ORAL MEDICINE
1. Preponderance of evidence indicates
that anug:
a. Endogenous infection and it is
not communicable
b. Infection is exogenous
c. Caused by systemic diseases
d. is acute coccal infection
7. The virus which belong to
Herpes group:
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Varicella zoster
c. Epstein barr virus
d. All of the above
2. Oral herp angina is
Caused by:
a. Herpes simplex
b. varicella zoster
c. cox sacxie
d. Papilloma virus
8. Behchets disease was described as a
triad of symptoms including
a. Burning mouth, genital ulcer, eye lesion
b. Oral lesions, oral bleeding, oral halitosis
c. Genital ulcer, eye lesion, bleeding mouth
d. Recurrent oral ulcers, recurrent genital ulcer
eye lesion
9. Pemphigus is
a. inflammatory disease
b. ulcerative disease
c. Auto immune disease
d. Collagen disease
3. Hand,foot and mouth disease
most investigators as
a. cox sacxie A6 virus
b. HSV
c. Papilloma virus
d. Pox virus
4. Target lesion in skin occurs in
a. Pemphigus
b. Erythema multiforme
c. Psoriosis
d. HSV
5. Oral allergic reaction to systemically
administered drugs is called
a. Allergic stomatitis
b. Stomatitis medicamentosa
c. Stomatitis venninata
d. Fixed drug eruption
6. One of the most common side effects
of anti cancer drugs is
a. Excess salivation
b. Multiple oral ulcers
10. In Pemphigus the characteristic sign
of the disease is that pressure to an
apparently normal area will result in
the formation of a new lesion
This phenomenon is called:
a. Auspitz sign
b. Nickolsky’s sign
c. Bell’s sign
d. Kobner’s sign
11. In Bullous pemphigoid the initial defect
causing bulla is in
a. Intra epithelial
b. At basement membrane
c. Sub epithelial
d. Superficial epithelium
c. White patches in oral mucosa
d. Oral bleeding
12. Nickolsky’s sign is absent in:
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Pemphigus vegetans
c. Bullous pemphigus
d. Pemphigus folliaceous
18. Oral carcinoma is associated with
a. Reticular LP
b. Bullous LP
c. Pigmented LP
d. Erosive LP
13. Cicatricial pemphigus is also
known as:
a. Bullous pemphigoid
b. Benign mucous memberane
pemphigoid
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Mucous memberane pemphigoid
19. If a drug come into contact with oral
mucosa and produces allergy it is called
a .Allergic stomatitis
b. Fixed drug eruption
c. Stomatitis medicamentosa
d. Stomatitis vennata
14. Desquamative gingivitis is not
a disease but a sign of
a. Erosive LP
b. Pemphigus vulgaris
c. Cicatricial pemphigoid
d. All the above
20. Varicella zoster causing herpes zoster
a. DNA virus
b. RNA virus
c. EBV
d. HIV
15. The most common cause of
a single ulcer in the
oral mucosa is:
a. Infection
b. Idiopathic
c. Allergy
d. Trauma
21. Leukoplakia is a
a. Inflammatory disease
b. Keratotic lesion
c. Malignant lesion
d. Syphilitic lesion
16. Immmunosupressed patients
may develop
a. Acute herpes
b. Recurrent herpes
c. Chronic form of herpes infection
d. Herpes zoster
22. Fordyce’s granules in buccal mucosa is due
to incorporation of:
a. Mucous glands
b. Serous glands
c. Sebaceous glands
d. Mixed glands.
17. Idoxuridin is a drug of choice for
a. Herpes
b. Vincents disease
c. Oral cancer
d. Oral lupus erythematosus
d. Inflammatory exudates
23. Oral burns are due to:
a. keratinization
b. Precipitation of tissue proteins of oral
mucosa
c. Injury caused by heat
24. Pizza burn in palate is caused by
a. Melted cheese and hot sauce
b. Hot drink
c. Asprin application
d. Clove oil application
d. Excess bleeding
30. Chronic oral hyperplastic candidiasis
may cause
a. Ulcerated growth
b. Erosions in mucosa
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
25. Measles virus cause
31. For oral fungal infection the following
anti fungal drugs is administered
systemically as:
a. Mycostatin ointment
b. Ketaconazole
c. Gentian violet
a. Cafe au lait spots
b. Koplik’s spot
c. Fordyce’s spot
d. Beauty spot
d. Hexidine
26. Candida infection is
associated with:
a. Keratotic white patch
b. Non keratotic white patch
c. Both a and b
d. White patch caused due
less vascularity
32. Stomatitis nicotina is a specific lesion
that developes on the:
a. Palate
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Tongue
d. Gingiva
27. Acute pseudo memberanous
candidiasis is called
a. Thrush
b. Atrophic candidiasis
c. Hypertrophic candidiasis
d. Candidial granuloma
d. Candidial white patch
28. Candidia species in oral cavity
are
a. Transmitted from other individual
b. Normal inhabitants of oral flora
c. Associated with bacterial infection
d. Developed as pathogenic organism in the mouth
33. An isolated area of white patch in the oral
mucosa associated with chronic irritation
of sharp tooth is called:
a. Homogenous leukoplakia
b. Speckled leukoplakia
c. Frictional keratosis
34. Intra epithelial micro abscess called
monro’s abscess is found in
a. Pemphigus
b. Psoriasis
c. Pyostomatitis
d. Erythema multiforme
29. Predisposing factors for
oral candidiasis
a. Denture irritants
35. White spongy nevus is a
a. Vascular lesion
b. Genodermatosis
b. Steroid therapy
c. Immunosuppresant
d. All of the above
c. White patch that is scrappable
d. Multiple ulcerated white lesion
36. Leukoedema is a
a. Variation of the normal mucosa
b. Non scrappable white patch
c. Swelling in the oral mucosa
d. A true pathological condition
42. Oral candidiasis is caused by
a. Yeast like fungus
b. Saprophytic fungus
c. Mycosis fungus
d. Dimorphic fungus
37. Warty or cauliflower like growth is
a. Papilloma
b. Fibroma
c. Lipoma
d. Hemangioma
43. Denture stomatitis is
a. Chronic atrophic candidiasis
b. Acute candidiasis
c. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
d. Denture irritation
38.Horizontal streak on the
buccal mucosa at the level
of occlusal plane
a. Frictional keratosis
b. Reticular plannar
c. Linea alba
d. Early leukoplakia
44. Median rhomboid glossitis is now
considered as
a. Developmental abnormality
b. Chronic candidiasis
c. Nutritional deficiency
d. Acute candidasis
39. Tobacco pouch keratosis
occurs due to
a. Smoking tobacco
b. Smokeless tobacco
c. Betel nut
d. Pan masala
45. Oral candidiasis is the most frequent
opportunistic infection associated with
a. Immunocomprimised patients
b. Diabetic patients
c. Hormonal deficiency
d. Gastro intestinal problem
40. Numerous elevated papules
with punctate red centers that
are red in color in palatal mucosa
a. Erythro leukoplakia
b. Erythroplakia
c. Nicotina stomatitis
d. Siladenosis of palatal mucosa
46. Mucous patches occurs in
a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Tertiary syphilis
d. Latent syphilis
41. Oral hairy leukoplakia
occurs in tongue due to
a. EBV
47. Thick white lesion with papillary
surface in oral mucosa is
a. Homogenous leukoplakia
b. Herpes virus
c. HIV
d. Papilloma virus
b. Speckled leukoplakia
c. Veruccous leukoplakia
d. Preleukoplakia
48. Bright red velvety plaque or patch
which cannot be characterized
clinically is
a. Erythroleukoplakia
b. Erythroplakia
c. Carcinoma
d. Erythema
54. Para neoplastic pemphigus is
a. variant of pemphigus associated with
non hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Variant of pemphigus vegetans
c. Sub epithelial dermatosa
d. A benign neoplasm
49. Oral lichen planus is a
a. Chronic immunological
inflammatory mucocutaneous
lesion
b. Dermal lesion
c. Drug reaction
d. Due to diabetes
55. Actinic chelitis is
a. Malignant lesion
b. Mucocutaneous lesion
c. Potentially malignant lesion
d. Due to excessive heat in food.
50. Lichenoid reaction is
a. Variant of lichen planus
b. Drug induced lesion
c. Chronic irritation
d. A type of burn
c. Frictional keratosis
d. White spongy nevus
56. A white patch on oral mucosa
non scrappable not attributed to any
diagnosable condition
a. Leukoplakia
b. Mono nucleosis
51. OSMF is associated with
a. Burning sensation of mouth
b. Formation of vesicles
c. stiffening of oral mucosa
d. All the above
57. A 3 cm squamous cell carcinoma of the
retromolar trigone invading mandible &
medial pterygoid muscle is at what TNM
stage
a. Stage III
b. Stage I
c. Stage IV
d. Stage II
52. Hemangiomas are
a. Hamartomas
b. Teratoma
c. Choristoma
d. Neoplasia
58. The clinical sign of OSMF is
a. Vertical fibrous bands in buccal mucosa
b. Horizontal fibrous bands in buccal mucosa
c. Vertical fibrous bands in labial mucosa
d. Horizontal bands in labial mucosa
53. Patchy melanosis of
oral mucosa occurs in
a. Addison’s disease
b. Brown’s tumour of
hyperparathyroidism
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyper pituitarism
59. Wickham’s striae is present in
a. Reticulate LP
b. Bullous LP
c. Ulcerated LP
d. All of the above
60. The triad oral lichen planus,
diabetic mellitus and
hypertension called
a. Plummer syndrome
b. Patterson Kelly syndrome
c. Treachercollin syndrome
d. Grinspan’s syndrome.
66. Giant cell epulis in oral cavity is
a. Inflammtory hyperplasia
b. Neoplasia of gingival
c. Dysplastic growth
d. Metaplasia
61. Circumoral pigmentation with
intestinal polyposis occurs in
a. Crohn’s disease
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Lead poisoning
d. Peutz jegher’s syndrome
67. Hamartomas are tumour like lesions of
a. Tissue native to the site with particular
histological tissue
b. Tissue not native to the site
c. Different types of tissues
d. Only vascular tissues
62. In carotenemia,excessive levels
of carotene in oral mucosa shows
a. Orange to yellow color
b. Black blue color
c. Mild yellow
d. Red color
68. Angiomatous lesion in the face
in the trigeminal area is found in
a. Angiomatous syndrome
b. Osler weber rendu syndrome
c. Sturge weber syndrome
d. Von hipple syndrome
63. Grey black lead line in gingival
is seen in
a. Bismuthism
b. Plumbism
c. Mecurialism
d. Argyria
69. Congenital macroglossia occurs in
a. Hemangioma
b. Lymphangioma
c. Amyloidosis
d. All the above
64. Auric stomatits is due to the
use of
a. Lead
b. Bismuth
c. Silver salts
d. Gold salts
70. Granular cell myoblastoma in child is:
a. Fibrous epulis
b. Giant cell epulis
c. Congenital epulis
d. Myloid epulis
65. The outstanding symptom of
phosphorous poisoning
a. Stomatitis
b. Excessive salivation
c. Osteomyelitis of the jaw
d. Burning sensation of the mouth
71. Inflammatory gingival enlargement is
caused by
a. Poor oral hygiene
b. Accumalation of calculus
c. Malposed teeth
d. All of the above
72. Hyperkeratosis palmoplantaris,
premature exfoliation of teeth
occurs in
a. Hypophosphatasia
b. Papillon lefevere syndrome
c. Struge weber syndrome
d. Cross syndrome
78. Lesions of herpangina in mouth occurs
a. All over the mouth
b. Palatal mucosa
c. Pharynx and posterior
portion of oral mucosa
d. Dorsal mucosa
73. Dilantin sodium for the treatment
of epilepsy causes
a. Inflammaory gingival enlargement
b. Fibrotic gingival enlargement
c. Soft,smooth bleeding gingival enlargement
d. Multiple gingival growths
79. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
occurs due to
a. Cox sacxie virus
b. Zoster virus
c. EBV
d. Virus that has affinity towards lymphnode
74. Cervicofacial actinomycosis is
caused by
a. Bacteria
b. Fungus
c. Virus
d. Protozoa.
80. Erythema multiforme appears with
a. Several types of skin and mucosal lesions
b. Develops with vesicles and bulla
c. Associated with erythema and edema
d. All of the above
75. Multiple sinuses associated
with pigmentation of skin in
cervico facial region occur in
a. Pyogenic osteomyelitis
b. Tuberculo osteomyelitis
c. Syphillitc osteomyelitis
d. Actinomycosis osteomyelitis.
76. Epithelial elevation in skin or
mucosa containing clear fluid
over 1cm is
81. Borellia vincenti and fusobacterium causes
a. Acute gingivitis with vincents infection
b. Acute gingival enlargement
c. Ulcerative gingivitis
d. ANUG
82. Pediadenitis mucosa necrotica
recurrence is
a. Major aphthous ulcer
a. Cyst
b. Nodule
c. Inflammatory swelling
d. Bulla
77. One of the following viruses
belong to Herpes virus
a. Cox sacxie virus
b. Paramyxo virus
c. EBV
d. CMV
b. Minor apthous ulcer
c. Herpetiform ulcer
d. Recurrent apthous ulcer
83. Oral mucosal involvement is
of little consequences in the
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Pemphigus vegetans
c. Pemphigus foliaceous
d. Pemphigoid
84. Pemphigus vulgaris results
from destruction of
a. Intercellular substances in
Prickle cell layer of epithelium
b. Basal cell destruction
c. Superficial epithelial cell destruction
d. Suprabasilar cell destruction
89. Diagnosis of mucormycosis in
histopathology is the presence of
a. spores
b. Septate of hyphae
c. Non septate hyphae
d. Multiple hyphae
85. Nickolsky’s sign is associated with
a. Lichen planus
b. EM
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Psoriasis
90. Uremic stomatitis is
a. Keratotic white lesion
b. Non keratotic white lesion
c. Pseudomemberanous white lesion
d. Pale mucosal white lesion
86. Tzanck’s test is
a. Histopathological study
b. Cytological study
c. Immunological study
d. Biochemical study
91.Bullous pemphigoid is
a. Pigmented lesion
b. Supraepithelial lesion
c. Subepithelial lesion
d. Intra epithelial lesion
87. Bullous pemphigoid can be
treated with
a. Anti allergic drug
b. Antibiotic
c. Corticosteroids
d. Sulphonamides
92. The most common sign of mucormycosis is
a. Ulceration of palate
b. Ulceration of tongue
c. Ulceration of floor of mouth
d. Ulceraton of buccal mucosa
93. Chemical injuries of oral mucosa
88. Blastomycosis is caused by
occurs as ulcers due to
a. Histoplama capsulatum
b. Saprophytic fungi
c. Blastomycosis dermatidis
d. All of the above organisms
a. Asprin
b. Silver nitrate
c. Sodium hypochlorite
d. All the above
94. Linear white lesion on the dorsolateral
tongue among non tobacco chewers
a. Idiopathic leukoplakia
b. Galvanic reaction leukoplakia
c. To tell the patient about the disease
d. Hairy leukoplakia
101. The importance of diagnosis
a. To identify the signs and symptoms of
the disease
b. White hairy tongue
c. To plan treatment for the disease
d. To get more knowledge to doctors
95. The majority of the acute
oral candidiasis infection responds to
a. Topical mycostatin
b. Systemic ketoconazole
c. Anti fungal mouth wash
d. B complex therapy
102. Identification of disease by clinical
signs and symtoms
a. Clinical diagnosis
b. Provisional diagnosis
c. Differential diagnosis
d. Final diagnosis
96. Ectopic geographic tongue occurs
a. Dorsum of tongue
b. Ventral surface of tongue
c. Lateral border of tongue
d. On buccal mucosa
d. Differential diagnosis
103. Rapid and immediate diagnosis of
disease based on minimal data is
a. Provisional diagnosis
b. Therapeutic diagnosis
c. Spot diagnosis
97. Pachynochia congenita has
a. Thickening of finger nails and toe nails
b. Palmoplantar and follicular keratosis
c. Leukor keratosis
d. All the above
104. Physical appearance of patient includes
a. Height and weight
b. Speech and anxiety
c. Gait and deformity
d. All of the above
98. Retenoids are used for
a. Candidiasis
b. Leukoplakia
c. Chemical burns
d. Thermal burns
105. Review of organ systems in oral diagnosis
is necessary to
a. Identify the oral disease due to systemic
disease
b. To eliminate the systemic disease
c. To satisfy the patient
d. All of the above
99. Carcinoma in situ is
a. Mild dysplasia in epithelium
b. Moderate dysplasia of epithelium
c. More severe grade of dysplasia
d. Severe hyperplasia of epithelium
100. Fibroelastic changes of lamina
propria of oral mucosa occurs in
a. Lupus erythmatosus
b. Bullosa dystrophica
c. OSMF
d. Degeneration of fibrous tissue.
108. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
develops due to
a. Kidney disease
b. Parathyroid disease
c. Bone disease
d. Liver disease
106. Osteomalacia is a bone disease due to
a. Vitamin A deficiency
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C deficiency
d. Vitamin D deficiency
107. Hypercalcium occurs in
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Hypoparathyroidism
d. Hypothyroidism
114. Recurrent and multiple paradental
abscess occurs in
a. Poor oral hygiene with suppuration
b. Diabetes
c. Advance periodontitis
d. Periodentoelasia
109. Osteitis fibrosa cystic in jaw occurs in
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Basal cell nevi syndrome
c. Multiple cystic cavities
d. Hypothyroidism
115. In gigantism
a. 50% of individual have macrodontia
b. Few have microdontia
c. Malformed teeth will be present
d. Size of teeth not affected
110. During development of teeth if
hypoparathyroidism develop,it causes
a. Hyperplasia of teeth
b. Hypoplasia of teeth
c. Discolouration of teeth
d. Mobility of teeth
116. In acromegaly, one of the
following will be absent
a. Macrodontia
b. Macrognathia
c. Macrochelia
d. Macroglossia
111. Children with hyperparathyroidism has
a. Premature loss of deciduous teeth
b. Delayed exfoliation of teeth
c. Delayed formation of deciduous teeth
d. Absence of deciduous teeth
117. Cushings disease occurs in
a. Hyperadrenocortisum
b. Hypo adrenocortisum
c. Diabetic
d. Osteoporosis
112. In cretinism
a. Delayed eruption of teeth
b. Early eruption of teeth
c. Early loss of teeth
118. Oral pigmentation is a sign of
a. Addisons disease
b. Cushings syndrome
c. Acromegaly
d. All of the above
d. Cretinism
113. In cretinism patient will have
a. Macroglossia
b. Microglossia
c. Aglossia
d. Ankyloglossia
119. Pregnancy gingivitis occurs
a. All pregnant women
b. 90% of pregnantwomen
c. Pregnant women with dietary deficiency
d. 35 to 50% of pregnant women
120. The important clinical sign of
menopause gingivitis is
a. Desquamation of gingiva
b. Necrotic ulcer of the gingiva
c. Enlarged gingiva
d. Receeded gingiva
d. Osteoporosis
125.Toxic manifestation of body structure
in excess fluoride ingestion of more than
3ppm
a. Dental fluorosis
b. Skeletal fluorosis
c. Both dental and skeletal fluorosis
121. Post menopausal chronic
desquamative gingivitis is caused by
a. Estrogen deprivation
b. Androgen deprivation
c. Both estrogen and androgen deprivation
d. Steroid deprivation
126. In dental fluorosis the following cell
is disturbed
a. Osteoblast
b. Ameloblast
c. Cementoblast
d.osteoclast
122. Wearing away of tooth structure in
incisal and occlusal surface due to
mastication is
a. Abrasion
b. Destruction
c. Erosion
d. Attrition
127. Scattered multiple small sized
whole spots or flecks are seen in
a. Mild dental fluorosis
b. Moderate dental fluorosis
c. Severe dental fluorosis
d. very severe fluorosis
123. Loss of labial surface of enamel
due to abnormal mechanical force is
a. Attrition
b. Abrasion
c. Erosion
128. The color changes from moderate
to severe dental fluorosis is
a. White
b. Yellow
c. Brown
d. Destruction
124. Loss of tooth structure in the cervical
Part of enamel
a. Attrition
b. Abrasion
c. Erosion
d. Destruction
d. Yellowish white
129. Dental fluorosis is
a. Pandemic disease
b. Epidemic disease
c. Endemic disease
d. Endemic and pandemic disease
130. Clinical appearance with bulbous crown
of teeth with opalescent hue and bluish
brown color are features of
a. Amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Odontogenesis imperfecta
131. Dentinogenesis imperfect associated
with blue sclera and bone deformity is
called
a. Osteogenesis imperfect
b. Odontogenesis imperfect
c. Osteitis cystic fibrosis
d. Paget’s disease
137. Amalgam tattoo appears
a. Mass of amalgam
b. A solitary or focal pigmentation
in the oral mucosa
c. Blackish red patch
d. Brown discolouration
132. Necrotic punched out ulceration in
interdental papilla of gingival occurs in
a. HSV infection
b. HZ infecton
c. ANUG
d. Gangrenous stomatitis
138. Oral pigmentation may be
a. Focal
b. Diffused
c. Multifocal
d. All the above
133. Periodontium manifestation in AIDS
a. linear gingival erythema
b.NUG
c. NUP
d. All the above
d. Pigmentation blood vessels
139. Hamartoma are cellular
proliferation of cells
a. Native to that site
b. Other tissues
c. Multiple tissues
134. Cancrum oris in children is
a. Fulminating form of ulcerative
stomatitis related to ANUG
b. Chronic suppurative lesion
c. Necrosis and gangerene due to
140. Suprabasilar acantholysis with cleft in
epithelium is diagnostic feature of
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
c. Bullous pemphigoid
fungus
d. Chronic gangrenous stomatitis
d. Cicatricial pemphigoid
135. The most common neoplastic process
to accompany HIV infection is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Squamous papilloma
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. Fibrosarcoma
136. Characteristic mulitiple round or
oval purple papules measuring less
than 0.5 cm in diameter is
a. Melanotic freckles
b. Heamorrhagic vesicles
c. Hereditary heamorrhagic
telengectasiasis
d. Multiple nevus spots
143. Lichen planus with small pin head
sized hemispherical raised glistening
white spots
a. Reticular variety
b. Papular variety
c. Plaque variety
d. Annular variety
144. Allergy may manifest itself in the
mouth in the form of allergic stomatitis
which occurs as
a. Allergic chelitis
b. Allergic gingivitis
c. Allergic glossitis
d. All the above
141. Large purpuric lesion is called
a. Petechiae
b. Ecchymosis
c. Hematoma
d. Hemorrhagic vesicle
145. Angineurotic edema is
a. Developmental swelling of the
blood vessel
b. Developmental swelling of
blood veeels and nerves
c. Allergic swelling with fluid accumulation
d. Traumatic swelling with fluid accumulation
149. Post herpetic neuralgia is found in
a. Herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster
c. Herpangina
d. Herpetic gingivitis
142. Viruses that are known to cause
oral mucosal lesions are
a. HSV1
b. HSV2
c. Varicella zoster
d. All the above
147. Lab tests are useful in diagnosis of
primary herpes infection
a. Cytology
b. HSV isolation
c. Antibody titre
d. All the above
148. Unilateral vesicles along the course of
nerve in orofacial region occurs in
a. Herpes simplex
b. Secondary herpes
c. Herpangina
d. Herpes zoster
150. Herpes zoster of geniculate ganglion
146. Recurrent herpes will develop in
with bells palsy occurs in
a. Individual suffering from viral infection
a. Melckerson rosanthal syndrome
b. Ramsay hunt syndrome
b. Individuals with recurrent aphthous ulcer
c. Freys auricular syndrome
c. Individuals who have experienced primary
herpes
d. Individual with immune suppression
d. Eagles syndrome
151. Steven Johnson syndrome is due to
a. Allergy
b. Infection
c. Acute inflammation
d. Acute drug reaction
152. Denture sore mouth is
a. Chronic atrophic candidiasis
b. Acute atrophic candidiasis
c. Hypertrophic candidiasis
d. Candidial granuloma
d. Mikulicz disease
153. Reiters syndrome is a triad of
a. Stomatitis,dermatitis,conjunctivitis
b. Urethritis,conjunctivitis,arthritis
c. Dermatitis,conjunctivitis,urethritis
d. Stomatitis,conjunctivitis,dermatitis
d. Sarcoidosis
154. True abberent salivary glands are more
frequent reported
a. In cervical region near parotid gland
b. In submandibular region
c. In sublingual region
d. In palatal region
159. A systemic granulomatous disease that
affects the parotid gland is called
a. Sialadenosis
b. Sialometaplasia
c. Sarcoidiosis
161. Sjogren’s syndrome is included
in the list of
a. Autoimmune disease
b. Genetically determined disease
c. Immunosuppressive disease
d. Degenerative disease
155. Sialolith occurs most frequently in
a. Submandibular duct
b. Parotid duct
c. Sublingual duct
d. Ducts of minor salivary glands
162. Ranula is a large mucocoele found in
a. Floor of the mouth
b. Base of the tongue
c. Edge of the tongue
d. Swelling of the duct
156. Mucocele is a swelling caused by
163. Necrotizing sialometaplasia is a
160. Non neoplastic ,non inflammatory,
salivary gland enlargement is called
a. Sialadenitis
b. Sialometaplasia
c. Sialdenosis
a. Chemical injury
b. Accumulation of blood
c. Pooling of saliva due to injury to
minor salivary glands
d. Salivary gland swelling seen at the
base of the tongue
a. Reactive inflammatory disorder of
the salivary gland
b. Necrosis of salivary gland
c. Degenerative disease
d. Neoplastic disease
157. Necrotising sialometaplasia is an
inflammatory swelling tha affects
a. Minor salivary glands
b. Major salivary glands
c. Both a and b
d. Ectopic salivary gland
d .Toxic sialdenitis
158. Mumps affect
a. Salivary gland
b. Gonads
c. CNS
d. All the above
166. Premature exfoliation of anterior
primary teeth occurs in:
a. Hypophosphatasia
b. Hyperphosphatasia
c. Hyper phosphatemia
d. Hyper calcemia
164. Exposure to various drugs causes
enlargement of salivary glands
with itching is called:
a. Suppurative sialadenitis
b. Allergic sialdenitis
c. Degenerative sialdenitis
165. Mumps is caused by:
a. Pox virus
b. Para myxo virus
c. Myxo virus
d. CMV
172. Geniculate neuralgia affects
a. Cranial nerve V
b. Cranial nerve VI
c. Cranial nerve VII
d. Cranial nerve IX
167. Small white lesions along the mid palatal
raphae in the new born can be
diagnosed as
a. Epstein pearls
b. Epithelial pearls
c. Torus palatinus
d. Hyperplasia of mucosa
173. Paroxysmal pain is felt in the ear,
tonsils,side of tongue,lateral wall
of pharynx in
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Geniculate neuralgia
c. Hypoglossal neuralgia
d. Glossopharyngial neuralgia
168. Migrane is:
a. Neural origin
b. Dermal origin
c. Vascular origin
d. Intracranial origin
174. Post herpetic neuralgia is presented
Clinically as
a. Intermittent pain
b. Chronic pain
c. Continous burning pain
d. No pain
169. Paroximal pain of neuropathic
origin may affect cranial nerve
175. Altered taste and diminished
taste sensation is
a.V
b.VII
c. IX
d.all the above
a. Partial anesthesia of tongue
b. Injury to the nerve
c. Dysgeusia
d. Dysphagia
170. Pain is limited to the anatomic
distribution of the affected
in
a. Tic doloureux
b. Herpes zoster
c. Migrane
d. Injury to the nerve
176. Orofacial pain that does not confirm to
nerve recognized anatomic pathway in
distribution is called
a. Pain due to herpes simplex
b. Atypical orofacial pain
c. Pain due to physical injury
d. Pain due to herpes zoster
171. Most cases of tic doloureux
respond to the treatment of
a. Carbamazipine
b. Brufen
c. Steroids
d. Tranqulizers
177. Dysphagia is caused in plummer Vinson
syndrome due to
a. Inflammation of pharyngeal mucosa
b. Esophageal web
c. Carcinomatous growth
d. Narrow esophagus
178. The oral manifestation of hepatitis is
a. Bad breath from mouth
b. Icterus of oral mucosa
c. Reddish erythematous mucosa
d. Frequent vomiting
d.EBV
179. Oral granulomatous lesion occurs in
a. Crohns disease
b. Intestinal disease
c. Peutz jeghers syndrome
d. Gastric disease
d. Plasma cell in bone marrow
180. Ammonia cal taste and smell in
oral cavity occurs in
a. Stomach disease
b. Lung disease
c. Liver disease
d. Kidney disease
185. Burkits lymphoma is the human cancer
that is most commonly linked with
a. Papilloma virus
b. HIV
c.CMV
181. Oral manifestation in renal
transplantation is
a. Metallic taste
188. Pharyngeal and intra oral carcinomas
are common among the patients with:
a. AIDS
186. Multiple myeloma in the bone is the
malignant neoplasm of :
a. Osteoblast of the bone marrow
b. Osteocyte of the bone
c. Osteoclast of the bone
187. Kissing’s disease is caused by
a. HIV virus
b. Herpes labialis virus
c. EBV
d. Varicella zoster virus
b. Odour of urea in blood
c. Dry mouth
d. All of the above
b. Plummer vinson’s syndrome
c. Ramsay hunt syndrome
d. Papillon levefre syndrome
182. The most common oral sign of
neutropenia is
a. Burning sensation of oral mucosa
b. Multiple growths of mucosa
c. Ulceration of oral mucosa
d. Pigmentation of mucosa
189. Papillary squamous cell carcinoma is
a. An exophytic papillary lesion
b. An endophytic growth
c. Papillary projection of rete pegs
d. Consists of multiple papillomatous growths
183. Oral manifestation of leukemia is
a. Gingival bleeding and enlargement
b. Burning sensation
c. Localized gingival growth
d. Mild gingivitis
190. Treatment of oral carcinoma includes
a. Radiotherapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. Surgery
d. All the above
184. Hodgkins disease is
a. Benign neoplasm of lymphnode
b. Malignant lymphatic tissue
c. Developmental abnormality of lymphnode
d. A disease that will spread to the brain
d. Melano carcinoma
191. Sun exposure is considered the
principle etiological factor of
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Veruccous carcinoma
192. Post radiation complication in
oral carcinoma is
a. Inflammation of bone
b. Thickening of bone
c. Osteoradio necrosis
d. Osteo porosis
memberane
198. Carcinoma in situ in oral mucosa have
a. Severe epithelial hyperplasia
b. Intermittent dysplasia
c. Dysplasia in the entire thickness of
epithelium
d. Dysplasia with break in basement
193. Osteosarcoma in the mandible
is characterized by:
a. Formation of bone on osteoid
tissue by tumour cells
b. Proliferation of fibroblasts
c. Neural involvement with loss of
Sensation
d. Fast proliferating with bleeding
tendency
199. Squamous cell carcinoma is
charcterised by
a. Dysplasia of epithelium
b. Broad rete pegs with dysplastic cells
c. Disruption of basement memberane
by nests of abnormal cells.
d. Peripherally spreading dysplastic cells
194. TNM classification means:
200. Gingival enlargement due to poor oral
a. Size of the tumour
b. Node metastasis
c. Distant metastasis
d. All of the above
d. All the above
195. The potentially malignant
condition of oral mucosa is :
a. Pemphigus
b. Psoriaisis
c. Aphthous ulcer
d. OSMF
hygiene and food impaction in
a. Chronic hyperplastic gingivitis
b. Acute hyperplastic gingivitis
c. Subacute hyperplastic gingivitis
201. Fibrotic gingival enlargement
occurs during treatment with
a. Phenytoin
b. Cyclosporine
c. Nifedipine
d. All the above
196. Oral carcinoma is one of the most
prevalent cancer and is one of the:
a. 5 most common cause of death
b. 10 most common cause of death
c. 20 most common cause of death
d. 30 most common cause of death.
