a) 21 (b) 27 many grams of KMnO4 are required if the solution is used in (c) 38 (d) 49 acidic medium for oxidation [MP PET 2002] (a) 158 g (b) 31.6 g (c) 790 g (d) 62 g [CPMT 1999] (b) 30 ml of 0.1 M FeSO 4 KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation, (a) 20 ml of 0.5 M H 2C2O4 (b) 50 ml of 0.1 M H 2C2O4 28. (a) 2.5 [AIIMS 1997] N / 3 HNO3 are mixed together and volume made to one litre. 26. [CPMT 1992] (a) 2.650 g 37. the equivalent [Pb. PMT 2004] The mass of BaCO 3 produced when excess CO 2 is bubbled through a solution of 0.205 mol Ba(OH ) 2 is [UPSEAT 2004] What is the concentration of nitrate ions if equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.1 M NaCl are mixed together (a) 81 g (b) 40.5 g (c) 20.25 g (d) 162 g [NCERT 1981; CPMT 1983] 30. 31. (a) 0.1 N (b) 0.2 M (c) 0.05 M (d) 0.25 M 38. solution of NaOH to give a concentration of 10 mg per ml is 30 ml of acid solution is neutralized by 15 ml of a 0.2 N base. The strength of acid solution is [CPMT 1986] (a) 0.1 N (b) 0.15 N (c) 0.3 N (d) 0.4 N 39. (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 500 Number of moles of KMnO 4 required to oxidize one mole of Fe(C 2 O 4 ) in acidic medium is A solution containing Na 2CO 3 and NaOH requires 300 ml of 0.1 N HCl using phenolpthalein as an indicator. Methyl orange is then added to the above titrated solution when a further 25 ml of 0.2 N HCl is required. The amount of NaOH present in solution is (NaOH 40, Na 2CO3 106) The amount of water that should be added to 500 ml of 0.5 N 40. [Haryana CEE 1996] (a) 0.6 (b) 0.167 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.4 A hydrocarbon contains 86% carbon, 488ml of the hydrocarbon weight 1.68 g at STP. Then the hydrocarbon is an Chemical Arithmetic 41. (a) Alkane (b) Alkene (c) Alkyne (d) Arene (c) 18 g 50. The ratio of amounts of H 2 S needed to precipitate all the metal CuSO 4 will be 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) None of these (d) 19 g in M FeSO 4 was titrated with 10 acidic medium. The amount of KMnO4 used will be [CPMT 1984] A solution of KMnO4 solution ions from 100 ml of 1 M AgNO 3 and 100 ml of 1 M 51. 19 10 ml (a) 5 ml of 0.1 M (b) 10 ml of 1.1 M (c) 10 ml of 0.5 M (d) 10 ml of 0.02 M c.c. of O 2 and 50 c.c. of H 2 . The volume of the gases formed 1.12 ml of a gas is produced at STP by the action of 4.12 mg of alcohol, with methyl magnesium iodide. The molecular mass of alcohol is [Roorkee 1992; IIT 1993] (i) at room temperature and (ii) at 1100C will be (a) 16.0 (b) 41.2 (c) 82.4 (d) 156.0 An electric discharge is passed through a mixture containing 50 (a) (i) 25 c.c. (ii) 50 c.c. (b) (i) 50 c.c. (ii) 75 c.c. (c) (i) 25 c.c. (ii) 75 c.c. (d) (i) 75 c.c. (ii) 75 c.c. 52. 100 ml of 0.1 N hypo decolourised iodine by the addition of x g of crystalline copper sulphate to excess of KI. The value of ‘x’ is (molecular wt. of CuSO 4 .5 H 2 O is 250) (a) 5.0 g (b) 1.25 g (c) 2.5 g (d) 4 g 53. How many grams of caustic potash required to completely neutralise 12.6 gm HNO 3 (a) 22.4 KOH (b) 1.01 KOH (c) 6.02 KOH (d) 11.2 KOH (b) 9 kg (c) 27 kg (d) 1.8 kg (a) XY (b) X 2Y (c) XY 3 (d) X 2Y3 A compound contains atoms of three elements in A, B and C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B is +5 and that of C is – 2, the possible formula of the compound is [CBSE PMT 2000] If isobutane and n-butane are present in a gas, then how much oxygen should be required for complete combustion of 5 kg of this gas (a) 17.9 kg The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic mass 10) and 50% of element Y (atomic mass 20) is [Roorkee 1994] 54. (a) A 3 (BC 4 ) 2 (b) A 3 (B 4 C)2 (c) ABC 2 (d) A 2 (BC 3 ) 2 What will be the volume of CO 2 at NTP obtained on heating 10 grams of (90% pure) limestone 16.8 litre gas containing H 2 and O 2 is formed at NTP on (a) 22.4 litre electrolysis of water. What should be the weight of electrolysed water (b) 2.016 litre (a) 5 g (b) 9 g (d) 20.16 litre (c) 10 g (d) 12 g [Pb. CET 2001] (c) 2.24 litre 55. The ratio of the molar amounts of H 2 S needed to precipitate On electrical decomposition of 150 ml dry and pure O 2 , 10% the metal ions from 20mL each of 1M Cd (NO 3 )2 and of O 2 gets changed to O, then the volume of gaseous mixture 0.5 M CuSO 4 is after reaction and volume of remaining gas left after passing in turpentine oil will be (a) 1 : 1 (a) 145 ml (b) 149 ml (c) 128 ml (d) 125 ml What should be the weight of 50% HCl which reacts with 100 g of limestone (a) 50% pure (b) 25% pure (c) 10% pure (d) 8% pure What should be the weight and moles of AgCl precipitate obtained on adding 500ml of 0.20 M HCl in 30 g of AgNO 3 solution? ( AgNO 3 = 170) (a) 14.35 g (b) 15 g [CPMT 1997] (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) Indefinite 56. 12 g of Mg (at. mass 24) will react completely with acid to give [MNR 1985] (a) One mole of H 2 (b) 1/2 mole of H 2 (c) 2/3 mole of O 2 (d) Both 1/2 mol of H 2 and 1/2 mol of O 2 20 Chemical Arithmetic 57. 1 .5 mol of O 2 combine with Mg to form oxide MgO . The (b) 22.4 L of CO 2 at STP mass of Mg (at. mass 24) that has combined is (c) 0.44 g of CO 2 [KCET 2001] 58. (a) 72 g (b) 36 g (c) (d) 24 g 48 g 8. 100 g CaCO3 reacts with 1litre 1 N HCl. On completion of reaction how much weight of CO 2 will be obtain [Kerala CET 2005] (a) 5 .5 g (b) 11 g (c) 22 g (d) 33 g (e) 44 g 9. (d) None of these In a mole of water vapour at STP, the volume actually occupied or taken by the molecules (i.e., Avogadro’s No. Volume of one molecule) is [Kerala EEE 2000] (a) Zero (b) Less than 1% of 22.4 litres (c) About 10% of the volume of container (d) 1% to 2% of 22.4 litres (e) Between 2% to 5% of 22.4 litres If 10 21 molecules are removed from 200mg of CO 2 , then the number of moles of CO 2 left are (a) 10. 2.85 10 3 [IIT 1983] (b) 28.8 10 3 (c) 0.288 10 3 (d) 1.68 10 2 The set of numerical coefficient that balances equation K 2 CrO4 HCl K 2 Cr2 O7 KCl H 2 O is the [Kerala CEE 2001] 1. (a) 1, 1, 2, 2, 1 (c) 2, 1, 1, 2, 1 Mixture of sand and sulphur may best be separated by [Kerala CET 2001] (a) Fractional crystallisation from aqueous solution (b) Magnetic method (c) Fractional distillation 11. (d) Dissolving in CS 2 and filtering 2. 3. 4. 13. The molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure is 75 JK 1 mol 1 . When 1.0 kJ of heat is supplied to 100 g of water 6. 7. [JIPMER 2000] (a) 6.023 10 21 molecules of CO 2 of Na 2 S 2O3 using K2Cr2O7 (a) MW / 2 (b) MW / 3 (c) MW / 6 (d) MW / 1 by [IIT 2000] 3.92 g of ferrous ammonium sulphate crystals are dissolved in 100 ml of water, 20 ml of this solution requires 18 ml of KMnO4 during titration for complete oxidation. The weight of [Tamilnadu CET 2002] 14. which is free to expand, the increases in temperature of water is (a) 6.6 K (b) 1.2 K (c) 2.4 K (d) 4.8 K A compound possesses 8% sulphur by mass. The least molecular mass is [AIIMS 2002] (a) 200 (b) 400 (c) 155 (d) 355 Which of the following contains maximum number of atoms standardization KMnO4 present in one litre of the solution is (d) NO H2 In (d) 12.15 10 3 iodometry, the equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 is 3 contain the same number of molecules. The gas X is (a) CO (b) CO 2 5. 12. 10 dm of N 2 gas and 10 dm of gas X at the same temperature (c) One litre hard water contains 12.00 mg Mg 2 milli equivalent of washing soda required to remove its hardness is (a) 1 (b) 12.15 (c) 1 10 3 Irrespective of the source, pure sample of water always yields 88.89% mass of oxygen and 11.11% mass of hydrogen. This is explained by the law of [Kerala CEE 2002] (a) Conservation of mass (b) Constant composition (c) Multiple proportions (d) Constant volume Zinc sulphate contains 22.65% of zinc and 43.9% of water of crystallization. If the law of constant proportions is true, then the weight of zinc required to produce 20 g of the crystals will be (a) 45.3 g (b) 4.53 g (c) 0.453 g (d) 453 g 3 (b) 2, 2, 1, 1, 1 (d) 2, 2, 1, 2, 1 15. 16. (a) 3.476 g (b) 12.38 g (c) 34.76 g (d) 1.238 g A 100 ml solution of 0.1 n HCl was titrated with 0.2 N NaOH solution. The titration was discontinued after adding 30 ml of NaOH solution. The remaining titration was completed by adding 0.25 N KOH solution. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is [DCE 1999] (a) 70[CBSE ml PMT 2003] (b) 32 ml (c) 35 ml (d) 16 ml What volume of Hydrogen gas, at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by Hydrogen [AIEEE 2003] (a) 22.4 L (b) 89.6 L (c) 67.2 L (d) 44.8 L The mass of 112 cm 3 of CH 4 gas at STP is [Karnataka CET 2001] [ Chemical Arithmetic 17. (a) 0.16 g (b) 0 .8 g (c) 0.08 g (d) 1 .6 g Complete combustion of 0.858 g of compound X gives 7. Reason : Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure all gases contain equal number of molecules. Assertion : Reason : One atomic mass unit (amu) is mass of an atom equal to exactly one-twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom. Carbon-12 isotope was selected as standard. Assertion : Molecular mass of A is 2.63 g of CO 2 and 1.28 g of H 2 O . The lowest molecular mass X can have (a) [Kerala MEE 2000] (b) 86 g 43 g (c) 129 g 18. 8. (d) 172 g In the following reaction, which choice has value twice that of the equivalent mass of the oxidising agent SO 2 H 2O 3 S 2 H 2O (a) 64 (c) 16 [DPMT 2000] 2. Assertion : Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the number of moles of a gas. Reason : The ratio by volume of gaseous reactants and products is in agreement with their mole ratio. [AIIMS 1995] Assertion : Molecular weight of oxygen is 16. Reason : Atomic weight of oxygen is 16. Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Assertion : Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed. Reason : Equivalent weight of an Atomic weight of the element Valency of the element Reason : Under similar condition of temperature and pressure, equal volume of gases does not contain equal number of atoms. Assertion : Reason : 14. Assertion : 15. Reason Assertion : : Reason : Assertion : Mass spectrometer is used for the determination of isotopes. Isotopes are the atoms of same element differing in mass numbers. Gases combine in simple ratio of their volume but, not always. Gases deviate from ideal behaviour. Isomorphous substances form crystals of same shape and can grow in saturated solution of each other. They have similar constitution and chemical formulae. Atomicity of oxygen is 2. 11. 12. [AIIMS 1996] 3. 13. [AIIMS 1994,2002] 4. Assertion : One mole of SO 2 contains double the number of molecules present in one mole of O 2 . Reason : Molecular weight of SO 2 is double to that of O2 . 5. 6. Assertion : 1.231 has three significant figures. Reason : All numbers right to the decimal point are significant. Assertion : 22.4 L of N 2 at NTP and 5.6 L O 2 at NTP contain equal number of molecules. mass of B is M. Vapour density of A four times that of B. Pure water obtained from different sources such as, river, well, spring, sea etc. always contains hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio 1 : 8 by mass. A chemical compound always contains elements combined together in same proportion by mass, it was discovered by French chemist, Joseph Proust (1799). As mole is the basic chemical unit, the concentration of the dissolved solute is usually specified in terms of number of moles of solute. The total number of molecules of reactants involved in a balanced chemical equation is known as molecularity of the reaction. A certain element X, forms three binary compounds with chlorine containing 59.68%,68.95% and 74.75% chlorine respectively. These data illustrate the law of multiple proportions. According to law of multiple proportions, the relative amounts of an element combining with some fixed amount of a second element in a series of compounds are the ratios of small whole numbers. Equivalent weight of Cu in CuO is 63.6 and in Cu 2 O 31.8. : : 10. 1. M if the molecular 4 Reason Assertion 9. (b) 32 (d) 48 Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below : (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (d) If the assertion and reason both are false. (e) If assertion is false but reason is true. 21 16. element 22 Chemical Arithmetic 17. Reason : 1 mole of an element contains 6.023 10 23 atoms. Assertion : 1 amu equals to 1.66 10 24 g . Reason 1.66 10 : 24 1 th of mass of a g equals to 12 C 12 atom. 1 a 2 b 3 b 4 c 5 a 6 b 7 a 8 c 9 d 10 c 11 b 12 c 13 c 14 d 15 a 16 a 17 b 18 b 19 a 20 a 21 b 22 b 23 c 24 a 25 a 26 c 27 d Percentage composition & Molecular formula 1 a 2 a 6 b 7 b Significant figures, Units for measurement, Matter and Separation of mixture 3 b 4 d 5 a Chemical stoichiometry 1 a 2 d 3 a 4 c 5 d 1 c 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 c 6 b 7 c 8 d 9 c 10 c 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 a 10 d 11 c 12 b 13 a 14 c 15 b 11 c 12 d 13 d 14 b 15 a 16 b 17 b 18 a 19 a 20 c 16 b 17 b 18 c 19 d 20 c 21 b 22 d 23 a 24 a 25 b 21 d 22 c 23 d 24 a 25 d 26 b 27 d 26 b 27 b 28 b 29 c 30 a 31 b 32 c 33 b 34 c 35 d 36 d 37 b 38 d 39 a 40 b 41 b 42 c 43 c 44 d 45 a 46 b 47 a 48 a 49 a 50 d 51 c 52 b 53 a 54 b 55 b 56 b 57 a 58 c Laws of chemical combination 1 a 2 d 3 c 4 a 5 c 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 b 10 a 11 c 12 b 13 a 14 d 15 b 16 a 17 c 18 d 19 c 20 a 21 c 22 d Critical Thinking Questions Atomic, Molecular and Equivalent masses 1 d 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 c 1 c 2 b 3 a 4 a 5 b 6 b 7 b 8 b 9 a 10 d 6 c 7 d 8 b 9 a 10 b 11 a 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 c 11 a 12 b 13 a 14 c 15 b 16 c 17 a 18 b 16 c 17 a 18 d 19 a 20 a 21 b 22 b 23 d 24 c 25 a 26 a 27 c 28 d 29 a 30 c 1 e 2 e 3 c 4 e 5 d 31 a 32 d 33 b 34 a 35 c 6 d 7 a 8 c 9 a 10 b 36 b 37 b 38 c 39 a 40 b 11 a 12 e 13 e 14 a 15 a 41 c 42 d 43 a 44 d 45 d 16 b 17 a 46 b 47 c 48 c 49 b 50 b 51 a 52 b 53 b 54 c 55 b 56 a 57 d 58 d 59 a 60 d 61 c 62 d 63 b The mole concept Assertion & Reason Chemical Arithmetic Significant figures, Units of measurement, Matter and Separation of mixture 6. (c) As the given sulphate is isomorphous with ZnSO 4 .7 H 2 O its formula would be MSO 4 .7 H 2 O .m is the atomic weight of M, molecular weight of 4. Force [MLT 2 ] (c) Pressure [ML1 T 2 ] Area [L2 ] Energy per unit volume [ML2 T 2 ] [ML1 T 2 ] [L3 ] (29.2 20.2) (1 .79 10 5 ) 9 .0 1 .79 10 5 1 .37 1 .37 Least precise terms i.e., 9.0 has only two significant figures. Hence, final answer will have two significant figures. 17. (b) 18. 19. (a) Pure ethyl alcohol 81.4 0.002 81.398 . (a) JPa–1; Unit of work is Joule and unit of pressure is Pascal. Dimension of Joule i.e. work F L MLT 2 L ML2 T 2 1 1 1 1 A MLT 1 Pa Pressure F F A So, JPa–1 ML2 T 2 L2 L L3 . 22. (d) 1 zepto 10 21 23. (a) As we know that all non zero unit are significant number. Therefore significant figure is 2. 24. (a) Number of significant figures in 6.0023 are 5 because all the zeroes stand between two non zero digit are counted towards significant figures. 25. (b) Given P 0.0030m , Q 2.40m & R 3000m In P(0.0030) initial zeros after the decimal point are not significant. Therefore, significant figures in P(0.0030) are 2. Similarly in Q(2.40) significant figures are 3 as in this case final zero is significant. In R (3000) all the zeroes are significant hence, in R significant figures are 4. 26. (b) All the zeroes between two non zero digit are significatn. Hence in 60.0001 significant figures is 6. 27. (d) Round off the digit at 2nd position of decimal 3.929 = 3.93. Laws of chemical combination 12. (b) X Y ⇌ R S ng mg pg qg n m p q by low of conservation of mass. Atomic, Molecular and Equivalent masses 5. (b) The atomic weight of sulphur =32 In SCl 2 valency of sulphur =2 So equivalent mass of sulphur 32 16 . 2 23 MSO 4 .7 H 2 O m 32 64 126 m 222 m Hence % of M 100 9.87 (given) or m 222 100m 9.87m 222 9.87 or 90.13m 222 9.87 222 9 .87 or m 24.3 . 90.13 24 Chemical Arithmetic 7. 22.4gm of gas occupies 22.4L at S.T.P. (d) For NaOH, M N N1 V1 100ml 1 N 100ml(N ) For H 2 SO 4 , N 2 V2 10ml 10 N 100ml(N ) 21. (b) Equivalent weight Hence, N 1 V1 N 2 V2 . 10 . Molecular weight of (b) 1 mole of CH 4 contains 4 mole of hydrogen atom i.e. 4g atom of hydrogen. 2 11. (a) Na 2 SO 3 I 2 Na 2 S 4 O6 NaI Molecular weight Valency COOH | C OOH 22. 2.5 (b) Valency of the element n 2 0. 5 1 E M M M n factor 1 E M 5 23. (b) 13. (a) Atomic mass 10 19 81 11 190 891 1081 100 100 100 10.81 14. (c) 0.1M (d) Molarity 0 .25 12. AgNO3 will react 0.1 M with 24. 16. NaCl to form (c) wt. of metallic chloride 74.5 Equivalent weight of metal Molecular weight weight of metal 100 32 68 gm " " wt. of metal 8 wt. of oxygen = 26. 39 35.5 39 35.5 6 10 23 molecules has mass 18 gm 27. So molecular weight = 29 So, molecular formula of compound is NO (d) 17gm NH 3 contains 6 10 23 molecules of NH 3 6 10 23 4 .25 17 28. 22.4 L of gas at S.T.P. weight 22.4 1.16 1.24gm P is present in = 220 1 .24 2 .2 gm 124 x 40 x Avogadro no. y (say) Number of atoms of A 40 40y Or x Avogadro no. (c) Number of moles of A 2x 80 Number of atoms of B 2x 2 40 y Av.no. Av.no. y 80 80 Av.no. (d) BaCO3 BaO CO 2 Molecular weight of BaCO3 137 12 3 16 =197 197gm produces 22.4L at S.T.P. 22.4 9 .85 1 .12 L at S.T.P. 9.85 gm produces 197 25.984 26 This molecular weight indicates that given compound is C2 H 2 . (a) Molecular weight 2 V.D 2 11.2 22.4 31 4 gm P is present in 220 gm P4 S 3 (124 ) Number of moles of B 6 10 23 4 .25 4 6 10 23 . No. of atoms 17 (a) 1L of gas at S.T.P. weight 1.16g 18 3 10 23 gm 6 10 23 (a) Choice (a) is P4 S 3 7.5 22.4 28.96 5.8 4.25 gm NH 3 contains = (a) 68 8 17 . 32 3 10 26 kg . (a) 5.8L of gas has mass 7.5 gm 22.4L " 20 . 1 .25 1000 25 molecular weight 1 molecules has mass weight of metal 35.5 weight of chlorine 19. W (gm) 1000 V (ml ) molecular weight wt. of metal 74.5 35.5 39 18. 118.50 =3. 39.5 Equivalent weight of oxide 25 . 126 63 . 2 2 V .D 2 59.25 E 35.5 4 35.5 0.1 0 .05 M . 2 wt. of chlorine = 35.5 17. 2H 2O 1 .25 1000 200 . 0 .25 25 (c) Let weight of metal oxide = 100 gm Weight of oxygen = 32gm 0.1M NaNO 3 . But as the volume doubled, conc. of NO 3 22.4 11.2 11.2 L . 22.4 11.2gm of gas occupies 29. (a) 14 gm N 3 ions have 8 N A valence electrons Chemical Arithmetic 4.2gm of N 3 ions have 30 . Molecular weight of H 3 PO3 3 31 48 82 8 N A 4 .2 2.4 N A 14 Equivalent weight (c) [ Molecular weight of CuSO 4 .5 H 2O 63.5 32 64 90 249.5 ] 6 10 23 37. 249.5 1 10 6 10 23 1 ml at NTP has = 22 41.58 10 1 4.158 31. 38. (a) (I) 1 molecule of oxygen 1 molecule of O 2 has mass 32 6 10 23 39. (a) Molecular weight of C60 H122 12 60 122 1 6 10 1 molecule C60 H122 has mass (II) 1 atom of nitrogen 2 6 10 23 atoms of N 2 has mass = 28gm 1 atom of N 2 has mass 28 2 6 10 23 40 . (III) 1 10 10 g molecular weight of oxygen g atomic weight 2 1 10 10 2 10 10 g (d) 41. 1 .520 x 17 0 .995 x 8 1.520 x 1.520 8 0.995 x 0.995 17 42. 43. (d) d M M ; 1 or M = V; 18gm = 18ml V V 18 6 10 23 (a) 100gm caffeine has 28.9gm nitrogen 44. 28.9 194 56.06 gm 100 No. of atoms in caffeine 56.06 4. 14 (d) Molecular weight of (CHCOO )2 Fe 170 Fe present in 100 mg of (CHCOO )2 Fe CP 1 .4 so, given gas is diatomic CV 56 100mg 32.9 mg 170 This is present in 400 mg of capsule 32.9 100 8 .2 . % of Fe in capsule 400 No. of atoms 3.01 10 23 2 6.023 10 23 atoms (b) The acid is dibasic. 64 2 .8 10 3 gm 28 (c) 2.5 molal NH 4 OH means 2.5 moles of NH 3 in 1000 g 194gm caffeine has = 11.2L 3.01 10 23 molecules 36. 2.8 10 3 gm C 2 H 4 requires = 3 10 23 cm 3 . 2.89 10 5 coulomb (a) 1 molecule of water has volume Then 1 gm ion N 3 (1 mole) carries 34. 28gm C 2 H 4 requires 64gm oxygen 6 10 23 molecule of water has volume =18 cc (b) One ion carries 3 1.6 10 19 coulomb 3 1.6 10 19 6.02 10 23 0.25 22.4 L 5.6 L . 1.520 x 12.160 0.995 x 16.915 33. (b) C2 H 4 2O2 2CO 2 2 H 2 O Hence, 100 cc solution of NH 3 requires = 0.25 mole or 0.525 x 4.755 4 .755 x 9. 0 .525 842 6 10 23 H 2 O (1000 cc of solution) wt. of metal hydroxide EM EOH wt. of metal oxide EM EO molecule C60 H122 has mass = 842gm 6.4 10 3 gm = 6.4kg. So, order of increasing masses II I III IV . 32. 23 140.333 10 23 gm 1.4 10 21 gm . 2.3 10 23 gm (IV) 1 10 10 g atomic weight of copper 6 .4 40 . 0 .16 720 122 842 5.3 10 23 gm 6 .023 10 23 22400 = 0.0002688 10 23 2.69 1019 . (c) Sp. heat × atomic wt.= 6.4 0.16 × atomic wt.= 6.4 Atomic wt. 6 10 23 molecule has mass 32 gm Molecular weight 82 = 41. Basicity 2 (b) 22400 ml at NTP has 6.023 10 23 molecule molecules has weight 249.5 gm 1 10 22 molecules has weight 25 45 . 26 (d) 1 atom has mass 10.86 10 kg 26 Chemical Arithmetic 10.86 10 23 gm 3 10 23 atoms of C has mass 6.023 10 23 atoms has mass 46. = 10.86 10 23 6.023 10 23 = 65.40 gm This is the atomic weight of Zn. (b) 1mole (COOH )2 . 2 H 2 O has 96gm oxygen 0.3 mole (COOH )2 . 2 H 2 O has 96 0.3 28.8 gm 47. 28.8 1 .8 . No. of gram atoms of oxygen 16 (c) Equimolecular proportion means both gases occupied equal 2 .24 volume 1 .12 L 2 For CH 4 : 5 4. (c) 1mole of S has mass = 32gm (d) 7.0 gm of Ag So, lowest mass = 6gm of C. (c) 1mole of any gas at STP occupies 22.4 L. 55. (b) 5 6. (a) 16 1 .12 0 .8 gm . 22.4 For C 2 H 6 5 7. 3 .0 30 gm 1 .5 gm 1 .12 2 22.4 Total mass 1.5 gm 0.8 gm 2.3 gm . (c) Let wt. of metal oxide = 100 gm wt. of metal = 53gm wt. of oxygen = 47gm wt. of metal Equivalent weight of oxygen 8 wt. of oxygen 53 8 9 .02 47 2 V .D 2 66 132 2.96 3 Valency E 35.5 9 35.5 44.5 Atomic weight Equivalentweight Valency (b) 5 2. (a) (b) 4.4 22.4 44 2 .24 (d) 1L of air =210 cc O 2 1 210 0.0093 . 22400 22.4L of a gas at STP has no. of molecules (d) 6.023 10 23 8.96L of a gas at STP has no. of molecules 6 .02 10 23 8 .96 2.408 10 23 24.08 10 22 . 22.4 (a) Given equivalent weight of metal = 9 Vapour density of metal chloride = 59.25 molecular weight of metal chloride 5 9. 2 V.D 2 59.25 118.5 valency of metal molecular weight of metal chloride equivalnet weight of metal 35.5 118.5 118.5 2.66 9 35.5 44.5 Therefore atomic weight of the metal =equivalent weight valency Valency of metal 4 9 2.66 23.9 2 PH 3 2 P 3 H 2 (solid) 2ml 3ml 100ml 150ml Increase in volume 150ml 100ml 50ml increase. molecular wt. of metal volume 60 . (d) The density of gas 61. 45 2 gm litre1 22.4 (c) Equivalent weight of bivalent metal = 37.2 Atomic weight of metal 37.2 2 74.4 Mg 2 HCl MgCl2 H 2 Formula of chloride MCl 2 24g Mg evolves 22.4L H 2 at STP Hence, molecular weight of chloride 5 3. 5 8. Mn SO 4 Mn O2 Change of valency 4 2 2 M . Equivalent weight 2 5 1. 22.4L of gas has mass 210 cc 9.02 3 27.06 (b) One gram of hydrogen combines with 80 gm of bromine. So, equivalent weight of bromine = 80 gm 4gm of bromine combines with 1 gm of Ca 1 80gm of bromine combines with = 80 20 . 4 2 50 . 12g Mg evolves H 2 at STP 6 10 23 1 .12 10 7 22400 22400 cc = 1 mole 1.12L C 2 H 6 has mass 49. 1.12 10 7 of gas at STP has So given gas is CO 2 because CO 2 has molecular mass=44. 22.4L C 2 H 6 has mass = 30 gm 48. 22400 cc of gas at STP has 6 10 23 molecules .03 1014 3 1012 . 2.24L of gas has mass = 4.4gm 22.4L CH 4 has mass 16 gm 1.12L CH 4 has mass 12 3 10 23 6 gm 6 10 23 22.4 12 24 =11.2L at STP. (b) (a) 2gm atom of nitrogen = 28gm (b) 6 10 23 atoms of C has mass 12 gm (MCl2 ) 74.4 2 35.5 145.4 62. (c) As we know that Equivalent weight weight of metal 8 weight of oxygen Chemical Arithmetic 32 8 64 0 .4 1.2 10 23 atoms. 6. (b) 44g CO 2 occupies 22.4L at STP mol. wt Vapour density 2 4.4g CO 2 occupies Mol. wt 2 V.D 2 32 64 mol. wt 64 As we know that n 1 eq. wt 64 7. 22.4 4 .4 = 2.24L. 44 Mass g ; 1 or g ml Volume ml 0.0018ml = 0.0018gm (a) D ensity Suppose, the formula of metal oxide be M 2 On . Hence the No. of moles formula of metal oxide M 2 O . 63. (b) Molecular weight of NH 3 is 17 weight 0 .0018 1 10 4 Molecular weight 18 No. of water molecules = 6.023 10 23 1 10 4 According to the mole concept 6.023 1019 . 17 gm NH 3 has molecules 6.02 10 23 1 gm NH 3 has molecules 6 .02 10 23 17 Ca 3 P2 6 H 2 O 2 PH3 3Ca(OH)2 8. (c) 9. (d) Amount of gold 19.7kg 19.7 1000 gm =19700 gm No. of moles 4.25 gm NH 3 has molecules The mole concept 6.023 10 25 atoms. 10 . (c) (a) 16g O 2 has no. of moles 16 1 32 2 14 1 28 2 No. of moles are same, so no. of molecules are same. (b) 10 gm CaCO 3 = 6 .023 10 23 10 100 1 molecule of CaCO 3 = 50 protons 6.023 10 22 molecule of CaCO 3 50 6.023 10 22 3.0115 10 24 Na 2 SO 4 . 10 H 2 O 2 23 32 4 16 10 18 46 32 64 180 322gm 322gm Na 2 SO 4 .10 H 2 O contains = 224 gm oxygen 11. (b) 16gm of CH 4 = 1mole 6.023 10 23 molecules. 12. (c) According to avogadro's hypothesis equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contains equal no. of molecules. 14. (d) d 32.2gm Na 2 SO 4 .10 H 2 O contains = 3. 100 gm CaCO 3 6.023 10 23 molecules 6.023 10 22 molecule 14g N 2 has no. of moles 2. 19700 100 197 No. of atoms 100 6.023 10 23 6.02 10 23 4 .25 1 .5 10 23 molecule 17 1. 32.2 224 22.4 gm 322 (b) Molarity So, M V 18gm = 18ml 18ml = N molecules (N = avogadro's no.) A 1000ml 10ml of this solution is diluted to 1000 ml N1 V1 N 2 V2 10 0.1 1000 x x 0.1 10 0 .001M . 1000 4. (c) According to definition of molar solution A molar solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in one litre of the solution. 5. (a) 44g of CO has 2 6 10 23 atoms of oxygen 2 4.4g of CO has = 2 12 10 23 4 .4 44 M (d = density, M= mass, V =volume) V Since d = 1 W (gm) 1000 molecular wt. V(ml.) 2.65 1000 0 .1 M 106 250 27 15. (a) 16. (a) A NA 1000 = 55.555 N. 18 This is fact. 3 moles of oxygen is that in 1 mole of BaCO3 1.5 moles of oxygen is that in mole of BaCO3 1 1 1 .5 0 .5 . 3 2 (b) The no. of molecules present in 1ml of gas at STP is known as Laschmidt number. 22400 ml of gas has total no. of molecules 17. A 6.023 10 23 28 Chemical Arithmetic 1ml of gas has total no. of molecules 6 .023 10 23 22400 25 . (a) wt of CO 2 44 mol wt of CO 2 44 2.69 1019 . 18. (b) 6 .02 10 23 3 .01 10 23 molecule. 2 19. 13.5 gm of SO 2 Cl 2 44 6 .02 10 23 6.02 10 23 44 (c) No. of atoms in one molecule 26. = no. of moles 6.022 10 23 27. 1.4 6.022 10 23 8.432 10 23 (d) As we know that four sodium atom are present in sodium ferrocyanide [ Na 4 Fe(CN )6 ] 1 13.5 0 .1 . 135 Hence, number of Na atoms = No. of moles number of atom Avogadro’s number (a) (a) 34gm of water 2 4 6.023 10 23 48 10 23 18gm H 2 O = 6.023 10 23 molecule 6 .023 10 23 34 18 34gm H 2 O = 11.37 10 23 mole Percentage composition & Molecular formula 1. (a) 44gm CO 2 6 10 23 molecules 32gm CH 3 OH 6 10 23 molecules 46gm CH 3 OH 3. 4. 23 molecules (a) Urea- NH 2 CO NH 2 5. 23. 24. 7. (b) Glucose - C 6 H 12 O6 Ratio of C, H and O 1 : 2 : 1 In acetic acid CH 3 C O H || O 1170gm Mol.wt. 1170 32.05mole / litre 36.5 6.023 10 23 molecule of sucrose has 45 6.023 10 23 atoms/mole Ratio of C, H and O 1 : 2 : 1 . Chemical stoichiometry (Mol. wt. of HCl =36.5) (a) 1 mole of sucrose contains 6.023 10 23 molecules 1 molecule of sucrose has 45 atoms 1 11.97 0 .0835 (Empirical formula) n Molecular formula n = whole no. multiple i.e. 1,2,3,4.............. If n 1 molecular formula CH 2O2 . (c) Molarity = mole/litre 1cc contains 1.17gm 1000 cc contains 1170 gm 28 100 46.66 . 60 (b) Empirical formula of an acid is CH 2O2 2 1 mole 16 8 4 1 mole. 32 8 100 gm of urea contains =12gm of hydrogen. 12 gm of H 2 is present in C 2 H12 O6 620gm of Na 2 O = 10 mole. also 4g of sulphur 1gm mole of compound contain = 6. (b) 2gm of oxygen contains atom 60 gm of urea contains 28gm of nitrogen So, Empirical formula CH 2O (Simplest formula). (a) 0.0835 mole of compound contains 1 gm of hydrogen Molecular weight = 46 +16 = 62 22. (b) Based on facts. (d) C 24 gm , H 4 gm , O 32 gm 6 10 23 54 3 10 23 molecules. 54gm of N 2 O5 108 (b) Sodium oxide Na 2 O 62gm of Na 2 O = 1 mole 16 100 =40% oxygen. 40 So, Molecular formula C2 H 4 O2 6 10 23 46 8.625 10 23 32 (d) 108gm of N 2O5 6 10 21. 2. 6 10 23 28 3 .8 10 23 44 (c) 46gm of CH 3 OH 40 gm NaOH contains 16gm of oxygen 100 gm of NaOH contains (b) 28gm of CO 2 28gm CO 2 wt. of CO 2 6 .02 10 23 mol wt of CO 2 (a) Molecular weight of SO 2 Cl 2 32 32 2 35.5 = 135 gm 135 gm of SO 2 Cl 2 = 1gm molecule 20 . No. of molecule 2gm of hydrogen 6.02 10 23 molecules 1gm of hydrogen 1. (c) W(gm) 1000 V Eq.wt. 1500 ml of 0.1N HCl = 150 ml (N) N Chemical Arithmetic 1 2. (c) W(gm) 1000 150 40 , W (gm ) 6 gm . 150 40 1000 1 1 V2 ; V2 1000ml N 1 V1 N 2 V2 ; 200 2 10 10 . 27 gm (a) 11. (c) In Fe(CNS )3 . 3 H 2 O 12. 3 18 100 19% . 284 (d) 5 S 5 O 2 5 SO 2 ; 5 O 2 5 SO 2 ; 5 64 320 gm . 13. (d) H 3 PO4 is tribasic so N 3 M 3 1 3 . 14. (b) H 2 SO 4 is dibasic N 2 M 2 2 4 . 15 . (a) For Dibasic acid E % of H 2 O 2 Ag2CO 3 4 Ag 2CO 2 O2 2 276 gm 4 108 gm 2 276 gm of Ag2CO 3 gives 4 108 gm 1 gm of Ag2CO 3 gives 4 108 2 276 2.76 gm of Ag2CO 3 gives N 4 108 2.76 2.16 gm 2 276 4. 16. (b) Oxygen is limiting reagent So, X 1 0 .2 all oxygen consumed 5 18. 67200 gm Hb = 6. (c) (NH 4 )2 SO 4 2 NH 3 132 N 10 1.71 80 98 27.9 98 49 2 KMnO4 10 FeSO 4 8 H 2 SO 4 K 2 SO 4 2 MnSO 4 5 Fe2 (SO 4 )3 8 H 2 O 2 HCl 2(36 .5 )73 gm 10 sp. gr. of the solution wt.% of solute Mol.wt. Molecular wt. of solute Eq. wt. 2 FeSO 4 H 2 SO 4 [O] Fe2 (SO 4 )3 H 2 O] 5 [Mohrsalt] 67200 0 .33 gm Fe 100 672 0 .33 4. 56 gm atom of Fe = N K2 SO 4 2 MnSO4 3 H 2 O [O] (c) 100gm Hb contain = 0.33gm Fe W 1000 E V (in ml ) (c) 2 KMnO4 3 H 2 SO 4 Left NH 3 1 4 0.2 0.2 . 5. M 200 100 2 2 1 W 1000 W 1gm . 10 100 100 (c) 4 NH 3(g ) 5 O2(g ) 4 NO( g) 6 H 2 O( g ) t0 1 1 0 0 t t 1 4x 1 5x 4x 6x 3 H2 2 3 22 .4 33 .6 L 2 Volume of water added 1000 200 800ml . 3. (d) H 2 O Al NaOH NaAlO2 29 19. Mohr-salt reducing agent KMnO4 / H oxidising agent (d) Atomic weight = Equivalent weight × Valency 73 g HCl 132 g(NH 4 )2 SO 4 292 g HCl 528 g(NH 4 )2 SO 4 7. (c) 2(NH 4 )2 HPO4 P2 O5 2(36 1 31 64 ) 264 % of P2 O 5 wt. of P2 O 5 100 wt of salt 8. (b) 2 Al 62 80 142 26.89 8.9 3 26.7 Valency 3 . 8.9 20 . 21. MW 2 V.D. 2 22 44 . (d) 2 KMnO4 3 H 2 SO 4 K 2 SO 4 2 MnSO 4 3 H 2 O 5[O] (c) Change by 5 142 100 53.78% . 264 3 O 2 Al2 O 3 2 According to equation Eq. wt. 22. 0 .16 25 W 1 1000 25 ; 1000 E 10 E 10 M 2 E 2 64 128 . HCl Al . 9. 100 78.4 1.568 10 4 0 .5 Minimum m.w. molecule at least contain one selenium. Mol.wt. 5 (c) Dibasic acid NaOH; N 1 V1 N 2 V2 3 mole of O 2 combines with 2 mole 2 2 mole Al = 54gm (a) 0.5 gm Se 100 gm peroxidase anhydrous enzyme 2 7 23. (d) NaOH N 1 V1 N 2 V2 ; 20 78.4gm Se 24. (a) 1 1 V ; V = 40 ml. 10 20 NV N 1 V1 N 2 V2 0.2 2 0.5 x 0.1(2 x ) 0. 4 0. 5 x 0. 2 0. 1 x 0.2 0.4 x 30 Chemical Arithmetic x 25 . (d) 35 . 1 L 0.5 L 2 M1 V1 M 2 V2 0 .1 10 M 2 V2 ; ; M 2 V2 5 . 1 5 n1 n2 NV N1V1 N 2 V2 N 3 V3 N 1000 1 5 N 0 .025 26. (d) KMnO4 Mohr salt (b) t0 t t 1 1 20 30 5 10 10 25 2 3 (d) The equivalent weight of H 3 PO4 37. 98 49 2 (b) Ba(OH)2 CO 2 BaCO3 H 2O N . 40 NH 3(g ) HCl( g ) NH 4 Cl(s) 20ml 40ml 0 0 20 ml solid molecular weight 2 mole wt of H 3 PO4 = 3 + 31 + 64 = 98 36. Atomic wt. of BaCO3 = 137 12 16 3 = 197 Final volume = 20 ml . 27. (b) No. of mole M 1 V1 M 2 V2 20 0 .1 M 2 V2 ; ; M 2 V2 5 . 2 5 n1 n2 205 mole of Ba(OH )2 will give .205 mole of BaCO3 (b) Acidic medium E 29. (c) 0.1 M AgNO3 will react with 0.1 M NaCl to form 0.1 M NaNO 3 . But wt. of 0.205 mole of BaCO3 will be M 158 31.6 gm . 5 5 28. 30 . wt. of substance mol wt. 1 mole of Ba(OH )2 gives 1 mole of BaCO3 KMnO4 Oxalic acid .205 197 40.385 gm 40.5 gm 38. 10 10 3 gm 1000 =0.25 N 40 1 V1 500ml , V2 ? N1V1 N 2 V2 ; 0.5 500 0.25 V2 (b) (I) Phenopthalein indicate partial neutralisation of Na 2 CO 3 NaHCO 3 Meq. of Na 2 CO 3 + Meq. of NaOH = Meq. of HCl W W 1000 1000 NV E E 39. V2 1000mL final volume water added = 1000 – 500 = 500 mL. (a) eq. of KMnO4 = eq. of Fe(C2 O4 ) x 5 1 3 x 0.6 40 . (b) (Suppose Na 2 CO 3 a gm , NaOH = b gm) Element At.wt. Mole Ratio Empirical formula a b 1000 1000 300 0 .1 .....(1) 106 40 (II) Methyl orange indicate complete neutralisation C =86% H =14% 12 1 7.1 14 1 2 CH HCl HCl 41. N 1 V1 N 2 V2 , 25 0.2 0.1 V2 so V2 50ml excess 32. N1 0.5 N 10mg per mL N2 0 .1 NO 3 0 .05 M 2 (a) Acid base N 1 V1 = N 2 V2 ; N 1 30 0.2 15 ; N1 0.1 N 31. (d) as the volume is doubled, conc. of CuSO 4 Cu 2 S 2 CuS (H 2 S ) [100×1=100 millimole] 1 mole 1 mole 100 millimole 100 millimole H 2 S required a Na 2 CO 3 0.53 gm . M1V1 M 2 V2 ( NaOH ) n1 n2 33. 34. 1 V1 1 10 ; V1 5ml . 1 2 (c) Atom in highest oxidation state can oxidize iodide to liberate I2 which is volumetrically measured by iodometric titration using hypo. 2 I I2 Pb2 Lowest oxidation state can not oxidise iodide to I2 . AgNO3 2 Ag S 2 Ag2 S (H 2 S ) [100×1 =100 millimole] 2 mole 1 mole 100 miliimole 50 millimole H 2 S required a b 1000 1000 350 0.1 .....(2) 53 40 From (1) and (2) b =1gm. (c) From solution of (31) From equation (1) (b) (H 2 SO 4 ) (b) 2 Beleongs to alkene Cn H 2n 50 1 . 100 2 Ratio 42. (c) At room temperature 2 H 2(g) O2(g) 2 H 2 O(l) t =0 t =t 50 ml 50 – 2x =0 In this case H 2 is limiting reagent 50 ml 0 50 – x 2x 25 gases (50)liquid x = 25 ml At 110°C t =t 2 H 2(g) O2(g) 2 H 2O(g) 0 25 ml 50 ml Vgas 75 ml Chemical Arithmetic 2 43. (c) 2 2 CuSO 4 2 KI K 2 SO 4 CuI 2 ; 1.12 mL is obtained from 4.12 mg 1 2 CuI 2 CuI 2 I2 22400 mL will be obtained from I2 2 Na 2 S 2O3 2 NaI Na 2 S 4 O6 4 .12 22400 mg 84.2 g 1.12 Eq. wt. Of CuSO 4 .5 H 2O Mol.wt. 250 100 ml of 0.1 N hypo 100 ml of 0.1 N CuSO 4 .5 H 2O 44. (d) (b) Element X Y HNO3 KOH KNO 3 H 2O (a) Isobutane and n-butane formula; C4 H10 46. (b) n C4 H10 have same molecular 5 208 O2 17.9 kg 58 (b) Cd 2 Ratio = 2 : 1 5 6. (b) Mg 2 H 2 n 3ml (O) 1ml O 3 5 7. (a) Turpentine oil absorb ozone. (a) 50% HCl itself means 50 gm HCl react with 100 gm sample 50 100 50% . 100 AgNO3 HCl AgCl HNO3 KMnO4 5 8. 1 5 ROH CH 3 MgI CH 4 Mg 1 mol. (c) CaCO 3 2 HCl CaCl 2 CO 2 H 2 O 2N 100 g 44 g 100 g CaCO 3 with 1 N HCl gives 22 g CO 2 Critical Thinking Questions 3. 2 1 1 10 0.2 10 10 5 (c) 1 .5 3 mole 0 .5 24 3 72 gm . 2. M 1 V1 n M 2 V2 = ; M1 V1 1 M 2 V2 n1 n2 n2 5 1. 1 O 2 MgO 2 0 .5 mole 0.5 mole of oxygen react with 1 mole of Mg Mg 1mole 1.5 mole of oxygen react with =14.345 gm 0.1mole FeSO4 For (d), M1V1 0 .02 10 12 gm 1 mole of H 2 24 gm 2 100 g CaCO 3 with 2 N HCl gives 44 g CO 2 30 500 0 .2 170 1000 t =0 0.176 mole 0.1 mole limiting t =t 0.076 mole 0 (d) S 2 CdS Cu 2 S 2 CuS 20×0.5 =10 O2 H2 0 .25 0 .25 9 mole 100 20×1= 20 % Purity 50. 1 At NTP Vol. CO 2 0.09 22.4 2.016 L . V of O2 V of O3 135 10 145ml (a) 2.5 CaCO 3 CO 2 0.09 mole 55. 150 10 x 15ml 100 49. 20 A3 (BC4 )2 3 2 [5 (2 4 )]2 0 . 90% pure 9gm 30ml (O) 10 ml O 3 48. 50 (b) CaCO 3 CaO CO 2 10 gm 16.8 0 .75 mole of H 2 and O 2 22.4 (a) Ratio 2 5 4. 0.5 mole H 2 – 0.5 mole H 2 O = 9gm. 47. a/b 5 (a) 13 O2 4 CO 2 5 H 2 O 2 2 H 2 O 2 H 2 O2 0 .75 2:1 2 mole H 2 – 2 mole H 2 O At.wt.(b) 10 5 3. For 58gm of C4 H10 208 gm O 2 is required then for 5 kg of C4 H10 %(a) 50 Simplest formula X 2 Y 12 . 6 0.2 mole; HNO3 KOH 63 0.2 mole 0.2 mole 45 . 5 2. 250 0 .1 100 2 .5 gm 100 0.2 56 11.2 gm . 31 (b) H 2 O contains H and O in a fixed ratio by mass. It illustrates the law of constant composition. (b) 100 g of ZnSO crystals are obtained from =22.65 g Zn 4 1g of ZnSO crystals will be obtained from 4 20 g of ZnSO crystals obtained from 4 4. OR I 1 mol 22400 cc 22.65 g Zn 100 22.65 20 4 .53 g 100 (a) If same volume is occupied by the gas, the no. of molecules are same, so no. of moles are same. 1 mole of N 2 gas 2 14 28 gm 32 Chemical Arithmetic 1 mole of CO gas 12 16 28 gm 5. 1000 100 4.17 t 6. 3 .92 1000 20 W 1000 58 1000 18 392 1000 5 W=3.476gm/L. 14. (d) Volume m of HCl neutralised by NaOH = (Caustic soda) = V1 1000 t 2 .4 K . 100 4 .17 (b) 8gm sulphur is present in 100 gm of substance 7. M1 V1 M 2 V2 W V 1000 2 1 5 M V 5 75 (c) Heat capacity of water per gram 4 .17 18 Q = mST 32gm sulphur will present = (b) (a) 6.023 10 23 N1V1 N 2 V2 ; 0.1 V1 0.2 30 ; V1 60ml V total (HCl ) = 100 ml 40 ml 40ml 0.1N HCl is now neutralised by KOH (0.25 N) molecules of CO 2 (HCl ) N1V1 N 2 V2 (KOH) No. of atoms 3 6.023 10 21 = 18.069 10 21 atoms 0.1 40 0.25 V2 ; (b) 22.4L of CO 2 No. of atoms = 6.023 10 23 3 18.069 10 23 atoms 15 . (c) (c) 0.44gm of CO 2 No. of moles 0.44 1 6.023 10 23 moles 44 100 B 6.023 10 moles 3 6.023 10 atoms 21 8. 9. (a) 200mg of CO 2 = 200 10 3 0.2 gm = 6 10 23 molecules 0.2gm of CO 2 = 6 10 23 0 .2 0 .0272 10 23 44 17. (a) %C 2 WH 2 O 2 100 18 W 18 Element %(a) At.wt.(b) C 83.6 12 H 16.4 1 18. 2 K 2 Cr2 O 4 2 HCl K 2 Cr2 O7 2 KCl H 2 O W 24 1000 Mg 2 ; EW 12 E 2 12 10 12 12. (c) 3 Mol.wt. Eq. wt. 6 13. (a) KMnO4 = Mohr salt M 64 16 ; 4 4 Twice 16 2 32 Assertion & Reason 1. (e) We know that from the reaction H 2 Cl2 2 HCl that the ratio of the volume of gaseous reactants and products is in agreement with their molar ratio. The ratio of H 2 : Cl2 : HCl volumes is 1 : 1 : 2 which is the same as 1000 1 . K 2 Cr2 O7 4 H 2 SO 4 K 2 SO 4 Cr2 (SO 4 )3 6/two atom 12/two atom Change by 6 4 H 2 O 3[O] 7 (b) SO 2 2 H 2 O S 2 H 2 O2 0 4 EW 2.85 10 3 . (a) Meq of Mg 2 Meq of washing soda 1 .28 100 16.4% .858 a/b Ratio 6.96 1 ×3 16.4 2.3 C3 H7 12 3 7 43 gm . Now, 6.023 10 23 molecules = 1mole 11. 12 WCO 2 12 2.63 100 100 83.6% 44 W 44 0.858 %H 10 21 (2.72 1) = 1.72 10 21 molecules (d) W V W 112 ; ; W 0.08 gm . M 22400 16 22400 (c) So remaining molecules 2.72 10 21 10 21 10 . n 16. Now 10 21 molecule are removed. 1 1 .72 10 21 0 .285 10 2 6 .023 10 23 3 mole ; 2 mole – 3 mole 2 V 3 22.4 67.2 L . 2.72 10 21 molecule 1.72 10 21 molecules 3 21.6 H 2 B 3 HCl ; B 2 mole 2 10.8 3 H2 2 1mole 18.069 10 21 atoms (b) It is about 22.4L. V2 16ml . BCl3 3[H ] B 3 HCl BCl3 21 44gm of CO 2 = 60 ml V1 100 32 400 . 8 their molar ratio. Thus volume of gas is directly related to the number of moles. Therefore, the assertion is false but reason is true. 2. (e) We know that molecular weight of substance is calculated by adding the atomic weight of atoms present in one molecules. We also know that molecular weight of oxygen (O2 ) =2x (Atomic weight of oxygen) 2 16 32 a.m.u. Atomic Chemical Arithmetic weight of oxygen is 16, because it is 16 times heavier than1/12 of carbon atom. Therefore assertion is false but reason is true. 2 HCl H 2 I2 (Bimolecular) th 3. 4. (c) According to Dalton's atomic theory atoms can neither be created nor destroyed and according to berzelius hypothesis, under similar condition of temperature and pressure equal volumes of all gases contain equal no. of atom. Therefore assertion is true but reason is false. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. 12. (e) Equivalent wt. of Cu in CuO = 5. 6. Molecular weight of SO 2 is double to that of O 2 . (d) 1.231 has four significant figures all no. from left to right are counted, starting with the first digit that is not zero for calculating the no. of significant figure. 13. (e) Mass spectrometer is the instrument used for the determination of accurate atomic mass and the relative abundance of the isotopes. 14. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. 15 . (a) Example 16. 17. 6 .023 10 23 5 .6 22.4 1 6 .023 10 23 4 According to avagadro's hypothesis equal volume of all gases contain equal no. of molecules under similar condition of temperature and pressure. 7. (a) For universally accepted atomic mass unit in 1961, C-12 was selected as standard. However the new symbol used is ' v' (unified mass) in place of amu. 8. (c) Vapour density of B M , 2 Vapour density of A 4 M 2M 4 Molecular mass of A 2 2 M 4 M . 9. (a) Pure water always contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 1 : 8 by mass. This is in accordance with the law of constant composition. 10 . (b) The number of moles of a solute present in litre of solution is known is as molarity ( M). The total no. of molecules of reactants present in a balanced chemical equation is known as molecularity. For example, PCl5 PCl3 Cl2 (Unimolecular) compounds are (b) No. of atoms present in a molecules of a gaseous element is called atomicity. For example, O 2 has two atoms and hence its atomicity is 2. 32 gm 6.023 10 23 molecules = 22.4L isomorphous ZnSO 4 . 7 H 2O, MgSO4 . 7 H 2O, FeSO4 . 7 H 2O (valency of Zn, Mg, Fe =2). Similarly, O2 2 16 32 gm , 22.4 L 6.023 10 23 or 5 .6 L of K2 SO 3 , K2CrO4 , K2 SeO 4 (valency of S, Cr, Se = 6) and Now 22.4L of N 2 volume occupied by one mole of 63.6 =63.6 1 (Valency of Cu =1). (d) Molar volume (at NTP) = 22.4 L N 2 28 gm 6.023 10 23 molecules. 63.6 At.wt. =31.8 2 Valency Equivalent wt. of Cu in Cu 2 O Molecular weight of SO 2 32 2 16 64 gm . Molarity and molecularity are used in different sense. 11. (e) One mole of any substance corresponding to 6.023 10 23 entities is respective of its weight. Molecular weight of O2 16 2 32 gm . 33 (a) 12gm of C-12 contain 6.023 10 23 atom 12 10 23 1.66 10 24 . 6.023 34 Chemical 1. Arithmetic A m ixture of sand and iodine can be separated by 8. [Kerala CEE 2002] 2. 2. (a) Cry stallisation (b) Sublim ation (c) Distillation (d) Fractional distillation The elem ent sim ilar to carbon is (a) Mg (b) Mn (c) Sn (d) Po The law of m ultiple proportions was proposed by (a) Lav oisier (b) Dalton (c) Proust (d) Gay -Lussac 10. 11. (d) PbSO4 , NiSO4 M is the m olecular weight of KMnO4 . The equiv alent (a) M (b) M / 3 (c) M / 5 (d) M / 7 An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihy drate is m ade up of to 2 50 ml. The v olum e of 0.1 N NaOH required to com pletely neutralise 1 0 ml of this [IIT 2001] (a) 4 0 ml (b) 2 0 ml (c) 1 0 ml (d) 4 ml (b) Law of m ultiple proportions (c) Law of reciprocal proportions (a) 1 1 N (b) 2 2 N (c) 3 3 N (d) 4 4 N (d) Gay -Lussac’s law of gaseous v olum es One sam ple of atmospheric air is found to hav e 0.03 % of carbon dioxide and another sam ple 0.04 %. This is ev idence that 12. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H 3 PO4 ) in the reaction, NaOH H 3 PO4 NaH 2 PO4 H 2O is [A IIMS 1999; BHU 2005] (a) The law of constant com position is not alway s true (a) 2 5 (b) 49 (b) The law of m ultiple proportions is true (c) 59 (d) 9 8 (c) Air is a com pound 13. (d) Air is a m ixture Volume of 0.6 M NaOH required to neutralize 30 cm 3 of 0.4 M HCl is One part of an elem ent A com bines with two parts of another B. Six parts of the element C com bine with four parts of the element B. if A and C com bine together the ratio of their weights will be governed by [A MU 1984] (a) 30 cm 3 (c) 50 cm 3 14. (a) Law of definite proportion (b) Law of m ultiple proportion 7. (c) ZnSO 4 , MgSO4 The normality of orthophosphoric acid hav ing purity of 70% by weight and specific gravity 1.54 would be[CPMT 1992] (a) Law of constant composition 6. (b) MgSO4 , CaSO 4 solution is 1 L of N 2 com bines with 3 L of H 2 to form 2 L of NH 3 under the sam e conditions. This illustrates the 5. (a) ZnSO 4 , SnSO 4 weight of KMnO 4 when it is conv erted into K 2 MnO4 is [IIT 1992] 4. 9. Crystals of which pair are isom orphous [MP PMT 1985] [KCET 1995] (b) 20 cm (d) 45 cm 3 One m ole of potassium dichrom ate com pletely oxidises the following num ber of m oles of ferrous sulphate in acidic m edium [MP PET 1998] (c) Law of reciprocal proportion (a) 1 (b) 3 (d) Law of conserv ation of m ass (c) 5 (d) 6 The m aximum amount of BaSO 4 precipitated on m ixing equal v olum es of BaCl2 (0.5 M) with H 2 SO 4 (1 M) will correspond to 15. 3 The number of equivalents of Na 2 S 2O3 required for the volumetric estimation of one equivalent of Cu 2 is [A IIMS 1997] [Kerala MEE 2000] (a) 0.5 M (b) 1 .0 M (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 1 .5 M (d) 2 .0 M (c) 3 /2 (d) 3 (SET -1) Chemical Arithmetic 1. (b) Iodine shows sublimation and hence v olatalizes on heating, the vapour condenses on cooling to give pure iodine. 2. (c) Carbon and tin both are same group elements so have sim ilarities in properties. 3. (b) Law of m ultiple proportions was proposed by Dalton and v erified by Berzelius. 4. (d) Gay - Lussac's law : The volumes of the reacting gases and those of the gaseous products bear the sim ple ratio (also called the law of gaseous v olum es). 5. (d) 6. (c) The weights of two elements combining with a fixed am ount of the third elem ent will bear the sam e ratio(or sim ple m ultiple of it) in which they them selv es react. 7. 10. W 1000 E V V1 N 2 V2 6.3 1000 10 0 .1 V V= 4 0ml. 63 250 11. solution/sam ple V 12. 13. Hence 0.5 mole will react with 0.5 mole of H 2 SO 4 8. (c) Isom orphous substance m olecules contain the sam e num ber of atom s bonded in sim ilar fashion. 9. (a) KMnO4 K 2 MnO4 14. (d) NaOH H 3 PO4 NaH 2 PO4 (PO43 ) ( NaPO42 ) MW 98 . 1 no. of ionisableH (b) NaOH HCl (d) Cr2 O7 Cr 3 ; Fe Fe n 1 n6 eq. of K2Cr2O7 = eq. of FeSO 4 6 Equivalent weight of KMnO4 W 100 70 1000 N 11 N . d 1 .54 98 100 / 1.54 N1 V1 N 2 V2 ; 0.6 V1 0.4 30 ; V1 20ml . i.e. BaCl2 is the limiting reagent. Change in 0.5 per atom 7 6 1 (a) 7 0% by weight 70 gm H 3 PO4 100 gm EW One m ole of BaCl2 reacts with one m ole of H 2 SO 4 . NaOH N 1 V1 N 2 V2 (a) BaCl2 H 2 SO 4 BaSO4 2 HCl 7 (a) Oxalic acid 35 1 6 x 1 15. (b) Cu 2 2 I CuI 2 2CuI 2 Cu 2 I2 I2 I2 2 Na 2S 2 O3 2 NaI Na 2 S 4 O6 M Molecular weight of KMnO4 M. 1 Change of 0.5 per atom Cu 2 2 Na 2 S 2O3 *** 34 Chemical 1. Arithmetic A m ixture of sand and iodine can be separated by 8. [Kerala CEE 2002] 2. 2. (a) Cry stallisation (b) Sublim ation (c) Distillation (d) Fractional distillation The elem ent sim ilar to carbon is (a) Mg (b) Mn (c) Sn (d) Po The law of m ultiple proportions was proposed by (a) Lav oisier (b) Dalton (c) Proust (d) Gay -Lussac 10. 11. (d) PbSO4 , NiSO4 M is the m olecular weight of KMnO4 . The equiv alent (a) M (b) M / 3 (c) M / 5 (d) M / 7 An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihy drate is m ade up of to 2 50 ml. The v olum e of 0.1 N NaOH required to com pletely neutralise 1 0 ml of this [IIT 2001] (a) 4 0 ml (b) 2 0 ml (c) 1 0 ml (d) 4 ml (b) Law of m ultiple proportions (c) Law of reciprocal proportions (a) 1 1 N (b) 2 2 N (c) 3 3 N (d) 4 4 N (d) Gay -Lussac’s law of gaseous v olum es One sam ple of atmospheric air is found to hav e 0.03 % of carbon dioxide and another sam ple 0.04 %. This is ev idence that 12. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H 3 PO4 ) in the reaction, NaOH H 3 PO4 NaH 2 PO4 H 2O is [A IIMS 1999; BHU 2005] (a) The law of constant com position is not alway s true (a) 2 5 (b) 49 (b) The law of m ultiple proportions is true (c) 59 (d) 9 8 (c) Air is a com pound 13. (d) Air is a m ixture Volume of 0.6 M NaOH required to neutralize 30 cm 3 of 0.4 M HCl is One part of an elem ent A com bines with two parts of another B. Six parts of the element C com bine with four parts of the element B. if A and C com bine together the ratio of their weights will be governed by [A MU 1984] (a) 30 cm 3 (c) 50 cm 3 14. (a) Law of definite proportion (b) Law of m ultiple proportion 7. (c) ZnSO 4 , MgSO4 The normality of orthophosphoric acid hav ing purity of 70% by weight and specific gravity 1.54 would be[CPMT 1992] (a) Law of constant composition 6. (b) MgSO4 , CaSO 4 solution is 1 L of N 2 com bines with 3 L of H 2 to form 2 L of NH 3 under the sam e conditions. This illustrates the 5. (a) ZnSO 4 , SnSO 4 weight of KMnO 4 when it is conv erted into K 2 MnO4 is [IIT 1992] 4. 9. Crystals of which pair are isom orphous [MP PMT 1985] [KCET 1995] (b) 20 cm (d) 45 cm 3 One m ole of potassium dichrom ate com pletely oxidises the following num ber of m oles of ferrous sulphate in acidic m edium [MP PET 1998] (c) Law of reciprocal proportion (a) 1 (b) 3 (d) Law of conserv ation of m ass (c) 5 (d) 6 The m aximum amount of BaSO 4 precipitated on m ixing equal v olum es of BaCl2 (0.5 M) with H 2 SO 4 (1 M) will correspond to 15. 3 The number of equivalents of Na 2 S 2O3 required for the volumetric estimation of one equivalent of Cu 2 is [A IIMS 1997] [Kerala MEE 2000] (a) 0.5 M (b) 1 .0 M (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 1 .5 M (d) 2 .0 M (c) 3 /2 (d) 3 (SET -1) Chemical Arithmetic 1. (b) Iodine shows sublimation and hence v olatalizes on heating, the vapour condenses on cooling to give pure iodine. 2. (c) Carbon and tin both are same group elements so have sim ilarities in properties. 3. (b) Law of m ultiple proportions was proposed by Dalton and v erified by Berzelius. 4. (d) Gay - Lussac's law : The volumes of the reacting gases and those of the gaseous products bear the sim ple ratio (also called the law of gaseous v olum es). 5. (d) 6. (c) The weights of two elements combining with a fixed am ount of the third elem ent will bear the sam e ratio(or sim ple m ultiple of it) in which they them selv es react. 7. (a) BaCl2 H 2 SO 4 BaSO4 2 HCl 14. (d) Cr2 O7 Cr 3 ; Fe Fe n 1 n6 eq. of K2Cr2O7 = eq. of FeSO 4 1 6 x 1 15. (b) Cu i.e. BaCl2 is the limiting reagent. 9. (a) KMnO4 K 2 MnO4 7 6 Change in 0.5 per atom 7 6 1 Equivalent weight of KMnO4 10. M Molecular weight of KMnO4 M. 1 Change of 0.5 per atom (a) Oxalic acid NaOH N 1 V1 N 2 V2 W 1000 E V V1 N 2 V2 6.3 1000 10 0 .1 V V= 4 0ml. 63 250 11. (a) 7 0% by weight 70 gm H 3 PO4 100 gm solution/sam ple V 12. W 100 70 1000 N 11 N . d 1 .54 98 100 / 1.54 (d) NaOH H 3 PO4 NaH 2 PO4 (PO43 ) ( NaPO42 ) EW 13. 2 I CuI 2 2CuI 2 Cu 2 I2 I2 Cu 2 2 Na 2 S 2O3 Hence 0.5 mole will react with 0.5 mole of H 2 SO 4 (c) Isom orphous substance m olecules contain the sam e num ber of atom s bonded in sim ilar fashion. I2 2 Na 2S 2 O3 2 NaI Na 2 S 4 O6 One m ole of BaCl2 reacts with one m ole of H 2 SO 4 . 8. 2 MW 98 . 1 no. of ionisableH (b) NaOH HCl N1 V1 N 2 V2 ; 0.6 V1 0.4 30 ; V1 20ml . *** 35 36 Structure of atom Chapter 2 Structure of atom John Dalton 1808, believed that matter is made up of extremely minute indivisible particles, called atom which can takes part in chemical reactions. These can neither be created nor be destroyed. However, modern researches have conclusively proved that atom is no longer an indivisible particle. Modern structure of atom is based on Rutherford’s scattering experiment on atoms and on the concepts of quantization of energy. Composition of atom The works of J.J. Thomson and Ernst Rutherford actually laid the foundation of the modern picture of the atom. It is now believed that the atom consists of several sub-atomic particles like electron, proton, neutron, positron, neutrino, meson etc. Out of these particles, the electron, proton and the neutron are called fundamental subatomic particles and others are non-fundamental particles. (vi) Cathode rays heat the object on which they fall due to transfer of kinetic energy to the object. (vii) When cathode rays fall on solids such as Cu, X rays are produced. (viii) Cathode rays possess ionizing power i.e., they ionize the gas through which they pass. (ix) The cathode rays produce scintillation on the photographic plates. (x) They can penetrate through thin metallic sheets. (xi) The nature of these rays does not depend upon the nature of gas or the cathode material used in discharge tube. (xii) The e/m (charge to mass ratio) for cathode rays was found to Electron ( e ) (1) It was discovered by J.J. Thomson (1897) and is negatively charged particle. Electron is a component particle of cathode rays. (2) Cathode rays were discovered by William Crooke's & J.J. Thomson (1880) using a cylindrical hard glass tube fitted with two metallic be the same as that for an e (1.76 10 8 coloumb per gm). Thus, the cathode rays are a stream of electrons. (xiii) According to Einstein’s theory of relativity, mass of electron in Rest mass of electron(m) motion is, m [1 (u / c)2 ] electrodes. The tube has a side tube with a stop cock. This tube was known as discharge tube. They passed electricity (10,000V) through a discharge Where u = velocity of electron, c= velocity of light. When u=c than mass of moving electron =. o –1 tube at very low pressure ( 10 2 to 10 3 mm Hg) . Blue rays were emerged from the cathode. These rays were termed as Cathode rays. (3) Properties of Cathode rays (i) Cathode rays travel in straight line. (ii) Cathode rays produce mechanical effect, as they can rotate the wheel placed in their path. (iii) Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles known as electron. (iv) Cathode rays travel with high speed approaching that of light (v) Proton ( H , H , P) (1) Proton was discovered by Goldstein and is positively charged 1 + 1 particle. It is a component particle of anode rays. (2) Goldstein (1886) used perforated cathode in the discharge tube and repeated Thomson's experiment and observed the formation of anode rays. These rays also termed as positive or canal rays. (3) Properties of anode rays (i) Anode rays travel in straight line. (ii) Anode rays are material particles. (iii) Anode rays are positively charged. (ranging between 10 9 to 10 11 cm/sec) Cathode rays can cause fluorescence. Table : 2.1 Comparison of mass, charge and specific charge of electron, proton and neutron Structure of atom Name of constant Unit Electron(e ) 0.000546 9.109 × 10 1/1837 Proton(p ) 1.00728 1.673 × 10 1 Neutron(n) 1.00899 1.675 × 10 1 – 1.602 × 10 – 4.8 × 10 –1 1.76 × 10 +1.602 × 10 +4.8 × 10 +1 9.58 × 10 Zero Zero Zero Zero 2.17 10 17 1.114 1014 1.5 10 14 – Amu Mass (m) Kg Charge(e) Specific charge (e/m) Density + –31 Relative Coulomb (C) Esu Relative C/g Gram / cc 37 –27 –19 –27 –19 –10 –10 8 4 The atomic mass unit (amu) is 1/12 of the mass of an individual atom of 6 C 12 , i.e. 1.660 10 27 kg . Table : 2.2 Other non fundamental particles Particle Symbol Nature Charge esu Mass 10–10 (amu) Discovered by Positron e , 1e 0 , + + 4.8029 0.0005486 Anderson (1932) Neutrino 0 0 < 0.00002 Pauli (1933) and Fermi (1934) Anti-proton p – – 4.8029 1.00787 Positive mu meson + + 4.8029 0.1152 Yukawa (1935) Negative mu meson – – 4.8029 0.1152 Anderson (1937) Positive pi meson + + 4.8029 0.1514 Negative pi meson – – 4.8029 0.1514 0 0 0 0.1454 Neutral pi meson (1) Atomic number or Nuclear charge (v) Anode rays also affect the photographic plate. (i) The number of protons present in the nucleus of the atom is called atomic number (Z). (vi) The e/m ratio of these rays is smaller than that of electrons. (ii) It was determined by Moseley as, (vii) Unlike cathode rays, their e/m value is dependent upon the nature of the gas taken in the tube. It is maximum when gas present in the tube is hydrogen. Where, X ray’s frequency Neutron ( n , N) o (1) Neutron was discovered by James Chadwick (1932) according to the following nuclear reaction, or 5 B 11 2 He 4 7 N 14 o n 1 (2) Neutron is an unstable particle. It decays as follows, 1 H 1 Proton 0 0 1 e 0 electon antinutrino Z Fig. 2.1 Z= atomic number of the metal a & b are constant. 1 Be 9 2 He 4 6 C 12 o n 1 s 1 a(Z b) or aZ ab (viii) These rays produce flashes of light on ZnS screen. 1 0n neutron Powell (1947) Atomic number, Mass number and Atomic species (iv) Anode rays may get deflected by external magnetic field. 4 Chamberlain Sugri (1956) and Weighland (1955) (iii) Atomic number = Number of positive charge on nucleus = Number of protons in nucleus = Number of electrons in nutral atom. (iv) Two different elements can never have identical atomic number. (2) Mass number Mass number (A) = Number of protons or Atomic number (Z) + Number of neutrons or Number of neutrons = A – Z . (i) Since mass of a proton or a neutron is not a whole number (on atomic weight scale), weight is not necessarily a whole number. (ii) The atom of an element X having mass number (A) and atomic number (Z) may be represented by a symbol, Z XA. Table: 2.3 Different types of atomic species Atomic species Similarities Differences Isotopes (i) Atomic No. (Z) (i) Mass No. (A) (Soddy) (ii) No. of protons (ii) No. of neutrons Examples (i) 11 H , 12 H , 13 H 38 Structure of atom (iii) No. of electrons (iii) Physical properties (ii) 16 17 18 8 O, 8 O, 8 O (iv) Electronic configuration (iii) (v) Chemical properties 35 17 37 Cl, 17 Cl (vi) Position in the periodic table (i) Mass No. (A) (i) Atomic No. (Z) (i) (ii) No. of nucleons (ii) No. of protons, electrons and neutrons (ii) Isobars 40 18 40 Ar, 19 K, 40 20 Ca 130 52 130 Te , 130 54 Xe, 56 Ba (iii)Electronic configuration (iv) Chemical properties (v) Position in the perodic table. No. of neutrons (i) Atomic No. (i) 30 14 31 32 Si, 15 P, 16 S (ii) Mass No., protons and electrons. Isotones (iii) Electronic configuration (ii) 39 19 (iv) Physical and chemical properties (iii) 3 1 (iv) 13 14 6 C, 7 (v) Position in the periodic table. Isotopic No. (N – Z) or (A – 2Z) Isodiaphers H , 42 He N (i) At No., mass No., electrons, protons, neutrons. (i) 92 U 235 , 90 Th 231 (ii) Physical and chemical properties. (ii) (iii) (i) No. of electrons K, 40 20 Ca At. No., mass No. 19 K 39 , 9 F19 29 Cu 65 , 24 Cr 55 (i) N 2 O, CO 2 , CNO (22e ) (ii) Electronic configuration (ii) CO , CN , N 2 (14 e ) Isoelectronic species (iii) H , He, Li , Be 2 (2e ) (iv) P 3 , S 2 , Cl , Ar, K and Ca 2 (18 e ) (i) No. of atoms (i) N 2 and CO (ii) No. of electrons (ii) CO 2 and N 2 O (iii) Physical and chemical properties. Isosters (iii) HCl and F2 (iv) CaO and MgS (v) C 6 H 6 and B3 N 3 H 6 Electromagnetic radiations (1) Light and other forms of radiant energy propagate without any medium in the space in the form of waves are known as electromagnetic radiations. These waves can be produced by a charged body moving in a magnetic field or a magnet in a electric field. e.g. rays, rays, cosmic rays, ordinary light rays etc. (2) Characteristics (i) All electromagnetic radiations travel with the velocity of light. (ii) These consist of electric and magnetic fields components that oscillate in directions perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction in which the wave is travelling. (3) A wave is always characterized by the following five characteristics, (i) Wavelength : The distance between two nearest crests or nearest troughs is called the wavelength. It is denoted by (lambda) and is measured is terms of centimeter(cm), angstrom(Å), micron( ) or nanometre (nm). Crest Wavelength Vibrating source Energy Trough Fig. 2.2 Structure of atom 1 Å 10 8 cm 10 10 m ; 1 10 4 cm 10 6 m ; 1nm 10 7 cm 10 9 m ; 1cm 10 8 Å 10 4 10 7 nm (ii) Frequency : It is defined as the number of waves which pass through a point in one second. It is denoted by the symbol (nu) and is expressed in terms of cycles (or waves) per second (cps) or hertz (Hz). distance travelled in one second = velocity =c c (iii) Velocity : It is defined as the distance covered in one second by the wave. It is denoted by the letter ‘c’. All electromagnetic waves travel with the same velocity, i.e., 3 1010 cm / sec . c 3 1010 cm / sec (iv) Wave number : This is the reciprocal of wavelength, i.e., the number of wavelengths per centimetre. It is denoted by the symbol (nu bar). It is expressed in cm 1 or m 1 . incandescent object resolved through prism or spectroscope, it also gives continuous spectrum of colours. (ii) Line spectrum : If the radiation’s obtained by the excitation of a substance are analysed with help of a spectroscope a series of thin bright lines of specific colours are obtained. There is dark space in between two consecutive lines. This type of spectrum is called line spectrum or atomic spectrum.. (2) Absorption spectrum : Spectrum produced by the absorbed radiations is called absorption spectrum. Hydrogen spectrum (1) Hydrogen spectrum is an example of line emission spectrum or atomic emission spectrum. (2) When an electric discharge is passed through hydrogen gas at low pressure, a bluish light is emitted. (3) This light shows discontinuous line spectrum of several isolated sharp lines through prism. (4) All these lines of H-spectrum have Lyman, Balmer, Paschen, Barckett, Pfund and Humphrey series. These spectral series were named by the name of scientist discovered them. (5) To evaluate wavelength of various H-lines Ritz introduced the following expression, 1 (v) Amplitude : It is defined as the height of the crest or depth of the trough of a wave. It is denoted by the letter ‘A’. It determines the intensity of the radiation. The arrangement of various types of electromagnetic radiations in the order of their increasing or decreasing wavelengths or frequencies is known as electromagnetic spectrum. Table: 2.4 Name Radio wave Microwave Wavelength (Å) Frequency (Hz) 3 10 14 3 10 7 1 10 5 1 10 9 3 10 6 10 1 10 5 10 7 6 9 1 1 R 2 2 c n1 n 2 Where R is universal constant known as Rydberg’s constant its value is 109, 678 cm 1 . Plum pudding model of Thomson (1) He suggected that atom is a positively charged sphere having electrons embedded uniformly giving an overall picture of plum pudding. – 11 6 10 6 7600 Visible 7600 3800 Ultraviolet (UV) 3800 150 X-Rays 150 0.1 Rays 2 10 16 3 10 19 0.1 0.01 0.01- zero 3 10 19 3 10 20 Cosmic Rays 1 3.95 10 7.9 10 14 7.9 10 – 3 10 20 infinity + Electron unifromly embedded + Positive charge spreaded throughout the sphere 14 2 10 16 – + – + – Positively charged sphere + + 5 10 11 3.95 10 16 16 – + Infrared (IR) 39 2.3 (2) This model failed toFig.explain the line spectrum of an element and the scattering experiment of Rutherford. Rutherford's nuclear model (1) Rutherford carried out experiment on the bombardment of thin (10 mm) Au foil with high speed positively charged particles emitted from Ra and gave the following observations based on this experiment, –4 Atomic spectrum - Hydrogen spectrum Atomic spectrum Spectrum is the impression produced on a photographic film when the radiation (s) of particular wavelength (s) is (are) analysed through a prism or diffraction grating. Types of spectrum (1) Emission spectrum : Spectrum produced by the emitted radiation is known as emission spectrum. This spectrum corresponds to the radiation emitted (energy evolved) when an excited electron returns back to the ground state. (i) Continuous spectrum : When sunlight is passed through a prism, it gets dispersed into continuous bands of different colours. If the light of an (i) Most of the particles passed without any deflection. (ii) Some of them were deflected away from their path. (iii) Only a few (one in about 10,000) were returned back to their original direction of propagation. Deflected -particles -rays +ve Nucleus Fig. 2.4 ZnS screen 40 Structure of atom (2) From the above observations he concluded that, an atom consists of (i) Nucleus which is small in size but carries the entire mass i.e. contains all the neutrons and protons. (ii) Extra nuclear part which contains electrons. This model was similar to the solar system. (3) Properties of the nucleus (i) Nucleus is a small, heavy, positively charged portion of the atom and located at the centre of the atom. (ii) All the positive charge of atom (i.e. protons) are present in nucleus. (iii) Nucleus contains neutrons and protons, and hence these particles collectively are also referred to as nucleons. (iv) The size of nucleus is measured in Fermi (1 Fermi = 10 cm). –13 (v) The radius of nucleus is of the order of 1.5 10 13 cm. to 6.5 10 13 cm. i.e. 1 .5 to 6 .5 Fermi. Generally the radius of the nucleus ( rn ) is given by the following relation, rn ro ( 1.4 10 13 cm) A1 / 3 This exhibited that nucleus is 10 5 times small in size as compared to the total size of atom. (vi) The Volume of the nucleus is about 10 39 cm 3 and that of atom is 10 atom. 24 3 cm , i.e., volume of the nucleus is 10 15 times that of an (vii) The density of the nucleus is of the order of 10 15 g cm 3 or 10 8 tonnes cm 3 or 10 12 kg / cc . If nucleus is spherical than, Density = mass of the nucleus volume of the nucleus mass number 4 6 .023 10 23 r 3 3 (4) Drawbacks of Rutherford's model (i) It does not obey the Maxwell theory of electrodynamics, according to it “A small charged particle moving around an oppositely charged centre continuously loses its energy”. If an electron does so, it should also continuously lose its energy and should set up spiral motion ultimately failing into the nucleus. (ii) It could not explain the line spectra of H atom and discontinuous spectrum nature. Planck's quantum theory Where, h hc Planck's constant = 6.62×10 6.62 10 34 Joules sec . Photoelectric effect (1) When radiations with certain minimum frequency ( 0 ) strike the surface of a metal, the electrons are ejected from the surface of the metal. This phenomenon is called photoelectric effect and the electrons emitted are called photo-electrons. The current constituted by photoelectrons is known as photoelectric current. (2) The electrons are ejected only if the radiation striking the surface of the metal has at least a minimum frequency ( 0 ) called Threshold frequency. The minimum potential at which the plate photoelectric current becomes zero is called stopping potential. (3) The velocity or kinetic energy of the electron ejected depend upon the frequency of the incident radiation and is independent of its intensity. (4) The number of photoelectrons ejected is proportional to the intensity of incident radiation. (5) Einstein’s photoelectric effect equation According to Einstein, Maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electron = absorbed energy – threshold energy 1 1 1 2 mv max h h 0 hc 2 0 Where, 0 wavelength. –27 erg. sec. or and 0 are threshold frequency and threshold Bohr’s atomic model Bohr retained the essential features of the Rutherford model of the atom. However, in order to account for the stability of the atom he introduced the concept of the stationary orbits. The Bohr postulates are, (1) An atom consists of positively charged nucleus responsible for almost the entire mass of the atom (This assumption is retention of Rutherford model). (2) The electrons revolve around the nucleus in certain permitted circular orbits of definite radii. (3) The permitted orbits are those for which the angular momentum of an electron is an intergral multiple of h / 2 where h is the Planck’s constant. If m is the mass and v is the velocity of the electron in a permitted orbit of radius r, then L mvr When black body is heated, it emits thermal radiation’s of different wavelengths or frequency. To explain these radiations, max planck put forward a theory known as planck’s quantum theory. (i) The radiant energy which is emitted or absorbed by the black body is not continuous but discontinuous in the form of small discrete packets of energy, each such packet of energy is called a 'quantum'. In case of light, the quantum of energy is called a 'photon'. (ii) The energy of each quantum is directly proportional to the frequency ( ) of the radiation, i.e. E or E hv (iii) The total amount of energy emitted or absorbed by a body will be some whole number quanta. Hence E nh , where n is an integer. nh ; n 1 , 2, 3, …… 2 Where L is the orbital angular momentum and n is the number of orbit. The integer n is called the principal quantum number. This equation is known as the Bohr quantization postulate. (4) When electrons move in permitted discrete orbits they do not radiate or lose energy. Such orbits are called stationary or non-radiating orbits. In this manner, Bohr overcame Rutherford’s difficulty to account for the stability of the atom. Greater the distance of energy level from the nucleus, the more is the energy associated with it. The different energy levels were numbered as 1,2,3,4 .. and called as K, L, M , N , …. etc. (5) Ordinarily an electron continues to move in a particular stationary state or orbit. Such a state of atom is called ground state. When energy is given to the electron it jumps to any higher energy level and is said to be in the excited state. When the electron jumps from higher to lower energy state, the energy is radiated. Structure of atom Advantages of Bohr’s theory (i) Bohr’s theory satisfactorily explains the spectra of species having one electron, viz. hydrogen atom, He , Li 2 etc. (ii) Calculation of radius of Bohr’s orbit : According to Bohr, radius of n orbit in which electron moves is 2 2k 2me 4 Z 2 ch3 1 1 n2 n2 2 1 th n2 h2 rn 2 2 . 4 me k Z 9.1 10 n Orbit Where, 31 number, Where, R m Mass kg , e Charge on the electron 1.6 10 19 number of element, k = Coulombic constant 9 10 9 Nm 2c 2 number Z Atomic After putting the values of m,e,k,h, we get. rn n2 0 .529 Å Z Ze 2 2e 2 ZK , Vn nh mr kZe kZe 2r r 2 kZe 2r 1/2 ; Vn 2 .188 10 8 Z cm. sec 1 n of electron 2 2 mZ 2 e 4 k 2 Where, n=1, 2, n 2h2 Putting the value of m, e, k, h, we get E 21.8 10 12 (i) The light absorbed or emitted as a result of an electron changing orbits produces characteristic absorption or emission spectra which can be recorded on the photographic plates as a series of lines, the optical spectrum of hydrogen consists of several series of lines called Lyman, Balmar, Paschen, Brackett, Pfund and Humphrey. These spectral series were named by the name of scientist who discovered them. 1 1 1 R 2 2 c n1 n 2 2 2me 4 Rydberg's constant ch 3 It's theoritical value = 109,737 cm Z2 J per atom(1 J 10 7 erg) n2 2 Z eV per atom(1eV 1.6 10 -19 J ) n2 Z2 k .cal / mole (1 cal = 4.18J) n2 109,677.581cm –1 and It's experimental value = 1 This remarkable agreement between the theoretical experimental value was great achievment of the Bohr model. and (iii) Although H-atom consists of only one electron yet it's spectra consist of many spectral lines. (iv) Comparative study of important spectral series of Hydrogen is shown in following table. (v) If an electron from n excited state comes to various energy th 1312 2 Z kJmol 1 or n2 states, the maximum spectral lines obtained will be When an electron jumps from an outer orbit (higher energy) n 2 to an inner orbit (lower energy) n1 , then the energy emitted in form of radiation is given by 2 2 k 2 me 4 Z 2 h2 Where, R is = Z2 erg per atom n2 21.8 10 19 E En2 En1 The negative sign in the above equations shows that the electron and nucleus form a bound system, i.e., the electron is attracted towards the nucleus. Thus, if electron is to be taken away from the nucleus, energy has to be supplied. The energy of the electron in n 1 orbit is called the ground state energy; that in the n 2 orbit is called the first excited state energy, etc. When n then E 0 which corresponds to ionized atom (ii) To evaluate wavelength of various H-lines Ritz introduced the following expression, 3………. 13.6 value to be used is 109678cm 1 . (6) Spectral evidence for quantisation (Explanation for hydrogen spectrum on the basisof bohr atomic model) 2 Substituting of r, gives us E E 13.6 2 2 k 2 me 4 ; R is known as Rydberg constant. Its ch 3 (ionization). (iv) Calculation of energy of electron in Bohr’s orbit Total energy of electron = K.E. + P.E. 2 1 1 RZ 2 2 2 n n 2 1 i.e., the electron and nucleus are infinitely separated H H e (iii) Calculation of velocity of electron Vn 1 This can be represented as 41 1 1 n2 n2 2 1 1 1 E 13.6 Z 2 2 2 eV / atom n n 2 1 As we know that E h , c and 1 E , hc = n(n 1) . n= 2 principal quantum number. As n=6 than total number of spectral lines = 6(6 1) 30 15. 2 2 (vi) Thus, at least for the hydrogen atom, the Bohr theory accurately describes the origin of atomic spectral lines. (7) Failure of Bohr model (i) Bohr theory was very successful in predicting and accounting the energies of line spectra of hydrogen i.e. one electron system. It could not explain the line spectra of atoms containing more than one electron. (ii) This theory could not explain the presence of multiple spectral lines. 42 Structure of atom (iii) This theory could not explain the splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field (Zeeman effect) and in electric field (Stark effect). The intensity of these spectral lines was also not explained by the Bohr atomic model. (iv) This theory was unable to explain of dual nature of matter as explained on the basis of De broglies concept. (v) This theory could not explain uncertainty principle. (vi) No conclusion was given for the concept of quantisation of energy. Table: 2.5 S.No. Spectral series (1) Lymen series (2) Balmer series Lies in the region Transition Ultraviolet region n1 1 n2 n1 max n1 2 max Paschen series (4) Brackett series (5) Pfund series (6) Humphrey series n=3 Infra red region Infra red region 1 n 2 4,5,6.... n1 4 n 2 5,6,7.... Infra red region Far infrared region n1 5 n 2 6,7,8.... n1 6 n 2 7,8.... max max max Dual nature of electron (1) In 1924, the French physicist, Louis de Broglie suggested that if light has both particle and wave like nature, the similar duality must be true for matter. Thus an electron, behaves both as a material particle and as a wave. (2) This presented a new wave mechanical theory of matter. According to this theory, small particles like electrons when in motion possess wave properties. (3) According to de-broglie, the wavelength associated with a particle of mass m, moving with velocity v is given by the relation h , where h = Planck’s constant. mv (4) This can be derived as follows according to Planck’s equation, h.c c 36 5R min 9 5 4 R n1 3 and n 2 144 7R min 16 7 9 R n1 4 and n 2 16 25 9R min 25 9 16 R n1 5 and n 2 25 36 11R min n1 6 and n 2 7 max 4 3 1 R n1 2 and n2 n1 5 and n 2 6 It is an extension of Bohr’s model. The electrons in an atom revolve around the nuclei in elliptical orbit. The circular path is a special case of ellipse. Association of elliptical orbits with circular orbit explains the fine line spectrum of atoms. E h min n1 4 and n2 5 Bohr–Sommerfeild’s model 4 3R n1 3 and n 2 4 max max n2 2 2 2 min n 2 n1 n12 R n1 1 and n 2 n1 2 and n 2 3 n 2 3,4,5.... (3) min n1 1 and n 2 2 n 2 2,3,4.... Visible region n12n22 n12 )R (n22 36 11 25 R n1 6 and n 2 36 49 13 R min energy of 49 13 36 R photon (on the basis of Einstein’s mass energy relationship), E mc 2 Equating both Broglie relation. hc mc 2 or mc p h mc which is same as de- (5) This was experimentally verified by Davisson and Germer by observing diffraction effects with an electron beam. Let the electron is accelerated with a potential of V than the Kinetic energy is 1 mv 2 eV ; m 2 v 2 2eVm 2 mv 2eVm P ; h 2eVm (6) If Bohr’s theory is associated with de-Broglie’s equation then wave length of an electron can be determined in bohr’s orbit and relate it with circumference and multiply with a whole number 2r n or 2r n From de-Broglie equation, h . mv Structure of atom h 2r nh or mvr 2 mv n (iii) If 2 is maximum than probability of finding e is maximum (7) The de-Broglie equation is applicable to all material objects but it has significance only in case of microscopic particles. Since, we come across macroscopic objects in our everyday life, de-broglie relationship has no significance in everyday life. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle the particle, Now since p m v h h or x v 4 4m In terms of uncertainty in energy, E and uncertainty in time h t, this principle is written as, E . t 4 Schrödinger wave equation (1) Schrodinger wave equation is given by Erwin Schrödinger in 1926 and based on dual nature of electron. (2) In it electron is described as a three dimensional wave in the electric field of a positively charged nucleus. (3) The probability of finding an electron at any point around the nucleus can be determined by the help of Schrodinger wave equation which is, 2 x 2 2 y 2 2 z 2 8 2m h2 Where x, y and z are the 3 space co-ordinates, m = mass of (4) The Schrodinger wave equation can also be written as, 8 2m h 2 14 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 2 4 6 8 0.53Å r(Å) 1s 5 4 3 2 1 0 0.53Å Quantum numbers 2 4 6 8 2.7Å r(Å) 2s Fig. 2.5 5 4 3 2 1 0 2 4 2.1Å 2s 6 8 r(Å) Each orbital in an atom is specified by a set of three quantum numbers (n, l, m) and each electron is designated by a set of four quantum numbers (n, l, m and s). (1) Principle quantum number (n) (i) It was proposed by Bohr and denoted by ‘n’. (ii) It determines the average distance between electron and nucleus, means it denotes the size of atom. (iii) It determine the energy of the electron in an orbit where electron is present. (iv) The maximum number of an electron in an orbit (E V ) 0 electron, h = Planck’s constant, E = Total energy, V = potential energy of electron, = amplitude of wave also called as wave function, = for an infinitesimal change. 2 R 4r 2 dr 2 . The plats of R distance from nucleus as follows 4r2 dr 2 of Radial probability distribution curves : Radial probability is 4r2 dr 2 h Mathematically it is represented as , x . p 4 So equation becomes, x . m v (iv) The solution of this equation provides a set of number called quantum numbers which describe specific or definite energy state of the electron in atom and information about the shapes and orientations of the most probable distribution of electrons around the nucleus. This principle states “It is impossible to specify at any given moment both the position and momentum (velocity) of an electron”. Where x uncertainty is position p uncertainty in the momentum of the particle around nucleus and the place where probability of finding e is maximum is called electron density, electron cloud or an atomic orbital. It is different from the Bohr’s orbit. 4r2 dr 2 Thus 43 represented by this quantum number as 2n 2 . No energy shell in atoms of known elements possess more than 32 electrons. (v) It gives the information of orbit K, L, M, N------------. (vi) Angular momentum can also be calculated using principle quantum number (2) Azimuthal quantum number (l) (i) Azimuthal quantum number is also known as angular quantum number. Proposed by Sommerfield and denoted by ‘ l ’. (E V ) 0 (ii) It determines the number of sub shells or sublevels to which the electron belongs. Where = laplacian operator. (5) Physical significance of and 2 (iii) It tells about the shape of subshells. (i) The wave function represents the amplitude of the electron wave. The amplitude is thus a function of space co-ordinates and time i.e. (x , y, z...... times) (ii) For a single particle, the square of the wave function ( ) at any point is proportional to the probability of finding the particle at that point. 2 (iv) It also expresses the energies of subshells s p d f (increasing energy). (v) The value of l (n 1) always. Where ‘n’ is the number of principle shell. (vi) Value of l = 0 1 2 3…..(n-1) Name of subshell = s p d f Shape of subshell = Spheric al Dumbbell Double dumbbell Complex 44 Structure of atom (vii) It represent the orbital angular momentum. Which is equal to h 2 l(l 1) (vii) Degenerate orbitals : Orbitals having the same energy are known as degenerate orbitals. e.g. for p subshell p x p y p z (viii) The number of degenerate orbitals of s subshell =0. (viii) The maximum number of electrons in subshell 2(2l 1) s subshell 2 electrons d subshell 10 electrons p subshell 6 electrons f subshell 14 electrons. (4) Spin quantum numbers (s) (i) It was proposed by Goldshmidt & Ulen Back and denoted by the symbol of ‘s’. The value of ' s' is 1/2 and - 1/2, which signifies the spin (ii) (ix) For a given value of ‘n’ the total values of ‘l’ is always equal to the value of ‘n’. or rotation or direction of electron on it’s axis during movement. (iii) The spin may be clockwise or anticlockwise. (3) Magnetic quantum number (m) (i) It was proposed by Zeeman and denoted by ‘m’. (ii) It gives the number of permitted orientation of subshells. (iii) The value of m varies from –l to +l through zero. (iv) It tells about the splitting of spectral lines in the magnetic field i.e. this quantum number proves the Zeeman effect. (v) For a given value of ‘n’ the total value of ’m’ is equal to n 2 . (iv) It represents the value of spin angular momentum is equal to h 2 s(s 1). (v) Maximum spin of an atom 1 / 2 number of unpaired electron. (vi) This quantum number is not the result of solution of schrodinger equation as solved for H-atom. (vi) For a given value of ‘l’ the total value of ‘m’ is equal to (2l 1). Table : 2.6 Distribution of electrons among the quantum levels n l m Designation of orbitals Number of Orbitals in the subshell 1 0 0 1s 1 2 0 0 2s 1 2 1 –1, 0, +1 2p 3 3 0 0 3s 1 3 1 –1, 0, +1 3p 3 3 2 –2, –1, 0, +1, +2 3d 5 4 0 0 4s 1 4 1 –1, 0, +1 4p 3 4 2 –2, –1, 0, +1, +2 4d 5 4 3 –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3 4f 7 Shape of orbitals (1) Shape of ‘s’ orbital (2) Shape of ‘p’ orbitals (i) For ‘s’ orbital l=0 & m=0 so ‘s’ orbital have only one unidirectional orientation i.e. the probability of finding the electrons is same in all directions. (i) For ‘p’ orbital l=1, & m=+1,0,–1 means there are three ‘p’ orbitals, which is symbolised as p x , p y , p z . (ii) The size and energy of ‘s’ orbital with increasing ‘n’ will be 1s 2s 3 s 4 s. (ii) Shape of ‘p’ orbital is dumb bell in which the two lobes on opposite side separated by the nodal plane. (iii) s-orbitals known as radial node or modal surface. But there is no radial node for 1s orbital since it is starting from the nucleus. (iii) p-orbital has directional properties. Z Z Z Y X PY Fig. 2.7 Fig. 2.6 2S X X Px 1S Y Y Pz Structure of atom (3) Shape of ‘d’ orbital (i) For the ‘d’ orbital l =2 then the values of ‘m’ are –2, –1, 0, +1, +2. It shows that the ‘d’ orbitals has five orbitals as d xy , d yz , d zx , d x 2 y 2 , d z 2 . (ii) Each ‘d’ orbital identical in shape, size and energy. (iii) The shape of d orbital is double dumb bell . (iv) It has directional properties. Z Z Y Z “Electron pairing in p, d and f orbitals cannot occur until each orbitals of a given subshell contains one electron each or is singly occupied”. X This is due to the fact that electrons being identical in charge, repel each other when present in the same orbital. This repulsion can however be minimised if two electrons move as far apart as possible by occupying different degenerate orbitals. All the unpaired electrons in a degenerate set of orbitals will have same spin. Y Y Z X X Z Y dYZ 1s Because there are only two possible values of s, an orbital can hold not more than two electrons. This rule deals with the filling of electrons in the orbitals having equal energy (degenerate orbitals). According to this rule, Y dXY Z does not represent a possible (4) Hund’s Rule of maximum multiplicity X dZX The orbital diagram arrangement of electrons dX2–Y2 As we now know the Hund’s rule, let us see how the three electrons are arranged in p orbitals. The important point ot be remembered is that all the singly occupied orbitals should have electrons with parallel spins i.e in the same direction either-clockwise or anticlockwise. 2 py 2 px 2 pz 2 px X d 45 2 py 2 pz or Electronic configurations of elements z2 Fig. 2.8 (4) Shape of ‘f’ orbital (i) For the ‘f’ orbital l=3 then the values of ‘m’ are –3, –2, – 1,0,+1,+2,+3. It shows that the ‘f’ orbitals have seven orientation as fx ( x 2 y 2 ) , fy( x 2 y 2 ) , fz ( x 2 y 2 ), fxyz , fz 3 , fyz 2 and fxz 2 . On the basis of the elecronic configuration principles the electronic configuration of various elements are given in the following table : The above method of writing the electronic configurations is quite cumbersome. Hence, usually the electronic configuration of the atom of any element is simply represented by the notation. nlx (ii) The ‘f’ orbital is complicated in shape. number of principal shell Rules for filling of electrons in various orbitals The atom is built up by filling electrons in various orbitals according to the following rules, (1) Aufbau’s principle This principle states that the electrons are added one by one to the various orbitals in order of their increasing energy starting with the orbital of lowest energy. The increasing order of energy of various orbitals is 1s 2s 2 p 3 s 3 p 4 s 3d 4 p 5 s 4 d 5 p 6 s 4 f 5d 6 p 7 s 5 f 6 d 7 p......... (2) (n+l) Rule In neutral isolated atom, the lower the value of (n + l) for an orbital, lower is its energy. However, if the two different types of orbitals have the same value of (n + l), the orbitals with lower value of n has lower energy. (3) Pauli’s exclusion principle According to this principle “no two electrons in an atom will have same value of all the four quantum numbers”. If one electron in an atom has the quantum numbers n 1 , l 0 , m 0 and s 1 / 2 , no other electron can have the same four quantum numbers. In other words, we cannot place two electrons with the same value of s in a 1s orbital. Number of electrons Present symbol of subshell Some Unexpected Electronic Configuration Some of the exceptions are important though, because they occur with common elements, notably chromium and copper. has 29 electrons. Its excepted electronic configuration is Cu 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3 d 9 2 2 6 2 6 1 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 4 s 3 d 10 but in reality the configuration is as this configuration is more stable. Similarly Cr has the configuration of 1s 2 2 s 2 sp 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 1 3d 5 instead of 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3 d 4 . Factors responsible for the extra stability of half-filled and completely filled subshells, (i) Symmetrical distribution : It is well known fact that symmetry leads to stability. Thus the electronic configuration in which all the orbitals of the same subshell are either completely filled or are exactly half filled are more stable because of symmetrical distribution of electrons. (ii) Exchange energy : The electrons with parallel spins present in the degenerate orbitals tend to exchange their position. The energy released during this exchange is called exchange energy. The number of exchanges that can take place is maximum when the degenerate orbtials (orbitals of same subshell having equal energy) are exactly half-filled or completely. As a result, the exchange energy is maximum and so it the stability. 46 Structure of atom When energy or frequency of scattered ray is lesser than the incident ray, it is known as Compton effect. The instrument used to record solar spectrum is called spectrometer or spectrograph developed by Bunsen and Kirchoff in 1859. The intensities of spectral lines decreases with increase in the value All lines in the visible region are of Balmer series but reverse is not of n . For example, the intensity of first Lyman line (2 1) is greater true i.e., all Balmer lines will not fall in visible region. A part of an atom up to penultimate shell is a kernel or atomic core. If the energy supplied to hydrogen atom is less than 13.6 eV it will awpt or absorb only those quanta which can take it to a certain higher energy level i.e., all those photons having energy less than or more than a particular energy level will not be absorbed by hydrogen atom, but if energy supplied to hydrogen atom is more than 13.6eV then all photons are absorbed and excess energy appear as kinetic energy of emitted photo electron. No of nodes in any orbital (n l 1) than second line (3 1) and so on. No of nodal planes in an orbitals l The d orbital which does not have four lobes is d z 2 The d orbital whose lobes lie along the axis is d x 2 y 2 Spin angular momentum s(s 1) h 2 In Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum the first line (3 2) is also known as L line. The second line (4 2) is L line. The line from infinity energy shell is called limiting line. Discovery and Properties of anode, cathode rays neutron and Nuclear structure 1. A neutral atom (Atomic no. > 1) consists of [CPMT 1982] n 2 Total spin ; where n is no of unpaired e (a) Only protons (b) Neutrons + protons Magnetic moment n(n 2) B.M. (Bohr magnetron) of n (c) Neutrons + electrons unpaired e (d) Neutron + proton + electron Ion with unpaired electron in d or f orbital will be coloured. Exception of E.C. are Cr(24) , Cu(29) , Mo(42) , Ag(47) , 2. The nucleus of the atom consists of [CPMT 1973, 74, 78, 83, 84; MADT Bihar 1980; DPMT 1982, 85; MP PMT 1999] W (74 ) , Au(79) . No. of waves n 2r (where (a) Proton and neutron h ) mv No. of revolutions of e per second is (b) Proton and electron (c) Neutron and electron v . 2r The solution of schrodinger wave equation gives principal, (d) Proton, neutron and electron 3. azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers but not the spin quantum number. [CPMT 1982; MP PMT 1991] In the Rydberg formula, when n 2 the line produced is called the limiting line of that series. Among various forms of visible light, violet colour has shortest The size of nucleus is of the order of 4. 12 (a) 10 (c) 10 15 m 8 (b) 10 m m (d) 10 10 m Positive ions are formed from the neutral atom by the [CPMT 1976] wavelength, highest frequency and highest energy. (a) Increase of nuclear charge Red coloured light has largest wavelength, least frequency and lowest energy in visible light. (b) Gain of protons Elements give line spectra. The line spectrum is characteristic of (c) Loss of electrons the excited atom producing it. No two elements have identical line spectrum. (d) Loss of protons 5. The electron is The line spectrum results from the emission of radiations from the [DPMT 1982; MADT Bihar 1980] atoms of the elements and is therefore called as atomic spectrum. Atoms give line spectra (known as atomic spectrum) and the molecules give band spectra (known as molecular spectrum). The negative potential at which the photoelectric current becomes zero is called cut off potential or stopping potential. 6. -ray particle (a) -ray particle (b) (c) Hydrogen ion (d) Positron Who discovered neutron [IIT 1982; BITS 1988;CPMT 1977; NCERT 1974; MP PMT 1992; MP PET 2002] Structure of atom 7. (a) James Chadwick (b) William Crooks (c) J.J. Thomson (d) Rutherford The ratio of charge and mass would be greater for [BHU 2005] (a) Proton (b) Electron (c) Neutron (d) Alpha 47 48 Structure 8. 9. 10. of atom Magnitude of K.E. in an orbit is equal to [BCECE 2005] (a) Half of the potential energy (b) Twice of the potential energy (c) One fourth of the potential energy (d) None of these The density of neutrons is of the order [NCERT 1980] (a) 10 3 kg / cc (b) 10 6 kg / cc (c) 10 9 kg / cc (d) 1011 kg / cc The discov ery of neutron becom es v ery late because [CPMT 1987; AIIMS 1998] 11. (a) Neutrons are present in nucleus (b) Neutrons are highly unstable particles (c) Neutrons are chargeless (d) Neutrons do not m ov e The fundamental particles present in the nucleus of an atom are (a) Alpha particles and electrons (b) Neutrons and protons (a) Proton is nucleus of deuterium (b) Proton is ionized hy drogen m olecule (c) Proton is ionized hy drogen atom 20. (d) Electrons, neutrons and protons (d) None of these Anode rays were discov ered by [DPMT 1985] (a) Goldstein (b) J. Stoney (c) Rutherford (d) J.J. Thom son 21. 22. (a) 10 13. (b) 10 8 kg / cc (c) 10 9 kg / cc (d) 10 12 kg / cc Cathode rays are (a) Protons 23. 14. Number of neutron in C 12 is (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 15. 16. Heaviest particle is (a) Meson [BCECE 2005] (d) A charg of –1 and a m ass of 1 unit Cathode rays have 26. (a) Mass only (b) Charge only (c) No m ass and charge (d) Mass and charge both The size of nucleus is m easured in 27 . (a) am u (b) Angstrom (c) Ferm i (d) cm Which phrase would be incorrect to use [DPMT 1983; MP PET 1999] (b) Neutron (c) Proton (d) Electron Penetration power of prot on is [A MU (Engg.) 1999] (a) A m olecular of a com pound (a) More than electron (b) Less than electron (c) More than neutron An elementary particle is (d) None [CPMT 1973] (b) A m olecule of an elem ent (c) An atom of an elem ent 28. [MP PET 2002] The nucleus of helium contains [CPMT 1972; DPMT 1982] 29. (a) Four protons (b) Four neutrons (c) Two neutrons and two protons (d) Four protons and two electrons Which is correct statem ent about proton [CPMT 1979; MP PMT 1985; NCERT 1985; MP PET 1999] (d) None of these Which one of the following pairs is not correctly m atched (a) Rutherford-Proton (c) A sub-atom ic particle (d) A fragm ent of an atom 19. [CPMT 1982] [EA MCET 1988; CPMT 1994] (d) 9 (a) An elem ent present in a com pound (b) An atom present in an elem ent 18. (c) 10 15 cm (d) 10 8 cm Neutron possesses [CPMT 1982] (a) Positiv e charge (b) Negativ e charge (c) No charge (d) All are correct Neutron is a fundamental particle carrying 25. [BHU 1985; CPMT 1982, 88] 17. (b) 10 13 cm [CPMT 1990] (d) -particles (c) Neutrons cm (a) A charge of + 1 unit and a m ass of 1 unit (b) No charge and a m ass of 1 unit (c) No charge and no m ass [JIPMER 1991; NCERT 1976] (b) Electrons 10 [CPMT 1983, 84] [NCERT 1981, CPMT 1981, 2003] (a) 10 8 kg / cc The radius of an atom is of the order of [A MU 1982; IIT 1985; MP PMT 1995] 24. The order of density in nucleus is [A MU 1983] (a) Positiv ely charged particles (b) Negativ ely charged particles (c) Neutral particles (c) Neutrons and electrons 12. (d) Proton is -particle Cathode rays are made up of (b) J.J. Thom som -Electron (c) J.H. Chadwick-Neutron (d) Bohr-Isotope Proton was discov ered by (a) Chadwick (c) Goldstein 30. [A FMC 2004] (b) Thom son (d) Bohr The m inimum real charge on any particle which can exist is [RPMT 2000] (a) 1.6 10 19 Coulomb (b) 1.6 10 10 Coulomb Structure of atom (c) 4.8 10 10 Coulomb 31. (d) Zero The nature of anode ray s depends upon [MP PET 2004] (a) Nature of electrode [CPMT 1986; MP PMT 1987] All the abov e One would expect proton to hav e v ery large [Pb. CET 2004] 33. 34. (a) Ionization potential (b) Radius (c) Charge (d) Hy dration energy (a) Num ber of e 1 W N (a) 6.023 10 23 g (b) 1.008 g and 0.55mg (b) Num ber of 0 n 1 W N (c) 9.1 10 28 kg (d) 2 gm (c) Num ber of 1 H 1 W N The average distance of an electron in an atom from its nucleus is of the order of [MP PET 1996] (b) 10 6 m (c) 10 10 m (d) 10 15 m The mass of 1 mole of electrons is [Pb. CET 2004] (a) 9.1 10 28 g (c) 0.55 mg 36. 3. (b) 1.008 mg 27 (d) 9.1 10 (d) Num ber of 0 n 1 N 4. 5. (a) Na g The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an -particle is 38. 39. (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1 Ratio of masses of proton and electron is [BHU 1998] (a) Infinite (b) 1.8 10 (c) 1 .8 (d) None of these Splitting of signals is caused by [Pb. PMT 2000] (b) Neutron (c) Positron (d) Electron 40. (a) Deutron (b) Positron (c) Meson (d) Nucleon Which of the following has the sam e m ass as that of an electron [A FMC 2002] (a) Photon (c) Positron 41. (b) Neutron 7. [IIT 1979; MP PMT 1994; RPMT 1999] [NCERT 1972; MP PMT 1995] (a) Proton (c) Electrons 8. [UPSEAT 2004] The number of electrons in an atom of an element is equal to its [BHU 1979] CO has sam e electrons as or the ion that is isoelectronic with CO is [CPMT 1984; IIT 1982; (a) N 2 (c) O 2 (b) CN (d) O 2 9. The m ass of an atom is constituted m ainly by 10. (a) Neutron and neutrino (b) Neutron and electron (c) Neutron and proton (d) Proton and electron The atom ic num ber of an elem ent represents [DPMT 1984, 91; AFMC 1990] [CPMT 1983; CBSE PMT 1990; NCERT 1973; AMU 1984] 11. (a) Num ber of neutrons in the nucleus (b) Num ber of protons in the nucleus (c) Atom ic weight of elem ent (d) Valency of elem ent An atom has 2 6 electrons and its atomic weight is 56. The num ber of neutrons in the nucleus of the atom will be [CPMT 1980] Atomic number, Mass number, Atomic species 1. (b) Neutron (d) Protons and electrons EA MCET 1990; CBSE PMT 1997] (d) Proton (b) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 (b) K and O (a) 2 2 (b) 4 4 (c) 6 6 (d) 88 Chlorine atom differs from chloride ion in the num ber of What is the ratio of m ass of an electron to the m ass of a proton (a) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 83 7 and Ne 6. The proton and neutron are collectiv ely called as [MP PET 2001] (c) Ne and O (d) Na and K The num ber of electrons in one m olecule of CO 2 are 3 (a) Proton The total number of neutrons in dipositive zinc ions with mass number 70 is [IIT 1979; Bih a r MEE 1997] (a) 3 4 (b) 4 0 (c) 3 6 (d) 3 8 Which of the following are isoelectronic with one another [NCERT 1983; EAMCET 1989] [MP PET 1999] 37 . (a) 2 5 protons and 3 0 neutrons (b) 2 5 neutrons and 3 0 protons (c) 55 protons (d) 55 neutrons If W is atom ic weight and N is the atom ic num ber of an elem ent, then [CPMT 1971, 80, 89] The m ass of a m ol of proton and electron is (a) 10 6 m 35. (a) Atom ic weight (b) Atom ic num ber (c) Equiv alent weight (d) Electron affinity The nucleus of the element having atomic number 2 5 and atom ic weight 55 will contain (b) Nature of residual gas (c) Nature of discharge tube (d) 32. 2. 49 12. (a) 2 6 (b) 3 0 (c) 3 6 (d) 56 The m ost probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He is [A IIMS 2005] 50 Structure of atom (a) 0.0 (c) 2 6 .5 (b) 52 .9 (d) 1 05.8 13. The number of unpaired electrons in the Fe 2 ion is 14. (a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3 A sodium cation has different num ber of electrons from [MP PET 1989; KCET 2000] (c) Li (d) Al 3 An atom which has lost one electron would be 16. 17. 18. An atom has the electronic configuration of 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 ,4 s 2 4 p 5 . Its atom ic weight is 80. Its atom ic num ber and the number of neutrons in its nucleus shall be 19. (a) C (b) F 21. CH 3 III IV [IIT 1993] (b) I and IV (d) II, III and IV 26. (a) 2 2 (b) 2 4 (c) 2 0 (d) 2 8 The atomic number of an element having the valency shell [A MU 1988] electronic configuration 4 s 2 4 p 6 is 27 . [MP PMT 1991] (a) 3 5 (b) 3 6 (c) 3 7 (d) 3 8 The present atom ic weight scale is based on [EA MCET 1988; MP PMT 2002] (a) C 28. (b) O 16 12 (c) H 1 Isoelectronic species are (a) K , Cl (c) Na, Ar 29. (d) C 13 [EA MCET 1989] (b) Na , Cl (d) Na , Ar If the atom ic weight of an element is 2 3 tim es that of the lightest element and it has 1 1 protons, then it contains [EA MCET 1986; AFMC 1989] 30. 2 20. NH 3 II Number of electrons in CONH 2 is [MP PMT 1987] (a) 3 5 and 4 5 (b) 4 5 and 3 5 (c) 4 0 and 4 0 (d) 3 0 and 50 Which of the following particles has m ore electrons than neutrons H3O I 25. [CPMT 1986] (a) Negativ ely charged (b) Positiv ely charged (c) Electrically neutral (d) Carry double positiv e charge Num ber of electrons in the outermost orbit of the element of atomic num ber 15 is [CPMT 1988, 93] (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 The atom ic weight of an elem ent is double its atom ic num ber. If there are four electrons in 2 p orbital, the elem ent is [A MU 1983] (a) C (b) N (c) O (d) Ca CH 3 (a) I and II (c) I and III (b) F (a) O 2 15. 24. (b) The number of nucleons is double of the number of electrons (c) The number of protons is half of the number of neutrons (d) The number of nucleons is double of the atomic num ber Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the following (a) 1 1 protons, 2 3 neutrons, 1 1 electrons (b) 1 1 protons, 1 1 neutrons, 1 1 electrons (c) 1 1 protons, 1 2 neutrons, 1 1 electrons (d) 1 1 protons, 1 1 neutrons, 2 3 electrons Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is isoelectronic with CO 2 [CBSE PMT 1990] (a) NO 2 (b) N 2 O (c) NO (d) N 2 O 2 (c) O (d) Al 3 Com pared with an atom of atomic weight 1 2 and atom ic num ber 6 , the atom of atom ic weight 1 3 and atom ic num ber 6 [NCERT 1971] (a) Contains m ore neutrons(b) Contains m ore electrons (c) Contains m ore protons(d) Is a different elem ent 31. In the nucleus of 32. The ratio between the neutrons in C and Si with respect to atom ic m asses 1 2 and 2 8 is (a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 3 : 7 (d) 7 : 3 The atom ic num ber of an elem ent is alway s equal to 33. (a) Atom ic weight div ided by 2 (b) Num ber of neutrons in the nucleus (c) Weight of the nucleus (d) Electrical charge of the nucleus Which of the following is isoelectronic with carbon atom 20 Ca 40 there are [CPMT 1990; EAMCET 1991] (a) (b) (c) (d) 22. 40 20 20 20 [MP PMT 1994] electrons electrons neutrons neutrons Na ion is isoelectronic with (a) Li 23. protons and 2 0 protons and 4 0 protons and 2 0 protons and 4 0 [CPMT 1990] [MP PMT 1994; UPSEAT 2000] 2 (b) Mg (c) Ca 2 (d) Ba 2 Ca has atomic no. 2 0 and atomic weight 4 0. Which of the following statem ents is not correct about Ca atom (a) Na 34. (c) O 2 (d) N CO 2 is isostructural with [MP PET 1993] (a) The num ber of electrons is sam e as the num ber of neutrons (b) Al 3 [IIT 1986; MP PMT 1986, 94, 95] (a) SnCl 2 (b) SO 2 [ Structure of atom (c) HgCl2 35. (d) All the abov e 47 . [A FMC 1995; Bihar MEE 1997] (b) He (d) Be 36. 48. [A FMC 1995] 37 . 38. The nucleus of the elem ent 39. (a) 4 5 protons and 2 1 neutrons (b) 2 1 protons and 2 4 neutrons (c) 2 1 protons and 4 5 neutrons (d) 2 4 protons and 2 1 neutrons Neutrons are found in atom s of all elem ents except in 21 49. 40. 50. 51. I CH 3 , II NH 2 , III NH 4 , IV NH 3 42. 43. 44. (a) I, II, III (c) I, II, IV The charge on the atom neutrons and 18 electrons is (a) 1 52. 53. 46. 55. o (b) e , e (c) e , p (d) p , n Nuclei tend to have m ore neutrons than protons at high mass numbers because [Roor kee Qu a l ify in g 1998] (a) Neutrons are neutral particles (b) Neutrons hav e m ore m ass than protons (c) More neutrons m inim ize the coulom b repulsion (d) Neutrons decrease the binding energy 56. [CBSE PMT 1994] (b) F (c) Tl (d) Na (b) and PO43 (d) ClO4 and OCN Nitrogen atom has an atomic number of 7 and oxygen has an atomic number 8. The total num ber of electrons in a nitrate ion will be [Pb. PMT 2000] (a) 8 (b) 1 6 (c) 3 2 (d) 6 4 If m olecular mass and atom ic m ass of sulphur are 2 56 and 32 respectively, its atom icity is [RPET 2000] (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 1 6 The nitride ion in lithium nitride is com posed of (a) 7 protons + 1 0 electrons (b) 1 0 protons + 1 0 electrons (c) 7 protons + 7 protons (d) 1 0 protons + 7 electrons The atomic number of an elem ent is 1 7 . The num ber of orbitals containing electron pairs in its v alence shell is (a) Eight (b) Six (c) Three (d) Two The atomic number of an element is 3 5 and mass number is 81 . The number of electrons in the outer m ost shell is [UPSEAT 2001] 57 . 58. (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3 Which of the following is not isoelectronic[MP PET 2002] (a) Na (b) Mg 2 (c) O 2 (d) Cl The charge of an electron is 1.6 10 19 C. The v alue of free charge on Li ion will be [A FMC 2002; KCET (Engg.) 2002] (a) 3.6 10 Which one of the following is not isoelectronic with O 2 (a) N 3 and O 3 [CPMT 2001] [RPMT 1997] [UPSEA T 1999] NO 2 [KCET 2000] [A IIMS 1996] (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) Zero Number of unpaired electrons in inert gas is[CPMT 1996] (a) Zero (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 1 8 In neutral atom , which particles are equiv alent (a) p , e 45. 54. (d) H (c) CO 2 , N 2 O, NO 3 [CPMT 1999] (b) II, III, IV (d) I and II containing 1 7 protons, 1 8 NO 2 [EA MCET 1998] (b) Na (c) Li An isostere is (a) [MP PMT 1999] 41. 2 (b) Oxy gen (d) Hy drogen (a) 1 0 (b) 1 4 (c) 7 (d) 5 Which of the following are isoelectronic species (b) 89, 89, 2 4 2 (d) 89, 7 1 , 89 Be 2 is isoelectronic with (a) Mg E 45 contains The m ass number of an anion, X 3 , is 14. If there are ten electrons in the anion, the num ber of neutron s in the nucleus of atom , X 2 of the elem ent will be (a) 1 7 (b) 3 7 (c) 2 (d) 3 8 Num ber of protons, neutrons and electrons in the 231 elem ent 89 [A FMC 1997] Y is (a) 89, 2 3 1 , 89 (c) 89, 1 4 2 , 89 [MP PMT 1997] (a) Chlorine (c) Argon (a) 1 9 (b) 2 0 (c) 1 8 (d) 4 0 The number of electrons and neutrons of an element is 1 8 and 2 0 respectiv ely . Its m ass num ber is [CPMT 1997; Pb. PMT 1999; MP PMT 1999] The num ber of electrons in the nucleus of C 12 is (a) 6 (b) 1 2 (c) 0 (d) 3 An elem ent has electronic configuration 2 , 8, 1 8, 1 . If its atom ic weight is 6 3 , t hen how m any neutrons will be present in its nucleus (a) 3 0 (b) 3 2 (c) 3 4 (d) 3 3 40 The num ber of electrons in [19 K ]1 is [CPMT 1997; AFMC 1999] The hy dride ions (H ) are isoelectronic with (a) Li (c) He 51 59. 19 C (c) 1.6 10 19 C Iso-electronic species is (a) F , O 2 (b) 1 10 19 C (d) 2.6 10 19 C [RPMT 2002] (b) F , O 52 Structure of atom (c) F , O 60. An elem ent hav e atom ic weight 4 0 and it’s electronic 61. configuration is 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 . Then its atom ic number and number of neutrons will be [RPMT 2002] (a) 1 8 and 2 2 (b) 2 2 and 1 8 (c) 2 6 and 2 0 (d) 4 0 and 1 8 The nucleus of tritium contains [MP PMT 2002] (a) 1 proton + 1 neutron (b) 1 proton + 3 neutron (c) 1 proton + 0 neutron (d) 1 proton + 2 neutron Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species [A IEEE 2003] 62. 63. (a) Na , Ca 2 , Mg 2 (b) N 3 , F , Na (c) Be, Al 3 , Cl (d) Ca 2 , Cs , Br Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural NO 3 , CO 32 , ClO3 , SO 3 64. 65. 66. 67 . (b) 4 protons and 7 electrons (c) 4 protons and 1 0 electrons (d) 1 0 protons and 7 electrons (d) F , O 2 73. [MP PMT 1986] (a) 0 74. (b) SO 3 , NO 3 (c) ClO3 , CO 32 (d) CO 32 , SO 3 69. 1. (a) 6 (b) 1 1 (c) 1 7 (d) 2 3 The nucleus of an element contain 9 protons. Its v alency would be (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5 The compound in which cation is isoelectronic with anion is 2. 3. 7 1. (c) Nucleus (d) Neutrons Rutherford's scattering experiment is related to the size of the (a) Nucleus (b) Atom (c) Electron (d) Neutron Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experim ent ev entually led to the conclusion that[IIT 1986; RPMT 2002] (d) The point of im pact with m atter can be precisely determ ined 4. Bohr's m odel can explain [MP PET 2004] [IIT 1985] (a) The spectrum of hy drogen atom only (b) Spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only (c) The spectrum of hy drogen m olecule 5. When atoms are bombarded with alpha particles, only a few in m illion suffer deflection, others pass out undeflected. This is because[MNR 1979; NCERT 1980; A FMC 19 (a) The force of repulsion on th e m oving alpha particle is sm all 2 (b) The force of attraction on the alpha particle to the oppositely charged electrons is v ery sm all (a) Boron (b) Lithium (c) Carbon (d) Helium The nitrogen atom has 7 protons and 7 electrons, the (a) 7 protons and 1 0 electrons (b) Protons (c) Neutrons are buried deep in the nucleus (c) F (d) Ca 2 Six protons are found in the nucleus of 3 nitride ion ( N ) will hav e (a) Electrons (b) Electrons occupy space around the nucleus (c) There is only one nucleus and large num ber of electrons [CPMT 1977, 80, 81; NCERT 1975, 78] 72. Rutherford's experiment on scattering of particles showed for the first tim e that the atom has (a) Mass and energy are related [DCE 2004] (b) O (d) Atom ic num ber [IIT 1983; MADT Bihar 1995; BHU 1995] Which among the following species have the same number of electrons in its outerm ost as well as penultim ate shell (a) Mg (c) Equiv alent weight (d) The solar spectrum (b) CsF (d) K 2 S 2 (b) Atom ic radii CPMT 1984; Kurukshetra CEE 1998] [UPSEAT 2004] 70. (a) Atom ic weight [IIT 1981; NCERT 1981; CMC Vellore 1991; The number of electrons in Cl ion is [MP PMT 2003] (a) 1 9 (b) 2 0 (c) 1 8 (d) 3 5 The number of neutron in tritium is [CPMT 2003] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 Tritium is the isotope of [CPMT 2003] (a) Hy drogen (b) Oxy gen (c) Carbon (d) Sulpher The atomic number of an element is 3 5. What is the total num ber of electrons present in all the p-orbitals of the ground state atom of that elem ent (a) NaCl (c) NaI (c) 2 (d) 3 Which of the following is alway s a whole num ber Atomic models and Planck's quantum theory [EA MCET (Engg.) 2003] 68. (b) 1 [CPMT 1976, 81, 86] [IIT Scr een in g 2003] (a) NO 3 , CO 32 Num ber of neutrons in heav y hy drogen atom is [NCERT 1977] (d) The nucleus occupies m uch sm aller v olum e com pared to the v olum e of the atom 6. Positronium consists of an electron and a positron (a particle which has the sam e m ass as an electron, but opposite charge) orbiting round their com m on centre of Structure of atom m ass. Calculate the value of the Rydberg constant for this sy stem. 7. (a) R / 4 (b) R / 2 (c) 2 R (d) R When -particles are sent through a thin m etal foil, most of them go straight through the foil because (one or m ore are correct) [IIT 1984] (a) Positiv e ray analy sis (b) -ray scattering experim ents (c) X-ray analy sis 15. (b) Alpha particles are positiv ely charged 16. (d) Alpha particles m ov e with high v elocity 8. [CPMT 1983] (c) The difference in the energy of the energy lev els inv olv ed in the transition (d) The v elocity of the electron undergoing the transition (a) Energy is absorbed (b) Energy is released 17. (d) Energy is neither absorbed nor released 9. 10. (a) A beam of protons (b) -ray s (c) A beam of neutrons (d) X-ray s Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of radiation [A IIMS 1991] (a) The energy is not absorbed or em itted in whole num ber or m ultiple of quantum (b) Radiation is associated with energy (c) Radiation energy is not em itted or absorbed conti nuously but in the form of sm all packets called quanta (d) This m agnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the frequency 11. The spectrum of He is expected to be sim ilar to [A IIMS 1980, 91; DPMT 1983; MP PMT 2002] (a) H 12. 13. (b) Li (c) Na (d) He Energy of orbit [DPMT 1984, 91] (a) Increases as we m ov e away from nucleus (b) Decreases as we m ov e away from nucleus (c) Rem ains sam e as we m ov e away from nucleus (d) None of these Bohr m odel of an atom could not account for (a) Em ission spectrum (b) Absorption spectrum (b) Energy is absorbed (c) Atom ic num ber increases (d) Atom ic num ber decreases 18. Dav isson and Germ er's experim ent showed that [MA DT Bihar 1983] (a) -particles are electrons (b) Electrons com e from nucleu s (c) Electrons show wav e nature (d) None of the abov e 19. When an electron jum ps from lower to higher orbit, its energy [MA DT Bi h a r 1982] (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Rem ains the sam e (d) None of these 20. Experimental ev idence for the existence of the a tom ic nucleus com es from [CBSE PMT 1989] (a) Millikan's oil drop experim ent (b) Atom ic em ission spectroscopy (c) The m agnetic bending of cathode ray s (d) Alpha scattering by a thin m etal foil 21. Which of the following statem ents does not form part of Bohr's m odel of the hydrogen atom [CBSE PMT 1989] (a) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantized (b) The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has the lowest energy (c) Electrons rev olv e in different orbits around the nucleus (d) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit cannot be determ ined sim ultaneously 22. When -particles are sent through a tin m etal foil, m ost of them go straight through the foil as [EA MCET 1983] (a) -particles are m uch heav ier than electrons (c) Line spectrum of hy drogen (d) Fine spectrum 14. When an electron drops from a higher energy lev el to a low energy level, then [A MU 1985] (a) Energy is em itted When bery llium is bom barded with -particles, extrem ely penetrating radiations which cannot be deflected by electrical or m agnetic field are giv en out. These are [CPMT 1983] (c) Heisenberg's principle (b) Prout's hy pothesis The wav elength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to [IIT 1988] (a) The number of electrons undergoing the transition (b) The nuclear charge of the atom When an electron jumps from L to K shell (c) Energy is som etim es absorbed and som etim es released (d) Discharge tube experim ents Electron occupies the av ailable orbital singly before pairing in any one orbital occurs, it is [CBSE PMT 1991] (a) Pauli's exclusion principle (b) Hund's Rule (a) Alpha particles are m uch heav ier than electrons (c) Most part of the atom is em pty space 53 Existence of positively charged nucleus was established by [CBSE PMT 1991] (b) -particles are positiv ely charged (c) Most part of the atom is em pty space 54 Structure of atom (d) -particles m ov e with high v elocity 23. (a) E n The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is – 3 2 8 kJ mol–1, hence the energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be (c) E n [CBSE PMT 2005] 24. (a) – 4 1 kJ mol–1 (b) –1 3 1 2 kJ mol–1 (c) –1 6 4 kJ mol–1 (d) – 82 kJ mol–1 When an electron rev olv es in a stationary orbit then 33. [MP PET 1994] 25. 26. 27 . (a) It absorbs energy (b) It gains kinetic energy (c) It em its radiation (d) Its energy rem ains constant A m ov ing particle m ay hav e wav e m otion, if (a) Its m ass is v ery high (b) Its v elocity is negligible (c) Its m ass is negligible (d) Its m ass is v ery high and v elocity is negligible The postulate of Bohr theory that electrons jum p from one orbit to the other, rather than flow is according to (a) The quantisation concept (b) The wav e nature of electron (c) The probability expression for electron (d) Heisenberg uncertainty principle The frequency of an electrom agnetic radiation is 34. 35. 36. 37 . 2 10 Hz . What is its wav elength in m etres (a) 6.0 10 38. (b) 1.5 10 14 4 (c) 1.5 10 (d) 0.66 10 2 What is the packet of energy called [A FMC 2005] (a) Electron (b) Photon (c) Positron (d) Proton 2 28. 29. The energy of an electron in n th orbit of hydrogen atom is [MP PET 1999] 30. 31. (a) 13 .6 (c) 13 .6 n4 n2 eV (b) 13 .6 eV (d) 13 .6 eV n n3 39. eV If wav elength of photon is 2.2 10 11 m, h 6.6 10 34 Jsec, then m om entum of photon is [MP PET 1999] (a) 3 10 23 kg ms 1 (b) 3.33 10 22 kg ms 1 (c) 1.452 10 44 kg ms 1 (d) 6.89 10 43 kg ms 1 40. 41. 2 me z 4 (a) r (c) r n2h2 4 me z 2 4 2 n2h2 4 2 me 2 z 2 (b) r (d) r n2h2 4 2 me 2 z (d) E n n2h2 2m 2 e 2 z 4 (a) Absorption of energy (b) Release of energy (c) Both release or absorption of energy (d) Unpredictable In an element going away from nucleus, the energy of particle [RPMT 1997] (a) Decreases (b) Not changing (c) Increases (d) None of these The -particle scattering experim ent of Rutherford concluded that [Or issa JEE 1997] (a) The nucleus is m ade up of protons and neutrons (b) The number of electrons is exactly equal to number of protons in atom (c) The positive charge of the atom is concentrated in a v ery sm all space (d) Electrons occupy discrete energy lev els Wavelength associated with electron m otion [BHU 1998] (a) Increases with increase in speed of electron (b) Rem ains sam e irrespectiv e of speed of electron (c) Decreases with increase in speed of e (d) Is zero The elem ent used by Rutherford in his famous scattering experim ent was [KCET 1998] (a) Gold (b) Tin (c) Silv er (d) Lead If electron falls from n 3 to n 2 , then emitted energy is [A FMC 1997; MP PET 2003] 42. n2h2 4 2 m 2 e 2 z 2 The energy of an electron revolving in n th Bohr's orbit of an atom is given by the expression [MP PMT 1999] 2 2 2 me 2 z 2 n2h2 n2h2 Who m odified Bohr's theory by introducing ellipt ical orbits for electron path [CBSE PMT 1999; A FMC 2003] (a) Hund (b) Thom son (c) Rutherford (d) Som m erfield Bohr's radius can have [DPMT 1996] (a) Discrete v alues (b) ve v alues (c) ve v alues (d) Fractional v alu es The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made by[IIT 1997; CPMT 2001; J&K CET 2005] (a) Heisenberg (b) Bohr (c) Planck (d) Einstein An electronic transition from 1s orbital of an atom causes The expression for Bohr's radius of an atom is [MP PMT 1999] 32. n2h2 2 (b) E n [JIPMER 1997] 6 (Velocity of light 3 10 8 ms 1 ) 2 2 m 4 e 2 z 2 43. (a) 10.2eV (b) 12.09eV (c) 1.9 eV (d) 0.65eV The radius of the nucleus is related to the m ass num ber A by (a) R R o A 1/2 (b) R R o A (c) R R o A 2 (d) R R o A 1 / 3 The specific charge of proton is 9.6 10 6 C kg 1 then for an -particle it will be [MH CET 1999] [ Structure of atom 44. 45. 46. 47 . (a) 38.4 10 7 C kg 1 (b) 19.2 10 7 C kg 1 (c) 2.4 10 7 C kg 1 (d) 4.8 10 7 C kg 1 In hy drogen spectrum the different lines of Ly m an series are present is [UPSEA T 1999] (a) UV field (b) I R field (c) Visible field (d) Far I R field Which one of the following is considered as the m ain postulate of Bohr’s m odel of atom [A MU 2000] (a) Protons are present in the nucleus (b) Electrons are rev olv ing around the nucleus (c) Centrifugal force produced due to the rev olv ing electrons balances the force of attraction between the electron and the protons (d) Angular momentum of electron is an integral multiple of h 2 The electronic energy levels of the hydrogen atom in the Bohr’s theory are called [A MU 2000] (a) Ry dberg lev els (b) Orbits (c) Ground states (d) Orbitals The energy of a photon is calculated by [Pb. PMT 2000] (a) E h (b) h E (c) h 48. 49. E 55. 56. energy of a radiation of wavelength 16000 Å is E 2 . What is the relation between these two [Kerala CET 2005] (a) E1 6 E 2 (b) E1 2E 2 (c) E1 4 E 2 (b) 0 .22 Å (c) 0 .28 Å (d) 0 .53 Å In Balm er ser ies of hy drogen atom spectrum which electronic transition causes third line [MP PMT 2000] 58. 59. 60. 61. (c) Fourth Bohr orbit to second one (d) Fourth Bohr orbit to first one Energy of electron of hydrogen atom in second Bohr orbit is [MP PMT 2000] 52. (a) 5.44 10 19 J (b) 5.44 10 19 kJ (c) 5.44 10 19 cal (d) 5.44 10 19 eV If change in energy (E) 3 10 8 J , h 6.64 10 34 J - s and c 3 10 8 m/s, then wavelength of the light is [CBSE PMT 2000] (a) 6.36 10 Å 3 8 53. The form ation of energy bonds in solids are in accordance with [DCE 2001] (a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (b) Bohr’s theory (c) Ohm ’s law (d) Rutherford’s atom ic m odel The frequency of y ellow light having wavelength 600 nm is [MP PET 2002] (a) Fifth Bohr orbit to second one (b) Fifth Bohr orbit to first one 51. (b) 6.36 10 5 Å (c) 6.64 10 Å (d) 6.36 10 18 Å The radius of first Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen is 0.53 Å. The radius of third Bohr’s orbit would be [MP PMT 2001] (a) 0.7 9 Å (b) 1 .59 Å (c) 3 .1 8 Å (d) 4 .7 7 Å (d) E1 1 / 2 E2 (e) E1 E 2 57 . h (d) E Visible range of hy drogen spectrum will contain the following series [RPET 2000] (a) Pfund (b) Ly m an (c) Balm er (d) Brackett Radius of the first Bohr’s orbit of hy drogen atom is (a) 1 .06 Å Rutherford’s -particle scattering experiment proved that atom has [MP PMT 2001] (a) Electrons (b) Neutron (c) Nucleus (d) Orbitals Wav elength of spectral line em itted is inv ersely proportional to (a) Radius (b) Energy (c) Velocity (d) Quantum num ber The energy of a radiation of wavelength 8000 Å is E1 and (a) 5.0 10 Hz (c) 5.0 10 7 Hz The v alue of the energy hy drogen atom will be (a) 13.6 eV (b) 2.5 10 Hz (d) 2.5 10 14 Hz for the first excited state of (c) 1.51 eV (d) 0.85 eV 14 [RPET 2000] 50. 54. 55 62. 