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Prime Elements Machine Design
Mechanical Engineering (University of Rizal System)
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ELEMENTS 01
PRIME ELEMENTS
MACHINE DESIGN
II
1. Heating above the transformation
range, usually 1300oF to 1350oF, and
cooling slowly to soften the metal
and increase in machining
A. annealing
B. hardening
C. normalizing
D. tempering
2. Heating above the transformation
temperature and quenching usually
in oil, for the purpose of increasing
the hardness
A. annealing
B. hardening
C. normalizing
D. tempering
3. Reheating to temperature below the
transformation range, followed by
any desired rate of cooling to attain
the desired properties of the metal.
A. annealing
B. hardening
C. normalizing
D. stress relieving
4. Heating to subcritical temperature,
about 1100oF to 1300oF and holding
at that temperature for a suitable
time for the purpose of reducing
internal residual stresses.
A. annealing
B. hardening
C. normalizing
D. stress relieving
5. Heating some 100oF above the
transformation range with
subsequent cooling to below that
range in still air at room temperature
to produce uniform structure of the
metal.
A. annealing
B. hardening
C. normalizing
D. tempering
6. A machine tool used for producing
holes in metal by the use of cutting
tool called drill.
A. drilling machine
B. boring machine
C. milling machine
D. broaching machine
7. A machine tool use to form metal
parts by removing metal from a work
piece
By the use of a revolving cutter with
many teeth each tooths having a
cutting edge which removes its
share of the stock.
A. drilling machine
B. boring machine
C. milling machine
D. broaching machine
8. A machine tool used to sharpen or
shape tools by using an abrasive
wheel.
A. tool grinder
B. shaper
C. planer
D. power saw
9. A machine tool used to enlarge a
hole by means of an adjustable
cutting tool with only one cutting
edge.
A. drilling machine
B. boring machine
C. milling machine
D. broaching machine
10. A machine tool used to cut metal by
parts of light, medium, and large
sections using a reciprocating
hacksaw blade.
A. tool grinder
B. shaper
C. planer
D. power saw
11. A machine tool used to machine flat
or plane surfaces with a single point
cutting tool.
A. tool grinder
B. shaper
C. planer
D. power saw
12. A machine tool used for production
or flat surfaces on pieces too large
or too heavy to hold in a shaper.
A. tool grinder
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B. shaper
C. planer
D. power saw
13. A machine tool used to finish
internal or external surfaces such as
holes or keyways by the use of a
cutter called broach, which has a
series of cutting edges or teeth.
A. drilling machine
B. boring machine
C. milling machine
D. broaching machine
14. An alloy of copper and tin
A. brass
B. bronze
C. iron
D. tin
15. An alloy of copper and zinc
A. brass
B. bronze
C. iron
D. tin
16. The process of forming metal parts
by the use of dies after the metal is
heated to its plastic range
A. rolling
B. forging
C. turning
D. casting
17. The process of forming a metal parts
by the use of a powerful pressure
from a hammer or press to obtain
the desired shape after the metal
has been heated to its plastic range
A. rolling
B. forging
C. turning
D. casting
18. A manganese steel containing
approximately 0.20% carbon
A. SAE 1320
B. SAE 1230
C. SAE 2340
D. SAE 4230
19. A machine tool in which metal
removed by means of a revolving
cutter with many teeth, each tooth
having a cutting edge which remove
its share of the shock
A. milling machine
B. broaching machine
C. lathe machine
D. boring machine
20. A metal turning machine in which
the work while revolving on a
horizontal axis is acted upon by a
cutting tool which is made to move
slowly (feed) in a direction more or
less parallel to the axis of the work
(longitudinal feed)
A. milling machine
B. broaching machine
C. lathe machine
D. boring machine
21. A machine tool used in the
production of flat surfaces on pieces
too large or too heavy or perhaps
too awkward to hold in a shaper
A. shaper
B. planer
C. tool grinder
D. power saw
22. It consist of shaping a piece by
bringing it into contact with a
rotating abrasive wheel
A. drilling
B. boring
C. grinding
D. broaching
23. A tool used in measuring diameters
A. caliper
B. nanometer
C. tachometer
D. pyrometer
24. Used to true align machine tools,
fixtures, and works, to test and
inspect trueness of finished work,
and too compare measurement
either heights or depths or many
other measurement
A. dial gauge
B. dial indicator
C. tachometer
D. speedometer
25. The ability of the metal to be
deformed considerably without
rupture
A. ductility
B. plasticity
C. malleability
D. elasticity
26. The shop term used to include the
marking of inscribing of center
points, circle, arcs, or straight line
upon metal surfaces, either curved
or flat, for the guidance of the
worker
A. shaping
B. hobbing
C. laying out
D. shaping
27. An operation of sizing and finishing a
hole by means of a cutting tool
having several cutting edges
A. notching
B. piercing
C. turning
D. reaming
28. The operation of making a cone
shaped enlargement of the end of a
hole, as for a recess for a flat head
screw
A. countersinking
B. knurling
C. squaring
D. perforating
29. The operation of enlarging a hole by
means of an adjustable cutting tool
with only one cutting edge
A. drilling
B. broaching
C. grinding
D. boring
30. An imaginary circle passing through
the points at which the teeth of the
meshing gears contact each other
A. pitch circle
B. addendum circle
C. deddendum circle
D. base circle
31. A type of bolt for use in bolting
wooden parts together or wood to
metal,. It has a portion of shank just
underneath a round head, which is
designed to keep the bolt from
turning in the wood when the nut t
tightened
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A. u-bolt
B. carriage bolt
C. eye bolt
D. stud bolt
32. The number of teeth per inch of
pitch diameter and which gives
some indications of the gear teeth
A. module
B. pitch circle
C. diametral pitch
D. circular pitch
33. The distance from the center of one
tooth of a gear the center of the
next consecutive tooth measured of
the pitch
A. circular pitch
B. module
C. diametral pitch
D. pitch circle
34. The portion of the gear tooth that
projects above or outside the pitch
circle
A. top relief
B. deddendum
C. addendum
D. tooth space
35. The portion of the gear tooth space
that is cut below the pitch circle and
is equal to the addendum plus the
clearance
A. top root
B. deddendum
C. addendum
D. top land
36. When meshed with a gear it is used
to change rotary motion to
reciprocating motion
A. gear shaft
B. gear tooth
C. gear rack
D. gear motor
37. A kind of gears for heavy duty
works where a large ratio of speed is
required and are extensively used in
speed reducers
A. bevel gear
B. worm gear
C. helical gear
D. spiral gear
38. A kind of gear to transmit motion
from one shaft to another shaft at
an angle to the first
A. bevel gear
B. worm gear
C. helical gear
D. spiral gear
39. The uniform heating of steel above
the usual hardening temperatures,
followed by cooling freely in air
A. annealing
B. normalizing
C. hardening
D. tempering
40. The operation of cooling a heated
piece of work rapidly by dipping it in
water, brine or oil
A. quenching
B. tempering
C. normalizing
D. annealing
41. A method in softening a piece of
metal that is too hard to machine
and is done by heating steel slowly
above the usual hardening
temperature keeping it at the heat
for ½ to 2 hours then cooling slowly,
preferably in a furnace
A. broaching
B. quenching
C. normalizing
D. annealing
42. The total permissible variation in
the size of a dimension the
difference between the limits of size
A. allowance
B. tolerance
C. variance
D. interference
43. The operation of machining the end
of a work piece to make the end
square with the axis
A. squaring
B. buffing
C. lapping
D. honing
44. The clearance between the tooth
profiles of a gear tooth
A. toothspace
B. backslash
C. flank
D. width
45. A mechanism which usually do the
indexing in a machine tool
A. slotter
B. chuck
C. dividing head
D. indexer
46. A material that can wear away a
substance softer than itself
A. phenol
B. abrasive
C. tungsten
D. chromium
47. A cylindrical bar of steel with threads
formed around it and grooves or
flutes running lengthwise in it,
intersecting with the threads to form
cutting edges. It is used to cut
internal threads
A. groove
B. lap
C. tap
D. flute
48. A set of gages consisting of thin
strips of metal of various thickness
mounted in a steel case or holder
and is widely used for measuring
and checking clearances
A. feeler gage
B. depth gage
C. line center gage
D. lay-out gage
49. A machine tool which is very similar
to a shaper except that the ram
reciprocates vertically rather than
horizontally
A. Lathe
B. Grinder
C. Planer
D. Slotter
50. A machine tool principally to
machine flat or plane surfaces with
single-point cutting tool
A. Grinder
B. Shaper
C. Planer
D. Turret machine
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51. A kind of bolts which has no head
an instead has threads on both ends
A. Stud bolts
B. Acme threaded bolts
C. Square threaded bolts
D. Hex bolts
52. A kind of chuck which has a
reversible jaws which could be
adjusted separately
A. Collet chuck
B. Independent chuck
C. Four jaw chuck
53. A tool which when pressed into
finished hole in a piece of work,
provides centers on which the piece
may be turned or otherwise
machined
A. Mash
B. Butt
C. Mandrel
D. Wobble
54. A kind of chuck which should not
used where extreme accuracy is
required
A. Collet chuck
B. Magnetic chuck
C. Four jaw chuck
D. Universal chuck
55. The process of checking or
producing checkers on the surface of
a piece by rolling checkered
depression into the surface
A. Knurling
B. Hemming
C. Breading
D. Embossing
56. Its fits the main spindle of a lathe
and is so called because its acts as a
bearing surface on which the work
rest. It revolves with the work. When
compared with the hardness of the
dead center in the tailstock, is
usually soft, and is so made since it
does not work
A. Ram center
B. Spindle center
C. Live center
D. Bearing center
57. A gripping device with two or more
adjustable jaws radially
A. Chuck
B. Carriage
C. Tailstock
D. Fan
58. Steel Balls for ball bearings are
manufactured by
A. Turning
B. Rolling
C. Casting
D. Cold heading
59. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth
A. Cycloid
B. Epicycloids
C. Straight rack
D. Involutes
60. In a lathe, it comprises the main
spindle, the necessary mechanism
for obtaining the various spindle
speed and also certain gears which
are used to operate the quick
change gear mechanism
A. Headstock
B. Carriage
C. Tailstock
D. Fan
61. The process of heating a piece of
steel to a temperature within or
above critical range and cooling
rapidly
A. Normalizing
B. Hardening
C. Annealing
D. Tempering
62. Welding operation in which a nonferrous filler metal melts at a
temperature below that of the metal
joined but is heated above 450oC
A. Gas welding
B. Spot welding
C. Brazing
D. Steam welding
63. Uniting two pieces of metal by
means of a different metal which
applied between the two in molten
state
A. Casting
B. Welding
C. Soldering
D. Brazing
64. Fusion process of metal by means is
heated into a state of fusion
permitting it to flow together into a
solid joint
A. Electric arc welding
B. Gas welding
C. Spot welding
65. Joining metal by means of high
current at low voltage. During the
passage of current, pressure by the
electrodes produces a forge weld
A. Spot welding
B. Resistance welding
C. Steam welding
D. Gas welding
66. A device for accurately measuring
diameters
A. Radiometer
B. Profilometer
C. Spectrometer
D. Micrometer
67. A group of thin steel strips for
measuring clearances
A. Distortion gage
B. Feeler gage
C. Line center gage
D. Deflection gage
68. A hand tool used to measure engine
crank web deflection
A. Distortion gage
B. Feeler gage
C. Line center gage
D. Deflection gage
69. A hand tool used to measure tension
on bolts
A. Indexer
B. Torque wrench
C. Torsionmeter
D. Tensionmeter
70. The permissible variation in the size
of a dimension the difference
between the limits of size
A. Allowance
B. Variance
C. Clearance
D. Tolerance
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71. A gear with teeth on the outer
cylindrical surface
A. Outer gear
B. External gear
C. Spiral gear
D. Helical gear
72. The diameter of a circle coinciding
with the top of the teeth of an
internal gear
A. Pitch diameter
B. Root diameter
C. Internal diameter
D. Central diameter
73. A circle coinciding with a tangent
to the bottom of the tooth space
A. Root circle
B. Pitch circle
C. Addendum circle
D. Deddendum circle
74. The total depth of a tooth space,
equal to addendum plus deddendum
A. Full depth
B. Working depth
C. Whole depth
D. Deddendum
75. The depth of tooth space below the
pitch circle
A. Deddendum
B. Working depth
C. Full depth
D. Tooth depth
76. The ________ of gear to each mm
pitch diameter
A. Diametral pitch
B. Module
C. Circular pitch
D. English module
77. A machine tool in which abrasive
wheel is used as cutting tool obtain
a very smooth finish
A. Drill
B. Grinder
C. Planer
D. Shaper
78. It is used to produce a variety of
surfaces by using a circular type
cutter with multiple teeth
A. Grinding machine
B. Shaper
C. Drilling machine
D. Milling machine
79. It is used principally to machine flat
or plane surfaces with single point
tool
A. Drill
B. Shaper
C. Planer
D. Grinder
80. Cutting a hole by means of rotating
tool or the work may revolve and to
the tool remain fixed as in the lathe
A. Piecing
B. Notching
C. Boring
D. Perforating
81. One of the following is not a tap
used for cutting threads in holes
A. Tapping tap
B. Plug tap
C. Taper tap
D. Bottoming tap
82. An index or dividing head
A. A part of drill press
B. Used to rotate work
C. Not used to cut helixes
D. Always manually operated
83. Galvanized iron is a term referring to
iron coated with
A. Tin
B. Zinc
C. Magnesium
D. Aluminum
84. The moment of inertia of a rectangle
whose base is “b” and height “h”
about its base is
A. bh3/12
B. bh/46
C. bh3/3
D. bh2/4
85. In usual spur gearing
A. The pitch circle and the base
are the same
B. Working depth includes the
clearance
C. Tooth outline are usually
involute curves
D. Tooth outline are always
cycloidal curves
86. A stainless steel is obtained
principally by the use of the
following alloying element
A. Chromium
B. Tungsten
C. Carbon
D. Phenol
87. One of the following is not a
common term relating to the
classification of fits
A. Tunking
B. Snug
C. Medium force fit
D. Bound
88. Hearing bone Gears are gears which
A. Do not operate on parallel shaft
B. Have a line contact between
teeth
C. Consist of two left handed helical
gears
D. Tend to produce thrust on the
shafts
89. Internal stresses existing in a welded
connection
A. Are not relieved when the
weld is peened
B. Are not relieved by heat
treatment
C. May be relieved when the weld
is peened
D. Are relieved by x-ray analysis
90. In general the design stress and
factor of safety are related as follows
A. Design stress=ultimate stress
times factor of safety
B. Design stress=ultimate
stress divided by factor of
safety
C. Design stress=design stress
divided by factor of safety
D. Design stress= factor of safety
divided by design stress
91. A group of thin steel strips for
measuring clearance
A. Depth cut
B. Feeler gage
C. Lay-out gage
D. Clearance gage
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92. A hand tool used to measure tension
on bolts
A. Indexer
B. Torsion meter
C. Torque wrench
D. Tension meter
93. A material that can wear away a
substance softer than itself
A. Abrasive
B. Corrosive
C. Tungsten
D. Alloy
94. The material used in high speed
processes
A. High speed steel
B. Chromium
C. Cast iron
D. Carbon steel
95. An alloy of copper and zinc
A. Chromium
B. Bronze
C. Brass
D. Aluminum
96. An alloy of copper, tin, and small
amount of phosphorous
A. Chromium
B. Bronze
C. Brass
D. Aluminum
97. The process of working metals by
the application of sudden blows or
by steady pressure
A. Welding
B. Extrusion
C. Forging
D. Swaging
98. A welding operation in which a nonferrous filler metal melts at a
temperature below that of the metal
joined but is heated above 450oC
A. Brazing
B. Spot welding
C. Gas welding
D. Projection welding
99. The operation of cooling a heated
piece of work rapidly by dipping it in
water, brine, or oil
A. Tempering
B. Annealing
C. Quenching
D. Normalizing
100.
A machine tool used to
machine flat surfaces
A. Shaper
B. Planer
C. Grinder
D. Lathe
ELEMENTS 02
1. A machine tool in which an abrasive
wheel is used a cutting to obtain a
very smooth finish.
A. planer
B. shaper
C. power saw
D. grinder
2. It is used to produce a variety of
surfaces by using a circular type
cutter with a multiple teeth.
A. milling machine
B. broaching machine
C. beading machine
D. hemming machine
3. A heavy rotating body which serves
as reservoir for absorbing and
redisturbing kinetic energy.
A. Shaft
B. Governor
C. Flywheel
D. Puncher
4. A kind of gear used for heavy duty
works where a large ratio of speed is
required and is extensively used in
speed reducers.
A. Helical gear
B. Worm gear
C. Bevel gear
D. Spiral gear
5. A kind of gear used to transmit
motion from one shaft to another
shaft at angle to the first.
A. Helical gear
B. Worm gear
C. Bevel gear
D. Spiral gear
6. The minimum thickness to steel
members exposed to weather and
accessible for painting is:
A. 6mm
B. 8mm
C. 4mm
D. 10mm
7. The common deoxidizer and
cleanser of steel, forming oxides and
sulfates that are carried off in the
slag.
A. Manganese
B. Carbon
C. Tungsten
D. Sulfur
8. A highly transparent and exceeding
hard crystalline stone of almost pure
carbon.
A. Gold
B. Diamond
C. Bronze
D. Crystalline
9. A fine grained, salty silica rock used
for sharpening edge tools.
A. Eutectoid
B. Austenite
C. Oilstone
D. Pearlite
10. An amorphous solid made by using
silica with a basic oxide.
A. Pearlite
B. Rock
C. Silicon
D. Glass
11. A soft yellow metal, known since
ancient times a precious metal
which values are based.
A. Solidus
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Austenite
12. The operation of cooling a heated
piece of work rapidly by dropping it
in water, brine or oil.
A. Normalizing
B. Quenching
C. Annealing
D. Squeezing
13. A device used to prevent leakage of
media.
A. Seal
B. Packing
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C. Teflon
D. Graphite
14. A welding operation in which a nonferrous filler metal melts at a
temperature below that of the metal
joined but is heated above 450oC.
A. Arc welding
B. Brazing
C. Spot welding
D. Butt welding
15. The process of working metals by
the application of sudden blows r by
a steady pressure.
A. Trimming
B. Welding
C. Forging
D. Lancing
16. The process of producing a variety of
surface by using a circular type
cutter with multiple teeth.
A. Piercing
B. Cutting
C. Embossing
D. Milling
17. The softening of meals by heat
treatment and most commonly
consists of heating the metals up to
near molten state cooling them very
slowly.
A. Quenching
B. Tempering
C. Annealing
D. Forming
18. The maximum stress induced in a
material when subjected to
alternating or repeated loading
without causing failure.
A. Elastic limit
B. Proportional limit
C. Rupture strength
D. Endurance limit
19. The total deformation measured in
the direction of the line of stress.
A. Axial deformation
B. Elongation
C. Strain
D. Unit stress
20. The maximum stress to which a
material can be subjected without a
trace of any permanent set
remaining upon a complete
withdrawal of the stress.
A. Ultimate limit
B. Proportional limit
C. Endurance limit
D. Elastic limit
21. The total permissible variation in the
size of a dimension; the difference
between the limits of the size.
A. Deformation
B. Variance
C. Tolerance
D. Allowance
22. Fluid film desired between two
surfaces having relative sliding
motion.
A. Lube oil
B. Lubrication
C. Graphite
D. Grease
23. Flexible materials used to seal
pressurized fluids, normally under
dynamic conditions.
A. Packing
B. Teflon
C. Seals
D. Safety shield
24. A total resistance that a material
offers to an applied load.
A. Flexure
B. Stress
C. Elasticity
D. Rigidly
25. A property of material which relates
the lateral strains to the longitudinal
strain.
A. Rigidity
B. Elasticity
C. Poisson’s ratio
D. Deflection
26. A kind of gear used for heavy duty
works where a large ratio of speed is
required and is extensively used in
speed reducers.]
A. Spiral gear
B. Bevel gear
C. Worm gear
D. Helical gear
27. A kind of gear used to transmit
motion from one shaft to another
shaft at an angle to the first.
A. Spiral gear
B. Worm gear
C. Helical gear
D. Bevel gear
28. Which of the following is not a
classification of iron ore?
A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Sulfurite
D. Siderite
29. Which of the following metals will
respond to heat treatment?
A. Cast iron
B. Medium carbon steel
C. Wrought iron
D. Low carbon steel
30. Which of the following is a nonmagnetic?
A. Cast iron
B. Alloy steel
C. Cast steel
D. Manganese steel
31. The ability of metal to withstand
without breaking down is:
A. Stress
B. Strength
C. Strain
D. Elasticity
32. A machining operation whereby the
tool reciprocates and the feed is
stationary is called:
A. Shaping
B. Reaming
C. Planning
D. Turning
33. Any material that retards the flow of
electricity used to prevent passage
or escape of electric current from
conductors.
A. Insulators
B. Bricks
C. Ceramics
D. Refractories
34. A metallic element and the only
metal that is liquid at ordinary
temperature.
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A. Austenite
B. Mercury
C. Manganese
D. Martensite
35. An alloy of cooper and zinc.
A. Aluminum
B. Bronze
C. Brass
D. Nickel
36. Usually a copper- tin alloy is:
A. Aluminum
B. Nickel
C. Brass
D. Bronze
37. A tool with hardened points used for
scribing circles or laying of
distances.
A. Trammel
B. Caliper
C. Divider
D. Micrometer
38. Name of mechanism which a
welding operator holds during gas
welding and at the end of which the
gases are burned to perform the
various gas welding operations.
A. Mash
B. Core
C. Wobble
D. Torch
39. The maximum stress to which a
material may be subjected before
failure occurs.
A. Rupture stress
B. Yield stress
C. Ultimate stress
D. Allowable stress
40. The maximum stress induced in a
material when subjected to alternate
or repeated loading without causing
failure.
A. Yield point
B. Ultimate point
C. Endurance point
D. Proportional point
41. Which of the following is not a
classification of iron ore?
A. Hematite
B. Magnetic
C. Sulfurite
D. Siderite
42. Of the following metals, which will
respond to heat treatment?
A. Cast iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Medium iron
D. Low carbon iron
43. Materials, usually ceramics,
employed where resistance to very
high temperature is required, as for
furnace lining and metal melting
pots.
A. Refractories
B. Gaskets
C. Insulators
D. Safety shield
44. The softening of metals by heat
treatment and most commonly
consists of heating the metals up to
near molten state and then cooling
them very slowly.
A. Annealing
B. Hardening
C. Normalizing
D. Tempering
45. The process of producing of variety
of surfaces by using a circular type
cutter with multiple teeth.
A. Milling
B. Drilling
C. Broaching
D. Boring
46. The process of working metals by
the application of sudden blows or
by steady pressure.
A. Rolling
B. Forging
C. Castling
D. Turning
47. A welding operation in which a nonferrous filler metal melts at a
temperature below that of the metal
joined but is heated 450oC.
A. Spot welding
B. Gas welding
C. Brazing
D. Arc welding
48. The operation of cooling heated
piece of work rapid by dropping it in
water, brine or oil.
A. Quenching
B. Tempering
C. Annealing
D. Normalizing
49. A machine tool in which an abrasive
wheel is used as a cutting tool to
obtain a very degree of accuracy
and a smooth finish on metal parts,
including soft and hardened steel.
A. Grinding machine
B. Broaching machine
C. Milling machine
D. Boring machine
50. A machine tool used principally to
machine flat or place surfaces with a
single point cutting tool.
A. Shaper
B. Planer
C. Grinder
D. Broaching machine
51. A tool used for measuring diameters.
A. Micrometer
B. Tachometer
C. Pyrometer
D. Caliper
52. The total permissible variation in the
size of a dimension; the difference
between the limits of the size.
A. Tolerance
B. Fits
C. Allowance
D. Clearance
53. The maximum stress to which a
material can be subjected without a
trace of any permanent set
remaining upon a complete
withdrawal of the stress.
A. Ultimate stress
B. Rupture stress
C. Elastic limit
D. Proportional limit
54. Fluid film desired between two
surfaces having relative sliding
motion.
A. Lubrication
B. Seal
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C. Packing
D. Safety shield
55. A total deformation measured in the
direction of the line of stress.
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Endurance limit
D. Poisson’s ratio
56. A kind of gear for heavy duty works
where a large ratio of speed is
required and is extensively used in
speed reducers.
A. Worm gear
B. Spiral gear
C. Helical gear
D. Bevel gear
57. A kind of gear used to transmit
motion from one shaft to another
shaft at an angle to the first.
A. Worm gear
B. Spiral gear
C. Helical gear
D. Bevel gear
58. The area of a machine shop where
metal is being melted to form a new
shape is:
A. Welding area
B. Mass production area
C. Foundry area
D. Tool and die
59. A machine used in shaping metal by
means of abrasive wheel or removal
metals with an abrasive is called:
A. Planer
B. Power saw
C. Shaper
D. Grinding machine
60. The ability of materials or metal to
resist being crushed is:
A. Compressive strength
B. Fatigue strength
C. Torsional strength
D. Bending strength
61. A machining operation whereby the
tool rotates while the feed is
stationary.
A. Shaping
B. Milling
C. Turning
D. Reaming
62. A machining operation whereby the
tool reciprocates and the feed is
stationary.
A. Reaming
B. Planning
C. Shaping
D. Turning
63. Which of the following metals is easy
to chisel?
A. Alloy steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Manganese steel
D. Cast iron steel
64. Ferrous metals contain relatively
large amount of:
A. Carbon
B. Manganese
C. Phosphorous
D. Sulfur
65. Which of the following is not a
strength property of metals?
A. Tensile strength
B. Rocking strength
C. Fatigue strength
D. Torsional strength
66. Which of the following is not a kind
of mandrel?
A. Expansion mandrel
B. Contraction mandrel
C. Taper mandrel
D. Gang mandrel
67. Which of the following is not a part
of lathe machine?
A. Tailstock
B. Headstock
C. Carriage
D. Fan
68. The range of motors power in kW of
a universal milling machine, max
feed movement 1270 mm
lengthwise, 355 mm lateral, and 508
mm vertical is:
A. 11 to 15 kW
B. 16 to 21 kW
C. 7.5 to 10 kW
D. 22 to 30 kW
69. The motor power in kW of a punch
press, 50.8 mm hole diameter, 25.4
mm thickness, for soft steel is:
A. 15kW
B. 21 kW
C. 7.5 kW
D. 30 kW
70. The range of motor power in kW of a
cylindrical grinding machine 600 x
50 mm wheel size, 2,400 to 4, 200
mm center distance is:
A. 11 to 15 kW
B. 16 to 21 kW
C. 7.5 kW
D. 22 to 30 kW
71. The motor power in kW of a forming
r bending machine 1600 mm width,
508 mm head movement is:
A. 7.5 kW
B. 11 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 22 kW
72. The range of motor power in kW of
an Engine lathe machine, average
service 1000 mm to 13000 mm
swing.
A. 11 to 15 kW
B. 7.5 to 10 kW
C. 16 to 21 kW
D. 22 to 30 kW
73. A machine which can flatten
surfaces on a horizontal, vertical or
angular plane.
A. Shaper
B. Planer
C. Power saw
D. Tool grinder
74. The ability of metal to withstand
forces thus following a number of
twists.
A. Shear strength
B. Bearing strength
C. Endurance limit
D. Deformation
75. A property of material which relates
the lateral strain to the longitudinal
strain.
A. Stress
B. Modulus of elasticity
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C. Poisson’s ratio
D. Deformation
76. A total resistance that a material
offers to an applied load.
A. Friction force
B. Stress
C. Rigidity
D. Compressive force
77. A total deformation measured in the
direction of the line of stress.
A. Strain
B. Elasticity
C. Elongation
D. Contraction
78. An alloy of copper and zinc.
A. Aluminum
B. Brass
C. Bronze
D. Chromium
79. A metallic element of copper-tin
alloy.
A. Aluminum
B. Brass
C. Bronze
D. Chromium
80. A metallic element and only metal
that is liquid at ordinary
temperature.
A. Aluminum
B. Mercury
C. Zirconium
D. Zinc
81. Any material that retard the flow of
electricity, used to prevent passage
or escape of electric current from
conductors.
A. Refractory
B. Ceramics
C. Coating materials
D. Insulation
82. The maximum stress to which a
material may be subjected before
failure occurs.
A. rupture strength
B. ultimate strength
C. yield strength
D. proportional limit
83. The maximum stress induced in a
material when subjected to
alternating repeated loading without
causing failure.
A. ultimate strength
B. yield strength
C. endurance strength
D. rupture strength
84. Fluid film desired between two
surfaces having relatively sliding
motion.
A. lube oil
B. graphite
C. packing
D. lubrication
85. The ability of material to withstand
loads without breaking down
A. Strength
B. Elasticity
C. Rigidity
86. Materials usually ceramics,
employed where resistance to very
high temperature is required as
furnace lining and metal melting
pots.
A. Insulators
B. Gaskets
C. Packing
D. Refractories
87. An allying element used principally
to produce stainless steel.
A. aluminum
B. brass
C. bronze
D. chromium
88. A coating material used to produce
galvanized iron.
A. Zirconium
B. Zinc
C. Aluminum
D. Chromium
89. A group of thin steel strips used for
measuring clearance.
A. feeler gage
B. tachometer
C. micrometer
D. caliper
90. A hand tool used to measure tension
in bolts.
A. torque wrench
B. tachometer
C. shaver
D. sensor
91. Ratio of pitch diameter to the
number of teeth.
A. diametrical pitch
B. module
C. contact ratio
D. helical overlap
92. A circle the radius of which is equal
to the distance from the gear axis to
the pitch point.
A. pitch circle
B. root circle
C. base circle
D. outside circle
93. A circle coinciding with a tangent to
the bottom of the tooth spaces.
A. pitch circle
B. root circle
C. base circle
D. outside circle
94. The method of cold working by
compression.
A. Broaching
B. Lapping
C. Piercing
D. Reaming
95. A machine tool used finish internal
and external surfaces by the use of
cutter called a broach, which has a
series of cutting edges or teeth.
A. lathe machine
B. broaching machine
C. planer
D. shaper
96. A cutting tool which is made to move
slowly while acting on the work
which is revolving on a horizontal
axis.
A. lathe machine
B. broaching machine
C. planer
D. shaper
97. A machine tool used to produce a
variety of surfaces by using circular
type cutter with multiple teeth.
A. lathe machine
B. milling machine
C. broaching machine
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D. grinding machine
98. Used in the production of flat
surfaces on pieces too large or too
heavy to hold in a shaper.
A. Planer
B. Shaper
C. Grinder
D. Shaver
99. Used to machine flat or curved
surfaces with a tool which moves in
a reciprocating motion.
A. planer
B. shaper
C. grinder
D. lathe
100.
Which of the following
materials that can wear away a
substance softer than itself
A. Abrasive
B. Tungsten
C. Carbon
D. corrosive
ELEMENTS 03
1. A tool with hardened steel points
used for scribing or lying of
distances.
A. Plain scriber
B. divider
C. a trammel
D. hermaphrodite
2. A machine tool used principally to
machine flat or plane surfaces with a
single pointed tool.
A. Shaper
B. Planer
C. Drill
D. Power saw
3. A machine tool in which an abrasive
wheel is used as cutting tool to
obtained a very smooth finish.
A. Broaching machine
B. Planer
C. Tool grinder
D. Milling machine
4. The process of working metals by
the application of sudden blows or
by steady pressure.
A. Casting
B. Turning
C. Forging
D. Rolling
5. The operation of cooling a heated
piece of work rapidly by dipping it
water, brine or oil
A. Quenching
B. Annealing
C. Tempering
D. Normalizing
6. The softening of metals by heat
treatment and most commonly
consists of heating the metal up to
near molten state and then cooling it
very slowly.
A. Annealing
B. Indexing
C. Knurling
D. Soldering
7. A fluid film desired between surfaces
relative sliding motion.
A. Lube oil
B. Lubrication
C. Grease
D. Graphite
8. A kind of gear used to transmit
motion from one shaft to another
shaft at an angle to the first.
A. Worm gear
B. Bevel gear
C. Helical gear
D. Spur gear
9. The principal material used in high
production metal working tools.
A. Hyper- Eutectoid
B. High speed steel
C. Lead
D. High speed carbon
10. A heavy rotating body which serves
as a reservoir for absorbing and
redistributing kinetic energy.
A. Flywheel
B. governor
C. shaft
D. puncher
11. A machine used in shaping metal by
means of an abrasive wheel or the
removal of metals with an abrasive
is called:
A. Planer machine
B. Power saw
C. Shaper machine
D. Grinding machine
12. Which of the following is not a part
of lathe machine?
A. Tailstock
B. Fan
C. Carriage
D. headstock
13. Which of the following is easy to
chisel?
A. Cast iron
B. Alloy steel
C. Cast steel
D. Manganese steel
14. A machining operation whereby the
tool reciprocates and the feed is
stationary is called:
A. Shaping
B. Reaming
C. Planning
D. Turning
15. Which of the following is not a kind
of mandrel?
A. Expansion mandrel
B. Taper mandrel
C. Contraction mandrel
D. Foundry mandrel
16. The area of the machine shop where
the metal is being melted to form a
new shape.
A. Welding area
B. Mass production area
C. Foundry area
D. Tool and die area
17. Which of the following is not used to
temper steel?
A. Brine salt bath
B. Oil bath
C. Water bath
D. Steam bath
18. Which of the following is not a kind
of cast iron?
A. Malleable iron
B. Head iron
C. Gray iron
D. White iron
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19. The kind of center which is being
attached and meshed to the
tailstock spindle which is also static
while the work is rotating:
A. Dead center
B. Live center
C. Focal center
D. Work center
20. Which of the following is not part of
the headstock?
A. Spindle
B. Anvil
C. Back gear
D. Motor
21. Which process does not belong to
the group?
A. Vise grip
B. Adjustable wrench
C. Torque wrench
D. Feeler gage
22. Which does not belong to the group?
A. Resistance welding
B. Soldering
C. Hardening
D. Brazing
23. Substances having sufficient carbon
and /or hydrogen for chemical
oxidation to produce exothermally,
worthwhile quantities of heat.
A. Lubrication
B. Graphite
C. Grease
D. Fuels
24. A device that measures atmospheric
pressure.
A. Piezometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Odometer
25. The mass of the body per unit of
volume.
A. Volume flow rate
B. Density
C. Weight
D. Mass
26. Subjecting a substance to a high
temperature below the fusion point,
usually to make it friable.
A. Calcinations
B. Fusion
C. Boiling
D. Superheating
27. Special metal formed when to or
more metals are melted together.
A. Monel
B. Alloy
C. Solder
D. Hastalloy
28. The ability of a moving body to
perform work.
A. Internal energy
B. Potential energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Flow work
29. Hardening the surface of iron- based
alloys by heating them below the
melting point in contact with a
carbonaceous substance.
A. Carburizing
B. Normalizing
C. Mar tempering
D. Hardening
30. Any materials that retard the flow
electricity used to prevent or
escaped of electric current from
conductors.
A. Bricks
B. Insulators
C. Refractories
D. Ceramics
31. Material, usually ceramics, employed
where resistance to very high
temperature is required, as for
furnace linings and metal melting
pots.
A. Bricks
B. Insulators
C. Refractories
D. ceramics
32. A device used to prevent leakage of
media.
A. Packing
B. Safety shield
C. Gasket
D. Seals
33. The internal resistance a material
offers to being deformed and is
measured in terms of applied load.
A. Strain
B. Elasticity
C. Stress
D. Resilience
34. The deformation that results from a
stress and is expressed in terms of
the amount of deformation per inch.
A. Elongation
B. Strain
C. Poisson’ s ratio
D. Elasticity
35. The ability of the material to return
to its original shape after being
elongated or distorted when the
forces are released.
A. Elasticity
B. Brittleness
C. Plasticity
D. Creep
36. The last point at which a material
may be stretched and still return to
its unreformed condition upon
release of the stress.
A. Rupture limit
B. Elastic limit
C. Proportional limit
D. Ultimate limit
37. The ratio of stress to strain within
the elastic limit.
A. Creep
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Poisson’s ratio
38. The ability of a metal to withstand
forces that causes a member to
twist.
A. Shear strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Bearing strength
D. Torsional strength
39. The ability of a material to resist
being crushed.
A. Tensile strength
B. Shearing strength
C. Compressive strength
D. Torsion
40. The ability of metal to stretch, bend
or twist without breaking or
cracking.
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A. Elasticity
B. Ductility
C. Brittleness
D. plasticity
41. The property of a material which
resist forces action to pull the
material apart.
A. Shear strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Compressive strength
D. Bearing strength
42. The property of steel which resist
indention or penetration.
A. Hardness
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. None of these
43. In the color coding of pipe, the color
for a pipeline of air is:
A. Light blue
B. Light orange
C. White
D. Green
44. In the color coding of pipe, the color
for a pipeline of water is:
A. Light blue
B. Green
C. Brown
D. Silver grey
45. In the color coding of pipe, the color
for a pipeline of steam is:
A. Light orange
B. White
C. Silver grey
D. Light blue
46. The color for a pipeline of electricity
in the color coding of pipe is:
A. Light orange
B. White
C. Silver grey
D. Light blue
47. In the color coding of pipe, the color
for a pipeline of communication is:
A. Light blue
B. White
C. Brown
D. Light orange
48. The color pipeline of fuel oil in the
color coding of pipe is:
A. Light blue
B. Brown
C. White
D. Light orange
49. For high speed application the
minimum number of teeth in small
sprocket should be:
A. 18 to 24
B. 26 to 30
C. 14 to 18
D. 24 to 28
50. The good deoxidizer in steel melting
is:
A. Manganese
B. Aluminum
C. Silicon
D. All of these
51. In majority of machine members, the
dumping capacity of the material
should be:
A. Zero
B. High
C. Low
D. Anything
52. For moderate speed for mating
gears, the ideal ratio of contact is:
A. 1.35- 1.55
B. 1.0- 1.3
C. 1.25- 1.45
D. 1.25- 4.0
53. The diameter of the screw thread is
same as:
A. Pitch diameter
B. Minor diameter
C. Major diameter
D. Base diameter
54. For high corrosion resistant stainless
steel, what maximum chromium
content is required?
A. 8.0%
B. 4.5%
C. 1.5%
D. 8.5%
55. At quite low temperatures (say- 75
deg. C) the notched bar impact
value of steel.
A. Increases significantly
B. Decreases significantly
C. Remain unchanged
D. Depends on heat treatment
56. In order to realize the advantage of
fluid friction, it is essential to have:
A. No oil film
B. Converging oil film
C. Diverging oil film
D. Parallel oil film in bearing
57. Zero axial thrust is experienced in:
A. Herringbone gears
B. Helical gears
C. Bevel gears
D. Worm gears
58. The maximum size of the fillet weld
that can be made in single pass is:
A. 3mm.
B. 6mm.
C. 7mm.
D. 4mm.
59. Muntz metal contains:
A. Copper-aluminum
B. Copper-tin
C. Copper- nickel
D. Copper-zinc
60. Steel balls for bearings are
manufactured by:
A. Cold- heading
B. Casting
C. Rolling
D. turning
61. In general, alloys with high nickel
content retain toughness to quite
low temperature up to:
A. -250 ̊F
B. -360 ̊F
C. -320 ̊F
D. -240°F
62. Manganese steel standard
designation is SAE___.
A. 8XXX
B. 10XX
C. 12XX
D. 13XX
63. A Babbitt is:
A. A cutectic of iron and iron
phosphide
B. A gadget for measuring
volume
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C. A measure of magnetic
induction produces in a
material
D. Antimony bearing lead or
tin alloy
64. The minimum thickness of steel
members exposed to weather and
accessible for painting is:
A. 4mm.
B. 6mm.
C. 8mm.
D. 10mm.
65. In standard coarse thread bolt, the
stress concentration is maximum at:
A. All over the surface
B. Top surface
C. Root
D. Flank
66. Which of the following ropes are
more flexible?
A. 6 to 19
B. 6 to 7
C. 8 by 19
D. 6 by 37
67. Tools usually used in wood pattern
making in foundry shop.
A. Band saw
B. Saws and chisels
C. Knives and drills
D. Grinder
68. Type of bolt commonly used in the
construction that is threaded in both
ends.
A. Hex bolt
B. Stud bolt
C. Square threaded bolts
D. Eye bolt
69. Cast iron flywheels are commonly
designed with factor of safety of:
A. 9 to 12
B. 8 to 11
C. 10 to 13
D. 7 to 10
70. Which of the type of chain is used in
motorcycle?
A. Silent
B. Pintle
C. Brush roller
D. Long
71. Spiral gears are suitable for
transmitting:
A. Any power
B. Small power
C. Huge power
D. Pulsating power
72. The type of cam used for low and
moderate speed engines is
generally:
A. Flat
B. Involute
C. Tangent
D. Harmonic
73. Gears for wrist watches are
generally manufactured by:
A. Molding
B. Stamping
C. Galvanizing
D. Honing
74. The rated life of a bearing changes:
A. Inversely as cube of load
B. Directly as load
C. Inversely as square of load
D. Inversely as load
75. The best material for brake drum is:
A. Cast iron
B. Steel
C. Aluminum
D. Wrought iron
76. An elastic body whose primary
function is to deflect under load.
A. Spring
B. Brake
C. Stopper
D. Clutch
77. Belt slip may take place because of:
A. Loose load
B. Heavy belt
C. Driving pulley too small
D. All of the above
78. Rankine formula is valid up to
slender ratio of:
A. 60
B. 80
C. 120
D. 150
79. In flange coupling the weakest
element should be:
A. Flange
B. Key
C. Bolts
D. Shaft
80. A flange coupling is:
A. Used for collinear shafts
B. Used for non- collinear
shafts
C. Rigid coupling
D. Flexible
81. Universal coupling is:
A. Used for collinear shafts
B. Used for non- collinear
shafts
C. Type of flange coupling
D. Rigid coupling
82. In powder metallurgy the process of
heating the cold pressed metal
powder is called:
A. deposition
B. granulation
C. sintering
D. precipitation
83. Which one is different from the
remaining?