197. In advanced oral cancer the lymph
node is
a. Soft and movable
b. Hard and movable
c. Hard and fixed
d. Enlarged and tender
204. Most common malignancy in
Males in India is
a. Lung cancer
b. Prostrate cancer
c. Oral cancer
d. Brain cancer
d. Lichen planus
202.Treatment with calcium channel blockers
cause
a. Inflammatory gingival enlargement
b. Fibrotic gingival enlargement
c. Soft gingival enlargement
d. Bleeding gingival enlargement
203. Severe gingival enlargement
can also take place in
a. Papillon-lefever syndrome
b. Struge-weber syndrome
c. Plummer-vincent syndrome
d. Idiopathic gingival enlargement
210. White lesion that involves oral mucosa
that cannot be classified as another
lesion both clinically and histologically
a. Leukoplakia
b. Idiopathic keratosis
c. Frictional keratosis
205. The risk factors of oral and
oro-pharyngeal carcinoma
a. Tobacco
b. Tobacco and alcohol
c. Smoking tobacco
d. Smokeless tobacco
211. An immunologically mediated
mucocutaneous lesion is
a. Leukoplakia
b. Lichen planus
c. White spongy nevus
d. Psoriasis
206. Morphologically altered tissue in
which cancer is more likely to occur is
a. Pre cancer
b. Pre cancerous lesion
c. Pre malignant condition
212. Vertically folded white patch most
frequently seen on the lateral border
of the tongue is
a. Oral hairy leukoplakia
b. Papillomatous growth
d. Pre cancerous condition
d. Sessile papilloma
c. Papilloma
207. Lesion in which abnormal cells involve
only the entire epithelium is
a. Hyperplasia
b. Dysplasia
c. Severe dysplasia
d. Carcinoma in situ
213. The consistency of lymph node in
oral squamous cell carcinoma is
a. Soft
b. Firm
c. Firm to hard
d. All the above
208.TNM classification T denotes
a. Tumor
b. Size of tumor
c. Shape of tumor
d. Site of tumor
214. The common fungal infection in AIDS is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Candidiasis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Herpangina
209. High risk of progression to squamous
cell carcinoma occurs in
a. Verrucous leukoplakia
b. Proliferative leukoplakia
c. Diffuse leukoplakia
d. Leukoerythroplakia
215. Calcified stones that lie
within the blood vessels is
a. Pleolith
b. Phelbolith
c. Haemolith
d. Vascularlith
216. The most common site for involvement
of sialolith 80-90% is in
a. Submandibular gland
b. Parotid gland
c. Sublingual gland
d. Mucous salivary gland
222.Osteoarthritis of TMJ joint is
a. Degenrative condition
b. Degenarative condition accompanied
by secondary inflammation
c. Condition due to occlusal traumatism
d. Collagen disorder
217. Swelling caused by accumulation of
saliva
a. Odema of salivary gland
b. Cyst
c. Mucocele
d. Abscess in salivary gland
223. In TMD nocturnal bruxing is thought to
aggrevate
a. Pain symptom
b. Jaw movement restriction
c. Jaw deviation
d. Jaw sound
218. Necrotising sialometaplasia of salivary
tissue
a. Self limiting disease
b. Requires chemotherapy
224. Intracapsular disorders of TMJ joint
a. Anterior disc displacement with reduction
b. Anterior disc displacement without
reduction
c. Requires radiotherapy
d. Requires surgery
c. Posterior disc displacement
d. All the above
219. Pilocarpin HCL is approved specifically
for the relief of
a. Xerostomia
b. Ptyalism
c. Sialorrhea
d. Sialolithiasis
d. Steroids
220. Sarciodosis is chronic granuloma causing
destruction of tissue with association of
a. T lymphocytes and mononuclear phagocytes
b. Tuberculous bacilli
c. B lymphocytes
d. Monocytes
d. Dislocation
221. In TMJ joint the space between the
condyle and mandibular fossa
are separated by
a. Fibrous capsule
b. Synovial membrane
c. Articular cartilage
d. Articular disc
225. Degenerative disease of TMJ can
be treated better by
a. Non- steroidal anti-inflammatory
medication
b. Anti spasmatic drug
c. Antibiotic drugs
228. Orofacial pain is
a. A disease
b. Sign of a disease
c. Symptom of disease
d. Both sign and symptom
d. That has no detectable cause
229. Pain in trigeminal neuralgia is
characterized as
a. Continous throbbing pain
b. Brief episodes of shooting electrical shock
like pain along the course of nerve
c. Localized pain aggrevates and intermittent
nature
d. Continuos pain reffered to other parts
234. Burning mouth syndrome is reffered
for describing oral burning due to
a. Nutritional deficiency
b. In neuropathy
c. Glossodynia
230. The nerve that rarely affects
trigeminal neuralgia is
236. The artery involved in giant cell arteritis
that cause inflammation and pain is
226. If condyle is positioned anterior to
the articular eminence and cannot
return to normal position it is called as
a. Subluxation
b. Ankylosis
c. Fracture condyle
227. Fusion of the head of the condyle to
the temporal bone is
a. Ankylosis
b. Arthrosis
c. Dislocation
d. Fracture with malunioun
235. Facial pain can develop from
a. Vascular structure
b. Nerves
c. Muscular structure
d. All of the above
a. Mandibular narve
b. Maxillary nerve
c. Opthalmic nerve
d. All the above
a. Maxillary artery
b. Facial artery
c. Temporal artery
d. Opthalmic artery
231. Drug of choice for trigeminal
neuralgia
a. Brufen
b. Paracetamol
c. Carbamazepine
d. Tranqulizer
237. Cluster headache is
a. Unilteral haed pain around the eye
b. Bilateral throbbing pain
c. Continous headache
d. Headache due to intracranial lesion
232. Trigeminal neuralgia is
otherwise called as
a. Atypical facial neuralgia
b. Idiopathic neuralgia
c. Tic doloreux
d. Psychogenic pain
238. Migraine headache with pain in face
is due to damage of
a. Neural structure
b. Vascular structure
c. Muscular structure
d. Cranial structure
233. Facial pain is triggered by
stimulating the pharengeal
mucosa in
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Glossopharengial neuralgia
c. Geniculate neuralgia
d. Hypoglossal neuralgia
239. Drugs that are useful in aborting
migraine include
a. Ergotamine
b. Tegretol
c. Migril
d. Ibuprofen
240. Migraine is caused by
a. Pressure on nerves by tumor
b. Vasoconstriction of intracranial artery
c. Muscular spasm of facial muscles
d. Intracranial lesion
d. Melanotic freckles
241. Erosion of teeth occurs in
a. Gastric disease
b. Intestinal disease
c. Colon disease
d. Rectal disease
d. Kidney disease
242. Pyostomatitis vegetans is
a. A varitant of pempighus vegetans
b. Stomatitsis due to drugs
246. Multiple intestinal polyposis
with circumoral pigmentation as in
a. Basal cell melanotic syndrome
b. Albright syndrome
c. Peutz-jegher’s syndrome
247. Ammonia like taste and smell
in mouth is due to
a. Gastric disease
b. Intestinal disease
c. Diabetes
248. Changes to kidney disease occurs
when BUN level is
a. >150mg/dl
c. Due to ulcerative colitis
d. Due to crohn’s disease
d. <100mg/dl
243. Oral mucosal growth with
cobblestone appearance
occurs in
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Pyrostomatitis vgetans
c. Crohn’s disease
d. Peutz-jegher’s syndrome
b. >60mg/dl
c. <140mg/dl
249. Giant cell lesion of the jaw to occur in
a. Osteporosis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Renal osteodystrophy
d. Osteodysrophy in hormonal disturbance
244. Oral mucosa shows yellowish
discoloration in
a. Jaundice
b. Anamia
c. Cynosis
d. Keratoanemia
250. If renal disease starts in
young age the child will have
a. Ulcerartion in mouth
b. Delayed eruption of tooth
c. Dental caries
d. Enamel hypoplasia
245. Cardinal oral manifestation
of eating disorder in
a. Severe erosion of enamel on
lingual surface
b. Food accumulation causing halitosis
c. Fermentation of food causing bad taste
d. Irritation to gingival with bleeding
251. The major oral sign of iron
deficiency anemia is
a. Pallor of mucosa
b. Pallor and atrophy of epithelium cells
c. Redness of tongue
d. Redness and burning tongue
252. Dysphagia occurs in iron
deficiency anemia due
a. Oesophageal ulcers
b. Oesophageal webs
c. Oesophageal bands
d. Oesophageal muscle spasms
258. The most common oral sign of
neutropenia in oral mucosa is
a. Ulceration
b. Bleeding
c. Paleness
d. Burning sensation
253. Plummer Vinson syndrome
is associated with
a. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
b. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Polycythemia
259. Oral manifestationof leukemia includes
a. Gingival bleeding
b. Gingival enlargement
c. Oral ulceration
d. All of the above
254. Sickle cell anemia is due to
a. RBC reduction
b. Heamoglobinopathy
c. Iron deficiency
d. Erythrocyte enzyme deficiency
d. Neutropenic leukemia
255. Bimaxillary protrusion and other
occlusal abnormalities are
present in
a. Thalassemia
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Megaloblastic anemia
d. Aplastic anemia
260. Oral infection is a serious potentially
fatal complication in the blood disorder
a. Heamophilia
b. Purpura
c. Anemia
256. Tongue is beefy red and inflamed
with erythematous area on
the lip in
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. All of the above
262. In Hodgkin’s disease involvement
of one lymph node region or single
extranodal site
a. Stage 1
b. Stage2
c. Stage3
d. Stage4
257.Aplastic anemia is a normochromic
normocytic anemia caused by
a. Aplasia of red cells
b. Absence of haemoglbin
c. Bone marrow failure
d. Toxicity of bone
263. Non- Hodgkin’s lymphoma arises from
a. B or T lymphocytes
b. Lymphoblasts
c. Lymphotrophic cells
d. Lymph nodes
264. In multiple myeloma mandible is
more involved because it contains
a. More vascularity
b. Contain more plasma cells
c. Greater content of marrow
d. Teeth bearing area
270. Oral lesions of lupus erythmatosis
is confused with
a. Leukoplakia
b. Erythroplakia
c. Vesicular lesion
d. Lichen planus
265. The disease that affects the males
carried by females is
a. Purpura
b. Leukemia
c. Agranulocytosis
271. Tight lips, narrow opening of mouth, loss
of skin fold around face occurs in
a. Oral submucous fibrosis
b. Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica
c. Sceloderma
261. Lymphomas are malignant,solid
tumor that develop
a. From lymph node
b. Involving cells of lymphoreticular or
immune system
c. Lymphocytes
d. Lymphatic vessels
d. Hemophilia
d. Actinic chelitis
266. Oral mucosal bleeding in the form
of ecchymosis occurs in
a. Platelet deficiency
b. RBC deficiency
c. WBC deficiency
d. Stem cell deficiency
272. In scleroderma radiographically we can
see
a. Narrowing of PDL space
b. Widening of PDL space
c. Alveolar resorption
d. Mucosa is thickened
267. Higher incidence of oral disease
occurs in
a. B lymphocyte abnormally
b. T lymphocyte abnormality
c. Lymphocyte abnormality
d. All of the above
273. Zidovudine or AZT is
a. Antiviral drug
b. Antiretroviral drug
c. Antilymphocytic drug
d. Anti immunosuppressive agent
268. Sarcoidosis is
a. Systemic granulomatous disease
b. Local granulomatous disease
c. Tuberculous disease
d. Connective tissue disorder
274. The oral fungal infection in HIV patient
a. Pseudomembraneous candidiasis
b. Erythmatous candidiasis
c. Hyperplastic candidiasis
d. All of the above
269. Systemic lupus erythmatosis is
a. An auto immune disease
b. Immunodeficiency disease
c. Genetic disease
d. Endocrine disease
d. HSV virus
275. Oral hairy leukoplakia in AIDS
is caused by
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Epstein barr virus
c. Papilloma virus
276. Altered wound healing occurs
in oral injury in
a. Vincent infection
b. Suppuration
c. Hormonal disturbance
d. Diabetes
282. Systemic disease associated with
headache and orofacial pain is
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Osteitis fibrosa cystic
c. Paget’s disease
d. Cledocranial dystosis
277. The most common diabetic
emergency in dental office is
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
283. Formation of convex ramus
on affected side occurs in
a. Condylar aplasia
b. Condylar hypoplasia
c. Delayed wound healing
d. Prolonged bleeding
c. Condylar ankylosis
d. Condylar hyperplasia
278. Facial myxedema,magroglossia,
hoarse voice are observed in
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypoparathyroidism
d. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Antianxiety agents
279. Unilateral paralysis in facial
region occurs in
a. Injury of nerves
b. Trigeminal neuralgia
c. Post herpes zoster implication
d. Bell’s palsy
284. In valvular heart disease patient
should be treated for dental
procedures with
a. Anticoagulant therapy
b. Antihypertensive therapy
c. Antibiotic therapy
280. Patient who are taking anti
convulsant drugs are subject to
a. Gingival bleeding
b. Gingival desquamation
c. Gingival overgrowth
d. Gingival fibrosis
286. Deviation of the mandible to
affected site occurs in
a. Ankylosis
b. Agenesis and hyperplasia of condyle
c. Fracture condyle
d. Disc displacement
281. Cleidocranial dyostosis consists of
a. Absence of clavicles
b. Colobama eye with micrognathia
c. Intestinal polyposis and
supernumerary teeth
d. Intestinal polyposis
287. HAART for treating HIV is a
a. Immune modulatory therapy
b. Anti virus therapy
c. Anti retroviral therapy
d. Resistance to immune suppression
288. Haemochromatosis is endogenous
pigmentation resulting from the
deposition of
a. Melanin
b. Iron as melanin
c. Iron
d. Porphyrin
294. Presence of basophilic stippling of
red cells is the diagnostic feature of
a. Erythroblastic anemia
b. Plumbism
c. Bismuthism
d. Mercuralism
289. Carotenemia is a condition that
295. Argyria is the permanent discolouration
285. Post herpectic neuralgia develops in
a. Primary herpes
b. Secondary herpes
c. Herpangina
d. Herpes zoster
results from
a. Excess level of carotene pigment
b. Excess in take of carrots
c. Excess in take of beetroots
d. Excess in take of eggs
of the skin and mucous membrane caused
a. Silver compound
b. Gold compound
c. Lead compound
d. Mercury compound
290. Jaundice is caused by increased
levels of
a. Bilirubin in blood
b. Biliverdin in blood
c. Both bilirubin and biliverdin in blood
d. Porphyrin and biliverdin n blood
296. Auric stomatitis is due to the use of
a. Silver salts
b. Gold salts
c. Flouride salts
d. Arsenic salts
291. Grey black lead line is seen in
gingival margin of
a. Plumbism
b. Bismuthism
c. Mercurialism
d. Arsenism
297. Chemical that produces osteomyelitis
leading to necrosis
a. Arsenic
b. Phosphorous
c. Lead
d. Bismuth
292. Mercurization is
a. Inflammatory disease
b. Occupational disease
c. Industrial disease
d. Allergic disease
298. Giant cell reparative granuloma is
a. Benign neoplasm
b. Variant of hemangioma
c. Inflammatory hyperplasia with osteoclasts
d. Giant cell fibroma
293. Acrodynia is a symptom
complex of
a. Lead ingestion
b. Ingestion of bismuth
c. Ingestion of mercury compound
d. Metallic allergy
299. Hemangioma is
a. Malignant tumor
b. Hamartoma
c. Teratoma
d. Choriostoma
300. The oral mucosal lesion that develop
due to prolonged steroid therapy
a. Non healing ulcer
b. Atrophic glossitis
c. Erythematous lesion with burning
sensation
d. Thrush
306. Herpes whitlow an infection of
fingers when virus is inoculated
in the skin in
a. Contagious infection
b. Direct infection
c. Occupational hazard
d. Are sensitive to the skin
301. Sideropenic anemia shares the
features of
a. Atrophic glossitis and angular chelitis
b. Pale mucosa with burning sensation
c. Mucosa with loss of sensation
d. Mucosal ulcers with bleeding
307. Recurrent HSV should be used
to refer to actual ulcer caused by
a. Primary infection
b. By reactivated virus
c. Transmitted virus from nerve
d. Virus spread from others
302. Vitamin b12 defeciency causes
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Sideropenic anemia
c. Cooleys anemia
d. Aplastic amemia
d. Soft palate mucosa
303. Interstitial glossitis occurs in
a. Congenital syphilis
b. Primary syphills
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Tertiary syphilis
d. Ciprofloxacin 500mg thrice for 5 days
304. Cancer chemotherapy causes
oral lesions as
a. Acute multiple oral lesions
b. Chronic multiple lesions
c. Recurring oral mucosal lesions
d. Continuous multiple lesion
308. Intra oral recrudescent HSV occurs
chiefly on mucosa of
a. Hard palate,gingival and dorsum of tongue
b. Tongue,ventral mucosa.labial mucosa
c. Buccal mucosa
305. Herpes viridae family of viruses
contain
a. 7 different viruses
b. 8 different viruses
c. 9 different viruses
d. 10 different viruses
c. Multiple ulcers
d. Multiple necrotic ulcers