7 [MP PET 2002] (b) 3.40 eV Bohr m odel of atom is contradicted by [MP PMT 2002] (a) Pauli’s exclusion principle (b) Planck quantum theory (c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle (d) All of these Which of the following is not true in Rutherford’s nuclear m odel of atom [Or issa JEE 2002] (a) Protons and neutrons are present inside nucleus (b) Volum e of nucleus is v ery sm all as com pared to v olum e of atom (c) The num ber of protons and neutrons are alway s equal (d) The num ber of electrons and protons are alway s equal The em ission spectrum of hydrogen is found to satisfy the expression for the energy change. E (in joules) such 1 1 that E 2 .18 10 2 2 J where n 1 = 1, 2 , 3 ….. and n1 n2 n 2 = 2 , 3 , 4 ……. The spectral lines correspond to Paschen series to [UPSEA T 2002] (a) n1 1 and n 2 2, 3, 4 (b) n1 3 and n 2 4, 5, 6 (c) n1 1 and n 2 3, 4, 5 (d) n1 2 and n 2 3, 3, 5 (e) n1 1 and n 2 infinity [ 56 Structure 63. of atom The ratio between kinetic energy and the total energy of the electrons of hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s m odel is 74. state 1 , would be (Ry dberg constant 1.097 10 7 m 1 ) [Pb. PMT 2002] 64. 65. [A IEEE 2004] (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : – 1 (d) 1 : 2 Energy of the electron in Hy drogen atom is giv en by [A MU (Engg.) 2002] (a) En 131.38 131.33 kJ mol 1 (b) En kJ mol 1 n n2 (c) En 1313.3 2 kJ mol 1 (d) En 313.13 2 kJ mol 1 n n Ratio of radii of second and first Bohr orbits of H atom 75. 76. [BHU 2003] (a) 2 (c) 3 66. (b) 4 (d) 5 The frequency corresponding to transition n 2 to n 1 in hydrogen atom is [MP PET 2003] (a) 15.66 10 10 Hz 67 . (a) 0.8268 10 34 kg 68. 69. (b) 1.2876 10 33 kg (c) 1.4285 10 32 kg (d) 1.8884 10 32 kg Splitting of spectral lines under the influence of m agnetic field is called [MP PET 2004] (a) Zeem an effect (b) Stark effect (c) Photoelectric effect (d) None of these The radius of electron in the first excited state of hy drogen atom is [MP PMT 2004] (a) a0 (b) 4a0 (c) 2a0 70. 7 1. 7 8. 79. 80. (d) 8a0 (c) 4 2 mr 2 nh (b) nh 81. 4 2 mr h (d) 2mr nh (a) 4 06 nm (b) 1 92 nm (c) 91 nm (d) 9.110 8 nm In Bohr’s m odel, atomic radius of the first orbit is , the radius of the 3 rd orbit, is [MP PET 1997; Pb. CET 2001] (a) / 3 (b) (c) 3 (d) 9 According to Bohr’s principle, the relation between principle quantum number (n) and radiu s of orbit is [BHU 2004] (a) r n (b) r n 2 1 1 (c) r (d) r 2 n n The ionisation potential of a hydrogen atom is –1 3 .6 eV. What will be the energy of the atom corresponding to n2 [Pb. CET 2000] The ratio of area cov ered by second orbital to the first orbital is [A FMC 2004] (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 6 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 6 : 1 Tim e taken for an electron to com plete one rev olution in the Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is [Ker a l a PMT 2004] (a) 72. 77. (b) 24.66 10 14 Hz (c) 30.57 10 14 Hz (d) 40.57 10 24 Hz The m ass of a photon with a wav elength equal to [Pb. PMT 2004] 1.54 10 8 cm is The wav elength of the radiation em itted, when in a hy drogen atom electron falls from infinity to stationary 4 2 mr 2 The radius of which of the following orbit is sam e as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hy drogen atom (a) –3 .4 eV (b) –6.8 eV (c) –1 .7 eV (d) – 2 .7 eV The energy of electron in hy drogen atom in its grounds state is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding to the quantum number equal to 5 is [Pb. CET 2002] (a) –0.54 eV (b) – 0.85 eV (c) – 0.64 eV (d) – 0.4 0 eV The positive charge of an atom is [A FMC 2002] (a) Spread all ov er the atom (b) Distributed around the nucleus (c) Concentrated at the nucleus (d) All of these A metal surface is exposed to solar radiations [DPMT 2005] (a) The em itted electrons hav e energy less than a m aximum value of energy depending upon frequency of incident radiations (b) The em itted electrons hav e energy less than m aximum value of energy depending upon intensity of incident radiation (c) The em itted electrons hav e zero energy (d) The em itted electrons have energy equal to energy of photos of incident light Which of the following transitions hav e m inim um wav elength [DPMT 2005] (a) n4 n1 (b) n 2 n1 (c) n4 n 2 Dual nature of electron [IIT Screening 2004] (a) He (n 2) 73. (b) Li 2 (n 2) 2 3 (c) Li (n 3) (d) Be (n 2) The frequency of radiation em itted when the electron falls from n 4 to n 1 in a hy drogen atom will be (Giv en ionization h 6.625 10 energy 34 Js ) (a) 3.08 1015 s 1 (c) 1.54 1015 s 1 of H 2.18 10 18 J atom 1 and [CBSE PMT 2004] (b) 2.00 1015 s 1 (d) 1.03 1015 s 1 (d) n3 n1 1. De broglie equation describes the relationship of wavelengt h associated with the motion of an electron and its[MP PMT 1986] 2. (a) Mass (b) Energy (c) Mom entum (d) Charge The wav e nature of an electron was first giv en by [CMC V ellore 1991; Pb. PMT 1998; CPMT 2004] (a) De-Broglie (c) Mosley (b) Heisenberg (d) Som m erfield 57 Structure of atom 3. 4. Am ong the following for which one m athem atical h expression stands p (a) De Broglie equation (b) Einstein equation (c) Uncertainty equation (d) Bohr equation Which one of the following explains light both as a stream of particles and as wav e m otion [A IIMS 1983; IIT 1992; UPSEAT 2003] (c) Interference (d) Photoelectric effect In which one of the following pairs of experim ental observ ations and phenom enon does the experim ental observation correctly account for phenomenon [A IIMS 2001] (a) 6.63 10 6. m hv de-Broglie equation is (d) (c) 7. 14. 15. 16. 8. 17. v mh (b) E hv h (d) mv 18. 19. A FMC 1999; AIIMS 2000] (a) 6.63 10 9. (b) 6.63 10 34 m m (c) 6.63 10 35 m (d) 6.65 10 35 m Minimum de-Broglie wavelength is associated with [RPMT (b) Proton (d) SO 2 m olecule 10. The de-Broglie wav elength associated with a m aterial particle is [JIPMER 2000] (a) Directly proportional to its energy (b) Directly proportional to m om entum (c) Inv ersely proportional to its energy (d) Inv ersely proportional t o m om entum 11. An electron has kinetic energy 2.8 10 23 J . de-Broglie wav elength will be nearly (m e 9.1 10 31 kg ) (a) 9.28 10 4 [MP PET 2000] (b) 9.28 10 m (c) 9.28 10 8 m 12. 20. 1999] (a) Electron (c) CO 2 m olecule 7 21. (d) 6.63 10 34 m (a) 9.96 10 10 cm (b) 9.96 10 8 cm (c) 9.96 10 4 cm (d) 9.96 10 8 cm If the v elocity of hy drogen m olecule is 5 10 4 cm sec 1 , [Ade-Broglie IIMS 1983] then its wavelength is [MP PMT 2003] (a) 2 Å (b) 4 Å (c) 8 Å (d) 1 00 Å A 2 00g golf ball is m oving with a speed of 5 m per hour. The associated wav e length is (h 6.625 10 34 J - sec) (a) 10 10 m (b) 10 20 m (c) 10 30 m (d) 10 40 m A cricket ball of 0.5 kg is m ov ing with a v elocity of 100 m / sec . The wavelength associated with its m otion is with a velocity of 1.2 10 ms 1 (a) 6.068 10 9 (b) 3.133 10 37 (c) 6.626 10 9 (d) 6.018 10 7 (c) 1.32 10 35 m (d) 6.6 10 28 m Dual nature of particles was proposed by [DCE 2004] (a) Heisenberg (b) Lowry (c) de-Broglie (d) Schrodinger Calculate de-Broglie wavelength of an electron trav elling at 1% of the speed of light [DPMT 2004] (a) 2.73 10 24 (b) 2.42 10 10 (c) 242.2 10 10 (d) None of these Which is the correct relationship between wavelength and m omentum of particles [Pb. PMT 2000] h h (a) (b) P P h P (c) P (d) h The de-Broglie equation applies [MP PMT 2004] (a) To electrons only (b) To neutrons only (c) To protons only (d) All the m aterial object in m otion 1. The uncertainty principle was enunciated by 2. (a) Einstein (b) Heisenberg (c) Rutherford (d) Pauli According to heisenberg uncertainty principle [NCERT 1975; Bihar MEE 1997] m What will be de-Broglie wavelength of an electron m ov ing (b) 6.6 10 34 m Uncertainty principle and Schrodinger wave equation (d) 9.28 10 10 m 5 m [DCE 2004] The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with m ass 1 gm and velocity 100m / sec is[CBSE PMT 1999; EA MCET 1997; 33 (b) 6.63 10 [MP PET 2003] [MP PMT 1999; CET Pune 1998] (c) E mc 2 m 29 What is the de-Broglie wav elength associated with the hydrogen electron in its third orbit [A MU (En gg.) 2002] (a) 1 / 100cm (a) n 2d sin 22 (c) 6.63 10 31 m Experimental observa t ion Ph en om en on (a) X -ray spectra Charge on the nucleus (b) -particle scattering Quantized electron orbit (c) Em ission spectra The quantization of energy (d) The photoelectric effect The nuclear atom Which of the following expressions giv es the de-Broglie relationship[MP PMT 1996, 2004; MP PET /PMT 1998] h (a) h (b) mv mv The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of m ass 10 6 kg m ov ing with a v elocity of 10 ms 1 , is (b) h / p (a) Diffraction 5. 13. [A MU 1990; BCECE 2005] [MP PET 2000] (a) E mc 2 (b) x p h 4 58 Structure of atom h h (d) x p 6 p “The position and velocity of a sm all particle like electron cannot be simultaneously determined.” This statement is (c) 3. (c) Heisenberg, Planck 12. 1 10 5 kg m / s . The uncertainty in its position will be ( h 6.62 10 34 kg m 2 / s ) [NCERT 1979; BHU 1981, 87] (a) (b) (c) (d) 4. 5. Heisenber g uncertainty principle Principle of de Broglie's wav e nature of electron Pauli's exclusion principle Aufbau's principle h In Heisenberg's uncertainty equation x p ; p 4 stands for (a) Uncertainty in energy (b) Uncertainty in v elocity (c) Uncertainty in m om entum (d) Uncertainty in m ass Which one is not the correct relation in the following (a) h 6. 7. E v [A FMC 1998; CBSE PMT 1999; JIPMER 2002] 13. 14. (c) x p h h (d) mv 4 The m aximum probability of finding an electron in the [MP PET 1996] d xy orbital is 15. (a) Along the x-axis (b) Along the y-axis 16. (d) 5.25 10 28 m The uncertainty in the position of a m oving bullet of m ass 1 0 gm is 10 5 m . Calculate the uncertainty in its v elocity 28 m / sec (b) 3.0 10 28 m / sec (d) 3 10 22 m / sec h shows [MP PET 2000] 4 (a) de-Broglie relation (b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (c) Aufbau principle (d) Hund’s rule Which quantum number is not related with Schrodinger equation [RPMT 2002] (a) Principal (b) Azim uthal (c) Magnetic (d) Spin The equation x .p Uncertainty in position of a 0.2 5 g particle is 10 5 . Uncertainty of velocity is (h 6.6 10 34 Js) [A IEEE 2002] (b) 2.1 10 29 (c) At an angle of 45 o from the x and y-axes (a) 1.2 10 34 (d) At an angle of 90 o from the x and y-axes (c) 1.6 10 (d) 1.7 10 9 The uncertainty in m om entum of an electron is 1 10 5 kg m / s . The uncertainity in its position will be Sim ultaneous determ ination of exact position and m omentum of an electron is [BHU 1979] 20 17. (h 6.63 10 34 Js) (a) 5.28 10 h (c) 2 30 m 18. h (b) 2 19. The possibility of finding an electron in an orbital was conceiv ed by [MP PMT 1994] (a) Rutherford (b) Bohr (c) Heisenberg (d) Schrodinger Uncertainty principle gav e the concept of (a) Probability (b) An orbital (c) Phy sical m eaning of the 2 (d) All the abov e The uncertainty principle and the concept of wave nature of m atter was proposed by ...... and ...... respectiv ely [MP PET 1997] (a) Heisenberg, de Broglie (b) de-Broglie, Heisenberg (b) 5.25 10 28 m (c) 1.05 10 m (d) 2.715 10 30 m According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, the product of uncertainties in position and v elocities for an electron of m ass 9.1 10 31 kg is 3 2 1 5 2 1 (a) 2.8 10 m s (d) Infinite [Pb. CET 2000] 26 If uncertainty in the position of an electron is zero, the uncertainty in its m om entum would be [CPMT 1988] (a) Zero 11. (c) 5.27 10 30 m (c) 5.2 10 22 m / sec (b) E mc 2 (d) None of the abov e 10. (b) 1.05 10 26 m (a) 5.2 10 (c) Som etim es possible som etim es im possible 9. (a) 1.05 10 28 m [DCE 1999] (a) Possible (b) Im possible 8. (d) Planck, Heisenberg The uncertainty in m om entum of an electron is 2 1 (b) 3.8 10 m s (c) 5.8 10 m s (d) 6.8 10 6 m 2 s 1 For an electron if the uncertainty in v elocity is , the uncertainty in its position (x ) is given by [DPMT 2005] hm 4 h (c) 4m (a) 20. 5 4 hm 4 m (d) h . (b) Orbital is [DPMT 2005] (a) Circular path around the nucleus in which the electron rev olv es (b) Space around the nucleus where the probability of finding the electron is m axim um (c) Am plitude of electrons wav e (d) None of these Quantum number, Electronic configuration [ 59 Structure of atom and Shape of orbitals 1. Be's 4 th electron will hav e four quantum num bers [MNR 1985] 2. 3. l n m s (a) 1 0 0 + 1 /2 (b) 1 1 +1 + 1 /2 (c) 2 0 0 – 1 /2 (d) 2 1 0 + 1 /2 The quantum number which specifies the location of an electron as w ell as energy is [DPMT 1983] (a) Principal quantum num ber (b) Azim uthal quantum num ber (c) Spin quantum num ber (d) Magnetic quantum num ber The shape of an orbital is given by the quantum number [NCERT 1984; MP PMT 1996] 4. (a) n (b) l (c) m (d) s In a given atom no two electrons can have the same values for all the four quantum num bers. This is called [BHU 1979; A MU 1983; EAMCET 1980, 83; MA DT Bihar 1980; CPMT 1986, 90, 92; NCERT 1978, 84; RPMT 1997; CBSE PMT 1991; MP PET 1986, 99] 5. 1 1 (d) 6, 0, 0, 2 2 The correct ground state electronic configuration of chromium atom is[IIT 1989, 94; MP PMT 1993; EA MCET 1997; (c) 5, 1, 1, (a) Hund's rule (b) Aufbau's principle (c) Uncertainty principle (d) Pauli's exclusion principle Nitrogen has the electronic configuration 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 1x 2 p 1y 2 p 1z and not 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p x2 2 p 1y 2 p z0 which is 10. ISM Dh anbad 1994; AFMC 1997; Bihar MEE 1996; MP PET 1995, 97; CPMT 1999; Kerala PMT 2003] 11. (a) [ Ar] 3d 5 4 s 1 (b) [ Ar] 3d 4 4 s 2 (c) [ AR]3d 6 4 s 0 (d) [ Ar]4 d 5 4 s 1 2 p orbitals have (a) n 1, l 2 [NCERT 1981; MP PMT 1993, 97] (b) n 1, l 0 (c) n 2, l 1 12. 13. 14. (d) n 2, l 0 Electronic configuration of H is (a) 1s 0 (b) 1s 1 (c) 1s 2 (d) 1s 1 2 s 1 The quantum numbers for the outerm ost electron of an 1 elem ent are given below as n 2, l 0, m 0, s . The 2 atom s is [EA MCET 1978] (a) Lithium (b) Bery llium (c) Hy drogen (d) Boron Principal quantum num ber of an atom represents [EA MCET 1979; IIT 1983; MNR 1990;UPSEAT 2000, 02] 15. (a) (b) (c) (d) An Size of the orbital Spin angular m om entum Orbital angular m om entum Space orientation of the orbital elem ent has the electronic determ ined by (a) Aufbau's principle (b) Pauli's exclusion principle (c) Hund's rule (d) Uncertainty principle 6. Which one of the following configuration represents a noble gas [NCERT 1973] 16. 6 (a) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 7. 2 2 2 6 (b) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s1 (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 sp6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 ,4 s 2 The electronic configuration of silver atom in ground state is 17. (a) [Kr]3d 4s 1 (c) [Kr] 4 d 5 s 10 8. 9. 1 (b) [ Xe] 4 f 5 d 6 s 14 10 1 (d) [Kr] 4 d 9 5 s 2 Principal, azimuthal and m agnetic quantum numbers are respectively related to [CPMT 1988; A IIMS 1999] (a) Size, shape and orientation (b) Shape, size and orientation (c) Size, orientation and shape (d) None of the abov e Correct set of four quantum numbers for valence electron of rubidium (Z = 3 7 ) is (b) 5, 1, 0, 1 2 l m ms (a) 3 2 –2 (+ ) 1 2 (b) 4 0 0 (–) 1 2 (c) 3 2 –3 (+ ) 1 2 (d) 5 3 0 (–) 1 2 18. If n 3 , then the v alue of ' l' which is incorrect 19. (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 Which orbital is dum b-bell shaped [CPMT 1994] [IIT 1984; JIPMER 1999; UPSEAT 2003] 1 (a) 5, 0, 0, 2 (a) Size of orbitals (b) Shape of orbitals (c) Orientation of orbitals (d) Nuclear stability Which of the following sets of quantum num bers represent an impossible arrangement[IIT 1986; MP PET 1995] n [CPMT 1984, 93] 10 (a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 The m agnetic quantum num ber specifies [MNR 1986; BHU 1982; CPMT 1989, 94; [CPMT 1983, 89, 93;1999; NCERT 1973; MPAMU PMT (Engg.) 1989; 1999] MP PET AFMC 1999; DPMT 1984] 2 configuration 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 2 . Its v alency electrons are [DPMT 1982, 83, 89; MP PMT/PET 1988; EAMCET 1988] 2 [CPMT 1985] [MP PMT 1986; MP PET/PMT 1998] 60 Structure 20. 21. of atom (a) s -orbital (b) p -orbital (c) d -orbital (d) f -orbital [MNR 1988; UPSEAT 1999, 2000; Kerala PMT 2003] The total number of unpaired electrons in d - orbitals of atom s of element of atomic number 29 is [CPMT 1983] (a) 1 0 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 5 (a) (b) (c) (d) 32. The shape of 2 p orbital is [CPMT 1983; NCERT 1979] 22. 23. (a) Spherical (b) Ellipsoidal (c) Dum b-bell (d) Py ram idal The m agnetic quantum number for a n electron when the v alue of principal quantum num ber is 2 can hav e 33. (a) 3 v alues (b) 2 v alues (c) 9 v alues (d) 6 v alues Which one is the correct outer configuration of chromium 34. (b) (c) [A IIMS 1997; J&K CET 2005] (a) 2n 35. The following has zero valency [DPMT 1991] (a) Sodium (b) Bery llium (c) Alum inium (d) Kry pton The number of electrons in the valence shell of calcium is 36. [IIT 1975] 27 . (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 4 The valence electron in the carbon atom are [MNR 1982] (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 For the dum b-bell shaped orbital, the v alue of l is [CPMT 1987, 2003] (a) 3 (c) 0 28. (b) 1 (d) 2 37 . Chrom ium has the electronic configuration 4 s1 3d 5 rather than 4 s 2 3d 4 because (a) 4 s and 3 d hav e the sam e energy (b) 4 s has a higher energy than 3 d (c) 4 s 1 is m ore stable than 4 s 2 (d) 4 s 1 3d 5 half-filled is m or e stable than 4 s 2 3d 4 29. The electronic configuration of calcium ion (Ca 2 ) is [CMC V ellore 1991] (a) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 ,4 s 2 38. (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 sp 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 ,4 s 1 2 2 6 2 6 (c) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p 3d 2 2 6 2 6 0 (e) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p ,4 s The structure of external m ost shell of inert gases is [JIPMER 1991] 2 3 (a) s p 31. (b) 2n 2 (c) n (d) n 2 The number of orbitals in the fourth principal quantum num ber will be (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 1 2 (d) 1 6 Which set of quantum numbers are not possible from the following 1 (a) n 3, l 2, m 0, s 2 1 (b) n 3, l 2, m 2, s 2 1 (c) n 3, l 3, m 3, s 2 1 (d) n 3, l 0, m 0, s 2 The four quantum number for the valence shell electron or last electron of sodium (Z = 11) is [MP PMT 1999] 1 (a) n 2, l 1, m 1, s 2 1 (b) n 3, l 0, m 0, s 2 1 (c) n 3, l 2, m 2, s 2 1 (d) n 3, l 2, m 2, s 2 The explanation for the presence of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be giv en by [NCERT 1979; RPMT 1999; DCE 1999, 2002; CPMT 2001; MP PMT 2002; Pb. PMT / CET 2002] 2 2 2 6 2 6 5 (d) 1s ,2 s sp ,3 s 3 p 3d 30. (a) Spherically symmetrical (b) Has octahedral sy m m etry (c) Has tetrahedral sy m m etry (d) Depends on the atom If m agnetic quantum number of a given atom represented by –3 , then what will be its principal quantum num ber [BHU 2005] (d) 26. [MNR 1987] (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 The total number of orbitals in an energy level designated by principal quantum number n is equal to [A IIMS 1980, 91; BHU 1995] 25. A com pletely filled d -orbital (d 10 ) [CPMT 1984] (a) 24. Principal quantum num ber Azim uthal quantum num ber Magnetic quantum num ber Spin quantum num ber 2 6 (b) s p 1 2 (c) s p (d) d 10 s 2 The two electrons in K sub-shell will differ in 39. (a) Pauli's exclusion principle (b) Hund's rule (c) Aufbau's principle (d) Uncertainty principle The m axim um energy is present in any electron at (a) Nucleus (b) Ground state (c) First excited state Structure of atom (d) Infinite distance from the nucleus 40. 41. 42. The electron density between 1s and 2 s orbital is (a) High (b) Low (c) Zero (d) None of these For ns orbital, the magnetic quantum number has v alue (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) – 1 (d) 0 The m axim um num ber of electrons that can be (b) n 4 , l 0, m 0, s (c) n 3, l 1, m 1, s 44. 45. 46. 47 . 48. 50. 53. (a) 4 s (b) 4 f 55. The num ber of orbitals in 2 p sub-shell is (c) 4 p (d) 4 d 56. (a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 The number of orbitals in d sub-shell is (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 If v alue of azimuthal quantum number l is 2 , then total possible v alues of m agnetic quantum num ber will be (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 2 57 . A sub-shell l 2 can take how m any electrons The ty pe of orbitals present in Fe is (a) s (b) s and p 58. (a) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 9 ,4 s 2 (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 ,4 s1 (c) 1s 2 .2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 ,4 s 2 4 p 6 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 [NCERT 1973; MP PMT 1996] Which electronic configuration for oxy gen is correct according to Hund's rule of m ultiplicity (a) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p x2 2 p 1y 2 p 1z (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p x2 2 p y2 2 p z0 (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p x3 2 p 1y 2 p z0 (d) None of these Pauli's exclusion principle states that [MNR 1983; A MU 1984] (b) Two electrons in the sam e atom cannot hav e the sam e spin (a) Circular (b) Dum b-bell (c) Double dum b-bell (d) Trigonal In any atom which sub-shell will have the highest energy in the following (c) The electrons tend to occupy different orbitals as far as possible (d) Electrons tend to occupy lower energy orbitals preferentially (b) 3 d (e) None of the abov e 59. For d electrons, the azim uthal quantum num ber is [MNR 1983; CPMT 1984] 2 2 6 2 6 7 2 (b) 1s ,2 s sp ,3 s 3 p 3d ,4 s 60. (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 For p -orbital, the m agnetic quantum number has v alue (a) 2 (c) – 1 , 0, + 1 2 2 6 2 6 8 2 (d) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p 3d ,4 s The four quantum numbers of the outermost orbital of K (atomic no. =19) are [MP PET 1993, 94] 1 (a) n 2, l 0, m 0, s 2 (b) 1 0 (d) 6 (a) Two electrons in the same atom can hav e the sam e energy The shape of d xy orbital will be 2 2 6 2 6 5 1 (c) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p 3d ,4 s [MNR 1981] [NCERT 1973, 78] (a) 3 (c) 5 (d) s, p, d and f (c) 4 s (d) 3 s Which electronic configuration is not observ ing the ( n l ) rule The electronic configuration of copper ( 29 Cu ) is [DPMT 1983; BHU 1980; AFMC 1981; CBSE PMT 1991; MP PMT 1995] (a) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 1 ,4 s 2 52. 1 2 The angular m omentum of an electron depends on (a) Principal quantum num ber (b) Azim uthal quantum num ber (c) Magnetic quantum num ber (d) All of these 54. (a) 3 p 51. 1 2 For a giv en value of quantum num ber l , the num ber of allowed v alues of m is giv en by (a) l 2 (b) 2l 2 (c) 2l 1 (d) l 1 The num ber of radial nodes of 3 s and 2 p orbitals are respectively. [IIT -JEE 2005] (a) 2 , 0 (b) 0, 2 (c) 1 , 2 (d) 2 , 1 Which of the sub-shell is circular (c) s, p and d 49. 1 2 (d) n 4 , l 2, m 1, s accom m odated in the M th shell is (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 1 8 (d) 3 2 43. 61 61. (b) 4 , – 4 (d) 0 For n 3 energy level, the number of possible orbitals (all kinds) are [BHU 1981; CPMT 1985; MP PMT 1995] (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 9 62 Structure 62. 63. of atom Which of the following ions is not hav ing the configuration of neon (b) Mg 2 (a) 4 s 3d (b) 4 s 4 p (c) Na (d) Cl (c) 4 s 3d (d) 4 s 3 p Elem ents upto atomic number 103 have been synthesized and studied. If a newly discov ered elem ent is found to have an atomic number 106, its electronic configuration will be [A IIMS 1980] (a) [Rn]5 f ,6 d ,7 s 2 (b) [Rn]5 f ,6 d 1 ,7 s 2 7 p 3 (c) [Rn]5 f ,6 d ,7 s 0 (d) [Rn]5 f ,6 d ,7 s 4 14 6 73. Fe (atom ic num ber = 2 6) atom has the electronic arrangement [NCERT 1974; MNR 1980] (a) 2 , 8, 8, 8 (b) 2 , 8, 1 6 (c) 2 , 8,1 4 , 2 (d) 2 , 8, 1 2 , 4 74. Cu 2 will hav e the following electronic configuration 14 14 5 [MP PMT 1985] (a) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p 3d 1 2 66. 68. When the azim uthal quantum num ber has a v alue of [MP PET 1995] l 0 , the shape of the orbital is (a) Rectangular (b) Spherical 10 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 ,4 s 1 75. [MA DT Bihar 1982; AIIMS 1989] (a) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p 3d 6 (a) 1s 2 ,2 s 1 ,2 p x3 (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p x2 2 p1y (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 1x 2 p 1y 2 p 1z (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 1x 2 p y2 In a m ulti-electron atom, which of the following orbitals described by the three quantum m em bers will hav e the sam e energy in the absence of m agnetic and electric fields 76. [MP PMT 1986, 87; Orissa JEE 1997] 77. (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 1 8 (d) 3 2 Which element is represented by the following electronic configuration [MP PMT 1987] 2p 2s (3 ) n 2, l 1, m 1 (4 ) n 3, l 2, m 0 (b) (2 ) and (3 ) 7 8. 1 (a) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p 6 2 2 (b) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 2 3 p 4 ,4 s1 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 1 3 p 4 ,4 s 2 The shape of s -orbital is (a) Py ram idal (b) Spherical (c) Tetrahedral (d) Dum b-bell shaped 79. (b) 4 f -orbital (c) 4 s -orbital (d) 4 d -orbital (b) Oxy gen (d) Neon If the v alue of azim uthal quantum num ber is 3 , the possible v alues of m agnetic quantum num ber would be (a) 0, 1 , 2 , 3 (b) 0, – 1 , – 2 , – 3 (c) 0, 1 , 2 , 3 (d) 1 , 2 , 3 Kry pton (36 Kr) has the electronic configuration (18 Ar) [CBSE PMT 1989; CPMT 1989; EAMCET 1991] When 3 d orbital is com plete, the new electron will enter the (a) 4 p -orbital 4 s 2 ,3d 10 ,4 p 6 . The 37 th electron will go into which one of the following sub-lev els [NCERT 1978I] [EA MCET 1980; MP PMT 1995] [MP PMT 1987; RPMT 1999; AFMC 2002; KCET 2002] 6 (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 5 (a) Nitrogen (c) Fluorine [A MU 1982] 6 6 com prise the 3 rd quantum shell n 3 1s 2 2 (d) None of these How m any electrons can be fit into the orbitals that (2 ) n 2, l 0, m 0 2 6 (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 5 ,4 s 1 (1 ) n 1, l 0, m 0 (c) (3 ) and (4 ) (d) (4 ) and (5) Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of an elem ent with atom ic num ber 1 7 2 (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 4 ,4 s 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0 The electronic configuration of an elem ent with atom ic number 7 i.e. nitrogen atom is [CPMT 1982, 84, 87] Which one is the electronic con figuration of Fe 2 2 (c) Dum bbell (d) Unsy m m etrical The m agnetic quantum number for v alency electrons of sodium is [CPMT 1988; MH CET 1999] (a) (1 ) and (2 ) 7 1. 6 (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 9 (b) Sodium and potassium (5) n 3, l 2, m 0 70. 2 (a) Lithium and sodium [A IEEE 2005] 69. 6 (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 9 ,4 s 1 (a) 3 67 . 2 Ions which have the sam e electronic configuration are those of (c) Potassium and calcium (d) Oxy gen and chlorine 65. In a potassium atom, electronic energy lev els are in the following order [EA MCET 1979; DPMT 1991] (a) F 14 64. 72. 80. (a) 4 f (b) 4 d (c) 3 p (d) 5 s 1 and a 2 m agnetic quantum number of 1 , it cannot be presented in an [CBSE PMT 1989; UPSEA T 2001] If an electron has spin quantum num ber of Structure of atom 81. (a) d -orbital (b) f -orbital (c) p -orbital (d) s -orbital 93. The azim uthal quantum num ber is related to [BHU 1987, 95] (a) Size 82. 83. 84. 85. (b) Shape (c) Orientation (d) Spin The total number of electrons that can be accomm odated in all the orbitals having principal quantum number 2 and azimuthal quantum number 1 is [CPMT 1971, 89, 91] (a) 2 (b) 4 94. (c) 6 (d) 8 Electronic configuration of C is 95. (a) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 2 (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 3 (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 There is no difference between a 2 p and a 3 p orbital regarding [BHU 1981] (a) Shape (b) Size (c) Energy (d) Value of n The electronic configuration of chrom ium is 86. (b) [ Ne ]3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 5 ,4 s 1 (c) [ Ne ]3 s 2 3 p 6 ,4 s 2 4 p 4 (d) [ Ne ]3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 1 ,4 s 2 4 p 3 The shape of p -orbital is (a) Elliptical (c) Dum b-bell 87 . 88. 89. 90. 96. 91. EA MCET 1991; RPMT 2002; CBSE PMT 2002] 92. (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 0 (d) 1 4 An ion has 1 8 electrons in the outerm ost shell, it is [CBSE PMT 1990] (a) Cu (b) Th 4 The quantum number which m ay be designated by s, p, d BHU 1980] (b) l (d) m s Which of the following represents the correct sets of the four quantum num bers of a 4 d electron 1 2 (b) 4 , 2 , 1 , 0 1 1 (d) 4 , 2, 1, 2 2 Which of the following statem ents is not correct for an electron that has the quantum numbers n 4 and m 2 [MNR 1993] (a) The electron m ay have the quantum num ber s 1 2 (b) The electron m ay have the quantum num ber l 2 (c) The electron m ay have the quantum num ber l 3 (d) The electron m ay hav e the quantum num ber l 0, 1, 2, 3 97 . The set of quantum num bers not applicable for an electron in an atom is [MNR 1994] (a) n 1, l 1, m l 1, m s 1 / 2 (b) n 1, l 0, m l 0, m s 1 / 2 (c) n 1, l 0, m l 0, m s 1 / 2 (b) 3 d 4 ,4 s 1 (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 1 8 (d) 3 2 For azim uthal quantum num ber l 3 , the m axim um num ber of electrons will be [CBSE PMT 1991; (d) 3d, 4 p, 4 s, 4 d, 5 s (c) 4 , 3, 2, [MP PET 1993] (c) 3 d 3 ,4 s 2 (d) 3d 2 ,4 s 2 4 p 2 The principal quantum number represents [CPMT 1991] (a) Shape of an orbital (b) Distance of electron from nucleus (c) Num ber of electrons in an orbit (d) Num ber of orbitals in an orbit When the azim uthal quantum num ber has a v alue of [MP PET 1993] l 1 , the shape of the orbital is (a) Unsy m m etrical (b) Spherically symmetrical (c) Dum b-bell (d) Com plicated How m any electrons can be accommodated in a sub-shell for which n 3, l 1 [CBSE PMT 1990] (c) 5 s, 4 p, 3d, 4 d, 5 s (a) 4 , 3, 2, The electronic configuration (outerm ost) of Mn 2 ion (atom ic num ber of Mn 25 ) in its ground state is (a) 3 d 5 ,4 s 0 (b) 4 s, 3d, 4 p, 5 s, 4 d [MNR 1992; UPSEAT 2001; J&K CET 2005] [MP PMT 1993] (b) Spherical (d) Com plex geom etrical (a) 3d, 4 s, 4 p, 4 d, 5 s (a) n (c) m l [MP PMT 1993; MP PET 1995; BHU 2001; BCECE 2005] (a) [ Ne ]3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 4 ,4 s 2 (c) Cs (d) K The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be and f instead of number is [CPMT 1975] 63 (d) n 2, l 0, m l 0, m s 1 / 2 98. Correct configuration of Fe 3 [2 6] is [CPMT 1994; BHU 1995; KCET 1992] 2 2 6 2 (a) 1s ,2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p 6 3d 5 (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 sp 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 3 ,4 s 2 (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 6 ,4 s 2 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 5 ,4 s 1 99. Azim uthal quantum number for last electron of Na atom is [BHU 1995] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 100. A 3 p orbital has [IIT 1995] (a) Two spherical nodes (b) Two non-spherical nodes (c) One spherical and one non -spherical nodes (d) One spherical and two non -spherical nodes 101. All electrons on the 4 p sub-shell m ust be characterized by the quantum number(s) [MP PET 1996] 1 (a) n 4 , m 0, s (b) l 1 2 [ 64 Structure of atom 1 1 (d) s 2 2 102. The electronic configuration of the elem ent of atom ic num ber 2 7 is (c) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 4 (c) l 0, s (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 1 3d 3 110. Which of the following configuration is correct for iron [CBSE PMT 1999] (a) 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p , 4 s () 4 p ()()() 5 s () 2 2 6 2 6 (a) 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 3d 2 (b) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 3d ()()(), 4 s () 4 p () 2 6 2 6 2 6 2 6 103. When the value of the principal quantum number n is 3 , the permitted values of the azimuthal quantum num bers l and the m agnetic quantum num bers m , are l 0 (a) 1 2 1, 0, 1 2,1, 0, 1,2 1 (b) 2 3 1 2, 1, 1 3,2, 1, 2,3 0 (c) 1 2 0 1, 2, 3 3, 2, 1, 2,3 m 0 1 0, 1 0, 1, 2 0, 1, 2, 3 (d) 2 3 104. The number of possible spatial orientations of an electron in an atom is giv en by its (a) Spin quantum num ber (b) Spin angular m om entum (c) Magnetic quantum num ber (d) Orbital angular m om entum 105. Which of the following sets of orbitals m ay degenerate (a) 2 s, 2 p x , 2 p y (b) 3 s, 3 p x ,3d xy (c) 1s, 2 s, 3 s 111. 1 2 (b) n 3, l 0, m 0, s 1 2 (c) n 3, l 1, m 1, s 1 2 112. Which quantum number will determine the shape of the subshell [CPMT 1999; Pb. PMT 1998] (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) [MP PET 1997] (d) 2 108. What is the electronic configuration of Cu (Z 29) of least position [MP PET /PMT 1998; MP PET 2001] 1 8 (a) [ Ar] 4 s 3d (b) [ Ar] 4 s 2 3d 10 4 p 1 (d) [ Ar] 3 d 9 109. The correct electronic configuration of Ti(Z 22) atom is [MP PMT 1999] 2 2 6 2 6 4 (b) 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 3d Principal quantum num ber Azim uthal quantum num ber Magnetic quantum num ber Spin quantum num ber 113. For the n 2 energy level, how many orbitals of all kinds are possible [Bih a r CEE 1995] (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 114. Which one is in the ground state [DPMT 1996] (c) Ne (d) F 107 . An electron has principal quantum num ber 3 . The num ber of its (i) sub-shells and (ii) orbitals would be respectiv ely 2 2 6 2 6 2 2 (a) 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 4 s 3d 1 2 (d) n 3, l 2, m 1, s (b) (c) [ Ar] 4 s 1 3d 10 5 (a) n 4 , l 0, m 0, s (d) 2 p x , 2 p y , 2 p z (b) 3 and 7 (d) 2 and 5 6 (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3d 6 Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy [CPMT 1999] 106. The set of quantum num bers n 3, l 0, m 0, s 1 / 2 belongs to the elem ent (a) Mg (b) Na (a) 3 and 5 (c) 3 and 9 2 (c) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3d 7 (d) 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p , 3d ()()()()() 4 s () 2 6 (b) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3d 5 (c) 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p , 3d ()()()(), 4 s () 2 2 115. When the principal quantum number (n 3) , the possible v alues of azim uthal quantum num ber ( l ) is [Bihar MEE 1996; KCET 2000] (a) 0, 1 , 2 , 3 (b) 0, 1 , 2 (c) – 2 , – 1 , 0, 1 , 2 (d) 1 , 2 , 3 (e) 0, 1 116. Which statem ent is not correct for n 5 , m 3 [CPMT 1996] (a) l 4 (b) l 0, 1, 3; s 1 2 Structure of atom (c) l 3 117 . 2 2 (d) All are correct 6 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 (a) Al 1 shows configuration of [CPMT 1996] in ground state (b) Ne in excited state (c) Mg in excited state (d) None of these 118. Fiv e v alence electrons of p 15 are labelled as AB 3s X Y 3p Z 1 , the group of 2 electrons with three of the quantum num ber sam e are If the spin quantum of B and Z is [JIPMER 1997] 119. (a) AB, XYZ , BY (b) AB (c) XYZ, AZ (d) AB, XYZ Electronic configuration of Sc 21 is (a) 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 4 s 3d 2 2 6 2 6 2 1 2 2 6 2 6 1 2 (b) 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 4 s 3d [BHU 1997] (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 2 4 s 2 3d 2 120. If n l 6 , then total possible num ber of subshells would be [RPMT 1997] (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5 electron hav ing the quantum num bers 1 would be in the orbital n 4, l 3, m 0 , s 2 [Or issa JEE 1997] (a) 3 s (b) 3 p (c) 4 d (d) 4 f 122. Which of the following sets of quantum num bers is not allowed [Or issa JEE 1997] (a) n 1, l 0, m 0, s (d) [ Xe]4 f 6 5 d 2 6 s 2 125. An e has m agnetic quantum number as 3 , what is its principal quantum number [BHU 1998] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 126. The number of quantum numbers required to describe an electron in an atom com pletely is [CET Pu n e 1998] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 127 . The electronic configuration 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 1x 2 p 1y 2 p 1z [A FMC 1997; Pb. PMT 1999; CBSE PMT 2001; AIIMS 2001] (a) Oxy gen (b) Nitrogen (c) Hy drogen (d) Fluorine 128. Which one of the following set of quantum numbers is not possible for 4 p electron [EA MCET 1998] (a) n 4 , l 1, m 1, s (c) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 0 3d 3 121. An (c) [ Xe]4 s 3 5 d 5 6 s 2 1 2 65 1 2 (b) n 4 , l 1, m 0, s 1 2 (c) n 4 , l 1, m 2, s 1 2 1 2 129. Which of the following orbital is not possible[RPMT 1999] (a) 3 f (b) 4 f (c) 5 f (d) 6 f 130. Which set of quantum numbers for an electron of an atom is not possible [RPMT ; DCE 1999] (a) n 1, l 0, m 0, s 1 / 2 (d) n 4 , l 1, m 1, s (b) n 1, l 1, m 1, s 1 / 2 (c) n 1, l 0, m 0, s 1 / 2 (d) n 2, l 1, m 1, s 1 / 2 131. Electronic configuration of ferric ion is (a) [ Ar] 3 d [RPET 2000] (b) [ Ar] 3 d 5 7 (c) [ Ar] 3 d (d) [ Ar] 3 d 8 132. What is the m aximum number of electrons which can be accom modated in an atom in which the highest principal quantum num ber value is 4 [MP PMT 2000] (a) 1 0 (b) 1 8 (c) 3 2 (d) 54 133. Which of the following electronic configurations is not possible 3 (b) n 1, l 1, m 0, s 1 2 (c) n 2, l 1, m 1, s 1 2 (d) n 2, l 1, m 0, s 1 2 123. For which of the following sets of four quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest energy [CBSE PMT 1994] n (a) 3 (b) 4 l 2 2 (c) 4 (d) 5 1 0 m 1 1 0 0 s + 1 /2 + 1 /2 –1 /2 –1 /2 124. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (atom ic no. 64) is 8 9 2 (a) [ Xe]4 s 5 d 6 s 7 1 2 (b) [ Xe]4 s 5 d 6 s [CPMT 2000] (a) 1s 2 s 2 (c) 3d 10 2 2 2 (b) 1s 2 s 2 p 2 6 2 (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2 3 s 1 134. The electronic configuration of an elem ent is 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 5 4 s1 . This represents its 4s 4 p [IIT Screening 2000] (a) Excited state (b) Ground state (c) Cationic form (d) Anionic form 135. Which of the following set of quantum num bers is [CBSE PMT 1997] possible [A IIMS 2001] 66 Structure of atom 1 2 1 (b) n 3; l 4 ; m 0 and s 2 1 (c) n 4 ; l 0; m 2 and s 2 1 (d) n 4 ; l 4 ; m 3 and s 2 136. Which of the following set of quantum num ber is not v alid (a) n 3; l 2; m 2 and s [A IIMS 2001] (a) n 1, l 2 (b) 3 2, m 1 (c) m 3, l 0 (d) 3 4, l 2 137 . Which one pair of atom s or ions will hav e sam e configuration [JIPMER 2001] (a) F and Ne (b) Li and He (c) Cl and Ar (d) Na and K 138. Which of the following sets of quantum num ber is not possible [MP PET 2001] 1 (a) n 3; l 2; m 0; s 2 (b) n 3; l 0; m 0; s 1 2 (a) Hund’s rule (b) Aufbau’s principle (c) Pauli’s exclusion principle (d) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle 145. Which of the following has maximum energy [A IIMS 2002] 3s 3p 3d 3s 3p 3d 3s 3p 3d 3s 3p 3d (a) (b) (c) (d) 146. The total m agnetic quantum num bers for d-orbital is given by (b) 0, 1 , 2 (d) 5 (a) 2 (c) 0, 1 , 2 147 . The outer electronic structure 3 s 2 3 p 5 is possessed by [Pb. PMT 2002; Pb. CET 2001] 1 (c) n 3; l 0; m 1; s 2 1 2 139. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is correct for the 19th electron of chromium [DCE 2001] n l m s (d) n 3; l 1; m 0; s (a) 3 0 0 1 /2 (b) 3 2 –2 1 /2 (c) 4 0 0 1 /2 (d) 4 1 –1 1 /2 (a) Cl (b) O (c) Ar (d) Br 148. Which of the following set of quantum num ber is not possible [Pb. PMT 2002] n l m1 m2 (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 3 3 5 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 –1 + 1 /2 – 1 /2 0 + 1 /2 149. The configuration 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 5 , 3 s 1 shows[Pb. PMT 2002] (a) Excited state of O 2 140. When the v alue of azim uthal quantum num ber is 3 , (b) Excited state of neon magnetic quantum number can have values[DPMT 2001] (c) Excited state of fluorine (a) + 1 , 0, – 1 (d) Ground state of fluorine atom (b) + 2 , + 1 , 0, – 1 , – 2 150. The quantum num ber ‘m’ of a free gaseous atom is (c) – 3 , – 2 , – 1 , – 0, + 1 , + 2 , + 3 associated with [A IIMS 2003] (d) + 1 , – 1 (a) The effectiv e v olum e of the orbital 141. The quantum num bers n 2, l 1 represent [A FMC 2002] (b) The shape of the orbital (a) 1 s orbital (b) 2 s orbital (c) The spatial orientation of the orbital (c) 2 p orbital (d) 3 d orbital (d) The energy of the orbital in the absence of a m agnetic 142. The m agnetic quantum num ber of v alence electron of field sodium (Na) is [RPMT 2002] 151. Correct statement is [BHU 2003] (a) 3 (b) 2 1 4 2 10 2 (a) K 4 s , Cr 3d 4 s , Cu 3d 4 s (c) 1 (d) 0 143. Azimuthal quantum number defines [A IIMS 2002] (b) K 4 s 2 , Cr 3d 4 4 s 2 , Cu 3d 10 4 s 2 (a) e/m ratio of electron (c) K 4 s 2 , Cr 3d 5 4 s 1 , Cu 3d 10 4 s 2 (b) Spin of electron (c) Angular m om entu m of electron (d) K 4 s 1 , Cr 3d 5 4 s 1 , Cu 3d 10 4 s 1 (d) Magnetic m om entum of electron 152. Number of orbitats in h sub-shell is [BHU 2003] 144. Quantum numbers of an atom can be defined on the basis of [A IIMS 2002] (a) 1 1 (b) 1 5 [ Structure of atom (c) 1 7 153. Electronic configuration (d) 1 9 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 5 , 4 s 1 represents [CPMT 2003] (a) Ground state (b) Excited state (c) Anionic state (d) All of these 154. Which of the following sets is possible for quantum num bers (a) Heisenberg’s principle (b) Hund’s rule (c) Aufbau principle (d) Pauli exclusion principle 162. The electronic configuration of elem ent with atom ic number 24 is [Pb. CET 2004] (a) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 4 ,4 s 2 [RPET 2003] (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 (a) n 4, l 3, m 2, s 0 (c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 6 (b) n 4 , l 4 , m 2, s 1 2 (c) n 4 , l 4 , m 2, s 1 2 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 5 4 s 1 163. The m axim um num ber of electrons in p -orbital with [Pb. CET 2003] n 5, m 1 is 1 (d) n 4 , l 3, m 2, s 2 155. For principle quantum number n 4 the total number of orbitals having l 3 [A IIMS 2004] (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 9 156. The num ber of 2 p electrons hav ing spin quantum num ber s 1 / 2 are [KCET 2004] (a) 6 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3 157 . Which of the following sets of quantum num bers is correct for an electron in 4 f orbital [A IEEE 2004] (a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 1 4 (d) 1 0 164. Num ber of two electron can have the sam e v alues of …… quantum num bers [UPSEA T 2004] (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four 165. The number of orbitals present in the shell with n 4 is [UPSEAT 2004] (a) 1 6 (b) 8 (c) 1 8 (d) 3 2 166. Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible [MHCET 2003] (a) 1s 2 s 2 1 (a) n 4 , l 3, m 1, s 2 (b) n 4 , l 4 , m 4 , s 167 . 1 2 1 2 1 2 (b) 4 , 0, 1 and 1 2 1 1 (d) 4 , 1 , 1 and 2 2 160. Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible according to Hund’s rule (c) 4 , 0, 0 and (a) 1s 2 2 s 2 (b) 1s 2 2 s 1 (c) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 1x 2 p 1y 2 p 1x (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p x2 2 2 (b) 1s ,2 s 2 p 6 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 2 ,3 s 1 p x orbital can accom m odate [MNR 1990; IIT 1983; MADT Bihar 1995; BCECE 2005] 158. Consider the ground state of (Z 24) . The num bers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers, l 1 and 2 are, respectiv ely [A IEEE 2004] (a) 1 6 and 4 (b) 1 2 and 5 (c) 1 2 and 4 (d) 1 6 and 5 159. The four quantum num bers of the v alence electron of potassium are [DPMT 2004] (a) 4 , 1 , 0 and 2 (c) [ Ar] 3d 10 ,4 s 2 4 p 2 1 (c) n 4 , l 3, m 4 , s 2 (d) n 3, l 2, m 2, s 67 (e) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p x2 2 p 1y 2 p 1z 161. The ground state term sy m bol for an electronic state is governed by [UPSEA T 2004] (a) 4 electrons (b) 6 electrons (c) 2 electrons with parallel spins (d) 2 electrons with opposite spins 168. The m axim um num ber of electrons that can be accom m odated in ' f ' sub shell is [CPMT 1983, 84; MP PET/PMT 1988; BITS 1988] (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 3 2 (d) 1 4 169. The number of electrons which can be accom m odated in an orbital is [DPMT 1981; A FMC 1988] (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four 170. The num ber of electrons in the atom which has 2 0 protons in the nucleus[CPMT 1981, 93; CBSE PMT 1989] (a) 2 0 (b) 1 0 (c)a l3a0PMT 2004] (d) 4 0 [Ker 171. The m aximum number of electrons accommodated in 5 f orbitals are [MP PET 1996] (a) 5 (c) 1 4 (b) 1 0 (d) 1 8 172. The m aximum number of electrons in an atom with l 2 and n 3 is [MP PET /PMT 1998] 68 Structure of atom (a) 2 (c) 1 2 (a) 6 (c) 3 (b) 6 (d) 1 0 173. The configuration 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 3 s 1 shows [A IIMS 1997] 174. For sodium atom the number of electrons with m 0 will be [RPMT 1999] (b) 7 (d) 8 175. The number of electrons that can be accom m odated in [Ku r u ksh et r a CEE dz 2 orbital is 2002] (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 2 176. Num ber of unpaired electrons in 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3 is [CPMT 1982; MP PMT 1987; BHU 1987; CBSE PMT 1990; CET Pune 1998; AIIMS 2000] (a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 1 177. Total number of unpaired electrons in an atom of atom ic num ber 2 9 is [CPMT 1984, 93] (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2 17 8. The num ber of unpaired electrons in 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 4 is (a) Fe 2 (b) CO 2 (c) Ni 2 (d) Mn 2 187 . Which of the m etal ion will hav e highest num ber of unpaired electrons (a) Cu (b) Fe 2 (c) Fe 3 (d) Co 2 188. The m axim um num ber of unpaired electron can be present in d orbitals are (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 189. The m olecule hav ing one unpaired electron is (a) NO (b) CO (c) CN (d) O 2 190. A filled or half-filled set of p or d -orbitals is spherically sy m m etric. Point out the species which has spherical sy m m etry [NCERT 1983] (a) Na (b) C 191. [NCERT 1984; CPMT 1991; MP PMT 1996, 2002] (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 1 179. The m axim um num ber of electrons that can be accom m odated in a 3 d subshell is (a) 2 (b) 1 0 (c) 6 (d) 1 4 180. The m aximum number of electrons which each sub-shell can occupy is [Pb. CET 1989] (a) 2n 2 (c) 2(2l 1) (b) Cu (c) Cd (d) Hg 186. Which of the following m etal ions will hav e m axim um number of unpaired electrons [CPMT 1996] (d) Excited state of ion O 2 (a) 1 0 3d 10 4 s 0 electronic configuration exhibits by (a) Zn (a) Ground state of fluorine atom (b) Excited state of fluorine atom (c) Excited state of neon atom (a) 2 (c) 9 185. (b) 4 (d) 1 192. 193. (b) 2n (d) (2l 1) (c) Cl (d) Fe The atom of the element having atomic number 14 should hav e [A MU 1984] (a) One unpaired electron (b) Two unpaired electrons (c) Three unpaired electrons (d)Four unpaired electrons An atom has 2 electrons in K shell, 8 electrons in L shell and 6 electrons in M shell. The num ber of s -electrons present in that elem ent is [CPMT 1989] (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 1 0 The num ber of unpaired electrons in carbon atom in excited state is [MNR 1987] (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four Maxim um num ber of electrons present in ' N ' shell is 181. Num ber of unpaired electrons in the ground state of bery llium atom is (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) All the abov e 194. 182. How m any unpaired electrons are present in Ni 2 cation (atom ic num ber = 2 8) [IIT 1981; MNR 1984; 195. The number of d electrons in Fe 2 (atom ic num ber of [MNR 1993] Fe 26 ) is not equal to that of the (a) p -electrons in Ne (At. No.= 1 0) MP PMT 1995; Kerala PMT 2003] (a) 0 (c) 4 (b) 2 (d) 6 (b) 3 2 (d) 8 (b) s -electrons in Mg (At. No.= 1 2 ) 183. The number of unpaired electrons in an O 2 m olecule is [MNR 1983] (a) 0 (c) 2 [EA MCET 1984] (a) 1 8 (c) 2 (b) 1 (d) 3 184. The number of unpaired electrons in a chrom ic ion Cr 3 (atomic number = 24) is [MNR 1986; CPMT 1992] (c) d -electrons in Fe (d) p -electrons in Cl (At. No. of Cl = 1 7 ) 4 196. A transition m etal X has a configuration [ Ar]3 d in its 3 oxidation state. Its atomic number is[EA MCET 1990] (a) 2 5 (b) 2 6 (c) 2 2 (d) 1 9 Structure of atom 197 . The total num ber of electrons present in all the p orbitals of brom ine are [MP PET 1994] (a) Fiv e (b) Eighteen (c) Sev enteen (d) Thirty fiv e 198. Which of the following has the m axim um num ber of unpaired electrons [IIT 1996] (a) Mg 2 (b) Ti 3 (c) V 3 (d) Fe 2 199. Which of the following has m ore unpaired d -electrons [CBSE PMT 1999] (a) Zn (b) Fe 2 (c) N 3 (d) Cu 200. Maximum electrons in a d -orbital are (a) 2 (b) 1 0 (c) 6 (d) 1 4 69 (c) Pauli's exclusion principle (d) Uncertainty principle 208. According to Aufbau's principle, which of the three 4 d , 5 p and 5 s will be filled with electrons first[MA DT Bi h a r 19 (a) 4 d (b) 5 p (c) 5 s (d) 4 d and 5 s will be filled sim ultaneously 209. The energy of an electron of 2 p y orbital is [A MU 1984] (a) Greater than that of 2 p x orbital (b) Less than that of 2 p x orbital [CPMT 1999] 201. The num ber of unpaired electrons in Fe 3 (Z 26) are [KCET 2000] (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4 202. How m any unpaired electrons are present in cobalt [ Co] m etal [RPMT 2002] (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7 203. The num ber of unpaired electrons in nitrogen is [Pb. CET 2002] (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) None of these 204. Which of the following has the least energy (a) 2 p (b) 3 p (c) 2 s (d) 4 d 205. Pauli's exclusion principle states that [CPMT 1983, 84] (a) Nucleus of an atom contains no negativ e charge (b) Electrons m ove in circular orbits around the nucleus (c) Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy (d) All the four quantum numbers of two electrons in an atom cannot be equal 206. For the energy lev els in an atom , which one of the following statements is correct [A IIMS 1983] (a) There are sev en principal electron energy lev els (b) The second principal energy lev el can hav e four subenergy levels and contains a maximum of eight electrons (c) The M energy lev el can hav e m axim um of 3 2 electrons (d) The 4 s sub-energy level is at a higher energy than the 3 d sub-energy lev el 207 . The statem ents [A IIMS 1982] (i) In filling a group of orbitals of equal energy , it is energetically preferable to assign electrons to em pty orbitals rather than pair them into a particular orbital. (ii) When two electron s are placed in two different orbitals, energy is lower if the spins are parallel. are v alid for (a) Aufbau principle (b) Hund's rule (c) Equal to that of 2 s orbital (d) Sam e as that of 2 p z orbital 210. Which of the following principles/rules lim its the maximum number of electrons in an orbital to two[CBSE PMT 198 (a) Aufbau principle (b) Pauli's exclusion principle (c) Hund's rule of m axim um m ultiplicity (d) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle 211. The electrons would go to lower energy lev els first and then to higher energy lev els according to which of the following [BHU 1990; MP PMT 1993] (a) Aufbau principle (b) Pauli's exclusion principle (c) Hund's rule of m axim um m ultiplicity (d) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle 212. Energy of atomic orbitals in a particular shell is in the order [A FMC 1990] (a) s p d f (b) s p d f (c) p d f s (d) f d s p 213. Aufbau principle is not satisfied by [MP PMT 1997] (a) Cr and Cl (b) Cu and Ag (c) Cr and Mg (d) Cu and Na 214. Which of the following explains the sequence of filling the electrons in different shells [A IIMS 1998; BHU 1999] (a) Hund's rule (b) Octet rule (c) Aufbau principle (d) All of these 215. Aufbau principle is obey ed in which of the following electronic configurations [A FMC 1999] (a) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 (b) 1s 2 3 p 3 3 s 2 (c) 1s 2 3 s 2 3 p 6 (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 3 s 2 216. Following Hund’s rule which elem ent contains six unpaired electron [RPET 2000] (a) Fe (b) Co (c) Ni (d) Cr 217 . Electron enters the sub-shell for which (n l) v alue is m inim um . This is enunciated as [RPMT 2000] (a) (b) (c) (d) Hund’s rule Aufbau principle Heisenberg uncertainty principle Pauli’s exclusion principle 70 Structure of atom 218. The atom ic orbitals are progressiv ely filled in order of increasing energy . This principle is called as (a) F [MP PET 2001] (a) Hund’s rule (b) Aufbau principle (c) Exclusion principle (d) de-Broglie rule 219. The correct order of increasing energy of atom ic orbitals is 2. [MP PET 2002] (a) 5 p 4 f 6 s 5 d (b) 5 p 6 s 4 f 5 d (c) 4 f 5 p 5 d 6 s (d) 5 p 5d 4 f 6 s 220. The orbital with maximum energy is [CPMT 2002] (a) 3 d (b) 5p (c) 4 s (d) 6 d 221. p-orbitals of an atom in presence of m agnetic field are 3. [Pb. PMT 2002] (a) Two fold degenerate (b) Non degenerate (c) Three fold degenerate (d) None of these 4. 222. Orbital angular momentum for a d-electron is[MP PET 2003] (a) 6h 2 (b) 6h 2 12 h 12h (d) 2 2 223. Number of nodal centres for 2s orbital [RPET 2003] (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 4 (d) 3 224. The orbital angular m om entum of an electron in 2 s orbital is 1 h h (a) (b) 2 2 2 h (d) Zero 2 225. The m aximum num ber of electrons present in an orbit [Pb. PMT 2004] l 3 , is (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 1 0 (d) 1 4 2 226. Number of unpaired electrons in Mn 4 is [DPMT 2005] (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4 227 . Which of the following sequence is correct as per Aufbau principle [DPMT 2005] (a) 3 s 3d 4 s 4 p (b) 1s 2 p 4 s 3d 5. (c) 2s 1 (d) 1s 2 (c) n, p, , e (d) n, , p, e The electronic configuration of a dipositive metal M 2 is 2 , 8, 14 and its atomic weight is 56 a.m.u. The num ber of neutrons in its nuclei would be (b) 3 2 (d) 4 2 The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000 Å wavelength radiation to that of 4000 Å radiation is [IIT 1986; DCE 2000; JIPMER 2000] (a) 1 /4 (b) 4 [MP (c)PET 1 /22004] (d) 2 6. Discov ery of the nucleus of an atom was due to the experiment carried out by [CPMT 1983; MP PET 1983] (a) Bohr (b) Mosley (c) Rutherford (d) Thom son 7. In a Bohr's m odel of atom when an electron jum ps from n 1 to n 3 , how m uch energy will be em itted or absorbed [CBSE PMT 1996] (a) 2.15 10 11 erg 8. 9. (b) 0.1911 10 10 erg (c) 2.389 10 12 erg (d) 0.239 10 10 erg The nucleus of an atom can be assum ed to be spherical. The radius of the nucleus of m ass number A is giv en by 1.25 10 13 A1 / 3 cm Radius of atom is one Å . If the m ass num ber is 64 , then the fraction of the atom ic volume that is occupied by the nucleus is [NCERT 1983] (a) 1.0 10 3 [J&K CET 2005] (b) 2s 2 (a) Will rem ain approxim ately the sam e (b) Will becom e approxim ately two tim es (c) Will rem ain approxim ately half (d) Will be reduced by 2 5% The increasing order (lowest first) for the v alues of e / m (charge/m ass) for [IIT 1984] (a) e, p, n, (b) n, p, e, (a) 3 0 (c) 3 4 (c) 2 s 5 s 4 p 5 d (d) 2 s 2 p 3d 3 p 228. Electronic configuration of deuterium atom is (a) 1s 1 (c) Mg (d) N Atom s consists of protons, neutrons and electrons. If the m ass of neutrons and electrons were m ade half and two tim es respectively to their actual masses, then the atomic m ass of 6 C 12 [NCERT 1982] [MNR 1984, 89; Kerala PMT 1999] (c) (c) (b) Oxy gen atom (b) 5.0 10 5 (c) 2.5 10 2 (d) 1.25 10 13 The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is 13.6 eV . The possible energy v alue(s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits to hy drogen is(are) [IIT 1998; Orissa JEE 2005] (a) 3.4 eV (c) 6.8 eV 10. 1. Which of the following atom s and ions are isoelectronic i.e. hav e the sam e num ber of electrons with the neon atom [NCERT 1978] (b) 4.2eV (d) 6.8 eV The energy of the electron in the first orbit of He is 871.6 10 20 J . The energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen would be[Roor kee Qu a l ify i n g 1998] (a) 871.6 10 20 J (b) 435.8 10 20 J Structure of atom (c) 217.9 10 20 J 11. 12. (d) 108.9 10 20 J 21. The total number of v alence electrons in 4.2 gm of N 3 ion is ( N A is the Av ogadro's number) [CBSE PMT 1994] (a) 1.6 N A (b) 3.2 N A (c) 2.1 N A (d) 4.2 N A (a) From n 1 to n 2 22. approximately 0.530 Å . The radius for the first excited state (n 2) orbit is [CBSE PMT 1998; BHU 1999] 14. (b) 1.06 Å 17. (c) 4 1 (d) 2 5 frequency of 8 10 15 s 1 (d) 2.12 Å (b) 4 10 8 cm 1 (a) 3 10 (c) 2 10 7 m 1 (d) 4 10 4 cm 1 The series lim it for Balm er series of H-spectra is (a) 3 800 (b) 4 2 00 (c) 3 6 4 6 (d) 4 000 24. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV . The energy required to excite the electron in a hydrogen atom from the ground state to the first excited state is (Avogadro’s constant = 6.022 × 10 23) [BHU 1999] (a) 13.6 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 13.6 and 3.4 eV (d) 3.4 eV The num ber of nodal planes in a p x is [IIT Screening 2000] (c) 5 10 18 (d) 4 10 1 As electron m oves away from the nucleus, its potential energy [UPSEA T 2003] (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Rem ains constant (d) None of these (b) Two (d) Zero Read the assertion and reason carefully to m ark the correct option out of the options giv en below : (a) I f both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (b) I f both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (c) I f assertion is true but reason is false. (d) I f the assertion and reason both are false. (e) I f assertion is false but reason is true. 1. The third line in Balm er series corresponds to an electronic transition between which Bohr’s orbits in hy drogen Assertion : Reason [MP PMT 2001] 19. 20. (a) 5 3 (b) 5 2 (c) 4 3 (d) 4 2 (a) Fe (b) Fe (II) (c) Fe (III) (d) Fe (IV) The frequency of one of the lines in Paschen series of hy drogen atom is 2.340 10 11 Hz. The quantum num ber [DPMT 2001] n 2 which produces this transition is (b) 5 (d) 3 The position of an electron can be determined exactly with the help of an electron m icroscope. : The product of uncertainty in the m easurement of its m om entum and the uncertainty in the m easurem ent of the position cannot be less than a finite limit. [NDA 1999] 2. Which of the following has m aximum number of unpaired electron (atomic number of Fe 26) [MP PMT 2001] (a) 6 (c) 4 [CBSE PMT 2003] (b) 2 10 25 7 (b) 1.69 10 23 J (c) 1.69 10 23 J (d) 1.69 10 25 J The energy required to dislodge electron from excited isolated H-atom, IE1 13.6 eV is [DCE 2000] (a) One (c) Three 18. (b) 5 2 (a) 5 10 7 m (a) 1.69 10 20 J 16. (a) 3 2 The frequency of a wave of light is 12 10 14 s 1 . The wav e number associated with this light is [Pb. PMT 1999] 23. [A MU (Engg.) 1999] 15. (b) From n 2 to n 3 (c) From n to n 1 (d) From n 3 to n 5 In Bohr series of lines of hy drogen spectrum , the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the following inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hy drogen [A IEEE 2003] The v alue of Planck’s constant is 6.63 10 34 Js. The v elocity of light is 3.0 10 8 ms 1 . Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometres of a quantum of lig ht with (c) 4.77 Å 13. Which of the following electron transition in a hy drogen atom will require the largest am ount of energy [UPSEAT 1999, 2000, 01] The Bohr orbit radius for the hy drogen atom (n 1) is (a) 0.13 Å 71 3. Assertion : A spectral line will be seen for a 2 p x 2 p y transition. Reason : Energy is released in the form of wav e of light when the electron drops from 2 p x 2 p y orbital. [A IIMS 1996] Assertion : The cation energy of an electron is largely determ ined by its principal quantum num ber. Reason The principal quantum num ber n is a m easure of the m ost probable distance of finding the electron around the nucleus. : [A IIMS 1996] 72 Structure 4. of atom Assertion : Nuclide Reason Nuclides having odd num ber of protons and neutrons are generally unstable : 30 Al13 is less stable than 40 Reason Ca 20 17. : Num ber of orbitals in a shell equals to 2n . Energy of the orbitals increases as Assertion : 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 3d 4 s 4 p [IIT 1998] 5. Assertion : Reason 6. Assertion : Reason 7. : : Assertion : Reason : The atoms of different elem ents hav ing sam e m ass number but different atom ic num ber are known as isobars The sum of protons and neutrons, in the isobars is always different [A IIMS 2000] Two electrons in an atom can hav e the sam e values of four quantum num bers. Two electrons in an atom can be present in the sam e shell, sub-shell and orbital and have the same spin [A IIMS 2001] The v alue of n for a line in Balm er series of hy drogen spectrum having the highest wav e length is 4 and 6 . For Balm er series of hydrogen spectrum , the v alue n1 2 and n2 3 , 4 , 5. 4 d 4 f ...... Reason 18. 19. Assertion : Reason : Absorption spectrum conists of som e bright lines separated by dark spaces. Em ission spectrum consists of dark lines. : Assertion : Reason 20. Energy of the electron depends com pletely on principal quantum num ber. Splitting of the spectral lines in the presence of m agnetic field is known as stark effect. Line spectrum is sim plest for hy drogen atom . Thom son’s atom ic m odel is known as ‘raisin pudding’ m odel. The atom is v isualized as a pudding of positiv e charge with electrons (raisins) em bedded in it. Atom ic orbital in an atom is designated by n, l, m l and m s . Assertion : Reason [A IIMS 1992] 8. : : Assertion : Reason Assertion : These are helpful in designating electron present in an orbital. The transition of electrons n3 n 2 in H atom will em it greater energy than n4 n3 . Reason : n 3 and n 2 are closer to nucleus tan n 4 . 22. Assertion : Reason : 23. Assertion : Cathode rays are a stream of -particles. They are generated under high pressure and high v oltage. In case of isoelectronic ions the ionic size increases with the increase in atom ic num ber. The greater the attraction of nucleus, greater is the ionic radius. 21. : [A IIMS 2002] 9. Assertion : Reason 10. Assertion : Reason 11. : : Assertion : Reason : A resonance hybrid is always m ore stable than any of its canonical structures. This stability is due to delocalization of electrons. [A IIMS 1999] Cathode ray s do not trav el in straight lines. Cathode ray s penetrate through thick sheets [A IIMS 1996] Electrons revolving around the nucleus do not fall into the nucleus because of centrifugal force. Rev olv ing electrons are planetary electrons. Reason : [A IIMS 1994] 12. Assertion : Reason 13. Assertion : Reason 14. : : Assertion : Reason : 15. Assertion : 16. Reason : Assertion : Threshold frequency is a character istic for a m etal. Threshold frequency is a m axim um frequency required for the ejection of electron from the m etal surface. The radius of the first orbit of hy drogen atom is 0.52 9 Å. Radius for each circular orbit (rn ) 0.52 9 Å (n 2 / Z) , where n 1 ,2 ,3 Discovery and Properties of anode, cathode rays neutron and Nuclear structure 1 d 2 a 3 c 4 c 5 b 6 a 7 b 8 a 9 d 10 c and Z atom ic num ber. 3 d z 2 orbital is spherically sy m m etrical. 11 b 12 d 13 b 14 a 15 b 16 b 17 c 18 c 19 c 20 b 3 d z 2 orbital is the only d -orbital which 21 a 22 d 23 c 24 b 25 d 26 c 27 b 28 d 29 c 30 a 31 b 32 d 33 b 34 c 35 c 36 a 37 b 38 a 39 d 40 c 41 c is spherical in shape. Spin quantum number can have the value + 1 /2 or –1 /2 . (+ ) sign here signifies the wave function. Total number of orbitals associated with principal quantum num ber n 3 is 6. Structure of atom Atomic number, Mass number, Atomic species 1 b 2 a 3 b 4 b 5 a 6 a 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 b 11 b 12 c 13 b 14 c 15 c 16 c 17 c 18 a 19 c 20 a 21 c 22 b 23 c 24 d 25 b 26 b 27 a 28 a 29 c 30 b 31 c 32 d 33 d 34 c 35 c 36 c 37 c 38 b 39 d 40 c 41 b 42 c 43 a 44 c 45 b 46 c 47 d 48 a 49 c 50 c 51 a 52 c 53 b 54 a 55 c 56 a 57 d 58 c 59 a 60 a 61 d 62 b 63 a 64 c 65 b 66 a 67 c 68 a 69 d 70 d 71 c 72 a 73 b 74 d Atomic models and Planck's quantum theory 73 1 b 2 b 3 a 4 c 5 c 6 c 7 b 8 d 9 d 10 a 11 a 12 c 13 a 14 b 15 d 16 b 17 a 18 c 19 c 20 b Quantum number, Electronic configuration and Shape of orbitals 1 c 2 a 3 b 4 d 5 c 6 c 7 c 8 a 9 a 10 a 11 c 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 d 16 c 17 c 18 d 19 b 20 c 21 c 22 a 23 c 24 d 25 c 26 c 27 b 28 d 29 e 30 b 31 d 32 a 33 c 34 d 35 d 36 c 37 b 38 b 39 d 40 c 41 d 42 c 43 c 44 a 45 a 46 a 47 b 48 c 49 c 50 b 51 c 52 b 53 b 54 b 55 c 56 c 57 b 58 e 59 c 60 c 1 c 2 a 3 b 4 b 5 d 6 b 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 a 61 d 62 d 63 d 64 c 65 b d 67 c 68 d 69 c 70 b 11 b 12 a 13 d 14 b 15 b 66 16 c 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 d 71 a 72 c 73 c 74 c 75 a 21 d 22 c 23 d 24 d 25 c 76 c 77 c 78 c 79 d 80 d 26 a 27 c 28 b 29 c 30 a 81 b 82 c 83 a 84 a 85 b 31 b 32 c 33 d 34 b 35 b 36 a 37 c 38 c 39 c 40 a 86 c 87 a 88 b 89 c 90 b 41 c 42 d 43 d 44 a 45 d 91 d 92 a 93 b 94 b 95 d 46 b 47 a 48 c 49 d 50 a 96 d 97 a 98 a 99 d 100 c 51 a 52 c 53 d 54 c 55 b 101 b 102 d 103 a 104 c 105 d a 107 c 108 d 109 a 110 d 56 b 57 b 58 a 59 b 60 c 106 61 c 62 b 63 c 64 c 65 b 111 d 112 b 113 c 114 b 115 b 66 b 67 c 68 a 69 b 70 d 116 a 117 c 118 b 119 a 120 a 71 a 72 d 73 a 74 c 75 d 76 b 77 a 78 a 79 c 80 a 121 d 122 b 123 b 124 b 125 d 81 a 126 d 127 b 128 c 129 a 130 b 131 a 132 c 133 d 134 b 135 a 136 a 137 c 138 c 139 c 140 c 141 c 142 d 143 c 144 c 145 b 146 d 147 a 148 c 149 b 150 c 151 d 152 a 153 a 154 d 155 b 156 d 157 a 158 b 159 c 160 d 161 c 162 d 163 b 164 c 165 a 166 d 167 d 168 d 169 b 170 a 171 c 172 d 173 c 174 b 175 d 176 c 177 a 178 b 179 b 180 c Dual nature of electron 1 c 2 a 3 a 4 b 5 c 6 b 7 d 8 a 9 d 10 d 11 c 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 b 16 c 17 c 18 c 19 b 20 a 21 d Uncertainty principle and Schrodinger wave equation 74 Structure of atom 181 c 182 b 183 c 184 c 185 a 186 d 187 c 188 c 189 a 190 c 191 b 192 a 193 d 194 b 195 d 196 a 197 c 198 d 199 b 200 b 201 a 202 b 203 b 204 c 205 d 206 b 207 b 208 c 209 d 210 b 211 a 212 a 213 b 214 c 215 a 216 d 217 b 218 b 219 b 220 d 221 b 222 b 223 a 224 d 225 d 226 a 227 b 228 a 15. 16. 19. 1 a 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 d 6 c 7 b 8 d 9 a 10 c 11 a 12 d 13 d 14 c 15 b 16 d 17 a 18 b 19 c 20 b 21 a 22 a 23 d 24 a 1 d 2 d 3 a 4 a 5 c 6 d 7 e 8 d 9 a 10 e 11 b 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 c 16 d 17 c 18 e 19 a 20 e 21 b 22 d 23 d Discovery and Properties of anode, cathode rays neutron and Nuclear structure (d) Neutrons and protons in the nucleus and electrons in the extranuclear region. (a) It consists of proton and neutron and these are also known as nucleones. 15 20. 26. 27 . Assertion & Reason 2. 11. 13. 18. Critical Thinking Questions 1. 10. 3. (c) Radius of nucleus ~ 10 4. (c) Positiv e ions are formed from the neutral atom by the loss of electrons. 5. (b) The -ray particle constitute electrons. 6. (a) Jam es Chadwick discov ered neutron (0 n1 ) . 7. (b) Charge/m ass for 2 1 1 n 0, , p and e 4 1 1 / 1837 9. 11 (d) The density of neutrons is of the order 10 kg / cc. m. (c) This is because chargeless particles do not undergo any deflection in electric or m agnetic field. (b) Neutron and proton found in nucleus. (b) Cathode ray s are m ade up of negativ ely charged particles (electrons) which are deflected by both the electric and m agnetic fields. (b) Mass of neutron is greater than that of proton, m eson and electron. Mass of neutron = mass of proton + m ass of electron (b) Proton is 1 837 (approx 1800) times heav ier than an 1 electron. Penetration power mass (c) Nucleus of helium is 2 He 4 m ean 2 neutrons and 2 protons. (c) Proton is the nucleus of H atom ( H atom dev oid of its electron). (b) Cathode ray s are m ade up of negativ ely charged particles (electrons, e ) (c) Size of nucleus is m easured in Fermi (1 Ferm i 10 15 m) . (b) A m olecule of an elem ent is a incorrect statem ent. The correct statement is “an element of a m olecule”. Structure of atom 29. 31. 32. (c) Proton is represented by p having charge +1 discovered in 1988 by Goldstein. (b) The nature of anode rays depends upon the nature of residual gas. (d) H (proton) will have very large hydration energy due to its very small ionic size Hydration energy 33. (b) 1 Size 12. (c) Most probable radius = a / Z where a = 52.9 pm. For helium ion, Z = 2. 0 0 r = mp (b) Four unpaired electron are present in the 2 Fe 26 [ Ar] 3d 6 ,4 s 0 14. (c) 16. 9.1 10 24 6.02 10 23 10.07 10 1 1.008 g 17. (c) 8O Mass of a electron 9.1 10 28 g 18. (a) 35 Br 28 6.02 10 23 54.78 10 g 0.55 mg . (c) One mole of electron = 6.023 × 10 electron Mass of one electron = 9.1 × 10 gm Mass of one mole of electrons 23 = 5.48 10 4 1000 mg = 0.548 gm 0.55 mg . 39. 40. 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 4 80 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 5 A 80 , Z 35 , N ? 5 19. = 6.023 × 10 23 9.1 10 28 gm = 5.48 10 4 gm 38. ion Mass of one mole of proton Mass of a proton 1.673 10 24 g –28 37. Fe 2 Na has 10 electron and Li has 2 electron so these are different number of electron from each other. (c) P15 2, 8, 5 9.1 10 36. 52 . 9 = 26.45 pm. 2 13. Mass of one mole of electron 35. 75 20. N A Z 80 35 45 atomic number (Proton) is 35 and no. of neutron is 45. 16 O (c) have more electrons than neutron 8 p 8, e 10, n 8 . (a) (a) Charge on proton 1 unit, charge on particle = + 2 units, 2 : 1. (b) m p / me ~ 1837 ~ 1.8 10 3 . (a) Splitting of signals is caused by protons attached to adjacent carbon provided these are not equivalent to the absorbing proton. (d) Nucleus consists of proton and neutron both are called as nucleon. (c) Positron (1e 0 ) has the same mass as that of an electron (1e ) . 21. (c) A 12 and neutrons. 6 6 X 13 both are isotopes but have different no. of 6 A12 , For A have p 6, e 6 and n 6 and 6 X 13 , For B have p 6, e 6 and n 7 P 20, mass no. (A) = 40 N A–P = 40 20 20 P N 20. 22. (b) Electrons in Na 11 1 10 Electrons in Mg2 12 2 10 0 41. 1 (c) Electron time lighter than proton so their mass ratio 1837 will be 1 : 1837 23. 24. (c) 20 Ca 40 (d) CH 3 6 3 1 8e , H 3 O 3 8 1 10e , NH 3 7 3 10e , CH 3 6 3 1 10e Atomic number, Mass number, Atomic species 1. 3. (b) The number of electrons in an atom is equal to its atomic number i.e. number of protons. (a) No. of protons = Atomic no. = 25 and no. of neutron = 55 – 25 = 30. (b) No. of neutrons = mass number – no. of protons. = W – N. 4. (b) 5. 6. (a) Na and Ne are isoelectronic which contain 10 electrons. (a) One molecule of CO 2 have 22 electrons. 7. (c) 2. 30 Zn 70 , Zn 2 has No. of Neutrons = 70 – 30 = 40. (b) 26. (b) Complete E.C. [ Ar]18 3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 6 . Hence no. of e no. of protons 36 Z . 28. 9. 10. CO 6 8 14 and CN 6 7 1 14 . (c) Mass of an atom is due to nucleus (neutron + proton). (b) Atomic number is defined as the number of protons in the nucleus. 11. (b) 26 X 56 A P N Z N E N N A E 56 26 30 (a) K 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 Cl 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 . 29. (c) Mass no. At. Wt. Mass no. = no. of protons + no. of neutrons At. no. = no. of protons. 30. (b) N 2O 14 8 22 while Cl has 18 e . (b) CO and CN are isoelectronic. CONH 2 6 8 7 2 1 (from other atom to form covalent bond) = 24. 25. Cl and Cl differs in number of electrons. Cl has 17 e 8. has 20 proton, 20 neutron. CO 2 6 16 22. 31. (c) Neutron in 12 6 C 6, , Neutrons in Ratio = 6 : 14 = 3 : 7. 33. (d) N 7 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3 N 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2 28 14 Si 14 76 Structure of atom C 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2 . 34. (c) O C O, linear structure 180 o angle Cl Hg Cl, linear structure 180 o angle. 35. 36. 37. 38. (c) H 1s 2 and He 1s 2 . (c) In the nucleus of an atom only proton and neutrons are present. (c) 63 Cu 29 Number of neutrons = atomic mass – atomic number = 63 – 29 = 34. (b) 21 Protons and 24 Neutrons are present in nucleus and element is Sc. (c) 42. 43. (c) Cl have 17 proton, 18 neutron and 18 electron. (a) Number of unpaired electrons in inert gas is zero because they have full filled orbitals. (c) Electrons and Protons are same in neutral atom. 48. 49. 51. 52. (b) N 3 , F and Na (These three ions have e 10 , hence they are isoelectronic) 63. (a) 64. (c) Atomic number of chlorine 17 and in Cl ion total no. of electron =18. 65. (b) Tritium (H 13 ) has one proton and two neutron. 67. (c) 68. Total no. of e is all p–orbitals 6 6 5 17 . (a) Since its nucleus contain 9 proton so its. atomic number is 9 and its electronic configuration is 2, 7. So it require one more electron to complete its octet. Hence its valency is 1. 69. (d) 14 , n 14 7 7 7 X 40. 44. 62. (d) No. of proton and no. of electron = 18 [ Ar1836 ] and No. of neutron = 20 Mass number = P + N = 18 20 38. (a) and O 3 are isostere. The number of atoms in these ( 3) and number of electrons (24 ) are same. (c) Number of electrons in nitrogen = 7 and number of electron is oxygen = 8 we know that formula of nitrate ion is NO 3 we also know that number of electron = (1 × Number of electrons in nitrogen) + (3 × number of electrons in oxygen) + 1 = (1 × 7) + (3 × 8) + 1 = 32. 53. Molecular mass 256 (b) Atomicity = 8 S8 . Atomic mass 32 54. (a) In case of N 3 , p 7 and c 10 55. (c) Chlorine Cl 17 [Ne ] 3s 2 3p 70. 71. 57. (d) Na 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 Mg 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 Hence, Ca 2 has 8 electrons each in outermost and penultimate shell. (c) Atomic no. of C = 6 so the number of protons in the nucleus = 6 (a) No. of P Z 7; No. of electrons in N 3 7 3 10. 73. (b) Heavy hydrogen is 74. (d) Atomic number is always whole number. 2 1 D .Number of neutrons = 1 Atomic models and Planck's quantum theory 2. 3. 4. 5. 8. 9. 10. (a) The central part consisting whole of the positive charge and most of the mass caused by nucleus, is extremely small in size compared to the size of the atom. (b) Electrons in an atom occupy the extra nuclear region. (b) According to the Bohr model atoms or ions contain one electron. (d) The nucleus occupies much smaller volume compared to the volume of the atom. (c) -particles pass through because most part of the atom is empty. (b) An electron jumps from L to K shell energy is released. (c) Neutron is a chargeless particles, so it does not deflected by electric or magnetic field. (a) Energy is always absorbed or emitted in whole number or multiples of quantum. 19. Ar1840 = atomic number 18 and no. of Neutron in case of 20. 21. 23. (d) 27. (c) When c than Ar22 Neutron = Atomic mass – Atomic number 40 18 22 61. 2, 8, 8, 2 Cl 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 O 2 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 (a) 20 Ca (b) Both He and Li contain 2 electrons each. (c) During the experimental verification of de-Broglie equation, Davisson and Germer confirmed wave nature of electron. (a) Increases due to absorption of energy and it shows absorption spectra. (d) Rutherford -Scattering experiment. (d) It represents Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. ++ 60. (d) 72. 7. Three electron pair (a) Bromine consists of outer most electronic configuration [ Ar] 3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 5 . K 2 S formed by K and S 2 ion. We know that atomic Ca 2 2, 8, 8 5 56. X 35 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 5 number of K is 19 and in K ion its atomic number would be 18 similarly atomic number of S is 16 and in form S 2 ion its atomic number would be 18 so the K and S 2 are isoelectronic with each other in K 2 S . 231 (c) In Xe 89 number of protons and electrons is 89 and No. of neutrons = A – Z = 231 – 89 = 142. NO 2 NO 3 and CO 32 consist of same electron and show same isostructural. (d) Nucleus of tritium contain [H 13 ] p 1 , e 1 , n 2 11. 18. E4 E 22 4 1 328 2 ; E4 2 82 kJ / mol. E2 4 16 4 4 4 c 3 10 8 1 .5 10 2 m 2 10 6 Structure of atom 28. 30. (b) According to quantum theory of radiation, a hot body emits radiant energy not continuously but discontinuously in the form of small packets of energy called quanta or photons. (a) p h 40. n 2h2 (b) Bohr’s radius . Which is a positive quantity. 4 2 me 2 z (a) Gold used by Rutherford in scatting experiment. 41. (c) 1 1 E E3 E2 13.6 2 2 1 .9 eV (3) (2) 42. (d) R R 0 ( 1.4 10 13 cm) A 1 / 3 34. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 49. 12.1567 10 8 m 1q 1 q (d) 9 .6 10 7 4 .8 10 7 C kg 1 m 2 m p 2 (a) According to Hydrogen spectrum series. (d) The electron can move only in these circular orbits where the h angular momentum is a whole number multiple of or it 2 is quantised. (b) Generally electron moving in orbits according to Bohr‘s principle. (a) According to the planck’s law that energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency i.e. E h (d) Bohr’s radius of the hydrogen atom n 2 0.529Å ; where z = Atomic number, z n = Number of orbitals 3 10 8 24.66 1014 Hz . 12.567 10 8 h h (c) We know that ; m m mv 67. 52. (a) (c) 2 .172 10 18 2 .172 10 18 n2 22 19 5.42 10 J . hc hc or E E m 68. 69. 70. 54. 55. 56. (d) rn n 2 : An n 4 r3 0.53 3 2 0.53 9 4.77 Å (c) According to Rutherford an atom consists of nucleus which is small in size but carries the entire mass (P+ N ). (b) Wavelength of spectral line emitted is inversely proportional to 1 energy . E 1 1 1 (b) E ; E1 ; E2 8000 16000 E1 16000 2 E1 2 E2 E2 8000 3 10 8 ms 1 5 .0 1014 Hz . 600 10 9 m 13.6 13.6 13.6 E eV 3.40 eV 4 n2 22 59. (b) c (a) It will take 72. (d) rH 0 .529 n2 Å z For hydrogen ; n 1 and z 1 therefore rH 0.529 Å For Be 3 : Z 4 and n 2 Therefore rBe 3 73. (a) 0 .529 2 2 0 .529 Å . 4 Eionisation E En (b) v E h 74. 1 1 1 1 R 2 2 109678 82258.5 1 4 n1 n 2 1.21567 10 5 cm or 12.1567 10 6 cm n2 eV 13.6 1 2 13.6 1 2 ; h 13.6 0.85 (1)2 (4 )2 h 6.625 10 34 13.6 0 .85 1.6 10 19 = 3.08 10 15 s 1 . 6 .625 10 34 1 1 1 R 2 2 (c) n1 n 2 1 1 1 .097 10 7 m 1 2 2 1 1 91 10 9 m We know 10 9 1 nm So 91nm 75. r2 (2)2 2 4. r1 (1) 1 2 13.6 Z eff 13.6 Z 2 13.6 Z 2 = 2 n12 n 2 (b) Bohr radius 4 2 mr 2 nh 71. (d) rn r1 n 2 (a) 66. 1 .54 10 10 m 3 10 8 m sec 1 1.4285 10 32 kg . (a) The spliting of spectral line by the magnetic field is called Zeeman effect. (b) r n 2 (excited state n 2 ) r 4a 0 E 58. 65. 6 .626 10 34 Js A 2 n 24 2 4 16 4 4 16 : 1 A1 n1 1 1 6 .64 10 34 3 10 8 6 .64 10 8 Å 3 10 8 53. The velocity of photon (v) = 3 10 8 m sec 1 1.54 10 8 cm 1.54 10 10 meter r 51. c v 34 6 .6 10 3 10 23 kgms 1 2 .2 10 11 77 (d) r n 2 For I orbit 1 st For III orbit = 3 2 9 So it will 9 . (b) Bohr suggest a formulae to calculate the radius and energy of each orbit and gave the following formulae rd 76. 78 Structure of atom rn n2h2 4 2 kme 4 Z Where except n 2 , all other unit are constant so rn n 2 . 77. h 6 .63 10 34 6 .63 10 29 m mv 10 6 10 (b) According to de–Broglie (a) Energy of an electron E 15. E0 n2 h mv For energy level (n 2) E 78. 79. 81. 13.6 (2) 2 13.6 3 .4 eV . 4 (a) Energy of ground stage (E 0 ) = 13.6 eV and energy level = 5 13.6 13.6 13.6 = E5 eV 0 .54 eV . 25 n2 52 (c) Positive charge of an atom is present in nucleus. (a) For n4 n1 , greater transition, greater the energy difference, lesser will be the wavelength. 4. 5. 6. h (d) According to de-Broglie . mv 8. (a) 10. 11. h 2meV 19. 1 6 1 8 1 v (3 .00 10 ms ) = 3.00 10 ms 100 Momentum of the electron (p ) = m = (9.11 10 31 kg ) (3.00 10 6 ms 1 ) = 2.73 10 24 kg ms 1 2eV m 20. 21. 1. 2. (b) The uncertainty principle was enunciated by Heisenberg. (b) According to uncertainty principle, the product of uncertainties of the position and momentum, is x p h / 4 . 5. (c) x p 13. h , p mv p 7. 6 .62 10 34 h mv 9 .1 10 31 1 .2 10 5 8. (b) Mass of the particle (m) 10 6 kg and velocity of the particle (v) 10 ms 1 h 4 is not the correct relation. But correct h . 4 (b) According to the Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle momentum and exact position of an electron can not be determined simultaneously. h (d) x. p , if x 0 then p . 4 h (c) According to x p 4 Heisenberg’s uncertainty equation is x p 6.626 10 9 m . (a) We know that the correct relationship between wavelength and h momentum is . Which is given by de-Broglie. p (d) De-broglie equation applies to all the material object in motion. Uncertainty principle and Schrodinger wave equation 6 .62 10 34 2 9 .1 10 31 2 .8 10 23 h 6 .626 10 34 p 2 .73 10 24 kgms 1 2.424 10 10 m . 9.28 10 meter . (c) h mv (b) One percent of the speed of light is 8 12. 6 .62 10 34 h = = 1.32 10 35 m . mv 0 .5 100 (c) Dual nature of particle was proposed by de-broglie who gave the following equation for the wavelength. The de-broglie wavelength of this electron is h 6 .63 10 34 6 .63 10 33 m mv 10 3 100 h 1 (d) . For same velocity . m mv SO 2 molecule has least wavelength because their molecular mass is high. h (d) de-Broglie equation is . p (c) Formula for de-Broglie wavelength is h h 1 or eV mv 2 or p mv 2 cm 4 10 8 cm 4 Å . 6 .625 10 34 10 30 m . 5 0 .2 kg 60 60 ms 1 (c) From de Broglie equation h mv 17. h h h or (b) or de-Broglie equation. p mv mc (c) Emission spectra of different accounts for quantisation of energy. (b) According to de-Broglie equation h h h , p mv , , mv mc p 7. 9. h h h or or . p mv mc 2 5 10 4 (c) 18. (c) According to de-Broglie equation 6 .62 10 27 6 .023 10 23 16. Dual nature of electron 1. 6 .62 10 20 erg. sec 2 5 10 4 cm / sec 6 .023 10 23 12. x h 6 .62 10 34 5.27 10 30 m . p 4 1 10 5 4 3 .14 Structure of atom 13. 10. (a) Uncertainty of moving bullet velocity h 6 .625 10 34 v 4 m v 4 3 .14 .01 10 5 5.2 10 14. 15. 16. h This equation shows Heisenberg’s uncertainty 4 principle. According to this principle the product of uncertainty in position and momentum of particle is greater than equal to h . 4 (d) Spin quantum number does not related with Schrodinger equation because they always show 1 / 2 , 1 / 2 value. h h (b) According to x m v ; v x m 4 4 6 .6 10 34 10 5 0 .25 3 .14 4 2 .1 10 29 m / s h (a) Uncertainity in position x 4 p 18. m/sec . (b) x .p 17. 28 6 .63 10 34 5.28 10 30 m . 4 3 .14 (1 10 5 ) (c) Given that mass of electron 9.1 10 Planck’s constant 6.63 10 34 31 kg m s h h ; x v m 4 4 where : x = uncertainity in position v = uncertainity in velocity h x v 4 m By using x p 34 6 .63 10 4 3 .14 9 .1 10 31 5.8 10 5 m 2 s 1 . Quantum number, Electronic configuration and Shape of orbitals 3. 5. (b) The shape of an orbital is given by azimuthal quantum number 'l' . (c) Hund’s rule states that pairing of electrons in the orbitals of a subshell (orbitals of equal energy) starts when each of them is singly filled. 2 2 11. (c) In 2p – orbital, 2 denotes principal quantum number (n) and p denotes azimuthal quantum number (l 1) . 12. (c) Electronic configuration of H is 1s 2 . It has 2 electrons in extra nuclear space. 13. (a) The electronic configuration must be 1s 2 2 s 1 . Hence, the 14. 15. (a) Principal quantum no. tells about the size of the orbital. (d) An element has the electronic configuration 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 2 , (Si) . It’s valency electrons are four. 16. (c) The magnetic quantum number specifies orientation of orbitals. 17. (c) If l 2, m 3. (e to e ) . 18. (d) If n 3 then l 0, 1, 2 but not 3. 20. (c) Atomic number of Cu is 29 ( Ar) 4 s 1 3d 10 . 21. (c) The shape of 2 p orbital is dumb-bell. 22. (a) When the value of n 2 , then l 1 and the value of m 1, 0, 1 i.e. 3 values. 23. (c) Cr24 ( Ar) 3d 5 4 s 1 electronic configuration because half filled orbital are more stable than other orbitals. (d) Kr has zero valency because it contains 8 electrons in outermost shell. element is lithium (z 3). 24. 25. (c) 2 electron in the valence shell of calcium Ca 20 (2, 8, 8, 2) . 27. (b) Value of l 1 means the orbital is p (dumb-bell shape). 31. 33. (d) Cr has Ar4 s 1 3d 5 electronic configuration because half filled orbital are more stable than other orbitals. (d) The two electrons will have opposite spins. (c) If m = –3, then l = 3, for this value n must be 4. 34. (d) No. of electrons 2n 2 hence no. of orbital 2n 2 n2 . 2 35. (d) No. of electrons 2n 2 hence no. of orbital 2n 2 n2 . 2 36. (c) If n 3 then l 0 to n 1 & m l to l 37. (b) 28. 6 6. (c) 1s , 2 s , 2 p represents a noble gas electronic configuration. 7. (c) The electronic configuration of Ag in ground state is [Kr] 4 d 10 5 s 1 . 38. 8. (a) n, l and m are related to size, shape and orientation respectively. 39. 9. (a) Electronic configuration of Rb(37 ) is n 5, l 0, m 0 , s 1 2 Na 11 2, 8, 1 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 1 n 3, l 0, m 0, s 1 / 2 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 6 5 s 1 So for the valence shell electron (5 s 1 ) (a) 3d subshell filled with 5 electrons (half-filled) is more stable than that filled with 4 electrons. 1, 4 s electrons jumps into 3 d subshell for more sability. kg 2 1 79 40. (b) Hund’s rule states that pairing of electrons in the orbitals of a subshell (orbitals of equal energy) starts when each of them is singly filled. (d) As a result of attraction, some energy is released. So at infinite distance from the nucleus energy of any electron will be maximum. For bringing electrons from to the orbital of any atom some work has to be done be electrons hence it bill loose its energy for doing that work. (c) This space is called nodal space where there is no possibility of oressene of electrons. 41. (d) For s orbital l 0 m 0 . 42. (c) For M th shell, n 3; so maximum no. of electrons in M th shell 2n 2 2 3 2 18 . 80 Structure of atom m l to l including zero. 43. (c) 44. (a) Number of radial nodes = (n l 1) For 3s: n = 3, l = 0 (Number of radial node = 2) For 2p: n =2, l = 1 (Number of radial node = 0) (a) It consists only s orbital which is circular. (a) Hund’s rule states that pairing of electrons in the orbitals of a subshell (orbitals of equal energy) starts when each of them is singly filled. 45. 46. 47. 48. (b) If value of l is 2 then m 2, 1, 0, 1, 2 . m l to l including zero. (5 values of magnetic quantum number) (c) s, p, d orbitals present in Fe (c) 68. 69. 70. 72. (d) (4) and (5) belong to d -orbital which are of same energy. (c) Atomic no. 17 is of chlorine. (b) The s-orbital has spherical shape due to its non- directional nature. (a) According to the Aufbau’s principle the new electron will enter in those orbital which have least energy. So here 4 p -orbital has least energy then the others. (c) According to Aufbau’s principle. 73. (c) 74. (c) Ground 71. (b) According to Aufbau rule. (c) 3d subshell filled with 5 electrons (half-filled) is more stable than that filled with 4 electrons. 1, 4 s electrons jumps into 3 d subshell for more sability. 52. (b) 1 . 2 (b) 3d subshell filled with 5 electrons (half-filled) is more stable than that filled with 4 electrons. 1, 4 s electrons jumps into 3 d subshell for more sability. 55. (c) It has 3 orbitals p x , p y , p z . 57. (b) If l 2 then it must be d orbital which can have 10 electrons. 59. (c) for d orbital l 2 . 60. (c) 61. (d) When n 3 shell, the orbitals are n 2 3 2 9 . m l to l including zero. 2n 2 n2 . 2 (d) Configuration of Ne = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 F 2 2 = 1s 2 s 2 p 6 Na = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 Cl 63. 2 2 6 (c) 78. (c) When l 3 then 80. (d) m 1 is not possible for s orbital (l 0). 84. 85. (a) Both 2p and 3p-orbitals have dumb-bell shape. (b) 3d subshell filled with 5 electrons (half-filled) is more stable than that filled with 4 electrons. 1, 4 s electrons jumps into 3 d subshell for more sability. 86. (c) The shape of 2 p orbital is dumb-bell. 87. (a) 89. (c) For p-orbital, l 1 means dumb-bell shape. 91. (d) l 3 means f subshell maximum number of e in f subshell = 14. (b) As per Aufbau principle. 25 Mn [ Ar] 3d 5 4 s 2 -2 electrons – 94. (b) l 0 is s, l = 1is p and l 2 is d and so on hence s p d may be used in state of no.. 95. (d) For 4 d, n 4, l 2, m 2,1,0,1,2, s 96. (d) m cannot be greater than l ( 0, 1). 97. (a) For n 1, l 0. 99. (d) 1 . 2 Na 11 1s 2 2 s 2 p 6 3 s 2 6 = 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p . Mn 2 [ Ar] 3d 5 4 s 0 1 . 2 102. (d) According to Aufbau’s rule. 105. (d) 2 p x , 2 p y , 2 p z sets of orbital is degenerate. 106. (a) Mg12 have 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 electronic configuration 64. (c) K and Ca have the same electronic configuration (1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 ) 65. (b) For s-orbital, l 0. 66. (d) 3s 1 F9 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 n 3, l 0, m 0 and s 2 (d) Unh106 [Rn] 5 f 14 , 6 d 5 , 7 s 1 Cu 29 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 4 s1 77. Mg = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 of (c) No. of electrons in 3 rd shell = 2n 2 = 2 (3) 2 18 93. No. of electrons 2n 2 62. state m 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3 . m l to l including zero. n 4, l 0, m 0 and s Hence no. of orbital 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 ,4 s 2 3d 6 2, 8, 14, 2 . 76. K19 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 , 4 s 1 for 4 s1 electrons. 54. 7 Cu 2 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 9 . Fe26 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 , 4 s 2 3d 6 50. 51. N 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p1x , 2 p1y , 2 p1z . Hund’s rule states that pairing of electrons in the orbitals of a subshell (orbitals of equal energy) starts when each of them is singly filled. 67. is valency electrons 1 n 3, l 0, m 0, s 2 n 3, l 0, m 0, s of Na for this 1 . 2 Structure of atom 107. 108. (c) The principle quantum number n 3 . Then azimuthal quantum number l 3 and number of orbitals n 2 3 2 9 . 3 and 9 (d) 29 Cu [ Ar] 3d 10 4 s 1 , Cu 2 [ Ar] 3d 9 .4 s 0 . Ground state of Cu Cu 2 29 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 3 d 4 s 2 2 6 2 6 10 146. (d) m (2l 1) for d orbital l 2 m (2 2 1) 5 . 147. (a) The atomic number of chlorine is 17 its configuration is 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 5 148. (c) 1 2 6 2 6 9 2 110. (d) 1s 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3d 6 configuration of Iron. 111. (d) Orbitals are 4 s, 3 s, 3 p and 3 d . Out of these 3d has highest energy. 113. (c) For the n 2 energy level orbitals of all kinds are possible 2n , 2 2 4 . it shows electronic 114. (b) n 2 than no. of orbitals n 2 , 2 2 4 118. (b) For both A & B electrons s 1 / 2 & 1 / 2 respectively, n 3, l 0, m 0 119. 120. (a) According to Aufbau’s rule. (a) Possible number of subshells would be (6s, 5p, 4d). 121. (d) For f orbital l 3 . 123. (b) 4d-orbital have highest energy in given data. 125. (d) If m 3, l 3 and n 4. 127. (b) 128. (c) m can't be greater than l. 130. (b) n 1 and m 1 not possible for s-orbitals. 131. (a) 149. 152. (d) When 2p orbital is completely filled then electron enter in the 3s. The capacity of 2p orbital containing e is 6. So 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 2 3 s 1 is a wrong electronic configuration the 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 3 d 4 s 2 6 2 6 5 (c) No. of electron are same (18) in Cl and Ar . 138. (c) For s-subshell l 0 then should be m 0. 139. (c) 19 electron of chromium is 4 s1 1 n 4 , l 0, m 0, s 2 140. (c) The value of m is – l to l including zero so for l = 3, m would be –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3. 141. (c) 142. (d) Magnetic quantum number of sodium ( 3 s1 ) final electron is m = 0. (c) Generally azimuthal quantum number defines angular momentum. 143. g 4 h 5 156. (d) 2p have contain maximum 6 electron out of which there are 3 are of + 1/2 spin and 3 are of – 1/2 spin So l (n 1) 4 1 3 which is f orbit contain 7 orbital. +1/2 –1/2 (a) For 4f orbital electron, n 4 l 3 (Because 0, 1, 2, 3) s, p, d, f m = + 3, + 2, +1, 0, – 1, – 2, – 3 s = +1/2 (b) 24 Cr 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 , 3 p 6 , 3 d 5 , 4 s1 l 1 l 1 l 2 (We know that for p the value of l 1 and for d , l 2) For l 1 total number of electron = 12 159. For l 2 total number of electron = 5. (c) Atomic number of potassium is 19 and hence electronic configuration will be 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 , 3 p 6 , 4 s1 Hence for 4 s1 electron value of Quantum number are Principal quantum number n 4 Azimuthal quantum number l 0 Magnetic quantum number m 0 Spin quantum number s 1 / 2 160. th l 1 is for p orbital. f 3 (b) n 4 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 , 3 p 6 , 3d 10 , 4 s 2 , 4 p 6 , 4 d 10 , 4 f 14 1 137. d 2 155. (b) This electronic configuration is Cr (chromium element) in the ground state 2 p 1 Number of orbitals 5 2 1 11 (a) It is the ground state configuration of chromium. write is 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3 . 134. m2 153. 158. 133. s (a) Fe 26 [ Ar] 3d 6 4 s 2 (c) Maximum number of electron 2n 2 (where n 4 ) 2 4 2 32 . m1 (b) The ground state of neon is 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 on excitation an electron from 2 p jumps to 3 s orbital. The excited neon l=0 157. 132. l configuration is 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 3 s 1 . N 714 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 1x 2 p 1y 2 p 1z . Fe 3 [ Ar] 3d 5 4 s 0 . n 3 2 1 0 This set (c) is not possible because spin quantum number 1 values . 2 1s , 2 s 2 p ,3 s 3 p 3 d . 2 81 (d) According to Hund's rule electron first fill in unpaired form in vacant orbital then fill in paired form to stabilized the molecule by which 1s 2 ,2 s 2 ,2 p x2 is not possible. According to Hund's rule. Because 2 p x , py , p z have the same energy level so electron first fill in unpaired form not in paired form so it should be 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p1x ,2 p1y . 161. 162. (c) It is governed by Aufbau principle. (d) The electronic configuration of atomic number 24 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 ,3 p 6 ,3d 5 , 4 s1 163. (b) The maximum number of electron in any orbital is 2. 82 Structure of atom 164. (c) According to pauli principle 2 electron does not have the same value of all four quantum number. They have maximum same value are 3. 165. 166. (a) Number of orbitals n 2 4 2 16 . (d) We know from the Aufbau principle, that 2p orbital will be filled before 3s orbital. Therefore, the electronic configuration 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 2 , 3 s1 is not possible. 167. (d) Each orbital may have two electrons with opposite spin. 168. (d) Maximum no. of electrons in a subshell 2(2l 1) for fsubshell, l = 3 so 14 electrons accommodated in f -subshell. (b) Each orbital has atleast two electron. (a) Nucleus of 20 protons atom having 20 electrons. 169. 170. 174. 176. 177. (a) Shell = K, L, M 1s 2s 2p (a) Atomic number of Cu is 29 so number of unpaired electrons is 1 4 s1 3d 10 1s 2 193. (d) C 6 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 2 (Ground state) 1s 2 2 s1 2 Px1 2 p1y 2 p1z (Excited state) In excited state no. of unpaired electron is 4. 194. (b) Max. no. of electrons in N-shell n 4 2n2 2 4 2 32 . 195. (d) 26 Fe [ Ar] 3d 6 , 4 s 2 Fe2 [ Ar] 3d 6 , 4 s0 Number of d-electrons = 6 17 Cl [ Ne ] 3 s 2 , 3 p 5 Cl [ Ne ] 3 s 2 , 3 p 6 Number of p-electrons = 6. 196. 197. 2p4 2s 2 = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 4 Hence the number of s electron is 6 in that element. (b) For m 0 , electron must be in s-orbital. (c) In this type of electronic configuration the number of unpaired electrons are 3. =3 Cu (Ar) 178. 192. (b) O8 (a) Electrons in the atom 18 4 3 25 i.e. Z 25 . (c) The atomic number of bromine is 35 and the electronic configuration of Br is Br35 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 , 3 p 6 , 3d 10 , 4 s 2 , 4 p 5 total electron present in p-orbitals of Br is – 2 p 6 3 p 6 4 p 5 17. Unpaired electron Be 4 1s , 2 s = (Ground state) 2 2 181. (c) 182. Number of unpaired electrons in the ground state of Beryllium atom is zero. (b) Two unpaired electrons are present in 198. (d) Fe 2 has 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 6 3d 6 configuration with 4 unpaired electron. 199. (b) Fe 2 [ Ar] 3d 6 4 s 0 Ni (z 28) cation Ni28 =4 [ Ar] 4s 3d 8 183. (c) Fe 2 consist of maximum 4 unpaired electrons. 0 201. O 2 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 4 3s Fe 3 (z 26) Fe 3 [ Ar] 3d 5 4 s 0 3p4 2 (a) =5 3d 2 Unpaired electrons 3 4 s 1 but Cr24 184. (c) Cr24 ( Ar) 3d 185. (a) Zn 30 [ Ar] 3d 10 4 s 2 5 ( Ar) 3d 4 s 3 0 Total no. of unpaired electron=5 202. (b) Co 27 [ Ar] 3d 7 4 s 2 3d 7 Zn [ Ar] 3d 10 4 s 0 186. (d) Mn 2 ion will have five (maximum) unpaired electrons [Ar] 203. 4s 3d 5 3 187. (c) 190. 191. (c) Due to full filled d-orbital Cl has spherical symmetry. (b) Atomic number 14 leaving 2 unpaired electron Fe 14 Si 1s ion will have five (maximum) unpaired electrons. 1s 2 s 2 p 3 s 3 p 2 2s 2 6 2 2p 4s 3s 3p N 14 1 s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 p y 2 p z 1 7 1 1 Hence it has 3 unpaired electron in 2p-orbital. 204. 2 3 unpaired electron are present in cobalt metal. (b) According to Hund's rule, the pairing of electrons will not occur in any orbital of a subshell unit and unless, all the available of it have one electron each. Electronic configuration of (c) 2 s orbital have minimum energy and generally electron filling increases order of energy according to the Aufbau’s principle. Structure of atom 205. 206. 207. 208. 210. 212. 214. 215. 216. (d) According to Pauli’s exclusion principle no two electrons in the same atom can have all the set of four quantum numbers identical. (b) The second principal shell contains four orbitals viz 2 s, 2 p x , 2 p y and 2 p z . (b) Follow Hund’s multiplicity rules. (c) According to the Aufbau’s principle, electron will be first enters in those orbital which have least energy. So decreasing order of energy is 5 p 4 d 5 s. (b) No two electrons in an atom can have identical set of all the four quantum numbers. (a) In particular shell, the energy of atomic orbital increases with the value of l . (c) Aufbau principle explains the sequence of filling of orbitals in increasing order of energy. (a) According to Aufbau principle electron are filling increasing order of energy. Therefore the electronic configuration 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 obeys Aufbau principle. (iii) Proton (a) Metal is 5. (d) 220. 222. (b) We know that for d-electron l 2. 219. h h ; 2 (2 1) l(l 1) 2 2 2 (2 1) 2 .179 10 11 8. (d) Radius of nucleus 1.25 10 13 A1 / 3 cm Radius of atom = 1Å 10 8 cm. Volume of nucleus (4 / 3) (5 10 13 )3 Volume of atom (4 / 3) (10 8 )3 1.25 10 13 . 9. (a) Values of energy in the excited state 225. 11. 227. 228. (a) Atomic number of deuterium = 1; 1 D2 1s1 12. 10. (c) (ii) particle 2 0.5 4 13.6 eV n2 13.6 3 .4 eV in which n 2, 3, 4 etc. 4 E1 He E1 H z 2 871.6 10 20 E1 H 4 E1 H 217.9 10 20 J (a) 42g of N 3 ions have 16 N A valence electrons 4.2g of N 3 ion have 16 N A 4 .2 1 .6 N A . 42 (d) Ist excited state means n 2 r r0 2 2 0.53 4 2.12 Å Critical Thinking Questions 0 0 1 8 2 .179 10 11 1.91 10 11 0.191 10 10 erg 9 1.25 10 13 64 1 / 3 5 10 13 cm h h Angular momentum = l (l 1) = 0 0 . 2 2 (d) Azimuthal quantum number (l) = 3 shows the presence of f orbit, which contain seven orbitals and each orbital have 2 electrons. Hence 7 2 14 electrons. (b) According to Aufbau principle. (i) neutron 2 .179 1011 9 Since electron is going from n 1 to n 3 hence energy is absorbed. (d) Since s-orbital have l 0 e for m 1 (b) According to Bohr’s model E E1 E3 224. (d) i.e. E 7. (a) Number of nodal centre for 2 s orbitals ( n 1) 2 1 1 . 3. c (c) Rutherford discovered nucleus. h h ; 6 . 2 2 (a) F have the same number of electrons with the neon atom. (d) No change by doubling mass of electrons however by reducing mass of neutron to half total atomic mass becomes 6 3 instead of 6 6 . Thus reduced by 25%. E hv h 6. 223. 1. 2. M 2 (2, 8, 14) than n A Z E1 4000 2 2. E2 1 2000 (d) Electronic configuration of the Cr24 is [ Ar] 4 s1 3d 5 or 3d 4s (b) According to the Aufbau principle electron filling minimum to higher energy level. (b) According to Aufbau principle electron are filled in various atomic orbital in the increasing order of energy 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s < 4d < 5p < 6s < 4f < 5 d < 6p < 7 s . (d) According to Aufbau’s rule. 56 1 1837 . 1 / 1837 56 26 30 . =6 217. 1 1 1 (iv) electron 4. 83 13. 12 1014 s 1 (d) Frequency and velocity of light c 3 10 cm s 1 . We know that the wave number 10 v 12 1014 4 10 4 cm 1 c 3 1010 (c) The last line in any series is called series limit. Series limit for Balmer series is 3646 Å. 14. 15. (b) E 13.6 13.6 3.4 eV 4 n2 84 Structure of atom We know that energy required for excitation E E 2 E1 6. 3.4 (13.6) 10.2 eV Therefore energy required for excitation of electron per atom 10.2 1.69 10 23 J 6.02 10 23 17. 7. (a) The number of nodal plane are present in a p x is one or no. of nodal place = l for p x orbital l = 1 x (d) We know from the Pauli exclusion principle, that two electrons in the same atom can not have same value of all four quantum numbers. This means each electron in an atom has only one set of values for n, l, m and s . Therefore both the Assertion and Reason are false. (e) We know that the line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum the highest wavelenght or lowest energy is between n1 2 and n 2 3 . And for Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum, the value of 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (e) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) Nodal plane 18. (b) In Balmer series of hydrogen atomic spectrum which electronic transition causes third line O L , n2 5 n1 2 20. (b) 1 1 RH 2 2 n1 n2 1 1 1 R H 2 2 n2 3 for Paschen series. n2 3 1 1 1 E 2 2 n2 n1 21. (a) 23. (d) c 3 10 8 3 .75 10 8 v 8 1015 3.75 10 8 10 9 nm 4 101 nm . Assertion & Reason 1. (d) The assertion is false but the reason is true exact position and exact momentum of an electron can never be determined as according to Hesenberg’s uncertainity principle even with the help of electron microscope because when e beam of electron microscope strikes the target e of atom, the impact causes the change in velocity of e thus attempt to locate the e changes ultimately, the momentum & position of e . x .p 2. 3. 4. 5. h 0.57 ergs sec/ gm. 4 (d) Both assertion and reason are false. 2 p x and 2 p y orbitals are degenerate orbitals, i.e., they are of equal energy and hence no possibility of transition of electron. (a) We know that principal quantum number represent the main energy level or energy shell. Since each energy level is associated with a definite amount of energy, this quantum number determines to a large extent te energy of an electron. It also determines the average distance of an electron around the nucleus. Therefore both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (a) It is observed that a nucleus which is made up of even number of nucleons (No. of n & p ) is more stable than nuclie which consist of odd number of nucleons. If number of neutron or proton is equal to some numbers i.e., 2,8, 20, 50, 82 or 126 (which are called magic numbers), then these passes extra stability. (c) The assertion that the isobars are the atoms of different elements having same mass number but different atomic number, is correct but reason is false because atomic mass is sum of number of neutron and protons which should be same for isobars. n1 2 and n 2 3,4,5 . Therefore the Assertion is false but the Reason is true. We know that Absorption spectrum is produced when white light is passed through a substance and transmitted light is analysed by a spectrograph. The dark spaces corresponds to the light radiation absorbed by the substance. And emission spectrum is produced by analysing the radiant energy emitted by an excited substance by a spectrograph. Thus discontinuous spectra consisting of a series of sharp lines and separated by dark bands are obtained. Therefore both the Assertion and Reason are false. We know that a resonance hybrid or the actual molecule is always more stable than any of its canonical structures which is also called hypothetical or imaginary structures. This stability is due to delocalization of electrons and is measured in terms of resonance energy or delocalization energy, it is defined as the difference in internal energy of the resonance hybrid and the most stable canonical structure. Therefore both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explantion of the Assertion. We know that cathode rays cast shadows of solid objects placed in their path. During experiment performed on these rays, fluorescene (flash of light) is observed in the region, outside the shadow. This shows that cathode rays travel in straight lines. We also known that cathode rays penetrate through a thin sheet of metals but are stopped by thick sheets. Therefore both Assertion and Reason are false. We know that electrons are revolving around the nucleus at high speed in circular paths. The centrifugal force (which arises due to rotation of electrons) acting outwards, balances the electrostatic force of attraction (which arises due to attraction between electrons and nucleus). This prevent the electron from falling into the nucleus. We also know that Rutherford’s model of atom is comparable to the “solar system”. The nucleeus represent the sun whereas revolving electrons represent the planets revolving around the sun. Thus revolving electron are also called planetary electrons. Therefore both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion. Assertion is true but Reason is false. Threshold frequency is a minimum frequency required for the emission of electrons from the metal surface. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. n2h2 n2 0 .529 Å. rn also increases 2 Z 4e mZ indicating a greater separation between the orbit and the nucleus. (d) Both assertion and Reason are false. Only s -orbital is spherically symmertrical. Shape of different d orbitals is as below. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. Spin angular momentum of the electron, a vector quantity, can have two orientations (represented by + and – sign) relative to a chosen axis. These two orientation are distinguished by the spin quantum number 1 1 m s equals to or . These are called the two spin 2 2 Radius, 14. 15. r Structure of atom states of the electron and are normaly represented by the two arrows (spin up) and (spin down) respectively. Both assertion and reason are false. Total number of orbitals associated with Principal quantum number n 3 is 9. One 3 s orbital + three 3 p orbital + five 3 d orbitals. Therefore there are a total number of nine orbitals. Number of orbitals in a shell equals to n 2 . Assertion is true but reason is false. The order 1s 2s 2 p 3 s 3 p 3d .... is true for the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom and is solely determined by Principal quantum number. For multielectron system energy also depends on azimuthal quantum number. The stability of an electron in a multi electron atom is the net result of the attraction between the electron and the uncleus and the repulsion between the electron and the rest of the electron present. Energies of different subshell (azimuthal quantum number) present within the same principal shell are found to be in order of s p d f . Assertion is false but reason is true. Splitting of the spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic field is known as Zeeman effect or in electric field it is known as stark effect. The splitting of spectral lines is due to different orientations which the orbitals can have in the presence of magnetic field. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. Assertion is false but reason is true. Atomic orbital is designated by n, l and m l while state of an electron in an 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (e) 19. (a) 20. (e) 21. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. The difference between the energies of adjacent energy levels decreases as we move away from the nucleus. Thus in H atom E2 E1 E3 E2 E4 E3 ...... 22. (d) Both assertion and reason are false. Cathode rays are stream of electrons. They are generated through gases at low pressure and high voltage. (d) Both assertion and reason are false. In case of isoelectronic, i.e., ions, having the same number of electrons and different nuclear charge, the size decreases with increase in atomic number. atom is specified by four quantum numbrs n, l, m l and m s . 23. Ion Na+ Mg2+ Al3+ At. No. 11 12 13 No. of electrons 10 10 10 Ionic radii 0.95Å 0.65Å 0.50Å 85 86 Structure of atom 1. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of chlorine atom is [IIT 1989; MP PET 2004] n 2. l 8. 1 0 (b) 2 1 1 (c) 3 1 1 (d) 3 0 0 The uncertainty in the position of an electron ( mass = 9.1 10 28 g) moving with a velocity of accurate upto 0.001% will be (Use The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau's principle is violated is 2s 2px 2 py (b) (c) (d) 9. 10 kg (b) 10 24 kg (c) 10 26 kg (d) 10 27 kg 10. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen atom to absorb a photon but not to emit a photon [IIT 1984; CPMT 1997] 5. 3s (b) (c) 2s (d) 1s 6. 2p 11. Which of the following is not correct for electron distribution in the ground state [AIIMS 1982] 4s 3d (a) Co (Ar) (b) Ni(Ar) (c) Cu (Ar) (d) Zn(Ar) If electron, hydrogen, helium and neon nuclei are all moving with the velocity of light, then the wavelengths associated with these particles are in the order [MP PET 1993] (a) Electron > hydrogen > helium > neon (b) Electron > helium > hydrogen > neon (c) Electron < hydrogen < helium < neon (d) Neon < hydrogen < helium < electron 7. From the given sets of quantum numbers the one that is inconsistent with the theory is [IIT Screening 1994] (a) n 3; l 2; m 3; s 1 / 2 (b) n 4 ; l 3; m 3; s 1 / 2 where [CBSE PMT 1995] 1.92cm (b) 7.68 cm (c) 5.76cm (d) 3.84 cm The orbital angular momentum of an electron in s orbital is [IIT 1996; AIEEE 2003; MP PET 2004] (a) (a) 3.0 10 4 cm s 1 expression, (a) 1 h . 2 2 (a) (c) h 2 [MNR 1988; UPSEAT 1999, 2000, 02] 4. h in the uncertainty 4 [IIT 1988; AMU 1999] h 6.626 10 27 erg s ) 2 pz The mass of neutron is nearly 23 n 2; l 1; m 0l s 1 / 2 (d) n 4 ; l 3; m 2; s 1 / 2 m (a) 2 (a) 3. (c) (b) Zero (d) 2. h 2 Values of the four quantum numbers for the last electron in the atom are n 4, l 1, m 1 and s 1 / 2 . Atomic number of the atom will be (a) 22 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 36 The atomic weight of an element is 39. The number of neutrons in its nucleus is one more than the number of protons. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons respectively in its atom would be[MP PMT 1997 (a) 19, 20, 19 (b) 19, 19, 20 (c) 20, 19, 19 (d) 20, 19, 20 12. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l (i) n 4, l 1 (ii) n 4, l 0 (iii) n 3, l 2 (iv) n 3, l 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy from the lowest to highest, as [IIT 1999] (a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) <(i) (b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) (c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) 13. Ground state electronic configuration of nitrogen atom can be represented by [IIT 1999] (a) (b) (c) Structure of atom 87 (d) 18. 14. Which of the following statements (s) is (are) correct [IIT 1998] 5 1 (a) The electronic configuration of Cr is [ Ar] 3d 4 s (Atomic 3+ 19. no. of Cr 24 ) (b) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value (c) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type (Atomic no. of Ag 47 ) (d) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN 3 is 3 15. The position of both an electron and a helium atom is known within 1.0nm and the momentum of the electron is known within 50 10 26 kg ms 1 . The minimum uncertainty measurement of the momentum of the helium atom is in the 20. [CBSE PMT 1998; AIIMS 2001] 16. (a) 50kg ms 1 (b) 60 kg ms 1 (c) 80 10 26 kg ms 1 (d) 50 10 26 kg ms 1 (c) 17. 21. p xy , d x 2 y 2 (b) d xy , d zx p xy , d zx (d) d z 2 , d x 2 y 2 22. The number of atoms in 0.004 g of magnesium are [AFMC 2000] (a) 4 10 20 (b) 8 10 3+ (a) 10 33 metres (b) 10 31 metres (c) 10 16 metres (d) 10 25 metres Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural NO 3 , CO 32 , ClO3 , SO 3 Which of the following pair of orbitals posses two nodal planes (a) (c) 10 20 (d) 6.02 10 20 Which of the following have the same number of unpaired electrons in ‘d’ orbitals [Roorkee 2000] (a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Fe (d) Co The quantum numbers + 1/2 and – 1/2 for the electron spin represent [IIT Screening 2001] (a) Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively (b) Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively (c) Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively (d) Two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per second is approximately [IIT Screening 2003] [RPMT 2000] 2 SO 3 , NO 3 (a) NO 3 , CO 3 (b) (c) ClO3 , CO 32 (d) CO 32 , SO 3 The total number of electrons present in all the s-orbitals, all the porbitals and all the d-orbitals of cesium ion are respectively (a) 8, 26, 10 (b) 10, 24, 20 (c) 8, 22, 24 (d) 12, 20, 22 20 (SET -2) 1. (c) Electronic configuration of Cl is 3s 2 [ Ne ] 3 s 2 3 p 5 or [Ne ] 3p So for the unpaired electron (3 p1z ) : n 3, l 1, m 1, S 3 p 2 x 3p 2 y 3p 1 z 1 2 88 Structure of atom 2. (b) According to Aufbau principle the orbitals of lower energy (2s) should be fully filled before the filling of orbital of higher energy starts. 3. 4. (d) Mass of neutron 1.675 10 27 kg . (d) 1s-orbital is of lowest energy. Absorption of photon can raise the electron in higher energy state but emission is not possible. (c) The correct electronic configuration 5. Cu 29 [ Ar], 4 s1 14. HN 3 : 1 3 x 0 3 x 1 or x 15. 3d 10 (a) 7. (a) When l 2, m 3 . 8. (a) (d) The product of uncertainties in the position and the momentum of a sub atomic particle h/4 . Since x is 16. (b) d xy and d zx has two modal planes. 17. (c) No. of atoms in magnesium = 18. (a,b,c) Cr , Mn and Fe3 have 5 unpaired electron in dorbitals. 0 .001 100 24 Cr P 2.73 10 24 9. 3d 5 4 s1 5 25 Mn 3d 5 4 s 2 5 26 Fe3 3d 5 4 s 0 5 (a,d) Both statement are correct. x 1.92 cm. 20. (a) 21. (a) NO 3 and CO 32 consist of same electron and show same isostructural. 22. (b) (Cs 35 ) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 ,3 p 6 ,3d 10 ,4 s 2 h 0. 2 10. (d) Atomic number is 36 and element is Kr . 11. (a) h 6 .63 10 34 10 33 m mv 60 10 3 10 Cs 1s 2 , 2 s 2 ,2 p 6 , 3 s 2 ,3 p 6 ,3d 10 , 4 s 2 , 39 K 19 , P 19 , E 19 , N 20 (i) 4 p (ii) 4 s (iii) 3d (iv) 3 p order 4 p 6 ,4 d 10 ,5 s 2 ,5 p 6 ,6 s1 4 p 6 ,4 d 10 , 5 s 2 ,5 p 6 of increasing energy is 3 p 4 s 3d 4 p. 13. 20 19. (b) For 2s orbital, l = 0; azimuthal quantum number is not show angular momentum for the 2 s orbitals. (a) 0 .004 6 .023 10 23 =10 24 h 6 .626 10 27 Hence x p 4 2 .73 10 28 4 3 .14 Angular momentum l(l 1) 12. 1 3 the particle i.e. 50 10 26 kg ms 1 (given). p m v p 9.1 10 28 3.0 10 4 1 . 