A. nitriding
B. cyaniding
C. electroplating
D. flame hardening
84. Splines are used when:
A. The power transmitted is low
B. The power to be transmitted
is high
C. Axial relative motion
between shafts and hub
is necessary
D. Flame hardening
85. Delta iron occurs at temperature of:
A. Room temperature
B. Above melting point
C. Between 1400˚C and
1539˚C
D. Between 1000˚C and
1400˚C
86. The most important element that
controls the physical properties of
steel is:
A. Carbon
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
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D. Tungsten
87. The process commonly used for
thermo-plastic material is:
A. Die casting
B. Injection molding
C. Shell molding
D. Cold forming
88. Select the one that has highest
specific gravity:
A. Aluminum
B. Lead
C. Brass
D. High carbon steel
89. Age- hardening is related with:
A. Cast iron
B. Stainless steel
C. Duralumin
D. German silver
90. Foundry crucible is made of:
A. German silver
B. Lead
C. Mild steel
D. Graphite
91. Trimming process is a process
associated with:
A. Forging
B. Machining of metals
C. Electroplating
D. Press work
92. A plug gauge is used to measure:
A. Taper bores
B. Cylindrical bores
C. Spherical holes
D. Screw threads
93. In arc welding operations the current
value is decided by:
A. Length of welded portion
B. Voltage across the arc
C. Size of the electrode
D. Thickness of plate
94. The phenomenon of weld decay
takes place in:
A. Cast iron
B. Brass
C. Bronze
D. Stainless steel
95. Choose the one that will have
highest cutting speed.
A. Aluminum
B. Brass
C. Bronze
D. Cast iron
96. Projection welding is:
A. Continuous spot welding
process
B. Used to make mesh
C. Multi- spot welding
process
D. Used to form
97. Least shrinkage allowance is
provided in the case of which of the
following:
A. Cast iron
B. Aluminum
C. White cast iron
D. Brass
98. Dilatometer is used to find out which
property of molding sand.
A. permeability
B. hot strength
C. fineness
D. moisture content
99. Hastalloy contains:
A. Copper
B. Nickel and copper
C. Copper and aluminum
D. Nickel and molybdenum
100. The maximum harden ability of any
steel depends on:
A. The carbon content
B. The chemical composition
C. The grain size
D. The alloying elements present
Elements 04
1. The hardness of steel increases if it
contains:
a. Martensite
b. Pearlite
c. Austenite
d. All of the above
2. How do you call steel with 0.8%
carbon and 100% pearlite?
a. Austenite
b. Solidus
c. hyper-eutectoid
d. eutectoid
3. What is the range of the tensile
strength of common varieties of cast
iron?
a. 40-60 Mpa
b. 150-180 Mpa
c. 840-500 Mpa
d. 1500-1650 Mpa
4. Fatigue failure occurs when a part is
subjected to:
a. Compressive stress
b. tensile stress
c. torsional stress
d. fluctuating stress
5. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to
gamma iron at what temperature?
a. 440°C
b. 910°C
c. 70°C
d. 1639°C
6. The diameter of the washer is
generally:
a. Equal to the diameter of the bolt
b. Slightly more than the
diameter of the bolt
c. Slightly less than the diameter of
the bolt
d. Of any size that suits the
application
7. The compression members tend to
buckle in the direction of:
a. Axis of load
b. Minimum cross-section
c. least radius of gyration
d. perpendicular to the axis of load
8. A kinematic chain needs a minimum:
a. 2 links and 2 turning pairs
b. 3 links and turning pairs
c. 4 links and 4 turning pairs
d. 3 links and 2 turning pairs
9. Which of the following pairs is
formed if shaft is revolving in a
bearing?
a. Lower pair
b. turning pair
c. sliding pair
d. cylindrical pair
10. How many links are there in a
pantograph?
a. 3
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b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
11. A pantograph is a mechanism
having:
a. Lower pairs
b. rolling pairs
c. spherical pairs
d. higher pairs
12. Which of the following describes the
“slip” in belt drive?
a. Loss in power
b. Difference between the angular
velocities of two pulley
c. Difference between linear speed
of the rim
d. Difference between the
linear speed of the rim of
pulley and the on it
13. Which of the following is the
orientation of the axes of the two
shafts in cross helical worm?
a. Parallel
b. Non-parallel
c. Intersecting
d. non-parallel and nonintersecting
14. In case of gears the addendum is
given by:
a. One module
b. 2.16 x module
c. 1.57 x module
d. 1.25 / module
15. How do you call a cam where in the
follower reciprocates or oscillates in
a plane parallel to its axis?
a. Circular cam
b. reciprocating cam
c. cylindrical cam
d. oscillating cam
16. How are gears for watches generally
manufactured?
a. Die casting
b. Machining on hobber
c. power metallurgy process
d. stamping
17. Rope brake dynamometer uses
what?
a. Oil as lubricant
b. No lubricant
c. grease as lubricant
d. water as lubricant
18. Which of the following could be the
effect of cold working?
a. Increases the fatigue
strength
b. Decreases the fatigue strength
c. Has no influence on fatigue
strength
d. None of these
19. In testing a material for endurance
strength, it is subjected to:
a. Completely reversed load
b. Static load
c. impact load
d. dynamic load
20. Coaxing is the procedure of
increasing:
a. Metal strength
b. Metal hardness by surface
treatment
c. Metal resistance to corrosion by
coating
d. Fatigue limit by
overstressing the metal by
successively increasing
loadings
21. Up to what percent thickness of
plate, edge preparation for welding
is not needed?
a. 2 mm
b. 4 mm
c. 8 mm
d. 12 mm
22. Arc blow takes place in:
a. Gas welding
b. Arc welding when straight
polarity is used
c. Arc welding when reversed
polarity is used
d. Welding stainless steel
23. What is the function clutch in the
machine tool?
a. Alignment of drive
b. Lowering of drive
c. To insure that two shafts line up
at high speed
d. To connect shaft so that the
driven shaft will rotate with
the driving shaft and to
disconnect them at all
24. The height of tooth above the pitch
circle or the radial distance between
pitch circle and top land of the tooth.
a. Addendum
b. Deddendum
c. top root
d. top land
25. How do you call the distance of the
tooth which is equal to the sum of
the addendum and deddendum?
a. Full depth
b. working depth
c. whole depth
d. pitch
26. Which of the following stresses that
is independent of loads?
a. Shear stress
b. residual stress
c. design stress
d. yield stress
27. Which of the following is not used to
resemble the shape of tool bit?
a. Thread cutting
b. center cutting
c. square nose
d. round nose
28. What is the recommended best
cutting angle of drill for work on
steel or cast iron?
a. 39 degrees
b. 49 degrees
c. 59 degrees
d. 29 degrees
29. Copper and most of its alloys can be
hardened by which of the following?
a. Cold working
b. Soaking
c. Patenting
d. case hardening
30. Types of V-belts to use in a driving
pulley with speed of 360 rpm and
transmitting 5 Hp.
a. Type A belts
b. type B belts
c. type C belts
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d. type D belts
31. Which of the following is not an
angle measuring device?
a. Bevel protector
b. Sine bar
c. combination square
d. angle iron
32. The mould for casting ferrous
materials in continuous casting
process is made of what material?
a. Copper
b. Medium carbon steel
c. high carbon steel
d. low carbon steel
33. Clutch slippage while clutch is
engaged is especially noticeable:
a. During idling
b. A low speed
c. during acceleration
d. during braking
34. In general, to engage securely and
prevent dragging, what is the
clearance between release bearing
and release collar in the clutch?
a. 2-3 mm
b. 4-5 mm
c. 6-7 mm
d. 8-9 mm
35. Piston compression rings are made
of what material?
a. Steel
b. Bronze
c. Aluminum
d. cast iron
36. What is the usual value of helix
angle of a drill?
a. 120 degrees
b. 110 degrees
c. 60 degrees
d. 30 degrees
37. What is meant by drossing?
a. A method of cleaning the casting
b. An inspection method for casting
c. A method of deoxidation of
molten metal
d. The formation of oxides on
the molten metal surface
38. If the first digit in AISI and SAE
designations is one (1), then, it
indicates what?
a. Carbon steel
b. Nickel steel
c. molybdenum steel
d. chromium steels
39. Which of the following where the
gear tooth vernier is used to
measure?
a. Module
b. Gear tooth profile
c. gear tooth thickness of gear
tooth
d. pitch line thickness of gear tooth
40. A cold chisel is made of what?
a. Mild steel
b. German silver
c. high carbon steel
d. cast iron
41. It is the ability of a material to
absorb energy when deformed
elastically and return it when
unloaded.
A. Creep
B. fatigue strength
C. resilience
D. toughness
42. Which of the following cams where
the follower reciprocates or
oscillates in a plane parallel to the
axis of rotation?
a. Cam curves
b. radial cam
c. cylindrical cam
d. tangential cam
43. Which of the following cams where
the follower reciprocates or
oscillates in a plane perpendicular
its axis of rotation?
a. Tangential cam
b. cam curves
c. radial cam
d. cylindrical cam
44. During tensile test, which of the
following stress-strain curve(s) fits
for a glass rod?
a. A straight line
b. A parabola
c. an irregular curve
d. a sudden break
45. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is
most likely to fail in:
a. Shear
b. Tension
c. Compression
d. double shear
46. A single ply leather belt running at a
belt velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to
transmit per inch of width:
a. 2.5 Hp
b. 3.0 Hp
c. 4.0 Hp
d. 5.0 Hp
47. At what temperature range where
ferromagnetic alpha iron exists?
a. Below 723°C
b. 700-910°C
c. 1000-1440°C
d. above 1539°C
48. How do you call a body having
identical properties all over?
a. Heterogeneous
b. Homogeneous
c. Elastic
d. Ductile
49. How is the material described if it
recovers its original dimensions
when the load is removed?
a. Elastic
b. Plastic
c. Brittle
d. Malleable
50. What is the percentage of carbon in
Eutectoid steel?
a. .02%
b. 0.30%
c. 0.63%
d. 0.80%
51. The presence of sulphur in pig iron
makes:
a. The casting unsound
b. It brittle
c. it hard
d. it is easy machinable
52. What is the effect of alloying zinc to
copper?
a. Increases hardness
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b. Impart free-machining
c. Improve hardness and strength
d. Increases strength and
ductility (if added up to 1030%)
53. The imperfection in the crystal
structure of metal is:
a. Impurity
b. fracture slip
c. slip
d. dislocation
54. When is the pressure release in
resistance welding?
a. After the weld cools
b. During heating period
c. After completion of current
d. Just at the time of passing the
current
55. If t is the thickness of sheet to be
spot welded, then electrode tip
diameter is equal to _____.
a. t2
b. 2 sq rt. of t
c. sq. rt. of t
d. 1.5 sq. rt. of 1
56. A twist drill specified by which of the
following?
a. Its shank and diameter
b. Shank, material and flute size
c. its diameter and lip angle
d. shank, material and
diameter
57. Which of the following is used to
measure the clearance between the
value and tappet of an automobile
engine?
a. Shape gauge
b. slip gauge
c. feeler gauge
d. vernier scale
58. Speedometer drive is generally
taken from:
a. Gear box
b. fan belt
c. flywheel
d. front wheel
59. What is the usual percentage of cut
on the return stroke of hacksaw
blade?
a. 0
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
60. Which of the following will best
describe sunken key?
a. The keyway is helical along shaft
b. The keyway is cut in shaft only
c. The keyway is cut in hub only
d. The key is cut in both shaft
and hub
61. Which of the following where turn
buckle has?
a. Left hand threads on one
end and right hand threads
on other end
b. Right hand threads on both ends
c. Left hand threads on both ends
d. No threads
62. Which of the following is the best
process for butt welding of two
plates each of which is 25 mm thick?
a. Electro slag welding
b. Gas welding
c. submerge arc welding
d. steam welding
63. Which of the following statement(s)
is correct for an oil less bearing:
a. The oil film is maintained by
supplying oil under pressure
b. The oil film pressure is produced
only by rotation of the journal
c. Do not need external supply
of lubricant
d. Grease is needed to be applied
after some intervals
64. The working load P for a chain for
crane applications is expressed in
terms of diameter of link “d” in cm
as follows.
a. P=1.5d2
b. P=25d2
c. P=50d2
d. P=500d2
65. The column splice is used for
increasing:
a. Cross-sectional area of the
column
b. Length of the column
c. strength of the column
d. All of the above
66. At what temperature those Gamma
irons exist?
a. Between 910°C and 1400°C
b. Between 1400°C and 1539°C
c. Near melting point
d. Room temperature
67. The behavior of metals where in
strength of a material is increased
and the ductility is decreased on
heating at a relatively low
temperature after cold working is
called:
a. Clustering
b. Twinning
c. screw dislocation
d. strain aging
68. Which of the following statement(s)
is correct in “carbon steel castings”?
a. the percentage of carbon is
less than 1.7%
b. the percentage of carbon is
between 1.7% to 2%
c. the percentage for alloying
elements is controlled
d. none of the above
69. Aluminum alloys for pressure die
casting:
a. Must not be free from hot
shortness
b. Must have iron as one of the
constitutions
c. Must not posses
considerable fluidity
d. Must be light
70. Which of the following is the
maximum in 18-4-1 high speed
steel?
a. Tungsten
b. Chromium
c. Argon
d. iron
71. Super conductors:
a. Exist at temperature below
10K
b. Are the dense metals without
voids
c. Are non-metallic substances
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d. Are the purest forms of metals
72. When large number of components
ate turned and parted off from a bar,
the chuck generally used is:
a. Two jaw chuck
b. Four jaw chuck
c. collet chuck
d. magnetic chuck
73. Cutting speed for some materials
are as under which one of the
following could be cutting speed for
brass?
a. 30 m/min
b. 40 m/min
c. 80 m/min
d. 50 m/min
74. If V is the volume of metal in casting
and A is its surface area, then the
time of solidification will be
proportional to:
a. V2 , 1/A
b. 1/V2 , A2
c. V , 1/A2
d. V2 , 1/A2
75. The draft allowance on metallic
pattern as compared to wooden
ones is:
a. More
b. Same
c. Less
d. more or less depending on size
76. Arc metal patterns are used for:
a. Precision castings
b. Small castings
c. Large castings
d. Large scale production of
castings
77. What tool is used in foundry for
repairing the mould?
a. Swab
b. Gagger
c. Bellows
d. rammer
78. What tool is used in foundry for
smoothening and cleaning out
depression in the mould?
a. Swab
b. Gagger
c. Bellows
d. rammer
79. Which of the following does not have
to be lubricated when drilling?
A. Brass
B. Steel
C. Monel
D. mild steel
80. The tool used in precision work to
smooth or enlarge holes is called a:
a. Round out
b. drift pin
c. reamer
d. protractor
81. When measuring a drill for size,
measure across the:
a. Margins
b. Flutes
c. Shank
d. point
82. How do you call the tool used for
cleaning files?
a. File cleaner
b. file card
c. file oilstone
d. scraper
83. The melting point of Babbitt is
approximately:
a. 1000°F
b. 650°F
c. 750°F
d. 500°F
84. How is tubing measured?
a. Inside diameter
b. outside diameter
c. thickness of wall
d. wire gage
85. Which of the following metals will
respond to heat treatment?
a. Cast iron
b. wrought iron
c. medium carbon steel
d. low carbon steel
86. the ability of metal to withstand
loads without breaking down is:
a. stress
b. strength
c. strain
d. elasticity
87. Which of the following metals is nonmagnetic?
a. Cast iron
b. alloy steel
c. cast steel
d. manganese steel
88. A machining operation whereby the
tool reciprocated and the feed is
stationary.
a. Planning
b. Shaping
c. Turning
d. reaming
89. Which of the following is not a tap
used for cutting threads in holes?
a. Tapping tap
b. plug tap
c. tapper tap
d. bottoming tap
90. Herring bone gears are gears which:
a. Do not operate on parallel shafts
b. Have a line contact between
the teeth
c. Consists of two left handed
helical gears
d. Tend to produce thrust on the
shafts
91. Which of the following statements is
true for the internal stresses existing
in a welded connection?
a. Internal stresses are not relieved
by heat treatment
b. Internal stresses are not
relieved when weld is
peened
c. Internal stresses may be relieved
when weld is peened
d. Internal stresses are relieved by
x-ray analysis
92. Stainless steel is obtained principally
by the use of which of the alloying
elements?
a. Chromium
b. Nickel
c. Carbon
d. tungsten
93. Galvanized iron is a term referring to
iron coated with:
a. Tin
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b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. aluminum
94. Which of the following is not a
common term relating to the
classification of fits?
a. Tunking
b. Snug
c. medium force fit
d. bound
95. In usual spur gearing, which of the
following statement(s) is correct?
a. Pitch circles and base circles are
the same
b. Working depth includes the
clearance
c. Tooth outline are usually
involute curves
d. Tooth outline are usually
cycloidal curves
96. In general, the design stress and
factor of a\safety are related as
follows:
a. Design stress=ultimate stress
times factor of safety
b. Design stress= ultimate
stress divided by factor of
safety
c. Factor of safety= design stress
divided by ultimate stress
d. Ultimate stress=factor of safety
divided by design stress
97. In usual spur gearing, the:
a. Pitch circle and base circle are
the same
b. Working depth includes
clearance
c. Tooth outline are always
cycloidal curves
d. Tooth outline are usually
involute curves
98. Which of the following is the not the
other name of circumferential stress
for thin walled cylinders.
a. Hoop stress
b. girth stress
c. tangential stress
d. longitudinal stress
99. How do you call the ratio of the
volumetric strain?
a. Modulus in shear
b. Stress to strain ratio
c. volumetric ratio
d. bulk modulus
100. Hearing bone gears are gears which:
a. Do not operate parallel shafts
b. Have a line contact between
the teeth
c. Tend to produce and thrust on
the shafts
d. Consists of two left handed
helical gears
ELEMENTS 05
1. The ability of metals to stand loads
without breaking down:
a. Strain
b. Stress
c. Elasticity
d. Strength
2. Which of the following is not a
classification of iron ore:
a. Siderite
b. Hermatite
c. Sulfurite
d. Magnetite
3. Ferrous metals contains a relative
large amount of:
a. Manganese
b. Carbon
c. Sulfur
d. Phosphorous
4. Which of the following metal is easy
to chisel?
a. Alloy steel
b. Manganese steel
c. Stainless steel
d. Cast iron
5. The ability of material or metal to
resist being crushed is:
a. Fatigue strength
b. Bending strength
c. Torsional strength
d. Compressive strength
6. Which of the following is not part of
the headstock?
a. Anvil
b. Spindle
c. Motor
d. Back pressure
7. Which of the following is not used to
temper steel?
a. Oil bath
b. Brine/salt bath
c. Steam bath
d. Water bath
8. Which of the following is not a kind
of cast iron?
a. Gray iron
b. White iron
c. Malleable iron
d. Lead iron
9. A machinery operation whereby the
tool rotates while the feed is
stationary.
a. Shaping
b. Milling
c. Turning
d. Reaming
10. What process does not belong to the
group?
a. Brazing
b. Soldering
c. Hardening
d. Resistance welding
11. Which tool does not belong to the
group?
a. Vice grip
b. Feeler gage
c. Torque wrench
d. Adjustable wrench
12. Which of the following metals is non
– magnetic?
a. Manganese steel
b. Cast steel
c. Alloy steel
d. Cast iron
13. One important skill that operators of
machine tools must have is an
understanding of measurement
which demands:
a. Speed
b. Precision
c. Sociability
d. Neatness
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14. Which of the following is not part of
a lathe machine?
a. Fan
b. Carriage
c. Headstock
d. Tailstock
15. The machine which can flatten
surface on a horizontal, vertical or
angular plane is:
a. Drilling machine
b. Shaper machine
c. Power saw
d. Lathe machine
16. Which of the following is not the
work of a machinist?
a. Reboring
b. Overhauling
c. Grinding
d. Boring
17. The area of the machine shop whose
metal is being melted to form a new
shape is the:
a. Foundry area
b. Tool and die
c. Welding
d. Mass production are
18. A machine use in testing steel
generally strikes the specimen with
energy from 220 to 255 ft-lb.
a. Izod test
b. Charpy test
c. Rockwell test
d. Test blocks
19. An iron in which most of the carbon
is chemically combined with the
iron:
a. Cast iron
b. Gray iron
c. White iron
d. Malleable iron
20. Through how many degrees must an
involute cam turn in order to raise its
follower 3 inches if the diameter of
the base circle is 5 inches?
a. 58.7 degrees
b. 180 degrees
c. 64.4 degrees
d. 68.79 degrees
21. The space between the adjacent
teeth?
a. Tooth
b. Flank
c. Backlash
d. Width
22. An iron has physical properties
closely resembling those of mild
steel:
a. Malleable cast iron
b. Malleable iron
c. White iron
d. Gray iron
23. Gears used to transmit power
between shafts axis of which it
intersects:
a. Spur gears
b. Bevel gears
c. Helical gears
d. Straight bevel gears
24. An important accessories of milling
machines:
a. Milling machine vise
b. Cutters
c. Ram
d. Vertical milling attachment
25. They are usually the steel or steel
casting:
a. Mild steel
b. Carbon steel
c. Fire box steel
d. Drop-forge-dies
26. The cheapest and the most
abundant engineering material.
a. Aluminum
b. Steel
c. Cast iron
d. Babbitt
27. Milling machine accessories are used
to hold milling cutter in the milling
machine:
a. Spindle-nose tooling
b. Milling machine vise
c. Vertical milling attachment
d. Milling machine arbors
28. the size of an equal-leg length fillet
weld shall be based on the length of
the largest:
a. Isosceles right triangle
b. Square
c. Right triangle
d. Rectangle
29. If gears cannot connect parallel
shafts, they are called:
a. Cyclodial gears
b. Helical gears
c. Spur gears
d. Toothed gears
30. The path traced by a point moving
at a fixed distance from an axis and
with a uniform motion to the axis
and a point moving such a path:
a. Helical motion
b. Spherical motion
c. Translational
d. Path of a point
31. The maximum stress which is
reached during a tension test:
a. Stress
b. Electricity
c. Strain
d. Tensile strength
32. The frustums of two cones are used
in a manner to permit a variation of
velocity ratio between two parallel
shafts:
a. Evans friction cones
b. Bevel cones
c. Spherical cones
d. Friction gearing
33. Weld – metal impact specimen shall
be taken across the weld with one
face substantially parallel to and
within:
a. ¾”
b. 1/32”
c. ¼”
d. 1/16”
34. A joint between two overlapping
members in which the overlapped
edge of one member is welded with
a fillet weld:
a. A single welded lock joint
b. Double-welded lap joint
c. A single-welded lap joint with
backing
d. Tack weld
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35. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a
single-point cutting tool:
a. Dividing head
b. Slotting attachment
c. Circular pitch
d. Circular milling attachment
36. The follower reciprocates or
oscillates in a plane perpendicular to
the axis of rotation of the cam.
a. Redial cam
b. Cylindrical cam
c. Cam curves
d. Tangential cam
37. Strength of a material is that of a
stress intensity determined by
considering the maximum test load
to act over the original area of the
test specimens:
a. Yield point
b. Ultimate strength
c. Breaking strength
d. Elastic strength
38. The follower reciprocates or
oscillates in a plane parallel to the
axis of the rotation:
a. Cam curves
b. Cylindrical cam
c. Tangential cam
d. Radial cam
39. A test for pipe used for coiling in
sizes 2 inches:
a. Flaring
b. Crush
c. Flange
d. Bend
40. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony, or
sometimes lead:
a. Gold
b. Babbitt
c. Aluminum
d. Cast iron
41. A weld place in a groove between
two abutting members:
a. Full-fillet weld
b. Tack weld
c. Butt weld
d. Fillet weld
42. A weld of approximately triangular
cross-section that join two surfaces
of approximately right angles as in
lap joint, tee-joint, corner joint:
a. Single welded lap joint
b. Fillet weld
c. Tack weld
d. Butt weld
43. A corrosion occurs within or adjacent
to a crevice formed by contact with
another piece of the same or
another metal:
a. Pitting
b. Galvanic
c. Erosion
d. Crevice
44. Wheels are sometimes used for the
transmission of high power when an
approximately constant velocity
ratio is desired:
a. Bevel cones
b. Friction gearing
c. Spur friction wheels
d. Evans friction wheels
45. Gearing in which motion or power
that is transmitted depends upon
the friction between the surfaces in
contact:
a. Bevel gears
b. Spur friction wheels
c. Evans friction cones
d. Friction gearing
46. A bevel gears of the same size
mounted on a shaft of 90 degrees:
a. Crown gears
b. Spur gears
c. Angular gears
d. Miter gears
47. A fillet weld whose size is equal to
the thickness of the thinner joint
member:
a. Butt joint
b. Butt weld
c. Tack weld
d. Full-fillet weld
48. The ratio of stress to the
corresponding strain below the
proportional limit:
a. Stress-strain diagram
b. Gage method
c. Modulus of elasticity
d. Tensile strength
49. The shearing strain of a block of
metal, 3 inches high is subject to a
shearing high force which distorts
the top surface through a distance of
0.0036 inch. :
a. 0.0015 rad.
b. 0.008 rad.
c. 0.0010 rad.
d. 0.0012 rad.
50. Determine the number of teeth in a
driver of two spur gears mesh which
has a velocity ratio of 0.75. the
driven gear has 36 teeth:
a. 50
b. 46
c. 26
d. 48
51. Within the elastic limit, the stress is
proportional to strain.
a. Hooke’s law
b. Modulus of elasticity
c. Offset ratio
d. Buckingham’s principle
52. The corrosion of iron or iron-basealloys:
a. Rusting
b. Crazing
c. Chalking
d. Fritting
53. Steel containing large amount of
mild nickel and chromium:
a. Carbon steel
b. Stainless steel
c. Alloy steel
d. Cat steel
54. It refers to any layer or deposit of
extraneous material of the heattransfer-surface:
a. Low line
b. Pressure drop
c. Fouling
d. Scaling
55. The total amount of permanent
extension of the gage length
measured after the specimen has
fractured and is expressed as
percentage increase of the original
gage length:
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a. Elongation
b. Strain
c. Stress
d. Elastic limit
56. It is used to enable milling machine
to take climb milling cuts:
a. Helical driving mechanism
b. Spindle
c. Read out
d. Backlash eliminator
57. A weld made to hold the parts of
weldment in proper alignment until
the final weld are made:
a. Butt weld
b. Tack weld
c. Fillet weld
d. Full-fillet weld
58. The change in length per unit
original length is:
a. Strain
b. Stress
c. Deformation
d. Elastic modulus
59. The temperature above which the
alloy is liquid and will run:
a. Melting point
b. Fow point
c. Pour point
d. Liquids
60. A cone formed by elements which
are perpendicular to the elements of
the pitch cone at the large end:
a. Cone distance
b. Back cone
c. Root cone
d. Cone center
61. The machine used for testing of very
thin steel or surface layers:
a. Charpy test
b. Izod test
c. Description test
d. Rockwell test
62. A gear is one in which angle is 90
degrees that is the pitch cone has
become a plane.
a. Crowned gear
b. Angular gear
c. Miter gear
d. Spiral gear
63. The deterioration of organic coating
characterized as completely:
a. Chalking
b. Rusting
c. Chocking
d. Fritting
64. Is a form of correction that develop
on a highly localized areas on a
metal surfaces:
a. Crevice
b. Erosion
c. Galvanic
d. Spitting
65. Test is designed primarily for
application to electric-welded tubing
for detection of lack of penetration
or overlaps resulting from flash
removal in the weld:
a. Butt weld
b. Paste
c. Lap weld
d. Double butt weld
66. Have the same thermal and
minimum film thickness limitation
bearing.
a. Ball bearing
b. Roller bearing
c. Thrust bearing
d. Oil bearing
67. An oil storage roof formed to
approximately the surface of a right
cone, supported only at its
periphery:
a. Self-supporting umbrella roof
b. Self-supporting dome roof
c. Supported cone roof
d. Self-supporting cone roof
68. Test sometimes referred to as an
upsetting test:
a. Bend
b. Flaring
c. Flange
d. Crush
69. What load P which causes a total
deformation of 0.036 inch. Of steel
rock which has a cross-section area
of 4 in2 and a length of 6 ft.
a. 55,000 lb
b. 40,000 lb
c. 60,000 lb
d. 50,000 lb
70. An oil storage tank roof formed to
approximately spherical surfaces,
supported only at its periphery:
a. Self-supporting umbrella
roof
b. Self-supporting cone roof
c. Self-supporting
d. Supported cone roof
71. The unit of deformation is called:
a. Torsion
b. Strain
c. Stress
d. Shear
72. A circle bounding the bottom of the
teeth:
a. Addendum circle
b. Addendum cylinder
c. Pitch circle
d. Deddendum circle
73. A 3” diameter short shaft carrying 2
pulleys close to the bearings
transmit how much horsepower if
the shaft makes 280 rpm.
a. 199 Hp
b. 198 Hp
c. 200 Hp
d. 210 Hp
74. A cylindrical tank with 10 in. inside
diameter contains oxygen gas at
250 psi. Calculate the required wall
thickness in (mm) under stress of
28,000 psi.
a. 11.44 mm
b. 11.34 mm
c. 10.6 mm
d. 10.3 mm
75. The minimum clearance allowed for
meshing spur gears with a circular
pitch of 0.1571 and diametral pitch
of 20. The spur gears have 25 teeth.
a. 0.007855
b. 0.007558
c. 0.008578
d. 0.007585
76. SAE steel that corresponds to heat
treatment:
a. SAE 1060
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b. SAE 1117
c. SAE 1030
d. SAE 1020
77. Which of the following is the
differential of the shear equation:
a. Bending moment
b. Load of the beam
c. Tensile strength of the beam
d. Slope of the beam
78. Which of the following materials to
be utilized to reduce cost in the
manufacturing of large worm gears?
a. Alloyed aluminum
b. Bronze rim with cast iron
spider
c. Cast iron rim with bronze spider
d. All of these
79. It is hardening treatment whereby a
cast metal is being heated to a very
high temperature then suddenly
subjected to rapid cooling to
improve hardenability or wear
resistance is called:
a. Normalizing
b. Tempering
c. Annealing
d. Quenching
80. Determine the estimated weight of
an A-36 steel plates size 3/16 x 6’ x
20’.
a. 919 lbs
b. 1012 lbs
c. 829 lbs
d. 735 lbs
81. The length of arc between the two
sides of a gear tooth on the pitch
circle:
a. Circular thickness
b. Axial plane
c. Helix angle
d. Chordal curves
82. Split pulley or pulley made of
separate section bolted together at
the rim, the maximum speed should
be limited to about _______% of the
maximum speed of solid pulley.
a. 65 to 75 %
b. 45 to 50 %
c. 55 to 60 %
d. 80 to 90 %
83. Killed steel is very much associated
with:
a. Manganese
b. Sulphur
c. Phosphorous
d. Silicon
84. Determine the estimated weight of
an A-36 steel plate of size ½ x 4 x 8.
a. 280 kg
b. 332 kg
c. 301 kg
d. 297 kg
85. A type of welding whereby a wire or
powder from the nozzle of a spray
gun is fused by a gas plain, arc or
plasma jet and the molten particles
are projected in a form of a spray by
means of compressed air or gas.
a. Electro-slug building
b. Electro-beam welding
c. Plasma-arc welding
d. Metal spray welding
86. Heating of metal above the critical
temperature and then cooling slowly
usually in the furnace to reduce the
hardness and improve the
machinability is called:
a. Normalizing
b. Annealing
c. Tempering
d. Quenching
87. Accident prevention is:
a. An association of employers,
organization and individuals
b. The foreman’s responsibility
just as much as production
c. The responsibility of top
management
d. A job of a safety director
88. Major component of bronze casting:
a. Copper
b. Manganese
c. Zinc
d. Lead
89. Commonly utilized / cheapest shaft
material available in the market with
carbon content of 0.28 to 0.34 %.
a. SAE 1432
b. SAE 4320
c. SAE 1030
d. SAE 4130
90. Alloy steel known for its resistance
to corrosion, abrasion and wear that
is usually ideal for mill grinding of
ore in cement and concentrator
application. It is usually combined
molybdenum to increase the depth
hardening.
a. Manganese chromium steel
b. Chromium-molly steel
c. Chorome-nickel-molly steel
d. Manganese-molly steel
91. Split pulley or pulley made of
separate sections bolted together at
the rim, the maximum speed should
be limited to about _______% of the
maximum speed of solid pulley.
a. 65 to 75 %
b. 45 to 50 %
c. 55 to 60 %
d. 80 to 90 %
92. Major component of bronze casting
is
a. Copper
b. Manganese
c. Zinc
d. Lead
93. Galvanized steel plate is:
a. Aluminum
b. Tin
c. Zinc
d. Manganese
94. What heat treatment process can
cast steel materials of high chrome,
high manganese, etc. type steel be
subjected for the purpose of
matching process?
a. Annealing
b. Tempering
c. Normalizing
d. Quenching
95. Cast alloy steel for very high
temperature application:
a. Manganese-nickel steel casting
b. High chrome steel casting
c. Chrome-nickel steel casting
d. High manganese casting
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96. Flexible material used to seal
pressurized fluids, normally under
dynamic condition:
a. Nylon
b. Seal
c. Teflon
d. Packing
97. A type of gear tooth cut inside a
cylinder or ring:
a. Rack gear
b. Ring gear
c. Miter gear
d. Internal gear
98. It has molybdenum alloy except:
a. SAE 43XX
b. SAE 41XX
c. SAE 6XXX
d. SAE 5XXX
99. To prevent leakage in dynamic seal:
a. Gasket
b. Seals
c. Felts
d. Packings
100. Which of the following elements
when large quantity is harmful to the
ferrous metal?
a. Sulfur
b. Silicon
c. Zinc
d. Aluminum
ELEMENTS 06
1. Metal characteristics that withstand
forces that causes twisting.
A. Torsional strength
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Twisting moment
D. Elasticity
2. Fillet radius in machine parts is
usually introduced to:
A. Improve the look of the parts
B. Reduce concentration of
stress and extend life of the
parts
C. Avoid obstruction
D. Necessary to lessen casting
weight
3. Type of bolt commonly used in the
construction that is threaded on
both ends.
A. Stud bolt
B. Acme thread bolts
C. Square threaded bolts
D. Hex bolts
4. Hydrostatic bearing is one which:
A. The lube oil is supplied
under pressure
B. Lube oil is not pressurized
C. There is no lube oil
D. Bearing is lightly loaded
5. Which of the following materials is
unsuitable as a bearing?
A. Teflon
B. Low carbon steel
C. Cast iron
D. Nylon
6. Safety features that must be placed
and maintain at machine,
blacksmith, welding and foundry
shop.
A. Safety goggle
B. Walkway guide
C. Safety notices and markings
D. all of these
7. The angle at the base of the cylinder
of an involute gear that the tooth
makes with the gear axis.
A. Base helix angle
B. Pressure angle
C. Arc of recess
D. Arc of approach
8. A kind of thread that is generally
used:
A. UNEC
B. UNC
C. UNF
D. UNEF
9. Which of the following acronyms is
not generally used as standard?
A. ASTM
B. SAE
C. IPS
D. AISI
10. What is the difference between the
shaper and planer?
A. The tool of the shaper moves
while on the planer is
stationary.
B. The shaper can perform slotting
operation while the planer
cannot.
C. The shaper handles large pieces
while the planer handles only
small pieces.
D. The tool of the shaper moves in
reciprocating motion while tool
in the planer moves in rotary
motion.
11. The path of contact i9nvolute gears
where the force is actually
transmitted. It is a straight
imaginary line passing through the
pitch point and tangent to the base
circle.
A. Principal reference plane
B. Pitch point
C. Front angle
D. Line of action
12. The hardness of helical and
herringbone gear teeth after
treatment is 210 to 300 brinell
hardness for gear and pinion is at:
A. 360 brinell min.
B. 400 brinell max.
C. 340-350 normal
D. All of these
13. A type of gear commonly used in
parallel shaft transmission especially
when a smooth continuous action is
essential as in high speed drives up
to 12,000 fpm:
A. Bevel gear
B. Herringbone gear
C. Spur gear
D. Helical gear
14. It is used in conjunction with circular
cross sectional members to retain oil
and prevent dirt, foreign particles,
moisture and to permit pressure
differential between exterior and
interior of the applied part.
A. Seal
B. Gasket
C. Safety shield
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D. Packing
15. An object thrown upward will return
to earth with the magnitude of the
terminal velocity equal to:
A. Zero
B. One-half the initial velocity
C. Twice the initial velocity
D. The initial velocity
16. A liquid metal:
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
17. What type of gear which can
transmit power at a certain angle?
A. Helical gear
B. Worm gear
C. Bevel gear
D. Herringbone gear
18. Type of V-belt to use in driving pulley
with speed of 360 rpm and
transmitting 5 Hp.
A. Type C belts
B. Type B belts
C. Type A belts
D. Type D belts
19. The arbitrary modification by
removing a small portion of a tooth
at the tip of gear tooth is called.
A. Tip removal
B. Tip undercut
C. Tip relief
D. Pressure angle cut
20. The first derivative of kinetic energy
with respect to velocity is:
A. Power
B. Acceleration
C. Momentum
D. None of these
21. What is the difference between
brass and bronze?
A. Brass is composed of copper
and zinc while bronze is
composed of copper and tin
B. Brass is composed of copper and
zinc while bronze is basically
copper and tin plus non ferrous
alloy such as manganese,
aluminum, and chromium
C. Bronze is reddish in color while
brass is a mixture of copper and
antimony
D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of
copper and tin while brass is a
mixture of copper of copper and
antimony.
22. The reciprocal of the diametral pitch
equivalent to the ratio of pitch
diameter to the number of teeth:
A. Lead
B. Clearance
C. Module
D. Involute
23. What is the property of a material
which resists forces acting to pull the
material apart?
A. Shear strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Torsional strength
D. Compressive strength
24. Which do not belong to foundry or
metal casting shop?
A. Shake-out machine
B. Molding machine
C. Core making
D. Forging machine
25. The enter of gravity of a solid
pyramid or cone with a total height
of H is:
A. 1/4 H
B. 3/5 H
C. 1/3 H
D. 1/3 H
26. The gradual chemical reaction by
other substance such that the metal
is converted to an oxide or other
compounds:
A. Corrosion
B. Cheaping
C. Rusting
D. Weathering
27. A material that should be avoided in
constructing wood pattern:
A. Sap wood
B. Kiln dried wood
C. Heart wood
D. Core portion of wood
28. What is the moment of inertia of a
rectangle about its base?
A. BH2/6
B. BH3/3
C. BH2/3
D. BH3/12
29. What is the modulus of elasticity if
the stress is 44,000 psi and a unit
strain of 0.00105?
A. 41.905 X 106
B. 42.300 X 106
C. 41.202 X 106
D. 43.101 X 106
30. Which of the following is not a
structural steel class?
A. Low carbon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Tool and die steel
31. What happens to a drill if the
operating speed is too fast?
A. Drill will crack
B. Drill will become overheated and
will bend
C. Drill will become overheated
and will be drawn from steel
D. Drill will become very dull and
wear fast
32. Copper and most of its alloy can be
hardened by:
A. Patenting
B. Cold working
C. Case hardening
D. Soaking
33. A type of coupling that alloys slight
amount of torsional angular
flexibility due to introduction with
some elastic material cylindrically
wrapped around the bolts in the
flange.
A. Simple elastic bonded coupling
B. Elastic material bushed
coupling
C. Elastic material bonded coupling
D. All of these
34. Outstanding safety record
contributes to:
A. High productivity
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B. Outstanding performance that
expects reward from
management
C. Confidence in foreman’s ability
to perform well
D. Pride and enthusiasm to one-self
35. The capacity of metal to withstand
load without breaking is:
A. Strength
B. Stress
C. Elasticity
D. Strain
36. Finding the resultant of two or more
forces is called:
A. Coplanar force
B. Non-coplanar force
C. Couple
D. Composition of forces
37. A machinery operation whereby
done with the work accurately
fastened has a reciprocating
(forward and backward) motion and
the tool head is stationary.
A. Shaping
B. Planning
C. Turning
D. Reaming
38. The phenomenon of continuous
stretching under load even if the
stress is less than the yield point:
A. Elasticity
B. Ductility
C. Plasticity
D. Creep
39. In a pair of gears, ________is the
plane perpendicular to the axial
plane and tangent to the pitch
surface.
A. Pitch
B. Pitch plane
C. Pitch circle
D. Pitch point
40. What type of gear is used for high
speed operation?
A. Helical
B. Spur
C. Bevel
D. Worm
41. V-belts operate at speed of about
(fpm)
A. 4500
B. 4400
C. 4200
D. 3600
42. Name the type of chuck commonly
used for holding work piece in a
lathe operation? example, a 3-jaw
universal chuck, 4-jaw independent
chuck
A. Magnetic jaw chuck
B. 2-jaw independent
C. 8-jaw universal
D. Combination
43. For a high corrosion resistant
stainless steel, what minimum
chromium content is required?
A. 8%
B. 4.3%
C. 1.1%
D. 5.8%
44. Clearance to a new boiler installation
to the existing or old plant building
should follow a minimum clearance
of _________ between top of the
boiler proper and the ceiling as
stated in the PSME code.
A. 2000 mm(max)
B. 1000 mm(max)
C. 2130 mm(max)
D. 2150 mm(max)
45. Ordinary steel begins to lose
strength and elasticity significantly
at about _______ degrees Fahrenheit.
A. 900-1000oF
B. 800-900OF
C. 750-850OF
D. 600-700OF
46. Statement that a given body is in
static equilibrium means that the
body cannot.
A. Have any type of motion
B. Be acted upon by more than one
force
C. Undergo any displacement
D. Have any acceleration
47. Most effective alloying element for
reducing brittleness of steel at a
very low temperature.
A. Manganese
B. Molybdenum
C. Silicon
D. Nickel
48. Normal stress relieving temperature
for cast steel :
A. 200 to350 oF
B. 400 to 500 oF
C. 300 to 400 oF
D. 450 to 550 oF
49. It is advised that in rubber belts
application / mounting it should
have an initial tension of ________
inch/ply.
A. 18 to 24
B. 15 to 20
C. 12 to 15
D. 10
50. Past ME Board Question
Non- Ferrous filler metal is melted
into grooves or as fillet on the
mother metal; the base metal is not
melted. This is commonly used for
joining iron based machine parts or
in repair works of some materials it
is called:
A. spot welding
B. braze welding
C. brazing
D. gas welding
51. Past ME Board Question
What is the common shop practice to
prevent solder from running away from
surface to be joined?