311. Cytomegalovirus in mouth of
immunocomprimised persons
tends to present
a. Single large necrotic ulcers and less
often multiple ulcers
b. Recurrent ulcers
312. A variant of herp angina is
a. Lymphadenitis of the throat
b. Lymphonodular pharyngitis
c. Acute pharyngitis
d. Acute pharyngitis and tonsillitis
d. Erythema multiforme
318. One of the following disease belongs
to subepithelial bullous dermatosis
a. Pemphigus vegetans
b. Bullous pemphigoid
c. Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica
309. One of the following treatment is not
proved affective in treating herpes zoster
a. Acyclovir 800mg 5 times per day
b. Valacyclovir 1000mg 3 times per day
c. Famcyclovir 500 mg 3 times per day
310. Post herpetic neuralgia in herpes
zoster cannot be treated with
a. Gaba pentin
b. Opioid analgesic
c. Tricyclic antidepressant
d. Anti viral therapy
313. Plasma cell stomatitis is
a. Plasma cell immune disease
b. Hypersensitive reaction
c. Immunosuppressive disease
d. Allergic stomatitis
c. Pemphigus foliaceous
d. Bullous pemphigoid
314. Amlexanox paste is used to
decrease the healing of
a. Herpetic ulcer
b. Herpangina ulcer
c. Necrotizing ulcer
d. Aphthous ulcer
d. Doxicyclin
315. Clinical manifestation as diagnostic
criteria for Behcet’s disease
a. Recurrent genital lesions
b. Eye lesions ,uveitis or retinal vasculitis
c. Skin lesions,erythema nodosum and
papilllopustular lesion
d. All of the above
319. Desquamative gingivitis has also
been reported as most common oral
manifestation of
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Pemphigus erythematosis
316. Pathergy test is indicated for
a. Allergic lesions
b. Autoimmune disease
c. Behcet’s disease
d. TB
d. Ulcerative lesion
317. In pemphigus vulgaris oral lesion
develops as a
a. Classical ulcer
b. Classical vesicle
c. Classical bulla
d. Classical erythema
d. Anti depressants
322. Necrosis of oral epithelium which
may also be perceived as
a. Suppurative lesion
b. Gangrenous lesion
c. White lesion
324. The type of candidiasis that is
associated with malignant
transformation is
a. Pseudomemberanous candidiasis
b. Atrophic candidiasis
329.White spongy nevus that occurs
in oral mucosa can also involve
extra oral site such as
a.pharynx
b.larynx
320. One of the following drugs is
immunosuppressive drug used in
pemphigus group of diseases
a. Clobetasol
b. Azathioprine
c. Dapsone
321.The disease that also manifests
has a rhino cerebral form
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Blasto mycosis
c. Phycomycosis
d. Candidiasis
323. Oral candidiasis develop from
patient who takes prolonged
treatment of
a. Antibiotics
b. Analgesics
c. Antihistamine
c. Erythematous candidiasis
d. Chronic plaque type and
nodular candidiasis
c.esophagus
d.bronchus
325. CD4 + T lymphocytes in hairy
leukoplakia appears on
a. High level
b. Low level
c. Normal level
d. Variation level
330.Pigments that result in discolouration
of dorsal tongue can be produced by
a.melanogenic bacteria
b.spirochetes
c.chromogenic bacteria
d.bacterium fusiform
326. The white lesion of oral mucosa that
cannot be characterized as any other
lesion is
a. Spongy nevus
b. Frictional keratosis
c. Linea alba
d. Leukoplakia
331.One of the following sarcoma of
mucosa can cause discoloration
a.fibrosarcoma
b.liposarcoma
c.myosarcoma
d.kaposi sarcoma
327. The lesion that produce white
radiating striae resembling oral
lichen planus is
a. Systemic Lupus
b. Discoid Lupus
c. Erythroleukoplakia
d. Marked hyper keratinization
332. Melanotic macules develop more
frequently in
a.children
b.males
c.females
d.both a and b
328.To obtain relief of symptoms from
oral mucosal Lupus erythematosis
the treatment is
a.clobetazole propionate gel
b.hydrogen peroxide
c.warm saline
d.immunosupressant drug
333.Well circumscribed tan or brown coloured
macular develop in facial and perioral
skin is called
a. freckle or ephelis
b. melanoma
c. circum oral pigmentation
d. patch pigmentation
334.The chief drugs implicated in drug
induced melanosis is
a.antimalarial
340.Peripheral ossifying or cementifying
fibroma is found exclusively in
a.gingiva
b.anti carcinogenic
c.anti fungal
d.anti depressant
b.alveolar mucosa
c.palate
d.anywhere in the oral cavity
335.Acquired symmetric melanosis
develop on sun exposed area of
skin particularly is called
a.melanoma
b.melasma
c.melanotic maccule
d.metonic spots
341.Gingival enlargement occurs in
a.crohn’s disease
b. amyloidosis
c. lymphoma
d.all of the above
336. Hemochromatosis is a chronic
progressive disease that is
characterized by deposition of
a.excessive melanin
b.excessive copper
c.excessive iron
d.excessive porphyrin
342.One of the following condition
causes congenital macroglossia
a.acromegaly
b.hyperpitutarism
c.lymphangioma
d.myoma of the tongue
337.Epulis in gums is a
a.benign growth
b.congenital growth
c.developmental growth
d.inflammatory growth
d.primodial cyst
343.The cyst that is associated with
nevoid basal cell carcinoma is
a.dental cyst
b.dentigerous cyst
c.odontogenic keratocyst
338.Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
of mucosa in hard palate is due to
a.smoking irritation
b.food accumulation
c.pipe smoking irritation
d.denture irritation
344. Patient using bisphosphonate may
develop
a.ulceration in oral mucosa
b.dryness of mouth
c.osteonecrosis and osteomyelitis
d.cancrum oris
339.Pregnancy epulis developes when
a.circulating estrogen is high
b.circulating estrogen and androgen is high
c.circulating androgen is high
d.circulatng estrogen is low
c.hepatitis C
d.hepatitis D
345. The virus that cause sialadenitis,
xerostomia and salivary gland
enlargement
a.hepatitis A
b.hepatitisB
346. Symmterical lacrimal,parotid
and submandibular enlargement
352.Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania is
a.neuralgia
occurs in
a. Sjogrens syndrome
b. Heerford syndrome
c. Mumps
d. Granulomatous condition
b.myalgia
c.headache
d.vascular pain
347.One of the drugs is a systemic sialogogue
a.cevimiline HCL
b.bromohexine
c.anetholetrithin
d.thalidomide
d.matrix formation and mineralization
348.Pain at the angle of the left side
of the mandible brought on by
exertion and relieved on rest
suggest
a.cardiac ischemia
b.myositis ossificans
c.thyroid inflammation
d.TMJ disc displacement
353.Rickets is failure of
a.mineralisation of endochondral
new bone formed
b.mineralisation of organic bone matrix
c.matrix formation of bone
349.Temporal artery swelling, severe
throbbing,severe pain,transient
visual abnormalities occurs in
a. Migraneous neuralgia
b. TMJ disc displacement
c. Atypical facial pain
d. Temporal arteritis
355. In hyperparathyroidism there is
354.Rickets and osteomalacia is
due to abnormalities of
a.vit A
b.vit B
c.vit C
d.vit D
a.hypercalcemia
b.hypocalcemia
c.hyperphosphatemia
d.hypophosphatemia
350.Systemic disease associated
356.Facial myxedema and enlarged
With skull enlargement and ocular disturbance
tongue are features of
a.acromegaly
a.hypothyroidism
b.paget’s disease
b.hyperthyroidism
c.metastatic carcinoma
c.hypopituitarism
d.gasteritis
d.hyperparathyroidism
351.Gamma knife stereotactic
radiosurgery is the new
technique to treat
a.vascular lesion
b.early malignancy
c.ulceration of foliate papule
d.trigeminal neuralgia
357.Growth hormone deficiency causes
a.delayed eruption of tooth
b.retarded eruption of teeth
c.uneruptted teeth
d.burried teeth
358. In diabetes mellitus the signs
and symptoms are
a.xerostomia and parotid gland
enlargement
b.ptylism with burning mouth
c.parotitis
d.dryness of mouth
364.Gingival hyperplasia in acute
myelogenic leukemia is due to
a.inflammatory exudates
b.fibrosis of
c.leukemic cell infiltration
d.epithelial proliferation
359. Spasm of muscles of mastication
increases until the jaw is finally
locked in
a.fracture of condyle
b.fracture of maxilla
c.myostis ossificans
d.tetanus
365.Neutropenia occurs in cyclic
neutropenia as
a.an acute onset
b.chronic pattern
c.intermittent
d.cyclic pattern
360. Mucous patches and snail
tract ulcers are common in
a.primary syphilis
b.secondary syphilis
c.tertiary syphilis
d.congenital syphilis
d.hypothyroidism
361. Rigid lip ,narrow oral aperture,
loss of skin folds around the mouth
occurs in
a.radiation fibrosis
b.OSMF
c.scar of burn
d.scleroderma
366.Multiple impacted supernumerary teeth
associated with intestinal polyposis
occurs in
a.cleidocranial dystosis
b.gardners syndrome
c.osteopetrosis
362. Cell mediated immunity is
brought out by
a.T cell
b.B cell
c .both a and b
d.none of the above
d. Lung infection
363.Long term intravenous
bisphosphonate therapy causes
a.osteopetrosis
b.osteonecrosis
c.osteitis
d.osteoporosis
368. Erythematous macular lesion
on soft palate and enlargement
of lingual tonsillar tissue occurs in
a. Upper respiratiory viral infection
b. Viral infection lymphoid tissue
c. Acute glossitis
367. Yellow pigmentation may be
observe on oral mucosa in
a. Carotenemia
b. Allergic condition
c. Uremic stomatitis
d. Liver cirrhosis
369. Nocturnal bruxism is thought to
aggrevate or contribute pain symptoms
associated with
a. Gastric disease
b. Oral malignancy
c. Oro facial neuralgia
d. TMD
370. Oral diskinesias are
a. Severe,bad odour
b. Abnormal,involuntary movement
of tongue,lip and jaws
c. Biting of teeth and closing
of mouth
d. Tremors of tongue
375. Deviation of the mandible to the
affected side and facial
deformity occurs in
a. Fracture condyle
b. Agenesis of condyle
c. Displacement
d. Fibrous ankylosis
371. True bony ankylosis of TMJ
involves fusion of
a. Head of the condyle to
zygomatic bone
b. Condyle to temporal bone
c. Condyle to articular disc
d. Head of the condyle to glenoid fossa
of temporal bone
376. Rheumatoid arthritis of TMJ is
a. Inflammatory
b. Degenerative
c. Suppurative
d. Immunological
372. Condyle is positioned anterior to
articular eminence and cannot
return to glenoid fossa is
a. Dislocation
b. Subluxation
c. Concussion
d. Malposition
377. Chronic alcoholism is associated with
parotid gland dysfunction in the form of
a. Parotitis
b. Ptyalism
c. Sialolith
d. Salivary gland enlargement
373. Condyle moves anterior to the
eminence during opening and
is able to return to resting
positon is
a. Concussion
b. Hypermobility
c. Subluxation
d. Dislocation
378. Dehydration has been demonstrated
to result in salivary gland with
a. Excess output of salivation
b. Diminished output of salivation
c. No salivation at all
d. Diminished purulent salivation
374. Clinically a deep depression
can be felt in pretragus
region in
a. Condylar hypoplasia
b. Condylar fracture
c. Condylar concussion
d. Condylar dislocation
379. An acute and sudden onset of a
swollen salivary gland with pain is
a. Acute bacterial sialedinitis
b. Acute viral sialedinitis
c. Acute allergic sialednitis
d. Acute fungal sialedinitis
380. Hypoplasia of parotid gland occurs in
a. Ramsay hunt syndrome
b. Melkerson rosenthal syndrome
c. Frey’s auriculo temporal syndrome
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
385. Oral non-hodgkin’s lymphoma is seen in
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Histiocytosis
c. HIV/AIDS
d. Wegwners granulomatosis
381. In salivary gland disease to
differentiate
between
cyst and solid mass the best
investigation is
a. Ultrasonography
b. MRI
c. CT scan
d. Radionuclear imaging
386. Diagnosis of major salivary gland
masses can be made without open
biopsy by
a. FNAC
b. Aspiration
c. Radiograph
d. Clinical findings
382. Limited opening of mouth
has been related to
a. Tetanus
b. Radiation fibrosis
c. Scleroderma
d. All the above
387. Multiple osteoma’s occur in
a. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
b. Gardner syndrome
c. Multiple ostosis
d. Albright syndrome
383. Cytotoxic chemotherapy and
radiation therapy for oral
cancer affect
a. Connective tissue
b. Vascular tissue
c. Mucosal epithelial tissue
d. All the above
388. One of the following maxillary cyst
is not a bony cyst
a. Nasopalatine cyst
b. Median cyst
c. Nasolabial duct cyst
d. Hemoharragic cyst
384. Prior to radiotherapy of cancer
infected tooth,root stump and
periodontally involved tooth
should be removed
a. To prevent osteoradionecrosis
b. To provide better radiation treatment
c. To prevent mucositis
d. To prevent soft tissue necrosal gangrene
389. Foliate papillitis is a painful lymphoid
aggregate occurs in tongue in the
a. Dorsum
b. Base
c. Posterolateral part
d. In the tip
390. The drug that causes
pigmentation in the teeth is
a. Oxy tetracycline
b. Tetracycline
c. Chloromycin
d. Tetracyclin
d. Analgesics and corticosteroids
391. Oral mucosal pigmentation
occurs in
a. Amalgam tattoo
b. Graphite tattoo
c. Ornamental tattoo
d. All the above
396. Combination of therapy to reduce
pain and decrease size of ulcer in
apthous stomatitis is
a. Antibiotics
b. Analgesics and antibiotics
c. Steroids and anti-histamins
392. Oral contraceptives will produce
a. Oral ulceration
b. Oral burning sensation
c. Oral bleeding
d. Oral melanosis
d. Patients with nerve disorder
393. Vitiligo a depigmented lesion is
a. Congenital disease
b. Inflammatory disease
c. Autoimmune disease
d. Developmental disease
c. Gaba pentin and lidocaine patch
d. Antiviral therapy
394. Diffuse or patchy melanotic
pigmentation in oral mucosa
is associated with
a. Chewer’s mucosa
b. B complex deficiency
c. Tertiary stage of syphilis
d. OSMF
398. Varicella zoster viral infection are more
severe in
a. Adults with prolonged antibiotics
b. Patients with systemic disease
c. Immunocompromised patients
395. Hairy tongue is characterized
by projections of
401. Steven johnson syndrome is
a. Varient of herpes virus infection
b. Less severe variant of toxic
epidermal necrolysis
c. Mucocutaneous lesion
a. Fungiform papillae
b. Filliform papillae
397. Bullous pemphigoid and mucous
membrane pemphigoid are
a. Epithelial bullous lesions
b. Sub epithelial bullous lesions
c. Only mucosal lesions
d. Suprabasilar lesions
399. First line of treatment in post
herpetic neuralgia is
a. Vit B12 and analgesics
b. Opioid analgesics and tricyclic
antidepressants
400. The microbe that is likely to play
an important role in progression
of ANUG to cancrum oris is
a. Borellia vincenti
b. Bacillus fusiformis
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Camphylobacterium
c. Circumvallate papillae
d. Foliate papillae
d. Prone for malignancy
402. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis has
a. Major apthous ulcer
b. Minor apthous ulcer
c. Herpetiform ulcer
d. All the above
d. Fibrous dysplasia
403. In hereditary gingival fibromatosis
a. Gingiva bleeds
b. Delayed eruption of teeth
c. Alveolar bone not fully formed
d. Multiple exophytic growth occurs
d. FNAC
404. The teeth are red or purple
in colour in
a. Internal resorption
b. Congenital porphyria
c. Gangrene of tooth
d. Dental fluorosis `
408. One of the following conditions
in fibro-osseous lesion
a. Fibroma
b. Fibrous epulis
c. Giant cell epulis
405. Hutchinson’s incisor is present in
a. Congenital syphilis
b. Primary syphilis
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Tertiary syphilis
d. Spirocheteal infection
406. Internal resorption is a uncommon
condition in which dentin is resorbed
within the pulp this is also called
a. Pink tooth
b. Cafe-au-lait spot
c. Koplik’s spot
d. Melanotic spot
411. Supression of normal flora of the
mouth by anti bacterial drugs causes
a. Viral infection
b. Fungal infection
c. Protozoal infection
407. Premature loss of deciduous tooth
especially in incisors is a
manifestation of
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypoadrenalism
413. Glossitis with angular stomatitis
is characteristic of
a. Thiamine deficiency
b. Riboflavin deficiency
c. Ascorbic acid deficiency
d. Retenoids
409. Diagnosis of primary syphilis can be
made by
a. Blood examination
b. Dark ground field microscopy
c. Blood culture
410. Specific test such as FTA-ABS is
indicated in
a. Tuberculosis
b. Syphilis
c. Leprosy
d. HIV infection
412. Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate 2.5mg
pelletes allowed to dissolve in mouth
3 times a day is a treatment to
a. Herpetic ulcer
b. Traumatic ulcer
c. Reccurent apthous ulcer
d. Pemphigus ulcer
d. Hypophosphatasia
413. Glossitis with angular stomatitis
is characteristic of
a. Thiamine deficiency
b. Riboflavin deficiency