3 same for electron and helium so p must be same for both 1 , m e m H m He m Ne . m 6. (a,b,c) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN 3 is Total no. of e in s-orbitals 10 Total no. of e in p-ortbitals 24 (a,d) According to Hund’s principle. Total no. of e in d-ortbitals 20 . *** Chemical Bonding 89 Chapter 3 Chemical Bonding Atoms of different elements excepting noble gases donot have complete octet so they combine with other atoms to form chemical bond. The force which holds the atoms or ions together within the molecule is called a chemical bond and the process of their combination is called Chemical Bonding. It depends on the valency of atoms. Some other examples are: MgCl , CaCl , MgO, Na S, CaH , AlF , NaH, KH, K 2O , KI, RbCl, NaBr, CaH etc. 2 2 2 2 3 2 (1) Conditions for formation of electrovalent bond Cause and Modes of chemical combination (i) The atom which changes into cation (+ ive ion) should possess 1, 2 or 3 valency electrons. The other atom which changes into anion (–ve ion) should possess 5, 6 or 7 electrons in the valency shell. Chemical bonding takes place due to acquire a state of minimum energy and maximum stability and to convert atoms into molecule to acquire stable configuration of the nearest noble gas. We divide atoms into (ii) A high difference of electronegativity (about 2) of the two atoms is necessary for the formation of an electrovalent bond. Electrovalent bond is not possible between similar atoms. three classes, (1) Electropositive elements which give up one or more electrons easily. They have low ionisation potentials. (2) Electronegative elements, which can gain electrons. They have higher value of electronegativity. (3) Elements which have little tendency to lose or gain electrons. Different types of bonds are formed from these types of atoms. Atoms involved Type A+B B+B A+A Electrovalent Electrons deficient molecule or ion (Lewis acid) and electrons rich molecule or ion (Lewis base) Coordinate H and electronegative element (F, N,O) Hydrogen Covalent r r is internuclear distance. The energy changes involved in the formation of ionic compounds from their constituent elements can be studied with the help of a thermochemical cycle called Born Haber cycle. Na(s) H Cl Na +IE 1/2Hdiss. sub Cl or Cl (g) Na Cl – EA – e– Na (g) 1 Cl 2 (g) 2 + Na(g) An electrovalent bond is formed when a metal atom transfers one or more electrons to a non-metal atom. (iv) Higher the lattice energy, greater will be the case of forming an ionic compound. The amount of energy released when free ions combine together to K form one mole of a crystal is called lattice energy (U). Lattice energy ; r r Metallic Electrovalent bond Na (iii) There must be overall decrease in energy i.e., energy must be released. For this an atom should have low value of Ionisation potential and the other atom should have high value of electron affinity. + +e – Cl (g) H f Na Cl (s) + – (Crystal) –U (Lattice energy) (Born Haber Cycle) According to Hess's law of constant heat summation, heat of formation of an ionic solid is net resultant of the above changes. H f H Subl. 1 H diss. IE EA U 2 90 Chemical Bonding (2) Characteristics of electrovalent compounds 2 (i) Electrovalent compounds are generally crystalline is nature. The constituent ions are arranged in a regular way in their lattice. (ii) Electrovalent compounds possess high melting and boiling points. Order of melting and boiling points in halides of sodium and oxides of II group elements is as, nd NaF NaCl NaBr NaI, MgO CaO BaO (iii) Electrovalent compounds are hard and brittle in nature. (iv) Electrovalent solids do not conduct electricity. While electrovalent compounds in the molten state or in solution conduct electricity. (v) Electrovalent compounds are fairly soluble in polar solvents and insoluble in non-polar solvents. (vi) The electrovalent bonds are non-rigid and non-directional. Thus these compound do not show space isomerism e.g. geometrical or optical isomerism. (vii) Electrovalent compounds furnish ions in solution. The chemical reaction of these compounds are known as ionic reactions, which are fast. K Cl Ag NO 3 Ag Cl K NO 3 (Precipitate ) (viii) Electrovalent compounds show isomorphism. (ix) Cooling curve of an ionic compound is not smooth, it has two break points corresponding to time of solidification. (x) Ionic compounds show variable electrovalency due to unstability of core and inert pair effect. Covalent bond Covalent bond was first proposed by Lewis in 1916. The bond formed between the two atoms by mutual sharing of electrons so as to complete their octets or duplets (in case of elements having only one shell) is called covalent bond or covalent linkage. A covalent bond between two similar atoms is non-polar covalent bond while it is polar between two different atom having different electronegativities. Covalent bond may be single, double or a triple bond. We explain covalent bond formation by Lewis octet rule. Chlorine atom has seven electrons in the valency shell. In the formation of chlorine molecule, each chlorine atom contributes one electron and the pair of electrons is shared between two atoms. both the atoms acquire stable configuration of argon. ** * Cl Cl * ** ( 2 , 8 , 7 ) ( 2, 8 , 7 ) Cl * Cl ( 2, 8 , 8 ) ( 2, 8 , 8 ) Some other examples are : (ii) Diamond, Carborandum (SiC), Silica (SiO ), AlN etc. have giant three dimensional network structures; therefore have exceptionally high melting points otherwise these compounds have relatively low melting and boiling points. (iii) In general covalent substances are bad conductor of electricity. Polar covalent compounds like HCl in solution conduct electricity. Graphite can conduct electricity in solid state since electrons can pass from one layer to the other. (iv) These compounds are generally insoluble in polar solvent like water but soluble in non-polar solvents like benzene etc. some covalent compounds like alcohol, dissolve in water due to hydrogen bonding. (v) The covalent bond is rigid and directional. These compounds, thus show isomerism (structural and space). (vi) Covalent substances show molecular reactions. The reaction rates are usually low. (vii) The number of electrons contributed by an atom of the element for sharing with other atoms is called covalency of the element. Covalency = 8 – [Number of the group to which element belongs]. The variable or Cl Cl H 2 S , NH 3 , HCN , PCl3 , PH3, C2 H 2 , H 2 , C2 H 4 , SnCl 4 , FeCl3 , BH3 , graphite, BeCl 2 etc. (1) Conditions for formation of covalent bond (i) The combining atoms should be short by 1, 2 or 3 electrons in the valency shell in comparison to stable noble gas configuration. (ii) Electronegativity difference between the two atoms should be zero or very small. (iii) The approach of the atoms towards one another should be accompanied by decrease of energy. (2) Characteristics of covalent compounds (i) These exist as gases or liquids under the normal conditions of temperature and pressure. Some covalent compounds exist as soft solids. covalency of an element is equal to the total number of unpaired electrons in s, p and d-orbitals of its valency shell. The element such as P, S, Cl, Br, I have vacant d-orbitals in their valency shell. These elements show variable covalency by increasing the number of unpaired electrons under excited conditions. The electrons from paired orbitals get excited to vacant d-orbitals of the same shell. Four elements, H, N, O and F do not possess d-orbitals in their valency shell. Thus, such an excitation is not possible and variable valency is not shown by these elements. This is reason that NCl exists while NCl does not. 3 5 (3) The Lewis theory : The tendency of atoms to achieve eight electrons in their outermost shell is known as lewis octet rule. Lewis symbol for the representative elements are given in the following table, Group Lewis symbol 1 IA 2 IIA 13 IIIA X X X 14 IVA 15 VA 16 VIA 17 VIIA X X X X (4) Failure of octet rule : There are several stable molecules known in which the octet rule is violated i.e., atoms in these molecules have number of electrons in the valency shell either short of octet or more than octet. BeF2 , BF3 , AlH3 are electron- deficients (Octet incomplete) hence are Lewis acid. In PCl5 , P has 10 electrons in valency shell while in SF6 , S has 12 electrons in valence shell. Sugden introduced singlet linkage in which one electron is donated (Instead of one pair of electrons) to the electron deficient atom so that octet rule is not violated. This singlet is represented as (⇁). Thus, PCl5 and SF6 have structures as, Cl Cl P Cl Cl Cl F F S F F F F (5) Construction of structures for molecules and poly atomic ions : The following method is applicable to species in which the octet rule is not violated. (i) Determine the total number of valence electrons in all the atoms present, including the net charge on the species (n ). (ii) Determine n = [2 × (number of H atoms) + 8 × (number of other atoms)]. 1 2 Chemical Bonding (iii) Determine the number of bonding electrons, n , which equals n – n . No. of bonds equals n /2. (iv) Determine the number of non-bonding electrons, n , which equals n – n . No. of lone pairs equals n /2. (v) Knowing the central atom (you’ll need to know some chemistry here, math will not help!), arrange and distribute other atoms and n /2 bonds. Then complete octets using n /2 lone pairs. (vi) Determine the ‘formal charge’ on each atom. 3 1 91 Examples : CO, N O, H O , N O , N O , N O , HNO , NO 3 , SO , SO , 2 2 H SO , 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 5 3 SO 42 , SO 22 , 3 4 2 3 H 3 PO4 , H 4 P2O7 , 4 1 3 4 3 4 (vii) Formal Charge = [valence electrons in atom) – (no. of bonds) – (no. of unshared electrons)] (viii) Other aspects like resonance etc. can now be incorporated. Illustrative examples (i) CO 32 ; n1 4 (6 3) 2 24 [2 added for net charge] n 2 = (2 × 0) + (8 × 4) = 32 (no. H atom, 4 other atoms (1’C’ and 3 ‘O’) n 3 = 32 – 24 = 8, hence 8/2 = 4 bonds n 4 = 24 – 8 = 16, hence 8 lone pairs. Since carbon is the central atom, 3 oxygen atoms are to be arranged around it, thus, H 3 PO3 , Al2Cl6 (Anhydrous), O3 , SO 2Cl2 , SOCl 2 , HIO3 , HClO4 , HClO3 , CH 3 NC , N 2 H 5 , CH 3 NO 2 , NH 4 , [Cu(NH 3 )4 ]2 etc. Characteristics of co-ordinate covalent compound (1) Their melting and boiling points are higher than purely covalent compounds and lower than purely ionic compounds. (2) These are sparingly soluble in polar solvent like water but readily soluble in non-polar solvents. (3) Like covalent compounds, these are also bad conductors of electricity. Their solutions or fused masses do not allow the passage to electricity. (4) The bond is rigid and directional. Thus, coordinate compounds show isomerism. Dipole moment “The product of magnitude of negative or positive charge (q) and the distance (d) between the centres of positive and negative charges is called dipole moment”. = Electric charge bond length As q is in the order of 10 esu and d is in the order of 10 cm, is in the order of 10 esu cm. Dipole moment is measured in “Debye” (D) unit. 1D 10 18 esu cm = 3.33 10 30 coulomb metre (In S.I. unit). –10 –8 –18 O | O C O , but total bonds are equal to 4. O | Hence, we get O C O . Now, arrange lone pairs to complete .. .O : | . .. Dipole moment is indicated by an arrow having a symbol ( ) pointing towards the negative end. Dipole moment has both magnitude and direction and therefore it is a vector quantity. Symmetrical polyatomic molecules are not polar so they do not have any value of dipole moment. H F octet : O C O : .. (ii) O CO 2 ; n = 4 + (6 × 2 ) = 16 C O C B 1 n = (2 × 0) + (8 × 3) = 24 n = 24 – 16 = 8, hence 4 bonds n = 16 – 8 = 8, hence 4 lone-pairs Since C is the central atom, the two oxygen atoms are around to be arranged it thus the structure would be; O – C – O, but total no. of bonds F H F H H 2 3 4 = 0 due to symmetry Unsymmetrical polyatomic molecules always have net value of dipole moment, thus such molecules are polar in nature. H O, CH Cl, NH , etc are polar molecules as they have some positive values of dipole moments . Cl 2 3 3 =4 Thus, O = C = O. After arrangement of lone pairs to complete .. .. .. octets, we get, : O C O : and thus final structure is : O C O : This is a special type of covalent bond where the shared pair of electrons are contributed by one species only but shared by both. The atom which contributes the electrons is called the donor (Lewis base) while the other which only shares the electron pair is known as acceptor (Lewis acid). This bond is usually represented by an arrow ( ) pointing from donor to the acceptor atom. BF molecule, boron is short of two electrons. So to complete its octet, it shares the lone pair of nitrogen in ammonia forming a dative bond. 3 H F H * N ** B H F H F H * N H H Water F B F H | F General formula | | H F H H Molecular geometry AX Linear AX 2 AX 3 | F H N B F C H H H Ammonia Methyl chloride = 1.46D = 1.86D 0 due to unsymmetry (1) Dipole moment is an important factor in determining the geometry of molecules. Table : 3.1 Molecular geometry and dipole moment N H H = 1.84D Co-ordinate covalent or Dative bond O .. Dipole moment Example HF, HCl Linear Bent or V-shape May be non zero Zero Non zero Triangular planar Pyramidal T-shape Zero Non zero Non zero BF3 Tetrahedral Zero CO 2 ,CS 2 H 2O, NO 2 NH 3 , PCl3 ClF3 Formation of a co-ordinate bond between NH3 and BF3 AX 4 CH 4 ,CCl 4 92 Chemical Bonding Square planar See saw Zero Non zero Trigonal bipyramidal Square pyramidal Zero Non zero PCl5 AX 6 Octahedral Distorted octahedral Zero Non zero SF6 AX 7 Pentagonal bipyramidal Zero IF7 AX 5 XeF4 SF4 ,TeCl 4 BrCl5 XeF6 (2) Every ionic compound having some percentage of covalent character according to Fajan's rule. The percentage of ionic character in compound having some covalent character can be calculated by the following equation. The % ionic character Observed 100 . Theoretica l (3) The trans isomer usually possesses either zero dipole moment or very low value in comparison to cis–form H C Cl || H C Cl H C Cl || Cl C H (8) Between two sub shells of same energy level, the sub shell more directionally concentrated shows more overlapping. Bond energy : 2s 2s < 2s 2 p < 2 p 2 p (9) s -orbitals are spherically symmetrical and thus show only head on overlapping. On the other hand, p -orbitals are directionally concentrated and thus show either head on overlapping or lateral overlapping.Overlapping of different type gives sigma () and pi () bond. Sigma () bond Pi () bond It results from the end to end overlapping of two s-orbitals or two p-orbitals or one s and one porbital. Stronger Bond energy 80 kcals More stable Less reactive Can exist independently It result from the sidewise (lateral) overlapping of two p-orbitals. The electron cloud is symmetrical about the internuclear axis. Fajan’s rule The magnitude of polarization or increased covalent character depends upon a number of factors. These factors are, (1) Small size of cation : Smaller size of cation greater is its polarizing power i.e. greater will be the covalent nature of the bond. (2) Large size of anion : Larger the size of anion greater is its polarizing power i.e. greater will be the covalent nature of the bond. (3) Large charge on either of the two ions : As the charge on the ion increases, the electrostatic attraction of the cation for the outer electrons of the anion also increases with the result its ability for forming the covalent bond increases. (4) Electronic configuration of the cation : For the two ions of the same size and charge, one with a pseudo noble gas configuration (i.e. 18 electrons in the outermost shell) will be more polarizing than a cation with noble gas configuration (i.e., 8 electron in outer most shell). Valence bond theory or VBT It was developed by Heitler and London in 1927 and modified by Pauling and Slater in 1931. (1) To form a covalent bond, two atoms must come close to each other so that orbitals of one overlaps with the other. (2) Orbitals having unpaired electrons of anti spin overlaps with each other. (3) After overlapping a new localized bond orbital is formed which has maximum probability of finding electrons. (4) Covalent bond is formed due to electrostatic attraction between radii and the accumulated electrons cloud and by attraction between spins of anti spin electrons. (5) Greater is the overlapping, lesser will be the bond length, more will be attraction and more will be bond energy and the stability of bond will also be high. (6) The extent of overlapping depends upon: Nature of orbitals involved in overlapping, and nature of overlapping. (7) More closer the valence shells are to the nucleus, more will be the overlapping and the bond energy will also be high. Less strong Bond energy 65 kcals Less stable More reactive Always exist along with a -bond The electron cloud is above and below the plane of internuclear axis. Hybridization The concept of hybridization was introduced by Pauling and Slater. Hybridization is defined as the intermixing of dissimilar orbitals of the same atom but having slightly different energies to form same number of new orbitals of equal energies and identical shapes. The new orbitals so formed are known as hybrid orbitals. Characteristics of hybridization (1) Only orbitals of almost similar energies and belonging to the same atom or ion undergoes hybridization. (2) Hybridization takes place only in orbitals, electrons are not involved in it. (3) The number of hybrid orbitals produced is equal to the number of pure orbitals, mixed during hybridization. (4) In the excited state, the number of unpaired electrons must correspond to the oxidation state of the central atom in the molecule. (5) Both half filled orbitals or fully filled orbitals of equivalent energy can involve in hybridization. (6) Hybrid orbitals form only sigma bonds. (7) Orbitals involved in bond formation do not participate in hybridization. (8) Hybridization never takes place in an isolated atom but it occurs only at the time of bond formation. (9) The hybrid orbitals are distributed in space as apart as possible resulting in a definite geometry of molecule. (10) Hybridized orbitals provide efficient overlapping than overlapping by pure s, p and d-orbitals. (11) Hybridized orbitals possess lower energy. How to determine type of hybridization : The structure of any molecule can be predicted on the basis of hybridization which in turn can be known by the following general formulation, H 1 (V M C A) 2 Chemical Bonding Where H = Number of orbitals involved in hybridization viz. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7, hence nature of hybridization will be sp, sp , sp , sp d, sp d , sp d respectively. 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 V = Number electrons in valence shell of the central atom, M = Number of monovalent atom C = Charge on cation, Bond order A = Charge on anion The phenomenon of resonance was put forward by Heisenberg to explain the properties of certain molecules. In case of certain molecules, a single Lewis structure cannot explain all the properties of the molecule. The molecule is then supposed to have many structures, each of which can explain most of the properties of the molecule but none can explain all the properties of the molecule. The actual structure is in between of all these contributing structures and is called resonance hybrid and the different individual structures are called resonating structures or canonical forms. This phenomenon is called resonance. To illustrate this, consider a molecule of ozone O3 . Its structure can be written as . . .. .. O O .O. . .. .. . . . . O. .O O. O .O . . .. . .O. . .. . . (c ) . . . (a ) (b ) As a resonance hybrid of above two structures (a) and (b. For simplicity, ozone may be represented by structure (c), which shows the resonance hybrid having equal bonds between single and double. Resonance is shown by benzene, toluene, O , allenes (>C = C = 3 C<), CO, CO , CO 3 , SO , NO, NO while it is not shown by H O , H O, NH , CH , SiO . 4 O || C / \ O O O | C / \\ O O 2 11 1.33 3 Bond characteristics Resonance 2 O | C // \ O O 93 3 2 2 2 2 3 (1) Bond length “The average distance between the centre of the nuclei of the two bonded atoms is called bond length”. It is expressed in terms of Angstrom (1 Å = 10 10 m) or picometer (1pm = 10 12 m). In an ionic compound, the bond length is the sum of their ionic radii ( d r r ) and in a covalent compound, it is the sum of their covalent radii (e.g., for HCl, d rH rCl ). Factors affecting bond length (i) The bond length increases with increase in the size of the atoms. For example, bond length of H X are in the order, HI HBr HCl HF . (ii) The bond length decreases with the multiplicity of the bond. Thus, bond length of carbon–carbon bonds are in the order, C CC CC –C. (iii) As an s-orbital is smaller in size, greater the s-character shorter is the hybrid orbital and hence shorter is the bond length. For example, sp 3 C – H sp 2 C – H sp C – H 2 As a result of resonance, the bond lengths of single and double bond in a molecule become equal e.g. O–O bond lengths in ozone or C–O bond lengths in CO 32 – ion. (2) Bond energy The resonance hybrid has lower energy and hence greater stability than any of the contributing structures. Greater is the number of canonical forms especially with nearly same energy, greater is the stability of the molecule. Difference between the energy of resonance hybrid and that of the most stable of the resonating structures (having least energy) is called resonance energy. Thus, Resonance energy = Energy of resonance hybrid – Energy of the most stable of resonating structure. In the case of molecules or ions having resonance, the bond order changes and is calculated as follows, Bond order Total no. of bonds between two atoms in all the structures In benzene Total no. of resonating structures double bond singlebond 2 1 Bond order 1.5 2 2 In carbonate ion (iv) Polar bond length is usually smaller than the theoretical nonpolar bond length. “The amount of energy required to break one mole of bonds of a particular type so as to separate them into gaseous atoms is called bond dissociation energy or simply bond energy”. Greater is the bond energy, stronger is the bond. Bond energy is usually expressed in kJ mol –1 . Factors affecting bond energy (i) Greater the size of the atom, greater is the bond length and less is the bond dissociation energy i.e. less is the bond strength. (ii) For the bond between the two similar atoms, greater is the multiplicity of the bond, greater is the bond dissociation energy. (iii) Greater the number of lone pairs of electrons present on the bonded atoms, greater is the repulsion between the atoms and hence less is the bond dissociation energy. (iv) The bond energy increases as the hybrid orbitals have greater amount of s orbital contribution. Thus, bond energy decreases in the following order, sp sp 2 sp 3 (v) Greater the electronegativity difference, greater is the bond polarity and hence greater will be the bond strength i.e., bond energy, H F H Cl H Br H I , 94 Chemical Bonding (vi) Among halogens Cl – Cl > F – F > Br – Br > I – I, (Decreasing order of bond energy) Resonance increases bond energy. In case the central atom remains the same, bond angle increases with the decrease in electronegativity of the surrounding atom. (3) Bond angle In case of molecules made up of three or more atoms, the average angle between the bonded orbitals (i.e., between the two covalent bonds) is known as bond angle . Factors affecting bond angle (i) Repulsion between atoms or groups attached to the central atom may increase or decrease the bond angle. (ii) In hybridisation as the s character of the s hybrid bond increases, the bond angle increases. Bond type sp sp Bond angle 109º28 120° 3 PCl3 PBr3 PI3 , AsCl3 AsBr3 AsI3 100 o 101.5 o 102 o 98.4 o 100.5 o 101o Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory (VSEPR ) The basic concept of the theory was suggested by Sidgwick and Powell (1940). It provides useful idea for predicting shapes and geometries of molecules. The concept tells that, the arrangement of bonds around the central atom depends upon the repulsion’s operating between electron pairs(bonded or non bonded) around the central atom. Gillespie and Nyholm developed this concept as VSEPR theory. The main postulates of VSEPR theory are sp 2 Bond angle (1) For polyatomic molecules containing 3 or more atoms, one of the 180° atoms is called the central atom to which other atoms are linked. (iii) By increasing lone pair of electron, bond angle decreases approximately by 2.5%. CH Bond angle NH 4 109º 107 HO 3 2 105 o o (iv) If the electronegativity of the central atom decreases, bond angle decreases. Bond angle H 2O 104.5 o H 2S 92.2 o H 2 Se 91.2 o H 2 Te 89.5 o (2) The geometry of a molecule depends upon the total number of valence shell electron pairs (bonded or not bonded) present around the central atom and their repulsion due to relative sizes and shapes. (3) If the central atom is surrounded by bond pairs only. It gives the symmetrical shape to the molecule. (4) If the central atom is surrounded by lone pairs (lp) as well as bond pairs (bp) of e then the molecule has a distorted geometry. (5) The relative order of repulsion between electron pairs is as follows : lp – lp > lp – bp > bp – bp. A lone pair is concentrated around the central atom while a bond pair is pulled out between two bonded atoms. As such repulsion becomes greater when a lone pair is involved. Table : 3.2 Geometry of Molecules/Ions having bond pair as well as lone pair of electrons Type of mole-cule No. of bond pairs of electron No. of lone pairs of electrons Hybridization Bond angle Expected geometry AX 3 2 1 sp 2 < 120 Trigonal planar AX 4 2 2 sp 3 < 109 28 Tetrahedral AX 4 3 1 sp 3 < 109 28 AX 5 4 1 sp 3 d < 109 28 AX 5 3 2 sp 3 d 90 AX 5 2 3 sp 3 d 180 AX 6 5 1 sp 3 d 2 < 90 2 3 2 3 3 AX 6 AX 7 4 6 1 sp d sp d Actual geometry Examples V-shape, Bent, Angular V-shape, Angular H O, H S, SCl , OF , NH , ClO Tetrahedral Pyramidal NH , NF , PCl, PH, AsH, ClO , H O Trigonal bipyramidal Trigonal bipyramidal Trigonal bipyramidal Irregular tetrahedron SF , SCl , TeCl T-shaped ICl , IF , ClF Linear XeF , I , ICl Octahedral Square pyramidal ICl , BrF , IF – Octahedral Square planar XeF , ICl – Pentagonal pyramidal Distorted octahedral XeF o o o o o o o Molecular orbital theory or MOT Molecular orbital theory was given by Hund and Mulliken in 1932. The main ideas of this theory are, (1) When two atomic orbitals combine or overlap, they lose their identity and form new orbitals. The new orbitals thus formed are called molecular orbitals. SO , SnCl , NO 2 2 – 2 – 2 2 2 2 2 – 2 – 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 + 3 4 3 3 – 2 3 3 – 2 5 5 4 5 – 4 6 (2) Molecular orbitals are the energy states of a molecule in which the electrons of the molecule are filled just as atomic orbitals are the energy states of an atom in which the electrons of the atom are filled. (3) In terms of probability distribution, a molecular orbital gives the electron probability distribution around a group of nuclei just as an atomic orbital gives the electron probability distribution around the single nucleus. (4) Only those atomic orbitals can combine to form molecular orbitals which have comparable energies and proper orientation. Chemical Bonding (5) The number of molecular orbitals formed is equal to the number of combining atomic orbitals. (6) When two atomic orbitals combine, they form two new orbitals called bonding molecular orbital and antibonding molecular orbital. (7) The bonding molecular orbital has lower energy and hence greater stability than the corresponding antibonding molecular orbital. (8) The bonding molecular orbitals are represented by , etc, whereas the corresponding antibonding molecular orbitals are represented Increasing energy (for electrons > 14) (b) 1s, 1s, 2 s, * 2 s, 2 p y , 2 p x , * * 2pz Increasing energy (for electrons 14) (12) Number of bonds between two atoms is called order and is given by (11) Electrons are filled in the increasing energy of the MO which is in order (a) 1s, *1s, 2 s, * 2 s, 2 p x , 2 p y * 2 py , * 2 p x 2 pz , * 2 pz where N B number of electrons in bonding MO. N A number of electrons in antibonding MO. For a stable molecule/ion, N B N A (13) Bond order Stability of molecule Dissociation energy 1 . Bond length (14) If all the electrons in a molecule are paired then the substance is a diamagnetic on the other hand if there are unpaired electrons in the molecule, then the substance is paramagnetic. More the number of unpaired electron in the molecule greater is the paramagnetism of the substance. * (2pz) *(2pz) 2p 2p *(2py) 2p *(2px) bond N NA Bond order B 2 by * , * etc. (9) The shapes of the molecular orbitals formed depend upon the type of combining atomic orbitals. (10) The filling of molecular orbitals in a molecule takes place in accordance with Aufbau principle, Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule. The general order of increasing energy among the molecular orbitals formed by the elements of second period and hydrogen and their general electronic configurations are given below. 95 *(2py) 2p *(2px) (2py) (2px) (2pz) 2s 2s *(2s) Increasing energy Increasing energy (2pz) (2py) (2px) 2s (2s) (2s) 1s 1s 1s *(1s) Molecular orbitals 1s *(1s) (1s) (1s) Atomic orbitals 2s *(2s) Atomic orbitals Molecular orbital energy level diagram (Applicable for elements with Z > 7) Hydrogen bonding In 1920, Latimer and Rodebush introduced the idea of “hydrogen bond”. For the formation of H-bonding the molecule should contain an atom of high electronegativity such as F, O or N bonded to hydrogen atom and the size of the electronegative atom should be quite small. Types of hydrogen bonding (1) Intermolecular hydrogen bond : Intermolecular hydrogen bond is formed between two different molecules of the same or different substances. (i) Hydrogen bond between the molecules of hydrogen fluoride. Atomic orbitals Molecular orbitals Atomic orbitals Molecular orbital energy level diagram obtained by the overlap of 2s and 2pz atomic orbitals after mixing (Applicable for elements with Z < 7) (ii) Hydrogen bond in alcohol and water molecules (2) Intramolecular hydrogen bond (Chelation) Intramolecular hydrogen bond is formed between the hydrogen atom and the highly electronegative atom (F, O or N) present in the same molecule. Intramolecular hydrogen bond results in the cyclisation of the molecules and prevents their association. Consequently, the effect of intramolecular hydrogen bond on the physical properties is negligible. For example : Intramolecular hydrogen bonds are present in molecules such as o-nitrophenol, o-nitrobenzoic acid, etc. O H | | C C O O H O H O O H N N O | | Salicyldehyde O O (o-hydroxy benzaldehyde) Ortho nitrophenol Ortho nitrobenzoic acid 96 Chemical Bonding The extent of both intramolecular and intermolecular hydrogen bonding depends on temperature. Effects of hydrogen bonding Hydrogen bond helps in explaining the abnormal physical properties in several cases. Some of the properties affected by H-bond are given below, (1) Dissociation : In aqueous solution, hydrogen fluoride dissociates and gives the difluoride ion (HF2 ) instead of fluoride ion (F ) . This is due to H-bonding in HF. This explains the existence of KHF2 . H-bond formed is usually longer than the covalent bond present in the molecule (e.g. in H O, O–H bond = 0.99 Å but H-bond = 1.77 Å). 2 (2) Association : The molecules of carboxylic acids exist as dimers because of the hydrogen bonding. The molecular masses of such compounds are found to be double than those calculated from their simple formulae. For example, molecular mass of acetic acid is found to be 120. (5) As the compounds involving hydrogen bonding between different molecules (intermolecular hydrogen bonding) have higher boiling points, so they are less volatile. (6) The substances which contain hydrogen bonding have higher viscosity and high surface tension. (7) Explanation of lower density of ice than water and maximum density of water at 277K : In case of solid ice, the hydrogen bonding gives rise to a cage like structure of water molecules as shown in following figure. As a matter of fact, each water molecule is linked tetrahedrally to four other water molecules. Due to this structure ice has lower density than water at 273K. That is why ice floats on water. On heating, the hydrogen bonds start collapsing, obviously the molecules are not so closely packed as they are in the liquid state and thus the molecules start coming together resulting in the decrease of volume and hence increase of density. This goes on upto 277K. After 277 K, the increase in volume due to expansion of the liquid water becomes much more than the decrease in volume due to (3) High melting and boiling point : The compounds having hydrogen bonding show abnormally high melting and boiling points. breaking of H-bonds. Thus, after 277 K , there is net increase of volume on heating which means decrease in density. Hence density of water The high melting points and boiling points of the compounds (H 2 O, HF and NH 3 ) containing hydrogen bonds is due to the fact that is maximum 277 K . (4) Solubility : The compound which can form hydrogen bonds with the covalent molecules are soluble in such solvents. For example, lower alcohols are soluble in water because of the hydrogen bonding which can take place between water and alcohol molecules as shown below, H 0.90 Å (99 pm) some extra energy is needed to break these bonds. H H H The intermolecular hydrogen bonding increases solubility of the compound in water while, the intramolecular hydrogen bonding decreases. Vacant spaces O O C2 H 5 H H H H H O H O .......... ...... H O .......... ..... H O C2 H 5 1.77 Å (177 pm) O H O H H O H H O H H H O O N | O H – O …… H – O – H H O o- Nitrophenol Due to chelation, – OH group is not available to form hydrogen bond with water hence it is sparingly soluble in water. H O H Cage like structure of H2O in the ice ON=O p- Nitrophenol – OH group available to form hydrogen bond with water, hence it is completely soluble in water. 98 Chemical Bonding Electrovalent bonding 1. Which forms a crystal of NaCl [CPMT 1972; NCERT 1976; DPMT 1996] A chemical bond is expected to be formed when the energy of the 2. aggregate formed is about 40 kJ mole lower than the separate particles. –1 Formation of a chemical bond is always an exothermic process. Lattice energies of bi-bivalent solids > bi-univalent solids > uniunivalent solids. For example, lattice energy 3. [CPMT 1976; BHU 1998] of (a) Mg 2 O 2 (3932 kJ mole 1 ) Ca 2 (F )2 (2581 kJ mole 1 ) 1 4. Li F (1034 kJ mole ) . elements of the middle columns of the periodic table. is more than that of Fe 5. . Similarly SnCl 4 is more covalent than SnCl 2 . Boron forms the maximum number of electron deficient 2 2 p , 3 s ; R 1s , 2 s 6 1 2 2 6. [CPMT 1978, 81; MNR 1979] Roughly each lone pair decreases the bond angle by 2.5°. Greater the number of the lone pairs at the two bonding atoms, 7. The actual number of s- and p-electrons present in the outermost shell of the element is called maximum covalency of that atom. 8. The hydrogen bonds are tetrahedral in their directions and not planar. The hydrogen bond is stronger in HF and persists even in vapour 9. state. Such bonds account for the fact that gaseous hydrogen fluoride is largely polymerised into the molecular species H 2 F2 , H 3 F3 , H 4 F4 , H 5 F5 and H 6 F6 . Hydrogen bonding is strongest when the bonded structure is (a) Electrically charged molecules (b) Neutral molecules (c) Neutral atoms (d) Electrically charged atoms or group of atoms Electrovalent bond formation depends on (a) Ionization energy (b) Electron affinity (c) Lattice energy (d) All the three above In the following which substance will have highest boiling point [NCERT 1973; M (a) He (b) CsF (c) NH 3 (d) CHCl 3 An atom of sodium loses one electron and chlorine atom accepts one electron. This result the formation of sodium chloride molecule. This type of molecule will be [MP PMT 1987] (a) Coordinate (c) Electrovalent 10. stabilised by resonance. Critical temperature of water is higher than that of O 2 because H 2 O molecule has dipole moment. 2 (c) P2 L, RL, PQ and RQ2 (d) LP , R2 L, P2Q and RQ Electrovalent compound's [MP PMT 1984] (a) Melting points are low (b) Boiling points are low (c) Conduct current in fused state (d) Insoluble in polar solvent A electrovalent compound is made up of compounds than any other elements in the periodic table. greater is the repulsion between them and weaker is the bond. 2 p , 3s 6 The formulae of ionic compounds that can be formed between these elements are [NCERT 1983] (a) L2 P, RL, PQ and R2 Q (b) LP , RL, PQ and RQ As a general rule, atomic crystals are formed by the lighter Fe (c) BaCl2 (d) CaCl 2 The electronic configuration of four elements L, P, Q and R are given in brackets 2 Ionic solids have negative vapour pressure. 2 KCl L 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 4 ; Q 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 5 attraction increases and hence stability increases. 3 (b) AgCl P 1s , 2 s When co-ordination number increases, the coulombic forces of FeCl3 is more covalent than FeCl2 because polarising power of (a) NaCl molecules (b) Na and Cl ions (c) Na and Cl atoms (d) None of the above When sodium and chlorine reacts then [NCERT 1973] (a) Energy is released and ionic bond is formed (b) Energy is released and a covalent bond is formed (c) Energy is absorbed and ionic bond is formed (d) Energy is absorbed and covalent bond is formed Which one is least ionic in the following compounds 11. 12. (b) Covalent (d) Matallic bond Formula of a metallic oxide is MO. The formula of its phosphate will be [CPMT 1986, 93] (a) M 2 PO4 2 (b) M PO4 (c) M 2 PO4 (d) M 3 PO4 2 From the following which group of elements easily forms cation (a) F, Cl, Br (b) Li, Na, K (c) O, S , Se (d) N , P, As Which type of compounds show high melting and boiling points (a) Electrovalent compounds (b) Covalent compounds Chemical Bonding 13. (c) Coordinate compounds (d) All the three types of compounds have equal melting and boiling points Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon 14. (a) Charge on the ion only (b) Size of the ion only (c) Packing of ions only (d) Charge on the ion and size of the ion In the given bonds which one is most ionic 23. [AIEEE 2005] 24. 15. 16. 17. Cs Cl (b) Al Cl (c) C Cl (d) H Cl Element x is strongly electropositive and y is strongly electronegative. Both element are univalent, the compounds formed from their combination will be [IIT 1980] (a) x y (b) x y (c) x y (d) x y In the transition of Zn atoms to Zn ions there is a decrease in the [CPMT 1972] (a) Number of valency electrons (b) Atomic weight (c) Atomic number (d) Equivalent weight Phosphate of a metal M has the formula M 3 PO4 2 . The formula for its sulphate would be [CPMT 1973; MP PMT 1996] [EAMCET 1980] (a) 25. 26. In the formation of NaCl from Na and Cl [CPMT 1985] (a) Sodium and chlorine both give electrons (b) Sodium and chlorine both accept electrons (c) Sodium loses electron and chlorine accepts electron (d) Sodium accepts electron and chlorine loses electron Which of the following is an electrovalent linkage (a) MSO 4 (b) M SO 4 2 (c) M 2 SO 4 3 (d) M 3 SO 4 2 The molecular formula of chloride of a metal M is MCl 3 . The formula of its carbonate would be [CPMT 1987] (a) MCO 3 (b) M 2 CO 3 3 (c) M 2 CO 3 (d) M CO 3 2 Sodium chloride easily dissolves in water. This is because [NCERT 1972; BHU 1973] (a) (b) (c) (d) 27. It is a covalent compound Salt reacts with water It is a white substance Its ions are easily solvated When NaCl is dissolved in water the sodium ion becomes [CPMT 1974; DPMT 1984, 91; AFMC 1988] 18. 19. (a) CH 4 (b) MgCl2 (c) SiCl4 (d) BF3 [NCERT 1974; CPMT 1989; MP PMT 1999] (a) Oxidized (c) Hydrolysed Electrovalent compounds do not have [CPMT 1991] (a) High M.P. and Low B.P. (b) High dielectric constant (c) High M.P. and High B.P. (d) High polarity Many ionic crystals dissolve in water because 28. (a) (b) (c) (d) Water is an amphiprotic solvent Water is a high boiling liquid The process is accompanied by a positive heat of solution Water decreases the interionic attraction in the crystal lattice due to solvation The electronic structure of four elements A, B, C, D are (A) 1s 2 (B) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 2 (C) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 5 (D) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 Solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity since (a) In solid NaCl there are no ions (b) Solid NaCl is covalent (c) In solid NaCl there is no motion of ions 29. 30. (d) In solid NaCl there are no electrons Favourable conditions for electrovalency are (a) Low charge on ions, large cation, small anion (b) High charge on ions, small cation, large anion (c) High charge on ions, large cation, small anion (d) Low charge on ions, small cation, large anion The sulphate of a metal has the formula M 2 SO 4 3 . The formula for its phosphate will be The tendency to form electrovalent bond is largest in [MNR 1987, 95] (a) A (c) C 21. 22. (a) (b) B (d) D Chloride of metal is MCl 2 . The formula of its phosphate will be (a) M 2 PO4 (b) M 3 PO4 2 (c) M 2 PO4 3 (d) MPO4 The phosphate of a metal has the formula MPO4 . The formula of its nitrate will be [CPMT 1971; MP PMT 1996] (a) MNO 3 (b) M 2 NO 3 2 (c) M NO 3 2 (d) M NO 3 3 (b) Reduced (d) Hydrated [AFMC 1980] [NCERT 1982] 20. 99 (c) 31. 32. M HPO4 2 M 2 PO4 3 [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1972; MP PMT 1995] (b) M 3 PO4 2 (d) MPO4 Ionic bonds are usually formed by combination of elements with [CBSE PMT 199 [CPMT 1979] (a) High ionisation potential and low electron affinity (b) Low ionisation potential and high electron affinity (c) High ionisation potential and high electron affinity (d) Low ionisation potential and low electron affinity Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of (a) Free electrons (b) Free ions (c) Free molecules (d) Atoms of sodium and chlorine 100 Chemical Bonding 33. The phosphate of a metal has the formula MHPO4 . The formula of its chloride would be 45. [NCERT 1974; CPMT 1977] (a) MCl (b) MCl 2 (c) MCl 3 (d) M 2 Cl 3 46. 35. A number of ionic compounds e.g. AgCl, CaF2 , BaSO 4 are insoluble in water. This is because [NCERT 1984] (a) Ionic compounds do not dissolve in water (b) Water has a high dielectric constant (c) Water is not a good ionizing solvent (d) These molecules have exceptionally high alternative forces in the lattice What is the nature of chemical bonding between Cs and F 36. (a) Covalent (b) Ionic (c) Coordinate (d) Metallic Which one of the following compound is ionic 34. 47. 48. [MP PMT 1987; CPMT 1976] [MNR 1985] (a) KCl (c) Diamond 37. (b) CH 4 (d) H2 Which of the following compound has electrovalent linkage [CPMT 1983, 84, 93] 38. 39. 40. 41. (a) CH 3 Cl (b) (c) CH 4 (d) Cl 2 Chemical formula for calcium pyrophosphate is Ca 2 P2 O7 . The formula for ferric pyrophosphate will be [NCERT 1977] (a) Fe3 (P2 O7 )3 (b) Fe4 P4 O14 (c) Fe4 (P2 O7 )3 (d) Fe3 PO4 Among the bonds formed by a chlorine atom with atoms of hydrogen, chlorine, sodium and carbon, the strongest bond is formed between [EAMCET 1988; MP PMT 1993] 43. (a) BeF2 (b) SrF2 (c) CaF2 (d) MgF2 NaCl (b) He (b) CsCl (c) NH 3 (d) CHCl 3 What is the effect of more electronegative atom on the strength of ionic bond [AMU 1999] (a) Decreases (b) Increases [AMU 1982] (c) Decreases slowly (d) Remains the same 52. An element X with the electronic configuration 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 would be expected to form the chloride with the formula 53. 54. 55. [CPMT 1989] Which of the following halides has maximum melting point (a) 51. (b) Cl Cl (c) Na Cl (d) C Cl Which of the following is least soluble (a) 44. H Cl 50. NaCl An ionic compound is generally a [MADT Bihar 1981] (a) Good electrolyte (b) Weak electrolyte (c) Non-electrolyte (d) Neutral What metals combine with non-metals, the metal atom tends to (a) Lose electrons (b) Gain electrons (c) Remain electrically neutral (d) None of these (a) 42. 49. Out of the following, which compound will have electrovalent bonding (a) Ammonia (b) Water (c) Calcium chloride (d) Chloromethane The force which holds atoms together in an electrovalent bond is (a) Vander Waal's force (b) Dipole attraction force (c) Electrostatic force of attraction (d) All the above The main reaction during electrovalent bond formation is (a) Redox reaction (b) Substitution reaction (c) Addition reaction (d) Elimination reaction Electrovalent compounds are [CPMT 1996] (a) Good conductor of electricity (b) Polar in nature (c) Low M.P. and low B.P. (d) Easily available Ionic compounds do not have [RPMT 1997] (a) Hard and brittle nature (b) High melting and boiling point (c) Directional properties (d) Soluble in polar solvents Highest melting point would be of [RPMT 1999] (a) XCl 3 (b) XCl 2 (c) XCl (d) X 2 Cl Two element have electronegativity between them would be (a) Ionic (b) (c) Co-ordinate (d) Which of the following is least ionic of 1.2 and 3.0. Bond formed [CPMT 1982; DCE 2000] Polar covalent Metallic [MP PET 2002] (a) C 2 H 5 Cl (b) (c) BaCl2 (d) C 6 H 5 N H 3 Cl KCl Which type of bonding exists in Li 2 O and CaF2 respectively [RPET 2000] 56. (a) Ionic, ionic (b) Ionic, covalent (c) Covalent, ionic (d) Coordinate, ionic An atom with atomic number 20 is most likely to combine chemically with the atom whose atomic number is NaBr (c) NaI (d) NaF The high melting point and insolubility in organic solvents of sulphanilic acid are due to its ...... structure. [IIT 1994] (a) Simple ionic (b) Bipolar ionic (c) Cubic (d) Hexagonal [BHU 2000] 57. (a) 11 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 10 Bond formed in crystal by anion and cation is [CBSE PMT 2000] (a) Ionic (b) Metallic Chemical Bonding 58. 59. (c) Covalent (d) Dipole Atoms or group of atoms which are electrically charged are known (a) Anions (b) Cations (c) Ions (d) Atoms Which one is the strongest bond [Pb. PMT 2001] (a) Br – F (b) 3. 61. [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002] 2 62. (d) H 2 Zn 2 and Ni 2 63. 64. (a) Hydration energy (b) Lattice energy (c) Internal energy (d) Bond energy Which of the following has highest melting point 7. [DPMT 1986; CPMT 1986] [DPMT 1985, 86; NCERT 1975] [CPMT 2002] 8. 65. 66. 67. BeCl 2 (b) MgCl2 (c) CaCl 2 (d) BaCl2 (c) 68. CaH 2 (b) SrH 2 (d) 9. BeH 2 Which of the following conduct electricity in the fused state 13. [Roorkee 2000] BeCl 2 (b) MgCl2 (c) SrCl 2 (d) BaCl2 14. Covalent bonding 1. 2. The valency of sulphur in sulphuric acid is [NCERT 1974] (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 The number of electrons involved in the bond formation of N 2 molecule [IIT 1980; CPMT 1983, 84, 85; CBSE PMT 1992] (a) 2 (b) 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 [CPMT 1987] BaH 2 (a) 2 2 Which of the following statements is not true for ionic compounds [RPET 2003] (a) High melting point (b) Least lattice energy 10. (c) Least solubility in organic compounds (d) Soluble in water Electrolytes are compound containing [MADT Bihar 1981] 11. (a) Electrovalent bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Coordinate bond (d) Hydrogen bond Which of the following hydrides are ionic [Roorkee 1999] 12. (a) (a) Iodine crystal (b) Solid CO 2 (c) Silica (d) White phosphorus With which of the given pairs CO resembles [BHU 2005] (a) HgCl , C H (b) HgCl , SnCl (c) C H , NO (d) N O and NO The electron pair which forms a bond between two similar nonmetallic atoms will be [IIT 1986] (a) Dissimilar shared between the two (b) By complete transfer from one atom to other (c) In a similar spin condition (d) Equally shared in between the two For the formation of covalent bond, the difference in the value of electronegativities should be [EAMCET 1982] (a) Equal to or less than 1.7 (b) More than 1.7 (c) 1.7 or more (d) None of these Which type of bond is formed between similar atoms (a) Ionic (b) Covalent (c) Coordinate (d) Metallic Covalent compounds are generally ...... in water 2 [RPET 2003] (a) (a) Covalent (b) Ionic (c) Metallic (d) Coordinate Which of the following substances has giant covalent structure (b) Co 3 and Ni 4 (c) Co 2 and Ni 2 (d) Ti 4 and V 3 The energy that opposes dissolution of a solvent is 2 p 6 , 3 s1 ; R 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 2 6. 4. 5. Which of the following pairs of species has same electronic configuration [UPSEAT 2002] (a) 2 (a) Q (b) M (c) R (d) L In covalency [CPMT 1974, 76, 78, 81; AFMC 1982] (a) Electrons are transferred (b) Electrons are equally shared (c) The electron of one atom are shared between two atoms (d) None of the above Which compound is highest covalent (a) LiCl (b) LiF (c) LiBr (d) LiI The nature of bonding in graphite is [UPSEAT 2002] (c) Diamond [NCERT 1983] (a) Solute-Solute (b) Solvent-Solvent (c) The charges (d) Molecular properties Which of the following compounds is ionic (b) CH 4 Q 1s , 2 s The element that would most readily form a diatomic molecule is 60. KI (c) 6 (d) 10 The electronic of four elements are given in brackets [UPSEATconfiguration 2001] L 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 1 ; M 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 5 F–F (c) Cl – F (d) Br – Cl The interionic attraction depends on interaction of (a) 101 15. 16. (a) Soluble (b) Insoluble (c) Dissociated (d) Hydrolysed Which one is the electron deficient compound (a) ICl (b) NH 3 [AIIMS 1982] (c) BCl3 (d) PCl3 Which among the following elements has the tendency to form covalent compounds (a) Ba (b) Be (c) Mg (d) Ca Silicon has 4 electrons in the outermost orbit. In forming the bonds (a) It gains electrons (b) It loses electrons (c) It shares electrons (d) None of these Which of the following occurs when two hydrogen atoms bond with each others (a) Potential energy is lowered (b) Kinetic energy is lowered 102 Chemical Bonding 18. (c) Electronic motion ceases (d) Energy is absorbed A bond with maximum covalent character between non-metallic elements is formed [NCERT 1982] (a) Between identical atoms (b) Between chemically similar atoms (c) Between atoms of widely different electronegativities (d) Between atoms of the same size Amongst the following covalent bonding is found in 19. (a) Sodium chloride (b) Magnesium chloride (c) Water (d) Brass Indicate the nature of bonding in diamond 20. (a) Covalent (b) Ionic (c) Coordinate (d) Hydrogen Octet rule is not valid for the molecule 17. 27. 21. CO 2 (b) (c) CO (d) O 2 22. (b) CaO (c) KCl (d) Na 2 S 28. 29. 33. 24. (c) .. (d) : X . .. 35. Which is the most covalent (a) (c) 25. 34. C O CS [AFMC 1982] (b) C Br [CPMT 1987] (b) 3 (d) 5 Hydrogen chloride molecule contains a [CPMT 1984] (a) Covalent bond (b) Double bond (c) Coordinate bond (d) Electrovalent bond As compared to covalent compounds, electrovalent compounds generally have [CPMT 1990, 94; MP PMT 1997] (a) Low melting points and low boiling points (d) C F (b) Low melting points and high boiling points The covalent compound HCl has the ionic character as (c) High melting points and low boiling points [EAMCET 1980] 26. (b) Sodium chloride (d) Copper The covalency of nitrogen in HNO 3 is (a) 0 (c) 4 If the atomic number of element X is 7, the best electron dot symbol for the element is [NCERT 1973; CPMT 2003] . . X : . [DPMT 1984] [AMU 1985] (a) Germanium (c) Solid neon (d) Electrovalent in CCl 4 and covalent in CaH 2 (b) . X . (a) Molecular solid (b) Ionic solid (c) Pseudo solid (d) Does not exist A covalent bond is likely to be formed between two elements which (a) Have similar electronegativities (b) Have low ionization energies (c) Have low melting points (d) Form ions with a small charge The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a pair of electrons [CPMT 1986] (a) Unequally shared between the two (b) Transferred fully from one atom to another (c) With identical spins (d) Equally shared between them 32. (c) Covalent in both CCl 4 and CaH 2 X . [DPMT 1983] (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 1 Which of the following substances has covalent bonding (b) Electrovalent in both CCl 4 and CaH 2 (a) Solid CH 4 is The valency of phosphorus in H 3 PO4 is [NCERT 1973] 23. Bond energy of covalent O H bond in water is 31. Indicate the nature of bonding in CCl 4 and CaH 2 (a) Covalent in CCl 4 and electrovalent in CaH 2 BeCl 2 LiCl NaCl (c) Less than bond energy of H bond (d) None of these [IIT 1980; MLNR 1982] H2 (d) (b) Equal to bond energy of H bond Which of the following compounds are covalent (a) NaCl LiCl BeCl 2 [EAMCET 1982] 30. H 2O BeCl 2 NaCl LiCl (a) Greater than bond energy of H bond [IIT 1979; MP PMT 1995] (a) (b) (c) [CPMT 1973] [EAMCET 1980; BHU 1996; KCET 2000] (a) LiCl NaCl BeCl 2 (a) The electronegativity of hydrogen is greater than that of chlorine (b) The electronegativity of hydrogen is equal to that of chlorine (c) The electronegativity of chlorine is greater than that of hydrogen (d) Hydrogen and chlorine are gases The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by [CBSE PMT 2005] (d) High melting points and high boiling points 36. The interatomic distances in H 2 and Cl 2 molecules are 74 and 198 pm respectively. The bond length of HCl is [MP PET 1993] 37. (a) 272 pm (b) 136 pm (c) 124 pm (d) 248 pm On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the ratio of 254 gm of iodine and 80 gm of oxygen. Chemical Bonding The atomic mass of iodine is 127 and that of oxygen is 16. Which of the following is the formula of the compound 38. (a) IO (b) I2 O (c) I5 O 2 (d) I2 O5 (e) 47. Ionic and covalent bonds are present in [CBSE PMT 1990; MNR 1990; KCET 2000; UPSEAT 2001] 39. 40. 41. 42. (a) CCl 4 (b) CaCl 2 (c) NH 4 Cl (d) H 2O Highest covalent character is found in [EAMCET 1992] (a) CaF2 (b) CaCl 2 (c) CaBr2 (d) CaI 2 Among the following which property is commonly exhibited by a covalent compound [MP PET 1994] (a) High solubility in water (b) High electrical conductance (c) Low boiling point (d) High melting point Atoms in the water molecule are linked by [MP PAT 1996] (a) Electrovalent bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Coordinate covalent bond (d) Odd electron bond 48. 49. [MP PET 1996] .. .. .. N N O .. .. (c) 43. 44. .. (b) : N N O : .. 51. .. (d) : N N O : .. 52. A covalent bond between two atoms is formed by which of the following [MP PMT 1996] (a) Electron nuclear attraction (b) Electron sharing (c) Electron transfer (d) Electrostatic attraction The 2 electronic 2 6 configuration of a metal M 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s . The formula of its oxides will be 53. 45. 46. MO (b) M 2O (c) M 2 O3 (d) MO 2 54. 55. (a) M 2 A3 (b) MA 2 (c) M2 A (d) MA3 CB 240 328 C C 276 485 CD (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D If a molecule X 2 has a triple bond, then X will have the electronic configuration [CET Pune 1998] (a) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 (b) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3 (c) 1s 2 2 s 1 (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 1 Which of the following compounds does not follow the octet rule for electron distribution [CET Pune 1998] (a) PCl5 (b) PCl 3 H 2O (d) PH 3 The valency of A 3 and B 2 , then the compound is (a) A2 B3 (b) A3 B2 (c) A3 B3 (d) A2 B2 (e) None of these The number of electrons shared by each outermost shell of N 2 is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 Which of the following substances when dissolved in water will give a solution that does not conduct electricity (a) Hydrogen chloride (b) Potassium hydroxide (c) Sodium acetate (d) Urea Which of the following atoms has minimum covalent radius (a) B (b) C (c) N (d) Si Boron form covalent compound due to [Pb. PMT 2000] (a) Small size (b) Higher ionization energy (c) Lower ionization energy (d) Both (a) and (b) Two elements X and Y have following electron configurations and Y 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 The compound formed by combination of X and Y is [DPMT 2001] 56. [Bihar MEE 1996] CA X 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 , 4 s 2 Which of the following statements regarding covalent bond is not true [MP PET/PMT 1998] (a) The electrons are shared between atoms (b) The bond is non-directional (c) The strength of the bond depends upon the extent of overlapping (d) The bond formed may or may not be polar If the electronic configuration of M 2, 8, 3 and that of A 2, 8, 7, the formula of the compound is E diss (kJ mol 1 ) [DPMT 2000] [MP PET/PMT 1998] (a) Bond [JIPMER 1999] is 1 [CPMT 1981] [Bihar MEE 1997] Which is the correct electron dot structure of N 2 O molecule .. (a) : N N O .. M3 A The table shown below gives the bond dissociation energies (E diss ) for single covalent bonds of carbon (C) atoms with element A, B, C and D. Which element has the smallest atoms[CBSE PMT 1994] (c) 50. 103 (a) XY5 (b) X 2 Y5 (c) X 5 Y3 (d) XY 2 Covalent compounds have low melting point because [KCET 2002] (a) Covalent bond is less exothermic (b) Covalent molecules have definite shape (c) Covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond 104 Chemical Bonding 57. (d) Covalent molecules are held by weak Vander Waal’s force of attraction p and n-type of semiconductors are formed due to 58. (a) Covalent bonds (b) Metallic bonds (c) Ionic bonds (d) Co-ordinate bond Which of the following is Lewis acid [RPET 2003] 72. (a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 Hydrogen atoms are held together to form hydrogen molecules by (a) Hydrogen bond (b) Ionic bond (c) Covalent bond (d) Dative bond Strongest bond is [AFMC 1987] (a) C C (b) C H (c) C N (d) C O The major binding force of diamond, silicon and quartz is 73. (a) Electrostatic force (b) Electrical attraction (c) Co-valent bond force (d) Non-covalent bond force Multiple covalent bonds exist in a molecule of [NCERT 1973] 70. [UPSEAT 2002] 59. (a) BF3 (b) NH 3 (c) PH 3 (d) SO 2 71. [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002] Among the species : CO 2 , CH 3 COO , CO , CO 3 2 , HCHO which has the weakest carbon- oxygen bond [Kerala PMT 2004] (a) CO 2 (c) CO (b) CH 3 COO 74. 2 (d) CO 3 Valency of sulphur in Na 2 S 2 O 3 is (a) Two (c) Four 61. [DPMT 1984] (b) Three (d) Six 75. The acid having O O bond is [IIT JEE Screening 2004] 62. (a) H 2 S 2 O3 (b) H 2 S 2 O6 (c) H 2 S 2 O8 (d) H 2 S 4 O6 76. The following salt shows maximum covalent character [UPSEAT 2004] 63. (a) AlCl3 (b) MgCl2 (c) CsCl (d) LaCl 3 65. (a) O is more electronegative than S (b) O H bond is stronger than S H bond (c) O H bond is weaker than S H bond (d) None of these Which of the following has covalent bond F2 (c) C2 H 4 (d) N2 Which of the following does not obey the octet rule (a) CO (b) NH 3 (c) H 2O (d) PCl5 Which of the following statements is correct for covalent bond (a) Electrons are shared between two atoms (b) It may be polar or non-polar (c) Direction is non-polar (d) Valency electrons are attracted Among CaH 2 , NH 3 , NaH and B2 H 6 , which are covalent hydride [Orissa JEE 2005] (a) NH 3 and B2 H 6 (b) NaH and CaH 2 (c) NaH and NH 3 1. [MHCET 2003; Pb CET 2001] 64. (b) Which species has the maximum number of lone pair of electrons on the central atom? [IIT 2005] (a) [ClO ] 3 66. 67. 68. 69. Na 2 S (b) (b) XeF 4 [BVP 2004] 2. 3. valency in acetylene C 2 H 2 is [NCERT 1971] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Number of electrons in the valence orbit of nitrogen in an ammonia molecule are [MH CET 2004] 3 (a) C2 H 2 (b) H 2 SO 4 (c) NH 3 (d) HCl The bond that exists between NH 3 and BF3 is called [AFMC 1982; MP PMT 1985; MNR 1994; KCET 2000; MP PET 2001; UPSEAT 2001] AlCl3 (c) NaH (d) MgCl2 The following element forms a molecule with eight its own weight atoms [MHCET 2004] (a) Si (b) S (c) Cl (d) P In H 2 O2 , the two oxygen atoms have (a) Electrovalent bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Coordinate bond (d) No bond Carbon has a valency of 2 in CO and 4 in CO 2 and CH 4 . Its 4 (c) SF (d) [I ] A simple example of a coordinate covalent bond is exhibited by [AFMC 1988; DCE 2004] (a) (d) CaH 2 and B2 H 6 Co-ordinate or Dative bonding Which type of bond is present in H 2 S molecule (a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Co-ordinate (d) All of three H 2 S is more acidic than H 2 O , due to H2 [EAMCET 1993] (e) HCHO 60. (a) 4. (a) Electrovalent (b) Covalent (c) Coordinate (d) Hydrogen Which of the following does not have a coordinate bond [MADT Bihar 1984] 5. (a) SO 2 (b) HNO 3 (c) H 2 SO 3 (d) HNO 2 Coordinate covalent compounds are formed by [CPMT 1990, 94] 6. (a) Transfer of electrons (b) Sharing of electrons (c) Donation of electrons (d) None of these process In the coordinate valency [CPMT 1989] (a) Electrons are equally shared by the atoms (b) Electrons of one atom are shared with two atoms (c) Hydrogen bond is formed [ Chemical Bonding 7. [DPMT 1985] (d) None of the above Which of the following contains a coordinate covalent bond [MNR 1990; IIT 1986] 8. 9. 10. (a) N 2 O5 (b) BaCl 2 (c) HCl (d) H 2O 3. SO 32 (b) CH 4 (c) CO 2 (d) 13. NH 3 O3 (b) (c) H 2 SO 4 (d) All of these Which molecule has the largest dipole moment (b) (a) CH 3 NC (b) CH 3 OH (c) CH 3 Cl (d) 6. (a) Water (b) Ethanol (c) Ethane (d) Ether Which of the following molecules will show dipole moment [NCERT 1972, 74; DPMT 1985] (c) [KCET 2003] | O O | | H H (d) O H O P O 9. 10. | (a) Covalent (b) Co-ordinate covalent (c) Ionic bond (d) Banana shaped bond Sulphuric acid provides a example of 11. [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002] (a) (b) (c) (d) Co-ordinate bonds Non-covalent compound Covalent and co-ordinate bond Non-covalent ion Dipole moment 12. (a) H 2O (c) 150 o (d) 180 o Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment[CBSE PMT 2005 (a) BF3 (b) SiF4 (c) SF4 (d) XeF4 Carbon tetrachloride has no net dipole moment because of (a) Its planar structure (b) Its regular tetrahedral structure (c) Similar sizes of carbon and chlorine atoms (d) Similar electron affinities of carbon and chlorine The molecule which has the largest dipole moment amongst the following [MNR 1983] (a) CH 4 (b) CHCl 3 (c) CCl 4 (d) CHI 3 Positive dipole moment is present in 13. 14. (a) CCl 4 (b) C 6 H 6 (c) BF3 (d) HF The polarity of a covalent bond between two atoms depends upon (a) Atomic size (b) Electronegativity (c) Ionic size (d) None of the above Pick out the molecule which has zero dipole moment [CPMT 1989; EAMCET 1993; MP PMT 1999] (b) CO 2 (c) HF (d) HBr In the following which one have zero dipole moment (b) 120 o [MNR 1986; MP PET 2000] Which molecules has zero dipole moment [AIIMS 1980, 82, 91; Roorkee 2000; MH CET 2001] Which bond angle would result in the maximum dipole moment for the triatomic molecule YXY [AIIMS 1980] [IIT 1982, 83; MP PMT 1985, 91; EAMCET 1988; AMU 1999] H What is the nature of the bond between B and O in (C 2 H 5 )2 OBH 3 [Orissa JEE 2003] (a) Methane (b) Carbon tetrachloride (c) Chloroform (d) Carbon dioxide Which of the following compounds possesses the dipole moment[NCERT 1978; E [RPET 2003] (a) Water (b) Boron trifluoride (c) Benzene (d) Carbon tetrachloride (a) 90 o H (b) O P O H | O P OH 7. 8. NH 3 The structure of orthophosphoric acid is O H O P O H HI 5. SO 3 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 Which of the following compounds has coordinate (dative) bond | 2. (d) All of these The number of dative bonds in sulphuric acid molecules is H 1. BeCl 2 [NCERT 1975; Kurukshetra CEE 1998] (a) | 15. (c) The compound containing co-ordinate bond is (a) 14. (b) CCl 4 (c) HBr (d) HF The unequal sharing of bonded pair of electrons between two atoms in a molecule causes [EAMCET 1986] (a) Dipole (b) Radical formation (c) Covalent bond (d) Decomposition of molecule Which of the following will show least dipole character 4. [MP PET 2002] 12. BF3 [CBSE 1992] (a)PMTHCl [AFMC 1999; Pb. CET 2002] 11. (a) [CPMT 1991] A coordinate bond is formed when an atom in a molecule has (a) Electric charge on it (b) All its valency electrons shared (c) A single unshared electron (d) One or more unshared electron pair Which has a coordinate bond [RPMT 1997] (a) 105 (a) NH 3 (b) H 2O (c) BCl 3 (d) SO 2 106 Chemical Bonding 15. Zero dipole moment is present in [DPMT 1986; IIT 1987] (a) 16. (b) NH 3 (c) Sulphur dioxide H 2O 28. (c) cis 1, 2-dichloroethene (d) trans 1, 2-dichloroethene Which of the following is the most polar [AFMC 1988] (a) CCl 4 (b) CHCl 3 (c) CH 3 OH (d) CH 3 Cl Which one has minimum (nearly zero) dipole moment 18. (a) Butene-1 (b) cis butene-2 (c) trans butene-2 (d) 2-methyl-1-propene Which one of the following is having zero dipole moment [IIT Screening 1994; CBSE PMT 1996] [RPMT 1997; EAMCET 1988; MNR 1991] 19. (a) CCl 4 (b) CH 3 Cl (c) CH 3 F (d) CHCl 3 Which of the following molecules does not possess a permanent dipole moment [CBSE PMT 1994] (a) H 2 S (b) SO 2 (c) 20. (d) CS 2 21. 30. 31. CH 2 Cl 2 (b) CH 4 (c) NH 3 (d) 32. PH 3 Fluorine is more electronegative than either boron or phosphorus. What conclusion can be drawn from the fact that BF3 has no 33. dipole moment but PF3 does [Pb. PMT 1998] (a) BF3 is not spherically symmetrical but PF3 is (b) BF3 molecule must be linear 34. (c) The atomic radius of P is larger than the atomic radius of B (d) The BF3 molecule must be planar triangular 22. [RPET 1997, 99] 23. BF3 (b) (c) CCl 4 (d) CH 4 NH 3 35. The dipole moment of HBr is 1.6 10 30 cm and interatomic spacing is 1Å. The % ionic character of HBr is [MP PMT 2000] 24. 25. (a) 7 (b) (c) 15 (d) Non-polar solvent is (a) Dimethyl sulphoxide (b) (c) Ammonia (d) Which shows the least dipole moment 10 27 Carbon tetrachloride Ethyl alcohol (a) CCl 4 (b) CHCl 3 (c) CH 3 CH 2 OH (d) CH 3 COCH 3 Which molecule has zero dipole moment (a) H 2 O (b) AgI (c) PbSO 4 27. (b) H 2 Se (c) CH 4 (d) HI Which of the following has no dipole moment (a) CO 2 (b) SO 3 (c) O3 (d) H 2O Which of the following is non-polar [DCE 2002] (a) PCl5 (b) PCl3 (c) SF6 (d) IF7 Identify the non-polar molecule in the set of compounds given : [UPSEAT 2004] HCl, HF, H 2 , HBr (a) H2 (b) HCl (c) HF, HBr (d) HBr Dipole moment is shown by (a) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene [IIT 1986] (d) trans 1, 2-dichloro-2-pentene If HCl molecule is completely polarized, so expected value of dipole moment is 6.12D (deby), but experimental value of dipole moment is 1.03D. Calculate the percentage ionic character [Kerala CET 2005] (a) 17 (b) 83 (c) 50 (d) Zero (e) 90 Polarisation and Fajan's rule 1. BF3 and NF3 both molecules are covalent, but BF3 is non-polar and NF3 is polar. Its reason is [CPMT 1989; NCERT 1980] (a) In uncombined state boron is metal and nitrogen is gas B F bond has no dipole moment whereas N F bond has dipole moment (c) The size of boron atom is smaller than nitrogen (b) [UPSEAT 2001] (d) HBr (d) The dipole moment is zero for the molecule [IIT 1989; MP PMT 2002] (a) Ammonia HCl [RPET 2000] [UPSEAT 2001; DPMT 1982] 26. (a) (b) cis 1, 2-dichloroethene (c) trans 1, 2-dichloroethene Which molecule does not show zero dipole moment (a) In a polar molecule, the ionic charge is 4.8 10 10 e.s.u. If the inter ionic distance is one Å unit, then the dipole moment is (a) 41.8 debye (b) 4.18 debye (c) 4.8 debye (d) 0.48 debye Which of the following is a polar compound [DCE 2002] Which of the following has zero dipole moment (a) Presence of more electrons in orbitals Absence of dipole moment Difference in spin quantum no None of these [Pb. CET 2000] SO 3 [CPMT 1997; AFMC 1998; CBSE PMT 2001] N 2 is less reactive than CN due to [UPSEAT 2003] (a) (b) (c) (d) 29. 17. (d) Water (b) Boron trifluoride 2. BF3 is planar whereas NF3 is pyramidal Which one is polar molecule among the following (a) CO 2 (b) CCl 4 Chemical Bonding (c) 3. H 2O If the electron pair forming a bond between two atoms A and B is not in the centre, then the bond is [AIIMS 1984] (a) Single bond (b) Polar bond (c) Non-polar bond 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. (d) CH 4 (d) bond 16. Which of the following liquids is not deflected by a non-uniform electrostatic field [NCERT 1978] (a) Water (b) Chloroform (c) Nitrobenzene (d) Hexane Which of the following is non-polar [EAMCET 1983] (a) H2S (b) NaCl (c) Cl 2 (d) H 2 SO 4 15. Polarization is the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which of the following statements is correct [NCERT 1982] (a) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge (b) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius (c) A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarization (d) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarization 107 (c) Na (d) Ca 2 Maximum covalent character is associated with the compound [RPMT 1999] (a) NaI (b) MgI2 (c) AlCl3 (d) AlI3 Polarisibility of halide ions increases in the order [DCE 1999] 17. (a) F , I , Br , Cl (b) Cl , Br , I , F (c) I , Br , Cl , F (d) F , Cl , Br , I According to Fajan’s rule, covalent bond is favoured by [AIIMS 1999] 18. (a) Large cation and small anion (b) Large cation and large anion (c) Small cation and large anion (d) Small cation and small anion Which of the following statements is correct (a) SF4 is polar and non-reactive [AMU 1999] (b) SF6 is non-polar and very reactive (c) SF6 is a strong fluorinating agent (d) SF4 is prepared by fluorinating SCl 2 with NaF 19. Choose the correct statement [RPMT 2000] (a) Amino polarisation is more pronounced by highly charged cation The bonds between P atoms and Cl atoms in PCl5 are likely to (b) Small cation has minimum capacity to polarise an anion. be [MP PMT 1987] (c) Small anion has maximum polarizability (a) Ionic with no covalent character (d) None of these (b) Covalent with some ionic character 20. The [DPMT 2001] ICl molecule is (c) Covalent with no ionic character (a) Purely electrovalent (d) Ionic with some metallic character (b) Purely covalent Two electrons of one atom A and two electrons of another atom B (c) Polar with negative end on iodine are utilized to form a compound AB. This is an example of [MNR 1981] (d) Polar with negative end on chlorine (a) Polar covalent bond (b) Non-polar covalent bond 21. Which of the following is a polar compound [AIIMS 2001] (c) Polar bond (d) Dative bond (a) HF (b) HCl In which of the following molecule is the covalent bond most polar [AMU 1985; MP PET 2001] (c) HNO 3 (d) H 2 SO 4 (a) HI (b) HBr 22. Which of the following has zero dipole moment (c) HCl (d) H 2 [MP PMT 2002] 10. Amongst ClF3 , BF3 and NH 3 molecules the one with nonplanar geometry is [MP PMT 1999] (a) ClF3 (b) (c) BF3 (d) None of these NH 3 23. Which of the following possesses highest melting point 12. (a) Chlorobenzene (b) o-dichlorobenzene (c) m-dichlorobenzene (d) p-dichlorobenzene The polar molecule among the following is [CPMT 1999] (a) CCl 4 (b) CO 2 (c) CH 2 Cl 2 (d) CH 2 CH 2 Which of the following have both polar and non-polar bonds (a) C 2 H 6 (b) NH 4 Cl [CET Pune 1998] (a) Mg (b) Al 3 (d) CFCl 3 SiF4 Which of the following compounds has least dipole moment (a) PH 3 (b) CHCl 3 (c) NH 3 (d) BF3 Pauling’s electronegativity values for elements are useful in predicting [UPSEAT 2004] (a) Polarity of bonds in molecules (b) Position of elements in electrochemical series (c) Co-ordination number (d) Dipole moment of various molecules 25. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl 2 and MgCl2 the compounds with the [AIIMS 1997] greatest and the least ionic character, respectively, are [UPSEAT 2002] (c) HCl (d) AlCl3 Which of the following has a high polarising power 2 (c) 24. [Orissa JEE 1997] 14. (b) PCl 3 [RPET 2003] 11. 13. (a) ClF 26. (a) LiCl and RbCl (b) RbCl and BeCl 2 (c) RbCl and MgCl2 (d) MgCl2 and BeCl 2 Bond polarity of diatomic molecule is because of [UPSEAT 2002] 108 Chemical Bonding (a) (b) (c) (d) Difference in electron affinities of the two atoms Difference in electronegativities of the two atoms Difference in ionisation potential All of these 11. (b) Sidewise overlap of orbitals takes place (c) End to end overlap of orbitals takes place (d) None of the above The number of sigma and pi bonds in 1-butene-3-yne are 12. (a) 5 sigma and 5 pi (b) 7 sigma and 3 pi (c) 8 sigma and 2 pi (d) 6 sigma and 4 pi The most acidic compound among the following is [IIT 1989] Overlaping- and - bonds 1. Triple bond in ethyne is formed from [MP PET 1993] [MP PMT 1990; NCERT 1979; EAMCET 1978; AMU 1985; CPMT 1988; MADT Bihar 1982; MH CET 2000] 2. (a) Three sigma bonds (b) Three pi bonds (c) One sigma and two pi bonds (d) Two sigma and one pi bond The bond in the formation of fluorine molecule will be 13. [MP PMT 1987] (a) Due to s s overlapping (b) Due to s p overlapping 14. (c) Due to p p overlapping 3. (d) Due to hybridization Which type of overlapping results the formation of a bond 15. [DPMT 1981] (a) Axial overlapping of s s orbitals (b) Lateral overlapping of p p orbitals 16. 5. (d) Axial overlapping of s p orbitals The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide are [AIEEE 2005] (a) One sigma, one pi (b) One sigma, two pi (c) Two sigma, one pi (d) Two singma, two pi In a double bond connecting two atoms, there is a sharing of [CPMT 1977, 80, 81; NCERT 1975; Bihar MEE 1980; MP PET 1999] 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. (a) 2 electrons (b) 1 electron (c) 4 electrons (d) All electrons Strongest bond is [DPMT 1990] (a) C C (b) C C (c) C C (d) All are equally strong [JIPMER 2002] bond is formed (a) By overlapping of atomic orbitals on the axis of nuclei (b) By mutual sharing of pi electron (c) By sidewise overlapping of half filled p-orbitals (d) By overlapping of s-orbitals with p-orbitals The double bond between the two carbon atoms in ethylene consists of [NCERT 1981; EAMCET 1979] (a) Two sigma bonds at right angles to each other (b) One sigma bond and one pi bond (c) Two pi bonds at right angles to each other (d) Two pi bonds at an angle of 60 o to each other In the series ethane, ethylene and acetylene, the C H bond energy is [NCERT 1977] (a) The same in all the three compounds (b) Greatest in ethane (c) Greatest in ethylene (d) Greatest in acetylene In a sigma bond (a) Sidewise as well as end to end overlap of orbitals take place CH 3 CH 2 OH (b) C 6 H 5 OH (c) CH 3 COOH (d) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH Which of the following is not correct [CBSE PMT 1990] (a) A sigma bond is weaker than bond (b) A sigma bond is stronger than bond (c) A double bond is stronger than a single bond (d) A double bond is shorter than a single bond Strongest bond formed, when atomic orbitals (a) Maximum overlap (b) Minimum overlap (c) Overlapping not done (d) None of them The p p orbital overlapping is present in the following molecule (a) Hydrogen (b) Hydrogen bromide (c) Hydrogen chloride (d) Chlorine In N 2 molecule, the atoms are bonded by [MP PET 1996; UPSEAT 2001] (c) Axial overlapping of p p orbitals 4. (a) 17. (a) One , Two (b) One , One (c) Two , One (d) Three bonds In which of following there exists a p d bonding [AFMC 2001] (a) Diamond (c) Dimethyl amine 18. (b) Graphite (d) Trisilylamine Number of bonds in SO 2 [DCE 2001] (a) Two and two (b) Two and one (c) Two , two and one lone pair (d) None of these 19. 20. Which of the following has p d bonding (a) NO 3 (b) CO 32 (c) BO 33 (d) [CBSE 2002] SO 32 Number of sigma bonds in P4 O10 is [AIEEE 2002] (a) 6 (c) 17 (b) 7 (d) 16 Hybridisation 1. 2. Which molecule is not linear [CPMT 1994] (a) BeF2 (b) BeH 2 (c) CO 2 (d) H 2O The bond angle in water molecule is nearly or Directed bonds in water forms an angle of [NCERT 1980; EAMCET 1981; MNR 1983, 85; AIIMS 1982; CPMT 1989; MP PET 1994, 96; MP PET/PMT 1998] (a) 120 o (b) 180 o Chemical Bonding (c) 3. 4. 109 o 28 ' 12. (d) 104 o 30' 2 The central atom in a molecule is in sp hybrid state. The shape of molecule will be [MP PMT 1987; CBSE PMT 1989] (a) Pyramidal (b) Tetrahedral (c) Octahedral (d) Trigonal planar Which molecule is linear 13. [MP PMT 1984; IIT 1982, 88; EAMCET 1993; CBSE PMT 1992; MP PET 1995; RPMT 1997] 5. In which of the following the central atom does not use sp 3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding [MNR 1992] (a) BeF3 (b) OH 3 NH 2 (d) (d) XeF2 involves hybridisation 14. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planer geometry [CBSE PMT 2005] (b) (d) NH 3 (a) PCl3 (c) BF3 15. A sp3 hybridized orbital contains 1 s character 4 2 s character 3 Structure of ammonia is (b) 1 s character 2 (d) 3 s character 4 16. (a) Trigonal (c) Pyramidal The bond angle in ethylene is 180 (b) 120 (c) 109 o (d) 90 o 17. 18. [BHU 1982; RPMT 1999] [CBSE PMT 1990] (b) F 19. 20. O 21. ON O (d) (d) None of these (b) dsp 2 (c) sp 2 (d) sp Octahedral molecular shape exists in .......... hybridisation 3 (b) sp d 3 sp d 3 3 sp d 2 (d) None of these The electronic structure of molecule OF2 is a hybrid of (a) sp (b) sp 2 (c) sp 3 (d) sd 3 H C C OH OH Which of the following statement is not correct Percentage of s-character in sp 3 hybrid orbital is (b) 50 (d) 75 Shape of XeF4 molecule is [BHU 1987; AFMC 1992; CET Pune 1998; Roorkee Qualifying 1998; DCE 2002] F O (c) sp d sp 3 (a) 25 (c) 66 (a) Planar (b) Pyramidal (c) Angular (d) Trigonal bipyramidal Which of the following formula does not correctly represent the bonding capacity of the atom involved (a) 2 o Compound formed by sp3 d hybridization will have structure H | H P H | H sp d (b) (a) (c) [CPMT 1987] (a) 3 [DPMT 1990] 3 Which of the following hybridisation results in non-planar orbitals (a) (b) Tetrahedral (d) Trigonal pyramidal o sp 3 NF3 [DPMT 1990] [MP PMT 1987, 89, 91; CPMT 1975, 82; RPMT 1999; JIPMER 2002] 11. (d) None of these CO 2 (c) 10. sp 3 (c) (a) 9. (c) (c) [DPMT 1984; BHU 1985; CPMT 1976] 8. (b) (b) ClO2 (c) 7. sp sp [CPMT 1991] 2 (a) NO 2 (a) IF3 6. The mode of hybridisation of carbon in CO 2 is (a) H 2S 109 22. (a) Linear (b) Pyramidal (c) Tetrahedral (d) Square planar For which of the following hybridisation the bond angle is maximum (a) sp 2 (c) 3 sp (b) sp (d) dsp 2 The C H bond distance is the longest in (a) C2 H 2 (b) C 2 H 4 (c) C 2 H 4 Br2 (d) C 6 H 6 The nature of hybridization in CH 2 Cl CH 2 Cl for carbon is [AIIMS 1983] (a) sp (b) sp 2 (a) Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior to their combining into molecular orbitals (c) sp 3 (d) sp 2 d (b) sp 2 hybrid orbitals are formed from two p atomic orbitals and one s atomic orbital 23. (c) d 2 sp 3 hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a regular octahedron 24. (d) dsp 3 hybrid orbitals are all at 90 o to one another [MNR 1990] Shape of methane molecule is [MNR 1983] (a) Tetrahedral (b) Pyramidal (c) Octahedral (d) Square planer Which one amongst the following possesses an sp hybridized carbon in its structure [CBSE PMT 1989] (a) CH 2 C.Cl CH CH 2 110 Chemical Bonding (b) C.Cl 2 C.Cl 2 (c) 35. CH 2 C CH 2 H 3 C C * C * CH 3 (d) CH 2 CH CH CH 2 25. Which of the following is the correct electronic formula of chlorine molecule [CPMT 1971] .. .. .. .. (a) : Cl : Cl : (b) : Cl : : Cl : .. .. .. .. (c) .. .. : Cl : Cl : 36. 27. 28. 30. 31. 33. (b) sp 2 orbital (c) sp orbital (d) s orbital The bond angle in carbon tetrachloride is approximately 90 o (b) 109 o (c) 120 (d) 180 o When two pairs of electrons are shared, bond is In XeF4 hybridization is 3 (a) sp d (c) sp 3 d 2 [MNR 1979] (a) Single covalent bond (c) Dative bond 3 (b) sp (d) sp 2 d 38. In HCHO, ' C' has hybridization (b) Double covalent bond (d) Triple bond The nature of hybridization in the NH 3 molecule is [EAMCET 1982] [AIIMS 1987] sp 2 (a) sp (b) (c) sp 3 (d) All the above 39. Which has the shortest C C bond length (a) C 2 H 5 OH (b) C 2 H 6 (c) C2 H 2 (d) C 2 H 4 The hybridization of Ag in the linear complex Ag NH 3 2 is 40. (a) dsp 2 (b) sp (c) sp 2 (d) sp 3 2 (a) sp (b) sp (c) sp 3 (d) sp 3 d Which one of the following compounds has bond angle as nearly 90 o [MP PMT 1985] (a) NH 3 (b) (c) H 2O (d) CH 4 H2S In ethene, the bond angle(s) is/are [CPMT 1985; BHU 1981] o [CPMT 1976; AMU 1984; MP PMT 1985] (a) 109 28 ' (b) 120 o (c) 180 o (d) Different 41. Structure formula of H 2 O 2 is Experiment shows that H 2 O has a dipole moment while CO 2 has H not. Point out the structures which best illustrate these facts [DPMT 1984; NCERT 1983; CPMT 1984] (a) O O O (a) (b) O C O ; H O H H O C O; H H (b) H O O H (straight line) H (c) C ; H – H – O (d) O || | H' C O ; O H O O (c) OO Which species do not have sp 3 hybridization H (a) Only sp hybridized carbon atoms (d) (c) Both sp and sp 2 hybridized carbon atoms (d) sp, sp2 and sp 3 hybridized carbon atoms The number of unpaired electrons in O 2 molecule is [MNR 1983; Kerala PET 2002] (a) 0 (c) 2 (b) 1 (d) 3 H' OO H Where 42. (b) Only sp 2 hybridized carbon atoms [CPMT 1993] Where H O O O O H ' 101.5 o and all the four atoms are in the same plane (a) Ammonia (b) Methane (c) Water (d) Carbon dioxide As compared to pure atomic orbitals, hybrid orbitals have (a) Low energy (b) Same energy (c) High energy (d) None of these The compound 1, 2-butadiene has [IIT 1983; MP PMT 1996] 34. sp 3 orbital o [DPMT 1985] 32. (a) (a) .. .. (d) : Cl : : Cl : [NCERT 1982; CPMT 1989] 29. [NCERT 1984] [MNR 1981; MP PMT 1987] 37. 26. In the following molecule, the two carbon atoms marked by asterisk (*) possess the following type of hybridized orbitals 43. H O O O O H ' 97 o and the angle between H O O plane and O O H ' plane is 101 o Number of shared electrons in between carbon-carbon atoms in ethylene molecule is [MADT Bihar 1983] (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3 The structural formula of a compound is CH 3 CH C CH 2 . The type of hybridization at the four carbons from left to right are [CBSE PMT 1989] (a) sp 2 , sp, sp 2 , sp 3 (b) sp 2 , sp 3 , sp 2 , sp Chemical Bonding (c) 44. sp 3 , sp 2 , sp, sp 2 (d) sp 3 , sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 2 Acetate ion contains 55. [AMU 1983] (b) Two C, O single bonds (a) 2 (d) None of the above The two carbon atoms in acetylene are sp 2 hybridized (a) sp hybridized (b) (c) sp hybridized (d) Unhybridized Among the following compounds which is planar in shape 47. (a) Methane (c) Benzene In methane the bond angle is 57. (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 10 s-character in sp hybridised orbitals are (b) Acetylene (d) Isobutene [AMU 1983] 58. (a) 1 3 (b) 1 2 (c) 1 4 (d) 2 3 180 o (b) 90 o (c) 120 o (d) 109 o (a) Three centre bond (c) Two centre bond The angle between sp 2 orbitals in ethylene is 59. 90 o (b) 120 o (c) 180 o (d) 109.5 o The species in which the central atom uses sp 2 hybrid orbitals in its bonding is [IIT 1988] PH 3 (b) NH 3 (c) H3C (d) SbH 3 Carbon atoms in diamond are bonded to each other in a configuration [CPMT 1981] (a) Tetrahedral (b) Planar (c) Linear (d) Octahedral Which of the following molecules can central atom said to adopt 52. [CBSE PMT 1989; MP PET 1994] BeF2 (b) BCl 3 (c) C2 H 2 (d) NH 3 In the compound CH 3 OCl, which type of orbitals have been used by the circled carbon in bond formation 60. (a) sp (c) sp In Cu NH 3 4 SO 4 , ; Cu has following hybridization 54. (a) dsp 2 (b) sp 3 (c) sp 2 (d) sp 3 d 2 The hybridization of carbon atoms in C C single bond of HC C CH CH 2 is [IIT 1991; MP PET 1995] (a) sp 3 sp 3 (b) sp 2 sp 3 (c) sp sp 2 (d) sp 3 sp The compound in which C is * (c) ( NH 3 )3 COH HgCl2 (a) O2 O3 H 2 O2 (b) O 3 H 2 O 2 O 2 (c) H 2 O2 O3 O2 (d) O 2 H 2 O 2 O 3 62. (a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal bipyramidal (c) Square planar (d) Pentagonal bipyramidal Which of the following hybridisation has maximum s-characters [AFMC 1995; JIPMER 2001] 63. (a) sp 3 (b) sp 2 (c) sp (d) None of these The PCl5 molecule is a result of the hybridisation of [MP PET 1995; DCE 2000; MP PMT 2002] 64. 65. [IIT 1989] 66. (b) ( NH 2 )2 CO 2 (a) sp d (c) spd 3 2 sp 3 d (d) sp 2 d 3 The shapes of BCl 3 , PCl3 and ICl 3 molecules are all (c) 67. (b) Hybridisation involves [MP PMT 1996] (a) Addition of an electron pair (b) Mixing up of atomic orbitals (c) Removal of an electron pair (d) Separation of orbitals The geometry of sulphur trioxide molecule is (a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal planar (c) Pyramidal (d) Square planar (a) Triangular (d) CH 3 CHO [CBSE PMT 1995] The structure of PF5 molecule is uses sp hybrids for bond formation HCOOH sp (d) p 61. 3 (a) (b) 2 The correct order of the O O bond length in O 2 , H 2 O 2 and [AIIMS 1988; UPSEAT 2001] 53. 3 O 3 is (a) (a) (b) Hydrogen bond (d) None of the above [MP PET 1994] (a) sp 2 hybridization The two types of bonds present in B 2 H 6 are covalent and [IIT 1994] (a) [BHU 1987, 95; AMU 1985] 51. sp 56. [AMU 1992] 50. The [BHU 1981] 46. 49. (b) sp (d) dsp 2 sp 3 The number of shared pairs of electrons in propane is [AMU 1984; MADT Bihar 1982] 48. 120 o . is (c) (c) Two C, O double bonds 3 angle [BHU 1981; CBSE PMT 1999] (a) One C, O single bond and one C, O double bond 45. In diborane, the H B H bond hybridization of boron is likely to be 111 T shaped (b) Pyramidal (d) All above are incorrect In benzene molecule all C C bond lengths are equal because 112 Chemical Bonding (a) All carbon atoms are equivalent (a) SnCl 2 (b) HCl (b) All carbon atoms are sp 2 hybridised (c) CO 2 (d) HgCl 2 (c) All C C bonds in benzene, have same order 68. 79. (d) All C C bonds are single covalent bond Which one is false in the following statements [MP PET 1997] (a) Each carbon in ethylene is in sp 2 hybridisation (b) Each carbon in acetylene is in sp 3 hybridisation (c) Each carbon in benzene is in sp (d) Each carbon in ethane is in sp 69. 3 2 hybridisation hybridisation 81. [MP PMT 1997] (a) d 2 sp 3 (b) sp 3 (c) sp 2 (d) sp As the p character increases, the bond angle in hybrid orbitals formed by s and atomic orbitals [MP PMT 1997] (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Doubles (d) Remains unchanged 71. sp 3 hybridization leads to which shape of the molecule 72. (a) Tetrahedron (b) Octahedron (c) Linear (d) Plane triangle Which of the following will be octahedral [MP PET 1999] 82. [MP PET/PMT 1998] 73. 83. SF6 (b) BF4 (c) PCl5 (d) BO 33 The hybrid orbitals used by central atoms in BeCl 2 , BCl 3 and 84. CCl 4 molecules are respectively [MP PMT 1999] (a) (c) 74. 75. (d) 2 sp , sp and sp N3H NO 2 (c) sp 3 d sp 85. 3 (b) (d) H atoms are situated at the corners of a tetrahedron The bond angle in sp 2 hybridisation is 86. [RPMT 1997] (b) 120 o (c) 90 o (d) 109 o 2' The correct order towards bond angle is (a) sp sp sp (b) sp 2 sp sp 3 (c) sp 3 sp 2 sp 2 (d) Bond angle does not depend on hybridisation The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present about the central atom in BF3 is [IIT 1998; BHU 2001] (a) Linear, sp (b) Trigonal planar, sp 2 (c) Tetrahedral, sp 3 (d) Pyramidal, sp 3 In graphite, electrons are [CBSE PMT 1997] (c) Localised on each C atom (d) Spread out between the structure The ammonium ion is [CET Pune 1998] (a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal pyramidal (c) Square planar (d) Square pyramidal In sp hybridisation, shape is [Bihar MEE 1997] (b) Tetrahedral (d) Linear When the hybridisation state of carbon atom changes from sp 3 to [AIIMS 1998] (d) CO 2 87. (a) Decreases gradually (b) Increases gradually (c) Decreases considerably (d) All of these The structure and hybridisation of Si(CH 3 )4 is [CBSE PMT 1996] (b) dsp 2 (d) sp 3 Compound having planar symmetry is [DPMT 1996] (a) H 2 SO 4 (b) (c) HNO 3 (d) CCl 4 [RPMT 1997] 3 sp 2 to sp, the angle between the hybridised orbitals H 2O [DPMT 1996] 180 o (a) Angular (c) Bipyramidal (e) None of these [CBSE PMT 1999; AFMC 2003] CCl 4 has the hybridisation (a) 78. sp , sp and sp 2 sp , sp 2 and sp 3 (a) Planar (b) Non-planar (c) Spherical (d) Linear Which of the following is isoelectronic as well as has same structure as that of N 2 O [CPMT 1999] (c) 77. 3 (b) The structure of H 2 O 2 is (a) 76. sp 2 , sp 3 and sp H atoms are situated at the corners of a square (a) Localised on every third C atom (b) Present in antibonding orbital (a) (c) (a) Out of the following hybrid orbitals, the one which forms the bond at angle 120 o , is 70. 80. Which one of the following statements is true for ammonium ion (a) All bonds are ionic (b) All bonds are coordinate covalent 88. H 2O 2 (a) Bent, sp (b) Trigonal, sp (c) Octahedral, sp 3 d (d) Tetrahedral, sp 3 The type of hybridisation of boron in diborane is [BHU 1999] (a) sp - hybridisation Which of the following compounds is not linear (c) [CPMT 1996] 89. 3 sp - hybridisation 2 (b) sp - hybridisation (d) sp 3 d 2 - hybridisation Which compound does not possess linear geometry [ Chemical Bonding [RPET 1999] (a) (c) 90. 92. (b) (d) CO 2 BeCl 2 (d) CF4 SF4 [RPET 1999] (a) NO 3 (b) H 2O (c) H3O (d) NH 4 96. 103. 2 3 2 (a) sp , sp , d sp 3 3 3 2 3 (b) sp , sp d , sp d (c) sp, sp 3 d, sp 3 d 2 (d) sp, sp 2 , sp 3 H 2O (d) H 2S The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species NH 3 [PtCl4 ]2 , PCl5 and BCl 3 is 2 3 2 3 (a) dsp , dsp , sp and sp (b) (c) dsp 2 , sp 2 , sp 3 , dsp 3 sp3 , dsp2 , dsp3 , sp2 (d) dsp 2 , sp 3 , sp 2 , dsp 3 dsp [DCE 2000] (b) 3 sp 2 2 (d) d sp Which of the following molecule is linear (a) SO 2 (b) NO 2 (c) NO 2 (d) SCl 2 The is (a) (c) 106. [MP PMT 2000] 107. geometry of the molecule with sp 3 d 2 hybridised central atom [NCERT 1981; AFMC 1982; RPMT 2000] Square planar Octahedral 108. (b) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Square pyramidal The bond angle in PH 3 is CO 3 (b) (c) K 4 [Fe(CN )6 ] (d) None of these (c) 1.10, 1.15 and 1.22 Å (d) 1.15, 1.10 and 1.22 Å Shape of BF3 molecule is [CPMT 2000; Pb. CET 2002] (a) Linear (b) Planar (c) Tetrahedral (d) Square pyramidal In the complex [SbF5 ] 2 , sp 3 d hybridization is present. Geometry of the complex is [Pb. PMT 2000] (a) Square (b) Square pyramidal (c) Square bipyramidal (d) Tetrahedral I 3 (d) None of these Which of the following is not tetrahedral [MP PMT 2001] (a) SCl 4 (b) SO 42 (c) Ni(CO )4 (d) NiCl 42 As the s-character of hybridisation orbital increases, the bond angle [BHU 2002; (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Becomes zero (d) Does not change The shape of IF7 molecule is (b) Pentagonal bipyramidal (d) Tetrahedral A completely filled d orbital (d 10 ) (a) Spherically symmetrical (b) Has octahedral symmetry (c) Has tetrahedral symmetry (d) Depends on the atom 110. Which has sp 3 hybridization of central atom [UPSEAT 2002] [UPSEAT 2002] 111. (a) PCl 3 (b) SO 3 (c) BF3 (d) NO 3 In which of the following species is the interatomic bond angle is 109 o 28 The single, double and triple bond lengths of carbon in carbon dioxide are respectively [AIIMS 2000] (b) 1.22, 1.15 and 1.10 Å BF3 109. NH 4 (a) 1.15, 1.22 and 1.10 Å NH 4 and SO 42 [AFMC 2002; MHCET 2003] [CPMT 2000] (a) (d) BeF2 (a) Octahedral (c) Trigonal bipyramidal [RPMT 2000] Which of the following has tetrahedral structure (d) Which of the following is not linear [DCE 2001] (a) CO 2 (b) ClO2 (c) 3 PCl5 and SF6 The smallest bond angle is found in [AIIMS 2001] (a) IF7 (b) CH 4 (c) 105. The hybridization in PF3 is sp 3 104. 2 (d) Slightly greater than NH 3 100. (c) (c) (c) Much greater than NH 3 99. H 2 Se following compounds : NO 2 , SF4 , PF6 (b) Equal to that of NH 3 98. (b) Which of the following pairs has same structure [BHU 2001] (a) PH 3 and BCl 3 (b) SO 2 and NH 3 (a) Much less than NH 3 97. H 2 Te What is the correct mode of hybridization of the central atom in the (c) 95. (a) [IIT Screening 2001; BHU 2005] Pyramidal shape would be of (a) 94. The bond angle is minimum in [Pb. PMT 2001; MP PET 2003; UPSEAT 2004] [AMU 1999] 93. 101. HC CH Which of the following molecule does not show tetrahedral shape [RPET 1999] 102. (a) CCl 4 (b) SiCl 4 (c) 91. CH 2 CH 2 113 112. 113. (a) NH 3 , (BF4 ) (c) NH 3 , BF4 [AIEEE 2002] 1 (b) (NH 4 ) , BF3 (d) (NH 2 )1 , BF3 A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of which atomic orbitals [AIEEE 2002] (a) s, p x , p y , d yz (b) s, p x , p y , d x 2 y 2 (c) s, p x , p y , d z 2 (d) s, p y , p z , d xy In benzene, all the six C – C bonds have the same length because of [MP PET 2002] (a) Tautomerism (b) sp 2 hybridisation 114 Chemical Bonding (c) Isomerism 114. (d) Inductive effect The bond energies of H H and Cl – Cl are 430 kJ mol 1 1 (c) and 242 kJ mol respectively, H t for HCl is 91 kJ mol . The bond energy of HCl will be [MP PET 2003] (a) 427 kJ (b) 766 kJ (c) 285 kJ (d) 245 kJ 115. 125. -1 116. (c) NH 4 (b) SCl 4 (d) PtCl42 117. 118. 119. (a) NH 3 (b) H3O (c) BCl 3 (d) PCl 3 Which one of the following is a correct set with respect to molecule, hybridisation and shape [EAMCET 2003] (a) BeCl 2 , sp 2 , linear (b) BeCl 2 , sp 2 , triangular planar (c) BCl 3 , sp 2 , triangular planar (d) BCl 3 , sp 3 , tetrahedral (a) CO 2 (b) (c) BeCl 2 (d) C 2 H 2 121. 122. 123. 127. sp3 d 2 hybrid orbitals are (a) Linear bipyramidal (c) Trigonal bipyramidal 128. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals involved in d 2 sp3 hybridization is [CBSE PMT 2004] (a) d x 2 , d xz (b) d xy , d yz (c) 129. [MP PET 2004] (b) Pentagonal (d) Octahedral d x 2 y 2 , dz 2 (d) d xz , d x 2 y 2 The correct order of bond H 2 S , NH 3 , BF3 and SiH 4 is (a) H 2 S NH 3 SiH4 BF3 (b) NH 3 H 2 S SiH4 BF3 (c) H 2 S SiH4 NH 3 BF3 angles (smallest first) in [AIEEE 2004] H 2 S NH 3 BF3 SiH4 Which of the following compounds doesn’t have linear structure [RPET 1997, 2003] 130. Which one of the following has the regular tetrahedral structure SO 2 Which of the following bonds require the largest amount of bond energy to dissociate the atom concerned (a) BF4 (b) SF4 (c) XeF4 (d) Ni(CN )4 2 (Atomic no. : B 5, S 16, Ni 28, Xe 54 ) (a) H – H bond in H 2 (b) C – C bond in CH 4 The states of hybridazation of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid [AIEEE 2004] (H 3 BO3 ) are respectively (c) N N bond in N 2 (d) O O bond in O 2 (a) sp 3 and sp 2 (b) sp 2 and sp 3 (c) sp 2 and sp 2 (d) sp 3 and sp 3 (e) C – C bond in ethane The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethene and ethyne are respectively [KCET 2003] (a) 25, 33, 50 (b) 25, 50, 75 (c) 50, 75, 100 (d) 10, 20, 40 Arrange the hydra-acids of halogens in increasing order of acidity 131. 132. [Pb. PMT 2004] (a) sp (b) sp 2 (c) sp 3 (d) sp3 d [Orissa JEE 2003] HF HCl HBr HI (b) HI HBr HCl HF (c) HF HBr HI HCl (d) HF HI HBr HCl Among the compounds, BF3 , NCl 3 , H 2 S , SF4 and BeCl 2 , identify the ones in which the central atom has the same type of hybridisation [Kerala PMT 2004] [MP PMT 2004] (a) BF3 and NCl 3 (b) H 2 S and BeCl 2 (c) BF3 , NCl 3 and H 2 S (d) SF4 and BeCl 2 (e) NCl 3 and H 2 S Which one has sp hybridisation 2 (a) CO 2 (b) (c) SO 2 (d) CO 133. The hybridisation in BF3 molecule is (a) N 2O Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has central atom with sp hybridization is 2 134. [MP PMT 2004; IIT 1997] 124. (d) C2 H 4 (d) [UPSEAT 2003] 120. SO 2 [MP PMT 2004] In a regular octahedral molecule, MX 6 , the number X M X bonds at 180° is [CBSE PMT 2004] (a) Six (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two Which one of the following is a planar molecule [EAMCET 2003] NO 3 126. [MP PET 2003] (a) (d) Which of the following has a linear structure (a) CCl 4 (b) C2 H 2 (c) Which of the following has dsp 2 hybridization NiCl 42 SO 3 (a) H 2 CO 3 (b) BF3 (c) SiF4 (d) HClO2 The molecule which is pyramid shape is [MP PMT 2004; EAMCET 1985; IIT 1989] (a) PCl3 (b) CO 32 135. The molecule of CO 2 has 180° bond angle. It can be explanid on the basis of [AFMC 2004] (a) sp 3 hybridisation (b) sp 2 hybridisation (c) sp hybridisation (d) d 2 sp3 hybridisation sp 3 hybridisation is found in [Pb. CET 2003; Orissa JEE 2005] Chemical Bonding 136. (a) CO 32 (b) BF3 (c) NO 3 (d) NH 3 Which set hydridisation is correct for the following compounds[Pb. CET 2003] NO 2 , 137. 146. SF4 2 PF6 147. 139. [MADT Bihar 1983] (a) sp , sp , sp (b) sp , sp 3 d , sp 3 d 2 (c) sp 2 , sp 3 , d 2 sp 3 (d) sp 3 , sp 3 d 2 , sp 3 d 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) 148. The state of hybridisation of B in BCl 3 is (a) sp (b) sp 2 (c) sp 3 (d) sp 2 d 2 sp 3 d (b) sp 3 (c) sp 3 d 2 (d) sp 2 (a) 149. [DCE 2004] 150. (a) PCl3 (b) SO 3 (c) CO 32 (d) NO 3 (a) (c) 141. 142. sp d d 2 sp 3 (b) (d) 152. SnCl 2 (b) NCO (c) CS 2 (d) NO 2 Hybridisation of central atom in NF3 is sp3 (b) [Orissa JEE 2005] sp (c) sp (d) dsp2 The pair having similar geometry is [J&K CET 2005] (a) PCl3 , NH 3 (b) BeCl 2 , H 2O (d) CH 4 , CCl 4 IF5 , PF5 3 The d-orbital involved in sp d hybridisation is [J&K CET 2005] sp 3 (a) HF (b) HI (c) CH 4 (d) PH 3 sp 3 -hybridization and tetrahedral geometry (b) sp 3 -hybridization and distorted tetrahedral geometry (c) sp 2 -hybridization and triangular geometry 143. Be in BeCl 2 undergoes 144. (a) Diagonal hybridization (b) Trigonal hybridization (c) Tetrahedral hybridization (d) No hybridization Which of the following is non-linear molecule [MH CET 2004] (a) CO 3 (b) CO 2 (c) CS 2 (d) [DCE 2003] (c) dz 2 (b) d xy (d) d zx Which one in the following is not the resonance structure of CO 2 (a) 2. 3. 4. BeCl 2 The trigonal bipyramidal geometry results from the hybridisation[UPSEAT 2004] 5. (b) dsp 2 or sp 2 d d x 2 y 2 Resonance 1. (a) (a) ` Geometry of ammonia molecule and the hybridization of nitrogen involved in it are [MH CET 2004] dsp 3 or sp 3 d [IIT 1991] sp d In which compound, the hydrogen bonding is the strongest in its liquid phase [Pb. CET 2001] (a) sp 2 hybrid 2 (d) None of these 145. sp hybrid (a) (c) [Pb. CET 2001] (b) 2 2 151. The hybrdization of IF7 is 3 sp d hybrid 3 (c) sp d hybrid (d) The linear structure is assumed by (a) Which of the following molecules has pyramidal shape 3 If a molecule MX 3 has zero dipole moment, the sigma bonding orbital used by M are 3 The hybrid state of sulphur in SO 3 molecule is (a) Orbitals of different energy levels Orbitals of different energy content Orbitals of same energy content None of the above [IIT 1981; MP PMT 1994; Kerala PMT 2004] [DCE 2004; J&K CET 2005] 140. (c) d 2 sp 3 or sp 3 d 2 (d) d 3 sp 2 or d 2 sp 3 The valency of carbon is four. On what principle it can be explained in a better way (a) Resonance (b) Hybridization (c) Electron transfer (d) None of the above Hybridization is due to the overlapping of 3 [Pb. CET 2000; BHU 2004] 138. 115 OCO (b) O C O (c) O C O (d) O C O Which of the following molecule contains one pair of non-bonding electrons (a) CH 4 (b) NH 3 (c) H 2O (d) HF Resonance is due to [NCERT 1981; Kurukshetra CEE 1998] (a) Delocalization of sigma electrons (b) Delocalization of pi electrons (c) Migration of H atoms (d) Migration of protons Resonating structures have different [AMU 1983] (a) Atomic arrangements (b) Electronic arrangements (c) Functional groups (d) Alkyl groups In the cyanide ion, the formal negative charge is on [AMU 1984] 116 Chemical Bonding 7. (a) C (b) N (c) Both C and N (d) Resonate between C and N Which does not show resonance (a) Benzene (b) Aniline (c) Ethyl amine (d) Toluene The enolic form of acetone contains 8. (a) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs (b) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs (c) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair (d) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair Point out incorrect statement about resonance 6. (c) 4. [CPMT 1990] 5. [IIT 1990; Bihar MEE 1997] 6. 7. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 9 Resonance hybrid of nitrate ion is [RPET 2000] O ........ N ........O 1/ 2 (b) 2 / 3 1/ 3 8. 11. O ...... N In compound X , all the bond angles are exactly 109 o 28 ' , X is The shape of SO 42 ion is (a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral (c) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Hexagonal Which of the following molecules has one lone pair of electrons on the central atom ...... (a) NH 2 (b) CH 4 (c) C2 H 2 (d) CHF3 (b) CHCl 3 (c) 11. CHBr3 (d) All have maximum bond angle Of the following species the one having a square planar structure is [NCERT 1981; MP PMT 1994] 12. (a) NH 4 (b) BF4 (c) XeF4 (d) SCl 4 In which of the following is the angle between the two covalent bonds greatest [NCERT 1975; AMU 1982; MNR 1987; IIT 1981; CPMT 1988; MP PMT 1994] 3. 90 o (b) CH 4 (c) NH 3 (d) H 2O 14. XeF2 molecule is 15. (b) 105 o (c) 109 o (d) 120 o In which molecule are all atoms coplanar (a) CH 4 (b) BF3 CO 2 As the s-character of hybridized orbital decreases, the bond angle (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Does not change (d) Becomes zero [NCERT 1983; MP PMT 1983] (a) (a) 13. VSEPR Theory 2. H 2O 10. (b) sp 2 hybridization of C atom (c) Resonance stabilization (d) Same bond angles (a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral (c) Distorted rectangle (d) Octahedral The bond angle in PH 3 would be expected to be close to NH 3 (c) CH 4 (d) PCl5 Of the following compounds, the one having a linear structure is[NCERT 1981; CP [Roorkee 1999] The structure of Cu H 2 O 4 ion is (b) (a) Octahedral (b) Distorted octahedral (c) Planar (d) Tetrahedral Which has maximum bond angle [CPMT 1993] O2 / 3 CO 32 anion has which of the following characteristics H 2O (a) Bonds of unequal length 1. (b) Iodoform (d) Chloroform XeF6 is O2 / 3 O 1/3 (d) CH 4 9. 2 / 3 H 2O BeF2 MP PMT 1985; AIIMS 1996] O ........ N ........O 2 / 3 O 2 / 3 O ........ N ........O 1/3 (d) (c) (a) O 1/ 2 (c) (b) [EAMCET 1980; AMU 1982; MNR 1989] [MP PMT 2000] 1/ 2 NH 3 (a) The number of possible resonance structures for CO 32 is (a) (a) [CPMT 1982; DPMT 1983, 84, 96; Bihar MEE 1997] (a) Resonance structures should have equal energy (b) In resonance structures, the constituent atoms should be in the same position (c) In resonance structures, there should not be the same number of electron pairs (d) Resonance structures should differ only in the location of electrons around the constituent atoms 10. NH 3 [NCERT 1973; DPMT 1990; CBSE PMT 1990; UPSEAT 2003] (a) Chloromethane (c) Carbon tetrachloride [MP PET 1997] 9. (d) PF3 Which has the least bond angle [MP PMT 1994] 16. [BHU 1982] (a) Linear (b) Triangular planar (c) Pyramidal (d) Square planar Of the following sets which one does NOT contain isoelectronic species [AIEEE 2005] (a) PO43 , SO 42 , ClO4 (b) CN , N 2 , C 22 (c) SO 32 , CO 32 , NO 3 (d) BO33 , CO 32 , NO 3 A molecule which contains unpaired electrons is Chemical Bonding (b) C 2 H 2 NH 3 H 2 O CH 4 [NCERT 1982] (a) Carbon monoxide (c) Molecular oxygen 17. (a) (b) (c) (d) 18. 19. (b) Molecular nitrogen (d) Hydrogen peroxide H 2 O is [MADT Bihar 1983] A linear triatomic molecule A bent (angular) triatomic molecule Both of these None of these 28. 29. (a) Between 20 21% (b) Between 19 20% (c) Between 21 22% (d) Between 22 23% 30. The bond angle between H O H in ice is closest to [CPMT 1989; UPSEAT 2002] 20. 31. BCl 3 is a planar molecule while NCl 3 is pyramidal, because (a) 22. 23. 24. BCl 3 has no lone pair of electrons but NCl 3 has a lone pair of electrons (b) B Cl bond is more polar than N Cl bond (c) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom (d) N Cl bond is more covalent than B Cl bond The isoelectronic pair is [AIIMS 2005] (a) Cl 2 O, ICl2 (c) IF2 , I3 (b) ICl2 ,ClO2 (d) ClO2 , 32. 33. CIF2 According to VSEPR theory, the most probable shape of the molecule having 4 electron pairs in the outer shell of the central atom is [MP PET 1996, 2001] (a) Linear (b) Tetrahedral (c) Hexahedral (d) Octahedral The molecular shapes of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are 34. [AIEEE 2005] 25. (a) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively (b) The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively (c) Different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively (d) Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively Which of the following species is planar [JIPMER 1997] (a) CO 32 (c) PCl 3 (b) 35. The shape of species is 27. (a) Tetrahedral (b) Square planar (c) Trigonal planar (d) Linear Which of the following is the correct reducing order of bond-angle (a) NH 3 CH 4 C 2 H 2 H 2 O H 2S (c) NH 3 (d) CH 4 A lone pair of electrons in an atom implies [KCET 2002] (a) A pair of valence electrons not involved in bonding (b) A pair of electrons involved in bonding (c) A pair of electrons (d) A pair of valence electrons The bond angle of water is 104.5 o due to (a) Repulsion between lone pair and bond pair [CPMT 2002] sp 3 hybridization of O (d) Higher electronegativity of O The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angle of the following hybrides is [MP PET 2002] (a) NH 3 PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3 (b) NH 3 AsH 3 PH 3 SbH 3 (c) SbH 3 AsH 3 PH 3 NH 3 (d) PH 3 NH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3 [CBSE PMT 1995] Central atom of the following compound has one lone pair of electrons and three bond pairs of electrons [JIPMER 2002] (a) H 2S (b) AlCl3 (c) NH 3 (d) BF3 Among KO 2 , AlO2 , BaO2 present in (a) NO 2 (c) KO 2 only and BaO2 and NO 2 unpaired electron is [MP PET 2003] AlO2 (b) KO 2 and (d) BaO2 only True order of bond angle is [RPET 2003] (a) H 2 O H 2 S H 2 Se H 2 Te (b) H 2 Te H 2 Se H 2 S H 2 O (c) H 2 S H 2 O H 2 Se H 2 Te (d) H 2 O H 2 S H 2 Te H 2 Se Which of the following has not a lone pair over the central atom (a) NH 3 (b) PH 3 (c) BF3 (d) PCl 3 In BrF3 molecule,the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize [CBSE PMT 2004] (a) Lone pair- lone pair repuilsion and lone pair-bond pair repulsion (b) Lone pair- lone pair repulsion only (c) Lone pair- bond pair repulsion only (d) Bond pair- bond pair repulsion only 37. H 2 O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because NH 2 26. (b) H 2O 36. (d) None of these CH 3 H 2 O NH 3 CH 4 C 2 H 2 Which compound has bond angle nearly to 90 (c) Bonding of H 2 O (d) CO 2 BeH 2 (d) (b) o (c) 90 o (d) 105 o Which of the following molecules does not have a linear arrangement of atoms [CBSE PMT 1989] (a) H 2 S (b) C 2 H 2 (c) 21. (b) 60 120 28 ' NH 3 H 2 O CH 4 C 2 H 2 [Pb. PMT 2001] Bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is 105 .% s-orbital character of hybrid orbital is [MP PMT 1986] (a) (c) (a) o o 117 [RPET 1999] [BHU 2000] (a) H 2 O is linear and BeF2 is angular [CBSE PMT 1989; 2004] 118 Chemical Bonding (b) H 2 O is angular and BeF2 is linear (c) The electornegativity of F is greater than that of O (d) 38. 39. 40. H 2 O involves hydrogen bonding whereas BeF2 is a discrete molecule Maximum bond angle is present in [BVP 2004] (a) BCl 3 (b) (c) BF3 (d) Same for all (a) 42. (d) H 2O 91 8 o 6. 7. [EAMCET 1980] o 44. 45. (a) (c) SiF4 and SF4 and NH 4 (b) PF6 and 2. 3. 4. O2 (b) O21 (c) O21 (d) O22 Which of the following compounds of boron does not exist in the free form (a) BCl 3 (b) BF3 (c) BBr3 (d) BH 3 Molecular orbital theory was developed mainly by (d) IO3 and XeO 3 [IIT 1989; CBSE PMT 1995] (a) SF6 The maximum number of 90° angles between bond pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in [AIEEE 2004] (a) dsp 2 hybridization (b) sp 3 d hybridization (c) dsp3 hybridization (d) sp 3 d 2 hybridization O 2 (b) (c) Both (a) and (b) NO (d) CN 11. The bond order in N 2 ion is 12. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2.5 (d) 3 Out of the following which has smallest bond length Molecular orbital theory 1. (a) 10. NH 3 Among the following the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is [CBSE PMT 2004] BH 4 The bond order is maximum in [NCERT 1984; IIT 1984] [CBSE PMT 1990] (d) CO 2 H 2O (d) O21 (a) Bonding electrons are more than antibonding electrons (b) Contains unpaired electrons (c) Bonding electrons are less than antibonding electrons (d) Bonding electrons are equal to antibonding electrons Which one is paramagnetic from the following (c) 106 o 45' (d) 109 o 28' Which of the following gives correct arrangement of compounds involved based on their bond strength (c) O21 9. 8. [BHU 2005] 43. (c) [BHU 1987; Pb. CET 2003] (b) 93 3' (a) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (b) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (c) HF > HBr > HCl > HI (d) HCl > HF > HBr > HI Which one has a pyramidal structure (a) CH 4 (b) (b) O22 (a) Pauling (b) Pauling and Slater (c) Mulliken (d) Thomson The bond order of a molecule is given by [NCERT 1984] (a) The difference between the number of electrons in bonding and antibonding orbitals (b) Total number of electrons in bonding and antibonding orbitals (c) Twice the difference between the number of electrons in bonding and antibonding electrons (d) Half the difference between the number of electrons in bonding and antibonding electrons Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic because PH 3 The bond angle in ammonia molecule is O2 [AIIMS 1983, 85; CBSE PMT 1994; MP PET 2002] BBr3 The shape of a molecule of NH 3 , in which central atoms contains lone pair of electron, is [MHCET 2003] (a) Tetrahedral (b) Planar trigonal (c) Square planar (d) Pyramidal The largest bond angle is in [DCE 2002; MNR 1984] (a) AsH3 (b) NH 3 (c) 41. 5. (a) Bond order is a concept in the molecular orbital theory. It depends 13. on the number of electrons in the bonding and antibonding orbitals. Which of the following statements is true about it ? The bond order[AIIMS 1980] (a) Can have a negative quantity (b) Has always an integral value 14. (c) Can assume any positive or integral or fractional value including zero (d) Is a non zero quantity The bond order of NO molecule is [MP PET 1996] 15. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2.5 (d) 3 When two atomic orbitals combine they form (a) One molecular orbital (b) Two molecular orbital 16. (c) Three molecular orbital (d) Four molecular orbital Which of the following species is the least stable [Pb. CET 2004] [RPMT 1997] O 2 (a) O2 (b) (c) O 2 (d) O 22 Which of the following molecule is paramagnetic [CPMT 1980; RPET 1999;MP PMT 1999; RPMT 2000] (a) Chlorine (b) Nitrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen Which molecule has the highest bond order (a) N 2 (b) Li 2 (c) (d) O 2 He 2 The molecular electronic configuration of H 2 ion is (a) 1s 2 (b) 1s 2 x 1s 2 2 3 (c) 1s x 1s (d) 1s The paramagnetic nature of oxygen molecule is best explained on the basis of [BHU 1996] (a) Valence bond theory (b) Resonance 1 Chemical Bonding 17. 18. (c) Molecular orbital theory (d) Hybridization In which case the bond length is minimum between carbon and nitrogen (a) CH 3 NH 2 (b) C 6 H 5 CH NOH (c) Equal to that of 2 s orbital 29. [AIEEE 2005] (a) (b) H 2 H 2 19. (c) (d) H 2 Which one of the following oxides is expected exhibit paramagnetic behaviour [CBSE PMT 2005] (a) CO 2 (b) SO 2 (c) 20. (d) ClO2 30. SiO2 The bond order in N 2 molecule is 31. [CBSE 1995; Pb. PMT 1999; MP PET 1997] 21. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Which one is paramagnetic and has the bond order 1/2 [NCERT 1983] 32. (c) F2 (d) H 2 When two atoms of chlorine combine to form one molecule of chlorine gas, the energy of the molecule [AMU 1982] (a) Greater than that of separate atoms (b) Equal to that of separate atoms (c) Lower than that of separate atoms (d) None of the above statement is correct An atom of an element A has three electrons in its outermost shell and that of B has six electrons in the outermost shell. The formula of the compound between these two will be 33. (a) 22. 23. O2 (b) N2 [CPMT 1974, 84; RPMT 1999] 24. (a) A3 B4 (b) A2 B3 (c) A3 B2 (d) A2 B 25. The bond order of individual carbon-carbon bonds in benzene is (a) One (b) Two (c) Between 1 and 2 (d) One and two alternately PCl5 exists but NCl 5 does not because 26. (a) Nitrogen has no vacant d-orbitals (b) NCl 5 is unstable (c) Nitrogen atom is much smaller (d) Nitrogen is highly inert Paramagnetism is exhibited by molecules 27. (a) Not attracted into a magnetic field (b) Containing only paired electrons (c) Carrying a positive charge (d) Containing unpaired electrons Which one of the following is paramagnetic 34. 35. [NCERT 1979; MP PET 2002] 28. H 2O (b) (c) SO 2 (d) CO 2 36. H 2 (b) He 2 (c) He 2 (d) Li 2 In P4 O10 , the number of oxygen atoms attached to each phosphorus atom is [IIT 1995] (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2.5 Of the following statements which one is correct (a) Oxygen and nitric oxide molecules are both paramagnetic because both contain unpaired electrons (b) Oxygen and nitric oxide molecules are both diamagnetic because both contain no unpaired electrons (c) Oxygen is paramagnetic because it contains unpaired electrons, while nitric oxide is diamagnetic because it contains no unpaired electrons (d) Oxygen is diamagnetic because it contains no unpaired electrons, while nitric oxide is paramagnetic because it contains an unpaired electron According to the molecular orbital theory, the bond order in C 2 molecule is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 [IIT 1980]orbital configuration of a diatomic molecule is The molecular Its bond order is (a) 3 (b) 2.5 (c) 2 (d) 1 The difference in energy between the molecular orbital formed and the combining atomic orbitals is called (a) Bond energy (b) Activation energy (c) Stabilization energy (d) Destabilization energy According to molecular orbital theory, the paramagnetism of O 2 molecule is due to presence of [MP PMT 1997] (b) Unpaired electrons in the antibonding molecular orbital (c) Unpaired electron in the bonding molecular orbital (d) Unpaired electrons in the antibonding molecular orbital [AMU 1983] (b) More than that of 2 s orbital (a) (a) Unpaired electrons in the bonding molecular orbital [DPMT 1985] NO 2 The energy of a 2 p orbital except hydrogen atom is (a) Less than that of 2 s orbital (a) 16 shared and 8 unshared electrons (b) 8 shared and 16 unshared electrons (c) 12 shared and 12 unshared electrons (d) 18 shared and 6 unshared electrons Which of the following does not exist on the basis of molecular orbital theory [AFMC 1990; MP PMT 1996] 2 py2 1s 2 * 1s 2 2 s 2 * 2 s 2 2 p x2 2 2 pz [EAMCET 1977; MP PET/PMT 1988] (a) (d) Double that of 2 s orbital In the electronic structure of acetic acid, there are [AMU 1983] (c) CH 3 CONH 2 (d) CH 3 CN Which one of the following species is diamagnetic in nature He 2 119 37. The bond order in O 2 is (a) 2 (c) 1.5 [MP PET 1999; BHU 2001] (b) 2.5 (d) 3 120 Chemical Bonding 38. 39. Which of the following is paramagnetic [MP PET 1999] (a) O2 (b) CN (c) CO (d) 50. [Pb. PMT 2000] NO 41. 42. 44. Nx Ny (a) 1 (c) Nx Ny (d) Nx Ny (c) (a) 2s (b) 2 p y (c) * 2py (d) * 2 p x (a) Ferromagnetism (b) Diamagnetism (c) Paramagnetism (d) None of these What is correct sequence of bond order (a) O 2 (c) O 2 O 2 O 2 O 2 O2 (b) O 2 [BHU 1997] O2 (c) S O 2 55. [RPMT 1997] (b) (b) (d) N2 47. (b) SO 2 (c) NO (d) H 2O (c) NO 2 (d) NO In which of the following pairs the two molecules have identical bond order [MP PMT 2000] (a) N 2 , O 22 (c) N 2 (a) N 2 (b) O 22 (c) N2 (d) O2 The bond order is not three for , (c) 58. [CBSE PMT 1997] 60. (b) In O 2 , the O O bond order increases 90 o Cu 61. (b) Decreases (d) None of these 49. (a) Remains unaltered (c) Increases Which is not paramagnetic (a) O2 (b) O 2 (c) O 22 (d) O 2 [CET Pune 1998] [DCE 1999, 2000] , N2 [MP PMT 2001] NO (b) 101 o (b) Cu (d) H2 (a) 3s (b) 1p, 2s (c) 2p, 1s (d) 3p In which of the following pairs molecules have bond order three and are isoelectronics [MP PET 2003] (a) CN , CO (b) (c) CN , O 2 (d) CO, O 2 62. NO , CO Which of the following is paramagnetic [MP PET 2003] O 2 (c) CO (c) In O 2 , bond length increases With increasing bond order, stability of a bond , Which of the following is correct for N 2 triple bond (a) 48. (d) O 2 [CPMT 2002] 59. N 2 becomes diamagnetic N 2 O 2 In H 2 O 2 molecule, the angle between the two O – H planes is (a) Copper crystals (a) In N 2 , the N N bond weakens (b) 57. N 2 and O 2 are converted into monoanions N 2 and O 2 respectively, which of the following statements is wrong (d) (b) [AIIMS 2002] [Pb. PMT 1998] CO 2 ClO2 (a) F F (b) C – C (c) N – N (d) O – O Which of the following species would be expected paramagnetic NO (a) (a) 56. Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic [DPMT 2000] ClO2 (c) 103 o (d) 105 o Which of the following molecule has highest bond energy Br F [AIIMS 1997] (b) 2 1 1 (d) 2 4 Which one does not exhibit paramagnetism [KCET 1996] (a) (d) O 2 O 2 O 2 (c) Cl F (d) I F Which of the following is not paramagnetic 2 54. O 2 Which bond is strongest FF 52. 53. The number of nodal planes ' d ' orbital has [KCET 1996] (a) Zero (b) One (c) Two (d) Three Atomic number of an element is 26. The element shows (a) 46. [Pb. PMT 2000; Pb CET 2001] (b) Which of the following molecular orbitals has two nodal planes (b) 3 (d) 5 The bond order of He 2 molecule ion is Nx Ny (a) 45. 51. (a) [CPMT 1996] 43. (a) 4 (c) 2 If N x is the number of bonding orbitals of an atom and N y is the number of antibonding orbitals, then the molecule/atom will be stable if [DPMT 1996] 40. The number of antibonding electron pairs in O 22 molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory is (b) CN (d) N2 How many bonding electron pairs are there in white phosphorous (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 8 ˆ P bond angle in the The atomicity of phosphorus is X and the PP molecule is Y. What are X and Y [EAMCET 2003] (a) X = 4, Y = 90 o (b) X = 4, Y = 60 o (c) X = 3, Y = 120 o (d) X = 2, Y = 180 o Chemical Bonding 63. From elementary molecular orbital theory we can give the electronic configuration of the singly positive nitrogen molecular ion (a) N 2 2 2 2 4 as 73. (1s)2 (1s)2 (2 s)2 (2 p)2 (2 p)4 2 2 2 2 (a) ( 2 p x ) and ( 2 p x ) (b) 1 ( 2 p x )1 and ( 2 p y ) (c) ( * 2 p y )1 and ( * 2 p z )1 * 74. 65. 75. (d) [DPMT 2004] 77. 0.75, 1.0 78. [Pb. PMT 2004] (a) Zero (c) 1.33 67. (c) 69. (b) CN (d) CO 80. [DPMT 2004] (c) 81. O2 O2 O2 O2 O2 (b) O2 O2 (d) O2 O2 O2 O2 (a) Bond length in NO is equal to that in NO I2 O 22 (b) O 22 O2 (c) O 22 (d) O 2 Which of the following species have maximum number of unpaired electrons [AIIMS 1983] (b) O 2 O2 (c) O 2 (d) O 22 The correct order in which the O – O bond length increases in the following is [BHU 2000; CBSE PMT 2005] (a) H 2 O2 O2 O3 (b) O2 H 2 O2 O3 (c) O2 O3 H 2 O2 PETof2004] Correct[MP order bond length is CO 32 CO 2 CO (d) O3 H 2 O2 O2 [Orissa JEE 2005] (b) CO 2 CO CO 32 84. (d) Dimagnetic and bond order> O 2 [AIEEE 2004] (d) Br2 [DCE 2002] (c) N 2 (d) O22 Among the following molecules which one have smallest bond angle[Orissa JEE 2 (a) NH 3 (b) PH3 (c) Dimagnetic and bond order< O 2 The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO is 3. Which of the following statements is true for these two species F2 83. (b) Paramagnetic and bond order> O 2 72. (d) (c) CO CO 2 CO 32 (d) None of these Which of the following is paramagnetic (a) N 2 (b) C 2 [IIT JEE Screening 2004] (a) Paramagnetic and bond order< O 2 NO NO NO In molecular species, the total number of O 2 and antibonding electrons respectively are [DCE 2003] (a) 7, 6, 8 (b) 1, 0, 2 (c) 6, 6, 6 (d) 8, 6, 8 Which of the following is not paramagnetic [DCE 2002] (a) According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statement about the magnetic character and bond order is correct regarding O 2 82. (b) N2 O 2 , (a) (b) 4 (d) 10 The bond length the species O2 , O2 and O 2 are in the order of O2 NO NO NO (c) N 2 (d) CO Which has the highest bond energy (a) F2 (b) Cl 2 (a) (a) 2 (b) 1.5 (c) 3 (d) 3.5 The total number of electron that takes part in forming bonds in [MP PET 2004] N 2 is (a) 71. NO [CPMT 2004] Bond order of O 2 is (a) 2 (c) 6 70. 79. The bond order of O 2 is the same as in (a) 68. (b) 0.88 (d) 2 N 2 The paramagnetic molecule at ground state among the following is[UPSEAT 200 (a) H 2 (b) O 2 (c) 3, 1.25 The bond order in CO 32 ion between C O is and NO are such as (c) NO NO NO (d) NO NO NO Which of the following is paramagnetic [UPSEAT 2004] (a) B 2 (b) C 2 (c) 76. P O bond order respectively are (a) 0.75, 1.25 (b) 66. (a) ( * 2 p z )1 and ( 2 p z )1 0.75, 0.6 Bond energies in NO, NO In PO43 ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and (c) (d) None [Pb. CET 2004] 1 (d) ( * 2 p y )1 and ( 2 p y )1 (e) N 2 2 [Kerala PMT 2004] 1 (c) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO (d) Bond length is unpredictable Which of the following is diamagnetic [BVP 2004] (a) Oxygen molecule (b) Boron molecule (c) (d) (1s) (1s) (2 s) (2 s) (2 p) (2 p) The paramagnetic property of the oxygen molecule due to the presence of unpaired electorns present in 2 64. [UPSEAT 2003] 1 (b) (1s)2 (1s)2 (2 s)2 (2 s)2 (2 p)1 (2 p)3 (c) (b) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO (1s) (1s) (2 s) (2 s) (2 p) (2 p) 2 121 (c) H 2O (e) H 2S (d) [DPMT 2005] H 2 Sc Hydrogen bonding 1. In the following which bond will be responsible for maximun value of hydrogen bond (a) O H (b) N H 122 Chemical Bonding 2. 