A. Surround the word with day
B. Introduce around the work rolled wet
cloth
C. Put asbestos sheeting around the
work
D. All of these
52. Past ME Board Question
The three-moment equation may be
used to analyze
A. Tapered column
B. Continuous beam
C. Composite beam
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D. Axially end loaded beam
53. Past ME Board Question
One of the causes of spur gear tooth
breakage is the unbalanced load on one
end of the tooth that results in higher
stresses than when the load is evenly
distributed. To minimize this problem,
the face width “b” should not. Be greater
than the thickness (or pitch) of the
tooth. In the absence of test values, the
following can be guide.
A. .25PC<b<4Pc
B. .20Pd<b<4Pd
C. .25Pd<b<4Pd
D. .20Pd<b<4Pc
54. Past ME Board Question
The property that characterizes a
material ability to be drawn into a wire
A. Ductility
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Tensile strength
D. Endurance limit
55. Past ME Board Question
Deals only with the motion of the bodies
without reference to forces that cause
them:
A. Dynamics
B. Kinetics
C. Statistics
D. Kinematics
56. Past ME Board Question
In shear pin or breaking pin design, we
may use the data experienced by LinkBelt for 1/8 inch to 1 inch pins and the
breaking stress _____ ksi.
A. 40
B. 55
C. 50
D. 48
57. Past ME Board Question
Recommended best cutting angle of drill
for work on steel or cast iron is _____
degrees.
A. 48
B. 63
C. 59
D. 50
58. Past ME Board Question
Cold working of steel plates make the
metal _____.
A. Tougher
B. More ductile
C. Harder
D. More malleable
59. Past ME Board Question
Considering a maximum safe center
distance of sprockets should be _____
pitches. Very long center distance cause
catenary tension in the center.
A. 70
B. 80
C. 60
D. 50
60. Past ME Board Question
Hypoid gear is a special type of gear
like:
A. Worm gear
B. Spur gear
C. Herringbone gear
D. Bevel gear
61. Past ME Board Question
The maximum stress to which a material
may be subjected before failure occurs:
A. Ultimate strength
B. Ultimate stress
C. Endurance limit
D. Tensile stress
62. Past ME Board Question
A property of material which relates the
lateral strain to the longitudinal strain
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Poisson’s ratio
D. Strength
63. Past ME Board Question
All are associated with the grade of steel
except:
A. SAE 42XX
B. SAE 13XX
C. SAE 10XX
D. SAE 74XX
64. Past ME Board Question
Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of:
A. Shear strain to compression strain
B. Elastic limit compressive strain
C. Lateral strain to longitudinal
strain
D. Elastic limit to proportional limit
65. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is not structural
class of steel?
A. Low carbon steel
B. Tool and die steel
C. High chrome alloy steel
D. High strength low alloy steel
66. Past ME Board Question
The product of the resultant of all forces
acting on a body and the time that the
resultant acts:
A. Angular impulse
B. Angular momentum
C. Linear impulse
D. Linear momentum
67. Past ME Board Question
The smallest area at the point of rupture
of a tensile specimen divided by the
original area is called:
A. Percentage elongation
B. Izod test
C. Charpy test
D. Percentage reduction of the
area
68. Past ME Board Question
It equalizes the energy exerted and the
work done thus preventing excessive or
sudden changes of speed:
A. Flywheel
B. Balance wheel
C. Flywheel pulley
D. All of these
69. Past ME Board Question
A mechanism which usually do the
indexing in a machine tool:
A. Universal chuck
B. Slooter
C. Dividing head
D. Indexing
70. Past ME Board Question
Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant
in itself:
A. Zinc
B. Antimony
C. Babbit
D. Lead
71. Past ME Board Question
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A system of forces in space is in
equilibrium. If two unequal and opposite
collinear forces are added, which of the
following if any is true?
A. Equilibrium is maintained
B. Equilibrium is destroyed
C. An unbalance moment exists
D. None of these is true
72. Past ME Board Question
It is a science of motion that can be
solved in terms of scalar or vector
algebra:
A. Kinematics
B. Curvilinear translation
C. Projectiles
D. Acceleration
73. Past ME Board Question
Permanent deformation or strain may
occur without fracture.
A. Malleability
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. Plasticity
74. Past ME Board Question
The ability of a metal to be deformed
considerably without rupture is called:
A. Malleability
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. Plasticity
75. Past ME Board Question
When two elastic bodies collide, which of
the following laws can be used to solve
for the resulting velocity?
A. Dalton’s law
B. Avogadro’s law
C. Conservation of energy
D. Conservation of momentum and
conservation of energy
76. Past ME Board Question
When the hole is smaller than the shaft,
it will take pressure to put the parts
together. The allowance is said to be
negative and is termed:
A. Negative tolerance
B. Negative allowance
C. Negatives fits
D. Interference of metal
77. Past ME Board Question
Device used to measure accurately
speed:
A. Speedometer
B. Dial indicator
C. Tachometer
D. Dial gauge
78. Past ME Board Question
If the velocity of a mass is the same all
the time during which motion takes
place is called:
A. Deceleration
B. Uniform motion
C. Acceleration
D. None of these
79. Past ME Board Question
Length of contact between two mating
parts in a screw and nut threads
measured axially is called:
A. Arc of contact
B. Depth of engagement
C. Length of engagement
D. Axis of contact
80. Past ME Board Question
The distance a helical gear or worm
would thread along its axis is called:
_____
A. Length of action
B. Length of contact
C. Land
D. Lead
81. Past ME Board Question
Major and minor diameters are
commonly used in:
A. Screw thread
B. Bolts
C. Gear
D. All of these
82. Past ME Board Question
A lathe with multiple cutting stations:
A. Turret lathe
B. Engine lathe
C. Manual lathe
D. None of these
83. Past ME Board Question
The nominal diameter of the bolts is the:
A. Major diameter
B. Minor diameter
C. Mean diameter
D. All of these
84. Past ME Board Question
Ratio of unit lateral deformation to the
unit longitudinal deformation:
A. Poissons ratio
B. Strain
C. Stress
D. Modulus of rigidity
85. Past ME Board Question
For moderate speed of mating gears, the
ideal ratio contact is:
A. 1.25 – 4.00
B. 1.20 – 1.45
C. 1.00 – 130
D. 0.35 – 1.45
86. Past ME Board Question
A shaft is to be checked for concentricity.
A suitable method of performing the
check is:
A. Bench centers and dial indicator
B. Line shafting bearing alignment
C. Observing vibration of the shafting
D. None of these
87. Past ME Board Question
A kind of thread in which the width of
the thread is approximately equal to the
depth of the thread and the space
between threads are approximately
equal.
A. Square thread
B. Acme thread
C. Buttress thread
D. Whitworth thread
88. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is not used to
resemble the shaped of tool bit?
A. Round nose
B. Center cut
C. Square nose
D. Thread cutting
89. Past ME Board Question
Negative allowance is also called:
A. Interference of metal
B. Feeler gage
C. Micrometer
D. Tolerance
90. Past ME Board Question
A property of matter which causes it to
resist any change in its motion or state
of rest:
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A. Brake
B. Friction
C. Inertia
D. Impulse
91. Past ME Board Question
Separate forces which can be so
combined are called:
A. Non-concurrent forces
B. Couple
C. Combined forces
D. Concurrent forces
92. Past ME Board Question
A lathe machine threading mechanism
A. Reversed gear and lever
B. Spindle gear
C. Change stud gear
D. All of these
93. Past ME Board Question
It is the difference of addendum and
addendum which is equivalent to the
whole depth less working depth.
A. Fillet space
B. Filet radius
C. Clearance
D. Backlash
94. Past ME Board Question
Machine tool used for straight lines on
metal surfaces mad of sharp tool steel is
called.
A. Plain scriber
B. A trammel
C. Hermaphrodite caliper
D. Divider
95. Past ME Board Question
All are associated with standard material
specified except:
A. American Iron and Steel Institute
B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel
Institute
D. American Society for Testing
Materials
96. Past ME Board Question
The best instrument for measuring a
thousand of an inch:
A. Micrometer
B. Tachometer
C. Calliper
D. Pyrometer
97. Past ME Board Question
Tooth width measured along the chord at
the pitch circle:
A. Flank
B. Face width
C. Width of space
D. Chordal thickness
98. Past ME Board Question
In the gear design, the total work load
must be equally shared by its arms. Rim
must be rigid to support these arms and
also the head is recommended for its
stiffening value. The assumption in the
detailed design of rim thickness and
depth of bead is ____ circular pitch (PC).
A. 0.65
B. 0.50
C. 0.56
D. 0.44
99. Past ME Board Question
Alloy that improves strength of steel at
high temperature application
A. Tungsten
B. Molybdenum
C. Chromium
D. All of these
100.
Past ME Board Question
A furnace used in melting ferrous
metals:
A. Annealing furnace
B. Tempering furnace
C. Induction furnace
D. Normalizing furnace
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Element 07
1. Past ME Board Question
A furnace used in melting non-ferrous
metals.
A. cupola furnace
B. crucible furnace
C. induction furnace
D. tempering furnace
2. Past ME Board Question
Endurance strength is nearly
proportional to the ultimate strength
but not with:
A. yield strength
B. design stress
C. shear stress
8.
9.
D. all of the above
Past ME Board Question
Liners are normally made of:
A. cast iron
B. alloyed bronze
C. alloyed steel
D. alloyed aluminum
Past ME Board Question
Need in as cast condition steel casting
with carbon content less than_________
% C.
A. 0.26
B. 0.20
C. 0.15 to 0.16
D. 0.25
Past ME Board Question
The yield strength of a regular yellow
brass (65 to 70% Cu, 30 to 35% Zn) can
be increased/improved by:
A. cold working
B. tempering
C. chill casting
D. heat treatment
Past ME Board Question
The purposes of these parts in
application are to have better bearings
to seal the guard against marring; etc.
A. bearing journal
B. metallic seal
C. washer
D. shaft seal
Past ME Board Question
Metals are conducive because:
A. the electron are loosely bound
to the nuclei and therefore
mobile
B. having characteristic metallic luster
C. they are on the left side of the
periodic table
D. they have extra electrons as
exhibited by normally possible
balance state
Past ME Board Question
It is considered semi-solid lubricant:
A. lube oil
B. graphite
C. grease
D. all of these
Past ME Board Question
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What are the common cutting fluids
used for cutting metals?
A. water with soda borax
B. light mineral oil
C. soluble oil
D. all of these
10. Past ME Board Question
Good stabilizer in stainless steel:
A. columbium
B. titanium
C. tantalum
D. all of these
11. Past ME Board Question
The good deoxidizer in steel melting:
A. Manganese
B. silicon
C. aluminum
D. All of these
12. Past ME Board Question
The usual ratio of water to soluble oil
used as cutting fluid:
A. 50% water to 50% oil
B. 2 water to 1 oil
C. 3 water to 1 oil
D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil
13. Past ME board Question
Killed steel is always associated with:
A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Phosporous
D. Sulfur
14. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following does not belong
to the group?
A. welding
B. Soldering
C. Casting
D. brazing
15. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is most popular
soldering of metal?
A. 10/80
B. 45/55
C. 50/50
D. 60/40
16. Past ME Board Question
The motion of an object
diminished/decreased speed
A. deceleration
B. retarded motion
C. negative impulse
D. all of these
17. Past ME Board Question
It is recommended not to have a direct
drive and drive sprockets if the ratio of
their teeth.
Exceed _____ use two or more step
combination.
A. 10 times
B. 8 times
C. 5 times
D. 6 times
18. Past ME Board Question
It is used to charged rotary motion to
reciprocating motion:
A. Helical Gear
B. Rack Gear
C. Worm gear
D. Spur gear
19. Past ME Board Question
Busses that are independent loads:
A. Working stress
B. Operating stress
C. Residual stress
D. shear stress
20. Past ME Board Question
The Distance of the tooth, which is
equal to the sum of the addendum and
deddendum:
A. full depth
B. whole depth
C. working depth
D. deddendum
21. Past ME Board Question
This concave portion of the tooth profile
where it joints the bottom of the tooth
space:
A. fillet curve
B. fillet radius
C. bottom depth
D. fillet
22. Past ME Board Question
In gear design, the ratio of the pitch
diameter in inches to the number of
teeth:
A. module
B. diametral pitch
C. English module
D. Circular pitch
23. Past ME Board Question
It is recommended for high speed
application that the minimum number
of teeth in small sprocket should be:
A. 26 to 30
B. 12 to 16
C. 26 to 28
D. 18 to 24
24. Past ME Board question
Continuous stretching under load even if
the stress is less than the yield point:
A. Plasticity
B. elasticity
C. creep
D. ductility
25. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is not structural
class of steel?
A. high speed steel
B. tool and die
C. Low Carbon
D. high Carbon
26. Past ME Board Question
Opposite direction parallel forces:
A. concurrent
B. coplanar
C. couple
D. non-coplanar
27. Past ME Board Question
The ratio of the moment of inertia in the
cross-section of the beam to the section
modulus
A. equal to the radius of gyration
B. equal to the area of the crosssection
C. measure of a distance
D. dependent on the modulus of
elasticity
28. Past ME Board Question
Gear used to transmit power at high
velocity ratios between non-intersecting
shafts that are usually but not
necessarily at right angle.
A. helical gear
B. bevel gear
C. worm gear
D. spiral gear
29. Past ME Board Question
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Which of the following is the differential
of the shear equation?
A. bending moment of the beam
B. tensile strength of the beam
C. slope of the elasticity curve
D. load of the beam
30. Past ME Board Question
It is arbitrarily defined as the push and
pull
A. force
B. work
C. inertia
D. power
31. The changes in shape or geometry of
the body due to action of a force on it is
called deformation or:
A. shear stress
B. stresses
C. compressive stress
D. strains
32. Past ME Board Question
For evenly distributed and uniform wear
on each meshing gear tooth, the ideal
design practice is to consider a _____.
A. wears resistance alloy addition to
tooth gear
B. heat treatment of the gears
C. hardening of each tooth
D. hunting tooth addition
33. Past ME Board Question
The reciprocal of a diametral pitch or the
ratio of pitch diameter to number of
teeth
A. lead
B. module
C. involute
D. clearance
34. Past ME Board Question
It is the ability of the material to resist
deformation under stress:
A. plasticity
B. stiffness
C. toughness
D. all of these
35. Past ME Board Question
Flat leather belting not recommended
for use in speed excess of ____ fpm.
A. 3600
B. 4800
C. 6000
D. all of these
36. Past ME Board Question
The angle included between the sides of
the thread measured in an axial plane in
a screw thread.
A. angle of thread
B. angle between thread or 40
C. helix angle thread
D. half angle thread or 20
37. Past ME Board Question
The property of a material that relates
the lateral strain to longitudinal strain
A. stress
B. strain
C. Poisson’s ratio
D. endurance limit
38. Past ME Board Question
Eccentrically loaded bearing is also
called:
A. full bearing
B. offset bearing
C. partial bearing
D. fitted bearing
39. Past ME Board Question
In the selection of wire rope, regular lay
means wire and strands are arranged in
the following manner:
A. twisted in same direction
B. twisted in any direction
C. twisted in opposite direction
D. twisted in along direction
40. Past ME Board Question
In involute teeth, the pressure angle is
often defined as the angle between the
line of action and the line of tangent to
the pitch circle. It is also termed as:
A. helix angle
B. angle of recess
C. angle of obliquity
D. arc of action
41. Past ME Board Question
Height of tooth above pitch circle or
radial distance between pitch circle and
top land of the tooth
A. top tooth
B. addendum
C. land
D. hunting tooth
42. Past ME Board Question
The function of clutch in the machine
tool is:
A. lowering the drive
B. alignment of drive shaft
C. to disconnect or connect at will
the drive
D. to insure that two shafts line up at
high speed
43. Past ME Board Question
The amount by which the width of a
tooth space exceeds the thickness of the
engaging tooth on the pitch circles
A. backlash
B. clearance
C. undercut
D. Chordal thickness
44. Past ME Board Question
Which does not belong to the group?
A. SAE
B. AISI
C. SEA II
D. ASTM
45. Past ME Board Question
What is the specification number of
molybdenum?
A. SAE 2XXX
B. SAE 3XXX
C. SAE 4XXX
D. SAE 5XXX
46. Past ME Board Question
What will be the effect in bushing gears
without backlash?
A. jamming
B. overheating
C. overload
D. all of these
47. Past ME Board Question
Range of helix angle on helical gear
A. less than 18
B. 15-25
C. 20-35
D. 35-40
48. Past ME Board Question
The distance of a helical gear or worm
would thread along its axis in one
revolution if it were free to move axially.
A. lead
B. thread
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C. pitch
D. land
49. Past ME Board Question
It refers to the gear between the fillets
of adjacent teeth.
A. top land
B. bottom land
C. pitch
D. fillet
50. Past ME Board Question
The distance between adjacent rivets is
called:
A. pitch
B. crest
C. lead
D. none of these
51. Past ME Board Question
A plane perpendicular to the axial plane
and to the pitch plane, In gears with
parallel axis, the transverse plane and
the plane of rotation coincide.
A. transverse plane
B. principal reference plane
C. normal plane
D. pitch plane
52. Past ME Board Question
What tool will be used in making wood
pattern in the foundry shop?
A. band saw
B. drill machine
C. saw and chisel
D. hammer
53. Past ME Board Question
All the functions lubricating oil except:
A. adhesion
B. corrosion prevention
C. act as coolant
D. to lighten the load
54. Past ME Board Question
What type of bearing which totally
encloses the shaft?
A. offset bearing
B. central bearing
C. babbit bearing
D. full bearing
55. Past ME Board Question
Not adaptable to welding due to
strength and poor ductility:
A. copper parts
B. aluminum parts
C. cast iron parts
D. all of these
56. Past ME Board Question
In general, the design stress and factor
of safety are related as follows:
A. Design stress = ultimate stress
times factor of safety
B. Design stress = ultimate stress
divided by factor of safety
C. Factor of safety = design stress
divided by ultimate stress
D. Ultimate stress = factor of safety
divided by design stress
57. Past ME Board Question
The color of pipe for communication is:
A. white
B. blue
C. yellow
D. orange
58. Past ME Board Question
It improves red hardness of steel:
A. chromium
B. cobalt
C. boron
D. lead
59. Past ME Board Question
A metal which has a high electrical
conductivity but should not be used for
high temperature metal
A. silicon
B. zinc
C. chrome alloy
D. carbide
60. Past ME Board Question
Finding the resultant of two or more
forces is called:
A. co-planar forces
B. non-coplanar forces
C. couple
D. composition of forces
61. Past ME Board Question
Eccentrically loaded bearing is also
called:
A. full bearing
B. offset bearing
C. partial bearing
D. fitted bearing
62. Past ME Board Question
The best instrument for measuring a
thousandth of an inch
A. micrometer
B. tachometer
C. caliper
D. pyrometer
63. Past ME Board Question
Galvanize iron is term referring to iron
coated with
A. aluminum
B. tin
C. zinc
D. manganese
64. Past ME Board Question
The ability of a metal to resist being
crushed:
A. shearing strength
B. compressive strength
C. torsional strength
D. tensile strength
65. Past ME Board Question
Is the permissible variation of the size of
a dimension?
A. tolerance
B. allowance
C. clearance
D. interference
66. Past ME Board Question
The single force which produces the
same effect upon a body as two or more
forces acting together is called:
A. resultant force
B. co-planar force
C. couple
D. non-coplanar force
67. Past ME Board Question
Product of mass and linear velocity is
known as:
A. impulse
B. linear momentum
C. angular momentum
D. impact
68. Past ME Board Question
What is the SAE specification number of
molybdenum-chromium-nickel?
A. 48XX
B. 47XX
C. 46XX
D. 45XX
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69. Past ME Board Question
Plus or minus the tolerance is also
called:
A. total tolerance
B. unilateral tolerance
C. bilateral tolerance
D. none of these
70. Past ME Board Question
Some experiments are made at Cornell
University showed that experience
mechanic could bread a _____bolt due
to nut tightening.
A. 3/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. ½ inch
D. 7/16 inch
71. Past ME Board Question
Common defects encountered in the
foundry shop steel casting operation and
also in welding practices.
A. cracks
B. cold shot
C. parting line
D. blow/pin holes
72. Past ME Board Question
This particular outing tool material
withstands using temperature of 1800F
and higher at cutting speed beyond
those possible with other cutting tool
materials:
A. titanium carbide
B. ceramic
C. carbide grade
D. cubic boron nitride
73. Past ME Board Question
Moment curve to a simple beam with a
concentrated load at middle span takes
the shape of a;
A. triangle
B. rectangular
C. trapezoid
D. semi-eclipses
74. Past ME Board Question
Type of chuck wherein the work piece
with standard diameter or size could be
attached fast and quick especially small
size work of mass production.
A. lathe drive plate
B. clamp toe dog
C. collet attachment
D. steady center rest
75. Past ME Board Question
Material may be stretched and still
returns to its former form/condition upon
release of force are called:
A. plasticity
B. modulus of elasticity
C. ductility
D. elastic limit
76. Past ME Board Question
The brittleness in steel at elevated
temperature is:
A. hard drawn
B. cold lap
C. red shortness
D. residual stresses
77. Past ME Board Question
Intermediate gear is also called _____
gear in the gear train arrangement.
A. idler
B. pinion
C. third gear
D. mounted gear
78. Past ME Board Question
The top and bottom land for gears is
similar formed as to crest and _____ for
screw thread.
A. flank
B. root
C. flank tooth
D. top land
79. Past ME Board Question
Cold drawing is also called _____.
A. hard drawn
B. oxidized steel
C. cold lap steel
D. strain hardening
80. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following services is not
considered as a work of a machinist?
A. reboring
B. grinding
C. overhauling
D. honing
81. Past ME Board Question
In machine shop, had forging operation
of lengthening a piece of stock while
reducing the cross-sectional area of work
is called:
A. bloating
B. upsetting
C. spreading
D. draining out
82. Past ME Board Question
The recommended age limit of fire tube
boilers
A. 35 years
B. 30 years
C. 40 years
D. 50 years
83. Past ME Board Question
Silicon-manganese steel designation,
SAE _____
A. 72XX
B. 40XX
C. 92XX
D. 9XX
84. Past ME Board Question
The factor of safety generally applied in
wire rope design starts at 3-4 for
standing rope application, 5-12 for
operating rope and _____ for hazard to
life and property application like foundry
operation.
A. higher value
B. 7-10
C. 8-10
D. 10-18
85. Past ME Board Question
The maximum stress induced in a
material when subjected to intermittent
or repeated load without causing failure
is called:
A. ultimate stress
B. endurance limit
C. ultimate torque
D. elastic limit
86. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following tools does not
belong to the group?
A. Hermaphrodite caliper
B. divider
C. double veer block
D. trammel
87. Past ME Board Question
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_____ is the theoretical profile of the
thread for a length of one pitch in the
axial plane on which design forms of
both the external thread are based.
A. Basic form of thread
B. Effective thread
C. Basic profile of thread
D. Design form of external thread
88. Past ME Board Question
One of the following materials is not
mentioned for wire rope pulley/sheave
applications.
A. Plastic
B. Iron
C. Paper
D. Copper alloy
89. Past ME Board Question
Internal stress exerted by the fibers to
resist the action of outside force is called
A. shearing stress
B. tensile stress
C. ultimate stress
D. compressive stress
90. Past ME Board Question
_____ Thread is used where the thread
requires great strength and usually cut
square on one side and slanting on the
other side
A. janno
B. buttress
C. square
D. double
91. Past ME Board Question
In greater quantity, this element is
harmful to the molten ferrous metal.
A. silicon
B. aluminum
C. oxides
D. sulfur
92. Past ME Board Question
For economical cost in the
manufacturing large worm gears the
following materials are usually applied.
A. bronze rim with cast steel spider
B. cast iron rim with bronze spider
C. cast steel rim with brass spider
D. alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron
spider
93. Past ME Board Question
Non-metallic material of high melting
temperature being used as furnace
lining:
A. quartz brick
B. refractories
C. silica sand
D. dolomite clay bricks
94. Past ME Board Question
Chromium steel (to include heat and
corrosion resistant) designation:
A. SAE 56XX
B. SAE 514XX
C. SAE 61XX
D. SAE 9XX
95. Past ME Board Question
Mirror finish has surfaces fines of _____
rms.
A. 1
B. 2 to 8
C. 1 to 3
D. 2 to 5
96. Past ME Board Question
All terms and abbreviations deal with
wire rope arrangement except this _____
which deals with wire rope materials
strength.
A. preformed
B. IWRC
C. Mps
D. lang lay
97. Past ME Board Question
Alloy steel axle under repeated
load/stress will eventually fail if the
load/stress is above the endurance for
steel under consideration. The
endurance limit of the steel is therefore:
A. equal to the allowable stress of the
module of elasticity
B. equal to half of the ultimate
stress
C. equal to module of elasticity
D. equal to 80% of the elastic limit
98. Past ME Board Question
Tap not used for cutting thread _____.
A. tapping tap
B. bottoming tap
C. plugging tap
D. taper tap
99. Past ME Board Question
Relief angle of single-point in cutting
mild steel cast iron and other average
work as recommended should be in the
ranges of _____ degrees for high speed
tools.
A. 8 to 12
B. 10 to 15
C. 5 to 7
D. 12 to 16
100.
Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is an unsafe
condition in operating a lathe machine?
A. wearing denim pants/safety shoes
B. wearing a canvass apron
C. operating with safety gloves
D. wearing safety goggles/hearing aid
Elements 08
1. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following does not affect the
tensile strength of steel?
A. sulphur
B. cobalt
C. phosphorus
D. boron
2. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is an example of
rectilinear translation?
A. locomotive wheels
B. rack gear
C. piston of an engine
D. jack
3. Past ME Board Question
A petroleum by-product used as an
electrode in an electric arc furnace melting
operation.
A. anthracite coke
B. foundry coke
C. graphite electrodes
D. bituminous coke
4. Past ME Board Question
A machine shop equipment that can
flatten horizontally, vertically or angular
plane
A. shaper machine
B. welding machine
C. drill machine
D. power saw
5. Past ME Board Question
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What type of leather belting should be
used at an ambient temperature above 140
O
F and
possible acid liquid coming in contact
with the belt?
A. mineral tanned
B. combination of oak
C. oak tanned
D. none of these
6. Past ME Board Question
The material for engine radiator is usually
made of:
A. yellow brass
B. silicon brass
C. admiralty brass
D. navy brass
7. Past ME Board Question
What factors can modify the
recommending cutting speed of a known
workpiece?
A. rough cutting of a workpiece
B. modify the shape of cutting tools
C. used correctly shaped cutting tool
D. depth of cut
8. Past ME Board Question
In a cutting tool the cutting end can
generally called:
A. end cutting edge
B. nose
C. back rake
D. side rake
9. Past ME Board Question
What equation to be used in computing
the acceleration of the center of a rolling ball
with a diameter of 8 inches?
A. 0
B. w2
C. w2/r
D. v2/r
10. Past ME Board Question
From experience specify the conventional
limit of flywheel operations to be at 6000
ft/min
for cast iron and _______for steel.
A. 7000
B. 8000
C. 10,000
D. 12,000
11. Past ME Board Question
If a set of spur gears are made, installed
and lubricated properly, they may
normally be subjected to failure like:
A. tooth spalling
B. tooth peening
C. pitting
D. shearing
12. Past ME Board Question
Normally cast iron contains 2% carbon or
more and silicon in the range of_______%.
A. 1 to 3
B. 2 to 4
C. 2 to 3
D. 1 to 6
13. Past ME Board Question
A major component of cast steel is:
A. silicon
B. iron
C. manganese
D. chromium
14. Past ME Board Question
The application of electrical currents to
the corrosion circuit to counter the corrosion
reaction is called:
A. cathodic protection
B. sacrificial anodes method
C. chemical corrosion process
D. galvanic action
15. Past ME Board Question
As a rule of thumb the design of
foundation could be about 3.2 to _______
times the engine
stroke.
A. 4.20
B. 4.0
C. 3.40
D. 3.60
16. Past ME Board Question
Bevel gears subjected to corrosion and
lightly loaded is usually made of:
A. bronze
B. brass
C. duralumin
D. all of these
17. Past ME Board Question
The characteristic of tool steel sustain
shocks and major impacts is due to its:
A. toughness
B. stiffness
C. ductility
D. machinability
18. Past ME Board Question
The flux should be provided in soldering
electrical connection or commutator wires as
it tends to corrode the connections.
A. sal ammoniac
B. zinc chloride
C. stearin
D. acid fluxes
19. Past ME Board Question
Treatment process that produces a
residual compressive stress at the surface
(which occupy more volume) and residual
tension inside that results in considerable
increase in fatigue strength members on
torsion/bending:
A. partial quenching
B. heavy quenching
C. quenching
D. shallow quenching
20. Past ME Board Question
A good general purpose deoxidizer and
promotes fine grain in steel.
A. copper
B. magnesium
C. molybdenum
D. silicon
21. Past ME Board Question
Surface connecting the crest and roots of
the screw thread.
A. lead angle
B. length of engagement
C. top land
D. flank
22. Past ME Board Question
It is hardening treatment whrereby a cast
metal is being heated to a very high
temperature
then suddenly subjected to rapid cooling
to improve hardenability or wear resistance
is called:
A. annealing
B. normalizing
C. temprering
D. quenching
23. Past ME Board Question
Moment of inertia is also called:
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A. modulus of elasticity
B. weep strength
C. radius of gyration
D. none of these
24. Past ME Board Question
Nickel-Chromium-Molybdenum steel
designation SAE
A. SAE51XX
B. SAE74XX
C. SAE94XX
D. SAE64XX
25. Past ME Board Question
It is the name applied to reciprocating
motion as that of a pendulum.
A. intermittent motion
B. reciprocating motion
C. oscillation
D. momentum
26. Past ME Board Question
Avoidance in vibration in equipment of
machinery foundations, a mass of weight
equal to______ times the forces are needed.
A. 10 to 20
B. 8 to 15
C. 15 to 20
D. 8 to 10
27. Past ME Board Question
Commonly used or produced
screws/bolts/nuts and for engineering
application is a ______series.
A.UNC
B.ANSI
C. withworth
D. UNF
28. Past ME Board Question
It indicates how many times a volume of
material is heavier than an equal volume of
water.
A. specific gravity
B. specific volume
C. specific weight
D. specific density
29. Past ME Board Question
Axially located rectangular groove in a
hub and shaft
A. keyset
B. cotter pin set
C. flute
D. setscrew point
30. Past ME Board Question
The amount by which the deddendum is
in a given gear/pinion exceeds the
addendum of its mating gear/pinion. Also
the radial distance between the top of a
tooth and the bottom of the mating tooth
space.
A. tip relief
B. top land
C. clearance
D. space
31. Past ME Board Question
Deflection beam is:
A. proportional to the modulus of
elasticity and moment of inertia
B. proportional to the load imposed and
inversely to the length squared
C. inversely proportional to the
modulus of elasticity and moment of
inertia
D. inversely proportional to the weight
imposed times the length
32. Past ME Board Question
The normal density of work space
requirement to use in the design of work
room is______ cubic feet per person
A. 400
B. 388
C. 353
D. 424
33. Past ME Board Question
Safety features that must be placed and
maintained at Machine, Blacksmith, Welding
and foundry shops
A. walkway guide
B. safety notices
C. safety goggles
D. safety notices in markers/boards.
34. Past ME Board Question
It is the symbol that the work surfaces
should be machined-finished and usually
indicated in the drawing and placed on the
line that represent the surface to be
machined.
A. f
B. 5
C. 20
D. F.A.O
35. Past ME Board Question
Web is part of a drill and is usually
thicker________
A. beside the land
B. nearing the shank
C. close to the future
D. at the tip portion
36. Past ME Board Questions
A carbon content in the range of_______ in
steel readily respond to heat treatment.
A. 0.36 to 0.40%C
B. 0.28 to 0.30%C
C. 0.18 to 0.25%C
D. 0.12 to 0.15%C
37. Past ME Board Question
The soldering material commonly applied
for automobile radiator cores and roofing
seams.
A. 15/85% tin and lead
B. 50/50% tin and lead
C.45/55% tin and lead
D. 20/80 %tin and lead
38. Past ME Board Question
A research agency handling assistance to
all foundry, machine shop and metallurgical
operation
A. MIDRC
B. BOI
C. DOST
D. all of these
39. Past ME Board Question
An act of cutting out a piece of metal at a
desired shape and size
A. broaching
B. blanking
C. slitting
D. dinking
40. Past ME Board Question
The surface of the gear between the
fillets of adjacent teeth is called.
A. bottom land
B. flank
C. top land
D. flank of tooth
41. Past ME Board Question
In drilling soft materials used cutting
angles as low as 40 degrees but
extremely hard material up to
_______degrees is recommended.
A. 80
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B. 65
C. 75
D.70
42. Past ME Board Question
The ideal thickness of the cutter at the
pitchline for cutting helical gears should be
_____
of normal circular path.
A. 3/8
B.3/4
C.1/2
D. 5/16
43. Past ME Board Question
Progressive change of the position of a
body is called.
A. acceleration
B. momentum
C. motion
D. force
44. Past ME Board Question
In designing gears for power transmission
an efficiency of_______ as recommended.
A. 95% or more
B. 89% of more
C. 85% of more
D. 98% of more
45. Past ME Board Question
The five principal parts of shaper are:
table, tool slide, base ram and______.
A. column
B. vise
C. drive motor
D. apron
46. Past ME Board Question
It is a good design practice for steel line
shafting to consider a limit to the linear
deflection of ______ inch/foot length
maximum.
A. 0.050
B. 0.010
C. 0.020
D. 0.060
47. Past ME Board Question
The conical surface at the starting end of
the thread is called.
A. pitch cone
B. chamfer
C. flute
D. crest
48. Past ME Board Question
For ordinary steel, the modulus of
elasticity usually falls between________
million pounds.
A. 20 to 31
B. 35 to 45
C. 20 to 35
D. 25 to30
49. Past ME Board Question
The modulus of elasticity for metals in
compression is usually taken as that in.
A. tension
B. bearing
C. yield
D. ultimate
50. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the ratio of
moment and stress?
A. strain
B. section modulus
C. contraction
D. passions ratio
51. Past ME Board Question
What is the flexural stress when a
symmetrically cross-section beam when the
vertical shear is maximum
A. infinity
B. zero
C. maximum
D. minimum
52. Past ME Board Question
The riveted joints in ASME Code has as
design surface compressive stress______
Higher than the design tensile stress.
A. 70%
B. 60%
C. 35%
D. 50%
53. Past ME Board Question
What is the ratio of the minimum strength
of joint to the strength of solid joint in the
pressure vessel?
A. efficiency
B. relative strength
C. performance factor
D. joint efficiency
54. Past ME Board Question
What is the usual factor of safety for a
pressure vessel?
A. 4
B. 1.5
C. 3
D. 5
55. Past ME Board Question
It is the permissible variation of the size.
A. tolerance
B. limits
C. fits
D. none of these
56. Past ME Board Question
Considering that there is no fit, what is
the permissible liberal tolerance in
machining work?
A. ±0.010
B. ±0.090
C. ±0.020
D. ±0.050
57. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is a tolerance
where the size of a part may be larger only,
or
smaller only, than the given dimension.
A. unilateral
B. lateral
C. bilateral
D. none of these
58. Past ME Board Question
A tolerance where the size of part is
permitted to be either larger or smaller than
the given
dimension
A. unilateral
B. lateral
C. bilateral
D. none of these
59. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the basis of ASA
fits?
A. basic number system
B. basic hole system
C. basic size system
D. unit system
60. Past ME Board Question
When the hole is smaller than the shaft it
will take force of pressure to put the cold
parts together. In such case the allowance is
negative. Which of the following terms is
appropriate for such allowance?
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A. negative fits of metals
B. interference of metals
C. positive fits of the shaft
D. intangible fits
61. Past ME Board Question
What is the direction of the predominant
surface pattern?
A. smoothness
B. waviness
C. lay
D. roughness
62. Past ME Board Question
Is the irregularities of departures from the
nominal surface of greater spacing than
roughness?
A. waviness
B. roughness
C. lay
D. smoothness
63. Past ME Board Question
Is the surface finish of micrometer in rms.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
64. Past ME Board Question
Is the process of pre-stressing or overstressing of a hollow cylindrical member
beyond elastic range.
A. presstagge
B. autofrettage
C. stress relieving
D. countersinking
65. Past ME Board Question
Is the phenomenon occurring when two
touching surfaces have a high contact
pressure and when these surfaces have
minute relative motion?
A. prestressing
B. fretting
C. friction
D. carving
66. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following gears has the
simplest type of teeth?
A. Helical gears
B. Spur gears
C. Bevel gears
D. Worm gears
67. Past ME Board Question
In gears an imaginary circle which the
lever arm is based in,
A. base circle
B. pitch circle
C. addendum circle
D. clearance circle
68. Past ME Board Question
It is the circle tangent to the addendum
of the meshing gears.
A. clearance circle
B. base circle
C. addendum circle
D. pitch circle
69. Past ME Board Question
The distance from a point on one gear to
the corresponding point measured along
the base circle.
A. normal pitch
B. circular pitch
C. axial pitch
D. diametral pitch
70. Past ME Board Question
A line passing through the pitch point
that is tangent to both base circles of a gear
is:
A. pressure line
B. perpendicular line
C. tangent line
D. center line
71. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following contact ratio for a
good gear design?
A. 1.5:1
B. 1:1.3
C. 1:3
D. 1.2:2
72. Past ME Board Question
In pressure vessels, which of the following
resists internal pressure through the
tension?
A. shell-type element
B. cam type element
C. plate type element
D. spherical type element
73. Past ME Board Question
In pressure vessels, which of the following
resists internal pressure through bending?
A. shell-type element
B. cam type element
C. plate-type element
D. spherical type element
74. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following flanges is suitable
for low and (hindi q mabasa) pressure?
A. Ring flange
B. Lap joint flange
C. Tapered-hub flange
D. Welding neck type
75. Past ME Board Question
It is the study of body’s motion
independent of the forces on the body?
A. Kinetics
B. Dynamics
C. Kinematics
D. Mechanics
76. Past ME Board Question
What is the reciprocal of velocity ratio?
A. train value
B. ratio factor
C. modular value
D. none of these
77. Past ME Board Question It is the type
of bolt finished all over and has usually
having coarse threads.
A. coupling bolt
B. stud bolt
C. Machine bolt
D. automobile bolt
78. Past ME Board Question
It is type of bolt distinguished by a short
portion of the shank and underneath the
head being square of finned or ribbed.
A. coupling bolt
B. stud bolt
C. Machine bolt
D. carriage bolt
79. Past ME Board Question
It is type of bolt threaded on both ends
and can be used where a through bolt
impossible.
A. coupling bolt
B. carriage bolt
C. stud bolt
D. machine bolt
80. Past ME Board Question
It is cheap variety of bolt made in small
sizes.
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A. stud bolt
B. stove bolt
C. machine bolt
D. coupling bolt
81. Past ME Board Question
It is a locking device that is used to
maintain pressure between threads of the
bolt and nut.
A. gasket
B. lock washer
C. lock nuts
D. filler
82. Past ME Board Question
What is the large wood screw used to
fasten machinery and equipment
A. lag screw
B. loss screw
C. wood screw
D. cross screw
83. Past ME Board Question
What is the minimum length of contact in
tapped hole for cast iron?
A. 1.7 D
B. 1.5 D
C. 1.2 D
D. 2.1 D
84. Past ME Board Question
It is the ratio of the mean diameter of the
coil over the coil diameters.
A. Wahl factor
B. Spring index
C. Coil ratio
D. Lead scale
85. Past ME Board Question
What is the overall length of the spring
when it is compressed until all adjacent coil
touch?
A. free length
B. solid length
C. compressed length
D. expansion length
86. Past ME Board Question
It is the length of coil spring under no
load.
A. compressed length
B. free length
C. solid length
D. none of these
87. Past ME Board Question
In general, the steel springs are made of
relatively high carbon steel usually:
A. 5%
B. less than 0.5%
C. more than 0.5%
D. 7.5%
88. Past ME Board Question
It is low cost spring material suitable
where service is not severe and dimensional
precision is not needed.
A. helical spring wire
B. stainless steel
C. hard drawn wire spring
D. copper
89. Past ME Board Question
What is the hard drawn (80% reduction)
spring wire made of carbon steel?
A. oil tempered wire
B. music wire
C. tension wire
D. chromium wire
90. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following wires with good
quality and is used for impact loading?
A. Hard drawn wire
B. Cold drawn wire
C. Helical spring wire
D. Chromium-Silicon wire
91. Past ME Board Question
When heat-treated wire is coiled cold, it
should be stress relieved for bending stress
and after cooling it or heated at some:
A. 400 0F
B. 600 0F
C. 700 0C
D. 500 0F
92. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is not a function of
spring?
A. absorbs energy
B. source of potential energy
C. measure weight
D. measure thickness
93. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the type of
spring made in the form of dished Washer?
A. air spring
B. believe spring
C. volute spring
D. motor spring
94. Past ME Board Question
What is the type of failure due to
unstability?
A. Buckling
B. Slenderness ratio
C. Stability
D. Euler’s failure
95. Past ME Board Question
What type of formula that is best applied
to a very slender column?
A. Column formula
B. Slenderness formulas
C. Moment formulas
D. Euler formula
96. Past ME Board Question
If two principal stresses is zero, the state
of stress:
3A. Biaxial
B. Mono-axial
C. Uniaxial
D. Triaxial
97. Past ME Board Question
What do you call the system that has
finite values of principal stresses?
A. Triaxial
B. Uniaxial
C. Mono-axial
D. Biaxial
98. Past ME Board Question
A screw that requires positive torque to
lower load or to loosen the screw if it has
been turned tight against a resistance
A. power screw
B. lock screw
C. Self screw
D. self locking screw
99. Past ME Board Question
What is the rotating member used in
transmitting power?
A. shaft
B. countershaft
C. axle
D. washer
100. Past ME Board Question
For machinery shaft the permissible
deflection is approximately:
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A. 0.02 in/ft
B. 0.03 in/ft
C. 0.01 in/ft
D. 0.05 in/ft
ELEMENTS 09
1. Past ME Board Question
For shafts, the shear due to bending
is a maximum at the neutral plane
where the normal stress is:
A. Minimum
B. Constant
C. Maximum also
D. Zero
2. Past ME Board Question
The minimum value of numerical
combined shock and fatigue factor
to be applied in every case to the
computed bending moment of the
shaft is:
A. 2.0
B. 1.75
C. 1.5
D. 1.3
3. Past ME Board Question
What is the other name given to
short shafts on machines?