c. Ascorbic acid deficiency
d. Retenoids
d. Radiotherapy
414. Amyloidosis causes
a. Microglossia
b. Aglossia
c. Ankyloglossia
d. Macroglossia
c. Radiation therapy
d. Brachytherapy
415. White patch can be caused in oral
mucosa due toirritation of sharp
tooth
a. Leukoplakia
b. Linea alba
c. Frictional keratosis
d. Lichen planus
419. Radiotherapy is carried by implantation
of radioactive material in and around
oral cancer is called
a. Teletherapy
b. Radiation therapy
c. Brachy therapy
416. The leukoplakia frequently shows
dysplasia
a. Homogenous leukoplakia
b. Pre leukoplakia
c. Speckled leukoplakia
d. Idiopathic leukoplakia
c. Parotid stone
d. Sialolithiasis
417. White lesion of the floor of the
mouth and ventral tongue with
wrinkled appearances
a. Sublingual leukoplakia
b. Homogenous leukoplakia
c. Speckled leukoplakia
d. Sublingual keratosis
422. Sialogram shows the typical snow
strom appearance of blobs of
contrast media that have leaked
from the duct system in
a. Sjogren syndrome
b. Sialometaplasia
420. Oral cancer treatment by exposure
of beams of xray from xray generator
or radioactive isotope is called
a. Teletherapy
b. Radiotherapy
421. One the following drugs causes
xerostomia
a. Fluconazole
b. Atropine
c. Ciplofloxicin
d. Paracetamol
423. Osteogenesis imperfect is a disease
in which defect of biosynthesis of
type 1 collagen causes
a. Osteoblast failure to form bone
b. Osteoblast fail to resorb the bone
c. Failure of calcification
d. Cartilage formation is affected
418. Cervicofacial lymphadenopathy is
particularly common in
a. Tuberculosis
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Thrombocytopenia
d. Ricket
424. Failure of normal proliferation of
cartilage in epiphysis and base of the
skull is
a. Cleidocranial dystosis
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Achondroplasia
425. In one of the following condition
delayed eruption of permanent teeth
or embedding of permanent teeth
occurs in jaw
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Cleido-cranial dystosis
c. Achondroplasia
d. Cherubism
d. Cherubism
426. Broadening of growing ends of
bone,skull with wide fontanelles
with frontal bossing,defective
calcification of teeth are clinical
findings in
a. Rickets
b. Osteomalacia
c. Achondroplasia
d. Myxedema
b. Melkerson-rosenthal syndrome
427. Elevation of plasma calcium,reduction
of phosphorus level with increase of
plasma alkaline phosphate occurs in
a. Rickets
b. Hypeparathyroidism
c. Hyperpitutarism
d. Osteomalacia
b. Thiamine and riboflavin
c. Vit B 12
d. Folic acid
428. Symmetrical enlargement of maxilla
with great deepening and broadening
of alveolar process,with biochemical
elevation of alkaline phosphatase
occurs in
a. Fibrous dysplsia
429. Clinically symmetrical swelling occurs
in the angle of the mandible and in
severe cases in maxilla producing
fullness of the cheek causing eye to
appear turned upwards the condition is
a. Maxillary tumor
b. Leontiasis ossea
c. Paget’s disease
430. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is due to
a. Adenoma of parathyroid
b. Hyperplasia of parathyroid
c. Stimulation of parathyroid by pituitary
d. Chronic renal failure
431. Sexual precosity,pigmentation of skin
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia is
a. Albright syndrome
c. Addison’s disease
d. Gardner’s syndrome
432. Successful treatment of keratotic
flecks in leukoplakia is being carried
out with
a. Retenoids
433. A peculiar form of glossitis in which
tongue becomes magenta coloured
and granular in appearance due to
flattening of papilla.This occurs in
a. Nicotine amide deficiency
b. Vit B 12 deficiency
b. Paget’s disease
c. Caffe’s disease
d. Osteopetrosis
434. The tip and lateral margin of tongue
become red ,swollen and ulcerative
with stomatitis in
a. Nicotinamide deficiency
b. Vit B12 deficiency
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. Riboflavin deficiency
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. Riboflavin deficiency
435. Swollen bleeding gums and delayed
wound healing with purpuric spots in
oral mucosa and skin are features of
a. Vit A deficiency
b. Vit B complex deficiency
c. Vit C deficiency
d. Vit D deficiency
440. Dyskeratosis congenita is a rare
heritable recessive or dominant trait
with white lesion in the oral mucosa
that shows microscopically
a. Hypertrophyof epithelium
b. Metaplasia of epithelium
c. Hyperplasia of epithelium
d. Dysplasia of epithelium
441. The habit of snuff dipping or tobacco
chewing in the labial and buccal mucosa
gives rise to
a. Burning sensation
b. Ulceration
c. Keratosis
d. Hyperplastic growth
436. Dental erosion and parotid
swelling sialadenosis may occur in
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Alcholism
c. Acid mouth wash
d. Anorexia and bullemia
442. The typical sequelae to syphilitic
Leukoplakia is the development of
a. Chancre
b. Snail tract ulcer
c. Gumma
d. Carcinoma
437. Sharply circumscribed lesion in skin
recurring intha same site each
time when a drug is taken in
a. Stomatitis medicamentosa
b. Stomatitis venenata
c. Fixed drug eruption
d. Allergic dermatitis
443. Verrucous carcinoma in oral mucosa
is slow growing
a. Spreads deeply to the tissues
b. Spreads as an exophytic growth
c. Spreads laterally
d. In any direction
438. Drugs that produce antimuscuranic
Action such as tricyclic
antidepressant causes
a. Allergic stomatitis
444. The development of giant cell epulis
may be related to
a. Eruption of permanent tooth
b. Eruption of deciduous tooth
b. Ptyalism
c. Dry mouth
d. Ulceration in oral mucosa
439. Patient with anticoagulant therapy
will have
a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Hypotension
c. Ulceration in mouth
d. Risk of post operative bleeding
d. Epithelial polyp
446. Clinically a white spiky or
cauliflower like surface in
oral mucosa is suggestive of
a. Irritation fibroma
b. Speckled leukoplakia
c. Veruccous carcinoma
d. Papilloma
lymphoma
447. Extra nodal lymphoma associated
with EBV virus
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Non hodgkins lymophoma
c. Burkit lymphoma
d. Malignant lymphoma
448. Fall in number of circulating neutophils
at regular intervals of 3 to 4 weeks
with oral ulceration is
a. Leukopenia
b. Chronic leukemia
c. Cyclic neutropenia
d. Drug induced leucopenia
449. Purpura is a clinical sign of
a. Platelet disorder and relatively,
rarely vascular defect
b. Platelet disorder
c. Bleeding disorder
d. Coagulation dirsorder
450. Haemophilia is the most common
and severe clotting disorder and
heamophilia is due to
c. Resorption of deciduous tooth
d. Irritation of osteoblasts
445. Red speckled strawberry gums
associated with respiratory,renal
signs are called
a. Uremic stomatitis
b. Pyostomatitis vegetans
c. Wegner’s granulamtosus
452. Most frequent malignant tumor
in AIDS is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
and Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma
c. kaposi sarcoma
d. kaposi sarcoma and non- Hodgkins
453. The Rheumatoid arthritis
is associated with
a. Scleroderma
b. Granulomatous lesion
c. Sjogren’s syndrome
d. SLE
454. Palmar plantar keratosis is
associated with
a. Trecher collin’s syndrome
b. Scleroderma
c. Papillon levefere syndrome
d. Chronic dermatosis
455. In general examination abnormal
Nail kolionychia suggest
a. Raynauds phenomenon
b. Long standing anemia
c. Skin disorders
d. Cardiac condition
456. Clinical test to distinguish benign
from malignant neoplasm can be
done with
a. Clotting fctor VIIdeficiency
b. Clotting factor VIII def.
c. Clotting factor IX def.
d. Clotting factor X def.
a. Biopsy
b. Patch test of skin
c. FNA biopsy
d. Dermal scrapping
451. Dental extraction can be carried
out safely to the patents with
anticoagulant therapy
a. An INR 1-2
b. An INR 2-3
c. An INR 3-4
d. An INR 4-5
458. Dental flurosis will develop
to those individuals who consume
a. High fluoride water during development
of teeth
b. High fluoride water after 20yrs
c. High fluoride water after 25yrs
d. High fluoride water after 30yrs
d. Alveolar osteitis
459. In dental fluorosis if the enamel is
grossly defective,opaque,pitted and
brown stained- the grade of this
condition is
a. very mild
b. mild
c. moderate
d. severe
457. In blood examination serum alkaline
phosphatase is lowered in
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Paget’s disease
c. Hypophosphatasia
d. Osteogenesis imperfeca
460. Persistance skin sinus extraorally
in the midline of the lower border
of the mandible associated with
lower incisor rendered non vital is
a. Chronic periapical infection
with extraoral sinus
b. Acute periapical infection
with extraoral sinus
c. Periapical granuloma
with exrteraoral sinus
d. Periapical cemental dysplasia
with extraoral sinus
c. Spreads to other parts
d. Parasoxysmal and very severe
461. Crater shaped punched out ulcer
465. Middle third of face is retrusive
in one bone disorder and this is due
to the deficient growth of skull bone
this disorder is
a. Cleidocranial dysostosis
b. Treacher-collin syndrome
c. Achondroplasia
d. Hypoplasia of the base of the skull
463. Low grade chronic periapical or
perifollicular infection causes
reactive subperiosteal new bone
formation in young individual
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Garre’s osteomyelitis
c. Chronic specific osteomyelitis
464. One of the following carcinoma
can matasize in the jaw bone
a. Bronchogenic carcinoma
b. Gastric carcinoma
c. Pancreatic carcinoma
d. Carcinoma of the bladder
466. Pain in the trigeminal neuralgia is
a. Throbbing and lancinating
b. Killing and pricking
467. Clinically in cervicofacial region
formed initially at the tip of the
interdental papilla is the sing of
a. Mixed infection of the gingival
b. ANUG
c. Gangrenous stomatitis
d. HIV gingivitis
if a firm sweliing with a group
of matted nodes is found is
a. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Tuberculous lymph nodes
c. Leukemic node
d. Syphilitic node
462. The treatment of hyperbaric oxygen
in osteomyelitis of jaw is mainly of value in
a. Pyogenic osteomyelitis
b. Tuberculous osteomyelitis
c. Osteoradionecrosis
d. Phossy jaw
468. Widespread and persistant
lymphadenopathy including
cervicofacial lymph node is
a feature of
a. Leukemia
b. Syphilis
c. Cat-scartch disease
d. AIDS
473. Macroglossia and fissuring of tongue
occurs in
a. Cretinism
b. Heamangioma
c. Myxedema
d. Down’s syndrome
469. Blowing the nose may force air
into the mouth or causes frothing
of blood from socket is a clinical
finding of
a. Maxillary sinusitis
b. Allergic sinusitis
c. Root or tooth displacement into the antrum
d. Oronasal fistula
474. In myocardial infarction pain may
be referred to
a. Left maxillary region
b. Left mandibular region
c. Left submental region
d. Right and left mandibular region
470. Dental implication of drug nifedipine
use is
a. Stomatitis
b. Bad taste
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Gingival desquamation
471. The virus that gives chief risk to
dental personnel and can be readily
transmitted during dentistry is
a. Hepatitis B
475. Pain is localized in migranous nueralgia
a. Frontal region of skull
b. Orbit and temple
c. Preauricular area
d. One side of face
476. Prolonged anesthesia and paresthesia
of lip caused due to
a. Injury to lip
b. Growth in lip
b. Hepatiis D
c. Herpes
d. HBV
c. Injury to nerve by inferior dental block
d. Injury to mental nerve
472. Oral changes in Down’s syndrome
a. Mandibular retrusion,unerupted
teeth,wide palatal arch
b. Maxillary protrusion with spacing in teeth
c. Crowding of teeth with cleft
d. Underdeveloped maxilla,protrusive
mandible,class III malocclusion,anterior open bite
477. Bell’s palsy is the common cause
of facial paralysis due to
a. Cerebral tumor
b. Trauma to the base of skull
c. Compression of the facial nerve
d. Injury to the nerve due to malignant tumor
478. The mandible is enlarged due to
elongated ramus and increased
obliqueity of the angle in
patient of 24 yrs old in
a. Condylar hyperplasia
b. Mandibular prognathism
c. Cherubism
d. Acromegaly
484. Gangrenous infection outward
from the mouth causing
extensive facial destruction occurs in
a. Mucormycosis
b. Pyogenic osteomyelitis
c. Gangrenous osteomyelitis
d. Cancrum oris
479. Von willebrand’s disease is characterized
by
a. Oral bleeding with prolonged bleeding time
b. Deficiency in cioagulant factorVIII
c. Normal coagulation time
d. Prolonged bleeding time and deficiency
of factor VIII
485. Cyst develop from non odontogenic
epithelial along the mid palatine
raphe measuring few mm in diameter in
a. Nasopalatine cyst
b. Epstein pearl
c. Epithelial pearl
d. Mid palatine cyst
480. Multiple keratocysts of jaw occurs in
a. Ameloblastoma
b. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
c. Gorlin- goltz syndrome
d. Eosinophilia
481.Dermoid cyst develops
a. In the midline of the mandible
b. In the tongue
c. Posterior part of the palate
d. Immediately beneath the tongue
486. Rheumatoid arthritis of TMJ is
a. Inflammatory disease
b. Degenrative disease
c. Autoimmune disease
d. Immunological disease
487. Reccerent apthous ulcer measures
a. 1cm
b. Less than 1cm
c. 1-2mm
d. 5mm
482. Pemphigus vulgaris will have
good response to prolonged
treatment of
a. Antibiotic
b. Antiallergic
c. Immunosuppressive drugs
d. Gold therapy
488. Dilated tortuous veins may be
seen along the ventral surface
of the tongue is called
a. Heamangioma
b. Angiomatous lesion
c. Mild aneurysm
d. Lingual varicosities
483. One of the following diseases
cause ptyalism
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Cerebral palsy
c. Parkinsons disease
d. Bell’s palsy
489. White patch that can be caused by
prolonged irritation of sharp tooth is
a. Frictional keratosis
b. Cheek bite
c. Leukoplakia
d. Chronic non healing ulcer
490. Necrotising sialometaplasia is a
tumor like lesion that mainly affects
a. Parotid gland
b. Sub mandibular gland
c. Sublingual gland
d. Minor salivary glands
c. Speckled leukoplakia
d. Verrucous carcinoma
491. Long term tobacco chewing habit
gives rise to change in buccal mucosa as
a. Extensive white thickening and wrinkling
b. Erythema and mild ulceration
c. Discolouration of mucosa with gray colour
d. Mild leukoplakia
496. The clinical lesion in the oral mucosa
a characteristic white warty appearance
forming well circumscribed mass,
raised along the mucosa
a. Papilloma
b. Wart
492. Important side effects of long
term use of corticosteroids
a. Bacterial infection
b. Fungal infection
c. Opportunistic infection
d. Viral infection
498. Parotid sarcoidosis and facial paralysis
Are clinical features of
a. Ramsay hunt syndrome
b. Melkerson rosanthal syndrome
c. Frey’s syndrome
d. Heerfords syndrome
493. Crops of 1-5 ulcers on non-keratinizing
mucosa heals in 7-10days
a. Erythema multiforme
b. Minor aphthae
c. Herpes zoster
499. Clinically the presence of multiple
osteomas in mandible occur in
a. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
b. Multiple exostosis
c. Gardners syndrome
497. Residual cyst is
a. A cyst in the residual infected portion
b. A persistant radicular cyst
c. Cyst left in the bone after enucleation
d. Cyst in the apex of tooth
d. Herpes ulcer
d. Multiple myeloma
494. Leukoplakia like plaque have soft,
corrugated surface with symmetric
distribution is seen in mouth
a. psedomembraneous candidiasis
b. white spongy naevus
c. long standing renal failure
d. lichen planus
500. A soft rounded bluish swelling
over a tooth abort to erupt is
a. Mucocele
b. Pigemented swelling
c. Hemangioma
d. Eruption cyst
495. White lesion consists of white
flecks of fine nodules on
a. Atrophic erythematous base
b. Psedomembraneous candidiasis
c. Candidial leukoplakia
d. Speckled leukoplakia
d. Mucous membrane pemphigus
501. Vesiculobullous lesions of oral mucosa
resembling pemphigus vulgaris but
with intra cellular IgA is
a. Para neoplastic pemphigus
b. Pemphigus vegetans
c. IgA pemphigus
RADIOLOGY
1. Radiation is
a. Heavy heat
b. Light
c. A form of breeze
d. Energy
c. Primary radiation
d. Secondary radiation
2. Electromagnetic radiation is
the movement of energy
through space with
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Both a and b
d. Electrically charged particles
3.X ray machine has
a. X ray tube