3. (c) S H (d) F H In which of the following hydrogen bond is present (a) H 2 (b) Ice (c) Sulphur (d) Hydrocarbon In the following which has highest boiling point 13. [NCERT 1978; DPMT 1985; CBSE PMT 1992] (a) Hydrogen bonds (c) Phosphate groups [MP PMT 1989; RPMT 1997] (a) 4. 5. HI (b) (c) HBr Which contains hydrogen bond (a) HF (d) 7. H bonding (b) HCl (d) None of the above 15. [MP PMT 1989] HCl 16. NH 3 (b) CH 4 (c) H 2O (d) CO 2 As a result of sp hybridization, we get (a) SiH 4 (b) LiH (c) HI (d) NH 3 17. 18. Which one among the following does not have the hydrogen bond In the following which species does not contain sp3 hybridization (a) In which of the following compounds does hydrogen bonding occur Which among the following compounds does not show hydrogen bonding [MP PMT 1989] (a) Chloroform (b) Ethyl alcohol (c) Acetic acid (d) Ethyl ether Acetic acid exists as dimer in benzene due to [CPMT 1982] (a) Condensation reaction [DPMT 1985] (b) Hydrogen bonding (c) Presence of carboxyl group (d) Presence of hydrogen atom at carbon HF is a weak acid [IIT 1984] MP PMT 1993; AIIMS 1996; KCET 2001; CPMT 2003] (a) Its high specific heat (b) Its high dielectric constant (c) Low ionization of water molecules (d) Hydrogen bonding in the molecules of water Which concept best explains that o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol 19. 20. (b) Liquid NH 3 (c) Water (d) Liquid HCl The bond that determines the secondary structure of a protein is[NCERT 1984; M (a) Coordinate bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Hydrogen bond (d) Ionic bond HCl is a gas but HF is a low boiling liquid. This is because [NCERT 1984; MP PMT 2001] (a) H F bond is strong (b) H F bond is weak (c) Molecules aggregate because of hydrogen bonding (d) 21. HF is a weak acid The relatively high boiling point of HF is due to [AIIMS 1980, 82; Kurukshetra CEE 1998; MP PET 2002] (a) Resonance (c) Hydrogen bonding 10. [NCERT 1984] (b) Hyperconjugation (d) Steric hindrence (a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Covalent bonding Which contains strongest H bond [IIT 1986; MP PET 1997, 2003; UPSEAT 2001, 03] (a) 11. O H..... S (b) S H..... O 22. (c) F H..... F (d) F H..... O Which of the following compound can form hydrogen bonds [NCERT 1978; MP PMT 1997] 12. (a) CH 4 (b) NaCl (c) CHCl 3 (d) H 2O 23. (c) Unshared electron pair on F (d) Being a halogen acid Water is liquid due to [MADT Bihar 1983] (a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Covalent bond (c) Ionic bond (d) Vander Waals forces The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds in which an H 2 O molecule can participate is [MP PMT 1986; MNR 1991; IIT 1992;MP PET 1999] Of the following hydrides which has the lowest boiling point [CBSE PMT 1987] (a) NH 3 (b) PH 3 (c) SbH 3 (d) AsH 3 [ UPSEAT 2001] (a) Phenol (b) Two orbitals at 180 o (c) Four orbitals in tetrahedral directions (d) Three orbitals in the same plane The reason for exceptionally high boiling point of water is [DPMT 1986; NCERT 1976; AMU 1984; EAMCET 1979; 9. [AFMC 1982] (c) Ionic bonding (a) Two mutual perpendicular orbitals 8. Water has high heat of vaporisation due to (a) Covalent bonding (c) HF molecule are hydrogen bonded (d) Fluorine is highly reactive 6. 14. (b) Ionic bonds (d) Deoxyribose groups HF (b) (c) HBr (d) HI Contrary to other hydrogen halides, hydrogen fluoride is a liquid because [MP PMT 1990; AMU 1983; EAMCET 1980] (a) Size of F atom is small (b) The pairs of bases in DNA are held together by 24. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Hydrogen bonding is maximum in [IIT 1987; MP PMT 1991; MP PET 1993, 2001; MNR 1995; CPMT 1999; KCET (Med.) 2002] (a) Ethanol (b) Diethyl ether Chemical Bonding 25. (c) Ethyl chloride (d) Triethyl amine The hydrogen bond is strongest in 35. [BHU 1987; CBSE PMT 1990, 92] (a) Water (c) Hydrogen fluoride 26. (b) Ammonia (d) Acetic acid 27. 36. [MP PMT 1993] (a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Ionic bonding (c) Coordinate covalent bonding (d) Resonance Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to 37. Covalent character Hydrogen bonding character Oxygen bonding character None of these 29. (a) Vander Waal's forces (b) Covalent bond (c) Hydrogen bond (d) Ionic bond Strength of hydrogen bond is intermediate between 39. 33. H 2O (b) (c) NH 3 (d) C 6 H 6 NH 3 (b) P [KCET 2001] (a) Vander Waal and covalent (b) Ionic and covalent (c) Ionic and metallic (d) Metallic and covalent In which of the following compounds intramolecular hydrogen bond is present [MP PET 1994] (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Water (c) Salicylaldehyde (d) Hydrogen sulphide Hydrogen bonding is formed in compounds containing hydrogen and [MP PET 1995] (a) Highly electronegative atoms (b) Highly electropositive atoms (c) Metal atoms with d-orbitals occupied (d) Metalloids Which of the following compounds in liquid state does not have hydrogen bonding [MP PMT 1996] (a) HF HCl (c) As (d) Sb The boiling point of a compound is raised by [DPMT 2001] (a) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding (b) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding (c) Covalent bonding (d) Ionic covalent The boiling point of water is exceptionally high because (a) (b) (c) (d) [DPMT 1991] 32. (b) (c) HCl HCl (d) HF HI Which of the following shows hydrogen bonding (a) 38. B.P. of H 2 O (100 o C) and H 2 S (42 o C) explained by 31. HF HF [CPMT 2000] 28. 30. Which of the following hydrogen bonds are strongest in vapour phase [AMU 1999] (a) [CPMT 1989] (a) (b) (c) (d) CH 3 group in ethanol (d) CH 3 group in dimethyl ether ether (23.6 o C) , though both having the same molecular formulae C 6 H 6 O , is due to Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a pair of functional isomers. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of dimethyl ether due to the presence of [AIIMS 1998] (a) Hydrogen bonding in ethanol (b) Hydrogen bonding in dimethyl ether (c) The high boiling point of ethanol (78.2 o C) compared to dimethyl 123 HF Compounds showing hydrogen bonding among HF, NH 3 , H 2 S 40. Water molecule is linear Water molecule is not linear There is covalent bond between H and O Water molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding NH 3 has a much higher boiling point than PH 3 because [UPSEAT 2002; MNR 1994] (a) NH 3 has a larger molecular weight (b) NH 3 undergoes umbrella inversion (c) NH 3 forms hydrogen bond (d) 41. 42. NH 3 contains ionic bonds whereas PH 3 contains covalent bonds Which one has the highest boiling point [MP PET 2002] (a) Acetone (b) Ethyl alcohol (c) Diethyl ether (d) Chloroform Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point (a) HCl (b) HBr (c) H 2 SO 4 (d) HNO 3 43. Which of the following has minimum melting point 44. (a) CsF (b) (c) HF (d) Hydrogen bond energy is equal to (a) 3 – 7 cals (b) (c) 3 – 10 kcals (d) [UPSEAT 2003] and PH 3 are (a) Only HF, NH 3 and PH 3 (b) Only HF and NH 3 (c) Only NH 3 , H 2 S and PH 3 34. (d) All the four The high density of water compared to ice is due to [CBSE PMT 1997; BHU 1999; AFMC 2001] (a) (b) (c) (d) Hydrogen bonding interactions Dipole-dipole interactions Dipole-induced dipole interactions Induced dipole-induced dipole interactions 45. HCl LiF [UPSEAT 2003] 30 – 70 cals 30 – 70 kcals H 2 O is a liquid while H 2 S is gas due to (a) Covalent bonding (b) Molecular attraction (c) H – bonding (d) H – bonding and molecular attraction [BHU 2003] 124 Chemical Bonding 46. 47. 48. H – bonding is maximum in [BHU 2003] (a) C 6 H 5 OH (b) C 6 H 5 COOH (c) CH 3 CH 2 OH (d) CH 3 COCH 3 Select the compound from the following which dissolves in water (a) CCl 4 (b) CS 2 (c) CHCl 3 (d) C2 H 5 OH 8. 9. [CPMT 1994] When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unit to form one cube. Which of the following force is responsible for holding them together [NCERT 1978] (a) Vander Waal's forces (a) 10. (b) Hydrogen bond formation (c) Covalent attraction (d) Dipole–dipole attraction 49. Which is the weakest among the following types of bond [NCERT 1979; MADT Bihar 1984] 50. (a) Ionic bond (b) Metallic bond (c) Covalent bond (d) Hydrogen bond H-bond is not present in 11. 12. [BCECE 2005] (a) Water (b) Glycerol (c) Hydrogen fluoride (d) Hydrogen Sulphide (a) Overlapping valency orbitals (b) Mobile valency electrons (c) Delocalized electrons (d) Highly directed bonds In melting [CPMT 1982] [IIT lattice, 1980] structure of solid (a) Remains unchanged (b) Changes (c) Becomes compact (d) None of the above Which of the following has the highest melting point Pb (b) Diamond (c) Fe (d) Na In the formation of a molecule by an atom (a) Attractive forces operate (b) Repulsive forces operate (c) Both attractive and repulsive forces operate (d) None of these Which has weakest bond (a) Diamond (b) Neon (Solid) [AFMC 1995] [RPMT 1997] (c) KCl (d) Ice Which of the following exhibits the weakest intermolecular forces[AIIMS 1999; BH (a) He (b) HCl (c) NH 3 (d) H 2O 13. Glycerol has strong intermolecular bonding therefore it is 14. (a) Sweet (b) Reactive (c) Explosive (d) Viscous Among the following the weakest one is 15. (a) Metallic bond (b) Ionic bond (c) Van der Waal's force (d) Covalent bond Lattice energy of alkali metal chlorides follows the order [RPET 2000] Types of bonding and Forces in solid 1. In a crystal cations and anions are held together by [EAMCET 1982] 2. 3. (a) Electrons (b) Electrostatic forces (c) Nuclear forces (d) Covalent bonds In the following metals which one has lowest probable interatomic forces [MP PMT 1990] [Pb. PMT 2004; CPMT 2002] [DPMT 2004] (a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Zinc (d) Mercury (b) CsCl NaCl KCl RbCl LiCl (c) In solid argon, the atoms are held together by [NCERT 1981; MP PET 1995] 4. 16. (a) Ionic bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds (c) Vander Waals forces (d) Hydrophobic forces Which one is the highest melting halide (a) 5. NaCl (b) [AIIMS 1980] NaBr (c) NaF (d) NaI The enhanced force of cohesion in metals is due to 17. [NCERT 1972] 6. 7. LiCl NaCl KCl RbCl CsCl (a) (a) The covalent linkages between atoms (b) The electrovalent linkages between atoms (c) The lack of exchange of valency electrons (d) The exchange energy of mobile electrons Which one of the following substances consists of small discrete molecules [CPMT 1987] (a) NaCl (b) Graphite (c) Copper (d) Dry ice Which of the following does not apply to metallic bond [CBSE PMT 1989] LiCl CsCl NaCl KCl RbCl (d) NaCl LiCl KCl RbCl CsCl In the following which molecule or ion possesses electrovalent, covalent and co-ordinate bond at the same time (a) HCl (b) NH 4 (c) Cl (d) H 2 O2 Both ionic and covalent bond is present in the following [MNR 1986; MP PMT 2004] (a) CH 4 (b) KCl (c) SO 2 (d) NaOH 18. The formation of a chemical bond is accompanied by 19. (a) Decrease in energy (b) Increase in energy (c) Neither increase nor decrease in energy (d) None of these Chemical bond implies [MP PET 1995] [KCET 2002] Chemical Bonding 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. (a) Attraction (b) Repulsion (c) Neither attraction nor repulsion (d) Both (a) and (b) Which of the following statements is true [AIEEE 2002] (a) HF is less polar than HBr (b) Absolutely pure water does not contain any ions (c) Chemical bond formation take place when forces of attraction overcome the forces of repulsion (d) In covalency transference of electron takes place Which of the following statements is true about Cu NH 3 4 SO 4 (a) It has coordinate and covalent bonds (b) It has only coordinate bonds (c) It has only electrovalent bonds (d) It has electrovalent, covalent and coordinate bonds Blue vitriol has (a) Ionic bond (b) Coordinate bond (c) Hydrogen bond (d) All the above 125 [UPSEAT 2001] (a) N 2 H 5 (c) HCl 6. 7. (b) BaCl2 (d) H 2O Which combination is best explained by the co-ordinate covalent bond [JIPMER 2001; CBSE PMT 1990] (a) H H 2O (c) Mg (b) Cl + Cl 1 O2 2 H 2 I2 (d) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole [CPMT 1988] moment. (I) Toluene (II) m dichlorobenzene (III) o dichlorobenzene (IV) p dichlorobenzene [IIT 1996] (a) 8. [MP PET 1995] IV I II III (b) (c) IV I III II (d) IV II I III The correct order of dipole moment is [Roorkee 1999] (a) The number of ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds in NH 4 Cl are respectively [MP PMT 1999] (a) 1, 3 and 1 (b) 1, 3 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 1 and 3 Covalent molecules are usually held in a crystal structure by I IV II III CH 4 NF3 NH 3 H 2 O (b) NF3 CH 4 NH 3 H 2 O 9. (c) NH 3 NF3 CH 4 H 2 O (d) H 2 O NH 3 NF3 CH 4 Which of the following has the highest dipole moment [AIIMS 2002] (a) Dipole-dipole attraction H (b) Electrostatic attraction H H (a) (c) Hydrogen bonds | CO (b) C | CH 3 (d) Vander Waal's attraction CH 3 H (c) | | | | Cl | CC (d) C | CH 3 | C | H CH 3 | C | CH 3 H 10. 1. 2. 3. 4. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of A – B bond is (a) 50 % (b) 43 % (c) 55.3 % (d) 72.24% O 22 is the symbol of ….. ion (b) Superoxide (c) Peroxide (d) Monoxide (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 16 The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in ClO 2 is 12. (a) sp 3 (b) sp 2 (c) sp (d) None of these Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs, (a) [IIT 1996] (b) Increase, decrease (c) Increase, increase (d) None of these Which of the following contains a coordinate covalent bond [IIT 1995] [ NF3 , NO 3 ] [IIT 1996] and [BF3 , H 3 O ] (b) [ NF3 , HN 3 ] and [ NO 3 , BF3 ] (c) When N 2 goes to N 2 , the N N bond distance ..... and when (a) Decrease, increase NH 3 NF3 BF3 (d) 11. The number of electrons that are paired in oxygen molecule is (a) 7 [MP PET 2003] NH 3 BF3 NF3 NF3 , NO 3 , BF3 , H 3 O , HN 3 O 2 goes to O 2 , the O O bond distance ....... 5. (c) [EAMCET 2003] (a) Oxide CH 3 Cl Which of the following arrangement of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole moments [AIIMS 2002] (a) BF3 NF3 NH 3 (b) NF3 BF3 NH 3 [ NF3 , H 3 O ] and [ NO 3 , BF3 ] (d) [ NF3 , H 3 O ] and [HN 3 , BF3 ] 13. In the compound CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 2 C CH , the C2 C3 bond is of the type (a) sp sp 2 [IIT 1999] (b) sp 3 sp 3 126 Chemical Bonding (c) 14. sp sp 3 (d) The correct order of increasing sp 2 sp 3 C O 24. bond length of CO , CO 32 , CO 2 is 15. [IIT 1999] (a) CO 32 CO 2 CO (b) CO 2 CO 32 CO (c) CO CO 32 CO 2 (d) CO CO 2 CO 32 In the dichromate dianion (a) 25. O || (b) CH 3 C CH 3 and CHCl 3 [IIT 1999] 4 Cr O bonds are equivalent (b) 6 Cr O bonds are equivalent (c) All Cr O bonds are equivalent (d) All Cr O bonds are non-equivalent 16. 17. 18. Bond length of ethane (I), ethene (II), acetylene (III) and benzene (IV) follows the order [CPMT 1999] (a) I II III IV (b) I II IV III (c) I IV II III (d) III IV II I Hybridisation state of chlorine in ClF3 is (a) sp 3 (b) sp 3 d (c) sp 3 d 2 (d) sp 3 d 3 26. 20. 21. 22. (c) sp3 d , Irregular tetrahedral H 2 O and H 2 O 2 A compound contains atoms X , Y , Z. The oxidation number of (a) XYZ 2 (b) X 2 YZ 3 2 (c) X 3 YZ 4 2 (d) X 3 Y 4 Z 2 Bonds present in CuSO 4 .5 H 2 O is 28. (a) Electrovalent and covalent (b) Electrovalent and coordinate (c) Electrovalent, covalent and coordinate (d) Covalent and coordinate The ionization of hydrogen atom would give rise to [IIT Screening 2000] 19. (d) 27. Molecular shapes of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively The same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively Different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively Different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively (c) O O || || H C OH and CH 3 C OH X is 2, Y is + 5 and Z is 2 . Therefore, a possible formula of the compound is [CPMT 1988] [RPET 1999] (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Isoelectronic and weak field ligands The number of S – S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer S 3 O 9 is (a) Three (b) Two (c) One (d) Zero Strongest intermolecular hydrogen bond is present in the following molecules pairs [IIT 1981; DCE 2000] (a) SiH 4 and SiF [IIT 1983; DCE 2001] [UPSEAT 2001] (a) Hybrid ion (b) Hydronium ion Structure of IF4 and hybridization of iodine in this structure are[UPSEAT 2001] (c) Proton (d) Hydroxyl ion (a) sp 3 d , Linear 29. Which can be described as a molecule with residual bonding capacity [JIPMER 2000] (b) sp 3 d 2 , T-shaped (d) sp 3 d 2 , Octahedral In which of the following the central atom does not use sp hybrid orbitals in its bonding [UPSEAT 2001, 02] (a) BeCl 2 (b) NaCl (c) CH 4 (d) N2 3 (a) BeF3 (b) OH 3 (c) NH 2 (d) NF3 The magnetic moment of K 3 [Fe(CN )6 ] is found to be 1.7 B.M. How many unpaired electron (s) is/are present per molecule (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 N 2 and O 2 are converted into monocations N 2 and O 2 respectively. Which is wrong [CBSE PMT 1997] (a) In N 2 , the N N bond weakens (b) In O 2 , the O O bond order increases Read the assertion and [Orissa JEEreason 2003] carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below : (a) (c) (d) (e) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. If assertion is true but reason is false. If the assertion and reason both are false. If assertion is false but reason is true. 1. Assertion : Water is a good solvent for ionic compounds but poor one for covalent compounds. Reason : Hydration energy of ions releases sufficient energy to overcome lattice energy and break hydrogen bonds in water, while covalent bonded compounds interact so weakly that even Vander (b) (c) In O 2 , paramagnetism decreases (d) 23. N 2 becomes diamagnetic The common features among the species CN , CO and NO are [IIT Screening 2001] (a) Bond order three and isoelectronic (b) Bond order three and weak field ligands (c) Bond order two and -acceptors [ Chemical Bonding Wall's forces between molecules of covalent compounds cannot be broken. [AIIMS 1996] 2. 3. 4. 5. Assertion : Reason : Assertion Reason : : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : 16. Assertion : Reason : 17. In a polar covalent molecule, the shared electrons spend more time on the average near one of the atoms. [AIIMS 1996] Diborane is electron deficient 18. There are no enough valence electrons to form the expected number of covalent bonds[AIIMS 2001] A resonance hybrid is always more stable than 19. any of its canonical structures This stability is due to delocalization of electrons[AIIMS 1999] Assertion : Reason : Assertion Reason : : Assertion : All F S F angle in SF4 greater than 90° but less than 180° The lone pair-bond pair repulsion is weaker than bond pair-bond pair repulsion Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : 22. Assertion : BF3 has greater dipole moment than H 2 S . 23. Reason Assertion : : Reason : Assertion : Fluorine is more electronegative than sulphur. The bond between two identical nonmetal atoms has a pair of electrons with identical spin. Electrons are transferred fully from one atom to another. B molecule is diamagnetic. Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion Reason : : The atoms in a covalent molecule are said to share electrons, yet some covalent molecules are polar. 20. The crystal structure gets stabilized even though the sum of electron gain enthalpy and ionization enthalpy is positive. Energy is absorbed during the formation of crystal lattice. Order of lattice energy for same halides are as LiX NaX KX . Size of alkaline – earth metal increases from Li to K . Born-Haber cycle is based on Hess’s law. Lattice enthalpy can be calculated by BornHaber cycle. Bond energy has order like C C C C C C . Bond energy increases with increase in bond order. Electron affinity refers to an isolated atom’s attraction for an additional electron while electronegativity is the ability of an element to attract electrons towards itself in a shared pair of electrons. Electron affinity is a relative number and electronegativity is experimentally measurable. [AIIMS 2004] 6. Assertion Reason : : The electronic structure of O 3 is O O O O structure is not allowed because O O octet around cannot be expanded. 21. Geometry of SF4 molecule can be termed as distorted tetrahedron, a folded square or see saw. Four fluorine atoms surround or form bond with sulphur molecule. [IIT 1998] 7. Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Bond order can assume any value number including zero Higher the bond order, shorter is bond length and greater is bond energy [AIIMS 1999] 8. 9. Reason : Assertion : Ortho nitrophenol molecules are associated due to the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding while paranitrophenol involves intramolecular, hydrogen bonding Ortho nitrophenol is more volatile than the para nitrophenol [AIIMS 1999] Nitrogen molecule diamagnetic. Reason : N 2 molecule have unpaired electrons. 10. Assertion Reason : : Ice is less dense than liquid water. There are vacant spaces between hydrogen bonded water molecules in ice. 11. Assertion : Water is liquid but H 2 S is a gas. 12. Reason Assertion : : 13. Reason Assertion : : Reason : Assertion Reason Assertion Reason : : : : Oxygen is paramagnetic. Iodine is more soluble in water then in carbon tetrachloride. Iodine is a polar compound. o and p -nitrophenols can be separated by steam distillation. o -nitrophenol have intramolecular hydrogen bonding while p -nitrophenol exists as associated molecules. The fluorine has lower reactivity. F F bond has low bond dissociation energy. is strong while is a weak bond. Atoms rotate freely about bond. 14. 15. 127 24. 25. 26. 2 The highest occupied molecular orbital is of type. [AIIMS 2005] The nearly tetrahedral arrangement of the orbitals about the oxygen atom allows each water molecule to form hydrogen bonds with as many as four neighbouring water molecules. In ice each molecule forms four hydrogen bonds as each molecule is fixed in the space. The bond order of helium is always zero. The number of electrons in bonding molecular orbital and antibonding molecular orbital is equal. Electrovalent bonding 1 b 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 c 6 d 7 d 8 b 9 c 10 d 11 b 12 a 13 d 14 a 15 a 16 c 17 b 18 a 19 d 20 c 128 Chemical Bonding 21 b 22 d 23 a 24 a 25 b 26 d 27 d 28 c 29 a 30 d 31 b 32 b 33 b 34 d 35 b 36 a 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 c 41 c 42 b 43 d 44 b 45 c 46 c 47 a 48 b 49 c 50 b 51 b 52 b 53 a 54 a 55 a 56 c 57 a 58 c 59 a 60 c 61 a 62 b 63 d 64 d 65 b 66 a 67 abc 68 bd Covalent bonding Polarisation and Fajan’s rule 1 d 2 c 3 b 4 d 5 c 6 a 7 b 8 a 9 c 10 b 11 d 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 d 16 d 17 c 18 b 19 a 20 d 21 a 22 c 23 d 24 a 25 b 26 b Overlaping - and - bonds 1 c 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 c 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 c 1 c 2 c 3 B 4 b 5 d 11 b 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 d 6 a 7 c 8 a 9 d 10 a 16 a 17 d 18 c 19 d 20 d 11 b 12 b 13 c 14 b 15 c 16 a 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 b 21 a 22 a 23 c 24 c 25 c 26 c 27 a 28 a 29 a 30 d 31 b 32 a 33 d 34 a 35 d 36 b 37 d 38 c 39 d 40 c 41 b 42 b 43 b 44 b 45 b 46 d 47 d 48 b 49 a 50 a 51 b 52 d 53 c 54 d 55 d 56 d 57 a 58 a 59 d 60 a 61 c 62 a 63 b 64 b 65 b 66 b 67 b 68 d 69 b 70 c 71 c 72 c 73 cd 74 ad 75 ab 76 a Co-ordinate or Dative bonding 1 d 2 b 3 c 4 d 5 c 6 b 7 a 8 d 9 a 10 d 11 c 12 a 13 a 14 b 15 c Dipole moment Hybridisation 1 d 2 d 3 d 4 c 5 d 6 a 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 d 11 d 12 a 13 a 14 b 15 a 16 b 17 c 18 a 19 d 20 b 21 c 22 c 23 a 24 c 25 a 26 a 27 b 28 c 29 b 30 a 31 d 32 a 33 d 34 c 35 c 36 b 37 b 38 c 39 b 40 b 41 d 42 b 43 c 44 a 45 c 46 c 47 d 48 b 49 c 50 a 51 b 52 a 53 c 54 c 55 c 56 d 57 b 58 a 59 b 60 c 61 b 62 c 63 b 64 b 65 b 66 a 67 c 68 b 69 c 70 a 71 a 72 a 73 b 74 b 75 d 76 d 77 c 78 a 79 d 80 b 81 c 82 b 83 d 84 a 85 d 86 b 87 d 88 c 89 a 90 c 91 c 92 c 93 a 94 b 95 c 1 b 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 c 96 a 97 b 98 b 99 b 100 b 6 c 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 b 101 a 102 b 103 d 104 a 105 b 11 b 12 d 13 b 14 c 15 d 106 a 107 a 108 b 109 b 110 a 16 c 17 c 18 a 19 c 20 b 111 a 112 b 113 b 114 d 115 d 21 d 22 b 23 b 24 b 25 a 116 c 117 c 118 b 119 c 120 a 26 b 27 b 28 b 29 c 30 a 121 a 122 c 123 a 124 a 125 b 31 a 32 c 33 a 34 bd 35 a 126 c 127 d 128 c 129 c 130 a 131 b 132 b 133 e 134 c 135 d Chemical Bonding 129 136 b 137 b 138 d 139 a 140 a 6 d 7 b 8 d 9 c 10 c 141 a 142 b 143 a 144 a 145 a 11 d 12 b 13 a 14 b 15 d 146 b 147 c 148 d 149 bcd 150 a 16 d 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 c 151 ac 152 a 21 a 22 a 23 d 24 a 25 c 26 a 27 b 28 c 29 a 30 c 31 a 32 b 33 d 34 a 35 a 36 a 37 a 38 b 39 d 40 c 41 a 42 c 43 b 44 c 45 c 46 b 47 d 48 b 49 d 50 d Resonance 1 d 2 b 3 b 4 b 5 b 6 c 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 c 11 abcd Types of bonding and Forces in solid VSEPR Theory 1 b 2 d 3 c 4 c 5 d 6 d 7 d 8 b 9 b 10 c 11 d 12 a 13 d 14 c 15 a 16 b 17 d 18 a 19 d 20 c 21 d 22 d 23 a 24 d b 5 a 9 a 10 d d 14 d 15 b 18 d 19 c 20 a d 23 a 24 d 25 c c 28 c 29 a 1 a 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 c 6 b 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 a 11 c 12 a 13 a 14 a 15 c 16 c 17 b 18 d 19 d 20 a 21 a 22 d 23 b 24 d 25 a 26 c 27 b 28 b 29 a 30 a 31 a 32 c 33 c 34 a 35 c 36 b 37 b 38 d 39 d 40 b 1 d 2 c 3 c 4 41 c 42 a 43 b 44 c 45 d 6 a 7 b 8 a 11 a 12 c 13 16 c 17 b 21 a 22 26 c 27 Molecular orbital theory 1 a 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 c 6 d 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 b 11 c 12 b 13 c 14 a 15 c 16 c 17 d 18 b 19 c 20 c 21 d 22 c 23 b 24 c 25 a 26 d 27 b 28 b 29 a 30 c 31 c 32 a 33 c 34 a 35 c 36 d 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 c 41 c 42 a 43 b 44 a 45 a 46 c 47 b 48 c 49 c 50 a 51 c 52 b 53 a 54 a 55 a 56 c 57 c 58 c 59 a 60 a 61 a 62 b 63 a 64 c 65 a 66 c 67 a 68 a 69 c 70 a 71 b 72 b 73 d 74 c 75 a 76 b 77 b 78 a 79 c 80 a 81 c 82 a 83 c 84 d 5 c Hydrogen bonding 1 d 2 b 3 b 4 a Critical Thinking Question Assertion & Reason 1 a 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 c 6 b 7 b 8 e 9 c 10 a 11 b 12 d 13 a 14 e 15 c 16 c 17 c 18 b 19 a 20 c 21 b 22 e 23 d 24 d 25 a 26 a Chemical Bonding 24. (a) 133 M 3 (PO4 )2 means M is divalent so formula of its sulphate is MSO 4 . 25. (b) As the molecular formula of chloride of a metal M is MCl3 , it is trivalent so formula of its carbonate will be M 2 (CO 3 )3 . 26. Electrovalent bonding 27. (d) Sodium chloride is electrovalent compound so it dissolves in water which is a polar solvent. (d) When sodium chloride is dissolved in water, the sodium ion is hydrated. 1. (b) NaCl is ionic crystal so it is formed by Na 2. (a) Bond formation is always exothermic. Compounds of sodium are ionic. 3. (a) According to Fajan’s rule ionic character is less. 32. 4. (c) Valencies of L, Q, P and R is – 2, – 1, + 1 and + 2 respectively so they will form P2 L, RL, PQ and RQ 2 . (b) Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of free ions. 33. (b) The phosphate of a metal has the formula MHPO4 it means 34. 35. (d) (b) Cs is highly electropositive while F is highly electronegative so they will form ionic bond. (b) Na is highly electropositive while Cl is highly electronegative so they will form ionic bond. (a) Ionic compounds are good conductors of heat and electricity so they are good electrolyte. (a) Metal tends to lose electrons due to low ionization energy. (c) As the formula of calcium pyrophosphate is Ca 2 P2 O7 means valency of pyrophosphate radical is – 4 so formula of ferric pyrophosphate is Fe4 P2 O7 3 . 5. and Cl ions. (c) Electrovalent compounds are good conductor of heat and electricity in molten state or in aqueous solution. 30. M 3 ion so formula of its phosphate would be MPO4 . metal is divalent so its chloride would be MCl 2 . 7. (d) Electrovalent bond formation depends on ionization energy of cation, electron affinity of anion and on lattice energy. 8. (b) Because CsF is electrovalent compound. 37. 9. (c) 38. 10. (d) Valency of metal is + 2 by formula MO so its phosphate would be M 3 (PO4 )2 because valency of [PO4 ] is – 3. NaCl is formed by electrovalent bonding. 11. (b) Li, Na and K are alkali metals with low ionization energy and one electron in their outermost shell so they will form cation easily. 12. (a) Melting point and boiling point of electrovalent compounds are high due to strong electrostatic force of attraction between the ions. 13. (d) The value of lattice energy depends on the charges present on the two ions and distance between them. It shell be high if charges are high and ionic radii are small. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 14. (a) Cs is more electropositive. 15. (a) X loses electron, Y gains it. 44. 16. (c) Formation of NaCl occurs by Na ion and Cl ion . 45. 17. (b) 18. (a) Electrovalent compounds generally have high m.pt and high b.pt due to stronger coulombic forces of attractions. 19. (d) Water is a polar solvent so it decreases the interionic attraction in the crystal lattice due to solvation. 20. 21. MgCl2 has electrovalent linkage because magnesium is electropositive metal while chlorine is electronegative. 2 2 5 (c) Element C has electronic structure 1s , 2 s 2 p , it requires only one electron to complete its octet and it will form anion so it will form electrovalent bond. (b) Since the chloride of a metal is MCl 2 therefore metal ‘M’ must be divalent i.e. M 2 . As a result the formula of its phosphate is M 3 (PO4 )2 . 22. 48. 50. 51. 52. 53. (a) Ion is formed by gaining or losing electrons. To form cation electron are lost from the valency shell, so Zn atoms to Zn ions there is a decrease in the no. of valency electron. 61. of nitrate is M ( NO 3 )3 . 23. 47. 54. 55. 57. 58. 59. (d) In MPO4 the oxidation state of M is +3. Hence, the formula (d) Yet the formula of sulphate of a metal (M) is M 2 (SO 4 )3 , it is M X bond is a strongest bond so between Na Cl is a strongest bond. (b) The solubility order is : BeF2 MgF2 CaF2 SrF2 so SrF2 is least soluble. (c) (d) NaF has maximum melting point, melting point decreases of sodium halide with increase in size of halide their bond energy get lower. (b) Sulphanilic acids have bipolar structure so their melting point is high and insoluble in organic solvents. (c) CaCl 2 will have electrovalent bonding because calcium is electropositive metal while chlorine is electronegative so they will combined with electrovalent bond. (a) Electrovalent bond is formed by losing electrons from one atom and gaining electron by other atom i.e. redox reaction. (b) Electrovalent compound are polar in nature because they are formed by ions. (b) CsCl has ionic bonding. (b) As soon as the electronegativity increases, ionic bond strength increases. (b) This X element is a second group element so its chloride will be XCl 2 . (a) When electronegativity difference is from 1.7 to 3.0. This bond is called as ionic bond. (a) Ethyl chloride is an organic compound so it will be covalent. (a) Lithium oxide and calcium fluoride show ionic characters. (a) Generally cation and anion form ionic bond. (c) Those atoms which contain +ve and –ve sign are known as ion. (a) Generally Br-F contain maximum electronegativity difference compare to other compound. (a) Due to greater electronegativity difference. 3d 4s 4s 134 Chemical Bonding 31. 62. (b) Valency of phosphorus in H 3 PO4 is supposed ‘x’ then (b) Co 3 3d 6 4 s 0 , Ni 4 3d 6 4 s 0 , 3 x 8 0, x 5 0 , x 5. 33. (d) (1) x 3(2) 0 1 x 6 0 x 6 1 5 . 34. 35. (a) HCl molecule has covalent bond. (d) Electrovalent compounds have high melting point and high boiling point. 36. (b) 64. (d) BaCl2 contain higher ionic character. 66. (a) Electrolytes are compound which get dissociated into their ion in water so it contains electrovalent bond. 67. (abc) CaH 2 , BaH2 , SrH 2 are ionic hydride. Length of H 68. (bcd) Generally MgCl2 , SrCl 2 , BaCl2 are ionic compounds so they conduct electricity in fused state. Middle length of Cl 2 198 pm 3. (c) In N 2 molecule each Nitrogen atom contribute 3 e so total no. of electron’s are 6. (b) Non-metals readily form diatomic molecules by sharing of electrons. Element M (1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 ) has seven electrons in its valence shell and thus needs one more electron to complete its octet. Therefore, two atoms share one electron each to form a diatomic molecule (M 2 ) 198 99 pm 2 Bond length of HCl = Length of H + Length of Cl = 37 + 99 = 136 pm 37. (d) Covalent character depend on the size of cation and anion. 6. (a) In graphite all carbon atoms are sp 2 -hybridised and have covalent bond. (c) Silica has tendency to form long chain covalent structure such as carbon so it has giant covalent structure. 7. 8. (a) All have linear structure. O = C = O, Cl – Hg – Cl, HC CH 9. 10. (d) Similar atoms form covalent bond. (a) Covalent bond forms when electronegativity difference of two atom is equal to 1.7 or less than 1.7 (b) Similar atoms form covalent bond. (b) Water is a polar solvent while covalent compounds are nonpolar so they usually insoluble in water. 11. 12. 13. 14. BCl 3 is electron deficient compound because it has only ‘6’ electrons after forming bond. (b) Due to its small size and 2 electrons in s-orbital Be forms covalent compound. (c) 18. (c) 21. (a) Two identical atoms are joined with covalent bond so H 2 will be covalent. (c) Element ‘X’ has atomic no. 7 so its electronic configuration will . be 2, 5. So its electron dot symbol would be : X . . (c) C-S will be most covalent. Covalent character depend on the size of cation and anion. (c) HCl has ionic character yet it has covalent compound because electronegativity of chlorine is greater than that of hydrogen. 23. 24. 25. 26. H 2 O will formed by covalent bonding. (c) Order of polarising power Be Li Na Hence order of covalent character BeCl 2 LiCl NaCl . (d) Compound has 254 gm of I 2 means 80 gm O 2 means 254 2 mole, while 127 80 5 mole so they will form compound 16 I2 O5 . 38. .. .. .. .. : M ..M : : M : M : .. .. .. .. 5. 74 37 pm 2 Length of Cl Covalent bonding 2. Middle length of H 2 74 pm 39. 41. (c) NH 4 Cl has covalent as well as ionic bond. H | H N H Cl | H (d) Covalent character increases when we come down a group so CaI2 will have highest covalent character. (b) In water molecule three atom are linked by covalent bond. O H H .. (b) : N N O : or N N O. .. (b) The electronic configuration Structure is 42. 44. of Na (Z 11) is 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s1 . The oxide of Na is Na 2 O . 45. 47. 48. (b) Covalent bond is directional. (d) Bond dissociation energy decreases with increase in size. So D is smallest. (b) Molecule X is nitrogen because nitrogen molecule has triple bond. It’s configuration will be 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 3 . 49. (a) 50. (a) The compound will be A2 B3 (By criss cross rule). 51. 52. (b) Each nitrogen share 3 electrons to form triple bond. (d) Urea solution does not conduct electricity because it is a covalent compound. (d) Due to the small size and higher ionization energy, boron forms covalent compound. 54. PCl5 does not follow octet rule, it has 10 electrons in its valence shell. BF 3 contain 6 electron so it is lewis acid. 58. (a) 59. (d) Among the given species. The bond dissociation energy of C O bond is minimum in case of CO 32 by which Chemical Bonding 135 C O bond become more weaker in CO 32 or the bond order of CO 32 (1.33) is minimum so the bond become weaker. 60. (a) Valency of Na 2 S 2 O3 is supposed to be x, then 2 2 x ( 6) 0 , 2 x 4 0 , x 2 . O O || 61. (c) || H O S O O S O H (Marshall acid) || 62. 63. 64. 65. || O O (a) Among the given choice Al is least electropositive therefore, the bond between Al and Cl will be least ionic or most covalent or the difference in electronegativeity of two atom is less than 1.8. 2. (b) O (b) Electronic configuration of 16 S 32 1s 2 ,2 s 2 ,2 p 6 ,3 s 2 ,3 p 4 . In the last orbit it has only 6 electron. So it require 2 electron to complete its octet, therefore it share 2 electron with two hydrogen atom and forms 2 covalent bond with it. (b) The acidity of hydrides of VI group elements increase from top to bottom as the bond strength X H decrease from top to bottom H 2 O H 2 S H 2 Se H 2 Te 3. 4. (d) (b) We know that Al 3 cation is smaller than Na (because of greater nuclear change) According to Fajan's rule, small cation 7. H O N O . (a) Structure of N 2 O5 is O N O N O . 3 H O SO H O (c) NH 3 has lone pair of electron while BF3 is electron deficient compound so they form a co-ordinate bond. NF3 BF3 66. between Al and Cl atoms. (b) Sulphur has the second highest catenation property after carbon. Its molecule has eight atom bonded together (i.e. S 8 ) 67. (b) 9. 10. H 2 O 2 has open book structure. (a) H O H 7 electronic configuration of nitrogen 72. 73. 74. 76. (ad) CO has only 6 electrons while PCl5 has 10 electrons after sharing so both don’t follow octet rule. (a) Among these, NaH and CaH 2 are ionic hydrides and B2 H 6 (d) F – Cl F F F Xe O (a) 13. (a) H 3 PO4 is orthophosphoric acid. O F H O PO H | O | 15. H (c) Sulphuric acid contain, covalent and co-ordinate bond. Dipole moment 1. 2. 3. 5. 6. 8. (b) CO 2 is a symmetrical molecule so its dipole moment is zero. (d) These all have zero dipole moment. (d) HF has largest dipole moment because electronegativity difference of both is high so it is highly polar. (c) Due to its symmetrical structure. (c) Chloroform has 3 chlorine atom and one hydrogen atom attached to the carbon so it is polarised and it will show dipole moment. (a) The dipole moment of two dipoles inclined at an angle is given by the equation Co-ordinate or Dative bonding O SO 32 has one coordinate bond. O S O .. .. H N H or H N H | . H H (c) Multiple bonds have more bond energy so C N will be the strongest. (c) Diamond, silicon and quartz molecule bounded by covalent bond. (cd) C 2 H 4 and N 2 has multiple bonds. O O 12. N 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 3 and NH 3 are covalent hydrides. 1. O H 2 SO 4 . Therefore all these contains coordinate bond. CH 3 N C contain dative bond. is It has 5 electrons in valency shell, hence in ammonia molecule it complete its octet by sharing of three electron with three H atom, therefore it has 8 electrons in its valence shell in ammonia molecule 71. does not have co-ordinate bond. Structure is O (d) Co-ordinate bond is a special type of covalent bond which is formed by sharing of electrons between two atoms, where both the electrons of the shared pair are contributed by one atom. Since this type of sharing of electrons exits in O 3 , SO 3 and O (b) The HNO 2 polarise anion upto greater extent. Hence Al polarise Cl ion upto greater extent, therefore AlCl3 has covalent bond 69. H 2 SO 4 has co-ordinate covalent bond. F X 2 Y 2 2 XY cos cos 90 0 . Since the angle increases from 90 180 , the value of cos becomes more and more – ve and hence resultant decreases. Thus, dipole moment is maximum when 90 . 136 Chemical Bonding 9. (c) Due to distorted tetrahedral geometry SF4 has permanent dipole moment F F : 1.03 100 16.83% 17% 6.12 Polarisation and Fajan's rule S F F 10. (b) CCl 4 has no net dipole moment because of its regular tetrahedral structure. 12. (d) 14. (c) 16. 20. 1. (d) BF3 is planar while NF3 is pyramidal due to the presence of lone pair of electron on nitrogen in NF3 . 2. (c) 3. (b) When electronegativity difference is more between two joined atoms then covalent bond becomes polar and electron pair forming a bond don’t remain in the centre. (c) Dipole moment of CH 3 OH is maximum in it. 4. (d) Hexane has symmetrical structure so does not have polarity. (b) CH 4 have regular tetrahedron so its dipole moment is zero. 5. (c) When two identical atoms form a bond, bond is non-polar. 22. (b) Ammonia have some dipole moment. 6. 23. (b) Charge of e 1.6 10 19 (a) According to Fajan’s rule, polarisation of anion is influenced by charge and size of cation more is the charge on cation, more is polarisation of anion. 8. (a) When two atoms shares two electrons it is an example of covalent bond. This covalent bond may be polar or may be non-polar depends on the electronegativity difference. In given example formula is AB. So it is polar. 9. (c) HCl is most polar due to high electronegativity of Cl. 10. (b) 11. (d) p-dichloro benzene have highest melting point. 13. (b) H-F is polar due to difference of electronegativity of hydrogen and fluorine so it shows positive dipole moment. BCl 3 has zero dipole moment because of its trigonal planar geometry. Dipole moment of HBr 1.6 10 30 Inter atomic spacing 1Å 1 10 10 m % of ionic character in HBr dipolemoment of HBr 100 inter spacing distance q 1 .6 10 30 100 1 .6 10 19 10 10 10 30 10 29 100 10 1 100 0.1 100 10% 25. (b) 29. (c) Given ionic charge 4.8 10 10 e.s.u. and ionic distance BF3 has zero dipole moment. × ionic distance 30. 4.8 10 10 10 8 4.8 10 8 e.s.u. per cm 4.8 debye. (a) Higher is the difference in electronegativity of two covalently bonded atoms, higher is the polarity. In HCl there is high difference in the electronegativity of H and Cl atom so it is a polar compound. 31. (a) Linear molecular has zero dipole moment CO 2 has linear 32. (c) structure so it does not have the dipole moment O C O . 33. 34. 35. SF6 is symmetrical and hence non polar because its net dipole moment is zero. (a) Polarity create due to the difference in electronegativity of both atom in a molecule except H 2 all other molecule have the different atom so they will have the polarity while H 2 will be non polar. (bd) cis isomer shows dipole moment while that of trans is zero or very low value. Trans 1, 2 di-chloro-2-pentene will also show dipole moment due to unsymmetry. (a) % of ionic character Experiment al value of dipole moment = Expected value of dipole moment NH 4 Cl has both types of bonds polar and non polar H Cl 14. (b) Greater the charge of cation more will be its polarising power (according to Fajan’s rule). 15. (d) 16. (d) As the size of anion increases, polarity character increases. 20. (d) Due to the electronegativity difference. 21. (a) We know that greater the difference in electronegativity of two atoms forming a covalent bond. More is its polar nature. In HF there is a much difference in the electronegatives of hydrogen and flourine. Therefore (HF) is a polar compound. 22. (c) Silicon tetrafloride has a centre of symmetry. 23. (d) 25. (b) According to Fajan’s rule largest cation and smallest anion form ionic bond. (b) Polarity character is due to the difference in electronegativity of two atoms or molecule. 8 1 A 10 cm we know that dipole moment = ionic charge NH 3 has sp 3 hybridised central atom so it is non planar. H | H N| H (a) Carbon tetrachloride has a zero dipole moment because of its regular tetrahedral structure. 27. H 2 O is a polar molecule due to electronegativity difference of hydrogen and oxygen. 26. AlI3 Aluminiumtriiodide shows covalent character. According to Fajan’s rule. BF3 have zero dipole moment. Overlaping- and - bonds 1. (c) H–C 2. C–H molecule formation p-p orbitals take part in bond (c) In fluorine formation. Chemical Bonding 3. (b) -bond is formed by lateral overlapping of unhybridised p-p orbitals. 5. (d) No. of e pair 3 – C 4. 1 [3 3] =0 2 No. of e pair 3 +0 1 and 2 F C 5. (c) In a double bond connecting two atom sharing of 4 electrons take place as in H 2 C CH 2 . 6. 9. (c) C C is a multiple bond so it is strongest. (d) As the bond order increases, C H bond energy also increases so it will be greatest in acetylene because its B.O. is 3. H H 11. (b) | 16. 17. (a) N | 8. (b) In ethylene both Carbon atoms are sp 2 - hybridised so 120 o . | 9. (d) Structure of bipyramidal. || (c) 2, 2 bond and one lone pair. .. .. (d) : O S O : 5 atoms has 12 electrons in its outermost || (d) In H C C O H the asterisked carbon has a valency of * 5 and hence this formula is not correct. 11. (d) dsp 3 hybrid orbitals have bond angles 120 o , 90 o . 13. (a) In BeF3 , Be is not sp 3 –hybridised it is sp 2 hybridised. 17. (c) In molecule OF2 oxygen is sp 3 hybridised. 18. (a) In sp 3 hybrid orbitals s-character is 1/4 means 25%. 19. (d) 20. th XeF4 molecule has ‘Xe’ sp 3 d 2 hybridised and its shape is square planar. (b) The bond angle is maximum for sp hybridisation because two sp hybridised orbitals lies at angle of 180 o . O: .. shell. One (S O) bond will be (p-p) bond while two (S O) bond will be (p-d) bond. 20. hybridized compound is Trigonal 10. (d) We know that trisilylamine is sp 2 –hybridized therefore .. :O sp 3 d O S 19. No. of atom bonded to the central atom 3 In case of 3, 3 geometry is Trigonal planar. N .. :O F (a) In sp 3 –hybridisation each sp 3 hybridised orbital has 1/4 scharacter. p d bonding is possible due to the availability of vacant d-orbitals with silicon. 18. 120° 120° H B 6. H C C C C F 120° – (b) Ca 137 (d) Structure of P4 O10 is C 2 H 4 Br2 has all single bonds so C H bond distance is the largest. 21. (c) 23. (a) In methane molecule C is sp 3 hybridised so its shape will be tetrahedral. 24. (c) In compound CH 2 C CH 2 the second carbon sphybridised. .. .. (a) : Cl Cl : is the correct electronic formula of Cl 2 molecule .. .. because each chlorine has 7 electrons in its valence shell. O 3 P O O 25. O P O P O O O 1 XeF4 has sp 3 d 2 hybridisation, its shape is square planar. 26. (a) 27. (b) In HCHO, carbon is sp 2 hybridized O P 2 H O | H C2 O Each phosphorus is attached to 4 oxygen atoms. sp Hybridisation 1. (d) H 2 O is not linear because oxygen is sp 3 hybridised in H 2O . 2. (d) O 95.7 pm (104.5) H 4. (c) 28. (c) Because of the triple bond, the carbon-carbon bond distance in ethyne is shortest. 29. (b) The hybridisation of Ag in complex [ Ag (NH 3 )2 ] will be sp because it is a Linear complex. 30. (a) Structure of CO 2 is linear O C O while that of H 2 O O o is H CO 2 has sp – hybridization and is linear. H H i.e. bent structure so in CO 2 resultant dipole moment is zero while that of H 2 O has some value. 31. (d) CO 2 is not sp 3 hybridised, it is sp hybridised. 138 Chemical Bonding 32. (a) As compare to pure atomic orbitals, hybrid orbitals have low energy. sp 2 (a) As p-character increases the bond angle decreases. sp 3 sp 2 sp 70. 33. (d) CH 2 C CH – CH 3 1, 2-butadiene. 36. (b) CCl 4 is sp 3 hybridised so bond angle will be approximately 109 o . 40. o 2 1 , bond angle - 180 o 2 In sp 2 - p-character 2 , bond angle - 120 o 3 In sp 3 - p-character 3 , bond angle - 109 o 4 (b) Ethene has sp hybridised carbon so bond angles are 120 . O 44. In sp - p-character (a) Acetate ion is CH 3 (a) 72. (a) S-atom in SF6 has sp 3 d 2 hybridisation. So, the structure of i.e. one C O single bond C O sp 3 -hybridization called tetrahedral because it provides tetrahedral shape to the molecule. 71. and one C O double bond. SF6 will be octahedral. 46. (c) Benzene has all carbons sp 2 hybridised and planar in shape. 74. (b) Structure of H 2 O 2 is non-planar. It has open book structure. 47. (d) In methane C is sp 3 hybridized and bond angle is 109 o . 75. (d) Structure of N 2 O is similar to CO 2 both have linear structure. H H H 56. (d) | | | 78. (a) | | | 79. (d) In NH 4 nitrogen is sp 3 hybridised so 4 hydrogen situated at the corners of a tetrahedron. 81. (c) Increasing order of bond angle is sp 3 sp 2 sp . H C C C H H H H 58. There are 10 shared pairs of electrons. (a) The diborane molecule has two types of B – H bond : (ii) B H b – It is a three centred bond. 86. (b) Bond angle increases with change in hybridisation in following Ht B Ht Hb (b) PF5 involves sp d hybridization and hence has trigonal bipyramidal structure. 3 (c) s-character in sp NH 4 3 has sp –hybridized nitrogen so its shape is tetrahedral. order sp 3 sp 2 sp . Hb 1 100 50% 2 s-character in sp 2 88. (c) In Diborane boron shows sp 3 –hybridization. 89. (a) Alkene does not show linear structure but it has planar structure due to sp 2 –hybridisation. 90. (c) Generally SF4 consist of 10 electrons, 4 bonding electron pair 92. and one lone pair of electron, hence it shows hybridization. (c) Atom/Ion Hybridisation 1 100 33.3% 3 1 s-character in sp 100 25% 4 3 Hence, maximum s-character is found in sp-hybridisation. 64. 180 (a) Ht 63. 120 84. B 62. 109 (i) B H t – It is a normal covalent bond. Ht 61. SnCl 2 is V–shaped. 93. (a) sp SF4 sp 3 d with one lone pair of electron PF6 sp 3 d 2 PF3 consist of three bonding pair electrons and one lone pair of electron hence it shows sp 3 – hybridization. 3 (b) The molecule of PCl5 has sp d hybridisation, structure is trigonal bipyramidal. (b) Merging (mixing) of dissimilar orbitals of different energies to form new orbitals is known as hybridisation and the new orbital formed are known as hybrid oribitals. They have similar energy. NO 2 sp 3 d NO 2 shows sp–hybridization. So its shape is linear. 94. (b) 95. (c) Generally octahedral compound show sp 3 d 2 – hybridization. 96. (a) In fifth group hydride bond angle decreases from top to bottom 65. (b) In SO 3 sulphur is sp 2 hybridized so its shape will be trigonal planar. 66. (a) These all are triangular with sp 2 hybridization. 97. (b) Generally NH 4 shows sp 3 hybridization. 67. (c) Bond length depends upon bond order and in benzene all C C bonds have same bond order. 98. (b) We know that single, double and triple bond lengths of carbon (b) In 99. (b) It shows sp 2 –hybridization so it is planar. 101. (a) Bond angle of hydrides decreases down the group. 68. C2 H 2 H C C H sp sp each carbon has sp -hybridization NH 3 PH3 AsH3 SbH 3 BiH3 . in carbon dioxide are 1.22 Å,1.15 Å and 1.10Å respectively. Chemical Bonding 102. (b) Hybridization of N in NH 3 is sp 3 that of Pt in [PtCl4 ]2 2 125. 3 is dsp that P in PCl5 is sp d and that of B in BCl 3 is 126. sp 2 . NH 4 and SO 42 tetrahedral structure. (d) 104. (a) It is shows sp 3 d 3 –hybridization. Hence the bond angle is 107. both show sp 33.3 120 o M sp3 d 2 hybrid orbital have octahedral shape 127. (d) 128. (c) In the formation of d 2 sp3 hybrid orbitals two (n 1)d orbitals of e.g., set [i.e., (n 1) dz 2 and (n 1)dx 2 y 2 orbitals] one 25 109.28 3 1 20 90 o and 120 o 3 X according to thisX geometry, the number of X M X bond X at 180° must be three. X 3 sp d X X about 72 o . (a) s-character increases with increase in bond angle. Hybridization s% Angle sp 50 180 o sp 2 (b) There is sp hybridization in C 2 H 2 so it has the linear structure. (c) In octahedral molecule six hybrid orbitals directed towards the corner of a regular octahedron with a bond angle of 90°. sp 3 –hybridization and 103. o ns and three np [ np x , npy and np z ] 2 together and form six d sp hybrid orbitals. 3 129. (c) The correct order of bond angle (Smallest first) is (b) IF7 molecule show sp d –hybridization. 110. (a) PCl3 contain three bonding and one lone pair electron. Hence H 2 S NH 3 SiH4 BF3 shows sp 3 –hybridization. 92.6 107 10928' 120 112. 113. 92.6° 2 (b) For square planar geometry hybridization is dsp involving y2 S 117. (c) (c) BCl 3 molecule structure. show sp 2 –hybridization 119. (c) Due to multiple bonding in N 2 molecule. 120. (a) % of s-character in CH 4 3 (sp ) and 122. H 130. (a) ( 120) due to 2 lone pair of electron over S atom. CO 2 F CN F Square planar Regular tetrahedral F F F F S 131. F H F Square planar See saw shaped (b) F Xe F ·· O ·· (a) In H 2 CO 3 and BF3 central atom are in sp 2 hybridization but in H 2 CO 3 due to the ionic character of O H bond it will be polar (High electronegativity of oxygen). 124. F B NC and N 2 O have the sp hybridization. 123. – CN Ni 100 100 25 , C 2 H 4 33 , 2 3 4 (sp ) SO 2 has sp 2 hybridization have the V shape structure F 2– NC (a) Acidic character increases when we come down a group, so HI is the strongest acid. (c) H H F F planar 100 C2 H 2 50 2 ( sp ) 121. Si B SO 2 molecule shows sp 2 –hybridization and bent structure. (b) 109° 28' 120° BCl 3 Boron trichloride molecule show sp 2 –hybridization and trigonal planar structure. 118. H F (b) All carbon atoms of benzene consist of alternate single and H H H orbital. double bond and show sp 2 hybridization. 116. N H 107° H (a) Ammonia and (BF4 )1 shows sp 3 –hybridization. s, p x , p y and d x 2 orbitals combine 3 108. 111. 139 H sp (a) Due to sp 3 hybridization and presence of lone pair of electron on p atom PCl3 are of pyramidal shape like that of NH 3 . 132. 3 ·· O ·· B sp2 ·· H O sp3 ·· (b) In the formation of BF3 molecule, one s and 2p orbital hybridise. Therefore it is sp 2 hybridization. 140 Chemical Bonding 133. (e) In NCl 3 and H 2 S the central atom of both (N and S) are in I [ Xe] 5 s 2 ,5 p 5 hence sp 3 hybridization state ·· ·· N Cl S ·· 107° Cl Cl 92.5° H H 5d 5s 5p 5d and I F7 in excited state sp 3 hybridization respectively. In H 2 S and BeCl 2 central F F F I F F F atom are in sp 3 and sp 2 hybridization In BF3 , NCl 3 & IF shows sp d hybridization. So, sp itsd structure is pentagonal H 2 S central atom are in sp 2 , sp 3 & sp 3 hybridization bipyramidal. 141. (a) Compound containing highly electronegative element (F, O, N) attached to an electropositive element (H) show hydrogen bonding. Fluorine (F) is highly electronegative and has smaller size. So hydrogen fluoride shows the strongest hydrogen bonding in the liquid phase. and in the central atom are in sp 3 and sp hybridization. (c) 5p I in excited state while in BF3 and NCl 3 central atoms are in sp 2 and 134. 5s I in ground state 1 1 1 Cground state 2 s 2 ,2 p x 1 py1 ; Cexcited state 2 s1 ,2 p x py p z Oground state 2 s 2 ,2 p x p y p z 2 1 1 In the formation of CO 2 molecule, hybridization of orbitals of carbon occur only to a limited extent involving only one s and one p orbitals there is thus sp hybridisation of valence shell orbitals of the carbon atom resulting in the formation of two sp hybrid orbitals. 3 2 3 3 7 142. (b) In the ammonia molecule N atom is sp 3 hybridized but due to the presence of one lone pair of e (i.e. due to greater L p b p repulsion) it has distorted tetrahedral (or pyramidal) geometry. Oxygen atom in ground state sp – p bonded N p – p Carbon atom in excited state H p – p sp – p bonded 143. (a) 136. 137. 1s 3 (d) In NH 3 , N undergoes sp hybridization. Due to the presence of one lone pair, it is pyramidal in shape. (b) NO 2 SF4 PF6 sp sp 3 d sp 3 d 2 (b) The configuration of 5B 2s 2p Be in excited state BeCl2 Cl 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 1 Cl sp hybridisation B in ground state 144. 1s H Be in ground state Oxygen atom in ground state 135. H 2 2 0 4 Be 1s ,2 s ,2 p 2s 2p (Linear diagonal hybridization) (a) Except CO 3 other choice CO 2 , CS 2 and BeCl 2 have sp hybridization and shows the linear structure while B in excited state CO 3 have 1s 2s 2p 1s 2s 2p In BCl3 state sp3 hybridization and show the non linear structure because sp3 generate tetrahedral structure. 145. (a) dsp3 or sp3 d hybridization exhibit trigonal bipyramidal geometry e.g., PCl 5 Cl Cl Cl Cl sp2hybridisation 138. (d) In SO 3 molecule, S atom remains sp hybrid, hence it has O trigonal planar structure Cl O O (a) In PCl3 molecule, phosphorous is sp 3 hybridised but due to presence of lone pair of electron, it has pyramidal structure P 140. (a) The electronic configuration of Cl Cl Cl sp3d2 (Trigonal bipyramidal) P Cl S 139. Cl 2 Cl 146. (b) Carbon has only two unpaired electrons by its configuration but hybridization is a concept by which we can explain its valency 4. 147. (c) Hybridization is due to overlapping of orbitals of same energy content. Chemical Bonding 148. (d) MX 3 show the sp 2 hybridization in which 3sp 2 hybridized orbital of M bonded by 3 X from bond and having the zero dipole moment. 149. (bcd) SnCl 2 has V–shaped geometry. 150. (a) XeF6 is distorted Octahedral. It has sp 3 d 3 hybridisation with lone pair of electron on Xe, so its shape is distorted. 9. (b) 10. 11. (a) (c) Xe ground state Xe double excitation NF3 is predominantly covalent in nature and has pyramidal structure (the central atom is sp 3 hybridised) with a lone pair of electrons in the fourth orbital. 151. (a) 12. 13. dsp 3 or sp 3 d : one s three p one d (d z 2 ) . 2. (b) In NH 3 nitrogen has one lone pair of electron. (b) In CN ion formal negative charge is on nitrogen atom due to lone pair of electrons. 9. (b) There are three resonance structure of CO 32 ion. O C 11. O 4. 17. 18. SO 42 has 42 electrons; CO 32 has 32 electrons; NO 3 has 32 electrons. (c) Molecular oxygen contains unpaired electron so it is paramagnetic (according to MOT). (b) Structure of H 2 O is a bent structure due to repulsion of lone pair of oxygen. (d) Bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is 105 o it means orbitals are sp 3 hybridised but to lone pair repulsion bond angle get changed from 109 o to 105 o . So its % of scharacter is between 22-23%. (I) (II) (abcd) It has all the characteristics. O O (III) 22. (d) Number of electrons in ClO2– = 7 + 6 + 6 + 1 = 20 Number of electrons in ClF2+ = 7+7+7 – 1=20. 23. (b) Central atom having four electron pairs will be of tetrahedral shape. (a) The bond angle in PH 3 would be expected to be close to F F 24. 6. 7. 8. .. F (d) F C S. . F F F F Xe F F F F .. sp 2 –hybridization and show trigonal planar (b) In BF3 molecule Boron is sp 2 hybridised so its all atoms are co-planar. (c) Due to lp lp repulsions, bond angle in H 2 O is lower 26. (c) It shows structure. (104 o .5 o ) than that in NH 3 (107 o ) and CH 4 (109 o 28 ) . 28. (b) BeF2 on the other hand, has sp-hybridization and hence has a 31. (a) Bond angle of hydrides is decreases top to bottom in the group. NH 3 PH3 AsH3 SbH 3 32. (c) o 5. 5d (c) C O 90 o . (The bond angle H P H in PH 3 is 93 o ) 3. 5p 15. VSEPR Theory 2. 5s (a) CO 2 has bond angle 180 o . (a) As the s-character of hybridized orbitals decreases the bond angle also decreases O C O 5d 14. | (a) CH 3 C CH 2 has 9, 1 and 2 lone pairs. (c) In resonance structure there should be the same number of electron pairs. O 5p In sp hybridisation: s-character 1/2, bond angle 180 o (a) XeF2 molecule is Linear because Xe is sp hybridised. 16. O H 7. 8. 5s In sp 2 hybridisation: s-character 1/3, bond angle 120 o (d) Choice (a), (b), (c) are the resonance structures of CO 2 . O 5d In sp 3 hybridisation: s-character 1/4, bond angle 109 o 1. 5p sp 3 d 2 - hybridization Resonance 5. 5s XeF4 (ac) PCl3 , NH 3 Pyramidal. CH 4 , CCl 4 Tetrahedral. 152. 141 bond angle of 180 . (c) Compound is carbontetrachloride because CCl 4 has sp 3 – hybridization 4 orbitals giving regular tetrahedron geometry. In others the geometry is little distorted inspite of sp 3 hybridization due to different atoms on the vertices of tetrahedron. (b) SO 42 ion is tetrahedral since hybridization of S is sp 3 . N Three bond pair and one lone pair of electron. H 33. (b) NH 3 molecule has one lone pair of electrons on the central atom i.e. Nitrogen. (c) C 2 H 2 has linear structure because carbons are sp-hybridised o and lies at 180 . H 2 S show bond angle nearly 90 o . H H (c) Unpaired electrons are present in KO 2 while others have paired electron NO 2 = 22 electrons ; BaO2 = 72 electrons AlO2 30 electrons ; KO 2 35 electrons 34. (a) Bond angle decreases from H 2 O to H 2 Te . 142 Chemical Bonding 35. (c) 36. (b) BF3 does not contain lone pair of electron. Bent T-shaped geometry in which both lone pairs occupy the equatorial position of the trigonal bipyramidal here F (l p l p ) repulsion = 0 F .. Br (lp b p ) repulsion = 4 and .. F 37. (b p b p ) repulsion =2 (b) The overall value of the dipole moment of a polar molecule depends on its geometry and shape i.e., vectorial addition of dipole moment of the constituent bonds water has angular structure with bond angle 105° as it has dipole moment. However BeF2 is a linear molecule since dipole moment summation of all the bonds present in the molecule cancel each other. Molecular orbital theory 3. No. of bonding e No. of antibonding e 2 8 3 5 2 .5 . 2 2 (b) One bonding M.O. and one anti-bonding M.O. 4. (b) O 22 is least stable. 5. (c) B.O. of O 2 is 2, B.O. of O 21 is 1.5, B.O. of O 21 is 2.5 and of 2. 38. (d) Be F 6. 40. H P 107° (b) Bond order of O 2 is highest so its bond length is smallest. (c) Oxygen is paramagnetic due to the presence of two unpaired electron : O 2 (1s)2 (1s)2 (2 s)2 (2 s)2 (2 p x )2 (2 p y )2 (2 p x )2 (2 p y )1 (2 p z )1 107° Less than 17. H H H H 12. 13. H . .H As .. H 11. NO(7 8 15) has odd number of electrons and hence it is paramagnetic. No. of N b No. of N a 5 (c) B.O. 2 .5 . 2 2 N H 18. H (d) In CH 3 CN bond order between C and N is 3 so its bond length is minimum. (b) As the electronegativity of central atom decreases bond angle is decreases NH 3 has largest bond angle. 41. (1s) * (1s) (c) In NH 3 , sp 3 -hybridization is present but bond angle is B.O. 106 o 45 because Nitrogen has lone pair of electron according to VSEPR theory due to bp-lp repulsion bond angle decreases from 109 o 45' to 106 o 45 . 42. 44. (b) (c) NH 3 has pyramidal structure, yet nitrogen is sp 3 hybridised. This is due to the presence of lone pair of electron. geometry which arise due to sp3 d hybridization of central sulphur atom and due to the presence of lone pair of electron in one of the equatorial hybrid orbital. 45. O O dsp2 hybridization sp3d hybridization sp3d2 hybridization (Four 90° angles between bond pair and bond pair) (Six 90° angle between bond pair and bond pair) (Twelve 90° angle between bond pair and bond pair) H 2 H 2 1 1 2 1 2 (c) Due to unpaired e ClO2 is paramagnetic. 20. (c) The Bond order in N 2 molecule is 3, N N Here, N b 2 4 2 8 and N a 2 B.O. ( 8 2) / 2 3. 21. 22. (d) O 1 2 H2 19. 3 SiF4 has symmetrical tetrahedral shape which is due to sp hybridization of the central sulphur atom in its excited state configuration. SF4 has distorted tetrahedral or Sea- Saw He 2 Magnetic P D P P nature (P = Paramagnetic, D = Diamagnetic) (a) Bond strength decreases as the size of the halogen increases from F to I. 43. O 2 (2 8 1 17) has odd number of electrons and hence it is paramagnetic. All the remaining molecules/ions, i.e., CN (6 7 1 14) diamagnetic trigonal planar ( sp hybridization) Hence bond angle is same for all of them (i.e., equal to 120°) (d) We know that molecule of ( NH 3 ) has maximum repulsion due to lone pair of electron. Its shape is pyramidal and is sp3 hybridization. :O: (b) .. 105° (c) F BCl H3 , BBr3 and H BF3 , all of these have same structure i.e. H (d) Hydride of boron does not exist in BH 3 form. It is stable as its dimer di borane (B2 H 6 ) . 2 39. B.O. O 22 is 1. 10. O (c) 23. 24. (d) H 2 has the bond order 1 , it has only one electron so it will 2 be paramagnetic. (c) When bond forms between two atom then their energy get lower than that of separate atoms because bond formation is an exothermic process. (b) Valency of A is 3 while that of B is 2 so according to Criss Cross rule the formula of the compound between these two will be A2 B3 . (c) Due to resonance bond order of C C bonds in benzene is between 1 and 2. Chemical Bonding 26. 27. (a) Nitrogen does not have vacant ‘d’-orbitals so it can’t have +5 oxidation state i.e. the reason PCl5 exists but NCl 5 does not. (d) Molecules having unpaired electrons show paramagnetism. (b) NO 2 has unpaired electrons so it would be paramagnetic. 30. (c) Helium molecule does not exist as bond order of He 2 0 . 31. (c) Structure of P4 O10 is 25. 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a) 61. (a) 64. (c) O P O O O O P P O O O O P 33. 34. 37. 38. 143 H 2 O 2 contain bond angle between two O H planes about 90 o . Nitrogen molecule has highest bond energy due to presence of triple bond. Cu 2 [ Ar18 ] 3d 9 4 s 0 it has one unpaired electron so it is paramagnetic. CN 14 electrons ; CO =14 electrons 1 6 B.O. = [10 4 ] 3 . 2 2 1 5 B.O. = [10 5] 2 .5 , paramagnetic 2 2 P P P P The paramagnetic property in oxygen came through unpaired electron which can be explained by molecular orbital theory. Each phosphorus is attached to 4Ooxygen atoms. N Na 8 4 (c) B.O. of carbon b 2. 2 2 N N a 10 4 (a) B.O. b 3. 2 2 N Na 8 3 5 (b) B.O. b 2.5 . 2 2 2 (a) Electronic configuration of O2 is Antibonding 2px* 2pz* 2py* Px O2 (1s)2 (1s)2 (2 s)2 (2 s)2 (2 p x )2 (2 p y )2 Py Pz Px Py Pz (2 p z )2 (2 p y )1 (2 p z )1 The molecule has two unpaired electrons So, it is paramagnetic 2 p y has two nodal planes. * 40. (c) 42. 43. (a) Element with atomic number 26 is Fe. It is a ferromagnetic. (b) Correct Sequence of bond order is 65. 44. O 2 O 2 O 22 B.O – 2.5 2 1.5 (a) Due to small bond length. 45. 46. (a) S 2 have all paired electrons so it is diamagnetic. (c) NO has 15 electrons. 66. 47. (b) In the conversion of O 2 into O 2 bond order decreases. 49. (c) O 22 50. (a) O 22 consist of four antibonding electron pair [1s and 2s have 51. two antibonding and 2 p x 2 p y have two antibonding electron pair]. (c) The electron’s distribution in molecular orbitals is 1s 2 , 2 s 1 53. 54. (b) Total number of bonds between atoms 2Px bonding Total number of resonating structure 5 1 .25 4 (c) We know that carbonate ion has following resonating structures (a) Bond order – O 2 1 1 0 .5 . 2 2 – (a) C – O– O O Total number of bonds between atoms Total number of resonating structure 67. O C–O – – O Bond order ClO2 – O C=O does not have any unpaired electron so it is diamagnetic. B.O. 52. So 2 unpaired of electron present in 2 p y* and 2 p *z . 1 1 2 4 1 .33 . 3 3 O 2 (15e ) K : K * ( 2 s)2 ( * 2 s)2 ( 2 p x )2 ( 2 p y )2 ( 2 p z )2 ( * 2 p y )1 ( * 2 p z )0 has all paired electrons hence it does not show paramagnetism. 1 (a) B.O. [ N b N a ] 2 1 6 1 6 N 2 [10 4 ] 3 ; O 22 [10 4 ] 3 . 2 2 2 2 1 1 5 (a) B.O. for N 2 = [ N b N a ] = [9 4 ] 2 .5 . 2 2 2 Hence, bond order 1 (10 5) 2 .5 2 N 2 (13e ) KK * ( 2 s)2 ( * 2 s)2 ( 2 p x )2 ( 2 p y )2 ( 2 p z )1 1 (9 4 ) 2 .5 . 2 (a) Electronic configuration of O 2 is Hence, bond order 68. 144 Chemical Bonding O 2 ( 1s)2 ( * 1s)2 ( 2 s)2 ( * 2 s)2 ( * 2 s)2 ( 2 p z )2 ( 2 p x2 69. 70. 2 p y2 ) ( * 2 p 1x * 1 1 Hence bond order N b N a [10 6] 2 . 2 2 (c) Nitrogen form triple bond N N In which 6 electron take part. (a) As bond order increase bond length decrease the bond order of species are number of bonding electron - Number of a.b. electron 2 10 6 For O 2 2 ; 2 10 5 O 2 2 .5 2 10 7 O 2 1 .5 2 O 2 O 2 O 2 So, bond order O 2 O2 O 2 So only B 2 exist unpaired electron and show the paramagnetism. 2 p 1y ) 2 py 2 * 2 py1 76. (b) O2 1s 2 , * 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 2 pz 2 * 2 pz 2 77. 78. So two unpaired electron found in O 2 at ground stage by which it shows paramagnetism. (b) Due to greater electron affinity Cl 2 has the highest bond energy. (a) Molecular orbital electronic configuration of these species are : O2 (17 e ) 1s 2 * 1s 2 , 2 s 2 * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 , 2 p y 2 , 2 p z 2 , * 2 p y 2 * 2 p z 1 O2 (16 e ) 1s 2 * 1s 2 , 2 s 2 * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 , 2 p y 2 , 2 p z 2 * 2 p y 1 * 2 p z 1 and bond length are O22 (18 e ) 1s 2 * 1s 2 , 2 s 2 * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 , 2 p y 2 , . 2 p z 2 * 2 p y 2 * 2 p z 2 2py 2 * 2py1 71. Hence number of antibonding electrons are 7,6,and 8 respectively. (b) O 2 : 1s 2 , * 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 2pz 2 * 2pz1 10 6 2.0 2 unpaired electrons 79. (c) Species with unpaired electrons is paramagnetic O 2 has 2 Bond order (Two orbital) 72. 73. 74. 75. unpaired electrons, O 2 has one unpaired, O 22 has zero in antibonding unpaired electrons, O 22 has one unpaired. molecular 2 * 1 2 2 py 2 py O 2 : 1s 2 , * 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 * 0 2 pz 2 pz 10 5 Bond order 2 .5 2 (One unpaired electron in antibonding molecular orbital so it is paramagnetic) (b) Higher the bond order, shorter will be the bond length, thus NO having the higher bond order that is 3 as compared to NO having bond order 2 so NO has shorter bond length. (d) Oxygen molecule (O 2 ) boron molecule (B 2 ) and N 2 ion, all of them have unpaired electron, hence they all are paramagnetic. 80. (a) unpaired electrons while O 22 does not have any unpaired electron. 81. (c) (c) Bond order of NO , NO and NO are 3, 2 .5 and 2 respectively, bond energy bond order (a) Paramagnetic property arise through unpaired electron. B 2 molecule have the unpaired electron so it show paramagnetism. O C 2 1s 1s , 2 s 2 s , 2 p x . 2 p y 2 2 * 2 2 O (a) From valency bond theory, bond order in CO, i.e. : C O : is 3, that of O C O is 2 while that of CO 32 ion is 1.33. Since the bond length increases as the bond order decreases, i.e. CO CO 2 CO 32 . 83. (c) N 2 : KK (2 s)2 * (2 s)2 (2 p x )2 (2 py )2 (2 p z )2 (diamagnetic) C2 : KK (2 s) * (2 s) (2 p x ) (2 py ) 2 2 2 2 (diamagnetic) N 2 : KK (2 s)2 * (2 s)2 (2 p x )2 (2 py )2 (2 p z )2 (No unpaired electron) (paramagnetic) N 2 1s 2 * 1s 2 , 2 s 2 * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 , 2 p y 2 2 p z 2 O22 (No unpaired electron) : KK (2 s) * (2 s) (2 p z ) (2 p x ) (2 py )2 2 2 2 2 * (2 p x )2 * (2 py )2 (diamagnetic) F2 s 2 , *1s 2 , 2 s 2 , * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 2 , 2 p y 2 , 2 p z 2 , 84. * 2 py 2 , * 2 pz 2 O 82. 2 (No unpaired electron) O O O and O O . (2 unpaired electron) * O Due to resonance in O 3 O O bond length will be in b/w B2 1s 2 * 1s 2 , 2 s 2 * 2 s 2 , 2 p x 1 2 p y 1 2 H OOH ,O O O,O O O O 2 has 2 unpaired electron while O 2 and O 2 has one each (d) NH 3 107, PH3 93, H 2O 104.5 H 2 Se 91, H 2 S 92.5 Chemical Bonding Hydrogen bonding 1. 2. 3. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. (d) Hydrogen bonding will be maximum in F-H bond due to greater electronegativity difference. (b) Ice has hydrogen bonding. (b) H – F has highest boiling point because it has hydrogen bonding. (d) CO 2 is sp-hybridised 48. (b) sp-hybridization gives two orbitals at 180 o with Linear structure. (d) Hydrogen bonding increases the boiling point of compound. (c) o-Nitrophenol has intramolecular hydrogen bonding but pNitrophenol has intermolecular hydrogen bonding so boiling point of p-Nitrophenol is more than o-Nitrophenol. (c) The strongest hydrogen bond is in hydrogen fluoride because the power of hydrogen bond electronegativity of atom and 1. electronegativity 11. (d) 1 atomic size So fluorine has maximum electronegativity and minimum atomic size. H 2 O can form hydrogen bonds rest CH 4 and CHCl 3 are organic compound having no oxygen while NaCl has itself intraionic attraction in the molecule. PH 3 has the lowest boiling point because it does not form Hydrogen bond. Hydrogen bonding increases heat of vaporisation. Only NH 3 forms H-bonds. 12. (b) 14. 15. (b) (d) 22. 25. (a) Water molecule has hydrogen bonding so molecules get dissociated so it is liquid. (d) In case of water, five water molecules are attached together through four hydrogen bonding. (c) Hydrogen bond is strongest in hydrogen fluoride. 28. (c) Boiling point of H 2 O is more than that of H 2 S because 23. H 2 O forms hydrogen bonding while H 2 S does not. 30. (c) O C 31. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 43. 45. 46. 47. H Interamolecular H-bonding. O (a) HydrogenHbond is formed when hydrogen is attached with the atom which is highly electronegative and having small radius. (a) Water is dense than ice because of hydrogen bonding interaction and structure of ice. (a) Ethanol have hydrogen bonding so its boiling point is higher than its isomer dimethyl ether. (a) A compound having maximum electronegative element will form strong Hydrogen bond. (a) Due to electronegativity difference of N 2 and H 2 , NH 3 form hydrogen bond. (b) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding compound contain more b.p. compare to intramolecular hydrogen bonding compound. (d) Water molecule contain hydrogen bonding. (c) It contain intermolecular hydrogen bonding. (b) Ethyl alcohol has a intermolecular hydrogen bond. (b) HCl contain weak covalent bond. (c) Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding water molecules come close to each other and exist in liquid state. (b) Due to greater resonance stabilization. 49. 145 (d) C 2 H 5 OH will dissolve in water because it forms hydrogen bond with water molecule. (b) In ice cube all molecules are held by inter molecular hydrogen bond. (d) Hydrogen bonding is developed due to inter atomic attraction so it is the weakest. Types of bonding and Forces in solid 13. 14. (b) In electrovalent crystal has cation and anion are attached by electrostatic forces. (d) Mercury has very weak interatomic forces so it remains in liquid state. (c) The melting and boiling points of argon is low hence, in solid argon atoms are held together by weak Vander Waal’s forces. (c) NaF is the strongest ionic crystal so its melting point would be highest. (b) Diamond is the hardest substance it’s melting point would be highest. (c) Bond is formed by attractive and repulsive forces of both the atoms. (a) Generally zero group elements are linked by the Vander Waal’s force. Hence these show weakest intermolecular forces. (d) Glycerol has a three OH group hence it is viscous in nature. (c) Vander waal's forces is the weakest force of attraction. 16. (b) 2. 3. 4. 9. 10. 12. NH 4 contain all three types of bond in its structure H | H N H | H 17. 18. 22. 23. (d) In NaOH covalent bond is present in O H bond while ionic bond is formed between OH and Na . (a) Bond formation is an exothermic reaction so there is decrease in energy of product. (d) Blue vitriol is CuSO 4 . 5 H 2 O and it has all types of bonds. H | (a) H N H Cl | H Ionic bond = 1, Covalent bond = 3 Co-ordinate bond = 1. Critical Thinking Questions 1. (d) We know that ionic characters 16 [EA EB ] 3.5 [EA EB ]2 or ionic characters = 72.24% 3. (c) Configuration of O 2 molecule is [ (1s)2 (1s)2 (2 s)2 * (2 s)2 (2 p x )2 (2 p y )2 (2 p z )2 (2 p x )1 (2 p y )1 ] No. of pair are 7 so total no. of paired electrons are 14. H O : H H O H 6. (a) 7. H H (b) The correct order of increasing dipole moment is | | 146 Chemical Bonding p-dichlorobenzene < Toluene < m-dichlorobenzene < o- 27. (c) dichlorobenzene. 8. (a) The dipole moment of CH 4 0 D, and NF3 0.2 D, NH 3 1.47 D H 2 O 1.85 D . Therefore the correct order of the dipole moment is CH 4 NF3 NH 3 H 2O . 10. (d) Ammonia molecule is more basic than nitrogen trifluoride and Boron trifluoride because ammonia molecule easily gives lone pair of electron. 11. (a) Chlorine atom in ClO2 is sp 3 hybridised but its shape is angular. 12. 13. (c) [ NF3 and H 3 O ] are pyramidal while [ are planar. Hence answer (c) is correct. (d) CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 2 C CH sp 2 and BF3 ] Cu 1. 2. 5. (d) B.O. in CO i.e., : C O : is 3, that of O C O is 2 while the bond order decreases i.e. CO CO 2 CO 32 . Thus option (d) is correct. (b) Dichromate dianion has following structure 2 9. 6, Cr O bonds are equivalent. (b) ClF3 is a [ AB 3 ] type of molecule because it consist of three bonding pair and two lone pair of electrons hence this 21. BeF3 does not show compound is not formed. (a) K 3 [Fe(CN )6 ] (a) sp 3 –hybridization because this Fe26 4 s 2 3d 6 10. = 22. 23. 24. 11. 12. Fe 3 3d 5 4 s 0 Unpaired electron d 2sp 3 –hybridization (d) N 2 has one unpaired electron so it would be paramagnetic. (a) Each of the species has 14 electron so isoelectronic and shows bond order 3. 1 1 6 B.O. [ N b N a ] [10 4 ] 3 . 2 2 2 (d) O O S O O O O S Trimer of SO 3 . O O SiF4 have sp 3 hybridization & shape of regular tetrahedral where the bond angle of F F S F are found which is o but 109.5o S less than 180 o . F Repulsion sequence are F Lp Lp Lp Bp Bp Bp F so assertion are true but the reason are false. (c) N 2 molecule is diamagnetic. The diamagnetic character is due to the presence of paired electron N 2 molecule does not contain any unpaired electron. Thus, assertion is coorect but the reason is false. (a) It is correct that during formation of Ice from water there are vacant spaces between hydrogen bonded molecules of Ice. Ice has a cage like structure. Due to this reason Ice is less dense than liquid water. hence both assertion & reason are true & reason are the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Water is liquid while H 2 S is gas because oxygen is of small size & more electronegative in comparision to sulphur. Hence water molecules exist as associated molecules to form liquid state due to hydrogen bonding H 2 S does not have hydrogen bonding & can’t associated hence it is gas. (d) Iodine is more soluble in CCl 4 than in H 2 O because iodine 13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) O S O . 5 H 2O . greater than 90 compound shows sp 3 d hybridization. 20. (c) 109.5 o O O O Cr O Cr O O O 17. O O S O (a) Solubility in water depends on hydration energy and lattice energy. (a) Polarity in covalent bond developed due to shifting of electrons towards one of the bonded atoms. that of CO 32 ion is 1.33. Since the bond length increases as 15. 2 Assertion & Reason sp 3 hybridised 14. NO 3 CuSO 4 .5 H 2 O has electrovalent, covalent and coordinate bonds. is non polar & thus it dissolve in CCl 4 because like dissolves like. o & p -nitrophenols can be separated by steam distillation because o -nitrophenol is steam volatile. Here, both assertion & reason are correct & reason is correct explanation of assertion. Fluorine is highly reactive F F bond has low bond dissociation energy. Here assertion is false but reason is true. It is true that sigma ( ) bond is stronger than pi ( ) bond but the reason that there is free rotation of atoms is false. Energy is released in the formation of the crystal lattice. It is qualitative measure of the stability of an ionic compound so assertion is true & reason are false. Li, Na & K are alkali metals & not alkaline earth metal so, size of alkali metal increases So. Assertion is true & reason are false. Hess’s law states that the enthalpy of a reaction is the same, whether it takes place in a single step or in more than one step. In born haber cycle the formation of an cycle ionic compound may occur either by direct combination of the element or by a stepwise process involving vaporization of elements, conversion of the gaseous atoms into ions & the combination of the gaseous ions to form the ionic solid. Chemical Bonding 19. 20. 21. (a) With increase in bond order, bond length decreases & hence bond energy increases so both assertion & reason are true & reason are the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Electron affinity is experimentally measurable while electronegativity is a relative number so assertion is true but reason are false. (b) Assertion & reason both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion sulphur has five electrons pairs whose arrangement should be trigonal bipyramidal according to VSEPR theory. Two structure are possible F F F | .. :S FS F F F | F (b) Lone pair in the equatorial position (two L.p – b.p repulsion) (a) Lone pair in the axial position (three l.p – b.p repulsion at 90o) 22. (e) BF3 has zero dipole moment because of its structure. F F B 0 F 23. 24. H 2 S has two lone pairs on sulphur atom & hence. It has irregular shape. Thus it possess dipole moment. So assertion is false but reason are true. (d) Both assertion & reason are false because pairs of electron will have different spins. Electrons are equally shared between them. (d) In B2, total number of electrons = 10 B (1s) *(1s ) (2s) *(2s) (2p ) (2p ) Presence of unpaired electron shows the paramagnetic nature. The highest occupied molecular orbital is of -type. (a) Both assertion & reason are true & reason is the correct explanation of the assertion because. At any given instant, at room temperature each water molecules forms hydrogen bonds with other water molecules. The H 2 O molecules are in continuous motion. So hydrogen bonds are constantly & rapidly broken & formed. In Ice H 2 O molecules are however fixed in the space lattice. (a) Both assertion & reason are true & reason is the correct explanation of assertion, because helium molecule is formed by linking two helium atoms. both have 1s orbitals. These will 2 2 25. 26. 2 2 2 1 x 1 y combine to form two molecular orbitals ( 1s ) & * ( 1s ) four available electrons are accommodated as (1s)2 & * (1s)2 . 147 Chemical Bonding 1. 2. Nature of the bond formed between two elements depends on the (a) Oxidation potential (b) Electronegativity (c) Ionization potential (d) Electron affinity (c) 12. Two elements X and Y have following electronic configurations X 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 6 , 4 s 2 Y 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 3 p 5 . The expected compound formed by [BHU 1990] (a) (b) (c) 3. 4. 5. XY 2 X 2 Y5 (d) 13. [IIT 1988] (a) Electricity do not pass through ionic compounds (a) In solution (b) In solid state (c) In melted state (d) None of these From the following which compound on heating readily sublimes (b) MgCl2 (c) BaCl2 (d) AlCl3 14. C H 2 CH CH O The order of dipole moments of the following molecules is [Roorkee 2000] (a) 15. 7. (a) Free atoms (b) Free molecules (c) Free ions (d) Free atoms and free molecules In which of the following reactions, there is no change in the valency [NCERT 1972; MP PET 2000] [NCERT 1974; CPMT 1971, 78] (a) 4 KClO3 3 KClO4 KCl (b) SO 2 2 H 2 S 2 H 2 O 3 S (c) BaO2 H 2 SO 4 BaSO 4 H 2 O 2 (d) 2 BaO O 2 2 BaO2 The octet rule is not followed in (a) F2 (b) NaF (c) BF3 CaF2 (d) NaCl CHCl 3 CH 2 Cl 2 CH 3 Cl CCl 4 BH 4 [DPMT 1982; CBSE PMT 1992; CPMT 1999] 17. (b) C Br (d) C F C O CS The geometry of H 2 S and its dipole moment are [IIT 1999] (a) Angular and non-zero (b) Angular and zero (c) Linear and non-zero (d) Linear and zero How many and bonds are there in the molecule of tetracyanoethylene N C CN CC N C CN [NCERT 1980; MP PMT 1986, 95;Orissa JEE 1997] (d) Cl 2 (a) Nine and nine (c) Nine and seven (d) Five and eight The shape of H 3 O 20. (a) Linear (b) Angular (c) Trigonal planar (d) Triangular pyramidal The hybridization in sulphur dioxide is[IIT 1986; DPMT 1990] (a) ion is (b) Five and nine 19. 21. [RPMT 2002] (b) CO 32 The electronegativity of C, H , O, N and S are 2.5, 2.1, 3.5, 3.0 and 2.5 respectively. Which of the following bond is most polar (a) O H (b) S H (c) N H (d) C H Which of the following bond has the most polar character (a) (c) [BHU 1981] Co-ordinate bond is absent in (a) 16. 18. Sodium chloride is an ionic compound whereas hydrogen chloride is a gas because [KCET 2002] (a) Sodium is reactive (b) Covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond (c) Hydrogen chloride is a gas (d) Covalent bond is stronger than ionic bond Which one of the following molecules has a coordinate bond (a) NH 4 Cl (b) AlCl3 (c) 11. C H 2 CH CH O 2 6. 10. C H 2 C H CH O (d) (b) CH 2 Cl 2 CH 3 Cl CHCl 3 CCl 4 (c) KCN (d) KCl The solution of sugar in water contains 9. C H 2 CH C H O (b) (c) (c) CH 3 Cl CH 2 Cl 2 CHCl 3 CCl 4 Which one in the following contains ionic as well as covalent bond [IIT 1979; CPMT 1983; DPMT 1983] (d) CH Cl 2 2 CHCl 3 CH 3 Cl CCl 4 (a) CH (b) H 4 8. (a) 3.46 D (b) 0.00 D (c) 1.73 D (d) 1.00 D Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be written as XY 5 NaCl NH 4 The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is 1.73 D. The dipole moment of p -dichlorobenzene is expected to be X 5Y2 (a) (d) [CPMT 1991] and combination of X and Y is H3O 149 sp[CPMT 1988, 94] [EAMCET 1993; CPMT 2001] (b) sp 3 (c) sp 2 (d) dsp 2 The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC 2 are [IIT 1996] (a) One sigma ( ) and one pi ( ) bonds 150 Chemical Bonding (b) One sigma ( ) and two pi ( ) bonds (a) 3 (c) 1 (c) One sigma ( ) and one and a half pi ( ) bonds 28. (d) One sigma ( ) bond 22. 23. N N O and NH 4 (a) sp, sp 3 and sp 2 respectively are (b) sp, sp and sp 29. NN O The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in 2 24. (d) NO 2 , NO 3 , 30. 27. (c) (d) 2 p z orbital (c) sp 2 , sp and sp 3 respectively (d) sp 2 , sp 3 and sp respectively (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 Hydrogen bonding is not present in [AIIMS 1998; MP PET/PMT 1998] The molecule having one unpaired electron is (a) NO (b) CO (c) CN (d) O 2 The geometry of ClO3 , according to valence shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory will be 31. 32. (a) Planar triangle (b) Pyramidal (c) Tetrahedral (d) Square planar Which of the following halogens has the highest bond energy (a) F2 (b) Cl 2 (c) Br2 (d) What bond order does O 22 have 2 p x orbital The maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed by a water molecule in ice is (a) (b) (c) (d) [KCET 1996; MP PET 1997] 26. (b) Antibonding -orbital respectively [IIT 1985; MP PMT 1989] 25. (a) Bonding -orbital [MP PET 1993; AFMC 2002;UPSEAT 1999, 2001, 02] [IIT Screening 2000] 3 In the process, O 2 O 22 e the electron lost is from [Orissa JEE 2002] Which of the following resonating structures of N 2 O is the most contributing [Roorkee Qualifying 1998] (a) N N O (b) N N O (c) (b) 2 (d) 1/2 Glycerine Water Hydrogen sulphide Hydrogen fluoride The bonds in K 4 [Fe (CN )6 ] are [EAMCET 1991] (a) All ionic (b) All covalent (c) Ionic and covalent (d) Ionic, covalent and coordinate covalent In which of the following ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds are present [UPSEAT 2002] (a) Water (b) Ammonia [CPMT 1988] (c) Sodium cyanide (d) Potassium bromide I2 [Pb. PMT 2001] (SET -3) 1. 2. (b) If the two elements have similar electronegativities,the bond between them will be covalent, while a large difference in electronegativities leads to an ionic bond. (a) From electronic configuration valencies of X and Y are + 2 and –1 respectively so formula of compound is XY 2 . 3. 4. (b) Ionic compounds can’t pass electricity in solid state because they don’t have mobile ion in solid state. (d) AlCl3 sublimes readily on heating. 5. (c) Structure of KCN is [K (C N )] . .. Chemical Bonding 6. (b) Sugar is an organic compound which is covalently bonded so in water it remains as free molecules. 7. (c) In the reaction BaO2 H 2 SO 4 BaSO 4 H 2 O valency is not changing. (d) BF3 does not have octet, it has only six electrons so it is electron deficient compound. (b) NaCl is a ionic compound because it consists of more elelctronegativity difference compare to HCl. (a) NH 4 Cl has a coordinate bond besides covalent and ionic 2 8. 9. 10. H | bonds H N | H O 6 (c) 28. 29. 1 2 [10 8 ] 1 . 2 2 (b) Electron lost from antibonding orbital. (a) In ice each water molecule forms four hydrogen bond through which each water molecule is tetrahedrally attached with other water molecule. 2 6 B.O. H O O has slightly higher dipole electronegativity then CH 2 Cl 2 . But CH 2 Cl 2 has greater 16. 17. dipole moment than CHCl 3 . (a) More the difference in electronegativity of atoms. Bond between them will be more polar. (d) C F bond has the most polar character due to difference of their electronegativity. (a) H 2 S has angular geometry and have some value of dipole moment. N N C C 18. (a) C C N C N C 20. 9 and 9 bonds. (d) H 3 O has sp 3 hybridization and its shape is triangular pyramidal due to lone pair on oxygen. (c) SO 2 molecule has sp 2 hybridisation. 21. (b) In 22. C (a) In N 2 O molecule N N O structure is most contributed. 19. C 23. 24. Ca two carbons are joined with 1 and 2 bonds. *** (b) The shape of NO 2 , NO 3 and NH 4 are linear trigonal planar and tetrahedral respectively. Thus the hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in these species are sp, sp 2 and sp 3 respectively. (a) NO has one unpaired electron with Nitrogen. .. : N :: O : . .. .. O Cl O 25. (b) 26. O (b) Bond energy of Cl 2 is highest among all halogen molecule. | Bond energies of F2 , Cl2 , Br2 , I2 are 37, 58, 46 and 36 Kcal mol 1 respectively. H H H H moment which is equal to 1.86D. Now CH 3 Cl has less 15. O O O H H H (b) O C O has covalent bonds only. (b) Due to symmetry dipole moment of p-dichloro benzene is zero. (d) (d) CCl 4 has zero dipole moment because of symmetric tetrahedral structure. CH 3 Cl H H H H Cl | 11. 12. 13. 14. O 22 have bond order one 27. 151 H H O O H H H O O 31. (c) Hydrogen bonding H is present in molecules H which have F, O, or N atoms. (d) Structure of K 4 [Fe(CN )6 ] is 32. CN C N C N 4K Fe C N C N CN (c) Sodium cyanide contain ionic, covalent and coordinate bond. 30. 4 152 Solution and Colligative properties Chapter 4 Solution & Colligative properties “A solution is a mixture in which substances are intermixed so intimately that they can not be observed as separate components”. The dispersed phase or the substance which is to be dissolved is called solute, while the dispersion medium in which the solute is dispersed to get a homogenous mixture is called the solvent. Solubility “Solubility of a substance may be defined as the amount of solute dissolved in 100gms of a solvent to form a saturated solution at a given temperature”. A saturated solution is a solution which contains at a given temperature as much solute as it can hold in presence of dissolveding solvent. Any solution may contain less solute than would be necessary to saturate it. Such a solution is known as unsaturated solution. When the solution contains more solute than would be necessary to saturate it then it is termed as supersaturated solution. Kinds of solutions All the three states of matter (gas, liquid or solid) may behave either as solvent or solute. Depending on the state of solute or solvent, mainly there may be following nine types of binary solutions. Solvent Gas Gas Gas Liquid Liquid Liquid Solid Solute Gas Liquid Solid Gas Liquid Solid Gas Solid Solid Liquid Solid Example Mixture of gases, air. Water vapours in air, mist. Sublimation of a solid into a gas, smoke. CO2 gas dissolved in water (aerated drinks). Mixture of miscible liquids, e.g., alcohol in water. Salt in water, sugar in water. Adsorption of gases over metals; hydrogen over palladium. Mercury in zinc, mercury in gold, CuSO4.5H2O. Homogeneous mixture of two or more metals (alloys), e.g., copper in gold, zinc in copper. Among these solutions the most significant type of solutions are those which are in liquid phase and may be categorised as, (1) Solid in liquid solutions, (2) Liquid in liquid solutions and (3) Gas in liquid solutions. Methods of expressing concentration of solution Concentration of solution is the amount of solute dissolved in a known amount of the solvent or solution. The concentration of solution can be expressed in various ways as discussed below, (1) Percentage : It refers to the amount of the solute per 100 parts of the solution. It can also be called as parts per hundred (pph). It can be expressed by any of following four methods, (i) Weight to weight percent Wt. of solute 100 Wt. of solution % w/w Example : 10% Na 2 CO 3 solution w/w means 10 g of Na 2 CO 3 is dissolved in 100 g of the solution. (It means 10 g Na 2 CO 3 is dissolved in 90 g of H 2 O ) (ii) Weight to volume percent Wt. of solute 100 Volume of solution % w/v Example : 10% Na 2 CO 3 (w/v) means 10 g Na 2 CO 3 is dissolved in 100 cc of solution. (iii) Volume to volume percent % v/v Vol. of solute 100 Vol. of solution Example : 10% ethanol (v/v) means 10 cc of ethanol dissolved in 100 cc of solution. (iv) Volume to weight percent % v/w Vol. of solute 100 Wt. of solution Example : 10% ethanol (v/w) means 10 cc of ethanol dissolved in 100 g of solution. (2) Parts per million (ppm) and parts per billion (ppb) : When a solute is present in trace quantities, it is convenient to express the concentration in parts per million and parts per billion. It is the number of parts of solute per million (10 6 ) or per billion (10 9 ) parts of the solution. It is independent of the temperature. ppm mass of solutecomponent 10 6 Total mass of solution Solution and Colligative properties ppb mass of solutecomponent 10 9 Total mass of solution (xi) If W g of an acid is completely neutralised by V ml of base of normality N (3) Strength : The strength of solution is defined as the amount of Wt. of acid VN g eq. wt. of acid 1000 solute in grams present in one litre (or dm 3 ) of the solution. It is expressed in g/litre or (g / dm 3 ) . Strength Similarly, Mass of solutein grams Volume of solutionin litres (4) Normality (N) : It is defined as the number of gram equivalents (equivalent weight in grams) of a solute present per litre of the solution. Unit of normality is gram equivalents litre . Normality changes with temperature since it involves volume. When a solution is diluted x times, its normality also decreases by x times. Solutions in term of normality generally expressed as, Wt. of base Vol. of acid N of acid g eq. wt. of base 1000 (xii) When Va ml of acid of normality N a is mixed with Vb ml of base of normality N b (a) If Va N a Vb N b (Solution neutral) –1 (b) If Va N a Vb N b (Solution is acidic) (c) If Vb N b Va N a (Solution is basic) N Normal solution; 5 N Penta normal, (xiii) Normality of the acidic mixture Va N a Vb N b (Va Vb ) (xiv) Normality of the basic mixture Vb N b Va N a (Va Vb ) 10 N Deca normal; N / 2 semi normal N / 10 Deci normal; N / 5 Penti normal N / 100 or 0.01 N centinormal, N / 1000 or Mathematically normality can be calculated by following formulas, (ii) N Number of g.eq. of solute Volume of solution(l) Weight of solutein g. g. eq. weight of solute Volume of solution(l) Wt. of soluteper litreof solution g eq. wt. of solute (iii) N (iv) N Wt. of solute 1000 g.eq. wt. of solute Vol. of solutionin ml (v) N Percent of solute 10 , g eq. wt. of solute (vi) N Strength in g l -1 of solution g eq. wt. of solute (vii) N No. of meq * of solute Vol. of solutionin ml (* 1 equivalent = 1000 milliequivalent or meq.) (5) Molarity (M) : Molarity of a solution is the number of moles of the solute per litre of solution (or number of millimoles per ml. of solution). Unit of molarity is mol/litre or mol/dm For example, a molar (1 M ) solution of sugar means a solution containing 1 mole of sugar (i.e., 342 g or (xv) N 0.001= millinormal (i) Normality ( N ) 3 6.02 10 23 molecules of it) per litre of the solution. Solutions in term of molarity generally expressed as, 1 M = Molar solution, 2 M = Molarity is two, M or 0.5 M = Semimolar solution, 2 M or 0.1 M = Decimolar solution, 10 M or 0.01 M = Centimolar solution 100 M or 0.001 M = Millimolar solution 1000 Molarity is most common way of representing the concentration of solution. Wt% density 10 Eq. wt. Molarity is depend on temperature as, M (viii) If volume V1 and normality N 1 is so changed that new normality and volume N 2 and V2 then, N 1 V1 N 2 V2 (Normality equation) N 1 V1 N 2 V2 V1 V2 (x) Vol. of water to be added i.e., (V2 V1 ) to get a solution of normality N 2 from V1 ml of normality N 1 N N2 V2 V1 1 N2 1 T When a solution is diluted (x times), its molarity also decreases (ix) When two solutions of the same solute are mixed then normality of mixture (N ) is N 153 V1 (by x times) Mathematically molarity can be calculated by following formulas, (i) M No. of moles of solute( n) , Vol. of solutionin litres (ii) M Wt. of solute(in gm) per litreof solution Mol.wt. of solute (iii) M Wt. of solute(in gm) 1000 Mol.wt. of solute Vol. of solutionin ml. (iv) M No. of millimoles of solute Vol. of solutionin ml (v) M Percent of solute 10 Mol.wt. of solute 154 Solution and Colligative properties (vi) M Strength in gl-1 of solution Mol.wt. of solute (vi) m 10 solubility Mol.wt. of solute (vii) M 10 Sp. gr. of the solution Wt.% of the solute Mol.wt. of the solute (vii) m 1000 wt.% of solute(x ) (100 x ) mol. wt. of solute (viii) m 1000 Molarity (1000 sp. gravity) (Molarity Mol.wt. of solute) (viii) If molarity and volume of solution are changed from M 1 , V1 to M 2 , V2 . Then, M 1 V1 M 2 V2 (Molarity equation) (ix) In balanced chemical equation, if n 1 moles of reactant one react with n 2 moles of reactant two. Then, M 1 V1 M V 2 2 n1 n2 Relation between molarity (M) and molality (m) Molality (m) = Molarity (M) (x) If two solutions of the same solute are mixed then molarity (M) of resulting solution. M M 1 V1 M 2 V2 (V1 V2 ) (xi) Volume of water added to get a solution of molarity M 2 from V1 ml of molarity M 1 is M M2 V1 V2 V1 1 M2 Relation between molarity and normality Normality of solution = molarity Molecular mass Equivalent mass Normality equivalent mass = molarity molecular mass For an acid, Molecular mass = Basicity Equivalent mass So, Normality of acid = molarity basicity. Molecular mass For a base, = Acidity Equivalent mass So, Normality of base = Molarity Acidity. (6) Molality (m) : It is the number of moles or gram molecules of the solute per 1000 g of the solvent. Unit of molality is mol / kg . For Molarity Molarity molecular mass Density 1000 Molality density Molality molecular mass 1 1000 (7) Formality (F) : Formality of a solution may be defined as the number of gram formula masses of the ionic solute dissolved per litre of the solution. It is represented by F . Commonly, the term formality is used to express the concentration of the ionic solids which do not exist as molecules but exist as network of ions. A solution containing one gram formula mass of solute per litre of the solution has formality equal to one and is called formal solution. It may be mentioned here that the formality of a solution changes with change in temperature. Formality (F)= = Number of gram formula masses of solute Volume of solutionin litres Mass of ionic solute(g) (gm. formula mass of solute) (Volume of solution(l)) Thus, F W B (g) GFM V (l) or WB (g) 1000 GFM V (ml ) (8) Mole fraction (X) : Mole fraction may be defined as the ratio of number of moles of one component to the total number of moles of all the components (solvent and solute) present in the solution. It is denoted by the letter X . It may be noted that the mole fraction is independent of the temperature. Mole fraction is dimensionless. Let us suppose that a solution contains the components A and B and suppose that W A g of A and WB g of B are present in it. example, a 0 .2 molal (0.2m ) solution of glucose means a solution obtained by dissolving 0.2 mole of glucose in 1000 gm of water. Molality (m) does not depend on temperature since it involves measurement of weight of liquids. Molal solutions are less concentrated than molar solution. Mathematically molality can be calculated by following formulas, (i) m Number of moles of the solute 1000 Weight of the solvent in grams (ii) m Strength per 1000 grams of solvent Molecular mass of solute (iii) m No. of gm moles of solute Wt. of solvent in kg Wt. of solute 1000 (iv) m Mol.wt. of solute Wt. of solvent in g (v) m No. of millimoles of solute Wt. of solvent in g Number of moles of A is given by, n A WA and MA the number of moles of B is given by, n B WB MB where M A and M B are molecular masses of A and B respectively. Total number of moles of A and B n A n B Mole fraction of A , X A nA n A nB Mole fraction of B , X B nB n A nB The sum of mole fractions of all the components in the solution is always one. nA nB XA XB 1. n A nB n A nB Thus, if we know the mole fraction of one component of a binary solution, the mole fraction of the other can be calculated. Solution and Colligative properties Relation between molality of solution (m) and mole fraction of the solute (X ). m XA 55.5 m (9) Mass fraction : Mass fraction of a component in a solution is the mass of that component divided by the total mass of the solution. For a solution containing w A gm of A and w B gm of B A wA wB ; Mas fraction of B w A wB w A wB It may be noted that molality, mole fraction, mass fraction etc. are preferred to molarity, normality, etc. because the former involve the weights of the solute and solvent where as later involve volumes of solutions. Temperature has no effect on weights but it has significant effect on volumes. (10) Demal unit (D) : The concentrations are also expressed in “Demal unit”. One demal unit represents one mole of solute present in one litre of solution at 0 o C . Mass fraction of A Colligative properties Certain properties of dilute solutions containing non-volatile solute do not depend upon the nature of the solute dissolved but depend only upon the concentration i.e., the number of particles of the solute present in the solution. Such properties are called colligative properties. The four well known examples of the colligative properties are, (1) Lowering of vapour pressure of the solvent. (2) Osmotic pressure of the solution. (3) Elevation in boiling point of the solvent. (4) Depression in freezing point of the solvent. Since colligative properties depend upon the number of solute particles present in the solution, the simple case will be that when the solute is a non-electrolyte. In case the solute is an electrolyte, it may split to a number of ions each of which acts as a particle and thus will affect the value of the colligative property. Each colligative property is exactly related to other, Relative lowering of vapour pressure, elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point are directly proportional to osmotic pressure. 155 (3) Purity of liquid : Pure liquid always has a vapour pressure greater than its solution. Raoult’s law : When a non-volatile substance is dissolved in a liquid, the vapour pressure of the liquid (solvent) is lowered. According to Raoult’s law (1887), at any given temperature the partial vapour pressure (p ) of any component of a solution is equal to its mole fraction (X ) multiplied by the vapour pressure of this component in the A A pure state ( p 0A ) . That is, p A p 0A X A The vapour pressure of the solution (Ptotal) is the sum of the partial pressures of the components, i.e., for the solution of two volatile liquids with vapour pressures p A and p B . Ptotal p A p B (p 0A X A ) (p B0 X B ) Alternatively, Raoult’s law may be stated as “the relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution containing a non-volatile solute is equal to the mole fraction of the solute in the solution.” Relative lowering of vapour pressure is defined as the ratio of lowering of vapour pressure to the vapour pressure of the pure solvent. It is determined by Ostwald-Walker method. Thus according to Raoult’s law, w p0 p n m w W nN p0 m M where, p Vapour pressure of the solution p 0 Vapour pressure of the pure solvent n Number of moles of the solute N Number of moles of the solvent w and m weight and mol. wt. of solute W and M weight and mol. wt. of the solvent. Limitations of Raoult’s law Raoult’s law is applicable only to very dilute solutions. Lowering of vapour pressure The pressure exerted by the vapours above the liquid surface in equilibrium with the liquid at a given temperature is called vapour pressure of the liquid. The vapour pressure of a liquid depends on, (1) Nature of liquid : Liquids, which have weak intermolecular forces, are volatile and have greater vapour pressure. For example, dimethyl ether has greater vapour pressure than ethyl alcohol. (2) Temperature : Vapour pressure increases with increase in temperature . This is due to the reason that with increase in temperature more molecules of the liquid can go into vapour phase. Raoult’s law is applicable to solutions containing non-volatile solute only. Raoult’s law is not applicable to solutes which dissociate or associate in the particular solution. Ideal and Non-Ideal solution Table: 4.1 Ideal and non-ideal solutions Non-ideal solutions Ideal solutions Positive deviation from Raoult's law 1. Obey Raoult's law at every range of concentration. 1. 2. H mix 0; neither heat is evolved nor 2. absorbed during dissolution. 3. of volumes Do not obey Raoult's law. 1. H mix 0. Endothermic dissolution; heat 2. is absorbed. Vmix 0; total volume of solution is equal to sum components. Negative deviation from Raoult's law of the 3. Vmix 0. Volume dissolution. Do not obey Raoult's law. H mix 0. Exothermic dissolution; heat is evolved. is increased after 3. Vmix 0. Volume is decreased during dissolution. 156 Solution and Colligative properties 4. P p A p B p 0A X A p B0 X B i.e., 4. A A, A B, B B interactions should be Escaping tendency of 'A' and 'B' should be same in pure liquids and in the solution. p A p 0A X A ; p B p B0 X B p A p B p 0A X A p B0 X B 5. A B attractive force should be weaker than A A and B B attractive forces. 'A' and 'B' have different shape, size and character. 5. A B attractive force should be greater than A A and B B attractive forces. 'A' and 'B' have different shape, size and character. 6. 'A' and 'B' escape easily showing higher vapour pressure than the expected value. 6. Escaping tendency of both components 'A' and 'B' is lowered showing lower vapour pressure than expected ideally. same, i.e., 'A' and 'B' are identical in shape, size and character. 6. 4. p A p B p 0A X A p B0 X B p A p 0A X A : p B p B0 X B 5. p A p 0A X A ; p B p B0 X B Examples: Examples: Examples: Dilute solutions; Acetone +ethanol Acetone + aniline; benzene + toluene: acetone + CS 2 : acetone + chloroform; n-hexane + n-heptane; water + methanol; CH 3 OH CH 3 COOH ; water + ethanol; H 2O HNO3 CCl 4 toluene; chloroform + diethyl ether; CCl 4 CHCl 3 ; water + HCl; chlorobenzene + bromobenzene; ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide; n-butyl chloride + n-butyl bromide acetic acid + pyridine; acetone + benzene; chloroform + benzene CCl 4 CH 3 OH ; cyclohexane + ethanol Graphical representation of ideal and non-ideal solutions Positive deviation Ideal solution Negative deviation Total vapour pressure P=pA + pB p°A p°B PB=p0B XB Total vapour pressure p°B p°B Vapour pressure PA=p0A XA p°A Vapour pressure Vapour pressure p°A Ideal Ideal XA = 1 XB = 0 Mole fraction XA = 0 XB = 1 XA = 1 XB = 0 Mole fraction Azeotropic mixture Azeotropes are defined as the mixtures of liquids which boil at constant temperature like a pure liquid and possess same composition of components in liquid as well as in vapour phase. Azeotropes are also called constant boiling mixtures because whole of the azeotropes changes into vapour state at constant temperature and their components can not be separated by fractional distillation. Azeotropes are of two types as described below, (1) Minimum boiling azeotrope : For the solutions with positive deviation there is an intermediate composition for which the vapour pressure of the solution is maximum and hence, boiling point is minimum. At this composition the solution distills at constant temperature without change in composition. This type of solutions are called minimum boiling azeotrope. e.g., H 2O C2 H5 OH, H 2O C2 H5 CH 2OH CHCl 3 C 2 H 5 OH , (CH 3 )2 CO CS 2 (2) Maximum boiling azeotrope : For the solutions with negative deviations there is an intermediate composition for which the vapour pressure of the solution is minimum and hence, boiling point is maximum. At this composition the solution distill`s at constant temperature without the change in composition. This type of solutions are called maximum boiling azeotrope. e.g., XB = 1 XA= 0 XA = 1 XB = 0 Mole fraction XA = 0 XB = 1 H 2 O HCl, H 2 O HNO 3 , H 2 O HClO4 Osmosis and Osmotic pressure of the solution (1) Osmosis : The flow of solvent from pure solvent or from solution of lower concentration into solution of higher concentration through a semi-permeable membrane is called Osmosis. Osmosis may be divided in following types, (i) Exo-Osmosis : The outward osmotic flow of water from a cell containing an aqueous solution through a semi-permeable membrane is called as Exo-osmosis. For example, egg (after removing hard shell) placed in conc. NaCl solutions, will shrink due to exo-osmosis. (ii) Endo-osmosis : The inward flow of water into the cell containing an aqueous solution through a semi-permeable membrane is called as endoosmosis. e.g., an egg placed in water swells up due to endo-osmosis. (iii) Reverse osmosis : If a pressure higher than osmotic pressure is applied on the solution, the solvent will flow from the solution into the pure solvent through the semi-permeable membrane. Since here the flow of solvent is in the reverse direction to that observed in the usual osmosis, the process is called reverse osmosis. Differences between osmosis and diffusion Osmosis In osmosis movement of molecules Diffusion In diffusion there is no role of semi- Solution and Colligative properties takes place through a semi-permeable membrane. permeable membrane. It involves movement of only solvent molecules from one side to the other. It involves passage of solvent as well as solute molecules from one region to the other. Osmosis is limited to solutions only. Diffusion can take place in liquids, gases and solutions. Osmosis can be stopped or reversed by applying additional pressure on the solution side. Diffusion can neither be stopped nor reversed C .....(i) According to Gaylussac Van't Hoff law (at conc. temp.) T From equation (i) and (ii) .....(ii) (Van't Hoff equation) w RT n w C ; n m V V m Here, C = concentration of solution in moles per litre R = gas constant ; T = temperature n = number of moles of solute ; V = volume of solution m = molecular weight of solute ; w = weight of solute (iii) Conditions for getting accurate value of molecular mass are, (a) The solute must be non-volatile. (b) The solution must be dilute. (c) The solute should not undergo dissociation or association in the solution. (iv) Relation of osmotic pressure with different colligative properties : Osmotic pressure is related to relative lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point and depression of freezing point according to the following relations, n RT V (a) PAo PA PAo (c) Tf dRT M dRT 1000 K f In the above relations, = Osmotic pressure; d = Density of solution at temperature T; R = Universal gas constant; M = Mol. Mass of solute; K f = Molal depression Kb = Molal elevation constant of solvent; constant of solvent (v) Isotonic, Hypertonic and Hypotonic solutions (a) Isotonic or iso-osmotic solutions : Two solutions of different substances having same osmotic pressure at same temperature are known as isotonic solutions. For isotonic solutions, 1 2 Primary Condition …..(i) (2) Osmotic pressure () The osmotic pressure of a solution at a particular temperature may be defined as the excess hydrostatic pressure that builds up when the solution is separated from the solvent by a semi-permeable membrane. It is denoted by . or Osmotic pressure may be defined as the excess pressure which must be applied to a solution in order to prevent flow of solvent into the solution through the semi-permeable membrane. or Osmotic pressure is the excess pressure which must be applied to a given solution in order to increase its vapour pressure until it becomes equal to that of the solution. (i) Measurements of osmotic pressure : Following methods are used for the measurement of osmotic pressure, (a) Pfeffer’s method, (b) Morse and Frazer’s method, (c) Berkeley and Hartley’s method, (d) Townsend’s negative pressure method, (e) De Vries plasmolytic method. (ii) Determination of molecular mass of non-volatile solute from osmotic pressure () : The osmotic pressure is a colligative property. For a given solvent the osmotic pressure depends only upon the molar concentration of solute but does not depend upon its nature. The following relation relates osmotic pressure to the number of moles of the solute, According to Boyle Van't Hoff law (at conc. temp.) CT , CRT 157 (b) Tb dRT 1000 Kb Also, C1 C2 or n1 n2 V1 V2 or w1 w2 m1 V1 m 2 V2 Secondary Conditions …..(ii) Eq. (ii) holds good only for those solutes which neither possess the tendency to get associate nor dissociate in solution, e.g., Urea and glucose are isotonic then, 1 2 and C1 C2 Urea and NaCl (dissociate) are isotonic then, 1 2 but C1 C2 Urea and Benzoic acid are isotonic then, 1 2 but C1 C2 (associate) (b) Hypertonic and hypotonic solution : The solution which has more osmotic pressure than the other solution is called as hypertonic solution and the solution which has lesser osmotic pressure than the other is called as hypotonic solution. The flow of solvent is always from lower osmotic pressure to higher osmotic pressure i.e. from hypotonic to hypertonic solution. Elevation in b.pt. of the solvent (Ebullioscopy) Boiling point of a liquid may be defined as the temperature at which its vapour pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure, i.e., 760 mm. Since the addition of a non-volatile solute lowers the vapour pressure of the solvent, solution always has lower vapour pressure than the solvent and hence it must be heated to a higher temperature to make its vapour pressure equal to atmospheric pressure with the result the solution boils at a higher temperature than the pure solvent. Thus sea water boils at a higher temperature than distilled water. If T is the boiling point of the solvent and T is the boiling point of the solution, the difference in the boiling point (T or T ) is called the elevation of boiling point. b b T Tb Tb or T Elevation in boiling point is determined by Landsberger’s method and Cottrell’s method. Study of elevation in boiling point of a liquid in which a non-volatile solute is dissolved is called as ebullioscopy. Important relations concerning elevation in boiling point (1) The elevation of boiling point is directly proportional to the lowering of vapour pressure, i.e., Tb p 0 p (2) Tb Kb m where K b molal elevation constant or ebullioscopic constant of the solvent; m Molality of the solution, i.e., number of moles of solute per 1000 g of the solvent; Tb Elevation in boiling point (3) Tb 1000 K b w 1000 K b w or m m W Tb W 158 Solution and Colligative properties where, K b is molal elevation constant and defined as the elevation in b.pt. produced when 1 mole of the solute is dissolved in 1 kg of the solvent. w and W are the weights of solute and solvent and molecular weight of the solute. (4) Kb m is the 0 .002(T0 )2 lV where T 0 Normal boiling point of the pure solvent; lV Latent heat of evaporation in cal / g of pure solvent; K b for water is 1 0.52 deg kg mol . Depression in f.pt. of the solvent (Cryoscopy) Freezing point is the temperature at which the liquid and the solid states of a substance are in equilibrium with each other or it may be defined as the temperature at which the liquid and the solid states of a substance have the same vapour pressure. It is observed that the freezing point of a solution is always less than the freezing point of the pure solvent. Thus the freezing point of sea water is low than that of pure water. The (T or Tf ) of a solvent is the difference depression in freezing point in the freezing point of the pure solvent (Ts ) and the solution (Tsol . ) . Ts Tsol Tf or T NaCl or CaCl 2 (anhydrous) are used to clear snow on roads. They depress the freezing point of water and thus reduce the temperature of the formation of ice. Depression in freezing point is determined by Beckmann’s method and Rast’s camphor method. Study of depression in freezing point of a liquid in which a non-volatile solute is dissolved in it is called as cryoscopy. Important relations concerning depression in freezing point. (1) Depression in freezing point is directly proportional to the lowering of vapour pressure. Tf p 0 p (2) Tf K f m where K f molal depression constant or cryoscopic constant; m Molality of the solution (i.e., no. of moles of solute per 1000 g of the solvent); Tf Depression in freezing point 1000 K f w (3) Tf m W where K f or m 1000 K f w Tf W is molal depression constant and defined as the depression in freezing point produced when 1 mole of the solute is dissolved in 1kg of the solvent. w and W are the weights of solute and solvent and m is the molecular weight of the solute. (4) K f R(T0 )2 0 .002(T0 )2 l f 1000 lf where T0 Normal freezing point of the solvent; l f Latent heat of fusion/g of solvent; K f for water is 1.86 deg kg mol 1 Colligative properties of electrolytes The colligative properties of solutions, viz. lowering of vapour pressure, osmotic pressure, elevation in b.p. and depression in freezing point, depend on the total number of solute particles present in solution. Since the electrolytes ionise and give more than one particle per formula unit in solution, the colligative effect of an electrolyte solution is always greater than that of a non-electrolyte of the same molar concentration. All colligative properties are used for calculating molecular masses of non- volatile solutes. However osmotic pressure is the best colligative property for determining molecular mass of a non-volatile substance. Colligative properties are depending on following factory (1) Colligative properties Number of particles Number of molecules (in case of non-electrolytes) Number of ions (In case of electrolytes) Number of moles of solute Mole fraction of solute (2) For different solutes of same molar concentration, the magnitude of the colligative properties is more for that solution which gives more number of particles on ionisation. (3) For different solutions of same molar concentration of different non-electrolyte solutes, the magnitude of the colligative properties will be same for all. (4) For different molar concentrations of the same solute, the magnitude of colligative properties is more for the more concentrated solution. (5) For solutions of different solutes but of same percent strength, the magnitude of colligative property is more for the solute with least molecular weight. (6) For solutions of different solutes of the same percent strength, the magnitude of colligative property is more for that solute which gives more number of particles, which can be known by the knowledge of molecular weight and its ionisation behaviour. Abnormal molecular masses Molecular masses can be calculated by measuring any of the colligative properties. The relation between colligative properties and molecular mass of the solute is based on following assumptions. (1) The solution is dilute, so that Raoult’s law is obeyed. (2) The solute neither undergoes dissociation nor association in solution. In case of solutions where above assumptions are not valid we find discrepencies between observed and calculated values of colligative properties. These anomalies are primarily due to (i) Association of solute molecules. (ii) Dissociation of solute molecules. (i) Association of solute molecules : Certain solutes in solution are found to associate. This eventually leads to a decrease in the number of molecular particles in the solutions. Thus, it results in a decrease in the values of colligative properties. 