A. Spindles
B. Head shafts
C. Core shafts
D. All of these
4. Past ME Board Question
What is the other name given to a
line shaft?
A. Countershaft
B. Main shaft
C. Long shaft
D. Head shaft
5. Past ME Board Question
The speed at which the center of
mass will be equal the deflecting
forces on the shaft; the shaft with its
attached bodies will then vibrate
violently, since the centrifugal force
changes its direction as the shaft
turns in:
A. Nominal speed
B. Critical speed
C. Relative speed
D. Mean speed
6. Past ME Board Question
An
old
rule
of
thumb
for
transmission shafting is that the
deflection should not exceed _____ of
length between supports.
A. 0.01 in. per foot
B. 0.08 in. per foot
C. 0.02 in. per foot
D. 0.05 in. per foot
7. Past ME Board Question
For transmission shafts the allowable
deflection is 1 degree in a length of
_____ diameters.
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
8. Past ME Board Question
What is the limiting torsional
deflection for machinery shafts, if
the criteria of limiting torsional
deflection vary from 0.08˚ per foot
of length?
A. 1˚
B. 2.5˚
C. 2˚
D. 3.5˚
9. Past ME Board Question
Bevel gears of sizes 5 in. to 15 in.
should not be lift or depress more
than _____, as Gleason statement.
A. 0.004
B. 0.003
C. 0.002
D. 0.001
10. Past ME Board Question
What type of key that allows the hub
to move along the shaft but prevents
the rotation of the shaft?
A. Woodruff Key
B. Feather Key
C. Gibbs Key
D. Square Key
11. Past ME Board Question
What is the other name for Kennedy
Key?
A. Tangential Key
B. Woodruff Key
C. Saddle Key
D. Roll pin
12. Past ME Board Question
What type of fits used for involute
spline?
A. Close fit
B. Press fit
C. Sliding fit
D. All of these
13. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is used for
permanent fits and similar to
involute splines except that the
pressure angle is 14.5˚?
A. Separation load
B. Spline shaft
C. Stub serrations
D. Involute serrations
14. Past ME Board Question
It is used a coupling or in addition to
another couplings where in case of
overload there is danfer of injury to
machine or to material in process.
A. Shear pin
B. Flange coupling
C. Involute serrations
D. King pin
15. Past ME Board Question
What is the maximum shaft angle for
a single Hooke’s coupling?
A. 10˚
B. 17˚
C. 15˚
D. 20˚
16. Past ME Board Question
What are the two principal parts of a
Journal Bearing?
A. Bearing and Journal
B. Shaft and Babbit
C. Clearance and Fitted
D. Shaft and Cylinder
17. Past ME Board Question
When line of action of the load
bisects the arc of partial bearing, the
bearing is said to be:
A. Eccentrically loaded
B. Fully loaded
C. Centrally loaded
D. Partially loaded
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18. Past ME Board Question
What is the difference in radii of the
bearing and Journal?
A. Even clearance
B. Clearance ratio
C. Odd clearance
D. Radial clearance
19. Past ME Board Question
When radii of both the bearing and
the journal are the same, then the
bearing is said to be:
A. Fitted bearing
B. Clearance bearing
C. Full bearing
D. Ambiguous bearing
20. Past ME Board Question
What is the line that passes through
the centers of the bearing and the
journals?
A. Line of action
B. Line of centers
C. Line of symmetry
D. Tangent line
21. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is considered
advantageous for bearing materials?
A. Conformability
B. Compatibility
C. Embeddability
D. All of these
22. Past ME Board Question
What
is
the
recommended
coefficient of fluctuation of flywheels
for punching, shearing, pressing
machine?
A. 0.005-0.1
B. 0.007-0.01
C. 0.03-0.05
D. 0.01-0.03
23. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following considers 200
series of bearing?
A. Heavy
B. Medium
C. Light
D. All of these
24. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following considers the
300 series of bearing?
A. Heavy
B. Medium
C. Light
D. All of these
25. Past ME Board Question
A type of roller bearing in which the
balls are assembled by the eccentric
displacement of the inner ring
A. Shallow groove ball bearing
B. Filling-slot ball bearing
C. Self-aligning ball bearing
D. Deep-groove ball bearing
26. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is not a type
of bearing?
A. Shallow groove ball bearing
B. Filling-slot ball bearing
C. Self-aligning ball bearing
D. Deep-groove ball bearing
27. Past ME Board Question
What is the usual density of the
leather belt?
A. 0.035 lb/in³̊
B. 0.0135 lb/in³
C. 0.025 lb/in³
D. 0.0465 lb/in³
28. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the
approximate density of a fat rubber
belt?
A. 0.055 lb/in³
B. 0.0135 lb/in³
C. 0.045 lb/in³
D. 0.0465 lb/in³
29. Past ME Board Question
A toothed wheel whose tooth
elements are straight and parallel to
the shaft axis or used to transmit
motion and power between parallel
shafts
A. Helical gear
B. Spur gear
C. Worm gear
D. Bevel gear
30. Past ME Board Question
The breaking strength of oak-tanned
beltings varies from 3 to more than:
A. 5 ksi
B. 6 ksi
C. 7 ksi
D. 9 ksi
31. Past ME Board Question
Experience suggests that the most
economical designs are obtained for
a belt speed of:
A. 6000 to 7500 fpm
B. 3000 to 5000 fpm
C. 3500 to 4700 fpm
D. 5000 to 1000 fpm
32. Past ME Board Question
The tension in the belt due to
centrifugal force increasing rapidly
above about:
A. 2500 fpm
B. 3000 fpm
C. 3500 fpm
D. 4000 fpm
33. Past ME Board Question
What is the recommended speed for
leather belts?
A. 6000 to 7000 fpm
B. 5000 to 6000 fpm
C. 7000 to 8000 fpm
D. 4500 to 5600 fpm
34. Past ME Board Question
What is the usual recommended
speed for fabric belts?
A. 4000 to 5000 fpm
B. 3000 to 4000 fpm
C. 2000 to 3000 fpm
D. 2000 and more fpm
35. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the
recommended initial tension of the
belt?
A. 75 ib/in of width
B. 73 lb/in of width
C. 71 lb/in of width
D. 80 lb/in of width
36. Past ME Board Question
Two shafts at right angles to each
other may be connected by what
arrangement?
A. Half turn
B. Quarter turn
C. ¾ turn
D. One turn
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37. Past ME Board Question
What is the minimum number of
teeth on a smaller sprocket for low
speed?
A. 12
B. 21
C. 17
D. 14
38. Past ME Board Question
What is the minimum number of
teeth on a smaller sprocket for
moderate speed?
A. 17
B. 21
C. 12
D. 14
39. Past ME Board Question
What is the usual minimum number
of teeth on a smaller sprocket for
high speed?
A. 21
B. 24
C. 12
D. 14
40. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the
measure of torsional stress?
A. Accuracy
B. Stiffness
C. Rigidity
D. Precision
41. Past ME Board Question
When tested in compression, ductile
materials
usually
exhibit
_____
characteristics up to the yield
strength as they do when tested in
tension.
A. The same
B. More than
C. Less than
D. Approximately the same
42. Past ME Board Question
A tolerance where the size of a part
is permitted to be either larger or
smaller than the given dimension
A. Bilateral
B. Unilateral
C. Lateral
D. None of these
43. Past ME Board Question
A fit generally used on those
dimensions involved in a fit such as
pin in a hole.
A. Unilateral
B. Lateral
C. Bilateral
D. None of these
44. Past ME Board Question
It is a relatively finely spaced
irregularity of the surfaces.
A. Smoothness
B. Waviness
C. Lay
D. Roughness
45. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the surface
finish to heavy cuts or coarse feed?
A. 200 rms
B. 400 rms
C. 80 rms
D. 500 or greater rms
46. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the most
dominant cause (approximately 80
%) of machine failures?
A. Torsion
B. Negligence
C. Fatigue failures
D. Compression
47. Past ME Board Question
For wrought steel in its commonly
met commercial forms, it is often
assumed
that
the
average
endurance limit for an average (50
% survival) with the BrinellHardness
is limited to:
A. 500
B. 400
C. 240
D. 450
48. Past ME Board Question
What is the range of the endurance
ratio or Czaud quotes values for
steel?
A. 0.23 to 0.65
B. 0.34 to 0.87
C. 0.63 to 0.93
D. 0.34 to 0.45
49. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following indicates the
degree of concentration?
A. Power factor
B. Service factor
C. Stress factor
D. Stress concentration factor
50. Past ME Board Question
The internal stresses that exists in
any part of the material that is
subjected to temperature and not
acted upon by an external load
A. Residual stress
B. Form stress
C. Superposed stress
D. Control stress
51. Past ME Board Question
It is the process that cold works a
limited amount of material, thus
giving a higher strength, and it
leaves a surface compressive stress.
A. Surface finishing
B. Tensioning
C. Surfacing
D. Surface rolling
52. Past ME Board Question
Fatigue strength is increased by
repeated loads just below the
normal fatigue limit followed by
small step by step increase of the
loading.
A. Coaxing
B. Waxing
C. Mixing
D. Relieving
53. Past ME Board Question
It is the diameter of the imaginary
cylinder that bounds the crest of an
external thread and the roots of an
internal thread.
A. Mean diameter
B. Root diameter
C. Stress diameter
D. Major diameter
54. Past ME Board Question
It is the distance in inches a screw
thread (a helix) advances axially in
one turn.
A. Pitch
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B. Mean pitch
C. Lead
D. Circular pitch
55. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following bolts is
recommended for general use?
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC
56. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is frequently
used bolt in automotive and aircraft
industries?
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC
57. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is particular
bolt used in aeronautical equipment?
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC
58. Past ME Board Question
What type of bolt usually used for
high-pressure pipe flanges, cylinder
head studs etc.
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. 8 UN
59. Past ME Board Question
It is the stress or load induced by the
tightening operation.
A. Initial stress
B. Initial tension
C. Residual stress
D. None of these
60. Past ME Board Question
For non-metallic gaskets, it has been
found that they should have a
certain
minimum
amount
of
compression as _____ for a certain
cork gasket.
A. 62 %
B. 86 %
C. 68 %
D. 76 %
61. Past ME Board Question
It is a screw fastening with a nut on
it
A. Bolt
B. U – bolt
C. Rivet
D. Screw
62. Past ME Board Question
A fastening which has no nut and
turns in to a threaded hole
A. Bolt
B. Fastener
C. Rivet
D. Screw
63. Past ME Board Question
An old name for an unfinished
through bolt comes with a square.
A. Coupling bolt
B. Stud bolt
C. Machine bolt
D. Automobile bolt
64. Past ME Board Question
It is a type of coil where the helical
coil is wrapped into a circle forming
an annular ring.
A. Volute spring
B. Hair spring
C. Motor spring
D. Garter spring
65. Past ME Board Question
It is a type of spring where thin flat
strip wound up on itself as a plane
spiral, usually anchored at the inside
end.
A. Motor spring
B. Garter spring
C. Volute spring
D. Helical spring
66. Past ME Board Question
It is the ratio of the length of the
column and the radius of gyration of
the cross-sectional area about a
centroidal axis.
A. Contact ratio
B. Slenderness ratio
C. Centroidal ratio
D. Column ratio
67. Past ME Board Question
Under the theories of failure, for
static loading of ductile material, the
design stress is:
A. Yield Stress / Factor of
Safety
B. Ultimate Stress / Factor of Safety
C. Ultimate Stress / Proportional
Limit
D. Yield point / Proportional Limit
68. Past ME Board Question
Under the theories of failure, the
value of shear stress is how many
times that of a tensile stress?
A. Four times
B. Half
C. Double
D. One-fourth
69. Past ME Board Question
The theory of mechanics of material
shows that the results from the
octahedral shear stress theory and
those from maximum distortionenergy theory are:
A. The same
B. Less than
C. More than
D. Not related
70. Past ME Board Question
It is the distance measure axially
from a point on one thread to the
corresponding point on adjacent
thread.
A. Axial pitch
B. Z – pitch
C. Lead
D. Lead angle
71. Past ME Board Question
It is the angle between a tangent to
the pitch helix and plane normal to
the axis of the screw.
A. Helix angle
B. Lead angle
C. Tangent angle
D. Vertical angle
72. Past ME Board Question
It is suggested that the design factor
on the yield strength be about 1.5
for the smooth load, about 2 to 2.25
for minor shock loading, and up to
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_____ for severe shock loads,
especially when the loading reverses
during operation.
A. 4.5
B. 3.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
73. Past ME Board Question
A typical hub length fall between
_____
A. 1.25D to 2.5D
B. 1.3D to 3.4D
C. 1.25D to 4.0D
D. D to 7.0D
74. Past ME Board Question
A key with one several patented
methods of keying is driven or
pressed into a hole that is small
enough to dose the slit, assembled
in radial direction.
A. Fit key
B. Roll pin
C. Saddle key
D. Pin key
75. Past ME Board Question
A key that allows the hub to move
along the shaft but prevents the
rotation of the shaft
A. Woodruff key
B. Gibbs key
C. Feather key
D. Square key
76. Past ME Board Question
For involute spline, the type of fits
used:
A. Close fit
B. Sliding fit
C. Press fit
D. All of these
77. Past ME Board Question
A coupling that transmits power via
the frictional forces induced by
pulling the flange toward each other
over slotted tapered sleeves.
A. Flange coupling
B. Ribbed compression coupling
C. Rigid coupling
D. Flanged
compression
coupling
78. Past ME Board Question
A coupling used for absorbing some
shock and vibration that may appear
on the shaft and of preventing the
occurrence of reversed stresses
caused by the shaft deflecting at the
coupling preventing at the coupling
A. Rigid coupling
B. Flange coupling
C. Flexible coupling
D. None of these
79. Past ME Board Question
It is the difference in the radii of the
bearing and the journal.
A. Even clearance
B. Clearance ratio
C. Fit clearance
D. Radial clearance
80. Past ME Board Question
A bearing in which the radii of the
journal and the nearing are the same
A. Fitted nearing
B. Full bearing
C. Partial bearing
D. Clearance bearing
81. Past ME Board Question
What is the approximate length-todiameter ratio of hydrodynamic
bearings?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
82. Past ME Board Question
The operating temperature of oil
films
in
the
bearing
must
approximately:
A. 140˚F to 150˚F
B. 140˚F to 160˚F
C. 120˚F to 190˚F
D. 120˚F to 190˚F
83. Past ME Board Question
At higher temperatures, oil oxidizes
more rapidly above:
A. 120˚F
B. 200˚F
C. 140˚F
D. 160˚F
84. Past ME Board Question
For thrust bearing, the speed at
moderate operating condition is:
A. 50 <Vm> 200 fpm
B. 50 <Vm> 250 fpm
C. 50 <Vm> 220 fpm
D. 50 <Vm> 250 fpm
85. Past ME Board Question
If the ends are joined by wire lacing
with machine, the usual efficiency of
joint is:
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 85 %
D. 88 %
86. Past ME Board Question
On high speed centrifugal blowers, it
has been observed that the arc of
contact is reduced from 180˚ at rest
to _____ in motion.
A. 100˚
B. 90˚
C. 95˚
D. 110˚
87. Past ME Board Question
The recommended net belt pull for
rubber belt is:
A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width
D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width
88. Past ME Board Question
For
minimum
quietness,
use
sprockets with _____ or more teeth.
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 27
89. Past ME Board Question
If two intersecting shafts re to be
belt connected, _____ guide pulleys
are to be used.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
90. Past ME Board Question
Wire ropes are made from colddrawn with _____ or more teeth.
A. 21
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B. 23
C. 25
D. 27
91. Past ME Board Question
A wire rope that the wires and
strands are twisted in the opposite
direction
A. Long lay
B. Perform
C. Regular lay
D. Lang lay
92. Past ME Board Question
A wire rope that the wires and
strands are twisted on the same
direction
A. Long lay
B. Perform
C. Regular lay
D. Lang lay
93. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following ropes is used
for haulage, egging, guard rails?
A. 6 X 35 IWRC
B. 6 X 15 IWRC
C. 7 X 8 IWRC
D. 7 X 7 IWRC
94. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following has been
considered as general purpose rope?
A. 6 x 19 IWRC
B. 7 x 25 IWRC
C. 7 x 25 IWRC
D. 6 x 9 IWRC
95. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following ropes is used
for lines, hawsers, overhead cranes,
and hoists?
A. 6 x 37 IWRC
B. 6 x 35 IWRC
C. 6 x 25 IWRC
D. 7 x 26 IWRC
96. Past ME Board Question
The regular materials wire ropes are
made of:
A. Chromium
B. Wrought iron
C. Cast steel
D. High-carbon iron
97. Past ME Board Question
What is the minimum suggested
design factor of wire ropes for
miscellaneous hoisting equipment is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
98. Past ME Board Question
To avoid excessive wear rate the
recommended limiting pressure for 6
x 19 ropes is _____ for cast steel.
A. 700 psi
B. 900 psi
C. 1000 pi
D. 1200 psi
99. Past ME Board Question
To
avoid
wear
rate
the
recommended limiting pressure for 6
x 19 ropes is _____ for manganese
cast steel.
A. 2500 psi
B. 2000 psi
C. 3000 psi
D. 2300 psi
100.
Past ME Board Question
What friction devices that are used
to connect shafts?
A. Clutches
B. Spring
C. Brakes
D. Holders
4.
5.
6.
7.
Elements 10
1. The total frictional energy that is
stored in the brake parts principally
in the drum or disk is approximately:
A. 56% up
B. 90% up
C. 86% up
D. 75% up
2. The brake capacity to absorb energy
is known as:
A. Energy
B. Power
C. Resistance brake
D. Braking torque
3. A kind of braking system such that if
the band wraps partly around the
brake drum and the braking action is
8.
9.
obtained by pulling the band tight
into the wheel.
A. Block brake
B. Clutch
C. Band brake
D. Centrifugal brake
Which of the following clutches that
has a disadvantage of heavier
rotating masses.
A. Multiple disc clutch
B. Cone clutch
C. Disc clutch
D. Twin clutching
Which of the following welds have
been considered as resistance weld
which is usually round in the same
dorm as the electrodes that press
the sheets together?
A. Edge joints
B. Spot welds
C. CIG welds
D. TIG welds
A welding which consist of short
lengths (2-3 in. long) of welds with
space between as 6 inches on
centers.
A. Intermittent weld
B. Spot weld
C. MIG weld
D. TIG weld
A welding operation that use hot
flame and metal rod.
A. Gas welding
B. Arc welding
C. Resistance welding
D. Automatic welding
The arc is covered with a welding
composition, and bare electrode wire
is fed automatically.
A. Resistance welding
B. Induction welding
C. Submerged welding
D. Spot welding
What is the recommended
coefficient of fluctuation of flywheels
for punching, shearing, pressing
machine is:
A. 0.005 – 0.1
B. 0.002 – 0.07
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C. 0.03 – 0.05
D. 0.01 – 0.03
10. The part of the machine that
absorbs the energy delivered by a
sharp force or blow.
A. Spring
B. Anvil
C. Brakes
D. Flywheel
11. It is the friction of wheel inclination
from the vertical position.
A. Camber
B. Toe-in
C. Caster
D. King pin inclination
12. Which of the following is a machine
which takes large quantities of raw
or finished materials and binds them
with a rope or metal straps or wires
into a large package?
A. Bacher
B. Bending machine
C. Baler
D. Automatic screw machine
13. It is the grasping of an outside work
piece in a chunk or jawed device in a
lathe.
A. Clucking
B. Clamping
C. Chucking
D. Clam shelling
14. Which of the following is a
mechanical linkage or mechanism
that can turn about a center or
rotation?
A. Oscillation
B. Crank
C. Coupler
D. Drag link
15. What type of compound screw which
produces a motion equal to the
difference in motion between the
two component screws?
A. Machine screw
B. Tanden screw
C. Differential screw
D. Variable screw
16. Which of the following bolts provided
with a hole at one end instead of
usual head?
A. Stud bolt
B. Eye bolt
C. Machine bolt
D. Stove bolt
17. What operation generally carried out
to divide the parent coiled sheet into
narrower coils?
A. Slotting
B. Squeezing
C. Squaring
D. Slitting
18. It is the process used to form
shallow, round, raised recessed
troughs of uniform width in a
straight curved or circular form.
A. Hemming
B. Beading
C. Embossing
D. Bludging
19. The process of removing excess
metals from the edge of a strip to
make it suitable for drawing without
wrinkling or to obtain final
complicated shape which was not
directly possible by blanking.
A. Lancing
B. Slugging
C. Notching
D. Trimming
20. Which of the following is the
processed of removing coarse
scratches or tool marks?
A. Polishing
B. Buffing
C. Honing
D. Lapping
21. Which of the following ropes is
galvanized and consist of 6 strands,
7 wires each, and a hemp core?
A. Reverse lay rope
B. Guy rope
C. Lang lay rope
D. Regular rope
22. It is a large lathe used for turning
and boring cannons.
A. Gun lathe
B. Engine lathe
C. Cannon lathe
D. Turret lathe
23. What devices on lathe used for
carrying the revolving spindle?
A. Head stock
B. Header
C. Head suction
D. None of these
24. The recommended means of
supporting the chuck during the
mounting procedure to the lathe
spindle is to use:
A. Crane
B. Jack
C. Overhead
D. Ratchet
25. Too much ________ in flat belt
operation tend to cause excessive
wear slippage and may burn the
belt.
A. Play
B. Slack
C. Stiffness
D. Tightness
26. It is a chromium steel tape in AISISAE designation.
A. 10XX
B. 25XX
C. 50XX
D. 40XX
27. Which of the following is not
recommended for use in a driving
speed exceeding 2000 ft/min.?
A. Flat leather belt
B. Herringbone gear
C. Silent sprocket
D. V-belt
28. It is a low cost bearing used
worldwide for automobile or low
horsepower motor application. It is
made of thin coating of over flat
metal strip.
A. Babbitt
B. Cadmium brass
C. Lead
D. Tin
29. The most common tool to measure
diameter in machine shop operation
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but normally and always used with
steel scale for measurement.
A. Caliper
B. Micrometer
C. Protractor
D. Vernier
30. In impact force introduced to case
the metal to flow in shaped mold
according to the shape to dies
made.
A. Hardness
B. Spinning
C. Swaging
D. Toughness
31. Find the polar section modulus of a
steel shafting with “D” as the
diameter.
A. πD³/16
B. πD³/32
C. πD³/32
D. πD³/16
32. Forces of equal in magnitude but
opposite in direction are parallel are
called:
A. Acceleration
B. Coplanar
C. Couple
D. Non-coplanar
33. Composition of forces is at the ______
of two or more forces.
A. Combination
B. Opposition
C. Resultant
D. Summary
34. Circular pitch is measured along the
________ in the circular gear.
A. Circle
B. Line of action
C. Pitch center
D. Pitch diameter
35. Stiffness is the material’s ability to
______ deformation under stress.
A. Non-coplanar
B. Planar
C. Resist
D. Staffer
36. It imparts the ductility, toughness,
and plasticity of steel.
A. Annealing
B. Materializing
C. Quenching
D. Tempering
37. Which of the following type of wood
is usually used in making wood
pattern in the foundry?
A. Dried sap wood
B. Hard wood
C. Kiln dried wood
D. Scrap wood
38. The progressive change in position
of ______is called motion.
A. Component
B. Couple
C. Link
D. Mass
39. Strain or _______ is a change in
geometry/shape of the body due to
the action of a force on it.
A. Bending stress
B. Deformation
C. Shear stress
D. Stress
40. The effective face width of a helical
gear divided by the axial pitch. This
is sometimes called face overlap.
A. Angle overlap
B. Axial overlap
C. Contact overlap
D. Helical overlap
41. For mass production of casting it is
generally cheaper to use ________
pattern for longer life.
A. Aluminum
B. Brass
C. Metal
D. Wooden
42. It is a plane between mating teeth or
the amount of which a tooth space
exceed the thickness of an engaging
tooth is called:
A. Backlash
B. Clearance
C. Pitting
D. Space
43. The forces that can be combined or
called _____component forces.
A. Different
B. Helical
C. Opposite
D. Parallel
44. Plane of rotation is defined as plane
perpendicular to a:
A. Gear axis
B. Gear ratio
C. Normal plane
D. Pitch diameter
45. Which of the following can be a con
current?
A. Collinear
B. Couple
C. Parallel
D. All of these
46. Cutting lubricant used in drilling,
reaming and tapping for brass and
bronze.
A. Dry
B. Soda water
C. Soluble oil
D. Turpentine
47. In general accepted limit of diamond
wheel speed should be in the range
of _______ fpm.
A. 1000/2000
B. 2500/3500
C. 3000/4000
D. 5000/6000
48. Prepared tool bit will now consist of
face, nose and:
A. Cutting tool
B. Shank
C. Sharp tool
D. Tool edge
49. This is an alloy in bronze casting that
assists lubrication and in itself a
lubricant.
A. Lead
B. Manganese
C. Phosphorous
D. Tin
50. For longer sprocket chain life the
speed range of ______ fpm is
recommended.
A. 1200-1400
B. 1500-1600
C. 1800-2000
D. 2000-2100
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51. All stainless steel type is SAE
designation except:
A. 92XX
B. 300XX
C. 304XX
D. 515XX
52. It is white metal with good oxidation
and corrosion resistance. This has
also good electrical magnetic
properties.
A. Aluminum
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D. Titanium
53. It is a molybdenum steel-tape in
AISI-SAE designation.
A. 44XX
B. 45XX
C. 50XX
D. 51XX
54. Cutting lubricants used in drilling,
reaming tapping for hand spots in
cast iron.
A. Dry
B. Kerosene
C. Soda water
D. Turpentine
55. In a ________ design, the lead of a
single thread is equal to the pitch.
A. Bevel gear
B. Bolt
C. Helical gear
D. Hypoid gear
56. A of chisels used in cutting of
keyways, square corner or slots.
A. Cape
B. Diamond head
C. Flat
D. Round
57. The maximum recommended ideal
number of teeth to use for bigger
sprocket is:
A. 120
B. 127
C. 132
D. 143
58. A bolt for general application that
posses a stronger thread is a type
_____ screw.
A. BUN
B. UNC
C. UNEF
D. WOOD
59. Maximum moment formula for beam
simply supported at both ends and
subjected to a load uniformly
distributed over its length.
A. wL/2
B. wL²/8
C. wL²/16
D. wL/12
60. What is the special bearing used
with high deflection?
A. Babbitt
B. Ball
C. Roller
D. Self aligning
61. which of the following bearing is
used for low load and less expensive
production
A. Babbitt
B. ball bearing
C. roller bearing
D. self aligning
62. the lateral strain in axial tension
members can be calculated by;
A. deformation
B. Hooke’s law
C. Poisson’s ratio
D. William’s line
63. it is abundantly used worldwide as
coating on top of the plate
automobile.
A. Babbitt
B. lead
C. manganese
D. tin
64. a liquid metal at room temperature.
A. aluminum
B. mercury
C. zinc
D. zirconium
65. it is a steel with SAE specification
13XX
A. chromium
B. manganese
C. molybdenum
D. nickel
66. Property, which enables a material,
be drawn into a wire.
A. ductility
B. elasticity
C. plasticity
D. utility
67. The stress that causes the material
to shorten.
A. bearing
B. compressive
C. shear
D. tensile
68. The most known lubricants bearing
being utilized in whatever category
of load and speed are oil, air grease
and dry lubricants like:
A. bronze
B. graphite
C. lead
D. silicon
69. It is a gear commonly used in
parallel shaft transmission especially
when a smooth continuous action is
essential as in high speed drives up
to 12000 fpm.
A. Bevel gear
B. Helical gear
C. Herringbone gear
D. Spur gear
70. The reciprocal of a diametral pitch or
the ratio of the pitch diameter to the
number of teeth
A. clearance
B. involute
C. lead
D. module
71. What tool(s) will be used in making
wood pattern in the foundry shop?
A. Band saw
B. Drill machine
C. hammer
D. saw and chisel
72. Type of bolt commonly used in the
construction that is threaded in both
ends.
A. Acme threaded bolts
B. Hex bolt
C. Square threaded
D. Stud bolt
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73. Ability of material to absorb strain
energy and will return to its original
state.
A. creep
B. fatigue strength
C. hardness
D. resilience
74. The ratio of lateral strain to
longitudinal strain.
A. deformation
B. modulus of elasticity
C. poisson’s ratio
D. William’s line
75. Basic size is the same as design size
if there is no:
A. allowance
B. clearance
C. limits
D. tolerance
76. Forces that meet at a common point
are called:
A. co-linear
B. concurrent
C. coplanar
D. couple
77. Pair of equal and opposite (not
collinear) forces that tend cause a
rotation of a body.
A. centroids
B. couple
C. equilibrium
D. vector
78. Stress that resist being pulled apart.
A. compressive
B. shear
C. tensile
D. torsional
79. What is the other term applied to
dynamic seals?
A. gasket
B. packing
C. seal
D. shield
80. Which type of hardening will work to
some extent in all metals?
A. annealing
B. austenitizing
C. martempering
D. work hardening
81. What do impact tests determine?
A. Creep test
B. hardness
C. toughness
D. yield strength
82. Sound travels fastest in:
A. air at 0˚F and 1 atmospheric
B. air at 70˚F and 1
atmospheric
C. air at 70˚F and 0lbf /in
D. steel at 70˚F
83. The yield strength of common yellow
brass (70% Cu, 30%Zn)
A. annealing
B. chill casting
C. cold working
D. heat treatment
84. How do you call the forces not lie on
the same plane?
A. component
B. composition of forces
C. non-coplanar
D. resolution
85. the distance between the center of
oscillation and the point of
suspension is called:
A. fix axis
B. center of gravity
C. center of percussion
D. radius of oscillation
86. if the velocity is variable and
regular/ constantly increasing the
rate of change is called:
A. acceleration
B. constant work
C. moment
D. motion
87. The kinematics chain in which one
link is considered fixed for the
purpose of analysis but motion is
possible in other link:
A. belting
B. frame
C. mechanism
D. sprocket chain
88. All forces in the same plane are
called
A. coplanar
B. couple
C. parallel
D. resultant
89. The_____ is one of the rigid members
/ bodies joined together to form a
kinematics chain.
A. coplanar
B. frame
C. link
D. machine
90. The resultant of a pair of equal
forces but opposite in direction is
called _____.
A. concurrent
B. couple
C. non-concurrent
D. resultant
91. The helical and herringbone gear
teeth cut after heat treatment
should have a hardness in the range
of 210/300BHN. The pinion gear
teeth hardness on the other hand.
Ideally/normally should be at ______
BHN.
A. 250/320
B. 350/380
C. 400/345
D. 340/350
92. As a rule the center to center
distance between sprockets should
not be less than _____ times the
diameter of the bigger sprocket and
not less than 30 times the pitch or
more than about 50 times to pitch.
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
93. What is the carbon content range of
SAE 4140 chrome-molly steel after
treatment?
A. 0.30/0.45
B. 0.38/0.43
C. 0.38/0.45
D. 0.30/0.50
94. Gear are manufactured usually in
the following processes: milling,
generating, shaving, grinding and
A. blanking
B. dinking
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C. heat treatment
D. molding
95. Flat belt that is too tight will induce
strain on the bearing and belt ______.
A. Life will be shortened
B. Result to uneconomical
operation
C. Suffer/ shatter
D. Will be sheared/cut
96. The resulting cross-sectional area of
the tensile test specimen divided by
the specimen original area is called:
A. charpy test
B. % elongation
C. Impact test
D. Izod test
97. SAE 51XXX belongs to the ______
steel family.
A. carbon
B. chromium
C. manganese
D. nickel
98. Which of the following gasket
material which should avoid hot
liquid/steam application?
A. Asbestos fiber
B. Nylon fiber
C. Rubberized
D. Wool
99. Which of the following that describes
the same material properties all
cover/ direction and at any particular
point in a structural member?
A. heterogeneous
B. homogenous
C. isentropic
D. isotropic
100. Arc produced by two tungsten
electrodes into which jet hydrogen is
directed.
A. Atomic hydrogen welding
B. Electro-beam welding
C. Hydrogen bomb
D. Hydrogen lancing
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Elements 11
1. A white metal, almost as bright as
silver and is malleable and ductile
and can be welded.
8.
A. Nickel
B. Aluminu
C. White Iron
D. Lead
It is a silvery dull, soft metal and the
second lightest of all metals used in
the industry.
A. Nickel
B. Aluminum
C. White Iron
D. Lead
The least among iron ores for it
contains many impurities, poor in
iron contact and commonly used in
England.
A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Limanite
D. Siderite
Which of the following is not
considered to be precious metal?
A. Silver
B. Gold
C. Platinum
D. Steel
It is an alloy of copper and zinc. It is
approximately 1/3 zinc and 2/3
copper.
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Muntz metal
D. silver
It is a copper-tin alloy and is named
either bell metal or brown metal.
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Muntz metal
D. silver
It is a furnace that converts pig iron
into steel by oxidizing out the
surplus carbon and using oxygen by
throwing raw iron into the furnace.
A. Open-heart furnace
B. Electric furnace
C. Cupola
D. Bessemer
The most commonly-used series in
the bulk production of bolts, screws,
nuts and other general applications
in the coarse-thread series.
A. UNC
B. UNF
C. White iron
D. Lead
9. What is the actual torque ratio of
gear set divided by its gear ratio?
A. approach ratio
B. clearance
C. contact ratio
D. efficiency
10. Which of the following has low
coefficient of expansion, corrosion
resistant, weak in strength, and used
for non-ferrous applications as
alloying elements?
A. Aluminum
B. Aluminum oxide
C. Copper oxide
D. Copper
11. Which of the following material(s) is
recommended for large sprocket of
large speed ratio and having firm
engagement?
A. nickel-chromium steel
B. copper
C. cast iron
D. aluminum
12. In which of the following carrying
capacity where roller bearing is
utilized better than ball bearing?
A. heavy load
B. low load
C. high temperature load
D. reversing load
13. Which of the following materials
having thermal expansion of about
10 times higher than those of
materials and has more heat
generated during machining?
A. Aluminum
B. Asbestos
C. Plastic
D. PVC
14. To avoid scoring in the bearing
surface and the shaft on to
contamination/ absorption of the
time dirt in the bearing during
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operation/ lubrication the bearing
material to apply should have good
____________properties
A. anti-scoring
B. corrosion resistance
C. embeddability
D. Conformability
15. What do impact test measure?
A. Compactness
B. Ductility
C. Plasticity
D. Toughness
16. Which of the following types of gear
transmit power at a certain angle?
A. Bevel
B. Helix
C. Herringbone
D. Spur
17. Which of the following gasket
material is not use for high
temperature?
A. Asbestos
B. Plastic nylon
C. Rubberized
D. Wool
18. How do you call a plane
perpendicular to the gear axis?
A. Normal plane
B. Pitch plane
C. Plane of rotation
D. Radius of gyration
19. Which of the following is the
specification of molybdenum alloy?
A. SAE 3XXX
B.SAE 4XXX
C. SAE 5XXX
D. SAE 6XXX
20. Which of the following is abundant
for ferrous metals?
A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorous
C. Manganese
D. Carbon
21. What machine is used to flatten
surface on a vertical, horizontal or
even angular plane?
A. Shaper machine
B. power saw
C. boring machine
D. drilling machine
22. All of these are classifications of iron
ore; except what?
A. magnetite
C. siderite
B. hematite
D. sulfurite
23. It refers to the internal resistance of
a material to being deformed and is
measured in terms of the applied
load.
A. stress
C.
ductility
B. strain
D.
malleability
24. The property of a material which
resists forces acting to pull the
material apart.
A .tensile strength C. bending
strength
B. compressive strength D. torsional
strength
25. The property of a material to resist
loads that are applied
A. magnetite
C. siderite
B. hematite
D. sulfurite
26. The property of a material to resist
various kinds of rapidly alternating
stresses.
A. fatigue strength B.bending
strength
C. compressive strength D. impact
strength
27. The ability of a material to resist
loads that are applied suddenly and
often at high velocity.
A. fatigue strength
B. bending
strength
C. compressive strength D. impact
strength
28. The ability of a material to stretch,
ben, or twist w/out breaking or
cracking.
A.Ductility
B. Malleability
C. Hardness
D. Compressibility
29. Which of the ff. is considered to be
the father of all machine tools?
A. Lathe Machine
B.Boring
Machine
C. Drilling Machine D. Milling
Machine
30. It is ability of a material to resist the
loads that are applied suddenly and
often at high velocity.
A. Fatigue strength
B. Impact
strength
C.Hardness
D.Shock strength
31. A steel of carbon range of 0.05to
0.03 percent is considered as what
type of steel?
A. Low carbon steel
B. High carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Very high carbon steel
32. A steel of carbon range of 0.30 to
0.45 percent a considered as what
type of steel?
A. Low carbon steel
B. High carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Alloyed Steel
33. A steel of carbon range of 0.45 to
0.75 percent a considered as what
type of steel?
A. Low carbon steel
B. High carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Alloyed Steel
34. A steel of carbon range of 0.45 to
0.75 percent a considered as what
type of steel?
A. Low carbon steel
B. High carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Very high carbon steel
35. Which of the ff. alloying elements of
steel will tend to increase its
strength w/out decreasing its
toughness or ductility and w/ its
large quantities the steel become
tough but develop high resistance
to corrosion and shock?
A. chromium
B. manganese
C. molybdenum
D. nickel
36. Which of the ff. alloying elements of
steel will produce the greatest
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hardening effect like carbon and at
the same time reduces the
enlargement of its grain structure.
A. chromium
B. manganese
C. molybdenum
D. nickel
37. Which of the ff. alloying elements of
steel will produce fine grain
structure and promotes greater
toughness and ductility?
A. chromium
B. manganese
C. molybdenum
D. nickel
38. Which of the ff. alloying elements of
steel w/c makes it extremely hard
and resistance to _w/out making it
brittle?
A. chromium
B. manganese
C. molybdenum
D. nickel
39. It is the elements used mostly in
steels designed for metal cutting
tools. The steels added by this
element are tough, hard and very
resistant to wear.
A. chromium
B. tungsten
C. molybdenum
D. nickel
40. It is the element whose chief
function is to strengthen the ferrite.
It is used w/ tungsten to develop red
hardness or the ability to remain
hard when red hot.
A .chromium
B. cobalt
C. molybdenum
D. nickel
41. It also known as the strain drawing.
It is the process whereby certain
degree of hardness is sacrificed in
order to reduce brittleness and
increase the toughness of steel tool.
A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Quenching
42. It is the heat treatment of steel that
produces extremely hard surface.
The process consists of exposing the
steel to hot ammonia gas for some
hours.
A. Nitriding
B. Cyaniding
C. Carburizing
D. Ammonia bath
43. How do you call the metals that
contain large amount of carbon
content?
A. ferrous metal
B. non ferrous metal
C. base metal
D. precious metal
44. All these are the basic kinds of cast
iron , Except:
A. gray iron
B. malleable iron
C. white iron
D. red iron
45. Which of the ff. are the basic kinds
of cast iron is harder and more
difficult to machine because it
contains carbon in carbide state?
A. gray iron
B. malleable iron
C. white iron
D. wrought iron
46. How do you call metals that have no
carbon content?
A. ferrous metal
B. malleable iron
C. non ferrous metal
D. white iron
47. Which of the ff. is the type of cast
iron that can stand more shock and
blow than regular cast iron?
A. nodular iron
B. malleable iron
C. wrought iron
D. gray iron
48. It is a metal of almost pure iron,
ductile and very tough. It can be
hammered and shaped at high
temperature. It has a fibrous
structure because the presence of
slag.
A. nodular iron
B. malleable iron
C. wrought iron
D. gray iron
49. A type of ferrous metal w/c is formed
by remelting pig iron and scrap iron
in a cupola furnace. It is brittle and
usually gray in color, and
commonly used in making casting.
A. cast iron
B. malleable iron
C. wrought iron
D. gray iron
50. A classification of iron ore w/c
contains 70% iron when pure and
50% iron when mined.
A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Limanite
D. Siderite
51. .A classification of iron ore w/c
contains 72.5% iron when pure and
the remaining percentages are
impurities.
A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Limanite
D. Siderite
52. Which of the ff. iron ores also known
as “brown hematite” or ferric oxide a
yellowish brown powder?
A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Limanite
D. Siderite
53. Which of the ff. represents
manganese steel?
A .13XX
B.40XX
C.50XX
D.10XX
54. It is another kind of furnace where
cast iron is remelted to make them
into cast iron. The furnace is charges
w/ layers of coke and pig iron plus
scrap iron.
A. Open-hearth furnace
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B. electric furnace
C. Cupola
D. Bessemer
55. A furnace w/c consists of blowing a
stream of air through a molten mass
of iron pig. A stream of air is turned
on through the wind box and enters
the converter at the bottom.
Manganese, carbon and other
elements of varying amounts are
added to produce steel w/c is then
poured and solidifies.
A. Open-hearth furnace
B. electric furnace
C. Cupola
D. Bessemer
56. A furnace similar to open hearth.
This principal difference is the
method of heating the charged .It is
used in producing quality of steels
because melting and refining is
closely controlled.
A. Open-hearth furnace
B. electric furnace
C. Cupola
D. Bessemer
57. It is the process of reheating or
drawing of metal that has been
hardened to a comparatively low
temperature in order to relieve the
hardening strain and increase the
toughness of the steel.
A. Tempering
B. Annealing
C. Cyaniding
D. Normalizing
58. Case hardening is the process of
hardening the outer surface of the
metal and the inner parts are soft
.What percentage of carbon content
that this type of hardening is
allowed.
A.15% and above
B.10 to 20% only
C. less than 5% only
D. Any of the ff.
59. Steel numbered SAE-AISI, C1018 and
contains 0.10% to 0.30% carbon.
A. Low carbon steel
B. Medium carbon steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Very high carbon steel
60. A steel numbered SAE-AISI, C1035
when not rolled and contains 0.30%
to 0.60% carbon.
A. Low carbon steel
B. Medium carbon steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Very high carbon steel
61. A steel numbered SAE-AISI, C1035
when not rolled and contains 0.60%
to 1.30% carbon and used when
extra hardness is required.
A. Low carbon steel
B. Medium carbon steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Very high carbon steel
62. Which of the ff. alloying elements
used in making high speed steel.
A .Molybdenum
B. nickel
C. manganese
D. Silicon
63. Which of the ff. alloying elements
used in springs to make more
reliant.