b. Supporting arm
c. Control panel
d. All the above
tissues
d. To determine the quality of radiation
6. The sudden stopping or slowing of high
speed electrons by tungsten nuclei in
the target produces
a. Bremsstrahlung radiation
b. Characteristic radiation
7. The quantity of radiation produced
by an xray tube is called
a. KVp
b. mA
c. half value
d. Gy
8. Collimator is a metallic barrier
which is used to
a. Increase the size of x ray beam
b. To regulate the size of x ray beam
c. To regulate the amount of irradiation to the
4. X ray tube is composed of
a. A cathode
b. An anode
c. cathode & anode in an
evacuated glasstube
d. A mere vacuum chamber
9. Beam attenuation is obtained in
dental x-ray beam by
a. Coherent scattering
b. Photoelectric absorption
c. Compton scattering
d. All of the above
5. A tungsten target in xray tube
is present in
a. Anode
b. Cathode
c. Both a and b
d. Tube window
10. Study of the effects of ionizing
radiation on living tissue is
a. Radiochemistry
b. Radiobiochemistry
c. Radiophysics
d. Radiobiology
11. The effect of radiation on oral
mucous membrane is
a. Mucosal growth
b. Mucosal burning
c. Mucosal bleeding
d. Mucositis
16. Radiation causes cancer by
a. Modifying the cell structure
b. Modifying the cytoplasm content
c. Modifying the DNA
d. Modifying the RNA
12. Effect of radiation on
salivary gland is
a. Drooling of saliva
b. Hyposalivation
c. Hypersalivation
d. Irregular salivation
17. The philosophy of radiation
protection is often reffered to as
a. Principle of justification
b. Principle of optimization
c. Principle of dose limitation
d. Principle of ALARA
13. Patient receiving radiation
therapy to oral structures have
increased in
a. Streptococcus mutans
b. Strep. pyogenes
c. Strep.viridans
d. Staphylococcus
18. Operating potential of dental xray
machine must range between
a. 30-50 kilovoltage peak
b. 50-100 kilovoltage peak
c. 60-80- kilovoltage peak
d. 10-30 kilovoltage peak
14. Osteoradionecrosis occurs
in osteomyelitis due to
a. Action of microbes in normal bone
b. Decreased vascularity in the bone
following which infection occurs
c. Toxins of organisms causing necrosis
d. Blood supply is cut off due to thrombosis
19. Leaded glass window is used for
protection from radiation to
a. Patients
b. Attenders
c. Nurses
d. Operators
15. Radiation effect on muscle is
a. Destruction of muscle
b. Inflammation and fibrosis
c. Atrophy of muscles
d. Hypertrophy of muscles
20. Film badges are used
a. To prevent radiation hazards
b. To identify the staff of radiology department
c. To record the occupational exposure
d. To reduce radiation effect on operator
21. A conventional radiograph is
a. A two dimensional projection image
b. Single dimensional projectional image
c. 3 dimensional projection image
d. Only lateral dimension projection
26.The x-ray film has
a. Emulsion
b. Base
c. Emulsion and base
d. Plastic
22. In bisecting angle technique of
intra oral Radiograph the film
placed as close as to the teeth but
a. It is parallel to the long axis of the tooth
b. It is not parallel to the long axis of the tooth
c. It is perpendicular to long axis of the tooth
d. The film is from incisal edge to cervical edge
and not parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
a. Bite and occlusion
23. In bisecting angle technique after keeping the
intra oral radiograph the central ray is passed
a. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
b. Parallel to the long axis of the film
c. Perpendicular to the film
d. Perpendicular to an imaginary plane that bisects
the angle between the teeth and the film
a. Panaromic view
24. In paralleling technique of intra oral
radiograph film is placed
a. Parallel to the imaginary line from angle
of film and tooth
b. Parallel to long axis of tooth
c. Away from long axis of tooth
d. Perpendicular to long axis of tooth
c. Occlusal view
d. Panaromic view
25. Tube shift technique is used to identify
27. Dot in the corner of each dental x-ray film
is
a. Handling dot
b. Developing dot
c. Identification dot
d. Holding dot
28. Bitewing view of intra oral radiograph
is used to record the
b. Coronal portion maxillary teeth
c. Coronal portion of mandibular teeth
d. Coronal portion of maxillary and
mandibular teeth
29. Screen films are used to take
radiograph of
b. Cephalometric view
c. Skull view
d. All of the above
30. Intensifying screens are not used in
a. PA view skull radiograph
b. AP view skull radiograph
31. Processing an exposed xray film causes it
a. Spatial position of the object
b. Superior position of the object
c. Inferior position of the object in localization
d. Anterior position of object in localization
d. Area of soft tissue
to become dark in the
a. Whole area
b. Exposed area
c. Unexposed area
32.Radiograhic contrast is a general term
that describes
a. Specificty of radiograph
b. Densities on radiograph
c. Darker and lighter area
d. Only lighter area
d. To dissolve the emulsion
33. Using intensifying screen in
extraoral radiograph has
a. Beneficial effect of image
b. Adverse effect of image
c. Dimnished effect of image
d. Excess effect of image
37. The primary function of fixing solution is
a. To brighten the images
b. To dissolve silver halide crystals
c. To dissolve and remove the under
develop silver halide crystals from the
emulsion
34. A grid is composed of
a. Strips of radioopaque material
b. Strips of radiolucent material
c. Pure plastics
d. Alternating strips of radio opaque and
radiolucent material
39.Blurring of radiograph is due to
a. Double exposure
b. Less exposure
c. More exposure
d. Prolonged exposure
35. Film processing
a. Helps to form latent image
b. Chemically changes photosensitive
silver halide solids
c. Converts the latent image into
one that can be visualized
d. All of the above
40. Digital imaging
a. Helps quick radiographic processing
b. Give clear landmarks
c. Eliminates chemical processing
d. Is less expensive
36. Primary function of developing
solution is
a. To make the film radiopaaque
b. To get images
c. To wash out all silver halide salts
d. To convert exposed silver halide crystals
into metallic silver grains
41. Crowns of teeth and adjacent
alveolar crest are seen in
a. Extra oral radiograph
b. Intra oral radiograph
c. Bite wing radiograph
d. Panaromic radiograph
38. In sufficient contrast of the radiograph is
due to
a. Under developed film
b. Over developed film
c. Over exposure
d. Less KVp
42. Full length of root with 2mm
periapical bone must be seen in
a. Periapical radiograph
b. Bitewing radiograph
c. Occlusal view radiograph
d. Topographic occlusal view radiograph
47. The width of the PDL in radiograph
varies from
a. Patient to patient
b. Tooth to tooth
c. Location to location
d. All the above
43. Parameter influencing density
and contrast of radiograph
a. mA
b. KVp
c. Exposure time
d. All the above
d. As straight line
44. Most appropriate technique for
digital imaging is a
a. Short cone technique
b. Paralleling technique
c. Bisecting angle technique
d. All the above
d. Lower end of the nasal cavity
45. The lamina dura is wider and
more dense in heavy occlusion
a. In cervical part of the root
b. In middle third of the root
c. Around the roots of the teeth
d. In the apical third of the root
48. Inter maxillary suture in intra oral
Radiograph may terminate at the
alveolar crest as
a. Y shaped widening
b. Oval widening
c. V shaped widening
46. Alveolar crest in the posterior
region in intra oral radiograph appears
a. Horizontal
b. Angular
c. Vertical
d. Flat
d. Maxillary premolars and molars
51. In the IOPA ,the inferior border of
maxillary sinus appears as a thin
radioopaque line near the apices of
a. Maxillary premolars
b. Maxillary molars
c. Maxillary third molars
52. Mental foramen in intra oral
radiograph appears as an
oval radiolucency near
57. For lateral cephalometric radiograph
the patient placement should be
a. Film parallel to canthomeatal line
49. In the periapical radiograph an
ovoid radiolucency between
the roots of central incisor is
a. Nasopalatine canal
b. Incisive foramen
c. Periapical abscess
50. Naso lacrimal canal is commonly seen
as ovoid radiolucency in
a. IOPA of upper third molars
b. Bitewing radiograph
c. Mandibular occlusal projection
d. Maxillary occlusal projection
a. Apex of 1st premolar
b. Apex of 2nd premolar
c. Between the apex of 1st and 2nd
premolar
d. Between canine and 1st premolar
53. Panaromic imaging is beneficial
Because
a. Covers the maxillary and mandibular
dental arches
b. Broad coverage of facial bone and teeth
c. Low patient radiation dose
d. All the above
b. Film parallel to mid sagittal plane
c. Film in contact with cheek
d. Film perpendicular to mid sagittal plane
58. Submento vertex radiograph should
be taken with image receptor
a. Is positioned parallel to patient transverse
plane and perpendicular to mid saggital
plane
b. Perpendicular to patients transverse plane
c. Parallel to mid saggital line
d. Parallel to coronal plane
54. Distortion in the panaromic radiograph
can be avoided by
a. Moving tube slowly
b. Reducing the radiation
c. Chin and occlusal rest must be
properly positioned
d. Head should be positioned
59. The most superior point of external
auditory canal is
a. Sella
b. Basion
c. Porion
d. Pogonion
55. Intensifying screen are repeatedly used
in panaromic radiographs because
a. They give clear pictures
b. They reduce the time of exposure
c. They reduce the amount of radiation
d. They give proper density
60. The most anterior point of symphysis is
a. Gnathion
b. Menton
c. Gonion
d. Pogonion
56. Cephalometric and skull view requires
the image receptor atleast
a. 6 X 8’’
b. 8 X 10’’
c. 10 X 15’’
d. 13 X 18’’
61. Fronto nasal suture is
a. Nasion
b. Basion
c. Gorion
d. PNS
62. Menton is
a. Mental foramen region
b. Mandibular canal region
c. Most inferior part of symphysis menti
d. Midline of the manible
67. The most radio opaque structure is
a.bone
b.cementum
c.dentin
d.enamel
63. For Waters position of skull
radiograph image receptor is placed
68. Widening of periodontal space with
intact lamina dura occurs in
a. In front of the patient and perpendicular
to mid saggital plane
b. In back of the patient and perpendicular
to mid saggital plane
c. Film as to be kept touching the nose
d. Film is placed in front of the patient
and opening of the mouth
a.amount of bone loss in furcation
64. Conventional dental radiograph
produces images in two dimensions
usually
a. In mesio distal direction
b. In bucco lingual direction
c. In labio lingual direction
d. In mesio occlusal distal direction
b.around middle portion of root
65. The first step in image analysis is
a. To identify whether image is good or not
b. Identify the side of the image
c. Identiy all the normal anatomy
present in the image
d. Identify radiolucent and radiooapaque
areas
B.initial periodontal disease
66. A radioopaque mass associated
with the root of the teeth with
prominent radiolucent periphery is
a.hypercementosis
b.cemental dysplasia
c.osteoma
d.beningn cementolastoma
72.Radiographic appearance of bone
loss in localized aggressive
periodontitis consist of
a.horizontal defect
b.deep vertical defect
c.superficial vertical defect
d. all of the above
73. In radiograph if a tooth appears
larger than normal it suggest
a. taurodontism
b.odontome
a.hperparathyroidsm
b.orthodontic treatment
c.malignant lesion
d.benign lesion
69. Radiographs are specially helpful in the
evaluation of periodontal condition
b.new bone formation
c.cemental dysplasia in apical bone
d. root resorption
70. In radiograph the periodontal space is
slightly wider in
a.around cervical portion
c.around the apical portion
d.around interradicular portion
71. Loss of cortical density and roundening
of junction of alveolar crest and
lamina dura suggest
a.widening of interproximal
c.initial caries
d.pocket formation
77.Radioopaque structure within the pulp
a. pulp polyp
b.pulp growth
c.pulp stone
d.foreign body
78. Bone formation emanating from the
floor of maxillary antrum that arise
from apical inflammation is
a. condensing osteitis
c.dilated odontome
d.macrodontia
d. sclerosing osteitis
74. The radiographic appearance of
radioopaque inverted tear drop
outline in angular area is
a.talon cusp
b.evaginaton
c.dens invagination
d.enamel pearl
75.Intraoral radiograph shows bulbous
crown, short root,obliteration of
pulp chamber and root canal in
a.amelogenesis imperfect
b.dentinogenesis imperfect
c.odontogensis imperfect
d.odonto dysplasia
Crown of tooth projects is
76.Localised radiolucent round or
oval elongation in the pulp
of crown and root is
a. dental caries
b.fractured tooth with destruction
c.internal resorption
d.pulp stones
b. rarefying osteitis
c. periosteitis
79. A well defined radiolucency surrounded
by radioopaque line in apical end
of non vital tooth
a.periapical abcess
b.periapical granuloma
c.periapical cyst
d.periapical rarefraction
80.Radioopaque line in the periapical cyst is
a.epithilial lining of cyst
b.destruction of bone
c.condensation of bone
d.cortical border
81. A radiolucent area in to which the
a.odontogenic tumor
b.tooth in carcinoma
c.odontoma
d.dentigerous cyst
82. Radioopaque mass in the
lingual aspect of premolar
region in mandible is
a.osteoma
b.torus mandibularis
c.enostosis
d.ossifying fibroma
87. Ground glass appearance of bone in
radiograph occurs in
a.ossifying fibroma
b.fibrous dysplasia
c.hyperostosis of bone
d.early osteomyelitic change
83. Radioopaque lesion consists
of tooth like structure are seen in
a.odontome
b.complex compound odontome
c.compound composite odontome
d.odontogenic tumor
d.cementoblastoma
84. Radioopaque lesion consists of
irregular mass of tooth structure in
88. Multiple radioopaque masses in the
mandible with cotton wool appearance
is seen in
a.paget’s disease
b.osteopetrosis
c.fibrous dysplasia
89. Intraoral radiograph shows in multiple
area loss of lamina dura occurs in
a.compound odontome
b.calcifying odontome
c.calcifying tumor
d.complex odontome
a.hyperparathyroidsm
b.hypoparathyroidism
c.hypoadrenalism
d.hyperadrenalism
85. Radiographically a very defined
uniformly radioopaque lesion
containing bone trabaculae
with well defind border
a.osteoma
b.osteofibroma
c.ossifying fibroma
d.osteoid osteoma
90. Excessive growth of mandibular bone
with prognathism occurs in 29yr old male
in
a. Acromegaly
b. Gigantism
c. Paget’s disesase
d. Fibrous dysplasia
86. Multifocal area of bone destruction
And widening of portion of periodontal
Ligament space characteristic of
Infiltration into mandible is seen in
a.metastatic carcinoma
b.leukemia
c.tumor infiltration from oral mucosa
d.lymphoma
91. Radiographic appearance of bone in
cushing’s syndrome
a.widening of trabaculae
b.loss of lamina dura
c.generalised osteoporosis
d.granular appearance of bone
92. Radiographically the bone in
osteopetrosis shows
a. increased density
b. decreased density
c. increased deformity
d. decreased deformity
97. Transcranial projection of radiograph
is indicated
a.to see lateral part of cranium
b.identify the cranial extension of facial lesion
c.to visualize mastoid and auricle
d.to study TMJ
93. Radiograph of patient shows
thickened diploic space and
thinning of skull cortex in
a.sickle cell anemia
b.aplastic anemia
c.thalassemia
d.cooley’s anemia
98. The radiographic projection to study
view of skull base and condyle in
a.lateral skull cephalometry
b.occipitomental view
c.submentovertex
d.town’s projection
94. Skull radiograph of patient
shows granular appearance
and thickening of diploic space in
a.sickle cell anemia
b.thalassemia
99. For radioopaque band parelleling the
contour of the maxillary antral floor
in intraoral radiograph is
a.chronic maxillary sinusitis
b.growth in maxillary sinus
c.aplastic anemia
d.haemolytic anemia
c.bony exostosis of floor
d.thickening of sinus mucosa
95. Visualization of TMJ in various
planes can be seen better in
a. Lateral oblique view radiograph
b. AP view skull radiograph
c. Occipitomental view
d. Transpharyngeal view
100. Radiographic finding of reduction
in size of mandible occurs in
a. hemifacial microsomia
b. hemi hypertrophy of face
c. hemi condylar fracture
d. hemi ankylosis of jaw
96. The imaging technique of choice for
soft tissue of TM joint in
a. Magnetic resonance imaging