1 molecular mass of solute therefore, higher values are obtained for molecular masses than normal values for unassociated molecules. (ii) Dissociation of solute molecules : A number of electrolytes dissociate in solution to give two or more particles (ions). Therefore, the number of solute particles, in solutions of such substances, is more than the expected value. Accordingly, such solutions exhibit higher values of colligative properties. Since colligative properties are inversely proportional to molecular masses, therefore, molecular masses of such substances as calculated from colligative properties will be less than their normal values. Van’t Hoff’s factor (i) : In 1886, Van’t Hoff introduced a factor ‘i’ called Van’t Hoff’s factor, to express the extent of association or dissociation of solutes in solution. It is ratio of the normal and observed molecular masses of the solute, i.e., Colligative property Solution and Colligative properties Normal molecular mass Observed molecular mass In case of association, observed molecular mass being more than the normal, the factor i has a value less than 1. But in case of dissociation, the Van’t Hoff’s factor is more than 1 because the observed molecular mass has a lesser value than the normal molecular mass. In case there is no dissociation the value of ‘i’ becomes equal to one. Since colligative properties are inversely proportional to molecular masses, the Van’t Hoff’s factor may also be written as, i i Observed value of colligative property Calculated value of colligative property assuming no association or dissociation i No. of particles after association or dissociation No. of particles before association or dissociation Introduction of the Van’t Hoff factor modifies the equations for the colligative properties as follows, Relative lowering of vapour pressure PAo PA iXB PAo Elevation of boiling point, Tb ikb m Depression in freezing point, Tf ikf m inRT ; iCRT V From the value of ‘i’, it is possible to calculate degree of dissociation or degree of association of substance. Osmotic pressure, Degree of dissociation () : It is defined as the fraction of total molecules which dissociate into simpler molecules or ions. i1 ; m= number of particles in solution m 1 Degree of association () : It is defined as the fraction of the total number of molecules which associate or combine together resulting in the formation of a bigger molecules. i 1 ; m = number of particles in solution. 1/m 1 159 160 Solution and Colligative properties Solubility 1. 2. [Orissa JEE 2002] A supersaturated solution is metastable. (a) Boiling point is higher than H 2 O Dissolution of gases in liquid is always exothermic because (b) S ve (non favourable factor) and in order to have G ve (spontaneous process), H has to be –ve. 1 M aqueous solution is more concentrated than 1 m aqueous 3. Substances having high V.P. (e.g., petrol) evaporate more quickly than substances having low V.P. (e.g., motor oil). by addition of an non-volatile solute is called as Babo’s law. 4. Konowaloff’s rule : In case of a binary solution, at a fixed temperature, the vapour phase is richer in that component whose addition causes increase in total vapour pressure of the solution i.e., vapour phase is always richer in the more volatile component. When a non-volatile solute is added to the solvent, V.P. decrease, 5. B.P. increase, F.P. decrease. Ethylene glycol is commonly added to car radiators to depress the freezing point of water. It is known as antifreeze. NaCl or CaCl2 (anhydrous) are used to clear snow on roads. It 6. depresses the freezing point of water and reduce the temperature at which ice is expected to be formed. Plasmolysis : When a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the fluid from the plant cell comes out and the cell shrinks. This phenomenon is called plasmolysis and is due to osmosis. 1. 25 ml of 3.0 M HNO 3 are mixed with 75 ml of 4.0 M HNO3 . If the volumes are additive, the molarity of the final mixture would be [DPMT 1986; MH CET 2001] (a) 3.25 M (b) 4.0 M Gelatinous Cu 2 [Fe(CN )6 ] and gelatinous Ca3 (PO4 )2 are artificial semipermeable membranes. (c) 2. non aqueous solutions because it get dissolved in non aqueous solvents. Osmotic coefficient (g) is the ratio of van’t Hoff factor (i) to the no. (d) Solubility of NaCl in it is more than H 2 O The statement “ The mass of a gas dissolved in a given mass of a solvent at any temperature is proportional to the pressure of the gas above the solvent” is [AMU 2002] (a) Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures (b) Law of Mass Action (c) Henry’s Law (d) None of these Which is correct about Henry’s law [KCET 2002] (a) The gas in contact with the liquid should behave as an ideal gas (b) There should not be any chemical interaction between the gas and liquid (c) The pressure applied should be high (d) All of these The statement “If 0.003 moles of a gas are dissolved in 900 g of water under a pressure of 1 atmosphere, 0.006 moles will be dissolved under a pressure of 2 atmospheres”, illustrates [JIPMER 1999] (a) Dalton’s law of partial pressure (b) Graham’s law (c) Raoult’s law (d) Henry’s law The solution of sugar in water contains [BHU 1973] (a) Free atoms (b) Free ions (c) Free molecules (d) Free atom and molecules Method of expressing concentration of solution Bursting of red blood cells when placed in water is due to osmosis. Semipermeable membrane of Cu 2 [Fe(CN )6 ] dose not work in D2 O reacts slowly than H 2 O (c) Viscosity is higher than H 2 O at 25 o solution. Babo’s law : The lowering in vapour pressure of a solution caused The solubility of a gas in water depends on [MP PET 2002] (a) Nature of the gas (b) Temperature (c) Pressure of the gas (d) All of the above Which of the following is not correct for D2 O 3. of ions furnished by one molecule of the electrolyte (N). i.e., g i / N . (d) 3.50 M The amount of anhydrous Na 2 CO 3 present in 250 ml of 0.25 M solution is [DPMT 2001] (a) 6.225 g (b) 66.25 g (c) 6.0 g (d) 6.625 g Dilute one litre 1 molar H 2 SO 4 solution by 5 litre water, the normality of that solution is [DPMT 1983] (a) 0.2 N (b) 5 N (c) 4. 3.75 M 10 N (d) 0.33 N If 5.85 gms of NaCl are dissolved in 90 gms of water, the mole fraction of NaCl is [CMC Vellore 1991; MP PMT 1994; AFMC 1998] 5. (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.01 (e) 0.0196 The molarity of 0.006 mole of NaCl in 100ml solution is Solution and Colligative properties [Bihar MEE 1996] 6. 7. (a) 0.6 (b) 0.06 (c) 0.006 (d) 0.066 (e) None of these 9 .8 g of H 2 SO 4 is present in 2 litres of a solution. The molarity of the solution is [EAMCET 1991; MP PMT 2002] (a) 0.1M (b) 0.05 M (c) 0.2 M (d) 0.01M What will be the molarity of a solution containing 5 g of sodium hydroxide in 250 ml solution [MP PET 1999; BHU 1999; KCET 1999; AIIMS 2000; Pb. CET 2000] 8. (a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 0.1 The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid (H 3 PO3 ) is [IIT 1999; AIIMS 2000] 9. 20. 21. 22. 23. (a) 0.1 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.6 Which of the following has maximum number of molecules 10. 11. (b) 16 gm of NO 2 (c) 7 gm of N 2 (d) 2 gm of H 2 Molarity is expressed as [JIPMER 1991; CBSE PMT 1991] (a) Gram/litre (b) Moles/litre (c) Litre/mole (d) Moles/1000 gms 20 ml of HCl solution requires 19.85 ml of 0.01 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The molarity of HCl solution is [MP PMT 1999] (a) 0.0099 (b) 0.099 (c) 0.99 (d) 9.9 12. 13. (a) Normality (b) Molarity (c) Mole fraction (d) Mass percentage (e) Molality The normality of 2.3 M H 2 SO 4 solution is [KCET 2000] (a) 2.3 N (b) 4.6 N (c) 0.46 N (d) 0.23 N The molarity of a solution made by mixing 50ml of conc. H 2 SO 4 (36N) with 50 ml of water is [MP PMT 2001] (a) 36 M (b) 18 M (c) 9 M (d) 6 M 171 g of cane sugar (C12 H 22 O11 ) is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The molarity of the solution is [MP PMT 2001] (a) 2.0 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 0.5 M (d) 0.25 M The volumes of 4 N HCl and 10 N HCl required to make 1 litre of 6 N HCl are [CBSE PMT 2002] (a) 16 gm of O 2 161 24. [Kerala PMT 2004] (a) 0.75 litre of 10 N HCl and 0.25 litre of 4 N HCl (b) 0.25 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.75 litre of 10 N HCl (c) 0.67 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.33 litre of 10 N HCl (d) 0.80 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.20 litre of 10 N HCl (e) 0.50 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.50 litre of 10 N HCl Which statement is true for solution of 0.020 M H 2 SO 4 [DPMT 2001] (a) 2 litre of the solution contains 0.020 mole of SO 42 (b) 2 litre of the solution contains 0.080 mole of H 3 O (c) 1 litre of the solution contains 0.020 mole H 3 O (d) None of these 25. 10 litre solution of urea contains 240g urea. The active mass of urea How much of NaOH is required to neutralise 1500 cm 3 of 0.1 N will be [KCET 2000] HCl (At. wt. of Na =23) [KCET 2001] (a) 0.04 (b) 0.02 (a) 4 g (b) 6 g (c) 40 g (d) 60 g (c) 0.4 (d) 0.2 If 5.85 g of NaCl (molecular weight 58.5) is dissolved in water and 26. 5 ml of N HCl, 20 ml of N/2 H 2 SO 4 and 30 ml of N/3 HNO are the solution is made up to 0.5 litre, the molarity of the solution will be[AMU 1999; Pb PMT 2000; AFMC 2001] mixed together and volume made to one litre. The normally of the (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 resulting solution is [Kerala CET (Med.) 2003] (c) 1.0 (d) 0.1 N N A mixture has 18g water and 414g ethanol. The mole fraction of (a) (b) water in mixture is (assume ideal behaviour of the mixture) 10 5[MP PMT 2000] (a) 0.1 (b) 0.4 N N (c) (d) (c) 0.7 (d) 0.9 20 40 The number of molecules in 4.25 g of ammonia is approximately [CBSE PMT 2002] N 23 23 (e) (a) 0.5 10 (b) 1.5 10 25 23 23 (c) 3.5 10 (d) 2.5 10 27. The amount of K 2 Cr2 O7 (eq. wt. 49.04) required to prepare 100 The largest number of molecules is in [Kurukshetra CEE 1998] ml of its 0.05 N solution is [JIPMER 2002] (a) 25 g of CO 2 (b) 46 g of C 2 H 5 OH (a) 2.9424 g (b) 0.4904 g (c) 1.4712 g (d) 0.2452 g (c) 36 g of H 2 O (d) 54 g of N 2 O5 28. With increase of temperature, which of these changes If 1 M and 2.5 litre NaOH solution is mixed with another 0.5 M and [AIEEE 2002] 3 litre NaOH solution, then molarity of the resultant solution will be[CBSE PMT 2002] (a) Molality (a) 1.0 M (b) 0.73 M (b) Weight fraction of solute (c) 0.80 M (d) 0.50 M (c) Fraction of solute present in water When a solute is present in trace quantities the following expression (d) Mole fraction is used [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002] 29. 25ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with a 0.1molar (a) Gram per million (b) Milligram percent solution of hydrochloric acid gave a litre value of 35 ml. The (c) Microgram percent (d) Nano gram percent molarity of barium hydroxide solution was (e) Parts per million [AIEEE 2003] When the concentration is expressed as the number of moles of a (a) 0.07 (b) 0.14 solute per litre of solution it known as (c) 0.28 (d) 0.35 3 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002] 162 30. 31. 32. Solution and Colligative properties 2.0 molar solution is obtained , when 0.5 mole solute is dissolved in (a) 250 ml solvent (b) 250 g solvent (c) 250 ml solution (d) 1000 ml solvent How many gram of HCl will be present in 150 ml of its 0.52 M solution [RPET 1999] (a) 2.84 gm (b) 5.70 gm (c) 8.50 gm (d) 3.65 gm The number of moles present in 2 litre of 0.5 M NaOH is 43. [BCECE 2005] 44. 33. 34. 35. 36. 45. 46. 37. (b) Number of moles of solute per 1000 gm of the solvent 47. (a) 3.0 10 (b) 6.02 10 48. 49. 41. 42. (d) 800 mg 2m A solution of Al2 (SO 4 )3 {d 1.253 gm / ml} contain 22% salt by weight. The molarity, normality and molality of the solution is (a) 0.805 M, 4.83 N, 0.825 M (b) 0.825 M, 48.3 N, 0.805 M (c) 4.83 M, 4.83 N, 4.83 M (d) None Which of the following should be done in order to prepare 0.40 M NaCl starting with 100 ml of 0.30 M NaCl (mol.wt. [BIT 1992] (a) Add 0.585 g NaCl (b) Add 20 ml water (c) Add 0.010ml NaCl (d) Evaporate 10ml water Which of the following solutions has the highest normality (b) N phosphoric acid (d) 0.5 M H 2 SO 4 What volume of 0 .8 M solution contains 0.1 mole of the solute (a) 100 ml (b) 125 ml (c) 500 ml (d) 62.5 ml Hydrochloric acid solution A and B have concentration of 0.5 N and 0.1 N respectively. The volumes of solutions A and B required to make 2 litres of 0.2 N HCl are 0 .5 l of A 1.5 l of B [MP PET/PMT 1998] (b) 1 .5 l of A 0.5l of B (c) (a) 2.5 (b) 0.25 (c) 1 (d) 0.75 The normality of a solution of sodium hydroxide 100 ml of which contains 4 grams of NaOH is [CMC Vellore 1991] (a) 0.1 (b) 40 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.4 Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) are mixed in the following manner 480 ml of 1.5M first solution + 520 mL of 1.2M second solution. What is the molarity of the final mixture [AIEEE 2005] (a) 1.20 M (b) 1.50 M (c) 1.344 M (d) 2.70 M The normal amount of glucose in 100ml of blood (8–12 hours after a meal) is [BHU 1981] (a) 8 mg (b) 80 mg 200 mg (d) 23 16 16 (d) 10 23 10 23 6 .02 3.0 The number of moles of a solute in its solution is 20 and total number of moles are 80. The mole fraction of solute is (c) 0 .2 m [KCET 1993] 1 .0 l of A 1.0 l of B (d) 0.75 l of A 1.25l of B 50. [MP PMT 1997] 40. (c) (a) (c) 39. (b) 0 .5 m [JIPMER 1991] (d) Number of gram equivalents of solute per 1000 ml of the solution The number of molecules in 16 gm of methane is 23 1m (a) 8 gm of KOH / litre (c) 6 gm of NaOH / 100 ml (c) Number of moles of solute per 1000 ml of the solution 38. (a) of NaCl 58.5 ) CBSE PMT 1992, 95; MP PMT 1992; AIIMS 1997, 2001] (a) Molarity (b) Molality (c) Formality (d) Normality The molality of a solution is [MP PMT 1996] (a) Number of moles of solute per 1000 ml of the solvent (a) 1000g of solvent (b) 1 litre of solvent (c) 1 litre of solution (d) 1000g of solution What will be the molality of a solution having 18 g of glucose (mol. wt. = 180) dissolved in 500 g of water [MP PET/PMT 1998; CBSE PMT 2000; JIPMER 2001] [MH CET 2001] (a) 0.5 (b) 0.1 (c) 1 (d) 2 36g water and 828g ethyl alcohol form an ideal solution. The mole fraction of water in it, is [MP PMT 2003] (a) 1.0 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.1 What will be the normality of a solution containing 4.9 g. H 3 PO4 dissolved in 500 ml water [MP PMT 2003] (a) 0.3 (b) 1.0 (c) 3.0 (d) 0.1 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/ml. The molarity of the solution is [BVP 2003] (a) 3.0504 (b) 3.64 (c) 3.05 (d) 2.9732 Which of the following modes of expressing concentration is independent of temperature [IIT 1988; CPMT 1999; Molar solution [MP PMTmeans 2003] 1 mole of solute present in 51. 52. 53. 54. Conc. H 2 SO 4 has a density of 1.98 gm/ml and is 98% H 2 SO 4 by weight. Its normality is [MP PET 2002] (a) 2 N (b) 19.8 N (c) 39.6 N (d) 98 N The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is [CBSE PMT 200 (a) 0.027 (b) 0.036 (c) 0.018 (d) 0.009 N With 63 gm of oxalic acid how many litres of solution can be 10 prepared [RPET 1999] (a) 100 litre (b) 10 litre (c) 1 litre (d) 1000 litre Molarity of 0.2 N H 2 SO 4 is [KCET 2005] (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.1 10.6 grams of a substance of molecular weight 106 was dissolved in 100ml . 10ml of this solution was pipetted out into a 1000ml flask and made up to the mark with distilled water. The molarity of the resulting solution is [EAMCET 1998] (a) 1 . 0M (b) 10 2 M Solution and Colligative properties 55. 56. [EAMCET 1987] (c) 10 3 M (d) 10 4 M The mole fraction of water in 20% aqueous solution of H 2 O 2 is 77 68 (b) 68 77 20 80 (c) (d) 80 20 Mole fraction (X ) of any solution is equal to 66. (a) (a) (b) (c) 67. No. of moles of solute Volume of solutionin litre No. of gram equivalent of solute Volume of solutionin litre No. of moles of solute Mass of solvent in kg 68. No. of moles of any constituent Total no. of moles of all constituents When WB gm solute (molecular mass M B ) dissolves in WA gm (d) 57. solvent. The molality M of the solution is WB MB WB 1000 (a) (b) W A 1000 MB WA (c) 58. W A 1000 WB MB (d) WA M B WB 1000 59. Normality (N ) of a solution is equal to No. of moles of solute (a) Volume of solutionin litre No. of gram equivalent of solute (b) Volume of solutionin litre No. of moles of solute (c) Mass of solvent in kg (d) None of these The volume strength of 1.5 N H 2 O 2 solution is 60. (a) 4.8 (b) 5.2 (c) 8.8 (d) 8.4 How many gm of H 2 SO 4 is present in 0.25 gm mole of 69. 70. 61. 62. 63. KCET 2000; CPMT 2001] 65. On passing H 2 S gas through a solution of Cu and Zn 2 ions, CuS is precipitated first because [AMU 2001] (a) Solubility product of CuS is equal to the ionic product of ZnS (b) Solubility product of CuS is equal to the solubility product of 71. 72. 73. 74. (c) Solubility product of CuS is lower than the solubility product of ZnS (d) Solubility product of CuS is greater than the solubility product of ZnS The number of moles of solute per kg of a solvent is called its[DPMT 1983; IIT 19 (a) Molarity (b) Normality (c) Molar fraction (d) Molality 1.0 gm of pure calcium carbonate was found to require 50 ml of dilute HCl for complete reaction. The strength of the HCl solution is given by [CPMT 1986] (a) 4 N (b) 2 N (c) 0.4 N (d) 0.2 N Molecular weight of glucose is 180. A solution of glucose which contains 18 gms per litre is [AFMC 1978] (a) 2 molal (b) 1 molal (c) 0.1 molal (d) 18 molal 0.5 M of H 2 SO 4 is diluted from 1 litre to 10 litre, normality of resulting solution is [AFMC 2005] (a) 1 N (b) 0.1 N (c) 10 N (d) 11 N If one mole of a substance is present in 1 kg of solvent, then 75. what amount of AgNO3 should be added in 60 ml of solution [AFMC 2005] (a) 1.8 (b) 0.8 (a) It shows molar concentration (c) 0.18 (d) None of these (b) It shows molal concentration How many grams of dibasic acid (mol. wt. 200) should be present in (c) It shows normality 100ml of its aqueous solution to give decinormal strength[AIIMS 1992; CBSE PMT (d) 1999; ItAFMC 1999; shows strength gm / gm (a) (c) 64. (a) 0.1M (b) 0.2 M [EAMCET 1993] (c) 0.3 M (d) 0.4 M Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature [DCE 2002] (a) Molarity (b) Molality (c) Mole fraction (d) Weight fraction The distribution law is applied for the distribution of basic acid between [UPSEAT 2001] (a) Water and ethyl alcohol (b) Water and amyl alcohol (c) Water and sulphuric acid (d) Water and liquor ammonia Which is heaviest [CBSE PMT 1991] (a) 25 gm of mercury (b) 2 moles of water (c) 2 moles of carbon dioxide (d) 4 gm atoms of oxygen The molarity of a solution of Na 2 CO 3 having 10.6 g / 500ml of solution is [AFMC 1992; DCE 2000] (a) 0.2 M (b) 2 M (c) 20 M (d) 0.02 M ZnS [CBSE PMT 1997; BHU 2002] [CPMT 1990] H 2 SO 4 (a) 24.5 (b) 2.45 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.245 20 g of hydrogen is present in 5 litre vessel. The molar concentration of hydrogen is [DPMT 2000] (a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 2 To prepare a solution of concentration of 0.03 g/ml of AgNO3 , 1g 10 g (b) (d) 2g 20 g The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250cm 3 of 0.1 N solution is [KCET 1991; Kerala PMT 2004] (a) 4 g (b) 1 g (c) 2 g (d) 10 g If 20ml of 0.4 N NaOH solution completely neutralises 40ml of a dibasic acid. The molarity of the acid solution is 163 76. 77. [CPMT 1996] The molality of 90% H 2 SO 4 solution is [density=1.8 gm/ml] (a) 1.8 (b) 48.4 (c) 9.18 (d) 94.6 [MP PMT 2004] The volume of water to be added to 100cm 3 of 0.5 N H 2 SO 4 to get decinormal concentration is [KCET (Engg.) 2001] (a) 400 cm 3 (b) 500 cm 3 (c) 450 cm 3 (d) 100 cm 3 164 78. Solution and Colligative properties If 25 ml of 0.25 M NaCl solution is diluted with water to a volume of 500ml the new concentration of the solution is [UPSEAT 2000, 01] 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. (a) 0.167 M (b) 0.0125 M (c) 0.833 M (d) 0.0167 M 10 grams of a solute is dissolved in 90 grams of a solvent. Its mass percent in solution is (a) 0.01 (b) 11.1 (c) 10 (d) 9 What is the molality of a solution which contains 18 g of glucose [UPSEAT 2001] (C6 H12 O6 ) in 250 g of water (a) 4.0 m (b) 0.4 m (c) 4.2 m (d) 0.8 m Calculate the molality of 1 litre solution of 93% 1.84 g H 2 SO 4 (weight/volume). The density of the solution is /ml [UPSEAT 2000] (a) 10.43 (b) 20.36 (c) 12.05 (d) 14.05 Volume of water needed to mix with 10 ml 10N HNO 3 to get 0.1 N [UPSEAT 2003] HNO 3 (a) 1000 ml (b) 990 ml (c) 1010 ml (d) 10 ml The sum of the mole fraction of the components of a solution is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause 92. 93. 85. 86. 87. 94. 88. 89. 90. (c) x CH 3 OH 0.01 (e) 0.01 N CH 3 OH 95. 96. 97. 98. (Avogadro constant, N A 6.02 10 mol ) 91. The number of moles of SO 2 Cl 2 in 13.5 gm is (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 [CPMT 1994] In a solution of 7.8 gm benzene C 6 H 6 and 46.0 gm toluene (a) 1/6 (b) 1 / 5 (c) 1/2 (d) 1 / 3 A solution contains 25% H 2 O , 25%C 2 H 5 OH and (a) 0.25 (b) 2.5 (c) 0.503 (d) 5.03 A 5 molar solution of H 2 SO 4 is diluted from 1 litre to 10 litres. What is the normality of the solution [AFMC 2005] (a) 0.25 N (b) 1 N (c) 2 N (d) 7 N Molarity of a solution containing 1g NaOH in 250ml of solution is [EAMCET 1990] (a) 0.1M (b) 1 M (c) 0.01 M (d) 0.001 M What is molarity of a solution of HCl which contains 49% by weight of solute and whose specific gravity is 1.41 (a) 15.25 (c) 18.92 NaClO solution (b) 16.75 (d) 20.08 reacts with H 2 SO 3 as, NaClO H 2 SO 3 NaCl H 2 SO 4 . A solution of NaClO 99. 100. 101. 1 (d) 6 .3 g 63 g used in the above reaction contained normality of the solution would be (a) 0.8 (b) (c) 0.2 (d) When 1.80 gm glucose dissolve in 90 gm of H 2 O , the mole fraction of glucose is [AFMC 2000] (a) 0.00399 (b) 0.00199 (c) 0.0199 (d) 0.998 23 (c) [EAMCET 1991] [CPMT 2001; CBSE PMT 2001] (d) 0.99 M H 2O 6.02 10 20 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is [AIEEE 2004] (a) 0.02 M (b) 0.01 M (c) 0.001 M (d) 0.1 M (b) 12.6 g 50% CH 3 COOH by mass. The mole fraction of H 2 O would be [AIIMS 1992; Pb. CET 2004] (a) 18 litre (b) 9 litre (c) 0.9 litre (d) 1.8 litre The concentration of an aqueous solution of 0.01M CH 3 OH solution is very nearly equal to which of the following (a) 0.01% CH 3 OH (b) 0.01m CH 3 OH 0.2 N solution is (a) 126 g (C6 H 5 CH 3 ) , the mole fraction of benzene in this solution is [IIT Screening 1993] (a) Decrease in molality (b) Decrease in molarity (c) Decrease in mole fraction (d) Decrease in % w/w 1000 gms aqueous solution of CaCO 3 contains 10 gms of carbonate. Concentration of the solution is [CPMT 1985] (a) 10 ppm (b) 100 ppm (c) 1000 ppm (d) 10000 ppm 3.65 gms of HCl is dissolved in 16.2 gms of water. The mole fraction of HCl in the resulting solution is [EAMCET 2003] (a) 0.4 (b) 0.3 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1 An aqueous solution of glucose is 10% in strength. The volume in which 1 gm mole of it is dissolved will be (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4 The weight of H 2C2O4 . 2 H 2O required to prepare 500ml of 15g of NaClO per litre. The [AMU 1999] 0.6 0.33 A solution contains 1.2046 10 24 hydrochloric acid molecules in one dm 3 of the solution. The strength of the solution is [KCET 2004] (a) 6 N (b) 2 N (c) 4 N (d) 8 N 1 10 N and N solution is called 10 [BITS 1992]and decanormal solution (a) Decinormal (b) Normal and decinormal solution (c) Normal and decanormal solution (d) Decanormal and decinormal solution When 7.1gm Na 2 SO 4 (molecular mass 142) dissolves in 100 ml H 2 O , the molarity of the solution is [CBSE PMT 1991; MP PET 1993, 95] 102. 103. (a) 2.0 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 0.5 M (d) 0.05 M Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is [EAMCET 1987] (a) 0.1M (b) 0.5 M (c) 0.01M (d) 1.0 M When 6 gm urea dissolve in 180 gm H 2 O . The mole fraction of urea is [CPMT 1988] 10 10 . 1 (a) (b) 10 . 1 10 Solution and Colligative properties 10 . 1 0 .1 (d) 0 .1 10 . 1 The normality of 10% (weight/volume) acetic acid is (c) 104. 117. (c) 0.33 (d) None of these A solution of CaCl 2 is 0.5 mol / litre, then the moles of chloride 118. ion in 500ml will be [MP PMT 1986] (a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.75 (d) 1.00 What is the molarity of H 2 SO 4 solution, that has a density 1.84 [CPMT 1983] 106. (a) 1 N (b) (c) 1.7 N (d) Unit of mole fraction is (a) Moles/litre (b) (c) Moles–litre (d) Normality of 2 M sulphuric acid is 107. (a) 2 N (b) 4 N (c) N / 2 (d) N / 4 Molar concentration (M ) of any solution = 105. 10 N 0.83 N [BHU 1998, 2005] Moles/litre gm/cc at 35 o C and contains solute 98% by weight 2 Dimensionless [AIIMS 2001] 119. (a] 4.18 M (b) 8.14 M (c) 18.4 M (d) 18 M A certain aqueous solution of FeCl 3 (formula mass =162) has a 120. density of 1.1 g / ml and contains 20.0% FeCl3 . Molar concentration of this solution is [Pb. PMT 1998] (a) 0.028 (b) 0.163 (c) 1.27 (d) 1.47 If 0.50 mol of CaCl 2 is mixed with 0.20 mol of Na 3 PO4 , the [AIIMS 1991, 92; Pb. CET 2002] (a) (b) (c) (d) 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 114. 115. How many grams of NaOH will be required to neutralize 12.2 grams of benzoic acid [MP PMT 1999] (a) 40 gms (b) 4 gms 16 gms 198 gm 121. (d) 212 gm In a mixture of 1 gm H 2 and 8 gm O 2 , the mole fraction of hydrogen is [Orissa JEE 2002] (a) 0.667 (b) 0.5 maximum number of moles of Ca 3 (PO4 )2 which can be formed, is [Pb. PMT 1998] (a) 0.70 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.10 An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value of X is [KCET 1996; DCE 2001] 122. 123. (a) 14 (b) 3.2 (c) 4 (d) 2 Molecular weight of urea is 60. A solution of urea containing 6 g urea in one litre is [BHU 1996, 99] (a) 1 molar (b) 1.5 molar (c) 0.1 molar (d) 0.01 molar The molar solution of sulphuric acid is equal to [MP PET 1999] 124. 125. (a) N solution (b) 2 N solution (c) N / 2 solution (d) 3 N solution The weight of sodium carbonate required to prepare 500 ml of a semi- normal solution is [JIPMER 1999] (a) 13.25 (b) 26.5 g [MPgPET 1993] (c) 53 g (d) 6.125 g 200ml of a solution contains 5.85 g dissolved sodium chloride. 127. The concentration of the solution will be (Na 23; Cl 35.5) [MP PMT 1999 (a) 1 molar (b) 2 molar (c) 0.5 molar (d) 0.25 molar Molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 75.5 g of pure KOH in 540 ml solution is [BHU 1999] (a) 3.05 M (b) 1.35 M (c) 2.50 M (d) 4.50 M Which one of the following is an extensive property 128. (a) Molar volume (b) Molarity (c) Number of moles (d) Mole fraction Addition of conc. HCl to saturated BaCl2 solution precipitates 126. (d) 12.2 gms 10ml of conc. H 2 SO 4 (18 molar) is diluted to 1 litre. The approximate strength of dilute acid could be [JIPMER 1991] (a) 0.18 N (b) 0.09 N (c) 0.36 N (d) 1800 N The normality of 10 lit. volume hydrogen peroxide is [Kerala CET (Med.) 2003] (a) 0.176 (b) 3.52 (c) 1.78 (d) 0.88 (e) 17.8 Essential quantity of ammonium sulphate taken for preparation of 1 molar solution in 2 litres is (a) 132 gm (b) 264 gm (c) 116. No. of moles of any constituent Total no. of moles of all constituents If 5.0 gm of BaCl2 is present in 10 6 gm solution, the concentration is (a) 1 ppm (b) 5 ppm (c) 50 ppm (d) 1000 ppm 1 Molar solution contains [DPMT 2002] (a) 1000g of solute (b) 1000g of solvent (c) 1 litre of solvent (d) 1 litre of solution To neutralise completely 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of phosphorous acid (H 3 PO3 ), the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH solution required is [AIEEE 2004] (a) 40 mL (b) 20 mL (c) 10 mL (d) 60 mL On dissolving 1 mole of each of the following acids in 1 litre water, the acid which does not give a solution of strength 1 N is (a) HCl (b) Perchloric acid (c) HNO 3 (d) Phosphoric acid (c) 113. No. of moles of solute Volume of solutionin litre No. of gram equivalent of solute Volume of solutionin litre No. of moles of solute Mass of solvent in kg 165 [KCET 1998] BaCl2 ; because [AMU 2000] (a) It follows from Le Chatelier’s principle (b) Of common-ion effect (c) Ionic product (Ba ), (Cl ) remains constant in a saturated solution (d) At constant temperature, the product (Ba 2 ), (Cl )2 remains constant in a saturated solution 166 129. Solution and Colligative properties How much water is needed to dilute 10 ml of 10 N hydrochloric acid to make it exactly decinormal (0.1 N) [EAMCET 1982] 130. 131. (c) 1.96 gm 141. If 18 gm of glucose (C 6 H 12 O6 ) is present in 1000 gm of an aqueous solution of glucose, it is said to be [CPMT 1986] (a) 1 molal (b) 1.1 molal (c) 0.5 molal (d) 0.1 molal 142. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is (a) 990 ml (b) 1000 ml (c) 1010 ml (d) 100 ml The formula weight of H 2 SO 4 is 98. The weight of the acid in 400ml of 0.1M solution is (a) 2.45 g (b) (c) (d) 9 .8 g [EAMCET 1987] 4.90 g 3.92 g 143. The molarity of pure water is [CPMT 1974, 88, 90; CMC Vellore 1991; RPET 1999; NCERT 1974, 76; MP PMT 1999; AMU 2002] 132. (a) 55.6 (b) 5.56 (c) 100 (d) 18 The molarity of a 0.2 N Na 2 CO 3 solution will be 133. (a) 0.05 M (b) 0.2 M (c) 0.1 M (d) 0.4 M How many moles of water are present in 180 g of water 134. (a) 1 mole (b) 18 mole (c) 10 mole (d) 100 mole If we take 44 g of CO 2 and 14 g of N 2 what will be mole 144. [MP PMT 1987; Pb. CET 2004] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1.5 The unit of molality is [Pb. CET 2003] (a) Mole per litre (b) Mole per kilogram (c) Per mole per litre (d) Mole litre A solution contains 1 mole of water and 4 mole of ethanol. The mole fraction of water and ethanol will be (a) 0.2 water + 0.8 ethanol (b) 0.4 water + 0.6 ethanol (c) 0.6 water + 0.8 ethanol (d) 0.8 water + 0.2 ethanol [JIPMER 1991; DPMT 1982; Manipal MEE 1995] fraction of CO 2 in the mixture 135. Colligative properties 1. [KCET 1990] (a) 1/5 (b) 1/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/4 What is the volume of 0.1 N HCl required to react completely 2. [KCET 1998] (a) 150 cm 3 (b) (c) 200 cm 3 (d) 100 cm 3 The amount NaOH in 138. 139. gms in 250 cm 3 of (d) None Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have [AIEEE 2005] (a) 1000 gm of the solvent (b) One litre of the solvent (c) One litre of the solution (d) 22.4 litres of the solution What weight of ferrous ammonium sulphate is needed to prepare 100 ml of 0.1 normal solution (mol. wt. 392) [CPMT 1983] (b) 3.92 gm 3. 4. (a) Osmotic pressure (b) Boiling point (c) Vapour pressure (d) Freezing point The colligative properties of a solution depend on 5. (a) Nature of solute particles present in it (b) Nature of solvent used (c) Number of solute particles present in it (d) Number of moles of solvent only Which of the following is not a colligative property [AFMC 1992; CBSE PMT 1992; MP PMT 1996, 2003] [CPMT 1984; MP PMT 1993; UPSEAT 2001; Kerala PMT 2002] 4.0 gm of NaOH are contained in one decilitre of solution. Its molarity would be (a) 4 M (b) 2 M (c) 1 M (d) 1.5 M When 90 gm of water is mixed with 300 gm of acetic acid. The total number of moles will be (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20 A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in (a) 39.2 gm (c) Both (d) Different boiling and different freezing points Which of the following is a colligative property a [NCERT 1983; DPMT 1983; CPMT 1985; IIT 1986; MP PMT 1987; EAMCET 1990; MP PET 1994, 99] 140. (b) Higher (c) Same boiling and same freezing points 250 cm 3 0.100 M NaOH solution would be (a) 4 gm (b) 2 gm (c) 1 gm (d) 2.5 gm 137. (a) Lower (b) Same freezing point but different boiling point (Ca 40, C 12 and O 16) of The magnitude of colligative properties in all colloidal dispersions is ….than solution [AMU 1999] (a) Same boiling point but different freezing point with 1 .0 g of pure calcium carbonate 136. (d) 19.6 gm [BHU 1982; CPMT 1988; DPMT 1985; MP PET 1999] 6. 7. (a) Osmotic pressure (b) Elevation in B.P. (c) Vapour pressure (d) Depression in freezing point Which of the following is not a colligative property [MP PET 2001; CPMT 2001; Pb. CET 2001] (a) Optical activity (b) Elevation in boiling point (c) Osmotic pressure (d) Lowering of vapour pressure Colligative properties of a solution depends upon [MP PMT 1994, 2002] (a) Nature of both solvent and solute Solution and Colligative properties 8. (b) The relative number of solute and solvent particles (c) Nature of solute only (d) Nature of solvent only Which is not a colligative property 9. (a) Refractive index (b) Lowering of vapour pressure (c) Depression of freezing point (d) Elevation of boiling point Which of the following is a colligative property [CPMT 1984; BHU 1982; Manipal MEE 1995] (a) (b) (c) (d) 8. (a) Surface tension (b) Viscosity (c) Osmotic pressure (d) Optical rotation Colligative properties are used for the determination of (a) Molar Mass (b) Equivalent weight (c) Arrangement of molecules (d) Melting point and boiling point (d) Both (a) and (b) What does not change on changing temperature 9. [DCE 2001] (a) Mole fraction (c) Molality 10. (b) Normality (d) None of these Lowering of vapour pressure 11. 1. Vapour pressure of CCl 4 at 25 o C is 143mm of Hg 0.5 gm of a non-volatile solute (mol. wt. = 65) is dissolved in 100 ml CCl 4 . Find the vapour pressure of the solution (Density of CCl 4 1.58 g / cm 2 ) [CBSE PMT 1998] (a) (b) 94.39 mm (c) 2. 3. 141.43 mm 199.34 mm 6. (b) P Po N2 (c) P o P N 2 (d) P P o (N1 / N 2 ) An aqueous solution of methanol in water has vapour pressure (a) Equal to that of water (b) Equal to that of methanol (c) More than that of water (d) Less than that of water The pressure under which liquid and vapour can coexist at equilibrium is called the (a) Limiting vapour pressure (b) Real vapour pressure (c) Normal vapour pressure (d) Saturated vapour pressure Which solution will show the maximum vapour pressure at 300 K (a) 1 M C 12 H 22 O11 (b) 1 M CH 3 COOH (d) 1 M NaCl The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of [EAMCET 1991; CBSE PMT 1991] (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) 143.99 mm For a solution of volatile liquids the partial vapour pressure of each component in solution is directly proportional to (a) Molarity (b) Mole fraction (c) Molality (d) Normality “The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute.” This law is called 13. (a) Henry's law (b) Raoult's law (c) Ostwald's law (d) Arrhenius's law The relative lowering of vapour pressure produced by dissolving 71.5 g of a substance in 1000 g of water is 0.00713. The molecular weight of the substance will be 14. [DPMT 2001] 5. P P o N1 (c) 1 M NaCl 2 12. [MP PET 1997, 2001] 4. An increase in the b.p. of the solution A decrease in the b.p. of the solvent The solution having a higher freezing point than the solvent The solution having a lower osmotic pressure than the solvent If P o and P are the vapour pressure of a solvent and its solution respectively and N 1 and N 2 are the mole fractions of the solvent and solute respectively, then correct relation is (a) [Kerala CET (Engg.) 2002] 11. (a) Directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent (b) Inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute (c) Inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent (d) Directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solute When a substance is dissolved in a solvent the vapour pressure of the solvent is decreased. This results in [NCERT 1981] [BHU 1990; NCERT 1983; MP PMT 1983; DPMT 1981, 83; MP PET/PMT 1998; AIIMS 1999; Pb. CET 2000] 10. 7. 167 (a) 18.0 (b) 342 (c) 60 (d) 180 When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodide, the [IIT 1987] (a) Freezing point is raised (b) Freezing point is lowered (c) Freezing point does not change (d) Boiling point does not change Vapour pressure of a solution is [EAMCET 1988; MP PET 1994] 15. Solute moleules and solvent molecules Solute molecules and the total molecules in the solution Solvent molecules and the total molecules in the solution Solvent molecules and the total number of ions of the solute 5cm 3 of acetone is added to 100 cm 3 of water, the vapour pressure of water over the solution (a) It will be equal to the vapour pressure of pure water (b) It will be less than the vapour pressure of pure water (c) It will be greater than the vapour pressure of pure water (d) It will be very large At 300 K, when a solute is added to a solvent its vapour pressure over the mercury reduces from 50 mm to 45 mm. The value of mole fraction of solute will be (a) 0.005 (b) 0.010 (c) 0.100 (d) 0.900 A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mmHg for pentane and 120 mmHg for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be [CBSE PMT 2005] 16. (a) 0.549 (b) 0.200 (c) 0.786 (d) 0.478 Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The parial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a solution containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is [AIEEE 2005] (a) 50 (b) 25 168 17. Solution and Colligative properties (c) 37.5 (d) 53.5 The vapour pressure lowering caused by the addition of 100 g of sucrose(molecular mass = 342) to 1000 g of water if the vapour pressure of pure water at 25 o C is 23.8 mm Hg 28. [RPET 1999] 18. 19. 20. (a) 1.25 mm Hg (b) 0.125 mm Hg (c) 1.15 mm Hg (d) 00.12 mm Hg Which of the following is incorrect [J & K 2005] (a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is independent (b) The vapour pressure is a colligative property (c) Vapour pressure of a solution is lower than the vapour pressure of the solvent (d) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly propertional to the original pressure Among the following substances the lowest vapour pressure is exerted by (a) Water (b) Mercury (c) Kerosene (d) Rectified spirit According to Raoult's law the relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution of volatile substance is equal to 29. [Pb. PMT 1998] 30. 21. 31. 22. 23. 24. [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002] 25. 26. 27. (a) Pressure of the biomolecules (b) Vapour pressure of atmospheric constituents (c) Vapour pressure of chemicals and vapour pressure of volatiles (d) Pressure created on to atmospheric molecules The vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 0.80 atm. On mixing a nonvolatile B to A, its vapour pressure becomes 0.6 atm. The mole fraction of B in the solution is [MP PET 2003] (a) 0.150 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 Lowering of vapour pressure is highest for [BHU 1997] (a) Urea (b) 0.1M glucose (c) 0.1 M MgSO4 (d) 0.1 M BaCl2 An aqueous solution of glucose was prepared by dissolving 18 g of glucose in 90 g of water. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is [KCET 2002] (a) 0.02 (b) 1 (a) 140 torr (b) 20 torr (c) 68 torr (d) 72 torr The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm of Hg . A non-volatile and non-electrolyte solid weighing 2.175 g is added to 39.08 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution is 600mm of Hg . What is the molecular weight of solid substance [MP PMT 1983; NCERT 1981] (a) An increase in the boiling point of the solution (b) A decrease in the boiling point of solvent (c) The solution having a higher freezing point than the solvent (d) The solution having a lower osmotic pressure than the solvent The vapour pressure of a liquid depends on (a) Temperature but not on volume (b) Volume but not on temperature (c) Temperature and volume (d) Neither on temperature nor on volume Which one of the statements given below concerning properties of solutions, describes a colligative effect [AIIMS 2003] (a) Boiling point of pure water decreases by the addition of ethanol (b) Vapour pressure of pure water decreases by the addition of nitric acid (c) Vapour pressure of pure benzene decreases by the addition of naphthalene (d) Boiling point of pure benzene increases by the addition of toluene The atmospheric pressure is sum of the (a) 0.635 methanol, 0.365 ethanol (b) 0.365 methanol, 0.635 ethanol (c) 0.574 methanol, 0.326 ethanol (d) 0.173 methanol, 0.827 ethanol The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 600 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of Q would be [CBSE PMT 2005] [CBSE PMT 1995; BHU 2001] (a) Mole fraction of the solvent (b) Mole fraction of the solute (c) Weight percentage of a solute (d) Weight percentage of a solvent When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure of the solvent is decreased. This results in (c) 20 (d) 180 “Relative lowering in vapour pressure of solution containing nonvolatile solute is directly proportional to mole fraction of solute”. Above statement is [AFMC 2004] (a) Henry law (b) Dulong and Petit law (c) Raoult's law (d) Le-Chatelier's principle An ideal solution was obtained by mixing methanol and ethanol. If the partial vapour pressure of methanol and ethanol are 2.619 kPa and 4.556 kPa respectively, the composition of the vapour (in terms of mole fraction) will be [CBSE PMT 1999; AFMC 1999] 32. (a) 49.50 (b) 59.6 (c) 69.5 (d) 79.8 Which one of the following is the expression of Raoult's law p ps ps p N n (a) (b) p nN p N n (c) p ps N ps N n (d) ps p N n ps N p vapour pressure of pure solvent p s vapour pressure of the solution 33. 34. n number of moles of the solute N number of moles of the solvent Which has maximum vapour pressure [DPMT 2001] (a) HI (b) HBr (c) HCl (d) HF When a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a solvent, the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to [BHU 1979; IIT 1983] (a) Mole fraction of solute (b) Mole fraction of solvent (c) Concentration of the solute in grams per litre 35. (d) Concentration of the solute in grams 100 ml 60 gm of Urea (Mol. wt 60) was dissolved in 9.9 moles, of water. If the vapour pressure of pure water is Po , the vapour pressure of solution is [DCE 2000] (a) 0.10 Po (b) 1.10 Po (c) 0.90 Po 36. (d) 0.99 Po The vapour pressure of water at 20 o C is 17.54 mm. When 20g of a non-ionic, substance is dissolved in 100g of water, the vapour Solution and Colligative properties 37. pressure is lowered by 0.30 mm. What is the molecular weight of the substances [UPSEAT 2001] (a) 210.2 (b) 206.88 (c) 215.2 (d) 200.8 In an experiment, 1 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 100 g of acetone (mol. mass = 58) at 298K. The vapour pressure of the solution was found to be 192.5 mm Hg. The molecular weight of the solute is (vapour pressure of acetone = 195 mm Hg) 1. 38. 2. (b) 35.24 (d) 55.24 How many grams of CH 3 OH should be added to water to prepare 150 ml solution of 2 M CH 3 OH (a) 9.6 (c) 39. 9.6 10 (d) 3. [CBSE PMT 1994] 2.4 10 3 The vapour pressure of a solvent decreased by 10mm of mercury, when a non-volatile solute was added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is 0.2. What should be the mole fraction of the solvent, if decrease in the vapour pressure is to be 20 mm of mercury 4. 5. [CBSE PMT 1998] 40. (a) 0.8 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.2 For a dilute solution, Raoult's law states that [CPMT 1987; BHU 1979; IIT 1985; MP PMT 2004; MNR 1988; AMU 2002] 41. 42. 43. 44. (a) The lowering of vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of solute (b) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of solute (c) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution (d) The vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of solvent The vapour pressure of a solvent A is 0.80 atm When a non-volatile substance B is added to this solvent its vapour pressure drops to 0.6 atm. What is mole fraction of B in solution (a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.75 (d) 0.90 Determination of correct molecular mass from Raoult's law is applicable to (a) An electrolyte in solution (b) A non-electrolyte in a dilute solution (c) A non-electrolyte in a concentrated solution (d) An electrolyte in a liquid solvent If two substances A and B have PA0 : PB0 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution 1 : 2 then mole fraction of A in vapours (a) 0.33 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.52 (d) 0.2 A dry air is passed through the solution, containing the 10 gm of solute and 90 gm of water and then it pass through pure water. There is the depression in weight of solution wt by 2.5 gm and in weight of pure solvent by 0.05 gm. Calculate the molecular weight of solute [Kerala CET 2005] (a) 50 (b) 180 (c) 100 (d) 25 (e) 51 Ideal and Non-ideal solution (a) Water-nitric acid (b) Benzene-methanol (c) Water-hydrochloric acid (d) Acetone-chloroform Which one of the following is non-ideal solution (a) Benzene + toluene (b) n -hexane + n -heptane (c) Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide (d) CCl 4 CHCl 3 (b) 2.4 3 Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law [MP PET 1993; UPSEAT 2001; AIEEE 2004] [CPMT 2001; CBSE PMT 2001; Pb CET 2002] (a) 25.24 (c) 45.24 169 6. 7. 8. A non ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30 ml chloroform and 50 ml acetone. The volume of mixture will be [Pb. CET 2003] (a) > 80 ml (b) < 80 ml (c) = 80 ml (d) 80 ml Which pair from the following will not form an ideal solution (a) CCl 4 SiCl4 (b) H 2 O C 4 H 9 OH (c) C 2 H 5 Br C 2 H 5 I (d) C6 H 14 C7 H 16 An ideal solution is that which [MP PMT 1996] (a) Shows positive deviation from Raoult's law (b) Shows negative deviation from Raoult's law (c) Has no connection with Raoult's law (d) Obeys Raoult's law Which one of the following mixtures can be separated into pure components by fractional distillation [CPMT 1987] (a) Benzene – toluene (b) Water – ethyl alcohol (c) Water – nitric acid (d) Water – hydrochloric acid All form ideal solutions except [DPMT 1983; MP PET 1997] (a) C 2 H 5 Br and C 2 H 5 I (b) C 6 H 5 Cl and C 6 H 5 Br (c) C 6 H 6 and C 6 H 5 CH 3 (d) C 2 H 5 I and C 2 H 5 OH Which property is shown by an ideal solution [MP PET 2002] PMTRaoult's 2000, 01]law (a) It [MP follows (c) 9. 10. 12. 13. H mix 0 (d) All of these When two liquid A and B are mixed then their boiling points becomes greater than both of them. What is the nature of this solution (a) Ideal solution (b) Positive deviation with non ideal solution (c) Negative deviation with non ideal solution (d) Normal solution In mixture A and B components show –ve deviation as (a) 11. Vmix 0 (b) [DPMT 2005] [AIEEE 2002] Vmix 0 (b) H mix 0 (c) A-B interaction is weaker than A-A and B-B interaction (d) A-B interaction is strong than A-A and B-B interaction In which case Raoult's law is not applicable (a) 1M NaCl (b) 1 M urea (c) 1 M glucose (d) 1 M sucrose A solution that obeys Raoult's law is [EAMCET 1993] (a) Normal (b) Molar (c) Ideal (d) Saturated An example of near ideal solution is (a) n -heptane and n -hexane 170 Solution and Colligative properties (b) CH 3 COOH C5 H 5 N (c) 14. 15. 16. [JIPMER 1997] (a) CHCl 3 (C 2 H 5 )2 O S mix 0 H mix 0 (b) (c) It obeys Raoult's law (d) Vmix 0 Which of the following does not show negative deviation from Raoult’s law [MP PMT 2001] (a) Acetone-Chloroform (b) Acetone-Benzene (c) Chloroform-Ether (d) Chloroform-Benzene (c) (C 2 H 5 )2 O CHCl 3 (d) (CH 3 )2 CO C6 H 5 NH 2 27. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms [MP PMT 1993] All form ideal solution except [UPSEAT 2001] (a) An ideal solution (b) Non-ideal solution (a) C2 H 5 Br and C 2 H 5 I (b) C 2 H 5 Cl and C6 H 5 Br (c) Suspension (d) Emulsion 28. Which of the following is an ideal solution (c) C6 H 6 and C6 H 5 CH 3 (d) C 2 H 5 I and C2 H 5 OH (a) Water + ethanol Formation of a solution from two components can be considered as [CBSE PMT 2003] (b) Chloroform + carbon tetrachloride (i) Pure solvent separated solvent molecules H (c) Benzene + toluene (ii) Pure solute separated solute molecules H (d) Water + hydrochloric acid (iii) Separated solvent and solute molecules solution H 29. When ethanol mixes in cyclohexane; cyclohexane reduces the intermolecular forces between ethanol molecule. In this, liquid pair Solution so formed will be ideal if shows (a) H soln H 3 H1 H 2 (a) Positive deviation by Raoult's law (b) H soln H1 H 2 H 3 (b) Negative deviation by Raoult's law (c) No deviation by Raoult's law (c) H soln H1 H 2 H 3 (d) Decrease in volume (d) H soln H1 H 2 H 3 30. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution [AIEEE 2003] Identify the mixture that shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law [Kerala CET (Engg.) (a) 2002] The enthalpy of mixing is zero (b) The entropy of mixing is zero (a) CHCl 3 (CH 3 )2 CO (b) (CH 3 )2 CO C6 H 5 NH 2 (c) The free energy of mixing is zero (c) CHCl 3 C6 H 6 (d) (CH 3 )2 CO CS 2 (d) The free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero (e) C6 H 5 N CH 3 COOH (d) H 2 O HNO 3 A mixture of liquid showing positive deviation in Raoult's law is (a) (CH 3 )2 CO C 2 H 5 OH (b) (CH 3 )2 CO CHCl 3 26. 1 2 3 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. When acetone is added to chloroform, then hydrogen bond is formed between them.These liquids show (a) Positive deviation from Raoult's law (b) Negative deviation from Raoult's law (c) No deviation from Raoult's law (d) Volume is slightly increased Which of the following is true when components forming an ideal solution are mixed [AMU 2000] (a) H m Vm 0 (b) H m Vm (c) H m Vm (d) H m Vm 1 The liquid pair benzene-toluene shows [MP PET 1995] (a) Irregular deviation from Raoult's law (b) Negative deviation from Raoult's law (c) Positive deviation from Raoult's law (d) Practically no deviation from Raoult's law The solution which shows negative or positive deviation by Raoult's law, is called (a) Ideal solution (b) Real solution (c) Non-ideal solution (d) Colloidal solution Which of the following does not show positive deviation from Raoult’s law [MP PMT 2000] (a) Benzene-Chloroform (b) Benzene-Acetone (c) Benzene-Ethanol (d) Benzene-Carbon tetrachloride Which of the following mixture shows positive deviation by ideal behaviour (a) CHCl 3 (CH 3 )2 CO (b) C6 H 6 C6 H 5 CH 3 (c) H 2 O HCl (d) CCl 4 CHCl 3 Which property is not found in ideal solution (a) 25. PA PAo X A (b) H mix 0 (c) Vmix 0 (d) All of these Which of the following is not correct for ideal solution Azeotropic mixture 1. The azeotropic mixture of o water (b. p.100 o C) and o HCl (b. p. 85 C) boils at 108.5 C . When this mixture is distilled it is possible to obtain [IIT 1981] (a) Pure HCl (b) Pure water (c) Pure water as well as pure HCl (d) Neither HCl nor H 2 O in their pure states 2. 3. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point lower than either when it [NCERT 1978; IIT 1981] (a) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law (b) Shows no deviation from Raoult's law (c) Shows positive deviation from Raoult's law (d) Is saturated A liquid mixture boils without changing constituent is called [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1987] 4. 5. (a) Stable structure complex (b) Binary liquid mixture (c) Zeotropic liquid mixture (d) Azeotropic liquid mixture Azeotropic mixture are [CPMT 1982] (a) Constant temperature boiling mixtures (b) Those which boils at different temperatures (c) Mixture of two solids (d) None of the above A mixture of two completely miscible non-ideal liquids which distil as such without change in its composition at a constant temperature as though it were a pure liquid. This mixture is known as (a) Binary liquid mixture (b) Azeotropic mixture Solution and Colligative properties (c) Eutectic mixture (d) Ideal mixture 10. Osmosis and Osmotic pressure of the solution 1. 2. If 3 gm of glucose (mol. wt. 180) is dissolved in 60 gm of water at 15 o C . Then the osmotic pressure of this solution will be (a) 0.34 atm (b) 0.65 atm (c) 6.57 atm (d) 5.57 atm The concentration in gms per litre of a solution of cane sugar (M 342) which is isotonic with a solution containing 6 gms of 11. 12. urea (M 60) per litre is [Orissa PMT 1989] (a) 3.42 (c) 5.7 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. (b) 34.2 (d) 19 Osmotic pressure is 0.0821 atm at temperature of 300 K . Find concentration in mole/litre [Roorkee 1990] (a) 0.033 (b) 0.066 13. (c) 0.33 10 2 (d) 3 Osmotic pressure of a solution containing 0.1 mole of solute per litre at 273 K is (in atm) [CPMT 1988] (a) 0 .1 0 .08205 273 1 (b) 0.1 1 0.08205 273 (c) 1 0 .08205 273 0 .1 (d) 0.1 273 1 0 .08205 A solution contains non-volatile solute of molecular mass M p . Which of the following can be used to calculate molecular mass of the solute in terms of osmotic pressure (m = Mass of solute, V = Volume of solution and = Osmotic pressure) (a) m Mp VRT (b) m RT Mp V (c) m Mp V RT (d) m Mp RT V The osmotic pressure of a 5% (wt/vol) solution of cane sugar at 150 o C is [AMU 1999] (a) 2.45 atm (b) 5.078 atm (c) 3.4 atm (d) 4 atm The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g 15. 16. 8. 9. P1 P2 P3 (b) P3 P1 P2 (c) P2 P1 P3 (d) P2 P3 P1 0.60 mol / L (d) 0.45 mol / L A solution of sucrose(molar mass = 342 g/mol) is prepared by dissolving 68.4 g of it per litre of the solution, what is its osmotic pressure (R = 0.082 lit. atm. k 1 mol 1 ) at 273k (a) 6.02 atm (b) 4.92 atm (c) 4.04 atm (d) 5.32 atm Blood has been found to be isotonic with [CPMT 1994] [CBSE saline PMT 2002] (a) Normal solution (b) Saturated NaCl solution (c) Saturated KCl solution (d) Saturated solution of a 1 : 1 mixture of NaCl and KCl If 20 g of a solute was dissolved in 500 ml of water and osmotic pressure of the solution was found to be 600 mm of Hg at 15 o C, then molecular weight of the solute is [BHU 2004] 17. [CBSE PMT 1996] (a) The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37 o C . What is the concentration of an aqueous NaCl solution that could be used in the blood stream [AIIMS 2004] (a) 0.16 mol / L (b) 0.32 mol / L [UPSEAT 2001] glucose (P1 ),10 g urea (P2 ) and 10 g sucrose (P3 ) are dissolved in 250ml of water is Two solutions A and B are separated by semi- permeable membrane. If liquid flows form A to B then [MH CET 2000] (a) A is less concentrated than B (b) A is more concentrated than B (c) Both have same concentration (d) None these [MP of PMT 1986] A 5% solution of canesugar (mol. wt. =342) is isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X . The molecular weight of X is [ (a) 34.2 (b) 171.2 (c) 68.4 (d) 136.8 Which of the following colligative properties can provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or colloids) with greater precision[Kerala PMT 2004] (a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure (b) Elevation of boiling point (c) Depression in freezing point (d) Osmotic pressure (e) Rast's method (c) 14. 171 18. (a) 1000 (b) 1200 (c) 1400 (d) 1800 The osmotic pressure of 0.4% urea solution is 1.66 atm and. that of a solution of suger of 3.42 % is 2.46 atm. When both the solution are mixed then the osmotic pressure of the resultant solution will be[MP PMT 19 (a) 1.64 atm (b) 2.46 atm (c) 2.06 atm (d) 0.82 atm Blood is isotonic with [DCE 2000] (a) 0.16 M NaCl (b) Conc. NaCl (c) 50 % NaCl (d) 30 % NaCl Which inorganic precipitate acts as semipermeable membrane or The chemical composition of semipermeable membrane is[CPMT 1984, 90; MP PM (a) Calcium sulphate (b) Barium oxalate (c) Nickel phosphate (d) Copper ferrocyanide In osmosis [DPMT 1985] 19. (a) Solvent molecules move from higher concentration to lower concentration (b) Solvent molecules move from lower to higher concentration (c) Solute molecules move from higher to lower concentration 20. The osmotic pressure of 1 m solution at 27 o C is [CPMT 1999] (d) Solute molecules move from lower to higher concentration (a) 84,2.46 (b) 24.6 atm Semipermeable membrane is that which permits the passage of[BHU 1979; CPMT 1977, 90; atm MP PMT 1994] (c) 1.21 atm (d) 12.1 atm (a) Solute molecules only 21. Osmotic pressure of a solution can be measured quickly and (b) Solvent molecules only accurately by [JIPMER 1991; CPMT 1983] (c) Solute and solvent molecules both (a) Berkeley and Hartley's method (d) Neither solute nor solvent molecules 172 22. 23. Solution and Colligative properties (b) Morse's method (c) Pfeffer's method (d) De Vries method The solution in which the blood cells retain their normal form are with regard to the blood [CBSE PMT 1991] (a) Isotonic (b) Isomotic (c) Hypertonic (d) Equinormal The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the relation 33. 34. CPMT 1990; MP PMT 1999; AFMC 1999, 2001] [CPMT 1983, 84, 87, 93, 94] (a) 25. 26. RT C (b) P CT R 35. RC P (d) RT T C The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly proportional to (a) The molecular concentration of solute (b) The absolute temperature at a given concentration (c) The lowering of vapour pressure (d) All of the above What would happen if a thin slice of sugar beet is placed in a concentrated solution of NaCl [CMC Vellore 1986] (a) Sugar beet will lose water from its cells (b) Sugar beet will absorb water from solution (c) Sugar beet will neither absorb nor lose water (d) Sugar beet will dissolve in solution The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is given by (c) 24. P P 36. 27. P Po x (b) V nRT (c) P Po N 2 (d) 38. (d) Anhydrous sodium carbonate The molecular weight of NaCl determined by osmotic pressure method will be (a) Same as theoritical value (b) Higher than theoritical value (c) Lower than theoritical value (d) None of these The osmotic pressure of solution increases, if 39. (a) Temperature is decreased (b) Solution concentration is increased (c) Number of solute molecules is increased (d) Volume is increased At the same temperature, following solution will be isotonic 37. 29. 30. P 1 if T is constant V (b) P T if V is constant (c) P V if T is constant (d) PV is constant if T is constant Isotonic solutions have [DPMT 1984; MP PMT 1986] (a) Equal temperature (b) Equal osmotic pressure (c) Equal volume (d) Equal amount of solute Which of the following associated with isotonic solutions is not correct [AMU 2002] (a) They will have the same osmotic pressure (b) They have the same weight concentrations (c) Osmosis does not take place when the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane (d) They will have the same vapour pressure Isotonic solution have the same [EAMCET 1979; JIPMER 1991, 2002; AFMC 1995; MP PMT 2002] 31. (a) Density (b) Molar concentration (c) Normality (d) None of these A 0.6% solution of urea (molecular weight = 60) would be isotonic with [NCERT 1982; DCE 2002] (a) 0.1M glucose (c) 0.6% glucose solution 32. [CPMT 1985, 87, 91] Which statement is wrong regarding osmotic pressure (P), volume (V) and temperature (T) [MP PMT 1985] (a) 28. P Po P Po Po (b) 0.1M KCl (d) 0.6% KCl solution The value of osmotic pressure of a 0.2 M aqueous solution at 293K is [AMU 2002] (a) Hypertonic (b) Hypotonic (c) Normal (d) Isotonic At low concentrations, the statement that equimolal solutions under a given set of experimental conditions have equal osmotic pressure is true for [EAMCET 1979; BHU 1979] (a) All solutions (b) Solutions of non-electrolytes only (c) Solutions of electrolytes only (d) None of these Which one of the following would lose weight on exposure to atmosphere [NCERT 1975] (a) Concentrated H 2 SO 4 (b) Solid NaOH (c) A saturated solution of CO 2 [MP PMT 1987] (a) (a) 8.4 atm (b) 0.48atm (c) 4.8 atm (d) 4.0 atm Diffusion of solvent through a semi permeable membrane is called (a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Active absorption (d) Plasmolysis Solutions having the same osmotic pressure under a given set of conditions are known as [BHU 1979; EAMCET 1979; [MP PMT 1985] (a) 3.24 gm of sucrose per litre of water and 0.18 gm glucose per litre of water (b) 3.42 gm of sucrose per litre and 0.18 gm glucose in 0.1 litre water (c) 3.24 gm of sucrose per litre of water and 0.585 gm of sodium chloride per litre of water (d) 3.42 gm of sucrose per litre of water and 1.17 gm of sodium chloride per litre of water 40. 41. 42. The osmotic pressure of a decinormal solution of BaCl2 in water is (a) Inversely proportional to its celsius temperature (b) Inversely proportional to its absolute temperature (c) Directly proportional to its celsius temperature (d) Directly proportional to its absolute temperature Blood cells will remain as such in [CPMT 2004] (a) Hypertonic solution (b) Hypotonic solution (c) Isotonic solution (d) None of these The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is directly proportional to the [MP PMT 1987] (a) Diffusion rate of the solute (b) Ionic concentration (c) Elevation of B.P. Solution and Colligative properties 43. 44. 45. (d) Flow of solvent from a concentrated to a dilute solution The osmotic pressure in atmospheres of 10% solution of canesugar at 69 o C is [AFMC 1991] (a) 724 (b) 824 (c) 8.21 (d) 7.21 Which of the following molecules would diffuse through a cell membrane [NCERT 1978] (a) Fructose (b) Glycogen (c) Haemoglobin (d) Catalase 52. Two solutions of KNO 3 and CH 3 COOH are prepared separately. 54. [DCE 2001] 53. [CPMT 1983, 84; Pb CET 2004] 46. 47. 48. 49. P2 P1 (b) P1 P2 (c) P1 P2 (d) P1 P2 P1 P2 P1 P2 The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of a non-volatile solute is (a) Directly proportional to its temperature on the centigrade scale (b) Inversely proportional to its temperature on the Kelvin scale (c) Directly proportional to its temperature on the Kelvin scale (d) Inversely proportional to its temperature on the centigrade scale Osmotic pressure of a urea solution at 10 o C is 500 mm . Osmotic pressure of the solution become 105.3 mm. When it is diluted and temperature raised to 25 o C. The extent of dilution is (a) 6 Times (b) 5 Times (c) 7 Times (d) 4 Times If a 0.1M solution of glucose (mol. wt. 180) and 0.1 molar solution of urea (mol. wt. 60) are placed on the two sides of a semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say [CBSE PMT 1992] (a) There will be no net movement across the membrane (b) Glucose will flow across the membrane into urea solution (c) Urea will flow across the membrane into glucose solution (d) Water will flow from urea solution into glucose solution At constant temperature, the osmotic pressure of a solution [CPMT 1986] (a) (b) (c) (d) 50. (a) 51. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. Directly proportional to the concentration Inversely proportional to the concentration Directly proportional to the square of the concentration Directly proportional to the square root of the concentration The solution containing 4.0 gm of a polyvinyl chloride polymer in 1 litre of dioxane was found to have an osmotic pressure 6.0 10 4 atmosphere at 300 K , the value of R used is 0.082 litre atmosphere mole 1k 1 . The molecular mass of the polymer was found to be [NCERT 1978] 3.0 10 2 61. If osmotic pressure of a solution is 2 atm at 273 K , then at 1999] pressure is 546 K [JIPMER , the osmotic (a) 0.5 atm (b) 1 atm (c) 2 atm (d) 4 atm In osmosis reaction, the volume of solution (a) Decreases slowly (b) Increases slowly (c) Suddenly increases (d) No change As a result of osmosis the volume of solution [JIPMER 2000] (a) Increases (c) Decreases [MP PET 2004] (c) Remains constant (d) Increases or decreases A solution of urea contain 8.6 gm/litre (mol. wt. 60.0). It is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular weight of the solute will be [MP PMT 1986] (a) 348.9 (b) 34.89 (c) 3489 (d) 861.2 One mole each of urea, glucose and sodium chloride were dissolved in one litre of water Equal osmotic pressure will be produced by solutions of [MH CET 1999] (a) Glucose and sodium chloride (b) Urea and glucose (c) Sodium chloride and urea (d) None of these Which of the following aqueous solutions produce the same osmotic pressure [Roorkee 1999] (a) 0.1 M NaCl solution (b) 0.1 M glucose solution (c) 0.6 g urea in 100 ml solution (d) 1.0 g of a non-electrolyte solute (X) in 50 ml solution (Molar mass of X = 200) Which of the following aqueous solutions are isotonic (R 0.082 (a) [Roorkee Qualifying 1998] 0.01 M glucose (b) 0.01 M NaNO 3 (b) 1.6 10 5 (c) 500 ml solution containing 0 .3 g urea (d) 0.04 N HCl Elevation of boiling boint of the solvent [CPMT 1983; MP PMT 1987; RPET 2000; DCE 2004] (b) Electrophoresis (d) Osmosis If solubility of NaCl at 20 o C is 35 gm per 100 gm of water. Then on adding 50 gm of NaCl to the same volume at same temperature the salt remains undissolved is (a) 15 gm (b) 20 gm (c) 50 gm (d) 35 gm Which of the following associated with isotonic solution is not correct (a) They will have the same osmotic pressure (b) They have the same weight concentration (c) Osmosis does not take place when the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane (d) They will have the same vapour pressure atm K 1 mol 1 ) (c) 5.6 10 4 (d) 6.4 10 2 Solvent molecules pass through the semipermeable membrane is called (a) Electrolysis (c) Cataphoresis If molecular weight of compound is increased then sensitivity is decreased in which of the following methods (a) Elevation in boiling point(b) Viscosity (c) Osmosis (d) Dialysis Molarity of both is 0 .1 M and osmotic pressures are P1 and P2 respectively. The correct relationship between the osmotic pressures is (a) 173 1. The latent heat of vapourisation of water is 9700 Cal / mole and if the b.p. is 100 o C , ebullioscopic constant of water is 174 Solution and Colligative properties [CBSE PMT 1989] (a) (c) 2. 4. (b) 1.026 C o (d) 1.832 o C 0.513 C 10.26 C 100.52 o C If for a sucrose solution elevation in boiling point is 0.1°C then what will be the boiling point of NaCl solution for same molal concentration [BHU 1998, 2005] (a) 0.1°C (b) 0.2°C (c) 0.08°C (d) 0.01°C The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in B.P. to (a) Molarity (b) Molality (c) Mole fraction of solute (d) Mole fraction of solvent (c) 99.48 o C The rise in the boiling point of glucose in 100 g of a solvent constant of the liquid is (a) 0.01 K / m (d) 98.96 o C a solution containing 1.8 gram of in 0.1 o C . The molal elevation (b) 0.1 K / m (a) (c) (d) 10 K / m (c) 100.256 o C Value of gas constant R is 1K /m 12. If 0.15 g of a solute dissolved in 15 g of solvent is boiled at a The molal boiling point constant for water is 0.513 o C kg mol 1 . When 0.1 mole of sugar is dissolved in 200ml of water, the solution boils under a pressure of one atmosphere at [CPMT 1999] [CBSE PMT 1999; BHU 1997] 13. 100.513 o C (b) 100.0513 o C (d) 101.025 o C [AIEEE 2002] 1 (b) 0.987 cal mol K 1 (a) 0.082 litre atm 14. (a) 1.01 (b) 10 (c) 10.1 (d) 100 Pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because (c) 8.3 J mol 1 K 1 (d) 83 erg mol 1 K 1 The temperature, at which the vapour pressure of a liquid becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure is known as [Pb. PMT 2000] [MP PMT 1987; NCERT 1975; CPMT 1991; AIEEE 2003] (a) (b) (c) (d) 6. 11. (b) 101.04 o C temperature higher by 0.216 o C than that of the pure solvent. The molecular weight of the substance (molal elevation constant for the solvent is 2.16 o C ) is 5. 10. o The molal elevation constant of water 0.52 o C . The boiling point of 1.0 molal aqueous KCl solution (assuming complete dissociation of [BHU 1987] KCl ), therefore, should be (a) 3. o Heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space Boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased The higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material Cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature Which of the following statements is correct for the boiling point of solvent containing a dissolved solid substance 15. (a) Freezing point (b) Boiling point (c) Absolute temperature (d) None of these The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44g of CuCl in 1kg of water using the following information will be 2 (Molecular weight of CuCl = 134.4 and K = 0.52 K molal) 1 b 2 [IIT 2005] 16. [NCERT 1972, 74] (a) 0.16 (b) 0.05 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.2 When 10g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 100 g of benzene, it raises boiling point by 1o C then molecular mass of the solute is [BHU 2002] (K b for benzene =2.53k-m ) –1 7. 8. (a) Boiling point of the liquid is depressed (b) Boiling point of the liquid is elevated (c) There is no effect on the boiling point (d) The change depends upon the polarity of liquid When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure of solvent decreases. It brings [BHU 2004] (a) A decrease in boiling point of solution (b) An increase in boiling point of the solution (c) A decrease in freezing point of the solution (d) An increase in freezing point of the solution (a) 223 g (c) 243 g 17. (a) 18. [CPMT 1989] 19. If the solution boils at a temperature T1 and the solvent at a temperature T2 the elevation of boiling point is given by [MP PET 1996] (a) (c) T1 T2 (b) T1 T2 T2 T1 (d) T1 T2 (b) 100.5 C 100.75 C (c) 100.25 C (d) 100 o C When common salt is dissolved in water [CBSE PMT 1988; MP PET 1995; DCE 2000] of X is (K b for water is 0.52 per 1000 gm of water) 9. o o o compound X was dissolved in 100 gm of water. Molecular weight (b) 60 (d) 600 An aqueous solution containing 1g of urea boils at 100.25 o C . The aqueous solution containing 3 g of glucose in the same volume will boil at (Molecular weight of urea and glucose are 60 and 180 respectively) [CBSE PMT 2000] Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 o C when 6 gm of a (a) 120 (c) 180 (b) 233 g (d) 253 g 20. (a) Melting point of the solution increases (b) Boiling point of the solution increases (c) Boiling point of the solution decreases (d) Both melting point and boiling point decreases During the evaporation of liquid [DCE 2003] (a) The temperature of the liquid will rise (b) The temperature of the liquid will fall (c) May rise or fall depending on the nature (d) The temperature remains unaffected At higher altitudes the boiling point of water lowers because [NCERT 1972; CPMT 1994; J & K 2005] (a) Atmospheric pressure is low (b) Temperature is low Solution and Colligative properties 21. 22. 23. (c) Atmospheric pressure is high (d) None of these The elevation in boiling point for one molal solution of a solute in a solvent is called [MH CET 2001] (a) Boiling point constant (b) Molal elevation constant (c) Cryoscopic constant (d) None of these A solution of 1 molal concentration of a solute will have maximum boiling point elevation when the solvent is [MP PMT 2000] (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Acetone (c) Benzene (d) Chloroform Mark the correct relationship between the boiling points of very dilute solutions of BaCl2 (t1 ) and KCl (t 2 ) , having the same molarity [CPMT 1984, 93] (a) t1 t 2 (b) t1 t 2 (c) t2 t1 (d) t 2 is approximately equal to t1 7. 175 What is the freezing point of a solution containing 8.1 g HBr in 100 g water assuming the acid to be 90% ionised (K f for water 1.86 K mole 1 ) [BHU 1981; Pb CET 2004] 8. 9. (a) 0.85 C (b) 3.53 o C (c) 0o C (d) 0.35 o C o If K f value of H 2 O is 1.86. The value of T f for 0.1m solution of non-volatile solute is (a) 18.6 (b) 0.186 (c) 1.86 (d) 0.0186 1% solution of Ca(NO 3 )2 has freezing point [DPMT 1982, 83; CPMT 1977] (a) 10. o (b) Less than 0 o C 0 C (c) Greater than 0 o C (d) None of the above A solution of urea (mol. mass 56g mol ) boils at 100.18°C at the atmospheric pressure. If K f and K b for water are 1.86 and 0.512K kg mol respectively the above solution will freeze at [CBSE PMT 2005] (a) – 6.54°C (b) 6.54°C (c) 0.654°C (d) –0.654°C –1 –1 Depression of freezing point of the solvent 1. Molal depression constant for water is 1.86 o C . The freezing point of a 0.05 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in water is 11. 342 gm of canesugar (C12 H 22 O11 ) are dissolved in 1000 gm of water, the solution will freeze at [MNR 1990; MP PET 1997] (a) 2. 3. 4. 1.86 o C (b) [NCERT 1977; CPMT 1989; Roorkee 2000; DCE 2004] 0.93 o C (c) 0.093 o C (d) 0.93 o C The amount of urea to be dissolved in 500 ml of water (K =18.6 K mole 1 in 100g solvent) to produce a depression of 0.186 o C in freezing point is [MH CET 2000] (a) 9 g (b) 6 g (c) 3 g (d) 0.3 g The maximum freezing point falls in [MP PMT 1986] (a) Camphor (b) Naphthalene (c) Benzene (d) Water Which one of the following statements is FALSE 12. 6. 1.86 C (b) 1.86 o C (c) 3.92 C (d) o o 13. An aqueous solution of a non-electrolyte boils at 100.52 o C . The freezing point of the solution will be 0o C (b) (c) 1.86 C (d) None of the above The freezing point of one molal NaCl solution assuming NaCl to be 100% dissociated in water is (molal depression constant = 1.86) 1.86 C (b) 3.72o C (c) 1.86 o C Heavy water freezes at (d) 3.72o C (b) 3.8 o C (a) (b) The osmotic pressure ( ) of a solution is given by the equation MRT where M is the molarity of the solution. (c) Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its mole fraction. (d) Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing point depression. Solute when dissolved in water [MADT Bihar 1981] (a) Increases the vapour pressure of water (b) Decreases the boiling point of water (c) Decreases the freezing point of water (d) All of the above 15. (a) o 0o C [CPMT 1993] (c) 38 o C (d) 0.38 o C After adding a solute freezing point of solution decreases to – 0.186. Calculate Tb if K f 1.86 and Kb 0.521 . [Orissa JEE 2002, 04; MP PET/PMT 1998; AIEEE 2000] 16. (a) 0.521 (c) 1.86 Given that a solution T f lim m 0 m (b) 0.0521 (d) 0.0186 T f is the depression in freezing point of the solvent in of a non-volatile solute of molality m , the quantity is equal to [IIT 1994; UPSEAT 2001] The freezing point of a solution prepared from 1.25 gm of a non17. (a) Zero (b) One (c) Three (d) None of the above The freezing point of 1 percent solution of lead nitrate in water will be constant is 1.86 K mole 1 , then molar mass of the solute will be[AFMC 1998; CPMT 1999] (b) 106.7 (d) 93.9 1.86 o C [CPMT 1985; BHU 1981; MP PMT 1997; UPSEAT 2001] 14. (a) 105.7 (c) 115.3 2.42o C o (a) The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 KCl CH 3 COOH sucrose. electrolyte and 20 gm of water is 271.9 K . If molar depression (a) (a) [AIEEE 2004] 5. The molar freezing point constant for water is 1.86 o C mole 1 . If [NCERT 1971, 72; CPMT 1972; JIPMER 1991] o (a) Below 0 C (b) 0 o C 176 18. 19. 20. Solution and Colligative properties (c) 1o C (d) 2 o C What is the effect of the addition of sugar on the boiling and freezing points of water [Kerala CET (Med.) 2003] (a) Both boiling point and freezing point increases (b) Both boiling point and freezing point decreases (c) Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases (d) Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases During depression of freezing point in a solution the following are in equilibrium [IIT Screening 2003] (a) Liquid solvent, solid solvent (b) Liquid solvent, solid solute (c) Liquid solute, solid solute (d) Liquid solute solid solvent 1.00 gm of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 gm of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene by 0.40 K. K f for benzene is 5.12 kg mol . Molecular mass of the solute will be [DPMT 2004] Colligative properties of electrolyte 1. [NCERT 1975; CPMT 1977; JIPMER 2001] 2. 3. –1 21. 23. 256 g mol 1 (b) 2.56 g mol 1 (c) 512 10 3 g mol 1 (d) 2.56 10 4 g mol 1 0.440 g of a substance dissolved in 22.2 g of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene by 0.567 o C . The molecular mass of the [BHU 2001; CPMT 2001] (a) 178.9 (b) 177.8 (c) 176.7 (d) 175.6 Which of the following aqueous molal solution have highest freezing point [UPSEAT 2000, 01, 02; MNR 1988] (a) Urea (b) Barium chloride (c) Potassium bromide (d) Aluminium sulphate Which will show maximum depression in freezing point when concentration is 0.1M [IIT 1989; MNR 1990; UPSEAT 2000; 03; BCECE 2005] 24. (a) NaCl (b) Urea (c) Glucose (d) 25. K 2 SO 4 The freezing point of a 0.01M aqueous glucose solution at 1 atmosphere is 0.18 o C . To it, an addition of equal volume of 0.002 M glucose solution will; produce a solution with freezing point of nearly [AMU 1999] (a) 0.036 o C (b) 0.108 o C (c) 0.216 o C (d) 0.422 o C What should be the freezing point of aqueous solution containing 17 gm of C 2 H 5 OH in 1000 gm of water (water K f = 1.86 deg kg mol 1 (a) 26. 27. 0.69 C o [MP PMT 1986] (b) 0.34 C o (a) AgNO3 (b) MgCl2 (c) (NH 4 )3 PO4 (d) Na 2 SO 4 Which of the following solution in water possesses the lowest vapour pressure [BHU 1996] (a) 0.1 (M) NaCl (b) 0.1 (N ) BaCl2 (c) 0.1 (M) KCl (d) None of these Which of the following solutions in water will have the lowest vapour pressure [Roorkee 2000] (a) 0.1 M, NaCl (b) 0.1 M, Sucrose (c) 0.1 M, BaCl2 (a) substance (K f 5.12 o C mol 1 ) 22. If O.P. of 1 M of the following in water can be measured, which one will show the maximum O.P. 4. (d) 0.1 M Na 3 PO4 The vapour pressure will be lowest for [CPMT 2004] (a) 0.1 M sugar solution (b) 0.1 M KCl solution (c) 0.1 M Cu (NO 3 )2 solution 5. (d) 0.1 M AgNO3 solution Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of NaCl and be [AFMC 1978] (a) Same (b) Osmotic pressure of NaCl Na 2 SO 4 solution Na 2 SO 4 will solution will be more than (c) Osmotic pressure of Na 2 SO 4 solution will be more than NaCl 6. (d) Osmotic pressure of NaSO 4 will be less than that of NaCl solution Which of the following solutions has highest osmotic pressure (a) 7. (b) 1 M urea 1 M NaCl (c) 1 M sucrose (d) 1 M glucose Which one has the highest osmotic pressure [CBSE PMT 1991; DPMT 1991; MP PET 1994] 8. (a) M / 10 HCl (b) M / 10 urea (c) M / 10 BaCl2 (d) M / 10 glucose In equimolar solution of glucose, NaCl and BaCl2 , the order of osmotic pressure is as follow [CPMT 1988, 93; MP PMT/PET 1988; MP PET 1997, 2003] (a) Glucose NaCl BaCl2 (b) NaCl BaCl2 Glucose (c) BaCl2 NaCl Glucose (c) 0.0 o C (d) 0.34 o C (d) Glucose BaCl2 NaCl In the depression of freezing point experiment, it is found that the[IIT 1999] 9. The osmotic pressure of which solution is maximum (consider that (a) Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure deci-molar solution of each 90% dissociated) solvent [MP PMT 2003] (b) Vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure (a) Aluminium sulphate solvent (b) Barium chloride (c) Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point (c) Sodium sulphate (d) Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point (d) A mixture of equal volumes of (b) and (c) Calculate the molal depression constant of a solvent which has 10. At 25 o C , the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1M freezing point 16.6 o C and latent heat of fusion 180.75 Jg 1 .[Orissa JEE 2005] solution of [CBSE PMT 1994; AIIMS 2000] (a) 2.68 (b) 3.86 (a) CaCl 2 (b) KCl (c) 4.68 (d) 2.86t6 (c) Glucose (d) Urea Solution and Colligative properties 11. 12. (a) (c) (c) Glucose AlCl3 KNO 3 (d) AlCl3 Glucose KNO 3 14. Which one of the following would produce maximum elevation in boiling point (c) 16. 17. 18. 19. 23. [BHU 1982; MP PMT 1987, MP PET/PMT 1988] 0.01 M Na 2 SO 4 (b) 0.01 M KNO 3 (c) (d) 0.015 M glucose 25. (d) 0.1M magnesium sulphate Which of the following has the lowest freezing point 26. (a) 0.1 m sucrose (b) 0.1 m urea (c) 0.1 m ethanol (d) 0.1 m glucose Which of the following has minimum freezing point Which of the following aqueous solutions containing 10 gm of solute in each case has highest B.P. (a) NaCl solution (b) KCl solution (c) Sugar solution (d) Glucose solution 0.01 molar solutions of glucose, phenol and potassium chloride were prepared in water. The boiling points of (a) Glucose solution = Phenol solution = Potassium chloride solution (b) Potassium chloride solution > Glucose solution > Phenol solution (c) Phenol solution > Potassium chloride solution > Glucose solution (d) Potassium chloride solution > Phenol solution > Glucose solution Which one has the highest boiling point [CBSE PMT 1990] (a) 0.1 N Na 2 SO 4 (b) 0.1 N MgSO4 [Pb. PMT 1999] (a) 21. (a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 2 : 3 Which has the minimum freezing point (a) One molal NaCl solution (b) One molal KCl solution (c) One molal CaCl 2 solution (d) One molal urea solution Which of the following has lowest freezing point 27. 28. 29. 22. (d) 0.1 M Al2 (SO 4 )3 (a) Al2 (SO 4 )3 (b) C 5 H 10 O5 (c) KI (d) C12 H 22 O11 For 0.1 M solution, the colligative property will follow the order (a) NaCl Na 2 SO 4 Na 3 PO4 (b) NaCl Na 2 SO 4 Na 3 PO4 [AMU2001] (c) NaCl Na 2 SO 4 Na 3 PO4 (d) NaCl Na 2 SO 4 Na 3 PO4 Which of the following will have the lowest vapour pressure 0.1M KCl solution (b) 0.1M urea solution (c) 0.1M Na 2 SO 4 solution [CPMT 1991] (d) 0.1M K 4 Fe(CN )6 solution Abnormal molecular mass 1. 0 .1 M aqueous solution of glucose 2. (b) 0 .1 M aqueous solution of NaCl (c) (b) 0.1 M NH 4 Cl Which of the following 0.10 m aqueous solution will have the lowest freezing point [CBSE PMT 1997] (a) [NCERT 1981] (a) 0.1M K 2 Cr2 O7 (c) 0.1 M BaSO 4 (c) 0.1M Al2 (SO 4 )3 (d) 0.1M BaSO4 Which of the following solutions boils at the highest temperature (a) 0.1 M glucose (b) 0.1 M NaCl (c) 0.1 M BaCl2 (d) 0.1 M Urea 0.01M solution each of urea, common salt and Na 2 SO 4 are taken, the ratio of depression of freezing point is 0.1M barium chloride [UPSEAT 2004] [Roorkee 1990] 20. Which of the following will have the highest F.P. at one atmosphere (a) 0.1 M glucose (a) 0.1M NaCl solution (b) 0.1M sugar solution (b) 0.2 M sucrose (c) 0.1 M barium chloride (c) 0.1M BaCl2 solution (d) 0.1M FeCl3 solution (d) 0.1 M magnesium sulphate 24. CPMT Which Which of the following solutions will have the highest boiling point[DPMT 1991; 1991] of the following will produce the maximum depression in freezing point of its aqueous solution (a) 1% glucose (b) 1% sucrose [MP PMT 1996] (c) 1% NaCl (d) 1% CaCl 2 (a) 0.1M glucose Which one of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit highest (b) 0.1M sodium chloride boiling point [AIEEE 2004] (a) 0.015 M urea 15. (b) Glucose KNO 3 AlCl3 (d) 0.1M glucose [MP PMT 1985; CPMT 1990; NCERT 1982] 13. AlCl3 KNO 3 Glucose Which of the following will have the highest boiling point at 1 atm pressure [MP PET/PMT 1998] (a) 0.1 M NaCl (b) 0.1M sucrose 0.1M BaCl2 177 The Van't Hoff factor will be highest for (a) Sodium chloride (b) Magnesium chloride (c) Sodium phosphate (d) Urea Which of the following salt has the same value of Van't Hoff factor i as that of K 3 [Fe(CN )6 ] [CBSE PMT 1994; AIIMS 1998] 0 .1M aqueous solution of ZnSO 4 (d) 0 .1 M aqueous solution of urea (a) Al2 (SO 4 )3 (b) NaCl The freezing points of equimolar solutions of glucose, KNO 3 and (c) Na 2 SO 4 (d) Al(NO 3 )3 AlCl3 are in the order of [AMU 2000] 3. When benzoic acid dissolve in benzene, the observed molecular mass is 178 Solution and Colligative properties (a) 244 (c) 366 (b) 61 (d) 122 14. 4. The ratio of the value of any colligative property for KCl solution to that for sugar solution is nearly [MP PMT 1985] (a) 1 (b) 0.5 (c) 2.0 (d) 3 5. Van't Hoff factor of Ca(NO 3 )2 is (a) 1 (c) 3 6. [CPMT 1997] (b) 2 (d) 4 [CET Pune 1998] 15. Dry air was passed successively through a solution of 5 gm of a solute in 80 gm of water and then through pure water. The loss in weight of solution was 2.50 gm and that of pure solvent 16. 0.04 gm . What is the molecular weight of the solute [MP PMT 1986] 7. 8. (a) 70.31 (b) 7.143 (c) 714.3 (d) 80 The Van’t Hoff factor calculated from association data is always...than calculated from dissociation data [JIPMER 2000] (a) Less (b) More (c) Same (d) More or less (a) 1 (c) 9. 1 2 18. (b) (d) 1 2 19. Van't Hoff factor i (a) Normal molecular mass Observed molecular mass Observed molecular mass Normal molecular mass (c) Less than one in case of dissociation (d) More than one in case of association Which of the following compounds corresponds Van't Hoff factor ' i' to be equal to 2 for dilute solution [NCERT 1978] (a) K 2 SO 4 (b) NaHSO 4 (b) 10. 17. If is the degree of dissociation of Na 2 SO 4 , the Vant Hoff's factor (i) used for calculating the molecular mass is [AIEEE 2005] (c) Sugar (d) MgSO4 1. 11. The Van't Hoff factor i for a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of urea is (a) 0.2 (b) 0.1 (c) 1.2 (d) 1.0 12. One mole of a solute A is dissolved in a given volume of a solvent. The association of the solute take place according to nA ⇄ ( A)n . 2. The Van't Hoff factor i is expressed as [MP PMT 1997] (a) (c) 13. x (b) i 1 n i 1 x i 1 x x n 3. (d) i 1 1 Acetic acid dissolved in benzene shows a molecular weight of (a) 60 (b) 120 (c) 180 (d) 240 The observed osmotic pressure of a solution of benzoic acid in benzene is less than its expected value because (a) Benzene is a non-polar solvent (b) Benzoic acid molecules are associated in benzene (c) Benzoic acid molecules are dissociated in benzene (d) Benzoic acid is an organic compound The experimental molecular weight of an electrolyte will always be less than its calculated value because the value of Van't Hoff factor “i” is [MP PMT 1993] (a) Less than 1 (b) Greater than 1 (c) Equivalent to one (d) Zero The molecular mass of acetic acid dissolved in water is 60 and when dissolved in benzene it is 120.This difference in behaviour of [AMU 2000] CH 3 COOH is because (a) Water prevents association of acetic acid (b) Acetic acid does not fully dissolve in water (c) Acetic acid fully dissolves in benzene (d) Acetic acid does not ionize in benzene The correct relationship between the boiling points of very dilute solutions of AlCl3 (t1 ) and CaCl 2 (t 2 ) , having the same molar concentration is [CPMT 1983] (a) t1 t 2 (b) t1 t 2 (c) t 2 t1 (d) t 2 t1 The Van't Hoff factor for sodium phosphate would be (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene as determined by depression in freezing point method corresponds to (a) Ionization of benzoic acid (b) Dimerization of benzoic acid (c) Trimerization of benzoic acid (d) Solvation of benzoic acid On adding solute to a solvent having vapour pressure 0.80 atm, vapour pressure reduces to 0.60 atm. Mole fraction of solute is (a) 0.25 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.33 A solution containing 30 gms of non-volatile solute in exactly 90 gm water has a vapour pressure of 21.85 mm Hg at 25 o C . Further 18 gms of water is then added to the solution. The resulting solution has a vapour pressure of 22.15 mm Hg at 25 o C . Calculate the molecular weight of the solute [UPSEAT 2001] (a) 74.2 (b) 75.6 (c) 67.83 (d) 78.7 Vapour pressure of a solution of 5 g of non- electrolyte in 100 g of water at a particular temperature is 2985 N / m 2 . The vapour pressure of pure water is 3000 N / m 2 . The molecular weight of the solute is [IIT Screening 1993] (a) 60 (b) 120 (c) 180 (d) 380 [MP PET 1993, 02] Solution and Colligative properties 4. Azeotropic mixture of HCl and water has 14. An aqueous solution of a weak monobasic acid containing 0.1 g in 21.7g of water freezes at 272.813 K. If the value of K f for water is 1.86 K/m, what is the molecular mass of the monobasic acid [AMU 2002] (a) 50 g/mole (b) 46 g/mole (c) 55 g/mole (d) 60 g/mole 15. K f of 1,4-dioxane is 4.9 mol 1 for 1000 g. The depression in freezing point for a 0.001 m solution in dioxane is [AFMC 1997; JIPMER 2002] (a) 84% HCl (c) 63% HCl 5. (b) 22.2% HCl (d) 20.2% HCl The osmotic pressure at 17 o C of an aqueous solution containing 1.75 g of sucrose per 150 ml solution is [BHU 2001] 6. (a) 0.8 atm (b) 0.08 atm (c) 8.1 atm (d) 9.1 atm A 1.2 of solution of NaCl is isotonic with 7.2 of solution of glucose. Calculate the van’t Hoff’s factor of NaCl solution [DPMT 2001] 16. 7. [EAMCET 1998] (b) 1.50 (d) 1.00 0 .6 g of a solute is dissolved in 0.1 litre of a solvent which 17. develops an osmotic pressure of 1.23 atm at 27 o C . The molecular mass of the substance is [BHU 1990] 8. 9. (a) 149.5 g mole 1 (b) 120 g mole 1 (c) 430 g mole 1 (d) None of these The boiling point of a solution of 0.1050 gm of a substance in 15.84 gram of ether was found to be 100 o C higher than that of pure ether. What is the molecular weight of the substance [Molecular elevation constant of ether per 100 g = 21.6] (a) 144.50 (b) 143.18 (c) 140.28 (d) 146.66 Boiling point of chloroform was raised by 0.323 K, when 0.5143 g of anthracene was dissolved in 35 g of chloroform. Molecular mass of anthracene is ( K b for CHCl 3 = 3.9 kg mol ) [Pb PMT 2000] (a) 79.42 g/mol (b) 132.32 g/mol (c) 177.42 g/mol (d) 242.32 g/mol –1 10. The boiling point of water ( 100 o C ) becomes 100.52 o C , if 3 grams of a nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 200ml of water. The molecular weight of solute is ( K b for water is 0.6 K m ) [AIIMS 1998] (a) 12.2 g mol 1 12. [CPMT 2001] 13. 0.31o C Same as that of 2 solution Nearly one-fifth of the 2 solution Double that of 2 solution Nearly five times that of 2 solution nd nd nd nd [UPSEAT 2001] Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below : (a) (c) (d) (e) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. If assertion is true but reason is false. If the assertion and reason both are false. If assertion is false but reason is true. 1. Assertion : One molal aqueous solution of urea contains 60 g of urea in 1kg (1000 g) water. Reason : Solution containing one mole of solute in 1000 g solvent is called as one molal solution. Assertion : If 100 cc of 0.1 N HCl is mixed with 100 cc of (b) (b) 15.4 g mol (c) 17.3 g mol (d) 20.4 g mol Normal boiling point of water is 373 K (at 760mm). Vapour pressure of water at 298 K is 23 mm. If the enthalpy of evaporation is 40.656 kJ/mole, the boiling point of water at 23 mm pressure will be [CBSE PMT 1995] (a) 250 K (b) 294 K (c) 51.6 K (d) 12.5 K A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. The freezing point of this solution is (Given K f 1.86 o C / m for water) [IIT 1995] (a) (a) 22.4 (b) 2.24 (c) 0.224 (d) 5.6 A solution is obtained by dissolving 12 g of urea (mol.wt.60) in a litre of water. Another solution is obtained by dissolving 68.4 g of cane sugar (mol.wt. 342) in a litre of water at are the same temperature. The lowering of vapour pressure in the first solution is (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 11. (a) 0.0049 (b) 4.9 + 0.001 (c) 4.9 (d) 0.49 How many litres of CO 2 at STP will be formed when 100ml of 0.1 M H 2 SO 4 reacts with excess of Na 2 SO 3 [UPSEAT 2001] (a) 2.36 (c) 1.95 (b) 2. 0.2 N HCl , the normality of the final solution will be 0.30. 3. 0.45 o C (c) 0.53 o C (d) 0.90 o C A 0.001 molal solution of [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl 4 ] in water had a freezing point depression of 0.0054 o C . If K f for water is 1.80, the correct formulation for the above molecule is 4. Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : [Kerala CET (Med.) 2003] (a) [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl 3 ] Cl (b) [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl] Cl2 (c) [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl 3 (d) [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl 4 ] 179 Normalities of similar solutions like HCl can be added. If a liquid solute more volatile than the solvent is added to the solvent, the vapour pressure of the solution may increase i.e., p s p o . In the presence of a more volatile liquid solute, only the solute will form the vapours and solvent will not. Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by nonideal solutions and they may have boiling points either greater than both the components or less than both the components. The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid phase of an azeotropic mixutre. 180 Solution and Colligative properties 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason Assertion : : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion Reason Assertion : : : Reason Assertion Reason : : : Molecular mass of polymers cannot be calculated using boiling point or freezing point method. Polymers solutions do not possess a constant boiling point or freezing point. The molecular weight of acetic acid determined by depression in freezing point method in benzene and water was found to be different. Water is polar and benzene is non-polar. 20. Assertion : Reason : Assertion : CCl 4 and H 2 O are immiscible. Reason : CCl 4 is a polar solvent. Assertion : Reason : Isotonic solution do not show the phenomenon of osmosis. Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure. [AIIMS 2002] [AIIMS 2002] Increasing pressure on pure water decreases its freezing point. Density of water is maximum at 273 K. [AIIMS 2003] Ca and K ions are responsible for maintaining proper osmotic pressure balance in the cells of organism. Solutions having the same osmotic pressure are called isotonic solutions. Reverse osmosis is used in the desalination of sea 1 d water. 6 c When pressure more than osmotic pressure is applied, pure water is squeezed out of the sea water through the membrane. Method Camphor is used as solvent in the determination of molecular masses of naphthalene, anthracene 1 c etc. 6 b Camphor has high molal elevation constant. Elevation in boiling point and depression in 11 a freezing point are colligative properties. 16 c All colligative properties are used for the calculaltion of molecular masses. 21 c An increase in surface area increases the rate of 26 d evaporation. 31 a Stronger the inter-molecular attractive forces, fast is the rate of evaporation at a given 36 b temperature. [AIIMS 2002] 41 c The boiling and melting points of amides are higher than corresponding acids. 46 ac It is due to strong intermolecular hydrogen 51 c bonding in their molecules. [AIIMS 2002] The freezing point is the temperature at which 56 d solid crystallizers from solution. 61 d The freezing point depression is the difference between that temperature and freezing point of 66 a pure solvent. [AIIMS 2000] 71 d On adding NaCl to water its vapour pressure 76 c increases. Addition of non-volatile solute increases the 81 d vapour pressure. [AIIMS 1996] 86 d Molar heat of vaporisation of water is greater than benzene. 91 a Molar heat of vaporisation is the amount of heat 96 a required to vaporise one mole of liquid at constant temperature. [AIIMS 1996] 101 c Ice melts faster at high altitude. 106 b At high altitude atmospheric pressure is high. [AIIMS 1997] 111 d Molecular mass of benzoic acid when determined by colligative properties is found high. 116 a Dimerisation of benzoic acid. [AIIMS 1998] 121 b Use of pressure cooker reduces cooking time. 126 c At higher pressue cooking occurs faster. [AIIMS 2000] 19. 21. Solubility 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 d of expressing concentration of solution 2 d 3 d 4 e 5 b 7 a 8 d 9 d 10 b 12 b 13 a 14 a 15 b 17 b 18 e 19 b 20 b 22 c 23 c 24 b 25 c 27 d 28 c 29 a 30 c 32 c 33 d 34 a 35 d 37 b 38 b 39 b 40 c 42 b 43 c 44 c 45 a 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 c 52 b 53 d 54 b 55 b 57 b 58 b 59 c 60 a 62 a 63 a 64 b 65 a 67 c 68 c 69 a 70 d 72 c 73 c 74 b 75 b 77 a 78 b 79 c 80 b 82 b 83 b 84 b 85 d 87 d 88 e 89 b 90 b 92 d 93 a 94 c 95 a 97 c 98 d 99 b 100 d 102 d 103 d 104 c 105 d 107 a 108 b 109 d 110 a 112 b 113 c 114 c 115 b 117 b 118 c 119 c 120 d 122 c 123 b 124 a 125 c 127 c 128 c 129 a 130 b 131 a 132 c 133 c 134 c 135 c 136 c 137 c 138 b 139 a 140 b 141 d 142 c 143 b 144 a Colligative properties Solution and Colligative properties 181 1 a 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 c 11 b 12 c 13 c 14 b 15 a 6 a 7 b 8 a 9 c 10 a 16 d 17 c 18 b 19 b 20 a 21 b 22 c 23 b 11 ac Depression of freezing point of the solvent Lowering of vapour pressure 1 a 2 b 3 b 4 d 5 b 1 c 2 c 3 a 4 d 5 c 6 a 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 b 6 a 7 b 8 b 9 b 10 d 11 a 12 b 13 b 14 c 15 d 16 a 17 b 18 d 19 b 20 b 11 a 12 b 13 b 14 b 15 b 21 a 22 a 23 b 24 b 25 b 16 d 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 a 26 d 27 a 28 c 29 b 30 d 21 a 22 a 23 d 24 c 25 a 31 c 32 a 33 c 34 a 35 c 26 ad 27 b 36 b 37 c 38 a 39 b 40 b 41 a 42 b 43 d 44 c Colligative properties of electrolyte Ideal and Non-ideal solution 1 c 2 b 3 d 4 c 5 c 6 a 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 a 1 b 2 d 3 b 4 b 5 d 6 a 7 d 8 d 9 c 10 b 11 c 12 c 13 d 14 c 15 a 11 a 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 d 16 d 17 c 18 b 19 c 20 c 16 b 17 d 18 b 19 a 20 d 21 b 22 a 23 b 24 c 25 c 21 c 22 a 23 d 24 d 25 a 26 d 27 a 28 b 29 d 26 b 27 a 28 c 29 a 30 a Abnormal molecular mass Azeotropic mixture 1 d 2 c 3 d 4 a 5 b Osmosis and Osmotic pressure of the solution 1 c 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 c 6 a 7 a 8 c 9 a 10 d 11 d 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 b 16 b 17 b 18 d 19 b 1 c 2 b 3 c 4 a 5 b 6 b 7 c 8 b 9 b 10 a 11 c 12 d 13 b 14 b 15 a 16 b 17 c 18 a 19 d 20 b 21 a 22 a 23 d 24 d 25 a 1 a 2 c 3 c 4 d 5 a 26 b 27 c 28 b 29 b 30 b 6 c 7 b 8 b 9 c 10 c 31 a 32 c 33 b 34 d 35 b 11 b 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 a 36 c 37 c 38 c 39 b 40 d 41 c 42 b 43 c 44 a 45 c 16 c 17 a 46 c 47 b 48 a 49 a 50 b 51 d 52 d 53 a 54 b 55 d 56 b 57 d 58 a 59 b 60 bcd 61 ac Elevation of boiling point of the solvent 1 a 2 b 3 c 4 d 5 b 6 b 7 b 8 b 9 b 10 b Critical Thinking Questions Assertion & Reason 1 a 2 e 3 c 4 b 5 c 6 a 7 d 8 a 9 c 10 b 11 c 12 a 13 b 14 d 15 b 16 d 17 a 18 a 19 c 20 b 21 c 182 Solution and Colligative properties Mole fraction of water Method of expressing concentration of solution 1. (c) M1 V1 M 2 V2 MV 2. (d) M 3. (d) N 1 V1 N 2 V2 w w ; 0 .25 ; w 6.625 gm m V (l) 106 0 .25 2 1 N 2 6 N 2 0.33 4. (e) 5.85 g NaCl = 90 g H 2 O 5 .85 mole 0 .1 mol 58.5 90 moles 5 moles 18 mole fraction of NaCl = M 0.1 0 .0196 . 5 0 .1 n 0 .006 0 .06 V (l) 0 .1 5. (b) 6. (b) M 7. (a) 8. (d) Basicity of H 3 PO3 is 2. W 1000 9.8 1000 0.05 M mol. mass Volume in ml. 98 2000 M W 1000 5 1000 0.5 M m.wt . Volume in ml. 40 250 Hence 0.3 M H 3 PO3 0.6 N . 9. 11. (d) 2 gm. Hydrogen has maximum number of molecules than others. (a) M1V1 M 2 V2 0.01 19.85 M 2 20 M 2 0.009925 ; M 0.0099 . 12. (b) 1500 cm 3 of 0.1 N HCl have number of gm equivalence N V1 1500 0 .1 1 0.15 1000 1000 0.15 gm. equivalent of NaOH 0.15 40 6 gm. M w 5 .85 0.2 M m. wt . volume in litre 58.5 0 .5 13. (a) 14. (a) Molecular weight of C 2 H 5 OH 24 5 16 1 46 Molecular mass of H 2 O 18 414g of C 2 H 5 OH has 18g of H 2O has 414 9 mole 46 18 1 mole 18 n1 1 1 0 .1 n1 n 2 1 9 10 Solution and Colligative properties 15. (b) 17 gm NH 3 = 1 mole. 39. (b) Mole fraction of solute 40. (c) N 17. 6 .02 10 23 4 .25 1 .5 10 23 17 (b) (2.5 1 3 0.5) M 3 5.5 41. (c) M1 V1 M 2 V2 M 3 V3 ; 20. 4 0 .73 M. 5 .5 (b) Normality of 2.3 M H 2 SO 4 M Valency 21. 2. 3 2 4. 6 N N 1 V1 N 2 V2 , 36 50 N 2 100 Molecules of NH 3 or 2.5 1.5 M 3 5.5 or M 3 (c) N2 36 50 18 ; 18 N H 2 SO 4 9 M H 2 SO 4 . 100 (c) Molarity 23. (c) N 1 V1 N 2 V2 NV (b) [H 3 O ] 2 0.02 0.04 M 25. 26. 2 litre solution contains 0.08 mole of H 3 O . (c) 10 litre of urea solution contains 240 gm of urea 240 Active mass 0.4 . 60 10 (d) NV N 1 V1 N 2 V2 N 3 V3 or, 1000 N 1 5 27. 29. 1 1 1 . 20 30 or N 2 3 40 N eq .wt . V (ml ) 0.05 49.04 100 0.2452. 1000 1000 (a) For HCl M N 0.1 N 1 V1 N 2 V2 ; 25 N 1 0.1 35 2.0 (a) Molarity 31. (a) M w w ; 0 .52 ; w 2.84 gm m V (l) 36.5 0 .15 32. (c) M n n ; 0.5 ; n 1 V (l) 2 33. (d) N W 828 w 36 18, n 2 M 46 m 18 x H 2O n 2 2 0 .1 2 18 20 nN 34. (a) w 1000 98 N , E 32.6 E volume in ml. 3 N 4 .9 1000 0.3 N . 32.6 500 % 10 d 22 10 1.253 0 .805 M . 342 GMM Normality Molality 46. % 10 d 22 10 1 .253 4 .83 N 342 / 6 GEM 22 1000 0 .825m 342(100 22) (a) 100 ml. of 0.30M 100 0 .3 0 .03 mole of NaCl 1000 100 ml of 0.40M 100 0 .4 0 .04 mole of NaCl 1000 Moles of NaCl to be added 0.04 0.03 0.01 mole = 0.585 gm 6 1000 1 .5 N 40 100 It is show highest normality than others. N 47. (c) 48. (b) 50. (c) Strength of H 2 SO 4 98 19.8 g / litre M n 0.1 V 125 ml . 0 .8 V (l) V (l) S eq . wt . N ; N 51. (c) W 1000 55.55 M 18 x Solute = 53. n 1 = 0.018. n N 1 55.55 (d) Normality of acid = molarity basicity i.e., 0.2=molarity 2 Molarity = 0.2/2 = 0.1 55. (b) Mole fraction of H 2 O = 59. (d) Volume strength 60. (a) 61. S 98 19.8 39.6 eq . wt . 49 W 1000 gm (H 2 O) ; n 1 mole N 0.5 Volume of solutionin litre Volume of solution in litre 0 .5 0.250litre 250 ml. 2 .0 18 1000 0 .2 m 180 500 45. N1 30. m (c) (d) W 0 .1 35 0.1 35 ; M 0 .07 . 25 25 2 (c) We know that Number of moles of solute Molarity Volume of solutionin litre w 1000 4 1000 1.0 N . m.wt . Volume in ml 40 100 44. 4 x 10(1 x ) 6 1 ; 6 x 4 ; x 0.66 24. 20 0 .25 . 80 1.5 480 1.2 520 M 1000 720 624 1.344 M . M 1000 w 171 0.5 M . m.wt. volume in litre 342 1 22. 185 80 18 80 20 18 34 = 68 . 77 1 .5 100 8 .82. 17 w ; w n m 0.25 98 24.5 gm m 20 2 Mole 2. (d) Molar concentration [H 2 ] V in litre 5 n 186 62. Solution and Colligative properties (a) Amount of added AgNO3 in 60 ml of solution 84. (b) An increases in temperature increase the volume of the solution and thus decreases its molarity. 85. (d) 10 3 parts of CaCO 3 has number of parts = 10 60 0.03 1.8 g 63. (a) w w N 0 .1 w 1 gm E V (l) 100 0.1 64. (b) N 65. (a) 20 0.4 40 N or N 0 .2 or M 69. (a) M 72. (c) M.eq. of HCl = M.eq. of CaCO 3 w w 0 .1 w 1 gm E V (l) 40 0 .25 0.2 0.1 M . 2 1 1 1000 1000 ; N 0.4 N 50 50 50 molality 86. (c) 74. (b) Molarity of H 2 SO 4 0.5 87. w 3.65 W 16.2 0.1, N 0 .9 m 36.5 M 18 X 0.1 0 .1 . 0.1 0.9 (d) 10% glucose solution means 10 g Hence 1 mole will be present in 88. (e) For methyl alcohol N = M. N1V1 N 2 V2 89. (b) Mole fraction of glucose = 1 0 .1 N . 10 = (c) The density of solution 1.8 gm / ml Weight of H 2 SO 4 in the solution 90. 1620 100 9 .18 98 180 (a) Suppose the total volume of water = x 91. 92. 100cm 0.5 N x 0.1 N 100 0.5 x 500cm 3 0 .1 Therefore the volume of water added 0 .25 25 0.0125 . 500 78. (b) 79. wt . of the solute(g) 100 (c) % by wt . wt . of the solutiong 80. 81. (d) Molality (m ) 82. (b) w 1000 14.05 . mW N 1 V1 N 2 V2 93. 94. 95. 10 3 1000 0 .01 M . 100 w 13.5 0 .1 . m 135 (d) 1000 ml of 1 N oxalic solution = 63 g 500 ml of 0.2 N oxalic acid solution 63 = 500 0.2 6 .3 g . 1000 7 .8 1 78 . (a) Mole fraction at C 6 H 6 7 .8 46 6 78 92 nH 2 O (c) X H 2 O n H 2 O nC 2 H 5 OH nCH 3 COOH (a) M1V1 M 2 V2 i.e. 5 1 M 2 10 M 2 0.5 Normality of the solution 0.5 0 .25. 2 96. (a) M 1 1000 w 1000 0 .1 M . m Volume in ml. 40 250 98. (d) N w 1000 0.33 N . eq . wt . volume in ml. 99. (b) Mole of HCl 10 10 0.1 (10 V ) 10 10 10 1000 10 990 ml. 0 .1 (b) Sum of mole fraction is always 1. 6 .02 10 20 10 3 moles 6 .02 10 23 (a) Gram molecule of SO 2 Cl 2 = 135 10 100 10 90 10 w 18 1000 0.4 m (b) Molality 1000 m W 180 250 n nN n 3 Total volume – 100cm 3 500 100 400cm 3 . 0 .1 180 =1.8 litre. 10 Conc. of solution (in molarity) Molality V 100 cc. 0 .01 0 .00199 0 .01 5 (b) Mole of urea 1800 90 =1620gm 100 Weight of solvent 1800 1620 180 gm M 1 V1 M 2 V2 , M 2 10 mole in 180 i.e., 0.1 litre Weight of one litre of solution 1800 gm 83. n Normality of H 2 SO 4 (N1 ) 0.5 2 1 1 1 N 2 10 or N 2 77. (d) 18 0.1 molal . 180 73. 10 10 6 10,000 ppm . 10 3 n X nN w 1000 10.6 1000 0.2 M . m. wt . Volume in ml. 106 500 N 50 76. 10 6 parts of CaCO 3 has number of parts 1 .2046 10 24 2 mole 6 .023 10 23 Normality = molarity basidity or acicity 2 1 2 N Solution and Colligative properties 100. (d) 10 N Deca - normal , 101. 102. 103. 104. 1 N = Deci-normal. 10 w 1000 7 .1 1000 = 0 .5 M . ml wt. Volume ml. 142 100 4 10 (d) M 1M . 40 6 0 .1 n 60 (d) Mole fraction X . 6 180 10 . 1 nN 60 18 w 1000 10 1000 1.66 N . (c) N Eq.wt . Volume 60 100 N M bosicity ; N 2 2 4 . 106. (b) 108. (b) Concentration 110. (a) 5 10 6 = 5 ppm. 10 6 H 3 PO3 is a dibasic acid (b) 122. (c) C (a) N 123. 124. 6 0 .1 molar. 60 (b) Molar solution of sulphuric acid is equal to 2N because it is show dibasic nature. 0 .5 53 500 13.25 . 1000 5.85 1000 125. (c) Molar concentration = 0.5 Molar . 58.5 200 w 1000 75.5 1000 126. (c) M 2 .50 M m.wt . V in ml 56 540 129. (a) 0.1 2 20 0.1 1 V2 111. (d) 0 .1 2 20 40 ml 0 .1 1 H 3 PO4 ⇌ H H 2 PO4 H 2 PO4 ⇌ H HPO42 112. 113. HPO42 ⇌ H PO43 Phosphoric acid does not give 1N strength. (b) C6 H 5 COOH NaOH C6 H 5 COONa H 2 O (c) w 12.2 4 gms. 40 122 (H 2 SO 4 ) N 1 V1 = N 2 V2 (dilute acid) N 2 (10 36) / 1000 0.36 N . 114. (c) 1 O2 2 1 M H 2 O 2 solution 2 N 34 gm / litre 11.2 2 10 1 .75 11.2 (b) Weight = molarity × m.wt.× v = 1 132 2 264 gm. 115. w 1 n m 2 0 .667 . 116. (a) Mole fraction 1 8 w W nN 2 32 m M 118. (c) 98% H 2 SO 4 means 98g H 2 SO 4 in 100g solution. 120. 100 cc 54.3 cc ; 98 g H 2 SO 4 1 mol 1 .84 1 Hence molarity 1000 18.4 M 54.3 (d) 3 CaCl 2 2 Na 3 PO4 Ca 3 (PO4 )2 6 NaCl Mole of Na 3 PO4 3 mole of CaCl 2 1 mole Ca 3 (PO4 )2 0.2 mole of Na 3 PO4 0.3 mole of CaCl 2 = 0.1 mole of Ca 3 (PO4 )2 . N 1 V1 N 2 V2 10 10 0.1 × Volume of new solution Volume of water = 1000 – 10 = 990 ml. M m . w t. V 0.1 98 400 W 3.92 g . 1000 1000 1000 Molarity of pure water 55.6 M . 18 N 0.2 M 0 .1 M 2 2 180 Moles of water 10 mole. 18 44 n CO 2 2 44 Mole fraction of CO . 44 14 3 n CO 2 n N 2 44 28 w w4 0 .1 M w 1gm m V (l) 40 1 130. (b) 131. (a) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (c) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (b) Number of moles = H 2O2 H 2O So Normality w 1000 106 eq . wt . 53 eq . wt . volume in ml . 2 w N 1 V1 (acid) N 2 V2 (base) V2 X 0.2 1000 X 78 121. (c) Molarity 187 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 2 M w 1 litre 4 1 1M . m. wt . Volume litre 40 0 .1 w1 w 2 90 300 10 m 1 m 2 18 60 (a) The number of moles of solute dissolved in 1000 gm of the solvent is called molal solution. 0.1 100 392 (b) w 3.92 g 1000 18 1 (d) 0 .1 molal. 180 1 10 n n 3 n 3 moles. V (l) 1 (b) The unit of molality is mole per kilogram. (a) 0.2 water + 0.8 ethanol; X A mole fraction of water, (c) M X B mole fraction of ethanol XA N2 N1 , XB N1 N 2 N 2 N1 Mole fraction of water = 0.2 and ethanol = 0.8. Colligative properties 188 Solution and Colligative properties 3. 5. (a) Osmotic pressure is colligative property. (c) Vapour pressure is not colligative property. xB Lowering of vapour pressure P Ps 0 1. (a) P 0 4. 5. (d) (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 9. (c) 11. 12. 13. 15. 16. 17. 18. 21. 25. (a) P0 w m w W m M or 0 .00713 71.5 m 71.5 1000 m 18 Ps P 0 P is maximum. (b) The relative lowering of the vapour pressure of dilute solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solute molecule present in the solution. (b) Acetone solution has vapour pressure less than pure water. 1 4 (d) PT Pp0 x p Ph0 x h = 440 120 5 5 88 = 88 96 = 184 ; Pp0 x p y p PT ; yp 184 y p 0.478 (a) P = PBo X B ; PB 78 78 75 ; 78 46 78 92 (b) Given molecular mass of sucrose = 342 100 Moles of sucrose 0 .292 mole 342 1000 Moles of water N 55.5 moles and 18 B (a) 30. (d) x B (Mole fraction of solute) 31. 33. 35. 38. molality (1 - x y ) P0 P 0 Ps is maximum for BaCl2 . P 0 Ps P0 the value of 18 18 0 .02 . 180 90 PT PP0 X P PQ0 X Q ; PT 80 3 2 60 5 5 P 0 Ps w m W w 640 600 w W M m 640 P m M 2.175 78 640 w M 40 2.175 78 ;m m W 640 m 39.08 39.08 40 m 69.45 . (c) The lower is boiling point more is vapour pressure; boiling point order, HCl HBr HI HF (c) 0 P 0 Ps n 1 9.9 P 0 9 .9 Ps P 0 N 9 .9 P P0 8.9 0 8.9 P 0 9.9 Ps Ps P 0.90 P 0 9.9 (a) 1000 ml of CH 3 OH requires methanol = 32 g. (c) P 0 Ps 0 150 ml of 2 M CH 3 OH requires methanol 39. 40. 43. P = 50 torr 32 150 2 9 .6 g . 1000 (b) P 0 Ps P 0 mole fraction solute 10 P 0 0.2 ; 20 P 0 n n 0.4 N 0.6 . (b) According to the Raoult’s law for the non-volatile solute the relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution containing a non-volatile is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. (d) Relationship between mole fraction of a component in the vapour phase and total vapour pressure of an ideal solution. B Vapour pressure of pure water P 0 23.8 mm Hg According to Raoult’s law P n P 0.292 23.8 0.292 55.5 P0 n N 23.8 0.292 P 0.125 mm Hg. 55.792 (d) According to Raoult's law, the relative lowering in vapour pressure of a dilute solution is equal to mole fraction of the solute present in the solution. (a) When vapour pressure of solvent decreases, then the boiling point of solvent increases. (b) According to Raoult’s Law P0 27. P 0 Ps PT 48 24 72 torr . m 180 HgI2 although insoluble in water but shows complex formation with KI and freezing point is decreases. For solutions containing non-volatile solutes, the Raoult’s law may be stated as at a given temperature, the vapour pressure of a solution containing non-volatile solute is directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent. 1 Vapour pressure Boiling point When vapour pressure decreases then b.pt. increases. Methanol has low boiling point than H 2 O Lower is boiling point of solvent more is vapour pressure. Sucrose will give minimum value of P . P P 0 Ps P 0 Ps (d) wM 0 .5 154 143 143 65 158 mW 143 1.03 141.97 mm . P 0 Ps 26. 0 .8 0 .6 0 .25 . 0 .8 yA PA x A .PA0 Ptotal x A .PA0 x B .PB0 1 1 1 1 0 .2 1 1 2 2 1 4 5 (c) Lowering in weight of solution solution pressure 44. Lowering in weight of solvent P 0 Ps ( p 0 vapour pressure of pure solvent) p 0 ps Lowering in weight of solvent ps Lowering in weight of solution p 0 ps w M ps m W 0 .05 10 18 2 2.5 2 250 m 100 2.5 90 m 0 .05 5 Ideal and Non-ideal solution 1. (b) In solution showing positive type of deviation the partial pressure of each component of solution is greater than the vapour pressure as expected according to Raoult’s law. Solution and Colligative properties In solution of methanol & benzene methanol molecules are held together due to hydrogen bonding as shown below. CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 | | | O — H O — H O — H On adding benzene, the benzene molecules get in between the molecule of methanol thus breaking the hydrogen bonds. As the resulting solution has weak intermolecular attraction, the escaping tendency of alcohol & benzene molecule from the solution increases. Consequently the vapour pressure of the solution is greater than the vapour pressure as expected from Raoult’s law. (b) Chloroform & acetone form a non-ideal solution, in which A..... B type interaction are more than A...... A & B...... B type interaction due to H -bonding. Hence, the solution shows, negative deviation from Raoult’s Law i.e., 3. Vmix ve ; P2 P1 P3 . 8. 10. 11. 12. H mix ve or 80 ml (b) H 2 O and C 4 H 9 OH do not form ideal solution because there is hydrogen bonding between H 2 O and C 4 H 9 OH . 6. (a) Aromatic compound generally separated distillation. e.g. Benzene + Toluene. by 7. (d) 19. (a) For the ideal solution H mix and Vmix 0 . 25. (a) For the ideal solution S mix is not equal to zero. fractional 13. 14. (d) Azeotropic mixture is constant boiling mixture, it is not possible to separate the components of azeotropic mixture by boiling. (d) Azeotropic mixture is a mixture of two liquids which boils at on particular temperature like a pure liquid and distils over in the same composition. 3. CRT 3 1000 0.0821 288 6.56 atm . 180 60 1. (c) 2. (b) Isotonic solution = w1 6 342 6 34.2 . 342 1 60 1 60 3. (c) CRT , C 4. (a) 5. (b) 7. (b) C (c) w1 w2 m 1 V1 m 2 V2 RT 17. 19. 20. 23. 24. 31. 32. 35. 38. 41. 0.0821 0.33 10 2 . 0.821 300 w 0 .1 RT 0 .0821 273 m 1 43. 45. 5 1 50 mol/l 1000 342 100 342 47. 50 0.082 423 5 .07 atm 342 P w 1 R.T since wvT are constant thus P m mv n m / MRT RT V V 1 .66 2.46 2 .06 atm 2 (d) Copper ferrocyanide ppt. acts as a semipermeable membrane. (b) Osmotic pressure = CRT where C = 1 m CRT 1 0.0821 300 24.6 atm (c) (d) P CRT or P RT C P 0 Ps dRT (d) CRT or P0 M (a) Isotonic solutions are those which have same concentration. (c) CRT 0.2 0.0821 293 4.81 atm. (b) Equal osmotic pressure only applicable of non-electrolytes solution at low concentration. (c) As soon as the solute molecules increases the osmotic pressure of solution increase. (c) Living cells shrinks in hypertonic solution (plasmolysis) while bursts in hypotonic solution (endosmosis). There is no. effect when living cells are kept in isotonic solution. (c) V nRT n m RT RT M P V V (b) w R T 68.4 0.0821 273 = 4.92 atm mV 342 600 20 0.0821 288 1000 ; M 1200 760 500 M Osmosis and Osmotic pressure of the solution 6. (b) CRT 16. 1 1000 10 m 100 m 10 50 or m 68.4 . m 342 (d) Osmotic pressure method is especially suitable for the determination of molecular masses of macromolecules such as protein & polymer because for these substances the value of other colligative properties such as elevation in boiling point or depression in freezing point are too small to be measured on the other hand osmotic pressure of such substances are measurable. 7.8 (b) C R T ; C 0 31 mol / litre R T 082 310 C 2 H 5 I and C 2 H 5 OH do not form ideal solution. Azeotropic mixture 1. (b) In the osmosis solvent molecule move from lower concentration to higher concentration. (a) Osmosis occur from dilute solution to concentrate solution. Therefore solution A is less concentrated than B. 5 1000 50 (c) Molar concentration of cane sugar 342 100 342 Molar concentration of X = total volume of solution = less than (30 + 50 ml) 4. 189 (c) w RT 10 0.821 (273 69) = 8.21 atm. m V 342 0 .1 KNO 3 dissociates completely while CH 3 COOH dissociates to a small extent. Hence, P1 P2 . (b) V n RT 500 V1 V nR 283 1 ; 1 so V2 5V1 105.3 V2 nR 298 V2 5 190 Solution and Colligative properties 48. 50. (a) There is no net movement of the solvent through the semipermeable membrane between two solution of equal concentration. w (b) V RT m 4 0.0821 300 ; m 1.64 10 5 . m According to the dialysis process molecular weight increases but sensitivity decreases. T ; if T is doubled is also doubled. Osmosis reaction are takes place in increases the volume. For two non-electrolytic solution if isotonic, C1 C 2 b 16. (d) 18. 19. (b) (b) 20. (a) 23. (b) 6 10 4 1 52. (d) 55. 56. 58. (d) (b) (a) 8 .6 5 1000 m 348.9 60 1 m . wt . 100 59. 1. (a) M1 RT02 18 1 .987 (373)2 0.513 o C Kb 1000 H V 1000 9700 2. (b) Tb imkb 0.52 1 2 1.04 . Tb 100 1.04 101.04 o C . 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. 6. (b) (b) 7. (b) 8. 10. higher boiling point T1 T2 . (b) Both urea and glucose are non-electrolytes but NaCl being electrolyte ionises. Elevation of boiling point of the solvent (b) (b) Tb 0 .1 100 1K /m . 1 .8 m 1000 180 K w 1000 2 .16 0 .15 1000 = 100 . m b Tb W 0 .216 15 Due to higher pressure inside the boiling point elevated. Dissolution of a non-volatile solute raises the boiling pt. of a liquid. As we know that 1 Boiling point vapour pre ssure of liquid Hence, on decreasing vapour pressure, boiling point will increase. 100 K b w 100 5 .2 6 Tb 0 .52 m W m 100 100 5 .2 6 m 60 . 0.52 100 Elevation in a boiling point is a colligative property as it depends upon the number of particles. ∆T n For sucrose, n = 1, ∆T = 0.1°C For NaCl, n = 2, ∆T = 0.2°C Tb Kb m or Kb Tb / m Kb b Depression of freezing point of the solvent 1. (c) 2. (c) 12. (c) 0.1 Tb K b m 0.513 1000 200 0.2565 C , Tb 100 . 256 C o 15. o (a) T = i.K .m b 2+ 2 0.186 100 18.6 w 60 500 (a) Camphor has the maximum value of K f ( 39.7) . 4. (d) The extent of depression in freezing point varies with the number of solute particles for a fixed solvent only and it is a characteristics feature of the nature of solvent also. So for two different solvents the extent of depression may vary even if number of solute particles be dissolved. 6. (a) Molar mass K f 1000 w T f W 1 .86 1000 1 .25 20 1 .1 105.68 105.7 . 7. (b) HBr ⇌ H Br (1 ) Total = 1 + i 1 1 0.9 1.9 T f i K f m 1.9 1.86 8.1 1000 3.53 o C 81 100 T f 3.53 o C . T f K f m 1.86 0.1 0.186 . 8. (b) 9. 10. (b) Freezing point is lowered on addition of solute in it.. (d) Tb 0.18 ; Tb mK b 0 .18 mK b 0 .18 1 .86 ; T f ; T f 0.653 T f m Kf 0 .512 T 0 Ts 0.653 ; T 0 Ts 0.653 ; Ts 0 0.653 o C . 11. (a) 12. (b) 2Cl 1 0 0 (1) 2 i = 1 + 2 Assuming 100% ionization 100 K w m W 3. b CuCl Cu + T f w 3g b (b) Tf K f molality 1.86 0.05 0.093 °C Thus freezing point = 0 – 0.093 = 0.093 o C . b 11. So, i = 3 T = 3 0.52 0.1 = 0.156 0.16 K w 1000 Tb b m W K b w 1000 2.53 10 1000 m 253 g . Tb W 1 100 Common salt is non-volatile and rises the b.pt. In the process of evaporation, high energy molecules leave the surface of liquid, hence average kinetic energy and consequently the temperature of liquid falls. The boiling occurs at lowers temperature if atmospheric pressure is lower than 76cm Hg. BaCl2 furnishes more ions than KCl and thus shows 342 o o T f 1 .86 1 .86 ; T f 1.86 C . 342 Tb Kb m i.e. 0.52 0.52 m Tf K f m 1.86 1 1.86 ; T f 1.86 o C . 13. (b) For NaCl i 2 T f 2 K f m 2 1.86 1 3.72 Solution and Colligative properties Ts T T f 0 3.72 3.72C 15. (b) T f K f m 0.186 1.86 m 6. (a) NaCl gives maximum ion hence it will show highest osmotic pressure. 8. (c) So m 0.1 , Put the value of m in Tb Kb m 20. (a) Dissolution of a non-volatile solute lowers the freezing pt. of the solution H 2 O. (a) By using, m 9. K f 1000 w T f WSolvent 5 .12 1000 1 0 .40 50 (gm) 256 gm / mol Hence, molecular mass of the solute 256 gm mol 1 K f w 1000 5.12 0.440 1000 178.9 0.567 22.2 10. 