A Silicon
B. Tungsten
C. hardness and resistance
D. Nickel
64. It refers to that property in steel w/c
resist indention or penetration .It is
usually expressed in forms of the
area of an indention made by a
special ball under standard load, or
the depth of a special indenter.
A. Hardness
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. wears resistance
65. The distance from the point on a
screw thread to a corresponding
point on a adjacent thread,
measured parallel to the axis.
A. Pitch
B. lead
C. thread
D. crest
66. The top surface joining the two sides
of a thread.
A. pitch
B. crest
C. lead
D. space
67. The amount of variation permitted in
the size of a part is the difference
between the limits of maximum and
the minimum dimensions of a given
part. It may be expressed at plus,
minus, or as both plus and minus.
A. tolerance
B. limits
C. variation
D. clearance
68. The instrument used to reshape a
grinding wheel that is grooved or out
of round is called a:
A. wheel aligner
B. wheel emery
C. wheel dresser
D. wheel cutter
69. The instrument used to remove old
packing from cacking glands and
stuffing boxes are called:
A. packing tools
B. gland box cleaner
C. packing bits
D. packing screw
70. When working on bearings and
checking for high spots, it is
customary to apply what?
A. white lead
B. dykem blue
C. red lead
D. prussian blue
71. If you wanted to check the face of a
pump slide valve or other flat-faced
valve ,you could check for trueness
on a:
A. flat board
B. piece of glass
C. surface plate
D. bearing plate
72. Which of the ff. is used to keep a
metal clean while soldering?
A. flax
B. flux
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C. torch
D. insulated
73. Before splicing electric wires, they
should be:
A. tinned
B. soldered
C. cleaned and tinned
D. insulate
74. To check the speed of a motor or
other rotary machine one would use
a:
A. galvanometer
B. tachometer
C. micrometer
D. Geiger counter
75. Before drilling a hole in a piece of
metal , it should be:
A. marked w/ chalk
B. scribed
C. center punch
D. protracted
76. A tap or die marked ¼-20 indicates:
A.1/4”2 radius-20 cm. long
B.1/4” diameter-20 threads per
in
C.1/4” radian -20 threads per in
D.1/42 turn-20 times
77. After a piece of pipe has been cut,
the hole is clean out w/ a:
A. piper reamer
B. pipe taper
C. pipe cleaner
D. hole cleaner
78. What do you call the tool(s) used for
cutting threads?
A. pipe cutter
B. pipe threader
C. pipe stock’ and die`
D. pipe ratchet cutter
79. How do you call the tool used when
working large size of pipe?
A .chain pipe wrench
B. chain holder
C. chains tongs
D.A or B
80. What tool is used when preparing to
put fittings on copper tubing?
A. tube spreader
B. tube
retarder
C. flaring tool D. tube countersink
81. Which of the ff. is not a standard
thread form?
A. square
B. double
flute
C. American national D.60 deg.
sharp V
82. How do you call the tool used to cut
the threads in a hole?
A .top
B.bit
C.tap
D. reamer
83. Hand taps are provided in sets of
three. Which of the ff. set of three?
A. taper, plug, and end
B. taper, plug and bottom
C. short, taper and bottom
D. short, medium and long
84. Which of the ff. taps should be used
to start a thread?
A. plug
B. bottom
C. short
D. taper
85. Which of the ff. size of the drill is
used in preparing to tap a hole?
A. equal to the size of the tap
B. larger than the size of the tap
C. smaller than the size of the
tap
D. none of the above
86. Pipe taps are:
A. the same size from end to end
B. tapered
C. not fluted
D. not hardened
87. When preparing to tap a hole pipe
fitting the size of the drill will be:
A. larger than the tap size
B. smaller than the tap size
C. equal to the size of the tap
D. none of the above
88. Which of the ff. does not have to be
lubricated when drilling?
A. steel
B. monel
C. brass
D. tool steel
89. How do you call the tool used when
cutting a hole in the side of a round
piece of metal?
A. vise
B.”V” block
C.jaw holder
D. chuck
90. When measuring a drill for size
measure across the:
A. margin
B. shank
C. flutes
D. porx
91. IN threaded members, w/c of the ff.
defines N.C?
A. neutral cut
B. national cut
C. national course
D. not center
92. In threaded members, w/c of the ff.
represents N.F?
A. national file
B. neutral file
C. National fine
D. not found
93. What tool used in precision work to
smooth or enlarge_______
A. round out
B. reamer
C. drift pin
D. protractor
94. Which of the ff. chisels would be
used for cutting a groove?
A. diamond –point chisel
B. round nose chisel
C. cold chisel
D. hot chisel
95. Which of the ff. is not a cut of file?
A. smooth
B. half-round
C. Second cut
D. bastard
96. How do you call the tool used for
cleaning files?
A. files cleaner B. file oilstone
C. file card
D. scraper
97. Which of the ff. is the smallest size
drill?
A. #80
B. #1
C. #60
D. #0
98. Which of the ff. is the largest size
drill?
A. A
B.Z
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C.X
D.XX
99. The size of a drill is stamped on the:
A. point
B. margin
C. shank
D. flute
100.
A. operator must wear
goggles
B. the surface to be babbitted must
be free of moisture
C. the surface to be babbitted must
be clean
D. all of the above
ELEMENTS 12
1. Which of the following safety
precautions should be followed
when renewing a flange gasket?
A. drain the line thoroughly
B. tie down isolation valves
C. isolate the section to be
worked on
D. all of these
2. In installing a new flange gasket,
which of the following must be
done first?
A. Flange faces are painted
B. Flange faces are
absolutely clean
C. Isolating valves are open
D. Old gasket is in place
3. Which of the following is correct
about standard wire gage?
A. #10 is larger than #5
B. #1 is smaller than #2
C. #25 is smaller than #20
D. #30 is larger than #25
4. Which of the following tools
would be most useful when
taking leads on bearings?
A. Dividers
B. Micrometer
C. Outside calipers
D. Center gage
5. What is the wrench size for a ¾”
nut?
A. 1-1/4”
B. ¾”
C. 1- 1/2”
D. 10/24”
6. Which of the following would
cause hot bearings?
A. Improper oil
B. Improper alignment
C. Dirt in oil
D. All of the above
7. What is the approximate melting
point of Babbitt?
A. 1000 deg. F
B. 750 deg. F
C. 650 deg. F
D. 500 deg. F
8. Which of the following is correct
in pouring Babbitt?
A. It can be done in several
pouring
B. Must be poured all at one
time
C. Can be done at intervals
D. Must be done in cool place
9. Which of the following groups of
pipe sizes is correct?
A. ¼, 1/2, ¾, 7/8, 1
B. ¼, 3/8, ½, ¾, 1
C. ¼, 3/8, ½, 5/8, ¾, 1
D. ¼, ½, 5/8, ¾, 1
10. Which of the following where
pipe wrench (Stillson) was
designed to be used?
a. Hexagonal objects
b. Square objects
c. Round objects
d. Flat objects
11. In which of the following where
pipe is measured?
a. Inside diameter
b. Thickness of wall
c. Outside diameter
d. Wire gage
12. In which of the following where
tubing is measured by:
a. Inside diameter
b. Thickness of wall
c. Outside diameter
d. Wire gage
13. How do you call the tool used to
cut threads on pipe?
a. Pipe tool
b. Pipe vise
c. Pipe stock
d. Pipe cutter
14. How do you call the pipe fitting
which has two openings and
provides a turn of 90 degrees?
a. An elbow
b. A coupling
c. A tee
d. A union
15. In which of the following where
plug cock offers?
a. More resistance to flow
than a globe valve
b. The same resistance to
flow as a globe valve
c. Less resistance to
flow than a globe
valve
d. The same resistance to
flow as an angle valve
16. What is the common flux to be
used when soldering brass,
copper or tin?
a. Tallow
b. Borax
c. Rosin
d. Sal ammoniac
17. In one turn of the screw in a
micrometer, it moves the spindle
by what amount?
a. 0.25”
b. 0.025”
c. 0.205”
d. 0.110”
18. What is the process used to
retard corrosion on iron pipe?
a. Soldering
b. Tempering
c. Annealing
d. Galvanizing
19. On XX heavy pipe the extra
metal is added to which of the
following?
a. Outside
b. Inside
c. Half on the inside, half
on the outside
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d.
Three quarters in the
outside, one quarter on
the inside
20. Which is very necessary when
installing packing in a packing
box?
a. Leave one old turn at the
bottom of the packing
box
b. Remove one turn and
install one new turn of
packing
c. Leave sufficient and
clearance on each
turn to allow for
expansion
d. Place end cuts directly in
line with each other
21. A square foot of steel plate 1/8”
thick weighs 5 pounds. The
weight of a steel plate 10 feet
long and 4 feet wide would be
how much?
a. 200 lbs
b. 20 lbs
c. 2000 lbs
d. 20,000 lbs
22. Cast iron weighs 640 pounds per
cubic foot. How much is the
weight of cast iron block
14”x12”x18”?
a. 1200 lbs
b. 1120 lbs
c. 1000 lbs
d. 1088 lbs
23. A tank 28” in diameter and 14’
high is filled with water. The total
pressure on the bottom of the
tank is:
a. 3741 lbs
b. 2573 lbs
c. 4257 lbs
d. 3000 lbs
24. A double-bottom tank is 18’
wide, 24’ long and 4’ deep. It is
filled with fresh water. The total
capacity in tons is:
a. 50
b. 55
c. 48
d. 45
25. Sheet metal of #18 gage is
heavier than:
a. 12 gage
b. 22 gage
c. 14 gage
d. 16 gage
26. What is the use of shims?
a. Separate fresh and saltwater lines
b. Replace fuses
c. Adjust cylinder liners
d. Adjust bearing
clearances
27. How do you call the process
used to retard corrosion (rust) on
iron pipe and fitting?
a. Tinning
b. Galvanizing
c. Soldering
d. Sulphurizing
28. In pipe fittings the term “offset”
refers to what?
a. A cut-off running at right
angles to the original
piping
b. Two pipes running
parallel to each other
c. A bend in the pipe
d. Two sizes of pipe in the
same run
29. In machine shop, if the lips of
the drill are of different lengths
then which of the following will
likely happen?
a. The drill will not cut
b. The hole will be larger
than the drill
c. The hole will be smaller
than the drill
d. None of these will
happen
30. Which of the following
statement(s) is correct for the
“brazed joint”/
a. Stronger than a
soldered joint
b.
Weaker than a soldered
joint
c. The same strength as a
soldered joint
d. Three times as strong as
a soldered joint
31. Brazing requires which of the
following/
a. Hot solder
b. More heat
c. Soft solder
d. A and B
32. What is/are the primary
reason(s) why lead is used in
solder?
a. It has a high melting
b. It is cheap
c. It has a low melting
d. B and C
33. What is the name of the taper
shank used on drills?
a. Miller
b. Starrett
c. Morse
d. Stanley
34. What is the effect if the melting
point of solder is very high?
a. Weaker the solder joint
b. Stronger the solder
joint
c. Softer the solder joint
d. Harder the solder joint
35. Which of the following will likely
happen if the angle on a drill is
less than 59 deg.?
a. The drill will make a
larger hole
b. The drill will make a
smaller hole
c. The hole will take
longer to drill and
more power is
required to drive the
drill
d. The drill will not center
properly
36. What is/are the reason(s) of soda
being added to water and used
for cooling instead of water?
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a.
It reduces the amount of
heat generated
b. It improves the finish
c. It overcomes rusting
d. All of these
37. What will likely happen if the
drill’s speed is too high?
a. Cut faster
b. Cut slower
c. Lose its temper
d. Not cut
38. The lip clearance of a drill should
be approximately how many
degrees?
a. 20 deg. – 25 deg.
b. 12 deg. – 15 deg.
c. 5 deg. – 10 deg.
d. 15 deg. – 20 deg.
39. If the cutting edges of a drill are
cut at different angles:
a. The drill will not cut
b. The hole will be larger
than the drill
c. The hole will be smaller
than the drill
d. None of the above
40. What is the correct cutting angle
on a drill for ordinary work?
a. 45 deg.
b. 59 deg.
c. 50 deg.
d. 65 deg.
41. A piece of stock 8” long is 4”
diameter on one end and 1”
diameter on the other end. The
taper per foot is:
a. 4”
b. 4 – ¼”
c. 4 – ½”
d. 4 – 1/16”
42. A piece of stock 8” long is 3”
diameter at one end and 1 – ½”
diameter at other end. The taper
per inch is:
a. ½”
b. 3/16”
c. ¾”
d. 5/16”
43. A piece if stock 6” long is 2”
diameter at one end and is cut
with a taper of ½” to the foot.
The diameter of the smaller end
will be:
a. 1 – ½”
b. 1 – ¼”
c. 1 – ¾”
44. If a piston ring is to be made
1/64” larger in diameter per inch
diameter of the cylinder which it
is to fit , the required diameter
of the piston ring to fit an 8”
cylinder will be:
a. 8 – ¼”
b. 8 – 3/16”
c. 8 – 1/8”
d. 8 – 5/32”
45. What is the reason why drill
“squeal’s” when cutting?
a. Drill being ground
improperly
b. Insufficient lubrication
c. Drill being too hot
d. Any of the above
46. In what operation where “center
drilling” is to be found?
a. Drilling center in an oddshaped piece of metal
b. Drilling and
countersinking with
one tool
c. Centering with one tool
and drilling with another
d. Drilling a center in a
piece of stock in a drill
press
47. Which of the following defines
“pitch” in threads?
a. A distance of the full
length of the thread
b. The distance from a
point on one thread
to a corresponding
point on the next
thread measured
parallel to the axis
c. The distance from the
top of one thread to the
bottom of the next
thread
d. The distance from the
bottom of a head on a
bolt to the first thread
48. A tool bit for cutting an
American National thread should
be ground with what angle?
a. 45˚
b. 60˚
c. 90˚
d. 30˚
49. An approximate safe rule for
cutting new pistons for steam
pumps is to allow:
a. 0.002” between piston
and cylinder for each
inch diameter of piston
b. 0.001” between
piston and cylinder
for each inch
diameter of piston
c. 0.010” between piston
and cylinder for each
inch diameter of piston
d. 0.0001” between piston
and cylinder for each
inch diameter of piston
50. An approximate safe rule for
cutting new piston rings for
steam pumps is to make the
ring:
a. 1/32” larger in diameter
per inch diameter of
cylinder
b. 1/16” larger in diameter
than that of the cylinder
c. 1/16” larger in
diameter per inch
diameter of cylinder
d. 0.005” larger in
diameter per inch
diameter of cylinder
51. What is the approximate gap
clearance for new piston rings
for steam pumps?
a. 0.003” for each inch
of diameter of
cylinder
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b.
0.001” for each inch of
diameter of cylinder
c. 0.010” for each inch of
diameter of cylinder
d. 0.050” for each inch of
diameter of cylinder
52. The familiar “3/8 – 16” in
machine shop means what?
a. 6 pieces, 3/8” long
b. Gear with 16 teeth and a
3/8” arbor hole
c. 3/8” square , 16” lone
d. 3/8” diameter, 16
threads per inch
53. The work should be held ______,
when using a drill press.
a. The hand
b. A vise or clamp
c. A gloved hand
d. Pliers
54. What is/are the reason/s why
tapered shanks are used on
large drill presses?
a. The drill can be centered
more easily
b. The drill can be easily
forced out of a sleeve
with a drift
c. The shank will not turn
when cutting
d. The shank can be
reground when worn
55. Which of the following is not a
common drill shank?
a. Straight
b. Fluted
c. Taper
d. Bit
56. What is the usual cutting angle
on a drill for drilling mild steel?
a. 39 deg.
b. 59 deg.
c. 49 deg.
d. 69 deg.
57. When installing a new grinding
wheel, always use:
a. Blotting paper
gaskets on each side
of the wheel
b.
Copper gasket on each
side of the wheel
c. Only the steel washers
provided with the
machine
d. None of the above
58. What is the other term for the
operation of “truing” a grinding
wheel?
a. Centering
b. Sizing
c. Dressing
d. Rounding
59. What tool is used to check
external pipe threads?
a. Plug gage
b. Pitch gage
c. Thread gage
d. Ring gage
60. What tool is used to check
internal pipe threads?
a. Plug gage
b. Pitch gage
c. Thread gage
d. Ring gage
61. Which of the following is used to
cut gears?
a. Gear cutter
b. Gear center
c. Gear hob
d. Gear threader
62. If you use dry grinding wheel for
sharpening tool bits, dip the end
of the bit in water frequently to
prevent:
a. Burning your fingers
b. Annealing the cutting
edge of the bit
c. Hardening of the tip
d. The tip from crystallizing
63. A piece of tool steel held against
an emery wheel will give off:
a. White sparks with
stars on the ends
b. Yellow sparks
c. No sparks
d. Green sparks
64. Grinding wheels have a range of
soft to hard abrasive materials
depending on the use. Most
manufacturers letter their
wheels from A to Z. Which of the
following marks represents the
hardest?
a. E
b. Z
c. A
d. E1
65. What is the main difference
between a planer and a shaper?
a. The planer has an offset
table and the shaper has
a horizontal table
b. The shaper has a rotting
table and the planer has
a horizontal table
c. The table of a planer
has a reciprocating
motion past the tool
head while the table
of the shaper is
stationary and the
tool head has a
reciprocating motion
d. One is larger than the
other
66. One of the factors involved in
the choice of grinding wheel is:
a. The kind of material to
be ground
b. The amount of stock to
be removed
c. The kind of finish
required
d. All of the above
67. The “tang” of a file is the part
that:
a. Does the cutting
b. Has no teeth
c. Fits into the handle
d. Is opposite the handle
68. In general, files are divided into
two classes called:
a. Single-cut and
double-cut
b. Rough and smooth
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c. Fine and coarse
d. Heel and sizes
69. The length of a file is measured
from:
a. End to end
b. Point to end
c. Point to heel
d. Heel to end
70. Which of the following where
“pillar” files are used?
a. Filling slots
b. Filing against a shoulder
c. Filing keyways
d. Any of the above
71. Which of the following will
usually happen to the blade of
flexible hacksaw applied by too
much pressure?
a. Snap easily
b. Buckle or run out of
line
c. Cut too fast
d. Cut on a slant
72. Which of the following best
defines soldering?
a. It is holding two metals
together by heating
b. It is joining two
metals by a third soft
metal that is applied
in molten state
c. It is holding two different
kind of metals together
by heating
d. It is joining two metals
together by heating
73. What is the use of flux in
soldering?
a. Keep the solder from
running off the metal
b. Keep the metal from
getting too hot
c. Keep the tip of the
soldering iron clean
d. Remove and prevent
oxidation of the
metals
74. A surface should be prepared for
soldering by:
a.
b.
Filing the surface
Acid-cleaning the
surface
c. Scraping the surface
d. Any of the above
75. What is (are) the hand tool(s)
used for cutting threads on
round stocks?
a. Stock and die
b. Stock
c. Die wrench
d. Stock cutter
76. A tapered piece of stock is 2”
long, 1-1/8” diameter at one end
and ¾” diameter at the other
end. The taper per foot is:
a. 2”
b. 2 – ¼”
c. 2 – ½”
d. 2 – 1/16”
77. Which of the following best
defines sweating?
a. Soldering two different
kinds of metal together
b. Separating two pieces of
metal that have been
soldered together
c. Tinning two surfaces,
applying, flux
between them,
holding the two
together and heating
d. None of the above
78. If muriatic acid is used as a flux,
the soldered area must be
cleaned thoroughly afterwards to
prevent:
a. Anyone touching it from
getting burned
b. Remaining acid from
eating the metal
c. The acid from
evaporating and the
solder disintegrating
d. None of the above
79. Solder will not unite with a metal
surface that has:
a. Grease on it
b. Oxidation on it
c. Dirt on it
d. Any of the above
80. Prepared soldered paste flux is
most popular if you did not have
any, you could use:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Nitric acid
c. Sulfuric acid
d. Any of the above
81. Hard solder is made of which of
the following?
a. Copper and zinc
b. Tin and copper
c. Tin and zinc
d. Tin and lead
82. Which of the following is the flux
usually used for hard soldering?
a. Rosin
b. Barium
c. Borax
d. Alum
83. In which of the following where
straight muriatic acid is often
used as a flux?
a. Galvanized iron
b. Sheet steel
c. Cast iron
d. Any of the above
84. For aluminum, special solders
are being used and will usually
require which of the following?
a. More heat
b. The same heat as
copper wire
c. Less heat
d. The same heat as sheet
metal
85. Copper is annealed by heating to
a cherry red color and _____.
a. Dousing in cold water
b. Dousing in oil
c. Cooling slowly in air
d. Dousing in hot water
86. Soft solder is made of which of
the following?
a. Copper and zinc
b. Tin and copper
c. Tin and lead
d. Tin and zinc
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87. A piece of mild steel held
against an emery wheel will give
off ____.
a. Bright shiny sparks
b. No sparks
c. Light straw-colored
sparks
d. Green sparks
88. A gear wheel making 156 RPM
has 56 teeth. It drives another
gear at 91 RPM. The number of
teeth on the second gear is:
a. 65
b. 50
c. 90
d. 96
89. Tool steel can be hardened by
which of the following?
a. Heating red hot and
plunging into water
b. Heating red hot and
cooling in a blast of air
c. Heating red hot and
plunging into linseed or
cottonseed oil
d. Any of the above,
depending on type
and use
90. At what temperature where soft
solder approximately melts?
a. 250 deg.
b. 450 deg.
c. 350 deg.
d. 550 deg.
91. What material where a scriber is
made from?
a. Carbon steel
b. Tool steel
c. Cold-rolled steel
d. Hot-rolled steel
92. What should be done first before
applying layout blue on a piece
of metal?
a. Roughened
b. Clean
c. Hot
d. cold
93. How many flutes does a drill bit
have?
a. 4 flutes
b. 2 flutes
c. 3 flutes
d. No flutes
94. Where is the correction position
of the tool bit when facing off a
piece of material in the lathe
chuck?
a. Above center
b. Below center
c. At the center
d. Off center
95. Standard vise has ______ jaws?
a. Soft
b. hard
c. semi-hard
d. semi-soft
96. In machining, which of the
following could be the reason if
tool bit burns?
a. Speed is too slow
b. Material is too hard
c. Speed is too fast
d. Material cannot be cut
97. Which of the following where the
lathe compound is used?
a. Angle cutting
b. Facing
c. Grooving
d. Any of the above
98. When the dial on the cross-feed
is turned 0.010”, how much is
removed from the diameter of
the stock being cut?
a. 0.010”
b. 0.005”
c. 0.020”
d. 0.015”
99. Which of the following describes
a flexible back hacksaw blade?
a. Only the teeth
hardened
b. A movable back
c. Flexible ends
d. Only the back hardened
100. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best
suited for which of the following
materials?
A. Channel iron
B. Aluminum
C. Tubing
D. Any of the above
Elements 13
1. Hacksaw blades are made of what
materials?
A. tool steel
B. tungsten alloy steel
C. high-speed steel
D. any of the above
2. A hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best
suitable for cutting which of the following
materials?
A. tubing
B. brass and copper
C. sheet metal over 18 gage
D. any of the above
3. Which of the following is a "must"for all
hard hacksaw blades?
A. It has a hard back and flexible teeth
B. It has a flexible back and hard teeth
C. It has the entire blade hardened
D. It will only fit a solid frame hacksaw
4. How many positions can a hacksaw blade
be placed in a frame?
A. Two positions
B. One position
C. Four position
D. Three position
5. Files are divided into two general classes.
How are these classified?
A. Rough and smooth
B. Single-cut and double-cut
C. Large and small
D. Glat shapes and round shapes
6. The term "set" of a saw best defines
what?
A. To set properly in the frame
B. Alternate teeth are turned
slightly to left and right to make
cutting slot slightly wider than
the thickness of the blade
C. The teeth have been case-hardened
for better cutting
D. The teeth are set evenly apart
7. All hard hacksaw blades is best suited for
work on which of the following?
A. Brass
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B. Cast iron
C. Tool steel
D. Any of the above
8. Which of the following is the best
instrument for measuring thousandths of an
inch?
a. Caliper
b. Micrometer
c. Tachometer
d. Pyrometer
9. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch
should be used for cutting which of the
following materials?
a. Brass
b. Heavy stock
c. Cast iron
d. Thin wall tubing
10. Where is the hacksaw blade should be
placed in the?
a. The teeth pointing forward
b. The teeth pointing backward
c. One end looser than the other end
d. The teeth facing in any direction
11. Which of the following is the usual
procedure when cutting a long thin piece of
metal?
a. Turn the blade upside down in the
frame
b. Turn the blade at right angles
to the frame
c. Use a blade with fewer teeth per
inch
d. Set the blade in the frame with
the teeth facing toward you
12. A hacksaw blade with 18 teeth per inch
is best suited for cutting what materials?
a. Solid stock
b. Aluminum
c. Cast iron
d. Any of the above
13. What is the used of coolant in the power
hacksaw when cutting materials?
a. Absorb the heat of friction
b. Prevent the blade from over
heating
c. Prevent the blade from losing its
temper
d. All of the above
14. What is the used for finishing a piece of
work to size with a file?
a. Double-cut-fine tooth file
b. Mill file
c. Single-cut fine tooth file
d. Crossing file
15. The process of finishing off a piece of
metal with a real smooth finish.
a. Draw - filing
b. Mill-filing
c. Side-filing
d. Flat-filing
16. How do you call a small piece of metal
clogged between the teeth on the file?
a. Clogs
b. Pins
c. Flats
d. Bumps
17. Which of the following is described as
the "safe edge" of tge file?
a. The end opposite the handle
b. The edge with no teeth
c. The one with the handle
d. None of the above
18. The best procedure when filing a piece of
metal in a lathe is to take:
a. Short even strokes
b. Long fast strokes
c. Long slow strokes
d. Short fast strokes
19. Which of the following information is
necessary when ordering a file?
a. Size (length)
b. Type of teeth
c. Shape
d. All of the above
20. Which of the following is the best file to
be used when finishing sharp corners or
slots and grooves?
a. Mill file
b. Knife file
c. Square
d. Jeweler's file
21. How is "eleven-sixteenths" of an inch
expressed in decimal?
a. 0.6785
b. 0.6875
c. 0.7685
d. 0.6578
22. What is the approximate distance of the
marking on a micrometer barrel?
a. 0.025" apart
b. 0.0025" apart
c. 0.250" apart
d. 2.50" apart
23. Which of the following is the effect if the
lathe is put into back gear?
a. Go backward of the same speed
b. Faster
c. Slower
d. At a lower speed backward
24. The work should be held with _______
when using a drill press?
a. The hand
b. A vise or clamp
c. A pair of pliers
d. Gloves on
25. What is normally used in drilling a hole in
a piece of work held in a lathe chuck?
a. Compound rest
b. Tailstock and drill chuck
c. Cross-feed
d. Headstock
26. Copper is annealed by heating to a
cherry red color and:
a. Dousing in cold water
b. Dousing in oil
c. Cooling slowly in air
d. Dousing in hot water
27. What is the main purpose of "annealing"
a metal?
a. To make the metal harder
b. To make the metal softer
c. To make the metal harder
medium-hard
d. To make the metal harder shiny
28. Te purpose of "tempering” is to make a
metal what?
a. Harder
b. Less brittle
c. Softer
d. More brittle
29. What is the minimum diameter of a
piece of round stock necessary to make a
square key 3/4 on a side?
a. 1.5"
b. 1.0"
c. 1.06"
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d. 0.75"
30. A scriber is made from what materials?
a. Carbon steel
b. Tool steel
c. Cold-rolled steel
d. Hot-rolled steel
31. Before applying layout blue on a piece of
metal, it must be:
a. Roughened
b. Cleaned
c. Heated
d. Cold
32. A drill bit has how many flutes?
a. 4 flutes
b. 2 flutes
c. 3 flutes
d. No flutes
33. Te alignment of coupling faces can be
checked by what process?
a. Inserting an inside micrometer
b. Inserting a thermocouple
c. Inserting a feeler gage
between the coupling faces at various
points around the circumference
d. rotating and measuring to nearest
permanent fitting
34. A piece of cast iron held against emery
wheel will gas off what?
a. Dull yellow sparks
b. Red sparks
c. Bright shiny sparks
d. No sparks
35. When cutting materials in a lathe, the
softer the materials being cut, the tool bit
should have:
a. More top rake
b. Double top rake
c. Less top rake
d. Any of the above
36. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting
should be:
a. Case-hardened
b. Stoned with an oilstone
c. Rubbed with emery cloth
d. Rubbed with crocus cloth
37. When turning a piece of round metal in a
lathe, the front clearance should be smaller
for:
a. Large-diameter cutting
b. Cutting angles
c. Small-diameter cutting
d. None of the above
38. When cutting the materials in a lathe,
the harder the materials being cut, the tool
bit should be:
a. More side rake
b. More top rake
c. Less side rake
d. No side rake
39. What is the primary purpose of knurling?
a. Smooth material
b. Roughen material
c. Polish material
d. Sharpen material
40. What do you call the process of
removing the sharp edges from a piece of
stock?
a. Knurling
b. Planning
c. Chamfering
d. Turning
41. At what speed that carbon steel drill
should be operated?
a. Speed greater than that when
using a high speed drill
b. Speed less than that when
using a high speed drill
c. The same speed as that when
using a high speed drill
d. None of the above
42. A specific method of zinc galvanizing in
which parts are tumbled in zinc dust at high
temperatures.
a. Sheradizing
b. Super finishing
c. Polishing
d. Pickling
43. Abrasion of parts against wheels or belts
coated with polishing compounds.
a. Sheradizing
b. Super finishing
c. Polishing
d. Pickling
44. A super fibe grinding operation used to
expose no fragmented, crystalline base
metal.
a. Sheradizing
b. Super finishing
c. Polishing
d. Pickling
45. The process in which the metalis dipped
in dilute acid solutions to remove dirt grease
and oxides.
a. Sheradizing
b. Super finishing
c. Polishing
d. Pickling
46. A hot-dip or electroplate application of
tin to steel.
a. Tin-plating
b. Metal spraying
c. Organic finishes
d. Lapping
47. A fine grinding operation used to obtain
exact fit and dimensional accuracy.
a. Tin-plating
b. Metal spraying
c. Organic finishes
d. Lapping
48. The covering of surfaces with an organic
film of paint enamel or lacquer.
a. Tin-plating
b. Metal spraying
c. Organic finishes
d. Lapping
49. The spraying of molten metal onto
product. Methods include metalizing,metal
powder spraying and plasma frame
spraying.
a. Tin-plating
b. Metal spraying
c. Organic finishes
d. Lapping
50. Application of a thin phosphate on steel
to improve corrosion resistance.
a. Parkerizing
b. Honing
c. Hand surfacing
d. Galvanizing
51. This process is known as bonderizing
when used as a partner for paints.
a. Parkerizing
b. Honing
c. Hand surfacing
d. Galvanizing
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52. The grinding operation using stones
moving in a reciprocating pattern. Leaves a
characteristic cross-hatch pattern
a. Parkerizing
b. Honing
c. Hand surfacing
d. Galvanizing
53. The creation (by sprayng,plating, fusion
welding, or heat treatment) of a hard metal
surface in a softer product.
a. Parkerizing
b. Honing
c. Hand surfacing
d. Galvanizing
54. A zinc coating applied to low carbon
steel to improve corrosion resistance. The
coating can be applied in a file dip bath, by
electroplating or by dry tumbling
(sheradizing)
a. Parkerizing
b. Honing
c. Hand surfacing
d. Galvanizing
55. The electro-deposition of a coating onto
the workplace. Electrical current is used to
drive ions in solution to the part. The
workpiece is the cathode in the electrical
circuit.
a. Electroplating
b. Calorizing
c. Burnishing
d. Buffing
56. The diffusing of aluminum into a steel
surface,producing an aluminum oxide that
protects the steel from high-temperature
corrosion
a. Electroplating
b. Calorizing
c. Burnishing
d. Buffing
57. How do you call the process of fine
grinding it peering operation designed to
leave a "characteristic pattern on the
surface of the workplace"?
a. Electroplating
b. Calorizing
c. Burnishing
d. Buffing
58. A fine finishing operation, similar to
polishing, using a very fine polishing
compound.
a. Electroplating
b. Calorizing
c. Burnishing
d. Buffing
59. Rotating parts in a barrel filled with an
abrasive or non abrasive medium. Widely
used to remove burrs, flash, scale, and
oxides
a. Abrasive cleaning
b. Calorizing
c. Barrel finishing
d. Anodizing
60. An electroplating - acid bath oxidation
process for aluminum and magnesium. The
workplace is the anode in the electrical
circuit.
a. Abrasive cleaning
b. Tumbling
c. Barrel finishing
d. Anodizing
61. Shooting sand (i.e sand blasting), steel
grit, or steel shot against work pieces to
remove casting sand, scale and oxidation.
a. Abrasive cleaning
b. Tumbling
c. Barrel finishing
d. Anodizing
62. What is the other term for barrel
finishing?
a. Abrasive cleaning
b. Tumbling
c. Barrel finishing
d. Anodizing
63. Brittle materials produce discrete
fragments known as
a. A chip breaker grooves
b. Discontinuous chips
c. Non-segmented chips
d. Type-two chips
64. Ductile materials form long helix-coiled
string chips known as:
a. Continuous chips
b. Discontinuous chips
c. Segmented chips
d. Type-one chips
65. Often ground in the cutting tool face to
cause long chips to break into shorter, more
manageable pieces.
a. A chip breaker grooves
b. Discontinuous chips
c. Non-segmented chips
d. Type-two chips
66. What is the typical chip ratio?
a. 0.50
b. 0.75
c. 0.25
d. 1.00
67. The angle at which the tool meets the
workpiece is characterized by:
a. True rake angle
b. Clearance angle
c. Relief angle
d. Wedge angle
68. Which of the following is the sum of the
rake, clearance of wedge angles?
a. 90deg.
b. 180deg.
c. 45deg.
d. 75deg.
69. What is the relative velocity difference
between the tool and the workpiece?
a. Cutting speed
b. Chip velocity
c. Shear velocity
d. Rake velocity
70. How do you call the velocity of the chip
relative to the act face?
a. Cutting speed
b. Chip velocity
c. Shear velocity
d. Rake velocity
71. How do you call the velocity of the chip
relative to the work piece?
a. Cutting speed
b. Chip velocity
c. Shear velocity
d. Rake velocity
72. Which of the following is the primary
parameter affecting the cutting energy
requirement?
a. Compressive stress
b. Shear stress
c. Torsional stress
d. Bending stress
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73. The energy expended per unit volume
removed is known as:
a. Specific cutting energy
b. Metal removal rate
c. Cutting horsepower
d. Absolute cutting energy
74. A plain carbon steel with approximately
0.9 to 1.3% carbon, which has been
hardened and tempered?
a. Carbon tool steel
b. High speed steel
c. Low speed steel
d. Medium speed steel
75. Contains tungsten or chromium and
retains its hardness up to approximately
600C.
a. Carbon tool steel
b. High speed steel
c. Low speed steel
d. Medium speed steel
76. Cast non-ferrous tools are brittle but can
be used up to approximately:
a. 1000 C
b. 925 C
c. 1500 C
d. 750 C
77. Which of the following is produced
through powder metallurgy from non-ferrous
metals?
a. Sintered carbides
b. Ceramic tools
c. Diamonds
d. Cast non-ferrous
78. Ceramic tools operate at what
temperatures?
a. Below 2000F
b. Below 2200F
c. Above 2000F
d. Above 2200F
79. Which of the following is manufactured
from aluminum oxide have the same
expected life as carbide tools but can
operate at speeds from two to three times
higher? They operate below 1100 C.
a. Sintered carbides
b. Ceramic tools
c. Diamonds
d. Cast non-ferrous
80. Which of the following are used in
specific case, usually finishing operations?
a. Sintered carbides
b. Ceramic tools
c. Diamonds
d. Cast non-ferrous
81. Used as finishing operation since very
fine and dimensionally accurate surface can
be produced.
a. Grinding
b. Snagging
c. Honing
d. Lapping
82. Describes very rough grinding, such as
t5hat performed in foundries to remove
gates, fins, and risers from cesting.
a. Grinding
b. Snagging
c. Honing
d. Lapping
83. Grinding in very much little material,
0.001 to 0.005 is removed.
a. Grinding
b. Snagging
c. Honing
d. Lapping
84. Which of the following is not a
measuring device?
a. Orsatanalyser
b. Thermometer
c. Micrometer caliper
d. Divider
85. A plain carbon steel with approximately
0.9 to 1.3% carbon which has been
hardened and tempered.
a. Carbon tool steel
b. Cast non-ferrous
c. High speed steel
d. Diamond
86. Carbon tool steel can be given a good
edge, but is restricted to use below:
a. 400 to 600 F
b. 300 to 400 F
c. 700 to 800 F
d. 800 to 1000 F
87. Which of the following contains tungsten
or chromium and retains its hardness up to
approximately 1100 F, a property known as
red harness?
a. Ceramic tools
b. Diamonds
c. High speed Steel
d. Carbon tool steel
88. Cast non-ferrous tools are brittle but can
be used up to approximately:
a. 1700 F
b. 2200 F
c. 2000 F
d. 600 F
89. They are produced through powder
metallurgy from non-ferrous materials.
a. Diamonds
b. Cast non-ferrous
c. Ceramic tools
d. Sintered Carbides
90. Sintered carbide operates as cutting
speeds how many times as fast as HSS tools:
a. 2 to 5
b. Thrice
c. 5 to 7
d. Twice
91. Which of the following is manufactured
from aluminum oxide have the same
expected life as carbide tools but can
operate at speeds from two to three times
higher?
a. Ceramic tools
b. High speed steels
c. Diamonds
d. Carbon tool steel
92. Able in the presence of high temperature
iron used in specific cases, usually in
finishing operations.
a. Ceramic tools
b. Diamonds
c. High speed steel
d. Aluminum
93. Percent of the heat developed in cutting
is due to friction between the tool and the
work piece is?
a. Approximately 50%
b. Approximately 10%
c. Approximately 25%
d. Approximately 75%
94. Which of the following is used to reduced
friction, removed heat, remove chips and
protect against corrosion.
a. Water vapor
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b. Carbon
c. Air
d. Cutting fluid
95. Which of the following is a good heat
remove but it promote rust?
a. Air
b. Kerosene
c. Carbon Dioxide
d. Water
96. Addition of ___________ to water produces
an efficient inexpensive cutting fluid that
does not promote rusting.
a. Sal soda
b. Kerosene lubricants
c. Straight cutting oil
d. Air
97. It reduces friction and do not cause rust
but are less efficient of heat removal than
water:
a. Sal soda
b. Kerosene lubricants
c. Straight cutting oil
d. Air
98. Taylor’s equation relates cutting speed v
and tool life T for particular combination of
tool and workplace, VTn = constant. This
equation is also known as:
a. Flank wear
b. Nose failure
c. Crater wear
d. Tool life
99. After any cutting or standard grinding
operation, the surface of the workplace will
consist of:
a. Smear metal
b. Ultrafinishing
c. Superfinishing
d. Centerless grinding
100. A method that does not require
clamping, chucking, or holding round work
pieces.
a. Centerless grinding
b. Laser machining
c. Chemical milling
d. Ultrafinishing
ELEMENTS 14
1. Which of the following uses highenergy electrical discharges to shape
electrically conducting work piece?
A. electrochemical machining
B. electrochemical grinding
C. electrical discharge machining
D. ultrasonic grinding
2. For common brass tools, wear ratios
for the tool and work piece vary
between:
A. 4:1
B. 20:1
C. 20:1
D. 8:1
3. For expensive tool materials, wear
ratios for the tool and work piece vary
between:
A. 4:1
B. 20:1
C. 10:1
D. 8:1
4. It removes heat by electrolysis in a
high current deplating operation
A. electrochemical machining
B. electronic erosion
C. electrospark machining
D. electrical discharge machining
5. What is the other name of electrolytic
grinding?
A. laser grinding
B. electrochemical grinding
C. ultrasonic grinding
D. chemical milling
6. It is typically used in the manufacture
of printed circuit boards, is the selective
removal of material not protected by a
mask.
A. chemical milling
B. laser machining
C. ultrasonic machining
D. electronic erosion
7. It can be used to shape hard brittle
materials such as glass, ceramics,
crystals and gem stones, as well as tool
steels and other metals.
A. chemical milling
B. laser machining
C. ultrasonic machining
D. electronic erosion
8. It is used to cut or burn very small
holes in the work piece with high
dimensional accuracy.
A. electrochemical machining
B. laser machining
C. chemical milling
D. electronic erosion
9. A general term used to denote the
blanking, bending and forming and
shearing of thin-gage metals.
A. presswork
B. transfer die
C. strip die
D. brake
10. Used with dies and punches to form
the work pieces
A. station
B. transfer die
C. strip die
D. presses
11. With ___________ the work piece
advances through a sequence of
operations:
A. presswork
B. brakes
C. tonnage
D. progressive dies
12. Cut pieces from flat plates, strips
and coil stock
A. shearing
B. bends allowance
C. forming dies
D. spring back
13. It produces usable pieces, leaving
the source piece behind as scrap
A. punching
B. drawing
C. blanking
D. coining
14. The operation of removing scrap
blanks from the work piece, leaving the
source piece as the final product
A. punching
B. drawing
C. clanking
Coining
15. A cold forming process that converts
a flat into hollow vessel
A. embossing
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B. drawing
C. swaging
d. punching
16. It is used in the production of coins,
is a severe operation requiring high
tonnage, due to the fact that the metal
flow is completely confined within the
die cavity
A. coining
B. embossing
C. swaging
D. blanking
17. Forms shallow raised letters or other
designs in relief on the surface of sheet
metal blanks
A. coining
B. embossing
C. swaging
D. blanking
18. Reduce the work piece area by cold
flowing the metal into die cavity by a
high compressive force or impact
A. coining
B. embossing
C. swaging
D. blanking
19. The repeated hammering of a work
piece to obtain the desired shape
A. spring back
B. blanking
C. punching
D. forging
20. Relies on closed impression dies to
produce the desired shape
A. hammer forging
B. open die forging
C. smith forging
D. drop forging
21. What is the other name give to
gravity drop hammers?