b. Arthrography
c. CT scan
d. Angiography
101. radiography is
a. Film showing an image
b. Use of radiation
c. The technique involved in producing
radiographic image using ionosing radiation
d. A diagram drawn with a radiogram
102. X-rays are produced
a. by coverting the cathode rays to anode
b. when current is passed against tungsten
c. when high speed electrons bombard a target
material and are brought suddenly to rest
d. cathode rays are converted in a vaccum tube
107. Assessment of presence and
position of unerupted tooth by
a. bitewing radiograph
b. lateral skull radiograph
c. periapical radiograph
d. PNS view
103. Oil in the x-ray tube helps
a. to hold the internal apparatus
b. to help to pass the radiation
c. facilitate the removal of the heat
d. gives cooling effect to the tube
d. 3.5x7cm
104. Radiation exposure to the unborn
child causes
a.congenital abnormality
b.breathing trouble
c.blood cell destruction
d.organ function affected
d.lateral oblique
105. Aluminium filteration in a
x-ray tube helps
a. to minimize leakage of unwanted
x-rays
b. to facilitate the heat removal
c. to remove harmful low energy
108. Film packet of occlusal radiograph is
measuring
a. 2x6 cm
b. 5.7x7.6cm
c. 6x4cm
109. The film and the saggital plane of the
patient are held parallel and the
x-ray film is perpendicular in
a.true lateral positioning
b.oblique lateral positioning
c.bimolar
110. Standard occipitomental view radiograph
is indicated in
a.investigation of maxillary antrum
b.leforte I,II , III fracture
c.coronoid process fracture
d.all of the above
soft x-rays
d. helps to direct x-ray beam
a. sub mento vertex
106. Screen film is
a.wrapped or packet film
b.film with intensifying screen
c.film with direct action
d.film coated on both side
111. Fracture zygomatic arch can be diagnosed
b.occipitomental view
c.lateral oblique skull view
d.cephalometric
112. Radiographs showing only a section
or slice of a patient is
a.tomography
b.panaromic radiograph
c.sections of panaromic radiograph
d. CT scan
117.Radiograhic contrast studies for joint is
a.arthroscopy
b.arthroradiography
c.arthrography
d.arthroangiography
113. The ability of the film to define an
edge is called
a.contrast
b.sharpness
c.image quality
d.image geometry
118. Angiograph is a contrast study of
radiograph to
a.vessels
b.blood vessels
c.lymphatics
d.all of the above
114. Overdevelopment of x-ray film
is due to
a.excessive time in the developer
solution
b.developer solution is too hot
c. developer solution is too
concentrated
d.all of the above
a.conventional tomography
115. If the developer solution is too
cold and dilute it causes
a.underdevelopment
b.overdevelopment
c.foggy film
d.overexposure
a.Thyroid collar
119.Radioactive isotopes used for thyroid
a.technitium 99m
b.gallium
c.iodine 123
d.krypton
120. Radiographic film is replaced by
very sensitive crystal or gas detectors in
b.computerised tomography
c.MRI
d.bone scan
121. The most common form of personal
monitoring device currently in use is
116. Poor stock control and film used after
expiry date causes
a. darkness of film
b. haziness in the film
c. dots in the film
d. fogging of the film
122. Monitoring the progression of dental
caries can be done
a. periapical radiograph
b. occlusal view radiograph
c. children’s radiograph
d. bitewing radiograph
c. parelleing technique
123.Large intraoral film packet for
adult measures
a. 31x41mm
b. 22x35mm
c. 25x40mm
d. 50x25mm
b.bitewing technique
124. The radiograph to ascess the
relation of the teeth to the
jaws and the jaws to the
rest of the facial skeleton is
a.OPG
b.cephalometric radiograph
c.bitewing radiograph
d.PA view skull radiograph
d.OPG
125. The most anterior point of the
alveolar crest in the premaxilla
usually between the upper
central incisor
a. prosthion
b. nasion
c. pogonion
d. none of the above
a. restrainer
126. All the teeth and their supporting
structures are shown on one film in
a.skull radiograph
b. Ionization bleeper
c. Dosemeter
d. T.L.D film badge
127. Technique very comfortable for the
patient particularly for radiographing
posterior teeth in whom gag reflex
is present is
a. bitewing technique
b. bisecting angle technique
d. occlusal view
128. Coning off or cone cutting may result
if the central ray is not aimed at the
center of the film in
a.occlusal view technique
c.bisecting technique
d.parelleing technique
129. Assesment of a condition of the
antral floor can be made with
a.upper oblique occlusal radiograph
b.skull radiograph-water’s view
c.paranasal sinus view
130. Radiographic technique for TMJ
a.transcranial
b.transpharangeal
c.transorbital
d.all the above
131. Hydroquinone in developing solution
functions as
b. Reduce silver halide to metallic silver
c. activator
d. preservative
b.full mouth radiograph
c.cepalometric radiograph
d.OPG
132. Aluminium chloride fuctions as
a. harderner
b. preservative
c. acidifier
d. solvent
d.hypercementosis
133.The radiograph of choice for
preoperative evaluation of
skeletal and soft tissue patterns is
a. lateral view skull radiograph
b. cephalometric radiograph
c. OPG
d. occlusal view radiograph
137. Diffuse,radioopacity in the apex
of chronic low grade inflammation
a.periapical granuloma
b.periapical cementoma
c.sclerosing osteitis
134. The technique that generate image
from non-ionizing radiation is
a.digital radiograph
b.ultrasound
c.CT scan
d. all the above
d.periapical granuloma
135. Circumscribed well defined
radiolucent area of bone at
the apex of tooth surrounded by
dense sclerotic bone is
a. chronic periapical abscess
b.periapical cyst
c.chronic periapical granuloma
d.infected cyst
with superimposed radioopaque
136. Diffused,ill defined area
of radiolucency at the apex is
a.periapical periodontitis
b.periapical abscess
c.periapical granuloma
d.periapical cyst
139. Well defined periapical radiolucency with
the loss of lamina dura and periodontal
space is seen in
a.periapical periodontitis
b.periapical cyst
c.periapical abscess
138. Radiographically moth eaten
appearance is seen in
a. chronic gingivitis
b. Osteomyelitis
c. moderate periodontitis
d. interproximal food impaction
140. Onion skin appearance occurs
in radiograph in
a.Garre’s osteomyelitis
b.Suppurative osteomyelitis
c.Sclerosing osteomyelitis
d.Radiation osteomyelitis
141.Heart shaped appearance of radiolucency
line is seen in
a.nasopalatine canal cyst
b.median alveolar cyst
c.median mandibular cyst
d.mid palatine cyst
142.Pear shaped radiolucency suggests
a.dental cyst
b.globulomaxillary cyst
d.nasoalveolar cyst
d.incisive canal cyst
d.ameloblastoma
143.Rounded radiolucency at the
apex of root with radioopaque
border is seen in
a. radicular cyst
b.follicular cyst
c.dental lamina cyst
d.enamel organ cyst
147. Multiple root resorption
occurs in jaw tumour
a.osteoclastoma
b.metastatic carcinoma
c.sarcoma mandible
144. Unilocular radiolucency suurounding
Crown of impacted tooth
a. dentigerous cyst
b. dental cyst
c. keratocyst
d. radicular cyst
149. Soap bubble appearance of radiograph
is seen in
a.ameloblastoma
b.myxoma
c.haemangioma
d.all the above
145. A circumscribed smoothly
contoured, roundened
radiopaque mass in jaw bone is
a.exostosis
b.enostosis
c.dysostosis
d.hyperostosis
150. The jaw tumor that shows sun ray
appearance in radiograph is
a.osteochondroma
b.osteoblastoma
c.osteosarcoma
d.osteoclastoma
146.Multilocular small radiolucency
with honey comb appearance
seen in a jaw lesion is
a.keratocyst
b.ameloblastoma
c.fibrous dysplasia
d.multiple cyst
151. Radiographic appearance may simulate
ground glass appearance in
a.ossifying fibroma
b.osteomyelitis
c.fibrous dysplasia
d.cemental dysplasia
152. Bullous shape of root apex
Separated by radiolucent space
of periodontal membrane is
a.cementoma
b.hypercementosis
157. The primary radiographic feature of
cushings syndrome is
a.bone formation
b.generalized osteoporosis
c.lamina dura lost
148. Well defined,unilocular radiolucency
with multiple opaque foci associated
with unerupted tooth occurs in
a.dentigerous cyst
b.ameloblastoma
c.keratocyst
d.adenoid odontogenic tumour
c.cementoblastoma
d.odontoma
d.marrow space increased
153. Lincoln beard appearance in
Bone scan occurs in
a.paget’s disease
b.ossifying fibroma
c.fibrous dysplasia
d.osteosarcoma
158. An increased width of the pdl
space occurs in
a.progressive systemic sclerosis
b.progressive destruction of alveolar bone
c.progressive destruction of pdl memberane
d.bone loss in periodontal disease
154. Greatly increased density of
bone with the trabecular pattern
of medullary cavities are
unrecognized in
a.multiple myeloma
b.paget’s disease
c.fibrous dysplasia
d.osteopetrosis
159. Skull radiography shows thickened
dipolic space and thinning of cortices in
a.sickle cell anaemia
b.aplastic anaemia
c.cooley’s anaemia
d.iron deficiency aneamia
155. Loss of lamina dura of
alveolar bone is seen in
a.hyperthyroidism
b.hypothyroidism
c.hyperparathyrodism
d.hypoparathyroidism
160. Hair on end effect of cortices
of skull occur in
a.multiple myeloma
b.sickle cell anemia
c.apalstic anemia
d.thalassemia
156.In lateral skull radiograph
significant changes in sella
turcica occur in
a.hyperpituitarism
b.hypopituitarism
c.hyperthyroidism
d.hyperparathyroidism
161. Thickened trabecular plate
and enlarged marrow space occur in
a.cooley’s anemia
b.sickle cell anemia
c.aplastic cell anemia
d.myeloid leukemia
162. Sudden appearance of widening of
periapical pdl space occurs in
a.dental concussion
b.chronic apical periodontits
c.scleroderma
d.acute peripapical periodontitis
d.myeloma
163. Supernumerary teeth and multiple
uneruptted are seen in the
167. Radiographic appearance of very large
marrow spaces and thinning of lower
border cortex occurs in
a.sickle cell anemia
b.thalassemia
c.aplastic anemia
168. Total opacity with in the maxillary
antral cavity suggest
radiograph in
a. cleidocranial dysostosis
b. crouzon’s disease
c. dentigerous cyst
d. osteopetrosis
169.Ivory osteoma shows in radiograph as
164. Widening of pulp chamber with
radiolucency in dentin with
intact enamel
a.chronic hyperplastic puplitis
b.extensive caries
c.taurodontism
d.internal resorption
165. Multiple small well defned
radiolucencies without sclerotic border,
punched out defect occurs in skull bone
a.osteitis fibrosa cystic
b.metastatic carcinoma
c.malignant lymphoma
d.multiple myeloma
166. Ewing’s sarcoma of the mandible
radiographically appears as
a. onion skin effect
b.orange peel appearance
c.moth eaten appearance
d.ground glass appearance
a.acute sinusitis
b.bony tumour of sinus
c.odontoma in antrum
d.paget’s disease
a.well defined round or lobulated
homogenous densly opaque mass
b. thick radioopaque mass
c.radioopaque mass surrounded by
radiolucency
d.radioopque and radiolucent mass
170.Multilocular radioluscent lesion
a.ameloblastoma
b.odontogenic myxoma
c.aneurysmal bone cyst
d.all of the above
171.Compound odontome radiographically
appears as
a.as a homogeneous radioopaque mass
b.as a radiodensity with the miniature
teeth shape surrounded by radiolucent
line
c.radiodensity with calcified mass
d.large radiolucency with opaque mass
172.Florid cemento osseous dysplasia
shows radiographically as
a.radioopacities
b.radiolucencies
c.radioopaque and radiolucencies
d.radioopacity surrounded by
radiolucent line
177.Radio opaque mass at the apex
of the root with golf ball appearance is
a.osteoma
b.cementoblastoma
c.cementifying fibroma
d.hypercementosis
173.Bitewing radiograph detects
a.foreign body
b.proximal caries
c.enamel thickening
d.restoration
178. Standard silver halide emulsion is
sensitive to
a. red light
b. blue light
c. ultraviolet
d. green light
174. Radiolucent anatomical
landmark in the mandible
a.mental foramen
b.lingula
c.mylohyoid line
d.genial tubercle
179.Generalized skeletal bone resorption in
primary hyperparathyroidism leads to
a.osteoporosis
b.osteoplasia
c.osteitis
d.osteopenia
175. Radiolucency with evidence
of faint random internal
trabeculations
a.nasopalatine cyst
b.aneurysmal bone cyst
c.odontogenic keratocyst
d.median palatine cyst
181.Radiographic features of skull and jaws
176.Radiolucency in early stage
then numerous scattered radio
opacity an appearance of
driven snow
a.CEOT
b.AOT
c.gorlin cyst
d.all the above
182.Fibrous dysplasia in the jaw
shows a localized, round
zone of relative radiolucency
containing fine trabecular
pattern is described as
a.ground glass,finger print or
orange peel
b.ground glass
c.finger print
d.orange peel
b. CT scan
183. Copper beaten appearance
of cranium resulting due to
craniosynostosis occurs in
a.multiple myeloma
b.osteopetrosis
c.crouzon’s syndrome
d.trecher Collin syndrome
180.Decreased bone density in skull vault
described as pepper pot skull occurs in
a.cooley’s anemia
b.osteopetrosis
c.sickle cell anemia
d.hyperparathyroidism
shows frontal bossing, grossly enlarged
and prognathic mandible with increased
obliquity of angle in
a.paget’s disease
b.condylar hyperplasia
c.cruzon’s disease
d.acromegaly
186. Sub periosteal deposits in radiograph
suggests
a.osteopetrosis
b.osteogenesis imperfect
c.osteomalacia
d.osteomyelitis
187.In one of the following technique ionizing
radiation is not used
a. digital radiograph
c. conventional tomography
d. MRI
188.The technique is excellent for
differentiating between solid and cystic
mass
a.ultrasound
b.CTscan
184.Multiple odontogenic
keratocyst are a feature of
a.gorlin’s syndrome
b.polycystic ameloblastoma
c.multicystic keratocyst
d.osteitis fibrosa cystic
b. ductal dialatation caused by associated
185.Stafne’s cyst appears
as a radiolucency
a.at the angle of mandible
b.at the body of mandible
c.at the angle of the mandible
before the inferior dental canal
d.at the angle of mandible
above the inferior dental canal
c.radioisotope imaging
d.MRI
189.Sialographic appearance of calculi
includes
a. filling defect in the main duct
sialodochitis
c. the emptying film usually shows contrast
medium retained behind the stone
d.all the above
190.The radiographic projections
for parotid and submandibular
gland
a.oblique lateral
b.PA view skull
c.zygomatic view
d.transphyrengeal view
194.Multilocular bilateral radiolucency
in ramus with internal radioopaque
septa occurs in
a.ameloblastoma
b.cherubism
c.aneurysmal bone cyst
d.myxoma mandible
191.Radiographically flattening of
the head of the condyle with
erosion and destruction of the
articular surface of the condyle
with hollowing of glenoid fossa
occurs in
a.rheumatoid arthritis
b.suppurative arthritis
c.osteomyelitis
d.tuberculosis of TMJ
but small opacities of snow flakes with
192.Fusion of the head of the
condyle in glenoid fossa
with little or no evidence
of joint space occurs in
195.Jaw lesion shows initially radiolucency
but in more advanced stage contain
variable amount of radioopacity
is
a. periapical granuloma
b. Ameloblastoma
c. keratocyst
d. ossifying fibroma
196.Jaw lesion shows initially radiolucency
with in the radiolucency may be seen
peripherally as the lesion matures in
a.AOT
b.CEOT
a.ankylosis
b.arthrosis
c.arthritis
d.artifact of TMJ
neck region because
193.Dental injury can cause
a.fracture of teeth
b.luxation of teeth
c.fracture of alveolus
d.all of the above
tissue
c.gorlin cyst
d.fibrous dysplasia
197.Ultrasound has limited use in head and
a.sound waves are not transmitted well
b.sound waves are absorbed by the bone
c.sound waves cannot pass through both
bone and soft tissues
d.sound waves are absorbed by the vascular
198.The radiograph of choice for
the ankylosis of TMJ is
a.CT
b MRI
c.ultrasound
d.bone scan
204. Radiation is
199.Reverse towne’s view is
indicated to investigate
a.articular surface of the condyle
b.disease within the joint
c.fracture condylar head and neck
d.all the above
d.invisible rays
200.Transpharyngeal view of
radiograph is indicated for
a.detection of pharyngeal growth
b.for tonsillar growth
c.to find out styloid process
d.TMJ pain dysfunction syndrome
203.The atom consists of
a.central nucleus and orbiting electrons
b.protons and neutrons
c.electrons
d.electrons and neutrons
201.The science or study of
radiation energy is
a.radiology
b.roentonology
c.imageology
206.Radiation effects on skin causes
a.carcinoma
b.sarcoma
c.toxicity of skin
d.chronic dermatitis
a.emission and propogation of energy through