11. 12. 21. (a) m 22. (a) KBr K Br 2 ions 13. BaCl2 Ba 2 2Cl 3 inos 14. T f W Al2 (SO 4 )3 2 Al 3 3 SO 42 5 ions urea is not ionise hence it is shows highest freezing point. 23. (d) K 2 SO 4 give maximum ion in solution so it shows maximum depression in freezing point. 24. (c) T f 25. (a) T f K f 1000 w m W 1000 1.86 17 0.69 o C 46 1000 (ad) The depression of freezing point is less than that of pure solvent and only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point. 27. (b) Kf RTf2 1000 L f , R 8.314 JK 1mol 1 Tf 273 16.6 289.6 K ; L f 180.75 Jg 1 Kf 8.314 289.6 289.6 1000 180.75 Colligative properties of electrolyte 3. 4. 5. (c) BaCl2 gives maximum ion. Hence, its shows highest boiling point. (c) BaCl2 gives maximum ion. Hence, its boiling point is maximum. (d) CaCl 2 gives maximum ion hence it shows highest boiling point. (c) Elevation in boiling point is a colligative property which depends upon the number of solute particles. Greater the number of solute particle in a solution higher the extent of elevation in boiling point. Na 2 SO 4 2 Na SO 42 15. (a) NaCl contain highest boiling point than other’s compound. 16. (d) KCl C6 H 5 OH C6 H 12 O6 Boiling point decreasing order Potassium chloride is ionic compound and phenol is formed phenoxide ion hence it is shows greater boiling point then glucose. 0 .216 C 26. 2. Al2 (SO 4 )3 gives maximum osmotic pressure because it is gives 5 ion. (a) Highest osmotic pressure is given by solution which produce maximum number of ions i.e. CaCl2 . o T f 0 0.69 0.69 o C 1. (a) NaCl Na Cl 2 ions K 2 SO 4 2 K SO 42 3 ions (NH 4 )3 PO4 gives maximum ion. Hence, its osmotic pressure is maximum. (b) BaCl2 gives maximum ion hence it is shows lowest vapour pressure. (d) Na 3 PO4 consist of maximum ions hence it show lowest vapour pressure. 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. 23. (b) (b) 24. (c) 26. (d) 27. (a) (c) Na 3 PO4 3 Na PO43 4 ion. (c) Vapour pressure of a solvent is lowered by the presence of solute in it. Lowering in vapour pressure is a colligative property i.e., it depends on the no. of particles present in the solution. Cu (NO 3 )2 give the maximum no. of ions. (i.e., 3) so it causes the greatest lowering in vapour pressure of water. (c) Na2 SO 4 have more osmotic pressure than NaCl solution because Na2 SO 4 gives 3 ions. BaCl2 Ba2 2Cl 3 ion NaCl Na Cl 2 ion Glucose No ionisation BaCl2 NaCl Glucose Tb 0.521 (0.1) 0.0521 17. 191 28. Al2 (SO 4 )3 gives maximum ion hence it will show highest boiling point. NaCl is a more ionic compare to BaCl2 , glucose and urea solution. Urea = 1 ; Common salt = 1 ; Na 2 SO 4 3 Ratio = 1 : 2 : 3 CaCl 2 gives maximum ion hence it has minimum freezing point. NaCl gives maximum ion hence it shows lowest freezing point Lesser the number of particles in solution. Lesser the depression in freezing point, i.e. higher the freezing point. BaCl2 gives maximum ion hence it shows maximum depression in freezing point. We know that lowering of freezing point is a colligative property which is directly proportional to the number of particles formed by one mole of compound therefore 0.1M Al2 (SO 4 )3 solution will have minimum freezing point. Al2 (SO 4 )3 gives maximum ion hence its gives lowest freezing point. (b) Colligative property in decreasing order Na 3 PO4 Na 2 SO 4 NaCl Na 3 PO4 3 Na PO43 4 Na 2 SO 4 2 Na SO 42 3 29. NaCl Na Cl 2 (d) K 4 [Fe(CN )6 ] gives maximum ion. Hence it have lowest vapour pressure. Abnormal Molecular Mass 192 Solution and Colligative properties 1. (c) Na 3 PO4 gives maximum four ion it is show highest Vant’s haff factor. 2. (a) K 4 [Fe(CN )6 ] dissociates as 4 K [Fe(CN )6 ]4 , thus 1 molecule dissociates into five particles in the similar way Al2 (SO 4 )3 also gives five particles per molecule. 3. 4. 5. 6. 8. (a) Benzoic acid in benzene undergoes association through intermolecular hydrogen bonding. experiment al C.P. (c) vont’s Hoff factor (i ) Calculated C.P. 1 x y , for KCl it is = 2 and for sugar it is equal to 1. Ca(NO 3 )2 Ca 2 2 NO 3 it gives three ions hence the Van’t Hoff factor = 3. 5 18 2 .5 (a) m 70.31 0 .04 80 (c) ⇌ (c) Na 2 SO 4 Mol. before diss. 1 Mol. after diss 1 i 2 Na 0 2 SO 42 0 1 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. (d) It is known that azeotropic mixture of HCl and water 20.2% HCl . 1 .75 n (a) CRT RT 342 0 .0821 290 150 V 1000 0.8095 0.81 atm . (c) Vant hoff factor of NaCl about 1.95 because it will be ionise into two ions. NaCl ⇌ Na Cl wRT 0.6 0.082 300 (b) m 120 PV 1.23 0.1 K w 1000 (b) m b 143.18 Tb W (c) Here: Tb 0.323 K w 0.5143 g weight of Anthracene. W 35 g weight of chloroform K b Molal elevation constant (3.9 K Kg / mol) Exp.C.P. 1 2 1 2 Normal C.P. m 10. 11. 13. (d) MgSO4 dissociates to give 2 ions. (d) Urea does not give ion in the solution. (b) Molecular weight of CH 3 COOH 60 17. Hence the molecular weight of acetic acid in benzene 2 60 120 . (b) AlCl3 furnishes more ions than CaCl 2 and thus shows 177.42 g / mol 10. (c) First boiling point of water = 100 o C Final boiling point of water = 100.52 o w 3 g , W 200 g , Kb 0.6 kg 1 Tb 100.52 100 0.52 o C higher boiling point i.e. t1 t 2 . Na 3 PO4 3 Na m PO33 . 18. (d) 19. (b) Benzoic acid dimerises due to strong hydrogen bonding. Critical Thinking Questions 1. 2. P o Ps n ; P o 0.80, Ps 0.60 o nN P n 0 .2 0 .25 . n N 0 .8 (c) We have, p 0 22.15 30 18 , for II case 22.15 108 m By eq. (1) p m0 11. log 760 40656 23 2 .303 8 .314 373 T1 373T This gives T1 294.4 K . 12. (b) Tf molality K f (1 ) 0.2 , Molality = 0.2, K f 1.86 Tf 0.2 1.2 1.86 0.4464 o .....(ii) 13. Freezing point = 0.45 o C . (b) T f imk f ; 0.0054 i 1.8 0.001 i 3 so it is [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl]Cl 2 . 21.85m 21.85 6 131.1 0.30m = 20.35 20.35 m 67.83 0 .30 (c) 0.6 3 1000 1800 17.3 gmol 1 . 0.52 200 104 (b) Applying clausius clapeytron equation P H V T2 T1 log 2 P1 2 .303 R T1 T2 .....(i) By eq. (2) p m0 22.15m 22.15 5 110.75 3. K b w 1000 Tb W (a) p 0 21.85 30 18 , for I case 21.85 90 m wt. of solvent 90 18 108 gm Kb w 1000 3 .9 0 .5143 1000 W Tb 0 .323 35 5 W2 M2 P o Ps M 2 = 3000 2985 or M 2 180 100 W1 3000 Po 18 M1 K f w 1000 14. (d) m 15. (a) T K f Molality 4.9 0.001 0.0049 K 16. (c) Na 2 CO 3 H 2 SO 4 Na 2 SO 4 CO 2 HO T f W 60 g / mole . 98 gm (2 mole ) 1 mole 0 .02 22.4 0.02 0 .224 . 2 1 mole Solution and Colligative properties 17. (a) We know that in the first solution number of the moles of urea Mass of urea 1 12 1 0 .2 and m.wt. of urea V 60 1 In second solution the number of moles of cane sugar 68.4 1 Mass of cane sugar 0 .2 . m.wt. of cane sugar 342 1 Assertion & Reason 1. 2. 0.3 100 0 .15 200 (c) Both the solute and solvent will form the vapour but vapour phase will become richer in the more volatile component. (b) Non-ideal solutions with positive deviation i.e., having more vapour pressure than expected, boil at lower temperature while those with negative deviation boil at higher temperature than those of the components. N 3 200 or N 3 3. 4. abnormally high. This is because dimerisation of benzoic takes place in solution resulting high molecular mass. Therefore, assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation. 18. (a) It is fact that use of pressure cooker reduces cooking time because at higher pressure over the liquid due to cooker lid, the liquid boils at higher temperature and cooking occurs faster. 19. (c) The assertion that CCl 4 & H 2 O are immiscible is true because CCl 4 is non-polar liquid while water is polar hence assertion is true and reason is false. (a) Molecular weight of urea (NH 2CONH 2 ) 14 2 12 16 14 2 60 Weight 60 1 Number of moles molecular weight 60 (e) If 100 cc of 0.1 N HCl is mixed with 100 cc of 0.2 N HCl , the normality of the final solution will be 0.15. N1V1 N 2 V2 N 3 V3 i.e., 0.1 100 0.2 100 5. (c) The polymer solutions possess very little elevation in boiling point or depression in freezing point. 6. (a) Depression in freezing point is a colligative property which depends upon the number of particles. The number of particles are different in case of benzene and water that is why molecular weight of acetic acid determined by depression in freezing point method is also different. 7. (d) Sodium ion, Na and potassium ion, K are responsible for maintaining proper osmotic pressure balance inside and outside of the cells of organisms. 8. (a) If a pressure larger than the osmotic pressure is applied to the solution side, the pure solvent flows out of the solution through semi-permeable membrane and this phenomenon is called as reverse osmosis. 9. (c) Camphor has high molal depression constant. 10. (b) Elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point are colligative properties because both depend only on the number of particles (ions or molecules) of the solute in a definite amount of the solvent but not on the nature of the solute. 12. (a) The boiling point and melting point are higher due to presence of the intermolecular hydrogen bonding. 14. (d) If a non-volatile solute is added to water its vapour pressure always decreases. Therefore, both assertion and reason are false. 15. (b) We know that heat of vaporisation of water at 100 o C is 40.6 kJ and that of benzene is 31kJ at 80 o C . The amount of heat required to vaporise one mole of liquid at constant temperautre is known as heat of vapourisation therefore, both assertion and reason are true but reason is nat the correct explanation of assertion. 16. (d) See melts slowly at high altitude because melting is favoured at a high pressure at high altitude the atmospheric pressure is low and so ice melts slowly. 17. (a) Colligative properties are the properties of solutions containing non volatile solute. It is correct that malecular mass of benzoic acid when determined by colligative properties is found 193 20. (b) It is true that isotonic solution doesn’t show the phenomenon of osmosis. Isotonic solution are those solution which have same osmotic pressure. Here both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation. 194 Solution and Colligative properties 1. The 2 N aqueous solution of H 2 SO 4 contains 9. (a) 49 gm of H 2 SO 4 per litre of solution (b) 4.9 gm of H 2 SO 4 per litre of solution (c) 98 gm of H 2 SO 4 per litre of solution (d) 9.8 gm of H 2 SO 4 per litre of solution 2. 3. The amount of KMnO4 required to prepare 100 ml of 0.1 N solution in alkaline medium is [CPMT 1986] (a) 1.58 gm (b) 3.16 gm (c) 0.52 gm (d) 0.31 gm 10. 0.45 g (b) 0.90 g (c) 1.08 g (d) 1.26 g (a) AlCl3 BaCl2 Urea (b) BaCl2 AlCl3 Urea (c) Urea BaCl2 AlCl3 (d) BaCl2 Urea AlCl3 The osmotic pressure of a 5% solution of cane sugar at 150 o C is (mol. wt. of cane sugar = 342) [CPMT 1986; Manipal MEE 1995] What weight of hydrated oxalic acid should be added for complete neutralisation of 100ml of 0.2 N NaOH solution ? (a) The O.P. of equimolar solution of Urea, BaCl2 and AlCl3 , will be in the order [DCE 2000] (a) 4 atm [MP PMT 1997] (c) 5.07 atm 11. 5. A 500 g tooth paste sample has 0 .2 g fluoride concentration. 0.1M urea and 0.1M NaCl What is the concentration of F in terms of ppm level (b) 0.[AIIMS 1M urea 1992]and 0.2 M MgCl2 (a) 250 (b) 200 (c) (c) 400 (d) 1000 (a) 0.1 Normal (c) 0.1 Molar 0.1M NaCl and 0.1M Na 2 SO 4 (d) 0.1M Ca(NO 3 )2 and 0.1M Na 2 SO 4 To 5.85 gm of NaCl one kg of water is added to prepare of solution. What is the strength of NaCl in this solution (mol. wt. of NaCl 58.5 ) [CPMT 1990; DPMT 1987] 6. (d) 2.45 atm Which one of the following pairs of solutions can we expect to be isotonic at the same temperature [NCERT 1982] (a) 4. (b) 3.4 atm 12. Which of the following would have the highest osmotic pressure (assume that all salts are 90% dissociated) [NCERT 1982] (b) 0.1 Molal (a) Decimolar aluminium sulphate (d) 0.1 Formal (b) Decimolar barium chloride The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO 3 )2 in a dilute aqueous (c) Decimolar sodium sulphate solution containing 14g of the salt per 200g of water 100 o C is 70 percent. If the vapour pressure of water at 100 o C is 760 cm. Calculate the vapour pressure of the solution (d) A solution obtained by mixing equal of (b) and (c) and filtering 13. Which solution will have the highest boiling point [UPSEAT 2000] 7. 8. [NCERT 1981] (a) 746.3 mm of Hg (b) 757.5 mm of Hg (a) 1% solution of glucose in water (c) 740.9 mm of Hg (d) 750 mm of Hg (b) 1% solution of sodium chloride in water The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 200 mm Hg. At the same temperature the vapour pressure of a solution containing 2g of non-volatile non-electrolyte solid in 78g of benzene is 195 mm Hg. What is the molecular weight of solid (a) 50 (b) 70 (c) 85 (d) 80 (c) 1% solution of zinc sulphate in water (d) 1% solution of urea in water 14. ether was found to be 0.1o C higher than that of the pure ether. The molecular weight of the substance will be (Kb 2.16) [MP PET 2002] Which one of the following non-ideal solutions shows the negative deviation (a) CH 3 COCH 3 CS 2 (b) C6 H 6 CH 3 COCH 3 (c) CCl 4 CHCl 3 (d) CH 3 COCH 3 CHCl 3 [UPSEAT The boiling point2001] of a solution of 0.11 gm of a substance in 15 gm of 15. (a) 148 (b) 158 (c) 168 (d) 178 The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 gm of a nonvolatile solute was dissolved in 90 gm of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. the molar mass of the solute is Solution and Colligative properties [Kb for benzene = 2.53 K mol ] [DPMT 2004] –1 (a) 18. 58 g mol 1 (d) 0.88 g mol 16. 1 19. (a) 1.8 (b) 0.18 (c) 18 (d) 18.6 compound (K f 5.1 km 0.60 o (b) 0.80 o (c) 1.60 o (d) The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be highest for C 6 H 5 NH 3 Cl (aniline hydrochloride) (c) ) , (freezing point of benzene = 5.5 C ) La(NO 3 )3 (d) C 6 H 12 O6 (glucose) 20. The Van't Hoff factor of the compound K 3 Fe(CN )6 is o (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400 2.40 o (b) Ca(NO 3 )2 The freezing point of a solution containing 4.8 g of a compound in 60 g of benzene is 4.48. What is the molar mass of the 1 (a) (a) The boiling point of 0.1 molal aqueous solution of urea is 100.18 o C at 1 atm. The molal elevation constant of water is 17. When 0.01 mole of sugar is dissolved in 100 g of a solvent, the depression in freezing point is 0.40 o . When 0.03 mole of glucose is dissolved in 50 g of the same solvent, the depression in freezing point will be 5.8 g mol 1 (b) 0.58 g mol 1 (c) 195 (a) 1 (c) 3 [AFMC 2000] (b) 2 (d) 4 196 Solution and Colligative properties (SET -4) 2 49 = 98g. 1. (c) Wt. of H 2 SO 4 per litre N eq. mass 2. (a) In alkaline medium KMnO4 act as oxidant as follows. 2 KMnO4 2 KOH 2 K 2 MnO4 H 2 O (O) 13. (b) than ZnSO 4 . 14. (b) m Hence its eq .wt . = m. wt . 158 3. 100 g 1.58 g. 1000 m 15. 354.11K 353.23 K 0.88 K F ions in PPm = M Solute 5. (b) 5.85 g NaCl = 0.1 mol as it present in 1 kg of M solute (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) CH 3 COCH 3 CHCl 3 is non ideal solution which shown negative deviation. 9. (a) The particle come of AlCl3 solution will be maximum due to P o Ps P o Ps w M n ; 80 o nN m W P Po (a) 17. (d) m 18. (d) 0 .18 1 .8 0 .1 K f 1000 w W T f 0.40 5 0.0821 1000 423 5.07 atm . 342 100 11. (d) Osmotic pressure is a coligative properties equimolar solution of Ca(NO 3 )2 and Na 2 SO 4 will produce same number of solute particles. Al2 (SO 4 )3 Deci-molar gives maximum ion. Hence, its osmotic pressure is maximum. 0 .03 1000 4 50 2.4 19. (d) La(NO 3 )3 will furnish four ions and thus will develop more lowering in freezing point whereas glucose gives only one particle and thus minimum lowering in freezing point. 20. (d) K 3 [Fe(CN )6 ] 3 K [Fe(CN )6 ]3 . CaNO 3 ⇌ Ca 2 2NO 3 Na 2 (SO 4 ) ⇌ 2 Na SO 42 5.1 1000 4.8 400 . 60 1 .02 0.01 1000 kf kf 4 100 AlCl3 Al 3 3Cl 4 (c) T f mk f again T f mk f 10. (a) Kb 16. More the number of particles in solution more is the osmotic pressure a colligative properties. 12. 2.53 1.8 1000 58 gm mol 1 0.88 90 ionisation less in BaCl2 and minimum in urea BaCl2 Ba 2 2Cl 3 W weight of solvent Hence, molar mass of the solute 58 gm mol 1 wt . 5 .85 =0.1molal m wt . l 58.5 1 6. K b 1000 w Tb W Where, w weight of solute, 0.2 10 6 400 500 (c) water ; molality Substituting these values in expression w 0.2 100 w 1.26 gm . 63 1000 4. 2.16 0.11 1000 158.40 ~ 158 . 0.1 15 (c) The elevation (Tb ) in the boiling point (d) For complete neutralization equivalent of oxalic acid = equivalent of NaOH = w NV eq . wt 1000 Kb w 1000 Tb W Kb 2.16, w 0.11, W 15 g, Tb 0.1 Mass 1 Now, Normality Eq. mass V(L) mass 0.1 158 NaCl and ZnSO 4 gives 2 ions but NaCl is more ionic *** Solid State 197 Chapter 5 Solid State The solids are the substances which have definite volume and definite shape. In terms of kinetic molecular model, solids have regular order of their constituent particles (atoms, molecules or ions). These particles are held together by fairly strong forces, therefore, they are present at fixed positions. The properties of the solids not only depend upon the nature of the constituents but also on their arrangements. Types and Classification of solids (1) Types of solids Solids can be broadly classified into following two types, Silica occurs in crystalline as well as amorphous states. Quartz is a typical example of crystalline silica. Quartz and the amorphous silica differ considerably in their properties. Quartz Amorphous silica It is crystalline in nature It is light (fluffy) white powder All four corners of SiO 44 tetrahedron are shared by others to give a network solid It has high and sharp melting point (1710°C) The SiO 44 tetrahedra are randomly joined, giving rise to polymeric chains, sheets or three-dimensional units It does not have sharp melting point (i) Crystalline solids/True solids, (3) Diamond and graphite (ii) Amorphous solids/Pseudo solids Crystalline solids Amorphous solids They have long range order. They have short range order. They have definite melting point Not have definite melting point They have a definite heat of fusion Not have definite heat of fusion They are rigid and incompressible Not be compressed to any appreciable extent They are given cleavage i.e. they break into two pieces with plane surfaces They are given irregular cleavage i.e. they break into two pieces with irregular surface They are anisotropic because of these substances show different property in different direction They are isotropic because of these substances show same property in all directions There is a sudden change in volume when it melts. Diamond and graphite are tow allotropes of carbon. Diamond and graphite both are covalent crystals. But, they differ considerably in their properties. Diamond Graphite It occurs naturally in free state It occurs naturally, as manufactured artificially It is the hardest natural substance known. It is soft and greasy to touch It has high relative density (about 3.5) Its relative density is 2.3 It is transparent and refractive index (2.45) has high well as It has black in colour and opaque It is non-conductor of heat and electricity. Graphite is a good conductor of heat and electricity There is no sudden change in volume on melting. It burns in air at 900°C to give CO2 It burns in air at 700°C to give CO2 These possess symmetry Not possess any symmetry. It occurs as octahedral crystals It occurs as hexagonal crystals These possess interfacial angles. Not possess interfacial angles. (2) Crystalline and amorphous silica (SiO2 ) (4) Classification of crystalline solids Table : 5.1 Some characteristics of different types of crystalline solids Types of Solid Constituents Bonding Examples Physical Nature M.P. B.P. Electrical Conductivity 198 Solid State Ionic Covalent Molecular Metallic Atomic Positive and negative ions network systematically arranged Atoms connected in covalent bonds Coulombic NaCl, KCl, CaO, MgO, LiF, ZnS, BaSO4 and K2SO4 etc. Hard but brittle High (≃1000K) High (≃2000K) Conductor (in molten state and in aqueous solution) Electron sharing SiO2 (Quartz), SiC, C (diamond), Very high (≃4000K) Very high Insulator except graphite Polar or non-polar molecules (i) Molecular interactions (intermolecular forces) (ii) Hydrogen bonding Hard Hard Hard Soft Cations in a sea of electrons Metallic Atoms London dispersion force C(graphite) etc. I2,S , P , CO , CH , 8 4 2 4 Low (≃300K to 600K) (≃ 450 to 800 K) Low Low (≃400K) (≃373K to 500K) Ductile malleable High High (≃800K to 1000 K) (≃1500K to 2000K) Soft Very low Very low CCl etc. 4 Starch, sucrose, water, dry ice or drycold (solid CO2) etc. Sodium , Au, Cu, magnesium, metals and alloys Noble gases Crystallography “The branch of science that deals with the study of structure, geometry and properties of crystals is called crystallography”. (≃5000K) Low Soft Insulator Insulator Conductor Poor thermal and electrical conductors (iii) Centre of symmetry : It is an imaginary point in the crystal that any line drawn through it intersects the surface of the crystal at equal Y distance on either side. (1) Symmetry in Crystal : A crystal possess following three types of symmetry, (i) Plane of symmetry : It is an imaginary plane which passes through the centre of a crystal can divides it into two equal portions which are exactly the mirror images of each other. Centre of symmetry of a cubic crystal X Z Fig. 5.3 Only simple cubic system have one centre of symmetry. Other system do not have centre of symmetry. Plane of symmetry Rectangular plane of symmetry Diagonal plane of symmetry Fig. 5.1 (ii) Axis of symmetry : An axis of symmetry or axis of rotation is an imaginary line, passing through the crystal such that when the crystal is rotated about this line, it presents the same appearance more than once in one complete revolution i.e., in a rotation through 360°. Suppose, the same appearance of crystal is repeated, on rotating it through an angle of 360°/n, around an imaginary axis, is called an n-fold axis where, n is known as the order of axis. By order is meant the value of n in 2 / n so that rotation through 2 / n, gives an equivalent configuration. Axis of two fold symmetry The total number of planes, axes and centre of symmetries possessed by a crystal is termed as elements of symmetry. A cubic crystal possesses total 23 elements of symmetry. Plane of symmetry ( 3 + 6) =9 Axes of symmetry ( 3 + 4 + 6) = 13 Centre of symmetry (1) =1 Total symmetry = 23 (2) Laws of crystallography : Crystallography is based on three fundamental laws. (i) Law of constancy of interfacial angles : This law states that angle between adjacent corresponding faces is inter facial angles of the crystal of a particular substance is always constant inspite of different shapes and sizes and mode of growth of crystal. The size and shape of crystal depend upon the conditions of crystallisation. This law is also known as Steno's Law. Axis of three f old symmetry Fig. 5.4. Constancy of interfacial angles (ii) Law of rational indices : This law states that the ratio of intercepts of different faces of a crystal with the three axes are constant and can be expressed by rational numbers that the intercepts of any face of a crystal along the crystallographic axes are either equal to unit intercepts (i.e., intercepts made by unit cell) a, b, c or some simple whole number multiples of them e.g., na, n' b, n''c, where n, n' and n'' are simple whole numbers. The whole numbers n, n' and n'' are called Weiss indices. This law was given by Hauy. Axis of four fold symmetry Fig. 5.2 Axis of six fold symmetry Solid state (iii) Law of constancy of symmetry : According to this law, all crystals of a substance have the same elements of symmetry is plane of symmetry, axis of symmetry and centre of symmetry. Miller indices : Planes in crystals are described by a set of integers (h, k and l) known as Miller indices. Miller indices of a plane are the reciprocals of the fractional intercepts of that plane on the various crystallographic axes. For calculating Miller indices, a reference plane, known as parametral plane, is selected having intercepts a, b and c along x, y and z-axes, respectively. Then, the intercepts of the unknown plane are given with respect to a, b and c of the parametral plane. A three dimensional group of lattice points which when repeated in space generates the crystal called unit cell. The unit cell is described by the lengths of its edges, a, b, c (which are related to the spacing between layers) and the angles between the edges, Space , , . Lattice c b a k b intercept of the plane along y - axis l c intercept of the plane along z - axis Unit cell The distance between the parallel planes in crystals are designated as d hkl . For different cubic lattices these interplanar spacing are given by the general formula, d(hkl ) Thus, the Miller indices are : a h intercept of the plane along x - axis a h2 k 2 l2 199 Fig. 5.5 Unit Cell Space lattice & unit cell Types of units cells A units cell is obtained by joining the lattice points. The choice of lattice points to draw a unit cell is made on the basis of the external geometry of the crystal, and symmetry of the lattice. There are four different types of unit cells. These are, (1) Primitive or simple cubic (sc) : Atoms are arranged only at the corners of the unit cell. (2) Body centred cubic (bcc) : Atoms are arranged at the corners and at the centre of the unit cell. (3) Face centred cubic (fcc) : Atoms are arranged at the corners and at the centre of each faces of the unit cell. (4) Side centered : Atoms are arranged at the centre of only one set of faces in addition to the atoms at the corner of the unit cell. Formation of crystal and Crystal systems Where a is the length of cube side while h, k and l are the Miller indices of the plane. When a plane is parallel to an axis, its intercept with that axis is taken as infinite and the Miller will be zero. Negative signs in the Miller indices is indicated by placing a bar on the intercept. All parallel planes have same Miller indices. The crystals of the substance are obtained by cooling the liquid (or the melt) of the solution of that substance. The size of the crystal depends upon the rate of cooling. If cooling is carried out slowly, crystals of large size are obtained because the particles (ions, atoms or molecules) get sufficient time to arrange themselves in proper positions. Dissolved dissolved Atoms of molecules cluster dissolved embryo nucleus crystal (unstable) (If loosing units dissolves as embryo and if gaining unit grow as a crystals). Bravais (1848) showed from geometrical considerations that there can be only 14 different ways in which similar points can be arranged. Thus, there can be only 14 different space lattices. These 14 types of lattices are known as Bravais Lattices. But on the other hand Bravais showed that there are only seven types of crystal systems. Space lattice and Unit cell Crystal is a homogeneous portion of a crystalline substance, composed of a regular pattern of structural units (ions, atoms or molecules) by plane surfaces making definite angles with each other giving a regular geometric form. A regular array of points (showing atoms/ions) in three dimensions is commonly called as a space lattice, or lattice. Each point in a space lattice represents an atom or a group of atoms. Each point in a space lattice has identical surroundings throughout. Table : 5.2 Bravais lattices corresponding to different crystal systems Crystal system Cubic ab c, Simple : Lattice points at the eight corners of the unit cells. 90 o Face centered : Points at the eight corners and at the six face centres. Pb, Hg, Ag, Au, Cu , ZnS , diamond, KCl , CsCl, NaCl, Cu 2O, CaF2 and alums. etc. b a ab c , Body centered : Points at the eight corners and at the body centred. c Tetragonal Examples Space lattice Simple : Points at the eight corners of the unit cell. Body centered : Points at the eight corners and at the body centre SnO 2 , TiO 2 , ZnO 2 , NiSO 4 90 o c a b ZrSiO 4 . PbWO4 , white Sn etc. 200 Solid State Orthorhombic (Rhombic) ab c, Simple: Points at the eight corners of the unit cell. 90 o End centered : Also called side centered or base centered. Points at the eight corners and at two face centres opposite to each other. Body centered : Points at the eight corners and at the body centre Face centered: Points at the eight corners and at the six face centres. c KNO 3 , K2 SO 4 , PbCO 3 , BaSO 4 , rhombic sulphur, MgSO 4 . 7 H 2O etc. b a Rhombohedral Simple : Points at the eight corners of the unit cell NaNO 3 , CaSO 4 , calcite, quartz, As, Sb , Bi etc. or Trigonal ab c, 90 Hexagonal ab c , Simple : Points at the twelve corners of the unit cell out lined by thick line. or Points at the twelve corners of the hexagonal prism and at the centres of the two hexagonal faces. ZnO , PbS , CdS , HgS , graphite, ice, Mg, Zn, Cd etc. Simple : Points at the eight corners of the unit cell End centered : Point at the eight corners and at two face centres opposite to the each other. Na 2 SO 4 .10 H 2 O, 90 o 120 o Monoclinic ab c, 90 o , 90 o Triclinic Simple : Points at the eight corners of the unit cell. CaSO 4 .5 H 2O, ab c, 90 Na 2 B4 O7 .10 H 2 O, CaSO 4 .2 H 2 O, monoclinic sulphur etc. K 2 Cr2 O7 , H 3 BO3 o etc. Analysis of cubic system (1) Number of atoms in per unit cell The total number of atoms contained in the unit cell for a simple cubic called the unit cell content. n f ni n The simplest relation can determine for it is, c 8 2 1 Where n c Number of atoms at the corners of the cube=8 n f Number of atoms at six faces of the cube = 6 nc nf ni Simple cubic (sc) 8 0 0 1 body centered cubic (bcc) 8 0 1 2 Face centered cubic (fcc) 8 6 0 4 (3) Density of the unit cell ( ) : It is defined as the ratio of mass per unit cell to the total volume of unit cell. ZM a3 N 0 Where Z = Number of particles per unit cell M = Atomic mass or molecular mass n i Number of atoms inside the cube = 1 Cubic unit cell (2) Co-ordination number (C.N.) : It is defined as the number of nearest neighbours or touching particles with other particle present in a crystal is called its co-ordination number. It depends upon structure of the crystal. For simple cubic system C.N. = 6. For body centred cubic system C.N. = 8 For face centred cubic system C.N. = 12. Total atom in per unit cell N 0 Avogadro number (6.023 10 23 mol 1 ) a Edge length of the unit cell= a pm a 10 10 cm a 3 volume of the unit cell i.e. ZM g / cm 3 a N 0 10 30 3 Solid state 1 1 The density of the substance is same as the density of the unit cell. (4) Packing fraction (P.F.) : It is defined as ratio of the volume of the unit cell that is occupied by spheres of the unit cell to the total volume of the unit cell. Let radius of the atom in the packing = r Edge length of the cube = a 4 Fig. 5.6. Square close packing Volume of the atom (spherical) (ii) Hexagonal close packing : In which the spheres in every second row are seated in the depression between the spheres of first row. The spheres in the third row are vertically aligned with spheres in first row. The similar pattern is noticed throughout the crystal structure. In this arrangement each sphere is in contact with six other spheres. 4 3 r 3 4 3 r Z Packing density 3 3 V a Z r related to a Simple cubic r Face-centred cubic r 4 a 3 2 a 2 2 Bodycentred cubic r 11 Volume of the atom () a 2 3a 4 4 3 Packing density 6 3a 4 3 3 2 % of void 3 6 3 a 2 2 4 3 2 3 Volume of the cube V = a 3 Structure 201 0 .52 100–52 = 48% 2 0 .74 6 100 – 74 = 26% 3 0 .68 8 100 – 68 = 32% X-ray study of crystal structure Study of internal structure of crystal can be done with the help of Xrays. The distance of the constituent particles can be determined from diffraction value by Bragg’s equation. n 2d sin 5 Fig. 5.7. Hexagonal close packing (2) Close packing in three dimensions : In order to develop three dimensional close packing, let us retain the hexagonal close packing in the first layer. For close packing, each spheres in the second layer rests in the hollow at the centre of three touching spheres in the layer as shown in figure. The spheres in the first layer are shown by solid lines while those in second layer are shown by broken lines. It may be noted that only half of the triangular voids in the first layer are occupied by spheres in the second layer (i.e., either b or c). The unoccupied hollows or voids in the first layer are indicated by (c) in figure. n 2 sin aa a a where, = Wave length of X-rays, n = order of reflection, Angle of reflection, d = Distance between two parallel surfaces The above equation is known as Bragg’s equation or Bragg’s law. The reflection corresponding to n = 1 (for a given family of planes) is called first order reflection; the reflection corresponding to n = 2 is the second order reflection and so on. Thus by measuring n (the order of reflection of the X-rays) and the incidence angle , we can know d/. d 4 b b a a b a a a a a c c c a a a a Fig. 5.8. Close packing in three dimensions There are two alternative ways in which species in third layer can be arranged over the second layer, From this, d can be calculated if is known and vice versa. In X-ray reflections, n is generally set as equal to 1. Thus Bragg’s equation may alternatively be written as 2 d sin = 2 d sin hkl Where d denotes the perpendicular distance between adjacent planes with the indices hkl. hkl Close packing in crystalline solids In the formation of crystals, the constituent particles (atoms, ions or molecules) get closely packed together. The closely packed arrangement is that in which maximum available space is occupied. This corresponds to a state of maximum density. The closer the packing, the greater is the stability of the packed system. (1) Close packing in two dimensions : The two possible arrangement of close packing in two dimensions. (i) Square close packing : In which the spheres in the adjacent row lie just one over the other and show a horizontal as well as vertical alignment and form square. In this arrangement each sphere is in contact with four spheres. (i) Hexagonal close packing : The third layer lies vertically above the first and the spheres in third layer rest in one set of hollows on the top of the second layer. This arrangement is called ABAB …. type and 74% of the available space is occupied by spheres. This arrangement is found in Be, Mg, Zn, Cd, Sc, Y, Ti, Zr, Tc, Ru. A A A B B A B B A A A Fig. 5.9. Hexagonal close packing (hcp) in three dimensions (ii) Cubic close packing : The third layer is different from the first and the spheres in the third layer lie on the other set of hollows marked ‘C’ 202 Solid State in the first layer. This arrangement is called ABCABC….. type and in this also 74% of the available space is occupied by spheres. The cubic close packing has face centred cubic (fcc) unit cell. This arrangement is found in Cu, Ag, (2) Tetrahedral void : A tetrahedral void is developed when triangular voids (made by three spheres in one layer touching each other) have contact with one sphere either in the upper layer or in the lower layer. Au, Ni, Pt, Pd, Co, Rh, Ca, Sr. B B A The number of tetrahedral Fig. 5.13. voids Tetrahedral is double void the number of spheres in the crystal structure. C A B r 0 .225 R A C where, r is the radius of the tetrahedral void or atom occupying tetrahedral void. R is the radius of spheres forming tetrahedral void. C Fig. 5.10. Cubic close packing (ccp or fcc) in three dimensions (iii) Body centred cubic : This arrangement of spheres (or atoms) is not exactly close packed. This structure can be obtained if spheres in the first layer (A) of close packing are slightly opened up. As a result none of these spheres are in contact with each other. The second layer of spheres (B) can be placed on top of the first layer so that each sphere of the second layer is in contact with four spheres of the layer below it. Successive building of the third will be exactly like the first layer. If this pattern of building layers is repeated infinitely we get an arrangement as shown in figure. This arrangement is found in Li, Na, K, Rb, Ba, Cs, V, Nb, Cr, Mo, Fe. A A B A B A A A A A (3) Octahedral void : This type of void is surrounded by six closely packed spheres, i.e. it is formed by six spheres. The number of octahedral voids is equal to the number of spheres. r 0 .414 R B r 0 .732 R B A A A A A B A B A Fig. 5.14. Octahedral void (4) Cubic void : This type of void is formed between 8 closely packed spheres which occupy all the eight corner of cube. B A A A A A Fig. 5.15. Cubic void The decreasing order of the size of the various voids is, Cubic > Octahedral > Tetrahedral > Trigonal Fig. 5.11. Body centred cubic (bcc) close packing in three dimensions Table : 5.3 Comparison of hcp, ccp and bcc Property Arrangement of packing Type of packing Available space occupied Coordination number Malleability and ductility hcp ccp bcc Close packed Close packed AB AB A... ABC ABC A... Not close packed AB AB A... 74% 74% 68% 12 12 8 Less malleable, hard, brittle Malleable ductile Ionic radii and Radius ratio (1) Ionic radii : X-ray diffraction or electron diffraction techniques provides the necessary information regarding unit cell. From the dimensions of the unit cell, it is possible to calculate ionic radii. Let, cube of edge length 'a' having cations and anions say NaCl structure. Then, rc ra a / 2 where rc and ra are radius of cation and anion. Radius of Cl and (a / 2)2 (a / 2)2 a 2 4 Interstitial sites in close packing Even in the close packing of spheres, there is left some empty space between the spheres. This empty space in the crystal lattice is called site or void or hole. Voids are of following types, (1) Trigonal void : This site is formed when three spheres lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. Size of the trigonal site is given by the following relation, Triogonal void r 0.155 R r = Radius of the spherical trigonal void R = Radius of closely packed spheres Fig. 5.12 For bcc lattice say CsCl. rc ra Cl– a/2 90° Cl– Na+ a/2 Fig. 5.16. Radii of chloride ion 3a 2 (2) Radius ratio : Ionic compounds occur in crystalline forms. Ionic compounds are made of cations and anions. These ions are arranged in three dimensional array to form an aggregate of the type (A B ) . Since, the Coulombic forces are non-directional, hence the structures of such crystals + – n Solid state 203 are mainly governed by the ratio of the radius of cation (r ) to that of 0.155 – 0.225 3 Planar triangle anion (r ). The ratio r to r (r / r ) is called as radius ratio. 0.225 – 0.414 4 Tetrahedral 0.414 – 0.732 6 Octahedral 0.732 – 0.999 or 1 8 Body-centered cubic Radius ratio r r Effect of temperature and Pressure on C.N. r+/r– < 0.414 r+/r– = 0.414 r+/r– > 0.732 On applying high pressure NaCl structure having 6 : 6 coordination changes to CsCl structure having 8 : 8 co-ordination. Thus, increase in pressure increases the co-ordination number. Coordination number decreases from 6 to 4 Coordination number increases from 6 to 8 Similarly, CsCl structure on heating to about 760 K, changes to NaCl structure. In other words, increase of temperature decreases the coordination number. Fig. 5.17. Effect of radius ratio on co-ordination number Table : 5.4 Limiting Radius ratios and Structure NaCl (6 : 6 ) Limiting radius ratio (r )/(r ) C.N. Shape < 0.155 2 Linear + – Pressure Temp CsCl (8 : 8) Structure of ionic crystals Table : 5.5 Types of ionic crystal with description Crystal structure type Type AB Rock salt (NaCl) type Zinc blende (ZnS) type Brief description Examples Co-ordination number It has fcc arrangement in which Cl ions occupy the corners and face centres of a cube Halides of Li, Na, K, Rb, AgF, AgBr, NH Cl, NH Br, NH I etc. Na 6 CuCl , CuBr, CuI, AgI, BeS Zn 2 4 2 Fluorite (CaF ) type 2 4 4 while Na ions are present at the body and edge of centres. It has ccp arrangement in which S 2 ions form fcc and each Zn 2 ion is surrounded tetrahedrally by four S Type AB 4 2 Number of formula units per unit cell 4 Cl 6 4 S 2 4 ions and vice versa. It has arrangement in which Ca 2 ions form BaF2 , BaCl2 , SrF2 Ca 2 8 fcc with each Ca 2 ions surrounded by 8 F SrCl2 , CdF2 , PbF2 F 4 Here negative ions form the ccp arrangement so that each positive ion is surrounded by 4 negative ions and each negative ion by 8 positive ions Na 2 O Na 4 It has the bcc arrangement with Cs at the CsCl, CsBr, CsI, CsCN , Cs 8 TlCl, TlBr, TlI and TlCN Cl 8 4 ions and each F ions by 4Ca ions. Antifluorite type Caesium chloride (CsCl) type body centre and Cl cube or vice versa. 2+ ions at the corners of a 4 O2 8 Defects or Imperfections in solids Any deviation from the perfectly ordered arrangement constitutes a defect or imperfection. These defects sometimes called thermodynamic defects because the number of these defects depend on the temperature. (1) Electronic imperfections : Generally, electrons are present in fully occupied lowest energy states. But at high temperatures, some of the electrons may occupy higher energy state depending upon the temperature. For example, in the crystals of pure Si or Ge some electrons are released thermally from the covalent bonds at temperature above 0 K. these electrons are free to move in the crystal and are responsible for electrical conductivity. This type of conduction is known as intrinsic conduction. The 1 electron deficient bond formed by the release of an electron is called a hole. In the presence of electric field the positive holes move in a direction opposite to that of the electrons and conduct electricity. The electrons and holes in solids gives rise to electronic imperfections. (2) Atomic imperfections/point defects : When deviations exist from the regular or periodic arrangement around an atom or a group of atoms in a crystalline substance, the defects are called point defects. Point defect in a crystal may be classified into following three types. (i) Stoichiometric defects : The compounds in which the number of positive and negative ions are exactly in the ratios indicated by their chemical formulae are called stoichiometric compounds. The defects do not 204 Solid State disturb the stoichiometry (the ratio of numbers of positive and negative ions) are called stoichiometric defects. These are of following types, (a) Interstitial defect : This type of defect is caused due to the presence of ions in the normally vacant interstitial sites in the crystals. (b) Schottky defect : This type of defect when equal number of cations and anions are missing from their lattice sites so that the electrical neutrality is maintained. This type of defect occurs in highly ionic compounds which have high co-ordination number and cations and anions of similar sizes. e.g., NaCl, KCl, CsCl and KBr etc. (c) Frenkel defect : This type of defect arises when an ion is missing from its lattice site and occupies an interstitial position. The crystal as a whole remains electrically neutral because the number of anions and cations remain same. Since cations are usually smaller than anions, they occupy interstitial sites. This type of defect occurs in the compounds which have low co-ordination number and cations and anions of different sizes. e.g., ZnS, AgCl and AgI etc. Frenkel defect are not found in pure alkali metal halides because the cations due to larger size cannot get into the interstitial sites. In AgBr both Schottky and Frenkel defects occur simultaneously. A+ B– B+ A– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ Fig. 5.18. Schottky defect B– Fig. 5.19. Frenkel defect Consequences of Schottky and Frenkel defects Presence of large number of Schottky defect lowers the density of the crystal. When Frenkel defect alone is present, there is no decrease in density. The closeness of the charge brought about by Frenkel defect tends to increase the dielectric constant of the crystal. Compounds having such defect conduct electricity to a small extent. When electric field is applied, an ion moves from its lattice site to occupy a hole, it creates a new hole. In this way, a hole moves from one end to the other. Thus, it conducts electricity across the crystal. Due to the presence of holes, stability (or the lattice energy) of the crystal decreases. (ii) Non-stoichiometric defects : The defects which disturb the stoichiometry of the compounds are called non-stoichiometry defects. These defects are either due to the presence of excess metal ions or deficiency of metal ions. (a) Metal excess defects due to anion vacancies : A compound may have excess metal anion if a negative ion is absent from its lattice site, leaving a ‘hole’, which is occupied by electron to maintain electrical neutrality. This type of defects are found in crystals which are likely to possess Schottky defects. Anion vacancies in alkali metal halides are reduced by heating the alkali metal halides crystals in an atmosphere of alkali metal vapours. The ‘holes’ occupy by electrons are called F-centres (or colour centres). (b) Metal excess defects due to interstitial cations : Another way in which metal excess defects may occur is, if an extra positive ion is present in an interstitial site. Electrical neutrality is maintained by the presence of an electron in the interstitial site. This type of defects are exhibit by the crystals which are likely to exhibit Frenkel defects e.g., when ZnO is heated, it loses oxygen reversibly. The excess is accommodated in interstitial sites, with electrons trapped in the neighborhood. The yellow colour and the electrical conductivity of the non-stoichiometric ZnO is due to these trapped electrons. A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ B– A+ e– A+ B– A+ B– B– A+ A+ Fig. 5.21. Metal excess defect due to anion vacancy Fig. 5.20. Metal excess defect due to extra cation Consequences of Metal excess defects The crystals with metal excess defects are generally coloured due to the presence of free electrons in them. The crystals with metal excess defects conduct electricity due to the presence of free electrons and are semiconductors. As the electric transport is mainly by “excess” electrons, these are called n-type (n for negative) semiconductor. The crystals with metal excess defects are generally paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired electrons at lattice sites. When the crystal is irradiated with white light, the trapped electron absorbs some component of white light for excitation from ground state to the excited state. This gives rise to colour. Such points are called F-centres. (German word Farbe which means colour) such excess ions are accompanied by positive ion vacancies. These vacancies serve to trap holes in the same way as the anion vacancies trapped electrons. The colour centres thus produced are called V-centres. (c) Metal deficiency defect by cation vacancy : In this a cation is missing from its lattice site. To maintain electrical neutrality, one of the nearest metal ion acquires two positive charge. This type of defect occurs in compounds where metal can exhibit variable valency. e.g., Transition metal compounds like NiO, FeO, FeS etc. (d) By having extra anion occupying interstitial site : In this, an extra anion is present in the interstitial position. The extra negative charge is balanced by one extra positive charge on the adjacent metal ion. Since anions are usually larger it could not occupy an interstitial site. Thus, this structure has only a theoretical possibility. No example is known so far. A+ B– B– A+ B– B– A+ A+ B– A2 B– B– A+ B– A+ + Cation vacancy Metal having higher charge Fig. 5.22 Consequences of metal deficiency defects Due to the movement of electron, an ion A changes to A ions. Thus, the movement of an electron from A ion is an apparent of positive hole and the substances are called p-type semiconductor (iii) Impurity defect : These defects arise when foreign atoms are present at the lattice site (in place of host atoms) or at the vacant interstitial sites. In the former case, we get substitutional solid solutions while in the latter case, we get interstitial solid solution. The formation of the former depends upon the electronic structure of the impurity while that of the later on the size of the impurity. + +2 + Properties of solids Some of the properties of solids which are useful in electronic and magnetic devices such as, transistor, computers, and telephones etc., are summarised below, Solid state (1) Electrical properties : Solids are classified into following classes depending on the extent of conducting nature. Examples, Nb 3 Ge alloy (Before 1986) La1.25 Ba0.15 CuO 4 (1986) (i) Conductors : The solids which allow the electric current to pass through them are called conductors. These are further of two types; Metallic conductors and electrolytic conductors. The electrical conductivity of these solids is high in the range 10 4 10 6 ohm 1 cm 1 . Their conductance decrease with increase in temperature. (ii) Insulators : The solids which do not allow the current to pass through them are called insulators. e.g., rubber, wood and plastic etc. the electrical conductivity of these solids is very low i.e., 10 12 10 22 1 ohm cm 1 . (iii) Semiconductors : The solids whose electrical conductivity lies between those of conductors and insulators are called semiconductors. The conductivity of these solid is due to the presence of impurities. e.g. Silicon and Germanium. Their conductance increase with increase in temperature. The electrical conductivity of these solids is increased by adding impurity. This is called Doping. When silicon is doped with P (or As, group 5 elements), we get n-type semiconductor. This is because P has five valence electrons. It forms 4 covalent bonds with silicon and the fifth electron remains free and is loosely bound. This give rise to n-type semiconductor because current is carried by electrons when silicon is doped with Ga (or in In/Al, group 3 elements) we get p-type semiconductors. th 205 YBa 2 Cu 3 O7 (1987) Following are the important applications of superconductivity, (a) Electronics, (b) Building supermagnets, (c) Aviation transportation, (d) Power transmission “The temperature at which a material enters the superconducting state is called the superconducting transition temperature, (Tc ) ”. Superconductivity was also observed in lead (Pb) at 7.2 K and in tin (Sn) at 3.7K. The phenomenon of superconductivity in other materials such as polymers and organic crystals. Examples are (SN) , polythiazyl, the subscript x indicates a large number of variable size. x (TMTSF) PF , where TMTSF is tetra methyl tetra selena fulvalene. 2 6 (2) Magnetic properties : Based on the behavior of substances when placed in the magnetic field, there are classified into five classes. rd Superconductivity : When any material loses its resistance for electric current, then it is called superconductor, Kammerlingh Onnes (1913) observed this phenomenon at 4K in mercury. The materials offering no resistance to the flow of current at very low temperature (2-5K) are called superconducting materials and phenomenon is called superconductivity. Table : 5.6 Magnetic properties of solids Properties Diamagnetic Paramagnetic Ferromagnetic Description Feebly repelled by the magnetic fields. Non-metallic elements (excepts O2, S) inert gases and species with paired electrons are diamagnetic Attracted by the magnetic field due to the presence of permanent magnetic dipoles (unpaired electrons). In magnetic field, these tend to orient themselves parallel to the direction of the field and thus, produce magnetism in the substances. Alignment of Magnetic Dipoles All paired electrons Permanent magnetism even in the absence of magnetic field, Above a temperature called Curie temperature, there is no ferromagnetism. Dipoles are aligned in the same direction Antiferromagnetic This arises when the dipole alignment is zero due to equal and opposite alignment. Ferrimagnetic This arises when there is net dipole moment (3) Dielectric properties : A dielectric substance is that which does not allow the electricity to pass through them but on applying the electric field, induced charges are produced on its faces. In an insulator, the electrons are strongly held by the individual atoms. When an electric field is applied polarization takes place because nuclei are attracted to one side and the electron cloud to the other side. As a result, dipoles are created. Such type of crystals shows the following properties, (i) Piezoelectricity : In some of the crystals, the dipoles may align themselves is an ordered way so as to give some net dipole moment. When mechanical stress is applied in such crystals so as to deform them, electricity is produced due to the displacement of ions. The electricity thus produced is called piezoelectricity and the crystals are called piezoelectric Examples TiO2, V2O5, NaCl, C6H6 Applications Insulator (benzene) O2 , Cu 2 , Fe3 , TiO, Electronic appliances Ti2O3 , VO, VO2 , CuO At least one unpaired electron Fe, Ni, Co, CrO2 CrO2 is used in audio and video tapes MnO, MnO2, Mn2O, FeO, Fe2O3; NiO, Cr2O3, CoO, Co3O4, Fe3O4, ferrites – – crystals. Examples, Quartz, Rochelle’s salt ( sod. pot. tartarate). Piezoelectric crystals act as mechanical-electric transducer. These crystals are used as pick-ups in record players where they produce electric signals by application of pressure. (ii) Pyroelectricity : On heating, some polar crystals produce a small electric current. The electricity thus produced is called pyroelectircity. (iii) Ferroelectricity : In some of the piezoelectric crystals, a permanent alignment of the dipoles is always there even in the absence of the electric field, however, on applying field the direction of polarization changes. This phenomenon is called ferroelectricity and the crystals as 206 Solid State ferroelectric crystal. Example, Potassium hydrogen phosphate (KH 2 PO4 ) , 5. Barium titanate (BaTiO3 ) . (iv) Antiferroelectricity : In some crystals, the dipoles in alternate polyhedra point up and down so that the crystals does not possess any net dipole moment. Such crystals are said to be antiferroelectric. Example, Lead zirconate (PbZrO3 ) . Ferroelectrics are used in the preparation of small sized capacitors of high capacitance. Pyroelectric infrared detectors are based on such substances. These can be used in transistors, telephone, computer etc. 6. 7. Value of heat of fusion of NaCl is (a) Very low (b) Very high (c) Not very low and not very high (d) None of the above Piezoelectric crystals are used in (a) TV (b) Radio (c) Record player (d) Freeze Which of the following is true for diamond [AFMC 1997] (a) Diamond is a good conductor of electricity (b) Diamond is soft (c) Diamond is a bad conductor of heat (d) Diamond is made up of C, H and O 8. The reverse of crystallization is the melting of the solid. The slower the rate of formation of crystal, the bigger is the crystal. The hardness of metals increases with the number of electrons available for metallic bonding. Thus Mg is harder than sodium. Isomorphism is applied to those substances which are not only similar in their crystalline form, but also possess an equal number of atoms united in the similar manner. The existence of a substance in more than one crystalline form is known as polymorphism. Properties and Types of solid 1. The three states of matter are solid, liquid and gas. Which of the following statement is/are true about them [AIIMS 1991] 2. 3. (a) Gases and liquids have viscosity as a common property (b) The molecules in all the three states possess random translational motion (c) Gases cannot be converted into solids without passing through the liquid phase (d) Solids and liquids have vapour pressure as a common property A pure crystalline substance, on being heated gradually, first forms a turbid looking liquid and then the turbidity completely disappears. This behaviour is the characteristic of substances forming [BHU 2000] (a) Isomeric crystals (b) Liquid crystals (c) Isomorphous crystals (d) Allotropic crystals Which of the following is ferroelectric compound [AFMC 1997] 4. (a) BaTiO3 (b) K 4 [Fe(CN )6 ] (c) Pb2 O 3 (d) PbZrO3 Solid CO 2 is an example of (a) Molecular crystal (c) Covalent crystal (b) Ionic crystal (d) Metallic crystal NaCl is an example of (a) Covalent solid (b) Ionic solid (c) Molecular solid (d) Metallic solid 208 Solid state 9. 10. 11. Amorphous substances show (A) Short and long range order (B) Short range order (C) Long range order (D) Have no sharp M.P. (a) A and C are correct (b) B and C are correct (c) C and D are correct (d) B and D are correct The characteristic features of solids are [AMU 1994] (a) Definite shape (b) Definite size (c) Definite shape and size (d) Definite shape, size and rigidity Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity 22. 23. 24. 25. [MP PMT 1994; AFMC 2002] 13. (a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c) Silicon (d) Amorphous carbon A crystalline solid [Kerala CET (Med.) 2003] (a) Changes abruptly from solid to liquid when heated (b) Has no definite melting point (c) Undergoes deformation of its geometry easily (d) Has an irregular 3-dimensional arrangements (e) Softens slowly Diamond is an example of 14. (a) Solid with hydrogen bonding (b) Electrovalent solid (c) Covalent solid (d) Glass The solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity since 12. [MP PET/PMT 1998; CET Pune 1998] [AIIMS 1980] 15. (a) In solid NaCl there are no ions (b) Solid NaCl is covalent (c) In solid NaCl there is no velocity of ions (d) In solid NaCl there are no electrons The existence of a substance in more than one solid modifications is known as or Any compound having more than two crystal structures is called 26. 27. 28. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. (b) Ionic solids (a) MnO2 (b) TiO2 (c) VO2 (d) CrO 2 In graphite, carbon atoms are joined together due to 30. (a) Ionic bonding (b) Vander Waal’s forces (c) Metallic bonding (d) Covalent bonding Which of the following is not correct for ionic crystals 31. (a) They possess high melting point and boiling point (b) All are electrolyte (c) Exhibit the property of isomorphism (d) Exhibit directional properties of the bond Which of the following is a molecular crystal [AFMC 2002] [Orissa JEE 2002] 32. 33. (a) SiC (b) NaCl (c) Graphite (d) Ice Quartz is a crystalline variety of [Pb. PMT 2000] (a) Silica (b) Sodium silicate (c) Silicon carbide (d) Silicon Which type of solid crystals will conduct heat and electricity [RPET 2000] 34. 35. 36. [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002] (a) Covalent solids The lustre of a metal is due to [AFMC 1998] (a) Its high density (b) Its high polishing (c) Its chemical inertness (d) Presence of free electrons A crystalline solid have [DCE 2001] (a) Long range order (b) Short range order (c) Disordered arrangement (d) None of these Crystalline solids are [Pb. PMT 1999] (a) Glass (b) Rubber (c) Plastic (d) Sugar Davy and Faraday proved that [Kerala CET (Med.) 2002] (a) Diamond is a form of carbon (b) The bond lengths of carbon containing compounds are always equal (c) The strength of graphite is minimum compared to platinum (d) Graphite is very hard Which one of the following metal oxides is antiferromagnetic in nature [MP PET 2002] 29. [MP PMT 1993; MP PET 1999] (a) Polymorphism (b) Isomorphism (c) Allotropy (d) Enantiomorphism Which is not a property of solids [MP PET 1995] (a) Solids are always crystalline in nature (b) Solids have high density and low compressibility (c) The diffusion of solids is very slow (d) Solids have definite volume Which solid will have the weakest intermolecular forces (a) Ice (b) Phosphorus (c) Naphthalene (d) Sodium fluoride Dulong and Petit’s law is valid only for [KCET 2004] (a) Metals (b) Non-metals (c) Gaseous elements (d) Solid elements Which of the following is an example of metallic crystal solid (a) C (b) Si (c) W (d) AgCl Under which category iodine crystals are placed among the following (a) Ionic crystal (b) Metallic crystal (c) Molecular crystal (d) Covalent crystal Among solids the highest melting point is established by (c) Pseudo solids (d) Molecular solids To get a n- type semiconductor, the impurity to be added to silicon should have which of the following number of valence electrons [KCET (Engg.) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 Which of the following is non-crystalline solid (a) CsCl (b) NaCl (c) CaF2 (d) Glass 37. (a) Ionic (b) Covalent (c) Metallic (d) Molecular Which of the following is an example of covalent crystal solid (a) Si (b) NaF (c) Al (d) Ar Which of the following is an example of ionic crystal solid (a) Diamond (b) LiF (c) Li (d) Silicon Which one is an example of amorphous solid (a) Glass (b) Salt (c) Cesium chloride (d) Calcium fluoride Silicon is [MHCET 2004] Solid state 38. 39. 40. (a) Semiconductor (b) Insulator (c) Conductor (d) None of these Which of the following statements about amorphous solids is incorrect [KCET 2004] (a) They melt over a range of temperature (b) They are anisotropic (c) There is no orderly arrangement of particles (d) They are rigid and incompressible The ability of a given substance to assume two or more crystalline structure is called [DCE 2004] (a) Amorphism (b) Isomorphism (c) Polymorphism (d) Isomerism Glass is (a) Supercooled liquid (b) Crystalline solid (c) Amorphous solid (d) Liquid crystal 8. 9. 10. 11. Crystallography and Lattice 1. 7. The correct statement in the following is (a) The ionic crystal of AgBr has Schottky defect [MP PET 1997] (b) The unit cell having crystal parameters, a b c, 12. is (d) The coordination number of Na ion in NaCl is 4 Which of the following is correct [DPMT 1997] (a) Crystal system Cubic 13. Axial distance Axial angles Examples a b=c == 90 Cu, KCl Monoclinic === 90 PbCrO , PbCrO CaCO , HgS a b=c o (c) (d) Rhombohedra l a=b=c Triclinic a=b=c == 90 o (b) 0.414 0.732 (c) 0.225 0.414 (d) 0.155 0.225 What type of lattice is found in potassium chloride crystal 14. 15. (a) Face centred cubic (b) Body centred cubic (c) Simple cubic (d) Simple tetragonal The three dimensional graph of lattice points which sets the pattern for the whole lattice is called (a) Space lattice (b) Simple lattice (c) Unit cell (d) Crystal lattice Crystals can be classified into ...... basic crystal habits [MP PMT 1994] 2 4 3 16. o = 90 0.732 1.000 [MP PMT 1996] o (b) (b) Has 3 Na ions (d) Is electrically charged r For tetrahedral coordination number, the radius ratio c is[KCET 2000] ra (a) high 2. How many space lattices are obtainable from the different crystal systems [MP PMT 1996; MP PET/PMT 1998] (a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 32 (d) 230 Example of unit cell with crystallographic dimensions [AFMC 1998] a b c, 90 o , 90 o is (a) Calcite (b) Graphite (c) Rhombic sulphur (d) Monoclinic sulphur In a face-centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells [CBSE PMT 2005] (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 6 The maximum radius of sphere that can be fitted in the octahedral hole of cubical closed packing of sphere of radius r is (a) 0.732 r (b) 0.414 r (c) 0.225 r (d) 0.155 r The unit cell of a NaCl lattice (a) Is body centred cube (c) Has 4 NaCl units 90 o , 120 o is hexagonal (c) In ionic compounds having Frenkel defect the ratio K Cr O , CuSO . 5H O 2 2 7 4 17. (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 14 (d) 4 How many molecules are there in the unit cell of sodium chloride [MP PMT 1996 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 In a crystal, the atoms are located at the position of 2 3. Tetragonal crystal system has the following unit cell dimensions[MP PMT 1993] (a) a b c and 90 o 18. (b) a b c and 90 o (c) a b c and 90 o (d) a b c and 90 o , 120 o 4. 5. 6. Rhombic sulphur has the following structure (a) Open chain (b) Tetrahedral (c) Puckered 6-membered ring (d) Puckered 8-membered ring Space lattice of CaF2 is 19. 0.000 0.225 [AMU 1985] (a) Maximum P.E. (b) Minimum P.E. (c) Zero P.E. (d) Infinite P.E. The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal systems is [KCET (Engg.) 2001] (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 14 Monoclinic crystal has dimension [DCE 2000] (a) a b c, 90, 90 (b) a b c, 90 (c) a b c, 90 (d) a b c, 90 [MP PMT 1993] (a) Face centred cubic (b) Body centred cubic (c) Simple cubic (d) Hexagonal closed packing For cubic coordination the value of radius ratio is (a) 0.732 1.000 (b) 0.225 0.414 (c) 209 (d) 0.414 0.732 20. The low solubility of BaSO 4 in water can be attributed to 21. (a) High lattice energy (c) Low lattice energy Bravais lattices are of (a) 8 types (c) 14 types [CBSE PMT 1991] (b) Dissociation energy (d) Ionic bond [MP PMT 1997] (b) 12 types (d) 9 types 210 Solid state 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. The structure of TlCl is similar to CsCl. What would be the radius ratio in TlCl (a) 0.155 0.225 (b) 0.225 0.414 (c) 0.414 0.732 (d) 0.732 1.000 Structure similar to zinc blende is found in (a) AgCl (b) NaCl (c) 14 and 9 7. 8. (c) CuCl (d) TlCl The structure of Na 2 O crystal is (a) CsCl type (b) NaCl type (c) ZnS type (d) Antifluorite Structure of ZnS is (a) Body centred cubic (b) Face centred cubic (c) Simple cube (d) Fluorite structure The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions a 0.387 , b 0.387 and c 0.504nm and 90 o and 120 o is (a) Cubic (c) Orthorhombic The number of tetrahedral voids cubic lattice of similar atoms is (a) 4 (c) 8 [AIIMS 2004] 9. 10. (b) Hexagonal (d) Rhombohedral in the unit cell of a face centered 11. An fcc unit cell of aluminium contains the equivalent of how many atoms [DCE 2003] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 12. 13. If ‘Z’ is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closest packing sequence A B C A B C , the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to 14. [AIIMS 2005] 2. 3. (a) Z (b) 2 Z (c) Z/2 (d) Z/4 The close packing represents ABC ABC...... order of (a) Body centred cubic packing (b) Face centred cubic packing (c) Simple cubic packing (d) Hexagonal cubic closed packing The arrangement ABC ABC ABC ….. is referred as 15. 5. 6. (a) Octahedral close packing (b) Hexagonal close packing (c) Tetragonal close packing (d) Cubic close packing The number of close neighbour in a body-centred cubic lattice of identical sphere is [MP PET 2001] (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2 The number of equidistant oppositely charged ions in a sodium chloride crystal is [MP PET 2001] (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2 Na and Mg crystallize in BCC and FCC type crystals respectively, then the number of atoms of Na and Mg present in the unit cell of their respective crystal is [AIEEE 2002] (a) 4 and 2 (b) 9 and 14 (a) NaCl (b) Al2 O 3 (c) CaF2 (d) N 2O Potassium crystallizes with a [MP PET/PMT 1998] (a) Face-centred cubic lattice (b) Body-centred cubic lattice (c) Simple cubic lattice (d) Orthorhombic lattice If the number of atoms per unit in a crystal is 2, the structure of crystal is (a) Octahedral (b) Body centred cubic bcc (c) Face centred cubic fcc (d) simple cubic The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in cubic lattice in which both lithium and silver have coordination number of eight. The crystal class is (a) Simple cube (b) Body-centred cube (c) Face-centred cube (d) None of these The number of octahedral sites per sphere in a fcc structure is [MP PMT 2000, (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1 Hexagonal close packed arrangement of ions is described as (a) ABC ABA (b) (c) ABABA (d) An example of a body cube is (a) Sodium (b) (c) Zinc (d) An example of fluorite structure is (a) NaF (b) ABC ABC ABBAB (c) SiF4 AlCl3 (d) [AIIMS 1996] Magnesium Copper SrF2 In which of the following crystals alternate tetrahedral voids are occupied? [IIT 2005] (a) NaCl (b) ZnS (c) CaF (d) Na O Which of the following contains rock salt structure (a) SrF2 (b) MgO 2 16. [MP PET 2001] 4. [AIIMS 2002] [MP PMT 1994] Crystal packing 1. An AB 2 type structure is found in [CBSE PMT 1997] [Kerala PMT 2004] (b) 6 (d) 10 (d) 2 and 4 (c) 17. 18. 19. Al 2 O 3 2 (d) All In the fluorite structure, the coordination number of Ca 2 ion is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 3 The ratio of close-packed atoms to tetrahedral holes in cubic close packing is [Pb. PMT 1998] (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 1 A solid is made of two elements X and Z . The atoms Z are in CCP arrangement while the atom X occupy all the tetrahedral sites. What is the formula of the compound [UPSEAT 2004] (a) XZ (b) XZ2 (c) X2Z (d) X 2 Z3 Solid state 20. An ionic compound has a unit cell consisting of A ions at the corners of a cube and B ions on the centres of the faces of the cube. The empirical formula for this compound would be [CBSE PMT 2004; AIEEE 6. 2005] (a) AB (b) A 2 B 21. The vacant space in the bcc unit cell is (a) 32% (b) 23% (c) 26% (d) None of these The number of octahedral voids in a unit cell of a cubical closest packed structure is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8 In the closest packed structure of a metallic lattice, the number of nearest neighbours of a metallic atom is (c) AB 3 22. 23. (d) A3 B 7. 24. 25. [MH CET 2002] (a) 26. Na (b) Mg 8. Na (b) Mg 2 (c) Al 3 (d) Si 4 (c) a M g cm 3 N No 4. 5. M No g cm 3 a N Potassium fluoride has NaCl type structure. What is the distance between K and F ions if cell edge is a cm 3 (a) 1 .86 Å (b) (c) 4.3 Å (d) 7 .44 Å 3 .72 Å In octahedral holes (voids) (a) A simple triangular void surrounded by four spheres (b) A bi-triangular void surrounded by four spheres (c) A bi-triangular void surrounded by six spheres (d) A bi-triangular void surrounded by eight spheres Bragg's law is given by the equation [MP PMT 1995, 2002] (a) n 2 sin (b) n 2d sin (c) 2n d sin (d) n 2 d sin 2 The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal with density (a) 12. 4 10 25 (b) 3 10 25 (c) 2 10 25 (d) 1 10 25 In the crystals of which of the following ionic compounds would you expect maximum distance between centres of cations and anions[CBSE PMT 1998 (a) LiF (b) CsF (c) CsI (d) LiI The number of unit cells in 58.5 g of NaCl is nearly [MP PMT 2000, 01] (a) 6 10 20 (b) 3 10 22 (c) 1.5 10 (d) 0.5 10 24 How many unit cells are present in a cube-shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g [Atomic masses: Na 23, Cl 35.5] [AIEEE 2003] 23 13. (a) 2.57 10 21 unit cells (b) 5.14 10 21 unit cells (c) 1.28 10 21 unit cells (d) 1.71 10 21 unit cells 14. In the Bragg’s equation for diffraction of X- rays, n (c) 4 a cm (d) a / 4 cm represents for [MP PMT 2000] (a) Quantum number (b) An integer An element occurring in the bcc structure has 12.08 10 23 unit cells. The total number of atoms of the element in these cells will be[MP PET 1994](c) Avogadro’s numbers (d) Moles 15. In a face centred cubic cell, an atom at the face contributes to the (a) 24.16 10 23 (b) 36.18 10 23 unit cell (c) 6.04 10 23 (d) 12.08 10 23 [Karnataka (Engg./Med.) 2000; AFMC 2001] If an atom is present in the centre of the cube, the participation of that atom per unit cell is (a) 1/4 part (b) 1/8 part 1 (c) 1 part (d) 1/2 part (a) (b) 1 4 16. The interionic distance for cesium chloride crystal will be 1 1 [MP PET 2002] (c) (d) 2 8 a (a) a (b) For an ionic crystal of the general formula AX and coordination 2 number 6, the value of radius ratio will be [MP PMT 1993] 2a 3a (c) (d) (a) Greater than 0.73 2 3 (b) In between 0.73 and 0.41 (a) 3. (d) CsBr crystal has bcc structure. It has an edge length of 4 .3 Å. d 10 g / cm 3 and cell edge equal to 100 pm, is equal to[CBSE PMT 1994; K The formula for determination of density of unit cell is a3 N o NM (a) (b) g cm 3 g cm 3 NM a3 N o 3 2. 10. 11. Mathematical analysis of cubic system and Bragg’s equation 1. 9. (c) Al (d) None of these Which ion has the largest radius from the following ions (a) (c) In between 0.41 and 0.22 (d) Less than 0.22 The number of spheres contained (i) in one body centred cubic unit cell and (ii) in one face centred cubic unit cell, is (a) In (i) 2 and in (ii) 4 (b) In (i) 3 and in (ii) 2 (c) In (i) 4 and in (ii) 2 (d) In (i) 2 and in (ii) 3 The shortest interionic distance between Cs and Br ions is[IIT 1995] [JIPMER 2002] (a) Twelve (b) Four (c) Eight (d) Six In the rock salt structure, the number of formula units per unit cell is equal to (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Hexagonal close packing is found in crystal lattice of 211 2a cm (b) a / 2 cm 212 Solid state 17. Sodium metal crystallizes as a body centred cubic lattice with the cell edge 4.29 Å. What is the radius of sodium atom [AIIMS 1999] 18. 19. 20. 21. 8 7 (a) 1.857 10 cm (b) (c) 3.817 10 8 cm (d) 9.312 10 7 cm Crystal structure and Coordination number 1. 2.371 10 cm For an ionic crystal of the type AB, the value of (limiting) radius ratio is 0.40. The value suggests that the crystal structure should be (c) Na 2 W O3 (d) NaW O4 (a) Octahedral (b) Tetrahedral (c) Square planar (d) Plane triangle 2. Potassium crystallizes in a bcc lattice, hence the coordination number of potassium in potassium metal is Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbour distance [KCEE 1993] 3 4 .52 Å. Its atomic weight is 39. Its density (in kg m ) will be [AIIMS 1991] (a) 0 (b) 4 (a) 454 (b) 804 (c) 6 (d) 8 (c) 852 (d) 908 3. Body centered cubic lattice has a coordination number of [AIIMS 1996; MP PMT 2002] r If the value of ionic radius ratio c is 0.52 in an ionic (a) 4 (b) 8 ra (c) 12 (d) 6 compound, the geometrical arrangement of ions in crystal is A and B. This crystallizes in 4. A compound is formed by elements (a) Tetrahedral (b) Planar A the cubic structure when atoms are the corners of the cube and (c) Octahedral (d) Pyramidal B atoms are at the centre of the body. The simplest formula of the The number of atoms/molecules contained in one face centred compounds is cubic unit cell of a monoatomic substance is [KCET 1993; CBSE PMT 2000; Kerala PMT 2002] [CPMT 1989, 94; CBSE PMT 1989, 96; NCERT 1990; MP PET 1993; KCET 1999] 22. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 The number of atoms/molecules contained in one body centered cubic unit cell is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 24. It the distance between Na and Cl ions in sodium chloride crystal is X pm, the length of the edge of the unit cell is [KCET 2004] (a) 4X pm (b) X/4 pm (c) X/2 pm (d) 2X pm The edge of unit cell of FCC Xe crystal is 620 pm . The radius of 25. [MP PET 2004] Xe atom is (a) 219.25 Pm (b) 235.16 Pm (c) 189.37 Pm (d) 209.87 Pm In orthorhombic, the value of a, b and c are respectively 23. 26. 5. 6. 7. (a) AB (b) AB 2 (c) A2 B (d) AB 4 Coordination number for Cu is [AMU 1982] (a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12 In the crystal of CsCl, the nearest neighbours of each Cs ion are[MP PET 199 (a) Six chloride ions (b) Eight chloride ions (c) Six Cs ions (d) Eight Cs ions In a cubic structure of compound which is made from X and Y, where X atoms are at the corners of the cube and Y at the face centres of the cube. The molecular formula of the compound is [AIIMS 2000] (a) X 2 Y (b) X 3 Y (c) 8. (d) XY 2 XY 3 Ferrous oxide has a cubic structure and each edge of the unit cell is 5.0 Å. Assuming density of the oxide as 4.0 g cm 3 , then the 4.2 Å, 8.6 Å and 8.3 Å . given the molecular mass of the solute is number of Fe2 and O 2 ions present in each unit cell will be [MP PET 2000 155 gm mol 1 and that of density is 3.3 gm / cc , the number of formula units per unit cell is (a) Four Fe2 and four O 2 [Orrisa JEE 2005] (c) Four Fe2 and two O 2 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 A metal has bcc structure and the edge length of its unit cell is 3.04 Å . The volume of the unit cell in cm 3 will be (b) Two Fe 2 and four O 2 (d) Three Fe 2 and three O 2 9. [Orrisa JEE 2005] (a) 27. A solid has a structure in which 'W ' atoms are located at the corners of a cubic lattice ' O ' atoms at the centre of edges and ' Na ' atoms at the centre of the cube. The formula for the compound is [KCET 1996] (a) NaW O2 (b) NaW O3 1.6 10 cm 21 3 (b) 2.81 10 23 cm 4 r (b) 3 (c) 2r 4 Cl ions are in fcc arrangement (b) Na ions has coordination number 4 (c) Cl ions has coordination number 6 (d) Each unit cell contains 4 NaCl molecules r 2 (d) (a) 3 (c) 6.02 10 23 cm 3 (d) 6.6 10 24 cm 3 In face centred cubic unit cell edge length is [DPMT 2005] (a) Which of the following statements is not true about NaCl structure [DCE 2001] 3 r 2 10. In CsCl structure, the coordination number of Cs is [MP PMT 2001] (a) Equal to that of Cl , that is 6 (b) Equal to that of Cl , that is 8 (c) Not equal to that of Cl , that is 6 Solid state 11. (d) Not equal to that of Cl , that is 8 In a solid ‘AB’ having the NaCl structure, ‘A’ atoms occupy the corners of the cubic unit cell. If all the face-centered atoms along one of the axes are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the solid is [IIT Screening 2001] (a) AB 2 (b) A 2 B (c) 12. A4 B3 (d) In CsCl lattice the coordination number of Cs ion is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12 25. Crystal structure of NaCl is (a) In solid CsCl each Cl is closely packed with how many Cs [MP PET 2003] (a) 8 (b) 6 26. (c) 10 (d) 2 In A B ionic compound, radii of A and B ions are 180 pm 14. and 187 pm respectively. The crystal structure of this compound will be (a) NaCl type (b) CsCl type (c) ZnS type (d) Similar to diamond In which of the following substances the carbon atom is arranged in a regular tetrahedral structure [NCERT 1978] (a) Diamond (b) Benzene (c) Graphite (d) Carbon black The coordination number of a metal crystallizing in a hexagonal close packed structure is 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. Al 2 O 3 (b) Fe3 O 4 (c) NiO2 (d) PbO What is the coordination number of sodium in Na 2 O [BVP 2004] (a) 12 (c) 8 29. 30. 31. 32. 23. The number of Cl ions around one Na in NaCl crystal lattice is [MP PET 1996; BVP 2004] (a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 6 The number of atoms present in unit cell of a monoatomic substance of simple cubic lattice is [Pb. PMT 2004] (a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 The coordination number of a metal crystallizing in a hexagonal close packed chep structure is [MP PMT 2004] (a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 6 Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct [IIT 1998] The co-ordination number of Na in NaCl is [Orrisa JEE 2005] 34. (a) 6 (b) (c) 4 (d) In the calcium fluoride structure the cation and anions are respectively (a) 6, 6 (b) (c) 4, 4 (d) 8 1 co-ordination number of the [J & K 2005] 8, 4 4, 8 Defects in crystal 1. [KCET 2003] (b) 4 (d) 6 (a) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCl crystal is 8 (b) A metal that crystallizes in bcc structure has a coordination number of 12 (c) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells (d) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm (rNa 95 pm; rCl 181 pm) [AIIMS 2003] (a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 2 The ratio of cationic radius to anionic radius in an ionic crystal is greater than 0.732. Its coordination number is In NaCl lattice the coordination number of Cl ion is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 Coordination number of Na ion in rock salt is 33. If the radius ratio is in the range of 0.731 1, then the coordination number will be (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 If the radius ratio is in the range of 0.414 0.732, then the coordination number will be (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (d) None 28. [NCERT 1983] (a) (b) bcc fcc (c) Both (a) and (b) In zinc blende structure the coordination number of Zn 2 ion is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 BHU 1982, 87; MP PET 1995, 99] (a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 6 Most crystals show good cleavage because their atoms, ions or molecules are [CBSE PMT 1991] (a) Weakly bonded together (b) Strongly bonded together (c) Spherically symmetrical (d) Arranged in planes An example of a non-stoichiometric compound is [NCERT 1982; BHU 1995] 27. [NCERT 1978; IIT 1999] (a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 6 The structure of MgO is similar to NaCl. What would be the coordination number of magnesium (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 How many chloride ions are there around sodium ion in sodium chloride crystal [NCERT 1979, 80; CPMT 1988; (b) 8 (d) 4 24. A3 B4 13. 15. (a) 6 (c) 1 213 2. Certain crystals produce electric signals on application of pressure. This phenomenon is called [BHU 2005] (a) Pyroelectricity (b) Ferroelectricity (c) Peizoelectricity (d) Ferrielectricity Which defect causes decrease in the density of crystal [KCET 2000, 05] (a) Frenkel (b) Schottky 214 Solid state (c) Interstitial 3. F centre The correct statement regarding F centre is (a) Electron are held in the voids of crystals (b) 4. (d) 14. F centre produces colour to the crystals (c) Conductivity of the crystal increases due to F centre (d) All Doping of silicon (Si) with boron (B) leads to 15. [UPSEAT 2004] (a) n -type semiconductor (c) Metal 5. p -type semiconductor 16. (d) Insulator If NaCl is doped with 10 3 mol % SrCl2 , concentration of cation vacancies will be (a) 6. (b) 1 10 3 mol% (b) then the 2 10 3 mol% (c) 3 10 3 mol% (d) 4 10 3 mol% In the laboratory, sodium chloride is made by burning the sodium in the atmosphere of chlorine which is yellow in colour. The cause of yellow colour is 17. 18. (a) Presence of Na ions in the crystal lattice 7. 8. (b) Presence of Cl ions in the crystal lattice (c) Presence of electron in the crystal lattice (d) Presence of face centered cubic crystal lattice Frenkel defect is caused due to [MP PET 1994] (a) An ion missing from the normal lattice site creating a vacancy (b) An extra positive ion occupying an interstitial position in the lattice (c) An extra negative ion occupying an interstitial position in the lattice (d) The shift of a positive ion from its normal lattice site to an interstitial site Which one of the following has Frenkel defect [MP PMT 2000] 10. (a) Sodium chloride (b) Graphite (c) Silver bromide (d) Diamond Schottky defect generally appears in (a) NaCl (b) KCl (c) CsCl (d) All of these Schottky defect in crystals is observed when 11. (a) Density of crystal is increased (b) Unequal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice (c) An ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site (d) Equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice Ionic solids, with Schottky defects, contain in their structure 9. 19. 20. 21. (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Does not change (d) Changes Point defects are present in [MP PMT 1997] (a) Ionic solids (b) Molecular solids (c) Amorphous solids (d) Liquids If a non-metal is added to the interstitial sites of a metal then the metal becomes [DCE 2001] (a) Softer (b) Less tensile (c) Less malleable (d) More ductile In AgBr crystal, the ion size lies in the order Ag Br . The AgBr crystal should have the following characteristics (a) Defectless (perfect) crystal (b) Schottky defect only (c) Frenkel defect only (d) Both Schottky and Frenkel defects Frenkel and Schottky defects are [BHU 2003] (a) Nucleus defects (b) Non-crystal defects (c) Crystal defects (d) None of these Which one of the following is the most correct statement (a) Brass is an interstitial alloy, while steel is a substitutional alloy (b) Brass is a substitutional alloy, while steel is an interstitial alloy (c) Brass and steel are both substitutional alloys (d) Brass and steel are both interstitial alloys The flame colours of metal ions are due to [KCET 2003] (a) Frenkel defect (b) Schottky defect (c) Metal deficiency defect (d) Metal excess defect Which one of the following crystals does not exhibit Frenkel defect [MP PET 200 (a) AgBr (b) AgCl (c) KBr (d) ZnS In a solid lattice the cation has left a lattice site and is located at an interstitial position, the lattice defect is [AIIMS 1982, 1991; DCE 2002; J & K 2005] 22. [DCE 2004] 23. (a) Interstitial defect (b) Valency defect (c) Frenkel defect (d) Schottky defect When electrons are trapped into the crystal in anion vacancy, the defect is known as [BHU 2005] (a) Schotky defect (b) Frenkel defect (c) Stoichiometric defect (d) F-centres Schottky defect defines imperfection in the lattice structure of a [AIIMS 2002] (a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) Plasma [CBSE PMT 1998; KCET 2002] 1. [CBSE PMT 1994] 12. 13. (a) Equal number of cation and anion vacancies (b) Anion vacancies and interstitial anions 2. (c) Cation vacancies only (d) Cation vacancies and interstitial cations The following is not a function of an impurity present in a crystal[MP PET 1995] (a) Establishing thermal equilibrium (b) Having tendency to diffuse 3. (c) Contributing to scattering (d) Introducing new electronic energy levels Due to Frenkel defect, the density of ionic solids 4. [MP PET 1996; MP PMT 2002] Amorphous solids are (a) Solid substance in real sense (b) Liquid in real sense (c) Supercooled liquid (d) Substance with definite melting point Silicon is found in nature in the form of [MH CET 2002] (a) Body centered cubic structure (b) Hexagonal close-packed structure (c) Network solid (d) Face centered cubic structure A match box exhibits [MP PET 1993, 95] (a) Cubic geometry (b) Monoclinic geometry (c) Orthorhombic geometry (d) Tetragonal geometry Which has no rotation of symmetry [Orrisa JEE 2004] (a) Hexagonal (b) Orthorhombic Solid state 5. (c) Cubic (d) Triclinic Which of the following molecules has three-fold axis of symmetry[UPSEAT 2004] (a) NH 3 (b) C2 H 4 6. (c) CO 2 (d) SO 2 Which one possess a antifluorite structure (a) Na 2 O (b) MgO 7. 8. 3 (a) Al (c) Mg 2 [MP PET 1993] 18. 2 (b) Ba (d) Na Na Cl Na Cl Na Cl Cl Cl Na Na Na Cl Cl (c) Fe 2 O 3 (d) Al 2 O 3 Which one of the following is the biggest ion 215 Na Cl Cl Na Cl Na Na (a) Interstitial defect (b) Schottky defect (c) Frenkel defect (d) Frenkel and Schottky defects Which of the following is a three dimensional silicate [MHCET 2003] (a) Mica (c) Zeolite (e) 12 The edge length of face centred unit cubic cell is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is (b) Spodumene (d) None of these [CBSE PMT 1998] 9. (a) 285 pm (b) (c) 144 pm (d) 618 pm 398 pm An element (atomic mass 100 g / mol) having bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. Then density of the element is [CBSE PMT 1996; AIIMS 2002] (a) (c) 10. 11. 10.376 g / cm 3 7.289 g / cm 3 (a) (b) 5.188 g / cm 3 (d) 2.144 g / cm 3 (b) If the pressure on a NaCl structure is increased, then its coordination number will [AFMC 2000] (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain the same (d) Either (b) or (c) The pyknometric density of sodium chloride crystal is 2.165 10 3 kg m 3 while its X-rays density is 2.178 10 3 kg m 3 . The fraction of unoccupied sites in sodium chloride crystal is [CBSE PMT 2003] (a) 12. 5.96 10 3 Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below : (c) (d) (e) 1. Assertion Reason : Assertion : Reason : 3. Assertion Reason : : 4. Assertion : Reason : 5. Assertion : Space or crystal lattice differ in symmetry of the arrangement of points. 6. Reason Assertion : : Reason : Assertion : n 2d sin , is known as Bragg’s equation. In close packing of spheres, a tetrahedral void is surrounded by four spheres whereas an octahedral void is surrounded by six spheres. A tetrahedral void has a tetrahedral shape whereas an octahedral void has an octahedral shape. Cyclic silicates and chain silicates have the same general molecular formula. Reason : Assertion : 2. (b) 5.96 (c) 5.96 10 2 (d) 5.96 10 1 Which of the following statements is correct for CsBr3 If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. If assertion is true but reason is false. If the assertion and reason both are false. If assertion is false but reason is true. [IIT 1996] : (a) It is a covalent compound [AIIMS 1999] (b) It contains Cs 3 and Br ions (c) It contains Cs and Br3 ions 13. (d) It contains Cs , Br and lattice Br2 molecule In which compound 8 : 8 coordination is found (a) CsCl (b) (c) Al 2 O 3 (d) All of these MgO 14. If the coordination of Ca 2 in CaF2 is 8, then the coordination 15. number of F ion would be (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 For some crystals, the radius ratio for cation and anion is 0.525, its coordination number will be (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 The basic building unit of all silicates is [UPSEAT 2002] (a) 17. SiO 4 square planar In any ionic solid (MX) with Schottky defects, the number of positive and negative ions are same. Equal number of cation and anion vacancies are present. [IIT Screening 2001] [EAMCET 1984] 16. Diamond is a precious stone. Carbon atoms are tetrahedrally arranged in diamond. [AIIMS 1994 ] In crystal lattice, the size of the cation is larger in a tetrahedral hole than in an octahedral hole. The cations occupy more space than anions in crystal packing. [AIIMS 1996] Crystalline solids have short range order. Amorphous solids have long range order. 7. (b) [SiO 4 ]4 tetrahedron (c) SiO 4 octahedron (d) SiO 4 linear What type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram below [AIEEE 2004] 8. In cyclic silicates, three corners of each SiO4 tetrahedron are shared while in chain silicates only two are shared with other tetrahedra. The presence of a large number of Schottky defects in NaCl lowers its density. 216 Solid state 9. Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : 11. Assertion : 12. Reason Assertion Reason : : : 10. In NaCl , there are approximately 10 6 Schottky pairs per cm 3 at room temperature. Anion vacancies in alkali halides are produced by heating the alkali halide crystals with alkali metal vapour. Electrons trapped in anion vacancies are referred to as F -centres. Electrical conductivity of semiconductors increases with increasing temperature. With increase in temperature, large number of electrons from the valence band can jump to the conduction band. On heating ferromagnetic or ferrimagnetic substances, they become paramagnetic. The electrons change their spin on heating. Lead zirconate is a piezoelectric crystal. Lead zirconate crystals have no dipole moment. Type of solid and Their properties 1 a 2 b 3 a 4 a 5 b 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 d 11 b 12 a 13 c 14 c 15 a 16 a 17 a 18 d 19 c 20 c 21 b 22 d 23 d 24 d 25 a 26 d 27 a 28 a 29 d 30 31 d 32 a 33 c 34 a 36 a 37 a 38 b 39 c Mathematical analysis of cubic system and Bragg’s equation 1 b 2 b 3 a 4 b 5 b 6 a 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 a 11 c 12 c 13 a 14 b 15 d 16 c 17 a 18 b 19 d 20 c 21 c 22 b 23 d 24 a 25 c 26 b 27 b Crystal structure and Coordination number 1 b 2 d 3 b 4 a 5 d 6 b 7 d 8 a 9 b 10 b 11 d 12 a 13 b 14 a 15 b 16 c 17 d 18 d 19 b 20 d 21 c 22 b 23 b 24 c 25 a 26 c 27 b 28 d 29 d 30 d 31 a 32 acd 33 a 34 b Defects in crystal 1 c 2 b 3 d 4 d 5 a d 6 c 7 d 8 c 9 d 10 d 35 b 11 a 12 a 13 c 14 a 15 b 40 ac 16 c 17 c 18 c 19 d 20 c 21 c 22 d 23 a Crystallography and Lattice 1 b 2 c 3 b 4 d 5 a 6 a 7 b 8 d 9 d 10 b 11 c 12 c 13 a 14 c 15 b 16 b 17 b 18 b 19 a 20 a 21 c 22 d 23 c 24 d 25 b 26 b 27 c 28 d Critical Thinking Questions 1 c 2 c 3 c 4 d 5 a 6 a 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 a 11 a 12 c 13 a 14 b 15 c 16 b 17 b 18 c Assertion & Reason Crystal packing 1 b 2 b 3 d 4 a 5 b 1 b 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 b 6 d 7 c 8 b 9 b 10 b 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 b 10 a 11 d 12 c 13 a 14 b 15 b 11 a 12 c 16 b 17 c 18 b 19 c 20 c 21 a 22 c 23 a 24 d 25 b 26 a 218 Solid state 35. 36. Properties and Types of solids 37. 38. 2. (a) Both gases and liquids possess fluidity and hence viscosity molecules in the solid state do not have translational motion. (b) It is a characteristic of liquid crystal. 3. (a) 40. 5. 6. (b) The value of heat of fusion of NaCl is very high due to fcc arrangement of its ions. (c) Piezoelectric crystals are used in record player. 8. (b) 1. 9. 10. 12. 13. BaTiO3 is a ferroelectric compound. 39. NaCl is a ionic solid in which constituent particles are positive ( Na ) and negative (Cl ) ions. (d) Amorphous solids have short range order but no sharp in melting point. (d) Solids have definite shape, size and rigidity. (a) In crystalline solid there is perfect arrangement of the constituent particles only at 0K. As the temperature increases the chance that a lattice site may be unoccupied by an ion increases. As the number of defects increases with temperature solid change in liquid. (c) Diamond is a covalent solid in which constituent particles are atoms. (b) LiF is an example of ionic crystal solid, in which constituent particles are positive (Li ) and negative (F ) ions. (a) Amorphous solids neither have ordered arrangement (i.e. no definite shape) nor have sharp melting point like crystals, but when heated, they become pliable until they assume the properties usually related to liquids. It is therefore they are regarded as super-cooled liquids. (a) Silicon is a semiconductor because it is a thermal active and its conductivity increased with increasing temperature. (b) Amorphous solids are isotropic, because of these substances show same properties in all directions. (c) Polymorphism is a ability of a substances which show two or more crystalline structure (ac) Amorphous solids neither have ordered arrangement (i.e. no definite shape) nor have sharp melting point like crystals, but when heated, they become pliable until they assume the properties usually related to liquids. It is therefore they are regarded as super-cooled liquids. Crystallography and Lattice 1. 2. (b) A crystal system is hexagonal if its unit cell having a b c axial ratio and 90, 120 axial angles. (c) Rhombohedral crystal system a b c , 90 o ex – NaNO 3 , CaSO 4 , calcite CaCO 3 , HgS 3. (b) Tetragonal system has the a b c, 90 . (c) Solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity because ions are not free to move. (a) The existence of a substance in more than one crystalline form is known as polymorphism. (a) Solids are also non-crystalline in nature. (a) Ice has the lowest melting point out of the given solids, hence it has the weakest intermolecular forces. (c) All metals and some alloys are metallic crystal. (c) Iodine crystals are molecular crystals, in which constituent particles are molecules having interparticle forces are Vander Waal’s forces. (b) Ionic solids have highest melting point due to strong electrostatic forces of attraction. (d) For n-type, impurity added to silicon should have more than 4 valence electrons. (d) Glass is an amorphous solid. (a) Crystalline solids have regular arrangement of constituent particles, sharp melting points and are anisotropic. (d) Sugar is a crystalline solid while glass, rubber and plastic are amorphous solids. 5. (a) Space lattice of CaF2 is face centred cubic. 6. (a) For body centred cubic arrangement co-ordination number is 8 and radius ratio (r / r ) is 0.732 1.000 . 7. 8. 10. (b) There are 14 Bravais lattices (space lattices). (d) Monoclinic sulphur is an example of Monoclinic crystal system. (b) r 0.414 r . 11. (c) Each unit cell of NaCl contains 4 NaCl units. 12. (c) For tetrahedral arrangement co-ordination number is 4 and radius ratio (r / r ) is 0.225 0.414 . 13. 14. (a) Face-centred cubic lattice found in KCl and NaCl . (c) Definition of unit cell. 16. 28. (a) 17. 18. 29. (d) Graphite is sp 2 hybridised and a covalent crystal. 30. 31. (d) Ionic crystals exhibit non-directional properties of the bond. (d) Ice is a molecular crystal in which the constituent units are molecules and the interparticle forces are hydrogen bonds. (a) Quartz is a covalent crystal having a framework of silicates or silica, i.e. a three dimensional network when all the four oxygen atoms of each of SiO4 tetrahedron are shared. (b) In NaCl (rock salt) : Number of Na ions 12 (at edge 1 centers) 1 (at body centre) 1 4 . Number of 4 1 1 Cl ions 8 (at corners) 6 (at face centre) 4 . 8 2 Thus 4 formula units per unit cell. (b) Lowest potential energy level provides stable arrangement. (b) The seven basic crystal lattice arrangements are :- Cubic, Tetragonal, Orthorhombic, Monoclinic, Hexagonal, Rhombohedral and Triclinic. (a) The conditions for monoclinic crystal system. (a) High lattice energy of BaSO 4 causes low solubility of 14. 15. 16. 17. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 25. 26. 32. 33. 34. MnO2 is antiferromagnetic. (c) Metallic crystals are good conductor of heat and current due to free electrons in them. (a) Silicon is a covalent crystal in which constituent particles are atoms. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. unit cell dimension BaSO 4 in water. (c) 14 kinds of Bravais lattices (space lattices) are possible in a crystal. (d) Radius ratio in TlCl is 0.732 – 1.000 and co-ordination number is 8 and arrangement is body centred cubic. (c) Zinc blende (ZnS ) has fcc structure and is an ionic crystal having 4 : 4 co-ordination number. Solid state 21. 24. (d) 25. (b) Zinc blende (ZnS ) has fcc structure and is an ionic crystal having 4 : 4 co-ordination number. 1 (d) 8 (at corners) 1 8 1 6 (at face centre) 3 2 Z 1 3 4 (total no. of atoms) 28. Na 2 O has antifluorite ( A2 B) type structure. 22. 23. 24. Crystal packing 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. (b) Number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell = 2 number of atoms = 2Z. (b) The system ABC ABC…… is also referred to as face-centred cubic or fcc. (d) It represents ccp arrangement. (a) BCC has a coordination number of 8. (b) In rock salt structure the co-ordination number of Na : Cl is 6 : 6 . (d) The bcc cell consists of 8 atoms at the corners and one atom at centre. 1 n 8 1 2 . 8 The fcc cell consists of 8 atoms at the eight corners and one atom at each of the six faces. This atom at the face is shared by two unit cells. 1 1 n 8 6 4 . 8 2 (c) AB2 type of structure is present in CaF2 2 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 2 AB2 ⇌ A 2 B ; CaF2 ⇌ Ca 2 F (b) Potassium (K) has bcc lattice. (b) Number of atoms per unit cell in bcc system = 2. (b) In body centred cubic, each atom/ion has a coordination number of 8. (d) Number of octahedral sites = Number of sphere in the packing. Number of octahedral sites per sphere 1 . (c) ABAB …… is hexagonal close packing. (a) Sodium (Na ) is a body cube. (b) SrF2 has fluorite (CaF2 ) type structure. (b) In ZnS structure, sulphide ions occupy all FCC lattice points while Zn ions are present in alternate tetrahedral voids. (b) MgO contains rock salt (NaCl) structure. (c) CaF2 (fluorite) has fcc structure with 8 : 4 coordination number. (b) Every constituent has two tetrahedral voids. In ccp lattice atoms 1 1 8 6 4 8 2 Tetrahedral void 4 2 8 , Thus ratio 4 : 8 :: 1 : 2 . (c) Tetrahedral sites one double comparable to octahedral sites then ratio of X and Z respectively 2 : 1 since formula of the compound X 2 Z . (c) A atoms are at eight corners of the cube. Therefore, the no. of 8 1 . B atoms are at the face A atoms in the unit cell = 8 centre of six faces. Therefore, its share in the unit cell = 6 3 . The formula is AB . 2 25. 26. (a) In bcc structure 68% of the available volume is occupied by spheres. Thus vacant space is 32%. (c) Number of atoms in the cubic close packed structure = 8. 1 Number of octahedral voids 8 4 . 2 (a) Co-ordination number in HCP and CCP arrangement is 12 while in bcc arrangement is 8. (d) In NaCl (rock salt) : Number of Na ions 12 (at edge 1 centers) 1 (at body centre) 1 4 . Number of Cl ions 4 1 1 8 (at corners) 6 (at face centre) 4 . Thus 4 8 2 formula units per unit cell. (b) Co-ordination number in HCP =12 Co-ordination number in Mg is also = 12 (a) All are the iso-electronic species but Na has low positive charge so have largest radius. Mathematical analysis of cubic system and Bragg’s equation 18. 19. 20. 3 N mol . wt.( M ) g cm 3 V ( a 3 ) avogadro no. (N o ) 1. (b) Density of unit cell 2. (b) Distance between K and F 3. 1 length of the edge 2 (a) There are two atoms in a bcc unit cell. 4. 5. (b) (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) So, number of atoms in 12.08 10 23 unit cells 2 12.08 10 23 24.16 10 23 atom . bcc structure has one atom shared by 1 unit cell. The structural arrangement of co-ordination number ‘6’ is octahedral and its radius ratio is 0.414 0.732 . The example of octahedral is KCl and NaCl . The number of spheres in one body centred cubic and in one face centred cubic unit cell is 2 and 4 respectively. Closest approach in bcc lattice 10. (a) 1 1 of body diagonal 3 a 2 2 M 2+ 16. 17. 219 3 4 .3 3 .72 Å . 2 a 3 N 0 10 30 z 10 (100) (6 .02 10 23 ) 10 30 15.05 4 3 No. of atoms in 100 g 6.02 1023 100 4 1025 . 15.05 11. (c) Cs and I have largest sizes. 12. (c) 58.5 g NaCl 1 mole 6.02 10 23 Na Cl units. One unit cell contains 4 Na Cl units. Hence number of unit cell present 13. (a) 6 .02 10 23 1.5 10 23 . 4 1 6.023 10 23 1.029 10 22 58.5 A unit cell contains 4 Na ion and 4 Cl ions Unit cell 1 .029 10 22 2.57 10 21 unit cell. 4 220 Solid state (b) Bragg’s equation is n 2d sin where n is an integer i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 etc. (d) Face centred cubic structure contribute of 1/8 by each atom present on the corner and 1/2 by each atom present on the face. 4. 16. (c) As CsCl is body-centred, d 3a / 2 . 6. 17. (a) Radius of Na (if bcc lattice) 18. 1.8574 Å 1.8574 10 8 cm (b) The crystals in which radius ratio value is found between 0.225 0.414 shows tetrahedral crystal structure. 19. (d) For bcc, d 14. 15. 3a 4 3 4 .29 4 3 2d 2 4.52 a or a 5.219 Å 522 pm 2 1.732 3 5. 7. 8. ZM 2 39 a 3 N 0 10 30 (522)3 (6 .023 10 23 ) 10 30 21. 22. 23. x 24. (a) 25. (c) (5 Å)3 125 10 24 cm 3 Density n 3079.2 10 1 42.7 10 1 4.27 4 72 (b) In NaCl crystal Na ions has coordination number 6. 10. 11. (b) Cl ions in CsCl adopt BCC type of packing. (d) There were 6 A atoms on the face-centres removing facecentred atoms along one of the axes means removal of 2 A atoms. Now, number of A atoms per unit cell 1 1 8 4 3 8 2 a = 2x a 620 219.25 Pm ; r 2 2 2 2 V N0 d Z M (corners ) (b) Volume of unit cell a 3 27. (3.04 10 8 cm)3 2.81 10 23 cm 3 (b) In FCC (edge centred) 15. 16. (a) In Cs Cl crystal co-ordination number of each ion is 8. 180 0 .962 which lies in the range of (b) r / r 187 0.732 1.000 , hence co-ordination number = 8 i.e. the structure is CsCl type. (a) In diamond, C-atoms are arranged in a regular tetrahedral structure. (b) In hcp, co-ordination no. is 12. (c) Mg has 6 co-ordination number (fcc structure). 17. (d) In NaCl crystal every Na ion is surrounded by 6 Cl ion and 12. 14. Crystal structure and Coordination number 1 8 1 8 1. (b) In a unit cell, W atoms at the corner 2. 3. 1 12 3 4 Na atoms at the centre of the cube = 1 W : O : Na 1 : 3 : 1, hence formula NaW O3 (d) For bcc lattice, co-ordination number is 8. (b) Body centered cubic lattice has a co-ordination number 8. ( body centred ) Hence the resultant stoichiometry is A3 B4 13. 4 r 2a 4r a 2 (face centred) Number of B atoms per unit cell 1 + 14 12 4 4 .2 8 .6 8 .3 10 24 6 .023 10 23 3.3 3.84 4 155 26. wt.of cell 72 n , 4.09 volume 6.023 10 23 125 10 24 9. r 72 n 6 .023 10 23 Volume of one unit (lengthof corner )3 (c) The value of ionic radius ratio is 0.52 which is between 0.414 0.732, then the geometrical arrangement of ions in crystal is octahedral. (c) The number of atoms present in sc, fcc and bcc unit cell are 1, 4, 2 respectively. (b) The number of atoms present in sc, fcc and bcc unit cell are 1, 4, 2 respectively. (d) Cl Na Cl a (b) Each Cs in CsCl is surrounded by eight Cl and each Cl in CsCl is surrounded by eight Cs . (d) X atoms are at eight corners of the cube. Therefore, the 8 number of X atoms in the unit cell 1 . 8 Y atoms are at the face centre of six faces. Therefore, its share 6 in the unit cell 3 . The formula is XY 3 . 2 (a) Let the units of ferrous oxide in a unit cell n , molecular weight of ferrous oxide (FeO) 56 16 72 g mol 1 , weight of n units 0.91 g / cm 3 910 kg m 3 20. (a) A atoms are at eight corners of the cube. Therefore, the 8 number of A atoms in the unit cell 1 , atoms B per unit 8 cell = 1. Hence the formula is AB. (d) Co-ordination number for Cu is 12. O atoms at the centre of edges 18. 19. 20. every chloride ion is surrounded by 6 Na ion. (d) Crystals show good cleavage because their constituent particles are arranged in planes. (b) Fe3 O4 is a non-stoichiometric compound because in it the ratio of the cations to the anions becomes different from that indicated by the chemical formula. (d) The radius ratio for co-ordination number 4, 6 and 8 lies in between the ranges [0.225 0.414], [0.414 0.732] and [0.732 1] respectively. Solid state 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. (c) The radius ratio for co-ordination number 4, 6 and 8 lies in between the ranges [0.225 0.414], [0.414 0.732] and [0.732 1] respectively. 2. 3. 5. 6. 7. 8. (c) 17. 18. (c) (c) ions and each Na ion to 4 oxide ions. Hence it has 4 : 8 coordination. (b) When radius ratio between 0.732 1, then co-ordination number is 8 and structural arrangement is body-centred cubic. 19. (d) (c) Each Cs is surrounded by eight Cl ions in CsCl crystal lattice because its co-ordination number is 8 : 8. (a) NaCl has fcc arrangement of ions. 20. 21. (c) (c) 22. (d) (b) In Na 2 O, each oxide ions (O 2 ) is co-ordinated to 8 Na (c) Each Na is surrounded by six Cl ions in NaCl crystal lattice because its co-ordination number is 6 : 6. (b) Zinc blende (ZnS ) has fcc structure and is an ionic crystal having 4 : 4 co-ordination number. (d) In a simple cubic structure 1 z 8 (atoms one at a corners) 8 z 1 (a) Co-ordination number in hcp structure is 12. (acd) A metal that crystallizes in bcc structure has a co-ordination number of 8. (a) In sodium chloride, each Na ion is surrounded by six Cl ions and each Cl ion is surrounded by six Na ions. Thus, both the ions have coordination number six. (b) The Ca 2 ions are arranged in (ccp) arrangement, i.e. Ca 2 ions are present at all corners and tat the centre of each face of the cube. the fluoride ions occupy all the tetrahedral sites. This is 8 : 4 arrangement i.e., each Ca 2 ion is surrounded by 8 F ions and each F ion by four Ca 2 ions. (c) When polar crystal is subjected to a mechanical stress, electricity is produced – a case of piezoelectricity. Reversely, if electric field is applied, mechanical stress is developed. Piezoelectric crystal acts as a mechanical electrical transductor. (b) More is the Schottky defect in crystal more is the decrease in density. (d) All the given statements are correct about F-centres. 1. 2. (c) Amorphous solids neither have ordered arrangement (i.e. no definite shape) nor have sharp melting point like crystals, but when heated, they become pliable until they assume the properties usually related to liquids. It is therefore they are regarded as super-cooled liquids. (c) Silicon due to its catenation property form network solid. 4. (c) Orthorhombic geometry has and abc 90 . The shape of match box obey this geometry. (d) In a triclinic crystal has no notation of symmetry. 5. (a) In NH 3 molecule, the original appearance is repeated as a 3. result of rotation through 120 o . Such as axis is said to be an axis of three-fold symmetry or a triad axis. 6. (a) 7. (b) Cationic radius increases down the group and decreases along the period. (c) Distance between centres of cation and anion d 508 254 pm 2 2 8. 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (c) 15. (b) size of Ag and Br ions. Schottky defects occurs in highly ionic compounds which have high co-ordination number ex. NaCl, KCl, CsCl . Schottky defect is due to missing of equal number of cations and anions. Schottky defect is due to missing of equal number of cations and anions. Impurity present in a crystal does not establish thermal equilibrium. Since no ions are missing from the crystal as a whole, there is no effect on density. On adding non-metal in metal the metal becomes less tensile. Na 2 O has antifluorite ( A2 B) type structure. rc ra 254 pm or 110 ra 254 or ra 144 pm 9. (b) (a) As each Sr 2 ion introduces one cation vacancy, therefore concentration of cation vacancies = mol % of SrCl 2 added. (c) Yellow colour on heating NaCl in presence of Na is due to presence of electrons in anion vacancies (F-centres). (d) Frenkel’s defect is due to shift of an ion from the normal lattice site (Creating a vacancy) and occupy interstitial spaces. (c) AgBr exhibits Frenkel defect due to large difference in the AgBr exhibits Frenkel defect due to large difference in the size of Ag and Br ions. Both are stoichiometric crystalline defects. Brass, Cu 80%, Zn 20% substitutional alloy. Steel is an interstitial alloy because it is an alloy of Fe with C, C atoms occupy the interstitial voids of Fe crystal. In metal excess defect when holes created by missing of anions are occupied by electrons, there sites are called F-centres and are responsible for colour in the crystal. KBr exhibits Schottky defect and not Frenkel defect. When cation shifts from lattice to interstitial site, the defect is called Frenkel defect. F-centres are the sites where anions are missing and instead electrons are present. they are responsible for colour. Critical Thinking Questions Defects in crystal 1. 16. 221 10. (a) nM a 3 N 0 10 30 2 100 5.188 g/cm 3 (400) (6 .02 10 23 ) 10 30 3 NaCl structure High pressure (6 : 6 co. ord. ) 11. 760 K CsCl structure (8 : 8 co. ord. ) (a) Difference 2.178 10 2.165 10 3 0.013 10 3 3 Fraction unoccupied 0 .013 10 3 5.96 10 3 2 .178 10 3 CsBr3 consist of Cs and Br3 ions. 12. (c) 13. (a) Each Cs is surrounded by eight Cl ions in CsCl crystal lattice because its co-ordination number is 8 : 8. 14. (b) In each CaF2 each calcium cation is surrounded by eight fluoride anions in a body centred cubic arrangement. Each fluoride ion is in contact with four calcium ions. Thus CaF2 has 8 : 4 co-ordination number. (c) The radius ratio for co-ordination number 4, 6 and 8 lies in between the ranges [0.225 0.414], [0.414 0.732] and [0.732 1] respectively. 15. O O O Si O 222 Solid state 16. (b) 17. (b) In this diagram, equal number of cations ( Na ) and anions (Cl ) are missing, so it, shows schottky defect. 18. (c) Zeolite is a three dimensional silicate because of in the silicates all the four oxygen atoms at (SiO4 )4 tetrahedra are shared with other tetrahedra, vesulting in a three dimensional network. Assertion & Reason 1. (b) It is true that in the dimond structure, carbon atoms are arranged in tetrahedrally ( sp 3 hybridized) but it is not the correct explanation of assertion. 2. (d) Tetrahedral holes are smaller in size than octahedral holes. Cations usually occupy less space than anions. 3. (d) Crystalline solids have regular arrangement of constituent particles and are anisotropic whereas amorphous solids have no regular arrangement and are isotropic. 4. (a) Schottky defect is due to missing of equal number of cations and anions. 5. (b) Space or crystal lattice is a regular repeating arrangement of points in space and forms the basis of classification of all structures. 6. (c) Tetrahedral void is so called because it is surrounded by four spheres tetrahedrally while octahedral void is so called because it is surrounded by six spheres octahedrally. 7. (c) Two corners per tetrahedron one shared in both the cases. 8. (b) When an atom or an ion is missing from its normal lattice site, a lattice vacancy or defect is created, which is called schottky defect. Due to missing density of crystal will be lowered. 9. (b) On heating, the metal atoms deposit on the surface and finally they deffuse into the crystal and after ionisation the alkali metal ion occupies cationic vacancy where as electron occupies anionic vacancy. 10. (a) In case of semiconductors, the gap between valence band and the conduction band is small and there fore some of the electrons may jump from valence band to conduction band and thus on increasing temperature conductivity is also increased. 11. (a) All magnetically ordered solids (ferromagnetic and antiferromagnetic solids) transform to the paramagnetic state at high temperature due to the randomisation of spins. 12. (c) In piezoelectric crystals, the dipoles may align them selves in an ordered manner such that there is a net dipole moment in the crystal. Solid State 1. Particles of quartz are packed by 7. (a) Electrical attraction forces 223 The second order Bragg's diffraction of X rays with 1 Å from a set of parallel planes in a metal occurs at an angle of 60 o . The distance between the scattering planes in the crystal is[CBSE PMT 1998; AFM (b) Vander Waal's forces (c) Covalent bond forces (a) 0.575 Å (b) 1 .00 Å (c) 2 .00 Å (d) 1 .15 Å (d) Strong electrostatic attraction forces 2. Crystals of covalent compounds always have [BHU 1984] (a) Atoms as their structural units 3. 4. 5. 8. (b) Molecules as structural units The edge length of the unit cell of NaCl crystal lattice is 552 pm. If ionic radius of sodium ion is 95 pm, what is the (c) Ions held together by electrostatic forces ionic radius of chloride ion (d) High melting points (a) 190 pm (b) 368 pm (c) 181 pm (d) 276 pm Wax is an example of (a) Ionic crystal (b) Covalent crystal (c) Metallic crystal (d) Molecular crystal 9. Among the following which crystal will be soft and have low melting point The ionic radii of Rb and I are 1.46 Å and 2.16Å. the most probable type of structure exhibited by it is [UPSEAT 2004] (a) Covalent (b) Ionic (a) CsCl type (b) (c) Metallic (d) Molecular (c) NaCl type (d) CaF2 type In zinc blende structure, zinc atom fill up 10. (a) All octahedral holes (b) All tetrahedral holes (c) Half number of octahedral holes 6. [KCET 1998] 11. ZnS type The coordination number of a cation occupying a tetrahedral hole is (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 4 (d) Half number of tetrahedral holes If a electron is present in place of anion in a crystal lattice, then it is called Which ion has the lowest radius from the following ions (a) Frenkel defect [Kurukshetra CEE 1998] (a) Na (b) Mg 2 (c) Al 3 (d) Si 4 (b) Schottky defect (c) Interstitial defects (d) F centre (SET -5) 224 Solid State 1. (c) Quartz is a covalent solid in which constituent particles are atoms which are held together by covalent bond forces. 2. (a) Constituent particles of covalent compounds are atoms. 3. (d) Iodine crystals are molecular crystals, in which constituent particles are molecules having interparticle forces are Vander Waal’s forces. 4. (d) Molecular crystals are soft and have low melting point. 5. (d) In zinc blende (ZnS ) half number of tetrahedral holes are filled by zinc atoms. 6. (d) All are the iso-electronic species but Si 4 has high positive charge so have lowest radius. 7. (d) 2d sin n or 2 d sin 60 2 1 Å or 2 d 0.8660 2 or d 1.15 Å (sin 60 3 / 2 or 0.8660) . *** 8. (c) Distance between centres of Na and Cl rNa rCl 276 pm or 95 rCl 276 pm or rCl 276 95 181 pm 9. (c) rc ra 1 .46 0 .676 2 .16 It permits co-ordination number 6 and octahedral structure of type NaCl . 10. (d) The co-ordination number of a cation occupying a tetrahedral hole is 4. 11. (d) When electrons are trapped in anion vacancies, these are called F-centres. Gaseous State 225 Chapter 6 Gaseous state The state of matter in which the molecular forces of attraction between the particles of matter are minimum, is known as gaseous state. It is the simplest state and shows great uniformity in behaviour. Characteristics of gases (1) Gases or their mixtures are homogeneous in composition. (2) Gases have very low density due to negligible intermolecular 1 m 3 10 3 dm 3 10 6 cm 3 10 6 mL 10 3 L (3) Mass : (i) The mass of a gas can be determined by weighing the container in which the gas is enclosed and again weighing the container after removing the gas. The difference between the two weights gives the mass of the gas. (ii) The mass of the gas is related to the number of moles of the gas i.e. forces. (3) Gases have infinite expansibility and high compressibility. (4) Gases exert pressure. (5) Gases possess high diffusibility. (6) Gases do not have definite shape and volume like liquids. (7) Gaseous molecules move very rapidly in all directions in a random manner i.e., gases have highest kinetic energy. (8) Gaseous molecules collide with one another and also with the walls of container with perfectly elastic collisions. (9) Gases can be liquified, if subjected to low temperatures (below critical) or high pressures. (10) Thermal energy of gases >> molecular attraction. (11) Gases undergo similar change with the change of temperature and pressure. In other words, gases obey certain laws known as gas laws. Measurable properties of gases (1) The characteristics of gases are described fully in terms of four parameters or measurable properties : (i) The volume, V, of the gas. (ii) Its pressure, P (iii) Its temperature, T (iv) The amount of the gas (i.e., mass or number of moles). (2) Volume : (i) Since gases occupy the entire space available to them, the measurement of volume of a gas only requires a measurement of the container confining the gas. (ii) Volume is expressed in litres (L), millilitres (mL) or cubic centimetres (cm 3 ) or cubic metres (m 3 ) . (iii) 1L 1000 mL ; 1 mL 10 3 L ; 1 L 1 dm 3 10 3 m 3 moles of gas (n) Mass in grams m Molar mass M (4) Temperature : (i) Gases expand on increasing the temperature. If temperature is increased twice, the square of the velocity (v 2 ) also increases two times. (ii) Temperature is measured in centigrade degree ( o C) or celsius degree with the help of thermometers. Temperature is also measured in Fahrenheit (F ). o (iii) S.I. unit of temperature is kelvin (K) or absolute degree. K o C 273 C F o 32 5 9 (5) Pressure : (i) Pressure of the gas is the force exerted by the gas per unit area of the walls of the container in all directions. Thus, Pressure Force( F) Mass(m ) Acceleration(a) (P) Area( A) Area(a) o (iv) Relation between F and o C is (ii) Pressure exerted by a gas is due to kinetic energy 1 (KE mv 2 ) of the molecules. Kinetic energy of the gas molecules 2 increases, as the temperature is increased. Thus, Pressure of a gas Temperature (T). (iii) Pressure of a pure gas is measured by manometer while that of a mixture of gases by barometer. (iv) Commonly two types of manometers are used, (a) Open end manometer; (b) Closed end manometer 226 Gaseous State (v) The S.I. unit of pressure, the pascal (Pa), is defined as newton per metre square. It is very small unit. 1 1Pa 1 Nm 2 1 kg m 1 s 2 (vi) C.G.S. unit of pressure is dynes cm 2 . (vii) M.K.S. unit of pressure is kgf / m 2 . The unit kgf / cm 2 sometime called ata (atmosphere technical absolute). (viii) Higher unit of pressure bar, is KPa T1< T2< T3 PV T3 T2 T1 MPa. or 1 bar 10 5 Pa 10 5 Nm 2 100 KNm 2 100 KPa log P (ix) Several other units used for pressure are, Name Symbol Value O O (4) At constantP mass and temperature densitylogof1/Va gas is directly bar bar 1bar 10 Pa atmosphere atm 1 atm 1.01325 10 5 Pa Torr Torr 101325 1 Torr Pa 133.322 Pa 760 millimetre of mercury mm Hg 1 mm Hg 133.322 Pa 5 proportional to its pressure and inversely proportional to its volume. Thus, d P or (x) The pressure relative to the atmosphere is called gauge pressure. The pressure relative to the perfect vacuum is called absolute pressure. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmosphere pressure. (xi) When the pressure in a system is less than atmospheric pressure, the gauge pressure becomes negative, but is frequently designated and called vacuum. For example, 16 cm vacuum will be 76 16 1.013 0 .80 bar . 76 (xii) If ‘h’ is the height of the fluid in a column or the difference in the heights of the fluid columns in the two limbs of the manometer, d is the density of the fluid d1 P V 1 2 ....... K d 2 P2 V1 Charle's law (1) French chemist, Jacques Charles first studied variation of volume with temperature, in 1787. (2) It states that, “The volume of a given mass of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature ( o C 273) at constant pressure”. Thus, V T at constant pressure and mass or V KT K(t( o C) 273.15) , (where k is constant), K pressure is given by, Pgas Patm h dg Condition S.T.P./N.T.P. S.A.T.P . * T 273.15 K 298.15 K V (Molar volume) 22.414 L 24.800 L P mass V d (5) At altitudes, as P is low d of air is less. That is why mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders. (Hg 13.6 10 3 Kg / m 3 13.6 g / cm 3 ) and g is the gravity, then (xiii) Two sets of conditions are widely used as 'standard' values for reporting data. 1 V V V V or 1 2 K (For two or more gases) T T1 T2 (3) If t 0 o C , then V V0 V0 K 273.15 hence, m 1 atm 1 bar * Standard ambient temperature and pressure. K V Boyle's law (1) In 1662, Robert Boyle discovered the first of several relationships among gas variables (P, T, V). (2) It states that, “For a fixed amount of a gas at constant temperature, the gas volume is inversely proportional to the gas pressure.” Thus, P 1 / V at constant temperature and mass or P K / V (where K is constant) or PV K or P1 V1 P2 V2 K (For two or more gases) (3) Graphical representation of Boyle's law : Graph between P and V at constant temperature is called isotherm and is an equilateral (or rectangular) hyperbola. By plotting P versus 1 / V , this hyperbola can be converted to a straight line. Other types of isotherms are also shown below, V0 273.15 V0 t [t 273.15] V0 1 V0 [1 v t] 273.15 273 . 15 where v is the volume coefficient, v V V0 1 3 .661 10 3 o C 1 tV0 273.15 Thus, for every 1 o change in temperature, the volume of a gas changes by 1 1 of the volume at 0 o C . 273.15 273 (4) Graphical representation of Charle's law : Graph between V and T at constant pressure is called isobar or isoplestics and is always a straight line. A plot of V versus t( o C) at constant pressure is a straight line cutting T3 P O T1 P T3 T2 T1 V or 1/d the temperature axis at temperature. T2 T1< T2< T3 T1< T2< T3 O 1/V or d 273.15 o C . It is the lowest possible Gaseous State 227 1/d or V 1/d or V 22.4 L mol–1 = V0 O –273.15o T(k) C C 0o t C) (o (5) At constant mass and pressure density of a gas is inversely proportional to it absolute temperature. Thus, d 1 1 T V mass V d (1) According to this law, “Equal volumes of any two gases at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules.” Thus, V n (at constant T and P) or V Kn (where K is constant) or V1 V2 ....... K n1 n 2 Example, 2 H 2 (g) O 2 (g) 2 H 2 O(g) d1 T2 V2 ...... K d 2 T1 V1 or Avogadro's law 2 moles 2 volumes 2 litres 1 litre 1n litre (6) Use of hot air balloons in sports and meteorological observations is an application of Charle's law. (1) In 1802, French chemist Joseph Gay-Lussac studied the variation of pressure with temperature and extende the Charle’s law so, this law is also called Charle’s-Gay Lussac’s law. (2) It states that, “The pressure of a given mass of a gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature ( o C 273) at constant volume.” (Avogadro's number 6.02 10 23 ) and by this law must occupy the same volume at a given temperature and pressure. The volume of one mole of a gas is called molar volume, V which is 22.4 L mol 1 at S.T.P. or N.T.P. m (3) This law can also express as, “The molar gas volume at a given temperature and pressure is a specific constant independent of the nature of the gas”. Thus, Vm specific constant 22.4 L mol 1 at S.T.P. or N.T.P. Thus, P T at constant volume and mass K (where K is constant) Ideal gas equation (1) The simple gas laws relating gas volume to pressure, temperature and amount of gas, respectively, are stated below : P P P or 1 2 K (For two or more gases) T T1 T2 Boyle's law : (3) If t 0 C , then P P0 P o K P0 273.15 where P is the pressure coefficient, P P0 1 P 3.661 10 3 o C 1 tP0 273.15 Thus, for every 1 o change in temperature, the pressure of a gas 1 1 changes by of the pressure at 0 o C . 273.15 273 (4) This law fails at low temperatures, because the volume of the gas molecules be come significant. (5) Graphical representation of Gay-Lussac's law : A graph between P and T at constant V is called isochore. V1< V2< V3< V4 V1 T(k) O T (n and P constant) V or V nT P nRT ( R Ideal gas constant) P PV nRT or This is called ideal gas equation. R is called ideal gas constant. This equation is obeyed by isothermal and adiabatic processes. (2) Nature and values of R : From the ideal gas equation, PV Pressure Volume R nT mole Temperatur e Force Volume Force Length Area mole Temperatur e mole Temperatur e Work or energy . mole Temperatur e R is expressed in the unit of work or energy mol 1 K 1 . V2 V3 V4 P (n and T constant) (T and P constant) If all the above law's combines, then P0 t P [t 273.15] P0 1 P0 [1 t] 273.15 273.15 O 1 1 or V V P Charle's law : VT Avogadro's law : V n Hence, P0 K 273.15 P 2 moles 2 volumes 2 litres 1 litre 1n litre (2) One mole of any gas contains the same number of molecules Gay-Lussac's law (Amonton's law) or P KT K(t(o C) 273.15) 1 mole 1 volume 1 litre 1 / 2 litre 1 / 2 n litre Since different values of R are summarised below : R 0.0821 L atm mol 1 K 1 228 Gaseous State Thus, Ptotal P1 P2 P3 ......... 8.3143 joulemol 1 K 1 (S.I. unit) Where P1 , P2 , P3 ,...... are partial pressures of gas number 1, 2, 3 8.3143 Nm mol 1 K 1 ......... 8.3143 KPa dm 3 mol 1 K 1 8.3143 MPacm mol 3 1 K (2) Partial pressure is the pressure exerted by a gas when it is present alone in the same container and at the same temperature. Partial pressure of a gas 1 5.189 10 19 eV mol 1 K 1 1.99 cal mol 1 K (P1 ) 1 (3) Gas constant, R for a single molecule is called Boltzmann constant (k) k R 8.314 10 7 ergs mole 1 degree 1 N 6 .023 10 23 1.38 10 16 ergsmol 1 degree 1 or 1.38 10 23 joulemol 1 degree m RT M M d mRT PV PM RT m d V dT M M Constant , P R R ( M and R are constant for a particular gas) d T d T dT Thus, or 1 1 2 2 = Constant P1 T2 P (For two or more different temperature and pressure) (5) Gas densities differ from those of solids and liquids as, (i) Gas densities are generally stated in g/L instead of g / cm 3 . (ii) Gas densities are strongly dependent on pressure and temperature as, d P 1 / T Densities of liquids and solids, do depend somewhat on temperature, but they are far less dependent on pressure. (iii) The density of a gas is directly proportional to its molar mass. No simple relationship exists between the density and molar mass for liquid and solids. d ( N 2 ) at STP PTotal P1 V1 P2 V2 P3 V3 ..... V or (n1 n 2 n 3 .....) RT V molar mass 22.4 28 1 .25 g L1 , 22.4 32 1 .43 g L1 d (O 2 ) at STP 22.4 Dalton's law of partial pressures (1) According to this law, “When two or more gases, which do not react chemically are kept in a closed vessel, the total pressure exerted by the mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases.” ( PV nRT ) RT ( n n1 n 2 n3 .....) V (4) Applications : This law is used in the calculation of following relationships, or n (X 1 ) in a mixture of gas Partial pressure of a gas (P1 ) PTotal (ii) % of a gas in mixture or (iv) Density of a gas at STP P1 , P2 , P3 ........ are mixed together in container of volume V, then, (i) Mole fraction of a gas mass of the gas (m ) n Molecular weight of the gas (M ) (3) If a number of gases having volume V1 , V2 , V3 ...... at pressure 1 (4) Calculation of mass, molecular weight and density of the gas by gas equation PV nRT Number of moles of the gas (n1 ) PTotal Mole fraction ( X 1 ) PTotal Total number of moles (n) in the mixture Partial pressure of a gas (P1 ) 100 PTotal (iii) Pressure of dry gas collected over water : When a gas is collected over water, it becomes moist due to water vapour which exerts its own partial pressure at the same temperature of the gas. This partial perssure of water vapours is called aqueous tension. Thus, Pdry gas Pmoist gas or PTotal Pwater vapour or Pdry gas Pmoist gas Aqueous tension (Aqueous tension is directly proportional to absolute temperature) (iv) Relative humidity (RH) at a given temperature is given by, RH Partial pressure of water in air . Vapour pre ssure of water (5) Limitations : This law is applicable only when the component gases in the mixture do not react with each other. For example, N 2 and O 2 , CO and CO 2 , N 2 and Cl 2 , CO and N 2 etc. But this law is not applicable to gases which combine chemically. For example, H 2 and Cl 2 , CO and Cl 2 , NH 3 , HBr and HCl, NO and O 2 etc. (6) Another law, which is really equivalent to the law of partial pressures and related to the partial volumes of gases is known as Law of partial volumes given by Amagat. According to this law, “When two or more gases, which do not react chemically are kept in a closed vessel, the total volume exerted by the mixture is equal to the sum of the partial volumes of individual gases.” Thus, VTotal V1 V2 V3 ...... Where V1 , V2 , V3 ,...... are partial volumes of gas number 1, 2, 3..... Graham's law of diffusion and Effusion (1) Diffusion is the process of spontaneous spreading and intermixing of gases to form homogenous mixture irrespective of force of gravity. While Effusion is the escape of gas molecules through a tiny hole such as pinhole in a balloon. Gaseous State All gases spontaneously diffuse into one another when they are brought into contact. Diffusion into a vacuum will take place much more rapidly than diffusion into another place. Both the rate of diffusion of a gas and its rate of effusion depend on its molar mass. Lighter gases diffuses faster than heavier gases. The gas with highest rate of diffusion is hydrogen. (2) According to this law, “At constant pressure and temperature, the rate of diffusion or effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its vapour density.” 1 Thus, rate of diffusion (r) (T and P constant) d For two or more gases at constant pressure and temperature, r1 r2 d2 d1 (3) Graham's law can be modified in a number of ways as, (i) Since, 2 vapour density (V.D.) = Molecular weight r then, 1 r2 d2 2 d1 2 d2 d1 M2 M1 where, M 1 and M 2 are the molecular weights of the two gases. (ii) Since, rate of diffusion then, r1 V /t w /t 1 1 1 1 r2 V2 / t 2 w 2 / t 2 Volume of a gas diffused (r) Time taken for diffusion then, r1 t 2 r2 t1 d2 d1 (b) When volumes of the two gases diffuse in the same time, i.e. t1 t 2 then, r1 V 1 r2 V2 d2 d1 (iii) Since, r p (when p is not constant) P r M (4) Rate of diffusion and effusion can be determined as, (i) Rate of diffusion is equal to distance travelled by gas per unit time through a tube of uniform cross-section. (ii) Number of moles effusing per unit time is also called rate of diffusion. (iii) Decrease in pressure of a cylinder per unit time is called rate of effusion of gas. (iv) The volume of gas effused through a given surface per unit time is also called rate of effusion. (5) Applications : Graham's law has been used as follows, (i) To determine vapour densities and molecular weights of gases. (ii) To prepare Ausell’s marsh gas indicator, used in mines. (iii) Atmolysis : The process of separation of two gases on the basis of their different rates of diffusion due to difference in their densities is called atmolysis. It has been applied with success for the separation of isotopes and other gaseous mixtures. then, r1 P 1 r2 P2 M2 M1 Kinetic theory of gases (1) Kinetic theory was developed by Bernoulli, Joule, Clausius, Maxwell and Boltzmann etc. and represents dynamic particle or microscopic model for different gases since it throws light on the behaviour of the particles (atoms and molecules) which constitute the gases and cannot be seen. Properties of gases which we studied earlier are part of macroscopic model. (2) Postulates (i) Every gas consists of a large number of small particles called molecules moving with very high velocities in all possible directions. (ii) The volume of the individual molecule is negligible as compared to the total volume of the gas. (iii) Gaseous molecules are perfectly elastic so that there is no net loss of kinetic energy due to their collisions. (iv) The effect of gravity on the motion of the molecules is negligible. (v) Gaseous molecules are considered as point masses because they do not posses potential energy. So the attractive and repulsive forces between the gas molecules are negligible. (vi) The pressure of a gas is due to the continuous bombardment on the walls of the containing vessel. (vii) At constant temperature the average K.E. of all gases is same. (viii) The average K.E. of the gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. (3) Kinetic gas equation : On the basis of above postulates, the following gas equation was derived, d2 d1 (a) When equal volume of the two gases diffuse, i.e. V1 V2 229 PV 1 2 mnu rms 3 where, P = pressure exerted by the gas V = volume of the gas m = average mass of each molecule n = number of molecules u = root mean square (RMS) velocity of the gas. (4) Calculation of kinetic energy We know that, K.E. of one molecule 1 mu 2 2 K.E. of n molecules 1 3 1 mnu 2 PV ( PV mnu 2 ) 2 2 3 n = 1, Then K.E. of 1 mole gas 3 RT 2 ( PV RT ) 3 8.314 T 12.47 T Joules . 2 Average K.E.per mole 3 RT 3 KT N (Avogadro number ) 2 N 2 R Boltzmann constant K N This equation shows that K.E. of translation of a gas depends only on the absolute temperature. This is known as Maxwell generalisation. Thus average K.E. T. If T 0 K (i.e., 273.15 o C) then, average K.E. = 0. Thus, absolute zero (0K) is the temperature at which molecular motion ceases. Molecular collisions 230 Gaseous State (1) The closest distance between the centres of two molecules taking part in a collision is called molecular or collision diameter (). The molecular diameter of all the gases is nearly same lying in the order of 10 8 cm . (2) According to Maxwell, at a particular temperature the distribution of speeds remains constant and this distribution is referred to as the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution and given by the following expression, dn0 M 4 n 2RT molecules per unit time are given by, Z A 2 2 u av. n where n is the number of molecules per unit molar volume, Avogadro number( N 0 ) 6 .02 10 23 3 m Vm 0 .0224 (ii) The total number of bimolecular collision per unit time are given 1 by, Z AA 2 u av. n 2 2 (iii) If the collisions involve two unlike molecules, the number of bimolecular collision are given by, n where, AB (b) At particular pressure; Z T 3 / 2 (c) At particular volume; Z T 1 / 2 (3) During molecular collisions a molecule covers a small distance before it gets deflected. The average distance travelled by the gas molecules between two successive collision is called mean free path (). Average distance travelled per unit time( u av ) . No. of collisionsmade by singlemolecule per unit time (Z A ) 2 2 u avr.n .u 2 dc 2 Ump 300 K (T1) T1<T2<T3 A B (iv) (a) At particular temperature; Z p 2 / 2 RT temperature. The exponential factor e Mu / 2 RT is called Boltzmann factor. (3) Maxwell gave distribution curves of molecular speeds for CO 2 at different temperatures. Special features of the curve are : (i) Fraction of molecules with two high or two low speeds is very small. (ii) No molecules has zero velocity. (iii) Initially the fraction of molecules increases in velocity till the peak of the curve which pertains to most probable velocity and thereafter it falls with increase in velocity. 1/2 2 M A , M B are molecular weights (M mN 0 ) u av 2 molecules n, having velocities between c and c dc , dn0 / n Fraction of the total number of molecules, M = molecular weight, T = absolute Fraction of molecules (2) The number of collisions taking place in unit time per unit volume, called collision frequency (z). (i) The number of collision made by a single molecule with other Z AB .e Mu where, dn0 Number of molecules out of total number of Molecular diameter (M A M B ) 2 AB 8RT MAMB 3/2 1 2n 2 T (4) Based on kinetic theory of gases mean free path, . Thus, P (i) Larger the size of the molecules, smaller the mean free path, i.e., 1 (radius)2 (ii) Greater the number of molecules per unit volume, smaller the mean free path. (iii) Larger the temperature, larger the mean free path. (iv) Larger the pressure, smaller the mean free path. (5) Relation between collision frequency (Z) and mean free path () u is given by, Z rms Molecular speeds or velocities (1) At any particular time, in the given sample of gas all the molecules do not possess same speed, due to the frequent molecular collisions with the walls of the container and also with one another, the molecules move with ever changing speeds and also with ever changing direction of motion. Ump Uav Urms U mp 1500 K (T2) 1800 K (T3) Molecular speed (4) Types of molecular speeds or Velocities (i) Root mean square velocity (u ) : It is the square root of the mean of the squares of the velocity of a large number of molecules of the same gas. rms u rms u12 u 22 u 32 ..... u n2 n u rms 3 RT 3kT 3P 3 PV 3 RT M m d (mN 0 ) M (mN 0 ) M where k = Boltzmann constant R N0 (a) For the same gas at two different temperatures, the ratio of RMS velocities will be, u1 u2 T1 T2 (b) For two different gases at the same temperature, the ratio of RMS velocities will be, u1 u2 M2 M1 (c) RMS velocity at any temperature t o C may be related to its value at S.T.P. as, u t 3 P(273 t) . 273d (ii) Average velocity (v av ) : It is the average of the various velocities possessed by the molecules. v av v1 v 2 v 3 ...... v n ; v av n 8 RT M 8 kT m (iii) Most probable velocity ( mp ) : It is the velocity possessed by maximum number of molecules of a gas at a given temperature. Gaseous State (iii) Z 1 , the gas is more compressible than expected from ideal behaviour and shows negative deviation, usually at low P i.e. PV RT . 2 RT 2 PV 2P M M d (5) Relation between molecular speeds or velocities, mp u rms and v av : v av 0.9213 urms (i) Relation between or urms 1.085 v av (ii) Relation between mp and u rms : mp 0.816 urms or urms 1.224 mp (iii) Relation between mp and v av : v av 1.128 mp (iv) Relation between mp , v av and u rms mp : : v av 2 RT M : 8 RT M 2 : 1.414 1 : : 1.595 1.128 8 u rms : 3 RT M : 3 : Real and Ideal gases (1) Gases which obey gas laws or ideal gas equation (PV nRT ) at all temperatures and pressures are called ideal or perfect gases. Almost all gases deviate from the ideal behaviour i.e., no gas is perfect and the concept of perfect gas is only theoretical. (2) Gases tend to show ideal behaviour more and more as the temperature rises above the boiling point of their liquefied forms and the pressure is lowered. Such gases are known as real or non ideal gases. Thus, a “real gas is that which obeys the gas laws under low pressure or high temperature”. (3) The deviations can be displayed, by plotting the P-V isotherms of real gas and ideal gas. H2 He Z (v) The most easily liquefiable and highly soluble gases (NH 3 , SO 2 ) show larger deviations from ideal behaviour i.e. Z 1 . (vi) Some gases like CO 2 show both negative and positive deviation. (6) Causes of deviations of real gases from ideal behaviour : The ideal gas laws can be derived from the kinetic theory of gases which is based on the following two important assumptions, (i) The volume occupied by the molecules is negligible in comparison to the total volume of gas. (ii) The molecules exert no forces of attraction upon one another. It is because neither of these assumptions can be regarded as applicable to real gases that the latter show departure from the ideal behaviour. (1) To rectify the errors caused by ignoring the intermolecular forces of attraction and the volume occupied by molecules, Vander Waal (in 1873) modified the ideal gas equation by introducing two corrections, (i) Volume correction (ii) Pressure correction (2) Vander Waal's equation is obeyed by the real gases over wide range of temperatures and pressures, hence it is called equation of state for the real gases. (3) The Vander Waal's equation for n moles of the gas is, 2 P n a V 2 Pressure correction for molecular attraction [V nb] nRT Volume correction for finite size of molecules a and b are Vander Waal's constants whose values depend on the nature of the gas. Normally for a gas a b . (i) Constant a : It is a indirect measure of magnitude of attractive forces between the molecules. Greater is the value of a, more easily the gas can be liquefied. Thus the easily liquefiable gases (like SO 2 NH 3 H 2 S CO 2 ) have high values than the permanent gases (like N 2 O 2 H 2 He) . PV nRT (iv) Z 1 for H 2 and He at all pressure i.e., always shows positive deviation. Vander Waal's equation 1.732 1.224 i.e., mp v av urms : 231 Units of 'a' are : atm. L2 mol 2 O2 N2 CH4 4 CO2 P (4) It is difficult to determine quantitatively the deviation of a real gas from ideal gas behaviour from the P-V isotherm curve as shown above. Compressibility factor Z defined by the equation, PV ZnRT or Z PV / nRT PVm / RT is more suitable for a quantitative description of the deviation from ideal gas behaviour. (5) Greater is the departure of Z from unity, more is the deviation from ideal behaviour. Thus, when (i) Z 1 , the gas is ideal at all temperatures and pressures. In case o of N 2 , the value of Z is close to 1 at 50 C . This temperature at which a real gas exhibits ideal behaviour, for considerable range of pressure, is known as Boyle's temperature or Boyle's point (TB ) . (ii) Z 1 , the gas is less compressible than expected from ideal behaviour and shows positive deviation, usual at high P i.e. PV RT . or atm. m 6 mol 2 or 2 N m mol (S.I. unit). (ii) Constant b : Also called co-volume or excluded volume, 4 b 4 N 0 v 4 N 0 r 3 3 It's value gives an idea about the effective size of gas molecules. Greater is the value of b, larger is the size and smaller is the compressible volume. As b is the effective volume of the gas molecules, the constant value of b for any gas over a wide range of temperature and pressure indicates that the gas molecules are incompressible. Units of 'b' are : L mol 1 or m 3 mol 1 (S.I. unit) (iii) The two Vander Waal's constants and Boyle's temperature (TB ) are related as, a TB bR (4) Vander Waal's equation at different temperature and pressures (i) When pressure is extremely low : For one mole of gas, 232 Gaseous State a ab a P 2 (V b) RT or PV RT Pb 2 V V V (ii) When pressure is extremely high : For one mole of gas, PV Pb Pb or Z 1 1 PV RT Pb ; RT RT RT where Z is compressibility factor. (iii) When temperature is extremely high : For one mole of gas, PV RT . (iv) When pressure is low : For one mole of gas, a ab a P 2 (V b) RT or PV RT Pb 2 V V V PV a a or Z 1 1 RT VRT VRT (v) For hydrogen : Molecular mass of hydrogen is small hence value of 'a' will be small owing to smaller intermolecular force. Thus the terms ab a and 2 may be ignored. Then Vander Waal's equation becomes, V V or PV RT Pb or PV Pb 1 RT RT Pb RT In case of hydrogen, compressibility factor is always greater than or Z 1 one. (5) Merits of Vander Waal's equation (i) The Vander Waal's equation holds good for real gases upto moderately high pressures. (ii) The equation represents the trend of the isotherms representing the variation of PV with P for various gases. (iii) From the Vander Waal's equation it is possible to obtain expressions of Boyle's temperature, critical constants and inversion temperature in terms of the Vander Waal's constants 'a' and 'b'. (iv) Vander Waal's equation is useful in obtaining a 'reduced equation of state' which being a general equation of state has the advantage that a single curve can be obtained for all gases when the equation if graphically represented by plotting the variables. (6) Limitations of Vander Waal's equation (i) This equation shows appreciable deviations at too low temperatures or too high pressures. (ii) The values of Vander Waal's constants a and b do not remain constant over the entire ranges of T and P, hence this equation is valid only over specific range of T and P. (7) Other equations of state : In addition to Vander Waal's equation, there are also equations of state which have been used to explain real behaviour of gases are, a (V b) RT . Here 'c' is (i) Clausius equation : P 2 T ( V c ) another constant besides a, b and R. a (ii) Berthelot equation : P (V b) RT . TV 2 RT a c (iii) Wohl equation : P (V b) V (V b) V 2 RT .e a / RTV . (iv) Dieterici equation : P V b The expression is derived on the basis of the concept that molecules near the wall will have higher potential energy than those in the bulk. (v) Kammerlingh Onnes equation : It is the most general or satisfactory expression as equation expresses PV as a power series of P at a given temperature. PV A BP CP 2 DP3 ...... Here coefficients A, B, C etc. are known as first, second and third etc. virial coefficients. (a) Virial coefficients are different for different gases. (b) At very low pressure, first virial coefficient, A = RT. (c) At high pressure, other virial coefficients also become important and must be considered. The critical state (1) A state for every substance at which the vapour and liquid states are indistinguishable is known as critical state. It is defined by critical temperature and critical pressure. (2) Critical temperature (T ) of a gas is that temperature above which the gas cannot be liquified however large pressure is applied. It is 8a given by, Tc 27 Rb (3) Critical pressure (P ) is the minimum pressure which must be applied to a gas to liquify it at its critical temperature. It is given by, a Pc 27b 2 (4) Critical volume (V ) is the volume occupied by one mole of the substance at its critical temperature and critical pressure. It is given by, Vc 3b c c c (5) Critical compressibility Pc Vc 3 Zc 0 .375 RTc 8 factor (Z ) c is given by, A gas behaves as a Vander Waal’s gas if its critical compressibility factor (Z c ) is equal to 0.375. A substance is the gaseous state below Tc is called vapour and above Tc is called gas. Degrees of freedom of a gaseous molecule (1) The motion of atoms and molecules is generally described in terms of the degree of freedom which they possess. (2) The degrees of freedom of a molecule are defined as the independent number of parameters required to describe the state of the molecule completely. (3) When a gaseous molecule is heated, the energy supplied to it may bring about three kinds of motion in it, these are, (i) The translational motion (ii) The rotational motion (iii) The vibrational motion. This is expressed by saying that the molecule possesses translational, rotational and vibrational degrees of freedom. (4) For a molecule made up of N atoms, total degrees of freedom = 3N. Further split up of these is as follows, Translational Rotational Vibrational For linear molecule : 3 2 3N – 5 For non-linear molecule : 3 3 3N – 6 Specific and Molar heat capacity of gases (1) Specific heat (or specific heat capacity) of a substance is the quantity of heat (in calories, joules, kcal, or kilo joules) required to raise the temperature of 1g of that substance through 1 o C . It can be measured at constant pressure (c p ) and at constant volume (c v ) . (2) Molar heat capacity of a substance is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of the substance by 1 o C . Gaseous State Molar heat capacity = Specific heat capacity Molecular weight, i.e., Cv cv M and C p c p M . (3) Since gases upon heating show considerable tendency towards expansion if heated under constant pressure conditions, an additional energy has to be supplied for raising its temperature by 1 o C relative to that required under constant volume conditions, i.e., C p Cv or C p Cv Work done on expansion, PV( R) where, C p molar heat capacity at constant pressure; Cv molar heat capacity at constant volume. (4) Some useful relations of C and C (i) C p Cv R 2 calories 8.314 J p v 3 3 R (for monoatomic gas) and C v x (for di and 2 2 polyatomic gas), where x varies from gas to gas. Cp (iii) (Ratio of molar capacities) Cv (ii) C v (iv) For monoatomic gas Cv 3 calories whereas, C p Cv R 5 calories 5 R Cp 2 1 .66 . (v) For monoatomic gas, ( ) 3 Cv R 2 7 R Cp 2 1 .40 (vi) For diatomic gas ( ) 5 Cv R 2 Cp 8R (vii) For triatomic gas ( ) 1 .33 Cv 6R 233 (iii) Liquid chlorine is used for bleaching and disinfectant purposes. (iv) Liquid air is an important source of oxygen in rockets and jetpropelled planes and bombs. (v) Compressed oxygen is used for welding purposes. (vi) Compressed helium is used in airships. (5) Joule-Thomson effect : When a real gas is allowed to expand adiabatically through a porous plug or a fine hole into a region of low pressure, it is accompanied by cooling (except for hydrogen and helium which get warmed up). Cooling takes place because some work is done to overcome the intermolecular forces of attraction. As a result, the internal energy decreases and so does the temperature. Ideal gases do not show any cooling or heating because there are no intermolecular forces of attraction i.e., they do not show Joule-Thomson effect. During Joule-Thomson effect, enthalpy of the system remains constant. Joule-Thomson coefficient. (T / P)H . For cooling, ve (because dT and dP will be ve ) For heating ve (because dT ve , dP ve ) . For no heating or cooling 0 (because dT 0) . (6) Inversion temperature : It is the temperature at which gas shows neither cooling effect nor heating effect i.e., Joule-Thomson coefficient 0 . Below this temperature, it shows cooling effect and above this temperature, it shows heating effect. Any gas like H 2 , He etc, whose inversion temperature is low would show heating effect at room temperature. However, if these gases are just cooled below inversion temperature and then subjected to JouleThomson effect, they will also undergo cooling. Liquefaction of gases (1) A gas may be liquefied by cooling or by the application of high pressure or by the combined effect of both. The first successful attempt for liquefying gases was made by Faraday. (2) Gases for which the intermolecular forces of attraction are small such as H 2 , N 2 , Ar and O 2 , have low values of Tc and cannot be liquefied by the application of pressure are known as “permanent gases” while the gases for which the intermolecular forces of attraction are large, such as polar molecules NH 3 , SO 2 and H 2 O have high values of Tc and can be liquefied easily. (3) Methods of liquefaction of gases : The modern methods of cooling the gas to or below their Tc and hence of liquefaction of gases are done by Linde's method and Claude's method. (i) Linde's method : This process is based upon Joule-Thomson effect which states that “When a gas is allowed to expand adiabatically from a region of high pressure to a region of extremely low pressure, it is accompained by cooling.” (ii) Claude's method : This process is based upon the principle that when a gas expands adiabatically against an external pressure (as a piston in an engine), it does some external work. Since work is done by the molecules at the cost of their kinetic energy, the temperature of the gas falls causing cooling. (iii) By adiabatic demagnetisation. (4) Uses of liquefied gases : Liquefied and gases compressed under a high pressure are of great importance in industries. (i) Liquid ammonia and liquid sulphur dioxide are used as refrigerants. (ii) Liquid carbon dioxide finds use in soda fountains. If the number of molecules present in 1 c.c. of the gas or vapour at S.T.P., then that is called loschmidt number. Its value is 2.687 10 per c.c. 19 CO > SO > SO > PCl is order of rate of diffusion. Vapour density is independent of temperature and has no unit 2 2 3 3 while absolute density is dependent of temperature and has unit of gm –1 The isotherms of CO were first studied by Andrews. 1 Cal = 4.2 Joule, 1 Kcal = 4200 Joule 2 The gas which has least mean free path has maximum value of a, is easily liquefied and has maximum value of T . b T<T <T c b i For critical constants, compression factor Z is < 1. Boyle’s law and Avogadro’s law are applicable under limiting condition. This limiting condition is P 0. T = 0.296 T ; T = 6.75 T c b i c 234 Gaseous State Mean free path increases if H is replaced by He. 2 Gaseous State Characteristics and Measurable properties of gases 235 12. (a) 1.5 lit. (b) 2.8 lit. (c) 11.2 lit. (d) 22.4 lit. Pressure of a gas in a vessel can be measured by (a) Barometer (b) Manometer (c) Stalgometer (d) All the baove 13. Volume occupied by a gas at one atmospheric pressure and 0 o C is V mL. Its volume at 273 K will be [Bihar MADT 1982] 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the three states of matter i.e. solid, liquid and gaseous (a) Molecules of a solid possess least energy whereas those of a gas possess highest energy (b) The density of solid is highest whereas that of gases is lowest (c) Gases like liquids possess definite volumes (d) Molecules of a solid possess vibratory motion The temperature and pressure at which ice, liquid water and water vapour can exist together are (a) 0 o C, 1 atm (b) 2o C, 4.7 atm (c) 0 o C, 4.7 mm (d) 2o C, 4.7 mm Which of the following is true about gaseous state (a) Thermal energy = Molecular attraction (b) Thermal energy >> Molecular attraction (c) Thermal energy << Molecular attraction (d) Molecular forces >> Those in liquids Kinetic energy of molecules is highest in (a) Gases (b) Solids (c) Liquids (d) Solutions Which of the following statement is correct (a) In all the three states the molecules possess random translational motion (b) Gases cannot be converted into solids without passing through liquid state (c) One of the common property of liquids and gases is viscosity (d) According to Boyle's law V/P is constant at constant T A volume of 1 m (a) 1000 cm (c) 10 dm 3 3 11. 15. 16. 100 cm 3 (d) 10 6 cm 3 (b) 9 / 5o F H 2O N 2 is found in a litre flask under 100kPa pressure and O 2 is [Kerala PMT 2004] (a) 310 kPa (c) 420 kPa (e) 265 kPa (b) 210 kPa (d) 365 kPa Ideal gas equation and Related gas laws 1. If P, V, T represent pressure, volume and temperature of the gas, the correct representation of Boyle's law is [BIT Ranchi 1988] (a) (b) (d) He found in another 3 litre flask under 320 kPa pressure. If the two flasks are connected, the resultant pressures is 1 V (at constant P) T (b) PV RT 2. (c) V 1 / P (at constant T) (d) PV nRT At constant temperature, in a given mass of an ideal gas 3. (a) The ratio of pressure and volume always remains constant (b) Volume always remains constant (c) Pressure always remains constant (d) The product of pressure and volume always remains constant Air at sea level is dense. This is a practical application of [CBSE PMT 1991] 1o C rise in temperature is equal to a rise of 1o F (a) Gases do not have a definite shape and volume (b) Volume of the gas is equal to the volume of the container confining the gas (c) Confined gas exerts uniform pressure on the walls of its container in all directions (d) Mass of the gas cannot be determined by weighing a container in which it is enclosed Which of the following exhibits the weakest intermolecular forces [AIIMS 2000] (a) NH 3 (b) HCl (c) is equal to 3 o 10. [CBSE PMT 1999] Which one of the following is not a unit of pressure (a) Newton (b) Torr (c) Pascal (d) Bar (a) 9. 14. (a) V ml (b) V/2 ml (c) 2 V (d) None of these Which one of the following statements is wrong for gases [Kerala CEE 2000] o (c) 5 / 9 F (d) 33 F Which of the following relations for expressing volume of a sample is not correct (a) 1L 10 3 ml (b) 1 dm 3 1 L (c) 1 L 10 3 m 3 (d) 1L 10 3 cm 3 (a) Boyle's law (c) Avogadro's law 4. (a) 10 6 dynes cm 2 (b) 10 2 dynes cm 2 (c) 10 4 dynes cm 2 (d) 10 8 dynes cm 2 o If 20 cm 3 gas at 1 atm. is expanded to 50 cm 3 at constant T, then what is the final pressure [CPMT 1988] (a) One atmosphere is numerically equal to approximately 2gm of O 2 at 27 C and 760mm of Hg pressure has volume[BCECE 2005] 20 1 50 (b) 50 1 20 1 50 (d) None of these 20 Which of the following statement is false [BHU 1994] (a) The product of pressure and volume of fixed amount of a gas is independent of temperature (c) 5. (b) Charle's law (d) Dalton's law 1 236 Gaseous state 6. (b) Molecules of different gases have the same K.E. at a given temperature (c) The gas equation is not valid at high pressure and low temperature (d) The gas constant per molecule is known as Boltzmann constant Which of the following graphs represent Boyle's law (a) (b) P PV 8. 9. 17. (d) V P Densities of two gases are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their temperatures are in the ratio 2 : 1, then the ratio of their respective pressures is[BHU 2000] (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 18. At constant pressure, the volume of fixed mass of an ideal gas is directly proportional to [EAMCET 1985] (a) Absolute temperature (b) Degree centigrade (c) Degree Fahrenheit (d) None Which of the following expression at constant pressure represents Charle's law [AFMC 1990] (a) V 1 T (b) V 19. [Manipal PMT 1991] 1 T (a) Avogadro number 6.02 10 (b) The relationship between average velocity (v ) and root mean square velocity (u) is v 0.9213 u 2 21 (d) V d V T Use of hot air balloons in sports and meteorological obsevations is an application of [Kerala MEE 2002] (a) Boyle's law (b) Newtonic law (c) Kelvin's law (d) Charle's law (c) 10. 11. 12. A 10 g of a gas at atmospheric pressure is cooled from 273o C to 0 o C keeping the volume constant, its pressure would become (a) 1/2 atm (b) 1/273 atm (c) 2 atm (d) 273 atm Pressure remaining the same, the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas increases for every degree centigrade rise in temperature by definite fraction of its volume at (c) The mean kinetic energy of an ideal gas is independent of the pressure of the gas (d) The root mean square velocity of the gas can be calculated by 20. (a) 0 o C (b) Its critical temperature (c) Absolute zero (d) Its Boyle temperature A certain sample of gas has a volume of 0.2 litre measured at 1 atm. pressure and 0 o C . At the same pressure but at 273o C , its volume will be [EAMCET 1992, 93; BHU 2005] (a) 0.4 litres (b) 0.8 litres (c) 27.8 litres (d) 55.6 litres 14. 15. the formula (3 RT / M )1 / 2 The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at STP. Therefore [IIT 2000] (a) Vm 22.4 litres (b) Vm 22.4 litres (c) Vm 22.4 litres (d) In the equation of sate of an ideal gas PV nRT , the value of the universal gas constant would depend only on 22. (a) The nature of the gas (b) The pressure of the gas (c) The units of the measurement (d) None of these In the ideal gas equation, the gas constant R has the dimensions of[NCERT 1982 (a) mole-atm K (b) litre mole (c) litre-atm K mole (d) erg K In the equation PV nRT , which one cannot be the numerical value of R [BIT 1987] [KCET 2005] –1 –1 23. –1 400 cm 3 of oxygen at 27 o C were cooled to 3 o C without change in pressure. The contraction in volume will be (a) (a) 40 cm 3 (b) 8.31 107 dyne cm K 1mol 1 (b) 30 cm 3 (c) 44.4 cm 3 (d) 360 cm 3 The pressure p of a gas is plotted against its absolute temperature T for two different constant volumes, V1 and V2 . When V1 V2 , the (a) Curves have the same slope and do not intersect (b) Curves must intersect at some point other than T 0 (c) Curve for V2 has a greater slope than that for V1 Vm 44.8 litres 21. [CBSE PMT 1989] 13. 2 P1T2 2 P1 (d) T1 T2 T1 T2 “One gram molecule of a gas at N.T.P. occupies 22.4 litres.” This fact was derived from [CPMT 1981, 1995] (a) Dalton's theory (b) Avogadro's hypothesis (c) Berzelius hypothesis (d) Law of gaseous volume In a closed flask of 5 litres, 1.0 g of H 2 is heated from 300 to 600 K. which statement is not correct [CBSE PMT 1991] (a) Pressure of the gas increases (b) The rate of collision increases (c) The number of moles of gas increases (d) The energy of gaseous molecules increases Which one of the following statements is false (c) PV (c) Two closed vessels of equal volume containing air at pressure P1 and temperature T1 are connected to each other through a narrow tube. If the temperature in one of the vessels is now maintained at T1 and that in the other at T2 , what will be the pressure in the vessels 2 P1T1 T1 (a) (b) T1 T2 2 P1T2 PV P V 7. (d) Curve for V1 has a greater slope than that for V2 16. (c) 24. 8.31 107 erg K 1mol 1 8.31 JK 1mol 1 (d) 8.31 atm. K 1mol 1 Which one of the following indicates the value of the gas constant R[EAMCET 19 (a) 1.987 cal K mol (b) 8.3 cal K mol (c) 0.0821 lit K mol (d) 1.987 Joules K mol The constant R is [Orissa 1990] (a) Work done per molecule –1 –1 25. –1 –1 –1 –1 –1 –1 –1 Gaseous State 26. 27. (b) Work done per degree absolute 37. (c) Work done per degree per mole (d) Work done per mole Select one correct statement. In the gas equation, PV nRT [CBSE PMT 1992] (a) n is the number of molecules of a gas 38. (b) V denotes volume of one mole of the gas (c) n moles of the gas have a volume V (d) P is the pressure of the gas when only one mole of gas is present 39. The correct value of the gas constant R is close to [CBSE PMT 1992] (c) 0.082 litre- atmosphere1 K mole 1 40. (d) 0.082 litre1 atmosphere1 K mol –1 29. 30. –1 –1 [CPMT 1994] –1 41. Gas equation PV nRT is obeyed by [BHU 2000] (a) Only isothermal process (b) Only adiabatic process (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these For an ideal gas number of moles per litre in terms of its pressure P, gas constant R and temperature T is (a) PT/R (b) PRT (c) P/RT (d) RT/P If two moles of an ideal gas at 546 K occupy a volume of 44.8 litres, the pressure must be [NCERT 1981; JIPMER 1991] (a) 2 atm (c) 4 atm 32. 33. [CBSE PMT 1991] 42. 43. 35. (b) 88.9 cc (d) 100 cc 44. 45. P1V1 T 1 P2 V2 T2 (c) 36. [BHU 1994] (a) 2 (c) 4 (b) 1/2 (d) 1/4 o 21.6 C (b) o 240 C (c) 33 C (d) 89.5 o C The total pressure exerted by a number of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases under the same conditions is known as [CPMT 1986] (a) Boyle's law (b) Charle's law (c) Avogadro's law (d) Dalton's law “Equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal number of particles.” This statement is a direct consequence of [Kerala MEE 2002] (a) Avogadro’s law (b) Charle's law (c) Ideal gas equation (d) Law of partial pressure If three unreactive gases having partial pressures PA , PB and PC and their moles are 1, 2 and 3 respectively then their total pressure will be [CPMT 1994] PA PB PC (a) P PA PB PC (b) P 6 o 46. P1T2 P2 V2 V1V2 P1 P2 (d) V1 T2 T1T2 Two separate bulbs contain ideal gases A and B. The density of gas A is twice that of gas B. The molecular mass of A is half that of gas B. The two gases are at the same temperature. The ratio of the pressure of A to that of gas B is A sample of gas occupies 100 ml at 27 o C and 740 mm pressure. When its volume is changed to 80 ml at 740 mm pressure, the temperature of the gas will be (a) [CBSE PMT 1989; CPMT 1991] (b) (b) 30 o C (d) 300 K [Vellore CMC 1991] [DCE 2000] (a) 80 cc (c) 66.7 cc Correct gas equation is V1T2 V2 T1 (a) P1 P2 (b) 20000 litres (d) 12000 litres The density of a gas at 27 o C and 1 atm is d. Pressure remaining constant at which of the following temperatures will its density become 0.75 d [CBSE PMT 1992] (a) 20 o C (c) 400 K (b) 11.2 litres (d) 5.6 litres At 0 o C and one atm pressure, a gas occupies 100 cc. If the pressure is increased to one and a half-time and temperature is increased by one-third of absolute temperature, then final volume of the gas will be A wheather balloon filled with hydrogen at 1 atm and 27 o C has volume equal to 12000 litres. On ascending it reaches a place where (a) 24000 litres (c) 10000 litres [EAMCET 1992] 34. (b) 600 K (d) 900 K the temperature is 23o C and pressure is 0.5 atm. The volume of the balloon is (b) 3 atm (d) 1 atm How many moles of He gas occupy 22.4 litres at 30 o C and one atmospheric pressure [KCET 1992] (a) 0.90 (b) 1.11 (c) 0.11 (d) 1.0 Volume of 0.5 mole of a gas at 1 atm. pressure and 273 K is (a) 22.4 litres (c) 44.8 litres (a) 391.8 mL (b) 380 ml (c) 691.6 ml (d) 750 ml One litre of a gas weighs 2 g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is made 0.75 atm, at which of the following temperatures will one litre of the same gas weigh one gram (a) 450 K (c) 800 K [AIEEE 2002] 31. 20 o C and 2 atm pressure. The mass of the gas will be [CPMT 1989] (a) 34 g (b) 340 g (c) 282.4 g (d) 28.24 g At N.T.P. the volume of a gas is found to be 273 ml. What will be [CBSE PMT 1992] S.I. unit of gas constant R is (a) 0.0821 litre atm K mole (b) 2 calories K mole (c) 8.31 joule K mole (d) None –1 pressure and 0 o C . The total volume occupied by the mixture will be nearly [Vellore CMC 1991] (a) 22.4 litres (b) 33.6 litres (c) 448 litres (d) 44800 ml Pure hydrogen sulphide is stored in a tank of 100 litre capacity at [CPMT 1992] (b) 0.082 litre-atmosphere K 1 mol 1 –1 16 g of oxygen and 3 g of hydrogen are mixed and kept at 760 mm the volume of this gas at 600 mm Hg and 273o C (a) 0.082 litre-atmopshere K 28. 237 47. PA PB PC (c) P (c) H 2 and CO 2 (d) None 3 Dalton's law of partial pressure will not apply to which of the following mixture of gases [Bihar MADT 1981] (a) H 2 and SO 2 (b) H 2 and Cl 2 (d) CO 2 and Cl 2 238 Gaseous state 48. Which of the following mixtures of gases does not obey Dalton's law of partial pressure [CBSE PMT 1996: Kerala PMT 2000] (a) 49. 50. O 2 and CO 2 (b) 60. N 2 and O 2 (c) Cl 2 and O 2 (d) NH 3 and HCl To which of the following gaseous mixtures is Dalton's law not applicable (a) Ne He SO 2 (b) NH 3 HCl HBr (c) O2 N 2 CO 2 (d) N 2 H 2 O2 Equal amounts of two gases of molecular weight 4 and 40 are mixed. The pressure of the mixture is 1.1 atm. The partial pressure of the light gas in this mixture is 61. 62. (a) 4 (b) 1/4 (c) 16 (d) 1/16 If rate of diffusion of A is 5 times that of B, what will be the density ratio of A and B [AFMC 1994] (a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 25 (d) 4 The densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1 : 16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion is [CPMT 1995] (a) 16 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 16 At constant volume and temperature conditions, the rate of diffusion D A and DB of gases A and B having densities A and B are related by the expression [IIT 1993] [CBSE PMT 1991] 51. 52. (a) 0.55 atm (b) 0.11 atm (c) 1 atm (d) 0.12 atm Rate of diffusion of a gas is [IIT 1985; CPMT 1987] (a) Directly proportional to its density (b) Directly proportional to its molecular mass (c) Directly proportional to the square root of its molecular mass (d) Inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass Which of the following gas will have highest rate of diffusion 1/2 (a) 1/2 53. NH 3 (b) N2 (c) CO 2 (d) O2 63. 54. r 1/d (b) r d (c) r d (d) r d According to Grahman's law at a given temperature, the ratio of the rates of diffusion rA / rB of gases A and B is given by [IIT 1998] (a) 56. 57. 58. 59. 65. (PA / PB )(M A / M B )1 / 2 DA DB B A 1/2 DA DB A (d) DA DB B B A Atmolysis is a process of (a) Atomising gas molecules (b) The breaking of atoms to sub-atomic particles (c) Separation of gases from their gaseous mixture (d) Changing of liquids to their vapour state A bottle of ammonia and a bottle of dry hydrogen chloride connected through a long tube are opened simultaneously at both ends, the white ammonium chloride ring first formed will be[IIT 1988] (a) At the centre of the tube (b) Near the hydrogen chloride bottle (c) Near the ammonia bottle (d) Throughout the length of the tube Which of the following pairs will diffuse at the same rate through a porous plug [EAMCET 1990] (a) CO, NO 2 (b) NO 2 , CO 2 (d) NO C2 H 6 NH 3 , PH3 If 4 g of oxygen diffuse through a very narrow hole, how much hydrogen would have diffused under identical conditions [CPMT 1971] (c) (PA / PB )(M B / M A )1 / 2 (a) 16 g (b) 1 g (c) 1/4 g (d) 64 g 1/ 2 (d) (M A / M B )(PB / PA ) 67. A gas diffuse at a rate which is twice that of another gas B. The (where P and M are the pressures and molecular weights of gases A ratio of molecular weights of A to B is [EAMCET 1986] and B respectively) (a) 1.0 (b) 0.75 The ratio of the rate of diffusion of a given element to that of (c) 0.50 (d) 0.25 helium is 1.4. The molecular weight of the element is 68. Two grams of hydrogen diffuse from a container in 10 minutes. How [Kerala PMT 1990] many grams of oxygen would diffuse through the same container in the same time under similar conditions [MNR 1980] (a) 2 (b) 4 (a) 0.5 g (b) 4 g (c) 8 (d) 16 g (d) 8 g A gas diffuse 1/5 times as fast as hydrogen. Its molecular weight is[CPMT 1992; Bihar(c)CEE61982] 69. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that (a) 50 (b) 25 of X. The molecular weight of X is [MNR 1995; Kerala CEE 2001] (c) 25 2 (d) 50 2 (a) 64.0 (b) 32.0 The molecular weight of a gas which diffuses through a porous plug (c) 40.0 (d) 80.0 at 1/6th of the speed of hydrogen under identical conditions is[EAMCET 1990] 70. X ml of H 2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. (a) 27 (b) 72 The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of the gas (c) 36 (d) 48 specified below under identical condition is Molecular weight of a gas that diffuses twice as rapidly as the gas [IIT 1996] with molecular weight 64 is [EAMCET 1994] (a) 10 seconds : He (b) 20 seconds : O 2 (a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 64 (d) 6.4 (c) 25 seconds : CO (d) 55 seconds : CO 2 (b) (M A / M B )(PA / PB )1 / 2 55. 64. Which of the following relationship is correct, where r is the rate of diffusion of a gas and d is its density [CPMT 1994] (a) 1/2 (b) (c) [Pb. CET Sample paper 1993; CPMT 1990] (a) DA DB A B The densities of hydrogen and oxygen are 0.09 and 1.44 g L1 . If the rate of diffusion of hydrogen is 1 then that of oxygen in the same units will be [RPMT 1994] (c) 66. 71. At what temperature, the rate of effusion of N 2 would be 1.625 times that of SO 2 at 50 o C [CBSE PMT 1996] Gaseous State 72. 73. (a) 110 K (b) 173 K 83. A closed vessel contains equal number of nitrogen and oxygen molecules at a pressure of P mm. If nitrogen is removed from the (c) 373 K (d) 273 K system then the pressure will be Given the reaction C(s) H 2O(l) CO(g) H 2 (g) calculate the [MP PMT 1985] volume of the gases produced at STP from 48.0 g of carbon (a) P (b) 2P (a) 179.2 L (b) 89.6 L (c) P / 2 (d) P 2 (c) 44.8 L (d) 22.4 L 4.4 g of a gas at STP occupies a volume of 2.24 L, the gas can be[Haryana CEET 84. 2000] If the four tubes of a car are filled to the same pressure with N 2 , O2 , H 2 and Ne separately, then which one will be filled first[Manipal PMT (a) O 2 (b) CO (c) 74. NO 2 (d) CO 2 Under what conditions will a pure sample of an ideal gas not only exhibit a pressure of 1 atm but also a concentration of 1 mole litre 1 (R 0.082 litreatm mol 1 deg 1 ) (a) At STP (b) When V 22.4 litres 76. 77. 78. 85. [CBSE PMT 1993] 86. There are 6.02 10 22 molecules each of N 2 , O2 and H 2 which are mixed together at 760 mm and 273 K. The mass of the mixture in grams is [Pb. PMT 1997] (a) 6.2 (b) 4.12 (c) 3.09 (d) 7 Volume of 4.4 g of CO 2 at NTP is [Pb. CET 1997] (a) 22.4 L (b) 44.8 L (c) 2.24 L (d) 4.48 L The energy of an ideal gas depends only on its (a) Pressure (b) Volume (c) Number of moles (d) Temperature A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid in which CO 2 is 0.1 79. 80. H2 (d) Ne Which of the following gas mixture is not applicable for Dalton’s law of partial pressure [Pb. CET 2002] (a) SO 2 and Cl 2 (b) CO 2 and N 2 (d) One fourth that of SO 2 Five grams each of the following gases at 87 o C and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them will have the least volume[MNR 1991] (a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI Who among the following scientists has not done any important work on gases [Bihar MADT 1980] (a) Boyle (b) Charles (c) Avogadro (d) Faraday (d) CO and N 2 At what pressure a quantity of gas will occupy a volume of 60 ml , 100 mm (d) 1200 mm At constant temperature and pressure which gas will diffuse first [Pb. CET 2000] H 2 or O 2 ? 89. and H 2 is placed in a solution of sodium hydroxide, the solution level will [Pb. CET 2001] (a) Rise (b) Fall (c) Remain constant (d) Become zero At S.T.P. 1g CaCO 3 on decomposition gives CO 2 [Pb. CET 2000] [MNR 1982; CBSE PMT 1991] 90. (a) 1 L (b) 11.2 L (c) 22.4 L (d) 20 L A pre-weighed vessel was filled with oxygen at N.T.P. and weighted. 91. It was then evacuated, filled with SO 2 at the same temperature and pressure, and again weighted. The weight of oxygen will be[NCERT 1989] 1 that of SO 2 2 CO and CO 2 88. 92. (a) 22.4 litre (b) 2.24 litre (c) 0.224 litre (d) 11.2 litre At NTP, the density of a gas, whose molecular weight is 45 is [Pb. CET 2001, 03] (a) 44.8 gm/litre (b) 11.4 gm/litre (c) 2 gm/ litre (d) 3 gm/litre What is the ratio of diffusion rate of oxygen and hydrogen [Pb. CET 2003] (a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1 The maximum number of molecules is present in [CBSE PMT 2004] (a) 0.5 g of H 2 gas (c) Twice that of SO 2 82. (c) (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Both will diffuse in same time (d) None of the above When a jar containing gaseous mixture of equal volumes of CO 2 (a) The same as that of SO 2 81. (b) O 2 (c) 87. [CBSE PMT 1991] (a) 0.224 litre (b) 0.448 litre (c) 22.4 litre (d) 2.24 litre The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 g of this gas at N.T.P. is (b) N2 if it occupies a volume of 100ml at a pressure of 720mm ? (while temperature is constant) : [Pb. CET 2000] (a) 700 mm (b) 800 mm molar. Suppose CO 2 behaves like an ideal gas, the volume of the dissolved CO 2 at STP is (a) (c) (c) When T 12 K (d) Impossible under any conditions 75. 239 93. 94. 95. (b) 10 g of O 2 gas (c) 15 L of H 2 gas at STP (d) 5 L of N 2 gas at STP One litre oxygen gas at STP will weigh [Pb. CET 2004] (a) 1.43 g (b) 2.24 g (c) 11.2 g (d) 22.4 g How will you separate mixture of two gases [AFMC 2004] (a) Fractional distillation technique (b) Grahams law of diffusion technique (c) Osmosis (d) Chromatography The rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is [MH CET 2003; Pb. CET 2000] (a) 1.4 times to He gas (b) Same as He gas 240 Gaseous state 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. (c) 5 times to He gas (d) 2 times to He gas Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas A . The molar mass of gas A is [KCET 2004] (a) 72 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 36 At what pressure will a quantity of gas, which occupies 100 ml at a pressue of 720 mm , occupy a volume of 84 ml [DPMT 2004] (a) 736.18 mm (b) 820.20 mm (c) 784.15 mm (d) 857.14 mm Containers A and B have same gases. Pressure, volume and temperature of A are all twice that of B, then the ratio of number of molecules of A and B are [AFMC 2004] (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 A mixture of NO 2 and N 2 O4 has a vapour density of 38.3 at 300 K . What is the number of moles of NO 2 in 100 g of the mixture [Kerala PMT 2004] (a) 0.043 (b) 4.4 (c) 3.4 (d) 3.86 (e) 0.437 A cylinder of 5 litres capacity, filled with air at NTP is connected with another evacuated cylinder of 30 litres of capacity. The resultant air pressure in both the cylinders will be [BHU 2004] (a) 10.8 cm of Hg (b) 14.9cm of Hg (c) 21.8 cm of Hg (d) 38.8 cm of Hg A certain mass of gas occupies a volume of 300 c.c. at 27 C and 620 mm pressure. The volume of this gas at 47 o C and 640 mm pressure will be [MH CET 2003] (a) 400 c.c. (b) 510 c.c. (c) 310 c.c. (d) 350 c.c. What will be the volume of the mixture after the reaction? NH 3 HCl NH 4 Cl [BVP 2004] 4 litre 1.5 litre (solid) 103. (a) 0.5 litre (b) 1 litre (c) 2.5 litre (d) 0.1 litre The pressure and temperature of 4dm 3 of carbon dioxide gas are doubled. Then the volume of carbon dioxide gas would be[KCET 2004] (a) 2 dm 3 (b) 3dm 3 104. (c) 4 dm 3 (d) 8 dm 3 If the absolute temperature of an ideal gas become double and pressure become half, the volume of gas would be 1. 2. 3. [Bihar MADT 1980] (a) (b) (c) (d) 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. [Kerala CET 2005] 105. (a) Remain unchange (b) Will be double (c) Will be four time (d) will be half (e) Will be one fourth At what temperature, the sample of neon gas would be heated to double of its pressure, if the initial volume of gas is/are reduced to 15% at 75 o C [Kerala CET 2005] (a) (c) 106. o (b) 592 C o (d) 60 o C 319 C 128 C (e) 90 o C Equation of Boyle's law is dP dV (a) p V (c) d2P dV P dT 10. [DPMT 2005] dP dV P V (d) d2P d 2V P dT Kinetic molecular theory of gases and Molecular collisions The average velocity of the molecules The most probable velocity of the molecules The square root of the average square velocity of the molecules The most accurate form in which velocity can be used in these calculations Kinetic energy of a gas depends upon its[Bihar MADT 1982] (a) Molecular mass (b) Atomic mass (c) Equivalent mass (d) None of these The kinetic theory of gases perdicts that total kinetic energy of a gaseous assembly depends on [NCERT 1984] (a) Pressure of the gas (b) Temperature of the gas (c) Volume of the gas (d) Pressure, volume and temperature of the gas According to kinetic theory of gases, the energy per mole of a gas is equal to [EAMCET 1985] (a) 1.5 RT (b) RT (c) 0.5 RT (d) 2.5 RT Internal energy and pressure of a gas per unit volume are related as[CBSE PMT 2 3 (a) P E (b) P E 3 2 1 (c) P E (d) P 2 E 2 The translational kinetic energy of an ideal gas depends only on its (a) Pressure (b) Force (c) Temperature (d) Molar mass Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule at 298 K, the average kinetic energy of helium is [IIT 1982] (a) Two times that of a hydrogen molecule (b) Same as that of a hydrogen molecule (c) Four times that of a hydrogen molecule (d) Half that of a hydrogen molecule Which of the following is valid at absolute zero [Pb. CET 1985] o (b) Postulate of kinetic theory is [EAMCET 1980] (a) Atom is indivisible (b) Gases combine in a simple ratio (c) There is no influence of gravity on the molecules of a gas (d) None of the above According to kinetic theory of gases, [EAMCET 1980] (a) There are intermolecular attractions (b) Molecules have considerable volume (c) No intermolecular attractions (d) The velocity of molecules decreases after each collision In deriving the kinetic gas equation, use is made of the root mean square velocity of the molecules because it is 11. 12. (a) Kinetic energy of the gas becomes zero but the molecular motion does not become zero (b) Kinetic energy of the gas becomes zero and molecular motion also becomes zero (c) Kinetic energy of the gas decreases but does not become zero (d) None of the above The average K.E. of an ideal gas in calories per mole is approximately equal to [EAMCET 1989] (a) Three times the absolute temperature (b) Absolute temperature (c) Two times the absolute temperature (d) 1.5 times the absolute temperature According to kinetic theory of gases, for a diatomic molecule [MNR 1991] Gaseous State 13. (a) The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the mean velocity of the molecules (b) The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the root mean square velocity of the molecules (c) The root mean square velocity is inversely proportional to the temperature (d) The mean translational kinetic energy of the molecules is proportional to the absolute temperature At STP, 0.50 mol H 2 gas and 1.0 mol He gas [CBSE PMT 1993, 2000] 14. (a) Have equal average kinetic energies (b) Have equal molecular speeds (c) Occupy equal volumes (d) Have equal effusion rates Which of the following expressions correctly represents the 21. (a) 15. (b) KE CO KE N 2 (c) KE CO KE N 2 22. 23. 25. CO 2 (g) at 298 K and 1 atm pressure (c) 26. 27. With increase of pressure, the mean free path [Pb. CET 1985] 19. 20. (b) P 2 atm, T 150 K (c) P 1 atm, T 300 K (d) P 1.0 atm, T 500 K If the inversion temperature of a gas is 80 o C , then it will produce cooling under Joule-Thomson effect at [AFMC 1990] [CBSE PMT 1990] (b) 0 o C, 2 atm 273o C, 1 atm (d) 273o C, 2 atm Absolute zero is defined as the temperature [CBSE PMT 1990] (c) The density of N 2 is less than that of CO 2 (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Does not change (d) Becomes zero Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the effect of an increase in temperature on the distribution of molecular speeds in a gas [AIEEE 2005] (a) The most probable speed increases (b) The fraction of the molecules with the most probable speed increases (c) The distribution becomes broader (d) The area under the distribution curve remains the same as under the lower temperature If P, V, M, T and R are pressure, volume, molar mass, temperature and gas constant respectively, then for an ideal gas, the density is given by [CBSE PMT 1989, 91] RT P (a) (b) PM RT M PM (c) (d) V RT An ideal gas will have maximum density when [CPMT 2000] (a) P 0.5 atm, T 600 K (b) 60 cm 3 (c) 0.6 cm 3 (d) 0.06 cm 3 The ratio for inert gases is (a) 1.33 (b) 1.66 (c) 2.13 (d) 1.99 The density of neon will be highest at (a) S.T.P. (b) The rms speed remains constant for both N 2 and CO 2 18. At 100 o C and 1 atm, if the density of liquid water is 1.0 g cm 3 (a) 6 cm 3 and CO 2 17. (c) 3.01 10 (d) 2.01 10 23 The density of air is 0.00130 g/ml. The vapour density of air will be[DCE 2000] (a) 0.00065 (b) 0.65 (c) 14.4816 (d) 14.56 (d) Cannot be predicted unless the volumes of the gases are given Indicate the correct statement for a 1-L sample of N 2 (g) and (d) The total translational KE of both N 2 and CO 2 is the same (b) 1.2 10 24 and that of water vapour is 0.0006 g m 3 , then the volume occupied by water molecules in 1 litre of steam at that temperature is [IIT 2000] 24. (a) The average translational KE per molecule is the same in N 2 16. 6.02 10 23 23 [CBSE PMT 2000] KE CO KE N 2 (a) 298 K (b) 273 K (c) 193 K (d) 173 K Ratio of C p and Cv of a gas 'X' is 1.4. The number of atoms of the gas 'X' present in 11.2 litres of it at N.T.P. is [CBSE PMT 1989] relationship between the average molar kinetic energy, K.E. , of CO and N 2 molecules at the same temperature (a) 241 28. 29. (a) At which all molecular motion ceases (b) At which liquid helium boils (c) At which ether boils (d) All of the above Consider the following statements : (1) Joule-Thomson experiment is isoenthalpic as well as adiabatic. (2) A negative value of JT (Joule Thomson coefficient corresponds to warming of a gas on expansion. (3) The temperature at which neither cooling nor heating effect is observed is known as inversion temperature. Which of the above statements are correct (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Vibrational energy is [Pb. CET 1985] (a) Partially potential and partially kinetic (b) Only potential (c) Only kinetic (d) None of the above At the same temperature and pressure, which of the following gases will have the highest kinetic energy per mole [MNR 1991] 30. (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Methane (d) All the same Dimensions of pressure are the same as that of [CBSE PMT 1995] 31. (a) Energy (b) Force (c) Energy per unit volume (d) Force per unit volume The density of a gas An is three times that of a gas B. if the molecular mass of A is M, the molecular mass of B is [CPMT 1987] (a) 3 M (b) 3M (c) (d) M/ 3 M /3 Molecular speeds 242 Gaseous state 1. 2. 3. The ratio of root mean square velocity to average velocity of gas molecules at a particular temperature is [IIT 1981] (a) 1.086 : 1 (b) 1 : 1.086 (c) 2 : 1.086 (d) 1.086 : 2 Which is not true in case of an ideal gas [CBSE PMT 1991] (a) It cannot be converted into a liquid (b) There is no interaction between the molecules (c) All molecules of the gas move with same speed (d) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to the amount of the gas The ratio among most probable velocity, mean velocity and root mean square velocity is given by [CBSE PMT 1993] (a) 1 : 2 : 3 4. 5. 6. (d) O2 12. (a) 13. 14. 15. [EAMCET 1992] 7. (b) 3/5 4/3 2/3 (c) (d) 0.25 The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25 o C will be 8. (a) 6.17 10 (c) 6.17 10 20 J (b) kJ 6.17 10 10. 21 17. J (d) 7.16 10 20 J [KCET 2001] 18. (a) 273 K (b) 606 K (c) 303 K (d) 403 K Among the following gases which one has the lowest root mean square velocity at 25 o C (a) SO 2 (b) N2 (c) (d) Cl 2 O2 [EAMCET 1983] 19. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas in a closed container of fixed volume is increased from 5 10 4 cm s 1 to 20. 10 10 4 cm s 1 . Which of the following statement correctly explains how the change is accomplished [Pb. CET 1986] 11. (a) By heating the gas, the temperature is doubled (b) By heating the gas, the pressure is quadrupled (i.e. made four times) (c) By heating the gas, the temperature is quadrupled (d) By heating the gas, the pressure is doubled The rms velocity at NTP of the species can be calculated from the expression [EAMCET 1990] m1 / 2 (b) m 0 (c) m 1 / 2 (d) m At constant volume, for a fixed number of moles of a gas, the pressure of the gas increases with increase in temperature due to[IIT 1992] (a) Increase in the average molecular speed (b) Increased rate of collision amongst molecules (c) Increase in molecular attraction (d) Decrease in mean free path Molecular velocities of the two gases at the same temperature are u1 and u 2 . Their masses are m1 and m 2 respectively. Which of the following expressions is correct (a) m1 (c) m1 m 2 u1 u2 u12 m2 u 22 (b) m1u1 m 2u2 (d) m1u12 m 2u22 The temperature of the gas is raised from 27 o C to 927 o C , the root mean square velocity is [CBSE PMT 1994] 927 / 27 times the earlier value (a) (b) Same as before (c) Halved (d) Doubled The ratio between the root mean square velocity of H at 50 K and that of O 2 at 800 K is [IIT 1996] (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 1/4 The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant pressure varies density (d) as [IIT 2000] 2 (a) At what temperature the RMS velocity of SO 2 be same as that of O 2 at 303 K 9. 16. [CBSE PMT 1996] 21 3 PV M [BHU 1994] At 27 o C , the ratio of rms velocities of ozone to oxygen is (a) (b) 3 RT (d) All the above M Root mean square velocity of a gas molecule is proportional to[CBSE PMT 1990] H2 The temperature at which RMS velocity of SO 2 molecules is half that of He molecules at 300 K is [NTSE 1991] (a) 150 K (b) 600 K (c) 900 K (d) 1200 K 3P d (c) (b) 1 : 2 : 3 2 : 3 : 8 / 2 : 8 / : 3 (c) (d) Which of the following has maximum root mean square velocity at the same temperature [Manipal PMT 2002] (a) SO 2 (b) CO 2 (c) (a) d2 (b) d (c) (d) 1 / d d Consider a mixture of SO 2 and O 2 kept at room temperature. Compared to the oxygen molecule, the SO 2 molecule will hit the wall with (a) Smaller average speed (b) Greater average speed (c) Greater kinetic energy (d) Greater mass The rms speed of N 2 molecules in a gas is u. If the temperature is doubled and the nitrogen molecules dissociate into nitrogen atoms, the rms speed becomes (a) u / 2 (b) 2u (c) 4u (d) 14u Choose the correct arrangement, where the symbols have their usual meanings (a) u u p urms (b) urms u u p 21. (c) u p u urms (d) u p urms u The ratio of most probable velocity to that of average velocity is [JEE Orissa 200 (a) / 2 (b) 2 / 22. /2 (c) (d) 2 / The r.m.s. velocity of a certain gas is v at 300 K . The temperature, at which the r.m.s. velocity becomes double [Pb. CET 2002] (a) 23. 1200 K (b) 900 K (c) 600 K (d) 150 K The r.m.s. velocity of a gas depends upon (a) Temperature only [DCE 2002] Gaseous State 24. 25. (b) Molecular mass only (c) Temperature and molecular mass of gas (d) None of these What is the pressure of 2 mole of NH 3 at 27 o C when its volume is 5 litre in vander Waal’s equation (a = 4.17, b = 0.03711)[JEE Orissa7.2004] (a) 10.33 atm (b) 9.33 atm (c) 9.74 atm (d) 9.2 atm The root mean square velocity of one mole of a monoatomic having molar mass M is U rms . The relation between the average kinetic energy (E) of the U rms is [IIT-JEE Screening 2004] (a) (b) U rms 2E (d) U rms M Ratio of average to most probable velocity is (c) 26. U rms 3E 2M U rms (b) 100 o C and 2 atmospheric pressure (c) 100 o C and 5 atmospheric pressure (d) 500 o C and 1 atmospheric pressure The temperature at which the second virial coefficient of real gas is zero is called [AFMC 1993] (a) Critical temperature (b) Eutetic point (c) Boiling point (d) Boyle's temperature When is deviation more in the behaviour of a gas from the ideal gas equation PV nRT [DPMT 1981; NCERT 1982; CBSE PMT 1993] E 3M [Orissa JEE 2005] 27. 8. 2E 3M 243 (a) 1.128 (b) 1.224 (c) 1.0 (d) 1.112 If the vrms is 30R1 / 2 at 27 o C then calculate the molar mass of gas in kilogram. [DPMT 2005] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0.001 9. 10. (a) At high temperature and low pressure (b) At low temperature and high pressure (c) At high temperature and high pressure (d) At low temperature and low high pressure Vander Waal's constants 'a' and 'b' are related with..... respectively[RPMT 1994] (a) Attractive force and bond energy of molecules (b) Volume and repulsive force of molecules (c) Shape and repulsive forces of molecules (d) Attractive force and volume of the molecules Gas deviates from ideal gas nature because molecules [CPMT 1996] Real gases and Vander waal’s equation 1. The Vander Waal's equation explains the behaviour of [DPMT 1981] 2. 3. (a) Ideal gases (b) Real gases 11. (c) Vapour (d) Non-real gases Gases deviate from the ideal gas behaviour because their molecules[NCERT 1981] (a) Possess negligible volume (b) Have forces of attraction between them (c) Are polyatomic (d) Are not attracted to one another The compressibility factor of a gas is defined as Z PV / RT . The 12. compressibility factor of ideal gas is [Pb. CET 1986] 4. (a) 0 (b) Infinity (c) 1 (d) –1 In Vander Waal's equation of state for a non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces is 13. [CBSE PMT 1990; IIT 1988] (a) (b) (RT )1 (V b) a (d) RT P 2 V Vander Waal's equation of state is obeyed by real gases. For n moles of a real gas, the expression will be (c) 5. 14. (a) Are colourless (b) Attract each other (c) Contain covalent bond (d) Show Brownian movement The Vander Waal's equation reduces itself to the ideal gas equation at [Kerala MEE 2001; CBSE PMT 2002] (a) High pressure and low temperature (b) Low pressure and low temperature (c) Low pressure and high temperature (d) High pressure and high temperature The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is [IIT 1997] (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no cooling occurs because the molecules [IIT 1984, 89] (a) Are above the inversion temperature (b) Exert no attractive force on each other (c) Do work equal to loss in kinetic energy (d) Collide without loss of energy A gas is said to behave like an ideal gas when the relation PV / T constant . When do you expect a real gas to behave like an ideal gas [IIT 1999; CBSE PMT 1990; CPMT 1991] [IIT 1992; Pb. CET 1986; DPMT 1986] (a) P na 2 n V V RT n b a (b) P 2 (V b) nRT V (c) 6. 15. na P 2 (nV b) nRT V n 2a (d) P 2 (V nb) nRT V Any gas shows maximum deviation from ideal gas at 16. [AFMC 1993; IIT 1981, 94] [CPMT 1991] (a) 0 o C and 1 atmospheric pressure (a) When the temperature is low (b) When both the temperature and pressure are low (c) When both the temperature and pressure are high (d) When the temperature is high and pressure is low A real gas most closely approaches the behaviour of an ideal gas at[KCET 1992] (a) 15 atm and 200 K (b) 1 atm and 273 K (c) 0.5 atm and 500 K (d) 15 atm and 500 K The temperature at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws over a wide range of pressure is called (a) Critical temperature (b) Boyle temperature (c) Inversion temperature 244 Gaseous state 17. (d) Reduced temperature At low pressure, the Vander Waal's equation is reduced to (a) pVm ap 1 RT RT (b) Z pVm b 1 p RT RT pVm a 1 RT RT At high temperature and low pressure, the Vander Waal's equation is reduced to (c) 18. Z pVm RT (a) p a (Vm ) RT 2 Vm (b) pVm RT (c) p(Vm b) RT (d) 4. Z 5. (b) Its pressure is more than critical pressure Pc (c) Its pressure is more than Pc at a temperature less than Tc 6. 20. 21. When helium is allowed to expand into vacuum, heating effect is observed. Its reason is that [CPMT 1987] (a) Helium is an ideal gas (b) Helium is an inert gas (c) The inversion temperature of helium is very low (d) The boiling point of helium is the lowest among the elements In van der Waal’s equation of state of the gas law, the constant ‘ b ’ is a measure of [AIEEE 2004] (a) Volume occupied by the molecules (b) Intermolecular attraction (c) Intermolecular repulsions (d) Intermolecular collisions per unit volume In which molecule the vander Waal’s force is likely to be the most important in determining the m.pt. and b.pt. [DPMT 2000] (a) 22. H2S (b) 7. 8. 9. [Orissa JEE 2005] 10. 11. 2. Which set of conditions represents easiest way to liquefy a gas[NCERT 1983] (a) Low temperature and high pressure (b) High temperature and low pressure (c) Low temperature and low pressure (d) High temperature and high pressure Adiabatic demagnetisation is a technique used for 3. (a) Adiabatic expansion of a gas (b) Production of low temperature (c) Production of high temperature (d) None An ideal gas can't be liquefied because O2 (b) N2 (c) NH 3 (d) CH 4 A gas can be liquefied [AFMC 2005] (a) Above its critical temperature (b) At its critical temperature (c) Below its critical temperature (d) At any temperature Which of the following is correct for critical temperature (a) It is the highest temperature at which liquid and vapour can coexist (b) Beyond the critical temperature, there is no distinction between the two phases and a gas cannot be liquefied by compression (c) At critical temperature (Tc ) the surface tension of the system is zero (d) At critical temperature the gas and the liquid phases have different critical densities A gas has a density of 2.68 g / L at stp. Identify the gas (a) Critical state and Liquefaction of gases 1. –1–11–1–14545454 [IIT 1989] (a) Br2 (b) 152.51 atm (d) 70.52 atm –2 CH 4 are 1.3, 1.390, 4.170 and 2.253 L2 atm mol 2 respectively. The gas which can be most easily liquefied is (c) HCl (d) CO Pressure exerted by 1 mole of methane in a 0.25 litre container at 300K using vander Waal's equation (given 1 2.253 atml 2 mol 2 , b 0.0428 litmol 1 ) is (a) 82.82 atm (c) 190.52 atm (d) It cannot be liquefied at any value of P and T The Vander Waal's parameters for gases W, X, Y and Z are Gas a (atm L mol ) b (L mol ) W 4.0 0.027 X 8.0 0.030 Y 6.0 0.032 Z 12.0 0.027 Which one of these gases has the highest critical temperature (a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z The Vander Waal's constant 'a' for the gases O2 , N 2 , NH 3 and 2 a (d) p 2 (Vm b) RT Vm 19. (b) Its molecules are relatively smaller in size (c) It solidifies before becoming a liquid (d) Forces operative between its molecules are negligible However great the pressure, a gas cannot be liquefied above its (a) Boyle temperature (b) Inversion temperature (c) Critical temperature (d) Room temperature An ideal gas obeying kinetic theory of gases can be liquefied if[CBSE PMT 1995] (a) Its temperature is more than critical temperature Tc NO 2 (b) Kr (c) COS (d) SO 2 Weight of 112 ml of oxygen at NTP on liquefaction would be[DPMT 1984] (a) 0.32 g (b) 0.64 g (c) 0.16 g (d) 0.96 g [BHU 1984] 1. [CBSE PMT 1992] o (a) Its critical temperature is always above 0 C As the temperature is raised from 20 o C to 40 o C the average kinetic energy of neon atoms changes by a factor of which of the following [AIEEE 2004] (a) 313/293 (b) (313 / 293) Gaseous State 2. 3. 4. (c) 1/2 (d) 2 A gas is found to have a formula [CO] x . If its vapour density is 70, the value of x is [DCE 2004] (a) 2.5 (b) 3.0 (c) 5.0 (d) 6.0 Which of the given sets of temperature and pressure will cause a gas to exhibit the greatest deviation from ideal gas behavior [DCE 2003] (a) 100 o C and 4 atm (b) 100 o C and 2 atm (c) 100 o C and 4 atm (d) 11. 0 o C and 2 atm (a) N /2 (c) 2N (a) 7. 8. 9. (n1C12 n2C22 n3 C32 .....) 1 / 2 n1 n2 n3 ..... (c) (n1C12 )1 / 2 (n2C22 )1 / 2 (n3 C32 )1 / 2 ...... n1 n2 n3 13. At what temperature will the average speed of CH 4 molecules have (d) 4N the same value as O 2 has at 300 K : v : u :: 1 : 1.128 : 1.224 [CBSE PMT 1989] (a) 1200 K (c) 600 K : v : u :: 1.128 : 1.224 : 1 (d) : v : u :: 1.124 : 1.228 : 1 Consider the following statements : For diatomic gases, the ratio C p / Cv is equal to (1) 1.40 (lower temperature) (2) 1.66 (moderate temperature) (3) 1.29 (higher temperature) which of the above statements are correct (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is [MP PET 2004] (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) The compressibility factor of a gas is less than 1 at STP. Its molar volume Vm will be [MP PET 2004] (a) Vm 22.42 (b) (c) Vm 22.42 (d) None (c) 45 2 18 2 32 18 2 45 32 2 (b) (d) 14. 18 2 45 2 A sample of O 2 gas is collected over water at 23 o C at a barometric pressure of 751 mm Hg (vapour pressure of water at 15. In an experiment during the analysis of a carbon compound, 145 l of H 2 was collected at 760 mm Hg pressure and 27 o C temperature. The mass of H 2 is nearly [MNR 1987] (a) 10 g (c) 24 g 16. (b) 12 g (d) 6 g The volume of 1 g each of methane (CH 4 ) , ethane (C2 H 6 ) , propane (C3 H 8 ) and butane (C4 H10 ) was measured at 350 K and 1 atm. What is the volume of butane [NCERT 1981] (a) 495 cm 3 17. 32 18. 45 2 18 32 The ratio of rates of diffusion of SO 2 , O2 and CH 4 is (b) 1 : 2 : 4 (c) 2 : 2 :1 (d) 1 : 2 : 2 gas at 27 o C will be doubled keeping the pressure 19. [Orissa 1993] o o (a) 54 C (b) (c) 427 o C (d) 527 o C [BHU 1992] 1: 2 :2 (b) 600 cm 3 (c) 900 cm 3 (d) 1700 cm 3 The ratio of the rate of diffusion of helium and methane under identical condition of pressure and temperature will be [IIT 2005] (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0.5 At what temperature in the celsius scale, V (volume) of a certain mass of constant 2 (a) (b) 150 K (d) 300 K 23 o C is 21 mm Hg). The partial pressure of O 2 gas in the sample collected is [CBSE PMT 1993] (a) 21 mm Hg (b) 751 mm Hg (c) 0.96 atm (d) 1.02 atm Vm 22.42 If some moles of O 2 diffuse in 18 sec and same moles of other gas diffuse in 45 sec then what is the molecular weight of the unknown gas [CPMT 1988] (a) 10. (b) 12. (b) : v : u :: 1.128 : 1 : 1.224 (c) 1/2 [AFMC 1994] 6. n1C12 n2 C 22 n3 C32 ..... n1 n2 n3 ..... (d) (b) N What is the relationship between the average velocity (v), root mean square velocity (u) and most probable velocity (a) 1/2 (a) (n1C1 n2 C2 n3 C3 ....) 2 (n1 n2 n3 ....) 50 ml of hydrogen diffuses out through a small hole from a vessel in 20 minutes. The time needed for 40 ml of oxygen to diffuse out is[CBSE PMT 19 (a) 12 min (b) 64 min (c) 8 min (d) 32 min If one litre of O 2 at 15 o C and 750 mm pressure contains 'N' 5. If C1, C2 , C3 ...... represent the speeds of n1, n2 , n3 ..... molecules, then the root mean square speed is [IIT 1993] The molecular weight of O 2 and SO 2 are 32 and 64 respectively. molecules, the number of molecules in two litres of SO 2 under the same conditions of temperature and pressure will be [CBSE 1990; MNR 1991] 245 327 C Pressure of a mixture of 4 g of O 2 and 2 g of H 2 confined in a bulb of 1 litre at 0 o C is (a) 25.215 atm [AIIMS 2000] (b) 31.205 atm 246 Gaseous state 20. (c) 45.215 atm (d) 15.210 atm If pressure becomes double at the same absolute temperature on 2 L CO 2 , then the volume of CO 2 becomes 8. Assertion : 1/4 of the gas is expelled if air present in an open vessel is heated from 27 o C to 127 o C . Rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass. Compressibility factor for hydrogen varies with pressure with positive slope at all pressures. Even at low pressures, repulsive forces dominate hydrogen gas. [AIIMS 2005] vander Waal’s equation is applicable only to nonideal gases. Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Ideal gases obey the equation PV nRT . Assertion : Pressure exerted by gas in a container with increasing temperature of the gas. Reason : With the rise in temperature, the average speed of gas molecules increases. Assertion : Gases do not settle to the bottom of container. Reason : Gases have high kinetic energy. th [AIIMS 1992] (a) 2 L (c) 25 L 21. (b) 4 L (d) 1 L 9. Volume of the air that will be expelled from a vessel of 300 cm 3 when it is heated from 27 o C to 37 o C at the same pressure will be (a) 310 cm 3 (c) 10 cm 22. 3 10. (b) 290 cm 3 (d) 37 cm 3 11. 300 ml of a gas at 27 o C is cooled to 3 o C at constant pressure, the final volume is [NCERT 1981, MP PMT 1992] (a) 540 ml (c) 270 ml (b) 135 ml (d) 350 ml [AIIMS 1995] 12. [AIIMS 1997] 13. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below : (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 1. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. If assertion is true but reason is false. If the assertion and reason both are false. If assertion is false but reason is true. 2. Assertion Reason Assertion : : : 3. Reason Assertion : : 4. 5. 6. 7. 14. 15. 16. Assertion : A mixture of He and O 2 respiration for deep sea divers. is used for Reason : He is soluble in blood. Assertion : Wet air is heavier than dry air. Reason : The density of dry air is more than density of water. [AIIMS 1999] Assertion : All molecules in a gas have some speed. Reason : Gas contains molecules of different size and shape. [AIIMS 2001] Assertion : Effusion rate of oxygen is smaller than nitrogen. Reason : Molecular size of nitrogen is smaller than oxygen.[AIIMS 200 [AIIMS 1998] Plot of P Vs. 1 / V (volume) is a straight line. Pressure is directly proportional to volume. Jet aeroplane flying at high altitude need pressurization of the cabin. Oxygen is not present at higher altitude. 1 mol of H 2 and O 2 each occupy 22.4 L of volume at 0 o C and 1 bar pressure. Molar volume for all gases at the same temperautre and pressure has the same volume. Pressure exerted by a mixture of reacting gases is equal to the sum of their partial pressures. Reacting gases react to form a new gas having pressure equal to the sum of both. Greater the value of Vander Waal’s constant ' a' greater is the liquefaction of gas. ' a' indirectly measures the magnitude of attractive forces between the molecules. Carbondioxide has greater value of root mean square velocity rms than carbon monoxide. Characteristics and Measurable properties of gases 1 c 2 d 3 a 4 a 5 a Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : Assertion : Reason : rms is directly proportional to molar mass. 6 bc 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 d Assertion : 11 a 12 a 13 a 14 a 15 c Reason : 4.58 mm and 0.0098 o C is known to be triple point of water. At this pressure and temperature all the three states i.e., water, ice and vapour exist simultaneously. 16 c 17 b 18 c 19 a 20 b 21 c 22 c 23 d 24 a 25 c 26 c 27 b 28 c 29 c 30 c 1 c 2 c 3 b 4 a 5 c 6 d 7 a 8 b 9 c 10 a 11 a 12 b 13 a 14 d 15 c 16 e Ideal gas equation and Related gas laws Gaseous State 31 a 32 a 33 b 34 b 35 b 36 c 37 d 38 c 39 c 40 a 41 b 42 c 43 c 44 d 45 a 46 a 47 b 48 d 49 b 50 c 51 d 52 a 53 a 54 c 55 a 56 a 57 b 58 a 59 b 60 a 61 b 62 d 63 c 64 b 65 d 66 b 67 d 68 a 69 a 70 b 71 c 72 a 73 d 74 c 75 a 76 c 77 d 78 b 79 b 80 b 81 d 82 d 83 c 84 c 85 a 86 d 87 a 88 a 89 c 90 c 91 a 92 c 93 a 94 b 95 a 96 a 97 d 98 b 99 e 100 a 101 c 102 c 103 c 104 c 105 a 106 a Kinetic molecular theory of gases and Molecular collisions 1 d 2 c 3 d 4 d 5 b 6 a 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 b 11 a 12 d 13 a 14 a 15 acd 16 a 17 b 18 d 19 b 20 d 21 a 22 d 23 c 24 b 25 b 26 a 27 d 28 a 29 d 30 c 31 c Molecular speeds 1 a 2 c 3 d 4 d 5 d 6 c 7 b 8 b 9 d 10 b 11 d 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 d 16 c 17 d 18 d 19 b 20 b 21 c 22 a 23 c 24 b 25 c 26 a 27 d Real gases and Vander waal’s equation 1 b 2 b 3 c 4 c 5 d 6 c 7 d 8 b 9 d 10 b 11 c 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 c 16 b 17 a 18 b 19 c 20 a 21 b 22 a 247 Gaseous State P = 100 kPa , P1 ? , V = 1 litre , Critical state and Liquefaction of gases a 2 b 3 d 4 c 5 d 6 d 7 c 8 c 9 abc 10 c 11 c 100 1 = P1 4 ; P1 25 If P2 is the pressure of O 2 gas in the mixture of O 2 and N 2 then, 320 3 = P2 4 ; P2 240 Hence, Total pressure P P1 P2 25 240 265 kPa Critical Thinking Questions 1 a 2 c 3 c 4 c 5 a 6 d 7 b 8 b 9 a 10 a 11 a 12 b 13 b 14 c 15 b 16 a 17 b 18 b 19 a 20 d 21 c 22 c Ideal gas equation and Related gas laws 1. 2. 3. Assertion & Reason 1 c 2 c 3 a 4 d 5 a 6 d 7 a 8 b 9 a 10 b 11 a 12 a 13 c 14 e 15 d 16 c 4. 5. 7. Characteristics and Measurable properties of gases 3. 4. 5. 7. (c) Gases do not have definite shape and volume. Their volume is equal to the volume of the container. (c) All the three phases of water can coexist at 0 o C & 4.7 mm pressure. (b) It is characteristic of gases i.e. Thermal energy >> molecular attraction (a) In gases, molecular attraction is very less and intermolecular spaces are large hence kinetic energy of gases is highest. (c) Gases and liquids, both can flow and posses viscosity. (a) Newton is unit of force. C o F o 32 5 9 (b) 9. 10. 12. (c) 1 L 10 3 m 3 10 3 cm 3 1dm 3 10 3 ml . (a) 1 atm = 10 6 dynes cm (b) Barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure of mixture of gases. Staglometer is used to measure surface tension. Only manometer is used to measure pressure of pure gas in a vessel. (a) 0 o C is equivalent to 273o K i.e. conditions are same so volume will be V ml. (d) The mass of gas can be determined by weighing the container, filled with gas and again weighing this container after removing the gas. The difference between the two weights gives the mass of the gas. (c) Nobel gases has no intermolecular forces due to inertness. (e) Total volume of two flasks = 1+ 3 = 4 If P1 the pressure of gas N 2 in the mixture of N 2 and 14. 15. 16. 20 1 50 (a) P.V = constant at constant temperature. As temperature changes, the value of constant also changes. (b,c)According to Boyle's Law PV = constant, at constant temperature either P increases or V increases both (b) & (c) may be correct. T .d d1 1 T1 2 P1 V2 T1 (a) , 1 1 d 2 2 T2 1 P2 V1 T2 T2 .d 2 P1 2 1 1 . P2 1 2 1 8. 11. (a) Absolute temperature is temperature measured in expressed by T (a) T1 273o C 273 273o K 546o K Kelvin , T2 0 o C 273 0 o C 273o K P1 1 ; P2 ? According to Gay-Lussac’s law PT 1 273 o K 1 P1 P2 atm; atm. P2 1 2 2 T1 T2 T1 546 o K 12. (a) Vt Vo (1 v t) if t2 t1 1o then V Vo For every 1o C increase in temperature, the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas increases by a definite fraction 1 of Vo . Here Vo is volume at 0 o C temperature. 273.15 -2 O 2 then o (V2 V1 ) V Vo(t 2 t1 ) 8. 13. 1 at constant T P 1 (d) According to Boyle's law V P Constant V ; VP = Constant. P (a) At sea level, because of compression by air above the proximal layer of air, pressure increases hence volume decreases i.e. density increases. It is Boyle’s law. (a) At constant T , P1V1 P2 V2 (c) Boyle's law is V 1 20 P2 50 ; P2 6. 2. V1 4 litre applying Boyle's law PV P1V1 1 1. 249 13. (a) V1 T1 T 546 o K 0 .2 L 0 .4 L. V2 2 V1 V2 T2 T1 273o K 14. (a) V2 T2 270 o K .V1 .400cm 3 360cm 3 T1 300 o K contraction V1 V2 400 360 40cm 3 15. (c) At constant volumes P T P = constant T; PV = nRT P nR T V 250 Gaseous State slope = m nR V2 V1 V m1 V2 m1 m 2 is curve for V has a greater slope than m 2 V1 for V P1 P1 P P T1 T1 T1 T2 35. (b) P1 V1 P2 V2 PV T 1 1 1 T1 T P2 V2 T2 36. (c) d a 2d b ; 2 M a M b 2 m m RT dRT RT ; P . M V M M Pa d a M b 2d b 2 M a 4 Pb d b M a db Ma PV nRT 1 16. 18. 19. 20. (c) T T2 2 P1 (T1 T2 ) 2 P1 T2 2 P1 ; P P 1 T ( T T ) T T1 T T 1 1 2 1 T2 1 2 (c) At constant V of a definite mass P1 P2 P1 300 1 i.e. pressure increases T1 T2 P2 600 2 and on increasing temperature energy of molecules increases so the rate of collisions also increases and number of moles remains constant because there is neither addition nor removal of gas in the occurring. (a) Avogadro number = 6.0224 10 PV 1 at STP (as given) (b) Compressibility = nRT R = 0.821 nRT PV T = 273 K N 0.0821 273 1Vm 37. 16 1 32 2 3 n of H 2 2 (d) n of O2 23 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (a) o P=1 n=1 22.41 litres Vm 21. 22. (c) The value of universal gas constant can be expressed in different units and its value would depend only on the units of the measurement. (c) PV = nRT PV R litre . atm. K mole nT (d) (atm. K mol ) is not a unit of R (a) 8.31 J.K mol 1 cal = 4.2 J. 8 .31 cal.K 1mol 1 = 1.987 cal K mol 4 .2 n P (c) PV = nRT V RT nRT 2 0 .0821 546 2 atm. (a) P V 44.8 l –1 23. 24. -1 –1 –1 –1 30. 31. 32. (a) 41. at STP n1 one mole. at T 273o 30 o 303o K P = 1 atm. V = 22.4 lt T = 273 K P2 1 atm 1 1 42. –1 P1 V1 P2 V2 PVT n 2 2 2 1 n1 n1 T1 n 2 T2 P1 V1 T2 V2 22.4 nRT 0 .5 0.082 273 K 11.2lit P 1 P1 V1T2 V2 P1 P ; T1 273o K P2 T1 33. (b) V 34. (b) 43. (c) 47. 240o K 33o C (b) Because H 2 & Cl 2 gases may react with each other to 48. 49. produce HCl gas hence Dalton's law is not applicable. (d) Because HCl & NH 3 gases may react to produce NH 4 Cl gas. Dalton's Law is applicable for non reacting gas mixtures. (b) NH 3 and HCl & HBr is a reacting gas mixture to produce NH 4 Cl & NH 4 Br so Dalton's law is not applicable. o T 4 3 P ; T2 T1 1 273 o K 2 3 3 2 P 4 273 800 V2 100cc cc 88.888 cc 3 P 3 273 9 = 88.9 cc P2 300 400 o K 0 .75 P1 V1 P2 V2 PV 740 80 T2 2 2 T1 300 T1 T2 P1 V1 740 100 T2 o 1 22.4 273 1 0.9 moles 1 22.4 303 0 .75 1 2 300 o K 450 o K 1 1 1 P1 T2 1 250 .V1 12000lit. 20000lit. (b) V2 P2 T1 0.5 300 (c) At constant pressure m V nT T M V1 m1 T1 T V m d 300 o K 0 .75 d 1 1 2 2 T2 d V2 m 2 T2 T2 m1 V2 d1 1 n2 P1V1 P2 V2 P V m T2 2 2 T1 1 n1T1 n2 T2 P1 V1 m2 –1 -1 3 1 2 2 2 nRT 2 .082 273 V 44.8 lit = 44800 ml P 1 PV m n RT M MPV 34 2 100 m 282.4 gm RT 0.082 293 PV T 760 546 V2 1 1 1 273 691.6 ml. T1 P2 600 273 Total no. of moles = 50. m 4 m No. of moles of heavier gas 40 m m 11m Total no. of moles 4 40 40 m 10 Mole fraction of lighter gas 4 11m 11 40 (c) No. of moles of lighter gas Gaseous State Partial pressure due to lighter gas Po 10 11 10 1atm. 11 (a) m. wt. of NH 3 17 ; m.wt. of N 2 28 69. 1 .1 52. beacuse NH 3 is lightest gas out of these gases 55. (a) rg rHe 70. 1 MolecularWeight rCH M g M CH 4 4 16 2 2 64 rg Volume effused V 1 (b) r r time taken t M V 1 for same volumes (V constant) t M M He r 2 He 4 4 M g M He . 2 2 2 Mg 1 .96 r g (1 .4 ) t M Note : 1.4 2 56. (a) tCO 5 2 57. 58. (b) rg (a) rH 1 rH ; M g M H 2 . 2 2 6 2 2 36 72 6 2 rg 71. (c) M1 64 ; r2 2r1 rN 2 rSO 2 59. (b) rO rH 2 60. 61. (a) (b) r d1 1 ; 1 d 2 16 r2 63. 64. 72. 2 (a) 1 2 (d) (c) Gases may be separated by this process because of different rates of diffusion due to difference in their densities. (b) NH 4 Cl ring will first formed near the HCl bottle because 73. HCl bottle & will react there with HCl to form NH 4 Cl ring (d) Because both NO and C2 H 6 have same molecular weights NO M C 2 H 6 30 (a) rH rO rH M H2 M O2 2 10 2 32 64 28 TN 2 16 . 323 7 (1 .625)2 323 7 373o K 16 C H 2O COg H 2g (a) 6.02 10 22 molecules of each N 2 , O2 and H 2 6 .02 10 22 moles of each 6 .02 10 23 Weight of mixture = weight of 0.1 mole N 2 weight of 0.1 and rate of diffusion molecular xgm 2gm if rO 10 min 10 min 323 75. 2 68. TN 2 PV nRT n n P RT C P CRT V V P 1 T 12o K CR 1 .821 r 1 1 M A rB 1 rA 2rB B 2 .25 M B rA 4 rA 2 (2) (d) M N2 (c) weight. 67. M So 2 74. M NH 3 : M HCl 17 : 36.5) . SO NH 3 will reach first to the M TSO 2 . 12 gm 1mol 1mol 12 gm C produces 2mole of gases (1mole CO & 1 mole of H ) 48 2 4 2 8 mole 48 gm C may produce 12 22.4 8 L gases 179.2 L gas. mRT 4 .4 .082 273 (d) Molecular weight = = 44 PV 1 2 .24 So the gas should be CO 2 rate of diffusion of NH 3 is more than that of HCl because 65. TN 2 2 d2 4 16 d1 1 B B B 2 ; D A DB A A A DA DB 28 44 5 14 s ; tCO 2 5 5 22 s 2 2 TN 2 r d 1 1 ra 5rb ; a b d b ra 25 5 1 62. 1 .625 dH 0 09 1 1 1 dO 1 .44 16 4 32 20 s 2 Vrms N 2 Vrms SO 2 2 r 1 M 2 M 1 1 64 16 r 4 2 M1 M2 M He 4 5 5 2 s. M H2 2 tO 2 t 5 2 rH 2 (5)2 25 ; M g 2 25 50 rg M H2 t1 t2 t He t H 2 1 rg .rH 2 5 Mg x 2 1 gm. .5 gm 10 10 4 2 rCH 4 2rg 2 m.wt. of CO 2 44 ; m.wt. of O2 32 r (a) 251 mole H 2 + weight of 0.1 mole of O2 76. (28 0.1) (2 0.1) (32 0.1) 6.2 gm (c) M.wt of CO 2 = 12+16+16 = 44 Volume of 44 gm of CO 2 at NTP = 22.4 litre 1 gm of CO 2 at NTP = 22 .4 44 252 Gaseous State 4.4 gm of CO 2 at N.T.P 78. In 80. (b) Molecular weight = V.d. 2 = 11.2 2 = 22.4 Volume of 22.4 gm Substance of NTP = 22.4 litre 22.4 1 gm substance at NTP = litre 22.4 11.2 gm substance of NTP = 11.2 litre M . wt . of O2 M 32 1 (b) 1 M . wt . of SO 2 M2 64 2 85. (a) Mixture of SO 2 and Cl 2 are reacted chemically and forms 86. SO 2 Cl 2 . That is why mixture of these gases is not applicable for Dalton's law. (d) According to Boyle's law P1V1 P2 V2 P1 60 720 100 (a) Solution level will rise, due to absorption of CO 2 by sodium hydroxide. 2 NaOH CO 2 Na 2 CO 3 H 2 O 89. (c) 92. (c) In 22.4 l r1 r2 of 6.023 10 23 H2 98. 99. r 6r 2 MA P1 V1 720 100 857.142 V2 84 Hence, P2 857.14 mm (b) According to gas law PV PV nRT , n RT P1 V1 T nA RT1 n A P1 V1 2 ; P V nB T1 P2 V2 nB 2 2 RT2 (e) No. of molecules 2 V.d 2 38.3 76.3 wt. of NO 2 x So that wt. of N 2O4 100 x x 100 x 100 2 x 100 x 100 46 92 76.6 92 76.6 20.10 0 .437 x = 20.10, no. of mole. of NO 2 46 (a) Given that P1 76cm of Hg (Initial pressure at N.T.P.) Hence, 100. P2 ? , V1 5litre, V2 30 5 35litres According to Boyle's law P1V1 P2 V2 ; 76 5 P2 35 2 1 1 32 16 4 number MH MA 4 2 1 .4 ; r1 1.4 m 2 n A 2 P 2V T n 2 ; A nB 2T PV n B 1 22.4 .224 litre of produce = 100 maximum rA rH P2 M1 32 g for O 2 , M 2 2 g for H 2 M2 ; M1 M2 M1 By using P1V1 P2 V2 [According to the Boyle's law] 22 .4 litre Molecularwt . Of Metal 45 Volume 22 .4 r1 r2 97. = 2 gmlitre r1 r2 6 .023 10 15 4.03 10 23 molecules. 22.4 22.4 l O2 at S.T.P. 32 gm of O 2 M A 6 6 2 72 g (d) Given that: V1 100ml, P1 720mm , V2 84 ml, P2 ? 1 (a) molecules (a) CO 2 91. of 96. ˆ CaO CO 2 (c) The density of gas number 95 At S.T.P. 100 g CaCO 3 produce= 22.4 litreof CO 2 90. maximum 23 32 1 .43 gm of O 2 22.4 (a) We know that molecular mass of hydrogen M1 2 and that that is why H 2 gas diffuse first 88. At S.T.P. 1 g CaCO 3 molecules (a) 720 100 1200mm 60 1 (a) Rate of diffusion Molecular Mass (40 12 16 3 ) 100 gm of 93. P1 CaCo 3 number of helium M 2 4 , we also know that Graham's law of diffusion 84. 87. maximum 1l O 2 at S.T.P. 1 that of SO 2 2 (b) For HI has the least volume because of greater molecular 1 weight V M (c) Since no. of molecules is halved so pressure should also be halved. (c) H 2 will be filled first because of lower molecular weight 83. H2 23 The weight of oxygen will be 81. of 200 = molarity Volume (in lt.) 0 .1 .02 1000 Volume of 0.02 mole of CO 2 22.4 .02lt. 0.448lit. 79. 1l 6 .023 10 22.4 In 15l of H2 22.4 4 .4 litre 2.24 litre 44 (b) No. of moles of CO 2 present in 200 ml solution of 76 5 P2 10.8 cm of Hg 35 (c) Given initial volume V1 300cc , initial temperature P2 molecules 101. T1 27o C 300 K , initial pressure P1 620mm , final Gaseous State temperature T2 47 o C 320 K and final pressure 12. P2 640mm .We know from the general gas equation P1 V1 P2 V2 620 300 640 V2 V2 310cc 300 320 T1 T2 102. (c) NH 3 HCl NH 4 Cl 4 litre 1.5litre 14. HCl is a limiting compound. That's why 1.5litre of HCl reacts with 1.5litre of NH 3 and forms NH 4 Cl . Thus (4 - 15. 1.5) 2.5litre NH 3 remains after the reaction. 103. (c) 13. P1 V1 P2 V2 P1 4 2 P1 V2 ; T1 T2 T1 2T1 8 2 V2 so V2 4dm 3 104. (c) P1 P, V1 V, T1 T P , V2 ? , T2 T 2 According to gas equation P1 V1 P2 V2 PV PV2 or T 2T T1 T2 16. 18. P2 105. (a) V2 4 V 17. 85 , T2 ? 100 P V 2 P 85 V 348 2 85 T2 100 398 T2 100 T2 591.6 K 318.6 o C 106. (d) All molecules of an ideal gas show random motion. They collide with each other and walls of container during which they lose or gain energy so they may not have same kinetic energy always. (a) For same temperature kinetic energies of H 2 & He molecules will be same because kinetic energy depends only on temperature. (a) For same temp. kinetic energies would be equal for all molecules, what ever their molecular weights will be, it doesn't matter. (a,c,d)Kinetic energies per molecule will be same because it is proportional to absolute temperature only. dN2 MN2 28 i.e. dN 2 dCO 2 d CO 2 M CO 2 44 Total translational kinetic energy will also be same because at same temperature & pressure number of molecules present in same volume would be same (according to Avogadro's Law) (a) On increasing pressure, the volume decreases and density increases. So molecules get closer to each other hence mean free path also decreases. (b) Most probable velocity increase and fraction of molecule possessing most probable velocity decrease. (d) PV nRT P1 P, V1 V, T1 273 75 348 K P2 2 P, V2 (a) Boyle's law PV = constant On differentiating the equation, d(PV) d(C) PdV VdP 0 dP dV VdP PdV . P V m RT M m PM density V RT P P the value of is maximum for (b) T T 19. (b) d 20. (d) If inversion temperature is 80 o C 193o K then the temperature, at which it will produce cooling under Joule Thomson’s effect, would be below inversion temperature except 173o K all other values given as 21. (a) Since CP 1 .4 , the gas should be diatomic. CV If volume is 11.2 lt then, no. of moles = Kinetic molecular theory of gases and Molecular collisions no. of molecules = 4. (d) Kinetic energy 5. (b) K.E = 3 RT 2 7. 8. (c) Tr. K. E. 9. (b) 2 22. 3 RT it means that the Translational Kinetic 2 energy of Ideal gas depends upon temperature only. THe so energies will be same for TH 2 He & H 2 at same temperature. 11. (a) K. E. 3 3 .RT .2 .T 2 2 K. E. 3T 1 2 1 Avagadro’s No. 2 no. of atoms = 2 no. of molecules 3 RT it means that K.E depends upon T (absolute 2 temperature) only. 3 3 (a) KE RT PV 2 2 2 E 2 P for unit volume (V = 1) P E 3 V 3 E He EH2 253 R 2calK1mol 1 23. 1 Avagadro’s No. 2 6.0223 10 23 M (d) Density = V v.d 2 M V.d 2 d V d V V .d 2 0.00130 22400 V .d 14.56 gm 1 2 (c) Volume of steam = 1lt = 10 3 cm 3 m d.V mass of 10 3 cm 3 steam = density Volume 0 .0006 gm 10 3 cm 3 0.6 gm = cm 3 254 Gaseous State Actual volume occupied by H 2 O molecules is equal to volume of water of same mass Actual volume of H 2 O molecules in 6 gm steam = mass of steam/density of water = 0.6 gm /1 gm/cm 0.6 cm 3 1 12. 13. 3 CP 5 1 .66 (For Monoatomic as He, Ne , Ar ) CV 3 24. (b) r 25. (b) The density of neon will be highest at 0 o C 2 atm according P to d T 3 (d) K.E. per mole RT 2 so all will have same K.E. at same temperature. (c) W P.dV E Energy per unit volume = P d M 3d M M (c) d M 1 1 ; ; M2 . 3 d2 M 2 d M2 29. 30. 31. Molecular speeds 1. (a) 3. (d) most probable velocity : mean velocity : V (d) 15. (d) 2 RT 8 RT : : M M 3 RT M 8 2: U SO 2 U He 1 2 M He TSO 2 M SO 2 THe M O2 32 48 4 TSO 2 . 64 300 9. 10. (b) UO2 M O 2 TSO 2 M SO 2 TO 2 U1 U2 T1 T2 (d) U 19. (b) m1U1 2 m 2U2 2 T2 1200 U1 U1 2 T1 300 TH 2 UO 2 MH2 . 3 RT M U1 U2 n1T1 n2 T2 M O2 TH 2 3 PV M 50 32 . 1 2 800 3P 1 U d d nT 2n 2 T 1 1 4 2 U2 2U1 2U 21. (c) 22. (a) Vmp Vav 2 RT M 2 8 RT M 3 RT Vrms T M Given V1 V , T1 300 K , V2 2V , T2 ? Vrms V1 V2 24. 26. 32 TSO 2 1 64 303 T1 5 10 4 T2 10 10 4 UH 2 17. 2 T1 V 300 ; T2 300 4 1200 K T2 2 V T2 n 2a (b) P 2 V nb nRT V 2 .0821 300 4 .7 2 2 10 0.66 9.33atm 5 2 .03711 52 (a) Average speed : most probable speed 8 RT : M 27. 8 : 2 1.128 : 1. 3 RT M 3 R 300 3 RT 30 30 R M M 3 300 1 gm 0.001 kg . M 30 30 Real gases and Vander waal’s equation 2 1 4 (d) v rms 2 RT M 30 2 R 32 TSO 2 1 TSO 2 606 64 303 (d) Among these Cl 2 has the highest molecular weight so it will posses lowest root mean square velocity. (b) m2 m1 P 2 3 (b) Average kinetic energy per molecule 3 3 KT 1.38 10 23 300 J = 6.17 10 21 J 2 2 U SO 2 2 2 P (2) 4 .17 5 2 .03711 2 .0821 300 2 ( 5 ) 7. M O3 U2 : 3 (c) UO 2 2 (c) 4 TSO 2 1 ; TSO 2 1200o K 64 300 4 UO 3 U1 m 2 T1 . T1 T2 m1 T2 (d) U2 U1 rms 6. 8. U1 U2 16. 3 RT 1 Vrms at same T M M Vrms (d) r.m.s. velocity will be doubled. because H 2 has least molecular weight so its r.m.s. velocity should be maximum. 5. Vrms 66 1 .086 56 1 4. 3 8 8 RT Vrms ; Vav M 3 RT , Vav M Vrms 14. 3 KT 1 i.e. Vrms (m ) 2 Molecularweight m (a) When average speed of molecule is increased due to increase in temperature then the change in momentum during collision between wall of container and molecules of gas also increases. (c) 2. (b) Because molecules of real gases have intermolecular forces of attraction so the effective impact on the wall of container is Gaseous State a factor hence v2 behaviour of real gas deviate from ideal behaviour. PV Z for ideal gas PV = RT so Z = 1 RT PV ; for ideal gas PV = RT; so Z = 1 Z RT Ideal gas has no attractive force between the particles PV = nRT is a ideal gas equation it is allowed when the temperature is high and pressure is low. At Boyle temperature real gas is changed into ideal gas When pressure is low a P 2 V b RT V a ab PV a 1 or PV RT Pb 2 or V V RT VRT a PV Z Z VRT RT At high temperature and low pressure, Vander Waal’s equation is reduced to ideal gas equation. 0.16 gm of O 2 diminished. Pressure of real gas is reduced by 3. (c) 12. (b) 13. 14. (b) (d) 16. 17. (b) (a) 18. (b) Critical Thinking Questions 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. (a) Average kinetic energy (T Kelvin) K. E2 T2 40 273 313 (Factor) 293 K. E1 T1 20 273 (c) M. wt. = V.d. 2 m.wt . 40 = 70 2 = 140 x 5 wt .of [CO ] 12 16 (c) Gas deviate from ideal gas behaviour to real gas (according to Vander Waal's at low temperature and high pressure) (c) At same temperature and pressure, equal volumes have equal number of molecules. If 1lit. of oxygen consists N molecules then at same temperature and pressure 1 lit of SO 2 will consists N molecules. So 2 lit. of SO 2 will contain 2 N molecules. (a) Vav : Vrms : V = V : U : most probable 8 RT : M PV = nRT PV = RT (For 1 mole of gas) 20. 22. (a) or (P 36.048)(0.2072) 24.63 P 36.048 118.87 P 82.82 atm. 6. 7. 8. 9. Critical state and Liquefaction of gases 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 10. 11. (b) A diabatic demagnetisation is a technique of liquefaction of gases in which temperature is reduced. (d) An ideal gas can’t be liquefied because molecules of ideal gas have not force of attraction between them. (c) At above critical temperature, substances are existing in gaseous state, since gas cannot be liquefied above it. (d) Absence of inter molecular attraction ideal gas cannot be liquefied at any volume of P and T. (d) For Z gas of given gases, critical temperature is highest 8a 8 12 Tc 1603.98 K Tc 27 Rb 27 .0821 .027 (c) Value of constant a is greater than other for NH 3 that’s why NH 3 can be most easily liquefied. (c) The temperature below which the gas can be liquefied by the application of pressure alone is called critical temperature. M M d V (c) d V M 2.68 22.4 at N.T.P. V 22.41 M 60.03 gm m. wt of COS 12 16 32 60 (c) 22400 ml is the volume of O 2 at N.T.P =32gm of O 2 32 1ml is the volume of O 2 at NTP = 22400 112 ml is the volume of O 2 at NTP = 32 112 22400 3 RT : M (d) : 3 1 : 1.128 : 1.224 Cp ratio for diatomic gases is 1.40 at lower temperature & Cv 1.29 at higher temperature so the answer is 'd'. (b) PV nRT (For ideal gas) PV Z 1 (For ideal gas) nRT (b) If Z 1 then molar volume is less than 22.4 L x x mole / sec rg mol / sec (a) rO 2 18 45 rO M g MO 2 2 rg 10. 2 RT M 8 :V :U 2 : (a) Vander waal's constant for volume correction b is the measure of the effective volume occupied by the gas molecule. 2 P n a (V nb) nRT V 2 2.253 P (0 .25 0 .0428) 0 .0821 300 0.25 0.25 255 (a) rSO 2 : rO2 : rCH 4 2 2 2 32 x 45 32 45 2 18 18 x 1 1 1 : : M SO 2 O2 CH 4 1 1 64 : 32 : 16 4 : 2 :1 1 1 1 2 2 2 : : ; : : ; 1: 2 :2 2 2 1 2 2 1 11. n c 2 n2 c 22 n3 c32 .... (a) Root mean square speed 1 1 n1 n2 n3 ...... 12. (b) If 40 ml O 2 will diffuse in t min. then. rO2 rH M H2 50 50 rO rH 2 20 M O2 20 (b) Vav CH 4 Vab O2 TCH 4 14. TCH 4 TO 2 . M O2 M CH 4 40 t 2 50 1 . 32 20 4 40 50 40 80 t 60 min. t 80 50 13. 1/2 1 32 . 1 ; TCH 4 150 o K 300 16 (c) Pressure of O 2 (dry) = 751-21 = 730 mm Hg . 256 Gaseous State 730 0 .96 atm 760 PV 1 145 (b) PV nRT , n 5.8 6 mole . RT 0.082 3 nRT m RT 1 0.82 350 (a) V . 0.495lit. P M P 58 1 = 495 cm 15. 16. 8. (b) 17. 18. M CH 4 (a) 10. (b) 11. (a) 4 0 .125 32 12. (a) 2 1 2 13. (c) 14. (e) 15. (d) 16. (c) (b) V1 T1 TV 2V T2 1 2 300 o K, 600 o K V2 T2 V1 V M He 16 2 4 = T2 600o K (600 273)o C 327o C 19. (a) no. of moles of O2 no. of moles of H 2 total no. of moles = 1 0.125 1.125 P 20. (d) nRT 1.125 0.082 273 25.184 atm. V 1 P1 V P 2 , 1 2 P2 2 V2 P1 1 2L 2 ; V2 1 21. (c) 22. (c) V2 1L V2 T2 V1 T1 V2 V2 T2 310 o K V1 300 cm 3 310 cm 3 T1 300 o K T2 270 o K .V1 300ml 270ml T1 300 o K Assertion & Reason 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. (c) Pressure is inversly proportional to volume (Boyle’s law). 1 p (n, T constant). V (c) The air pressure decreases with increase in altitude. So the partial pressure of Oxygen is not sufficient for breathing at higher altitude and thus pressurization is needed. (a) At a given temperature and pressure the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the amount of gas Vn (P and T constant). (d) According to Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the pressure exerted by a mixture of non – interacting gases is equal to the sum of their partial pressures (pressure exerted by individual gases in mixture) PTotal P1 P2 P3 … (T and V constant). Both the gases if non-interacting would spread uniformly to occupy the whole volume of the vessel. (a) Considering the attractive force pressure in ideal gas equation (PV = nRT) is correct by introducing a factor of an2 where a V2 is a vander waal’s constant. 6. (d) 3 RT is inversly related M Therefore, rms (CO ) rms (CO 2 ). rms to molecular V1 1 when temperature is V2 mass. V1 300 3 V2 400 4 3 1 4 4 In case of H , compressibility factor increases with the pressure. At 273 K, Z > 1 which shows that it is difficult to compress the gas as compared to ideal gas. In this case repulsive forces dominate. In real gases, the intermolecular forces of attraction and the volume occupied by the gas molecules cannot be neglected. When the temperature increase, the average speed of gas molecules increases and by this increase the pressure of gas is also increases. It is correct that gases do not settle to the bottom of container and the reason for this is that due to higher kinetic energy of gaseous molecules they diffuse. The assertion, that a mixture of helium and oxygen is used for deep sea divers, is correct. The He is not soluble in blood. Therefore, this mixture is used. Dry air is heavier than wet air because the density of dry air is more than water. All molecule of a gas have different speed. Therefore, they move by its own speed. Assertion is true but reason is false because of effusion rate 1 (Molecular weight) but it does not depend on M molecular size. air expelled 1 9. (b) (Initial fraction 27 o C . At 127 o C the new fraction is 3 rHe rCH 4 V1 V2 T1 T2 2 Gaseous State 1. Same mass of CH 4 and H 2 is taken in container. The partial pressure caused by H 2 is 2. 7. [IIT 1989; CPMT 1996] (a) 8 / 9 (b) 1 / 9 (c) 1 / 2 (d) 1 Which of the following volume (V) – temperature (T) plots represents the behaviour of one mole of an ideal gas at one atmospheric pressure [IIT Screening 2002] V(L) (22.4 L 273 K) The following graph illustrates [JIPMER 2000] (b) Charle's law (c) Boyle's law (d) Gay-Lussac's law 8. (a) 2 litres (b) 4 litres (c) 5 litres (d) 7 litres 9. What is kinetic energy of 1 g of O 2 at 47 o C [Orissa JEE 2004] 5. (a) 1.24 10 J (b) 2.24 10 J (c) 1.24 10 3 J (d) 3.24 10 2 J 2 10. 6. HBr O2 N 2 H 2 (c) H 2 N 2 O2 HBr (d) HBr O2 H 2 N 2 T(K) By what ratio the average velocity of the molecule in gas change 1200 K 12. The rate of diffusion of SO 2 and O 2 are in the ratio [Assam JET 1991; EAMCET 1980] [DCE 2003] (c) 1.14 / 1 (d) 4 / 1 (b) 600 K A gas of volume 100 cc is kept in a vessel at pressure 10 4 Pa when the temperature is raised from 50 to 200 C (b) 1.46 / 1 [Pb. CET 2001] (c) 400 K (d) 1800 K Equal volumes of two gases which do not react together are enclosed in separate vessels. Their pressures at 100 mm and 400 mm respectively. If the two vessels are joined together, then what will be the pressure of the resulting mixture (temperature remaining constant) [CBSE PMT 1981] (a) 125 mm (b) 500 mm (c) 1000 mm (d) 250 mm o (a) 1.21 / 1 T(K) 11. [Pb. CET 1994; CBSE PMT 1991] (b) (14.2 L 373 K) (d) to 10 5 Pa, keeping the temperature constant, then the volume of the gas becomes [AFMC 1992] (a) 10 cc (b) 100 cc (c) 1 cc (d) 1000 cc If a gas is expanded at constant temperature [IIT 1986] (a) The pressure increases (b) The kinetic energy of the molecules remains the same (c) The kinetic energy of the molecules decreases (d) The number of molecules of the gas increases and HBr are in the order H 2 N 2 O2 HBr (22.4 L 273 K) maintained at temperature 24 o C . If now the pressure is increased The root mean square speeds at STP for the gases H 2 , N 2 , O2 (a) (30.6 L 373 K) If the average velocity of N 2 molecule is 0.3 m / s at 27 o C , (a) doubled, the volume of CO 2 would become [CBSE PMT 1991] T(K) V(L) then the velocity will be 0.6 m / s at If the pressure and absolute temperature of 2 litres of CO 2 are 2 T(K) (c) (a) Dalton's law (28.6 L 373 K) (22.4 L 273 K) (b) (22.4 L 273 K) 4. (36.8 L 373 K) V(L) V 3. V(L) (a) Temp. (oC) 257 (a) 1: 2 (c) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 32 (d) 1 : 4 (SET -6) Gaseous State 1. (a) N CH 4 = number of moles of CH 4 m 16 m 2 N H 2 = number of moles of H 2 7. (c) V1 T1 T 22.4 373 V2 V1 . 2 30.6 L V2 T2 T1 273 8. (a) Vrms fraction partial pressure of H 2 is 2. 3. 4. m 8 H2 2 9m m m n H 2 n CH 4 9 16 2 16 (b) According to Charle's Law V T Vt Vo Vot compare it with Y = C + mx PV T P 2T (a) V 2 1 1 . 2 2lt 2lt T1 P2 2 P T 5. (a) K.E. (b) 9. 10. 2 300 V T2 2V (a) P1 P2 100 400 250mm 2 2 P1 V1 P2 V2 at constant T 10 4.100 10 5 V2 1 2 : 1 20 : 1 32 : 1 V2 10 cc is 81 T1 150 273 423 K ; T2 50 273 323 K (Vav )1 (Vav )2 T1 T2 (d) When two vessels are joined together, the volume will be doubled hence effective pressure will be halved P 1.24 10 2 J 1 Vrms m Hence, V1 V2 T2 300 4 1200 K 11. (b) Kinetic energy will also remain constant if Temperature is constant. 12. (a) UHB r UO2 UN 2 UH 2 (c) T1 300 K V2 2V , T2 ? 3 3 1 nRT 8.314 320 J . 2 2 32 U H 2 : U N 2 : U O2 : U HBr 6. 3 RT ; Vrms T M Given, V1 V , m 2 nH2 259 T1 T2 423 1 .14 323 1 *** rSO 2 rO2 M O2 M SO 2 32 1 64 2 Nuclear Chemistry 259 Chapter 7 Nuclear Chemistry “The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of composition of atomic nucleus and the nuclear transformations is known as nuclear chemistry”. The common examples of nuclear processes are radioactivity, artificial transmutations, nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. The nuclear is also an important aspect of chemistry because the energies involved in some of these are million times greater than those in ordinary chemical reactions. Radioactivity “Radioactivity is a process in which nuclei of certain elements undergo spontaneous disintegration without excitation by any external means.’’ and the elements whose atoms disintegrate and emit radiations are called radioactive elements. Henry Becquerel (1891) observed the spontaneous emission of invisible, penetrating rays from potassium uranyl sulphate K 2 UO2 (SO4 )2 , which influenced photographic plate in dark and were able to produce luminosity in substances like ZnS. Later on, M.M. Curie and her husband P. Curie named this phenomenon of spontaneous emission of penetrating rays as, Radioactivity. Curies also discovered a new radioactive element Radium from pitchblende (an ore of U i.e. U3 O8 ) which is about 3 million times more radioactive than uranium. Now a days about 42 radioactive elements are known. The radioactivity may be broadly classified into two types, (1) If a substance emits radiations by itself, it is said to possess natural radioactivity. (2) If a substance starts emitting radiations on exposure to rays from some natural radioactive substance, the phenomenon is called induced or artificial radioactivity. Radioactivity can be detected and measured by a number of devices like ionisation chamber, Geiger Muller counter, proportional counter, flow counter, end window counter, scintillation counter, Wilson cloud chamber, electroscope, etc. Nature and characteristics of radioactive emissions The phenomenon of radioactivity arises because of the decay of unstable nuclei or certain element. Photographic plate The nature of the radiations emitted from a radioactive substance was investigated by Rutherford (1904) by Lead block Fig. 7.1 Radioactive substance applying electric and magnetic fields. When these radiation were subjected to electric or magnetic field, these were split into three types , and – rays. Characteristics of radioactive rays -Ray Charge and mass : It carries +2 Electron 1e 0 -Ray It has no charge and negligible mass. High energy raditons. Action of magnetic field : Deflected to anode. Not deflected. Deflected towards the cathode. Velocity : 1/10th to that of light. Same as that of light. Ionizing power : Very high nearly 100 times to that of - Low nearly 100 times to that of -rays. Same as that of light. Very low. charge and 4 unit mass. Identity : Helium nuclei or helium ion 2 He 4 or He2+. -Ray It carries -1 charge and no mass. rays. Effect on ZnS plate : They cause luminescence. Penetrating power : Low Range : Very small. Nature of product : Product obtained by the loss of 1 particle has atomic number less by 2 units and mass number less by 4 units. Very little effect. Very little effect. 100 times that of particles. More than -particles. Product obtained by the loss of 1 -particle has atomic number more by 1 unit, without any change in mass number. 10 times that of particles. More There is no change in the atomic number as well as in mass number. Theory of radioactivity disintegration Rutherford and Soddy, in 1903, postulated that radioactivity is a nuclear phenomenon and all the radioactive changes are taking place in the nucleus of the atom. They presented an interpretation of the radioactive processes and the origin of radiations in the form of a theory known as theory of radioactive disintegration. The main points of this theory are, (1) The atomic nuclei of the radioactive elements are unstable and liable to disintegrate any moment. (2) The disintegration is spontaneous, i.e., constantly breaking. The rate of breaking is not affected by external factors like temperature, pressure, chemical combination etc. 260 Nuclear Chemistry (3) During disintegration, atoms of new elements called daughter elements having different physical and chemical properties than the parent elements come into existence. (4) During disintegration, either alpha or beta particles are emitted from the nucleus. The disintegration process may proceed in one of the following two ways, (i) -particle emission : When an -particle (2 He ) is emitted from the nucleus of an atom of the parent element, the nucleus of the new element, called daughter element possesses atomic mass or atomic mass number less by four units and nuclear charge or atomic number less by 2 units because -particle has mass of 4 units and nuclear charge of two units. 4 -α Daughter element Parent element W 4 Z 2 Atomic mass : W Atomic number : Z (ii) -particle emission : -particle is merely an electron which has negligible mass. Whenever a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom, the nucleus of the new element formed possesses the same atomic mass but nuclear charge or atomic number is increased by 1 unit than the parent element. Beta particle emission is due to the result of decay of neutron into proton and electron. 