A. board hammers
B. press forging
C. powered hammers
D. impactor forging
22. The forging blows are repeated at
the rate of several times a minute for
A. gravity drop hammers or board
hammers
B. press forging
C. powered hammers
D. impactor forging
23. The forging blows are repeated at
the rate of more than 300 times a
minute for
A. gravity drop hammers or board
hammers
B. press forging
C. powered hammers
D. impactor forging
24. The work piece is held in position
while the dies are hammered
horizontally into it from both sides
A. gravity drop hammers or board
hammers
B. press forging
C. powered hammers
D. impactor forging
25. Involves holding and applying
pressure to round heated blanks
A. upset forming
B. flash
C. pickling
D. parting line
26. With_________, the part is shaped by
a slow squeezing reaction, rather than
impacts
A. drop forging
B. impactor forging
C. press forging
D. upset forging
27. Following forging, the part will have
a thin projection of excess metal as
________at the parting line
A. pickling
B. flash
C. trimmer dies
D. upset
28. The flash is trimmed off by
___________in a subsequent operation
A. pickling
B. upset
C. trimmer dies
D. forging
29. With________, a mold is produced by
packing and around a pattern
A. sand molding
B. gravity molding
C. die casting
D. plastic molding
30. To facilitate the removal of the
pattern, all surfaces parallel to the
direction of withdrawal are slightly
tapered. This taper is called
A. gate
B. riser
C. sprue
D. draft
31. In the gating system, the metal is
poured into a sprue hole and enters a
vertical passage known as
A. gates
B. downgate
C. draft
D. risers
32. Serve as accumulators to feed
molten metal into the cavity during
initial shrinkage
A. gates
B. downgate
C. draft
D. risers
33. An entrance to the cavity maybe
constricted to control the rate of fill and
such constrictions are known
as__________
A. gates
B. downgate
C. sprue
D. risers
34. Molten metal is poured into a metal
or graphite mold where pressure is not
used to fill the mold
A. sand molding
B. plastic molding
C. gravity molding
D. non-gravity molding
35. Suitable for creating parts of zinc,
aluminum, copper, magnesium, and
lead/tin alloys
A. die casting
B. investment casting
C. centrifugal casting
D. continuous casting
36. More than how may percent of all die
casting uses zinc alloys?
A. 50%
B. 25%
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C. 75%
D. 80%
37. Molten metal is forced under
pressure into a permanent metallic mold
known as
A. die
B. mold
C. alloy
D. torpedo
38. The cast iron flywheels are
commonly designed with a factor of
safety of ________________
A. 14 to 15
B. 8 to 9
C. 10 to 13
D. 6 to 12
39. A pair of equal and opposite (not
collinear) forces that tend cause a
rotation of a body
A. couple
B. equilibrium
C. centroids
D. vector
40. It is the ratio of the pitch diameter in
inches to the number of teeth
A. pitch circle
B. module
C. English module
D. pitch diameter
41. When the motion is diminished
/decreasing instead of increasing is
called
A. deceleration
B. retarded motion
C. uniform negative impulse
D. all of these
42. Which of the following is a unit or
energy
A. ft-lb
B. BTU/hr
C. hp
D. watt
43. When high strength and durability
are a requirements for choosing gear
materials it is preferable to use
_________material
A. hardened bronze
B. phenolic laminated
C. steel
D. white iron
44. Which of the forces whose line of
actions are parallel but not necessarily
equal in magnitude
A. couple
B. resultant
C. non collinear
D. non concurrent
45. The product of the mass and the
velocity of the center of gravity of the
body is called
A. linear momentum
B. linear impulse
C. angular impulse
D. angular momentum
46. Two parallel shaft connected by pure
rolling turn in the same direction and
having a speed ratio of 2.75, what is the
distance of the two shaft if the smaller
cylinder is 22cm in diameter
A. 16.60cm
B. 25.25cm
C. 30.25cm
D. 19.25cm
47. The distance between similar
equality-spaced tooth surfaces in a
given direction and along a given line
A. pitch circle
B. pitch
C. pitch plane
D. pitch diameter
48. It is simply defined as a simple push
and pull
A. power
B. work
C. inertia
D. force
49. How did you call opposite directional
forces equal in magnitude and parallel
A. non coplanar
B. couple
C. centroid
D. coplanar
50. Which of the following terms is
applied to quantities such as time,
volume and density?
A. couple
B. components
C. resultants
D. scalar
51. The use of hardened steel for the
mating metal gear appears to give the
best results and longer operational life.
The usual hardness in the range of
A. over 600 BHN
B. below 350 BHN
C. 300 to 400 BHN
D. over 400 BHN
52. It is the product of the resultant of all
forces acting on a body and the time
A. linear momentum
B. angular momentum
C. linear impulse
D. all of these
53. The separate forces which can be so
combined are called
A. concurrent forces
B. couple
C. non concurrent forces
D. component forces
54. Continuous stretching under load
even if the stress is less than the yield
point
A. plasticity
B. creep
C. elasticity
D. ductility
55. The most known lubricants being
utilized in whatever category of load and
speed are oil, air, grease and dry
lubricants like
A. bronze
B. silicon
C. lead
D. graphite
56. A coupling that allows axial
flexibility/movement in the operation.
Made of alternate bolting of steel,
leather, fabric and/or plastic material
into the two flanges
A. flexible disk coupling
B. flexing Oldham coupling
C. flexible toroidal spring coupling
D. elastic-material bonded coupling
57. It consists of two cranks, a stationary
piece called the line of centers and the
connecting rod is
A. five bar linkage
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B. three-crank linkage
C. four-crank braces
D. four-bar linkage
58. Used to change rotary motion to
reciprocating motion
A. rack gears
B. helical gears
C. hypoid gears
D. herringbone gears
59. The effective face width of a helical
gear divided by gear axial pitch
A. approach ratio
B. arc of recess
C. arc of action
D. face overlap
60. Pitch diameter less the diameter of
the roller chain is equal to
A. top land
B. addendum
C. bottom diameter
D. face overlap
61. Generally applied on speed reducer
due to large speed ratio
A. bevel gears
B. worm gears
C. helical gears
D. hypoid gears
62. If shaft size is specified as-diameter
2.00’’ max, and 1.99’’ min in diameter
then the 0.010’’ could be defined as
A. allowance
B. variance
C. fit
D. tolerance
63. A material plane was subjected to a
load. When the load was removed the
strain disappeared. From the structural
change which of the following can be
considered about this material?
A. it has high modules of elasticity
B. it is plastic
C. it does not follow Hookes law
D. it is elastic
64.For an evenly distributed and uniform
wear on each meshing gear tooth, the
ideal design practice is to considered a
A. wear resistance alloy addition to tooth
gears
B. heat treatmentof the gears
C. hardening of each tooth
D. hunting tooth addition
65. helix angle in the range of
_____________ degree is recommended
for wide-face helical gears
A. less than 15
B. 20 to 35
C. less than 20
D. 20 to 22
66. Difference between maximum
material limits mating parts. Or it is a
minimum clearance or maximum
interference between parts
A. tolerance
B. variance
C. fits
D. allowance
67. The changes in shape or geometry of
the body due to action of a force on it is
called deformation or
A. shear stresses
B. compressive stress
C. stresses
D. strains
68. The reciprocal of a diametral pitch or
the ratio of the pitch diameter to the no.
of teeth
A. lead
B. involute
C. module
D. clearance
69. One of these materials is not a
structural steel?
A. low carbon steel
B. stainless steel
C. tool and die steel
D. medium carbon steel
70. In elastic body whose primary
function is to deflect order load
A. clutch
B. brake
C. stopper
D. spring
71. Flat leather belting not
recommended for used in a speed in
excess of______________ fpm
A. 3600
B. 6000
C. 4800
D. all of these
72. The angle included between the
sides of the thread measured in an axial
plane in a screw thread
A. angle of thread
B. helix angle thread
C. angle between thread or 40
D. half angle thread or 20
73. When an air entrainment agent is
put into a concrete mix
A. the water/cement ratio must be
reduced
B. the strength will decrease
C. minimal effect
D. the strength will suffer up to 50%
74. The ratio of moment of inertia on a
cross-section of a beam to this section
modulus is
A. a measure of distance
B. equal to the radius of gyration and
compression
C. multiplied by the bending moment of
inertia determine the yield stress
D. equal to the area of the cross-section
and tension
75. The ratio of moment of inertia of the
cross section of a beam to the section
modulus is___________?
A. equal to the radius of gyration
B. equal to the area of the cross
section
C. multiplied by the bending moment to
determine the stress
D. measure of distance
76. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of
A. elastic limit to yield strength
B. lateral deformation to the
longitudinal deformation
C. shear strain to unit strain
D. elastic limit to shear strength
77. Alloy that improves strength of steel
at high temperature application
A. aluminum
B. silicon
C. manganese
D. chromium
78. The differential of the shear equation
is the
A. deflection of the beam
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B. tensile strength of beam
C. comprehensive strength of the beam
D. load on the beam
79. Length of contact between two
mating parts in a screw and nut threads
measured axially is termed___________
A. length of engagement
B. arc of contacts
C. axis of contact
D. depth of engagement
80. The sum of their addendums and
deddendum is
A. whole depth
B. width of space
C. full depth
D. working depth
81. It is recommended not to have a
direct drive between driven and drive
sprockets if the ratio of their teeth
exceeds ____________. Use 2 or more step
combination
A. 10 times
B. 5 times
C. 8 times
D. 6 times
82. Stresses that are independent of
loads is called________________
A. working stress
B. simple stress
C. residual stress
D. combined stress
83. Ability to resist deformation under
stress
A. plasticity
B. stiffness
C. toughness
D. all of these
84. The property of material wherein the
content is continuously distributed
through its entire mass
A. plasticity
B. homogeneity
C. malleability
D. all of these
85. Material having a high electrical
resistance and should not be used as
conductor of electrical current
A. nickel
B. silicon base alloys
C. aluminum oxide
D. iron oxide
86. The best materials for brake drums
is
A. aluminum
B. steel material
C. cast iron
D. wrought iron
87. The property that characterizes a
material’s ability to be drawn into a wire
A. tensile strength
B. endurance limit
C. ductility
D. thermal conductivity
88. The alloy materials used in the
production of metal working tools
A. titanium, phosphorus
B. vanadium, chromium, molybdenum
C. tungsten, silicon, hadfield
D. high carbon steel
89. Which of the phases of steel
elements has a face-centered cubic
structure?
A. pyrite
B. cementite
C. austenite
D. all of these
90. The rigidity of polymer can be
increased by
A. furnace melting
B. crystallization
C. normalizing
D. shot opening
91. The difference between cast steel
and cast iron
A. all of these
B. cast steel has usually less than 1%
C. while cast iron has 2% or 3.6% carbon
range
D. cast iron has lower strength
more brittle and has lower ductility
than cast steel
92. It is a general practice to use the
following allowable stresses 4000 psi for
maintransmitting shaft and 8500 psi for
small short shafts and counter shaft for
lineshaft carrying pulley it is___________
psi
A. 7800
B. 6000
C. 7000
D. 6500
93. The properties of metal to withstand
loads without breaking down is
A. elasticity
B. plasticity
C. strength
D. strain
94. Almost always the soldering
materials are a combination of the
following alloys
A. all of these
B. tin & antimony
C. lead & tin
D. lead & antimony
95. The most popular of all soldering
materials in use has composition of
A. 45/55% tin & lead
B. all of these
C. 50/50% tin & lead
D. 60/40% tin & lead
96. The relative strength of a cut
welding could be safety assumed
as___________% efficiency
A. 95
B. 90
C. 98
D. 92
97. It is a work-supporting device which
is bolted to the saddle of the lathe
machine. I t travels with the cutting tool
it is a prevention of the springing away
of the work piece from cutting tools
A. rubber-flex collets
B. follower rest
C. tool post
D. carriage stop
98. Which of the following raw materials
are used in the foundry molding
operation?
A. silica sand, bentonite, flour/paste
water
B. silica sand paste, graphite electrode
C. silica sand and paste
D. silica sand, linseed oil, flour
99. Which of the following is not a part
of micrometer caliper?
A. thimble
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B. spindle
C. head screw
D. anvil
100.
A. normalizing
B. flame hardening
C. tempering
D. annealing
Elements 15
1. Which of the following is the
allowable tensile strength of the
steel plates?
A. 396.41 N/m2
B. 379.31 N/m2
C. 296.12 N/m2
D. 310.11 N/m2
2. Which of the following standard SAE
designation of manganese steel?
A. 13xx
B. 11xx
C. 10xx
D. 8xx
3. Compute the torque received by the
motor shaft running at 4250 rpm.
Transmitting 11hp, through a 10 inch
diameter 20o involute gear. The shaft
is supported by ball bearing at both
ends and the gear is fixed at the
middle of 8” shaft length.
A. 163 in lb
B. 132 in lb
C. 167 in lb
D. 138 in lb
4. The SAE 2340 shafting contains how
many percent nickels?
A. 3.85 Ni
B. 3.25 to 3.75% Ni
C. 4% Ni
D. 3.84% Ni
5. Which of the following standard SAE
designation for chromium steel?
A. 92 xx
B. 3 xxx
C. 5 xxx
D. 11xx
6. In general, alloys with high nickel
content retain toughness to quiet
low temperatures up to how many
degrees Fahrenheit?
A. -380
B. -260
C. -400
D. -320
7. The length of the hub should not be
maid lesser than the face width of
the gear. Hub lengths usually vary
from 1.25 D to 2 D where D is the
shaft diameter. What should be the
reasonable diameter of the steel
hub?
A. 2 D
B. 1.55 D
C. 1.8 D
D. 1.20 D
8. Torsional deflection is a significant
consideration in the design of shaft
and the limit should be in the range
of how many degrees/foot of length?
A. 0.4 to 1
B. 0.08 to 1
C. 0.1 to 1
D. 0.6 to 1
9. If the pitch of a screw is 2/9 find the
thread per inch.
A. 0.34
B. 5.4
C. 4.5
D. 17
10. Steel spring material is usually
hardened from 400 to 500 BHN and
the carbon content is in the range of
how many percent?
A. 0.50 to 0.90%
B. 0.45 to 0.48
C. 0.96 to 0.97
D. All of these
11. Shafts readily available in the
market are made in many ways and
wide variety of material composition.
It is likely be cold drawn carbon steel
in size smaller than _____ inches
diameter.
A. 3.75
B. 5
C. 4
D. 51/2
12. Plain carbon steel standard
designation SAE ______.
A. 6xxx
B. 10xx
C. 13xx
D. 2xxx
13. If the inertia is 90 lb ft2 and the
speed of the driver shaft is to be
increased from 0 to 2500 rpm in 5
seconds, shaft material is of SAE
4140 with yield strength of 110000
lbs. /in2, find the clutch starting
torque in in–lb ft.
A. 159
B. 146
C. 128
D. 191
14. How many 5/16 inch holes can be
punch in one motion in a steel plate
made of SAE 1010 steel 7/16 inch
thick using a force of 55 tons. The
ultimate strength for shear is 50 ksi
and use 2 factor of safety.
A. 5.8
B. 5
C. 3.7
D. 6.5
15. Which of the following cannot be
used in drilling machine?
A. Reaming
B. Lapping
C. Spot facing
D. Broaching
16. A kilowatt is equal to:
A. 8851.2 in-lb/secs.
B. 57 BTU/min
C. 1140 joule/sec
D. 44.200 ft-lb/min
17. Molybdenum-chromium-nickel steel
designation.
A. SAE48xx
B. SAE56xx
C. SAE43xx
D. SAE46xx
18. Single force which produce the same
effect upon a mass replacing two or
more forces acting together is
called:
A. Vector
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B. Component of forces
C. Resultant
D. Resolution
19. Permissible variation of the
manufactured/machined dimension
is called:
A. Intolerance fits
B. Allowance
C. Deviation
D. Tolerance
20. Peculiar strength of the metal to
resist being crushed:
A. Shear strength
B. Compressive strength
C. Ultimate strength
D. Elastic limit
21. What pressure is required for
punching a hole 2’’ diameter thru
1/4 ‘’ steel plates?
A. 40 tons
B. 45 tons
C. 50 tons
D. 35 tons
22. What is the working strength of a 2’’
bolt which is screwed up tight in a
packed joint when the allowable
working stress is 12000 psi?
A. 20.4 ksi
B. 23.4 ksi
C. 22.4 ksi
D. 18 ksi
23. Determine the bursting steam
pressure of a steel shell with a
diameter of 10inches and made of ¼
thick steel plates. The joint efficiency
is at 70% and the tensile strength is
60 ksi.
A. 4400 psi
B. 42.8 ksi
C. 10.5 ksi
D. 8500 psi
24. Commonly used by steel melter as
deoxidizer because of its easy
availability and cheap price.
A. Silicon
B. Zinc
C. Aluminum
D. Manganese
25. Curve formed by the path of a point
on a straight line as it rolls along a
convex base curve. The base curve
is usually a circle and generally used
as the profile of gear.
A. Axial plane
B. Arc of recess
C. Involute
D. Arc of action
26. Resultant of two or more component
forces is called:
A. Composition of forces
B. Component
C. Resultant
D. Collinear of forces
27. A material having a high electrical
resistance and should not be used
for conductor for electric current.
A. Alloyed magnesium
B. Nickel
C. Silicon base alloy
D. Zinc
28. It improves red hardness of steel.
A. Silicon
B. Cobalt
C. Lead
D. Manganese
29. Designated pipe color used in
communication.
A. Silver gray
B. Bare
C. Aluminum gray
D. White
30. The design stress and factor of
safety are related in the following
manner.
A. Design stress= ultimate
stress/ factor of safety
B. Ultimate stress = factor or
safety / design stress plus
concentration factor
C. Factor or safety = design stress /
ultimate stress
D. Design stress= factor of safety /
time stress concentration factor
31. Not adaptable to welding due to low
tensile strength and poor ductility
etc.
A. Copper parts
B. Aluminum parts
C. Cast iron materials
D. Bronze parts
32. Bearing surface that completely
surrounds the journal is also called:
A. Offset bearing
B. Centrally loaded bearing
C. Full bearing
D. Babbit bearing
33. The purpose of lubrication is as
mentioned except :
A. To lighten the load
B. Prevent adhesion
C. Prevent corrosion/oxidation
D. Cool the moving elements
34. Tools usually used in wood pattern
making in foundry shop.
A. Saws and chisel
B. Knives and drills
C. Band saw
D. Drill machine
35. It is a plane perpendicular to the
axial plane and to the pitch plane in
gears the parallel axes and the plane
of rotation coincides.
A. Tangent line
B. Transverse
C. Straight line
D. Reference angle
36. A 36 tooth pinion with a turning
speed of 300 rpm drives 120 tooth
gear of 14 1/2 o d involute full depth
pressure angle. What would be the
speed of the driven gear?
A. 1000 rpm
B. 90 rpm
C. 100 rpm
D. 140 rpm
37. Several force which can be
combined is called:
A. Resultant
B. Components
C. Composition of forces
D. Collinear forces
38. The surface along the fillet curve or
between the fillets radius of the two
adjacent tooth or a gear:
A. Bottom land
B. Fillet
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C. Flank
D. Top land
39. Ideal herringbone gear helix is in the
range of:
A. Bottom land
B. Fillet
C. Flank
D. Top land
40. Ideal herringbone gear helix is in the
range of:
A. 30 to 45
B. 25 to 30
C. 35 to 50
D. 15 to 20
41. A three extension coil spring is
hooked in series that supports a
single weight of 100 kgs. The first
spring is rated at 0.400 kg/mm and
the other 2 lower springs is rated at .
64 kg/in. Compute the total
deflection.
A. 263 mm
B. 156 mm
C. 268 mm
D. None of these
42. The lack of backlash in spur gear
design/operation may result to:
A. Overloading
B. All of these
C. Jamming
D. Overheating
43. The distance from a point on a screw
thread to corresponding points on
the next thread measure along the
axis.
A. Flank
B. Crest
C. Lead
D. Pitch
44. As recommended the center to
center distance between sprockets
should not be less than ______ times
the bigger sprocket.
A. 2.216
B. 1 1/2
C. 1 3/4
D. 2.59
45. Machine shop instrument for
checking the flatness of plane
surface to 10ths of thousandths of
the centimeter.
A. Blade type micrometer
B. Planimeter
C. Dial caliper
D. Micrometer
46. Molybdenum steel standard
designation SAE.
A. 88xx
B. 40xx
C. 48xx
D. 46xx
47. Also called eccentrically loaded
bearing is:
A. Full bearings
B. Partial bearings
C. Offset bearings
D. Fitted bearings
48. In the selection of wire rope, regular
lay means wire and strands arrange
in the following manner.
A. Twisted in the same direction
B. Twisted in opposite direction
C. Twisted in any direction
D. Twisted in along direction
49. In involute teeth, the pressure angle
is often defined as the angle
between the line of action and the
line tangent to the pitch circle. It is
also termed as:
A. Helix angle
B. Angle of obliquity
C. Angle of recess
D. Arc of action
50. Instantaneous center is also called:
A. Centro
B. Virtual center
C. Rot Opole
D. All of these
51. What is the stress to strain ratio
within the elastic limit?
A. Elastic limit
B. Elastically
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Compressive ratio
52. A material plane was subjected to a
load. When the load was removed
the strain disappeared. From the
structural change which of the
following can be considered about
this material?
A. It does not follow Hooke’s Law
B. It is elastic
C. It has high modulus of elasticity
D. It is plastic
53. Allowance added in the casing
pattern to compensate for the
contraction of metal
A. Tapering allowance
B. Finish allowance
C. Shrinkage allowance
D. Draft pattern
54. Ratio of the angle of action to the
pitch angle
A. Contact ratio
B. Ratio gearing
C. Approach ratio
D. Module
55. General purpose grade of steel used
for broiler plate, structure etc.
usually with carbon content of:
A. 0.20 to 30%C
B. 0.35 to 0.50%C
C. 0.15 to 0.25%C
D. All of these
56. The angle made by the helix of the
thread(in a straight thread) at the
pitch diameter with a plane
perpendicular to the axis called:
A. Angle of thread
B. Lead angle
C. Truncation
D. Lead
57. The principle materials used in the
production of metal working tools:
A. High carbon steel
B. Titanium, phosphorous
C. Tungsten, silicon, had field Mn
D. Vanadium, chromium,
molybdenum
58. In the interest of design
simplification and good kinematics
compromise bevel gears adopted a
standard pressure angle of ______
degrees/
A. 200 involute stub
B. 14 1/2 involute full depth
C. 200
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D. 17 1/2
59. The property of material that relates
the lateral strain to longitudinal
strain.
A. Stress
B. Poisson’s ratio
C. Strain
D. Endurance limit
60. It is generally recommended and
normal for a designer to add a
hunting tooth to evenly distribute
the wear on meshing teeth like a 53
teeth gears mesh with 30 teeth
pinion. Find the rotation of pinion to
mesh with same pair of teeth again.
A. 120
B. 61
C. 81
D. 53
61. The shaft whose torque varies from
2000 to 6000 in lbs has 1 1/2 in in
diameter and 60000 psi yield
strength. Compute for the shaft
mean average stress.
A. 6036 psi
B. 5162 psi
C. 6810 psi
D. 5550 psi
62. The angle made by the helix of the
thread(in a straight thread) at the
pitch diameter with a plane
perpendicular to the axis is called:
A. Lead angle
B. Lead
C. Truncation
D. Angle of thread
63. The rule of thumb in journal bearing
design; the clearance ratio/clearance
should be.
A. 0.0090
B. 0.0010
C. 0.0042
D. 0.00120
64. The moment of inertia of a rectangle
whose base is “b” height “h” about
its based is:
A. bh3/4
B. bh3/24
C. bh3/12
D. bh3/3
65. Cold rolled shafting is not available
in diameter larger than:
A. 6 inches
B. 6 ½ inches
C. 5 inches
D. 5 ½ inches
66. Height of tooth above pitch circle or
the radial distance between pitch
circle and top land of the tooth.
A. Top root
B. Land
C. Addendum
D. Hunting tooth
67. The function of clutch in the
machine tool is?
A. Lowering of drive speed
B. To disconnect or connect at
will the drive
C. Alignment of the drive shaft
D. To insure that two shaft line up
at high speed
68. A resulting force that replace two or
more forces acting together.
A. Vector
B. Resultant
C. Couple
D. Equilibrant
69. Stress relieving is also _____ for the
purpose of reducing the internal
stresses of steel material/metal.
A. Normalizing
B. Annealing
C. Tempering
D. All of these
70. Matensite (stainless steel) contains 4
to 26% Cr. And a maximum of _____
% nickel
A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 3.25
D. 2.0
71. Matensite (stainless steel) contains 4
to 26% Cr. And a maximum of _____
% nickel
A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 3.25
D. 2.0
72. Compute the deflection of a 18 coil
helical soaring having a load of
100kgs. The modulus of elasticity in
shear of spring is 96.62 Gpa, OD of
9256 cm and width diameter of 9525
mm. The spring is square and
ground ends.
A. 9 mm
B. 112 mm
C. 101 mm
D. 14 mm
73. A flanged bolt coupling has ten (10)
steel 25.4 mm diameter bolts evenly
tighten around a 415 mm bolt circle.
Determine the torque capacity of the
connection if the allowable shearing
stress in the bolt is 50 MN/m2.
A. 59.95 KN-m
B. 46.15 KN-m
C. 52.6 KN-m
D. 43.8 KN-m
74. The material that can cut/wear
hardest substance subjected to:
A. Carbide
B. Tungsten
C. Abrasive
D. Vanadium
75. A ridge of uniform section in the
form of a helix cut around the
circumference of a cylinder and
advancing along the axis.
A. Thread roots
B. Screw threads
C. Helix thread
D. Chamfers
76. Cast iron flywheel are commonly
designed with factor of safety of
A. 10 to 13
B. 10 to 14
C. 10 to 12
D. 8 to 13
77. Class of material exhibiting
decreases electrical conductivity
with increasing temperature.
A. Aluminum
B. Metals
C. P-type semiconductor
D. N-type semiconductor
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78. The welding made along the edges
of two parallel plates is called:
A. Groove joint
B. Edge joint
C. Fillet joint
D. Corner joint
79. Not part and in fact should not be
used in the steel melting process:
A. Coke
B. Zinc
C. Silicon
D. Aluminum
80. Rule of thumb in calculating the
equipment foundation mass should
be _____ times the weight of the
machinery it is supposed to support.
A. 3 – 5
B. 3 – 9
C. 3 – 6
D. 2 – 4
81. The strength of non ferrous alloys is
at maximum at room temperature
while that ferrous metal has a
maximum strength at ______0F
A. 400
B. 450
C. 1200
D. 350
82. The ratio of stress acting on an
elastic substance to the decrease in
volume per unit volume.
A. Bulk modulus
B. Elastic limit
C. Modulus of resilience
D. Modulus of elasticity
83. The normal helix angle in helical
gear is recommended in the range of
_____ degrees.
A. Less than 18
B. 15 to 25
C. 20 to 35
D. 20 to 30
84. Type of bolt commonly used in the
construction that is threaded in both
ends.
A. Stud bolt
B. Hex bolt
C. Acne threaded bolt
D. Square threaded bolts
85. It is rigid piece which serves to
transmit force from a piece another
piece or to cause / control motion.
A. Follower
B. Cam motion
C. Crank
D. Link
86. A 20 kgs. Cast iron piece rest on a
plain horizontal aluminum surface.
To move the object it needs a force
of 7 lbs. The density of AI is 0.098
lb/in3 and iron is 0.260 lb/in3
A. 0.172
B. 1.601
C. 0.186
D. 0.160
87. Which of the following is an iron
based alloy containing 9 – 16%
chromium?
A. Mn Hadfield steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Chrome-molly steel
D. High chrome steel
88. Shafting up to 3 inches in diameter
is usually made from cold rolled
steel and the common biggest
diameter cold rolled steel is:
A. 4 1/4 inches
B. 6 3/4 inches
C. 6 7/8 inches
D. 5 inches
89. It is ideal for maximum quietness in
sprockets drive operation to choose
_____ or more teeth.\
A. 24
B. 27
C. 18
D. 21
90. All associate with standard material
specification except:
A. American Iron and Steel Institute
B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Southeast Asia Iron and
Steel Institute
D. American Society for Testing
Material
91. For stable equipment foundation the
total combined engine driven
equipment and foundation center of
gravity must be kept below the
foundations too that usually about
______ times the usual total
combined weight of the machinery it
is supposed to support.
A. 3 to 4
B. 2 to 4
C. 3 to 7
D. 3 to 5
92. A cylinder tank with 10” inside
diameter contains oxygen gas at
2500 psi. Calculate the required wall
thickness in (mm) under stress of 28
000 psi.
A. 11.34 mm
B. 12.44 mm
C. 10.24 mm
D. 10.54 mm
93. The process of peening the joint
portion immediately after the
welding greatly improves the fusion
structures avoids possible cracking,
avoid possible distortion etc.
Peening can also ____process at the
same time.
A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. Mar tampering
D. Annealing
94. What do you call the distance
between rivet center nearest each
other in adjacent rows?
A. Pitch
B. Margin
C. Back pitch
D. Diagonal pitch
95. Which of the following is a major
alloy in tool steel?
A. Cr
B. Cobalt
C. Fen
D. Mn
96. Should two equal and opposite
collinear forces is added to the
forces already in equilibrium, which
of the following statement is true?
A. Unbalance moment is
maintained
B. Equilibrium is maintained
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C. Equilibrium is disturbed
D. It creates an unbalanced
situation
97. In the pressure vessels, which of the
following resists internal pressure
through bending?
A. Shell – type element
B. Cam – type element
C. Plate – type element
D. Spherical – type element
98. Which of the following flanges is
suitable for low and moderate
pressure?
A. Ring – flange
B. Lap joint flange
C. Tapered - hub flange
D. Welding neck type
99. It is the process of pre – stressing or
over – stressing of a hollow
cylindrical member beyond the
elastic range.
A. Pre-stage
B. Autofrettage
C. Stress relieving
D. Countersinking
100.
It is the phenomenon
occurring when two touching
surfaces have a high contact
pressure and when these surfaces
have minute relative motion.
A. Pre-stressing
B. Fretting
C. Friction
D. Carving
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
ELEMENTS 16
1. For ordinary steel, the modulus of
elasticity usually falls between
__________ million pounds.
A. 20 to 30
B. 35 to 45
C. 20 to 35
D. 25 to 30
2. The modulus of elastic for metals in
compression is usually taken as that
in:
A. Tension
B. Bearing
8.
9.
C. Yield
D. ultimate
Which of the following is the ratio of
moment and stress?
A. Strain
B. section modulus
C. contraction
D. passions ratio
What is the flexural stress when of a
symmetrically cross-section beam
when the vertical shear is
maximum?
A. Infinity
B. Zero
C. maximum
D. minimum
The riveted joint in ASME Code has
as design surface compressive
stress ________ higher than the
design tensile stress.
A. 70%
B. 60%
C. 35%
D. 50%
What is the ratio of the minimum
strength of joint to the strength of
solid joint in the pressure vessel?
A. Efficiency
B. relative strength
C. performance factor
D. joint efficiency
What is the usual factor of safety for
a pressure vessel?
A. 4
B. 1.5
C. 3
D. 5
It is the permissible variation of the
size.
A. Tolerance
B. Limit
C. fits
D. none of these
Considering that there is no fit, what
is the permissible liberal tolerance in
machining work?
A. ±0.010
B. ±0.090
C. ±0.020
D. ±0.050
10. Which of the following is the
tolerance where the size of a part
may be larger only, or smaller only,
than the given dimension?
A. Unilateral
B. Lateral
C. Bilateral
D. none of these
11. A tolerance where the size of the
part is permitted to be either larger
or smaller than the given dimension.
A. Unilateral
B. Lateral
C. Bilateral
D. none of these
12. Which of the following is the basis
for ASA fits?
A. Basic number system
B. basic hole system
C. basic size system
D. unit system
13. When the hole is smaller than the
shaft, it will take force or pressure to
put the cold parts together. In such
case the allowance is negative.
Which of the following terms is
appropriate for such allowance?
A. Negative fits of metal
B. interference of metal
C. positive fits of the metal
D. intangible fits
14. What is the direction of the
predominant surface pattern?
A. Smoothness
B. Waviness
C. lay
D. roughness
15. It is the irregularities of departures
from the nominal surface of greater
spacing than roughness?
A. Waviness
B. roughness
C. lay
D. smoothness
16. It is the surface finish of micrometer
in rms.
A. 1
B. 2
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C. 3
D. 4
17. Which of the following gears has the
simplest type of teeth?
A. Helical gears
B. spur gears
C. bevel gears
D. worm gears
18. In gears, an imaginary circle on
which the lever arm is based in;
A. Base circle
B. pitch circle
C. addendum circle
D. clearance circle
19. It is the circle tangent to the
addendum of the meshing gears.
A. Clearance circle
B. base circle
C. Addendum circle
D. pitch circle
20. The distance from a point on one
gear to the corresponding point
measured along the base circle.
A. Normal pitch
B. circular pitch
C. axial pitch
D. diametral pitch
21. A line passing through the pitch
point that is tangent to both base
circles of a gear is:
A. Pressure line
B. perpendicular line
C. tangent line
D. center line
22. Which of the following is the contact
ratio for a good gear design?
A. 1.5:1
B. 1:1.3
C. 1:3
D. 1.2:2
23. In pressure vessels, which of the
following resists internal pressure
through tension?
A. Shell-type element
B. cam type element
C. plate-type element
D. spherical type element
24. It is the study of the body’s motion
independent of the forces on the
body.
A. Kinetics
B. Dynamics
C. Kinematics
D. mechanics
25. What is the reciprocal of the velocity
ratio?
A. Train value
B. Ratio factor
C. modular value
D. none of these
26. It is a type of bolt finished all over
and has usually having coarse
threads.
A. Coupling bolt
B. stud bolt
C. machine bolt
D. automobile bolt
27. It is a type of bolt distinguishes by a
short portion of the shank
underneath the head being square
or finned or ribbed.
A. Coupling bolt
B. stud bolt
C. machine bolt
D. carriage bolt
28. It is a type of bolt threaded on both
ends and can be used where a
through bolt impossible.
A. Coupling bolt
B. carriage bolt
C. stud bolt
D. machine bolt
29. Which of the following is not a type
of bolt?
A. Stud bolt
B. Steel bolt
C. machine bolt
D. coupling bolt
30. It is a locking device that is used to
maintain pressure between threads
of the bolt and nut.
A. Gasket
B. lock washer
C. lock nut
D. filler
31. What is the large wood screw used
to fasten machinery and equipment.
A. Lag screw
B. loss screw
C. wood screw
D. cross screw
32. What is the minimum length of
contact in a tapped hole for cast
iron?
A. 1.7D
B. 1.5D
C. 1.2D
D. 2.1D
33. It is the ratio of the mean diameter
of coil over the coil diameters.
A. Wahl factor
B. spring index
C. coil ratio
D. lead scale
34. What is the overall length of springs
when it is compress until all adjacent
coils touched?
A. Free length
B. solid length
C. compressed length
D. expansion length
35. It is the length of a coil spring under
no load?
A. Compressed length
B. free length
C. solid height
D. none of these
36. In general, the steels springs are
made of relatively of relative height
carbon steel usually;
A. 5%
B. less than 0.5%
C. more than 0.5%
D. 7.5%
37. It is a low cost spring materials,
suitable where service is not severe
and dimensional precision is not
needed.
A. Helical spring wire
B. stainless steel
C. hard drawn wire spring
D. copper
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38. What is the hard drawn (80%
reduction) spring wire made of high
carbon steel?
A. Oil tempered wire
B. music wire
C. tension wire
D. chromium wire
39. Which of the following wires with
good quality and is used for impact
loading?
A. Hard drawn wire
B. song wire
C. helical spring wire
D. chromium-silicon wire
40. When heat-threated wire is coiled
cold, it should be stress relieved for
bending stress and after cooling it is
heated at some:
A. 400°F
B. 600°F
C. 700°C
D. 500°F
41. Which of the following is not a
function of spring?
A. Absorbs energy
B. source of potential energy
C. measure weight
D. measure thickness
42. Which of the following is the type of
spring made in the form of dished
washer?
A. Air spring
B. believe spring
C. volute spring
D. motor spring
43. What is the type of the failure due to
instability?
A. Buckling
B. slenderness ratio
C. Stability
D. Euler’s failure
44. What type of formula that is best
applied to a very slender column?
A. Column formula
B. slenderness formulas
C. moment formulas
D. Euler formula
45. If two principal stresses is zero, the
state of stress is:
A. Biaxial
B. mono-axial
C. uniaxial
D. triaxial
46. What do you call the system that
has finite values of principal
stresses?
A. Triaxial
B. Uniaxial
C. monoaxial
D. biaxial
47. A screw that requires positive torque
to lower the load, or to loosen the
screw if it has been turned tight
against a resistance.
A. Self locking screw
B. lock screw
C. self screw
D. power screw
48. What is the rotating member used in
transmitting power?
A. Shaft
B. counter shaft
C. axle
D. washer
49. For machineries shop the
permissible deflection is
approximately:
A. 0.02in/ft
B. 0.03in/ft
C. 0.01in/ft
D. 0.05in/ft
50. For shafts, the shear due to bending
is a maximum at the neutral plane
where the normal stress is:
A. Minimum
B. Constant
C. maximum also
D. zero
51. The minimum value of numerical
combined shock and fatigue factor
to be applied in every case to the
computed bending moment of the
shaft is:
A. 2.0
B. 1.75
C. 1.5
D. 1.3
52. What is the other name given to
short shafts in machines?
A. Spindles
B. head shafts
C. core shafts
D. all of these
53. The other name given to a line shaft.
A. Countershaft
B. Main shaft
C. Long shaft
D. Head shaft
54. The speed at which the center of
mass will be equal the deflecting
forces on the shaft; the shaft with its
attached bodies will then vibrate
violently, since the centrifugal force
change its direction as the shaft
turns in:
A. Nominal speed
B. Critical speed
C. Relative speed
D. Mean speed
55. An old rule of thumb for
transmission shafting is that the
deflection should not exceed
_________ of length between
supports.
A. 0.01 in. per foot
B. 0.08 in. per foot
C. 0.02 in. per foot
D. 0.05 in. per foot
56. For transmission shafts the allowable
deflection is 1 degree in a length of
__________ diameters.
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
57. What is the limiting torsional
deflection for machinery shafts, if
the criteria of limiting torsional
deflection vary from 0.08˚ per foot
of length?
A. 1˚
B. 2.5˚
C. 2˚
D. 3.5˚
58. Bevel gears of sizes 5 inches to 15
inches should not be lift or depress
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more than__________, as Gleason
statement.
A. 0.004
B. 0.003
C. 0.002
D. 0.001
59. What type of key that allows the hub
to move along the shaft but prevents
the rotation of the shaft?
A. Woodruff key
B. Feather key
C. Gibbs key
D. Square key
60. What is the other name for Kennedy
key?
A. Tangential key
B. Woodruff key
C. Saddle key
D. Roll pin
61. What type of fits used for involute
spline?
A. Close fit
B. Press fit
C. sliding fit
D. All of these
62. It is used for permanent fits and
similar to involute splines except
that the pressure angle is 14.5˚.
A. Separation load
B. Splines shaft
C. Stub serrations
D. Involute serrations
63. It is used in a coupling or in addition
to another coupling where, in case of
overload, there is danger of injury to
machine or to material in process.
A. Shear pin
B. Flange coupling
C. Involute serrations
D. King pin
64. What is the maximum shaft angle for
a single Hooke’s coupling?
A. 10˚
B. 17
C. 15˚
D. 20˚
65. What are the two principal parts of a
Journal Bearing?
A. Bearing and journal
B. Shaft and babbit
C. Clearance and fitted
D. Shaft and cylinder
66. When the line of action of the load
bisects the arc of partial bearing, the
bearing said to be:
A. Eccentrically loaded
B. Fully loaded
C. Centrally loaded
D. Partially loaded
67. What is the difference in radii of the
bearing and Journal?
A. Even clearance
B. Clearance ratio
C. Odd clearance
D. Radial clearance
68. When radii of both the bearing and
the journal are the same, then the
bearing is said to be:
A. Fitted bearing
B. Clearance bearing
C. Full bearing
D. Ambiguous bearing
69. What is the line that passes through
the centers of the bearing and the
journal?
A. Line of action
B. Line of centers
C. Line of symmetry
D. Tangent line
70. Which of the following is considered
advantageous for bearing materials?
A. Conformability
B. Compatibility
C. Embed ability
D. All of these
71. A conclusion repeatedly verified by
experiment is that the smoother
surface:
A. Has the greater load
capacity of the bearing
B. Has the lesser capacity of the
bearing
C. Has constant load
D. None of these
72. Which of the following considers the
200 series of bearing?
A. Heavy
B. Medium
C. Light
D. All of these
73. Which of the following considers the
300 series of bearing?
A. Medium
B. Heavy
C. Light
D. All of these
74. A type of roller bearing in which the
balls are assembled by the eccentric
displacement of the inner ring.
A. shallow groove ball bearing
B. filling-slot ball bearing
C. self-aligning ball bearing
D. deep-groove ball bearing
75. Which of the following is not a type
of ball bearing?
A. shallow groove ball bearing
B. filling-slot ball bearing
C. self-aligning ball bearing
D. deep-groove ball bearing
76. Which of the following is the
approximate density of the leather
belt?
A. 0.035 lb/in3
B. 0.0135 lb/in3
C. 0.025 lb/in3
D. 0.0465 lb/in3
77. Which of the following is the
approximate density of a fat rubber
belt?
A. 0.055 lb/in3
B. 0.0135 lb/in3
C. 0. 045 lb/in3
D. 0.0465 lb/in3
78. A toothed wheel whose tooth
elements are straight and parallel to
the shaft axis or used to transmit
motion and power between parallel
shafts.
A. Helical gear
B. Spur gear
C. Worm gear
D. Bevel gear
79. The breaking strength of oak-tanned
beltings varies from 3 to more than:
A. 5 ksi
B. 6 ksi
C. 7 ksi
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D. 9 ksi
80. Experience suggests that the most
economical designs are obtained for
a belt speed of:
A. 6000 to 7500 fpm
B. 3000cto 5000 fpm
C. 3500 to 4700 fpm
D. 5000 to 1000 fpm
81. The tension in the belt due to
centrifugal force increasing rapidly
above about:
A. 2500 fpm
B. 3000 fpm
C. 35000 fpm
D. 4000 fpm
82. For leather belts, recommended
speed is:
A. 6000 to 7000 fpm
B. 5000 to 6000 fpm
C. 7000 to 8000 fpm
D. 4500 to 5600 fpm
83. The recommended initial tension of
the belt is:
A. 75 lb/in of width
B. 73 lb/in of width
C. 71 lb/in of width
D. 80 lb/in of width
84. Two shafts at right angles to each
other may be connected by what
arrangement?