space or a substance in the form of
wave and particle
b.certain unstable atom or element
c.a beam of energy that has power to
penetrate
205. Radiation effects on heamopoitic tissue
causes
a.anemia
b.leukemia
c.polycythemia
d.thrombocytopenia
d.radiograph
207.Small amounts of radiation absorbed
202.The father of x-rays who
discovered the early
potential of an xray
beam in 1895
a.Robert m jones
b.william Conrad roentgen
c.eric whaite
d.william d.coolidge
208.Genetic effects of radiation
a.do not affect the health of
the exposed individual
b.affect health of exposed individual
c.affects the entire tissue
d.affect the person who exposed
the radiation to the patient
214.The placement of aluminium disc in the
209.One of the following cell is most
radio sensitive
a.epithelial cell
b.lymphocytes
c.myocytes
d.plasma cell
d.total filtration
210.One of the following cell is
Radioresistant
a.muscle cell
b.lymphocyte
c.reproductive cell
d.fibroblasts
d.aluminum disc are used
211.The traditional units of
radiation measurements
a.The roentgen(R)
b.the radiation absorbed dose(rad)
c.roentengen equivalent
d.all of the above
212.A special unit of absorbed
dose that is equal to deposition
of 100Ergs of energy/gm of tissue is
over a long period of time causes
a.acute radiation effects
b.chronic radiation effects
c.long term effect
d.short term effect
213.The dental xray tube head
must be equipped with
a.appropriate aluminum filter
b.lead collimator
c.PID
d.all the above
path of xray beam between the collimator
and the tube head seal in the dental
xray machine is
a.simple filtration
b.inherent filtration
c.added filtration
215.In intra oral radiograph to restrict the
size and shape of x-ray beam and to
reduce patient exposure
a.collimation is used
b.filteration is used
c.Kvp is adjusted
216.Lead apron is used to protect
scatterd radiation to
a.heart
b.reproductive and blood forming cells
c.immunological cells
d.skin
217.The single most effective method
of reducing the patient exposure
to x-ray is by
a.rad
b.rem
c.sivert
d.Roentgen(R)
a.using PID
b. using proper collimation
c.using fast film
d.using proper film holding device
218.All exposure to radiation must
be kept to a minimum or as
low as reasonably achievable,
this is
a.MPD concept
b.MAD concept
c.ALARA concept
d.all the above
224.To take radiographs of crown,root,tip
219.Film badge is used for
a.personal monitoring
b.radiation monitoring
c.equipment monitoring
d.Xray room monitoring
223.Lead foil sheet in the xray film packet
is used
a.to give thickness to the film packet
b.to shield the film from back scattered
radiation that results in film fog
c.to reduce radiation
d.to prevent leakage of radiation
220.Control panel of xray machine is
a. to suspend xray tube head
b. to allow the dental radiographer to
regulate the xray beam
c. to hold central device
d. to hold exposure button
226. Extra oral cassette is a special device that
221.Dental xray film base is a flexible
piece of
a.cardboard
b.lead sheet
c.plastic
d.polyester plastic
227.Radiographs lack density and permit
222.The main advantage of using
double emulsion film is
a.easy manipulation
b.double exposure
c.it requires less radiation exposure to
produce image
225.Intensifying screens are coated with
a.silver halide
b.phoshorous
c.calcium salts
d.film emulsion
of the root,the film used is
a.bitewing
b.occlusal view
c.periapical film
d.children film
is used to hold
a. Sensor
b.intensifying screens
c.unexposed film
d.both b and c
the passage of xray beam appears
a.radioopaque
b.foggy
c.black with grains
d.radiolucent
d.for better quality of image
228.Structures that resist the passage
of xray beam shows
a.radioopacity
b.foggy
c.white with black
d.radiolucency
232.One of the following chemicals in
developing agent
a.hydroquinone
b.sodium sulphite
c.sodium carbonate
d.potassium bromide
229.The capability of the xray film
to reproduce distinct outlines
of the object is
a.contrast
b.sharpness
c.density
d.magnification
234.Photographic image produced on the film
230.Target film distance is the
a.distance between target to
the tip of the cone
b.distance between anode
and cathode
c.distance between the source
of xray and the film
d.distance between xray film
to the mouth
b.an instrument to hold and read the film
231.The process of converting
the latent invisible image
into visible image
a.rinsing
b.developing
c.fixing
d.film processing
233.Fixing chemical agent in the fixer
composition solution is
a.sodium thiosulphate
b.sodium sulphite
c.potassium alum
d.acetic acid
236.Hemostat with bite block is
a.surgical clamp to control bleeding
by the passage of xray through the teeth
is called
a.periapical film
b.dental radiograph
c.intraoral xray film
d. x-ray of the teeth
235.A film holder is
a.a clip to hold the film to develop and fix
c.a device that is used to position the film
to exposure
d.to hold and preserve the film
241.The level of alveolar bone can be
examined in
b.used in prosthetic bite registration
c.a film holder to stabilize the film
d.used to raise the bite in tmj problems
d.cephalometric film
237.Crowns and roots of the 2nd
premolar of the mandible
including the apices must
be seen in
a.mandibular premolar exposure
b.mandibular canine
c.mandibular canine and premolar
exposure
d.mandibular premolar and molar
exposure
238.During film placement posterior
films are placed
a.vertically
b.horizontally
c.tilting the film mesially
d.tilting the film distally
a.the cassette is kept along the outer
239.Elongated images refer to
images that appear too
long due to
a.incorrect horizontal angulation
b.insufficient vertical angulaion
c.excess vertical angulation
d.incorrect vertical angulation
240.Foreshortened images refer
to images of teeth that
appear short due to
a.incorrect horizontal angulation
b.insufficient vertical angulation
c.excessive vertical angulation
d.incorrect vertical angulation
246.The intensifying screen which
requires less xray exposure and
emit green light is
a.calcium tungstate intensifying screen
b.silver halide intensifying screen
c.rare earth intensifying screen
d.plain screen film
a.periapical film
b.bitewing film
c.vertical bitewing film
242.Intraoral occlusal radiograph the film
used for adults is
a.size 3 intraoral film
b.size 4 intraoral film
c.size 2 intraoral film
d. size 1 intraoral film
243.The occlusal projection used to examine
the palate and the anterior teeth of the
maxilla is
a.topographic projection
b.lateral projection
c.cross sectional projection
d.pediatric projection
244. In panaromic radiography
surface of the jaw
b.the film is kept alone in the rotating machine
c.tubehead alone rotates around the patient
d.film and the tubehead rotates around
the patient
245.The collimater used in the panaromic
xray machine is a lead plate
a.with small round opening
b.with small round and rectangular opening
c. with the opening in the shape of a
narrow vertical slit
d.with the circular shaped slit
251.Multiple cyst like radiolucent osteitis
fibrosa cystic occurs in
a.hypoparathyroidism
b.basal cell nevi syndrome
c.multiple myeloma
d.hyperparathyroidism
252.The skull radiograph to evaluate the
247.Frankfort plane is an imaginary
plane from the
a.angle of the mouth to the tragus
b.alae of the nose to the outer part
of the eye
c.that passes through the top of the
ear canal to the bottom of the
eye socket
d.a line from the angle of the mouth to the
lateral part of the eye lid
view
248.The images seen on the panaromic
radiograph are
a.really sharp
b.are not sharp as intra oral radiograph
c.more sharp than intraoral radiograph
d.sharpness equal to intraoral radiograph
to estimate the joint space and to
249.The advantage of panaromic
radiograph is
a.field size and simple
b.image quality
c.distortion
d.focal trough limitation
250.The indication for reverse towne
projection for extra oral radiogarph is
a. to evaluate base of the skull
b.to identify position of coronoid
c.to identify the fracture of the condyle
and ramus area
d.to locate tumor in the base of the skull
256.CCD is
a.video camera
b.fax machine
c.a device to collect Xrays
d.image receptor used in dental
digital radiograph
d.internal resorption
257.A ring shaped radioopacity
below the apices of mandibular
incisors is
a.midline of the mandible
b.genial tubercle
maxillary sinus area ,frontal and
ethmoidal sinus and orbital and nasal
cavity
a.anterior posterior projection
b.posterio anterior projection
c.sub mento vertex
d.water’s projection
253.Fractured zygomatic arch can be
visualized in the skull radiogaraph in the
a.water’s proection
b.reverse towne’s projection
c.submento vertex projection
d.posterioanterior projection
254.To study the bony components of TMJ,
evaluate the extent of movement of
condyle the following radiograph is
indicated
a.lateral view of skull radiograph
b.transcranial projection
c.TMJ topography
d.orthography
255.The method of capturing image using
sensor without Xray film is called
a.digital substraction
b.digital radiography
c.indirect digital imaging
d.CCD
261.A round to ovoid radiolucency in the mid
crown or mid root of a tooth involving the
pulp is
a.extensive dental caries
b.external root resorption
c.failure to close the pulp chamber
262.Widening of periapical periodontal space
and appears as a round or ovoid
radiolucency with loss of lamina dura
between the root apex and apical lesion
a.periapical granuloma
c.periapical infection
d.torus mandibularis
d.periapical periodontitis
258.A radioopaque band extending
downward and forward from
the anterior border of ramus
of the mandible is
a.lower border of mandible
b.mylohyoid line
c.external oblique ridge
d.inferior dental canal
264. Reverse towne’s projecton- this
259.The outer most radiopaque
layer of crown of the tooth is
a.cementum
b.dentin
c.alveolar bone
d.enamel
b.periapical cyst
c.peripaical abscess
263. Neither the Xray film is used nor the
the processing procedure is followed in
one of the imaging techniques
a.extra oral radiograph
b.bite wing radiograph
c.occlusal
d.digital
projection of extra oral radiograph helps
to identify
a.base of the skull
b.paranasal sinus
c.foramen magnum and ramus area
d.fractured neck of the condyle
260.Which alveolar crest
radiographically appears
flat and smooth
a.alveolar crest of incisors
b.alveolar crest of canine
c.anterior alveolar crest
d.posterior alveolar crest
265.The differences in degree of blackness
between adjacent area on a radiograph is
a.distortion
b.density
c.contrast
d.elongation
266.Well defined radio opacity
below the apices of vital tooth is
a.condensing osteitis
b.cementum
c.idiopathic periapical osteosclerosis
d.early ossifying fibroma
272. Supernumerary tooth that erupt
267.Radiolucent area above the
mental ridge in panaromic
radiograph is
a.mental foramen
b.mental fossa
c.lingual fossa
d.lingual foramen
273.Fusion of adjacent 2 tooth germs
268.Radioopacity anterior to
271.Supernnumerary tooth distal to 3rd molar
a.mesiodens
b.distodens
c.peridens
d.paramolars
ectopically either buccal or
lingual to normal arch
a. mesiodens
b.distodens
c.peridens
d.paramolars
develop and calcified as
mandibular foramen in
panaromic radiograph is
a.coronoid process
b.retromolar area
c.anterior part of coronoid process
d.lingula
may be more hazy than anticipated
269.Radiolucent band outlined
by two thin radioopaque
lines representing cortical
wall in panaromic radiograph is
a.mandibular foramen
b.mandibular canal
c.mental foramen
d.mental ridge
a.exostosis
270.Supernumerary tooth between
or just posterior to central incisors
a.mesiodens
b.distodens
c.peridens
d.paramolars
a.fusion
b.gemination
c.concrescence
d.dilaceration
274.A cyst shows radiolucency which
a.infected dental cyst
b.keratocyst
c.dentigerous cyst
d.a cyst associated with odontome
275.Radiographically a circumscribed
smoothly contoured somewhat rounded
radioopaque mass in the jaw is
b.enostosis
c.hypercementosis
d.dyostosis
276.Jaw lesions in which a single isolated
radioopaciy well defined or diffused
within trabeculae of normal bone is called
a.exostosis
b.hypercementosis
c.enostosis
d.hyperostosis
281.Multiple small well defined
radiolucency without sclerotic
border like punched out defect occurs in
a.hyperparathyroidism
b.eosinophillic granuloma
c.multiple myeloma
d.hand- schuller –christian disease
277.An odontoma in the jaw bone is a
a.odontogenic tumor
b.hamartoma
c.choriostoma
d.teratoma
c.exostosis
278. Radiographically spoke wheel
Appearance is seen in
a. Ameloblastoma
b. CEOT
c. Central hemangioma of bone
d. AOT
b.osteitis deformans
282. A thin radiolucent capsule surrounds the
radioopacity and seperates it from
adjacent normal bone is
a.condensing osteitis
b.periapical cemental dysplasia
d.sequestrum in osteomyelitis
283. Rdiographically multiple roots seen
with hypercementosis in advanced
stage of the following disease
a.cleido cranial dysostosis
279.Primary radiographic carcinoma of
jaw shows irregular radiolucent
destructive disease with ill defined
irregular erosion of bony margin
and erosion of alveolar bone
occurs in
a.ameloblastoma
b. central giant cell granuloma
c.multiple myeloma
d.primary carcinoma
d.osteopetrosis
280.The malignant tumor of jaw that
show sun ray appearencve in
radiograph is
a.metatstaic carcinoma
b.osteosarcoma
c.fibrosarcoma
d.ameloblastic carcinoma
286.Dense opacity slightly raised on
Palate in maxillary occlusal
radiograph is
a.osteopetrosis of the maxilla
b.multiple osteoms
c.condensing osteitis
d.torus palatinus
c.osteopetrosis
d.osteomalacia
284.The disease in which all the bones
show increased density that the
trabecular pattern of medullary cavities
are virtually unrecognized in
a.paget’s disease
b.skeletal fluorosis
c.osteogenesis imperfecta
285.Radiograph shows dense alveolar bone
and embedded poorly formed teeth in
a.osteopetrosis
b. cleido- cranial dysostosis
c.skeletal fluorosis
d.osteogenesis imperfecta
291.Loss of density of the alveolar bone
and lamina dura occurs in
a.osteomalacia
b.diabetic periodontitis
c.osteopetrosis
d.malignancy
287.In occlusal radiograph radioopaque
Homogenous knobly protrubernce from the
lingual surface of the mandible suggest
a.supernumerary tooth
b.impacted canine
c.sialolith
d.torus mandibularis
292.Following traumatic event of the central
incisor,widening of the PDL space
in the apical portion occurs in
a.periodontitis
b.concussion
c.subluxation
d.luxation
288.Radiographically as a radioopaque
infolding of the enamel into
the tooth pulp chamber is
a.pulp stone
b.evagination
c.dens-in denti
d.talon’s cusp
294.Vertical radiolucent lines that appear in
289.Periapical radiograph shows loss
293.Radiographically intruded tooth with
obliteration of the lamina dura occurs in
a.developmental disease
b.unerupted tooth
c.tooth pushed by tumor
d.traumatic injury
mandibular periapical radiograph suggest
of lamina dura in
a.hyperparathyroidism
b.hypoparathyroidism
c.hyperthyroidism
d.hypothyroidism
295.Compared to conventional radiograph
290.Radiographically thinning of lamina
Dura delayed dental eruption and
short tooth root is seen in
a.hypothyroidism
b.hyperthyroidism
c.hyper pitutarism
d.hypopitutarism
a.fracture of the mandible
b.fracture alveolus
c.mid line suture
d.nutrient canal
296. To capture radiographic image
of teeth in digital radiograph
a. sensor is used
b.pixel is used
c.CCD is used
d.xray film is used
d.panaromic radiograph
297.To locate foreign bodies or
salivary stones in the region
of the floor of the mouth the
choice of radiograph in mandible is
a.IOPA
b.topographic occlusal projection
c.cross sectional occlusal projection
d.all of the above
299.The radiograph not indicated to evaluate
caries,periodontal disease and
periapical lesion is
a.intraoral radiograph
b.occlusal radiograph
c.bitewing radiograph
298.To locate foreign bodies and
lesions in posterior maxilla,
the radiograph is maxillary
a.periapical radiograph
b.topographic occlusal radiograph
c.lateral occlusal projection
d.all of the above
the digital radiography requires
a.less x-ray radiation
b.more x ray radiation
c.same x-ray radiation
d.no x-ray radiation
300.A radiolucent area located above the
apices of maxillary premolar and molar is
a.orbital cavity
b.nasal cavity
c.maxillary sinus
d.ethmoidal sinus