0 n1 1 p1 1e 0 The electron produced escapes as a beta-particle-leaving proton in the nucleus. -β Daughter element Parent element Atomic mass : W Atomic number : Z W Z 1 (iii) -ray emission : -rays are emitted due to secondary effects. The excess of energy is released in the form of -rays. Thus -rays arise from energy re-arrangements in the nucleus. As -rays are short wavelength electromagnetic radiations with no charge and no mass, their emission from a radioactive element does not produce new element. Special case : If in a radioactive transformation 1 alpha and 2 betaparticles are emitted, the resulting nucleus possesses the same atomic number but atomic mass is less by 4 units. A radioactive transformation of this type always produces an isotope of the parent element. Z A W α Z 2 B W 4 β Z 1 C W 4 β W 4 ZD A and D are isotopes. Group displacement law Soddy, Fajans and Russell (1911-1913) observed that when an particle is lost, a new element with atomic number less by 2 and mass number less by 4 is formed. Similarly, when -particle is lost, new element with atomic number greater by 1 is obtained. The element emitting then or -particle is called parent element and the new element formed is called daughter element. The above results have been summarized as, (1) When an -particle is emitted, the new element formed is displaced two positions to the left in the periodic table than that of the parent element (because the atomic number decreases by 2). (2) When a -particle is emitted, the new element formed is displaced one position to the right in the periodic table than that of the parent element (because atomic number increased by 1). (3) When a positron is emitted, the daughter element occupies its position one group to the left of the parent element in periodic table. Group displacement law should be applied with great care especially in the case of elements of lanthanide series (57 to 71), actinide series (89 to 103), VIII group (26 to 28; 44 to 46; 76 to 78), IA and IIA groups. nuclear a c To determine the number of - and - particles emitted during the transformation. It can be done in following manner, X bd Y x 42 He y 1 e 0 a b 4 x or x ab 4 .....(i) c d 2x y .....(ii) where x = no. of -emitted, y = no. of -emitted substituting the value of x from eq. (i) in eq. (ii) we get ab a b c d 2 y ; y d c 4 2 Radioactive disintegration series The phenomenon of natural radioactivity continues till stable nuclei are formed. All the nuclei from the initial element to the final stable element constitute a series known as disintegration series. Further we know that mass numbers change only when -particles are emitted (and not when -particles are emitted) causing the change in mass of 4 units at each step. Hence the mass numbers of all elements in a series will fit into one of the formulae. 4n, 4 n 1 , 4 n 2 and 4 n 3 , hence there can be only four disintegration series. 4n 58 n Parent element 90 Th 4n + 1 59 232 94 Half life (yrs) 1.39 10 10 Half life (yrs) 1.39 10 10 Name of series Thorium (Natural) End product n Number of lost particles 82 Pb 4n + 2 59 Pu 241 10 92 U 238 4n + 3 58 92 U 235 4.5 10 9 7.07 10 8 2.2 10 6 4.5 10 9 13.5 Neptunium (Artificial) Uranium (Natural) Actinium (Natural) 208 83 Bi 209 82 Pb 206 82 Pb 207 52 52 51 51 6 4 8 5 8 6 7 4 Nuclear structure and Nuclear forces According to an earlier hypothesis, the nucleus is considered as being composed of two building blocks, proton's and neutron's, which are collectively called nucleons. The forces, which hold the nucleons together means stronger proton – proton, neutron – neutron and even proton – neutron attractive forces, exist in the nucleus. These attractive forces are called nuclear forces. Nuclear forces operate only within small distance of about 1 10 15 m or 1 fermi (1 fermi = 10 13 cm ) and drops rapidly to zero at a distance of 1 10 13 cm. These are referred to as short range forces. Nuclear forces are nearly 10 21 times stronger than electrostatic forces. Yukawa in 1935, put forward a postulate that neutrons and protons are held together by very rapid exchange of nuclear particles called Pimesons (-mesons have mass equal to 275 times of the mass of an electron and a charge equal to +1, 0 or –1. These are designated as and respectively). The nuclear force which is used in rapid exchange of Pimesons between nucleons are also called exchange forces. The binding forces between unlike nucleons (p and n) are explained + 0 – by the oscillation of a charged -meson ( or ) + (a) p1 n 2 (b) p1 n 2 n1 n 2 n1 p 2 n1 p 2 n1 p 2 Binding forces between like nucleons (p - p or n - n) result from the exchange of neutral mesons ( ) as represented below. 0 Nuclear Chemistry p 2 0 or p1 0 p2 (b) n1 n 2 0 or n1 0 n2 nucleons required for completion of the energy levels of the nucleus. Nucleons are arranged in shells as two protons or two neutrons (with paired spins) just like electrons arranged in the extra-nuclear part. Thus the Nuclear stability Nuclides can be grouped on the basis of nuclear stability, i.e. stable and unstable nucleus. The most acceptable theory about the atomic nuclear stability is based upon the fact that the observed atomic mass of all known isotopes (except hydrogen) is always less from the sum of the weights of protons and neutrons present in it. Electron (- particle) from a radioactive nucleus may be regarded as derived from a neutron in the following way, Neutron Proton Electron Similarly, photons are produced from internal stresses within the nucleus. The stability of nucleus may be discussed in terms of any one of the following, (1) Nuclear Binding Energy and Mass defect : It is observed that atomic mass of all nuclei (except hydrogen) is different from the sum of masses of protons and neutrons. The difference is termed mass defect. Mass defect = Total mass of nucleons – obs. atomic mass The mass defect is converted into energy. This energy is called the binding energy. This is the energy required to break the nucleus into is constituents (p and n). following nuclei 2 He 4 , 8 O16 ,20 Ca 40 and 82 Pb208 containing protons 2, 8, 20 and 82 respectively (all magic numbers) and neutrons 2, 8, 20 and 126 respectively (all magic numbers) are the most stable. Magic numbers for protons : 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82,114 Magic numbers for neutrons : 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 126, 184, 196 When both the number of protons and number of neutrons are magic numbers, the nucleus is very stable. That is why most of the radioactive disintegration series terminate into stable isotope of lead (magic number for proton = 82, magic number for neutron = 126). Nuclei with nucleons just above the magic numbers are less stable and hence these may emit some particles to attain magic numbers. (4) Neutron-proton ratio or causes of radioactivity It has been found that the stability of nucleus depends upon the neutron to proton ratio (n/p). If we plot the number of neutrons against number of protons for nuclei of various elements, it has been observed that most of the stable (non-radioactive) nuclei lie in a belt shown by shaded region in figure this is called stability belt or stability zone. The nuclei whose n/p ratio does not lie in the belt are unstable and undergo spontaneous radioactive disintegration. Neutron number (n) (a) p1 Binding energy = Mass defect 931MeV The stability of the nucleus is explained on the value of binding energy per nucleon and not on the basis of total binding energy . Binding energy per nucleon is maximum (8.7 MeV) in the case of iron (56). The value of binding energy per nucleon can be increased either by fusion of lighter nuclei or fission of heavier nuclei. Value of binding energy predicts the relative stability of the different isotopes of an element. If the value of binding energy is negative, the product nucleus or nuclei will be less stable than the reactant nucleus. Thus the relative stability of the different isotopes of an element can be predicted by the values of binding energy for each successive addition of one neutron to the nucleus. 2 He 3 2 He 4 0 n1 2 He 4 20.5 MeV 0 n1 2 He 5 0.8 MeV Therefore, 2 He 4 is more stable than 2 He 3 and 2 He 5 . (2) Packing fraction : The difference of actual isotopic mass and the mass number in terms of packing fraction is defined as, Packing fraction 261 Actual isotopicmass Mass number 10 4 Mass number The value of packing fraction depends upon the manner of packing of the nucleons with in the nucleus. Its value can be negative, positive or even zero. A negative packing fraction generally indicates stability of the nucleus. In general, lower the packing fraction, greater is the binding energy per nucleon and hence greater is the stability. The relatively low packing It has been observed that, Stability belt Neutron rich nuclei n/p=1 Proton rich nuclei 20 40 60 80 100 120 Atomic number (p) Fig. 7.2 (i) n / p ratio for stable nuclei lies quite close to unity for elements with low atomic numbers (20 or less) but it is more than one for nuclei having higher atomic numbers. Nuclei having n / p ratio either very high or low undergo nuclear transformation. (ii) When n / p ratio is higher than required for stability, the nuclei have the tendency to emit rays i.e., a neutron is converted into a proton. (iii) When n / p ratio is lower than required for stability, the nuclei increase the ratio, either by emitting particle or by emitting a position or by K-electron capture. Rate of radioactive decay “According to the law of radioactive decay, the quantity of a radioelement which disappears in unit time (rate of disintegration) is directly proportional to the amount present.” The law of radioactive decay may also be expressed mathematically. Suppose N be the number of atoms of the radioactive element present at the commencement of observation, t 0 and after time t, the number of atoms remaining unchanged is N t . The rate of disintegration 0 dN t dN t dt at any time t is directly proportional to N. Then, dt = N fraction of He, C and O implies their exceptional stability, packing fraction is least for Fe (negative) and highest for H (+78). where is a radioactive constant or decay constant. Various forms of equation for radioactive decay are, (3) Magic number : Nucleus of atom, like extra-nuclear electrons, also has definite energy levels (shells). N t N 0 e t ; log N 0 log N t 0.4343 t Nuclei with 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82 or 126 protons or neutrons have been found to be particularly stable with a large number of isotopes. These numbers, commonly known as Magic numbers are defined as the number of log N0 t N 2 .303 log 0 ; t Nt Nt 2 .303 262 Nuclear Chemistry This equation is similar to that of first order reaction, hence we can say that radioactive disintegration are examples of first order reactions. However, unlike first order rate constant (K), the decay constant () is independent of temperature. Rate of decay of nuclide is independent of temperature, so its energy of activation is zero. (1) Half-life period (T or t ) : The half-life period of a radioelement is defined, as the time required by a given amount of the element to decay to one-half of its initial value. 1/2 1/2 t1 / 2 0 .693 Now since is a constant, we can conclude that half-life period of a particular radioelement is independent of the amount of the radioelement. In other words, whatever might be the amount of the radioactive element present at a time, it will always decompose to its half at the end of one halflife period. It is important to note that the term equilibrium is used for reversible reactions but the radioactive reactions are irreversible, hence it is preferred to say that B is in a steady state rather than in equilibrium state. At a steady state, N A B T A t 1 / 2 A N B A T B t1 / 2 B Thus at a steady state (at radioactive equilibrium), the amounts (number of atoms) of the different radioelements present in the reaction series are inversely proportional to their radioactive constants or directly proportional to their half-life and also average life periods. (5) Units of radioactivity : The standard unit in radioactivity is curie (c) which is defined as that amount of any radioactive material which gives 3.7 1010 disintegration’s per second (dps), i.e.,1c = Activity of 1g of Ra226 3.7 1010 dps The millicurie (mc) and microcurie (c) are equal to 10 3 and 10 6 curies i.e. 3.7 10 7 and 3.7 10 4 dps respectively. Let the initial amount of a radioactive substance be N 0 1c 10 3 mc 10 6 c ; 1c 3.7 1010 dps Amount of radioactive substance left after n half-life periods 1mc 3.7 107 dps ; 1c 3.7 10 4 dps n 1 N N0 2 Total time T n t1 / 2 where n is a whole number. (2) Average-life period (T) : Since total decay period of any element is infinity, it is meaningless to use the term total decay period (total life period) for radioelements. Thus the term average life is used. Average life (T) Sum of livesof the nuclei Total number of nuclei Average life (T) of an element is the inverse of its decay constant, 1 i.e., T , Substituting the value of in the above equation, 10 6 dps. i.e., 1 rd 10 6 dps . correspondingly rutherford units microrutherford (rd) respectively. The millicurie and microcurie are millirutherford (mrd) and 1 c 3.7 1010 dps 37 10 3 rd 1 mc 3.7 107 dps 37 rd 1 c 3.7 10 4 dps 37 mrd However, in SI system the unit of radioactivity is Becquerel (Bq) 1 Bq = 1 disintegration per second = 1 dps = 1rd, 10 6 Bq 1 rd , 3.7 1010 Bq 1 c T t1 / 2 0 .693 1 .44 t1 / 2 Thus, Average life (T) 1.44 Half life(T1 / 2 ) 2 t1 / 2 Thus, the average life period of a radioisotope is approximately under-root two times of its half life period. (3) Activity of population or specific activity : It is the measure of radioactivity of a radioactive substance. It is defined as ' the number of radioactive nuclei, which decay per second per gram of radioactive isotope.' Mathematically, if 'm' is the mass of radioactive isotope, then Specific activity But now a day, the unit curie is replaced by rutherford (rd) which is defined as the amount of a radioactive substance which undergoes Rate of decay N Avogadro number m m Atomic mass in g where N is the number of radioactive nuclei which undergoes disintegration. (4) Radioactive equilibrium : Suppose a radioactive element A disintegrates to form another radioactive element B which in turn disintegrates to still another element C. A B C B is said to be in radioactive equilibrium with A if its rate of formation from A is equal to its rate of decay into C. (6) The Geiger-Nuttal relationship : It gives the relationship between decay constant of an - radioactive substance and the range of the particle emitted. log A B log R Where R is the range or the distance which an -particle travels from source before it ceases to have ionizing power. A is a constant which varies from one series to another and B is a constant for all series. It is obvious that the greater the value of the greater the range of the particle. Artificial transmutation of elements The conversion of one element into another by artificial means, i.e., by means of bombarding with some fundamental particles, is known as artificial transmutation. The phenomenon was first applied on nitrogen whose nucleus was bombarded with -particles to produce oxygen. 14 2 He 4 8 O17 1 H 1 7N Oxygen isotope Proton Nitrogen isotope Alpha particle The element, which is produced, shows radioactivity, the phenomenon is known as Induced radioactivity. The fundamental particles which have been used in the bombardment of different elements are, -particle : 2 He 4 ; Proton : 1 H 1 Deutron : 1 H 2 or 1 D 2 ; Neutron : 0 n1 Nuclear Chemistry Since -particles, protons and deutrons carry positive charge, they are repelled by the positively charged nucleus and hence these are not good projectiles. On the other hand, neutrons, which carry no charge at all, are the best projectiles. Cyclotron is the most commonly used instrument for accelerating these particles. The particles leave the instrument with a velocity of about 25,000 miles per second. A more recent accelerating instrument is called the synchrotron or bevatron. It is important to note that this instrument cannot accelerate the neutrons, being neutral. When a target element is bombarded with neutrons, product depends upon the speed of neutrons. Slow neutrons penetrate the nucleus while a high-speed neutron passes through the nucleus. 92 U 238 1 0n slow speed 92 U 239 ; 92 U 238 1 0n high speed 92 U 237 20 n1 Thus slow neutrons, also called thermal neutrons are more effective in producing nuclear reactions than high-speed neutrons. Alchemy : The process of transforming one element into other is known as alchemy and the person involved in such experiments is called alchemist. Although, gold can be prepared from lead by alchemy, the gold obtained is radioactive and costs very high than natural gold. (i) Transmutation by -particles (a) , n type 4 Be 9 ( , n) 6 C12 i.e. 94 4 Be 9 Pu239 (, n) 96 Cm 242 i.e. 2 He 4 6 C12 0 n1 Pu239 2 He 4 94 Cm 242 0 n1 94 (, p) 10 Ne 22 ie. 9 F19 2 He 4 10 Ne 22 1 H 1 14 N 7 (, p) 8 O 17 i.e., N 14 2 He 4 8 O17 1 H 1 7 (c) , type 26 Fe59 (, ) 29 Cu 63 i.e., 26 Fe59 2 He 4 29 Cu 63 1e 0 (ii) Transmutation by protons (a) p, n type 15 P 31 (p, n) 16 S 31 i.e., 12 Be 9 (p, d ) 4 Be 8 i.e., 4 Be 9 1 H 1 4 Be 8 1 H 2 (d) p, type i.e., 8 O 1 H 7 N 8 O ( p, ) 7 N (iii) Transmutation by neutrons (a) n,p type 16 13 31 16 Al 27 (n, p) 12 Mg 27 i.e., 13 1 13 2 He 4 Al 27 0 n1 12 Mg 27 1 H 1 (b) n, type 8O Be 9 4 Be 8 0 n1 Synthetic elements : Elements with atomic number greater than 92 nature like other elements. All these elements are prepared by artificial transmutation technique and are therefore known as transuranic elements or synthetic elements. Nuclear fission and Nuclear fusion (1) Nuclear fission : The splitting of a heavier atom like that of uranium – 235 into a number of fragments of much smaller mass, by suitable bombardment with sub-atomic particles with liberation of huge amount of energy is called Nuclear fission. Hahn and Startsman discovered that when uranium-235 is bombarded with neutrons, it splits up into two relatively lighter elements. 92 U 235 0 n 1 56 Ba140 36 Kr 93 3 0 n 1 + Huge amount of energy Spallation reactions are similar to nuclear fission. However, they differ by the fact that they are brought by high energy bombarding particles or photons. Elements capable of undergoing nuclear fission and their fission products. Among elements capable of undergoing nuclear fission, uranium is the most common. The natural uranium consists of three isotopes, namely U 234 (0.006%) , U 235 (0.7%) and U 238 (99.3%) . Of the three isomers Uranium-238 undergoes fission by fast moving neutrons while U 235 undergoes fission by slow moving neutrons; of these two, U 235 fission is of much significance. Other examples are Pu 239 and U 233 . Uranium-238, the most abundant (99.3%) isotope of uranium, although itself does not undergo nuclear fission, is converted into plutonium-239. 93 (p, ) 7 N 13 i.e., 6 C12 1 H 1 N 13 (c) p, d type 4 4 i.e. the elements beyond uranium in the periodic table are not found in 92 U P 31 1 H 1 16 S 31 0 n1 15 (b) p, type 6C Be 9 (, n) 4 Be 8 i.e., of uranium, nuclear fission of U 235 and U 238 are more important. (b) , p type 19 9F 4 238 0 n1 92 U 239 ; 92 U 238 (n, ) 92 U 239 i.e., 92 U 238 92 NP 239 1e 0 Which when bombarded with neutrons, undergo fission to emit three neutrons per plutonium nucleus. Such material like U-238 which themselves are non-fissible but can be converted into fissible material (Pu239) are known as fertile materials. Nuclear chain reaction : With a small lump of U 235 , most of the neutrons emitted during fission escape but if the amount of U 235 exceeds a few kilograms (critical mass), neutrons emitted during fission are absorbed by adjacent nuclei causing further fission and so producing more neutrons. Now since each fission releases a considerable amount of energy, vast quantities of energy will be released during the chain reaction caused by U 235 fission. Uranium E (c) n, type 92 U 239 Np 238 94 Pu239 1e 0 (n, ) 12 Mg 27 i.e., 8 O16 0 n1 6 C13 2 He 4 16 263 0 n1 92 U 238 Neutron 3E (d) n, type 8O 18 (n, ) 9 F19 i.e., 8O 18 0 n1 9 F19 1e 0 9E (iv) Transmutation by deutrons (a) d,p type 3 Li 6 (d, p) 3 Li7 i.e., 3 Li 6 1 H 2 3 Li7 1 H 1 75 76 i.e., 32 As (d , p) 32 As 75 1 H 2 32 As76 1 H 1 32 As (v) Transmutation by -radiations (a) , n type Fig. 7.3 Atomic bomb : An atomic bomb is based upon the process of that nuclear fission in which no secondary neutron escapes the lump of a fissile material for which the size of the fissile material should not be less than a minimum size called the critical size. There is accordingly a sudden release 264 Nuclear Chemistry of a tremendous amount of energy, which represents an explosive force much greater than that of the most powerful TNT bomb. In the world war II in 1945 two atom bombs were used against the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, the former contained U-235 and the latter contained Pu-239. Atomic pile or Nuclear reactor : It is a device to obtain the nuclear energy in a controlled way to be used for peaceful purposes. The most common reactor consists of a large assembly of graphite (an allotropic form of carbon) blocks having rods of uranium metal (fuel). Many of the neutrons formed by the fission of nuclei of 92 U 235 escape into the graphite, where they are very much slow down (from a speed of about 6000 or more miles/sec to a mile/sec) and now when these low speed neutrons come back into the uranium metal they are more likely to cause additional fissions. Such a substance like graphite, which slow down the neutrons without absorbing them is known as a moderator. Heavy water, D O is another important moderator where the nuclear reactor consists of rods of uranium metal suspended in a big tank of heavy water (swimming pool type reactor). Cadmium or boron are used as control rods for absorbing excess neutrons. Plutonium from a nuclear reactor : For such purposes the fissile material used in nuclear reactors is the natural uranium which consists mainly (99.3%) of U-238. In a nuclear reactor some of the neutrons produced in U-235 (present in natural uranium) fission converts U-238 to a long-lived plutonium isotope, Pu-239 (another fissionable material). Plutonium is an important nuclear fuel. Such reactors in which neutrons produced from fission are partly used to carry out further fission and partly used to produce some other fissionable material are called Breeder reactors. Nuclear reactors in India : India is equipped with the five nuclear reactors, namely (i) Apsara (1952) (ii) Cirus (1960) (iii) Zerlina (1961) (iv) Purnima (1972) and R-5 Purnima uses plutonium fuel while the others utilize uranium as fuel. (2) Nuclear fusion : “Oposite to nuclear fission, nuclear fusion is 2 defined as a process in which lighter nuclei fuse together to form a heavier nuclei. However, such processes can take place at reasonable rates only at very high temperatures of the order of several million degrees, which exist only in the interior of stars. Such processes are, therefore, called Thermonuclear reactions (temperature dependent reactions). Once a fusion reaction initiates, the energy released in the process is sufficient to maintain the temperature and to keep the process going on. 4 1H 1 Hydrogen 4 2 He Helium 2 1e 0 Energy Positron This is not a simple reaction but involves a set of the thermonuclear reactions, which take place in stars including sun. In other words, energy of sun is derived due to nuclear fission. Controlled nuclear fusion : Unlike the fission process, the fusion process could not be controlled. Since there are estimated to be some 1017 pounds of deuterium ( 1 H 2 ) in the water of the earth, and since each pound is equivalent in energy to 2500 tonnes of coal, a controlled fusion reactor would provide a virtually inexhaustible supply of energy. Hydrogen bomb : Hydrogen bomb is based on the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into heavier ones by the thermonuclear reactions with release of enormous energy. As mentioned earlier the above nuclear reactions can take place only at very high temperatures. Therefore, it is necessary to have an external source of energy to provide the required high temperature. For this purpose, the atom bomb, (i.e., fission bomb) is used as a primer, which by exploding provides the high temperature necessary for successful working of hydrogen bomb (i.e., fusion bomb). In the preparation of a hydrogen bomb, a suitable quantity of deuterium or tritium or a mixture of both is enclosed in a space surrounding an ordinary atomic bomb. The first hydrogen bomb was exploded in November 1952 in Marshall Islands; in 1953 Russia exploded a powerful hydrogen bomb having power of 1 million tonnes of TNT A hydrogen bomb is far more powerful than an atom bomb. Thus if it is possible to have sufficiently high temperatures required for nuclear fusion, the deuterium present in sea (as D O) is sufficient to provide all energy requirements of the world for millions of years. The first nuclear reactor was assembled by Fermi in 1942. 2 Difference between Nuclear fission and fusion Nuclear fission Nuclear fusion The process occurs only in the nuclei of The process occurs only in the nuclei heavy elements. of light elements. The process involves the fission of the The process involves the fission of the heavy nucleus to the lighter nuclei. lighter nuclei to heavy nucleus. The process can take place at ordinary The process takes place at higher temperature. temperature ( 10 8 o C) . The energy liberated during this process The energy liberated during the is high process is comparatively low (200 MeV per fission) (3 to 24 MeV per fusion) Percentage efficiency of the energy Percentage efficiency of the energy conversion is comparatively less. conversion is high (four times to that of the fission process). The process can be controlled for useful The process cannot be controlled. purposes. Application of radioactivity Radioisotopes find numerous applications in a variety of areas such as medicine, agriculture, biology, chemistry, archeology, engineering and industry. (1) Age determination : The age of earth has been determined by uranium dating technique as follows. Samples of uranium ores are found to contain Pb 206 as a result of long series of - and -decays. Now if it is assumed that the ore sample contained no lead at the moment of its formation, and if none of the lead formed from U 238 decay has been lost then the measurement of the Pb 206 / U 238 ratio will give the value of time t of the mineral. No. of atoms of Pb 206 No. of atoms of U 238 left e t 1 where is the decay constant of uranium-238 Alternatively, t 2 .303 log Initial amount of U 238 Amount of U 238 in the mineral present till date Similarly, the less abundant isotope of uranium, U 235 eventually decays to Pb 207 ; Th 232 decays to Pb 208 and thus the ratios of Pb 207 / U 235 and Pb 208 / Th 232 can be used to determine the age of rocks and minerals. 14 (half-life 5760 years) was used by Willard Libby (Nobel lauret) in determining the age of carbon-bearing materials (e.g. wood, animal fossils, etc.) Carbon-14 is produced by the bombardment of nitrogen atoms present in the upper atmosphere with neutrons (from cosmic rays). 6C 7 N 14 0 n1 6 C14 1 H 1 Thus carbon-14 is oxidised to CO 2 and eventually ingested by plants and animals. The death of plants or animals puts an end to the intake of C 14 from the atmosphere. After this the amount of C 14 in the dead tissues starts decreasing due to its disintegration. 6C 14 7 N 14 1e 0 It has been observed that on an average, one gram of radioactive carbon emits about 12 -particles per minute. Thus by knowing either the amount of C-14 or the number of -particles emitted per minute per gram of carbon at the initial and final (present) stages, the age of carbon material can be determined by using the following formulae. Nuclear Chemistry N N 2 .303 2 .303 log 0 or t log 0 t Nt Nt where t = Age of the fossil, = Decay constant, N 0 = Initial radioactivity (in the fresh wood), N t = Radioactivity in the fossil The above formula can be modified as, t 2 .303 Similarly, log Initial ratio of C 14 / C 12 (in fresh wood) C 14 / C 12 ratio in the old wood tritium 1 H 3 has been used for dating purposes. (2) Radioactive tracers (use of radio–isotopes) : A radioactive isotope can be easily identified by its radioactivity. The radioactivity can, therefore act as a tag or label that allows studying the behaviour of the element or compounding which contains this isotope. An isotope added for this purpose is known as isotopic tracer. The radioactive tracer is also known as an isotopic tracer. The radioactive tracer is also known as an indicator because it indicates the reaction. Radioisotopes of moderate half-life periods are used for tracer work. The activity of radioisotopes can be detected by means of electroscope, the electrometer or the Geiger-Muller counter. Tracers have been used in the following fields, (i) To diagnose many diseases : For example, Arsenic – 74 tracer is used to detect the presence of tumours, Sodium – 24 tracer is used to detect the presence of blood clots and Iodine –131 tracer is used to study the activity of the thyroid gland. It should be noted that the radioactive isotopes used in medicine have very short half-life periods. 265 The increased pace of synthesis and use of radio isotopes has led to increased concern about the effect of radiations on matter, particularly in biological systems. The accident of Chernobyl occurred in 1986 in USSR is no older when radioisotopes caused a hazard there. The nuclear radiations (alpha, beta, gamma as well as X-rays) possess energies far in excess of ordinary bond energies and ionisation energies. Consequently, these radiations are able to break up and ionise the molecules present in living organisms if they are exposed to such radiations. This disrupts the normal functions of living organisms. The damage caused by the radiations, however, depends upon the radiations received. The resultant radiation damage to living system can be classified as, (1)Somatic or pathological damage : This affects the organism during its own life time. It is a permanent damage to living civilization produced in body. Larger dose of radiations cause immediate death whereas smaller doses can cause the development of many diseases such as paralysis, cancer, leukaemia, burns, fatigue, nausea, diarrhoea, gastrointestinal problems etc. some of these diseases are fatal. Many scientists presently believe that the effect of radiations is proportional to exposure, even down to low exposures. This means that any amount of radiation causes some finite risk to living civilization. (2) Genetic damage : As the term implies, radiations may develop genetic effect. This type of damage is developed when radiations affect genes and chromosomes, the body's reproductive material. Genetic effects are more difficult to study than somatic ones because they may not become apparent for several generations. (ii) In agriculture : The use of radioactive phosphorus 32 P in fertilizers has revealed how phosphorus is absorbed by plants. This study has led to an improvement in the preparation of fertilizers. 14 C is used to study the kinetics of photo synthesis. (iii) In industry : Radioisotopes are used in industry to detect the leakage in underground oil pipelines, gas pipelines and water pipes. Radioactive carbon has been used as a tracer in studying mechanisms involved in many reactions of industrial importance such as alkylation, polymerization, catalytic synthesis etc. (iv) In analysis : Several analytical procedures can be used employing radioisotopes as tracers. (a) A small amount of radioactive isotope is mixed with the inactive substance and the activity is studied before and after adsorption. Fall in activity gives the amount of substance adsorbed. (b) The solubility of lead sulphate in water may be estimated by mixing a known amount of radioactive lead with ordinary lead. (c) Ion exchange process of separation is readily followed by measuring activity of successive fractions eluted from the column. (d) By labelling oxygen of the water, mechanism of ester hydrolysis has been studied. (e) The efficiency of analytical procedures may be measured by adding a known amount of radio-isotopes to the sample before analysis begins. After the completion, the activity is again determined. The comparison of activity tells about the efficiency of separation. (3) Use of rays : rays are used for disinfecting food grains and for preserving food stuffs. Onions, potatoes, fruits and fish etc., when irradiated with rays, can be preserved for long periods. High yielding disease resistant varieties of wheat, rice, groundnut, jute etc., can be developed by the application of nuclear radiations. The rays radiations are used in the treatment of cancer. The radiations emitted by cobalt –60 can burn cancerous cells. The radiations are used to sterilize medical instruments like syringes, blood transfusion sets. etc. These radiations make the rubber and plastics objects heat resistant. Hazards of radiations The particle like mesons, positron, neutrino, etc, about 20 in number are created by stresses in nucleus but do not exist as component of nucleus. Highest degree of radioactivity is shown by radium. The nuclear forces are not governed by inverse square law. About 42 radioactive nuclides (Z > 82) occur in nature. Each of these gives stable end product of an isotope of lead. The half life is independent of physical or chemical state of a radioactive element. The average life of the natural radioactive element vary from 10 s 10 –6 10 years or more. It has been observed that fusion of 45 mg of hydrogen produce as much energy as obtained from one ton of coal. Beryllium has been found to be the best moderator as it occupies small space and have low absorption cross-section. The total life span of a radioactive element is infinite. The - radiation of total energy 1.02 MeV, emitted when a positron and an electron interact are known as annilation radiation. Nuclear Chemistry 10. 267 Which can be used for carrying out nuclear reaction [AFMC 2003] (a) Uranium – 238 (c) Thorium – 232 11. Nucleus (Stability and Reaction) 1. 2. 3. 4. Nucleons are [CPMT 1982] (a) Protons and electrons (b) Protons and neutrons (c) Electrons and neutrons (d) Electrons, protons and neutrons A deutron contains [NCERT 1982; CPMT 1994] (a) A neutron and a positron (b) A neutron and a proton (c) A neutron and two protons (d) A proton and two neutrons The nucleus of radioactive element possesses (a) Low binding energy (b) High binding energy (c) Zero binding energy (d) High potential energy 6. 12. 13. 14. 15. 17 (b) 9F F 17 (d) 8 (a) 8O (c) 9 18 O 18 Nuclear energy is based on the conversion of (a) Protons into neutrons (b) Mass into energy (c) Neutrons into protons (d) Uranium into radium Positron has nearly the same weight as that of [NCERT 1975; JIPMER 1991; BHU 1995] 8. 9. (b) C 14 is more reactive (d) Both are equally active 234 The radionucleide 90 Th undergoes two successive -decays followed by one -decay. The atomic number and the mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are (a) 92 and 234 (b) 94 and 230 (c) 90 and 230 (d) 92 and 230 Hydrogen and deuterium differ in [CPMT 1980] (a) Reactivity with oxygen (b) Reactivity with chlorine (c) Melting point (d) Reducing action A nuclear reaction must be balanced in terms of (a) Only energy (b) Only mass (c) Mass and energy (d) None of these In the following nuclear reaction, the other product is 130 [MP PET 1991] 1 H 2 53 I131 ? 52 Te [ (a) Positron (b) Alpha particle On bombarding 7 N 14 with -particles, the nuclei of the product (c) One neutron (d) Proton formed after the release of a proton will be or In nuclear reaction 14 4 A 1 A 8 8 0 MNR 1995; 2 He Z X 1 H , the term Z X represents[NCERT 1979;16.MP PMT The1989; reaction is due to [MP PMT 1991] 7N 5 B 4 Be 1 e (a) -particle (c) Neutron 7. On comparing chemical reactivity of C 12 and C 14 , it is revealed that (a) C 12 is more reactive (c) Both are inactive MP PET 1996; BHU 1996] 5. (b) Neptunium – 239 (d) Plutonium – 239 In the reaction is (a) Electron (c) Proton (b) Proton (d) Electron 3 17. 18. 19. Li 6 (?) 2 He 4 1 H 3 . The missing particle [CPMT 1983, 84] (b) Neutron (d) Deutron 20. The 6 C 14 in upper atmosphere is generated by the nuclear reaction [MP PET 1993] (a) 7 N 14 1 H 1 6 C 14 (b) 7 N 14 6 C 14 (c) 7 N 14 0 n 1 6 C 14 1 H 1 (d) 7 N 14 1 H 3 0 n 1 6 C 14 2 He 4 1 e 1 e 0 1H1 21. 0 22. 17 Cl 35 (c) 17 Cl 37 (b) 19 K 27 (d) 19 K 39 In the nuclear reaction nucleus is 27 (a) 13 Al (c) 13 Al 28 12 Mg 24 2 He 4 0 n1 ? The product [BHU 1987] 27 (b) 14 Si (d) 12 Mg 25 is formed from 7 N 14 in the upper atmosphere by the action of the fundamental particle [Orissa JEE 2002] (a) Positron (b) Neutron (c) Electron (d) Proton In the nuclear reaction 6C 14 92 U 238 82 Pb 206 x 2 He 4 y 1 0 the value of x and y are respectively …….. Deuterons when bombarded on a nuclide produce 18 Ar 38 and neutrons. The target is [CPMT 1982, 87] (a) (a) Loss of -particles (b) Loss of -particles (c) Loss of positron (d) Electron loss Positronium is the name given to an atom-like combination formed between [NCERT 1980; JIPMER 1991] (a) A positron and a proton (b) A positron and a neutron (c) A positron and -particle (d) A positron and an electron An electrically charged atom or a group of atoms is known as (a) A meson (b) A proton (c) An ion (d) A cyclotron The charge on positron is equal to the charge on which one of the following [NCERT 1977] (a) Proton (b) Electron (c) -particle (d) Neutron [Orissa JEE 2002] 23. (a) 8, 6 (b) 6, 4 (c) 6, 8 (d) 8, 10 If an isotope of hydrogen has two neutrons in its atom, its atomic number and atomic mass number will respectively be [ 268 Nuclear Chemistry 24. 25. [CBSE 1992] The value of n will be [MP PMT 1999] (a) 2 and 1 (b) 3 and 1 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 and 1 (d) 1 and 3 (c) 5 (d) 6 Which one of the following nuclear transformation is (n, p ) type [AIIMS 1980, 83] 34. The introduction of a neutron into the nuclear composition of an atom would lead to a change in [MNR 1995] (a) 3 Li7 1 H 1 4 Be 7 0 n1 (a) The number of the electrons also 75 4 78 1 (b) 33 As 2 He 35 Br 0 n (b) The chemical nature of the atom (c) 83 Bi209 1 H 2 84 Po 210 0 n1 (c) Its atomic number (d) Its atomic weight 45 1 45 1 (d) 21 Sc 0 n 20 Ca 1 H 35. The composition of tritium ( 1 H 3 ) is What is X in the following nuclear reaction 7 26. 27. N 14 1 H 1 8 O 15 X (a) 1 e (c) 0 [Manipal MEE 1995; DPMT 1982,96] [AIIMS 1983; MP PET 1997] 1 (b) 0n (d) 1 e 0 In the reaction 93 Np 239 94 Pu 239 + (?), the missing particle is [MNR 1987] (a) Proton (b) Positron (c) Electron (d) Neutron According to the nuclear reaction (a) (b) (c) (d) 4 Be 2 He 4 6 C 12 0 n 1 , mass number of (Be ) atom is 36. 37. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. (a) 50 Sn 115 (b) 82 Pb 206 (c) 82 Pb 208 (d) 50 Sn 118 In the carbon cycle, from which hot stars obtain their energy, the 14 nucleus is 6C (a) Completely converted into energy (b) Regenerated at the end of the cycle (c) Combined with oxygen to form carbon monoxide (d) Broken up into its constituents protons and neutrons The atomic mass of lead is 208 and atomic number is 82. The atomic mass of bismuth is 209 and atomic number is 83. The ratio of n/p in the atom is [EAMCET 1982] (a) Higher of lead (b) Higher of bismuth (c) Same (d) None of these Which of the following is an n, p reaction [BHU 1995] 13 1 H 1 6 C 14 5C (b) 7 (c) 13 (d) 235 0 n1 54 Xe 140 38 Sr 93 3 0 n1 92 U 38. 39. 1H (c) 0n S 32 X 15 P 30 2 He 4 1 (b) 1D 2 (d) e 1 In terms of energy 1 a. m.u. is equal to 40. [AIIMS 1997] X Y Z W In the above sequence of reaction, the elements which are isotopes of each other are [JIPMER 1997] X and W (b) Y and Z (c) X and Z (d) None of these Stable nuclides are those whose n/p ratio is [MP PMT 1993] (a) 41. (b) 931.1 MeV (c) 931.1 kcal (d) 10 7 erg Positron is (a) Electron with +ve charge (b) A helium nucleus (c) A nucleus with two protons (d) A nucleus with one neutron and one proton (a) n/ p 1 (b) n / p 2 (c) n / p 1 (d) n / p 1 Neutrino has [NCERT 1981] (a) Charge +1, mass 1 (b) Charge 0, mass 0 (c) Charge – 1, mass 1 (d) Charge 0 , mass 1 Which one of the following nuclear reaction is correct [CPMT 1997] N 14 1 H 1 8 O 15 Al 27 0 n1 12 Mg 27 1 H 1 Which one of the following statements is incorrect [MP PET 1997] (a) Mass defect is related with binding energy (b) ‘Meson’ was discovered by Yukawa 33. (a) 16 (a) 100 J 42. (a) Identify ' X ' in [MP PET/PMT 1998] [AFMC 2002] (a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6 Which of the following nuclides has the magic number of both protons and neutrons [EAMCET 1989] 1 electron, 1 proton, 1 neutron 1 electron, 2 protons, 1 neutron 1 electron, 1 proton, 2 neutrons 1 electron, 1 proton, 3 neutrons (c) The size of the nucleus is of the order of 10 12 10 13 cm (d) Magnetic quantum number is a measure of ‘orbital angular momentum’ of the electron In the sequence of following nuclear reactions n 238 218 Y Z L 84 M 92 X 43. 13 1 H 7 N 1 13 v (a) 6C (b) 11 Na 23 1 H 1 10 Ne 20 2 He 4 (c) 13 Al 23 0 n 1 11 Na 23 e 0 (d) None of these Formation of nucleus from its nucleons is accompanied by [NCERT 1975; RPET 2000] 44. (a) Decrease in mass (b) Increase in mass (c) No change of mass (d) None of them A particle having the same charge and 200 times greater mass than that of electron is (a) Positron (b) Proton (c) Neutrino (d) Meson Nuclear Chemistry 45. 46. The positron is (a) 1 e 0 (c) 1H 1 [AFMC 1997] (b) 1 e (d) 0n 58. 0 1 Which of the following is the most stable atom [AFMC 1997] 48. (a) 49. 50. How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of Ra 51. (a) 88 (b) 226 (c) 140 (d) 138 In a nuclear explosion, the energy is released in the form of [CPMT 1980] [CPMT 1994] (a) Kinetic energy (c) Potential energy 52. In equation 11 Na 23 60. 61. 62. 54. 55. 56. 1 (a) 0n 63. 64. 1 H 1 12 Mg23 x , x represents (c) 1H 1 (b) 1 e 0 (d) 1H 2 Which of the following sub-atomic particles is not present in an atom [JIPMER 1999] (a) Neutron (b) Proton (c) Electron (d) Positron Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wave length is 65. 66. 67. 68. [DCE 2000; UPSEAT 2000] 57. (a) Ultraviolet ray (b) Radiowave (c) X-ray (d) Infrared Neutrons are obtained by (a) Bombardment of Ra with -particles (b) Bombardment of Be with -particles (c) Radioactive disintegration of uranium (d) None of these 4 2 6 3 (b) He Li 8 4 (c) (d) Li Be Which of the following does not contain number of neutrons equal to 40 that of 18 [MP PMT 2000] Ar (a) 41 19 (c) 40 21 K Sc (b) 43 21 Sc (d) 42 20 Ca Nuclear reactivity of Na and Na is same because both have (a) Same electron and proton (b) Same proton and same neutron (c) Different electron and proton (d) Different proton and neutron Which of the following is the heaviest metal [MH CET 2001] [MP PMT 1990; MP PET 1999] 53. [DCE 2000] Be( p, ) X , the X is (a) Hg (c) Ra (b) Electrical energy (d) None of these (a) Neutron (b) Deutron (c) -particle (d) Positron Which of the following atomic mass of uranium is the most radioactive [AFMC 1997] (a) 238 (b) 235 (c) 226 (d) 248 Which of the following particle is emitted in the reaction 27 [DCE 1999] 2 He 4 14 P 30 ..... 13 Al 9 4 7 3 [NCERT 1980] (a) X and Y are both even (b) X and Y are both odd (c) X is even and Y is odd (d) X is odd and Y is even Atom A possesses higher values of packing fraction than atom B. The relative stabilities of A and B are (a) A is more stable than B (b) B is more stable than A (c) A and B both are equally stable (d) Stability does not depend on packing fraction In the nuclear reaction if Bi, belongs to [MP PMT 2000] (a) 47. (b) Al Bi (c) U (d) Pb The positron is discovered by [RPMT 1997] (a) Pauling (b) Anderson (c) Yukawa (d) Segar The nucleus of an atom is made up of X protons and Y neutrons. For the most stable and abundant nuclei 59. In the reaction, Po Pb Bi, group 15, to which Po belongs (a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 13 (d) 16 269 (b) Pb (d) U In the following reaction, x will be 29 Cu 64 28 Ni64 x (a) A proton (b) An electron (c) A neutron (d) A positron Which one out of the following statements is not correct for ortho and para hydrogen [Orissa JEE 2002] (a) They have different boiling point (b) Ortho form is more stable than para form (c) They differ in the spin of their protons (d) The ratio of ortho to para hydrogen increases with increase in temperature and finally pure ortho form is obtained For the nuclear reaction, nucleide is (a) 22 11 Na (c) 23 12 Mg ZX M 24 2 12 Mg 1 D ? , the missing [Kurukshetra CEE 2002] (b) 23 11 (d) 26 12 Mg Na 2 He 4 15 P 30 0 n 1 . Then [KCET 2002] (a) Z 12, M 27 (b) Z 13, M 27 (c) Z 12, M 17 (d) Z 13, M 28 An element 96 X emits 4 and 5 particles to form new element Y. Then atomic number and mass number of Y are (a) 93; 211 (b) 211; 93 (c) 212; 88 (d) 88; 211 Meson was discovered [MH CET 2004] (a) Yukawa (b) Austin (c) Moseley (d) Einstein 227 Radioactivity and , and - rays [JIPMER 1999] 1. Which of the following does not contain material particles 2. (a) Alpha rays (b) Beta rays (c) Gamma rays (d) Canal rays Radioactive substances emit -rays, which are [BHU 2002] 270 Nuclear Chemistry [Orissa JEE 2002] 3. (a) + ve charged particle (b) – ve charged particle (c) Massive particle (d) Packet of energy Which statement is incorrect [CPMT 1982] (a) -rays have more penetrating power than -rays (b) -rays have less penetrating power than -rays (c) 4. 5. 6. (d) -rays have more penetrating power than -rays The velocity of -rays is approximately [CPMT 1982] 17. (a) Equal to that of the velocity of light (b) 1/10 of the velocity of light (c) 10 times more than the velocity of light (d) Uncomparable to the velocity of light The radiations having high penetrating power and not affected by electrical and magnetic field are [Kerala CET 1992] 18. (a) Alpha rays (b) Beta rays (c) Gamma rays (d) Neutrons Alpha particles are ...... times heavier (approximately) than neutrons [CPMT 1971] (a) 2 (b) 4 8. 9. 10. 11. Uranium (d) 92 U 235 2 1 2 19. on bombardment with slow neutrons produces[CPMT 1982] 20. (b) Fusion reaction (a) Deutrons (c) Fission reaction (d) Endothermic reaction -particles can be detected using [AIIMS 2005] (a) Thin aluminum sheet (b) Barium sulphate (c) Zinc sulphide screen (d) Gold foil Alpha rays consist of a stream of [BHU 1979] (a) H (b) He 2 (c) Only electrons (d) Only neutrons Which is the correct statement (a) Isotopes are always radioactive (b) -rays are always negatively charged particles (c) -rays are always negatively charged particles (d) -rays can be deflected in magnetic field The -particle is identical with [DPMT 1986] 13. -rays (b) Neutrons (c) -particles Radioactivity was discovered by 15. Penetrating power of -particle is (d) -particle is not emitted [CPMT 1973, 78; NCERT 1977] -rays have (a) Positive charge (b) Negative charge (c) No charge (d) Sometimes positive charge and sometimes negative charge X-rays are produced due to [JIPMER 2002] (a) Bombarding of electrons on solids (b) Bombarding of -particle on solids (c) Bombarding of -rays on solids (d) Bombarding of neutron on solids Choose the element which is not radioactive [CPMT 1988] (a) Cm (b) No (c) Mo (d) Md A magnet will cause the greatest deflection of [MP PMT 1991] 23. (a) Radium (b) Carbon (c) Lead (d) Neptunium Which leaves no track on Wilson cloud chamber [MP PET 1995] 24. (a) Electrons (b) Protons (c) -particles (d) Neutrons Which has the least penetrating power (a) -rays (b) -rays [CPMT 1994] 25. (c) -rays There exists on -rays 26. (a) Positive charge (b) Negative charge (c) No charge (d) Sometimes positive charge, sometimes negative charge Which is not emitted by radioactive substance (d) X -rays [MP PMT 1996; Pb. PMT 2004; EAMCET 2004] [AIIMS 1997] [CPMT 1983, 88; DPMT 1982; AMU 1983; MADT Bihar 1982] 14. (a) Conversion of proton to neutron (b) Form outermost orbit (c) Conversion of neutron to proton 22. 21. (d) -particles (a) Henry Becquerel (b) Rutherford (c) J. J. Thomson (d) Madam Curie Which of the following is radioactive element (a) Sulphur (b) Polonium (c) Tellurium (d) Selenium (d) None of these -particle is emitted in radioactivity by [AFMC 1988] (a) Helium nucleus (b) Hydrogen nucleus (c) Electron (d) Proton If by mistake some radioactive substance gets inside the human body, then from the point of view of radiation damage, the most harmful will be the one which emits (a) (c) Less than -rays (a) -rays (b) -rays (c) -rays (d) Neutrons Of the following radiations, the one most easily stopped by air is [MP PMT 1991 (a) -rays (b) -rays (c) -rays (d) X-rays Uranium ultimately decays into a stable isotope of [CPMT 1971] [CPMT 1972, 82, 86; BHU 1984; MP PMT 1990, 91, 93; MP PET 1999] 12. (b) More than -rays [AIEEE 2002; MP PMT 2004] -rays have less penetrating power than -rays (c) 3 7. 16. (a) More than -rays 27. (a) -rays (b) -rays (c) Positron (d) Proton The radiations from a naturally occurring radio element, as seen after deflection in a magnetic field in one direction, are [IIT 1984; MP PMT 1986; MP PET/PMT 1988 JIPMER 1999] (a) Definitely -rays (c) Both and -rays [CPMT 1988] 28. [MP PMT 2002] The 88 Ra 226 is (b) Definitely -rays (d) Either or -rays [AIIMS 2001] Nuclear Chemistry (a) n-mesons (c) Radioactive (b) u-mesons (d) Non-radioactive (c) 0.0018 amu (e) 18 amu 30. During -decay [UPSEAT 2001] (a) An atomic electron is ejected (b) An electron which is already present with in the nucleus is ejected (c) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron (d) A part of binding of the nucleus is converted into an electron The element californium belongs to the family of 31. (a) Actinide series (b) Alkali metal family (c) Alkaline earth family (d) Lantanide series Which of the following is not deflected by magnetic field 29. 1. 32. Which of the following can be used to convert (a) Deuteron 33. 14 7 N into 17 8 O 34. What happens when -particle is emitted 35. (a) Mass number decreases by 12 unit, atomic number decreases by 4 unit (b) Mass number decreases by 4 unit, atomic number decreases by 2 unit (c) Only mass number decreases (d) Only atomic number decreases The charge on gamma rays is [CBSE PMT 1989; JIPMER 2002] 4. [Pb. PMT 2004; EAMCET 2004] (a) Zero (b) +1 (c) –1 (d) +2 A nuclear reaction is accompanied by loss of mass equivalent to 0.01864 amu . Energy liberated is 5. [DCE 2002] 37. (c) 17.36 MeV (d) 6. 460 MeV Nuclear theory of the atom was put forward by 39. (a) Rutherford (b) Aston (c) Neils Bohr (d) J.J. Thomson Decrease in atomic number is observed during (a) Alpha emission (b) Beta emission (c) Positron emission (d) Electron capture Calculate mass defect in the following reaction 1H 2 7. [IIT 1998] 1 H 3 1 He 4 0 n1 (Given : mass (a) 0.018 amu particles H 2 2.014, H 3 3.016, He 4.004, particles 2 groups to the right 1 group to the right 2 groups to the right 1 group to the left 2 groups to the left 1 group to the left 2 groups to the left 1 group to the right nuclides (A nuclide is the general name for any nuclear species) 12 56 and 92 U 238 have 12, 56 and 238 nucleons 6 C , 26 Fe respectively in the nuclei. The total number of nucleons in a nucleus is equal to [NCERT 1975] (a) The total number of neutrons in the nucleus (b) The total number of neutrons in the atom (c) The total number of protons in the nucleus (d) The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus Radioactivity is due to [DPMT 1983, 89; AIIMS 1988] (a) Stable electronic configuration (b) Unstable electronic configuration (c) Stable nucleus (d) Unstable nucleus Radioactive disintegration differs from a chemical change in being [MNR 1991] (a) An exothermic change (b) A spontaneous process (c) A nuclear process (d) A unimolecular first order reaction U emits 8 -particles and 6 -particles. The neutron/proton ratio in the product nucleus is 238 92 (a) 60/41 (b) 61/40 (c) 62/41 (d) 61/42 The element with atomic number 84 and mass number 218 change to other element with atomic number 84 and mass number 214. The number of and -particles emitted are respectively [CPMT 1989] (b) 1, 4 (d) 1, 5 A radium 88 Ra 224 isotope, on emission of an -particle gives rise to a new element whose mass number and atomic number will be [CPMT 1980; EAMCET 1985; MP PMT 1993] [Kerala CET 2005] (b) 0.18 amu On emission of (a) (b) (c) (d) The (a) 1, 3 (c) 1, 2 8. n 1.008 amu ) 4 n 1 and 4 n radioactive disintegration series [AIIMS 2005] [KCET 2004] 38. (d) 2. 3. (b) Lattice energy (d) None of these (b) 186.6 MeV belong respectively to (c) (b) (c) -particle (d) Neutron The amount of energy, which is required to separate the nucleons from a nucleus. The energy is called 931 MeV 234 4 n and 4 n 1 radioactive disintegration series 4 n 1 and 4 n 2 radioactive disintegration series 4 n 1 and 4 n 3 radioactive disintegration series On emission of (a) 90 Th [MP PMT 1999] [UPSEAT 2001] 36. Am 241 and (a) (b) Proton (a) Binding energy (c) Kinetic energy 95 Group displacement law states that the emission of or particles results in the daughter element occupying a position, in the periodic table, either to the left or right of that of the parent element. Which one of the following alternatives gives the correct [MP PMT 2001] position of the daughter element [MP PMT 2001] (b) Positron (d) Photon (d) 1.8 amu Causes of radioactivity and Group displacement law [UPSEAT 2002] (a) Deuteron (c) Proton 271 (a) 220 and 86 (c) 228 and 88 (b) 225 and 87 (d) 224 and 86 272 Nuclear Chemistry 9. 89 Ac 231 gives 82 Pb 207 after emission of some and - 19. particles. The number of such and -particles are respectively[MP PMT 1993; (a) 5, 6 (c) 7, 5 10. (b) 6, 5 (d) 5, 7 The number of and - particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 20. 228 83 Bi212 are respectively 90 Th 11. The number of neutrons in the parent nucleus which gives N 14 on -emission and the parent nucleus is (a) 8, C (c) 4 , C 13 (b) 6, C 14. 15. 22. (d) None of these 92 X 238 , the (a) 138 (b) 140 (c) 144 (d) 150 When a radioactive element emits an electron the daughter element formed will have [EAMCET 1988; MP PET 1994] (a) Mass number one unit less (b) Atomic number one unit less (c) Mass number one unit more (d) Atomic number one unit more If the amount of radioactive substance is increased three times, the number of atoms disintegrated per unit time would [MP PMT 1994] (a) Be double (b) Be triple (c) Remain one third (d) Not change (b) Group - 4 (d) Group - 2 Number of neutrons in a parent nucleus X , which gives 7 of A X undergoes a series of m Y alpha and n beta . The values of [MP PET 1995] 24. (a) 242 96 (c) 14 7 243 Cm ( , 2n) 97 Bk N (n, p) 14 6 C (b) 10 5 B ( , n) 13 7 N (d) 28 14 29 Si (d, n) 15 P 25. An atom has mass number 232 and atomic number 90. How many -particles should it emit after emission of two -particles, so that the new element's atom has mass number 212 and atomic number 82 (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3 26. After the emission of one -particle followed by one particle 27. from the atom of 92 X 238 , the number of neutrons in the atom will be [CBSE PMT 1995] (a) 142 (b) 146 (c) 144 (d) 143 A nuclide of an alkaline earth metal undergoes radioactive decay by emission of the particles in succession. The group of the periodic table to which the resulting daughter element would belong is [CBSE PMT 2005] (a) Gr.14 (b) Gr.16 (c) Gr.4 (d) Gr.6 28. Which one of the following is not correct N 14 [CBSE PMT 1998; MP PMT 2003] (a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 6 The disintegration of an isotope 24 24 0 12 Mg 1 e shown is due to 11 Na An isotope (b) -emission (d) Proton emission [MP PET 1996] nucleus after two successive emissions would be sodium. 29. (a) 7 1 7 1 3 Li 1 H 4 Be 0 n (b) 21 Sc (c) 33 As 75 2 He 4 35 Br 78 0 n1 (d) 83 Bi209 1 H 2 84 Po 210 0 n1 45 [MP PMT 1997] 0 n1 20 Ca 45 0 n1 The end product of (4 n 2) radioactive disintegration series is [MP PET 1997; Pb. PMT 1998; BHU 2000] [AMU (Engg.) 2000] The emission of -radiation The formation of a stable nuclide The fall in the neutron : proton ratio None of these Al is expected to disintegrate by (a) Decreases by one unit (b) Increases by one unit (c) Decreases by two units (d) Remains unaffected Which one of the following notations shows the product incorrectly [MP PET/PM Nd (Z 60) is a member of group -3 in periodic table. An isotope (a) (b) (c) (d) 29 13 During a -decay the mass of the atomic nucleus of it is -active. The daughter nuclei will be a member of 18. Al is a stable isotope. 23. -particles are emitted from the atom (c) Due to removal of electron from K shell (d) Due to removal of electron from outermost orbit 17. Bi (d) C disintegration to form a stable isotope Y 10 B m and n are respectively (a) 6 and 8 (b) 8 and 10 (c) 5 and 8 (d) 8 and 6 12 After the emission of -particle from the atom number of neutrons in the atom will be (a) Group -3 (c) Group -1 27 13 (b) Sn Pb X 32 (a) Due to disintegration of neutron (b) Due to disintegration of proton 16. is changed to total number of -particles lost in this process is[UPSEAT 1999, 2000 (a) -emission (c) Positron emission [MNR 1993; UPSEAT 1999, 2001, 02] 13. 238 [IIT 1996; UPSEAT 2001] [EAMCET 1985; MNR 1992; Kurukshetra CEE 1998; UPSEAT 2000, 01] 12. 21. 92 U (a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 32 Which element is the end product of each natural radioactive series[MP PMT 199 (c) (b) 3, 7 (d) 4, 7 14 206 UPSEAT 2001] . The 82 Pb (a) [MNR 1992; MP PMT 1993; AFMC 1998, 2001; MH CET 1999; UPSEAT 2000, 01; AMU 2001; CPMT 2002] (a) 4, 1 (c) 8, 1 After losing a number of and -particles. (a) 82 (c) 82 Pb Pb 208 207 Pb 206 (b) 82 (d) 210 83 Bi Nuclear Chemistry 30. The element Th belongs to thorium series. Which of the following will act as the end product of the series 232 90 41. Whenever the parent nucleus emits a -particle, the daughter element is shifted in the periodic table [NCERT 1984] (a) One place to the right (b) One place to the left (c) Two places to the right (d) Two places to the left 42. In the nuclear reaction 92 U 238 82 Pb 206 , the number of alpha and beta particles decayed are [BHU 2005] (a) (c) 31. 32. Pb Pb (b) Bi (d) Pb 208 82 209 82 206 207 82 82 On bombarding formed will be 8 O 16 with deutrons, the nuclei of the product [NCERT 1978] 18 (a) 9 F (c) 8 O 17 17 (b) 9 F (d) 7 N 14 [DPMT 1983; MNR 1985; Roorkee Qualifying 1998] An element with atomic number 84 and mass number 218 loses one -particle and two -particles in three successive stages, the resulting element will have 43. [NCERT 1979; CPMT 1990] 33. 34. 35. (a) At. no. 84 and mass number 214 (b) At. no. 82 and mass number 214 (c) At. no. 84 and mass number 218 (d) At. no. 82 and mass number 218 Group displacement law was given by [DPMT 1984] (a) Becquerel (b) Rutherford (c) Soddy and Fajan (d) Madam Curie How many alpha particles are emitted in the nuclear transformation 215 [CPMT 1993] 82 Pb 211 84 Po 44. 45. 37. (a) 234, 90 (b) 236, 92 (c) 238, 90 (d) 236, 90 Initial mass of a radioactive element is 40 g. How many grams of it would be left after 24 years, if its half-life period is 8 years [MP PMT 1985] 46. (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 20 What is the symbol for the nucleus remaining after undergoes -emission 38. 39. (b) 20 Sc 42 42 (d) 21 Sc 41 21 Ca (c) 21 Sc When a radioactive nucleus emits an -particle, the mass of the atom [NCERT 1973, 82] (a) Increases and its at. number decreases (b) Decreases and its at. number decreases (c) Decreases and its at. number increases (d) Remains same and its at. number decreases 24 A photon of hard gamma radiation knocks a proton out of 12 Mg nucleus to form [AIEEE 2005] (a) The isotope of parent nucleus (b) The isobar of parent nucleus (c) The nuclide 23 11 (d) The isobar of 40. 42 [MNR 1987; UPSEAT 2000, 02] 42 (a) 20 Ca 47. Na Pb 210 82 Pb 206 2 He 4 . From the above equation, deduce the position of polonium in the periodic table (lead belongs to group IV A) [AIIMS 1980] (a) II A (b) IV B (c) VI B (d) VI A 4 , 3 (b) 8 , 6 (c) 6 , 4 (d) 7 , 5 Atomic number after a -emission from a nucleus having atomic number 40, will be [BHU 1981] (a) 36 (b) 39 (c) 41 (d) 44 A certain nuclide has a half-life period of 30 minutes. If a sample containing 600 atoms is allowed to decay for 90 minutes, how many atoms will remain [NCERT 1978] (a) 200 atoms (b) 450 atoms (c) 75 atoms (d) 500 atoms The reaction which disintegrates neutron is or neutron is emitted (which completes first) 240 2 He 97 Bk 4 (a) 96 Am (b) 15 P 30 14 Si 30 1e 0 (c) 6C (d) 13 12 244 1e 0 1 H 1 7 N 13 Al27 2 He 4 15 P 30 If 92 U 236 nucleus emits one -particle, the remaining nucleus will have [MP PMT 1976, 80; BHU 1985; CPMT 1980] (a) 119 neutrons and 119 protons (b) 142 neutrons and 90 protons (c) 144 neutrons and 92 protons (d) 146 neutrons and 90 protons -rays have high ionization power because they possess [CPMT 1982] 48. 49. Na 23 11 (a) [IIT 1988; MP PMT 1991; KCET 2005] (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 If uranium (mass no. 238 and atomic no. 92) emits -particle, the product has mass number and atomic number [CPMT 1984, 90, 93, 94; MNR 1991; IIT 1981] 36. 273 50. 84 51. (a) Lesser kinetic energy (b) Higher kinetic energy (c) Lesser penetrating power (d) Higher penetrating power When radium atom which is placed in II group, loses an particle, a new element is formed which should be placed in group[CPMT 1979, (a) Second (b) First (c) Fourth (d) Zero Starting from radium, the radioactive disintegration process terminates when the following is obtained [CPMT 1979] (a) Lead (b) Radon (c) Radium A (d) Radium B The appreciable radioactivity of uranium minerals is mainly due to[NCERT 1980] (a) An uranium isotope of mass number 235 (b) A thorium isotope of mass number 232 (c) Actinium (d) Radium After losing a number of and -particles, 82 Pb 206 92 U 238 changed to . The total number of particles lost in this process is[MNR 1985] 274 Nuclear Chemistry 52. (a) 14 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 32 When an radioactive element emits an alpha particle, the daughter element is placed in the periodic table [MP PET 1991; MADT Bihar 1981] 53. (a) Two positions to the left of the parent element (b) Two positions to the right of the parent element (c) One position to the right of the parent element (d) In the same position as the parent element If the quantity of a radioactive element is doubled, then its rate of disintegration per unit time will be 54. (c) Increased by 2 times (d) Doubled The number of and -particles emitted during the transformation of 232 to 82 P 208 are respectively 90 Th 55. 56. 57. (a) 83 Bi (c) 82 Pb 208 84 Po (d) 82 Pb 207 [MP PET 1990] 58. (a) 2 (c) 6 59. 6.93 10 2 s 1 radioactive change 66. 82 Pb 206 (a) 343.81 MeV (b) 0.369096 MeV (c) 931 MeV (d) None of these The number and - particles emitted respectively during the transformation of 232 90 Th to 208 82 Pb is [Kerala PMT 2004] (a) 3, 6 (c) 4, [EAMCET 6 1997] (e) 6, 8 67. 68. 69. [KCET 2000] 70. (b) 6, 3 (d) 6, 4 Consider the following nuclear reactions, x y 238 92 M yx N 2 42 He N BA L 2 [AIEEE 2004] The number of and particles emitted when a radioactive 90 E 232 changes into 86 G 220 will be (a) 5 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 2 (d) 4 and 1 The disintegration constant of radium with half-life 1600 years is [MHCET 2004] (a) 2.12 10 4 year 1 (b) 4.33 10 4 year 1 (c) 3.26 10 3 year 1 (d) 4.33 10 12 year 1 The number of and particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 92 U 238 90 Th 234 91 Pa234 are respectively [Pb.CET 2001] 6.93 10 4 s (c) 6.93 10 4 s 1 (d) 6.93 10 3 s Radioactivity of naptunium stops when it is converted to 71. (a) Bi (b) Rn (c) Th (d) Pb The highest binding energy per nucleon will be for (a) 1 and 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 1 (d) 2 and 2 In which radiation mass number and atomic number will not change [JEE Orissa (a) (c) (b) (d) and 2 Disintegration constant for a radioactive substance is 0.58 hr 1 . Its half-life period [BHU 2004] (a) 8.2 hr (b) 5.2 hr (a) Fe (b) H 2 (c) 1.2 hr (d) 2.4 hr (c) O 2 (d) U 73. A radioactive nucleus will not emit [DPMT 2005] In the Thorium series, 90 Th 232 loses total of 6 -particles and 4 (a) Alpha and beta rays simultaneously -particles in ten stages. The final isotope produced in the series is[MP PET 2001] (b) Beta and gamma rays simultaneously (c) Gamma and alpha rays 72. [AIIMS 2001] 62. (d) The nuclear binding energy for Ar (39.962384 amu) is: (given mass of proton and neutron are 1.007825 amu and 1.008665 amu respectively) [Pb.CET 2002] [JIPMER 2001] 61. 208 [MP PET 2004] (b) 4 (d) 10 (b) 82 Pb element If half-life of a certain radioactive nucleus is 1000 s, the disintegration constant is [MP PET 2001] (a) 60. in (c) 65. Atomic number increases by two units Atomic number increases by three units Atomic number decreases by one unit Atomic number increases by one unit The number of -particles emitted 238 82 Pb 206 2 He 4 is 92 U 209 The number of neutrons in the element L is (a) 140 (b) 144 (c) 142 (d) 146 When a -particle emits from the atom of an element, then (a) (b) (c) (d) 83 Bi The number of neutrons in the parent nucleus which gives N 14 on – emission is [Pb.CET 2004] (a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 6 (d) 8 210 (b) (b) 64. The end product of (4 n 1) radioactive disintegration series is[MP PMT 1999] 209 209 All the nuclei from the initial element to the final element constitute a series which is called [Kerala (Med.) 2002] (a) g-series (b) b-series (c) b-g series (d) Disintegration series [MNR 1978; NCERT 1984;CPMT 1989; RPET 1999; MP PMT 2001; KCET 2003] (a) 4, 2 (b) 2, 2 (c) 8, 6 (d) 6, 4 The atomic number of a radioactive element increases by one unit in (a) Alpha emission (b) Beta emission (c) Gamma emission (d) Electron capture 82 Pb 63. [NCERT 1972, 92; MP PET 1989] (a) Unchanged (b) Reduced to half (a) Nuclear Chemistry (d) Gamma rays only 74. 75. 180 72 2 X A Z X . Z and A are [DPMT 2005] 10. [J & K 2005] 11. 12. 2. (d) 4 .0 g 13. 3. 4. 14. 92 X 232 89 Y 220 , how many and - 15. 16. 5. (b) 5 and 3 (c) 3 and 5 (d) 5 and 5 Which of the following does not take place by - decay 17. [MP PMT 1996] (a) (c) 6. 7. 8. 9. 92 U 88 238 90 Th 234 (b) Ra 226 86 Rn 222 (d) 90 83 Th 232 1 .0 g of a radioactive isotope was found to reduce to 125 mg after 24 hours. The half-life of the isotope is [MP PET 1996] (a) 8 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 6 hours (d) 4 hours A radioactive element decays at such a rate that after 15 minutes only 1/10 of the original amount is left. How many more minutes will be needed when only 1/100 of the original amount will be left (a) 1.5 minutes (b) 15.0 mintues (c) 16.5 minutes (d) 30 minutes X 88 (b) 35 (c) 34 Z 88 (d) 36 W 7 N 14 5B 14 (b) - active, (d) - active, C 14 10 1 of the original 10 radioactivity after 2.303 seconds. The half-life period is (a) 2.303 (b) 0.2303 (c) 0.693 (d) 0.0693 A radioactive substance has t1 / 2 60 minutes. After 3 hrs, what percentage of radioactive substance will remain (a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 25% (d) 12.5% A freshly prepared radioactive source of half-life 2 hours emits radiations of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with this source is [IIT 1988] (b) 12 hours (d) 128 hours 18. During a negative -decay [MNR 1990; IIT 1985] (a) An atomic electron is ejected (b) An electron which is already present within the nucleus is ejected (c) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron (d) A part of the binding energy of the nucleus is converted into an electron 19. The decay constant of a radioactive sample is ' ' . The half-life and mean life of the sample are respectively [MNR 1990; IIT 1989] 87 20. 1 ln 2 , (a) (c) ln 2, Y 89 What is the half-life of a radioactive substance if 75% of a given amount of the substance disintegrates in 30 minutes (a) 7.5 minutes (b) 25 minutes 7 Be Radioactivity of a radioactive element remains (a) 6 hours (c) 24 hours The radioactive decay of 35 X 88 by a beta emission produces an unstable nucleus which spontaneously emits a neutron. The final product is [MNR 1995; CBSE 2001] 37 -active, 88 Ra 228 Bi 213 84 Po 213 (a) C 14 is radioactive. The activity and the disintegration product are [BHU 1995] [CBSE 1999] 3 and 3 (b) 24 gm (d) 48 gm (c) Positron active, particles are ejected from X to form Y (a) (d) 0.693 69.3 10 gm of a radioactive substance is reduced to 1.25 gm after 15 days. Its 1kg mass will reduce (in how many days) to 500 gm in (a) 500 days (b) 125 days (c) 25 days (d) 5 days A radioactive isotope having a half-life of 3 days was received after 12 days. It was found that there were 3 gm of the isotope in the container. The initial weight of the isotope when packed was (a) (b) 76.4 MeV (d) 0.764 MeV ( e =0.00055 amu, p =1.00814 amu, n =1.00893 amu) Half-life period of a metal is 20 days. What fraction of metal does remain after 80 days [BHU 1996] (a) 1 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8 In the radioactive decay (69.3)1 (a) 12 gm (c) 36 gm [MP PMT 1999] (a) 7.64 MeV (c) 764 MeV (b) 10 2 [NCERT 1980; CPMT 1999; KCET 2000; Pb.CET 2001] 2.0 g The atomic mass of an element is 12.00710 amu. If there are 6 neutrons in the nucleus of the atom of the element, the binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus will be -particle (c) -rays (d) Positron The half-life of a radionuclide is 69.3 minutes. What is its average life (in minutes) (c) The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 8 years. After 16 years, the mass of the substance will reduce from starting 16.0 g to [MP PMT 1999] (a) 8 .0 g (b) 6 .0 g (c) (b) (a) 100 Rate of decay and Half-life 1. (c) 20 minutes (d) 15 minutes In radioactive decay which one of the following moves the fastest [MP PET/PMT (a) -particle (a) 69, 172 (b) 172, 69 (c) 180, 70 (d) 182, 68 Loss of a beta particle is equivalent to (a) Increase of one neutron only (b) Decrease of one neutron only (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 275 1 (b) (d) ln 2 1 , , 1 ln 2 The half-life of a radio isotope is 20 hours. After 60 hours, how much amount will be left behind [MP PMT 1991] 276 Nuclear Chemistry 21. (a) 1/8 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2 Half-life period of a zero order reaction is 33. If the half-life period of a first order reaction is 138.6 minutes, then the value of decay constant for the reaction will be [MH CET 1999] (a) 5 minute (b) 0.5 minute (c) 0.05 minute (d) 0.005 minute Half-life of 10 gm of radioactive substance is 10 days. The half-life of 20 gm is [CPMT 1996] (a) 10 days (b) 20 days (c) 25 days (d) Infinite 8 gm of the radioactive isotope, cesium-137 were collected on February 1 and kept in a sealed tube. On July 1, it was found that only 0.25 gm of it remained. So the half-life period of the isotope is [KCET 1989] (a) 37.5 days (b) 30 days (c) 25 days (d) 50 days The half-life of radium (226) is 1620 years. The time taken to convert 10 grams of radium to 1.25 grams is –1 [AMU (Engg.) 1999] –1 –1 22. (a) Inversely proportional to the concentration (b) Independent of the concentration (c) Directly proportional to the initial concentration (d) Directly proportional to the final concentration If 12 g of sample is taken, and 6 g of a sample decays in 1 hr. The amount of sample showing decay in next hour is 34. 35. [AMU (Engg.) 1999] 23. 24. 25. (a) 3 g (b) 1 g (c) 2 g (d) 6 g What will be half-life period of a nucleus if at the end of 4.2 days, [MP PET 2000] N 0.798 N 0 (a) 15 days (b) 10 days (c) 12.83 days (d) 20 days If 2.0 g of a radioactive substance has half-life of 7 days. The half-life of 1 g sample is [MP PET 2000] (a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 28 days (d) 35 days The half-life of 90 38 Sr is 20 years. If its sample having initial activity of 8000 dis/min is taken, what would be its activity after 80 years (a) 500 dis/min (b) 800 dis/min (c) 1000 dis/min (d) 1600 dis/min 36. –1 [MP PET 1994; UPSEAT 2001] 37. 38. (a) 810 years (b) 1620 years (c) 3240 years (d) 4860 years Half-life of a radioactive substance is 120 days. After 480 days, 4 gm will be reduced to [EAMCET 1993] (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25 [MP PMT 2000] The half-life of Co 60 is 7 years. If one gm of it decays, the amount of the substance remaining after 28 years is [EAMCET 1992] 26. 24 half-life is 15 hours. On heating it will 11 Na (a) 0.25 gm (b) 0.125 gm (c) 0.0625 gm (d) 0.50 gm 27. (a) Reduce (b) Remain unchanged (c) Depend on temperature (d) Become double In a radioactive decay, an emitted electron comes from 39. [CBSE 1994; Pb. PET 1999] 28. (a) Nucleus of the atom (b) Inner orbital of the atom (c) Outermost orbit of the atom (d) Orbit having principal quantum number one What is the value of decay constant of a compound having half-life time T1 / 2 2.95 days [AFMC 1997] (a) 29. 30. 2.7 10 5 s 1 (b) 32. (c) 2.7 10 6 s 1 (d) 3 10 5 s 1 What kind of radioactive decay does not lead to the formation of a daughter nucleus that is an isobar of the parent nucleus (a) -rays (b) -rays (c) Positron (d) Electron capture The half-life of 6 C 14 if its K or is 2.31 10 4 is (a) 2 10 2 yrs (b) 3 10 3 yrs (c) 3.5 10 4 yrs (d) 4 10 3 yrs A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 days. If today 125 mg is left over, what was its original weight 40 days earlier [KCET 2005] (a) 2g (b) 600 mg (c) 1 g (d) 1.5 g The binding energy of neutron is (a) 0.794 MeV (c) 7.94 MeV 8O 16 [Bihar CEE 1992; AMU 2002; MHCET 1999] 2.7 10 6 s 1 [BHU 1999] 31. 40. 41. [MH CET 1999] (a) 11520 years (b) 2880 years (c) 1440 years (d) 17280 years Half-life of a radioactive element is 100 yrs. The time in which it disintegrates to1999] 50% of its mass, will be [JIPMER [MP PMT 1995] 42. 43. is 127 MeV. Its binding energy per (b) 1.5875 MeV (d) 15.875 MeV A radioactive isotope decays at such a rate that after 96 minutes 1 th of the original amount remains. The half-life of this only 8 nuclide in minutes is [KCET 1992] (a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 48 C 14 has a half-life of 5760 years. 100mg of a sample containing C 14 is reduced to 25mg in 44. (a) 50 yrs (b) 200 yrs (c) 100 yrs (d) 25 yrs The average life period of a radioactive element is the reciprocal of its [MP PET 1995] (a) Half-life period (b) Disintegration constant (c) Number of atoms present at any time (d) Number of neutrons The half-life period of a radioactive element is 30 minutes. One sixteenth of the original quantity of the element will remain unchanged after [CPMT 1983; MP PMT 1994] (a) 60 minutes (b) 120 minutes (c) 70 minutes (d) 75 minutes For a radioactive substance with half-life period 500 years, the time for complete decay of 100 milligram of it would be [MADT Bihar 1984] (a) 1000 years (b) 100 500 years Nuclear Chemistry 45. (c) 500 years (d) Infinite time A substance of which one gram is taken, after half-life time what fraction of it is left ? [MADT Bihar 1983] 1 1 (a) (b) 4 8 1 1 (c) (d) 2 32 46. The half-life of the radio element 83 Bi210 is 5 days. Starting with 20 g of this isotope, the amount remaining after 15 days is (a) 10 g (b) 5 g (c) 2.5 g (d) 6.66 g 47. In radioactive decay of X into Y below, 6 Z (a) 6 Y (d) 1/16 of the original amount 56. 57. 58. 15 (b) 7 Y 17 14 48. (c) 9 Y (d) 8 Y 14 75% of the first order reaction was completed in 32 minutes. When was 50% of the reaction completed 59. [MNR 1983; MP PET 1997; EAMCET 1998] 49. (a) 24 minutes (b) 16 minutes (c) 8 minutes (d) 4 minutes If 2 .0 g of a radioactive isotope has a half-life of 20 hr, the half-life 60. [MP PMT 1990; MNR 1992] 50. 51. (b) 80 hr (d) 10 hr 61. (a) 92 U 238 will be reduced to half of its present [CPMT 1990; MP PET 1999] 9.0 10 9 years (b) 13.5 10 9 years (c) 4.5 10 9 years (d) 4.5 10 4.5 years Radium has atomic weight 226 and a half-life of 1600 years. The number of disintegrations produced per second from 1 gm are[BHU 1990] (a) 4.8 10 10 (b) 9.2 10 6 63. 64. (c) 3.7 10 (d) Zero The half-life of a radioactive element is 6 months. The time taken to reduce its original concentration to its 1/16 value is 10 53. 54. 55. (a) -particles (b) -particles (c) Neutrons (d) None of these Given that a radioactive species decays according to exponential law N N 0 e t . The half-life of the species is Radioactive lead 82 Pb 201 has a half-life of 8 hours. Starting from [Kerala (Med.) 2003] one milligram of this isotope, how much will remain after 24 hours [MP PMT 1990] (a) (b) No (a) 1 / 2 mg (b) 1 / 3 mg (c) /ln 2 (d) ln 2/ (c) 1 / 8 mg (d) 1 / 4 mg 62. Half-life of a radioactive disintegration (A B) having rate The half-life of 92 U 238 is 4.5 10 9 years. After how many years, constant 231 sec 1 is [CPMT 1988] the amount of amount 52. (a) 3000 years old (b) 6000 years old (c) 9000 years old (d) 1200 years old The decay of a radioactive element follows first order kinetics, as a result [NCERT 1982] [BHU 1987] (a) Half-life period = constant / k , where k is the decay constant (b) Rate of decay is independent of temperature (c) Rate can be changed by changing chemical conditions (d) The element will be completely transformed into a new element after expiry of two half-life period Half-life of a radioactive substance which disintegrates by 75 % in 60 minutes, will be [MP PMT 2002] (a) 120 min (b) 30 min (c) 45 min (d) 20 min 87.5% decomposition of a radioactive substance complete in 3 hours. What is the half-life of that substance [MP PMT 2003] (a) 2 hours (b) 3 hours (c) 90 minutes (d) 1 hours Tritium undergoes radioactive decay giving [CPMT 1976; NCERT 1978] of 0 .5 g of the same substance is (a) 20 hr (c) 5 hr The radioactivity due to C 14 isotope (half-life 6000 years) of a sample of wood from an ancient tomb was found to be nearly half that of fresh wood, the tomb is therefore about [NCERT 1980, 81; MP PET 1989] Y m is 3 X 14 Z Y m 277 [MP PET 1991] 65. (a) 1 year (b) 16 years (c) 2 years (d) 8 years In the case of a radio isotope the value of T1 / 2 and are identical in magnitude. The value is [KCET 2002] 66. (a) 0.693 (b) (0.693)1 / 2 (c) 1/0.693 (d) (0.693)2 A radioactive element has half-life of one day. After three days, the amount of the element left will be 3.0 10 2 sec (b) 3.0 10 3 sec (c) 3.3 10 2 sec (d) 3.3 10 3 sec The amount of 53 I 128 t1 / 2 25 minutes) left after 50 minutes will be [AIIMS 1982; DPMT 1982, 83] (a) One – half (b) One – third (c) One – fourth (d) Nothing If 3/4 quantity of a radioactive element disintegrates in two hours, its half-life would be [MP PMT 1989; CPMT 1984] (a) 1 hour (b) 45 minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 15 minutes Radioactive decay is a [MP PMT 1989, 97] (a) Second order reaction (b) First order reation (c) Zero order reaction (d) Third order reaction The half-life of a radioactive element depends upon [EAMCET 1980] 67. [MNR 1985; UPSEAT 2000, 01; MH CET 2002] (a) 1/2 of the original amount (b) 1/4 of the original amount (c) 1/8 of the original amount (a) 68. (a) The amount of the element (b) The temperature (c) The pressure (d) None of these The activity of radio isotope changes with [MNR 1986] (a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Chemical environment (d) None of these A certain nuclide has a half-life of 25 minutes. If one starts with 100 g of it, how much of it will remain at the end of 100 minutes 278 Nuclear Chemistry (a) 1.0 g (c) 6.25 g 69. (b) 4.0 g (d) 12.50 g (a) 0.30 sec (c) 3.3 sec If U 235 is bombarded with neutrons, atom will split into 81. [CPMT 1981] 70. 71. (a) Sr + Pb (b) Cs + Rb (c) Kr + Cd (d) Ba + Kr If 8.0 of a radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 hrs. The half-life of 2.0 g of the same substance is [UPSEAT 2001] (a) 2.5 hrs. (b) 5 hrs. (c) 10 hrs. (d) 40 hrs. 82. If the disintegration constant is 6.93 10 6 , then half-life of 83. 6C 72. 14 will be [KCET 2001] (a) 10 2 yrs (b) 10 3 yrs (c) 10 4 yrs (d) 10 5 yrs The decay constant of Ra 226 is 1.37 10 11 sec 1 . A sample of 84. Ra 226 having an activity of 1.5 millicurie will contain ...... atoms 73. (a) 4.1 1018 (b) 3.7 1017 (c) 2.05 1015 (d) 4.7 1010 Amount of 128 (t1 / 2 53 I (b) 0.60 sec (d) Data is insufficient T1 / 2 of C 14 isotope is 5770 years. time after which 72% of isotope left is [Orissa JEE 2005] (a) 2740 years (b) 274 years (c) 2780 years (d) 278 years A radioactive substance takes 20 min to decay 25%. How much time will be taken to decay 75% [Orissa JEE 2005] (a) 96.4 min (b) 68 min (c) 964 min (d) 680 min A radioactive sample is emitting 64 times radiations than non hazardous limit. if its half life is 2 hours, after what time it becomes non-hazardous [DPMT 2005] (a) 16 hr (b) 12 hr (c) 8 hr (d) 4 hr If 8.0 g of a radioactive substance has a half-life of 10 hrs., the half life of 2.0 g of the same substance is [J & K 2005] (a) 2.6 hr (b) 5 hr (c) 10 hr (d) 40 hr Artificial transmutation 25 min) left after 75 minutes is 1. The age of most ancient geological formation is estimated by [DCE 2002] (a) 74. 75. [NCERT 1981; MP PET/PMT 1988; CBSE 1989; MP PET 1997; MP PMT 2002] (b) 1 / 4 1/6 (c) 1 / 8 (d) 1 / 9 The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, the mass remaining after 24 hours undecayed is (a) 3.125 g (b) 2.084 g (c) 1.042 g (d) 4.167 g An artificial radioactive isotope gave 14 7 (a) (b) (c) (d) 76. The equation 3. (a) Synthesis of helium (b) Transmutation of element (c) Fusion reaction (d) Nuclear fission The phenomenon of radioactivity arises from the N after two successive 77. (a) 6.932 yr (c) 0.06932 yr 1 1 (b) 0.6932 yr (d) 0.006932 yr 1 [Kerala CET 2004] 78. 4. A radioactive isotope decays at such a rate that after 192 minutes only 1 / 16 of the original amount remains. The half-life of the radioactive isotope is (a) 32 min (c) 12 min In the given reaction, isotope are (b) 48 min (d) 24 min 92 U 235 5. ( A) (B) (C) 79. 80. (b) 92 U 235 and C 6. 7. (a) W.F. Libby [Orissa JEE 2004] (c) J. Willard Gibbs The nuclear reaction [MP PET 2001] (c) A and B (d) A, B and C Rate constant for a reaction is . Average life is representative by (a) 1/ (b) (c) 2 (d) In2 / 0 .693 For a reaction, the rate constant is 2.34 sec 1 . The half-life period for the reaction is (a) Binary fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Stable nuclei (d) Decay of unstable nuclei The first artificial disintegration of an atomic nucleus was achieved by [Kerala (Engg.) 2002] (a) Geiger (b) Wilson (c) Madame curie (d) Rutherford (e) Soddy Artificial elements have been prepared by bombardment reactions in high energy accelerators. What is the mass number of the element X produced in the following nuclear reaction 249 15 1 [AMU (Engg.) 2002] 95 Cf 7 N 105 X 4 0 n (a) 261 (b) 264 (c) 260 (d) 257 Radioactive carbon dating was discovered by [Pb. CET 2000] (a) A and C 3 [Kerala (Med.) 2002] [DCE 2004] 1 Li 6 1 H 2 2 2 He 4 energy represents 2. particle emissions. The number of neutrons in the parent nucleus must be [KCET 2004] (a) 9 (b) 14 (c) 5 (d) 7 If the half-life of an isotope X is 10 years, its decay constant is Potassium – Argon method Carbon – 14 dating method Radium Silicon method [AIEEE –2004] Uranium – Lead method 63 29 Cu (b) G.N. Lewis (d) W. Nernst 37 42 He 17 Cl 14 11 H 16 10 n is referred to as [MP PET 2002] (a) Spallation reaction (c) Fission reaction (b) Fusion reaction (d) Chain reaction Nuclear Chemistry 8. 9. The carbon dating is based on [MP PMT 2001] (a) 15 6 C (b) 14 6 (c) 13 6 C (d) 11 6 C C A possible material for use in the nuclear reactors as a fuel is 22. [DPMT 1986] 10. 11. (a) Thorium (c) Beryllium Heavy water freezes at (b) Zirconium (d) Plutonium [UPSEAT 2001] (a) 0C (b) 3.8C (c) 38C (d) 0.38C 23. 24. To determine the masses of the isotopes of an element which of the following techniques is useful 12. 13. 14. The radioisotope, tritium (13 H ) has a half-life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of tritium is 32 mg. How many milligrams of it would remain after 49.2 years [CBSE 2003] (a) 8 mg (b) 1 mg (c) 2 mg (d) 4 mg Neutron is used as a [CPMT 1988] (a) Reducing agent (b) Moderator (c) Tracer (d) In biological programme Hydrogen bomb is based on the phenomenon of [EAMCET 1980; CPMT 1984, 96; MP PMT 1993, 95, 2002; RPET 1999] 15. 16. (a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Nuclear explosion (d) Disintegration In the nuclear reactors the speed of the neutrons is slowed down by (a) Heavy water (b) Ordinary water (c) Zinc rods (d) Molten caustic soda By which law, energy produced in nuclear reaction is given 25. 26. 17. 18. A wood piece is 11460 years old. What is the fraction of in the piece? (Half-life period of 14 14 19. 20. (a) Long rods of Cd (b) Heavy water (c) Cubical blocks of steel (d) Both (a) and (c) The proper rays for radiocarbon dating are [MP PET 2002] (a) UV-rays (b) IR-rays (c) Cosmic rays (d) X-rays 21. 1H [MH CET 2001] 2 1 H 2 2 He 3 0 n1 . Above nuclear reaction is called [UPSEAT 2001] (b) N 2O (c) H 2O (d) NaOH The fuel of atomic pile is [NCERT 1973; AFMC 1989] (a) Thorium (b) Sodium (c) Uranium (d) Petroleum Atom bomb is based on the principle of (a) Nuclear fusion (b) Nuclear fission (c) Radioactivity (d) Fusion and fission both Who observed that when the nucleus of uranium atom was bombarded with fast moving neutrons, it becomes so very unstable that it is immediately broken into two nuclei of nearly equal mass besides other fragments (a) J.J. Thomson (b) Chadwick (c) Einstein (d) Hahn and Strassmann When a radioactive substance is subjected to vacuum, the rate of disintegration per second 27. 28. What is the packing fraction of (a) 29. 30. 31. 14.167 [KCET 2002] 56 26 Fe (Isotopic mass = 55.92066) C is 5730 years) [MP PMT 2000] D2 O [DPMT 1985; NCERT 1972] C activity left (a) 0.12 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 When nuclear energy is intended to be harnessed for generation of electricity, potentially destructive neutron released in a nuclear reactor are absorbed by (a) (a) Increases considerably (b) Increases only if the products are gaseous (c) Is not affected (d) Suffers a slight decrease A radio isotope will not emit (a) Gamma and alpha rays simultaneously (b) Gamma rays only [CPMT (c) Alpha and1983, beta84] rays simultaneously (d) Beta and gamma rays simultaneously [MP PET 2000] (a) Graham’s law (b) Charle’s law (c) Gas Lussac’s Law (d) Einstein’s law If two light nuclei are fused together in nuclear reaction the average energy per nucleon [Pb. PMT 2001] (a) Increases (b) Cannot be determined (c) Remains same (d) Decreases (a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Artificial transmutation (d) Spontaneous disintegration Which of the following is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor [CPMT 1982; BHU 1985] [NCERT 1978; MNR 1979] (a) The acceleration of charged atoms by an electric field and their subsequent deflection by a variable magnetic field (b) The spectroscopic examination of the light emitted by vaporised elements subjected to electric discharge (c) The photographing of the diffraction patterns which arise when X-rays are passed through crystals (d) The bombardment of metal foil with alpha particles 279 [JIPMER 2002] (b) 173.90 (c) 14.187 (d) 73.90 The energy released in an atom bomb explosion is mainly due to (a) Release of neutrons (b) Release of electrons (c) Greater mass of products than initial material (d) Lesser mass of products than initial material [KCET 2002] C 14 is (a) A natural radioactive isotope (b) A natural non-radioactive isotope (c) An artificial radioactive isotope (d) An artificial non-radioactive isotope A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 years. What percentage of the original amount of it remain after 20 years [KCET 2001] 32. (a) 0 (b) 12.5 (c) 8 (d) 25 In a chain reaction, uranium atom gets fissioned forming two different materials. The total weight of these put together is (a) More than the weight of parent uranium atom 280 Nuclear Chemistry 33. (b) Less than the weight of parent uranium atom (c) More or less depends upon experimental conditions (d) Neither more nor less A substance used as a moderator in nuclear reactors is 45. [MP PET 1995] (a) Cadmium (c) Lead 34. 35. (b) Uranium-235 (d) Heavy water 46. [DPMT 2000] [MP PMT 1989] 1 H 18 Ar 0 n is 17 Cl (a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Transformation of chlorine (d) Synthesis of argon 1.0 gm radioactive sodium on decay becomes 0.25 gm in 16 Equation 37 2 38 (a) Deuterons (c) -particles 1 need to become 3.0 gm (a) 48 hours (b) 32 hours (c) 20 hours (d) 16 hours Large energy released in an atomic bomb explosion is mainly due to (a) Products having a lesser mass than initial substance (b) Conversion of heavier to lighter atoms (c) Release of neutrons (d) Release of electrons 2 A piece of wood was found to have C 14 /C 12 ratio 0.7 times that in a living plant. The time period when the plant died is (Half-life of [Pb. PMT 1999] C 14 5760 yrs) (a) 2770 yrs (b) 2966 yrs (c) 2980 yrs (d) 3070 yrs 48. When a slow neutron goes sufficiently close to a U 235 nucleus, then the process which takes place is [AFMC 2000] The reaction 38. (a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Artificial disintegration (d) Transmutation of element Carbon-14 dating method is based on the fact that 1H (a) Fusion of U 235 [CPMT 73, 81, (c) 1972, Fusion of 90] neutron 49. [MP PMT 1990; CPMT 1990; KCET 1992] 50. [CBSE 1997] 39. (a) Carbon-14 fraction is the same in all objects (b) Carbon-14 is highly insoluble (c) Ratio of carbon-14 and carbon-12 is constant (d) All of these Half-life period of a radioactive element is 10.6 yrs. How much time will it take in its 99% decomposition 51. 40. 41. 42. 43. (a) H 2 O18 (b) H 2 O16 (c) H 2 O3 (d) D2 O 15 P 31 and (a) Proton (b) Neutron (c) Alpha particle (d) Deuteron Which of the following statements about radioactivity of an element is incorrect (a) It is a nuclear property (b) It does not involve any rearrangement of electrons (c) Its rate is affected by change in temperature and/or pressure (d) It remains unaffected by the presence of other element or elements chemically combined with it Radioactive iodine is being used to diagnose the disease of [MP PET 1996] 52. (b) Kidneys (d) Thyroid C 14 is used in carbon dating of dead objects because [DPMT 1996] (a) Its half-life is 10 3 years 53. (b) Its half-life is 10 4 years (c) It [JIPMER is found2001] in nature abundantly and in definite ratio (d) It is found in dead animals abundantly A radioactive element resembling iodine in properties is 54. (a) Astatine (b) Lead (c) Radium (d) Thorium For artificial transmutation of nuclei, the most effective one is [Kurukeshetra CEE 1998] [MP PMT 1996] [CPMT 1997] D2 O is used in (a) Industry (b) Nuclear reactor (c) Medicine (d) Insecticide India conducted an underground nuclear test at [KCET 1998] 44. Al 28 when radiated by suitable projectile gives neutron. The projectile used is 13 (a) Bones (c) Blood cancer [RPET 1999] (a) 7046 yrs (b) 7.046 yrs (c) 704.6 yrs (d) 70.4 yrs Deuterium resembles hydrogen in chemical properties but reacts (a) More vigorously than hydrogen (b) Faster than hydrogen (c) Slower than hydrogen (d) Just as hydrogen Which of the following is heavy water [AFMC 1997] (b) Fission of U 235 (d) First (a) then (b) [MP PMT/PET 1988; CPMT 1985, 82] 1 H 3 2 He 4 0 n1 energy represents 37. (b) Neutrons (d) Protons 47. hours. How much time 48 gm of same radioactive sodium will 36. Liquid sodium finds use in nuclear reactors. Its function is (a) To collect the reaction products (b) To act as a heat exchanger or coolant (c) To absorb the neutrons in order to control the chain reaction (d) To act as a moderator which slows down the neutrons Which is least effective for artificial transmutation (a) Tarapur (b) Narora (c) Pokhran (d) Pushkar Energy required to separate neutron and proton from the nucleus is called [RPMT 1999] (a) Bond energy (b) Nuclear energy (c) Chemical energy (d) Radiation energy 55. 56. (a) Proton (b) Deuteron (c) Helium nuclei (d) Neutron Which of the following cannot be accelerated (a) -particle (b) -particle (c) Protons (d) Neutrons For the fission reaction 92 U 235 [KCET 2005] 0 n1 56 Ba40 y E x 2 0 n1 The value of x and y will be x 93 and y 34 (b) x 92 and y 35 (c) x 89 and y 44 Heavy water is used as (d) x 94 and y 36 (a) 57. Nuclear Chemistry [Bihar MEE 1996; UPSEAT 1999, 2000, 02] 58. (a) Control rods (c) Fuel (e) None of these Unit for radioactive constant is (a) Time -1 (b) Moderator (d) Coolant [MP PET 1990] [MP PET 1989; CPMT 1993] 1 (c) Mole time (d) Time mole Which of the following is used in dating archeological findings or In a method of absolute dating of fossils a radioactive element is used. It is (a) Isotope H 1.000 1 60. 61. (a) 92 U (c) 6 C 12 (b) 6C (d) 20 71. 14 Ca 40 72. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 20 days. If 100 gm of the substance is taken, the weight of the isotope remaining after 40 days is [NCERT 1979] (a) 25 gm (b) 2.5 gm (c) 60 gm (d) 40 gm In a fission reaction the nucleus of an element 73. 62. 63. 64. 65. [CPMT 1972; BHU 1984; KCET 1999] 66. (a) Seaberg (b) Rutherford (c) Einstein (d) Irene Curie & Juliot The half-life period of a radioactive element is 140 days. After 560 days, one gram of the element will reduce to 67. 1/2g (b) 1 / 4 g (c) 1/8 g (d) 1 / 16 g 69. 14 (b) 6C 13 (c) 6C 12 (d) 6C 15 Artificial transmutation was discovered by [Pb.CET 2003] (a) Pauli (b) Rutherford (c) Soddy (d) Curie Which of the following is an example of nuclear fusion 1H 2 (b) 92 U (c) 13 1 H 2 He energy 2 235 4 o n1 56 Ba141 36 Kr 92 30 n1 energy Al 27 1 H 1 12 Mg 24 2 He 4 74. 75. 76. The radioactivity isotope 60 27 Co which is used in the treatment of cancer can be made by (n, p) reaction. For this reaction the target nucleus is [CBSE PMT 2004] (a) 60 28 Ni (b) 60 27 Co (c) 59 28 Ni (d) 59 27 Co Fusion bomb involves [AFMC 2004] (a) Combination of lighter nuclei into bigger nucleus (b) Destruction of heavy nucleus into smaller nuclei (c) Combustion of oxygen (d) Explosion of TNT The element used for dating the ancient remains is [AFMC 2004] (a) Ni (c) C-12 77. 78. (b) C-14 (d) Rd If radium and chlorine combine to from radium chloride the compound is [Kerala PMT 2004] (a) No longer radioactive (b) Twice as radioactive as radium (c) Half as radioactive as radium (d) As radioactive as radium (e) Thrice as radioactive as radium Which of the following is an example of nuclear fission A device used for the measurement of radioactivity is [Pb. CET 2002] [BHU 1979] 68. 6C (d) None of these [CPMT 1989; IIT 1986; EAMCET 1992; MP PET 1997; UPSEAT 1999] (a) (a) (a) [CPMT 1982; Kurukshetra CEE 1998] (a) Mass defect (b) Energy of protons (c) Energy of neutrons (d) Total energy of nucleons The first controlled artificial disintegration of an atomic nucleus was achieved by [BHU 1987] (a) Geiger (b) Wilson (c) Cockcroft (d) Rutherford Artificial radioactivity was first discovered by (c) Isotope O 16.000 (d) Isotope C 12 12.000 Which radioactive carbon has been helpful in understanding the mechanism of photosynthesis in plants [MP PMT 1989; DCE 2004] [NCERT 1977] (a) Loses only some elementary nuclear particles from another nucleus (b) Captures some elementary nuclear particles from another nucleus (c) Breaks up into several smaller nuclei (d) Breaks up into two smaller nuclei with the loss of same elementary nuclear particles The huge amount of energy which is released during atomic fission is due to [CPMT 1990] (a) Loss of mass (b) Loss of electrons (c) Loss of protons (d) Loss of -particles The measure of binding energy of a nucleus is the (b) Oxygen = 16.000 16 [CPMT 1983, 85; NCERT 1978; BHU 1981; MP PMT 1993; AFMC 1997] 235 (a) Lubricant (b) Moderator to slow down neutrons (c) Fuel (d) Liner of the reactor The modern basis of atomic weight is (b) Time 1 59. 70. 281 (a) Mass spectrometer (b) Cyclotron (c) Nuclear reactor (d) G.M. counter In a nuclear reactor, chain reaction is controlled by introducing (a) Iron rod (b) Cadmium rod (c) Graphite rod (d) Platinum rod In atomic reactors, graphite is used as a [NCERT 1980; MP PET 1989] 2 1 H 2 He 2 (a) 1H (b) A B C energy (c) 92 U (d) 13 4 [EAMCET 1984] 235 0 n1 56 Ba141 36 Kr 92 3 0 n1 energy Al 27 2 He 4 15 P 30 0 n1 282 Nuclear Chemistry 79. 80. 81. The C 14 to C 12 ratio in a wooden article is 13% that of the fresh wood. Calculate the age of the wooden article. Given that the halflife of C 14 is 5770 years [Pb.CET 2004] (a) 16989 years (b) 16858 years (c) 15675 years (d) 17700 years Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of [AIEEE 2005] (a) Nuclear fission (b) Natural radioactivity (c) Nuclear fusion (d) Artificial radioactivity Match List –I and List-II and choose right one by using code given in list [Kerala CET 2005] List – I List –II Nuclear reactor Used substance Component 1. Moderator (A) Uranium 2. Control rods (B) Graphite 3. Fuel rods (C) Boron 4. Coolent (D) Lead (E) Sodium 8. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2 A C B D C 3 C A A A B 4 E E E B A 3. 4. 9. 10. 11. 12. 5. (a) Isothermals (b) Isotopes (c) Isentropus (d) Elementary particles Tritium is an isotope of [DPMT 1985] (a) Hydrogen (b) Titanium (c) Tantalum (d) Tellurium O – 18 isotope of oxygen will have [CPMT 1972, 79] (a) 18 protons (b) 9 protons and 9 neutrons (c) 8 neutrons and 10 protons (d) 10 neutrons and 8 protons Which of the following is an isobaric pair [CPMT 1987, 93] 13. 14. 15. 7 16. 17 [NCERT 1983] 16 (b) 7 (d) 6C N 14 14 e emission (b) 2 He 4 emission (c) e emission (d) K -electron capture Atomic weights of carbon, nitrogen and oxygen are 12, 14 and 16 respectively. An atom of atomic weight 14 and nuclear charge + 6 is an isotope of (a) Oxygen (b) Carbon (c) Nitrogen (d) None of these Isotopes of an element have [MNR 1985] (a) Similar chemical properties but different physical properties (b) Similar chemical and physical properties (c) Similar physical properties but different chemical properties (d) Different chemical and physical properties Whose number is common in isotopes [AIIMS 1988] (a) Proton (b) Neutron (c) Proton and neutron (d) Nucleon In the following radioactive transformation R X Y Z ; the nuclei R and Z are (a) Isotopes (b) Isobars (c) Isomers (d) Isotones Which one of the following pairs represents isobars [CPMT 1988] (c) (d) 39 19 Isotopes are atoms having the same 17. 4 2 He and Mg and He 25 12 Mg K and 40 20 Ca K and 40 19 K Nuclei of isotopes differ in [CPMT 1986, 90; MP PMT 1987] (a) The number of protons (b) The number of neutrons (c) The number of protons and neutrons both (d) None of these An isotope of ‘parent’ is produced, when its nucleus loses (a) Isobar (b) Isomorph 18. (c) Isotope (d) Isomer In treatment of cancer, which of the following isotope is used[DPMT 1985; BHU 1995; AMU 1999; -particle (a)KCET One1999; Pb.CET 2001; MP PET 2002; Kurukshetra CET 2002] 8O Emission of -particle by an atom of an element results in the formation of its [BHU 1979; DPMT 1985; KCET 1999] (a) Isotope (b) Isomer (c) Isomorph (d) Isobar Radioactive isotopes that have an excessive neutron/proton ratio generally exhibit 40 19 (a) Atomic mass (b) Mass number (c) Atomic number (d) Number of neutrons Successive emission of an -particle and two -particles by an atom of an element results in the formation of its (b) Isobars (d) Isotones N 15 24 12 7 [MP PMT/PET 1988; BHU 1979] 7. (c) (b) (d) 13 2 [BHU 1987] [EAMCET 1978, 79; MP PMT 1980; CPMT 1973; BHU 2001; AFMC 2003] 6. 8O N 13 , 8 O15 N 14 , 8 O15 7 (a) (a) 6C 1H Which isotope on bombardment with -particles will give , 7 N 14 (b) (c) 13 (d) Elements having different nuclear charge but the same mass number are called [NCERT 1974; MP PMT 1991; 3 2 , 7 N 13 6C 60 15 and 1 H 1 Substances which have identical chemical properties but differ in atomic weights are called (a) 27 Co P 32 (b) CBSE PMT 1991; CPMT 1989; EAMCET 1992] [EAMCET 1980, 83; DPMT 1985; MNR 1982] 2. (c) (a) Isotopes-Isotones and Nuclear isomers 1. 53 (a) Isotopes (c) Isomers Code : 1 B B C C D I131 (a) (b) One -particle [CPMT 1987; MP PET 1991] Nuclear Chemistry (c) One and two -particles 19. (d) One and two - particles Which of the following isotopes is likely to be most stable [EAMCET 1982] (a) (c) 20. 30 30 Zn 71 Zn 64 (b) 30 Zn 66 31. (d) None of these Which of the following statement is false [Manipal MEE 1995] 35 (a) (b) (c) (d) 37 21. In chlorine gas, the ratio of Cl and Cl is 1 : 3 The hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fusion The atom bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fission The penetrating power of a proton is less than that of an electron Isotones are elements having 22. (a) Same mass number but different neutrons (b) Same atomic number but different neutrons (c) Same atomic number, mass number and neutrons (d) Different atomic and mass number but same neutrons Isobaric atoms may contain 32. 33. First isotope Second isotope (a) 34 36 (b) 44 46 (c) 45 47 (d) 79 81 Isotopes are those which contain [RPMT 1997] (a) Same number of neutrons (b) Same physical properties (c) Same chemical properties (d) Different atomic mass An element ' A' emits an -particle and forms ' B'.' A' and ' B' are [DPMT 1990] (a) Isotopes (b) Isobars (c) Isotones (d) Isodiasphere Which of the following properties are different for neutral atoms of isotopes of the same element [EAMCET 1987; NCERT 1971; CPMT 1976; MP PET 1994] [Bihar MEE 1996; Bihar CEE 1995] (a) Same number of p and different number of n 0 (b) Same number of n and different number of p (a) (b) (c) (d) 34. 0 24. 25. X 40 and 21 X 40 are [CPMT 1996] (a) Isobars (b) Isotopes (c) Isotones (d) Isostereomers Which property is different for neutral atoms of the two isotopes of the same element [JIPMER 2001] (a) Number of protons (b) Atomic number (c) Number of neutrons (d) None of these Which of the following species is isotonic with 37 Rb (a) 26. 36 Kr (b) 37 Rb 85 (c) 38 Sr 87 (d) 39 Y 89 The maximum sum of the number of neutrons and protons in an isotope of hydrogen is [Pb. PMT 2001] (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3 35 and 37 27. Difference in 28. (a) Atomic number (b) Number of protons (c) Number of neutrons (d) Number of electrons Which of the following is an isotonic pair 17 Cl 17 Cl is of 35. 36. 86 [BHU 2001] 84 37. 30. 40 19 K, 40 20 Ca (b) 39 19 K, 40 20 Ca (c) 33 18 Ar, 40 18 Ar (d) 40 18 Ar, 4020 Ca 6 C 11 and 5 B 11 are referred as U 235 decays in a number of steps to an isotope of [NCERT 1978] (d) 10 , 8 7 , 4 Addition of two neutrons in an atom A would (a) Change the chemical nature of A [AMU 1984] (b) Produce an isobar of A (c) Produce an isotope of A (d) Produce another element Atomic weight of the isotope of hydrogen which contains 2 neutrons is the nucleus would be [CPMT 1980] (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4 If a radioactive isotope with atomic number A and mass number M emits an -particle, the atomic number and mass number of that new isotope will become [NCERT 1980] 38. 39. The symbol of an isotope is [AFMC 2000] (a) 92 (a) A – 2, M – 4 (b) A – 2, M (c) A, M – 2 (d) A – 4, M – 2 Which character is different of the two isotopes of an element[NCERT 1971; EAM (a) Atomic mass (b) Atomic number (c) Number of electrons (d) Number of protons 32 X 65 , this reveals that [MP PET 1991] [AMU (Engg.) 2000] 29. The isotope (c) (d) Different numbers of both p and n 0 20 Mass Atomic number General chemical reactions Number of electrons lead 82 Pb 207 . The groups of particles emitted in this process will be [MP PMT 1987] (a) 4 , 7 (b) 6 , 4 (c) Same number of both p and n 0 23. 283 40. (a) Its atomic number is 32 and atomic weight is 65 (b) Its atomic number is 65 (c) It has 65 electrons (d) It has 32 neutrons Two atoms have the same atomic mass but different atomic numbers. Such atoms are called as (a) Nuclear isomers (b) Isobars (c) Isotopes (d) Fission products (a) Isotopes The atomic number of bromine is 35 and its atomic weight is 79. (c) Isomer Two isotopes of bromine are present in equal amounts. Which of the following statements represents the correct number of neutrons[NCERT41.1983] 18 Ar 40 , 20 Ca 40 and [NCERT 1971, 76; IIT 1983] (b) Isobars (d) Isoelectronic 19 K 40 are 284 Nuclear Chemistry [MNR 1983; DPMT 1991; EAMCET 1992; RPMT 1997; Pb.CET 2000] 42. (a) Isomers (b) Isotopes (c) Isobars (d) Isotones Atoms in hydrogen gas have preponderance of (c) 55. 43. 44. 1H 1 (d) NO 2 and CO 2 [Bihar CEE 1982] [CPMT 1972] (a) CN and CO Which of the following are pairs of isotopes 56. atoms (b) Deuteron atoms (c) Tritium atoms (d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are in equal proportion Positron emission results from the transformation of one nuclear proton into neutron. The isotope thus produced possesses (a) Same mass number (b) Higher nuclear charge (c) Intense radioactivity (d) No radioactivity An isotope of oxygen has mass number 18. Other isotopes of oxygen will have the same 57. (a) 2 1H and 3 1H (b) 3 1H and (c) 3 2 He and 4 2 He (d) 12 6 C and 4 2H 14 7 N Which among the following isotope is not found in natural uranium (a) 92 U 234 (b) 92 U 235 (c) 92 U 238 (d) 92 U 239 An isotone of 76 32 Ge is (one or more are correct) [MP PMT 1990] [IIT 1984; MADT Bihar 1995; MP PMT 1995] (a) 77 32 Ge (b) 77 33 As (c) 77 34 (d) 78 34 Se Se [MP PMT 1985; MADT Bihar 1981] 45. 46. (a) Mass number (b) Atomic weight (c) Number of neutrons (d) Number of protons Two nuclei which are not identical but have the same number of nucleons represent (a) Isotopes (b) Isobars (c) Isotones (d) None of the three The -decay of 11 Na 24 1. produces an isotope of 23 11 Na which is the more stable isotope of Na. Find out the process by 24 11 Na can undergo radioactive decay [NCERT 1978] 48. (a) Mg (b) Na (c) Al (d) Ne Isotopes differ in [NCERT 1973] (a) Number of protons (b) Valency (c) Chemical reactivity (d) Number of neutrons The isobars are atoms with the same number of 49. (a) Protons (b) Neutrons (c) Protons and neutrons (d) Nucleons Radioactive isotope of hydrogen is 50. (a) Tritium (b) Deuterium (c) Para hydrogen (d) Ortho hydrogen Isotopes of same elements have the same number of 47. [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1994] [IIT Screening 2003] (a) (c) 2. 3. [MP PMT 2001; MPPET 2003] 4. [BHU 1984; DPMT 1983; CPMT 1972, 78; AFMC 2000, 01] (a) Protons (c) Deutrons 51. 5. [BHU 1984; CPMT 1977, 80] 52. (b) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 [NCERT 1977] (a) Only O 16 isotopes (b) Only O 17 isotopes (c) A mixture of O 16 and O 18 isotopes 53. 54. emission (b) emission emission (d) K electron capture 16 Oxygen contains 90% of O and 10% of O 18 . Its atomic mass is (a) 17.4 (b) 16.2 (c) 16.5 (d) 17 The missing particle in the reaction, 235 1 146 1 is [DPMT 2001] U n Ba ... 3 n 92 0 56 0 (a) 87 32 Ge (b) 89 35 Br (c) 87 36 (d) 86 35 Br Kr Sulphur-35 (34.96903 amu) emits a particle but no rays, the product is chlorine-35 (34.96885 amu). The maximum energy emitted by the particle is [DPMT 2004] (b) Neutrons (d) None In chlorine gas, ratio of Cl 35 and Cl 37 is (a) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 1 An ordinary oxygen contains (d) A mixture of O – 16, O 17 and O 18 isotopes Isotopes were discovered by [AMU 1983; AFMC 1995] (a) Aston (b) Soddy (c) Thomson (d) Millikan Which of the following are iso-electronic [CBSE 2002] (a) CO 2 and NO (b) SO 2 and CO 2 6. (a) 0.016767 MeV (b) 1.6758 MeV (c) 0.16758 MeV (d) 16.758 MeV A radioactive substance has a constant activity of 2000 disintegration/minute. The material is separated into two fractions, one of which has an initial activity of 1000 disintegrations per second while the other fraction decays with t1 / 2 = 24 hours. The total activity in both samples after 48 hours of separation is (a) 2000 (b) 1250 (c) 1000 (d) 1500 How many alpha particles are emitted per second by 1 microgram of radium (a) 7. 3.62 10 4 / sec (b) 0.362 10 4 / sec (c) 362 10 4 / sec (d) 36.2 10 4 / sec If 1 microgram of radium has disintegrated for 500 years, how many alpha particles will be emitted per second (a) 2.92 10 4 / sec (b) 292 10 4 / sec Nuclear Chemistry (c) 8. 0.292 10 4 / sec (d) disintegration s g 1 . The activity of X in millicuries g 1 (m ci g ) is If 54 92 U 235 Xe 139 , 1 19. 11. nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates in 38 Sr 94 20. and X, then what will be the product X 17.281 10 2 years (b) 172.81 10 2 years (c) 1.7281 10 years (d) 1728.1 10 years The radium and uranium atoms in a sample of uranium mineral are in the ratio of 1 : 2.8 10 6 . If half-life period of radium is 1620 years, the half-life period of uranium will be 2 13. 45.3 10 9 years (b) 45.3 10 10 years 16. 17. 18. 2000 gm The half-life of 6 C 14 , if its decay constant is 6.31 10 4 is (a) 2.5 10 3 yrs (b) 1.832 10 3 yrs (c) 2.275 10 3 yrs (d) 21. 22. 23. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is three hours. If the initial mass of the isotope were 256 g, the mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be (b) 8.0 g (d) 16.0 g 15 th of a radioactive sample decays in 40 days half-life of the 16 sample is [DCE 2001] (a) 100 days (b) 10 days (d) log e 2 days A radioactive element with half-life 6.5 hrs has 48 1019 atoms. Number of atoms left after 26 hrs [BHU 2003] (a) 24 10 19 (b) 12 10 19 (c) 3 10 (d) 6 1019 The half-life of 1 gm of radioactive sample is 9 hours. The radioactive decay obeys first order kinetics. The time required for the original sample to reduce to 0.2 gm is 19 [AMU (Engg.) 2002] [DCE 2000] A radioactive isotope has a t1 / 2 of 10 days. If today 125 gm of it is left, what was its weight 40 days earlier 0.25 gm of the sample (c) 1 day 8 gms of a radioactive substance is reduced to 0 .5 g after 1 hour. What is the half-life of a radioactive substance if 87.5% of any given amount of the substance disintegrates in 40 minutes [Kerala CET 1996] (a) 160 min (b) 10 min (c) 20 min (d) 13 min 20 sec 1 gm of the sample [AIEEE 2003] 24. Number of --particles emitted per second by a radioactive element falls to 1/32 of its original value in 50 days. The half-life-period of this elements is [AMU 2001] (a) 5 days (b) 15 days (c) 10 days (d) 20 days A radioactive sample has a half-life of 1500 years.A sealed tube containing 1 gm of the sample will contain after 3000 years[MNR 1994; UPSEAT (a) 4.0 g (c) 12.0 g 8.825 10 2 yrs (a) 15 min (b) 30 min (c) 45 min (d) 10 min A first order nuclear reaction is half completed in 45 minutes. How long does it need 99.9% of the reaction to be completed [KCET 2001] (a) 5 hours (b) 7.5 hours (c) 10 hours (d) 20 hours (b) 109.8 yrs (d) 1.098 yrs (d) 0.00 gm of the sample (c) 4.53 10 9 years (d) 4.53 10 10 years Half-life of radium is 1580 yrs. Its average life will be The t1 / 2 of the radioactive substance is 15. (d) (c) [AIIMS 1999; AFMC 1999; CPMT 1999] 14. 1250 gm (b) 0.5 gm of the sample 2 [MP PMT 1999] (a) (c) (a) [MP PMT 1999] 12. (b) 1000 gm (a) 1098 yrs (c) 10.98 yrs (b) 0.270 10 5 (d) 0.000270 (a) -particle (b) -particle (c) 2-neutrons (d) 3-neutrons The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 3 hours. Value of its disintegration constant is [BHU 2002] (a) 0.231 per hr (b) 2.31 per hr (c) 0.2079 per hr (d) 2.079 per hr The activity of carbon-14 in a piece of an ancient wood is only 12.5%. If the half-life period of carbon-14 is 5760 years, the age of the piece of wood will be (log 2 0.3010) (a) 600 gm [CBSE PMT 2001] [CBSE 2002] 10. (a) [MP PET 2001] (a) 0.027 (c) 0.00270 9. [EAMCET 1991] 29.2 10 4 / sec A radioactive nucleide X decays at the rate of 1.00 10 5 disintegration s 1 g 1 . Radium decays at the rate of 3.70 10 10 1 285 (a) 15.6 hours (c) 20.9 hours (b) 156 hours (d) 2.09 hours 25. The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 140 days. After how much time 15 g will decay from 16 g sample of it 26. (a) 140 days (b) 560 days (c) 280 days (d) 420 days Percentage of a radioactive element decayed after 20 sec when halflife is 4 sec [BHU 2003] (a) 92.25 (b) 96.87 (c) 50 (d) 75 [AFMC 2002] 27. Consider an -particle just in contact with a 92 U 238 nucleus. Calculate the coulombic repulsion energy (i.e. the height of the coulombic barrier between U 238 and alpha particle) assuming that the distance between them is equal to the sum of their radii[UPSEAT 2001] (a) 23.8517× 10 4 eV (b) 26.147738 10 4 eV 286 Nuclear Chemistry 28. (c) 25.3522 10 4 eV (d) 20.2254 10 4 eV 3. The half-life period of Pb 210 is 22 years. If 2 gm of Pb 210 is taken, then after 11 years how much of Pb 210 will be left [KCET 2001] (a) 1.414 gm (c) 3.442 gm 29. (b) 2.428 gm (d) 4.456 gm 4. A wood specimen from an archeological centre shows a 14 6 C activity of 5.0 counts/min/gm of carbon. What is the age of the specimen (t1 / 2 for 14 6 C is 5000 years) and a freshly cut wood gives 15 counts/min/gm of carbon 30. 5.78 10 4 years (b) 9.85 10 4 years (c) 7.85 10 3 years (d) 0.85 10 4 years 92 U 235 product+neutron 3.20 10 n fission energy released when 1 g of 92 U 235 11 5. undergoes fission is 31. (b) 18.60 10 9 kJ 12.75 10 8 kJ (c) 8.21 10 7 kJ (d) The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is Assertion : The activity of 1 g pure uranium-235 will be greater than the same amount present as U3 O8 . Reason : In the combined state, the activity of the radioactive element decreases. Assertion : Nuclear forces are called short range forces. Reason : Nuclear forces operate over very small distance Assertion : 7. 6.55 10 6 kJ 32. 15 (a) 6C (b) 6C 12 (c) 6C 14 , 7N (d) 6C 14 , 7 N 14 , 9 F 19 , 7N , 7 N 14 , 9 F 19 14 , 9F 17 , 9F 8. The relative abundance of two isotopes of atomic weight 85 and 87 is 75% and 25% respectively. The average atomic weight of element is [DCE 2003] (a) 75.5 (b) 85.5 (c) 40.0 (d) 86.0 10. Ba e 133 55 of K-capture is Cs X ray. The atomic number decreases by one unit as result of K-capture. Assertion : Radioactive heavy nuclei decay by a series of and / or emission, to form a stable isotope of lead. Reason : Radioactivity is a physical phenomenon. Assertion : Actinium series is so called because it starts with an isotope of actinium. Reason : Actinium is formed in the nature as such and is not formed from the disintegration of any other radioisotope. Assertion : For maximum stability N/P ratio must be equal to 1. Reason : Loss of and particles has no role in N/P ratio. Assertion : Reason : The neutrons are better initiators of nuclear reactions, than the protons, deutrons or particles of the same energy. Neutrons are uncharged particles and hence, they are not repelled by positively charged nucleus. Assertion : 17 9. example : [IIT 1988; DCE 2000;MP PMT 2004] 14 An Reason The [CBSE PMT 1997] (a) Nuclides of the same element of different mass numbers are called isotopes of that element. 133 56 6. J. : i.e., 10 15 m or 1 fermi. [AMU (Engg.) 2002] (a) Reason Breeder reactor produces fissile 94 Pu239 from non-fissile uranium. 11. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below : (a) (c) (d) (e) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. If assertion is true but reason is false. If the assertion and reason both are false. If assertion is false but reason is true. 1. Assertion : Mass number of an atom is equal to total number of nucleons present in the nucleus. Reason : Mass number defines the identity of an atom. Assertion : 1H (b) 2. 1 , 1 H 2 and 1 H 3 are isotopes of hydrogen. 12. 13. 14. Reason : A breeder reactor is one that produces more fissionable nuclei that it consumes. Assertion : The activation energies for fusion reactions are very low. Reason : They require very low temperature to overcome electrostatic repulsion between the nuclei. Assertion : The archeological studies are based on the radioactive decay of carbon-14 isotope. Reason : The ration of C-14 to C-12 in the animals and plants is same as that in the atmosphere. Assertion : Photochemical smog is produce by nitrogen oxides. Reason : Vehicular pollution is a major sources of nitrogen oxides. Assertion : A nuclear binding energy per nucleon is in the order 9 4 Be 73 Li 42 He . Nuclear Chemistry Reason 15. : Assertion : Binding energy per nuclear increases linearly with difference in number of neutrons and protons. 21 a 22 c 23 d 24 b 25 c 26 d 27 d 28 c 29 c 30 a Nuclear fission is always accompanied by release of energy. 31 d 32 c 33 a 34 b 35 a 36 c 37 a 38 acd 39 a Reason : Nuclear fission is a chain process. Assertion : Protones are more effective than neutrons of equal energy in causing artificial disintegration of atoms. [AIIMS 1994] 16. Reason 17. : Assertion Reason A beam of electrons deflects more than a beam of -particles in an electric field. Electrons possess negative charge while particles possess positive charge. : [AIIMS 2002] 18. Assertion Reason Causes of radioactivity and Group displacement law 1 b 2 d 3 d 4 d 5 c 6 c 7 c 8 a 9 b 10 a 11 a 12 c 13 d 14 b 15 a 16 a 17 a 18 a,b,c 19 c 20 c 21 b 22 d 23 d 24 a 25 b 26 d 27 b 28 b 29 b 30 a 31 a 32 a 33 c 34 b 35 a 36 b 37 c 38 b 39 c 40 d 41 a 42 b 43 c 44 c 45 d 46 b 47 b 48 d 49 a 50 d 51 a 52 a 53 d 54 d 55 b 56 a 57 d 58 c 59 c 60 a 61 a 62 c 63 d 64 d 65 a 66 d 67 b 68 c 69 b 70 a 71 c 72 c 73 d 74 a 75 b Neutrons are neutral they penetrate the nucleus.[AIIMS 1998] : 22 11 : Na emits a position giving 22 12 Mg . In emission neutron is transformed into proton. [AIIMS 1994] : 287 Nucleus (Stability and Reaction) Rate of decay and Half-life 1 b 2 b 3 a 4 a 5 b 6 d 7 b 8 c 9 c 10 d 1 c 2 a 3 b 4 a 5 d 11 b 12 c 13 c 14 c 15 c 6 a 7 d 8 d 9 d 10 c a 12 d 13 d 14 a 15 c 16 c 17 d 18 c 19 a 20 b 11 21 b 22 a 23 b 24 d 25 c 16 d 17 b 18 c 19 b 20 a 26 c 2