A. Half turn
B. Quarter turn
C. ¾ turn
D. One turn
85. The minimum number of teeth on a
smaller sprocket for low speed is:
A. 12
B. 21
C. 17
D. 14
86. The minimum number of teeth on a
smaller sprocket for moderate speed
is:
A. 17
B. 21
C. 12
D. 14
87. The minimum number of teeth on a
smaller sprocket for high speed is:
A.
21
B.
24
C.
12
D.
14
88. The resultant of a pair of equal
forces but opposite in direction is:
A. Concurrent
B. Couple
C. Non-concurrent
D. Resultant
89. The helical and herringbone gear
teeth cut after heat treatment
should have a hardness in the range
of 210/300BHN. The pinion gear
teeth hardness on the other hand
ideally/normally should be at
__________ BHN.
A. 250/320
B. 350/380
C. 400
D. 340/350
90. As a rule, the center distance
between sprockets should not be
less than __________ times the
diameter of the bigger sprocket and
not less than 30 times the pitch nor
more than about 50 times to pitch.
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
91. A single force which produces the
same effect upon a mass as two or
several forces acting together is
called:
A. Components
B. Composition forces
C. Resolution forces
D. Resultant
92. All forces in the same plane are
called:
A. Coplanar
B. Couple
C. Parallel
D. Resultant
93. Which of the following laws which
states that the force of attraction
between two bodies is directly
proportional to the product of their
masses and inversely proportional to
distance square between their
centers.
A. Hooke’s law
B. Law of gravitation
C. Law of motion
D. Newton’s law
94. Any object thrown upward will return
to earth with the magnitude of the
terminal velocity equal to:
A. 50% of the initial velocity
B. 80% of the initial velocity
C. About 90% of the initial velocity
D. The initial velocity
95. Flat belt that is too tight will induce
strain on the bearing and belt
__________.
A. Life will be shortened
B. Result to uneconomical
operation
C. Suffer/shatter
D. Will be sheared/cut
96. The resulting cross-sectional area of
the tensile test specimen divided by
the specimen original area is called:
A. Charpy test
B. % elongation
C. Impact test
D. Izod test
97. SAE 51XXX belongs to the __________
steel family.
A. Carbon
B. Chromium
C. Manganese
D. Nickel
98. In itself, it is a lubricant and usually
one of the important elements in
casting non-ferrous metals like
bronze, for example:
A. Antimony
B. Babbit
C. Lead
D. Zinc
99. Gasket material, which should avoid
hot liquid/steam applications.
A. Asbestos fiber
B. Nylon fiber
C. Rubberized
D. Wool
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100. The same material properties all
over / direction and at any particular
point in a structural member is:
A. Heterogeneous
B. Homogenous
C. Isentropic
D. Isotropic
Elements 16
1. For ordinary steel, the modulus of
elasticity usually falls between
__________ million pounds.
A. 20 to 30
B. 35 to 45
C. 20 to 35
D. 25 to 30
2. The modulus of elastic for metals in
compression is usually taken as that
in:
A. Tension
B. Bearing
C. yield
D. ultimate
3. Which of the following is the ratio of
moment and stress?
A. Strain
B. section modulus
C. contraction
D. passions ratio
4. What is the flexural stress when of a
symmetrically cross-section beam
when the vertical shear is
maximum?
A. Infinity
B. Zero
C. Maximum
D. minimum
5. The riveted joints in ASME Code
have as design surface compressive
stress __________ higher than the
design tensile stress.
A. 70%
B. 60%
C. 35%
D. 50%
6. What is the ratio of the minimum
strength of joint to the strength of
solid joint in the pressure vessel?
A. Efficiency
B. relative strength
C. performance factor
D. joint efficiency
7. What is the usual factor of safety for
a pressure vessel?
A. 4
B. 1.5
C. 3
D. 5
8. It is the permissible variation of the
size.
A. Tolerance
B. limit
C. fits
D. none of these
9. Considering that there is no fit, what
is the permissible liberal tolerance in
machining work?
A. ±0.010
B. ±0.090
C. ±0.02
D. ±0.050
10. Which of the following is the
tolerance where the size of a part
may be larger only, or smaller only,
than the given dimension?
A. Unilateral
B. Lateral
C. Bilateral
D. none of these
11. A tolerance where the size of the
part is permitted to be either larger
or smaller than the given dimension.
A. Unilateral
B. Lateral
C. Bilateral
D. none of these
12. Which of the following is the basis
for ASA fits?
A. Basic number system
B. basic hole system
C. basic size system
D. unit system
13. When the hole is smaller than the
shaft, it will take force or pressure to
put the cold parts together. In such
case the allowance is negative.
Which of the following terms is
appropriate for such allowance?
A. Negative fits of metals
B. interference of metal
C. positive fits of the metal
D. intangible fits
14. What is the direction of the
predominant surface pattern?
A. Smoothness
B. Waviness
C. Lay
D. roughness
15. It is the irregularities of departures
from the nominal surface of greater
spacing than roughness?
A. Waviness
B. Roughness
C. Lay
D. smoothness
16. It is the surface finish of micrometer
in rms.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
17. Which of the following gears has the
simplest type of teeth?
A. Helical gears
B. spur gears
C. bevel gears
D. worm gears
18. In gears, an imaginary circle on
which the lever arm is based in;
A. Base circle
B. pitch circle
C. addendum circle
D. clearance circle
19. It is the circle tangent to the
addendum of the meshing gears.
A. Clearance circle
B. base circle
C. Addendum circle
D. pitch circle
20. The distance from a point on one
gear to the corresponding point
measured along the base circle.
A. Normal pitch
B. circular pitch
C. axial pitch
D. diametral pitch
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21. A line passing through the pitch
point that is tangent to both base
circles of a gear is:
A. Pressure line
B. perpendicular line
C. tangent line
D. center line
22. Which of the following is the contact
ratio for a good gear design?
A. 1.5:1
B. 1:1.3
C. 1:3
D. 1.2:2
23. In pressure vessels, which of the
following resists internal pressure
through tension?
A. Shell-type element
B. cam type element
C. plate-type element
D. spherical type element
24. It is the study of the body’s motion
independent of the forces on the
body.
A. Kinetics
B. Dynamics
C. Kinematics
D. Mechanics
25. What is the reciprocal of the velocity
ratio?
A. Train value
B. Ratio factor
C. modular value
D. none of these
26. It is a type of bolt finished all over
and has usually having coarse
threads.
A. Coupling bolt
B. stud bolt
C. machine bolt
D. automobile bolt
27. It is a type of bolt distinguishes by a
short portion of the shank
underneath the head being square
or finned or ribbed.
A. Coupling bolt
B. stud bolt
C. machine bolt
D. carriage bolt
28. It is a type of bolt threaded on both
ends and can bbe used where a
through bolt impossible.
A. Coupling bolt
B. carriage bolt
C. stud bolt
D. machine bolt
29. Which of the following is not a type
of bolt?
A. Stud bolt B. Steel bolt
C. machine bolt D. coupling bolt
30. It is a locking device that is used to
maintain pressure between threads
of the bolt and nut.
A. Gasket
B. lock washer
C. lock nut
D. filler
31. What is the large wood screw used
to fasten machinery and equipment.
A. Lag screw B. loss screw
C. wood screw D. cross screw
32. What is the minimum length of
contact in a tapped hole for cast
iron?
A. 1.7D
B. 1.5D
C. 1.2D
D. 2.1D
33. It is the ratio of the mean diameter
of coil over the coil diameters.
A. Wahl factor B. spring index
C. coil ratio
D. lead scale
34. What is the overall length of springs
when it is compress until all adjacent
coils touched?
A. Free length B. solid length
C. compressed length D. expansion
length
35. It is the length of a coil spring under
no load?
A. Compressed length B. free
length
C. solid height D. none of these
36. In general, the steels springs are
made of relatively of relative height
carbon steel usually;
A. 5%
B. less than 0.5%
C. more than 0.5%
D. 7.5%
37. It is a low cost spring materials,
suitable where service is not severe
and dimensional precision is not
needed.
A. Helical spring wire B. stainless
steel
C. hard drawn wire spring D.
copper
38. What is the hard drawn (80%
reduction) spring wire made of high
carbon steel?
A. Oil tempered wire
B. music
wire
C. tension wire D. chromium wire
39. Which of the following wires with
good quality and is used for impact
loading?
A. Hard drawn wire
B. song
wire
C. helical spring wire D. chromiumsilicon wire
40. When heat-threated wire is coiled
cold, it should be stress relieved for
bending stress and after cooling it is
heated at some:
A. 400°F
B. 600°F
C.
700°C D. 500°F
41. Which of the following is not a
function of spring?
A. Absorbs energy B. source of
potential energy C. measure weight
D. measure thickness
42. Which of the following is the type of
spring made in the form of dished
washer?
A. Air spring
B. believe spring
C. volute spring D. motor spring
43. What is the type of the failure due to
instability?
A. Buckling
B. slenderness ratio
C. stability
D. Euler’s failure
44. What type of formula that is best
applied to a very slender column?
A. Column formula B.
slenderness formulas
C. moment formulas D. Euler
formula
45. If two principal stresses is zero, the
state of stress is:
A. Biaxial
B. monoaxial
C. uniaxial
D. triaxial
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46. What do you call the system that
has finite values of principal
stresses?
A. Triaxial
B. uniaxial
C. monoaxial D. biaxial
47. A screw that requires positive torque
to lower the load, or to loosen the
screw if it has been turned tight
against a resistance.
A. Self locking screw
B. lock
screw
D. power screw
C. self screw
48. What is the rotating member used in
transmitting power?
A. Shaft
B. counter
shaft
C. axle
D. washer
49. For machineries shop the
permissible deflection is
approximately:
A. 0.02in/ft
B. 0.03in/ft
C. 0.01in/ft
D. 0.05in/ft
50. For shafts, the shear due to bending
is a maximum at the neutral plane
where the normal stress is:
A. Minimum
B. constant
C. maximum also
D. zero
51. The minimum value of numerical
combined shock and fatigue factor
to be applied in every case to the
computed bending moment of the
shaft is:
A. 2.0
B. 1.75
C. 1.5
D. 1.3
52. What is the other name given to
short shafts in machines?
A. Spindles
B. head shafts
C. core shafts D. all of these
53. The other name given to a line
shaft.
A. Countershaft
B. Main
shaft
C. Long shaft
D. Head
shaft
54. The speed at which the center of
mass will be equal the deflecting forces
on the shaft; the shaft with its attached
bodies will then vibrate violently, since
the centrifugal force change its direction
as the shaft turns in:
A. Nominal speed
B. Critical
speed
C. Relative speed
D. Mean
speed
55. An old rule of thumb for
transmission shafting is that the deflection
should not exceed
_________ of length between
supports.
A. 0.01 in. per foot
B. 0.08 in. per foot
C. 0.02 in. per foot
D. 0.05 in. per foot
56. For transmission shafts the
allowable deflection is 1 degree in a length
of __________ diameters.
A.20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
57. What is the limiting torsional
deflection for machinery shafts, if the
criteria of limiting torsional deflection vary
from 0.08˚ per foot of length?
A.1˚
B. 2.5˚
C.2˚
D. 3.5˚
58. Bevel gears of sizes 5 inches to 15
inches should not be lift or depress more
than__________, as
Gleason statement.
A. 0.004
B. 0.003
C.
0.002 D. 0.001
Answer: B
59. What type of key that allows the
hub to move along the shaft but
prevents the rotation of the shaft?
A. Woodruff key B. Feather key
C. Gibbs key
D. Square
key
60. What is the other name for Kennedy
key?
A. Tangential key
B. Woodruff
key
C. Saddle key D. Rollpin
61. What type of fits used for involute
spline?
A. Close fit
B. Press fit
C. Sliding fit
D. All of these
62. It is used for permanent fits and
similar to involute splines except
that the pressure angle is 14.5˚.
A. Separation load
B. Spline
shaft
C. Stub serrations
D. Involute
serrations
63. It is used in a coupling or in addition
to another coupling where, in case of
overload, there is danger of injury to
machine or to material in process.
A. Shear pin B. Flange coupling
C. Involute serrations D. King pin
64. What is the maximum shaft angle for
a single Hooke’s coupling?
A.10˚
B. 17˚
C. 15˚
D. 20˚
65. What are the two principal parts of a
Journal Bearing?
A. Bearing and journal B. Shaft
and babbit
C. Clearance and fitted D. Shaft and
cylinder
66. When the line of action of the load
bisects the arc of partial bearing, the
bearing said to be:
A. Eccentrically loaded B. Fully
loaded
C. Centrally loaded D. Partially
loaded
67. What is the difference in radii of the
bearing and Journal?
A. Even clearance
B. Clearance
ratio
C. Odd clearance
D. Radial
clearance
68. When radii of both the bearing and
the journal are the same, then the
bearing is said to be:
A. Fitted bearing
B. Clearance
bearing
C. Full bearing D. Ambiguous
bearing
69. What is the line that passes through
the centers of the bearing and the
journal?
A. Line of action
B. Line of
centers
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C. Line of symmetry
D. Tangent
line
70. Which of the following is considered
advantageous for bearing materials?
A. Conformability
B.
Compatibility
C. Embeddability
D. All of
these
71. A conclusion repeatedly verified by
experiment is that the smoother
surface:
A. Has the greater load
capacity of the bearing
B. Has the lesser capacity of the
bearing
C. Has constant load
D. None of these
72. Which of the following considers the
200 series of bearing?
A. Heavy
B. Medium
C. Light
D. All of
these
73. Which of the following considers the
300 series of bearing?
A .Medium
B. Heavy
C. Light
D. All of these
74. A type of roller bearing in which the
balls are assembled by the eccentric
displacement of the inner ring.
A. shallow groove ball bearing
B. filling-slot ball bearing
C. self-aligning ball bearing
D. deep-groove ball bearing
75. Which of the following is not a type
of ball bearing?
A. shallow groove ball bearing
B. filling-slot ball bearing
C. self-aligning ball bearing
D. deep-groove ball bearing
76. Which of the following is the
approximate density of the leather
belt?
A.0.035 lb/in3 B. 0.0135 lb/in3
C. 0.025 lb/in3 D. 0.0465 lb/in3
77. Which of the following is the
approximate density of a fat rubber
belt?
A.0.055 lb/in3 B. 0.0135 lb/in3
C. 0.045 lb/in3 D. 0.0465 lb/in3
78. A toothed wheel whose tooth
elements are straight and parallel to
the shaft axis or used to transmit
motion and power between parallel
shafts.
A. Helical gear
B. Spur
gear
C. Worm gear
D. Bevel
gear
79. The breaking strength of oak-tanned
beltings varies from 3 to more than:
A.5 ksi
B. 6 ksi
C. 7 ksi
D. 9 ksi
80. Experience suggests that the most
economical designs are obtained for
a belt speed of:
A.6000 to 7500 fpm
B. 3000 to
5000 fpm
C. 3500 to 4700 fpm D. 5000 to
1000 fpm
81. The tension in the belt due to
centrifugal force increasing rapidly
above about:
A.2500 fpm
B. 3000 fpm
C. 35000 fpm D. 4000 fpm
82. For leather belts, recommended
speed is:
A.6000 to 7000 fpm B. 5000 to
6000 fpm
C. 7000 to 8000 fpm D. 4500 to
5600 fpm
83. The recommended initial tension of
the belt is:
A.75 lb/in of width
B. 73 lb/in
of width
C. 71 lb/in of width D. 80 lb/in of
width
84. Two shafts at right angles to each
other may be connected by what
arrangement?
A. Half turn
B. Quarter turn
C. ¾ turn
D. One turn
85. The minimum number of teeth on a
smaller sprocket for low speed is:
A.12
B. 21
C. 17
D.14
86. The minimum number of teeth on a
smaller sprocket for moderate speed
is:
A.17
B. 21
C. 12
D. 14
87. The minimum number of teeth on a
smaller sprocket for high speed is:
A.21
B. 24
C. 12
D. 14
88. The resultant of a pair of equal
forces but opposite in direction is:
B. Couple
A. Concurrent
C. Non-concurrent
D.
Resultant
89. The helical and herringbone gear
teeth cut after heat treatment
should have a hardness in the range
of 210/300BHN. The pinion gear
teeth hardness on the other hand
ideally/normally should be at
__________ BHN.
A.250/320
B. 350/380
C. 400
D. 340/350
90. As a rule, the center distance
between sprockets should not be
less than __________ times the
diameter of the bigger sprocket and
not less than 30 times the pitch nor
more than about 50 times to pitch.
A.1.5
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
91. A single force which produces the
same effect upon a mass as two or
several forces acting together is
called:
A. Components B. Composition
forces
D.
C. Resolution forces
Resultant
92. All forces in the same plane are
called:
A. Coplanar
B. Couple
C. Parallel
D. Resultant
93. Which of the following laws which
states that the force of attraction
between two bodies is directly
proportional to the product of their
masses and inversely proportional to
distance square between their
centers.
A. Hooke’s law B. Law of
gravitation
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C. Law of motion
D. Newton’s
law
94. Any object thrown upward will return
to earth with the magnitude of the
terminal velocity equal to:
A. 50% of the initial velocity
B. 80% of the initial velocity
C. About 90% of the initial velocity
D. The initial velocity
95. Flat belt that is too tight will induce
strain on the bearing and belt
__________.
A. Life will be shortened
B. Result to uneconomical
operation
C. Suffer/shatter
D. Will be sheared/cut
96. The resulting cross-sectional area of
the tensile test specimen divided by
the specimen original area is called:
A. Charpy test
B. %
elongation
C. Impact test
D. Izod test
97. SAE 51XXX belongs to the __________
steel family.
A. Carbon
B.
Chromium
C. Manganese
D. Nickel
98. In itself, it is a lubricant and usually
one of the important elements in
casting non-ferrous metals like
bronze, for example:
A. Antimony
B. Babbit
C. Lead
D. Zinc
99. Gasket material, which should avoid
hot liquid/steam applications.
A. Asbestos fiber
B. Nylon
fiber
C. Rubberized D. Wool
100.
The same material
properties all over / direction and at
any particular point in a structural
member is:
A. Heterogenous
B.
Homogenous
C. Isentropic
D. Isotropic
ELEMENTS 17
1. For large speed ratio and large
sprocket utilized it is recommended
cast ____________ material since the
large sprocket teeth are having
fewer engagements.
A. allowed steel
B. high
treated steel
C. iron
D. malleable iron
2. Roller bearing is utilized on _________
carrying capacity and is better than
ball in this condition.
A. Heavy load
B. high
temperature load
C. low load
D. reserving load
3. To enhance mechanical properties,
fabrication characteristics or any
other attributes of steel, some
elements are added in melting in
specific ranges or minimum aside
from carbon and generally termed:
A. Alloy steel
B. AISI steel
C. Bessemer steel
D. SAE
steel
4. Materials is having thermal
expansion of about 10 times higher
than those of materials and has
more heat generated during
machining is:
A. Aluminum
B. Asbestos
C. Plastic
D. PVC
5. To hold to minimum, the axial
direction of deflection/movement, a
separate thrust bearing or preloaded
bearing capable of absorbing
considerable load is required. The
type of bearing to use is a __________
bearing.
A. Deep grove ball
B. double row angular contract
C. tapered roller bearing
D. wide type self-aligning
6. Pulley made of ________ ordinary is
45 to 55% less in weight and 2.35 to
2.70% less slippage compared
with________ pulley.
A. Iron/steel
B. steel/iron
C. wood/iron
D.
wood/steel
7. To avoid scoring in the bearing
surface and the shaft due to
__________ contamination/absorption
of the fine dirt in the bearing during
operation/lubrication the bearing
material to apply should have good
lubrication.
A. Anti-scoring B. resistance
conformability
C. corrosion resistance D. embed
ability
8. What do impact tests measure?
A. Compactness
B. Ductility
C. Plasticity
D.
Toughness
9. Corresponding piping color for
alkaline.
A. Blue
B. Green
B. C. Red
D. Violet
10. Type of gear that transmits power at
an angle.
A. Bevel
B. Helix
C. Herringbone D. Spur
11. Which of the following gasket
material is not used for high
temperature?
A. Normal Plane
B. Plastic
Nylon
C. Rubberized D. Wool
12. A plane perpendicular to the gear
axis.
A. Asbestos
B. Pitch Plane
C. Plane of Rotation
D. Radius
of gyration
13. Specification of molybdenum alloy.
A. SAE3XXX B. SAE4XXX
C. SAE5XXX
D. SAE6XXX
14. A_________ chain is an assembly of
lines and joints.
A. Dynamic
B. Kinetic
C. Sprocket
D. Static
15. The recommended means of
supporting the chuck during the
mounting procedure to the lathe
spindle is to use:
A. Crane B. Jack C. Overhead D.
Racket
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16. Too much __________ in a flat belt
operation tend to cause excessive
wear slippage and may burn
A. load
B. Lack
C.
Usage D. Tightness
17. It is a chromium steel tape in AISISAE designation.
A. 10XX
B. 25XX
C.50XX
D. 40XX
18. Which of the following is not
recommended for use in a driving
space exceeding 2000ft/min?
A. Flat leather belt
B.
Herringbone gear
C. Silent sprocket
D. V-Belt
19. It is low cost bearing used worldwide
for automobile or low horse power
motor applications. It is made of thin
coating of over flat metal strip.
A. Babbit
B. Cadmium brass
C. Lead D. Thin
20. The most common useful tools to
measure diameter in machine shop
operation but normally and always
used with steel scale for
measurement.
A. Caliper
B.
Micrometer
C.
Protractor
D. Vernier
21. In impact force introduce to cause
the metal in a shape mold according
to the shape to dies made.
A. Hardness
B. Spinning
C. Swaging
D.
Toughness
22. Forces of equal in magnitude but
opposite in direction are parallel
called
A. Acceleration
B. Coplanar
C. Couple
D. Noncoplanar
23. Composition of force is at
the____________ of two or more
forces.
A. Combination
B.
Opposition
C.
Resultant
D.
Summary
24. Circular pitch is measured along the
__________ in the circular gear.
A. Circle
B. Line of action
C. pitch center
D. pitch
diameter
25. Stiffness is the materials ability
to__________ deformation under
stress.
A. Non-polar B. planar
C. resists
D. Staffer
26. The pipe color in steam is:
A. Blue
B. Gray
C. Silver gray
D. White
27. What method is used the yield point
of some brittle materials?
A. Offset ratio
B. modulus of
resilience
C. modulus measurement
D.
parallelogram method
28. Wood pattern in the foundry is
normally constructed out of:
A. Dried sap wood
B. hard
wood
C. kiln dried
wood
D. scrap wood
29. The progressive change in position
of
is called motion.
A. Component
B. couple
C. link
D. mass
30. Strain or ________ is a change in
geometry / shape of the body due to
action of a force on it.
A. Bending Stress
B.
Deformation
C. Shear stress D. stress
31. The effective face width of a helical
gear divided by the axial pitch. This
sometimes called face overlap.
A. Angle overlap
B. Axial
overlap
C. Contact
overlap D. Helical overlap
32. For mass production of casting it is
generally chapter to use:______
longer life.
A. Gear axis
B. normal plane
C. contact overlap
D.
pitch diameter
33. It is a place between mating teeth or
the amount of which a tooth space
exceed the thickness of an engaging
tooth is called:
A. Backlash B. Clearance
C. Pitting
D. Space
34. The forces that be combined or
called component forces.
A. Different B. Helical
C. Opposite
D. parallel
35. Plane of rotation is defined as plane
perpendicular to a
A. gear axis B. gear ratio
C. normal planeD. pitch diameter
36. Cutting lubricant used used in
drilling reaming and tapping for
brass and bronze
A. Dry
B. Soda
water
C. Soluble oil
D. Turpentine
37. Non-concurrent forces when in
action are:
A. Collinear
B. Couple
C. parallel
D scalar
38. The general accepted limit of
diamond wheel speed should be in
the range of ________ fpm.
A. 1000/2000
B. 2500/3500
C. 3000/4000
D. 5000/6000
39. Prepared tool bit will now consist of
face , nose and
B. shank
A. Cutting tool
C sharp tool
D tool
edge
40. This is an alloy in bronze casting that
assist lubrication and in itself a
lubricant:
A. Lead
B. manganese
C phosphate
D .tin
41. For longer sprocket chain life the
speed range of_______ fpm is
recommended.
A. 92xx
B. 300xx
C. 304xx
D. 515xx
42. All stainless type is SAE designation
except:
A. 92XX
B. 300XX
C. 304XX
D. 515XX
43. It is white metal with good oxidation
and corrosion resistance. This has
also electrical magnetic properties.
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A. Aluminum
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D.
Titanium
44. It is molybdenum steel – tape in
AISI_SAE designation
A. 44XX
B. 45XX
C. 50XX
D.
51XX
45. Cutting lubricant used used in
drilling reaming and tapping for
brass and bronze
A. Dry
B. Soda
water
C. Soluble oil
D. Turpentine
46. In a ______ design, the lead of a
single thread is equal to the pitch.
A. bevel gear
B. bolt
C. helical gear
D. hypoid
gear
47. A type of chisel used in cutting of
keyways, square corners or slots.
A. Cape
B. Diamond
head
C. Flat
D. Round
48. The maximum recommended ideal
number of teeth to use for bigger
sprocket is:
A. 120
B. 127
C. 132
D. 143
49. The teeth on the outer ring surface
is called the external gear:
A. Develop
B. Flank
C. Gear
D. Involute
50. A bolt general application that
posses a stronger thread is a type of
_____ screw.
A. BUN
B. UNC
C. UNEF
D. WOOD
51. Maximum moment formula for beam
simply supported at both and
subject to a load uniformly disturbed
over its length.
A. wL/2
B. wL/8
C. wL/8
D. wL/12
52. Special bearing used with high
deflection.
A. Babbitt
B. ball
C. Roller
D. Self
aligning
53. For low load and less experience
production.
A. Babbitt
B. ball
C. Roller
D. Self
aligning
54. The lateral stain in axial tension
members can be calculated by
A. Deformation
B.
Hooke’s law
C.
Poisson’s ratio
D. William’s
law
55. The most abundant being used in
automobiles worldwide is coated
with_______ on top of the plate.
A. Babbitt
B. lead C.
manganese D. tin
56. A liquid metal at room temperature.
A. Aluminum
B.
mercury
C. Zinc
D. Zirconium
57. Steel with SAE specification 13XX.
A. Chromium
B.
Manganese
C.
Molybdenum
D. Nickel
58. Property, which enables a material
to be drawn into a wire.
A. Ductility
B. Elasticity
C. Plasticity
D. Utility
59. Heating a metal to a temperature
above the critical temperature and
from cooling slowly usually done in
the furnace to reduce the hardness
and improve the machinability is a
process called
B.
A. Annealing
Normalizing
C.
quenching
D. tempering
60. The stress that causes the material
to shorten:
A. Bearing
B. Compressive
C. Shear
D. tensile
61. The most common lubricants being
utilized in whatever category of load
and speed are oil, grease and dry
lubricants like
A. Bronze
B. Graphite
C. Lead
D. Silicon
62. Commonly used in parallel shaft
transmission especially when a
smooth continuous action is
essential as in high speed drives up
to 12,000 fpm.
A. Bevel gear
B. Helical
gear
C. Herringbone
gear
D. Spur gear
63. The reciprocal of a diametral pitch or
the ratio of the pitch diameter to the
number of teeth.
A. Clearance
B. Involute
D. Module
C. Lead
64. What tool will be used in making
wood pattern in the foundry shop?
A. Band saw
B. Drill machine
C. Hammer
D. Saw and chisel
65. Type of bolt commonly used in the
construction that is threaded in both
ends.
A. Acme threaded bolts
B.
Hex bolt
C. Hardness
d. Stud bolt
66. Ability of a material to absorb strain
energy and will return to its original
state.
A. Creep
B. Fatigue
strength
C. Hardness
D. Resilience
67. The ratio of lateral strain to
longitudinal strain.
A. Deformation
B. Modulus
C.
of elasticity
Poisson’s ratio
D.
William’s line
68. Basic size is the same as design size
if there is no:
A. Allowance
B. Clearance
C. Limits
D. Tolerance
69. Forces that meet at common point is
called:
A. Co-linear
B.
concurrent
C.
coplanar
D. couple
70. A pair of equal and opposite (not
collinear) forces that tend to cause a
rotation of a body.
A. Centroids
B. Couple
C. Equilibrium
D. Vector
71. Stress that resist being pulled apart.
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A. Compressive
B. Shear
C. Tensile
D. Torsional
72. Dynamic seal is also known as:
A. Gasket
B. packing
C. seal
D. shield
73. Acceleration is proportional to the
force.
A. Hooke’s law
B. Law of
gravitation
C. Law of
D. Newton’s law
motion
74. Which type of hardening will work to
some extent in all metals?
A. Annealing
B. Austenitizing
C. Martempering D. Work
hardening
75. Sound travel fastest in :
A. Air at 00 F and 1 atmosphere
B. Air at 700 F and 1 atmosphere
C. Air at 700 F and 0 lbf/ in2
D. steel at 700 F
76. The yield strength of common yellow
brass ( 70%Cu, 30%Zn) can be
increased by:
A. Annealing
B. chill casting
C. cold working
D. heat
treatment
77. Forces not on the same place is
called______
A. Component
B. Composition of
forces
C. Non-coplanar
D. Resolution
78. The distance between the center of
oscillation and the point of
suspension is called:
A. Fix axis
B. Center of gravity
C. Center of percussion
D. Radius of oscillation
79. If the velocity is variable and
regularly/constantly increasing the
rate of change is called:
A. Acceleration
B.
Constant work
C.
Moment
D. Motion
80. The kinematic chain in which one
link is considered fixed for the
purpose of analysis but motion is
possible in other links.
Belting
B. Frame
C. Mechanism
D. Sprocket
chain
81. The ____ is one of the rigid
members / bodies joined together to
form a kinetic chain.
A. Coplanar
B. Frame
C. Link
D. Machine
82. For large speed ratio and large
sprocket utilized it is recommended
cast _______ material since the large
sprocket teeth are having fewer
engagements.
A. Alloyed steel
B. heat
treated steel
C. Iron
D. Malleable iron
83. Roller bearing is utilized on______
carrying capacity and is better than
ball in this condition.
A. Heavy load
B high
temperature load
C. low
load
D. reversing load
84. To enhance mechanical properties,
fabrication characteristics or any
other attributes of steel, some
elements are added in melting in
specific ranges or minimum aside
from carbon and generally termed:
A. Alloy steel
B. AISI steel
C. Bessemer steel
D. SAE
steel
85. Materials is having thermal
expansion of about 10 times higher
than those of materials and has
more heat generated during
machining is:
A. Aluminum
B. Asbestos
C. Plastic
D. PVC
86. To hold to minimum, the axial
direction of deflection/movement, a
separate thrust bearing or preloaded
bearing capable of absorbing
considerable load is required. The
type of bearing to use is a _______
bearing.
A. Deep grove ball
B. double row angular contract
C. tapered roller bearing
D. wide type self-aligning
A.
87. Pulley made of ______ ordinary is 45
to 55% less in weight and 2.35 to
2.70% less slippage compared with
_______ pulley.
A. Iron/steel
B. steel/iron
C. wood/iron
D. wood/steel
88. A plane perpendicular to the gear
axis.
A. Normal plane
B. Pitch plane
C. Plane of rotation d. Radius of
gyration
89. The minimum value of numerical
combined shocks and fatigue factor
to be applied in every case to the
computed bending moment of the
shaft is:
A. 2.0
B.1.75
C. 1.5
D. 1.3
90. What is the other name given to
short shafts on machines?
A. Spindles
B. head
shafts
C. core shafts
D. all of these
91. The other given to a line shaft is:
A. Countershafts
B. main
shaft
C. long shaft
D. head shafts
92. The speed at which the center of
mass will be equal the deflecting
forces on the shafts; shaft with its
attached bodies will then vibrate
violently, since the centrifugal forces
changes its direction as the shaft
turns in:
B.
A. Nominal speed
critical speed
C.
relative speed
D. mean
speed
93. An old rule of thumb for
transmission shafting is that the
deflection should not exceed ____ of
length between supports.
A. 0.01 in. per foot
B. 0.08
in. per foot
C. 0.02 in. per
foot
D. 0.05 in. per foot
94. For transmission shaft the allowable
deflection is 1 degree in a large of
_____ diameters.
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20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
95. What is the limiting torsional
deflection for machinery shafts, if
the criteria of limiting torsional
deflection vary from 0.08% per foot
of length?
A. 10
B. 2.50
C. 20
D.
0
3.5
96. Bevel gear with size 5 in. to 15 in
should not be lift or depress more
than____, as Gleason statement.
A. 0.004
B. 0.003
C. 0.002
D. 0.001
97. What type of key that allows the hub
to move along the shaft but prevents
the rotation of the shaft?
A. Woodruff Key
B. Feather
Key
C. Gibbs Key
D. Square Key
98. What is the other name for Kennedy
Key:
A. Tangential key
B.
woodruff key
C. saddle
key
D. roll pin
99. What type of fits used for involute
spline?
A. Close fit
B. press fit
C. sliding fit
D. all of these
100.
It is used for
permanent fits and similar to
involute splines except that the
pressure angle is 14.50.
A. Separation load
B. spline
shaft
C. stub serration
D. involute serration
A.
ELEMENTS 18
1. Which of the following has been
considered as general purpose rope?
A. 6 x 19 IWRC
B. 7 x 25 IWRC
C. 7 x 25 IWRC
D. 6 x 9 IWRC
2. What is the maximum shaft angle for
a single Hooke’s coupling?
A. 10
B. 17
C. 15
D. 20
3. What are the two principal parts of a
Journal Bearing?
A. bearing and journal
B. shaft and babbit
C. clearance and fitted
D. shaft and cylinder
4. When the line of action of the load,
bisects the arc of partial bearing, the
bearing is said to be?
A. eccentrically loaded
B. fully loaded
C. centrally loaded
D. partially loaded
5. When radii of both the bearing and
the journal are the same, then the
bearing is said to be:
A. fitted bearing
B. clearance bearing
C. full bearing
D. ambiguous bearing
6. Which of the following cannot be a
possion’s ratio of a material
A. 0.35
B. 0.40
C. 0.75
D. 0
7. A conclusion repeatedly verified by
experiment is that the smoother
surface:
A. has the greater load capacity
of the bearing
B. has the lesser capacity of the
bearing
C. has constant load
D. none of these
8. Which of the following considers the
200 series of bearing?
A. heavy
B. medium
C. light
D. all of these
9. Which of the following considers the
300 series of bearing?
A. heavy
B. medium
C. light
D. all of these
10. A type of roller bearing in which the
balls are assembled by the eccentric
displacement of the inner ring.
A. shallow grove ball bearing
B. filling-slot ball bearing
C. self-aligning ball bearing
D. deep-grove ball bearing
11. Which of the following is not a type
of ball bearing?
A. shallow grove ball bearing
B. filling-slot ball bearing
C. self-aligning ball bearing
D. deep-grove ball bearing
12. Which of the following is the
approximate density of the leather
belt?
A. 0.035
B. 0.0135
C. 0.025
D. 0.0465
13. Which of the following is the
approximate density of a fat rubber
belt?
A. 0.055
B. 0.0135
C. 0.045
D. 0.0465
14. A toothed wheel whose tooth
elements are straight and parallel to
the shaft axis or used to transmit
motion and power between parallel
shafts.
A. helical gear
B. spur gear
C. worm gear
D. bevel gear
15. The breaking strength of oak-tanned
belting varies from 3 or more than:
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9
16. Experience suggests that the most
economical designs are obtained for
a belt speed of:
A. 6000 to 7500
B. 3000 to 5000
C. 3500 to 4700
D. 5000 to 1000
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17. The tension in the belt due to
centrifugal force increasing rapidly
above about:
A. 2500
B. 3000
C. 3500
D. 4000
18. For leather belts recommended
speed is?
A. 6000 to 7000
B. 5000 to 6000
C. 7000 to 8000
D. 4500 to 5600
19. For fabric belts, recommended
speed is:
A. 4000 to 5000
B. 3000 to 4000
C. 2000 to 3000
D. 2000 and more
20. The recommended initial tension of
the belt is:
A. 75
B. 73
C. 71
D. 80
21. Two shafts at right angles to each
other may be connected by what
arrangement?
A. Half turn
B. Quarter turn
C. turn
D. One turn
22. A statement of how the total
moment is derived from a number of
forces acting simultaneously at a
point.
A. Goodman’s theorem
B. Soderberg’s theorem
C. Varignon’s theorem
D. Moore’s theorem
23. A simple mechanical machine with
the ability to increase an applied
force.
A. Hinges
B. Roller
C. Lever
D. Spring
24. Any device used to raise or lower an
object.
A. Hoist
B. Spring
C. Lever
D. Roller
25. A measure of the material’s ability to
yield and absorb highly localized and
rapidly applied stresses.
A. Hardness
B. Stiffness
C. Toughness
D. Resilience
26. A material can fail after repeated
loadings even if the stress level
never exceeds the ultimate strength.
A. Fatigue failure
B. Ductile failure
C. Brittle failure
D. Mechanical failure
27. The load at which a column fails is
known as:
A. Dead load
B. Critical load
C. Moving load
D. Dynamic load
28. The percentage difference of solid
and working deflections is known as:
A. Cash allowance
B. Spring rate
C. Spring allowance
D. Spring index
29. A shaft’s natural frequency of
vibration is referred to as the:
normal speed
A. high speed
B. critical speed
C. low speed
30. A fine finishing operation, similar to
polishing, is using a very fine
polishing compound. Burnishing
A. Buffing
B. Calorizing
C. Electroplating
31. A process in which metal is dipped in
dilutes acid solutions to remove dirt,
grease, and oxides.
A. Pickling
B. Sheradizing
C. Polishing
D. Pakerizing
32. Which of the following is used to
change the direction of an applied
tensile force?
A. Gears
B. Flywheels
C. Pulleys
D. Ropes
33. For most wire ropes and chains with
180 contact, the loss factor at low
speed varies between:
A. 1.03 to 1.06
B. 1.20 to1.50
C. 1.07 to 1.10
D. 1.60 to 1.80
34. What method to determine the
reactions on continuous beams?
A. two-moment equations
B. three-moment equations
C. second moment equations
D. third moment equations
35. What is the best method for
increasing a spring’s fatigue life?
A. Sprickling
B. Stress relieving
C. Shot peening
D. Shot relieving
36. The distance from a point on one
gear to the corresponding point
measured along the base circle.
A. Diametral pitch
B. Normal pitch
C. Circular pitch
D. Chordal pitch
37. Which of the following is a single
measure that combines the external
dynamic load of an application with
a gear drive’s reliability and
operating life?
A. ratio factor
B. reliability factor
C. service factor
D. life factor
38. Describes very rough grinding, such
as that performed in foundries to
remove gates, fins, and risers from
casting.
A. Snagging
B. Lapping
C. Honing
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D. Snuggling
39. A fine grinding operation used to
obtain exact fit and dimensional
accuracy.
A. Honing
B. Lapping
C. Buffing
D. Burnishing
40. The process of separating different
sizes of the same material.
A. Screening
B. Sieving
C. Separation
D. Fractioning
41. The process of separating a
material into a variety of specifically
sized groups.
A. Centrifuging
B. Sieving
C. Fractioning
D. Screening
42. An interrupted quenching process
resulting in an austenite-to-banite
transition.
A. Austempering
B. Martempering
C. Austenitizing
D. Martenitizing
43. The material will become
progressively stronger, harder, and
more brittle until it eventually fails.
A. Hot working
B. Tempering
C. Cold working
D. Normalizing
44. A swinging support constructed as
part of the vessel and that supports
the man way cover when it is
unbolted and moved aside.
A. Nozzles
B. Handholes
C. Davit
D. Orifice
45. Which of the following is the
measure of torsional stress?
A. accuracy
B. stiffness
C. rigidity
D. quality
46. When tested in compression, ductile
materials usually exhibit _____
characteristics up to the yield
strength as they do when tested in
tension.
A. the same
B. more than
C. more than
D. approximately the same
47. A tolerance where the size of a part
is permitted to be either larger or
smaller than the given dimension.
A. Bilateral
B. unilateral
C. lateral
D. None of these
48. A fit generally used on those
dimensions involved in such as pin
in a hole.
A. Unilateral
B. Lateral
C. Bilateral
D. None of these
49. It is relatively finely spaced
irregularities of the surface.
A. Smoothness
B. Waviness
C. Lay
D. Roughness
50. It is the surface finish of heavy cuts
or coarse feed.
A. 200rms
B. 400rms
C. 80rms
D. 500 or greater rms
51. Which of the following is the most
dominant cause (approximately
80%) of machine failures?
A. Torsion
B. Negligence
C. Fatigue failures
D. Compression
52. Wrought steel in its commonly met
commercial, it is often assumed that
the average endurance for an
average Su (50% survival) the Brinell
hardness is limited to:
A. 500
B. 400
C. 240
D. 450
53. What is the range of the endurance
ratio or Czaud votes values for steel?
A. 0.23 to 0.65
B. 0.34 to 0.87
C. 0.63 to 0.93
D. 0.34 to 0.45
54. Which of the following indicates the
degree of concentration?
A. Power factor
B. Service factor
C. Stress factor
D. Stress concentration factor
55. The internal stresses that exist in
any part of the material that is
subjected to temperature and not
acted upon by an external load.
A. Residual stress
B. Form stress
C. Superposed stress
D. Control stress
56. It is the process that cold works a
limited amount of material, thus
giving a higher strength, and it
leaves a surface compressive stress.
A. Surface finishing
B. Tensioning
C. Surfacing
D. Surface rolling
57. Fatigue strength is increased by
repeated loads just below the
normal fatigue limit, followed by
small step by step increase of the
loading.
A. Coaxing
B. Triaxing
C. Mixing
D. Relieving
58. It is the diameter of the imaginary
cylinder that bounds the crest of an
external thread and the roots of an
internal thread.
A. Mean diameter
B. Root diameter
C. Stress diameter
D. Major diameter
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59. It is the distance in inches a screw
thread ( a helix) advances axially in
one turn
A. Pitch
B. Mean pitch
C. Lead
D. Circular pitch
60. Which of the following bolts is
recommended for general use?
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC
61. It is frequently used bolt in
automotive and aircraft industries.
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC
62. Which of the following is particular
bolt used in aeronautical equipment?
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC
63. What type of bolt usually used for
high-pressure pipe flanges, cylinder
head studs etc?
A. UNC
B. UNF
C. UNEF
D. 8 UN
64. It is the stress or load induced by the
tightening operation.
A. Initial stress
B. Initial tension
C. Residual stress
D. None of these
65. For non-metallic gaskets, it has been
found that they should have a
certain minimum amount of
compression as ______ for a certain
cork gasket.
A. 62%
B. 86%
C. 68%
D. 76%
66. It is a screw fastening with a nut on
it.
A. Bolt
B. U-bolt
C. Rivet
D. Screw
67. A fastening which has no nut and
turns in to a threaded hole.
A. Bolt
B. Fastener
C. Rivet
D. Screw
68. An old name for an unfinished
through bolt comes with square.
A. Coupling bolt
B. Stud bolt
C. Machine bolt
D. Automobile bolt
69. It is a type of coil where the helical
coil is wrapped into a circle forming
an annular ring.
A. Volute spring
B. Hairspring
C. Motor spring
D. Garter spring
70. It is a type of spring where thin flat
strip wound up on itself as a plane
spiral, usually anchored at the inside
end.
A. Motor spring
B. Garter spring
C. Volute spring
D. Helical spring
71. The ratio of the length of the column
and the radius of gyration of the
cross-sectional area about a
centroidal axis.
A. Contact ratio
B. Slenderness ratio
C. Centroidal ratio
D. Column ratio
72. Under the theories of failure, for
static loading of ductile material, the
design stress is:
A. Yield Stress/Factor of Safety
B. Ultimate stress/Factor of Safety
C. Ultimate stress/Proportional
Limit
D. Yield point/Proportional Limit
73. Under theories of failure, the value
of shear stress is how many times
that of the tensile stress?
A. Four times
B. Half
C. Double
D. One-fourth
74. The theory of mechanics of material
shows that the result from the
octahedral shear stress theory and
those from the maximum distortionenergy theory are:
A. the same
B. less than
C. more than
D. not related
75. It is the distance measure auxiliary
from a point on one thread to the
corresponding point on an adjacent
thread.
A. Axial pitch
B. Z-pitch
C. Lead
D. Lead angle
76. It is the angle between a tangent to
the pitch helix and plane normal to
the axis of the screw.
A. Helix angle
B. Lead angle
C. Tangential angle
D. Vertical angle
77. It is suggested that the design factor
on the yield strength be about 1.5
for the smooth load, about 2 to 2.25
for minor shock loading, and up to
_____ for sever shock loads,
especially when the loading reverses
during operation.
A. 4.5
B. 3.5
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
78. A typical hub length fall between:
A. 1.25D to 2.5D
B. 1.3D to 3.4D
C. 1.25D to 4.0D
D. D to 7.0D
79. A key that are square or flat and
tapered with head
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A. Pin keys
B. Gib-head keys
C. Saddle keys
D. None of these
80. A key that may either straight of
tapered. It is usually a drive fit.
A. Pin keys
B. Gib-head keys
C. Saddle keys
D. None of these
81. A key with one several patented
methods of keying is driven or
pressed into a hole that is small
enough to close the slit, assembled
in radial direction.
A. Fit key
B. Roll pin
C. Saddle key
D. Pin key
82. A key that allows the hub to move
along the shaft but prevents the
rotation of the shaft.
A. Woodruff key
B. Gibs key
C. Feather key
D. Square key
83. For involute spline, the type of fits
used:
A. Close fit
B. Sliding fit
C. Press fit
D. All of these
84. A coupling that transmits power via
the frictional forces induced by
pulling the flange toward each other
over slotted tapered sleeves.
A. Flange coupling
B. Ribbed compression coupling
C. Rigid coupling
D. Flanged compression
coupling
85. A coupling used for absorbing some
shock and vibration that may appear
on one shaft and of preventing the
occurrence of reversed stresses
caused by the shaft deflecting at the
coupling preventing at the coupling.
A. Rigid coupling
B. Flange coupling
C. Flexible coupling
D. None of these
86. It is the difference in the radii of the
bearing and the journal.
A. Even clearance
B. Clearance ratio
C. Fit clearance
D. Radial clearance
87. A bearing in which the radii of the
journal and the bearing are the
same.
A. Fitted bearing
B. Full bearing
C. Partial bearing
D. Clearance bearing
88. What is the approximate length-todiameter ratio of hydrodynamic
bearings?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
89. The operating temperature of oil
films in the bearing must
approximately:
A. 1400F to 1500F
B. 1400F to 1600F
C. 1200F to 1900F
D. 1200F to 1900F
90. At the higher temperatures, oil
oxidizes more rapidly above:
A. 1200F
B. 2000F
C. 1400F
D. 1600F
91. For thrust bearing, the special at
moderate operating condition is:
A. 50<Vm>200fpm
B. 50<Vm>250fpm
C. 50<Vm>220>fpm
D. 50<Vm>250fpm
92. If the ends are joined by wire lacing
with machine, the usual efficiency of
joint is:
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 88%
93. On high speed centrifugal blowers, it
has been observed that the arc of
contact is reduced from 1800 at rest
to _____ in motion.
A. 1000
B. 900
C. 950
D. 1100
94. The recommended net belt pull for
rubber belt is:
A. 11.34lb/ply per inch of width
B. 13.75lb/ply per inch of width
C. 16.35lb/ply per inch of width
D. 20.34lb/ply per inch of width
95. For minimum quietness, use
sprockets with _____ or more teeth.
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 27
96. If two intersecting shafts are to be
belt connected _____ guide pulleys
are to be used.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
97. Wire ropes are made from colddrawn with _____ or more teeth.
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 27
98. A wire rope that the wires and
strands are twisted in the opposite
direction.
A. Long lay
B. Perform
C. Regular lay
D. Lang lay
99. A wire rope that the wires and strand
are twisted in the same direction.
A. Long lay
B. Perform
C. Regular lay
D. Lang lay
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100.
Which of the following ropes
is used for haulage, rigging, and
guard rails?
A. 6 x 35 IWRC
B. 6 x 15 IWRC
C. 7 x 8 IWRC
D. 7 x 7 IWRC
ELEMENTS 19
1. Which of the following ropes is used
for lines, hawsers, overhead cranes,
and hoist?
A.
6 x 37 IWRC
B.
6 x 35 IWRC
C.
6 x 25 IWRC
D.
7 x 26 IWRC
2. The regular materials for wire ropes
are made of?
A.
chromium
B.
wrought iron
C.
cast steel
D. high-carbon iron
3. What is the minimum suggested
design factor of wire ropes for
miscellaneous hoisting equipment
is?
A.
2
B.
3
C.
5
D.
4
4. To avoid excessive wear rate the
recommended limiting pressure for 6
x 19 ropes is ___________for cast
steel.
A.
700 psi
B.
900 psi
C.
1000 psi
D.
1200 psi
5. 5. To avoid excessive wear rate the
recommended limiting pressure for 6
x 19 ropes is ___________for
manganese cast steel.
A.
2500 psi
B.
2000 psi
C.
3000 psi
D.
2300 psi
6. What friction device that are used to
connect shafts?
A.
clutches
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
spring
brakes
holders
7. The total frictional energy that is
stored in the brake parts principally
in the drum or disk is approximately?
56% up
90% up
86% up
75% up
8. The brake capacity to absorb energy
is known as?
energy
power
resistance brake
D. centrifugal brake
9. a kind of braking system such that if
the band wraps partly around the
brake drum and the braking action is
obtained by pulling the band tight
into the wheel.
block brake
clutch
band brake
centrifugal brake
10. Which of the following clutches that
has a disadvantage of heavier
rotating masses?
multiple disc clutch
cone clutch
disc clutch
tin clutching
11. Which of the following welds have
been considered as resistance weld
which is usually round in the same
dorm as the electrodes that press
the sheet together?
edge joints
spot welds
CIG welds
TIG welds
12. A welding which consist of short
lengths ( 2-3 long ) of welds with
space between as 6 inches on
centers.
intermittent weld
spot weld
MIG weld
TIG weld
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
13. A welding operation that use hot
flame and metal rod.
gas welding
arc welding
resistance welding
automatic welding
14. The arc is covered with a welding
composition and bare electrode wire
is fed automatically.
resistance welding
induction welding
submerged welding
spot welding
15. What is the recommended
coefficient of fluctuation pf flywheels
for punching, shearing, pressing
machine is?
0.005-0.1
0.002
0.03-0.05
0.01-0.03
16. The part of machine that absorbs
the energy delivered by a sharp
force or blow.
spring
anvil
brakes
flywheel
17. It is the friction of wheel inclination
from the vertical position.
camber
toe-in
caster
king pin inclination
18. Which of the following is a machine
which takes large quantities of raw
or finished materials and binds them
with a rope or metal straps or wires
into a large package?
bacher
bending machine
baler
automatic screw machine
19. It is the grasping of an outside work
piece in a chunk or a jawed device in
a lathe.
clucking
clamping
chucking
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D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
clam shelling
20. Which of the following is a
mechanical linkage or mechanism
that can turn about a center or
rotation?
oscillation
crank
coupler
drag link
21. What type of compound screw which
produces a motion equal to the
difference in motion between the
two component screws?
machine screw
tanden screw
differential screw
variable screw
22. Which of the following bolts provided
with a hole at one end instead of
usual head?
stud bolt
eye bolt
machine bolt
stove bolt
23. What operation generally carried out
to divide the parent coiled sheet into
narrow coils?
slotting
squeezing
squaring
slitting
24. It is the process used to form
shallow, round, raised recessed
troughs of uniform width in a
straight curved or circular form.
hemming
beading
embossing
buldging
25. The process of removing excess
metal from the edge of a strip to
make it suitable for drawing without
wrinkling or to obtain final
complicated shape which was not
directly possible by blanking.
lancing
slugging
notching
trimming
26. Which of the following is the process
of removing course scratches or toll
marks?
A.
polishing
B.
buffing
C.
honing
D.
lapping
27. Which of the following ropes is
galvanized and consists of 6 strands,
7 wires each and a hemp core?
A.
reverse lay rope
B.
guy rope
C.
lang lay rope
D.
regular rope
28. It is a large lathe used for turning
and boring cannons.
A.
gun lathe
B.
engine lathe
C.
cannon lathe
D.
turret lathe
29. What device on the lathe machine
used for carrying the revolving
spindle?
A.
head stock
B.
header
C.
head suction
D.
none of these
30. If the faced-centered cubic lattice is
compared with the hexagonal
closed-packed lattice, which of the
following features describes the
hexagonal closed-packed structure
only?
A.
it has the closest packed lattice
structure
B.
its coordination number is 2
C.
its deformation properties are
more directional
D.
its stacking order is reversed
31. In molecules of the same
composition, what are variations of
atomic arrangements known as?
A.
polymers
B.
monomers
C.
isomers
D.
crystal system
32. Which of the following statements is
not true regarding X-ray diffraction?
A.
the geometrical structure factor F(h,
k, l) is the ratio of the amplitude of the X-ray
B.
reflected from a plane in a crystal to
the amplitude of the X-ray scattered from a
single electron
C.
X-ray diffraction is only useful
for studying simpler crystal such as the
body centered cubic structure rather
than more complex crystals like the
hexagonal closed packed structure
D.
X-ray diffraction can be used to
determine the gain size of a specimen
33. Which of the following describes
diffusion in a crystal structure?
A.
it is not possible
B.
it occurs only in alloys, never in pure
crystals
C.
it often uses an exchange or
vacancy mechanism
D.
it occurs primarily as a result of
mechanical work
34. Which of the following does not
produce vacancies interstitial
defects, or impurity defects in a
material?
A.
plastic deformation
B.
quenching
C.
slow equilibrium cooling
D.
irradiation with high energy particles
35. Which of the following are true
statements about the modulus of
elasticity, E?
A.
it is the same as the rupture
modulus
B.
it is the slope of the stressstrain diagram in the linearly elastic
region
C.
it is the ratio of stress to volumetric
strain
D.
its value depends only on the
temperature of the material
36. In general, what are the effects of
cold-working a metal?
A.
increase strength and ductility
B.
decrease strength and ductility
C.
increased strength, decreased
D.
decreased strength, increased
ductility
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37. Which of the following does coldworking cause?
A.
elongation of grains in the flow
direction, an increase in dislocation
density, and over all increase in energy
of the metal
B.
elongation of grains in the flow
direction, a decrease in dislocation density,
over all decrease in energy of the metal
C.
elongation of grains in the flow
direction, a decrease in dislocation density,
and over all increase in energy of the metal
D.
shortening of grains in the flow
direction, a decrease in dislocation density,
over all decrease in energy of the metal
38. Which of the following statement is
false?
A.
the amount or percentage of
cold work cannot be obtained from
information about change in the area of
thickness of a metal
B.
the process of applying force to
metal at temperature below the temperature
of crystallization in order to plastically
deform the metal is called cold-working
C.
annealing eliminates most of the
defects caused by the cold working of a
metal
D.
annealing reduces the hardness of a
metal
39. Which of the following statement is
false?
A.
there is considerable increase in the
hardness and the strength of a cold-worked
metal
B.
cold-working a metal significantly
reduces its ductility
C.
cold-working causes a slight
decrease in the density and electrical
conductivity of a metal
D.
cold work decreases the yield
point as well as the strength and
hardness of the metal
40. Which of the following correctly
describes atoms located at grain
boundaries?
A.
they are subjected to the same type
of inter atomic forces that are presented in
the interior atoms of the crystals
B.
they are located primarily in highly
strained and distorted positions
C.
they have a higher free energy than
atoms in the undisturbed part of the crystal
lattice
D.
all of the above
41. For a completely corrosion-resistant
stainless steel, what minimum
percentage of chromium in the alloy
is required?
D.
A. 1.1%
B. 8.3%
C. 3.2%
11%
42. Modulus of resilience is?
A.
the same as the modulus of
elasticity
B.
a measure of a materials ability
to store strain energy
C.
the reciprocal of the modulus of
elasticity
D.
a measure of the deflection of a
member
43. When a metal is cold worked all of
the following generally occur
EXCEPT:
A.
Recystallization temperature
decrease.
B.
Ductility decreases
C.
Grains become equi-axed
D.
Tensile strength increases
44. Which of the following affects most
of the electrical and thermal
properties of materials?
A.
the atomic weight expressed in
grams per gram atom
B.
the electrons, particularly the
outermost ones
C.
the magnitude of electrical charge of
the protons
D.
the weight of the atoms
45. Which of the following is not a
method of non-destructive testing of
steel casting and forgings?
A.
radiography
B.
ultrasonic
C.
magnetic particle
D. chemical analysis
46. Compressive strength of fully cured
concrete is most directly related to:
A.
sand-gravel
B.
C.
D.
aggregate gradation
water-cement ratio
absolute volume of cement
47. According to the ACI code, the
modular ratio, n, of structural
concrete with a
28—day ultimate compressive
strength, for, of 3000 is nearest to:
A.7
B. 9
C. 8
D. 10
48. What are valence electrons?
A.
the outer shell electrons
B.
electrons with positive charge
C.
the electrons of the complete
quantum shells
D.
the K-quantum shell electrons
49. Which of this not a viscoelastic
material?
A.
Plastic
B. rubber C. metal D.
glass
50. Which of the following statements is
false?
A.
Both copper and aluminum have a
face-centered crystal structure.
B.
Both magnesium and zinc have a
hexagonal close-packed crystal structure
C.
Iron can have either a face-centered
or a body centered cubic crystal structure.
D.
Both lead and cadmium have a
hexagonal close-packed crystal
structure.
51. Past ME Board Question
Cutting lubricant used in drilling
reaming, and tapping for brass and
bronze.
A. Dry
B. Soda water
C. Soluble oil
D. Turpentine
52. Past ME Board Question
Type of bolt commonly used in the
construction that is threaded in both
ends.
A. Acme threaded bolts
B. Hex bolt
C. Square threaded
D. Stud bolt
53. Past ME Board Question
Forces that meet a common point
are called:
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A. Co-linear
B. Concurrent
C. Coplanar
D. Couple
54. Past ME Board Question
Dynamic seals are also known as
A.
Gasket
B.
Packing
C.
Seal
D.
Shield
55. Past ME Board Question
The material for engine radiation is
usually made of:
A. Admiralty brass
B. Navy brass
C. Silicon brass
D. Yellow brass
56. Past ME Board Question
Mirror finish has surfaces fitness of
__________ rms.
A. 1
B.1 to 3
C. 2 to 5
D.
2 to 8
57. Past Me Board Question
Non- metallic material of high
melting temperature being used as
furnace lining is called:
A. Dolomite clay bricks
B. Quartz bricks
C. Refractories
D. Silica sand
58. Past ME Board Question
In greater quantity, this element is
harmful to the molten ferrous metal.
A.Aluminum B. oxides C. silicon
D. sulfur
59. Past ME Board Question
What is the SAE specification
number of molybdenum?
A. SAE 2XXX
B. SAE 3XXX
C. SAE 4XXX
D. SAE 5XXX
60. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is not a structural
class of steel?
A. high carbon
B. high speed steel
C. low carbon
D. tool and die
61. Past ME Board Question
A furnace used in melting non-ferrous
metals called.
A. crucible furnace
B. cupola furnace
C. induction furnace
D. tempering furnace
62. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following elements when
large quantity is harmful to the ferrous
metal?
A. aluminum
B. silicon
C. sulphur
D. zinc
63. Past ME Board Question
SAE metal that responds to heat
treatment:
A. SAE 1117
B. SAE 1060
C. SAE 1030
D. SAE 1020
64. Past ME Board Question
An iron in which most of the carbon is
chemically combined with the iron
called:
A. cast iron
B. gray iron
C. malleable iron
D. white iron
65. Past ME Board Question
Material, usually ceramics employed
where resistance to very high
temperature is required as for furnace
linings and metal melting pots called:
A. bricks
B. clay
C. insulator
D. refractories
66. Past ME Board Question
Polyesters belong to the group of:
A. phenolics
B. Teflon
C. thermoplastic plastics
D. thermosetting plastics
67. Past ME Board Question
The process commonly used over
thermo plastic material is:
A. cold forming
B. dies casting
C. injection molding
D. shell molding
68. Past ME Board Question
The hardness of steel increase if it
contains:
A.
austenite
B. copper
C. pearlite
D. martensite
69. Past ME Board Question
Which one is different from the
remaining?
A. cyaniding
B. electroplating
C. flame hardening
D. nitriding
70. Past ME Board Question
An engineer’s hammer is made of:
A. cast iron
B. B forged steel
C. high speed steel
D. mild steel
71. Past ME Board Question
Ductile fracture is characterized by:
A. appreciable plastic
deformation prior to
propagation of crack
B. fragmentation into more than
two pieces
C. negligible deformation
D. rapid rate for crack propagation
72. Past ME Board Question
A scriber is made of:
A. carbon steel
B. cold rolled steel
C. hot rolled steel
D. tool steel
73. Past ME Board Question
Knurling is done to:
A. polish material
B. roughen material
C. sharpen the material
D. smooth material
74. Past ME Board Question
Non-metallic materials of high melting
temperature used in the construction of
furnaces, crucibles and so forth are
called:
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A. ceramics
B. grate
C. insulators
D. refractories
75. Past ME Board Question
It is a process by which a hot plastic
metal is made to flow into dies by the
application of sudden blows to the
material.
A. drop forging
B. extrusion
C. machine forging
D. press forging
76. Past ME Board Question
It is one in which specimen, supported at
both ends as a simple beam, and is
broken by the impact strength of the
metal.
A. charpy test
B. izod test
C. Rockwell test
D. universal test
77. Past ME Board Question
An operation to make smaller hole in
exact center for lathe center
A. broaching
B. central drilling
C. counter boring
D. reaming
78. Past ME Board Question
It is a process of cleaning the face of
grinding wheel by means of a dresser for
removing the glazing and loading of
wheel and to improve the cutting action
of a wheel.
A. dressing
B. lapping
C. polishing
D. truing
79. Past ME Board Question
A ____________ consist of a slide and a
swivel vise mounted on the compound
rest in place of the toll post.
A. grinding attachment
B. milling attachment
C. reaming attachment
D. relieving attachment
80. Past ME Board Question
The distance between the crest and the
base of the thread measured
perpendicular to the axis.
A. axis of thread
B. depth of engagement
C. depth of thread
D. length of engagement
81. Past ME Board Question
Name of mechanism, which a welding
operator holds during gas welding and at
the end of which the gases are burned to
perform the various gas welding
operation.
A. hose
B. gage
C. switch
D. torch
82. Past ME Board Question
A hand tool used to measure engine
crank web deflection.
A. compound gage
B. dial gage
C. distortion gage
D. feeler gage
83. Past ME Board Question
It is used for cutting long pieces of
metals.
A. broaching machine
B. planer
C. power saw
D. shaper
84. Past ME Board Question
It is used to true and align machine
tools, fixtures and works.
A. dial gage
B. dial indicator
C. feeler gage
D. radial indicator
85. Past ME Board Question
In cranes and other hoisting equipment
operating rules, how many whistle
signals are required to lower the boom?
A. Five short blasts
B. Two short blasts
C. Three short blasts
D. Four short blasts
86. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following material has 66%
nickel, 29% copper and 3% aluminum?
A. K Monel
B. Monel
C. inconel
D. inconel
87. Past ME Board Question
Trimming is a process associated with?
A. electroplating
B. forging
C. machining of metals
D. press work
88. Past ME Board Question
Foundry crucible is made of?
A. German silver
B. graphite
C. lead
D. mild steel
89. Past ME Board Question
A twist drill is specified by
A. its diameter and lip angle
B. it shank and diameter
C. shank, material and
diameter
D. shank, material and flute size
90. Past ME Board Question
Select the one that is gear finishing
process.
A. gear hobbling
B. gear milling
C. gear shaping
D. gear shaving
91. Past ME Board Question
Broaching operation is generally used in
automobile industry as:
A. it is a mass production machine
B. it is an automatic machine
C. operation is completed in one
stroke
D. semi-skilled operators can
be employed
92. Which statement about area
moment of inertia is false?
A. I = ∫ d² ( dA )
B. the area moment of inertia
arises whenever the magnitude
of the surface forces varies
linearly with distance
C. the moment of inertia of a large
area is equal to the summation
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of the inertia of the smaller
areas within the large area.
D. the area closest to the axis
of interest is the most
significant
93. Which of the following affects most
of the electrical and thermal
properties of materials?
A. The atomic weight expressed in
grams per gram atom.
B. the electrons, particularly
the outermost ones
C. the magnitude of electrical
charge of the protons
D. the weight of the atoms
94. Which of the following is not a
method of non destructive testing of
steel castings and forgings?
A. radiography
B. ultrasonic
C. magnetic particle
D. chemical analysis
95. compressive strength of fully cured
concrete is most directly related to:
A. sand-gravel
B. aggregate gradation
C. water-cement ratio
D. absolute volume of cement
96. According to the ACI code, the
modular ratio, n, of structural
concrete with a 28- day ultimate
compressive strength, fc, of 3000 is
nearest to:
C. 9
D. 10
A. 7
B. 6
97. What are valence electrons?
A. the outer shell electrons
B. electrons with positive charge
C. the electrons of the complete
quantum shells
D. the K- quantum shell electrons
98. What is the strong bond between
hydrogen atoms known as?
A. the ionic bond
B. the metallic bond
C. ionic and metallic bond
D. the covalent bond
99. all of the following statements about
air entrained concrete are correct,
EXCEPT:
A.
air entrained is recommended
when concrete is severe frost
action
B. with air entrainment, the
quantity of water to produce a
given consistency (slump) is
reduced
C. with air entrainment, the
quantity of water to produce a
specified 28 day compressive
strength is reduced
D. air entrainment reduces
resistance to the freeze-thaw
that occurs when salt is used
to melt ice or snow
100.
In the design of a reinforced
concrete structure, tensile strength
of the concrete is normally:
A. assumed to be 1/10 of the 28day compressive strength
B. determined by beam test
C. neglected
D. assumed to be 200 psi
3.
4.
5.
6.
ELEMENTS 20
1. All of the following groups of plastics are
thermoplastic, EXCEPT:
A. Polyvinylchloride (PVC) and polyvinyl
acetate
B. Polyethylene, polypropylene, and
polysterene
C. Tetrafluoroethylene (Teflon, and
other fluorocarbons)
D. Phenolics, melamine and epoxy
2. Which of the following statements is
false?
A. Ceramics are inorganic-nonmetallic
solids that are processed or used at
high temperature.
B. Metals are chemical elements that
form substances that are opaque,
lustrous, and good conductors of
heat and electricity.
C. Oxides, carbides, and nitrides
are considered to be within the
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
class of materials known as
glasses.
D. Most metals are strong, ductile, and
malleable. In general, they are
heavier than most other substances.
Which of the following is not a
viscoelastic material?
A. Plastic
B. Rubber
C. Metal
D. Glass
In molecules of the same composition,
what are variations of atomic
arrangements known as?
A. Polymers
B. Monomers
C. Isomers
D. Crystal system
What is the atomic packing factor for a
simple cubic crystal?
A. 0.48
B. 0.52
C. 0.75
D. 0.58
Which of the following statements is
false?
A. Both copper and aluminum have a
face-centered crystal structures.
B. Both magnesium and zinc have a
hexagonal close-packed crystal
structure.
C. Iron can have either a face-centered
or a body-centered cubic crystal
structure.
D. Both lead and cadmium have a
hexagonal close-packed crystal
structure.
Which crystal structure possesses the
highest number of close-packed planes
and close-packed direction?
Simple cubic
Face-centered cubic
Body-centered
Close-packed hexagonal
What are most common slip planes for
face-centered cubic and body-centered
cubic structures, respectively?
A. Face-centered: (111), bodycentered: (110)
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B. Face-centered: (100), body-centered:
(110)
C. Face-centered: (110), body-centered:
(111)
D. Face-centered: (111), body-centered:
(100)
9. Entrance losses between tank and pipe
or losses through elbows, fittings and
valves are generally expressed as
functions of:
A. Kinetic energy
B. Friction factor
C. Pipe diameter
D. Volume flow rate
10. With regard to corrosion of metals,
passivation is the process that:
A. Intensifies deterioration temporarily
B. Inhibits further deterioration
C. Changes the composition of the
metal
D. Alter the grain size of the metal
11. How are lines of constant pressure in a
fluid related to the force field?
A. They are parallel to the force field.
B. They are perpendicular to the
force field.
C. They are at 45° angles to the force
field.
D. They are perpendicular only to the
force of gravity.
12. What are the units of Reynolds number
of pipe flow?
A. m/s
B. lbm/ft-sec²
C. ft²/sec
D. none of the above
13. For fully developed laminar flow of fluids
through pipes, the average velocity is
what fraction of the maximum velocity in
the pipe?
A. 1/8
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. 3/4
14. For a system to be n equilibrium, the
sum of the external forces acting on the
system must be:
A. Equal to unity
B. A maximum
C. Indeterminate
D. Zero
15. The mass moment of inertia of a cylinder
about its central axis perpendicular to a
circular cross section is:
A. Directly proportional to its radius
B. Independent of its radius
C. Directly proportional to its
length
D. Independent of its length
16. How many independent properties are
required to completely fix the
equilibrium state of a pure gaseous
compound?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
17. The moment of inertia of any plane
figure can be expressed in units of
length to the:
A. First power
B. Second power
C. Third power
D. Fourth power
18. The vector which represents the sum of
a group of force vectors is called the:
A. Magnitude
B. Resultant
C. Sum
D. Phase angle
19. Which of the following is not a vector
quantity?
A. Velocity
B. Speed
C. Acceleration
D. Displacement
20. The stress in an elastic material is:
A. Inversely proportional to the
material’s yield strength
B. Inversely proportional to the force
acting
C. Proportional to the
displacement of the material
acted upon by the force
D. Inversely proportional to the strain
21. The “SLENDERNESS RATIO” of a column
is generally defined as the ratio of its:
A. Length to its minimum width
B. Unsupported length to its maximum
radius of gyration
C. Length to its moment of inertia
D. Unsupported length to its least
radius of gyration
22. The relationship between the extension
of a spring and the force required to
produce the extension is:
A. F= ma
B. F= µN
C. F= mv²/ R
D. F= kx
23. The linear portion of the stress-strain
diagram of steel is known as the:
A. Modulus of elongation
B. Plastic range
C. Irreversible range
D. Elastic range
24. Principal stresses occur on those planes:
A. Where the shearing stress is
zero
B. Which are 45 degrees apart
C. Where the shearing is a maximum
D. Which are subjected only to tension
25. The ratio of the moment inertia of the
cross section of a beam to the section
modulus is:
A. Equal to the radius of gyration
B. Equal to the area of the cross
section
C. A measure of distance
D. Multiplied by the bending moment to
determine the stress
26. When an air entertainment agent is
introduced into a concrete mix:
A. The strength will increase
B. The strength will decrease
C. The strength will not be affected
D. The water/ cement ratio must be
reduced from 10-15%
27. Structural steel elements subjected to
torsion develop:
A. Tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. Shearing stress
D. Bending stress
28. The deflection of a beam is:
A. Directly proportional to the modulus
of elasticity and moment of inertia
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B. Inversely proportional to the
modulus of elasticity and length of
the beam cubed]
C. Inversely proportional to the
modulus of elasticity and
moment of inertia
D. Inversely proportional to the weight
and length
29. The differential of the shear equation is
which one of the following:
A. Load on the beam
B. Tensile strength of beam
C. Bending moment of the beam
D. Slope of the elastic curve
30. A vertically loaded beam, fixed at one
end and simply supported at the other is
indeterminate to what degree?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
31. A thin walled pressurized vessel consists
of a right circular cylinder with flat ends.
Midway between the ends, the stress is
greatest in what direction?
A. Longitudinal
B. Circumferential
C. Radial
D. At an angle 45° to the longitudinal
and circumferential direction
32. The bending moment at a section of a
beam is derived from the:
A. Sum of the moments of all
external forces on one side of
the section
B. Difference between the moments on
the side of the section and the
opposite side
C. Sum of the moments of all external
forces on both sides of the section
D. Sum of the moments of all external
forces between supports
33. The stress concentration factor:
A. Is a ratio of the average stress on a
section to the allowable stress
B. Cannot be evaluated for brittle
materials
C. Is the ratio of areas involved in an
sudden change of cross section
D. Is the ratio of the maximum
stress produced in a cross
section to the average stress
over the section
34. Poisson’s Ratio is the ratio of the:
A. Unit lateral deformation to the
unit longitudinal deformation
B. Unit stress to unit strain
C. Shear strain to compressive strain
D. Elastic limit to proportional limit
35. Hooke’s Law for an isotropic
homogeneous medium experiencing ondimensional stress is:
A. Stress= E (strain)
B. (Force)(area)= (change in length)/
(length)
C. Strain= E (stress)
D. Force/Area= length/ change in
length
36. The modulus of rigidity of a steel
member is:
A. A function of the length and depth
B. Defined as the unit shear stress
divided by the unit shear
deformation
C. Equal to the modulus of elasticity
divided by one plus Poisson’s ratio
D. Defined as the length divided by the
moment of inertia
37. A thin homogeneous metallic plate
containing a hole is heated sufficiently
to cause expansion. If the coefficient of
surface expansion is linear, the area of
the hole will:
A. Increase at twice the rate, the area
of the metal increases
B. Increase at the same rate as the
area of the metal increases
C. Decrease at twice the rate as the
area of the metal increases
D. Decrease at the same rate as the
area of the metal increases
38. The linear portion of the stress- strain
diagram of steel is known as the:
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Irreversible range
C. Plastic range
D. Elastic range
39. In a long column (slenderness ratio>160
which of the following has the greatest
influence on its tendency to buckle
under a compressive load.
A. The modulus of elasticity of the
material
B. The compressive strength of the
material
C. The radius of gyration of the column
D. The length of the column
40. The area of the shear diagram of a beam
between any two points on the beam is
equal to the:
A. Change in shear between the two
points
B. Total shear beyond the two points
C. Average moment between the two
point
D. Change in moment between the
two points
41. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in:
A. The determination of the capability
of a material for being shaped
B. The determination of capacity of a
material
C. Stress- strain relationships
where stresses are applied in
more than one direction
D. The determination of the modulus
of toughness
42. Young’s modulus of elasticity for a
material can be calculated indirectly
from which of the following properties of
the material?
A. Temperature coefficient of
expansion and dielectric constant
B. Temperature coefficient of
expansion and specific heat
C. Density and velocity of sound in
the material
D. Density and inter- atomic spacing in
the material
43. . Which of the following is the definition
of Joule?
A. A unit of power
B. A kg m/s²
C. A Newton meter
D. A rate of change of energy
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44. Which of the following metals has the
highest specific heat capacity at 100°C?
A. Aluminum
B. Copper
C. Bismuth
D. Iron
45. Which of the following is a member of
the halogen family?
A. Sodium
B. Hydrogen chloride
C. Fluorine
D. Phosphorus
46. Which of the following metals is the best
heat conductor?
A. Aluminum
B. Gold
C. Copper
D. Silver
47. When exposed to the atmosphere, which
of the following liquids is coldest?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Argon
D. Helium
48. Power may be expressed in units of:
A. ft-lbs
B. HP- hours
C. BTU/hr
D. kw-hours
49. Which of the following is not a unit of
work?
A. N.m
B. kg.m²/s²
C. erg
D. dyne
50. Which of the following statement about
entropy is FALSE?
A. Entropy of a mixture is greater than
that of its components under the
same conditions.
B. An irreversible process increases
entropy of the universe.
C. Entropy has the units of heat
capacity.
D. Entropy of a crystal at 0°F is
zero.
51. Work or energy can be a function of all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. Force and distance
B. Power and time
C. Torque and angular rotation
D. Force and time
52. What is the combination of one or more
metals with a nonmetallic element?
A. Metalloid
B. Matrix composite
C. Inert
D. Ceramic
53. What do you call an atom that has lost
or gain an electron?
A. Ion
B. Cation
C. Hole
D. Neutron
54. Polymer comes from Greek words “poly”
which means “many” and “meros” which
means _______.
A. Metal
B. Material
C. Part
D. Plastic
55. The engineering materials known as
“plastics” are more correctly called
_______.
A. Polyvinyl chloride
B. Polymers
C. Polyethylene
D. Mers
56. What is a combination of two or more
materials that has properties that the
components materials do not have by
themselves?
A. Compound
B. Composite
C. Mixture
D. Matrix
57. What is a reference sheet for the
elements that can be used to form
engineering materials?
A. Periodic table
B. Truth table
C. Building blocks of Materials
D. Structure of Materials
58. Who has been accepted as the author of
the periodic table which was developed
by chemists in the mid-nineteenth
century?
A. Vickers
B. Knoop
C. Rockwell
D. Mendeleev
59. What physical property of a material
that refers to the point at which a
material liquefies on heating or solidifies
on cooling?
A. Melting point
B. Curie point
C. Refractive index
D. Specific heat
60. What physical property of a material
that refers to the temperature at which
ferromagnetic materials can no longer
be magnetized by outside forces?
A. Melting point
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Curie point
61. What is the ratio of the velocity of light
in a vacuum to its velocity in another
material?
A. Refractive index
B. Poisson ratio
C. Density
D. Mach number
62. What physical property of a material
refers to the amount of weight gain (%)
experienced in a polymer after
immersion in water for a specified length
of time under a controlled environment?
A. Dielectric strength
B. Electric resistivity
C. Water absorption
D. Thermal conductivity
63. What physical property of a material
that refers to the rate of heat flow per
unit time in a homogeneous material
under steady-state conditions, per unit
area, per unit temperature gradient in a
direction perpendicular to area?
A. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Heat distortion
D. Water absorption
64. What is the absolute value of the ratio of
the transverse strain to the
corresponding axial strain in a body
subjected to an axial stress?
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A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Euler’s ratio
C. Refractive index
D. Dielectric index
65. What physical property of a material
refers to the highest potential difference
(voltage) that an insulating material of
given thickness can withstand for a
specified time without occurrence of
electrical breakdown through its bulk?
A. Thermal expansion
B. Conductivity
C. Dielectric strength
D. Electrical resistivity
66. What physical property of a material
refers to the ratio of the amount of heat
required to raise the temperature of a
unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the
heat required to raise the same mass of
water to 1 degree?
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat of fission
67. What physical property of a material
refers to the temperature at which a
polymer under a specified load shows a
specified amount of deflection?
A. Curie temperature
B. Specific heat
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Thermal conductivity
68. What mechanical property of a material
refers to the nominal stress at fracture in
a tension test at constant load and
constant temperature?
A. Creep strength
B. Stress rapture strength
C. Compressive yield strength
D. Hardness
69. What mechanical property of a material
refers to the resistance to plastic
deformation?
A. Rigidity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Hardness
70. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell
hardness test?
A. 10mm ball
B. 120° diamond (brale)
C. 1.6 mm diameter ball
D. 20° needle
71. What parameter is defined as the
temperature at which the toughness of
the material drops below some
predetermined value, usually 15 ft-lb?
A. Nil ductility temperature
B. Curie temperature
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Heat distortion temperature
72. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a
specimen at given stress levels until it
fails?
A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue
strength of material
C. Creep
D. All of the choices
73. What dimensional property of a material
refers to the deviation from edge
straightness?
A. Lay
B. Out of flat
C. Camber
D. Waviness
74. What dimensional property of a material
refers to a wavelike variation from a
perfect surface, generally much wider in
spacing and higher in amplitude than
surface roughness?
A. Lay
B. Waviness
C. Surface finish
D. Out of flat
75. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose
molecules bonded together by another
natural polymer called __________.
A. Plastic
B. Lignin
C. Mer
D. Additive
76. What is a polymer production process
that involves forming a polymer chain
containing two different monomers?
A. Copolymerization
B. Blending
C. Alloying
D. Cross-linking
77. What is the generic name of a class of
polymer which is commercially known as
“nylon”?
A. Polyacetals
B. Polyamide
C. Cellulose
D. Polyester
78. By definition, a rubber is a substance
that has at least________ elongation in
tensile test and is capable of returning
rapidly and forcibly to its original
dimensions when load is removed.
A. 100%
B. 150%
C. 200%
D. 250%
79. What is a method of forming polymer
sheets or films into three-dimensional
shapes, in which the sheet is clamped on
the edge, heated until it softens and
sags, drawn in contact with the mold by
vacuum, and cooled while still in contact
with the mold?
A. Calendering
B. Blow molding
C. Thermoforming
D. Solid phase forming
80. What is a process of forming continuous
shapes by forcing a molten polymer
through a metal die?
A. Calendering
B. Thermoforming
C. Lithography
D. Extrusion
81. What chemical property of a material
which refers to its ability to resist
deterioration by chemical or
electrochemical reactions with
environment?
A. Stereo specificity
B. Corrosion resistance
C. Conductivity
D. Electrical resistance
82. What refers to the tendency for
polymers and molecular materials to
form with an ordered, spatial, threedimensional arrangement of monomer
molecules?
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A. Stereo specificity
B. Conductivity
C. Retentivity
D. Spatial configuration
83. What is the ratio of the maximum load in
a tension test to the original crosssectional area of the test bar?
A. Tensile strength
B. Yield strength
C. Shear strength
D. Flexural strength
84. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a
material loaded within its elastic range?
A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Refractive index
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Percent elongation
85. What is a measure of rigidity?
A. Stiffness
B. Hardness
C. Strength
D. Modulus of elasticity
86. The greatest stress which a material is
capable of withstanding without a
deviation from acceptable of stress to
strain is called ________.
A. Elongation
B. Proportional limit
C. Yield point
D. Elastic limit
87. What refers to the stress at which a
material exhibits a specified deviation
from proportionality of stress and strain?
A. Tensile strength
B. Shear strength
C. Yield strength
D. Flexural strength
88. What is the amount of energy required
to fracture a given volume of material?
A. Impact strength
B. Endurance limit
C. Creep strength
D. Stress rupture strength
89. What mechanical property of material
which is a time-dependent permanent
strain under stress?
A. Elongation
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Rupture
90. In tensile testing, the increase in the
gage length measured after the
specimen fractures within the gage
length is called _________.
A. Percent elongation
B. Creep
C. Elasticity
D. Elongation
91. What is the resistance of a material
to plastic deformation?
A. Hardness
B. Stiffness
C. Creepage
D. Rigidity
92. What is the maximum stress below
which a material can theoretically
endure an infinite number of stress
cycles?
A. Endurance state
B. Endurance test
C. Endurance limit
D. Endurance strength
93. What is a substance that attracts piece
of iron?
A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor
C. Magnet
D. All of the choices
94. Which of the following is a natural
magnet?
A. Steel
B. Magnesia
C. Lodestone
D. Soft iron
95. Which of the following materials has
permeability slightly less than that of
free space?
A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials
96. What materials has permeabilities
slighter greater than that of free space?
A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials
97. Which of the following materials have
very high permeabilities?
A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials
98. What is defined by ASTM as a material
that contains as an essential ingredient
an organic substance of large molecular
weight, is solid in its finished state, and
at some stage in its manufactured or in
its processing into finished articles, can
be shaped by flow?
A. Metal
B. Metalloid
C. Plastic
D. Ceramic
99. Some polymetric materials such as
epoxies are formed by strong primary
chemical bonds called _________.
A. Metallic bond
B. Vander Waals bond
C. Cross linking
D. Covalent bond
100.
What do you call a polymer without
additives and without bending with
another polymer?
A. Homopolymer
B. Ethenic polymer
C. Polyethylene
D. Copolymer
101.
Steels that are used for axles, gears,
and similar parts are requiring medium
to high hardness and high strength are
known as?
A. Medium – carbon steels
B. Very high – carbon steels
C. Low – carbon steels
D. High – carbon steels
102.
What method used to determine the
reactions on continuous beams?
A. Two-moment equations
B. Three-moment equations
C. Second moment equations
D. Third moment equations
103.
Which of the following is the
measure of torsional stress?
A. Accuracy
B. Rigidity
104
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C. Stiffness
D. Rigidity
104.
It is a type of coil where the helical
coil is wrapped into a circle forming an
annual ring.
A. Volute spring
B. Hair spring
C. Motor spring
D. Garter spring
105.
What type of compound screw which
produces a motion equal to the
difference in motion between the two
component screws?
A. Machine Screw
B. Tanden Screw
C. Differential Screw
D. Variable Screw
105
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